Question bank for Electrical Engineering

IMPORTANT NOTE

1. These are only sample questions from Electrical Engineering.

2. Questions in any exam will not be restricted to this question bank.
3. Level/standard of questions may vary depending upon exam.
4. Apart from these, questions may be asked from electrical issues specific to RWP/Bela, i.e
Practical questions.

1. Which of the following motors is used in ceiling fan?

(A) Universal motor
(B) Synchronous motor
(C) Series motor
(D) Induction motor

2. CT is used for measuring

(A) Voltage
(B) Frequency
(C) Power factor
(D) Alternating current

3. Active power in 3 phase circuit is:

(A) √3 V L I L Cosφ
(B) 3 V L I L Cosφ
(C) √2 V L I L Cosφ
(D) 2 V L I L Cosφ

4. Zener diodes are commonly used as:

(A) Rectifier
(B) Amplifier
(C) Voltage regulator(D) Filter

5. Unit of reluctance:
(A) Ampere Turns/Weber
(B) Weber Turns
(C) Henry
(D) Weber Turns/Ampere

6. Unit of luminous intensity is

(A) Lumen
(B) Lux
(C) Lumen/m2
(D) Candela

7. Which of the following is secondary cell?

(A) Dry cell
(B) Leclanche cell
(C) Voltaic cell
(D) Lead acid cell

8. Energy stored in inductor is:

(A) W = (1/4)LI2
(B) W = (1/2)LI2
(C) W = (1/2)L2I
(D) W = (1/2)L2I2

9. The power factor of pure resistive circuit is

(A) Zero
(B) Leading
(C) Lagging
(D) Unity

10. A terminal where more than two branches met is called

a) Node
b) Terminus
c) Loop
d) None of the above

11. An ideal current source has

a) Infinite source resistance
b) Zero internal resistance
c) Zero voltage on no load
d) Zero ripple

12. An ideal voltage source should have

a) Zero source resistance
b) Infinite source resistance
c) Terminal voltage is proportional to current
d) Open-circuit voltage nearly equal to voltage of the load current

13. Identify the passive element among the following

a. Voltage source
b. current source
c. inductor
d. transistor

14. How much energy is stored by a 0.05μF capacitor with a voltage of1000V?
a. 0.025J
b. 0.05J
c. 5J
d. 100J

15. The unit of power is ………

a. Watts
b. Volts
c. Current
d. None

16. State Kirchoff’s current Law.

(a) sum of all positive currents is equal to sum of all negative currents.
(b) sum of all positive emfs is equal to the sum of all negative emfs taken in order
(c) sum of all powers in a circuit
(d) sum of all emfs in a circuit

17. Define Kirchoff’s voltage law

(a) algebraic sum of emf’s - algebraic sum of voltage drops = 0
(b) algebraic sum of emf’s + algebraic sum of voltage drops = 0
(c) zero
(d) algebraic sum of currents

18. What are the units of voltage, current and Resistance respectively?
(a) Ohms, Volts, Amperes
(b) Volts, Farads, Amperes
(c) Henries, Volts, Amperes
(d) Volts, Amperes, Ohms

19. The unit of energy is

a. Watts
b. Volts
c. Current
d. None

20. What is the rule followed for kirchoff’s voltage law?

(a) mesh rule
(b) current rule
(c) loop rule
(d) wheat stone rule

21. In a parallel circuit, the total resistance of circuit----------------as the number of resistors
connected in parallel-----------------------
(a) increases, increases
(b) increases, decreases
(c) decreases, decreases
(d) decreases, increases

22. A battery of emf 12V is connected to an external resistance of 20 ohm. Find current
flowing through resistor
(a) 4
(b) 0.6
(c) 40
(d) None
23. In a series circuit, the total resistance of circuit----------------as the number of resistors
connected in series -----------------------
(a) increases, increases
(b) increases, decreases
(c) decreases, decreases
(d) decreases, increases

24. An ammeter is used to measure the flow of----------------------- in a circuit

(a) Energy
(b) Power
(c) Current
(d) Voltage

25. In the figure shown, equivalent resistance is

(a) 1.512 ohms

(b) 7.667ohms
(c) 7.777ohms
(d) None

26. What is the relationship between the resistance and voltage when the current is kept
constant?
(a) equal to
(b) inversely proportional
(c) directly proportional
(d) constant

27. Ten cells, each of emf 1.5V are connected in series. What current will they send through
an external resistance of 4 ohm
(a) 6.0 A
(b) 2.5 A
(c) 3.75 A
(d) None

28. A battery of emf 1.8 volts is connected to a pair of resistances 4 ohm and 6 ohm in
parallel. Calculate the current supplied by the battery
(a) 7.5 A
(b) 10 A
(c) 1.75 A
(d) 0.75 A

29. When n resistances of value x are connected in series, total resistance is

(A) nx (B) rnx (C) x / n (D) n2 x.

30. Which of the following is not the same as watt?

(A) joule/sec (B) amperes/volt C) amperes x volts (D) ( amperes )2 x ohm.
31. A circuit contains two un-equal resistances in parallel
(A) current is same in both (B) large current flows in larger resistor
(C) potential difference across each is same (D) smaller resistance has smaller conductance.

32. Four identical resistors are first connected in parallel and then in series. The resultant
resistance of the first combination to the second will be
(A) 1 / 16 times (B) 1 / 4 times (C) 4 times (D) 16 times.

33. The ratio of the resistance of a 100 W, 220 V lamp to that of a 100 W, 110 V lamp will be
nearly
(A) 4 (B)2 (C) 1 / 2 (D) 1 / 4

34. Three 3 ohm resistors are connected to form a triangle. What is the resistance between
any two of the corners?
(A) 3 / 4 ohms (B) 3 ohms (C) 2 ohms (D) 4/3 ohm.

35. A wire of 0.14 mm diameter and specific resistance 9.6 micro ohm-cm is 440 cm long. The
resistance of the wire will be
(A) 9.6 ohm (B) 11.3 ohm (C) 13.7 ohm (D) 27.4 ohm.

36. Ohm's law is not applicable to

(A) DC circuits (B) high currents (C) small resistors (D) semi-conductors.

37. A wire of resistance R has it length and cross-section both doubled. Its resistance will
become
(A) 4 R (B)2 R (C) R (D) R / 4.

38. Ohm's law is not applicable in all the following cases Except
(A) Electrolytes (B) Arc lamps (C) Insulators (D) Vacuum ratio values.

39. All good conductors have high

(A) resistance (B) electrical conductivity
(C) electrical and thermal conductivity (D) conductance.

40. The resistance of wire varies inversely as

a. area of cross section b. length c. resistivity d. temperature

41. Which of the following quantities are same in all parts of a series circuit?
a. voltage b. power c. current d. resistance

42. Which of the following statements is false in case of a series circuit?

a. the voltage drop across each resister is same
b. the current flowing through each resistor is the same
c. applied voltage is equal to the sum of voltage drops across individual resistors are additive
d.none
43. Three resistors, each of R ohms, are connected to form a triangle. The resistance between
any two terminals will be:
a. 2/3 R b. 3/2R c. R d. 3R

44. Which of the following is not correct?

a. P=V/R^2 b. P=VI c. I=√ (P/R) d. V=√PR

45. A 100W bulb is connected in series with a room heater. If now 100W bulb is replaced by
a 40w bulb, the heater output will :
a. increase b. decrease c. remain the same

46. The voltage applied across an electric iron is halved. The power consumption of the iron
will be:
a. one-half b. one-fourth c. 1/√2times d. three-fourth

47. Resistance of 200w,250v lamp will be

a. 625ohm b. 1250ohm c.312.5ohm d.31.25ohm

48. Two heaters rated at 1000w, 250v each are connected in series across a 250v, 50Hz ac
supply. The total power drawn from the supply will be:
a. 1000w b. 500w c. 250w d.2000w

49. A 200w, 100v lamp is to be operated on 250v supply. The additional resistance required
to be connected in series will be:
a. 125ohm b. 50ohm c. 75ohm d.25ohm

50. Kirchoff's laws are valid for

a. linear ckt only b. passive time invariant ckt
c. non-linear ckt only d. both linear & non-linear ckt

51. KCL is applicable only to

a. electric circuits b. electronic circuits
c. junctions in a network d. closed loop in a network

52. KVL is concerned with

a. IR drop b. battery emf c. junction node d. both a and b

53. A wye arrangement of resistances has each resistance of 3ohm, the equivalent delta
arrangement will have each resistance of values.
a. 9ohm b. 6ohm c. 3ohm d. 1ohm

54. Cells are connected in series in order to increase the

a. current capacity b. life of the cells c. voltage rating d. terminal voltage

55. Cells are connected in parallel in order to increase

a. life of the cells b. efficiency c. current capacity d. voltage rating
56. When two cells are connected in parallel , it should ensure that have
a. identical internal resistances b. equal emfs c. same ampere hour capacity

57.The capacity of a battery is expressed in

a. amperes b. amperes-hour c. watts d. watt-hour

58. which one is classified as integrating instrument?

a. D'arsonval galvanometer b. ampere-hour meter c. ohm-meter d. ammeter

59. Which of the following types of instrument is an integrating instrument?

a. power factor meter b. energy meter c. watt meter d. frequency meter

60. The S.I. unit of power is

a. henry b. coulomb c. watt d. watt-hour

61. Electric pressure is also called

a. resistance b. power c. voltage d. energy

62. The substances which have a large number of free electrons and offer a low resistance are
called
a. insulators b. inductors c. semi-conductors d. conductors

63. Out of the following which is not a poor conductor?

a. Cast iron b. Copper c. Carbon d. Tungsten

64. Out of the following which is an insulating material ?

a. Copper b. Gold c. Silver d. Paper

65. The property of a conductor due to which it passes current is called

a. resistance b. reluctance c. conductance d. inductance

66 . Conductance is reciprocal of
(a) resistance (b) inductance (c) reluctance (d) capacitance

67. The resistance of a conductor varies inversely as

(a) length (b) area of cross-section (c) temperature (d) resistivity

68. With rise in temperature the resistance of pure metals

(a) Increases (b) decreases
(c) first increases and then decreases (d) remains constant

69. With rise in temperature the resistance of semi-conductors

(a) decreases (b) increases
(c) first increases and then decreases (d) remains constant
70. Three resistances of 10 ohms, 15 ohms and 30 ohms are connected in parallel. The total
resistance of the combination is
(a) 5 ohms (b) 10 ohms (c) 15 ohms (d) 55 ohms

71. An instrument which detects electric current is known as

(a) voltmeter (b) rheostat (c) wattmeter (d) galvanometer

72. In a circuit a 33 Q resistor carries a current of 2 A. The voltage across the resistor is
(a) 33 V (b) 66 v (c) 80 V (d) 132 V

73. A light bulb draws 300 mA when the voltage across it is 240 V. The resistance of the
light bulb is
(a) 400 ohm (b) 600 ohm (c) 800 ohm (d) 1000 ohm

74. A current of 16 amperes divides between two branches in parallel of resistances 8 ohms
and 12 ohms respectively. The current in each branch is
(a) 6.4 A, 6.9 A (b) 6.4 A, 9.6 A (c) 4.6 A, 6.9 A (d) 4.6 A, 9.6 A

75. Which of the following materials has a negative temperature co-efficient of resistance?
(a) Copper (b) Aluminum (c) Carbon (d) Brass

76. Ohm's law is not applicable to

(a) vacuum tubes (b) carbon resistors
(c) high voltage circuits (d) circuits with low current densities

77. Which is the best conductor of electricity ?

(a) Iron (b) Silver (c) Copper (d) Carbon

78. For which of the following 'ampere second' could be the unit ?
(a) Reluctance (b) Charge (c) Power (d) Energy

79. All of the following are equivalent to watt except

(a) amperes square ohm (b) joules/sec. (c) amperes x volts (d) amperes/volt

80. A resistance having rating 10 ohms, 10W is likely to be a

(a) metallic resistor
(b) carbon resistor
(c) wire wound resistor
(d) variable resistor

81. Which one of the following does not have negative temperature co-efficient ?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Paper
(c) Rubber
(d) Mica

82. Varistors are

(a) insulators
(b) non-linear resistors
(c) carbon resistors
(d) resistors with zero temperature coefficient

83. The rating of a fuse wire is always expressed in

(a) ampere-hours
(b) ampere-volts
(c) kWh
(d) amperes

84. The minimum charge on an ion is

(a) equal to the atomic number of the atom
(b) equal to the charge of an electron
(c) equal to the charge of the number of electrons in an atom zero

85. In a series circuit with unequal resistances

(a) the highest resistance has the most of the current through it
(b) the lowest resistance has the highest voltage drop
(c) the lowest resistance has the highest current
(d) the highest resistance has the highest voltage drop

86. The filament of an electric bulb is made of

(a) carbon
(b) aluminium
(c) tungsten
(d) nickel

87. A 3 ohm resistor having 2 A current will dissipate the power of

(a) 2 watts
(b) 4 watts
(c) 6 watts
(d) 12 watts

88. If a wire conductor of 0.2 ohm resistance is doubled in length, its resistance becomes
(a) 0.4 ohm
(b) 0.6 ohm
(c) 0.8 ohm
(d) 1.0 ohm

89. Two resistances Rl and R2 are connected in series across the voltage source where
R2>R1. The largest drop will be across
(a) R2
(b) R1
(c) either Rl or R2
(d) none of them
90. What will be energy used by the battery if the battery has to drive 6.28 x 1018 electrons
with
potential difference of 20 V across the terminal ?
(a) 5 joules
(b) 10 joules
(c) 15 joules
(d) 20 joules

91. A closed switch has a resistance of

(a) zero
(b) about 50 ohms
(c) about 500 ohms
(d) infinity

92. The hot resistance of the bulb's filament is higher than its cold resistance because the
temperature co-efficient of the filament is
(a) zero
(b) negative
(c) positive
(d) about 2 ohms per degree

93. Heat in a conductor is produced on the passage of electric current due to

(a) reactance
(b) capacitance
(c) impedance
(d) resistance

94. An electric filament bulb can be worked from

(a) D.C. supply only
(b) A.C. supply only
(c) Battery supply only
(d) All above

95. Resistance of a tungsten as applied voltage increases

(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains same
(d) none of the above

96. Electric current passing through the circuit produces

(a) magnetic effect
(b) luminous effect
(c) thermal effect
(d) chemical effect
(e) all above effects

97. Two bulbs of 500 W and 200 W rated at 250 V will have resistance ratio as
(a) 4 : 25
(b) 25 : 4
(c) 2 : 5
(d) 5 : 2

98. A glass rod when rubbed with silk cloth is charged because
(a) it takes in proton
(b) its atoms are removed
(c) it gives away electrons
(d) it gives away positive charge

99. Whether circuit may be AC. or D.C. one, following is most effective in reducing the
magnitude of the current.
(a) Reactor
(b) Capacitor
(c) Inductor
(d) Resistor

100. In a lamp load when more than one lamp are switched on the total resistance of the load
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains same
(d) none of the above

101. Two lamps 100 W and 40 W are connected in series across 230 V (alternating). Which
of the following statement is correct ?
(a) 100 W lamp will brighter (b) 40 W lamp will glow brighter
(c) Both lamps will glow equally bright (d) 40 W lamp will fuse

102. Resistance of 220 V, 100 W lamp will be

(a) 4.84 Q
(b) 48.4 Q
(c) 484 ft
(d) 4840 Q

103. Bulbs in street lighting are all connected in

(a) parallel
(b) series
(c) series-parallel
(d) end-to-end

104. For testing appliances, the wattage of test lamp should be

(a) very low
(b) low
(c) high
(d) any value
105. Switching of a lamp in house produces noise in the radio. This is because switching
operation produces
(a) arcs across separating contacts
(b) mechanical noise of high intensity
(c) both mechanical noise and arc between contacts
(d) none of the above

106. When resistance element of a heater fuses and then we reconnect it after removing a
portion of it, the power of the heater will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) remain constant
(d) none of the above

107. A field of force can exist only between

(a) two molecules
(b) two ions
(c) two atoms
(d) two metal particles

108. A substance whose molecules consist of dissimilar atoms is called

(a) semi-conductor
(b) super-conducto
(c) compound
(d) insulator

109. International ohm is defined in terms of the resistance of

(a) a column of mercury
(b) a cube of carbon
(c) a cube of copper
(d) the unit length of wire

110. Three identical resistors are first connected in parallel and then in series. The resultant
resistance of the first combination to the second will be
(a) 9 times
(b) 1/9 times
(c) 1/3 times
(d) 3 times

111. Which method can be used for absolute measurement of resistances ?

(a) Lorentz method
(b) Releigh method
(c) Ohm's law method
(d) Wheatstone bridge method
112. A nichrome wire used as a heater coil has the resistance of 2 ￡2/m. For a heater of 1
kW at 200 V, the length of wire required will be
(a) 80 m
(b) 60 m
(c) 40 m
(d) 20 m

113. Temperature co-efficient of resistance is expressed in terms of

(a) ohms/°C
(b) mhos/ohm°C
(e) ohms/ohm°C
(d) mhos/°C

114. Which of the following materials has the least resistivity ?

(a) Zinc
(b) Lead
(c) Mercury
(d) Copper

115. A rheostat differs from potentiometer in the respect that it

(a) has lower wantage rating
(b) has higher wattage rating
(c) has large number of turns
(d) offers large number of tappings

116. The weight of an aluminium conductor as compared to a copper conductor of identical

cross-section, for the same electrical resistance, is
(a) 50% (b) 60% (c) 100% (d) 150%

117. An open resistor, when checked with an ohm-meter reads

(a) zero
(b) infinite
(c) high but within tolerance
(d) low but not zero

118. are the materials having electrical conductivity much less than most of the metals but
much greater than that of typical insulators.
(a) Varistors
(b) Thermistor
(c) Semi-conductors
(d) Variable resistors

119. All good conductors have high

(a) conductance
(b) resistance
(c) reluctance
(d) thermal conductivity
120. Voltage dependent resistors are usually made from
(a) charcoal (b) copper
(c) nichrome
(d) graphite

121. Voltage dependent resistors are used

(a) for inductive circuits
(6) to supress surges
(c) as heating elements
(d) as current stabilizers

122. The ratio of mass of proton to that of electron is nearly

(a) 1840 (b) 1840 (c) 30 (d) 4

123. The number of electrons in the outer most orbit of carbon atom is
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 7

124. With three resistances connected in parallel, if each dissipates 20 W the total power
supplied by the voltage source equals
(a) 10 W
(b) 20 W
(c) 40 W
(d) 60 W

125. A thermistor has

(a) positive temperature coefficient
(b) negative temperature coefficient
(c) zero temperature coefficient
(d) variable temperature coefficient

126. If, R and t are the current, resistance and time respectively, then according to Joule's law
heat produced will be proportional to
(a) I2Rt
(b) I2Rf
(c) I2R2t
(d) I2R2t*

127. Nichrome wire is an alloy of

(a) lead and zinc
(b) chromium and vanadium
(c) nickel and chromium
(d) copper and silver

128. Conductance : mho ::

(a) resistance : ohm
(b) capacitance : henry
(c) inductance : farad
(d) lumen : steradian

129. 1 angstrom is equal to

(a) 10-8 mm (6) 10"6 cm (c) 10"10 m (d) 10~14 m

130. One newton metre is same as

(a) one watt
(b) one joule
(c) five joules
(d) one joule second

131. The force between two charges is 120 N. If the distance between the charges is doubled,
the force will be
(a) 60 N
(b) 30 N
(c) 40 N
(d) 15 N

132. The electric field at a point situated at a distance d from straight charged conductor is
(a) proportional to d
(b) inversely proportional to d
(c) inversely proportional to d
(d) none of the above

133. The direction of electric field due +0 positive charge is .

(a) away from the charge (b) towards the charge
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above

134. A field line and an equipotential surface are

(a) always parallel(b) always at 90°
(c) inclined at any angle 0(d) none of the above

135. A capacitor stores 0.24 coulombs at 10 volts. Its capacitance is

(a) 0.024 F
(b) 0.12 F
(c) 0.6 F
(d) 0.8 F

136. For making a capacitor, it is better to select a dielectric having

(a) low permittivity
(b) high permittivity
(c) permittivity same as that of air
(d) permittivity slightly more than that of air

137. The units of capacitance are

(a) volts/coulomb
(b) coulombs/volt
(c) ohms
(d) henry/Wb

138. If three 10 uF capacitors are connected in parallel, the net capacitance is

(a) 20 uF
(b) 30 uE
(c) 40 uF
(d) 50 uF

139. A dielectric material must be

(a) resistor
(b) insulator
(c) good conductor
(d) semi conductor

140. An electrolytic capacitor can be used for

(a) D.C. only
(b) AC. only
(c) both D.C. as well as A.C.

