CHAPTER 02

1. Angular velocity, torque and angular momentum are the examples of

A) Proper vectors B) Inertial vectors
C) Axial vectors D) Unit vectors

2. Unit and Null vectors are the examples of

A) Proper vectors B) Inertial vectors
C) Axial vectors D) Equal vectors

3. Cos 𝑖̂ + Sin 𝑗̂ is a
A) Free vector B) Unit vector
C) Negative vector D) Null vector

4. A unit vector 𝑎⃑ = 0.6𝑖̂ + 𝑝𝑗̂ + 0.8𝑘̂ then p is

A) 0 B) 1
C) 0.5 D) -0.5

5. One of the two rectangular components of a force is 10N and its makes an angle of 60 o with the force. The
magnitude of the force is
A) 7.1 N B) 14.1 N
C) 17.3 N D) 20 N
6. If three vectors 𝑋, 𝑌 and 𝑅 are 12, 5 and 13 in magnitude such that 𝑅⃑⃑ = 𝑋⃑ + 𝑌
⃑ ⃑⃑ ⃑⃑ ⃑⃑, then the angle between 𝑋⃑ and 𝑌
⃑⃑
is
A) 60o B) 90o
C) 120 o D) None of these

7. A monkey is climbing a vertical tree with a velocity of 5m/s and a dog is running towards the tree with a
velocity of 5√3 m/s. The velocity of the dog relative to the monkey is
A) 10m/s at 30o with the horizontal.
B) 10m/s at 60o with the horizontal.
C) 8√3m/s at 30o with the horizontal.
D) 8√3m/s at 60o with the horizontal.

8. One of the two forces is double the other and their resultant is equal to the greater force. The angle between
them is
1 1
A) Cos-1 (2) B) Cos-1 (− 2)
1 1
C) Cos-1 ( ) D) Cos-1 (− )
4 4

9. Two vectors 𝐴⃗ and 𝐵

⃑⃗ are such that |𝐴⃗ ∙ 𝐵
⃑⃗| = |𝐴⃗ × 𝐵
⃑⃗|, the angle between vector 𝐴⃗ and 𝐵
⃑⃗ will be;
𝜋 𝜋
A) 2 B) 4
C) cos (0.8)
-1 D) tan-1(0.75)

10. Two forces each of magnitude F act perpendicular to each other. The angle made by the resultant force with
the X-axis will be;
A) 300 B) 450
C) 60 0 D) 900

11. A force vector applied on a mass is represented as 𝐹⃗ = 6𝑖̂ − 8𝑗̂ + 10𝑘̂ and the mass accelerates with 1 m/s2.
What will be the mass of the body?
A) 10√2𝑘𝑔 B) 2√10𝑘𝑔
C) 10𝑘𝑔 D) 20kg
12. A vector 𝐴⃗ is added to the sum of two vector 3𝑖̂ − 2𝑗̂ − 2𝑘̂ and 2𝑖̂ − 𝑗̂ + 3𝑘̂ such that the resultant is a unit
vector along z-axis. The value of 𝐴⃗ is;
A) -5𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂ B) 5𝑖̂ − 3𝑗̂
C) 𝑖̂ − 𝑘̂ D) 𝑘̂ + 𝑗̂ − 𝑗̂

13. The Scalar product of vectors A = 2i + 5k and B = 3j + 4k is

A) 26 B) 23
C) 15 D) 20

14. The projection of vectors A = i – 2j + k onto the direction of B = 4i – 4j +7k is

A) 1/9 B) 2/9
C) 9/19 D) 19/9

15. Gives 𝐴⃗=3𝑖̂ + 4𝑗̂ and 𝐵

⃑⃗ = 6𝑖̂ + 8𝑗̂ which of the following statements is incorrect?
| 𝐴⃗| 1
A) 𝐴⃗ × 𝐵
⃑⃗=0 B) =
⃑⃗|
|𝐵 2
C) | 𝐴⃗| = 5 D) 𝐴⃗. 𝐵
⃑⃗ = 48

16. If a vector 2𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂ + 8𝑘̂ is perpendicular to the vector 4𝑗̂ - 4𝑖̂ + a𝑘̂ then the value of a is
A) ½ B) – ½
C) 1 D) – 1

17. Angle between the vectors (𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂) and (𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂) is
A) 60o B) 90o
C) 180o D) 0o

18. The angle between two vectors 𝐴⃑ = 4𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂ - 2𝑘̂ and 𝐵
⃑⃑ = - 8𝑖̂ - 6𝑗̂ + 4𝑘̂ is
A) 45o B) 60o
C) 180o D) 30o

19. The Scalar product of two vector is 2√3 and the magnitude of their vector product is 2. The angle between
them is
A) 900 B) 600
C) 30 0 D) 450
20. Two vectors 𝐴⃑ and 𝐵 ⃑⃑ = - 5𝑘̂ + 2𝑖̂. Find the angle between 𝐴⃑ and 𝐵
⃑⃑ have magnitude 3 each. 𝐴⃑𝑥𝐵 ⃑⃑.
√29 5
A) Cos-1 ( 9
) B) tan-1 (− 2)
2 √29
C) Sin-1 (5) D) Sin-1 ( 9
)

21. Three vectors 𝐴⃑, 𝐵

⃑⃑ and 𝐶⃑ satisfy 𝐴⃑. 𝐵
⃑⃑ = 0 and 𝐴⃑.𝐶⃑ = 0, the vector 𝐴⃑ is parallel to
⃑⃑
A) 𝐵 B) 𝐶⃑
⃑⃑ ⃑
C) 𝐵. 𝐶 D) 𝐵 ⃑⃑𝑥𝐶⃑

22. A vector 𝐴⃑ is along +ve y-axis. Another vector 𝐵

⃑⃑ such that 𝐴⃑𝑥𝐵
⃑⃑= 0 could be
A) 5𝑗̂ B) 5𝑖̂
C) 𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂ D) 𝑗̂ - 𝑘̂

23. If the angle between the vectors 𝐴⃑ and 𝐵 ⃑⃑𝑥𝐴⃑). 𝐴⃑ equals

⃑⃑ is . The value of the product (𝐵
A) BA Sin
2 B) BA Cos Sin
2

C) BA2 Cos D) Zero

24. The cross product of vector F with itself is equal to

A) F B) 2F
C) Zero D) 1
25. What is the projection of ⃑⃑⃑⃗
𝐸 = 2𝑖 - 3𝑗 + 6𝑘 onto the direction of vector ⃑⃑⃑⃗
𝐹 = 𝑖 + 2𝑗 + 2𝑘.
A) 1/2 B) 8/3 C) 3/5 D) 5/7

26. Two forces of magnitude 10N and 20N act on a body in directions making angles 30o and 60o respectively
with x-axis. What is the resultant force?
A) 17N B) 19N C) 23N D) 29N

27. The scalar product of (2𝑖 – 𝑗 + 3𝑘) . (3𝑖 + 2𝑗 – 𝑘) is:

A) 1 B) 2 C) 10 D) 20 E) 25

28. The work done in moving an object along a straight line from (3, 2, -1) to (2, -1, 4) in a force field which is
given by ⃑⃑⃑⃗
𝐹 = 4𝑖 - 3𝑗 + 2𝑘, is:
A) 45 B) 35 C) 25 D) 15 E) 5

𝐴 = 2𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂ - 𝑘̂, ⃑⃑⃑⃗

29. If ⃑⃑⃑⃗ 𝐵 = 4𝑖̂ + 2𝑗̂ + 2𝑘̂, find a vector ⃑⃑⃑⃗
𝑋 parallel to ⃑⃑⃑⃗
𝐴 but has magnitude of ⃑⃑⃑⃗
𝐵?
12 7 7 3 5
A) √ 7 (2𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂) - 𝑘̂ B) √12 (4𝑖̂ + 2𝑗̂ - 2𝑘̂) C) √12 (2𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂) D) √5 (𝑖̂ + 2𝑗̂ - 3𝑘̂) E) √12(3𝑖̂+5𝑗̂-2𝑘̂)

⃑⃑⃑⃗ = 3𝑖 + 6𝑗 - 2𝑘, then the unit vector parallel to 𝐴

30. If 𝐴 ⃑⃑⃑⃗ will be:
3𝑖 + 6𝑗+ 2𝑘 3 6 2 3 6 2 7 7
A) B) 𝑖 + 𝑗 - 𝑘 C) 𝑖 + 𝑗 + 𝑘 D) E)
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 3𝑖 + 6𝑗 − 2𝑘 3𝑖 + 6𝑗 +2𝑘

⃑⃑⃑⃑⃗1 and 𝑅
31. 𝑅 ⃑⃑⃑⃑⃗2 are two position vectors making angles 𝜃1 and 𝜃2 with positive X-axis respectively. Their vector
product is:
[𝑅1 = 4 cm, 𝑅2 = 3 cm, 𝜃1 = 30o, 𝜃2 = 90o]
A) 12√3 B) 6√3 C) 6√12 D) 12√6 E) 3√6

⃑⃑⃑⃗1 and ⃑⃑⃑⃑⃗

32. 𝑃 𝑃2 are two position vectors making angles, 𝜃1 and 𝜃2 with positive x-axis respectively. Find their
√3
vector product when 𝑃1 = 12cm, 𝑃2 = 9cm and 𝜃1 = 30o, 𝜃2 = 90o. (where sin60o = 2
)
A) 90√7 B) 54√3 C) 49√2 D) 33√5 E) 23√9

33. Evaluate the scalar product of 𝑘̂ . (𝑖̂ + 𝑖̂), where 𝑖̂, 𝑗̂ and 𝑘̂ represent unit vectors along x, y and z axes of three-
dimensional rectangular coordinate system.
A) 170 B) 60 C) 1 D) 0 E) 45

⃑⃑⃑⃗ = 6𝑖 + 12𝑗 - 4𝑘.

34. Find the unit parallel to the vector: 𝐵
4 12 4 6 12 4
A) 𝑏 = 14 𝑖 + 14 𝑗 – 14 𝑘 B) 𝑏 = 14 𝑖 + 14 𝑗 – 14 𝑘
6 17 4 6 12 9
C) 𝑏 = 14 𝑖 + 14 𝑗 - 14 𝑘 D) 𝑏 = 14 𝑖 + 14 𝑗 - 14 𝑘
9 12 1
E) 𝑏 = 14 𝑖 + 14 𝑗 - 14 𝑘

35. A particle starting from the origin (0,0) mass in a straight line in the (x,y) plane. Its coordinates at a later time
are (√3,√3,). The path of the particle makes with the x-axis an angle of:
A) 45o B) 60o C) 30o D) 180o

36. The minimum number of unequal forces whose vector sum can be zero is:
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

37. Two vectors are 𝐴⃑ = 3i + 2j – k and 𝐵

⃑⃑ = -3i – 2j + k, then:
⃑⃑ is antiparallel to ⃑𝑨
A) ⃑𝑩 ⃑⃑
B) ⃑⃑ is inclined at 60o with 𝐴⃑
𝐵
C) ⃑⃑ has negative magnitude
𝐵
D) ⃑⃑ is perpendicular to 𝐴⃑
𝐵
38. One of the two rectangular component of force is 20N and it makes an angle of 30o with the force, the other
component will be:
√3 𝟐𝟎
A) 20N B) 20√3N C) 20N D) N
√𝟑

39. Two forces acting in opposite directions have a resultant of 10N. If they act at right angles to each other the
resultant is 50N, the magnitude of forces are:
A) 10N, 20N B) 30N, 40N C) 5N, 15N D) 10N, 10N

40. Following sets of three forces acting on a body. In which case the resultant cannot be zero?
A) 10N, 10N, 10N B) 10N, 10N, 20N C) 10N, 20N, 20N D) 10N, 20N, 40N

41. Three forces 9, 12 and 15N acting at a point are in equilibrium. The angle between 9N and 15N is:
𝟑 4 3 4
A) 𝑪𝒐𝒔−𝟏 (𝟓) B) 𝐶𝑜𝑠 −1 (5) C) 𝜋 - 𝐶𝑜𝑠 −1 (5) D) 𝜋 - 𝐶𝑜𝑠 −1 (5)

42. One of the two forces is double the other and their resultant is equal to the greater force. The angle between
them is:
1 1 1 𝟏
A) 𝐶𝑜𝑠 −1 ( ) B) 𝐶𝑜𝑠 −1 (− ) C) 𝐶𝑜𝑠 −1 ( ) D) 𝑪𝒐𝒔−𝟏 (- )
2 2 4 𝟒

