CPP-07

ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

Zoology
Chapterwise Practise Problems (CPP) for NEET
Chapter - Biotechnology Principles and Processes
1. W hich of the following is not a characteristic
feature of pBR322 ? 5–G–A–A–T–T–C–3
(3) 3–C–T–T–A–A–G–5
(1) Size is about 4.3 kb
(2) It has two antibiotic resistance gene
5–C–T–G–C–A–G–3
(3) Low copy number (4) 3–G–A–C–G–T–C–5
(4) It is chromosomal DNA
8. Select the mismatch
2. Which of the following is true statement regarding
DNA polymerase used in PCR ? (1) Ori - responsible for initiating replication
(1) It is isolated from plant cells (2) Sticky ends - single stranded free ends
(2) It remains active at high temperature (3) Genetic glue - T4 ligase
(3) It is used to ligate foreign DNA in recipient cells (4) Alkaline phosphatase - removal of phosphate
from 3 end of DNA
(4) It serves as a selectable marker
9. Restriction endonucleases are found in
3. Blue – white colony selection facilitates
(1) Prokaryotes
(1) Identification of recombinant
(2) Yeasts
(2) Killing of non – recombinant
(3) All living organisms
(3) Production of non-recombinant protein
(4) Bacteriophages
(4) Identification of derived DNA segment
10. Which of the following is a palindromic sequence ?
4. The cloning vector with selectable marker ampR and
tetR is (1) 5-TGATCA-3
(1) YAC (2) BAC 3-ACTAGT-5
(3) pBR322 (4) -phage (2) 5-CTGAGC-3
5. In gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments are 3-GACTCG-5
separated on the basis of (3) 5-ATCGCC-3
(1) Molecular conformation 3-TAGCGG-5
(2) Molecular charge (4) 5-CGTAGA-3
(3) Molecular size 3-GCATCT-5
(4) Both (1) and (3) 11. If EcoRI was used to cut the DNA during isolation
6. Which among the following vectors is called shuttle of gene of interest, then vector DNA should be cut
vector ? by using