141. The capacitance of a capacitor is not affected by

(a) distance between plates
(6) area of plates
(c) thickness of plates
(d) all of the above

142. Which of the following is not a vector ?

(a) Linear momentum
(b) Angular momentum
(c) Electric field
(d) Electric potential

143. The dissipation factor of a good dielectric is of the order of

(a) 0.0002
(b) 0.002
(c) 0.02
(d) 0.2

144. "The total electric flux through any closed surface surrounding charges is equal to the
amount of charge enclosed". The above statement is associated with
(a) Coulomb's square law
(b) Gauss's law
(c) Maxwell's first law
(d) Maxwell's second law

145. In a capacitor the electric charge is stored in

(a) metal plates
(b) dielectric
(c) both (a) and (6)
(d) none of the above

146. Which of the following materials has the highest value of dielectric constant?
(a) Glass
(b) Vacuum
(c) Ceramics
(d) Oil

147. In the case of a lossy capacitor, its series equivalent resistance value will be
(a) small
(b) very small
(c) large
(d) zero

148. The power dissipated in a pure capacitor is

(a) zero
(6) proportional to applied voltage
(c) proportional to value of capacitance
(d) both (b) and (c) above

149. A paper capacitor is usually available in the form of

(a) tubes
(b) rolled foil
(c) disc
(d) meshed plates

150. The unit of capacitance is

(a) henry
(b) ohm
(c) farad
(d) farad/m

151. A capacitor charged to 200 V has 2000 C of charge. The value of capacitance will be
(a) 10 F
(6) 10 uF
(c) 100 nF
(d) 1000 uF

152. The relative permittivity of free space is given by

(a) 1
(b) 10
(c) 100 (d) 1000

153. Electric field intensity is a quantity

(a) scalar
(b) vector
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above

154. When 4 volts e.m.f. is applied across a 1 farad capacitor, it will store energy of
(a) 2 joules
(b) 4 joules
(c) 6 joules
(d) 8 joules

155. The capacitor preferred for high circuits is

(a) air capacitor
(b) mica capacitor
(c) electrolytic capacitor
(d) none of the above

156. The capacity of capacitor bank used in power factor correction is expressed in terms of
(a) kW
(b) kVA
(c) kVAR
(d) volts

157. What is the value of capacitance that must be connected in parallel with 50 pF condenser
to make an equivalent capacitance of 150 pF ?
(a) 50 pF
(b) 100 pF
(c) 150 pF
(d) 200 pF

158. A mica capacitor and a ceramic capacitor both have the same physical dimensions.
Which will have more value of capacitance ?
(a) Ceramic capacitor
(b) Mica capacitor
(c) Both will have identical value of capacitance
(d) It depends on applied voltage

159. Which of the following material has least value of dielectric constant ?
(a) Ceramics
(b) Oil
(c) Glass
(d) Paper

160. Which of the following capacitors will have the least value of breakdown voltage ?
(a) Mica
(b) Paper
(c) Ceramic
(d) Electrolytic
161. The breakdown voltage for paper capacitors is usually
(a) 20 to 60 volts
(b) 200 to 1600 volts
(c) 2000 to 3000 volts
(d) more than 10000 volts

162. Dielectric constant for mica is nearly

(a) 200
(b) 100
(c) 3 to 8
(d) 1 to 2

163. The value of dielectric constant for vacuum is taken as

(a) zero
(b) 1
(c) 4
(d) 10

164. Which of the following capacitors is marked for polarity?

(a) Air
(b) Paper
(c) Mica
(d) Electrolytic

165. Which of the following capacitors can be used for temperature compensation?
(a) Air capacitor
(b) Ceramic capacitor
(c) Paper capacitor
(d) None of the above

166. Dielectric strength of mica is

(a) 10 to 20 kV/mm
(6) 30 to 50 kV/mm
(c) 50 to 200 kV/mm
(d) 300 to 500 kV/mm

167. The dielectric constant (relative permittivity) of glass is given by (a) 0.1 to 0.4
(b) 0.5 to 1.0(c) 2.0 to 4.0 (d) 5 to 100

168 capacitors are mainly used for radio frequency tuning.

(a) Paper
(b) Air
(c) Mica
(d) Electrolytic

169. capacitors can be used only for D.C.

(a) Air
(b) Paper
(c) Mica
(d) Electrolytic

170. capacitors are used in transistor circuits.

(a) Ceramic
(b) Paper
(c) Air
(d) Electrolytic

171. capacitors are used for audio frequency and radio frequency coupling and tuning.
(a) Air
(b) Mica
(c) Plastic film
(d) Ceramic

172. The inverse of capacitance is called

(a) reluctance
(b) conductance
(c) susceptance
(d) elastance

173. When the dielectric is homogeneous, the potential gradient is

(a) uniform
(b) non-uniform
(c) zero
(d) any of the above

174. The potential gradient across the material of low permittivity is than across the material
of high permittivity.
(a) smaller
(b) greater
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above

175. field is associated with the capacitor.

(a) Electric
(b) Magnetic
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

176. The total deficiency or excess of electrons in a body is known as

(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) potential gradient
(d) charge

177. The relative permittivity has the following units

(a) F/m
(b) m/F
(c) Wb/m
(d) no units

178. The phenomenon of an uncharged body getting charged merely by the nearness of a
charged body is known as
(a) pholoelectric effect
(b) chemical effect
(c) magnetic effect
(d) induction

179. A unit tube of flux is known as tube

(a) Newton
(b) Faraday
(c) Michale
(d) None of the above

180. The number of Faraday tubes of flux passing through a surface in an electric field is
called
(a) electric flux
(6) electric flux density
(c) magnetic flux density
(d) electric charge density

181. The unit of electric intensity is

(a) N/C2
(b) Wb/m2
(c) N/C
(d) N2/C

182. Electric displacement is a quantity.

(a) scalar
(b) vector
(c) both of the above
(d) none of the above

183. at a point is equal to the negative potential gradient at that point.

(a) Electric intensity
(6) Electric flux
(c) Magnetic flux
(d) Magnetic flux density

184. The unit of dielectric strength is given by

(a) V/m
(b) V2/m
(c) m/V
(d) m/V2
185. Dielectric strength with increasing thickness
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unaltered
(d) none of the above

186. The property of a capacitor to store electricity is called its

(a) capacitance
(b) charge
(c) energy
(d) none of the above

187. is that property of a capacitor which delays any change of voltage across it.
(a) Inductance
(b) Capacitance
(c) Potential gradient
(d) None of the above

188. A capacitance of 100 pF is connected in series with a resistance of 8000 ohm. The time
constant of the circuit is
(a) 0.2 s
(b) 0.4 s
(c) 0.6 s
(d) 0.8 s

189. In a cable capacitor, voltage gradient is maximum at the surface of the

(a) earth
(b) conduction
(c) sheath
(d) insulator

190. The time constant of an R-C circuit is defined as the time during which capacitor
charging voltage actually rises to _ percent of its value.
(a) 37, initial
(b) 63.2, initial
(c) 63.2, final
(d) 37, final

191. The time constant and R-C circuit may also be defined as the time during which the
charging current falls to percent of its initial maximum value,
(a) 37
(b) 42
(c) 63
(d) 73

192. The capacitance of a capacitor is influenced by

(a) plate area
(b) plate separation
(c) nature of dielectric
(d) none of the above
(e) all of the above

193. A capacitor consists of two

(a) ceramic plates and one mica disc
(b) insulators separated by a dielectric
(c) silver-coated insulators
(d) conductors separated by an insulator

194. Permittivity is expressed in

(a) Farad/sq-m
(b) Farad/metre
(c) Weber/metre
(d) Weber/sq-m

195. Dielectric strength of a material depends on

(a) moisture content
(b) temperature
(c) thickness
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above

196. What will happen to an insulating medium if voltage more than the breakdown voltage
is applied on it ?
(a) It will become magnetic
(b) It will melt
(c) It will get punctured or cracked
(d) Its molecular structure will get changed

197. Which medium has the least dielectric strength?

(a) Paraffin wax
(b) Quartz
(c) Glass
(d) Air

198. 1 volt/metre is same as

(a) 1 metre/coulomb(6) 1 newton metre(c) 1 newton/metre(d) 1 joule/coulomb

199. One volt is the same as

(a) one joule/coulomb
(b) one coulomb/joule
(c) one coulomb
(d) one joule

200. The bridge used for the measurement of the value of the capacitance is
(a) Wien's bridge
(b) Wheatstone bridge
(c) Schering bridge
(d) Hay's bridge
201. If an ohmmeter reading immediately goes practically to zero and stays there, capacitor is
(a) charged
(b) short-circuited
(c) lossy
(d) satisfactory

202. Out of the following capacitors of identical rating which one will have the smallest
dimensions ?
(a) Aluminium foil capacitor
(b) Mica capacitor
(c) Ceramic capacitor
(d) Paper capacitor

203. The ohmmeter reading for a short circuited capacitor is

(a) infinity
(b) few kilo ohms
(c) few mega ohms
(d) zero

204. Which of the following capacitors preferred for high frequency circuits ?
(a) Air capacitor (b) Electrolytic capacitor (c) Mica capacitor (d) none of the above

205. An electrolytic capacitor is generally made to provide

(a) low capacitance
(b) fixed capacitance
(c) variable capacitance
(d) large value of capacitance

206. In order to remove static electricity from machinery

(a) construct insulated cabins
(b) insulate the machinery
(c) ground the framework
(d) humidify the surroundings

207. A region around a stationary electric charge has

(a) an electric field
(b) a magnetic field
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above

208. The minimum value of potential gradient in a cable occurs in

(a) insulation
(b) conductor
(c) outer sheath
(d) uniformly all over

209. Dielectric strength of a medium is usually expressed in

(a) J/mm (b) C/m2 (c) kV/mm (d) N/mm
210. To prevent the generation of static charges on rubber or flat leather
(a) surface is moistened
(b) conductive dressing is done
(c) oil compound dressing is done
(d) talcum powder is sprayed on the surface

211. Which of the following capacitor is preferred in case of single phase motor ?
(a) Mica capacitor
(b) Paper capacitor
(c) Electrolytic capacitor
(d) Ceramic capacitor

212. A capacitance is a circuit component that opposes the change in circuit

(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) impedance
(d) none of the above

213. An air gap is usually inserted in magnetic circuits to

(a) increase m.m.f.
(b) increase the flux
(c) prevent saturation
(d) none of the above

214. The relative permeability of a ferromagnetic material is

(a) less than one
(b) more than one
(c) more than 10
(d) more than 100 or 1000

215. The unit of magnetic flux is

(a) Henry
(b) Weber
(c) ampere-turn/Weber
(d) ampere/metre

216. Relative permeability of vacuum is

(a) 1
(b) 1 H/m
(c) 1/4JI
(d) 4n x 10-' H/m

217. Permanent magnets are normally made of

(a) alnico alloys
(b) aluminium
(c) cast iron
(d) wrought iron

218. Energy stored by a coil is doubled when its current is increased by percent.
(a) 25(b) 50 (c)41.4 (d) 100

219. Those magnetic materials are best suited for making armature and transformer cores
which have permeability and hysteresis loss.
(a) high, high
(b) low, high
(c) high, low
(d) low, low

220. The initial rate of rise of current through a coil of inductance 10 H when suddenly
connected to a D.C. supply of 200 V is Vs
(a) 50 (b) 20 (c) 0.05 (d) 500

221. A material for good magnetic memory

(a) low hysteresis loss
(b) high permeability
(c) low retentivity
(d) high retentivity

222. Conductivity is analogous to

(a) retentivity
(b) resistivity
(c) permeability
(d) inductance

223. In a magnetic material hysteresis loss takes place primarily due to

(a) rapid reversals of its magnetization (b) flux density lagging behind magnetising force
(c) molecular friction (d) it high retentivity

224. Those materials are well suited for making permanent magnets which have retentivity
and coercivity.
(a) low, high
(b) high, high
(c) high, low
(d) low, low

225. If the area of hysteresis loop of a material is , the hysteresis loss in this material will be
(a) zero
(b) small
(c) large
(d) none of the above

226. Hard steel is suitable for making permanent magnets because

(a) it has good residual magnetism
(b) its hysteresis loop has large area
(c) its mechanical strength is high
(d) its mechanical strength is low

227. Silicon steel is used in electrical machines because it has

(a) low co-ercivity
(b) low retentivity
(c) low hysteresis loss
(d) high co-ercivity

228. Conductance is analogous to

(a) permeance
(b) reluctance
(c) flux
(d) inductance

229. The property of a material which opposes the creation of magnetic flux in it is known as
(a) reluctivity
(b) magnetomotive force
(c) permeance
(d) reluctance

230. Reciprocal of reluctance is

(a) reluctivity
(b) permeance
(c) permeability
(d) susceptibility

231. While comparing magnetic and electric circuits, the flux of magnetic circuit is compared
with which parameter of electrical circuit ?
(a) E.m.f.
(b) Current
(c) Current density
(d) Conductivity

232. The unit of reluctance is

(a) metre/henry
(b) henry/metre
(c) henry
(d) 1/henry

233. Hysteresis loss least depends on

(a) volume of material (b) frequency
(c) steinmetz co-efficient of material(d) ambient temperature

234. Laminated cores, in electrical machines, are used to reduce

(a) copper loss
(b) eddy current loss
(c) hysteresis loss
(d) all of the above
235. "The mass of an ion liberated at an electrode is directly proportional to the quantity of
electricity”. The above statement is associated with
(a) Newton's law
(b) Faraday's law of electromagnetic
(c) Faraday's law of electrolysis
(d) Gauss's law

236. The charge required to liberate one gram equivalent of any substance is known as
constant
(a) time (b) Faraday's (c) Boltzman

237. During the charging of a lead-acid cell

(a) its voltage
(b) it gives out energy
(c) its cathode becomes dark chocolate brown in colour
(d) specific gravity of H2SO4 decreases

238. The capacity of a lead-acid cell does not depend on its

(a) temperature
(b) rate of charge
(c) rate of discharge
(d) quantity of active material

239. During charging the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a lead-acid battery
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains the same
(d) becomes zero

240. The active materials on the positive and negative plates of a fully charged lead-acid
battery are
(a) lead and lead peroxide
(b) lead sulphate and lead
(c) lead peroxide and lead
(d) none of the above

241. The active materials of a nickel-iron battery are

(a) nickel hydroxide
(b) powdered iron and its oxide
(c) 21% solution of KOH (d) all of the above

242. The ratio of ampere-hour efficiency to watt-hour efficiency of a lead-acid cell is

(a) just one
(b) always greater than one
(c) always less than one
(d) none of the above.
243. The best indication about the state of charge on a lead-acid battery is given by
(a) output voltage
(b) temperature of electrolyte
(c) specific gravity of electrolyte
(d) none of the above

244. The storage battery generally used in electric power station is

(a) nickel-cadmium battery
(b) zinc-carbon battery
(c) lead-acid battery
(d) none of the above

245. The output voltage of a charger is

(a) less than the battery voltage
(b) higher than the battery voltage
(c) the same as the battery voltage
(d) none of the above

246. Cells are connected in series in order to

(a) increase the voltage rating
(6) increase the current rating
(c) increase the life of the cells
(d) none of the above

247. Five 2 V cells are connected in parallel. The output voltage is

(a) 1 V
(b) 1.5 V
(c) 1.75 V
(d) 2 V

248. The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms of

(a) current rating
(b) voltage rating
(e) ampere-hour rating
(d) none of the above

249. During the charging and discharging of a nickel-iron cell

(a) corrosive fumes are produced
(b) water is neither formed nor absorbed
(c) nickel hydroxide remains unsplit
(d) its e.m.f. remains constant

250. A dead storage battery can be revived by

(a) adding
(6) adding so-called battery restorer
(c) a dose of H2SO4
(d) none of the above
251. As compared to a lead-acid cell, the efficiency of a nickel-iron cell is less due to its
(a) compactness
(b) lower e.m.f.
(c) small quantity of electrolyte used
(d) higher internal resistance

252. Trickle charging of a storage battery helps to

(a) maintain proper electrolyte level
(b) increase its reserve capacity
(c) prevent sulphation
(d) keep it fresh and fully charged