⃑⃑ is added to a vector 𝐴⃑ the result is 6i + j. if 𝐵

43. If a vector 𝐵 ⃑⃑ is subtracted from 𝐴⃑, the result is -4i + 7j. What is
the magnitude of vector 𝐴⃑.
A) √10 B) √15 C) √𝟏𝟕 D) √20

44. Given that 𝐴⃑ = 2i + 3j and 𝐵

⃑⃑ = 3i – 4j. Find the direction of 𝐶⃑ = 𝐴⃑ + 𝐵
⃑⃑
2 −𝟏 3
A) tan -1 (3), B) tan-1( 𝟓 ), C) tan-1(4), D) tan-1(4)

45. A load of 10N is suspended from a clothes line. This distorts the line so that it makes an angle of 30o with the
horizontal at each end. Find the tension in clothes line:

30o 30o

T
T

A) 10N B) 5N 20N D) 15N

46. Find the unit vector parallel to the vector 𝐴⃑ = 3i + 6j – 2k

3 6 2 6 3 2 3𝑖+6𝑗−2𝑘
A) 7 𝑖 + 7 𝑗 − 7 𝑘 B) 7 𝑖 + 7 𝑗 − 7 𝑘 C) 7
D) Both a and c

47. A car weighing 10,000N on a hill which makes an angle of 30o with the horizontal. Find the component of car
weight parallel to the road.
A) 10,000N B) 5000N C) 5000√3N D) Both b and c

48. Find the angles 𝛼, 𝛽, 𝛾which the vector 𝐴⃑ = 3i – 6j + 2k, makes with the positive x, y, z axis respectively.
5 2 3
A) 𝐶𝑜𝑠 −1 (7), 𝐶𝑜𝑠 −1 (7), 𝐶𝑜𝑠 −1 (7)
𝟑 −𝟔 𝟐
B) 𝑪𝒐𝒔−𝟏 (𝟕), 𝑪𝒐𝒔−𝟏 ( 𝟕 ), 𝑪𝒐𝒔−𝟏 (𝟕)
C) 𝐶𝑜𝑠 −1 (3), 𝐶𝑜𝑠 −1 (−6), 𝐶𝑜𝑠 −1 (2)
D) None of these

49. If |𝐴⃑ × 𝐵
⃑⃑ | = √3𝐴⃑. 𝐵
⃑⃑ then the value of 𝐴⃑ + 𝐵
⃑⃑ is;
𝐴𝐵 1/2
A) (𝑨𝟐 + 𝑩𝟐 + 𝑨𝑩)1/2 B) (𝐴2 − 𝐵2 − )
√3
C) A + B D) (𝐴2 + 𝐵2 + √3 𝐴𝐵)1/2
50. If 𝐴⃑ = 2i + 3j -2k and 𝐵
⃑⃑ = 3i + 2j + ak when both 𝐴⃑ and 𝐵 ⃑⃑ are perpendicular to one another. Compute “a”.
1
A) 4 B) -4 C) - 3 D) 6

51. Find the angle between I + j and j + k.

A) 0o B) 180o C) 90o D) 60o

52. Two forces of 10N and 20N are inclined at 30o and 60o with positive axis, the resultant force will be:
A) 5N B) 200N C) 29N D) 100N

53. If ⃑⃑⃑⃑⃑
𝑎1 = aj and 𝑏 ⃑⃑⃑⃑⃑2 = aj then;
A) ⃑⃑⃑⃑⃑ ⃑⃑⃑⃑⃑2 = a2Cos𝜃
𝑎1 . 𝑏 𝒂𝟏 . ⃑⃑⃑⃑⃑
B) ⃑⃑⃑⃑⃑ 𝒃𝟐 = a2 C) ⃑⃑⃑⃑⃑
𝑎1 . 𝑏⃑⃑⃑⃑⃑2 = -a2 D) ⃑⃑⃑⃑⃑
𝑎1 . 𝑏⃑⃑⃑⃑⃑2 = a

⃑⃑⃑⃑1 | = 3cm, |𝐹
54. If |𝐹 ⃑⃑⃑⃑⃑2 | = 4cm, both are inclined at 30o and 120o with the x-axis respectively, their scalar product is;
A) 0cm 2 B) 6cm2 C) 10.39cm2 D) 12cm2

55. The scalar product of vectors 𝐴⃑ = 2i + 5k and 𝐵

⃑⃑ = 3j + 4k is:
A) 26 B) 23 C) 15 D) 20

56. Vector 𝐴⃑ and 𝐵

⃑⃑ are 4 units north and 3units west respectively, then |𝐴⃑ × 𝐵
⃑⃑|
√2
A) 20 Km/hr B) 20√𝟐 Km/hr C) 40 Km/hr D) Km/hr
20

57. Five equal forces of 10N each are applied at one point and all are lying in one plane. If the angles between
them are equal, the resultant of these forces will be:
A) 0 B) 10N C) 20N D) 10 √2 N

58. Find the projection of 𝐴⃑ = 2i – 3j + 6k onto the direction of vector 𝐵

⃑⃑ = I + 2j + 2k
𝟖 3
A) B) 8 C) D) None
𝟑 8

59. Find the work done in moving an object along straight line from (3, 2, 1) to (2, -1, 4) in force field which is
given by 𝐹⃑ = 4i – 3j + 2k.
A) 10units B) 15units C) 20units D) 0units
 CHAPTER 03

1. An object whose mass is 100 gm starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration of 20 cm/sec2. At the
end of 8 sec its momentum is, in gm-cm/sec,
A) 500 B) 8000
C) 16,000 D) 33,000

2. First law of motion is also known as law of

A) Force B) Momentum
C) Energy D) Inertia

3. Which law is applicable in the motion of the rocket in space

A) Conservation of mass
B) Conservation of energy
C) Conservation of linear momentum
D) Conservation of angular momentum

4. Two blocks A and B having masses m1 and m2 respectively are placed in contact on a smooth horizontal surface.
A force F is applied horizontally on A. The contact force between A and B is.
𝑚 𝑚
A) 𝑚1 F B) 𝑚2 F
2 1
𝑚1 𝐹
C) (m1 + m2) F D) 𝑚
1 + 𝑚2
𝑚2 𝐹
E) 𝑚
1 + 𝑚2

5. Two masses m1 and m2 placed on a smooth horizontal surface are connected by a massless, inextensible string.
A horizontal force F is applied on m2 as shown in the figure, the tension in the string is

𝐹 𝑚1 𝐹
A) 𝑚 B) 𝑚
1 + 𝑚2 1 + 𝑚2
𝑚1 𝑚
C) 𝑚 F D) 𝑚2 F
2 1
𝑚2 𝐹
E)
𝑚1 + 𝑚2

6. A machine-gun fires 20 bullets per second into a target. Each bullet weights 150 gm and has a speed 800 of
m/s. the force necessary to hold the gun in position is
A) 800 N B) 1000 N
C) 1200 N D) 2400 N
E) 2600 N

7. The tension T in the thread shown in figure is

A) 10 N B) Zero
C) 98 N D) 20 N
E) 196 N

8. A box of mass m = 6 kg slides with speed v = 4 m/s across a frictionless floor. If suddenly explodes into two
pieces. One piece, with mass m1 = 2 kg moves in the same direction with speed v1 = 8 m/s, the velocity of the
second piece is
A) 1 m/sec B) 2 m/sec
C) 3 m/sec D) 4 m/sec
9. If 𝑚 means mass of gases ejected per sec from a rocket and v show the change in velocity then mv is named
as?
A) Work B) Impulse
C) Energy D) Force

10. What will be the ratio of distance moved by a freely falling body in 4th and 5th second of its journey?
A) 4 : 5 B) 5 : 5
C) 16 : 25 D) 1 : 1

11. The total weight of balloon is 1500 N. What is the resultant force acting on it when it is rising with constant
velocity of 3m/s?
A) 4500 N B) 1500 N
C) 2000 N D) 0 N
12. A jogger runs 3 km in 0.3 hours, then 7 km in 0.70 hours. What is the average speed of the jogger?
A) 10 km/hr B) 3 km/hr
C) 1 km/hr D) 0.1 km/hr
E) 100 km/hr
13. A body starting from rest and moving with constant acceleration, covers 20m in the first second. The distance
travalled by it in the 2nd second is
A) 60 m B) 50 m
C) 40 m D) 30 m
E) 20 m

14. The velocity-time graph of a body moving in a straight line is shown in the figure. The displacement and
distance travelled by the body in 6 s are, respectively,

A) 8m, 16m B) 16m, 8m

C) 16m, 16m D) 8m, 8m
E) 10m, 5m

15. The position-time graph of an object moving in a straight line is shown below. The object has zero velocity at

A) 0 B) C
C) D D) F

16. Two bodies ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are attached to the ends of a string which passes over a pulley so that the two bodies
hang vertically. If the mass of the body ‘X’ is 10 kg and that of ‘Y’ is 9.8 kg. Find the acceleration?
(g = 9.8 m/s2)
A) 0.2 m/s2 B) 2.2 m/s2 C) 3.2 m/s2 D) 4.2 m/s2 E) 5.2 m/s2
17. A handball is tossed vertically upward with a velocity of 19.6m/s. Approximately how high will it rise?
A) 15.8m B) 19.6m C) 25.6m D) 30m E) 60m

18. Upon signal of starting the race, athlete starts from rest with a constant acceleration of 8 m/s 2. At the same
time a cyclist traveling with a constant speed of 72 km/h passes the athlete. How far beyond the starting
point will the athlete over take the cyclist and what will be the speed of the athlete at the time when it
overtakes the cyclist respectively?
A) 200m,40m/s B) 119m,60m/s C) 120m,60m/s D) 130m,70m/s E) 140m,80m/s

19. An object whose mass is 100 g starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration of 20 cm/s2. At the end
of 8 s its momentum is ______ in g cm/s.
A) 500 B) 8000 C) 16000 D) 33000 E) 64000

20. Two spherical balls of 2.0kg and 3.0kg masses are moving towards each other with velocities of 6m/s and
4m/s respectively. What must be the velocity of the smaller ball after collision, if the velocity of the bigger
ball is 3 m/s?
A) 1.5 m/s B) 2.5 m/s C) 3.5 m/s D) 4. 5m/s E) 5.5 m/s

21. A 100 kg golf ball is moving to the right with a velocity of 20m/s. It makes a head on collision with an 8 kg
steel ball, initially at rest. Compute velocities of the balls after collision?
A) -19.5 m/s and 0.5 m/s B) -17.1 m/s and 1.5 m/s
C) -15.1 m/s and 2.5 m/s D) -13.7 m/s and 6.7 m/s
E) -11.9 m/s and 6.7 m/s

22. Two bodies ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are attached to the ends of a string which passes over a pulley so that the two bodies
hang vertically. If the acceleration? (g = 9.8 m/s2)
A) 0.2 m/s2 B) 1.7 m/s2 C) 3.7 m/s2 D) 4.9 m/s2 E) 9.1 m/s2

23. A rock is thrown straight upward from the edge of a 30 m cliff, rising 10 m then falling all the way down to
the base of the cliff. Find the rock’s displacement.
A) 20 meters downward B) 30 meters downward
C) 40 meters upward D) 50 meters upward
E) 60 meters upward

24. A stone dropped from a certain height can reach the ground in 5 s. it is stopped after 3 seconds of its fall and
then allowed to fall again. Find the time taken by the stone to reach the ground for the remaining distance.
A) 2 s B) 4 s C) 6 s D) 8 s E) 10 s

25. A constant force acting on a body of mass 5 kg changes its speed from 2 m/s to 7 m/s in 10 s, the direction of
motion of the body remains unchanged. Find the magnitude of the force. (Take g = 10m/s2)
A) 0.5 N B) 1.5 N C) 2.5 N D) 3.5 N E) 4.5 N

26. A ball of mass 2 kg traveling at 8 ms-1 strikes a ball of mass 4 kg traveling at 2 ms-1. Both balls are moving
along the same straight line as shown.
8ms-1 2ms-1 V

2 4 2 4
kg kg kg kg
After collision, both balls move at the same velocity v. What is the magnitude of the velocity?
A) 4 ms-1 B) 5ms-1 C) 6 ms-1 D) 8ms-1 E) 10 ms-1

27. A submarine sends out a sonar signal (sound wave) in a direction directly downward. It takes 2.3 s for the
sound wave to travel from the submarine to the ocean bottom and back to the submarine. How high (approx)
up form the ocean floor is the submarine? (The speed of sound in water is 1,490 m/s.)
A) 1,700 m B) 3,000 m C) 5,000 m D) 9,000 m
E) It cannot be determined from the information given
28. Two blocks, X and Y, of masses m and 2m respectively, are accelerated along a smooth horizontal surface by a
force F applied to block X, as shown in the diagram.