(1) pBR322 (2) YEp (1) Bam HI

(3) -phage (4) pUC 8 (2) Eco RI

7. W hich of the following recognition site is for (3) By any restriction endonuclease
EcoRI ? (4) Pst I
12. If the gene of interest is inserted in ampicillin
5–G–G–A–T–C–C–3 resistance gene in pBR322 then the recombinants
(1) 3–C–C–T–A–G–G–5
will be selected by growing in medium containing
(1) Ampicillin (2) Tetracycline
5–A–A–G–C–T–T–3
(2) 3–T–T–C–G–A–A–5 (3) Penicillin (4) Both (1) and (2)
13. 3 molecules of DNA are amplified by PCR, then 19. Alkaline phosphatase is used in recombinant
after 5 PCR cycles what will be total number of technology which facilitates
DNA molecules ?
(1) Removal of phosphate from 5 end to prevent
(1) 96 (2) 64 religation of vector
(3) 32 (4) 35 (2) Phosphorylation of terminal ribose
14. Choose the option indicating correct sequence of (3) Catalytic activity of DNA Poly merase II
following steps of RDT.
(4) Catalytic activity of taq polymerase
a) Isolation of gene of interest
20. All the following is correct for vector except
b) Construction of rDNA
(1) Presence of restriction sites for various
c) Selection of recombinants restriction endonucleases
d) Transformation of r-DNA into hosts (2) Replicates independent of chromosomal DNA
e) Culturing of recombinants in fermentor (3) Presence of ori-site
(1) a  b  e  d  c (4) Replicates only with chromosomal DNA
(2) a  b  d  c  e 21. Select the incorrect statment
(3) b  c  d  a  e (1) Separation of DNA fragments occur according
to their size during gel electrophoresis
(4) e  c  b  d  a
(2) Ethidium bromide is used to stain DNA
15. A plasmid vector having 4 sites of EcoRI was
subjected to restriction digestion by EcoRI. How (3) Downsteam processing includes the separation
many DNA fragments will be produced ? and purification of product
(1) 2 (2) 3 (4) pBR322 contains the coding sequence of an
enzyme -galactosidase
(3) 4 (4) 5
22. Which one is not a character of pBR322 ?
16. Insertion of gene of interest in selectable marker
leads to __________ of selectable marker select (1) One pair of antibiotic resistance genes
the option that fills the blank correctly
(2) Selection of recombinants from non-
(1) Insertional activation recombinants is a two step process
(2) Insertional inactivation (3) Identification of recombinants by insertional
inactivation of lac Z
(3) Duplication
(4) Restrcition sites for Pst I and Pvu I are located
(4) Hyperactivation
within ampr gene while those for Bam HI and
17. Bacterial cells are made competent to take up Sal I are located within tetr gene
alien DNA by
23. Correct sequence of events in a PCR is
(1) Treating with specific concentration of divalent
(1) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension (2)
cation
Annealing, Denaturation, Extension
(2) Heat shock
(3) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing (4)
(3) Incubating cells in hot calcium chloride solution Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
(4) Incubating cells with armed retrovirus 24. All the following are the properties of the enzyme
‘Taq polymerase’ except
18. Plasmids are used in genetic engineering because
they are (1) It is thermostable DNA polymerase
(1) Easily available (2) It is isolated from a bacterium Thermus
aquaticus
(2) Able to replicate along with chromosomal DNA
only (3) It is used for amplification of gene of interest
using PCR
(3) Extra chromosomal DNA which can replicate
without chromosomal DNA replication (4) It is thermolabile DNA polymerase
(4) Rich in histone proteins 25. Isolation of DNA from agarose gel is called
(1) Electrophoresis (2) SDS-PAGE
(3) Elution (4) Blotting
26. In order to induce the uptake of plasmids by 32. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
bacteria, the bacteria are made competent by
(1) Hind- II – First type II RE
treating with
(2) EcoRI – Type II restriction
(1) Ice cold calcium chloride
enzyme
(2) Heat shock at 42°C and then putting them
(3) Taq DNA polymerase – Biological knife
back on ice
(4) Type- II RE – Can work in vitro
(3) Sodium chloride at 4°C
33. Choose the statements as True(T) or False(F):
(4) Bromophenol blue
I. Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a natural genetic
27. The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white
in contrast to blue colonies of non-recombinant engineer
bacteria due to II. Biolistics or gene gun uses gold particles
(1) Insertional inactivation of -galactosidase in coated with DNA and bombards the target host
non-recombinant bacteria cells.

