26-11-2024

9610WMD80100824R003 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION - A

1) An incompressible liquid flows through a horizontal tube as shown in the figure. Then, the velocity
v of the liquid is :-

(1) 3.0 m/s

(2) 1.5 m/s
(3) 1.0 m/s
(4) 2.25 m/s

2) If radius of two soap bubbles are R1 and R2 respectively combined in vacuum in isothermal
conditions to form a single soap bubble then radius of combined soap bubble is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) A liquid does not wet the solid surface if angle of contact is :

(1) equal to 45°

(2) equal to 60°
(3) greater than 90°
(4) zero

4) A thick rope of density ρ and length L is hung from a rigid support. The young's modulus of the
material of rope is Y. The increase in length of the rope due to its own weight is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

5) A piece of solid weighs 120 g in air, 80 g in water and 60 g in a liquid, then the relative density of
solid and that of liquid are respectively : -

(1) 2 and 3
(2) 3 and 3/4
(3) 3 and 3/2
(4) 2 and 4/3

6) Assertion (A) : Falling raindrops acquire a terminal velocity.

Reason (R) : A constant force in the direction of motion and a velocity dependent force opposite to
the direction of motion, result in the acquisition of terminal velocity if the spread of the medium is
large along the line of motion.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

7) A force F is needed to break a copper wire having radius R. The force needed to break a copper
wire of same length and radius 2R will be :-

(1)

(2) 2F
(3) 4F

(4)

8) There is a hole in the bottom of tank having water. If total pressure at bottom is 3 atm then the
velocity of water flowing from hole is (1 atm = 105 Pa) :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

9) The bulk modulus of water is 2 × 109 N/m2. The pressure required to increase the density of water
by 0.1% is :-

(1) 2.0 × 103 N/m2

(2) 2.0 × 106 N/m2
(3) 2.0 × 105 N/m2
(4) 2.0 × 107 N/m2

10) A wooden block, with a coin placed on its top, floats in water as shown in fig. the distance ℓ and
h are shown there. After some time the coin falls into the water. Then

(1) ℓ decreases and h increases

(2) ℓ increases and h decreases
(3) Both ℓ and h increase
(4) Both ℓ and h decrease

11) The total area of wings of an aeroplane is 10 m2. The speed of air above and below the wings
is 140 m/s and 110 m/s. Then the force on the aeroplane by air is : [ρair = 1.28 kg/m3]

(1) 48750 N
(2) 48000 N
(3) 95000 N
(4) 50000 N

12) A wire (negligible mass) of length L, area of cross section A is hanging from a fixed support. The
length of the wire changes to L1 when mass M is suspended from its free end. The expression for
Young's modulus is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) In a hydraulic lift, used at a service station the radius of the large and small piston are in the
ratio of 20 : 1. What weight placed on the small piston will be sufficient to lift a car of mass 1500 kg
?

(1) 3.75 kg
(2) 37.5 kg
(3) 7.5 kg
(4) 75 kg

14) The surface tension of liquid decreases with a rise in

(1) temperature of the liquid

(2) volume of the liquid
(3) diameter of container
(4) thickness of container

15) An open-ended U-tube of uniform cross-sectional area (both side same area) contains water
(density 1.0 gram/centimeter3) standing initially 20 centimeters from the bottom in each arm. An
immiscible liquid of density 4.0 grams/ centimeter3 is added to one arm until a layer 5 centimeters
high forms, as shown in the figure above. What is the ratio h2/h1 of the heights of the liquid in the
two arms ?

(1) 3/1
(2) 5/2
(3) 2/1
(4) 3/2

16) A body of mass 120 kg and density 600 kg/m3 floats in water. What additional mass could be
added to the body, so that the body will just sink?

(1) 20 kg
(2) 80 kg
(3) 100 kg
(4) 120 kg

17) If a soap bubble expands, the pressure inside the bubble :

(1) increases
(2) remains the same
(3) is equal to the atmospheric pressure
(4) decreases

18) A metal block of area 0.10 m2 is connected to a 0.010 kg mass via an ideal string that passes
over an ideal pulley (consider massless and frictionless) as in figure. A liquid with a film thickness of
0.30 mm is placed between the block and the table. When released the block moves to the right with
a constant speed of 0.085 ms–1. Find the coefficient of viscosity of the liquid is nearly :- (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 3.5 × 10–3 Pa-s
(2) 5.5 × 10–2 Pa-s
(3) 7.3 × 10–2 Pa-s
(4) 1.1 × 10–2 Pa-s

19) A spherical ball is dropped in a long column of a highly viscous liquid. The curve (in the graph

shown), which represents the speed of the ball (v) as a function of time (t) is :

(1) B
(2) C
(3) D
(4) A

20) The correct statement about the variation of viscosity of fluid with increase in temperature:

(1) viscosity of both liquids and gases increases

(2) viscosity of liquids increases
(3) viscosity of liquids decreases
(4) viscosity of gases decreases

21) A thin liquid film formed between a U–Shaped wire and a light slider supports a weight of 1.5 ×
10–2 N (see figure). The length of the slider is 30 cm and its weight is negligible. The surface tension
of the liquid film is :-

(1) 0.0125 Nm–1

(2) 0.1 Nm–1
(3) 0.05 Nm–1
(4) 0.025 Nm–1

22) The dimensions of surface tension are

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) In a surface tension experiment with a capillary tube water rises upto 0.1 m. If the same
experiment is repeated on a artificial satellite, which is revolving around the earth water will rise in
he capillary tube upto: -

(1) 0.1 m
(2) 0.2 m
(3) 0.98 m
(4) top most point of the capillary tube

24) A ring of radius R is kept on water surface. Surface tension of water is T and mass of the ring is
m.

What force is required to lift the ring from water surface?

(1) mg + TR
(2) mg + R
(3) mg + 2 TR
(4) mg + 4 TR

25) If two SHM are represented by equations

y1 = 10 sin [8πt + π/3]
y2 = 5[sin 8πt + cos 8πt]
then the phase difference in between them.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) A mass m is vertically suspended from a spring of negligible mass, the system oscillates with a
frequency n. If a mass 4 m is suspended from the same spring then frequency will be :-
(1)

(2) 4n

(3)

(4) 2n

27) A body is in simple harmonic motion with time period T = 0.5 s and amplitude A = 1 cm. Find
the average velocity in the interval in which it directly moves from equilibrium position to half of its
amplitude.