What is the magnitude of the force exerted by block Y on block X during this acceleration?
A) 0 B) F/3 C) F/2 D) 2F/3 E) F

29. A box of mass m = 6 kg slides with speed v = 4 m/s across a frictionless floor. It suddenly explodes into two
piece. One piece, with mass m1 = 2kg moves in the same direction with speed v1 = 8m/s. Find the velocity of
the second piece.
A) 2m/s B) 4m/s C) 8m/s D) 9m/s E) 11m/s

30. A ball is thrown vertically upward with the velocity of 98 m/sec, how high does the ball rise?
A) 196 m B) 2 m C) 1/2 m D) 490 m E) 98 m

31. A car starts from rest and moves with a constant acceleration. During the 5th second of its motion, it covers a
distance of 36 meters. What is the acceleration of the car?
A) 12.5 m/s2 B) 8 m/s2 C) 15 m/s2 D) 16 m/s2 E) 14 m/s2

32. A jeep starts from rest with a constant acceleration of 4m/s2. At the same time, a car travels with a constant
speed of 36 km/h, over takes and passes the jeep. How far beyond the starting point will the jeep overtake
the car?
A) 20 meters B) 40 meters C) 50 meters D) 30 meters E) 10 meters

33. A truck traveling at a constant speed of 108 km/h rounds a curve of radius 200 m. Calculate the acceleration
of the truck?
A) 1.5 ms-2 B) 2.5 ms-2 C) 3.5 ms-2 D) 4.5 ms-2 E) 5.5 ms-2

34. Assume that you have two of identical volume, one weighing 2 newtons and the other 10 newtons. Both are
falling freely after being released from the same point simultaneously. Which of the following will then be
true?
I. The 10-N ball falling freely from rest will be accelerated at a greater rate than the 2-N ball.
II. At the end of 4 s of free fall, the 10-N ball will have 5 times the momentum of the 2-N ball.
III. At the end of 4 s of free fall, the 10-N ball will have the same kinetic energy as the 2-N ball.
IV. The 10-N ball possesses greater inertia than the 2-N ball.
A) I, II and III only B) I and III only C) II and IV only D) IV only E) None of these

35. A car is waiting at a traffic and when the signal turns green, the car starts ahead with a constant acceleration
of 2 m/s2. At the same time a bus traveling with a constant speed of 10 m/s overtakes and passes the car.
How far beyond it’s starting point will the car overtake the bus?
A) 40 m B) 30 m C) 90 m D) 120 m E) 100 m

36. A car of mass 1200 kg initially at rest has been accelerated to speed of 8 m/s in 16 meters. Average
acceleration of car is ______ m/s2 and force is ____ N.
A) 1.5 and 1500 B) 2.5 and 2400 C) 3.5 and 3500 D) 2 and 2400

37. A car starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration during 4th second of its motion it covers a
distance of 21 meters. The acceleration of the car is ____ ms-2
A) 04 B) 06 C) 08 D) 16

38. A car is travelling with uniform acceleration along a straight road. The road has marker posts every 100 m.
when the car passes one post. It has a speed of 10 m/s and when it passes the next one; its speed is 20 m/s.
What is car’s acceleration?
A) 0.67 m/s2 B) 1.5 m/s2 C) 2.5 m/s2 D) 6.0 m/s2
39. Upon signal of starting the race, athlete starts from rest with a constant acceleration of 8 m/s 2. At the same
time a cyclist travelling with a constant speed of 72 km/h passes the athlete. How far beyond the starting
point will the athlete overtakes the cyclist and what will be the speed of the athlete at the time when it
overtakes the cyclist respectively?
A) 100 m, 40 m/s B) 110 m, 50 m/s C) 120 m, 60 m/s D) 130 m, 70 m/s E) 140 m, 80 m/s

⃑⃑⃑⃑⃑
⃑⃑ = 𝐥𝐢𝐦 ∆𝒓 , then 𝑉
40. If 𝑉 ⃑⃑ will be:
∆𝒕→𝟎∆𝒕
A) Average velocity B) uniform velocity C) instantaneous velocity D) variable velocity E) None of these

41. A car starts from rest and moves with a constant acceleration. During the 5th second of its motion, it covers a
distance of 36 meters. What is the acceleration of the car?
A) 12.5 m/s2 B) 8 m/s2 C) 15 m/s2 D) 16 m/s2 E) 14 m/s2

42. A jeep starts form rest with a constant acceleration of 4 m/s2. At the same time, a car travels with a constant
speed of 36 km/h. over takes and passes the jeep. How far beyond the starting point will the jeep overtakes
the car?
A) 20 meters B) 40 meters C) 50 meters D) 30 meters E) 10 meters

43. A car is waiting at a traffic signal and when the signal turns green, the car starts ahead with a constant
acceleration of 2 m/s2. At the same time a bus travelling with a constant speed of 10 m/s overtakes and
passes the car. How far beyond it’s starting point will the car overtakes the bus?
A) 40 m B) 30 m C) 90 m D)120 m E) 100 m

44. A particle starts from rest at t = 0 and moves in a straight line with an acceleration as shown below. The
velocity of the particle at t = 3 s is

+3
Acceleration (m/s2)

1 2 3

-3

A) 2 m/s B) 3 m/s C) 4 m/s D) 6 m/s E) 8 m/s

45. The velocity time graph of a particle moving in a straight line is given below: The acceleration of the particle
at t = 9 s is

A) zero B) 5 m/s2 C) -5m/s2 D) -2m/s2 E) 10m/s2

46. In the following velocity-time graph, the distance travelled by the body in meters

t(s)
A) 200 B) 250 C) 300 D) 400 E) 500

47. Which feature of a graph allows acceleration to be determined?

A) The area under a displacement-time graph
B) The area under a velocity-time graph
C) The slope of a displacement-time graph
D) The slope of a velocity time graph

48. Two bodies ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are attached to the ends of a string which passes over a pulley so that the two bodies
hang vertically. If the mass of the body ‘X’ is 10 kg and that of ‘Y’ is 9.8 kg. Find the acceleration? (g = 9.8
m/s2)
A) 0.2 m/s2 B) 0.1 m/s2 C) 3.2 m/s2 D) 4.2 m/s2 E) 5.2 m/s2

49. A constant force acting on a body of mass 5 kg changes its speed from 2 m/s to 7 m/s in 10 s, the direction of
motion of the body remains unchanged. Find the magnitude of the force.
A) 0.5 N B) 1.5 N C) 2.5 N D) 3.5 N E) 4.5 N

50. Two blocks A and B having masses m1 and m2 respectively are placed in contact on a smooth horizontal
surface. A force F is applied horizontally on A The contact force between A and B is.
𝑚 𝑚 𝑚 𝐹 𝒎 𝑭
A) 𝑚1 F B) 𝑚2 F C) (m1 + m2) F D) 𝑚 +1 𝑚 E) 𝒎 +𝟐 𝒎
2 1 1 2 𝟏 𝟐

51. Two bodies having masses are 1 kg and 2 kg respectively are placed in contact on a smooth horizontal
surface. A force F is applied horizontally on 1 kg body. The contact force between the bodies is
𝐹 𝐹 𝟐𝑭 3
A) B) C) D) 𝐹 E) F
2 3 𝟑 2

52. Two masses, each equal to m, are attached to one another by friction less string passing over a smooth pulley.
The tension in the string is
𝑚
A) mg B) 2mg C) 2 g D) m2g E) zero

53. The tension T in the thread shown in figure is

A) 10 N B) Zero C) 98 N D) 20 N E) 196 N

54. A block of mass 1 kg is connected by a light string passing over two smooth pulleys placed on a smooth
horizontal surface as shown. Another block as 1 kg is connected to the other end of the string then
acceleration of the system and tension in the string are

A) 5 m/s2, 5 N B) 1 m/s2, 1 N C) 1 m/s2, 5 N D) 5 m/s2, 10 N E) 1 m/s2, 10 N

55. Forces in nature always occur in
A) Quadrupled B) triplet C) isolation D) pair

56. A 5kg object is to be given an upward acceleration of 3m/s2 by a rope pulling straight upward on it. The
tension in the rope is (g = 10m/s2).
A) 50N B) 65N C) 150N D) 300N

57. The only force acting on a 5kg object has components Fx = 15N and Fy = 20N. the resultant acceleration is:
A) 5m/s2 B) 7 m/s2 C) 1 m/s2 D) 25 m/s2

58. The frictional force between a box of mass 4Kg and the floor is 15N. it is pulled across the floor with a
constant force such that it accelerates at 0.8 m/s2. What is the force applied to the box?
A) 18.2N B) 3.2N C) 15N D) 11.8N

59. Two spherical balls of 2.0 kg and 3.0 kg masses are moving towards each other with velocities of 6 m/s and 4
m/s respectively. What must be the velocities of the smaller ball after collision, if the velocity of the bigger
ball is 3 m/s?
A) 1.5 m/s B) 2.5 m/s C) 3.5 m/s D) -4.5 m/s E) 5.5 m/s

60. A box of mass m = 6 kg slides with speed v = 4 m/s across a frictionless floor. It suddenly explodes into two
pieces. One piece, with mass m1 = 2 kg moves in the same direction with speed. V1 = 8 m/s. find the velocity of
the second piece.
A) 2 m/s B) 4 m/s C) 8 m/s D) 9 m/s E) 11 m/s

61. Assume that you have two balls of identical volume, one weighing 2 Newton’s and the other 10 Newton’s.
both are falling freely after being released from the same point simultaneously. Which of the following will
then be true?
(i) The 10-N ball falling freely from rest will be accelerated at a greater rate than the 2-N ball.
(ii) At the end of 4 s of free fall, the 10-N ball will have 5 times the momentum of the 2-N ball .
(iii) At the end of 4 s of free fall, the 10-N ball will have the same kinetic energy as the 2-N ball.
(iv) The 10-N ball possesses greater inertia than the 2-N ball.
A) I, II and III only B) I and III only C) II and IV only D) IV only E) None of the above

62. When a bullet is fired by a gun, the gun recoils backward with a velocity
A) Less than that of the bullet B) Equal to that of the bullet
C) Greater than that of the bullet D) None of these

63. A machine-gun fires 20 bullets per second into a target. Each bullet weights 150 gm and has a speed 800 of
m/s. the force necessary to hold the gun in position is
A) 800 N B) 1000 N C) 1200 N D) 2400 N E) 2600 N

64. Two bodies X of mass 4 kg and Y of mass 6 kg have same linear momentum. If the kinetic energy of Body Y is
48 J then kinetic energy of body X is?
A) 48 J B) 64 J C) 72 J D) 96 J

65. A bullet hits and gets embedded in a solid block resting on a horizontal friction less table. What is conserved?
A) Momentum and kinetic energy B) Momentum alone
C) Kinetic energy alone D) Both B and C
E) Neither momentum nor kinetic energy
66. A rocket works on the principle of conservation of
A) Energy B) Heat C) Mass D) Linear Momentum
E) Angular momentum

67. A 100grams bullet is fired from a 10Kg gun with a speed of 1000m/s. What is the speed of recoil of the gun?
A) 20mm/s B) 30m/s C) 40m/s D) 10m/s
68. In inelastic collision the kinetic energy before and after the collision ____ But the momentum of the system
before and after the collision is ____
A) Conserved … conserved B) Changes … conserved
C) Changes . . . Changes D) conserved…changes

69. In, inelastic collision:

A) The momentum of the system as well as the kinetic energy of the system before and after the collision is
conserved i.e. remains same.
B) The momentum of the system before and after the collision changes but the kinetic energy before and
after the collision remains conserved
C) the momentum of the system before and after the collision is conserved (remains samE) but the
kinetic energy before and after the collision changes.
D) The momentum of the system as well as the kinetic energy of the system before and after the collision
changes.
E) None of the above