253. Those substances of the cell which take active part in chemical combination and hence
produce electricity during
charging or discharging are known as materials.
(a) passive (b) active (c) redundant (d) inert

254. In a lead-acid cell dilute sulphuric acid (electrolyte) approximately comprises the
following
(a) one part H2O, three parts H2SO4
(b) two parts H2O, two parts H2SO4
(c) three parts H2O, one part H2SO4
(d) all H2S04

255. The ampere-hour efficiency of a leadacid cell is normally between

(a) 20 to 30%
(b) 40 to 50%
(c) 60 to 70%
(d) 90 to 95%

256. The watt-hour efficiency of a lead-acid cell varies between

(a) 25 to 35%
(b) 40 to 60%
(c) 70 to 80%
(d) 90 to 95%

257. The capacity of a lead-acid cell is measured in

(a) amperes
(b) ampere-hours
(c) watts
(d) watt-hours

258. The capacity of a lead-acid cell depends on

(a) rate of discharge
(b) temperature
(c) density of electrolyte
(d) quantity of active materials
(e) all above

259. When the lead-acid cell is fully charged, the electrolyte assumes _ appearance
(a) dull
(b) reddish
(c) bright
(d) milky

260. The active material of the positive plates of silver-zinc batteries is

(a) silver oxide (b) lead oxide (c) lead (d) zinc powder

261. Lead-acid cell has a life of nearly charges and discharges

(a) 500 (b) 700 (c) 1000 (d) 1250

262. Life of the Edison cell is at least

(a) five years
(b) seven years
(c) eight years
(d) ten years

263. The internal resistance of a lead-acid cell is that of Edison cell

(a) less than
(b) more than
(c) equal to
(d) none of the above

264. Electrolyte used in an Edison cell is

(a) NaOH
(b) KOH
(c) HC1
(d) HN03

265. Electrolyte used in a lead-acid cell is

(a) NaOH
(b) onlyH2S04
(c) only water
(d) dilute H2SO4

266. The specific gravity of electrolyte is measured by

(a) manometer
(6) a mechanical gauge
(c) hydrometer
(d) psychrometer

267. When the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a lead-acid cell is reduced to
1.1 to 1.15 the cell is in
(a) charged state
(b) discharged state
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) active state

268. In system the charging current is intermittently controlled at either a maximum or

minimum value
(a) two rate charge control
(b) trickle charge
(c) floating charge
(d) an equalizing charge

269. Over charging

(a) produces excessive gassing
(b) loosens the active material
(e) increases the temperature resulting in buckling of plates
(d) all above

270. Undercharging
(a) reduces specific gravity of the electrolyte
(b) increases specific gravity of the electrolyte
(c) produces excessive gassing
(d) increases the temperature

271. Internal short circuits are caused by

(a) breakdown of one or more separators
(b) excess accumulation of sediment at the bottom of the cell
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above

272. The effect of sulphation is that the internal resistance

(a) increases (b) decreases(c) remains same (d) none of the above

273. The substances which combine together to store electrical energy during the charge are
called materials
(a) active
(b) passive
(c) inert
(d) dielectric

274. In a lead-acid cell, lead is called as

(a) positive active material
(b) negative active material
(c) passive material
(d) none of the above

275. The lead-acid cell should never be discharged beyond

(a) 1.8 V
(b) 1.9 V
(c) 2 V
(d) 2.1 V

276. On overcharging a battery

(a) it will bring about chemical change in active materials
(b) it will increase the capacity of the battery
(c) it will raise the specific gravity of the electrolyte
(d) none of the above will occur

277. Each cell has a vent cap

(a) to allow gases out when the cell is on charge
(b) to add water to the cell if needed
(c) to check the level of electrolyte
(d) to do all above functions

278. Following will occur if level of electrolyte falls below plates

(a) capacity of the cell is reduced
(b) life of the cell is reduced
(c) open plates are converted to lead sulphate
(d) all above

279. In constant voltage charging method, the charging current from discharged to fully
charged condition
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains constant
(d) none of the above

280. 48 ampere-hour capacity would deliver a current of

(a) 48 amperes for 1 hour
(b) 24 amperes for 2 hours
(c) 8 amperes for 6 hours
(d) 6 amperes for 8 hours

281. If current in a conductor increases then according to Lenz's law self-induced voltage will
(a) aid the increasing current
(b) tend to decrease the amount of cur-rent
(c) produce current opposite to the in-creasing current
(d) aid the applied voltage

282. The direction of incViced e.m.f. can be found by

(a) Laplace's law
(b) Lenz's law
(c) Fleming's right hand rule
(d) Kirchhoff s voltage law
283. Air-core coils are practically free from
(a) hysteresis losses
(b) eddy current losses
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above

284. The magnitude of the induced e.m.f. in a conductor depends on the

(a) flux density of the magnetic field
(b) amount of flux cut
(c) amount of flux linkages
(d) rate of change of flux-linkages

285. A laminated iron core has reduced eddy-current losses because

(a) more wire can be used with less D.C. resistance in coil
(b) the laminations are insulated from each other
(c) the magnetic flux is concentrated in the air gap of the core
(d) the laminations are stacked vertf-cally

286. The law that the induced e.m.f. and current always oppose the cause producing them is
due to
(a) Faraday
(b) Lenz
(c) Newton
(d) Coulomb

287. Which of the following is not a unit of inductance ?

(a) Henry
(b) Coulomb/volt ampere
(c) Volt second per ampere
(d) All of the above

288. In case of an inductance, current is proportional to

(a) voltage across the inductance
(b) magnetic field
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)

289. Which of the following circuit elements will oppose the change in circuit current ?
(a) Capacitance
(b) Inductance
(c) Resistance
(d) All of the above

290. For a purely inductive circuit which of the following is true ?

(a) Apparent power is zero
(b) Relative power is.zero
(c) Actual power of the circuit is zero
(d) Any capacitance even if present in the circuit will not be charged
291. Which of the following is unit of inductance ?
(a) Ohm
(b) Henry
(c) Ampere turns
(d) Webers/metre

292. An e.m.f. of 16 volts is induced in a coil of inductance 4H. The rate of change of current
must be
(a) 64 A/s
(b) 32 A/s
(c) 16 A/s
(d) 4 A/s

293. In case all the flux from the current in coil 1 links with coil 2, the co-efficient of
coupling will be
(a) 2.0
(b) 1.0
(c) 0.5
(d) zero

294. A coil with negligible resistance has 50V across it with 10 mA. The inductive reactance
is
(a) 50 ohms
(b) 500 ohms
(c) 1000 ohms
(d) 5000 ohms

295. A conductor 2 metres long moves at right angles to a magnetic field of flux density 1
tesla with a velocity of 12.5 m/s. The induced e.m.f. in the conductor will be
(a) 10 V
(6) 15 V
(c) 25V
(d) 50V

296. Lenz's law is a consequence of the law of conservation of

(a) induced current
(b) charge
(c) energy
(d) induced e.m.f.

297. The co-efficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on
(a) self-inductance of two coils only
(b) mutual inductance between two coils only
(c) mutual inductance and self inductance of two coils
(d) none of the above
298. An average voltage of 10 V is induced in a 250 turns solenoid as a result of a change in
flux which occurs in 0.5 second. The total flux change is
(a) 20 Wb
(b) 2 Wb
(c) 0.2 Wb
(d) 0.02 Wb

299. A 500 turns solenoid develops an average induced voltage of 60 V. Over what time
interval must a flux change of 0.06 Wb occur to produce such a voltage ?
(a) 0.01 s
(b) 0.1 s
(c) 0.5 s
(d) 5 s

300. Which of the fpllowing inductor will have the least eddy current losses ?
(a) Air core
(b) Laminated iron core
(c) Iron core
(d) Powdered iron core

301. Which circuit element(s) will oppose the change in circuit current ?
(a) Resistance only
(b) Inductance only
(c) Capacitance only
(d) Inductance and capacitance

302. A crack in the magnetic path of an inductor will result in

(a) unchanged inductance
(b) increased inductance
(c) zero inductance
(d) reduced inductance

303. Laminations of core are generally made of

(a) case iron
(b) carbon
(c) silicon steel
(d) stainless steel

304. Which of the following could be lamina-proximately the thickness of lamina-tions of a

D.C. machine?
(a) 0.005 mm
(b) 0.05 mm
(c) 0.5 m
(d) 5 m

305. The armature of D.C. generator is laminated to

(a) reduce the bulk
(b) provide the bulk
(c) insulate the core
(d) reduce eddy current loss

306. The resistance of armature winding depends on

(a) length of conductor
(b) cross-sectional area of the conductor
(c) number of conductors
(d) all of the above

307. The field coils of D.C. generator are usually made of

(a) mica
(b) copper
(c) cast iron
(d) carbon

308. The commutator segments are connected to the armature conductors by means of
(a) copper lugs
(b) resistance wires
(c) insulation pads

309. In a commutator
(a) copper is harder than mica
(b) mica and copper are equally hard
(c) mica is harder than copper
(d) none of the above

310. In D.C. generators the pole shoes are fastened to the pole core by
(a) rivets
(b) counter sunk screws
(c) brazing
(d) welding

311. According to Fleming's right-hand rule for finding the direction of induced e.m.f., when
middle finger points in the direction of induced e.m.f., forefinger will point in the direction of
(a) motion of conductor
(b) lines of force
(c) either of the above
(d) none of the above

312. Fleming's right-hand rule regarding direction of induced e.m.f., correlates

(a) magnetic flux, direction of current flow and resultant force
(b) magnetic flux, direction of motion and the direction of e.m.f. induced
(c) magnetic field strength, induced voltage and current
(d) magnetic flux, direction of force and direction of motion of conductor

313. While applying Fleming's right-hand rule to And the direction of induced e.m.f., the
thumb points towards
(a) direction of induced e.m.f.
(b) direction of flux
(c) direction of motion of the conductor if forefinger points in the direction of generated
e.m.f.
(d) direction of motion of conductor, if forefinger points along the lines of flux

314. The bearings used to support the rotor shafts are generally
(a) ball bearings
(b) bush bearings
(c) magnetic bearmgs
(d) needle bearing

315. In D.C. generators, the cause of rapid brush wear may be

(a) severe sparking
(b) rough commutator surface
(c) imperfect contact
(d) any of the above

316. In lap winding, the number of brushes is always

(a) double the number of poles
(b) same as the number of poles
(c) half the number of poles
(d) two

317. In case of D.C. machines, mechanical losses are primary function of

(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) speed
(d) none of above

318. Iron losses in a D.C. machine are independent of variations in

(a) speed
(b) load
(c) voltage
(d) speed and voltage

319. In D.C. generators, current to the external circuit from armature is given through
(a) commutator
(b) solid connection
(c) slip rings
(d) none of above

320. Brushes of D.C. machines are made of

(a) carbon
(b) soft copper
(c) hard copper
(d) all of above
321. The material for commutator brushes is generally
(a) mica
(b) copper
(c) cast iron
(d) carbon

322. The insulating material used between the commutator segments is normally
(a) graphite
(b) paper
(c) mica
(d) insulating varnish

323. D.C. generators are connected to the bus bars or disconnected from them only under the
floating condition
(a) to avoid sudden loading of the prime mover
(b) to avoid mechanical jerk to the shaft
(c) to avoid burning of switch contacts
(d) all above

324. Eddy currents are induced in the pole shoes of a D.C. machine due to
(a) oscillating magnetic field
(b) pulsating magnetic flux
(c) relative rotation between field and armature
(d) all above

325. Equalizer rings are required in case armature is

(a) wave wound
(b) lap wound
(c) delta wound
(d) duplex wound

326. Welding generator will have

(a) lap winding
(b) wave winding
(c) delta winding
(d) duplex wave winding

327. In case of D.C. machine winding, number of commutator segments is equal to

(a) number of armature coils
(b) number of armature coil sides
(c) number of armature conductors
(d) number of armature turns

328. For a D.C. machines laboratory following type of D.C. supply will be suitable
(a) rotary converter
(b) mercury are rectifier
(c) induction motor D.C. generator set
(d) synchronous motor D.C. generator set

329. Magnetic field in a D.C. generator is produced by

(a) electromagnets
(b) permanent magnets
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above

330. The number of brushes in a commutator depends on

(a) speed of armature
(b) type of winding
(c) voltage
(d) amount of current to be collected

331. Compensating windings are used in D.C. generators

(a) mainly to reduce the eddy currents by providing local short-circuits
(b) to provide path for the circulation of cooling air
(c) to neutralise the cross-magnetising effect of the armature reaction
(d) none of the above

332. Which of the following components of a D.C, generator plays vital role for providing
direct current of a D.C. generator ?
(a) Dummy coils
(b) Commutator
(c) Eye bolt
(d) Equilizer rings

333. In a D.C. generator the ripples in the direct e.m.f. generated are reduced by
(a) using conductor of annealed copper
(b) using commutator with large number of segments
(c) using carbon brushes of superior quality
(d) using equiliser rings

334. In D.C. generators, lap winding is used for

(a) high voltage, high current
(b) low voltage, high current
(c) high voltage, low current
(d) low voltage, low current

335. The voltage drop for which of the following types of brush can be expected to be least ?
(a) Graphite brushes
(b) Carbon brushes
(c) Metal graphite brushes
(d) None of the above
336. The e.m.f. generated by a shunt wound D.C. generator isE. Now while pole flux remains
, if the speed of the generator is doubled, the e.m.f. generated will be
(a) E/2
(b) 2E
(c) slightly less than E
(d) E

337. In a D.C. generator the actual flux distribution depends upon

(a) size of air gap
(b) shape of the pole shoe
(c) clearance between tips of the adjacent pole shoes
(d) all of the above

338. The armature core of a D.C. generator is usually made of

(a) silicon steel
(b) copper
(c) non-ferrous material
(d) cast-iron

339. In a D.C. machine, fractional pitch winding is used

(a) to increasethe generated voltage
(b) to reduce sparking
(c) to save the copper because of shorter end connections
(d) due to (b) and (c) above

340. D.C. series generator is used

(a) to supply traction load
(b) to supply industrial load at constant voltage
(c) voltage at the toad end of the feeder
(d) for none of the above purpose

341. Following D.C. generator will be in a position to build up without any magnetism in the
poles
(a) series generator
(b) shunt generator
(c) compound generator
(d) self-excited generator

342. D.C. generator generally preferred for charging automobile batteries is

(a) series generator
(b) shunt generator
(c) long shunt compound generator
(d) any of'the above

343. In a D.C. generator the number of mechanical degrees and electrical degrees will be the
same when
(a) r.p.m. is more than 300
(b) r.p.m. is less than 300
(c) number of poles is 4
(d) number of poles is 2
343. Permeance is the reciprocal of
(a) flux density
(b) reluctance
(c) ampere-turns
(d) resistance

345. The e.m.f. generated in a D.C. generator is directly proportional to

(a) flux/pole
(b) speed of armature
(c) number of poles
(d) all of the above

346. In a D.C. generator the magnetic neutral axis coincides with the geometrical neutral axis,
when
(a) there is no load on the generator
(b) the generator runs on full load
(c) the generator runs on overload
(d) the generator runs on designed speed

347. In a D.C. generator in order to reduce sparking at brushes, the self-induced e.m.f. in the
coil is neutralised by all of the following except
(a) interpoles
(b) dummy coils
(c) compensating winding
(d) shifting of axis of brushes

348. In D.C. generators on no-load, the air gap flux distribution in space is
(a) sinusoidal
(b) triangular
(c) pulsating
(d) flat topped

349. In a shunt generator the voltage build up is generally restricted by

(a) speed limitation
(b) armature heating
(c) insulation restrictions
(d) saturation of iron

350. The e.m.f. induced in the armature of a shunt generator is 600 V. The armature
resistance is 0.1 ohm. If the armature current is 200 A, the terminal voltage will be
(a) 640 V
(b) 620 V
(c) 600 V
(d) 580 V

351. In a D.C. generator the critical resistance refers to the resistance of

(a) brushes
(b) field
(c) armature
(d) load

352. To achieve sparkless commutation brushes of a D.C. generator are rockedm ahead so as
to bring them
(a) just ahead of magnetic neutral axis
(b) in magnetic neutral axis
(c) just behind the magnetic neutral axis

353. Armature coil is short circuited by brushes when it lies

(a) along neutral axis
(b) along field axis
(c) in any of the above positions
(d) in none of the above positions

354. The rapid wear of brushes takes place due to

(a) abrasion from dust
(b) excessive spring pressure
(c) rough commutator bars
(d) high mica insulation between com-mutation bars
(e) all of the above factors

355. A D.C. generator can be considered as

(a) rectifier
(b) primemover
(c) rotating amplifier
(d) power pump

356. In any rotating machine that part which houses the conductors and in which e.m.f.
induced is to be utilised is called
(a) rotor
(b) stator
(c) field
(d) armature

357. In a D.C. machine stray loss is the sum of

(a) total copper loss and mechanical loss
(b) armature copper loss and iron loss
(c) shunt field copper loss and mechanical loss
(d) iron loss and mechanical loss
358. In a D.C. generator in case the resistance of the field winding is increased, then output
voltage will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unaffected
(d) fluctuate heavily

359. An exciter for a turbo generator is a

(a) separately excited generator
(b) shunt generator
(c) series generator
(d) compound generator

360. Which of the following D.C. generators will be in a position to build up without any
residual magnetism in the poles ?
(a) Series generator
(b) Shunt generator
(c) Compound generator
(d) None of the above

361. In over compounded generator, full load terminal voltage is

(a) almost zero
(b) less than noload terminal voltage
(c) more than noload terminal voltage
(d) equal to no-load terminal voltage

362. In a level compounded D.C. generator, full load terminal voltage is

(a) negligibly low
(b) equal to no-load terminal voltage
(c) more than no-load terminal voltage
(d) less than no-load terminal voltage

363. The terminal voltage of a D.C. shunt generator drops on load because of all of the
following reasons except
(a) armature reaction
(b) armature resistance drop
(c) field weakening due to armature reaction and armature
(d) commutation

364. A sinusoidal voltage of 5 Hz is applied to the field of a shunt generator. The armature
voltage wave
(a) will be zero
(b) will be of 5 Hz
(c) willbeof5xiVHz
(d) will be of v Hz 5
365. A 220 V D.C. generator is run at full speed without any excitation. The open circuit
voltage will be
(a) zero
(b) about 2 V
(c) about 50 V
(d) 220 V