(1) 16 cm/s
(2) 6 cm/s
(3) 4 cm/s
(4) 12 cm/s

28) When a mass m attached to a spring, it oscillates with period 4s. When an additional mass of 2
kg is attached to a spring, time period increases by 1s. The value of m (approximately) is :-

(1) 3.6 kg
(2) 8.2 kg
(3) 4.7 kg
(4) 2.6 kg

29) A particle starts simple harmonic motion from the mean position. Its amplitude is 'a' and total
energy 'E'. At one instant its kinetic energy is 3E/4. Its displacement at that instant is :-

(1)
(2) a / 2

(3)

(4)

30)

A particle executes simple harmonic motion between x = –A and x = +A. It starts from x = 0 moving

in +x-direction. The time taken for it to move from x = 0 to x = is T1 and to move from to is
T2, then

(1) T1 < T2
(2) T1 = T2
(3) T2 = 2T1
(4) T1 = 2T2

31) Water is flowing in streamline motion in the tube shown in Figure. Pressure is
(1) more at A than that at B
(2) equal at A and at B
(3) lesser at A then that at B
(4) twice at B as compared to that of A

32) If T is the surface tension of a fluid, then the energy needed to break a liquid drop of radius R
into 64 equal drops is :-

(1) 6πR2T
(2) πR2T
(3) 12πR2T
(4) 8πR2T

33) In SHM, if mean kinetic energy is 50 J, then kinetic energy at mean position is :-

(1) 50 J
(2) 25 J
(3) 75 J
(4) 100 J

34) A body is executing simple harmonic motion with frequency 'n', the frequency of variation of its
potential energy is:-

(1) n
(2) 2n
(3) 3n
(4) 4n

35) A simple pendulum performs simple harmonic motion about x = 0 with an amplitude a and time
period T. The speed of the pendulum at x = a/2 will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

SECTION - B
1) The water of 4 × 104 N/m2 pressure moving with the velocity 2m/sec is flowing through a pipe of
cross section 0.02 m2. Its cross-section reduces and become 0.01 m2. What is the pressure in the pipe
of small cross-section ?

(1) 3.4 × 104 N/m2

(2) 5 × 104 N/m2
(3) 7.6 × 104 N/m2
(4) 2 × 104 N/m2

2) A cube of side 40 cm has its upper face displaced by 0.1 mm by a tangential force of 8 kN. The
shearing modulus of cube is :-

(1) 2 × 109 N-m–2

(2) 4 × 109 N-m–2
(3) 2 × 108 Nm–2
(4) 4 × 108 N-m–2

3) The diagram shows stress v/s strain curve for the materials A and B. From the curves we infer

that

(1) A is brittle but B is ductile

(2) A is ductile and B is brittle
(3) Both A and B are equally ductile
(4) Both A and B are equally brittle

4) Find the value of modulus of elasticity for the given curve.

(1) N/m2

(2)
N/m2
(3) 1 N/m2
(4) 0 N/m2

5) Two blocks of masses 1kg and 4 kg are connected by a metal wire going over a smooth pulley as
shown in figure. The breaking stress of the metal wire is 3.18 × 109 N/m2. The minimum radius of
wire is must be :- [g = 10 ms–2]
(1) 1 × 10–5 m
(2) 2 × 10–5 m
(3) 3 × 10–5 m
(4) 4 × 10–5 m

6) The ratio of radii of two wires of same materials is 4 : 3. If they are stretched by the same force,
then find the ratio of stress :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Two small drops of mercury, each of radius R, coalesce to form a single large drop. The ratio of
the total surface energies before and after the change is :-

(1) 1 : 21/3
(2) 21/3 : 1
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 2

8) Water rises in a capillary tube upto a height of 4 cm. If tube is titled to 30º from the vertical, then
the length of water column in it will be -

(1)

(2)
(3) 4 cm
(4) 2 cm

9) A capillary tube (A) is dipped in water. Another identical tube (B) is dipped in a soap-water
solution. Which of the following shows the relative nature of the liquid columns in the two tubes ?
(Assume angle of contact in both cases to be same)
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) The diameter of a piston P2 is 50 cm and that of a piston P1 is 10 cm. What is the force exerted on
P2 when a force of 1 N is applied on P1?

(1) 25 N
(2) 50 N
(3) 75 N
(4) 100 N

11) A plate of are 100 cm2 is placed on the upper surface of castor oil, 2 mm thick. Taking the
coefficient of viscosity 10 poise, the horizontal force necessary to move the plate with a uniform
velocity of 2 cm/s is : -

(1) 1 N
(2) 2 N
(3) 0.1 N
(4) 0.2 N

12) If displacement x and velocity v are related as 4v2 = 25 – x2 in a SHM. Then time period of given
SHM is (consider SI units):-

(1) π
(2) 2π
(3) 4π
(4) 6π
13) A particle executing SHM has a maximum speed of 30 cm/sec and a maximum acceleration of 60
cm/sec2. The period of oscillation is :-

(1) π sec
(2) π/2 sec
(3) 2π sec
(4) π/t sec

14) A body of mass 0.01 kg executes simple harmonic motion (S.H.M.) about x = 0 under the
influence of a force shown below : The period of the S.H.M. is:- (approximate) :-

(1) 1.05 s
(2) 0.52 s
(3) 0.25 s
(4) 0.30 s

15) The time period and amplitude of particle executing simple harmonic motion are 6 second and 3
cm respectively. Its maximum velocity in cm/sec, will be :-

(1) π/2
(2) π
(3) 2π
(4) 3π

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A

1) Given that standard enthalpy of formation of CH4, C2H4 and C3H8 are –17.9, 12.5, –24.8 kCal/mol.
The ΔH for CH4 + C2H4 → C3H8 is :

(1) – 55.2 kCal

(2) – 30.2 kCal
(3) 55.2 kCal
(4) – 19.4 kCal

2)

According to equation,
C6H6(ℓ) + 15/2 O2(g) —→ 6CO2(g) + 3H2O(ℓ); ΔH = – 3264.4 kJ mol–1 the energy evolved when 7.8 g
benzene is burnt in air will be -
(1) 163.22 KJ
(2) 32.64 KJ
(3) 3.264 KJ
(4) 326.4 KJ

3) For the following reaction :

CDiamond + O2 → CO2(g); ΔH = –94.3 kcal
CGraphite + O2 → CO2(g); ΔH = –97.6 kcal
The heat required to change 1g of Cdiamond → Cgraphite is :-

(1) 1.59 kcal

(2) 0.1375 kcal
(3) 0.55 kcal
(4) 0.275 kcal

4) Heat of combustion of C,H2 and C2H6 are –x1, –x2 and –x3. Hence, heat of formation of C2H6 is:-

(1) – 2x1 – 3x2 + x3

(2) – x1 – x2 + x3
(3) – x3 + 2x1 + 3x2
(4) x1 + x2 – x3

5)

The enthalpies of elements in their Standard states are taken as zero. The enthalpy of formation of a
compound

(1) is always negative

(2) is always positive
(3) may be positive or negative
(4) is never negative

6) The enthalpy change of a reaction does not depend on

(1) State of reactants and products

(2) Nature of reactants and products
(3) Different intermediate reactions
(4) Initial and final enthalpy change of reaction

7) Assertion (A) : Combustion of all organic compounds is an exothermic reaction.

