CHINAR LAW INSTITUTE

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M.P. Judicial Service Examination -2014

1. Which one of the following is not a directive principle of state (c) Both movable and immovable property
policy? (d) Agricultural Land only
(a) Organization of village Panchayats 9. Under T.P.Act, which of the following property has not been
(b) Uniform civil code for citizens and non-citizens recognized by any statute but by courts as immovable
(c) Right to work to education and to public assistance in certain property?
cases (a) Right to way
(d) Separation of judicial from executive (b) Right to collect rent of immovable property
2. When a writ issued to an inferior court or tribunal on the (c) A right of worship in turn
grounds of exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the (d) Right to fishery
rules of natural justice. It is called a writ of 10. Under section 3 of the T.P.Act, 1882, „Attested‟ in the relation
(a) Certiorari to an instrument means attested by at least….witness
(b) Prohibition (a) One witness
(c) Mandamus (b) Two witnesses
(d) Quo warranto (c) Three witnesses
3. Which article of the constitution of India confers power to (d) Two or more witnesses
grant pardons on the governor of a state? 11. Under T.P.Act, which of the following mortgage with value of
(a) Article 151 Rs.100/- or above is not compulsory registrable?
(b) Article 161 (a) Simple mortgage
(c) Article 163 (b) Mortgage by conditional sale
(d) Article 171 (c) English mortgage
4. In preamble of the constitution, the people of India have (d) Mortgage by deposit of title –deeds
resolved to constitute India into
(a) Sovereign Democratic Republic Civil procedure code, 1908
(b) Sovereign Socialist Democratic Republic
(c) Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic 12. Civil procedure code at the first hearing of the suit, the court
(d) Sovereign secular democratic Republic must
5. Article 24 of the constitution prohibits employment of (a) Frame and record issues
children in any factory or mine or in any hazardous (b) Record the evidence of plaintiff
employment below the age of…… (c) Ascertain whether the allegations in the pleadings are
(a) Eighteen years admitted or denied
(b) Twelve years (d) All of the above
(c) Fourteen years 13. Application under order 9, Rule 7 of CPC to set aside the
(d) Sixteen years order of ex-part proceeding may be filed
6. The power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions (a) Within 30 days
of punishment etc. under article 72 of constitution is exercised (b) Within 60 days
by the President of India (c) Within 90 days
(a) On the advice of the Prime Minister (d) At or before the date fixed for hearing
(b) On his own as Head of the Union 14. Under Cr.P.C. money deposited in execution of money decree
(c) On the advice of the council of Ministers if less than decree if less than decretal amount
(d) On the advice of the Law Minister (a) To be appropriated first against interest and costs
(b) To be appropriated first against the principle amount
Transfer of property act 1882 (c) To be appropriated 50% against the principal amount and
50% against interest and costs
7. Under T.P.Act, a mortgage by deposit of title deeds is called (d) To be appropriated 75% against the principal amount and
(a) Anomalous mortgage 25% against interest and costs
(b) English mortgage 15. The court may compel and attendance of any person to whom
(c) Equitable mortgage a summons has been issued under section 30 of CPC and for
(d) Usufructuary mortgage that purpose may
8. According to section 122 of the transfer of property act, 1882 (a) Issue a warrant for his arrest
property includes (b) Attach and sell his property or impose a fine upon him
(a) Only movable property (c) Order to him furnish security for him appearance and in
(b) Only immovable property default commit him to the civil person
(d) Do all of the above (d) „B‟ can claim the money as the contract was neither void nor
16. Under order 7 Rule 11 of the CPC 1908. The plaint shall not voidable
be rejected
(a) Where it discloses cause of action Specific Relief Act, 1963
(b) Where the suit appears from the statement in the plaint to be
barred by any law 24. Under section relief act, whether plaintiff in possession of
(c) Where the plaintiff fails to comply with the provision of rule property as watchman can file a suit for permanent
9 injunction against his dispossession by real owner of suit
(d) Where it is not filed in duplicate property
17. Civil procedure code pleading does not include (a) No, because, plaintiff does not acquire interest in property
(a) Plaint irrespective of his long possession, therefore not entitled to
(b) Written Statement injunction against real owner of suit property
(c) Evidence (b) Yes, because of long possession, plaintiff is entitled to
(d) Material Facts injunction against real owner of suit property.
