Test Date: 20/08/2023 FS_G2

Code-A

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Time : 3 Hrs TERM EXAM for First Step JEE (Advanced)-2023-25 MM : 180
Test – 1A (Paper - 1)_Actual Pattern-2021

Topics covered :
Physics : Physical World, Units and Measurement, Motion in a Straight Line, Motion in a Plane,
Laws of Motion
Chemistry : Structure of Atom, Some Basic concept in Chemistry, Classification of Elements and
Periodicity, Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure, States of Matter: Gases and
Liquids
Mathematics : Basics of Mathematics, Relations and Functions (Including Transformation of
Graphs), Trigonometric Functions-I, Principle of Mathematical Induction, Quadratic
Equations, Complex Numbers-I, Linear Inequalities

General Instructions:
1. Read each question carefully.
2. It is mandatory to use blue/black ballpoint pen to darken the appropriate circle in the answer sheet.
3. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
4. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
5. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on answer sheet.
6. Student cannot use log table and calculator or any other material in the examination hall.
7. Before attempting the question paper, student should ensure that the test paper contains all pages
and no page is missing.
8. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, candidate should check that Roll No., Centre
Code and Date of Birth have been filled and marked correctly.
9. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the answer sheet is to be returned to the
invigilator.
10. Pattern of the questions are as under:
(i) The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part has
4 sections.
(ii) Section-1 : This section contains 4 Multiple choice questions which have ONLY ONE correct
answer. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
(iii) Section-2 : This section contains 3 question stems. There are TWO (02) questions corresponding
to each question stem. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical
value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
Each question carries +2 marks for correct answer and there is no negative marking.
(iv) Section-3 : This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), for its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct. Each
question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –2 marks for wrong answer. Partial marks +3
If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen. +2 If three or more options
are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which are correct. +1 if two or more options
are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct option.
(v) Section-4: This section contains 3 questions. The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE
INTEGER. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and there is no negative marking.

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Test-1A_Paper-1 (Code-A)_G2 Term Exam for First Step JEE (Advanced)-2023-25

PART – I : PHYSICS
SECTION - 1
Only One Option Correct Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
1. The dimensional formula of a physical quantity x is [M1L–2T–3]. The errors in measuring the quantities
1 1
M, L and T are 1%, % and % . The maximum percentage of error that occurs in the quantity x is
2 3
(A) 2.5% (B) 3%
(C) 3.5% (D) 4%
2. If 2.8 × 10–4 is added to 1.2 × 10–3 giving due regard to significant figures, the result will be
(A) 1.5 × 10–3 (B) 1.48 × 10–3
(C) 1.4 × 10–3 (D) 1.50 × 10–3
3. A body A is thrown up vertically from the ground with a velocity v0 and another body B is simultaneously
dropped from a height 100 m. They collide at a height of 50 m. Then, v0 is equal to
(A) 2000 m/s (B) 1000 m/s

1
(C) 1000 m/s (D) 500 m/s
2
4. A projectile is fired with a velocity v0 at an angle of 90° with an inclined plane (having angle of inclination θ
with the horizontal). Vertical displacement of projectile when it strikes the incline for first time is

2v 02 2v 02
(A) sec θ (B) sec 2 θ
g g

2v 02 2v 02
(C) tan θ (D) tan2 θ
g g

SECTION - 2
Numerical Value Type
This section contains 3 question stems. There are TWO (02) questions corresponding to each question stem.
The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than two decimal
places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.

Question stem for Q. Nos. 5 and 6

A boy is at point A on the bank of a still lake of width 80 m. He wants to reach the point B on the other side of
lake in minimum time. The boy can swim at speed of 3 m/s and can run at speed of 4 m/s on ground.

5. The minimum time (in s) to reach point B is approximately _____. (Answer up to nearest integer)
6. The distance covered by the boy to reach point B in minimum time is 10x m. Value of x is _____.

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Question stem for Q. Nos. 7 and 8

A particle is moving in a straight line and retardation on the particle becomes half after every second abruptly.
The initial velocity of particle is 10 m/s and initial retardation is 6 m/s2.
x
7. Time taken till the particle comes to rest is s. Value of x is _____.
3

y
8. Total distance covered by particle till it comes to rest is m. Value of y is _____.
6
Question stem for Q. Nos. 9 and 10
In the arrangement shown, two forces F1 = 2t N and F2 = t N are acting on the block of mass 0.5 kg, where t is
in seconds. (g = 10 m/s2)

9. The block will leave contact with the ground at time instant equal to _____ s.
10. Value of friction at t = 3 s is _____ N.

SECTION - 3
One or More Options Correct Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct.