Reason (R) : The enthalpies of elements in their standard states are zero.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

8) The heats of neutralisation of four acids A,B,C,D are –13.7, –9.4, –11.2 and –12.4 kcal respectively
when they are neutralised by a common base. The acidic character obeys the order :-

(1) A > B > C > D

(2) A > D > C > B
(3) D > C > B > A
(4) D > B > C > A

9) For the reaction, C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) → 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(ℓ) at constant temperature, ∆H –∆E is :

(1) +3RT
(2) –RT
(3) +RT
(4) –3RT

10) Assertion :- There is no change in internal energy of an ideal gas at constant temperature.
Reason :- Internal energy of an ideal gas is a function of temperature only.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

11) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Enthalpy of neutralization of reaction.
HF + NaOH —→ NaF + H2O is – 16.7 Kcal/eq.
Reason (R) : HF is a strong acid so, its enthalpy of neutralization increases with strong base.

In the light of the above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

12) From the following bond energies –

BEH–H = 431.37 kJ mol–1
BEC=C = 606.10 kJ mol–1
BEC–C = 336.49 kJ mol–1
BEC–H = 410.50 kJ mol–1
Enthalpy for the reaction will be –
(1) 1523.6 kJ mol–1
(2) –243.6 kJ mol–1
(3) –120 kJ mol–1
(4) 553 kJ mol–1

13) For a reaction ΔH and ΔS are 26.25 kJ mol–1 and 105 JK–1 mol–1 respectively then determine the
temperature at which reaction is at equilibrium :-

(1) 300 K
(2) 250 K
(3) 400 K
(4) 350 K

14)

(1) A – (s), B – (p), C – (q), D – (r)

(2) A – (q), B – (r), C – (p), D – (s)
(3) A – (r), B – (p), C – (q), D – (s)
(4) A – (p), B – (q), C – (s), D – (r)

15) Predict which of the following reaction (s) has a negative entropy change ?
I. CH4(g) + 2O2(g) —→ CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)
II. NH3(g) + HCl(g) —→ NH4Cl(s)
III. 2KClO4(s) —→ 2KClO3(s) + O2(g)

(1) III
(2) II
(3) I and II
(4) I

16)

For a gaseous reaction,

A(g) + 3B(g) → 3C(g) + 3D(g)
0
ΔE is 17 Kcal at 27 C assuming R=2 cal K–1 mol–1, the value of ΔH for the above reaction is :-

(1) 15.8 Kcal

(2) 18.2 Kcal
(3) 20.0 Kcal
(4) 16.4 Kcal

17) The occurrence of a reaction is impossible at all temp. if :-

(1) ΔH is +ve and ΔS is +ve

(2) ΔH is –ve and ΔS is +ve
(3) ΔH is +ve and ΔS is –ve
(4) ΔH is –ve and ΔS is –ve

18)

Which of the following is not a state function ?

(1) Internal energy

(2) Enthalpy
(3) Work
(4) Entropy

19) A gas expands against a variable pressure given by P = (P in atm and V in L). During
expansion from volume of 1 litre to 10 litre, the gas undergoes an increase in internal energy of 400
J. How much heat is absorbed by gas during expansion :-

(1) 46 J
(2) 4660 J
(3) 5065.8 J
(4) 4260 J

20) Which is incorrect for isothermal expansion of ideal gas:-

(1) Temperature remains constant

(2) Internal energy and enthalpy remains constant
(3) Entropy remains constant
(4) Pressure of gas is inversely proportional to its volume

21)

Which of the following is /are true about the adiabatic expansion of gas ?

(1) ΔU = – |W|
(2) Temperature of gas decreases
(3) Work is done at the expense of internal energy
(4) All of these

22) The minimum number of carbon atoms in ketone to show metamerism :-

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

23) Match the following Column-I with Column-II

Column-II
Column-I (Degree of
(Compound) unsaturatio
n)

(A) (p) 2

(B) (q) 4

(C) (r) 3

(D) (s) 1

The correct match is :

(1) A - r, B - p, C - s, D - q
(2) A - q, B - p, C - s, D - r
(3) A - p, B - q, C - r, D - s
(4) A - q, B - s, C - p, D - r

24) Structure formed with molecular formula C3H6O is/are :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

25) Saturated acyclic ethers are isomeric with :

(1) Aldehydes
(2) Ketones
(3) Both aldehydes and ketones
(4) Alcohols
26)

(1) Metamers
(2) Chain isomers
(3) Identical
(4) Position Isomers

27) Which of the following compound will not show geometrical isomerism?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) What is absolute configuration of following compound?

(1) E
(2) Z
(3) R
(4) S

29)

Which conformer of the given compound is most stable (rotation about C-C bond) :-

(1) Staggered
(2) Gauche
(3) Fully eclipsed
(4) Partially eclipsed

30)

Which have D-configuration :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Which is optically inactive :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All

32) With respect to the conformers of ethane, which of the following statements is true ?

(1) Bond angle changes but bond length remains same

(2) Both bond angle and bond length change
(3) Both bond angles and bond length remain same
(4) Bond angle remains same but bond length changes
33)

(1) 2-Chloro propanoyl chloride

(2) 2-chloro butanoyl chloride
(3) 1, 2-dichloro butanone
(4) 1-oxo butane-1, 2-dichloride

34) Prefix used for the functional group ester-COOR during IUPAC naming is:

(1) Alkylacid
(2) Alkoxycarbonyl
(3) Carboxymethyl
(4) Carbamoyl

35) IUPAC name for is

(1) 5-amino–2-heptenoic acid

(2) 5-amino-hex-2-ene-carboxylic acid
(3) 3-amino hept-5-enoic acid
(4) β-amino- -heptenoic acid

SECTION - B

1) Reversible expansion of an ideal gas under isothermal and adiabatic conditions are as shown in

the figure. AB Isothermal expansion

AC Adiabatic expansion
Which of the following options is not correct?

(1) TA > TC
(2) TA = TB
(3) Wisothermal > Wadiabatic
(4) TC > TA
2) Which of the following is intensive property ?
(I) Internal energy
(II) pH
(III) Boiling point
(IV) EMF
(V) Molar entropy

(1) I, II, III, IV, V

(2) II, III, IV only
(3) III, IV only
(4) II, III, IV, V

3) If the bond dissociation energies of XY, X2 and Y2 (all are diatomic molecules are in the ratio of 1 :
1 : 0.5 and ΔH for the formation of XY is –200 kJ/mole. The bond dissociation energy of X2 will be?

(1) 200 KJ/mole

(2) 800 KJ/mole
(3) 100 KJ/mole
(4) 300 KJ/mole

4)
Which among these are structural isomers ?

(1) I and II
(2) I and III
(3) II and III
(4) All of these

5) Which of following conformer of butane-2,3-diol is most stable :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

6) Which of following will not show geometrical isomerism ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) What characteristic is common to both cis-2 butene and trans-2-butene ?

(1) B.P.
(2) Dipole moment
(3) Heat of hydrogenation
(4) Product of hydrogenation

8) Total number of stereoisomer of compound is given below :-

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8

9) According to CIP sequence Rule, which of the following group has highest priority?