366. In a separately excited generator supplying rated load the armature reaction ,
(a) is always present
(b) is always absent
(c) may be sometimes present
(d) none of the above

367. If residual magnetism is present in a D.C. generator, the induced e.m.f. at zero speed
will be
(a) zero
(b) small
(c) the same as rated voltage
(d) high

368. Armature reaction in a generator results in

(a) demagnetisation of leading pole tip and magnetisation of trailing pole tip
(b) demagnetisation of trailing pole tip and magnetisation of leading pole tip
(c) damagnetising the centre of all poles
(d) magnetising the centre of all poles

369. Following energized winding of a D.C. machine should not be opened as it would
produce high inductive voltage which may be dangerous to personnel and may cause its own
insulation failure.
(a) Series field
(b) Compensating field
(c) Inter pole field
(d) Shunt field

370. The critical resistance of the D.C. generator is the resistance of

(a) field
(b) brushes
(c) armature
(d) load

371. When two D.C. series generators are running in parallel, an equilizer bar is used
(a) to increase the speed and hence generated e.m.f.
(b) to increase the series flux
(c) so that two similar machines will pass approximately equal currents to the load
(d) to reduce the combined effect of ar-mature reaction of both machines

372. Which of the following generating machine will offer constant voltage on all loads ?
(a) Self-excited generator
(b) Separately excited generator
(c) Level compounded generator .
(d) All of the above

373. Which of the following generators will be preferred if they are required to be run in
parallel
(a) Shunt generators
(b) Series generators
(c) Compound generators
(d) None of the above

374. Two generators are running in parallel. One of the generators may run as motor for
which of the following reasons ?
(a) The direction of that generator is reversed
(b) The speed of that generator is increased
(c) The field of that generator is weakened
(d) That generator takes large share of loads

375. A D.C. generator works on the principle of

(a) Lenz's law
(b) Ohm's law
(c) Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction
(d) none of the above

376. A series generator can self-excite

(a) only if the load current is zero
(b) only if the load current is not zero
(c) irrespective of the value of load current
(d) none of the above

377. A shunt generator can self-excite

(a) only if the resistance of the field circuit is less than critical value
(b) only if the resistance of the field circuit is critical value
(c) irrespective of the value of the resis-tance in the field circuit

378. The terminal voltage of a series generator is 150 V when the load current is 5 A. If the
load current is increased to 10 A, the terminal voltage will be
(a) 150 V
(b) less than 150 V
(c) greater than 150 V
(d) none of the above

379. The open circuit voltage of a compound generator is 250 V. At full load the terminal
voltage
(a) will be less than 250 V
(b) will always be 250 V
(c) may be greater or less than 250 V
(d) none of the above

380. The essential condition for parallel operation of two D.C. generators is that they have '
(a) same kW rating
(b) the same operation r.p.m.
(c) the same drooping voltage charac-teristics
(d) same percentage regulation

381. When two D.C. generators are running in parallel an equilizer bar is used
(a) to increase the series flux
(b) to increase the generated e.m.f.
(c) to reduce the combined effect of ar-mature reaction of both the machines
(d) so that the two identical machines will pass approximately equal currents to the load

382. With a D.C. generator which of the following regulation is preferred ?

(a) 100% regulation
(b) infinite regulation
(c) 50% regulation
(d) 1% regulation

383. Which generator would you prefer for feeding long D.C. transmission lines ?
(a) Series generator
(b) Shunt generator
(c) Over compound generator
(d) Flat compound generator

384. In a D.C. generator the critical resistance can be increased by

(a) increasing its field resistance
(b) decreasing its field resistance
(c) increasing its speed
(d) decreasing its speed

385. The number of armature parallel paths in a two-pole D.C. generator having duplex lap
winding is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8

386. For both lap and wave windings, there are as many commutator bars as the number of
(a) slots
(b) armature conductors
(c) winding elements
(d) poles

387. The series field of a short-shunt D.C. generator is excited by

(a) external current
(b) armature current
(c) shunt current
(d) load current
Ans: d

388. As a result of armature reaction, the reduction in the total mutual air gap flux in a D.C.
generator is approximately
(a) 40 percent
(b) 25 percent
(c) 10 percent
(d) 5 percent

389. Shunt generators are most suited for stable parallel operation because of their
(a) rising voltage characteristics
(b) identical voltage characteristics
(c) drooping voltage characteristics
(d) linear voltage characteristics

390. If a self excited D.C. generator after being installed, fails to build up on its first trial run,
the first is to
(a) reverse the field connections
(b) increase the field resistance
(c) increase the speed of prime mover
(d) check armature insulation resistance

391. No-load speed of which of the following motor will be highest ?

(a) Shunt motor
(b) Series motor
(c) Cumulative compound motor
(d) Differentiate compound motor

392. The direction of rotation of a D.C. series motor can be changed by

(a) interchanging supply terminals
(b) interchanging field terminals
(c) either of (a) and (b) above
(d) None of the above

393. Which of the following application requires high starting torque ?

(a) Lathe machine
(b) Centrifugal pump
(c) Locomotive
(d) blower

394. If a D.C. motor is to be selected for conveyors, which rriotor would be preferred ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Differentially compound motor
(d) Cumulative compound motor

395. Which D.C. motor will be preferred for machine tools ?

(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulative compound motor
(d) Differential compound motor

396. Differentially compound D.C. motors can find applications requiring

(a) high starting torque
(b) low starting torque
(c) variable speed
(d) frequent on-off cycles

397. Which D.C. motor is preferred for elevators ?

(a) Shunt motor
(b) Series motor
(c) Differential compound motor
(d) Cumulative compound motor

398. According to Fleming's left-hand rule, when the forefinger points in the direction of the
field or flux, the middle finger will point in the direction of
(a) current in the conductor
(b) motion of conductor
(c) resultant force on conductor
(d) none of the above

399. If the field of a D.C. shunt motor gets opened while motor is running
(a) the speed of motor will be reduced %
(b) the armature current will reduce
(c) the motor will attain dangerously high speed 1
(d) the motor will continue to move at constant speed

400. Starters are used with D.C. motors because

(a) these motors have high starting torque
(b) these motors are not self-starting
(c) back e.m.f. of these motors is initially
(d) to restrict armature current as there is no back e.m.f. while starting

401. In D.C. shunt motors as load is reduced

(a) the speed will increase abruptly
(b) the speed will increase in proportion to reduction in load
(c) the speed will remain almost/constant
(d) the speed will reduce

402. A D.C. series motor is that which

(a) has its field winding consisting of thick wire and less turns
(b) has a poor torque
(c) can be started easily without load
(d) has almost constant speed

403. When two D.C. series motors are connected in parallel, the resultant speed is
(a) more than the normal speed
(b) loss than the normal speed
(c) normal speed
(d) zero

404. The speed of a D.C. shunt motor more than its full-load speed can be obtained by
(a) decreasing the field current
(b) increasing the field current
(c) decreasing the armature current
(d) increasing the armature current

405. In a D.C. shunt motor, speed is

(a) independent of armature current
(b) directly proportional to the armature current
(c) proportional to the square of the current
(d) inversely proportional to the armature current

405. What will happen if the back e.m.f. of a D.C. motor vanishes suddenly?
(a) The motor will stop
(b) The motor will continue to run
(c) The armature may burn
(d) The motor will run noisy

406. In case of D.C. shunt motors the speed is dependent on back e.m.f. only because
(a) back e.m.f. is equal to armature drop
(b) armature drop is negligible
(c) flux is proportional to armature current
(d) flux is practically constant in D:C. shunt motors

407. In a D.C. shunt motor, under the conditions of maximum power, the current in the
armature will be
(a) almost negligible
(b) rated full-load current
(c) less than full-load current
(d) more than full-load current

408. These days D.C. motors are widely used in

(a) pumping sets
(b) air compressors
(c) electric traction
(d) machine shops

409. By looking at which part of the motor, it can be easily confirmed that a particular motor
is D.C. motor?
(a) Frame
(b) Shaft
(c) Commutator
(d) Stator
410. In which of the following applications D.C. series motor is invariably tried?
(a) Starter for a car
(b) Drive for a water pump
(c) Fan motor
(d) Motor in A.C. or D.C.

411. In D.C. machines fractional pitch winding is used

(a) to improve cooling
(b) to reduce copper losses
(c) to increase the generated e.m.f.
(d) to reduce the sparking

412. A three point starter is considered suitable for

(a) shunt motors
(b) shunt as well as compound motors
(c) shunt, compound and series motors
(d) all D.C. motors

413. Which of the following /rule can he used to determine the direction of rotation of D.C.
motor
(a) Lenz's law
(b) Faraday's law
(c) Coloumb's law
(d) Fleming's left-hand rule

415. Which of the following load normally needs starting torque more than the rated torque?
(a) Blowers
(b) Conveyors
(c) Air compressors
(d) Centrifugal pumps

416. The starting resistance of a D.C. motor is generally

(a) low
(b) around 500 Q
(c) 1000 Q
(d) infinitely large

417. The speed of a D.C. series motor is

(a) proportional to the armature current
(b) proportional to the square of the armature current
(c) proportional to field current
(d) inversely proportional to the armature current

418. The power mentioned on the name plate of an electric motor indicates
(a) the power drawn in kW
(b) the power drawn in kVA
(c) the gross power
(d) the output power available at the shaft

419. Which D.C. motor has got maximum self loading property?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulatively compounded 'motor
(d) Differentially compounded motor

420. Which D.C. motor will be suitable alongwith flywheel for intermittent light and heavy
loads?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulatively compounded motor
(d) Differentially compounded motor

421. Sparking at the commutator of a D.C. motor may result in

(a) damage to commutator segments
(b) damage to commutator insulation
(c) increased power consumption
(d) all of the above

422. Which of the following motor is preferred for operation in highly explosive atmosphere
?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Air motor
(d) Battery operated motor

423. If the supply voltage for a D.C. motor is increased, which of the following will decrease
?
(a) Starting torque
(b) Operating speed
(c) Full-load current
(d) All of the above

424. Which one of the following is not the function of pole shoes in a D.C. machine ?
(a) To reduce eddy current loss
(b) To support the field coils
(c) To spread out flux for better uniformity
(d) To reduce the reluctance of the magnetic path

425. The condition for maximum power in case of D.C. motor is

(a) back e.m.f. = 2 x supply voltage
(b) back e.m.f. =1 /2x supply voltage
(c) supply voltage = 1/2 x back e.m.f.
(d) supply voltage = back e.m.f.
426. For which of the following applications a D.C. motor is preferred over an A.C. motor ?
(a) Low speed operation
(b) High speed operation
(c) Variable speed operation
(d) Fixed speed operation

427. Three point starter can be used for

(a) series motor only
(b) shunt motor only
(c) compound motor only
(d) both shunt and compound motor

428. Sparking, is discouraged in a D.C. motor because

(a) it increases the input power consumption
(b) commutator gets damaged
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above

429. Which of the following motor has the poorest speed regulation ?
(a) Shunt motor
(b) Series motor
(c) Differential compound motor
(d) Cumulative compound motor

430. Buses, trains, trolleys, hoists, cranes require high starting torque and therefore make use
of
(a) D.C. series motor
(b) D.C. shunt motor
(c) induction motor
(d) all of above motors

431. As -the load is increased the speed of D.C. shunt motor will
(a) reduce slightly
(b) increase slightly
(c) increase proportionately
(d) remains unchanged

432. The armature torque of the D.C. shunt motor is proportional to

(a) field flux only
(b) armature current only
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above

433. Which of the following method of speed control of D.C. machine will offer minimum
efficiency ?
(a) Voltage control method
(b) Field control method
(c) Armature control method
(d) All above methods

434. Usually wide and sensitive speed control is desired in case of

(a) centrifugal pumps
(b) elevators
(c) steel rolling mills
(d) colliery winders

435. The speed of a motor falls from 1100 r.p.m. at no-load to 1050 r.p.m. at rated load. The
speed regulation of the motor is
(a) 2.36%
(6) 4.76%
(c) 6.77%
(d) 8.84%

436. The armature voltage control of D.C. motor provides

(a) constant torque drive
(b) constant voltage drive
(c) constant current drive
(d) none of the above

437. In case the back e.m.f. and the speed of a D.C. motor are doubled, the torque developed
by the motor will
(a) remain unchanged
(b) reduce to one-fourth value
(c) increase four folds
(d) be doubled

438. At the instant of starting when a D.C. motor is put on supply, it behaves like
(a) a highly resistive circuit
(6) a low resistance circuit
(c) a capacitive circuit
(d) none of the above

439. The speed of a D.C. motor can be varied by varying

(a) field current
(b) applied voltage
(c) resistance in series with armature
(d) any of the above

440. Which one of the following is not necessarily the advantage of D.C. motors over A.C.
motors ?
(a) Low cost
(b) Wide speed range
(c) Stability
(d) High starting torque.
441. The plugging gives the
(a) zero torque braking
(b) smallest torque braking
(c) highest torque braking
(d) none of the above

442. The armature voltage control of D.C. motor provides

(a) constant voltage drive
(b) constant current drive
(c) constant torque drive
(d) none of the above

443. Which of the following motors one will choose to drive the rotary compressor ?
(a) D.C. shunt motor
(b) D.C. series motor
(c) Universal motor
(d) Synchronous motor

444. If the speed of a D.C. shunt motor is increased, the back e.m.f. of the motor will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain same
(d) become zero

445. Which of the following motors is most suitable for signalling and many kinds of timers ?
(a) D.C. shunt motor
(b) D.C. series motor
(c) Induction motor
(d) Reluctance motor

446. Which motor should not be started on no-load ?

(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulatively compounded motor
(d) Differentially compounded motor.

447. Ward-Leonard control is basically a

(a) voltage control method
(b) field divertor method
(c) field control method
(d) armature resistance control method

448. For constant torque drive which speed control method is preferred ?
(a) Field control
(b) Armature voltage control
(c) Shunt armature control
(d) Mechanical loading system
449. In Ward-Leonard control the lower limit of speed is imposed by
(a) residual magnetism of the generator
(b) core losses of motor
(c) mechanical losses of motor and generator together
(d) all of the above

450. The main disadvantage of the Ward-Leonard control method is

(a) high initial cost
(b) high maintenance cost
(c) low efficiency at Hght loads
(d) all of the above

451. Regenerative method of braking is based on that

(a) back e.m.f. is less than the applied voltage
(b) back e.m.f. is equal to the applied voltage
(c) back e.m.f. of rotor is more than the applied voltage
(d) none of the above

452. The hysteresis loss in a D.C. machine least depends on

(a) Frequency of magnetic reversals
(b) Maximum value of flux density
(c) Volume and grade of iron
(d) Rate of flow of ventilating air

453. In a D.C. generator all of the following could be the effects of iron losses except
(a) Loss of efficiency
(b) Excessive heating of core
(c) Increase in terminal voltage
(d) Rise in temperature of ventilating air

454. Torque developed by a D.C. motor depends upon

(a) magnetic field
(b) active length of the conductor
(c) current flow through the conductors
(d) number of conductors
(e) radius of armature
(f) all above factors

455. D.C. shunt motors are used for driving

(a) trains
(b) cranes
(c) hoists
(d) machine tools

456. Which of the following loss in a D.C. generator is dissipated in the form of heat?
(a) Mechanical loss
(b) Core loss
(c) Copper loss
(d) All of the above

457. Which of the following losses are significantly reduced by laminating the core of a D.C.
generator ?
(a) Hysteresis losses
(b) Eddy current losses
(c) Copper losses
(d) Windage losses

458. The total losses in a well designed D.C. generator of 10 kW will be nearly
(a) 100 W
(b) 500 W
(c) 1000 W
(d) 1500 W

459. The condition for maximum efficiency for a D.C. generator is

(a) eddy current losses = stray losses
(b) hysteresis losses = eddy current losses
(c) copper losses = 0
(d) variable losses = constant losses

460. D.C. generators are normally designed for maximum efficiency around
(a) full-load
(b) rated r.p.m.
(c) rated voltage
(d) all of the above

461. In a D.C. generator, the iron losses mainly take place in

(a) yoke
(b) commutator
(c) armature conductors
(d) armature rotor

462. D.C. generators are installed near the load centres to reduce
(a) iron losses
(b) line losses
(c) sparking
(d) corona losses

463. The purpose of retardation test on D.C. shunt machines is to find out
(a) stray losses
(b) eddy current losses
(c) field copper losses
(d) windage losses

464. Which of the following tests will be suitable for testing two similar D.C. series motors
of large capacity ?
(a) Swinburne's test
(b) Hopkinson's test
(c) Field test
(d) Brake test

465. Hopkinson's test on D.C. machines is conducted at

(a) no-load
(b) part load
(c) full-load
(d) overload

466. During rheostat braking of D.C. series motors

(a) motor is run as a generator
(b) motor is reversed in direction
(c) motor is run at reduced speed

467. For which types of D.C. motor, dynamic braking is generally used ?
(a) Shunt motors
(b) Series motors
(c) Compound motors
(d) All of the above

468. Which method of braking is generally used in elevators ?

(a) Plugging
(b) Regenerative braking
(c) Rheostatic braking
(d) None of the above

469. D.C. motor is to a drive a load which is almost nil for certain part of the load cycle and
peak value for short duration. We will select this
(a) series motor
(b) shunt motor
(c) compound motor
(d) any of the above

470. Which D.C. motor has got maximum self relieving property ?
(a) Series motor
(6) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulatively compounded motor
(d) Differentially compounded motor

471. In the D.C. motor the iron losses occur in

(a) the field
(b) the armature
(c) the brushes
(d) the commutator
472. The speed of a D.C. shunt motor is required to be more than full load speed. This is
possible by
(a) reducing the field current
(b) decreasing the armature current
(c) increasing the armature current
(d) increasing the excitation current
(e) none of the above methods

473. One D.C. motor another D.C. motor. The second D.C. motor when excited and driven
(a) runs as a generator
(b) does not run as a generator
(c) also runs as a motor comes to stop after sometime

474. The insulating material for a

(a) low cost (b) high dielectric strength
(c) high mechanical strength (d) all of the above

475. Which of the following protects a cable against mechanical injury ?

(a) Bedding
(b) Sheath
(c) Armouring
(d) None of the above

476. Which of the following insulation is used in cables ?

(a) Varnished cambric
(b) Rubber
(c) Paper
(d) Any of the above

477. Empire tape is

(a) varnished cambric
(b) vulcanised rubber
(c) impregnated paper
(d) none of the above

478. The thickness of the layer of insulation on the conductor, in cables, depends upon
(a) reactive power
(b) power factor
(c) voltage
(d) current carrying capacity

479. The bedding on a cable consists of

(a) hessian (b)
(c) any of the above
(d) none of the above

480. The insulating material for cables should

(a) be acid proof (b) be non-inflammable
(c) be non-hygroscopic (d) have all above properties
481. In a cable immediately above metallic sheath is provided.
(a) earthing connection (b) bedding
(c) armouring (d) none of the above

482. The current carrying capacity of cables in D.C. is more than that in A.C. mainly due to
(a) absence of harmonics
(b) non-existence of any stability limit
(c) smaller dielectric loss
(d) absence of ripples
(e) none of the above

483. In case of three core flexible cable the colour of the neutral is
(a) blue
(b) black
(c) brown
(d) none of the above

484. cables are used for 132 kV lines.