70. A ball moving horizontally with speed ‘v’ strikes the bob of a simple pendulum at rest. The mass of the bob is
equal to that of the ball. If the collision is elastic the bob will rise to a height:
𝑣2 𝒗𝟐 𝑣2 𝑣2 𝑣2
A) 𝑔
B) 𝟐𝒈 C) 4𝑔 D) 8𝑔 E) 7𝑔

71. An object is falling down with a speed of 20 m/s. after 3 seconds its velocity will be ____ m/s (g = 10 m/s2).
A) 05 B) 50 C) 55 D) 95

72. A rock is thrown straight upward from the edge of a 30 m cliff, rising 10 m then falling all the way down to
the base of the cliff. Find the rock’s displacement.
A) 20 meters downward B) 30 meters downward
C) 40 meters upward D) 50 meters upward
E) 60 meters upward

73. A stone dropped from a certain height can reach the ground in 5 s. it is stopped after 3 seconds of its fall and
then allowed to fall again. Find the time taken by the stone to reach the ground for the remaining distance.
A) 2 s B) 4 s C) 6 s D) 8 s E) 10 s

74. A ball is thrown vertically upward with the velocity of 98 m/sec, how high does the ball rise?
A) 196 m B) 2 m C) ½ m D) 490 m E) 98 m

75. What will be the ratio of distance moved by a freely falling body in 4th and 5th second of its journey?
A) 4 : 5 B) 5 : 5 C) 16 : 25 D) 1 : 1

76. A body starts sliding on a rough horizontal surface with a speed of 10 m/s. if the coefficient of friction is 0.2,
find the distance traveled by the body before coming to rest. ( g = 10 m/s2)
A) 15 m B) 25 m C) 35 m D) 40 m E) 55 m

77. A ball at the top of the slope of height 1m is at rest and plane has no friction. The speed at the bottom of the
inclined plane is:
A) 2√𝟓 m/s B) 4√5 m/s C) 10√2 m/s D) 100 m/s

78. A cyclist is going up a slope of 30o with a speed of 3.5m/s. If he stops pedaling, how much distance will he
move before coming to rest? (Assume the friction to be negligible).
A) 1.25m B) 3.25m C) 5.25m D) 6.25m

79. A truck starts from rest at the top of a slope which is 1m high and 49m long. Find its acceleration and speed
at the bottom of the slope assuming that friction is negligible.
A) 0.2m/s2, 4.4m/s B) 2m/s2, 4.4m/s C) 4m/s2, 6m/s D) 4m/s2, 2.4m/s
 CHAPTER 04

1. A man in a train moving with a constant velocity drops a ball on the platform. The path of the ball as seen by
an observer standing on the platform is the two angles of projection for which the range is 20m? (g = 10
m/s2)
A) A circle B) A straight line
C) A parabola D) None of these

2. The angle of projection for which the maximum height and the horizontal range of a projectile are equal is
A) 450 B) tan-1(4)
C) tan-1(1/4) D) None of these

3. The angle of projection of a projectile is 300. The ratio of the horizontal range and the maximum height is
A) 4√3 B) 3√4
C) 2√3 D) 4√2
 
4. A projectile is fired at radians with range R1 and another projectile is fired at radians with range R2
3 6
,then the relation is
A) R1 = R2 B) R1 = 2R2
C) R1 = 4R2 D) R1 = 3R2

5. A heavy and lighter body are dropped from the top of a tower. Which will reach the ground first?
A) Heavier one
B) Lighter one
C) Both will reach at same time
D) Depends upon the masses of the balls

6. A projectile is fired with a velocity of 10 m/s at an angle of 600 with the horizontal. Its velocity at the highest
point is
A) 10 m/s B) 8.66 m/s
C) 5 m/s D) zero

7. In case of a projectile, what is the angle between the is instantaneous velocity and acceleration at the highest
point?
A) 1800 B) 900
C) 450 D) 00

8. An athlete runs with a speed 12 m/s. Determine the longest jump he can undertake.
A) 14.4 m B) 12 m
C) 12.1 m D) 16.2 m

9. Two bullets are fired at angle 𝜃 and (90 – 𝜃) to the horizontal with the same speed. The ratio of their times of
flight is
A) 1 : tan𝜃 B) tan2𝜃 : 1
C) 1 : 1 D) tan𝜃 : 1

10. Two projectiles are fired at different angles with the same magnitude of velocity such that they have the same
range. At what angles they might have been projected?
A) 350 and 750 B) 250 and 650
C) 100 and 500 D) None of these

11. Two balls are projected in directions at 300 and 600 with the horizontal. If both attain the same height, the
ratio of their initial speeds is
A)√3 : 1 B) 1 : √3
C) 2 : √3 D) √3 : 2
12. A large number of bullets are fired in all directions with the same speed v. The maximum area on the ground
on which these bullets will spread is
𝜋 𝑣2 𝜋 𝑣4
A) 𝑔
B) 𝑔2
𝜋 𝑣2 𝜋 𝑣2
C) 𝑔2
D) 𝑔4

13. The S.I unit of angular displacement is

A) Centimeter B) Radian
C) Kelvin D) Meter

14. An object of mass of 2 kg rotates at constant speed in a horizontal circle of radius 5 m. The time for one
complete revolution is 3 s. What is the magnitude of the resultant force acting on the object?
4 2 40 2
N N
A) 9 B) 9
100  2 400  2
N N
C) 9 D) 9

15. A wheel is 1 m in diameter. When it makes 30 rev. per minute, the linear speed of a point in m/sec on its
circumference is
A)  B) 30 
C)  / 2 D) 60 

16. Which of the following is not the unit angular displacement?

A) Degree B) Radian
C) Rotation D) Revolution

17. The angular speed of hour's hand of mechanical watch is --------- radian per hour
A) 𝜋/8 B) 𝜋/4
C) 𝜋/12 D) 𝜋/6

18. A car going around a certain curve at a speed of 25 km/h has centripetal force acting on it of 100 N. if the
speed of the car is doubled, the centripetal force,
A) is quadrupled B) is doubled
C) is multiplied by the √2 D) is reduced to ½ of the original value
E) is reduced to 1/6 of the original value

19. A stone is thrown horizontally from 2.4m above the ground at 35 m/s. The wall is 14m away and 1m high. At
what height the stone will reach? Where will the stone land?
A) 1.62m, 24.5m B) 2.2m,31m C) 3.22m,41m D) 4.22m,51m E) 5.22m,61m

20. A 400 gram ball is tied to the end of a cord and whirled in a horizontal circle of radius 0.6 m. If the ball makes
five complete revolutions in 2s, what is the ball’s linear speed?
A) 4.42 m/s B) 5.42 m/s C) 7.42 m/s D) 8.42 m/s E) 9.42 m/s

21. An apple is thrown with a speed of 30 m/s in a direction 30o above the horizon. Find out its horizontal range.
(g = 9.8 m/s2).
A) 20m B) 40m C) 60m D) 80m E) 100m

22. A football, at rest on the ground, is kicked with an initial velocity of 10 m/s at a launch angle of 30o. Calculate
its total flight time, assuming that air resistance is negligible.
A) 0.5 s B) 1 s C) 1.7 s D) 2 s E) 4 s

23. A rotating wheel of radius 0.5 m has an angular velocity of 5 rad/s at some instant and 10 rad/s after 5 s. Find
the angular acceleration of a point on its rim.
A) 1 rad/s2 B) 3 rad/s2 C) 5 rad/s2 D) 7 rad/s2 E) 9 rad/s2
24. A shot leaves a gun at the rate of 160 m/s. Calculate the greatest distance to which it could be projected.
(Take g = 10 m/s2)
A) 2460 m B) 2560 m C) 2680 m D) 2680 m E) 2860 m

25. A particle is projected at an angle of 45o with a velocity of 9.8m/s. The horizontal range will be:
(g = 98m/s2)
9.8
A) 2 m B) 9.8√2 m C) 9.8 m D) 4.9 m E) 3.1 m
√

26. A player throws a ball at an initial velocity of 36 m/s. the maximum distance the ball can reach (assume ball
is caught at the same height at which it was releaseD) is:
A) 146 m B) 130 m C) 132 m D) 129 m E) 145 m

27. A rescue helicopter drops a package of emergency ration to a stranded party on the ground. If the helicopter
is traveling horizontally at 40 m/s at a height 100 m above the ground, where does the package strike the
ground relative to the point at which it was released? (g = 9.8 m/s2)
A) 120 m B) 130 m C) 140 m D) 180.7 m E) 200.3 m

28. A shot leaves a gun at the rate of 160 m/s. Calculate the greatest distance to which it could be projected and
the height to which it would rise?(g = 10 m/s2)
A) 1560m, 540m B) 2560m, 650m C) 3560m, 740m D) 4560m, 840m E) 9595m,348m
 CHAPTER 05

1. When the external torque on a system is zero, there will be conservation of its
A) Total energy B) Linear momentum
C) Angular momentum D) None of the above

2. The center of gravity of a body is

A) The point at which the whole weight of the body acts
B) The center of the body
C) The point at which the mass of body acts
D) None of these

3. Torque in terms of angular momentum is given by

A) τ = ∆L /∆r B) τ = ∆t /∆L
C) τ = ∆L. ∆r D) τ = ∆L /∆t

4. A force passing through the centre of gravity of a body

A) Holds the body in equilibrium
B) Results only in rotational motion
C) Results only in translational motion
D) Results in both translational and rotational motion

5. The angular momentum of a rigid body in terms of moment of inertia I and angular velocity ω is:
A) L = Iω B) L = Iω2
C) L = I2ω2 D) L = ½ Iω2
 CHAPTER 06

1. An object weighs 100 Newton on Earth’s surface. when it is moved to a point one Earth radius above Earth’s
surface, it will weigh will be
A) 100N B) 25N C) 50N D) 400N

2. Moon has masses 1/96 of that of the earth and has ¼ diameter to that of the earth, the weight of a man on
moon will be:
A) same as that on the surface of earth
B) 1/5 of that on the surface of earth
C) 1/4 of that on the surface of earth
D) 1/6 of that on the surface of earth

3. At what depth from the surface of earth, the value of gravitational acceleration remains one half
A) ⅓Re B) ½ Re C) ¼ Re D) 2/3 Re

4. A man standing on a scale in an elevator notices that the scale reads 30 Newton greater than his normal
weight. Which type of movement of elevator could cause this greater-than normal reading.
A) accelerating downward
B) accelerating upward
C) moving upward at constant speed
D) moving downward at constant speed

5. A man weights 980 N in a stationary lift. What will be his weight if the lift starts moving up with an
acceleration of 9.8 m/Sec-2?
A) 980N B) 1950N C)1960N D) 1176N

6. LUHMS 2007: The satellites are in a circular orbit around the Earth. What is the relationship between the radii
r of their orbits and their speeds v?
1 1
A) v α r2 Bvαr C v 2 Dv
r r2
7. A body weight 100 N on the surface of the earth. Its weight at a depth equal to half the radius of the earth is
A) 100 N B) 25 N
C) 75 N D) 50 N

8. If the mass of earth becomes four times, then the value of g becomes
A) No effect B) Half
C) Double D) Four times

9. If a hole is a dug to the center of earth and a ball is dropped in the ball will
A) Be static
B) Attain max acceleration
C) Oscillate
D) Continue its motion till the other end and stop

10. Escape velocity for M kg object is 11 kms-1. For 2M kg it is

A) 22 kms-1 B) 11 kms-1
C) 44 kms -1 D) None of these

11. A man of mass 75 kg stands in a lift. What force does the floor exert on him when the lift starts moving
upward with an acceleration of 2 m/s2? (g = 10 m/s2)
A) 1200 N B) 900 N
C) 1600 N D) 2000 N

12. An 80 kg man stands on a spring balance in an elevator. When it starts to move, the scale reads 700 N. what is
the acceleration of the elevator? (g = 10 m/s2)
A) 1.25 m/s2 upward B) 2 m/s2 downward
C) 2 m/s2 upward D) 1.25 m/s2 downward
E) 10 m/s2 upwards
13. Find the gravitational force of attraction between two balls each weighing 10 kg. when placed at a distance of
1 meter apart.
A) 6.673 x 10-9N B) 7.71 x 10-9N C) 8.91 x 10-9N D) 9.91 x 10-9N E) 10.31 x 10-9N