(1) –CH3

(2)

(3) –O–CH3
(4) –NH2

10)

Which of the following is false for the given molecules:-

(1) Equimolecular mixture of I and II does not show optical activity

(2) II and III have different behaviour towards PPL
(3) II and III are identical
(4) I and II can not be separated by fractional distillation method from their mixture

11) The correct nomenclature of configuration following compound is :-

(1) 2R, 3R
(2) 2S, 3R
(3) 2R, 3S
(4) 2S, 3S

12) Number of chiral carbon in the given compound :-

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 4

13) Statement-1 : All double bond containing compounds show geometrical isomerism.
Statement-2 : Alkenes have restricted rotation about the carbon-carbon double bond.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True ; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True ; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
(2)
Statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

14) Which of the following structure represents a threo stereoisomer :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

15) The IUPAC name of neopentane is :-

(1) 2, 2 - dimethylpropane
(2) 2 - methylpropane
(3) 2, 2 - dimethylbutane
(4) 2 - methylbutane

BOTANY

SECTION - A

1) Which is a feature of dicot stem ?

(1) Schizolysigenous water cavity

(2) Vascular bundles in rings
(3) Undifferentiated ground tissue
(4) Closed vascular bundles

2) Stele excludes :-

(1) Pericycle
(2) Vascular bundle
(3) Pith
(4) Endodermis
3) Which of the following statement is incorrect about companion cell ?

(1) It is specialized parenchymatous cell

(2) Its nucleus controls the function of sieve tubes
(3) It helps in maintaining the pressure gradient in sieve tubes
(4) It is present in all vascular plants having phloem

4) A tissue which occurs between mature tissues in grasses and capable to regenerate parts
removed by grazing herbivores, identify that type of tissue ?

(1) Apical meristem

(2) Intercalary meristem
(3) Axillary bud
(4) Secondary meristem

5) Which of following is incorrect for trichomes?

(1) Minimize the water loss

(2) Usually multicellular
(3) They may even be secretory
(4) Help in water absorption

6) Statement–1 : In dicot stem, the endodermis is also referred to as the starch sheath.
Statement–2 : The cells of the endodermis are rich in starch grains.

Statement–1 is true, Statement–2 is true; Statement–2 is not the correct explanation of

(1)
Statement–1.
(2) Statement–1 is false, Statement–2 is true.
(3) Statement–1 is true, Statement–2 is false.
Statement–1 is true, Statement–2 is true; Statement–2 is the correct explanation
(4)
of Statement–1.

7) Which of following tissue is lateral meristem as well as primary in origin ?

(1) Eumeristem
(2) Fascicular vascular cambium
(3) Cork cambium
(4) Vascular cambium of dicot roots

8) A living mechanical tissue with high refractive index, present below epidermis in dicotyledonous
stems, either as a homogenous layer or in patches, whose cell walls are much thickened, often at the
corners due to deposition of cellulose, hemi-cellulose and pectin :-

(1) Parenchyma
(2) Collenchyma
(3) Chlorenchyma
(4) Sclerenchyma
9) Axillary bud is derived from:-

(1) Leaf primordium

(2) Lateral meristem
(3) Shoot apical meristem
(4) Root apical meristem

10) Which of the following is wrong for dorsiventral leaf ?

(1) Spongy tissue is situated towards abaxial surface

(2) Cuticle on upper surface is thick
(3) Palisade tissue is situated towards abaxial surface
(4) Present at right angle to stem

11) End wall of tracheids and vesseles are respectively :

(1) Imperforated, Perforated

(2) Perforated, Imperforated
(3) Perforated, Perforated
(4) Imperforated, Imperforated

12) Collenchyma differs from sclerenchyma in :-

(1) Having thick walls

(2) Having Wide lumen
(3) Being meristematic
(4) Retaining protoplasm at maturity

13)

Which of these characters does/do not apply to the vascular bundle of monocot stem ?
(i) Conjoint
(ii) Endarch
(iii) Open
(iv) Phloem parenchyma absent

Select the correct answer

(1) i and ii
(2) ii and iii
(3) only iii
(4) i and iv

14) Identify the tissue shown below as well as the related right place of its occurance in a plant and
select the right option for the two together

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15) Position of xylem and phloem in leaf are respectively :-

(1) Adaxial and adaxial

(2) Adaxial and abaxial
(3) Abaxial and adaxial
(4) Abaxial and abaxial

16) Which of the following is only primary meristem?

(1) Apical meristem

(2) Lateral meristem
(3) Intercalary meristem
(4) 1 and 3 both

17) Assertion: Tracheids are dead cells.

Reason: Tracheids have lignified cell wall and lost it's protoplasm.

(1) If both the assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
If both the assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) If the assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.

18) On what basis sclerenchyma is classified into fibres or sclereids?

(1) Structure
(2) Origin
(3) Development
(4) All of these
19) All are the features of meristematic cells, except

(1) Absence of intercellular spaces

(2) Dense cytoplasm and prominent nucleus
(3) Ability to undergo cell division
(4) Contain chloroplast, leucoplast or chromoplast

20) Assertion : Usually polyarch condition is found in monocot root.

Reason : Usually 2-4 xylem bundles are present in the dicot root.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

21) Assertion: In dicot roots Vascular cambium is of secondary origin.

Reason: It arises due to dedifferentiation.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

22) Which of following is correct for given diagrammatic sketch ?

(1) Found in stems of grasses.

(2) Presence of intra-fascicular cambium
(3) Found in stems of sun-flowers
(4) presence of secondary xylem and secondary phloem.

23) Which of the following is not correctly matched :-

(1)

Dicot root –
(2)

Dicot stem –

(3)

Monocot stem –

(4)

Cucurbita stem –

24) Identify the diagram and select the correct option in respect of given diagram?

(1) Dead mechanical tissue

(2) Parenchyma
(3) Living mechanical tissue
(4) Fundamental tissue of plants

25)

Observe the given diagram carefully and select the correct option for A, B and C.

A B C
(1) Leaf Primordium Shoot Apical Meristem Axillary Bud
(2) Leaf Primordium Root Apical Meristem Axillary Bud
(3) Root Hair Root Apical Meristem Axillary Bud
(4) Root Hair Root Apical Meristem Apical Bud
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

26) Which of the following statements are correct for the given diagram ? (i)
Presence of root hairs
(ii) Collenchymatous hypodermis
(iii) Endodermis rich in protein
(iv) Semi lunar patches of sclerenchyma in pericycle
(v) Vascular bundles are open
(vi) Absence of pith

(1) (i) (iii) (vi)

(2) (ii) (iv) (v)
(3) (i) (iii) (iv) (vi)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

27) The following figure represent the stomatal apparatus which shows :-

(1) Dumb-bell shaped guard cell and found in grasses

(2) Bean shaped guard cell and found in grasses
(3) Dumb-bell shaped guard cell and found in dicots
(4) Bean shaped guard cell and found in dicots
28) How many statements are correct for given diagram:- (i) Component of phloem
(ii) It is found in most of the angiosperms
(iii) perforation in their common walls
(iv) Obliterated central lumen
(v) Devoid of protoplasm at maturity
(vi) Long, Cylindrical tube like
Option :-

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Two

29) Which sequence correctly illustrates the arrangement of layers from outside to inside in a dicot
stem?