(a) High tension
(b) Super tension
(c) Extra high tension
(d) Extra super voltage

485. Conduit pipes are normally used to protect cables.

(a) unsheathed cables
(b) armoured
(c) PVC sheathed cables
(d) all of the above

486. The minimum dielectric stress in a cable is at

(a) armour
(b) bedding
(c) conductor surface
(d) lead sheath

487. In single core cables armouring is not done to

(a) avoid excessive sheath losses (b) make it flexible
(c) either of the above (d) none of the above

488. Dielectric strength of rubber is around

(a) 5 kV/mm
(b) 15 kV/mm
(c) 30 kV/mm
(d) 200 kV/mm

489. Low tension cables are generally used upto

(a) 200 V
(b) 500 V
(c) 700 V
(d) 1000 V

490. In a cable, the maximum stress under operating conditions is at

(a) insulation layer
(b) sheath
(c) armour
(d) conductor surface

491. High tension cables are generally used upto

(a) 11kV
(b) 33kV
(c) 66 kV
(d) 132 kV

492. The surge resistance of cable is

(a) 5 ohms
(b) 20 ohms
(c) 50 ohms
(d) 100 ohms

493. PVC stands for

(a) polyvinyl chloride (b) post varnish conductor (c) pressed and varnished cloth
(d) positive voltage conductor (e) none of the above

494. The material for armouring on cable is usually

(a) steel tape
(b) galvanised steel wire
(c) any of the above
(d) none of the above

495. Cables, generally used beyond 66 kV are

(a) oil
(b) S.L. type
(c) belted
(d) armoured

496. The relative permittivity of rubber is

(a) between 2 and 3 (b) between 5 and 6
(c) between 8 and 10 (d) between 12 and 14

497. A certain cable has an insulation of relative permittivity 4. If the insulation is replaced
by one of relative permittivity 2, the capacitance of the cable will become
(a) one half
(6) double
(c) four times
(d) none of the above
498. If a cable of homogeneous insulation has a maximum stress of 10 kV/mm, then the
dielectric strength of insulation should be
(a) 5 kV/mm
(b) 10 kV/mm
(a) 15 kV/mm
(d) 30 kV/mm

499. In the cables, sheaths are used to

(a) prevent from entering the cable (b) provide enough strength
(e) provide proper insulation (d) none of the above

500. The breakdown of insulation of the cable can be avoided economically by the use of
(a) inter-sheaths
(b) insulating materials with different dielectric constants
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above

501. The insulation of the cable decreases with

(a) the increase in length of the insulation
(b) the decrease in the length of the insulation
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) none of the above

502. A cable carrying alternating current has

(a) hysteresis losses only
(b) hysteresis and leakage losses only
(c) hysteresis, leakage and copper losses only
(d) hysteresis, leakage, copper and friction losses

503. In a cable the voltage stress is maximum at

(a) sheath
(b) insulator
(c) surface of the conductor
(d) core of the conductor

504. The advantage of cables over overhead transmission lines is

(a) easy maintenance
(b) low cost
(c) can be used in congested areas
(d) can be used in high voltage circuits

505. The thickness of metallic shielding on cables is usually

(a) 0.04 mm
(b) 0.2 to 0.4 mm
(e) 3 to 5 mm
(d) 40 to 60 mm
506. Cables for 220 kV lines are invariably
(a) mica insulated
(b) paper insulated
(c) compressed oil or compressed gas insulated
(d) rubber insulated
(e) none of the above

507. Copper as conductor for cables is used as

(a) annealed
(b) hardened and tempered
(c) hard drawn
(d) alloy with chromium

508. The insulating material should have

(a) low permittivity
(b) high resistivity
(c) high dielectric strength
(d) all of the above

509. The advantage of oil filled cables is

(a) more perfect impregnation
(b) smaller overall size
(c) no ionisation, oxidation and formation of voids
(d) all of the above

510. The disadvantage with paper as insulating material is

(a) it is hygroscopic
(6) it has high capacitance
(c) it is an organic material
(d) none of the above

511. The breakdown voltage of a cable depends on

(a) presence of moisture (b) working temperature
(c) time of application of the voltage (d) all of the above

512. In constant-current charging method, the supply voltage from discharged to fully
charged condition
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains constant
(d) none of the above

513. Battery charging equipment is generally installed

(a) in well ventilated location
(b) in clean and place
(c) as near as practical to the battery being charged
(d) in location having all above features
514. Following will happen if the specific gravity of electrolyte becomes more than 1.23.
(a) Loss of capacity
(b) Loss of life
(c) Corrosion of the grids of the plate
(d) All above

515. Batteries are charged by

(a) rectifiers
(b) engine generator sets
(c) motor generator sets
(d) any one of the above methods

516. Cell short circuit results in

(a) low sp. gravity electrolyte
(b) abnormal high temperature
(c) reduced gassing on charge
(d) all above

517. Internal resistance of a cell is reduced by

(a) using vent plug to permit gas formed during discharge
(b) increasing the plate area
(c) putting plates very close together
(d) all above methods

518. Capacity of dry cells is

(a) more when it is supplying current for intermittent periods
(b) more when it is supplying current for continuous periods
(c) unaffected by the type of discharge
(d) none of the above

519. Battery container should be acid resistance, therefore it is made up of

(a) glass
(b) plastic
(c) wood
(d) all above

520. Following will happen if battery charging rate is too high

(a) excessive gassing will occur
(b) temperature rise will occur
(c) bulging and buckling of plates will occur
(d) all above will occur

521. Internal resistance of a cell is due to

(a) resistance of electrolyte
(b) electrode resistance
(c) surface contact resistance between electrode and electrolyte
(d) all above
522. If a battery is wrongly connected on charge following will happen
(a) current delivered by the battery will be high
(b) current drawing will be nil
(c) current drawing will be very small
(d) current drawing will be very high

523. In order that a hydrometer may float vertically in electrolyte its C.G. should be
(a) lowered
(b) raised
(c) undisturbed
(d) displaced sideways

524. If a lead-acid cell is discharged below 1.8 V the following will happen.
(a) Capacity of cell will reduce
(b) Sulphation of plates will occur
(c) Internal resistance will increase
(d) All above will occur

525. Persons preparing electrolyte should wear

(a) goggles or other face shield
(b) rubber
(c) rubber boots and gloves
(d) all above safety devices

526. Excessive charging a battery tends to

(a) produce gassing
(b) increase the internal resistance of the battery
(c) to corrode the positive plates into lead peroxide thereby weakening them physically
(d) bring about all above changes

527. Shelf life of a small dry cell is

(a) equal to that of large dry cell
(6) less than that of large dry cell
(c) more than that of large dry cell
(d) none of the above

528. All the electrical connections between the battery and vehicle should be by
(a) thin aluminium wires
(b) thin copper wires
(c) rigid cables
(d) flexible cables

529. A battery of 6 cells will show a drop of volts from fully charged state to fully discharged
state.
(a) 1.0
(b) 1.5
(c) 2.4
(d) 2.9

530. Weston standard cell at 20°C has voltage of volts.

(a) 0.8
(b) 0.9
(c) 1.0187
(d) 1.5

531. Extent of corrosion in the underground metal work depends upon

(a) amount of moisture
(b) type of metals
(c) type of soil chemicals
(d) all above factors

532. Mercury cell has which of the following characteristics ?

(a) Flat discharge current-voltage curve
(6) High power to weight ratio
(c) Comparatively longer shelf life under adverse conditions of high temperature and
humidity
(d) All of the above

533. Which of the following primary cells has the lowest voltage ?
(a) Lithium
(b) Zinc-chloride
(c) Mercury
(d) Carbon-zinc

534. Which of the following primary cells has the highest voltage ?
(a) Manganese-alkaline
(6) Carbon-zinc
(c) Lithium
(d) Mercury

535. While preparing electrolyte for a lead-acid battery

(a) water is poured into acid
(b) acid is poured into water
(c) anyone of the two can be added to other chemical

536. Which of the following battery is used for air-craft ?

(a) Lead-acid battery
(b) Nickel-iron battery
(c) Dry cell battery
(d) Silver oxide battery

537. Which of the following cell has a. reversible chemical reaction ?

(a) Lead-acid
(b) Mercury oxide
(c) Carbon-zinc
(d) Silver-oxide

538. Which of the following is incorrect ?

(a) A storage cell has a reversible chemical reaction
(b) A lead-acid cell can be recharged
(c) A carbon-zinc cell has unlimited shelf life
(d) A primary cell has an irreversible chemical reaction

539. Which of the following has lower sp. gravity V

(a) Dilute H2S04
(6) Concentrated H2SO4
(c) Water
(d) Any of the above

540. A typical output of a solar cell is

(a) 0.1V
(b) 0.26 V
(c) 1.1 V
(d) 2 V

541. Petroleum jelly is applied to the electrical connections to the lead-acid battery
(a) prevent local heating
(b) prevent short-circuiting
(c) reduce path resistance
(d) prevent corrosion

542. When the load resistance equals the generator resistance which of the following will be
maximum ?
(a) Current
(b) Efficiency of the circuit
(c) Power in the load resistance
(d) Voltage across the load resistance

543. The common impurity in the electrolyte of lead-acid battery is

(a) chlorine
(b) dust particles
(c) lead crystals
(d) iron

544. Which among the following constitutes the major load for an ? (a)
(b) Self starter
(c) Parking lights
(d) Spark plugs
545. Which of the following factors adversely affects the capacity of the leadacid battery ?
(a) Temperature of surroundings
(b) Specific gravity of electrolyte
(c) Rate of discharge
(d) All of the above

546. Cells are connected in parallel to

(a) increase the efficiency
(b) increase the current capacity
(c) increase the voltage output
(d) increase the internal resistance

547. A constant-voltage generator has

(a) minimum efficiency
(b) minimum current capacity
(c) low internal resistance
(d) high internal resistance

548. The property of coil by which a counter e.m.f. is induced in it when the current through
the coil changes is known as
(a) self-inductance
(b) mutual inductance
(c) series aiding inductance
(d) capacitance

549. As per Faraday's laws of electromagnetic induction, an e.m.f. is induced in a conductor

whenever it
(a) lies perpendicular to the magnetic flux
(b) lies in a magnetic field
(e) cuts magnetic flux
(d) moves parallel to the direction of the magnetic field

550. Which of the following circuit element stores energy in the electromagnetic field ?
(a) Inductance
(b) Condenser
(c) Variable resistor
(d) Resistance

551. An open coil has

(a) zero resistance and inductance
(b) infinite resistance and zero inductance
(c) infinite resistance and normal inductance
(d) zero resistance and high inductance

552. Both the number of turns and the core length of an inductive coil are doubled. Its self-
inductance will be
(a) unaffected
(b) doubled
(c) halved
(d) quadrupled
553. The current flow through electrolyte is due to the movement of
(a) ions
(b) holes
(c) electrons
(d) none of the above

554. Level of electrolyte in a cell should be the level of plates

(a) below
(b) equal to
(c) above
(d) none of the above

555. During discharge, the active material of both the positive and negative plates is changed
to
(a) Pb
(b) Pb02
(c) PbO
(d) PbS04

556. of electrolyte indicates the state of charge of the battery

(a) colour
(b) mass
(c) viscosity
(d) specific gravity

557. The following indicate that battery on charge has attained full charge
(a) colour of electrode
(b) gassing
(c) specific gravity
(d) all above

558. Dry cell is modification of

(a) Deniell cell
(b) Leclanche cell
(e) Lead-acid cell
(d) Edison cell

559. Capacity of a battery is expressed in

(a) Ah
(b) Vh
(c) Wh
(d) kWh

560. In alkaline cell the electrolyte is

(a) dilute sulphuric acid
(b) concentrated sulphuric acid
(c) NaOH
(d) KOH

561. Self charge of a Ni-Fe cell is Edison cell.

(a) equal to
(b) less than
(c) more than
(d) much more than

562. Ampere hour capacity of an industrial battery is based on hours discharge rate.
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 16
(d) 24

563. Resistance of a material always decreases if

A. Temperature of material is decreased
B. Temperature of material is increased
C. Number of free electrons available become more
D. None of these

564. Two bulbs of 500 W and 200 W rated at 250 V will have resistance ratio as
A.234 : 25
B.2425 : 4
C.25 2 : 5
D.265 : 2

565.A glass rod when rubbed with silk cloth is charged because
A.it takes in proton
B.its atoms are removed
C.it gives away electrons
D.it gives away positive charge

566.Whether circuit may be AC. or D.C. one, following is most effective in reducing the
magnitude of the current.
A.Reactor
B.Capacitor
C.Inductor
D.Resistor

567.It becomes more difficult to remove

A.any electron from the
B.first electron from the orbit
C.second electron from the orbit
D.third electron from the orbit

568.When one leg of parallel circuit is opened out the total current will
A.reduce
B.increase
C.decrease
D.become zero
569.In a lamp load when more than one lamp are switched on the total resistance of the load
A.increases
B.decreases
C.remains same
D. none of these

570.Two lamps 100 W and 40 W are connected in series across 230 V (alternating). Which of
the following statement is correct?
A.100 W lamp will brighter
B.40 W lamp will glow brighter
C. Both lamps will glow equally bright
D.40 W lamp will fuse

571.Resistance of 220 V, 100 W lamp will be

A.4.84 Ohm
B.48.4 Ohm
C.484 Ohm
D.4840 Ohm

572.In the case of direct current

A.magnitude and direction of current remains constant
B.magnitude and direction of current changes with time
C.magnitude of current changes with time
D.magnitude of current remains constant

573.When electric current passes through a bucket full of water, lot of bubbling is observed.
This suggests that the type of supply is
A.A.C.
B.D.C.
C.any of above two
D.none of the above

574.Resistance of carbon filament lamp as the applied voltage increases.

A.increases
B.decreases
C.remains same
D.none of these

5755.Bulbs in street lighting are all connected in

A.parallel
B.series
C.series-parallel
D.end to end

576.For testing appliances, the wattage of test lamp should be

A.very low
B.low
C.high
D.any value

577. Switching of a lamp in house produces noise in the radio. This is because switching
operation produces
A.arcs across separating contacts
B.mechanical noise of high intensity
C.both mechanical noise and arc between contacts
D.none of the above

578. Sparking occurs when a load is switched off because the circuit has high
A.resistance
B.inductance
C.capacitance
D.impedance

579. Copper wire of certain length and resistance is drawn out to three times its length
without change in volume, the new resistance of wire becomes
A.1/9 times
B. 3 times
C.9 times
D.unchanged

580. When resistance element of a heater fuses and then we reconnect it after removing a
portion of it, the power of the heater will
A.decrease
B.increase
C.remain constant
D.none of these

581.A field of force can exist only between

A.two molecules
B.two ions
C.two atoms
D.two metal particles

582. A substance whose molecules consist of dissimilar atoms is called

A.semi-conductor
B.super-conductor
C.compound
D.insulator

583. International ohm is defined in terms of the resistance of

A.a column of mercury
B.a cube of carbon
C.a cube of copper
D.the unit length of wire

584.Three identical resistors are first connected in parallel and then in series. The resultant
resistance of the first combination to the second will be
A.9 times
B.1/9 times
C.1/3 times
D.3 times

585.Which method can be used for absolute measurement of resistances ?

A.Lorentz method
B.Releigh method
C.Ohm’s law method
D.Wheatstone bridge method

586. 6 ohm resistors are connected to form a triangle. What is the resistance between any two
corners
A.3/2 Ohm
B.6 Ohm
C.4 Ohm
D.8/3 Ohm

587. Ohm’s law is not applicable to

A.semi-conductors
B.D.C. circuits
C.small resistors
D.high currents

588.Temperature co-efficient of resistance is expressed in terms of

A.ohms/°C
B.mhos/ohm°C
C.ohms/ohm°C
D.mhos/°C

589.Which of the following materials has the least resistivity ?

A.Zinc
B.Lead
C.Mercury
D.Copper

590.A rheostat differs from potentiometer in the respect that it

A.has lower wattage rating
B.has higher wattage rating
C.has large number of turns
D.offers large number of tapping

591.An open resistor, when checked with an ohm-meter reads

A.zero
B.infinite
C.high but within tolerance
D.low but not zero
592._____ are the materials having electrical conductivity much less than most of the metals
but much greater than that of typical insulators.
A.Varistors
B.Thermistor
C.Semi-conductors
D.Variable resistors

593.All good conductors have high

A.conductance
B.resistance
C.reluctance
D.thermal conductivity

594.Voltage dependent resistors are usually made from

A.charcoal
B.silicon carbide
C.nichrome
D.graphite

595. Voltage dependent resistors are used

A.for inductive circuits
B.to supress surges
C.as heating elements
D.as current stabilizers

596. The ratio of mass of proton to that of electron is nearly

A.1840
B.1640
C.30
D.4

597. The number of electrons in the outer most orbit of carbon atom is
A.3
B.4
C.6
D.7

598.A thermistor has

A.positive temperature coefficient
B.negative temperature coefficient
C.zero temperature coefficient
D.variable temperature coefficient

599.Nichrome wire is an alloy of

A.lead and zinc
B.chromium and vanadium
C.nickel and chromium
D.copper and silver
600.Which of the following can have negative temperature coefficient ?
A.Compounds of silver
B.Liquid metals
C.Metallic alloys
D.Electrolytes

601.Conductance : mho ::
A.resistance : ohm
B.capacitance : henry
C.inductance : farad
D.lumen : steradian

602.1 angstrom is equal to

A.10⁻⁸ mm
B.10⁻⁶ cm
C.10⁻¹⁰ m
D.10¹⁰ m

603.One newton metre is same as

A.one watt
B.one joule
Five joules
D.one joule second

604.The force between two charges is 120 N. If the distance between the charges is doubled,
the force will be
A.60 N
B.30 N
C.40 N
D.15 N

605.The lines of force due to charged particles are

A.always straight
B.always curved
C.sometimes curved
D.none of these

606.The electric field at a point situated at a distance d from straight charged conductor is
A.proportional to d
B.inversely proportional to d
C. inversely proportional to d
D.none of these

607.The direction of electric field due to positive charge is

A.away from the charge
B.towards the charge
C.both of these
D.none of these
608.A field line and an equipotential surface are
A.always parallel
B.always at 90°
C.inclined at any angle
D.none of these

609.The ability of charged bodies to exert force on 6ne another is attributed to the existence
of
A.electrons
B.protons
C.neutrons
D.electric field

610.If the sheet of a bakelite is inserted between the of an , the capacitance will
A.decrease
B.increase
C.remains unchanged
D.become zero

611.A capacitor stores 0.24 coulombs at 10 volts. Its capacitance is

A.0.024 F
B.0.12 F
C.0.6 F
D.0.8 F

612.The units of capacitance are

A.volts/coulomb
B.coulombs/volt
C.ohms
D.henry/Wb

613.If three 15 uF capacitors are connected in series, the net capacitance is

A.5 uF
B.30 uF
C.45 uF
D.50 uF

614.If three 10 uF capacitors are connected in parallel, the net cararitance is

A.20 uF
B.30 uE
C.40 uF
D.50 uF

615.A dielectric material must be

A.resistor
B.insulator
C.good conductor
D.semi conductor
616.An electrolytic capacitor can be used for
A.D.C. only
B.AC. only
C.both D.C. as well as A.C.
D.None of these

617.The capacitance of a capacitor is not affected by

A.distance between plates
B.area of plates
C.thickness of plates
D.all of these

618.Which of the following is not a vector ?