14. When a 7000 N elevator moves from street level to the top of a building 300 m above the street level, what is
the change in gravitational potential energy?
A) 1.1 x 106 J B) 2.1 x 106 J C) 3.1 x 106 J D) 4.1 x 106 J E) 5.1 x 106 J

15. What will be the gravitational force of attraction between two balls each weighing 5 kg, when placed at a
distance of 0.33 m apart. (G = 6.673 x 10-11 Nm2/kg2).
A) 9.1 x 10-8N B) 7.1 x 10-8N C) 6.1 x 10-8N D) 3.5 x 10-8N E) 1.5 x 10-8N

16. A moon of mass ‘m’ orbits a planet of mass 100 m. Let the strength of the gravitational force exerted by the
planet on the moon be denoted by F1, and let the strength of the gravitational force exerted by the moon on
the planet be F2. Which of the following is true?
A) F1 is ten times greater than F2 B) F1 is ten times smaller than F2
C) F2 is ten times greater than F1 D) F2 is ten times smaller than F1
E) F1 is equal to F2

17. If the diameter of the earth becomes two times its present value and its mass remains unchanged, then how
would the weight of an object on the surface of the earth be affected?
A) Becomes double B) Becomes one fourth
C) Becomes one third D) Remains same
E) Becomes half

18. On the ground, the gravitational force on a satellite is W. What is the gravitational force on the satellite when
at a height R/50, where R is the radius of the Earth?
A) 1.04W B) 1.02W C) 0.98W D) 0.96W E) 2.13W

19. If the frequency of a pendulum is four times greater on an unknown planet than it is on earth, then the
gravitational constant on that planet is:
A) 16 times greater B) 4 times greater C) 4 times lower D) 16 times lower E) 24 times lower

20. What is the change in gravitational potential energy when 7000 N elevator moves from street level to the top
of building 300 m above the street level?
A) 2100 J B) 21000 J C) 210000 J D) 2.1 x 106 J E) 210 J

21. Find the gravitational force of attraction between two balls each weighing 10 kg, when placed at a distance of
1m apart.
(G = 6.673 x 10-11 Nm2/kg2)
A) 3.373 x 10-9N B) 4.673 x 10-9N C) 5.373 x 10-9N D) 6.673 x 10-9N E) 7.373 x 10-9N

22. The radius of the moon is 27% of the earth’s radius and it’s mass is 1.2% of the earth’s mass. Find the
acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the moon.
A) 0.431 m/s2 B) 1.615 m/s2 C) 2.431 m/s2 D) 3.615 m/s2 E) 4.431 m/s2

23. A mass ‘m’ is at a height ‘h = RE’ from Earth surface, and is thrown with what velocity it escape (escape
velocity)
A) 11.2km/s B) 5.6km/s C) 7.9km/s D) 61km/s

24. Two identical spheres of same material and of radius ‘r’ are in contact. The force gravitation ‘F’ is:
1 1
A) F α 𝑟2 B) F α r2 C) F α 𝑟4 D) F α r4

25. Find the weight of a person at depth R/2 below surface. If weight on surface is 100N.
A) 200N B) 50N C) 400N D) 100N

26. Suppose there existed a planet that went around the sun twice as fast as the Earth. What would be its orbital
size as compared to that of the Earth?
A) Equal B) Lesser C) Greater D) Depends on mass of sun
27. A Saturn year is 29.5 times the earth year. How far is the Saturn from the sun? If the earth is 1.50x108Km
from the sun.
A) 1.5x1011 (29.5) B) 1.5x1011 (29.5)3/2 C) 1.5x1011 (29.5)𝟐/𝟑 D) None

28. A body 63N on the surface of the Earth. What is the gravitational force on it due to the earth at a height equal
to half the radius of the Earth?
63 𝟒 9
A) 63N B) 2 N C) 𝟗 x 63 D) 4 x 63

29. Gravitational force is:

A) Conservative B) Strong C) Depends on medium D) All

30. Where will it be profitable to purchase 1Kg sugar (by spring balance)
A) At poles B) At equator C) At 45o latitude D) At 40olatitude
𝑔
31. The depth at which the effective value of acceleration due to gravity is “4 ”
𝟑𝑹𝑬 𝑹𝑬 𝑅𝐸
A) RE B) 𝟒
C) 𝟐
D) 4

32. The value of gravitational acceleration at the equator is:

A) g’ = g – ω2 RE B) g’ = g C) g’ = 0 D) None

33. Gravitational force per unit test mass is called

A) P.E B) Intensity of gravitational field
C) Gravitational field D) None

34. For a satellite escape velocity is 11km/s. If the satellite is launched at an angle of 60o with the vertical, then
escape velocity will be;
11
A) 11 km/s B) 11 √3 km/s C) 3 km/s D) 33 km/s
√

35. The escape velocity from the Earth is about 11km/s. the escape velocity from a planet having twice the radius
and the same mean density as the Earth, is;
A) 22km/s B) 11km/s C) 33km/s D) None

36. The direction of orbital velocity is;

A) Direction of tangent B) Parallel to axis rotation
C) Towards center D) None of them

37. Two satellites A and B go round a planet P in circular orbits having radius 4R and R respectively. If the speed
of the satellite A is 3V, the speed of the satellite B will be;
3 2
A) 12V B) 6V C) 2 V D) 3 V

38. The gravitational force ‘Fg’. the electrostatic force ‘FE’, the Nuclear force ‘FN’, then what is the correct answer;
A) FN>Fg> FE B) Fg> FE> FN C) FN = FE>Fg D) FN> FE>Fg

39. The time period of a satellite orbiting around the Earth depends on;
A) Mass of satellite B) Mass of Earth C) Radius of orbit D)Both ‘b’&‘c’

40. For geostationary satellite;

A) It revolves around equatorial plane
B) Its sense of rotation is anticlock wise from west to east
C) Its time period is T = 24hrs
D) All of these

41. Radius of planet “X” is 1/3rd that of the earth and its mass is 1/81 times of earth. The value of “g” at;
𝟏𝟎 9
A) 0 B) 5 C) 𝟗 D) 10
42. At the surface of earth an object of mass “m” has weight “W”. if this object is transported to an altitude that’s
twice the radius of the earth then at the new location.
𝑚 𝑊 𝑊
A) Its mass is 2 and weight is 2 B) Its mass is m and weight is 2
𝑚 𝑊 𝑾
C) Its mass is and weight is D) Its mass is m and weight is
2 4 𝟗
 CHAPTER 07

1. A force 𝐹⃗ = 5𝑖 + 6𝑗 − 4𝑘 is acting on a body, produces a displacement𝑆⃗ = 6𝑖 + 5𝑘. Work done by the force is
A) 10 units B) 18 units
C) 11 units D) 15 units

2. A 1 kg mass has a K.E. of 1 joule when its speed is

A) 0.45 m/s B) 1 m/s
C) 1.4 m/s D) 4.4 m/s

3. Two bodies of masses m and 4m are dropped from the top of a tower. When they reach the ground their
Kinetic Energy will be in the ratio
A) 1 : 2 B) 2 : 1
C) 1 : 4 D) 4 : 1

4. A 500 g body has a velocity 𝑣 = 3𝑖 + 4𝑗 m/s at a certain instant. Its kinetic energy is
A) 6.25 J B) 62.5 J
C) 6.25 x 103 J D) 62.5 x 103 J

5. A body moves a distance of 10 m along a straight line under the action of 5 N. If the work done is 25 joules,
the angle which the force makes with the direction of motion of the body is
A) 00 B) 300
C) 60 0 D) 900

6. Two bodies of mass 1 kg and 2kg have equal momentum. The ratio of their kinetic energies is
A) 1:1 B) 2:1
C) 4:1 D) 1:2

7. A ball moving horizontally with speed ‘v’ strikes the bob of a simple pendulum at rest. The mass of the bob is equal t
that of the ball. If the collision is elastic the bob will rise to a height.
v2 v2
A) B)
g 2g
v2 v2
C) D)
4g 8g

8. The energy obtained by tapping the energy of the hot molten areas inside the earth crust is
A) Nuclear energy B) Electrical energy
C) Geothermal energy D) Chemical energy

9. The fossil fuels are mainly

A) Coal and wood B) Petroleum and natural gas
C) Both A & B D) None of these

10. Two bodies of masses m and 4m are dropped from the top of a tower. When they reach the ground their
Kinetic Energy will be in the ratio
A) 1 : 2 B) 2 : 1
C) 1 : 4 D) 4 : 1

11. Solar energy at normal incidence outside the Earth’s atmosphere is about:
A) 1.4 KW m-2 B) 14 KW m-
C) 0.1 KW m-2 D) 1.0 KW m-2

12. A body is falling freely. Which of the following is a constant of motion?

A) gh+½ v2 B) gh-½ v2
C) gh D) mgh
13. Two masses of 1 g and 4 g are moving with equal kinetic energies. The ratio of the magnitudes of their linear,
momentum is;
A) 4:1 B) 52:1
C) 1:2 D) 1:16

14. Ratio of dimensions of power and K.E is,

A) 1:1 B) T:1
C) 1:T D) M:T

15. A 70 kg sportsman runs up a long flight of stairs in 4 seconds. The vertical height of the stairs is 4.5 m. what
will be his power output in watts?
A) 7.7 x 102 W B) 8.8 x 103 W C) 9.5 x 103 W D) 10.2 x 104 W E) 13.5 x 107 W

16. Calculate the final kinetic energy when a shop keeper pushes a fruit crate, initially at rest towards another
shop keeper by exerting a constant horizontal force ⃑⃑⃑⃗
𝐹 of magnitude 5N through a distance of 1 meter.
A) 2 J B) 3 J C) 5 J D) 7 J E) 9 J

17. A man pushes a box, initially at rest towards another man by exerting a constant horizontal force ⃑⃑⃑⃗
𝐹 of
magnitude 5N through a distance of 1m. Its final kinetic energy is:
A) 5 J B) 10 J C) 15 J D) 20 J E) 25 J

18. A neutron travels a distance of 12 m in a time interval of 3.6 x 10-4s. Assuming its speed was constant, its
kinetic energy is:
A) 3.1 eV B) 4.7 eV C) 5.78 eV D) 6.91 eV E) 7.81 eV

19. A 40 kg block is resting at a height of 5 m off the ground. If the block is released and falls to the ground, what
is its total energy at a height of 2 m? (g = 10 m/s2)
A) 0 J B) 400 J C) 2 kJ D) 6 kJ
E) It cannot be determined from the information given

20. A block of mass 50 kg is pulled on a frictionless floor by a force of 210 N directed at 30o to the horizontal. If
the block moves 3.0 m, what is the work done on it by the applied force?
A) 115√2J B) 215√2J C) 315√2J D) 415√2J E) 515√2J

21. A 70 kg man runs up a bill through a height of 3 meters in 2 seconds. His average power output is:
(g = 10 m/sec2)
A) 1050 watts B) 970 watts C) 1500 watts D) 1300 watts E) 500 watts

22. All pushes a ball, initially at rest, towards Bilal, by exerting a constant horizontal force F of magnitude N
through a distance of 2.5m. what will be the that kinetic energy of the ball?
A) 1.5 J B) 9.5 J C) 13.7 J D) 17.1 J E) 22.6 J

23. A body travels a distance of 24meters in 3 x 10-2 seconds. Assuming its speed constant, find its kinetic energy.
(Take 1.5 x 10-20 kg as the mass of the body.)
A) 40 x 10-16 Joules B) 41 x 10-16 Joules C) 36 x 10-16Joules D) 48 x 10-16 Joules E) 55 x 10-16 Joules

24. A particle moves form position ⃑⃑⃑⃗𝑟1 = 3𝑖̂ + 2𝑗̂ – 6𝑘̂ to position ⃑⃑⃑⃗
𝑟2 = 14𝑖̂ + 13𝑗̂ + 9𝑘̂ under the action of a force ⃑⃑⃑⃗
𝐹 =
̂
8𝑖̂ + 2𝑗̂ + 6𝑘. Find the work done by the force.
A) 50 units B) 75 units C) 125 units D) 155 units E) 200 units

25. A body of mass 5 kg, initially at rest, is moved by a horizontal force of 2N on a smooth horizontal surface. Find
the work done by the force in 10s?
A) 40 J B) 30 J C) 50 J D) 20 J E) 10 J