(1) Hypodermis → Endodermis → Pericycle → Phloem → Xylem

(2) Endodermis → Hypodermis → Pericycle → Xylem → Phloem
(3) Hypodermis → Endodermis → Pericycle → Xylem → Phloem
(4) Endodermis → Hypodermis → Pericycle → Phloem → Xylem

30) In an experiment a student cut a transverse section (T.S.) of young stem of a plant which he has
taken from his school garden. After observing it under the microscope, how would be ascertain
whether it is a monocot stem or a dicot stem ?

(1) With the help of bulliform cells

(2) With the help of epidermal cell
(3) With the help of vascular bundles
(4) With the help of spongy tissue

31) Bulliform cells are present in

(1) Leaves of some grasses (monocot)

(2) Leaves of all dicot plants
(3) Leaves of hydrophytes
(4) Stem of xerophytes

32) Which one of the following group present in options is not related to gymnosperm?
(1) Sieve tube, vessel, companion cells
(2) Sieve cells, tracheid, albuminous cells
(3) Sieve tube, tracheid, albuminous cells
(4) Sieve cells, vessel, companion cells

33) Identify the given diagram and select the correct option for it :

Type of Xylem and

vascular its Occurance
bundle development

Conjoint, Endarch,
(1) Dicot stem
collateral, open centrifugal

Conjoint,
Endarch, Monocot
(2) collateral,
centrifugal stem
closed

Conjoint, Exarch, Gymnosperm

(3)
collateral, open centripetal stem

Conjoint, Endarch, Cucurbita

(4)
collateral, open centripetal stem
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

34)

Casparian strips are modifications of _______ in ___________.

(1) Pericycle, dicot stem

(2) Pericycle, dicot root
(3) Endodermis, dicot root
(4) Medullary rays, dicot stem

35) Parenchyma containing chloroplasts is known as:-

(1) Prosenchyma
(2) Collenchyma
(3) Aerenchyma
(4) Chlorenchyma

SECTION - B

1)

Identify the given transverse sections of plant part and suggest the nature of xylem and order of
development of xylem in vascular bundles of the respective sections :-

Transverse Transverse
section-A section-B
Nature
Nature Order of Develop- Order of Develop-
of
of xylem ment ment
xylem
Monocot
(1) Exarch Centri petal Dicot Root Exarch Centri petal
Root
Monocot
(2) Dicot stem Exarch Centri petal Exarch Centri petal
stem
Monocot
(3) Dicot stem Endarch Centri fugal Endarch Centri fugal
stem
Monocot
(4) Endarch Centri fugal Dicot stem Endarch Centri fugal
stem
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

2) Consider the following statements about tissues. Select the option having correct statements
(A)All tissues are made up of living cells only
(B) All tissues are made up of dead cells only
(C) A tissue may contain living or dead cells or both living and dead cells
(D) A tissue generally has cells with similar origin
(E) A tissue generally has cells doing similar function

(1) A and E
(2) B and E
(3) C, D and E
(4) A, D and E

3) Epidermis of plant organs is mostly made up of

(1) Sclernchyma
(2) Parenchyma
(3) Meristem
(4) Collenchyma

4) Read the following statements w.r.t. pericycle and Choose the suitable option
(a) It is the outermost portion of stele, that may be parenchymatous or sclerenchymatous.
(b) It is absent in monocot stems.
(c) It is always single layered.

(1) Only (a) is correct

(2) Only (b) is incorrect
(3) Only (c) is incorrect
(4) Both (a) and (b) are incorrect

5) I. The specialised cells present in vicinity of

guard cells are known as_A_
II. Ground tissue of leaves is called _B_
Ill. Cuticle is absent in _C_
IV. _D_ help in preventing water loss due to transpiration

A – Trichomes
(1)
C – Stem
B – Mesophyll
(2)
D – Trichomes
A – Subsidiary cells
(3)
B – Conjuctive tissue
C – Root
(4)
D – Root hair

6) Trichomes differ from root hairs in :

(1) Being unicellular

(2) Being unbranched always
(3) Being epidermal appendage
(4) Being helpful to prevent water loss

7) Which of the given cells of epidermal tissue system contains chloroplast?

(1) Subsidiary cells

(2) Guard cells
(3) Trichomes
(4) Root hairs

8) Identity the parts labelled A, B, C and D and select the correct option about them :-
 A B C D
Adaxial Palisade Spongy Abaxial
(1)
epidermis mesophyll mesophyll epidermis
Abaxial Palisade Spongy Adaxial
(2)
epidermis mesophyll mesophyll epidermis
Adaxial Spongy Palisade Adaxial
(3)
epidermis mesophyll mesophyll epidermis
Abaxial Spongy Palisade Adaxial
(4)
epidermis mesophyll mesophyll epidermis
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) Select the incorrect statement from the following:

(1) End walls of sieve tube have sieve plates.

Sieve tube and companion cells are connected by pit present between common longitudinal
(2)
wall.
Companion cells are specialized parenchymatous cells having nucleus which controls the
(3)
function of sieve tubes
(4) Phloem parenchyma is present in most of the monocots.

10) In the given figure identify (A), (B) and (C)

(1) (A) Sieve tube element, (B) Sieve pores (C) Phloem parenchyma
(2) (A) Companion cell (B) Pit field (C) Phloem parenchyma
(3) (A) Sieve cell, (B) Pit field (C) Phloem parenchyma
(4) Companion cell, (B) Sieve pores (C) Phloem parenchyma

11) How many given functions are related to pericycle?

a. Mechanical support
b. Lateral root formation
c. Storage organs
d. Cambium formation
e. Radial conduction of water

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 5

12) A characteristic feature of monocot root is

(1) Endarch primary xylem

(2) Polyarch primary xylem
(3) Very small pith
(4) Presence of secondary growth

13) In sunflower stem, vascular bundles are :-

(1) Open and Scattered

(2) Closed and Scattered
(3) Open and in a ring
(4) Closed and radial

14) Which of the following tissues is secondary in origin?

(1) Interfascicular cambium

(2) Intrafascicular cambium
(3) Apical meristem
(4) Both (1) and (2)

15) Which statements are incorrect with respect of tracheids ?

(i) Lignified cell wall
(ii) Control the pressure gradient in vessels
(iii) End wall perforated
(iv) End wall are pointed
(v) Retain the nucleus at maturity

(1) (i) (iv) (v)

(2) (ii) (iv) (v)
(3) (ii) (iii) (v)
(4) (i) (ii) (iv) (v)
 ZOOLOGY

SECTION - A

1) Which of the following are selectively secreted in distal convoluted tubule?

+ +
(1) H , K and NH3
(2) K+ and H+ only
+ + –
(3) H , K and HCO3
– +
(4) HCO3 and H only

2) Glomerular filtrate contains :

(1) All the constituents of the plasma

(2) All the constituents of the plasma except nutrients
(3) Almost all the constituents of plasma except proteins
(4) Only nitrogenous waste products

3) Tubular secretion helps in

(1) Ionic balance of body fluids

(2) Acid base balance of body fluids
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

4) Assertion (A) : The descending limb of loop of Henle concentrates the filtrate as it moves down.
Reason (R) : Descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to water and impermeable to
electrolytes.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) Both A and R are false.
(4) A is true but R is false.