18. Civil procedure code on death of either parties to the suit (c) Yes, because watchman, employed to look after property may
after conclusion of hearing and before pronouncement of acquire interest in property therefore is entitled to injunction
judgment the suit against real owner of suit property.
(a) Shall abate (d) Yes, because his possession has become adverse.
(b) Shall not abate
Specific Relief Act
(c) May abate with the permission of court
(d) None of the above 25. Plaintiff, without having any little, filed a suit, for permanent
19. Civil procedure code who shall furnish the affidavit which is injunction against dispossession, based on log possession
filled in support of the plaintiff? (a) Because there is no title- plaintiff may be dispossessed
(a) By plaintiff (b) Law respects possession-plaintiff cannot be dispossessed
(b) Where there is more than one plaintiff by one of them except in accordance with law
(c) By the person who verifies the pleading of plaint (c) Suit is not maintainable
(d) By the pleader of plaintiff (d) Suit is not maintainable only for the relief of permanent
injunction
Indian contract act, 1872
26. Which section of the specific relief act, 1963 provides about
20. A makes a contract with B to buy his house for Rs. 50, 000 if specific performance of a contract which cannot be
he is able to secure a bank loan for that amount. The contract specifically enforced?
is (a) Under section 14
(a) Contract of Guarantee (b) Under section 15
(b) Wagering contract (c) Under section 16
(c) Contingent contract (d) Under section 41
(d) Voidable contract 27. In which condition an injunction can be granted under
21. Under Indian contract act, where both parties are under specific relief act, 1963?
mistake as to matter of fact, the agreement is (a) To restrain any person from institution or prosecuting in a
(a) Void criminal matter
(b) Valid (b) To restrain any person from applying to any legislative body
(c) Voidable (c) When the plaintiff has a personal interest in the matter
(d) Illegal (d) To prevent the breach of a contract the performance of which
22. Which one of the following statements is correct in regard to would not be specifically enforced
a contract for sale of immovable property?
Limitation act, 1963
(a) Time is always the essence of the contract
(b) Time is never the essence of the contract 28. In order to attract the applicability of section 14 of the
(c) Time would not be regarded as the essence of the contract limitation act, which condition is not required to be satisfied?
unless it is shown that the parties intended so (a) Both, the prior and subsequent proceedings are civil
(d) Since it is a sale of immovable property, even parties cannot proceedings prosecuted by the same party in a court
intend to make time, the essence of the contract (b) The prior proceeding had been prosecuted with due diligence
23. Indian contract act „A‟ agreed to pay „B‟ rupees 500 for and good faith
giving false evidence in his favour and afterwards refused to (c) The earlier proceeding and the later proceeding may be
pay based on different matter in issue
(a) „B‟ can compel „A‟ to pay the agreed sum as the contract was (d) The failure of the prior proceeding was due to defect of
valid jurisdiction or other cause of like nature
(b) „B‟ cannot claim money as the contract was void because it
was intended to defeat the legal process Limitation act
(c) „B‟ cannot claim the money because the contract was
voidable at the option of „A‟
29. Suit filed by plaintiff based on agreement to sell, which was (c) He will be entitled if he deposits the arrears of rent within 6
executed on 03.09.2001 with a stipulation that sale deed will months
be executed within six month. Stay order passed in another (d) He will be entitled if he deposits the arrears of rent within 12
appeal by which owner was restrained from alienating this months
property w.e.f. 03.03.2003 to 28.09.2008 for the purpose of the 36. Which one is correct--- under section 2(a) of the MP
calculation of the period of limitation Accommodation control act, “accommodation” means any
(a) Period of three years would start from 03.03.2002 i.e. after building or part of a building and includes
lapse of six months because there was no stay against the (a) Any land which is being used for agriculture purpose
plaintiff for filling a suit claiming specific performance (b) Garden, ground, garages and out houses
(b) Period of stay w.e.f. 03.03.2003 to 28.09. 2006 could be (c) Any fitting affixed to such building
excluded with the help of section 15 of limitation act. (d) Any furniture supplied by the landlord for use in such
(c) Period of three years will start after 28.09.2006. building
(d) Period of three years will start from 03.09.2001. suit cannot 37. Which one of the following proposition is correct about
be filed after 03.09.2004. section 14 of the M.P. Accommodation control act, 1961?