26. A pump on ground floor can pump water to fill a tank of volume 30m3 in 10min. if the tank is 6m above the
ground and 𝜂 = 30%. How much electric power is consumed by the pump?
A) 104watt B) 105watt C) 10-4watt D) 10-5watt
27. A body starts from rest and is moving on a straight line and having a constant power then relation between
“S” and “t” is;
A) t3/4 B) t3/2 C) t1/4 D) t1/2

28. A 10kg satellite completes one revolution around the earth at a height of 100km in 108min. The work done
by the gravitational force of earth will be;
108 ×10𝐽 100 ×10𝐽
A) 108x100x10J B) 100 C) 108 D) Zero

29. A 1KW motor drives a pump which raises water through a height of 15m. Calculate the mass of water lifted
per second assuming the system is 75% efficient.
A) 6.7Kg B) 5Kg C) 750Kg D) 1000Kg

30. A horizontal force of 5N is required to maintain a velocity of 2m/s for a block of 10Kg mass sliding over a
rough surface. The work done by the force in one minute is;
A) 600J B) 60J C) 6J D) 6000J

31. A particle of mass 2Kg travels along a curve with velocity 3i + 4k m/s. after sometime its velocity becomes 8i
+ 6j due to the action of a conservative field the work done on the particle during this interval of time is;
A) 75J B) 25J C) 50J D) 100J

32. A body of mass 10Kg at rest is acted upon simultaneously by two forces 4N and 3N at right angles to each
other. The K.E of the body at the end of 10sec.
A) 100J B) 300J C) 50J D) 125J

33. If we throw a body upward with velocity of 4m/s at what height its k.e reduces to half of the initial value.
A) 4m B) 2m C) 1m D) None

34. A block of mass 2Kg is dropped from a height of 10m on a spring of force constant K = 200N/m, the max
compression of the spring is;
A) 1.414m B) 10m C) 0.4m D) 0.3m
 CHAPTER 08 A)
(S.H.M)

1. Which of the following does not exhibit S.H.M.

A) A plucked violin string
B) A mass attached to a spring when released
C) A train shunting between two terminals
D) A simple pendulum

2. A simple harmonic oscillator has time period T. the time taken by it to travel from the extreme position to
half the amplitude is;
A) T/6 B) T/4
C) T/8 D) T/2

3. Total energy of a particle executing S.H.M of amplitude A is proportional to;

A) A2 B) A-2
C) A1 D) A-1

4. The equation of displacement of a body executing S.H.M is x=xo cos 𝜔t. What is initial phase?
A) 00 B) 900
C) 180 0 D) 2700

5. The K.E and P.E of a particle executing S.H.M , with amplitude A will be equal when its displacement is;
A) A√2 B) A/2
𝐴 2
C) D) A √3
√2

6. The velocity – time graph of a harmonic oscillation is shown in the figure in the following figure. The
frequency of oscillation is;

A) 25 Hz B) 50 Hz
C) 12.25 Hz D) 33.3 Hz

7. The total energy of simple harmonic motion is E. what will be the K.E of the particle when displacement is
half of the amplitude?
A) 3E/4 B) E/2
C) E/4 D) E/3

8. A particle is performing S.H.M with amplitude A and angular velocity 𝜔. The ratio of maximum velocity to
maximum acceleration is;
A) 𝜔 B) 1/ 𝜔
C) 𝜔2 D) A 𝜔
9. The time – displacement graph of S.H.M, is;
A) Pulse wave B) Square wave
C) sine wave D) all of these

10. If F=0.4 and x=2 cm then k=

A) 10 N/m B) 20 N/m
C) 3 N/m D) 30 N/m

11. If the period of oscillation of mass M suspended from a spring is 1 sec, the period of mass 4 M will be;
A) ¼ sec B) ½ sec
C) 2 sec D) 4 sec
12. A particle of mass 200 g executes S.H.M. The restoring force is provided by a spring of force constant 80N/m.
the time period of oscillation is;
A) 0.31sec B) 0.15sec
C) 0.05 sec D) 0.02 sec

13. If three identical springs each of constant k are hooked together, the spring constant of resultant spring will
be;
A) 3 k B) 2 k
C) k/4 D) k/3

14. A block of mass m=2Kg is attached to an ideal spring of spring constant K=200N / m. The block is at rest at its
equilibrium position. An impulsive force acts on the block giving it an initial speed of 2m / s. Find the
amplitude of the resultant oscillations
A) 2 B) 3
C) 0.2 D) 0.02

15. A spring is moving with SHM from X = 10cm to X = 40cm then it has maximum velocity at?
A) 10cm B) 25cm
C) 30cm D) 40cm

16. A long spring is stretched by 2 cm and its potential energy is U. if the spring is stretched by 10cm the
potential energy stored in the would be:
A) U/ 5 B) U/25
C) 25 U D) 5 U

17. Force responsible for vibratory motion of simple pendulum is

A) 𝑚𝑔 sin 𝜃 B) 𝑚𝑔 cos 𝜃
C) Tension D) All of them

18. For a simple pendulum the graph between L & T2 is

A) Straight line B) Parabola
C) Curve D) Ellipse

19. A girl is swinging on a swing in the sitting position. How will the period of swing be affected if she stands up?
A) The period will now be shorter
B) The period will now be longer
C) The period will remain unchanged
D) The period may become longer or shorter depending upon the height of girl

20. A simple harmonic oscillator in a lift. If the lift start moving upwards with a uniform acceleration, the period
will;
A) Remains unaffected
B) Be shorter
C) Be longer
D) May be shorter or longer depending on the magnitude of acceleration

21. If ratio of time periods of two pendulum is 1:2 , then the ratio of their lengths will be;
A) 4 : 1 B) 1 : 2
C) 1 ; 4 D) None

22. The length of second’s pendulum at a place where g=980 cm/sec2 is;
A) 77 cm B) 88.1 cm
C) 99.2 cm D) 100.3 cm

23. Second’s pendulum has frequency equal to?

A) 0.5Hz B) 1Hz
C) 2Hz D) 4Hz
24. If length of simple pendulum becomes g/pi, what will be its time period?
A) 2𝜋 B) 2√𝜋

C) √2⁄𝜋 D) √2𝜋

25. If we double the length of the simple pendulum at a place where value of 'g' is halved. Then time period will
be
A) half B) four times
C) 8 times D) double

26. The acceleration of free fall on the moon is 1/6 of that on the earth. What would be the period on the moon of
a simple pendulum which has a period of 1sec on earth ( K.B2002)
A) 1/6 sec B) 1/ 6 6sec
C) 6 sec D) 6sec

27. A body of mass 4 kg attached to a spring is displaced through 0.04 m from its equilibrium position and then
released. If the spring constant is 400 N/m. Find the time period of vibration?
A) 4.567 s B) 3.416 s C) 2.315 s D) 1.325 s E) 0.628 s

28. A train is approaching a station at 90 km/h sounding a whistle of frequency 1000 Hz. What will be the
apparent frequency heard by the listener sitting on the platform if the train moves away from the station
with the same speed? (speed of sound = 240 m/s)
A) 931.5 Hz B) 105.7 Hz C) 135.9 Hz D) 153.1 Hz E) 164.9 Hz

29. A simple pendulum completes one oscillation in 4 seconds. Calculate its length when g = 9.8 m/s2, as the time
𝑙
period of simple pendulum is given by T = 2𝜋√𝑔.
A) 3.973 m B) 5.123 m C) 7.111 m D) 9.231 m E) 12.141 m

30. A sound wave with a frequency of 343 Hz travels through the air. What is its wavelength? (speed of sound
through air = 343 m/s)
A) 1 m B) 2 m C) 3 m D) 4 m E) 5 m

31. A student is performing a lab experiment on simple harmonic motion. He has two different springs (with
constants k1 and k2) and two different blocks (of masses m1 and m2). If k1 = 2k2 and m1 = 2m2, which of the
following combinations would give the student the spring-block simple harmonic oscillator with the shortest
period?
A) The spring with force constant k1 and the block of mass m1
B) The spring with force constant k1 and the block of mass m2
C) The spring with force constant k2 and the block of mass m1
D) The spring with force constant k2 and the block of mass m2
E) All the combinations above would give the same period.

32. A body of mass 0.025 kg attached to a spring is displaced through 0.1 m to the right of equilibrium position. If
the spring constant is 0.4 N/m and its velocity at the end of displacement is 0.4 m/sec, then its total energy
will be:
A) 4 x 10-3 J B) 0.0002 J C) 0.000001 J D) 0.2 J E) 0.04 J

33. A block with a mass of 0.1 kg is attached to a spring and placed on a horizontal frictionless table. The spring is
stretched 20 cm when a force of 5 N is applied. The spring constant is:
A) 50Nm-1 B) 25 Nm-1 C) 75 Nm-1 D) 100 Nm-1 E) 125 Nm-1

34. Find the speed of sound in a gas in which two waves of wavelengths 50.0 cm and 50.4 cm produce 6 beats per
second.
A) 17800 cm/s B) 37800 cm/s C) 57800 cm/s D) 77800 cm/s E) 97800 cm/s
35. A cylindrical tube, open at both ends, has a fundamental frequency 𝑓 in air. The tube is dipped vertically in
water so that half of it is in water. The fundamental frequency of the air column is move.
A) 𝑓/2 B) 𝑓 C) 3𝑓/4 D) 2𝑓 E) 7𝑓

36. A transverse wave on a long horizontal rope with a wavelength of 8m travels at 2m/s. at t = 0, a particular
point on the rope has a vertical displacement of +A, where A is the amplitude of the wave. At what time will
the vertical displacement of this same point on the rope be -A?
1 1 1
A) 𝑡 = s B) 𝑡 = s C) 𝑡 = s D) 𝑡 = 2s E) 𝑡 = 4s
8 4 2

37. In S.H.M of spring mass system which statement is correct:

(i) Velocity is time dependent
(ii) Acceleration is time dependent
(iii) K.E is displacement dependent
(iv) Total energy is displacement dependent
A) (i), (ii) & (iii) are correct B) All are correct
C) (iv) is correct D) (i), (ii) are correct
3𝑇
38. When a body executing S.H.M then at t = 4 , the body has:
(i) Max K.E
(ii) Max P.E
(iii) Total energy is P.E
(iv) Displacement is maximum
A) (ii), (iii) are correct B) (ii), (iii), (iv) are correct
C) (i) is correct D) All are correct

39. A simple pendulum is in a satellite its time period is:

A) 0 B) 2sec C) Infinity D) None

40. For a spring mass system the P.E is “U” for displacement 2cm. What will be the P.E when displacement is
10cm?
A) U B) 25U C) 100 D) 5U

√3
41. A spring mass system has total energy ‘E’. What will be the energy of mass ‘m’ when its displacement is 2
x o:
A) 75% P.E B) 25% K.E C) 25% P.E D) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’

42. A pendulum is in a lift which is accelerating upwards with acceleration ‘g; then time period of pendulum is:
A) Decreases by 2 B) Increase by 2 C) Decreases by √𝟐 D) Remain same

43. A pendulum which is in lift which is moving upward with constant speed ‘V’ then the time period:
A) Increases by 10 B) Remains same C) Decreases by 10 D) Increases by √10

44. What is the length of second’s pendulum at the surface of planet whose mass is 2 times of earth and radius is
2 times of earth radius:
A) 0.5m B) 2m C) 1m D) 0.1m

45. In the absence of resistive force the work done by a simple pendulum is one complete oscillation:
A) Max B) Zero C) mgsin𝜃 D) None

46. The spring constant ‘K’ is:

A) Inversely proportional of length of spring
B) Directly proportional to extensions
C) Directly proportional to mass
D) Inversely proportional to length and extensions.
47. Two bodies M and N of equal masses are suspended from two separate mass lens springs of force constant K1
and K2 respectively. If the two body oscillate vertically such that their maximum velocities are eq1ual, the
ratio of the amplitude of ‘M’ to that of ‘N’ is:
A) K1/K2 B) K2 / K1 C) √𝐾1 /𝐾2 D) √𝑲𝟐 /𝑲𝟏

48. The sitar string tension increased by 4 times then:

A) Frequency increases 2 times B) Frequency increases by 4 times
C) Frequency decreases 2 times D) Frequency decreases by 4 times

49. The speed of sound in air at 1atm is 𝜈. Now the pressure increases to 4atm then the new speed is:
A) 2 𝜈 B) √2 𝜈 C) 𝝂 D)1/2 𝜈

50. The increases in humidity in air, increases the speed of sound because:
A) Molecules of N2O is decreases B) Molecules of H2O increases
C) Pressure increases D) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’

51. The speed of sound in humid air is more as compared to dry air because:
A) Humid air is heavier than dry air B) Humid air is lighter than dry air
C) In humid air pressure is high D) In gas vibration are slow

52. The speed of sound is maximum in solid and minimum in gases because:
A) In gases molecules are far from each other B) In solid elasticity is more
C) In solid density is high D) In gas vibrations are slow

53. A spring 4m long resonates in four segments, the frequency of driving system on the spring is 20Hz. Calculate
the speed of the wave in spring:
A) 40m/s B) 4m/s C) 10m/s D) 0.5m/s

54. A simple harmonic oscillator has an amplitude ‘A’ and time period ‘T’, the time required by it to travel from x
= A to x = A/2 is:
A) T/6 B) T/4 C) T/3 D) T/2

55. The acceleration of a particle performing S.H.M is 12cm/s2 at a distance of 3cm, from the mean position, its
time period is:
A) 0.5sec B) 1.0 sec C) 2.0 sec D) 3.14sec

56. A source of sound of frequency 90vib/sec is approaching a stationary observer with a speed equal to 1/10
the speed of sound. What will be the frequency heard by the observer?
A) 80 vib/sec B) 90 vib/sec C) 100 vib/sec D) 120 vib/sec

57. A 12 cm long spring has a force constant of 400Nm. How much force is required to stretch the spring to a
length of 14cm?
A) 8N B) 12N C) 4N D) 16N

58. A block of mass 2Kg is attached to an ideal spring of force constant K = 200N/m. The block is at rest of its
equilibrium position. An impulsive force acts on the block. Find the amplitude of the resulting oscillations.
(K.E = P.E):
A) 1.414x B) 14.14x C) 141.4x D) 141x

59. A horizontal rope with linear mass density 0.5Kg/m has a tension of 50N, the non-attached end is oscillated
vertically with a frequency of 2Hz. The wavelength of resulting wave is:
A) 5m B) 0.5m C) 5cm D) None of these
60. A piano tuner causes a piano string to vibrate, he then loses the string a little decreasing its tension without
changing the length:
A) Its fundamental frequency increases
B) Its fundamental frequency decreases
C) Its fundamental frequency decreases and wavelength decreases
D) Its fundamental frequency decreases and there is no change in wavelength

61. A source of 4KHZ sound waves travel at 1/9 speed of sound towards a detector that moving at 1/9 the speed
of sound towards the source. The frequency of wave received by the detector:
A) 5KHz B) 5Hz C) 500Hz D) 0.5KHZ

62. A car is travelling at 160m/s away from a stationary observer. If the car’s horn emits a frequency of 500Hz.
What frequency will the observer hear? (𝜈 = 340m/s)
A) 340Hz B) 500Hz C) 300Hz D) 430Hz

63. A mass at the end of a spring oscillates with simple harmonic with a period of 4𝜋sec. The acceleration when
the displacement is 4cm.
A) 1cm/s2 B) 0.1cm/s2 C) 10cm/s2 D) None of these
64. A wooden ball of mass 100gm is suspended by a thread. The horizontal current of air blows it to one side
such that the thread makes an angle of 30o with the vertical. The tension in the thread:
A) 0.866N B) 866N C) √3/2N D) Both a) and C)

65. A source of a sound and listener is moving towards each other with velocities 0.5times and 0.2times the
speed of sound respectively. If the source is emitting 2KHz, the apparent frequency is:
A) 5/24 KHz B) 24/5 KHz C) 24/5 HZ D) 5/24 Hz

66. A pendulum completes 20vibrates in 40sec at the surface of earth its time period at the surface of moon is:
A) 2√𝟔sec B) √6 sec C) 2 sec D) None of these
 CHAPTER 08 B)
(Waves + Stationary wave + Sonometer)

1. The equation for wave speed is applicable on

A) Spring waves B) Sound waves
C) Water waves D) All of the above

2. Mechanical waves
A) Are longitudinal only
B) Are transverse only
C) Can be both longitudinal and transverse
D) Do not require a medium for propagation

3. The distance between two adjacent nodes or antinodes in a stationary wave is

A) 𝜆 B) 𝜆/2
C) 𝜆/4 D) 2𝜆

4. The ratio of fundamental frequency of an open end pipe to that of a closed end pipe is.
A) 2 : 1 B) 1 : 2
C) 3 : 2 D) 1 : 1

1
5. The fundamental frequency of stretched string is f = 2ℓ √𝐹⁄𝜇 unit of 𝜇 is
A) kg B) kgm-1
C) kg m D) kg-1

6. If 30 waves per second pass through a medium at a speed of 30 m/s, wavelength of these waves is;
A) 30 m B) 15 m
C) 1 m D) 280 m

7. The frequency of waves in a string is 200 Hz. If tension is increased 4 time its frequency will be
A) 800 Hz B) 1600 Hz
C) 400 Hz D) 200 Hz

8. A closed end organ pipe one meter long resounds in its fundamental mode of frequency of 100 hertz. The
velocity of sound will be
A) 100 m/s B) 400 m/s
C) 330 m/s D) 560 m/s

9. A stretched string of length 2 m vibrates in 4 segments. The distance between consecutive nodes is
A) 0.5 m B) 0.25 m
C) 1.0 m D) 0.75 m

10. The fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe is 50 Hz. The frequency of the second overtone is
A) 100 Hz B) 150 Hz
C) 200 Hz D) 250 Hz

11. The fundamental note produced by an open organ pipe has frequency n. The fundamental note produced by a
closed organ pipe of the same length will have frequency
A) n/2 B) 2n
C) n/4 D) 4n

12. A closed organ pipe and an open organ pipe have their first overtones of the same frequency. Their lengths
are in the ratio:
A) 1: 2 B) 2 : 3
C) 3 : 4 D) 4 : 3
13. With the increase in temperature, the frequency of the sound from an organ pipe
A) Decreases B) Increases
C) Remains unchanged D) Change Erratically

14. “Stationary waves” are so called because in them

A) The particles of the medium are not disturbed at all
B) The particles of the medium do no execute SHM
C) There occurs no flow of energy along the wave
D) The interference effect can’t be observed

15. With the propagation of a longitudinal wave through a material medium, the quantities transferred in the
direction of propagation are
A) Energy, Momentum and mass B) Energy and Momentum
C) Energy and Mass D) Mass

16. A sonometer wire is vibrating in the second overtone. In the wire there are
A) Two nodes and two antinodes
B) One node and Two antinodes
C) Four Nodes and Three antinodes
D) Three nodes and three anti nodes

17. A string of length 𝑙. Fixed at the two ends. Is plucked from the middle position so as to vibrate in one loop.
The wave length of the wave in this mode is equal to
A) 𝑙/2 B) 𝑙
C) 3𝑙/2 D) 2𝑙

18. Under a given tension T, a string of length 𝑙 vibrates in one segment. To make it vibrate in two segments with
the same frequency, the tension should be
A) T/2 B) T/4
C) 2T D) 4T
 CHAPTER 08 C)
(Sound, Speed of sound, Doppler Effect, Beats)

1. If amplitude is double then intensity of sound waves will

A) Double B) Half
C) Four times D) None

2. The ratio of the velocity of sound in air at 4 atmosphere and that at 1 atmosphere pressure would be ;
A) 1:1 B) 4:1
C) 1:4 D) 3:1

3. The distance covered by sound waves in air at 00 C in the time 0.1 sec is;
A) 332 m B) 33.2 m
C) 3.32 m D) 3320 m
4. It becomes difficult to recognize beats when the difference between the frequencies of two sounds is more
than;
A) 2Hz B) 5 Hz
C) 6 Hz D) 10 Hz

5. At STP, the velocity of sound through air is a/an

A) Isobaric process B) Isothermal process
C) Isochoric process D) Adiabatic process

6. The velocity of sound in air would become double than its velocity at 200C at ;
A) 313K B) 583K
C) 899K D) 1172K

7. The magnitude of auditory sensation produced by sound on the ear is known as;
A) Frequency B) Intensity
C) Quality D) Loudness

8. The temperature at which the speed of sound in air becomes double its value at 00C is
A) 1092OC B) 819 K
C) 819 C
0 D) 5460C

9. Beats occur because of

A) Interference B) Reflection
C) Refraction D) Doppler effect

10. The velocity of sound in a gas is v. If the pressure of gas is increased by 9 times, the speed of sound will
increased by
A) 3times B) 9times
C) 81times D) no change

11. The velocity of sound in air is 340 m/s, The frequency of fundamental mode emitted by an open end organ
pipe of length 25 cm is
A) 680 hertz B) 340 hertz
C) 250 hertz D) 25 hertz

12. Tuning fork is an instrument to produce

A) Heat B) Energy
C) Light D) Sound

13. The increase in velocity of sound in air in 1oC rise in temperature is

A) 0.61 m/s B) 61 m/s
C) 1.61 m/s D) 2 m/s
14. Decibel ( or bel) is the unit of
A) Energy B) Intensity
C) Intensity level D) Power

15. The intensity level of faintest audible sound is

A) Zero B) 60 db
C) 100 db D) 120 db

16. The loudness L is proportional to the logarithm of intensity 𝐼 is called

A) Newton’s formula B) Weber-Fechner Law
C) Laplace’s Formula D) None of them

17. The periodic increase and decrease in loudness of sound is called

A) Resonance B) Silence zone
C) Diffraction D) Beats

18. Overtone are

A) Nothing but beats
B) The fundamental produced in an organ pipe
C) The notes produced other than fundamental
D) None of these

19. The beats are use to find out

A) Unknown frequencies B) Tuning musical instrument
C) Both A&B D) None of these

20. Silence zone is due to

A) Constructive interference B) Destructive interference
C) Resonance D) Doppler’s Effect

21. Which of the following are the applications of Doppler’s Effect

A) Tracking of satellites
B) Measuring the speed of automobile
C) Radio detection and Ranging
D) All of these

22. At resonance, the transfer of energy is;

A) Zero B) Maximum
C) Minimum D) Very slow

23. Tuning a radio is the best example of;

A) Mechanical resonance B) Elastic resonance
C) Magnetic resonance D) Electric resonance

24. The sharpness of the resonance curve of a resonating system depends upon;
A) Amplitude of oscillation B) Frictional loss of energy
C) Nature of the system D) Frequency of the oscillation

25. A singer singing with a particular note may shatter a glass goblet due to;
A) Constructive interference B) Destructive interference
C) Resonance D) Reflection

26. Stars moving away from the Earth show a;

A) Blue shift B) Yellow shift
C) Red Shift D) Green shift
 CHAPTER 09

1. Which of the following is not electromagnetic in nature

A) Infrared rays B) Ultraviolet rays
C) Radar waves D) Sound waves

2. Wavelength of X-rays is of the order of

A) 1 A 0 B) 10 A0
C) 100 A0 D) 1000 A0

3. According to Bragg’s law

𝑚
A) d sinӨ = 3 𝝀 B) 2d sin Ө = m 𝝀
1
C) d sin Ө = m 𝝀 D) d sinӨ = (m + 2)𝝀

4. Common examples of thin film are

A) Soap bubbles
B) Thin layer of oil floating on water
C) A and B both
D) None of these

5. Such a surface on which all the points have the same phase of vibration is called
A) Wavelength B) Wave front
C) Wave number D) None

6. A diffraction grating has 5000 lines per cm, the value of grating element is _______ m.
A) 2 x 10-2 B) 2 x 10-4
C) 2 x 10-6 D) 2 x 10-8

7. The medium in which speed of light is the same in all directions is called
A) Homogenous B) Non-homogenous
C) Empty D) None of these

8. Which one of the following has greater frequency?

A) Ultra-violet rays B) Visible light
C) Infra-red radiation D) Gamma rays

9. The wave front formed at a very large distance from a line source is
A) Cylindrical wave front B) Spherical wave front
C) Plane wave front D) Elliptical wave front

10. Huygen’s principle is applied to

A) Locate the wave front B) Explain diffraction
C) Explain interference D) Find out the speed of light

11. A beam of monochromatic light of wavelength𝝀falls normally on a diffraction grating of grating element d. If
Ө is the angle between the second-order diffracted beam and the direction of the incident light. What is the
value of sin Ө?
A) λ⁄𝑑 B) 𝑑⁄λ
C) 2λ⁄𝑑 D) 2𝑑⁄λ

12. Light of wavelength 𝝀is incident normally on a diffraction grating for which the slit spacing is equal to 3 𝝀.
What is the sine of the angle between the second order maximum and the normally?
A) 1⁄6 B) 1⁄3
C) 2⁄3 D) 3⁄2
13. The contrast in the fringes in any interference pattern depends on;
A) Fringe width B) Wavelength
C) Intensity ratio of the source D) Distance between the source

14. Yellow light emitted by sodium lamp in Young’s double slit experiment is replaced by monochromatic blue
light of the same intensity ;
A) Fringe width will decrease
B) Fringe width will increase
C) Fringe width will remain unchanged
D) Fringed will become less intense

15. At sunrise or unset, the sun looks redder than at midday because;
A) Of scattering
B) Of the effects of refraction
C) Of the effects of diffraction
D) The sun is hottest at these times

16. If the radius of the 14th Newton’s ring is 2 mm, when the light of wavelength 8 x 10-4 mm is used. What is the
radius of curvature of the lower surface of the lens used?
A) 170.87 mm B) 190.87 mm C) 370.37 mm D) 395.11 mm E) 616.31 mm

17. One of the slit in double slit experiment is covered then the new intensity will be
A) I / 2 B) 2I C) I / √2 D) I / 4

18. Which of the following statements must be true about two monochromatic waves arriving at a point if the
ways are coherent?
A) they are in phase B) they have a constant phase difference
C) they have both travelled path of equal length D) they have approximate equal amplitude

19. Coherent light is incident of two slits S1 and S2. A dark fringe occurs at “P” when “n” being integer , the phase
difference between wave trains is
1 1 1𝑛
A) (2𝑛 + 2) 𝜋 rad B) (𝑛 + 2) 𝜋 rad C) 2n 𝜋 rad D) (1 + 2𝑛) 𝜋 rad

20. In which way can the fringe spacing be increased?

A) by decreasing the distance between slit and screen
B) by increasing the distance between source and screen
C) by having a large distance between two slits
D) by using the light of larger wavelength

21. Fringes of separation D are observed in a plane 13 from young’s slits arrangement when shined by a light of
wavelength 600nm. At what distance from slits would fringe of source separation d be observed, when
shined by light of wavelength 400nm?
A) 1.50m B) 1m C) 2m D) 0.5m

22. Light of wavelength 600nm falls on a pair of slits , forming fringes 3mm apart on a screen. What would be
fringe spacing if the wavelength were 400nm?
A) 3mm B) 2mm C) 1mm D) 0.10mm

23. Two slits separated by a distance of 100 𝜇m is shined by light, fringe of width 5mm is seen on screen which is
1m apart from slits. What is the wavelength of light used?
A) 0.5nm B) 5nm C) 50nm D) 500nm

24. When a wave is reflected from a denser medium , phase changes by:
𝜋 3𝜋
A) 2 B) 𝜋 C) 2 D) 2 𝜋

25. For interference from thin film, maximum destructive interference occurs when path difference is:
A) an integral multiple of half wavelength B) an off number of half wavelength
C) a multiple of ½ D) equal to the thickness of the film
26. Wavelength of light in medium of refractive index “n” is given by:
𝜆 𝑛 𝜆
A) 𝜆𝑛 = B) 𝜆𝑛 = n 𝜆 C) 𝜆𝑛 = D) 𝜆n =
𝑛 𝜆 𝑛2

27. In newton’s rings experiment the plano-convex lens used should be of:
A) small focal length B) large focal length C) neither of two D) none

28. The central spot in Newton’s ring experiment is:

A) bright B) dark C) both a and b D) none

29. The air between the lens and the plate in Newton’s ring experiment is replaced by water. The ring pattern
A) contracts B) expands C) remains same D) none

30. To observe bright fringe through Michelson’s interferometer the moveable mirror is moved by a distance of
integral multiple of
A) 𝜆/4 B) 𝜆/8 C) 𝜆/2 D) 𝜆/16

31. How many fringes will pass through a reference point if the mirror of Michelson’s interferometer is moved by
a distance 0.08mm. the wavelength of light used is 4000Ao?
A) 100 B) 200 C) 300 D) 400

32. The moveable mirror in Michelson’s interferometer is moved by a distance of 0.04mm and 200 fringes are
observed. The wavelength of light used?
A) 400nm B) 600nm C) 800nm D) 1000nm

33. The property which enable waves to bend around the edges of an opening or obstacle in its path is called:
A) dispersion B) superposition C) diffraction D) interference

34. Diffraction effect depends upon:

A) size of obstacle B) distance of source from obstacle
C) both a and b D) neither a and b

35. Which of the following is true?

A) red light is less diffracted than violet light B) red light is more diffracted than violet light
C) diffraction pattern is same for both D) red light is not diffracted but violet light does

36. Light if wavelength 𝜆 is incident normally on a diffraction grating for which the slit spacing is equals to 3 𝜆.
What is the sine of angle between 2nd order maximum and normal?
A) 1 B) 3/2 C) 2/3 D) 1/3
 CHAPTER 10

1. Two lenses have focal length 20 cm and -40 cm. The focal length of combination in contact is
A) +20 cm B) +40 cm
C) -20 cm D) -40 cm

2. The magnifying power of a lens of focal length 25 cm is:

A) ½ B) 1
C) Zero D) 2

3. Defects found in lenses are

A) Chromatic aberration only
B) Spherical aberration only
C) Chromatic and spherical aberration only
D) Distortion

4. Two convex lenses of focal lengths 0.3 m and 0.05 m are used to make a astronomical telescope. The
distance kept between them is equal to
A) 0.35 m B) 0.25 m
C) 0.175 m D) 0.15 m

5. Two lenses of powers +12D and -2D are in contact. The focal length of the combination is
A) 10 cm B) 12.5 cm
C) 16.6 cm D) 8.33 cm

6. The far point for normal eye is

A) 25 cm B) 25 m
C) 50 m D) Infinity

7. Chromatic aberration in a lens is caused by

A) Reflection B) Interference
C) Diffraction D) Dispersion

8. A convex lens of focal length 16 cm forms a real image double the size of the object. The distance of the
object from the lens is
A) 32 cm B) 24 cm
C) 20 cm D) 8 cm

9. A combination of two thin lenses in contact behaves as a converging lens of focal length 80 cm. If one of the
lenses is a converging lens of focal length 20 cm, the power of the other lens is
A) 1.66 D B) 4.00 D
C) -1.00 D D) – 3.75 D

10. The length of a telescope is 100 cm and magnification is 9. The focal lengths of the objective and the eye
piece are respectively nearly
A) 90 cm and 10 cm B) 85 cm and 15 cm
C) 80 cm and 20 cm D) 95 cm and 5 cm

11. What will be the position of the object, when a convex lens of focal length 20 cm, is used to form an erect
image which is twice as large as the object?
A) The object is 2 cm from the lens B) The object is 4 cm from the lens
C) The object is 6 cm from the lens D) The object is 8 cm from the lens
E) The object is 10 cm from the lens

12. A microscope has an objective of 10 mm focal length and eye piece of 25 mm focal length. What is the
distance between the lenses, if the object is in sharp focus when it is 10.5 mm from the objective?
A) 232.7 mm B) 431.1 mm C) 511.9 mm D) 711.8 mm E) 913.7 mm
13. A 4 cm high object is located 10 cm from the converging lens, whose focal length is 20 cm. The image so
formed will be:
A) Virtual B) Erect C) Real D) Inverted E) Both A and B

14. A convex lens of focal length 20 cm, is used to form an erect image which is twice as large as the object, the
position of the object will be _______ from the lens.
A) 20 cm B) 5 cm C) 10 cm D) 30 cm E) 40 cm

15. Two lenses of powers + 12D and -2D are in contact. The focal length of the combination is:
A) 10 cm B) 12.5 cm C) 16.6 cm D) 8.33 cm E) 3.1 cm

16. What will be the position of the object, when a convex lens of focal length 16 cm is used to form an erect
image, which is twice as large as the object?
A) The object is 16 cm from the lens B) The object is 2 cm from the lens
C) The object is 3 cm from the lens D) The object is 6 cm from the lens
E) The object is 12 cm from the lens

17. When an object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from a concave lens of focal length 15 cm, the image will be:
I. Erect II. Virtual III. Diminished
A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and III only E) I, II and III

18. If an object is placed 30 cm from a convex lens whose focal length is 15 cm, the size of the image compared
to size of the object will be approximately:
A) Twice as large B) More than twice as large
C) 1.5 times as large D) Smallar
E) The same size

19. An object is placed 60 cm in front of a concave spherical mirror whose focal length is 40 cm. which of the
following best describes the image?
NATURE OF IMAGE DISTANCE FROM MIRROR
A) Virtual 24 cm
B) Real 24 cm
C) Virtual 120 cm
D) Real 120 cm
E) Real 240 cm

20. An object is placed 60 cm from a spherical convex mirror. If the mirror forms a virtual image 20 cm from
the mirror, what is the magnitude of the mirror’s radius of curvature?
A) 7.5 cm B) 15 cm C) 30 cm D) 60 cm E) 120 cm

21. A point source of light is placed at the principal focus of a concave lens. Which of the following will be true
of the refracted light?
I. It will diverge.
II. It will be parallel to the principal axis.
III. It will seem to come from a point 1/2 of the radius of curvature from the lens.
IV. It will converge.
A) I, II and III only B) I and III only C) II and IV only D) IV only E) None of these
 Chapter 02 Chapter 03 Chapter 04 Chapter 05 Chapter 06 Chapter 07 Chapter 08 (A) Chapter 08 (B) Chapter 08 (C) Chapter 09 Chapter 10
1 C 1 C 1 C 1 C 1 B 1 A 1 C 1 D 1 C 1 D 1 B
2 B 2 D 2 B 2 A 2 D 2 C 2 C 2 C 2 A 2 A 2 D
3 B 3 C 3 A 3 D 3 B 3 C 3 A 3 B 3 B 3 B 3 C
4 A 4 E 4 A 4 C 4 B 4 A 4 B 4 A 4 D 4 C 4 A
5 D 5 B 5 C 5 A 5 C 5 C 5 C 5 B 5 D 5 B 5 A
6 B 6 D 6 C 6 C 6 B 6 A 6 C 6 D 6 C 6 D
7 A 7 C 7 B 7 D 7 B 7 A 7 C 7 D 7 A 7 D
8 D 8 B 8 A 8 D 8 C 8 B 8 B 8 C 8 D 8 B
9 B 9 D 9 D 9 C 9 C 9 C 9 A 9 A 9 C 9 D
10 B 10 C 10 B 10 B 10 C 10 B 10 D 10 D 10 A 10 A
11 A 11 D 11 A 11 B 11 A 11 C 11 A 11 A 11 C 11 E
12 A 12 A 12 B 12 D 12 12 A 12 C 12 D 12 C 12 A
13 D 13 A 13 B 13 A 13 C 13 D 13 B 13 A 13 C 13 E
14 D 14 A 14 B 14 B 14 C 14 C 14 C 14 C 14 A 14 C
15 D 15 C 15 C 15 E 15 A 15 B 15 B 15 A 15 A 15 A
16 B 16 A 16 C 16 E 16 C 16 C 16 C 16 B 16 C 16 D
17 A 17 B 17 D 17 B 17 A 17 A 17 D 17 D 17 E
18 C 18 A 18 A 18 D 18 C 18 A 18 B 18 C 18 E
19 C 19 C 19 A 19 A 19 C 19 A 19 C 19 D
20 D 20 D 20 A 20 D 20 C 20 B 20 B 20 D
21 D 21 A 21 A 21 D 21 A 21 C 21 D 21 E
22 A 22 A 22 E 22 B 22 E 22 C 22 B
23 D 23 B 23 D 23 D 23 A 23 D
24 C 24 B 24 B 24 E 24 B 24 A
25 B 25 C 25 C 25 A 25 D 25 C
26 D 26 A 26 C 26 C 26 C
27 A 27 A 27 D 27 E
28 D 28 D 28 B 28 A
29 A 29 A 29 A
30 B 30 D 30 A
31 B 31 B 31 B
32 B 32 C 32 A
33 D 33 D 33 B
34 C 34 C 34 B
35 E 35 B
36 D