11. A point P moves in counter-clockwise direction on a circular path as shown in the figure. The movement
of P is such that it sweeps out a length s = t3 + 5, where s is in metres and t is in seconds. The radius of
the path is 20 m. The net accelerations of P when t = 2 s is/are

(A) 14 m/s2
(B) 13 m/s2
(C) Tangential
(D) Radial
12. A particle starts performing circular motion in a circle of radius 1 m at t = 0. Its speed v varies with time t
as, v = 4t m/s, where t is in seconds. If ar and at are the radial and tangential acceleration of the particle
respectively, then
(A) at = 1 m/s2
(B) at = 4 m/s2
(C) ar = 16 m/s2 at t = 1 s
1
(D) At t = s, its velocity vector makes an angle of 45° with acceleration vector
2
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Test-1A_Paper-1 (Code-A)_G2 Term Exam for First Step JEE (Advanced)-2023-25

13. Two stones are thrown vertically upwards simultaneously from the same point on the ground with velocities
u1 = 40 m/s and u2 = 30 m/s. Which of the following curve(s) represent(s) correct variation of shown
parameters with time t ? (Assume that stone does not bounce back after collision with ground)
(y1 – y2) = relative separation between stones
(v1 – v2) = relative velocity of two stones
(a1 – a2) = relative acceleration of two stones

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

14. Assume that coefficient of viscosity (η) of a gas depends on the mass (m), effective diameter (D) and
mean speed of molecules (v). Then
(A) Dimensions of η is [ML–1T–1]
(B) Dimensions of η is [ML–2T–1]

mv
(C) η ∝
D2

mv 2
(D) η ∝
D
15. A block of mass m is placed over rough plank of mass 2m and length l = 1 m and complete system is
placed over smooth horizontal surface as shown in figure. If block is given velocity v0 = 2 m/s, then choose
the correct option(s).

(A) Velocity of block at the time of leaving plank is 1 m/s

1
(B) Velocity of plank at the time block leaves it is m/s
3

4
(C) Velocity of block at the time of leaving plank is m/s
3

2
(D) Block will leave the plank after time s
3

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Term Exam for First Step JEE (Advanced)-2023-25 Test-1A_Paper-1 (Code-A)_G2

16. Consider the situation shown in diagram, if T is the tension in the string and f be the friction force between
2 kg and 3 kg block, then

5
(A) Acceleration of 1 kg block will be m/s2
3
(B) f = 5 N
(C) f = 15 N

25
(D) T = N
3

SECTION - 4

Non-Negative Integer Type

This section contains THREE (03) questions. The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.

17. Two forces F1 and F2 are acting on a body. One force is double that of the other force and the resultant is

 1
equal to the greater force. Then the angle between the two forces is cos –1  –  . Value of n, is ____.
 n

18. A car is moving along a straight horizontal road with a speed v0. If the coefficient of friction between the

v 02
tyres and the road is µ, the shortest distance in which the car can be stopped is . Value of n, is ____.
nµg

19. The ratio of the weight of a man in a stationary lift and when it is moving downward with uniform
n
acceleration a is 3 : 2. The value of a is g. Value of n, is ____. (g : Acceleration due to gravity of the
3
earth)

PART – II : CHEMISTRY
SECTION - 1
Only One Option Correct Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.

20. In a sample of H-atoms, initially electrons are present in 5th excited state. On de-excitation to ground state
the number of different wavelengths observed in infrared region is
(A) 5 (B) 6
(C) 4 (D) 3

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Test-1A_Paper-1 (Code-A)_G2 Term Exam for First Step JEE (Advanced)-2023-25

21. The graph of radial distribution function (ψ 2

(r ) ⋅ 4πr 2 ) versus radial distance (r) for an orbital of a

unielectronic species is drawn as:

The orbital can be

(A) 1s (B) 2p
(C) 3s (D) 3p
22. The 2nd ionisation potentials of the given species vary in the order.
(A) Mg < Na < Si < Al (B) Mg < Si < Al < Na
(C) Mg < Al < Si < Na (D) Na < Al < Mg < Si
23. Among the given oxides and oxoacids of nitrogen, select the species which has the greatest ONO bond
angle.

(A) NO2+ (B) NO2

(C) HNO3 (D) HNO2

SECTION - 2

Numerical Value Type

This section contains 3 question stems. There are TWO (02) questions corresponding to each question stem.
The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than two decimal
places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.