5) Sweat produced by sweat glands contain all except :

(1) NaCl
(2) Urea
(3) Hydrocarbons
(4) Lactic acid

6) Statement – I : Aldosterone and ANF are antagonistic to each other.

Statement – II : Aldosterone hormone increases blood pressure whereas ANF decreases blood
pressure.
(1) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
(2) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.
(3) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

7) Use of an artificial kidney during hemodialysis may result in :

(a) Nitrogenous waste build-up in the body
(b) Non-elimination of excess potassium ions
(c) Reduced absorption of calcium ions from gastro-intestinal tract
(d) Reduced RBC production
Which of the following options is the most appropriate ?

(1) (a) and (b) are correct

(2) (b) and (c) are correct
(3) (c) and (d) are correct
(4) (a) and (d) are correct

8) The increase in osmolarity from outer to inner medullary interstitium is maintained due to :
(i) Close proximity between Henle's loop and vasa recta
(ii) Counter current mechanism
(iii) Selective secretion of and hydrogen ions in PCT
(iv) Higher blood pressure in glomerular capillaries

(1) Only (ii)

(2) (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i) and (ii)

9) Statement - I :JGA is a special sensitive region formed by cellular modifications in the DCT and
efferent arteriole.
Statement - II : A fall in GFR can activate the JG cells to release rennin which can stimulate the
glomerular blood flow and thereby the GFR back to normal.

(1) Statement-I and Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

10) Match the abnormal conditions given in Column-I with their explanations given in Column-II
and choose the correct option:
(1) A = i, B = iii, C = ii, D = iv
(2) A = iii, B = ii, C = iv, D = i
(3) A = iv, B = iii, C = ii, D = i
(4) A = iv, B = ii, C = iii, D = i

11) Arrange the following steps in micturition :

(i) Stretch receptors on the walls of urinary bladder send signals to C.N.S
(ii) Motor messages from C.N.S cause contraction of smooth muscle of bladder and simultaneous
relaxation of urethral sphincter
(iii) Stretching of urinary bladder when filled with urine
(iv) Release of urine

(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(2) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
(3) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
(4) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)

12) "Columns of Bertini" in the kidney of mammals are formed as the extension of

(1) Medulla into cortex

(2) Cortex into medulla
(3) Medulla into pelvis
(4) Pelvis into ureter

13) Study the diagram given below carefully and identify the structure which forms malpighian
corpuscle :
(1) A, D
(2) C, D
(3) B, C
(4) A, E

14) Which one of the following statements is correct about nephron ?

(1) Each kidney has nearly one million simple tubular structures called nephrons
(2) Glomerulus is a tuft of capillaries formed by the efferent arteriole - a fine branch of renal artery
(3) Blood from the efferent arteriole is carried towards glomerulus
(4) Each nephron has two parts - the glomerulus and the renal tubule

15) Find out the incorrect statement :

(1) Ammonia is the most toxic form and requires large amount of water for its elimination
(2) Human kidneys are retroperitoneal
Human kidneys can produce hypertonic urine nearly four times concentrated than the initial
(3)
filtrate
(4) NH3 is retained in the kidney matrix of all animals to maintain a desired osmolarity

16) Assertion : All locomotions are movements but all movements are not locomotions.
Reason : Locomotion requires a perfect coordinated activity of muscular, skeletal and neural
systems.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

17) What is common between skeletal muscle fibres and cardiac muscle fibres?

(1) Both are cylindrical and striated

(2) Both are involuntary and striated
(3) Both are branched and voluntary
(4) Both are uninucleated and involuntary

18) Match the Columns I and II and choose the correct option :

Column-I Column-II

(i) Metatarsals (a) 14

(ii) Phalanges (b) 5

(iii) Carpals (c) 7

(iv) Tarsals (d) 8

(1) i-b ; ii-a ; iii-d ; iv-c
(2) i-a ; ii-b ; iii-d ; iv-c
(3) i-d ; ii-a ; iii-b ; iv-c
(4) i-c ; ii-a ; iii-b ; iv-d

19) Match the Column-I and Column - II and choose the correct combination from the options
given.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20) Statement-I : Some specialised cells in our body like macrophages and leucocytes in blood
exhibit amoeboid movement.
Statement-II : Ciliary movement occurs in most of our internal tubular organs which are lined by
ciliated epithelium.

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I and II both are incorrect.
(3) Only Statement-I is correct.
(4) Only Statement-II is correct.

21) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the correct option which includes all the
correct ones only :
(a) Each myosin filament is a polymerised protein and also known as thin filament
(b) Many meromyosins constitute one myosin filament
(c) Each meromyosin has two parts, a globular head with a short arm and tail
(d) Head and short arm projects outwards at irregular distance and angle from each other from the
surface of myosin filament
(1) Statements 'a', 'b' and 'c'
(2) Statements 'a' and 'c'
(3) Statements 'b' and 'c'
(4) Statements 'b', 'c' and 'd'

22)

Which of the statements about the mechanism of muscle contraction are correct ?
(I) Acetylcholine is released when the neural signal reaches the motor end plate
(II) Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent by CNS via a sensory neuron
(III) During muscle contraction, isotropic band gets elongated

(IV) Repeated activation of the skeletal muscles can lead to lactic acid accumulation
(1) I and IV are correct
(2) I and III are correct
(3) II and III are correct
(4) I, II and IV are correct

23) Assertion : Nitrogenous waste is absent in dialysing fluid.

Reason : Nitrogenous waste diffuse from blood to dialysing fluid on the basis of concentration
gradient.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

24) Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
Statement - I : Sternum is a flat bone on the ventral midline of thorax.
Statement - II : Ribs articulate with xiphoid process.

(1) Statement-I and Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

25) Arrange the events of mechanism of muscle contraction in the correct sequence.
(A) Cross bridge formation
(B) Breaking of cross bridge
(C) New ATP binds to myosin head
(D) Rotation of myosin head
(E) ATP hydrolysis by myosin head
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A → D → E → C → B
(2) C → E → D → A → B
(3) E → A → D → C → B
(4) A → C → E → D → B

26)

Study the given features regarding red muscle fibres.

(A) Amount of sacroplasmic reticulum is high
(B) Large number of mitochondria
(C) Depend upon anaerobic process for energy
(D) Fatigue occurs slowly
Select the option that include only incorrect features.

(1) A and C
(2) B and D
(3) C and D
(4) C only

27) Read the following statements A and B and choose the correct answer :
Statement-A : All voluntary muscles are striated but all striated muscles are not voluntary.
Statement-B : All smooth muscles are involuntary but all involuntary muscles are not smooth.

(1) Both statements A and B are correct.

(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect.
(3) Only statement A is incorrect.
(4) Only statement B is incorrect.

28) Assertion : Tetany is the rapid spasms in muscle.

Reason : Tetany is due to low Ca2+ in body fluid.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are True and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False.