(2) Activation of -galactosidase in recombinant III. Denaturation in PCR requires temperature 94°
bacteria – 96°C
(3) Inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in IV. Transfer of DNA from gel to nitrocellulose paper
recombinant bacteria is a part of Southern blotting
(4) Inactivation of -galactosidase gene in
I II III IV
recombinant bacteria
(1) F T F T
28. Which of the following is not correctly matched for
the organism and its cell wall degrading enzyme? (2) T F T T
(3) F F T T
(1) Tomato - Cellulase
(4) T T T T
(2) Aspergillus - Chitinase
(3) Pseudomonas - Amylase 34. Structure of plasmid vector is shown in the diagram
with its specific antibiotic resistance genes and
(4) Escherichia - Lysozyme recognition sites of particular RE.
29. During the process of isolation of DNA, chilled EcoR I Cla I Hind III
ethanol is added to
C
(1) Precipitate proteins denatured by protease A
R
(2) Precipitate RNA denatured by ribonuclease D R R tet
amp tet
(3) Precipitate DNA released by breaking cell
B
membranes pBR322
(4) Facilitate action of restriction enzymes
ori
30. Choose the option that is considered an
undesirable characteristic for a plasmid used in rop
rDNA technology
(1) Ability to multiply and express in heterologous II
host Pvu
(2) A site at which replication can be initiated Select the correct match
(1) A - BamH III, used to remove tetracycline
(3) One or more identifiable marker genes
resistant gene
(4) Absence of unique restriction sites
(2) D - When used as site for inserting gene of
31. All the following are the examples of vectorless interest, then recombinant organism can grow
gene transfer, except in tetracycline medium.
(1) Particle gun (3) C - When used as site for inserting alien DNA,
then recombinant form will grow in both
(2) Electroporation
ampicillin and tetracycline medium.
(3) Chemical mediated gene transfer
(4) B - Sal-I which removes the gene coding for
(4) Cosmid mediated gene transfer producing -galactosidase.
35. Sticky ends are named so because of their ability 41. W hich amongst the following are protein based
to form _______ with their complementary modern methods that ensure detection of HIV ?
restriction enzyme digested counterparts. Choose (a) PCR (b) ELISA
the option that fills the blank suitably.
(c) Western blotting (d) Northern blotting
(1) Disulphide bonds (2) Ester bonds
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
(3) Hydrogen bonds (4) Phosphodiester bond
(3) (a) and (d) (4) (b), (c) and (d)
36. Which of the following is not a part of downstream
processing? 42. Discovery of which thermostable enzyme made
possible the working of PCR in a thermal cycles ?
(1) Separation of product from bioreactor
(1) Alkaline phosphatase
(2) Purification of product
(2) Phosphodiesterase
(3) Creation of recombinantgene
(3) Taq DNA Polymerase
(4) Maintenance of culture in fermenter
(4) Ligase
37. If gene coding for human insulin is cloned at Pvu
I site of pBR322, the resultant recombinant E. coli 43. Recombinant DNA is directly injected into the
will be / show nucleus of an animal cell by
(1) Susceptible to tetracycline (1) Microinjection (2) Electroporation
(2) Resistant to ampicillin (3) ICSI (4) Biolistics
(3) Sensitive to ampicillin 44. Which of the following works as selectable marker
in pBR322?
(4) Resistant to penicillin
(a) Chloramphenicol
38. Read the following statements(A-F)
(b) Kanamycin
A. Phagemid and cosmid are hybrid cloning
(c) Ampicillin
vectors
(d) Tetracycline
B. pUC8 has two selectable markers ampR and
tetR genes (1) (a) and (c) (2) (b) and (d)

C. pBR322 has lac Z gene (3) (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
45. How many cycles of PCR are required for obtaining
D. YEp and modified Ti plasmid are shuttle
512 molecules of DNA if your starting material was
vectors one molecule of DNA ?
E. Cellulase is used to digest fungal cell wall (1) 8 (2) 9
How many of the above statements are correct? (3) 256 (4) 511
(1) 1 (2) 2 46. Read the statements given below and mark the
incorrect one with respect to DNA electrophoresis
(3) 3 (4) 4
(1) Smaller the fragment size, farther it travels from
39. In PCR, the optimum temperature for denaturing anode
the DNA fragment is , for annealing is
(2) DNA fragments run from cathode to anode
_ and for polymerisation is
respectively.
(3) Larger DNA fragments run slowly than smaller
Choose the option that fills the blanks correctly fragments
(1) 74°C, 94°C and 40°C (4) Methylene blue dye is used to colour DNA
before gel loading smaller fragments
(2) 94°C, 50 - 60°C and 72°C
47. A bacterium adds methyl groups to its DNA, by a
(3) 80°C, 40°C and 94°C process known as modification, in order to
(4) 94°C, 72°C and 50 - 60°C (1) Clone its DNA
40. W hich of the following restriction endonuclease (2) Turn its gene ‘on’
produces non-cohesive ends of DNA?
(3) Transcribe many genes simultaneously
(1) Sma I (2) Eco RI
(4) Protect its DNA from its own restriction
(3) Hind III (4) Bam HI enzymes
48. A scientist tried to clone a gene of interest into Pst 53. Disarmed vector used to deliver desired DNA
I site of plasmid pBR322 and plated the segment in dicot plants is
transformation mix on agar plates with drugs
(1) Caenorhabditis elegans
tetracycline and also on ampicillin rich agar plates.
Bacterial members of colonies that grow on (2) Meloidogyne incognita
medium containing ampicillin antibiotics are
(3) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(1) Recombinants
(4) Retroviruses
(2) Only non recombinants
54. W hich of the following is not a component of
(3) Non transformants downstream processing?
(4) Both (1) and (2) (1) Preservation (2) Expression
49. State True(T) or False(F). (3) Separation (4) Purification
A. Ti plasmid is tumor inducing plasmid of 55. Identify the statements as true(T), false(F)
Agrobacterium. statements and choose the correct option
B. Two selectable markers present in pBR322 are (1) Taq polymerase is a heat resistant enzyme.
Lac ‘Z’ and AmpR.
C. Restriction digestion with EcoRI produces blunt (2) Taq polymerase is isolated from the bacterium
ends fragments. Thermus aquaticus.
D. Selection of transformants from non- (3) Taq polymerase polymerises efficiently at
transformants can be done by plating on agar temperature of 37°C
rich with tetracycline, if insertional inactivation
takes in Pvu-I recognition site. (4) Taq polymerase is a RNA polymerase
A B C D
(1) F T F F I II III IV