Question stem for Q. Nos. 24 and 25

According to Graham's law of under identical condition rate of diffusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the

r1 P1 M2 r P M2
square root of its molar mass and directly proportional to pressure of gas = and mix = mix .
r2 P2 M1 r2 P2 Mavg

24. H2 gas diffuses four times as rapidly as mixture of C2H4 and CO2. The molar ratio of C2H4 and CO2 in the
mixture is t : 1, find out t.
25. Under identical condition of P and T, 4 L of gaseous mixture (H2 + CH4) effuses through a hole in 5 minute
whereas 4 L of a gas X of molecular mass 36 takes 10 minute to effuse through same hole then the molar
ratio of H2 : CH4 in mixture is t : 1, find out t.
Question stem for Q. Nos. 26 and 27
When an electron is added to a neutral gaseous atom energy is released. This is called electron affinity which
is defined as the amount of energy released when an electron is added to an isolated gaseous atom is called
electron affinity. This process is represented as

atom (g) + electron → anion (g) + energy

The magnitude of electron affinity measures the ability of an atom to hold an additional electron.

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Term Exam for First Step JEE (Advanced)-2023-25 Test-1A_Paper-1 (Code-A)_G2

26. How many of the following process is/are exothermic?

(i) P + e – → P – (ii) O + e – → O – (iii) Li + e – → Li– (iv) N + e – → N–

27. The number of correct order(s) regarding electron affinity
(i) N > P (ii) Li > Na (iii) Be > Li (iv) N > C
Question stem for Q. Nos. 28 and 29
According to Bohr’s atomic model the electrons move around the nucleus in a circular orbit.
h
The electrons can move only in that orbit in which angular momentum of electrons is integral multiple of .
2π

nh
i.e., mvr =
2π
Where n = principal quantum number
r = radius of orbit
v = velocity of electron
h = Planck’s constant

z2
The energy of orbit in which electron is moving is given by En = −13.6 eV / atom
n2
28. The energy of an electron in the first Bohr’s orbit of hydrogen atom is –13.6 eV. The possible energy value
for B4+ for the first excited state of electron is (–t) eV. Find out t. (Closest integer)
29. The radius of orbit (n = n0) for Be3+ is the same as that of the first Bohr’s orbit of hydrogen atom, find
out n0.

SECTION - 3
One or More Options Correct Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct.

30. Choose incorrect order(s) regarding property given in the bracket

(A) 4s < 4p (energy in hydrogen) (B) 5p > 5d (number of degenerate orbital)
(C) 3dxy > 4dxy (penetration power) (D) 3s > 4s (number of nodal plane)

 1 1
31. If there were three possible values for spin quantum number  + , 0, −  rather than two. Which of the
 2 2
followings is/are correct regarding a hypothetical periodic table based on this condition?
(A) First period would have only 2 vertical columns
(B) Second period would have 12 elements
(C) Periodic table would contain 27 groups
(D) Third period would have 12 elements
32. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

λm  (m + 1)2   (n + 1)2 − 1 
(A) The ratio of wavelength mth and nth line of Lyman series is =  
λn  (n + 1)2   (m + 1)2 − 1

(B) Kinetic energy of emitted electrons during photoelectric effect is lower than the energy of incident light
(C) Only Lyman series is observed in emission and absorption spectrum both for unielectronic species

(D) The scattering of α-particles involves perfectly elastic collisions

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Test-1A_Paper-1 (Code-A)_G2 Term Exam for First Step JEE (Advanced)-2023-25

33. Which of the following graph(s) is/are correct if v, KE and E are the velocity, kinetic energy and total energy
of electron in nth orbit of a Bohr atom respectively?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

34. Which of the following is/are correct?

8a
(A) TC =
27Rb
(B) b(NH3) < b(N2)
(C) CH2Cl2 < CHCl3 (Dipole moment)

(D) (Bond angle)

35. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is –13.6 eV. Consider an electronic state ψ of He+ whose
energy, azimuthal quantum number and magnetic quantum number are –3.4 eV, 2 and 0, respectively.
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) true for the state ψ?
(A) It is a 4d state
(B) The nuclear charge experienced by the electron in this state is less than 2e, where e is the magnitude
of the electronic charge
(C) It has 2 angular nodes
(D) It has 3 radial nodes

SECTION - 4

Non-Negative Integer Type

This section contains THREE (03) questions. The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.

36. Find the quantum number (n) of excited state of electrons in He+ ion which on transition to ground state
emit photon of wavelength 30.4 nm (RH = 1.097 × 107 m–1).
37. Two flasks of equal volume connected by a narrow tube of negligible volume are at 27°C and contain Cl2
at 1 atm pressure and Cl2O at 1.5 atm respectively. The two gases were allowed to mix and heated to
react as given below Cl2O → Cl2 + O2. After the reaction one vessel was kept in a water bath maintained
at 27°C while the other vessel was kept in another water bath maintained at 52°C. Calculate the pressure
in both the vessels at this temperature. If pressure is p° (atm.). Find out 10p°. (Closest integer)
38. The work function (φ) of some metals is listed below. The number of metals which will show photoelectric
effect when light of 300 nm wavelength falls on the metal is

