Yakeen NEET 2.

0 (Legend) (2025)

SHORT PRACTICE TEST - 02

DURATION:: 60
DURATION 90Minutes
Minutes DATE : 07/07/2024 M.MARKS : 192

Topics Covered
Physics: Unit and measurement (complete) Motion in a straight line up to acceleration.
Chemistry: Solutions (Complete Chapter) Redox Reaction (Complete Chapter) State of Matter (Which is in the
Syllabus).
Botany: Cell Cycle and Cell Division (Full chapter).
Zoology: Structural Organization in Animals (Complete Chapter).

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 60 minutes duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 48 questions. The maximum marks are 192.
4. All questions are compulsory.
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic
device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
9. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
OMR Instructions:
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2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the bubbles
completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software.
3. Never use pencils to mark your answers.
4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process.
5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the specified area may
create problems during the evaluation.
6. Multiple markings will be treated as invalid responses.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).

Name of the Student (In CAPITALS) : _____________________________________________

Roll Number : _____________________________________________________________________________________________

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Candidate’s Signature : _______________________________ Invigilator’s Signature _____________________

 [Short Practice Test-02 | Yakeen NEET 2.0 (Legend) (2025) | 07/07/2024]
Unit and Measurement (Complete); Motion in a Straight Line up to Acceleration

SECTION-(I) (PHYSICS)
1. Which of the following physical quantities has 7. The numerical ratio of displacement to the
derived unit? distance covered is always:
(1) Acceleration (2) Mass (1) < 1 (2) = 1
(3) Current (4) Amount of substances (3) 1 (4)  1

2. In a new system of units, unit of mass is x kg, unit 8. What are the dimensions of the change in
of length is y metre and unit of time is z second. velocity?
Now if 1 newton = F new units then F = (1) [M0L0T0] (2) [LT–1]
z z2 (3) [MLT–1] (4) [LT–2]
(1) (2)
xy xy
9. A force F is given by F = at + bt2, where t is time.
z z
(3) (4) What are the dimensions of a and b?
xy 2 x2 y (1) MLT–3 and ML2T–4
(2) MLT–3 and MLT–4
3. A body moves along curved path of a quarter (3) MLT–1 and MLT0
circle. The ratio of magnitude of displacement to (4) MLT–4 and MLT1
distance is:
  10. In an experiment four quantities a, b, c and d are
(1) (2)
2 2 2 measured with percentage error 1%, 2%, 3% and
2 2 3 4% respectively. A quantity P is calculated as
(3) (4)
 2 2 a3b2
follows: P  , then % error in P is:
cd
4. A car moves from x to y with a uniform speed vu (1) 10%
and returns to y with a uniform speed vd. The (2) 7%
average speed for this round trip is: (3) 4%
v v (4) 14%
(1) u d
2
11. In a vernier calipers, (N + 1) divisions of vernier
2vu vd
(2) scale coincide with N divisions of main scale. If
vd  vu
1 MSD represents 0.1 mm, the vernier constant
(3) vu vd (in cm) is:
vd  vu 1 1
(4) (1) (2)
vd  vu 10 N 100 ( N  1)
(3) 100 N (4) 10(N + 1)
5. Choose the correct statement.
(1) Average velocity is a vector quantity. 12. Match List-I with List-II.
(2) Average speed does not have direction. List-I List-II
(3) Distance covered cannot be less than the
(A) Angular momentum (I) [ML2T–2]
magnitude of displacement.
(B) Torque (II) [ML–2T–2]
(4) All of these
(C) Stress (III) [ML2T–1]
(D) Pressure gradient (IV) [ML–1T–2]
6. The position of a body moving in a straight line is
x = (2t2 + 2t + 9), where x is in metre and t is in Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
 dx 
second. The velocity v  v   of the body at (1) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
 dt 
t = 1 s is: (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(1) 6 m/s (2) 8 m/s (3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3) 4 m/s (4) 2 m/s (4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
 [Short Practice Test-02 | Yakeen NEET 2.0 (Legend) (2025) | 07/07/2024]
Solutions, (Complete Chapter), Redox Reaction, (Complete Chapter), State of Matter, (Which is in the Syllabus)