29) Human vertebral formula is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

30) Given below is the diagrammatic view of human skull in which certain bones are labelled by A,
B, C and D. Find out the correct option in which all the alphabets are correctly labelled :
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

31) The ribs of humans are bicephalic because each rib has :

(1) Two articulation surfaces on dorsal end

(2) Two articulation surfaces on ventral end
(3) One articulation surface on both dorsal and ventral ends
(4) Two articulation surfaces on both dorsal and ventral ends

32) The 11th and 12th pair of ribs are

(1) Connected dorsally to the sternum and ventrally to the vertebral column
(2) Connected dorsally to the vertebral column and ventrally to the sternum
(3) Connected dorsally to the vertebral column and are not connected ventrally to the sternum
(4) Connected dorsally to the sternum and are not connected ventrally to the vertebral column

33) A bone which is found at the base of buccal cavity and do not articulate with any other bone of
body is :

(1) Mandible
(2) Scapula
(3) Hyoid
(4) Clavicle
34) Which of the following causes an increase in sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted
tubule?

(1) Increase in aldosterone levels

(2) Increase in oxytocin hormone levels
(3) Decrease in aldosterone levels
(4) Decrease in antidiuretic hormone levels

35) Coxal bone of pelvic girdle comprises

(a) Ilium (b) Ischium
(c) Ileum (d) Pubis

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b) and (d)

SECTION - B

1) Uric acid is an excretory product of

(a) Cockroach
(b) Sparrow
(c) Terrestrial reptiles
(d) Marine fishes

(1) (a) and (d)

(2) (b) and (d)
(3) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) (a), (c) and (d)

2) Excretory function in prawns is performed by :

(1) Coxal glands

(2) Green glands
(3) Malpighian tubules
(4) Flame cells

3) Which of the following epithelium is not found in nephron ?

(1) Simple squamous epithelium

(2) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(3) Brush bordered epithelium
(4) Transitional epithelium

4) Glucose and amino acids in the filtrate are reabsorbed by tubular epithelial cells by :

(1) Active transport

(2) Passive transport
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Osmosis

5) The presence of ketone bodies in urine are indicative of :

(1) Diabetes insipidus

(2) Diabetes mellitus
(3) Starvation
(4) Both (2) and (3)

6) Kidney stone is formed of :

(1) Cholesterol
(2) Calcium oxalates
(3) Urea
(4) Sodium bicarbonates

7) Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given
below :

Column - II
Column - I (Part of
(Function) Excretory
System)

a. Ultrafiltration i. Henle's loop

Concentration
b. ii. Ureter
of urine

Transport of
c. iii. Urinary bladder
urine

Storage of Malpighian
d. iv.
urine corpuscle

Proximal
v.
convoluted tubule
(1) a - iv, b - v, c - ii, d - iii
(2) a - iv, b - i, c - ii, d - iii
(3) a - v, b - iv, c - i, d - ii
(4) a - v, b - iv, c - i, d - iii

8) Read the given statements about nephrons and choose the correct option.
Statement-I : A minute vessel of capillary runs parallel to Henle's loop is vasa recta.
Statement-II : Vasa recta is U-shaped and highly reduced in cortical nephron.

(1) Both Statements are correct.

(2) Only Statement-I is correct.
(3) Only Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statements are incorrect.

9) Which of the following are involved in the formation of acetabulum?

(a) Ilium
(b) Ischium
(c) Pubis

(1) a and b only

(2) b and c only
(3) a and c only
(4) a, b and c

10) In the given diagram, identify(A), (B), (C) and (D).

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) Clavicle Scapula Radius Ulna

(2) Scapula Clavicle Radius Ulna

(3) Clavicle Scapula Ulna Radius

(4) Scapula Clavicle Ulna Radius

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) Assertion : Synovial joints allows considerable movement which helps in locomotion and many
other movements.
Reason : Synovial joints are characterised by the presence of a fluid filled synovial cavity between
the articulating surfaces of the two bones.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect.

12) Read the following statements (A to D) and select the one option that contains both correct
statements.
A. Z-line is present in the centre of the light band.
B. Thin filaments are firmly attached to the M-line.
C. The central part of thick filaments, not overlapped by thin filaments is called Z-band.
D. Light band contains only thin filaments.

(1) A and D
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) B and D

13) Statement - I : Sarcoplasmic reticulum of the muscle fibres is the store house of calcium ions.
Statement - II : Skeletal muscle fibre is a syncitium as the sarcoplasm contains many nuclei.

(1) Both statement-I and II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

14) The globular head of the myosin filament has active site/s for binding to.
(i) ATP
(ii) Active site for actin filament
(iii) Calcium

(1) Only i
(2) Only i and ii
(3) Only ii and iii
(4) i, ii and iii

15) Which of the following is not a constituent of axial skeleton?

(1) Skull
(2) Patella
(3) Ribs
(4) Sternum
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION - A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 3 2 3 1 3 1 2 4 2 1 1 1 3 2 4 1 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 4 3 4 4 1 3 4 1 2 4 1 3 4 2 3

SECTION - B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 1 3 2 1 4 4 2 1 3 1 3 3 1 4 2

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 4 4 4 1 3 3 2 2 4 1 2 3 2 3 3 2 3 3 3 3
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 3 2 4 4 3 3 3 2 2 4 3 2 2 3

SECTION - B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 4 4 2 4 2 4 4 4 3 3 2 1 4 1 1

BOTANY

SECTION - A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 2 4 4 2 4 4 2 2 3 3 1 4 3 4 2 4 1 4 4 2
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 1 4 3 1 2 4 2 1 3 1 1 1 3 4

SECTION - B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 3 2 3 2 4 2 1 4 4 2 2 3 1 3

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION - A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 3 3 1 3 4 3 4 4 3 2 2 1 4 4 2 1 1 2 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 3 1 1 2 3 1 1 1 1 3 1 3 3 1 4

SECTION - B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 3 2 4 1 4 2 2 1 4 1 1 1 1 2 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) If the liquid is incompressible then mass of liquid entering through left end, should be equal
to mass of liquid coming out from the right end.

2)

When two bubbles coalesce then total number of molecules of air will remain same and
temperature will also remain constant
so n1 + n2 = n ⇒ P1V1 + P2V2 = PV

3) When angle of contact ³ 90° then liquid doesn't wet solid.

4)

5) Relative density of solid =

Relative density of liquid =

6) The net force on a falling rain drop

F = mg – FV
⇒ F = mg – 6πηrv (for small drop)
This force is directed downwards due to which v increases and at a definite state 6πηrv =
mg
⇒F=0
∴ Acceleration a = 0
Then velocity becomes constant.

7) (BS)1 = (BS)2
F2 = 4F

8) Pat bottom = hρg = 3 × 105 N/m2

P1 = Pressure due to liquid column
= 3 × 105 – 1 × 105 = 2 × 105

9)

∵
0.001 × 2 × 109 = ΔP ⇒ ΔP = 2 × 106 N/m2

10) As the block move up with the fall of coin, l decreases, similarly h will also decrease
because when the coin is in water, it displaces water equal to its our volume only.