30. Land was granted by state government by way of allotment (a) Tenant may sub-let the whole or any part of the
with a limitation on enjoyment for 15 years. Transfer did not accommodation held by him as tenant without consent of the
involved absolute ownership of land. Period of limitation of landlord.
claim adverse possession in such cases would be (b) Tenant may not sub-let the accommodation held by him
(a) 30 years without the previous oral consent in writing of the landlord
(b) 12 years (c) Tenant may not sub-let the accommodation held by him
(c) 60 years without the previous consent in writing of the landlord
(d) 20 years (d) None of the above
31. Appeal against a decree can be filed in high court within 38. M.P. Accommodation control act does not apply to
(a) 90 days (a) Government property
(b) 30 days (b) Non-agricultural Land
(c) 120 days (c) Property of local authority used to residential purpose
(d) 45 days (d) All of the above
32. M.P. Accommodation control act, 1961 23J of M.P. 39. Under which one of the following sections of M.P.
Accommodation control act? Accommodation control act, powers of civil court have been
(a) A retired Servant of Government provide to the rent control authority?
(b) A government Servant (a) Section 28
(c) A divorced wife (b) Section 29
(d) A handicapped person (c) Section 30
33. Defendant was a watchman, authorized to remain in (d) Section 31
possession of the premises by plaintiff. Whether eviction suit 40. Tahsildar passed the order under M.P.L.R.C. granting
under section 12 of accommodation control act, 1961 is easement of right of way or right to take water, through the
maintainable against him? land of a owner. Whether the jurisdiction of the civil court to
(a) Maintainable before civil court entrain a suit for declaration or injunction is barred?
(b) Maintenance before rent controlling authority (a) Section 257 of M.P.L.R.C. bars the jurisdiction of civil court
(c) Suit is not maintainable in such matters
(d) Maintainable before the collector (b) Only collector have the jurisdiction
34. (c) Jurisdiction of civil court not barred by section 257 of the
As per section 13 of M.P. Accommodation control act the rent code
may be deposited in the court. Whether section 13 is (d) Only revenue board have the jurisdiction
applicable to execution proceedings of decree for eviction? 41. Under section 113 of M.P. land revenue code, clerical errors
(a) Section 13 is applicable in execution proceedings which have been made in the record or rights may at any
(b) Depend upon the discretion of the court time be corrected by the
(c) Section 13 is not applicable to execution proceedings of (a) Sub-divisional officer
decree for eviction (b) Collector
(d) Applicable if the execution is filed within 6 months (c) Revenue Inspector
35. Defendant was in arrears of rent for the period from April- (d) Tahsildar
May, 1980. Notice was served on defendant on 14.08.1980. 42. Under section 248 of M.P. land revenue code, the powers to
Suit was filed for eviction on 04.03.1980. summons were fine a person for unauthorisedly taking possession of land has
served on the defendant on 03.04.1985defendant not been given to
deposited the arrears of rent within two months from the date (a) Tahsildar
of receipt of summons and also not complied with provision (b) Sub-divisional officer
of section 13(1) of M.P. Accommodation control act whether (c) Collector
he is entitled to the benefit of section 12 (3) of the act? (d) Revenue Inspector
(a) He is not entitled to the benefit of section 12(3) of the act 43. Which of the following is incorrect regarding service land
(b) He is entitled to the benefit of section 12(3) of the act under M.P. L.R.C.
(a) Right in service land extinguishes if the land is used for non- 52. Under Indian evidence act 1872 for raising presumption in
agriculture purpose respect of an electronic presumption in respect of an
(b) Lease of service land can be granted for a period less than electronic record that electronic signature on the record
one year which purports to be that of any particular person was so
(c) Service land cannot be attached in execution of a decree affixed by him, the record shall be
(d) None of the above (a) 3 years old
44. The revisional authority mentioned in section 5o of the M.P. (b) 6 years old
land revenue code may exercise suo motu power of revision (c) 5 years old
(a) At any point of time (d) 10 years old
(b) Within a period of one year from the date of such order 53. Test identification parade conducted during investigation of a
(c) Within a period of sixty days from the date of such order case is admissible in evidence under which of the section of
(d) Within a reasonable period of time which will depend upon the evidence act?
the facts and circumstances of each case (a) Section 6
45. Under M.P. land revenue code, who has power to alter, create (b) Section 7
or abolish divisions, district, sub-divisions and tahsildar? (c) Section 8
(a) Chief secretary of the state (d) Section 9
(b) Board of revenue 54. Under Indian evidence act, 1872 the statement of hostile
(c) Chief minister of the state witness
(d) State government (a) Is irrelevant
46. A record of right prepared and maintained under section 108 (b) Can be acted upon
of the M.P. land revenue code, contains following particulars (c) Cannot be acted upon
(a) The name of all Bhumiswami (d) Has no evidentiary value
(b) Survey number or plot numbers of land 55. The opinion of examiner of electronic evidence is a relevant
(c) All the above fact under which provision of the Indian evidence act?