(2) F F T F (1) F T T T
(3) T F T T
(2) F T T F
(4) T F F T
50. Select the incorrect statement with respect to (3) T T T T
Restriction endonuclease(RE)
(4) T T F F
(1) It can work in vitro and in vivo
(2) Class- II RE are used in r- DNA technology 56. Match the items in Column A with those in Column
(3) RE is used by bacteria to digest DNA of B and choose the correct option.
bacteriophages to restrict their growth.
Column A Column B
(4) RE removes nucleotide either from 3’ or 5’ of
DNA molecules (a) Electrophoresis (i) Polysaccharide
Separation of D NA fragments
51. An ideal cloning vector has all of the following (b) Matrix (ii) under the influence of an
essential features except electric field
Staining of
(c) (iii) Removal of D NA from gel
(1) More than 1 selectable marker gene fragmented DNA

(2) Multiple sites for same restriction enzyme (d) Elution (iv) Ethidium bromide

(3) High copy number (1) (a)(ii), (b)(i), (c)(iv), (d)(iii)

(4) Ori-site
(2) (a)(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
52. If after transformation using pUC8, the E.coli
colonies appear blue in colour in ampicillin (3) (a)(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)(i), (d)(ii)
containing agar medium, it implies
(4) (a)(iii), (b)(iv), (c)(ii), (d)(i)
(1) These are the colonies of non-recombinant
transformants
(2) These are non-transformant bacteria
(3) These are recombinant transformant colonies
(4) Their nature cannot be determined
57. Arrange the following steps in correct sequence 62. If the gene of interest is cloned using Sal I in
resulting in transformation process plasmid pBR 322, the transformants can be
identified from the wild type using antibiotic
(A) Bacterial cells with recombinant DNA are
incubated on ice (1) Chloramphenicol (2) Penicillin
(B) Placing them briefly at 42°C (3) Kanamycin (4) Ampicillin
(C) Putting bacterial cells with recombinant DNA 63. The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white
back-on ice. in contrast to blue colonies of non-recombinant
bacteria because
(D) Bacterial cells are treated with a specific
concentration of a divalent cation, such as (1) Of Insertional inactivation of lac Z gene in non-
calcium. recombinant bacteria

(1) A  B  C  D (2) A  B  D  C (2) Of Insertional inactivation of lac Z gene in

recombinant bacteria
(3) D  A  B  C (4) D  A  C  B
(3) Non-recombinant bacteria do not produce -
58. Match the following and choose the correct options galactosidase
Column I Column II (4) Recombinant bacteria contain functional
A. Insertional inactivation I. Boliver and Rodriguez antibiotic resistance gene
B. Southern blotting II. Bt toxin gene 64. Which of the following restriction endonucleases
C. pBR322 III. DNA
does not produce flush-end in DNA?