A.Linear momentum
B.Angular momentum
C.Electric field
D.Electric potential

619.The dissipation factor of a good dielectric is of the order of

A.0.0002
B.0.002
C.0.02
D.0.2

620. “The total electric flux through any closed surface surrounding charges is equal to the
amount of charge enclosed”. The statement is associated with
A.Coulomb’s square law
B.Gauss’s law
C.Maxwell’s first law
D.Maxwell’s second law

621.Three capacitors each of the capacity C are given. The resultant capacity 2/3 C can be
obtained by using them
A.all in series
B.all in parallel
C.two in parallel and third in series with this combination
D.two in series and third in parallel across this combination

622.For which of the following parameter variation, the capacitance of the capacitor remains
unaffected ?
A.Distance between plates
B.Area of the plates
C.Nature of dielectric
D.Thickness of the plates

623. If the efficiency of a machine is to be high, what should be low ?

A.Ratio of output to input
B.Losses
C.True component of power
D.kWh consumed
624.Resistance of a material always decreases if
A.Temperature of material is decreased
B.Temperature of material is increased
C.Number of free electrons available become more
D.None of these

625.Two bulbs of 500 W and 200 W rated at 250 V will have resistance ratio as
A.234 : 25 B.2425 : 4 C.25 2 : 5 D.265 : 2

626.Two lamps 100 W and 40 W are connected in series across 230 V (alternating). Which of
the following statement is correct ?
A.100 W lamp will brighter
B.40 W lamp will glow brighter
C. Both lamps will glow equally bright
D.40 W lamp will fuse

627. Resistance of 220 V, 100 W lamp will be

(a) 4.84 Ohm (b) 48.4 Ohm (c) 484 Ohm (d) 4840 Ohm

628._____ are the materials having electrical conductivity much less than most of the metals
but much greater than that of typical insulators.
A.Varistors B.Thermistor C.Semi-conductors D.Variable resistors

629.The electrostatic force between two charges of one coulomb each and placed at a
distance of 0.5 m will be
(a) 36 x 10 N
(b) 36 x 10⁷ N
(c) 36 x 10⁸ N
(d) 36 x 10⁹ N

630.The units of volume charge density are

A.Coulomb/metre
B.Coulomb/metre
C.Coulomb/metre
D.Coulomb/metre

631.Dielectric strength of mica is

A.10 to 20 kV/mm
B.30 to 50 kV/mm
C.300 to 500 kV/mm
D.50 to 200 kV/mm

632.The capacity of capacitor bank used in power factor correction is expressed in terms of
A.kW
B.kVA
C.kVAR
D.volts

633.A unit tube of flux is known as tube

A.Newton B.Faraday C.Michale D.None of these

634.Electric intensity at any point in an electric field is equal to the at that point.
A.electric flux
B.magnetic flux density
C.potential gradient
D.none of these

635.Electric displacement is a______quantity.

A.scalar
B.vector
C.both of these
D.none of these

636.____at a point is equal to the negative potential gradient at that point.

A.Electric intensity
B.Electric flux
C.Magnetic flux
D.Magnetic flux density

637.The unit of dielectric strength is given by

A.V/m
B.V²/m
C.m/V
D.m/V²

638.Dielectric strength ______ with increasing thickness

A.increases
B.decreases
C.remains unaltered
D.none of these

639.The property of a capacitor to store electricity is called its

A.capacitance
B.charge
C.energy
D.none of the above

640.___ is that property of a capacitor which delays any change of voltage across it.
A.Inductance
B.Capacitance
C.Potential gradient
D.None of these
641.In a cable capacitor, voltage gradient is maximum at the surface of the
A.earth
B.conductor
C.sheath
D.insulator

642.The capacitance of a capacitor is influenced by

A.plate area
B.plate separation
C.nature of dielectric
D.all of these

643.When the dielectric is homogeneous,the potential gradient is

A.uniform
B.non-uniform
C.zero
D.any of these

644.The potential gradient across the material of low permittivity is than across the material
of high permittivity.
A..smaller
B.greater
C.both these
D.none of these

645. ________field is associated with the capacitor.

A.Electric
B.Magnetic
C.Both of these
D.None of these

646.Which medium has the least dielectric strength ?

A.Paraffin wax
B.Quartz
C.Glass
D.Air

647.Permeability in a magnetic circuit corresponds to______ in an electric circuit.

A.resistance
B.resistivity
C.conductivity
D.conductance

648.A material for good magnetic memory

A.low hysteresis loss
B.high permeability
C.low retentivity
D.high retentivity
649.The minimum value of potential gradient in a cable occurs in
A.insulation
B.conductor
C.outer sheath
D.uniformly all over

650.Dielectric strength of medium

A.increases with rise in temperature
B.increases with moisture content
C.is same for all insulating materials
D.none of these

651.A charge which when placed in vacuum from an equal and similar charge repels with a
force of 9 × 109 N, is known as
A.milli-coulomb
B.micro-coulomb
C.pico-coulomb
D.coulomb

652.Conductance is analogous to
A.permeance B.reluctance C.flux D.inductance

653.The property of a material which opposes the creation of magnetic flux in it is known as
A.reluctivity
B.magnetomotive force
C.permeance
D.reluctance

654.The unit of retentivity is

A.weber
B.weber/sq. m
C.ampere turn/metre
D.ampere turn

655.Reciprocal of reluctance is
A.reluctivity
B.permeance
C.permeability
D.susceptibility

656.While comparing magnetic and electric circuits, the flux of magnetic circuit is compared
with which parameter of electrical circuit ?
A.E.m.f.
B.Current
C.Current density
D.Conductivity

657.The unit of reluctance is

A.metre/henry
B.henry/metre
C.henry
D.1/henry

658.A ferrite core has less eddy current loss than an iron core because
A.ferrites have high resistance
B.ferrites are magnetic
C.ferrites have low permeability
D.ferrites have high hysteresis

649.Hysteresis loss least depends on

A.volume of material
B.frequency
C.steinmetz co-efficient of material
D.ambient temperature

650.Which power amplifier can deliver maximum load power

1. Class C
2. Class AB
3. Class A
4. Class B

651.Secondary storage memory type is

1. Backup memory
2. Impact memory
3. Non volatile memory
4. Volatile memory

652.The efficiency of the solar cell is about

1. 0.15
2. 0.4
3. 0.6
4. 0.25

653.Word ‘RAM’ Stands for

1. Random access memory
2. Random arithmetic memory
3. Read arithmetic memory
4. Read access memory

654. When a lead-acid battery is in fully charged condition, the colour of its positive plate is
A.dark grey
B.brown
C.dark brown
D.none of above

655.The capacitance of a capacitor is influenced by

A.plate area
B.plate separation
C.nature of dielectric
D.all of these

656.When the dielectric is homogeneous,the potential gradient is

A.uniform
B.non-uniform
C.zero
D.any of these

657.The total deficiency or excess of electrons in a body is known as

A.current
B.voltage
C.potential gradient
D.charge

658.The relative permittivity has the following units

A.F/m
B.m/F
C.Wb/m
D.no units

659.Electric displacement is a______quantity.

A.scalar
B.vector
C.both of these
D.none of these

660.____at a point is equal to the negative potential gradient at that point.

A.Electric intensity
B.Electric flux
C.Magnetic flux
D.Magnetic flux density

661.The unit of dielectric strength is given by

A.V/m
B.V²/m
C.m/V
D.m/V²

662.Dielectric strength ______ with increasing thickness

A.increases
B.decreases
C.remains unaltered
D.none of these

663.The property of a capacitor to store electricity is called its

A.capacitance
B.charge
C.energy
D.none of the above

664.In liquid level and electrical system analogy, voltage is considered analogous to
(a) head
(b) liquid flow
(c) liquid flow rate
(d) none of the above

665.The viscous friction co-efficient, in force-voltage analogy, is analogous to

(a) charge
(b) resistance
(c) reciprocal of inductance
(d) reciprocal of conductance
(e) none of the above

666.In force-voltage analogy, velocity is analogous to

(a) current
(b) charge
(c) inductance
(d) capacitance

667.In thermal-electrical analogy charge is considered analogous to

(a) heat flow
(b) reciprocal of heat flow
(c) reciprocal of temperature
(d) temperature
(e) none of the above

668.Mass, in force-voltage analogy, is analogous to

(a) charge
(b) current
(c) inductance
(d) resistance

669.In a stable control system backlash can cause which of the following ?
(a) Underdamping
(b) Overdamping
(c) Poor stability at reduced values of open loop gain
(d) Low-level oscillations

670.In an automatic control system which of the following elements is not used ?
(a) Error detector
(b) Final control element
(c) Sensor
(d) Oscillator

671.In a control system the output of the controller is given to

(a) final control element
(b) amplifier
(c) comparator
(d) sensor
(e) none of the above

672.A controller, essentially, is a

(a) sensor
(b) clipper
(c) comparator
(d) amplifier

673.The capacitance, in force-current analogy, is analogous to

(a) momentum
(b) velocity
(c) displacement
(d) mass

674.As a result of introduction of negative feedback which of the following will not decrease
?
(a) Band width
(b) Overall gain
(c) Distortion
(d) Instability

675. Which is the lightest particle of an atom?

(a) Neutron
(b) Electron
(c) Proton
(d) All

676. Ampere second could be the unit of –

(a) Power
(b) Conductance.
(c) Energy
(d) Charge

677.The ratio of resistance of a 100W, 220V lamp to that of 100W lamp will be nearly-
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 1/4
(d) 1/2

678.If the length and cross section of piece of conductor are both doubted what be its
resistance(initial resistance R)?
(a) 4R
(b) 2R
(c) R
(d) 0.25R

679. The number of electron in the outermost orbit of carbon atom is ?

(a) 8
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 6

680. Which one of the following semi-conductor ?

(a) Copper
(b) Silicon
(c) Neon
(d) Lithium

681. For an R-L load-

(a) Active Power is better than apparent power
(b) Reactive Power is better than apparent power
(c) Apparent power is better than both active and reactive power
(d) All the equal

682.One Horse power is equal to –

(a) 5.50 foot pound/ second
(b) 55.00 foot pound/ second
(c) 550 foot pound/second
(d) 5550 foot pound/second

683. Satellite power requirement is provided through –

(a) Lead-acid batteries
(b) Dry cell
(c) Solar cells
(d) Nickel cadmium cell

684.A radio station broadcast at 30m wavelength.The frequency of broadcast wiil be-
(a) 30Hz
(b) 300Hz
(c) 10MHz
(d) 10KHz

685.A short circuit test on transformer oil is-

(a) Copper loss at full load
(b) Copper loss at half load
(c) Iron loss at any load
(d) Sum of iron losses and copper losses

686.The type of oil which is suitable as transformer oil is-

(a) Animal oil
(b) Cooking oil
(c) Mineral oil
(d) Vegetable oil
687. Bucholz relay used on-
(a) Air cooled transformer.
(b) Oil cooled transformers.
(c) Welding transformers.
(d) Furnace transformer.

688. Burden of current transformer is usually expressed in-

(a) Volts
(b) Amperes
(c) Volt amperes
(d) Kilowatt

689. Which distribution system is more reliable?

(a) Ring main system
(b) Tree system
(c) Radial system
(d) All are equally reliable.

690. The phenomena of creeping occurs in-

(a) Ammeter
(b) Voltmeter
(c) Wattmeter
(d) Watt-hour meter

691.The unit of resistivity is

(a) Ohms
(b) Ohm-m
(c) Ohm/sqm
(d) None

692.How can eddy current loss be minimized ?

(a)By using copper core
(b) By using solid core
(c) By laminating the core
(d) None of above

.
693.Dose the transformer draw any current when its secondary is open ?
(a) No
(b) Yes
(c) Take rated current
(d) None

694.A transformer has negative voltage regulation when its load power factor is-
(a) Zero
(b) Unity
(c) Leading
(d) Lagging
695. Permanent magnet is normally made of-
(a) Aluminum
(b) Wrought iron
(c) Cast iron
(d) Alnico alloys

696. A carbon resistor contains

(a) carbon crystals
(b) solid carbon granules
(c) pulverized coal
(d) finely divided carbon black.

697. Which of the following materials does not have covalent bonds ?
(a) Organic polymers
(b) Silicon
(c) Metals

698. Which of the following material is not a semiconductor ?

(a) Silica
(b) Germanium
(c) Selenium
(d) Gallium-arsenide

699. Carbon resistors are used extensively because they are

(a) easy to make
(b) compact
(c) inexpensive
(d) all of the above reasons

700. Carbon rods are used in wet and dry cells because
(a) carbon rod serves as conductor
(b) carbon can resist the attack of battery acid
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) either (a) or (b)

701. Instrument transformers are

(a) potential transformers
(b) current transformers
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) power transformers

702. An instrument transformer is used to extend the range of

(a) induction instrument
(b) electrostatic instrument
(c) moving coil instrument
(d) any of the above

703. _____ instruments are those which measure the total quantity of electricity delivered in a
particular time.
(a) Absolute
(b) Indicating
(c) Recording
(d) Integrating

704. Resistances can be measured with the help of

(a) wattmeters
(b) voltmeters
(c) ammeters
(d) ohmmeters and resistance bridges
(e) all of the above

705 According to application, instruments are classified as

(a) switch board
(b) portable
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) moving coil
(e) moving iron

706. Which of the following essential features is possessed by an indicating instrument ?

(a) Deflecting device
(b) Controlling device
(c) Damping device
(d) All of the above

707. Wattmeter cannot be designed on the principle of

(a) electrostatic instrument
(b) thermocouple instrument
(c) moving iron instrument
(d) electrodynamic instrument

708. The electrical power to a meggar is provided by

(a) battery
(b) permanent magnet D.C. generator
(c) AC. generator
(d) any of the above

709. In a meggar controlling torque is provided by

(a) spring
(b) gravity
(c) coil
(d) eddy current

710. Induction type single phase energy meters measure electric energy in
(a) kW
(b) Wh
(c) kWh
(d) VAR

711. A potentiometer may be used for

(a) measurement of resistance
(b) measurement of current
(c) calibration of ammeter
(d) calibration of voltmeter
(e) all of the above

712. The household energy meter is

(a) an indicating instrument
(b) a recording instrument
(c) an integrating instrument
(d) none of the above

713. The pointer of an indicating instrument should be

(a) very light
(b) very heavy
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)

714. The chemical effect of current is used in

(a) D.C. ammeter hour meter
(b) D.C. ammeter
(c) D.C. energy meter
(d) none of the above

715. In majority of instruments damping is provided by

(a) fluid friction
(b) spring
(c) eddy currents
(d) all of the above

716. An ammeter is a
(a) secondary instrument
(b) absolute instrument
(c) recording instrument
(d) integrating instrument

717. In a portable instrument, the controlling torque is provided by

(a) spring
(b) gravity
(c) eddy currents
(d) all of the above

718. The multiplier and the meter coil in a voltmeter are in

(a) series
(b) parallel
(c) series-parallel
(d) none of the above

719. A moving iron instrument can be used for

(a) D.C. only
(b) A.C. only
(c) both D.C. and A.C.

720. The scale of a rectifier instrument is

(a) linear
(b) non-linear
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)

721. For measuring current at high frequency we should use

(a) moving iron instrument
(b) electrostatic instrument
(c) thermocouple instrument
(d) none of the above

722. The resistance in the circuit of the moving coil of a dynamometer wattmeter should be
(a) almost zero
(b) low
(c) high
(d) none of the above

723. An induction wattmeter can be used for

(a) both D.C. and A.C.
(6) D.C. only
(c) A.C. only
(d) any of the above

724. The pressure coil of a wattmeter should be connected on the supply side of the current
coil when
(a) load impedance is high
(b) load impedance is low
(c) supply voltage is low
(d) none of the above

725. The operating voltage of a meggar is about

(a) 6 V
(b) 12 V
(c) 40 V
(d) 100 V

726. Which of the following devices should be used for accurate measurement of low D.C.
voltage ?
(a) Small range moving coil voltmeter
(b) D.C. potentiometer
(c) Small range thermocouple voltmeter
(d) None of the above

727. It is required to measure the true open circuit e.m.f. of a battery. The best device is
(a) D.C. voltmeter
(b) Ammeter and a known resistance
(c) D.C. potentiometer
(d) None of the above

728. How can corrosion be prevented in a resistance thermometer?

a) by immersing the setup in oil
b) by enclosing the elements in a glass tube
c) by using guard rings
d) by painting the elements

729.Earthing is necessary to give protection against

1. voltage fluctuation.
2. overloading.
3. danger of electric shock.
4. high temperature of the conductors.
5. short circuit between phases.

730. The primary function of a fuse is to

1. protect the appliance.
2. open the circuit.
3. prevent excessive currents.
4. protect the line.
5. indicate faults in the circuits.