47. Which section of the M.P.L.R.C. provides for appointment of (a) 45A
kotwars and their duties? (b) 47A
(a) Section 224 (c) 65A
(b) Section 230 (d) 65B
(c) Section 234 56. Whoever kidnaps or abducts any child with intention of
(d) Section 243 taking dishonestly any movable property from the person of
48. Under M.P. Land revenue code, “Agriculture Year” means such child, shall be punished under section 369 of IPC if the
the year commencing on the first day of….? chils is under
(a) January (a) Ten years
(b) April (b) Twelve years
(c) July (c) Fourteen years
(d) October (d) Sixteen years
57. To constitution an offence of criminal conspiracy under IPC
Indian evidence act,1872 what is the necessary condition to be proved?
(a) There must be a prior meeting of two or more persons.
49. Under Indian evidence act, 1872 for proving execution of a (b) There must be an agreement of two or more persons to do an
registered will illegal at or to do a legal act by illegal means.
(a) Be necessary to call at least two attesting witnesses (c) A person does an illegal act with the help of two or more
(b) Be necessary to call at least one attesting witness persons.
(c) Be necessary to call the executants (d) Two or more persons commit a crime on a sudden
(d) Be necessary to call the registrar provocation with guilty mind.
50. Under Indian evidence act, 1872 what number of witnesses 58. Removal of ornaments dishonestly from the body of deceased
will be required for the proof of any fact? person is
(a) No particular number (a) Robbery under section 392 of IPC
(b) At least on eye witness (b) Theft under section 379 of IPC
(c) Two witnesses (c) Cheating under section 417 of IPC
(d) Party and one Eyewitness (d) An offence under section 404 of IPC
51. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 reports published in 59. „A‟ declares that she wants to commit suicide and runs
newspaper are towards a well but is caught and stopped by „B‟ from
(a) Primary evidence and its contents are admissible in evidence jumping into the well. „A‟ is guilty f which offence under
without and proof Indian penal code?
(b) Secondary evidence and its contents are not admissible in (a) Attempt to commit suicide
evidence without proper proof of the contents under in (b) Attempt to commit culpable homicide
evidence (c) Preparation to commit suicide
(c) Neither primary nor secondary evidence (d) No offence
(d) No evidence at all
60. Indian penal code „A‟ with the intention of causing the death (d) Te informant need not be an eye witness
of a child of tender age, exposes it in deserted place, but death 67. Under section 125 Cr.P.C.
of the child does not ensue „A‟ has committed an offence of (a) A daughter can be asked to maintain her father
(a) Attempt to Murder (b) A father can be asked to maintain his minor child.
(b) Attempt to cause grievous injury (c) A son can be asked to maintain his father.
(c) No offence has been committed (d) All of the above
(d) Attempt to cause hurt 68. Under section 2(L) of Cr.P.C. the “Non-cognizable
case/offence” means a case in which
Indian penal code (a) A police officer has authority to arrest without warrant
(b) A police officer has no authority to arrest without warrant
61. Even after clear indicated of disinterest shown by a woman to (c) A police officer above the rank of Dy. S.P. has power to arrest
man, if such man follows her, then under which circumstance without warrant
it would not constitute offence of stalking? (d) None of the above is correct.