11)

(P2 – P1) = 4800 Pa

So force upwards f = (P2 – P1) A

= 4800 × 10
= 48000 N

12)
13)

14) The surface tension of a liquid decreases with the increase of temperature.

15)
h1 = 15 cm
h2 = 30
(Pressure)P = (pressure)Q
4 × g × 5 + (20 –x) × 1 × g = (20 + x) × 1 × g
⇒ 20 + 20 – x = 20 + x
x = 10 cm

16) Volume of the body = = 02 m3

Weight of water displaced = 0.2 × 103 × g = 200 kg – wt
Mass of water displaced = 200 kg
Hence, additional mass which can be added to a body
So that body will sink = 200 – 120 = 80 kg

17)
⇒ R increases and P decreases

18) coefficient of viscosity

19) Initially speed is zero, then increases & after some time it becomes constant.
Acceleration (slope of v/t curve) of ball first decreases and after some time it becomes zero.
20) Viscosity of liquid decreases with increase of temp.

21)

The force of surface tension acting on the slider of length l in upward direction, balances the
force due to the weight acting in downward direction.

F = 2Tl = W

2T(0.3) = 1.5 × 10–2

= 0.025 N/m

22)

23) Inside the satellite the bodies are in the state of weightlessness. So the liquid will rise upto
the top of the tube.

24)
Force required to lit the ring from the water surface,
F = weight of ring + Force of surface tension
= mg + 2 × 2 R×T
= mg + 4 TR.

25) y1 = 10sin (8πt + π/3)

26) T =

n=

27) X= A sin ωt A/2 = A sin ωt

time taken to reach from x = 0 to

average velocity =

= 12 cm/s

28)

....(1)

....(2)
Eq (2) / Eq (1)

m = 3.5 kg

29)
So,

30)

X = 0 to x =
T1 =

x= to x =

T2 =

T2 =
T1 = 2T2

31)

. At A, area is more, hence velocity is less, hence more pressure.

32) Work done = surface tension × change in area

Since volume will remain equal
Let us assume radius of new drop = r each

W = T . ΔA = T[n × πr2 – 4πR2] =

35) For simple harmonic motion, u =

When x = , u =

As ω= ,

∴ u=

or u=

36) A1v1 = A2v2

0.02 × 2 = 0.01 v2 ⇒ v2 = 4 m/s
Use Bernaullie theorem,

P+
P = 4 × 104 – 6 × 103 = 3.4 × 104 N/m2

37)
38) In ductile materials, yield point exist while in Brittle material, failure would occur without
yielding.

39)

MOE = = tan 60° = Pa

40)

Tension in wire = T =

T= = 16 N

breaking stress S = ⇒r=

= = 4 × 10–5 m

41)

42) By conservation of volume

⇒ r=
Radius of big drop R' = n1/3.r = 21/3.R

44)

Conceptual

45) ⇒ (∵ D = diameter)
 ⇒

46) Since the plate is moved with the constant velocity v = 2 cm/s, the velocity gradient will be

= 10 per s

= 10 × 100 × 10 = 104 dynes

= 104 × 10–5 = 0.1 N ( dyne = 10–5 N)

47) Given 4v2 = 25 – x2

Differentiating with respect to t on both sides,

8va = –2xv ⇒ a = –
Motion is simple harmonic :

So, ω2 = and T = 2π = 4π

48) Nmax = aw = 30
amn = aw2 = 60

w=

=2
T = π sec.

CHEMISTRY

52)

C6H6(ℓ) + O2(g) → 6CO2(g) + 3H2O(ℓ) ; ΔH = –3264.4 kJ

1 mole C6H6 = 78g C6H6 undergoes combustion then ΔH = – 3264.4 kJ
∴ when 7.8g C6H6 undergoes combustion

= 326.44 kJ

58)

Acidic strength α ΔHn

59)

∆H – ∆E = ∆ng RT
∆ng = 3 – (1 + 5) = –3
∆H – ∆E = –3RT

60)

Internal energy of an ideal Gas depends on temperature.

61)

For a reaction Hf + NaOH → Naf + H2O ;

ΔH = –16.7 K cal,
This is because of hydration of f¯ ion. (2) Option correct

69)

W=

=
W = – 46.06 L-atm
= –4665.8 J
ΔU = q + w
⇒ ΔU = q – 4665.8 q = 5065.8 J

73)

76) MF and FG is same and arrangement of

atoms/group around PVFG is also same so they are identical.

88)

Apply
ΔHr = ∑B.ER – ∑B.EP

94)

According to CIP the first priority is given to atomic no. So – OCH3 is the highest priority.

96)

Conceptual
BOTANY

110)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 93-94

113) NCERT (XIth) Pg. #93

114) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 86, 87

115) NCERT XI, Pg # 93, 94

116) NCERT XI, Pg # 85

117)

NCERT XI Pg. No.#87

119)

NCERT Page No. 84, 85

120) NCERT Page No. 74

121) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 97

122)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 74

123) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 90

124)

NCERT XI Page # 86

125) NCERT XI (H) Pg.# 85

126) NCERT–Eng.–Pg. # 92

127) NCERT XI, Pg# 89

 128) NCERT XI Pg # 87
ii, iii v & vi are correct.

130) NCERT Pg. # 90, 92, 93

133) NCERT Pg # 90, Fig. 6.5(c)

134) NCERT Pg. # 90, Fig.-6.5

138)

NCERT Page No. 89

143) NCERT-XI, Page # 94, Fig. 6.8(a)

147) NCERT Page No-91.

149)

Module page 73

ZOOLOGY

151) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 209

152) NCERT Pg. # 208

153)

NCERT PAGE NO : 209

154) NCERT-XI, Page No. # 209

155) NCERT PG NO : 213

156) NCERT – XI, Pg no.- 213

157) NCERT – XI, Pg no.- 213, 214

158) NCERT – XI, Pg no.- 211

159) NCERT – XI, Pg no.- 209

160) NCERT – XI, Pg no.- 213, 214, 215

161) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 212, 213

162) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 206, 207

163) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 207, 208

164) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 207, 208

165)

Allen module

166)

NCERT XI Page # 217, 218

167) NCERT page- 218

168)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 226

169) NCERT Pg. No: 227

170) NCERT Pg. # 218

171) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 221

172)

NCERT Pg. No. 222, 223

173) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 213, 214

174)

Allen module
175) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 221, 222

176)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 223

177) NCERT Pg. No: 218

178) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 227

179) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 225

180) NCERT Page No.224

181) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 225

182) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 225

183)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 224

184)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 212

185) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 226

186) NCERT Page no 206

187) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 206

188) Allen module

189) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 209

190) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 213

191)

NCERT XI Pg.# 214

192) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 206, 208, 211

193) NCERT Pg. # 208

194) NCERT Pg No - 226

195)

NCERT Pg no : 226

196) NCERT Pg # 227

197)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 220

198)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 219

199) NCERT Pg. No. 221

200)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 224, 226