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Term Exam for First Step JEE (Advanced)-2023-25 Test-1A_Paper-1 (Code-A)_G2

PART – III : MATHEMATICS

SECTION - 1
Only One Option Correct Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
39. The solution set of the inequality |2x – 5| < 1 is
(A) [2, 3] (B) (–∞, –2) ∪ [3, ∞)
(C) (–∞, 2] ∪ [3, ∞) (D) (2, 3)
40. If the roots of the equation x2 – ax + a2 – 1 = 0 are real and less than 2, then

 −2 2 
(A) a ∈  −2 3, 2 3  (B) a ∈  , 
   3 3

(
(C) a ∈ −∞, − 2 3  ∪ 2 3, ∞
  ) 
(D) a ∈  −∞,

−2   2
∪
3  3 

,∞ 

41. If A and B are non-null sets, then the value of A – B is

(A) A ∪ ( A ∩ B ) (B) B – A

(C) A − ( A ∩ B ) (D) A ∩ B

42. Let the sets be A = {x : x is a real root of equation (x2 – 5x + 6) ⋅ (x2 – 12x + 35) = 0} and B = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5},
then the number of ordered pairs in (A × B) ∩ (B × A) is
(A) 20 (B) 15
(C) 10 (D) 9

SECTION - 2

Numerical Value Type

This section contains 3 question stems. There are TWO (02) questions corresponding to each question stem.
The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than two decimal
places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.

Question stem for Q. Nos. 43 and 44

Consider the equations |x| + |y| = p and ||x| – |y|| = q; where p, q are fixed positive real numbers.
43. If p < q then the number of ordered pair(s) of (x, y) satisfying the given equations is
44. The number of ordered pair(s) of (x, y) such that x⋅y < 0 (where p > q) is
Question stem for Q. Nos. 45 and 46
Given A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {3, 4}, C = {4, 5, 6}
45. n ( A ∪ (B ∪ C )) equals

46. n(( A × B ) ∩ (B × C )) equals

Question stem for Q. Nos. 47 and 48
1
We have sin x cos y = and 3 tan x = 4 tan y
4
a
47. The value of sin( x + y ) is equal to (where a and b are coprime and a, b ∈ N), then a + b equals
b

b
48. The value of sin( x − y ) is equal to , (where a and b are coprime and a, b ∈ N) then a – b equals
a

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Test-1A_Paper-1 (Code-A)_G2 Term Exam for First Step JEE (Advanced)-2023-25

SECTION - 3
One or More Options Correct Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct.

=
49. The relation R {( x, y ) | x, y ∈ N=
, x + 2y 5} , then
(A) Domain = {1, 3} (B) Range = {1, 2}
(C) Domain = {1, 2} (D) Range = {2, 3}
64 1
50. Consider a complex number z satisfying z2 – z – |z|2 + 5
= 0 and Re( z ) ≠ , then
|z| 2

1
(A) | z | = (B) z = z
2
0
(C) z + z = (D) arg(z) = 0
51. Consider two sets A and B such that A ∪ (B ∩ {1, 2, 3}) = {2, 3, 4, 5}, then which of the following
is/are correct?
(A) 1 ∈ A ∪ B (B) 1 ∈ A′ ∩ B′
(C) Minimum value of n(A) is 2 (D) Minimum value of n(B) is 2
tan2 θ
52. is equal to
(1 + sec θ)2
1 − cos θ cos θ − 1
(A) (B)
1 + cos θ cos θ + 1
sec θ − 1 1 − sec θ
(C) (D)
sec θ + 1 1 + sec θ
53. If α and β are the roots of the equation x2 + kx + 9 = 0 such that α + 2β = 2αβ2, then possible value(s) of
[k] is/are (where [·] denotes the greatest integer function)
(A) 12 (B) –12
(C) 13 (D) –13
54. A pack of coffee powder contains a mixture of ‘x’ gram of coffee and ‘y’ gram of choco. The amount of
coffee is greater than that of choco and each pack weight is at least 10 gram. Which of the following
inequalities describe the given condition?
(A) x < y (B) x + y ≥ 10

(C) x + y ≤ 10 (D) x > y

SECTION - 4
Non-Negative Integer Type
This section contains THREE (03) questions. The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.

55. If Z = (6 + 5i)2, then Re(Z ) − Im(Z ) is equal to _____.

56. Consider a set A = {1, 2, 3, 4, ..., 9}. If (x, y) ∈ A × A, then the number of ordered pair(s) (x, y) satisfying
sinx > siny is _____.
57. The value of tan10º tan80º + tan20º tan70º + tan30º tan60º + tan 40º tan50º is _____.

  

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