(a) It was pursued under a law 69. Under Cr.P.C. Police officer may arrest any person without
(b) One-sided love affair an order from a magistrate and without a warrant
(c) Due to a commercial transaction (a) Who commits a cognizable offence in the presence of a police
(d) None of the above officer
62. Which of the following section of Indian Penal Code is related (b) Who has been proclaimed as an offender either under this
to the offence of “Voyeurism? code or by order of the state government
(a) 354A (c) Who obstructs a police officer while in the execution of his
(b) 354A lawful duty
(c) 354C (d) In above all circumstances
(d) 354D 70. Under section 357A (2) of criminal procedure code which of
63. After the amendment by criminal law (Amendment) act, 2013 the authority is authorised to decide quantum of
to the Indian Penal code the offence of gang rape is compensation?
punishable under section (a) Sessions judge
(a) 376(2)(g) (b) Legal service authority
(b) 376B (c) Chief judicial magistrate
(c) 376C (d) District magistrate
(d) 376D
Negotiable instruments act, 1881
Criminal procedure code, 1973
71. Under section 143 of the negotiable instruments act, trial
64. When the person who would otherwise be competent to shall be concluded within…. Months from the date of filing of
compound an offence under section 320 of Cr.P.C. is dead, the complaint
then- (a) 2
(a) Legal representative of such person as defined in the code of (b) 4
criminal procedure, 1973 can compound the offence with the (c) 6
permission of the court. (d) 8
(b) Offence can be compounded by any eye witness. 72. The cognizance of offence under section 138 of N.I. Act can
(c) Offence cannot be compounded after the death of person be taken by the JMFC having territorial jurisdiction at the
(d) Legal representative of such person as defined in the code of (a) Place of the issuance of the cheque
civil procedure 1908, can compound the offence with the (b) Place of the delivery of the statutory notice
consent of the court. (c) Place when the complainant chooses to present the cheque for
65. Under Cr.P.C. after committal of the case. Sessions court encashment by his Bank
found that another person against whom a prima facie case is (d) Place where the cheque is disonoured by the bank on which it
made out from the materials contained in the case papers is drawn
have not been included then 73. „A‟ signs instruments in the following terms, which
(a) Sessions court would have no alternative, but to wait till the instruments are promissory note under section 4 of the N.I.
stage under section 319 of Cr.P.C. Act 1881?
(b) Sessions court can issue summons under section 193 on the (a) I promise to pay „B‟ or order Rs. 500/- to be paid on demand
basis of the records transmitted to him (b) I promise to pay „B‟ Rs. 5000/- and all other some which shall
(c) Case should be remanded to the committal magistrate for be due to him.
appropriate action (c) I promise to pay „B‟ Rs. 5000/- first deducting there out any
(d) Direction should be given to police to file separate charge money which he may own me.
sheet against additional accused. (d) I promise to pay „B‟ Rs. 5000/- ten days after my marriage
66. In relation to FIR lodged under section 154 of Cr.P.C. which with „C‟.
of the following statement is not correct? 74. Which section provides that the offences under the negotiable
(a) It is not a substantive evidence instruments act are compoundable?
(b) It merely marks the beginning of the investigation (a) Section 137
(c) It cannot be used as a previous statement for any purpose
(b) Section 141 (c) Dalailama
(c) Section 147 (d) Ravidranath Tagore
(d) Section 149 85. United nations announces “Intentional day Yoga ” on
75. Offence under the negotiable instruments act are triable by (a) 19 June
(a) Sessions judge (b) 21 June
(b) Judicial magistrate first class (c) 23 June
(c) Executive magistrate (d) 27 June
(d) Judicial magistrate second class 86. How many countries are members of south Asian Association
for regional co-operation?
General knowledge (a) 6
(b) 7
76. According to W.H.O. …….. was first discovered in 1976, that (c) 8
spread among the human population via direct contract with (d) 10
blood or bodily fluids from infected person. 87. Who propounded the theory that “the earth moves around
(a) Ebola virus the sun”?
(b) HIV virus (a) Einstein
(c) Dengu virus (b) Copernicus
(d) Swine virus (c) Graham Bell
77. Which two rivers are originated from Amarkantak. (d) Galileo
(a) Narmada & Tapti 88. How many language are there in the Eighth scheduled of the
(b) Betwa & Narmada constitution of India?
(c) Son & Narmada (a) 16
(d) Kshipra & son (b) 18
78. India‟s Mars ordibter Spacecraft (mangalyan) successfully (c) 20
entered into orbit around planet mars on (d) 22
(a) 6 September 2014 89. First Indian President of international court of justice was
(b) 24 September 2014 (a) Justice Nagendra Singh
(c) 11 September 2014 (b) Justice A.K. Mathur
(d) 16 September 2014 (c) Justice P.N. Bhagwati
79. The large number of Tiger reserves are location (d) Justice S.M. Skiri
(a) Karnataka 90. On whose 139th birth anniversary „Run for unity‟ was
(b) Andhra Pradesh organized?