731. One ton refrigeration corresponds to

(a) 50 kcal/min
(b) 50 kcal/kr
(c) 80 kcal/min
(d) 80 kcal/hr

732. Which of the following is the primary benefit of using the electric furnaces for melting
the metals?
a) High productivity
b) Better quality of materials
c) High strength of metals
d) Less maintenance

733. The acronym PLC stands for:

(A) Pressure Load Control
(B) Programmable Logic Controller
(C) Pneumatic Logic Capstan
(D) PID Loop Controller
(E) Pressure Loss Chamber

734. Which of the device is employed in substation to limit the short circuit current in the
power system:
a) Shunt condenser
b) Reactor
c) Series capacitor
d) Shunt capacitor

735. The cell which is used as standard cell is:

a) Dry cell
b) Solar cell
c) Mercury-Cadmium cell
d) Zinc-Carbon cell

736. The emf of a primary cell depends upon the:

a) Physical dimension of the cell
b) Nature of the electrolyte
c) Nature of the electrode
d) Both (b) and (c)

737. When two cells are connected in parallel, it should be ensured that they have:
a) Identical internal resistance
b) Equal emfs
c) Same make
d) Same ampere-hour capacity

738. The law that finds application in electrolysis is:

a) Faraday's law
b) Coulomb's law
c) Ohm's law
d) Lenz's law

739. Cells are connected in series in order to increase the

a) Current capacity
b) Life of the cells
c) Voltage ratings
d) Terminal voltage

740. Which of the following bus-bars arrangement is more reliable and flexible:
a) Main and transfer bus scheme
b) One-and-half breaker scheme
c) Double main busbar scheme
d) Single busbar scheme

741. What is the maximum transmission voltage substation in India:

a) 400 kV
b) 500 kV
c) 750 kV
d) 1000 kV

742. A busbar is rated by:

a) Current only
b) Voltage only
c) Current, voltage and frequency
d) Current, voltage, frequency and short circuit current

743. In a substation current transformers are used to:

a) Measuring purpose
b) Protection purpose connecting to relays
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above

744. The solar or photo voltaic cell converts:

a) Chemical energy to electrical energy
b) Solar radiation into electrical energy
c) Solar radiation into thermal energy
d) Thermal energy into electrical energy

745. Solar cells are made of:

a) Aluminium
b) Germanium
c) Silicon
d) Cadmium

746. A module is a:
a) Series-arrangement of solar cells
b) Parallel arrangement of solar cells
c) Series-parallel arrangement of solar cells
d) None of the above

747. The efficiency of solar cells is about:

a) 25%
b) 15%
c) 40%
d) 60%

748. The monitor and control of energy management system is done by using

a. MATLAB
b. SCADA
c. AUTO - CAD
d. All of these

749. Cloud base energy management system provides the ability to

a. Remotely control HVAC

b. Collect real time data
c. Generate intelligent, specific and real time guidance
d. Only b and c
e. All of these
750. In valley filling, the incremental costs during peak hours are

a. Less than the average costs of electricity

b. More than the average costs of electricity
c. Equal to the average cost of electricity
d. None of these

751. The reactive power component kVAR is equal to the

a. kVA sin∅
b. kW tan∅
c. kW cos∅
d. Both (a) and (b)
e. None of these

752. The secondary distribution transformer is generally

a. Star connected
b. Star connected with the secondary delta connected
c. Delta connected with the secondary star connected
d. Delta connected

753. Which method provides cash for the replacement of asset at the end of its useful life?

a. Straight line depreciation

b. Sum of years digits depreciation
c. Declining balance depreciation
d. Sinking fund depreciation

754. The fusion welding is also known as

a. Plastic welding
b. Pressure welding
c. Non - pressure welding
d. None of these

755. Arc welding is also known as

a. Pressure welding
b. Plastic welding
c. Non - pressure welding
d. None of these

756. In metal arc welding, the filler material required is

a. Iron
b. Copper
c. Aluminium
d. No filler is required

757. Function of transducer is to convert

a. Electrical signal into non electrical quantity

b. Non electrical quantity into electrical signal
c. Electrical signal into mechanical quantity
d. All of these

758. Thermistor is a transducer. Its temperature coefficient is

a. Negative
b. Positive
c. Zero
d. None of these

759. When visual indication of pressure level is required then the instrument generally used
is
a. Monometers
b. Diaphragm sensors
c. Bourdon tube
d. Resonant wire device

760. The rate at which fluid flows through a closed pipe can be determined by

a. Determining the mass flow rate

b. Determining the volume flow rate
c. Either (a) or (b)
d. None of these

761. Conveyor-based method is used for the measurement of the flow of

a. Solids
b. Liquid
c. Gas
d. All of these
762. The device which is used for making temporary measurements of flow is

a. Venturi
b. Dull flow tube
c. Orifice plate
d. Pitot static tube
763. The instrument which is not suitable for the application in automatic control scheme

a. Rotameters
b. Pitot static tube
c. Rotary piston meter
d. Orifice plate

764. For which among the following the current ratings are not required?

a. Circuit breakers
b. Relays
c. Isolators
d. Load break switch

765. The isolators used in the transmission lines are capable of breaking

a. Fault current
b. No current
c. Charging current
d. Load current

766. What is the interrupting medium in the contactor?

a. Air at atmospheric pressure.

b. SF6 gas
c. Oil
d. All of the above.

767. SF6 gas is imported in _____________.

a. Air cylinders
b. Gas cylinders
c. Liquid form in cylinders
d. Solid form.

768. For rural electrification in India, which circuit breaker is generally used?
a. Oil
b. SF6
c. Vacuum
d. Air blast

769. Which among these is the least expensive protection for over current in low voltage
system?

a. Rewirable fuse.
b. Isolator.
c. Circuit breaker.
d. Air breaker switch.

770. What is fusing factor?

a. The ratio of current rating of the fuse to the minimum fusing current
b. The ratio of minimum fusing current to the current rating of the fuse
c. The ratio of maximum fusing current to the current rating of the fuse
d. The ratio of minimum fusing current to the voltage rating of the fuse

771. What should be the value of fusing factor?

a. Equal to zero
b. Equal to one
c. Less than one
d. More than one

772. What is the maximum current up to which fuses can be used?

a. 25 A
b. 50 A
c. 75 A
d. 100 A

773. What is the typical value of the pre arcing time?

a. 0.1
b. 0.01
c. 0.001
d. 0.0001

774. A fuse wire of circular cross section has a radius of 0.8mm. The wire blows off at a
current of 9A. What will be the radius of the wire that will blow off at a current of 1A?
a. 0.2 mm
b. 0.18 mm
c. 0.28 mm
d. 0.3 mm
775. Which among these tests are performed to check the nation or international standards?

a. Type test.
b. Production tests.
c. Site checks.
d. All of the above.

776. If the strands of the fusing wire are twisted, what happens to the fusing current?

a. Increases
b. Reduces.
c. No change/ remains same
d. Depends on the value of current, increases or decreases.

777. What is the cut off current in the fuse?

a. Maximum value actually reached.

b. Rms value actually reached.
c. Average value actually reached.
d. None of the above

778. In a HRC fuse what is the time between the cut off and the final current zero called?

a. Pre - arcing time.

b. Arcing time.
c. Total operating time.
d. None of these.
779. What is the main advantage of using a fuse?

a. Cheapest type of protection.

b. Inverse time current characteristics.
c. Current limiting effect under short circuit conditions.
d. All of above.

780. Upto what voltage can the liquid type HRC fuses be used?

a. 33 kV
b. 132 kV
c. 66 kV
d. 220 kV

781. Which part of the circuit breaker is helpful in breaking the current?

a. Trip coil.
b. Contacts.
c. Medium
d. Handle.
782. How is the initiation of electric arc at the instant of contact separation caused?

a. Thermionic emission of electrons.

b. Field emission of electrons.
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these.
783. Arcing voltage will be the least in case of

a. Carbon
b. Copper
c. Silver
d. Tungsten
784. What is the arc voltage in a circuit breaker?

a. In phase with the arc current.

b. Lagging the arc current by 90°
c. Leading the arc current by 90°
d. Lagging the arcing current by 180°

785. The resistance of an electric arc can be increased by

a. Increasing the concentration of ionised particles.

b. Reducing the arc length.
c. Splitting the arc.
d. Increasing the arc cross section.

786 The heat produced at the contact point owing to flow of electric current is least affected
by_____________________.

a. Temperature of the surrounding medium.

b. Contact resistance.
c. Magnitude of electric current flowing.
d. Duration of flow of current.
787. Which of the following should have low value for the contacts and their material?

a. Thermal capacity.
b. Contact resistance.
c. Thermal conductivity.
d. None of above.
788. In a circuit breaker, ionisation is facilitated by_________________.

a. Increase in field strength.

b. Increase in mean free length.
c. High temperature of the surrounding medium.
d. All of the above.
789. In a circuit breaker the contact space is ionised by what?

a. Field emission from the contact surface.

b. Thermal emission from the contact surface.
c. Thermal ionisation of gas.
d. All of above.

790. Which circuit among the following requires a supply of 48 V DC source?

a. Trip coils and closing coils

b. Micro wave protection and communication
c. Dc measuring instruments
d. All of these
e. None of these

791. How is an electrochemical cell rated if ‘n’ cells are connected in series?

a. Ah (ampere hour)
b. n Ah
c. Ah / n
d. nV / Ah
792. A primary cell is chemically _____________________.

a. Irreversible
b. `Reversible
c. Reversible only once
d. Reversible upto five times
793. Which element is used as an anode in a dry cell?

a. Carbon
b. Zinc
c. Lead
d. Zinc sulphate
794. Which gel ensures the dryness of the incoming air in the breather?

a. Potassium gel
b. Silica gel
c. Carbon gel
d. All of these
795. Which cooling system is employed for large transformers?

a. Oil natural oil forced

b. Oil natural air forced
c. Oil forced air forced
d. Both (b) and (c)
e. All of these
796. Which among the following safety devices are provided on the power transformers?
a. Marshalling kiosk
b. Vacuum gauge
c. Pressure relief gauge
d. All of these
e. None of these
797. What is the use of current transformers?

a. Stepping up AC current
b. Measuring and protection
c. Stepping down AC current
d. Both (b) and (c)
e. All of these
798. What is the first equipment placed in the uninterrupted power supply (UPS)?

a. Inverter
b. Battery
c. Rectifier
d. Any of these
799. Which device is connected in series?

a. RC surge suppressors
b. Smoothing reactors
c. Metal oxide veristors
d. Static balancer

800. What test is performed to verify that the equipment is ready for energising?

a. Maintenance test
b. Commissioning test
c. Type test
d. Reliability test
801. Which place is the ‘Regional load dispatch centre’ for the western region in the national grid?

a. Mumbai
b. Ahmadabad
c. Bhopal
d. Nagpur

802. At what level is the load shedding carried out?

a. Distribution level
b. Transmission level
c. Both (A) and (B)
d. Depending upon the load

803. Which type of foundation is preferred for lattice towers?

a. Rock foundation
b. Pole foundation
c. Anchor foundation
d. All of these
e. None of these
804. What is the minimum life span of a galvanised steel structure?

a. 15 years
b. 25 years
c. 40 years
d. 80 years

805 Which among these types of bus bars can be used outdoor?

a. Tubular
b. ACSR
c. AAC
d. All of these
e. None of these
806. A good heating element should have
a. High resistivity and low melting point
b. Low resistivity and high melting point
c. High resistivity and high melting point
d. Low resistivity and low melting point

807. Eureka is an alloy of

a. Nickel and chromium
b. Nickel and copper
c. Iron, chromium and aluminium
d. Nickel, chromium and aluminium

808. Which type of heating is used for sterilization?

a. High frequency eddy current heating
b. Coreless type heating
c. Core type heating
d. Dielectric heating

809. The dielectric strength of air gap is

a. 2.11kV/cm
b. 21.1kV/m
c. 21.1kV/cm
d. 2.11kV/m

810. The power required for electro-deposition is

a. DC and very low voltage
b. DC and high voltage
c. AC and very low voltage
d. AC and high voltage
811. The metal oxide rectifier used for electrolytic process is placed along with the
transformer
a. Inside the oil
b. Outside the transformer but near to it
c. Outside the transformer but far from it
d. Half immersed in the oil

812. For best visual performance, the range of brightness within the field of vision
a. Should be less than 3:1
b. Should be greater than 3:1
c. Should be less than 1:3
d. Should be greater than 1:3

813. CFL means

a. Combustible fluoride lamp

b. Compact fluoride lamp
c. Compact fluorescent lamp
d. Combustible fluorescent lamp
814. A trolley bus runs on tyres driven by

a. A DC compound motor
b. A DC series motor
c. An AC series motor
d. An AC shunt motor

815. The area under the speed - time curve represents the

a. Acceleration of the train

b. Time taken by the train
c. Distance travelled by the train
d. Crest speed
816. The lighting system of almost all the earlier coaches and all the newly manufactured
coaches has

a. 50 V
b. 110 V
c. 220 V
d. 420 V
817. Spot welding is used to weld metal pieces whose thickness

a. Should be greater than 12 mm

b. Lesser than 12 mm
c. Lies between 15 to 20 mm
d. Greater than 20 mm

818. The voltage - current characteristics of the arc welding must be

a. Exponentially rising
b. Drooping
c. Straight line
d. Parabolic
819. The sun’s rays reach the earth without heating the atmosphere, this is due to

a. Convection
b. Radiation
c. Conduction
d. None of these

820. The inside wall of fluorescent tube is coated with

a. Sulphur powder`
b. Phosphor powder
c. Sodium
d. Krypton

821. The efficiency of heating is more for

a. Solid fuels
b. Oil heating
c. Gas heating
d. Electric heating
822. The heat can be transferred from high temperature body to low temperature body by

a. Conduction method
b. Convection method
c. Radiation method
d. All of these
823. Heat in water and air is transferred by

a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Radiation
d. Either conduction or convection

824. Lux is the unit of

a. Luminous flux
b. Luminous intensity
c. Illumination
d. Luminance
825. The illumination due to good daylight is approximately equal to

a. 100 lux
b. 200 lux
c. 300 lux
d. 400 lux
826. The suitable lamps for street lighting are
a. Mercury vapour lamps
b. Sodium discharge lamps
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these

827.. The binary number 10101 is equivalent to decimal number …………..

a. 19
b. 12
c. 27
d. 21

828.. The universal gate is ………………

a. NAND gate
b. OR gate
c. AND gate
d. None of the above

829.. The inverter is ……………

a. NOT gate
b. OR gate
c. AND gate
d. None of the above

830.. The NOR gate is OR gate followed by ………………

1. AND gate
2. NAND gate
3. NOT gate
4. None of the above

831.. The NAND gate is AND gate followed by …………………

1. NOT gate
2. OR gate
3. AND gate
4. None of the above

832. In Boolean algebra, the bar sign (-) indicates ………………..

1. OR operation
2. AND operation
3. NOT operation
4. None of the above

833. 2’s complement of binary number 0101 is ………..

1. 1011
2. 1111
3. 1101
4. 1110
834.. Decimal number 10 is equal to binary number ……………
a. 1110
b. 1010
c. 1001
d. 1000

835.. The number of digits in octal system is ………

a. 8
b. 7
c. 9
d. 10

836. An ammeter is connected in …………….. with the circuit element whose current we
wish to measure
a. Series
b. Parallel
c. Series or parallel
d. None of the above

837.. A triac is a …………. switch

1. Bidirectional
2. Unidirectional
3. Mechanical
4. None of the above

838. A diac has …………… pn junctions

1. Four
2. Two
3. Three
4. None of the above

839. The normal way to turn on a diac is by ………………..

1. Gate current
2. Gate voltage
3. Breakover voltage
4. None of the above

840.. A diac is …………………. switch

1. An c.
2. A d.c.
3. A mechanical
4. None of the above

841.. A transistor has …………………

1. one pn junction
2. two pn junctions
3. three pn junctions
 4. four pn junctions

842.. The number of depletion layers in a transistor is …………

1. four
2. three
3. one
4. two

843. The base of a transistor is ………….. doped

1. heavily
2. moderately
3. lightly
4. none of the above

844. The element that has the biggest size in a transistor is ………………..
1. collector
2. base
3. emitter
4. collector-base-junction

845. A transistor is a …………… operated device

1. current
2. voltage
3. both voltage and current
4. none of the above

846. In a npn transistor, ……………. are the minority carriers

1. free electrons
2. holes
3. donor ions
4. acceptor ions

847. The emitter of a transistor is ………………… doped

1. lightly
2. heavily
3. moderately
4. none of the above

848. The forward voltage drop across a silicon diode is about …………………
1. 2.5 V
2. 3 V
3. 10 V
4. 0.7 V

849. A crystal diode is used as ……………

1. an amplifier
2. a rectifier
3. an oscillator
4. a voltage regulator
850. A crystal diode is a …………… device
1. non-linear
2. bilateral
3. linear
4. none of the above

851. A zener diode is always ………… connected.

1. reverse
2. forward
3. either reverse or forward
4. none of the above

852.. A semiconductor is formed by ……… bonds.

1. Covalent
2. Electrovalent
3. Co-ordinate
4. None of the above

853. A semiconductor has ………… temperature coefficient of resistance.

1. Positive
2. Zero
3. Negative
4. None of the above

854.. The most commonly used semiconductor is ………..

1. Germanium
2. Silicon
3. Carbon
4. Sulphur

855. A semiconductor has generally ……………… valence electrons.

1. 2
2. 3
3. 6
4. 4

856.. Addition of pentavalent impurity to a semiconductor creates many ……..

1. Free electrons
2. Holes
3. Valence electrons
4. Bound electrons

857. A pentavalent impurity has ………. Valence electrons

1. 3
2. 5
3. 4
4. 6
858.. An n-type semiconductor is ………
1. Positively charged
2. Negatively charged
3. Electrically neutral
4. None of the above

859. A trivalent impurity has ….. valence electrons

1. 4
2. 5
3. 6
4. 3

860. Addition of trivalent impurity to a semiconductor creates many ……..

1. Holes
2. Free electrons
3. Valence electrons
4. Bound electrons

861.. A hole in a semiconductor is defined as …………….