SECTION-(II) CHEMISTRY
13. Which one can act as oxidising and reducing agent 19. In one molal solution that contains 0.5 mole of a
both? solute, there is;
(1) HNO2 (2) H2O2 (1) 1000 g of solvent
(3) H2SO3 (4) All of these (2) 500 mL of solvent
(3) 500 g of solvent
14. In the reaction (4) 100 mL of solvent
C2 O 42  MnO 4  H   Mn 2  CO 2  H 2 O
20. Given below are two statement: one is labelled as
the reductant is;
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
(1) C 2 O 24 (2) MnO 4 Assertion A: Boiling point of 1 m Al2(SO4)3 is
(3) Mn2+ (4) H+ greater than that of 1 m NaCl.
Reason R: Van’t Hoff factor of Al2(SO4)3 is
15. The oxidation numbers of in CH4, CH3Cl, CH2Cl2, lower than that of NaCl.
CHCl3 and CCl4 are respectively; In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) +4, +2, 0, –2, –4 correct answer from the options given below:
(2) +2, +4, 0, –4, –2 (1) A is true but R is false.
(3) –4, –2, 0, +2, +4 (2) A is false but R is true.
(4) –2, –4, 0, +4, +2 (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
16. The equivalent mass of potassium permanganate in (4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
acidic medium is; explanation of A.
Molar mass Molar mass
(1) (2)
5 3 21. A gas at 298 K is shifted from a vessel of 250 cm3
Molar mass capacity to that of 1 L capacity. The pressure of the
(3) (4) Molar mass itself gas will;
2
(1) become double.
17. Match List-I with List-II. (2) becomes four times.
List-I List-II (3) decrease to half of the original value.
(4) decrease to one-fourth of the original value.
(Species) (oxidation states of central
atom) 22. The vapour pressure of a pure liquid solvent (X) is
decreased to 0.60 atm from 0.80 atm on addition
(A) Cr2 O 24  (I) +3
of a non-volatile substance (Y). The mole fraction
of (Y) in the solution is;
(B) MnO 4 (II) +5
(1) 0.20 (2) 0.25
(3) 0.50 (4) 0.75
(C) VO3 (III) +6
23. Amongst the following, which one is a colligative
(D) FeF63 (IV) +7
property?
(1) Surface tension
Choose the correct answer from the options given (2) Viscosity
below: (3) Osmotic pressure
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (4) Optical activity
(2) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
24. In a liquid mixture of pure components of A and
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
B, solution showing positive deviation when;
(1) A–B interactions are stronger than A–A and
18. The molal elevation constant is the ratio of the B–B interactions
elevation in boiling point to; (2) A–B interactions are weaker than A–A and
(1) molarity. B–B interactions
(2) molality. (3) V mix < 0, S mix > 0
(3) mole fraction of solute.
(4) V mix = 0, S mix > 0
(4) mole fraction of solvent.
 [Short Practice Test-02 | Yakeen NEET 2.0 (Legend) (2025) | 07/07/2024]
Cell Cycle and Cell Division

SECTION-(III) BOTANY
25. Which of the following structures of chromosomes 31. Select the incorrect option w.r.t cytokinesis.
provide attachment sites to spindle fibres during (1) In an animal cell, cytokinesis is achieved by
cell division? cell furrow formation.
(1) Centromere (2) Chromatid (2) In plant cells, cytokinesis is achieved by cell
(3) Kinetochores (4) Secondary constriction
plate formation.
26. Which of the following options gives the correct (3) Cytokinesis marks the end of cell division.
sequence of events during prophase I of meiosis? (4) Karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis
(1) Leptotene → Pachytene → Diplotene → results in an uninucleate condition.
Zygotene → Diakinesis
(2) Pachytene → Diplotene → Diakinesis →
32. Match List-I with List-II.
Leptotene → Zygotene
(3) Zygotene → Pachytene → Leptotene List-I List-II
Diplotene → Diakinesis (A) Anaphase-I (I) Phase between two
(4) Leptotene → Zygotene → Pachytene → successive M phases
Diplotene → Diakinesis (B) Metaphase-I (II) Separation of homologous
chromosomes
27. Metaphase starts when;
(1) condensation of chromatin material initiates. (C) Metaphase-II (III) Chromosomes align at the
(2) complete disintegration of the nuclear equator
envelope takes place. (D) Interphase (IV) Bivalent chromosomes
(3) splitting of centromeres occurs.
align on the equatorial
(4) there is exchange of genetic material between
plate
non sister chromatids of homologous
chromosomes. Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
28. Which of the following is/are key event(s) of (1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
telophase?
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
A. Nucleolus, Golgi complex and endoplasmic
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
reticulum reform.
B. Chromatids move to opposite poles. (4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
C. Chromosomes cluster at opposite poles and
their identity is lost as discrete elements. 33. Given below are two statements:
D. Nuclear envelope develops around the
Statement I: M phase is the most dramatic period
chromosome clusters at each pole forming
two daughter nuclei. of the cell cycle.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the Statement II: Prophase is the first stage of
options given below. interphase.
(1) A and B only (2) B only In the light of the above statements, choose the
(3) A, C and D only (4) B, C and D only
most appropriate answer from the options given
below.
29. During which phase of prophase-I synapsis
occurs? (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(1) Pachytene (2) Leptotene incorrect.
(3) Zygotene (4) Diplotene (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct.
30. Select odd one out w.r.t interkinesis. (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(1) Centrioles duplicate
correct.
(2) DNA replication occurs
(3) Short lived (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(4) Stage between meiotic division I and II incorrect.
34. Determine the number of chromatids having 12 36. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
bivalents in its zygotene stage. Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
(1) 12 Assertion A: Meiosis involves two sequential
(2) 6 cycles of nuclear and cell division called meiosis-I
(3) 48 and meiosis-II.
(4) 24 Reason R: Meiosis involves pairing of
homologous chromosomes and recombination
35. Which of the following is not a significance of between non homologous chromosomes.
meiosis? In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) Provides a chance for the formation of new correct answer from the options given below.
combinations of chromosomes. (1) A is true but R is false.
(2) Decreases the genetic variability. (2) A is false but R is true.
(3) Conservation of specific chromosome (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
number of each species across generations. explanation of A.
(4) Reduces the chromosome number by half (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
correct explanation of A.
while making gametes.
[Short Practice Test-02 | Yakeen NEET 2.0 (Legend) (2025) | 07/07/2024]
Structural Organisation in Animals (Complete Chapter)

SECTION-(IV) ZOOLOGY
37. A single thin layer of flattened cells is the 40. Match the List-I with List-II w.r.t cockroach.
characteristic feature of epithelium which forms List-I List-II
internal lining of; (A) Mushroom (I) 10th segment
(1) small intestine. gland
(2) stomach. (B) Spermatheca (II) Uric acid
(3) nose. (C) Excretory (III) 6th - 7th abdominal
(4) walls of blood vessels. product segment
(D) Anal cerci (IV) 6th segment
38. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Choose the correct answer from the options given
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: below.
Assertion A: In cockroach, head shows great (1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
mobility in all directions.
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Reason R: It is due to flexible neck.
(3) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
correct answer from the options given below.
(1) A is true but R is false.
41. The given diagram is of female reproductive
(2) A is false but R is true. system of frogs. Identify the structure responsible
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct for storage of urine before it is excreted.
explanation of A.
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A.

39. The structural and functional unit of neural system

is;
(1) neuron.
(1) I
(2) neuroglial cells.
(2) II
(3) osteocytes. (3) III
(4) chondrocytes. (4) IV
42. Read the following statements w.r.t. frog. 46. Which of the following fibres shorten in response
A. Chyme is passed from stomach to the second to the stimulation and then relax (lengthen)
part of the small intestine. themselves and return to their initial uncontracted
B. Undigested liquid waste moves into the state in a coordinated manner?
rectum and passes out through cloaca. (1) Muscle fibres
C. Bile emulsifies fat and pancreatic juices digest (2) Nerve fibres
carbohydrates and proteins.
(3) Collagen fibres
D. Lymph lacks few proteins and RBCs.
(4) Elastin fibres
E. Only skin and lungs act as the respiratory
organs on land.
Which of the following statements are incorrect? 47. In frog, hindlimbs end in ______ digits and
(1) A, B and E only forelimbs end in ______ digits.
(2) B and E only Choose the correct option to fill the blanks.
(3) A and C only (1) five; four
(4) A, B, D and E only (2) six; four
43. Hindwings in cockroach arises from; (3) four; five
(1) prothorax. (2) mesothorax. (4) five; five
(3) metathorax. (4) both (2) and (3)
48. Given below are two statements:
44. Which of the following type of tissues correctly Statement I: Long bones of the legs serve weight-
matches with its location? bearing functions.
(1) Cartilage - Outer ear joints Statement II: Most of the cartilages in vertebrate
(2) Areolar tissue - Glands embryos are replaced by bones in adults.
(3) Dense irregular tissue - Pharynx
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(4) Cuboidal epithelium - Lining of stomach
most appropriate answer from the options given
below.
45. Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(1) Epithelial cells are compactly packed with
incorrect.
more intercellular matrix.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(2) Simple epithelium is composed of a two or
correct.
three layers.
(3) Tissues are organised in random proportion (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
and pattern to form an organ. correct.
(4) Tight junctions help to stop substances from (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
leaking across a tissue. incorrect.

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