(c) Madhya Pradesh (a) Smt. Indira Gandhi
(d) West Bengal (b) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
80. In the recently concluded Asian games what was the position (c) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
of Indian in final medal tally? (d) Swami Vivekanand
(a) 9th
(b) 10th Computer Knowledge
(c) 8th
(d) 7th 91. Which is not the application software
81. „Madhubani‟ a style of folk paintling is popular in which of (a) Thumb drive
the following states in India? (b) Web browsers
(a) Uttar Pradesh (c) Word processing programs
(b) Rajasthan (d) Spreadsheet
(c) Madhya Pradesh 92. As per classification which cannot be called “Computer”
(d) Bihar (a) Workstations
82. Who is the governor of the reserve bank of India? (b) Mainframe
(a) Raghuram Rajan (c) Minicomputer
(b) D. Subbarao (d) Ubuntu
(c) Y. V. Reddy 93. The acroym HTML stands for
(d) Bimla Jalan (a) High Transfer Machine Language
83. “Forge your future” written by (b) High Transmission Markup language
(a) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam (c) Hypertext Markup language
(b) Shakuntala Devi (d) Hypermedia Markup language
(c) Sachin Tendulkar 94. Who invented computer?
(d) Shiv Kheda (a) Charles Babbage
84. Recently which Indian citizen received “Nobel Prize for (b) Galigleo Gililee
peace” of 2014? (c) Peter
(a) Kailash Satyarthi (d) None of the these
(b) Mother Teresa 95. Which of the following can be used to select documents?
(a) CTRL+A (a) Punished
(b) CTRL +S (b) Fined
(c) SHIFT+A (c) Possessed
(d) ALT+F5 (d) Confiscated
99. He preferred cricket…. Any other sport.
ENGLISH (a) Against
(b) To
96. Which word is nearest in the meaning to the „Esoteric‟ (c) over
(a) Fair (d) Than
(b) Popular 100. For the given capitalized word, pick the option that is closest
(c) Alluring in meaning CORCE
(d) Private (a) Enhance
97. One who does not believe in God is called (b) Compel
(a) Theist (c) Instigate
(b) Atheist (d) Lure
(c) Optimist
(d) Heretic
98. If you smuggle goods into the country, those may be… by the
custom authority
 Answer Key M.P.-2014

Q. ANS Q. ANS Q. ANS Q. ANS Q. ANS Q. ANS

1. B 35. A 69. A 103. 137. 171.
2. A 36. A 70. B 104. 138. 172.
3. B 37. C 71. C 105. 139. 173.
4. C 38. A 72. D 106. 140. 174.
5. C 39. B 73. A 107. 141. 175.
6. C 40. C 74. C 108. 142. 176.
7. C 41. A 75. B 109. 143. 177.
8. C 42. A 76. A 110. 144. 178.
9. C 43. D 77. C 111. 145. 179.
10. B 44. D 78. B 112. 146. 180.
11. D 45. D 79. C 113. 147. 181.
12. C 46. D 80. C 114. 148. 182.
13. D 47. B 81. D 115. 149. 183.
14. A 48. C 82. A 116. 150. 184.
15. D 49. B 83. A 117. 151. 185.
16. A 50. A 84. A 118. 152. 186.
17. C 51. B 85. B 119. 153. 187.
18. B 52. C 86. C 120. 154. 188.
19. C 53. D 87. B 121. 155. 189.
20. C 54. B 88. D 122. 156. 190.
21. A 55. A 89. A 123. 157. 191.
22. C 56. A 90. B 124. 158. 192.
23. B 57. B 91. A 125. 159. 193.
24. A 58. D 92. D 126. 160. 194.
25. B 59. D 93. B 127. 161. 195.
26. A 60. A 94. C 128. 162. 196.
27. C 61. A 95. A 129. 163. 197.
28. C 62. C 96. D 130. 164. 198.
29. A 63. D 97. B 131. 165. 199.
30. A 64. D 98. D 132. 166. 200.
31. A 65. B 99. B 133. 167. 201.
32. B 66. C 100. B 134. 168. 202.
33. C 67. D 101. 135. 169. 203.
34. C 68. B 102. 136. 170. 204.