1. A free electron
2. The incomplete part of an electron pair bond
3. A free proton
4. A free neutron

862. The impurity level in an extrinsic semiconductor is about ….. of pure semiconductor.
1. 10 atoms for 108 atoms
2. 1 atom for 108 atoms
3. 1 atom for 104 atoms
4. 1 atom for 100 atoms

863. In a semiconductor, current conduction is due to ……..

1. Only holes
2. Only free electrons
3. Holes and free electrons
4. None of the above

864. The random motion of holes and free electrons due to thermal agitation is called ……….
1. Diffusion
2. Pressure
3. Ionisation
4. None of the above

865. Which is the following pairs of regional Railways and their headquarters not true?

(a) South-Central Railway- Secunderabad

(b) Central railway -Bhopal
(c) South Railway -Chennai
(d) North Railway -New Delhi

866. Between which of the destinations the first Indian train was started?
(a) From Calcutta to Delhi (b) From Mumbai to Thane
(c) From Mumbai to Surat (d) From Mumbai to Madras

867. When was the first train in Indian started?

(a) 1851 (b) 1852 (c) 1853 (d) 1854

868. In which Governor General’s reign railway lines in India were established?
(a) Lord William Bentick (b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Kenning (d) Lord Dalhousie

869. A station where the rail lines end, is called

(a) junction station (b) way-side-station
(c) block station (d) terminal station

870. How much distance was traveled by first train of India?

(a) 33 km (b) 36 km (c) 34 km (d) 46 km

871. The headquarters of North-Eastern railway is situated at

(a) Mumbai (V.T) (b) Guwahati (c) Gorakhpur (d) New Delhi

872. Where is the Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering Institute situated?
(a) Pune (b) Chennai (c) Nasik (d) Sikandrabad

873. What is the position of the Indian Railway under the zonal system?
(a) First (b) Second (c) Third (d) Forth

874. Which of the gauges is used in the hilly areas?

(a) Broad gauge (b) Meter gauge
(c) Narrow gauge (d) Special gauge

875. The headquarters of North -Eastern Frontier Railway (NEFR) is

(a) Calcutta (b) Maligaon (Guwahati)
(c) Chennai (d) Gorakhpur

876. In which of the following cities, the first sub-way train was started?
(a) Mumbai (b) Delhi (c) Calcutta (d) Chennai

877. General Manger is responsible for

(a) Railway Board (b) Railway Ministry
(c) Both railway Board and Railway Ministry
(d) None of these

878. The headquarters of South-Central Railways is situated at

(a) Mumbai (V.T) (b) Chennai
(c) Secundrabad (d) Mumbai (Central)

879. The headquarters of Northern Railway is at

(a) New Delhi (b) Guwahati (c) Gorakhpur (d) Mumbai (V.T)

880. In which institution the training of electric work is being given?

(a) Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering
(b) Indian Railways Institute of Electrical Engineering
(c) Railway Staff College
(d) Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering

881. Who invented the railway engine?

(a) Charles Babbage (b) Isaac Newton
(c) James Watt (d) George Stephenson

882. The manufacturing of steam engine in Chittranjan Locomotive Works was stopped in
(a) 1974 (b) 1961 (c) 1971 (d) 1973

883. Indian Railways which is the largest of the Public Sector Enterprises, is divided in how
many regions?
(a) 7(b) 9 (c) 8(d) 10

884 Besides Mahrashtra, Karnataka and Goa, which of the following is the fourth State for
Konakan Railway Project?
(a) Kerala (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Gujarat (d) Andhra Pradesh

885. Palace On Wheels train was inaugurated in which year?

(a) 1988 (b) 1972 (c) 1982 (d) 1965

886.. Rajasthan is under which of the following railway zones?

(a) Northern region (b) Western region (c) North-Western region (d) Central Region

887.. The largest national enterprise of India is

(a) Indian Railway (b) Indian Shipyard
(c) Airways (d) None of these

888. The first locomotive which was manufactured in Chittaranjan on

(a) November 1950 (b) October 1950
(c) September 1949 (d) October 1954

889. Where is the wheel and axle plant of Indian Railways situated?
(a) Chittranjan (b) Kapurthala (c) Bangalore (d) Perambur

890. When was the Jammu City appeared on the map of Indian Railway?
(a) 1965 (b) 1963 (c) 1967 (d) 1965

891. When was the first underground railway (Metro Railway) started?
(a) 1982 (b) 1989 (c) 1984 (d) 1992

892. At which of the following places Diesel Component Works is established?

(a) Jamshedpur (b) Patiala (c) Perambur (d) Varanasi

893. A platform surrounded by rail lines from all the four sides, is called
(a) dock platform (b) passenger platform (c) island platform (d) goods platform

894. When was the nationalization of Indian Railways done?

(a) 1952 (b) 1950 (c) 1951 (d) 1954

895. In which year Research, Design and Standard organization was established?
(a) 1954 (b) 1957 (c) 1959 (d) 1967

896. A person cycles at the speed of 36 km/h. The time taken by him in seconds, to cover a
distance of 1500 m is
A. 160 B. 150
C. 120 D. 90

897. A train is moving at a speed of 72 km/h. In 5 seconds it will cover a distance of

A. 60 m B. 80 m
C. 100 m D. 120 m

898. A can do a piece of work in 30 days and B can do same work in 20 days. If they work
together, in how many days they can complete the same work?
A. 10 B. 12
C. 15 D. 16

899. P and Q can do a piece work in 15 days, Q and R in 12 days and R and P in 20 days. The
number of days required for R to complete the same work is
A. 60 B. 50
C. 30 D. 20

900. The average of first 5 odd prime numbers is

A. 5.4 B. 5.8
C. 6.8 D. 7.8

901. A vertical pole is tied with a string of length 20 m on the ground. If string makes an
angle of 60° with the ground, the length of pole is
A. 10 m B. 10√3 m
C. D. 20 m 10 3 m 3

902. One of the factor of (5x – 7x)3 – (3y – 4x)3 is

A. (x – 10y) B. (x – 4y)
C. (9x + 4y) D. (9x – 10y)
903. Which one of the following animals was not represented on seals and terracota art of the
Harappan culture ?
A. Cow B. Elephant
C. Rhinoceros D. Tiger

904. A “Forgotten Empire”, written by the renowned historian Robert Sewell is about which
of the following Empires
A. Mauryan Empire
B. Kushan Empire
C. Vijaynagar Empire
D. Mughal Empire

905. During whose Viceroyship did the High Court came into existence at the three
presidential cities of Calcutta, Madras and Bombay
A. Warren Hastings
B. Lord Cornwallis
C. John Lawrence
D. Lord Dalhousie

906. The Eastern and Western Ghats meet at the

A. Cardamom Hills B. Annamalai Hills
C. Nilgiri Hills D. Palani Hills

907. The Karakoram highway connects which of the following pair of counties
A. India-Nepal B. India-China
C. India-Pakistan D. China-Pakistan

908. On raising the temperature of the medium, velocity of light

A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains the same
D. suddenly decrease

909. Which of the following is a paramagnetic

A. nickel B. cobalt
C. chromium D. copper

910. B is the brother of A, who is the father of D. C is the brother of D. D and E are sisters.
How is B related to?
A. Uncle
B. Brother
C. Father
D. Grandfather

911. One term in the following number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term.
220, 108, 54, 24, 10, 3
A. 108 B. 54
C. 24 D. 10

912. An ideal voltage source should have

A. large value of emf
B. small value of emf
C. zero source resistance
D. infinite source resistance

913. Which bulbs operates on lowest power

A. Night bulb B. Neon bulb
C. GLS bulb D. Torch bulb

914. Electrode in not consumed in the case of

A. TIG welding
B. MIG welding
C. Gas welding
D. Resistance welding

915. DC generator are installed near the load centres to reduce.

A. iron losses
B. line losses
C. sparking
D. corona losses

916. In a DC motor, constant torque is produced due to

A. rotor laminations B. end plates
C. pole shoes D. commutator

917. Which of the following is not a part of transformer.

A. Conservator B. Buccholz Relay
C. Exciter D. Breather

918. An induction motor is

A. self starting with zero torque
B. self starting with high torque
C. self starting with low torque
D. non self starting

919. The term “cogging” is associated with

A. three phase transformer
B. compound generators
C. DC series motor
D. Induction motors
920. Which of the following has highest resistivity?
A. Mica B. Paraffin
C. Air D. Mineral oil

921. Power diodes are generally

A. silicon diodes
B. germanium diodes
C. carbon diodes
D. carbon or germanium diodes

922. The depletion layer width of junction

A. decreases with light doping
B. is independent of applied voltage
C. increases under reverse bias
D. increases with heavy doping

923. For mercury arc rectifiers, the anode is usually made up of

A. aluminium B. graphite
C. tungsten D. copper

924. Which of them radiates emission?

A. LED
B. LCD
C. Both LCD and LED
D. Neither LCD nor LED

925. Binary 101010 is equivalent to decimal number

A. 24 B. 42
C. 64 D. 44

926. The number of valence electrons in donor impurity are

A. 1 B. 3
C. 5 D. 7

927. A barometer is used to measure

A. Very low pressure
B. Very High pressure
C. Pressure difference between two points
D. Atmospheric pressure

928. The household energy meter is

A. indicating instrument
B. recording instrument
C. integrating instrument
D. visible instrument

929. Microphone is a (an)_________________

A. Input device
B. Output device
C. Storage device
D. Both input and output device

930. Which of the following is a volatile memory?

A. Cache memory B. Hard Disk
C. DVD D. CD

931. Colour blindness is due to a defective gene on

A. X chromosome
B. Y chromosome
C. First pair of Autosomes
D. Last pair of Autosomes

932. Mushrooms and Yeast are

A. Lower Plants B. Seedless plants
C. Fungi D. Microorganisms

933. The end product of Photosynthesis is a

A. Carbohydrate B. Protein
C. Lipid D. Steriod

934. The HCF and LCM of 24 and 36 are respectively

A. 12, 36 B. 24, 24
C. 12, 72 D. 36, 72

935. The least number which when divided by 15 and 18 leaving remainder 6 in each case is
A. 84 B. 96
C. 264 D. 276

936. If a : b = 5 : 6 and a + b = 220, then a is equal to

A. 100 B. 120
C. 130 D. 140

937. If 15% of a number is 9, then number is

A. 30 B. 45
C. 60 D. 75

938. The simple interest on Rs. 300 for 3.5 years, at 6% per annum is
A. Rs. 45 B. Rs. 50
C. Rs. 53 D. Rs. 63

940. The cost price of an article if Rs. 260. If it is sold at profit of 10%, then selling price is
A. Rs. 234 B. Rs. 286
C. Rs. 334 D. Rs. 386

.
941. Slip ring for induction motors are made up of
A. cobalt steel B. aluminium
C. carbon D. phosphor bronze

942. A transformer is working at its maximum efficiency. Its iron loss is 1 kW. Its copper
loss will be
A. 0.2 kW B. 0.25 kW
C. 0.5 kW D. 1 kW

943. For arc heating, electrodes are made up of

A. Copper B. Aluminium
C. Graphite D. Tungsten

944. Sodium lamps are used in

A. Reading rooms B. Street Lights
C. Auditorims D. Libraries

945. The fuse wire is made up of

A. Nichrome B. Lead-tin alloy
C. Copper D. Tungsten

946. In mercury are rectifier, mercury is used as

A. cathode
B. conducting medium
C. ionizing medium
D. electron accelerator

947. The output of a NOR gats is HIGH if …………….

A. all inputs are high
B. any input is high
C. any input is low
D. all input are low

948. An aeroplane works on

A. Archimedes principle
B. Pascal’s law
C. Bernoull’s principle
D. Stoke’s law

949. In a strain measuring device using a strain gauge, the output quantity is
A. voltage
B. resistance
C. impedance
D. current

950. Plotter is a (an) _________________

A. Input device
B. Output device
C. Storage device
D. Both input and output device
951. DVD stands for __________________
A. Digital Video Disk
B. Digital Variable Disk
C. Digital Versatile Disk
D. Digital Versatile Data

952. Which of the following can be treated as both input at well as output device?
A. Mouse B. Printer
C. Memory D. Plotter

953. Which of the following is a general-purpose network?

A. Storage Area Network (SAN)
B. Local Area Network (LAN)
C. Enterprise Private Network (EPN)
D. Virtual Private Network (VPN)

954. The term “plan” in orthographic projection refers to:

A. top view B. front view
C. side view D. sectioned view

955. The least number which when divided by 10 and 16 leaving remainder 6 in each case is
A. 36 B. 86
C. 156 D. 164

956. If a : b = 3 : 7 and a + b = 80, then a is equal to

A. 24 B. 56
C. 30 D. 60

957. Currently half of the world’s population lives in just six countries. Identify them from
the following.
A. India, China, Bangladesh, Pakistan, Brazil, Indonesia
B. India, China, United States, Indonesia, Brazil, Pakistan
C. China, India, United States, Indonesia, Brazil, Pakistan
D. China, India, Bangladesh, United States, Pakistan, Indonesia

958. If a ship moves from fresh water not sea water, it will
A. sink completely
B. sink a little bit
C. rise a tittle higher
D. remain unaffected

959. The focal length of a convex lens is

A. same for all the colours
B. shorter for blue light than for red
C. shorter for red light than for blue
D. maximum for yellow light

960. Which of the following is not correctly matched

A. Decibel-unit of sound
B. Horse power-Unit of power
C. Nautical mile-unit of distance
D. Celsius-unit of heat

961. Robers cup is related with which sport

A. Football B. Golf
C. Badminton D. Cricket

962. Dog bits can cause rabies. Which among the following other animals can also cause
rabies
A. Donkey B. Bat
C. Horse D. Crocodile

963. A ‘flower bud’ which is used as a spice is obtained from

A. Cinnamon B. Cardamon
C. Clove D. Coriander

964. The gas used for artificial ripening of fruits is

A. Ether B. Ammonia
C. Acetylene D. Ethylene

965. Pointing to a lady, Sunil said, “She is the wife of my father’s wife’s brother.” How is the
lady related to Sunil?
A. Aunt B. Grandmother
C. Niece D. Cousin
966. If DEAF = 7349 and KITE = 5283, then DIET would be coded as:
A. 7283 B. 7238
C. 3728 D. 7823

967. If ‘THRIVE’ is coded as ‘DUHQGS’, then ‘STRONG’ would be coded as:

A. FMNSQP B. RSQNMF
C. HOPSUT D. FMNQSR

968. One evening before sunset, Rohan and Rahul were talking to each other face to face. If
Rahul’s shadow was exactly to his left, which direction was Rohan facing?
A. South B. North
C. East D. West

969. For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is
a) Air
b) Ferrite
c) Powdered ion
d) Steel

970. The son seems to have ——– from his father a somewhat gloomy and moody manner a)
washed
b) inherited
c) admired
d) attempt

971. Essayist works with words as sculptor with

a) water
b) stone
c) air
d) hills

972. What is a collection of sheep called ?

a) bunch
b) flock
c) herd
d) comet

973. Join these sentences meaningfully by choosing the correct alternative from the following
:
You can buy a book. You can read it.
a) and
b) nor
c) either
d) neither
974. What is the opposite of Asperity ?
a) gentility
b) superiority
c) kindness
d) clarity

975. Number of nibbles making one byte is ?

a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16

976. Thermistors are made of -

a) pure metals
b) pure insulators
c) sintered mixtures of metallic oxides
d) pure semiconductor

977. The energy gap in a semiconductor –

a) increases with temperature
b) remains constant
c) slightly increase with temperature
d) decrease with temperature

978. Basic memory cell of dynamic RAM consists of ?

a) a flip flop
b) a transistor acting as a capacitor
c) a transistor

979. The air gap between stator and armature of an electric motor is kept as small as possible
a. To get a stronger magnetic field
b. to improve the air circulation
c. To reach the higher speed of rotation
d. To make the rotation easier.

980. Transformer oil transformer provides

a. Insulation and cooling
b. B. Cooling and lubrication
c. Lubrication and insulation
d. Insulation, cooling and lubrication

981. Leakage fluxes of transformer may be minimized by

a. Reducing the magnetizing current to the minimum
b. Reducing the reluctance of the iron core to the minimum
c. Reducing the number of primary and secondary turn to the minimum
d. Sectionalizing and interleaving the primary and secondary windings

982. Electric power is transformed upon one coil to other coil in a transformer
a. Electrically
b. Electro Magnetically
c. Magnetically
d. Physically

983. The most suitable and economical connection for small high voltage transformer isa.
Star- Delta connection
b. Delta- Delta connection
c. Delta- Star connection
d. Star- Star connection

984. An alternator is said to be over excited when it is operating at

a. Unity power factor
b. Leading power factor
c. Lagging power factor
d. Either lagging or leading power factor

985. Earthing is necessary to give protection against

a. voltage fluctuation
b. overloading
c. danger of electric shock
d. high temperature of conductors

986. The primary function of fuse is to

a. protect the appliance
b. open the circuit
c. prevent excessive current
d. protect the line

987. A transformer works on

a. DC
b. AC
c. AC & DC both
d. Neither AC not DC

988. Which of the following device is used in transformer?

a. Tube light
b. Electric heater
c. Mobile phone
d. Rectifier module

989. Earth electrodes can be in the form of

a. rods or piper
b. stripes
c. plates
d. any of above

990. Carbone or metal brushes are used in

a. DC generators only
b. AC generators only
c. Both AC & DC generation
d. None of above

991. Energy is lost due to Joule's heating effects in winding of transformer. This is called
a. Copper loss
b. Eddy current loss
c. Flux loss
d. None

992. In refrigeration cycle heat is lost in

a. Cooling coil
b. Condenser
c. Compressor
d. Expansion valve

993. The power factor of AC circuit is

a. R/X
b. R/Z
c. Z/R
d. Zero
994. The current in circuit having 5 V EMI source and 10 Ohm resistance is:
a. 2 Amp
b. 50 Amp
c. 5 Amp
d. ½ Amp

995. The chopper is a device to change

a. Voltage
b. Current
c. Frequency
d. None of these

996. Which of these need to be measured after rewinding the motor:

a. no load current
b. air gap
c. winding resistance
d. all of the above

997. The size of the Earth Wire is determined by:

a. the ampere capacity of the service wires
b. the atmospheric conditions
c. the voltage of service wires
d. none of these

998. The function of lightning arrester is:

a. to limit the short circuit fault current
b. to provide path to high voltage surge to earth
c. to reduce arcing
d. none of these

999. Buchholz relay is used for the protection of

a. Switch yard
b. Transformers
c. Alternators
d. Transmission lines

1000. Reading and writing require an illuminance of more than ……………lux.

a. 100
b. 300
c. 150
d. 50
XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX THE END XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX