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SET 1 bio qp

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
33 views9 pages

SET 1 bio qp

Bio

Uploaded by

09mrkai
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN

REGIONAL OFFICE, HYDERABAD REGION


PRE BOARD-I SET 1
CLASS-XII 2024-2025
SUBJECT- BIOLOGY (044)
MAX.MARKS-70 MARKS TIME-3 HOURS
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS-
i. All questions are compulsory.
ii. The question paper has five sections and 33 questions.
iii. Section–A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section–B has 5 questions of 2 marks each;
Section– C has 7 questions of 3 marks each; Section– D has 2 case-based questions of 4 marks
each; and Section–E has 3 questions of 5 marks each.
iv. There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A
student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
v. Wherever necessary, neat and properly labelled diagrams should be drawn.

Section – A
Q. No. 1 to 12 are multiple choice questions. Only one of the choices is correct. Select and write the
correct choice as well as the answer to these questions.
Q.no Question Marks
1 The total number of nuclei involved in double fertilisation in angiosperms are 1
a) two b) three c) four d) five
2 The type of population interaction seen in the 1
picture below is :
a)parasitism b) commensalism
c) mutualism d) amensalism

3 Signals for parturition in human female originate from 1


a) Fully developed foetus only b) Both placenta as well as fully developed foetus
c) Placenta only d)Oxytocin released from maternal pituitary
4 If Meselson and Stahl’s experiment is continued for four generations in bacteria, the 1
ratio of N15 /N 15 : N 15 /N 14 : N 14 /N 14 containing DNA in the fourth
generation would be:
a) 1:1:0 b) 0:1:3 c) 0:1:7 d) 1:4:0
5 Fragrant flowers with well-developed nectaries are an adaptation for 1
a)anemophily b) entomophily c) hydrophily d)none of these
6 Given below is the diagram of embryo sac of angiosperm, the cells labelled as 1
‘A’,B and ‘D’ are
a) A-Micropyle; B-Integument; D-Embryosac
b) A-Hilum; B- Integument; D-Egg apparatus
c) A-Funiculus; B-Synergids; D- Egg apparatus
d) A-Integument; B-Embryosac ;D-Central cell;
7 Ancestral population of giraffes consisted of giraffes of short, medium and long 1
necked ones but present day only long necked
giraffes are found. Which type of natural
selection does the following graph represent?
a) Stabilising selection
b) Disruptive selection
c) Directional selection
d) None of the above
8 What was the mixture of gases used in chamber marked A? 1
a) Oxygen(O2), ammonia (NH3), hydrogen (H2),
and water (H2O)
b) Methane(CH4) v, ammonia(NH3), hydrogen
(H2) and water (H2O)
c) Oxygen (O2) , ozone (O3) , hydrogen (H2) , and
water (H2O)
d) Oxygen (O2) , ozone (O3) , hydrogen (H2)

9 The family tree below shows the inheritance of haemophilia in a family. The pattern 1
of inheritance is

a) Autosomal Dominant
b) Autosomal Recessive
c) X linked Dominant
d) X linked Recessive
10 Grass hoppers are insects that follow the XO type of sex determination. Which of 1
the following statements is ALWAYS TRUE about this type of sex determination?
(a) Eggs that have an O chromosome will give rise to a male grass hopper.
(b) Eggs that have an X chromosome will give rise to a female grass hopper.
(c) Sperms that have an X chromosome will give rise to a male grass hopper.
(d) Sperms that have an O chromosome will give rise to a male grass hopper.
11 The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel can be visualised after staining 1
with
a) Acetocarmine b) aniline blue c) Ethidium bromide d) Bromophenol
blue
12 The given diagram is the diagrammatic representation of the E.coli vector 1
pBR322.Which one of the given options correctly identifies its certain
component(s)?
a) ori-original restriction enzyme
b) rop-reduced osmotic pressure
c) Hind III,EcoRI-selectable markers
d) ampR, tetR-antibiotic resistance genes

Question No. 13 to 16 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is False but R is true.
13 Assertion (A)-An angiosperm flower represents the modified condensed shoot 1
which performs the function of sexual reproduction.
Reason (R)-The fertile leaves of the shoot become modified into microsporophylls
and megasporophylls which bear ovules and anthers respectively
14 Assertion (A): Chargaff’s rule is applicable to RNA. 1
Reason(R): RNA contains Uracil instead of Thymine in its chain.
15 Assertion (A): Bacterial cells are made competent by treating them with specific 1
concentration of a divalent cation.
Reason(R): Treatment of bacterial cell with a divalent cation increases the efficiency
with which DNA enters the bacterium through pores in its cell wall.
16 Assertion (A): DNA fingerprinting is applied in paternity testing in case of disputes. 1
Reason(R): It employs the principle of polymorphism, VNTRs in DNA sequences as
polymorphisms are inheritable from parent to children.
Section - B
17 i) Which organ of the human body is initially affected when bitten by an infected 2
female Anopheles. Name the stage of the parasite that infects this organ.
(ii) Explain the events that are responsible for chill and high fever in the patient.
18 Attempt either option A or B 2

A. Study the given flow chart and answer the questions that follow-
Biofertilizers

A B C
Eg. Glomus sps Eg. Azospirillum Eg. Rhizobium
a) Identify the labelled parts A, B and C in the given flow chart.
b) How is biofertilizer A different from C?
OR
B. a) Identify the chemical structure and name the drug obtained from it.

b) Write its chemical name. How does it affect the


body of the abuser.

19 Attempt either option A or B 2


A. With the help of labelled diagrams only, depict all three steps of
transcription in a bacterial cell.
B. OR

The table shows an extract of genetic code. Trace


four properties of genetic code seen in the given
table.

20 The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4-year old girl with adenosine 2
deaminase (ADA) deficiency. This enzyme is crucial for the immune system to
function.
a)Specify the reason for this disorder.b)Name the vector used in this process.
(c)State the reason why pateint requires a periodic treatment.(d)Suggest a permanent
cure for this disorder.
21 Attempt either option A or B 2
A. (a) A coral reef can be regarded as an ecosystem. Mention any TWO reasons.
(b) The net primary productivity (NPP) of a coral reef is approximately 2000 g
C/m2/year and the gross primary productivity (GPP) is 4000 g C/m2/year.
Calculate the respiration losses (R) of this ecosystem.
OR
B. (i) Labelling four trophic levels, Construct an ideal pyramid of energy when 10,
00, 000 J of sunlight is available in an ecosystem.
(ii) In an aquatic ecosystem, what would be the nature of pyramid of energy-
Upright/Inverted?
Section - C
22 Study the given diagram of Sewage Treatment Plant (S.T.P.) and answer the 3
questions that follow:

(i) Which one of the two 'S.T.P.' (A) or (B) will be more effective in treating
the human excreta in the municipal waste?
(ii) Write the steps followed in carrying the treatment of the sewage in step
(Z), once the BOD of sewage is reduced significantly till it is passed on
to the "anaerobic sludge digesters".
iii) BOD level of three samples of water labelled as A, B and C are 60 mg/L, 20
mg/L and 500 mg/L respectively. Which sample of water is most polluted?

23 i. Name and explain the mechanism where two species competing for the same 3
resource co-exist.
ii. What does Gause’s exclusion principle state? Does it apply in the above
situation?
24 Fill the blanks in the given table: 3
s.no. Stage of human Period of existence Brain size Food habits
evolution
1 Australopithecines a - b
2 Homo habilis - c d
3 e 1.5 mya f ate meat
25 Study the figure below and answer the questions that follow: 3

(a) Name the stage of human embryo the


figure represents.
(b) Identify ‘a’ in the figure and mention its
function.
(c) Mention the fate of the inner cell mass after implantation in the uterus.
(d) Where are the stem cells located in this embryo and what is their function?
26 Answer the given question with the help of given diagram. 3

(a) Name the molecule M that binds with the operator.


(b) Mention the consequence of such binding
(c) What will prevent the binding of the molecule M with the operator gene?
Mention the event that follows.
27 The figure below shows the sequence of phases within the ovary that occur during 3
the menstrual cycle.
a) Name the phase that is labelled infertile
and name the hormone that plays an
important role during this event.
b) Identify the events that occur during the
phase labelled fertile along with hormones
that regulate them.
c) Write the event that occurs in the phase mentioned menstruation.
28 Attempt either option A or B 3
A. Eli Lilly an American company produced a genetically engineered protein as
shown in the figure given below.
a) Identify the genetically engineered
protein produced by this process.
b) Label A, B, C and D.
c)Name the bonds present between A and B
OR
B. Study the figure given below and answer the questions that follow:

i)Name the technique and mention its


application in genetic engineering
ii) Identify and Label (a),(b) and c (each step)
given in the figure. Name the source of
enzyme used at c.
Section – D

29 Tobacco is cultivated in several regions. However, its production was limited by 4


disease which is caused by a nematode Meloidegyne incognitia. Tobacco plants
infested by the nematode showed great reduction in the yield. Plant scientists have
developed a defense mechanism by using a naturally occurring process called RNA
Interference (RNAi) to combat pests and diseases. Transgenic Tobacco plants are
pest resistant that were developed by RNAi using dsRNA.
a) How can dsRNA of nematode specific gene be introduced into the host cell?
b) What can be the source of dsRNA for this process?
Attempt either subpart c or d
c) What will be the impact of this interaction between dsRNA and mRNA on the
mRNA and entire cellular machinery of host plant?
OR
d) What is the economic importance of this technique? Justify your statement.
30 The size of the population is not a static parameter. It keeps on changing with time 4
depending on various factors including food availability, predation pressure and
adverse weather. Whatever may be the ultimate reasons, the density of population
fluctuates due to four basic processes.
In a huge culture flask with unlimited supply of nutrient medium, bacteria were
grown. Their population kept on increasing as they
were dividing by binary fission.
a) Mention any two factors responsible for the growth
of population size.
b) Write the equation which can be used to calculate
the population size after time t, when the initial
population size of the bacteria is represented by N and population size after time t is
represented by Nt.
Attempt either subpart c or d
c) What type of growth pattern will be seen in bacteria population? From the
growth patterns shown in the above graph, What will be the shape of the growth
curve in this case?
OR
d) If instead of providing the unlimited supply of culture medium in a huge flask, it
is provided only in a very small test tube, then what will be the pattern of growth
and the shape of the growth curve?
Section E
31 Attempt either option A or B 5
A. a) Name and explain any four lymphoid organs present in humans.
b) Categorise the named lymphoid organs as primary or secondary lymphoid organs,
giving reasons.
c) Differentiate between benign and malignant tumors? Which one is lethal and
why? OR
B. Study the given diagram and answer the questions that follow-
a) Name the parts labelled ‘A’ ,’B’ and
‘C’ in the molecule shown.
b) Name the type of cells that produce
this molecule.
c) Write the chemical nature of this
molecule.
d) Mention the type of immune response provided by this molecule.
e) Do you know why mother’s milk is considered very essential for the new born
infant? Elaborate.
32 Attempt either option A or B 5
A.I. The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017 was enacted
by the government of India with the intension of reducing the incidence of illegal
abortion and consequent maternal mortality and morbidity. According to this act, a
pregnancy may be terminated on certain considered grounds within a certain period
of pregnancy on the opinion of one/two registered medical practitioner(s).
(a)According to this act, which is the suitable period for carrying out MTP during
pregnancy on certain considered grounds on the opinion of one registered medical
practitioner?
(b)State the special condition where the opinion of two registered medical
practioners is needed to decide that ground exists for carrying out MTP.
(c)Mention TWO grounds for such terminations of pregnancies.
II. A couple had unprotected intercourse. Which are the two possible emergency
contraceptives that can be used to avoid pregnancy in such a case?
OR
B. Consider the following five possible diagnoses for infertility and answer the
trailing questions.
i. Inability to produce a normal egg
ii. Low Count of Sperm
iii. Blocked Fallopian tube
iv. Females who cannot conceive v. Inability of the male partner to inseminate
Suggest and explain different methods of ART based on clinical examination for
the above cases.
33 Attempt either option A or B 5
A. A very ambitious project of sequencing human genome was launched in the year
1990.a) Human Genome Project (HGP) was called a mega project. Give reason.
b) Which new area of biology developed in order to read human genome?
c) Mention two methodologies that were used to sequence human genome.
d) Write any five salient features of human genome.
OR
B. a) ABO blood group in humans is an example of multiple allelism and Co-
dominance. Justify.
b) A couple who has blood groups A and B have four children. Each child has a
different blood group. Explain with the help of crosses to show how this is possible.

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