D. Bacillus thuringiensis IV.  -galactosidase gene (1) Eco RV (2) Hae III

(1) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II (3) Sma I (4) Eco RI

65. Inside a bacterial host, the restriction modification
(2) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II
system consists of
(3) A - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II
I. The restriction enzymes that selectively cuts
(4) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV foreign DNA in a process leading to restricted
growth
59. The R.E. sites present in ampR gene of pBR322
plasmid are II. A modification enzyme by which the host DNA
(1) Pvu I and Pst I (2) Pvu II and Pst I is methylated to protect it from the restriction
enzyme activity
(3) Bam HI and Sal I (4) EcoR I and Hind III
(1) Only I is correct
60. The term ‘restriction’ in restriction endonuclease
means (2) Only II is correct

(1) It restricts bacterial multiplication in eukaryotes (3) Both I and II are correct

(2) It prevents bacteriophage multiplication in (4) Both I and II are incorrect

bacteria 66. Select true(T) and false (F) w.r.t PCR
(3) It only cleaves the phosphodiester bonds of A. Taq DNA polymerase remains active at high
DNA temperatures
(4) It promotes multiplication of bacteriophage in B. A pair of primers with exposed 5-OH groups
bacteria will bind to the complementary sequence of
61. How many characteristics are correct w.r.t. plasmid template DNA
used as a vector ? C. Annealing of primer with the template DNA
(i) double-stranded requires 95°C

(ii) circular D. PCR can be used to detect a specific disease

causing mutation or pathogens present in very
(iii) has histone proteins low concentrations
(iv) can self-replicate (1) A-T, B-F, C-F, D-T (2) A-T, B-F, C-T, D-F
(v) introns present (3) A-F, B-T, C-F, D-T (4) A-F, B-T, C-T, D-F
(1) 5 (2) 4
(3) 3 (4) 2
67. Match the following and choose the correct option 69. For DNA isolation from fungal cells, which of the
enzymes should be used for cell wall lysis ?
A. Alkaline phosphatase i. Gene transfer
without vector (1) Cellulase
B. DNA Ligase ii. Molecular cutter (2) Lysozyme
C. Ti plasmid iii. Prevents self (3) Chitinase
ligation (4) Phosphatase
D. PEG iv. Plant vector 70. In biotechnology, which of the following is not
v. Molecular glue used ?
(1) A-v, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii (2) A-iii, B-iv, C-v, D-ii (1) Organism

(3) A-v, B-iii, C-ii, D-i (4) A-iii, B-v, C-iv, D-i (2) Cell or its part

68. Choose the option with correct statement (s) (3) Molecular analogue

A. r-DNA can be directly injected into the nucleus (4) Armed Tiplasmid
of an animal cell through microinjection
B. Upstream processing is one of the step of rDNA
technology
C. Armed pathogen vectors are also used in
transfer of rDNA into host
D. Transgenic models are used for studying new
treatments for human diseases
(1) A and B only (2) A, B and D
(3) B and D only (4) C only

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 CPP-07
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

ANSWERS

1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (3)

8. (4) 9. (1) 10. (1) 11. (2) 12. (4) 13. (1) 14. (2)

15. (3) 16. (2) 17. (1) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (4) 21. (4)

22. (3) 23. (1) 24. (4) 25. (3) 26. (1) 27. (4) 28. (3)

29. (3) 30. (4) 31. (4) 32. (3) 33. (4) 34. (2) 35. (3)

36. (3) 37. (3) 38. (2) 39. (2) 40. (1) 41. (2) 42. (3)

43. (1) 44. (3) 45. (2) 46. (1) 47. (4) 48. (2) 49. (4)

50. (4) 51. (2) 52. (1) 53. (3) 54. (2) 55. (4) 56. (1)

57. (3) 58. (2) 59. (1) 60. (2) 61. (3) 62. (4) 63. (2)

64. (4) 65. (3) 66. (1) 67. (4) 68. (2) 69. (3) 70. (4)

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