21280
21280
Topics Covered
Physics: Motion in a Plane, Newton law of Motion
Chemistry: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure, Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
Mathematics: Quadratic Equations, Complex Number-I, Sequence and Series
General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 75 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
4. There are three Sections in the question paper, Section I, II & III consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Mathematics) and having 25 questions in each part in which first 20 questions are of
Objective Type and Last 5 questions are integers type and all 25 questions are compulsory.
5. There is only one correct response among 4 alternate choices provided for each objective type question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
9. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
OMR Instructions:
1. Use blue/black dark ballpoint pens.
2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the bubbles
completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software.
3. Never use pencils to mark your answers.
4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process.
5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the specified area
may create problems during the evaluation.
6. Multiple markings will be treated as invalid responses.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
[1]
IMPORTANT CONSTANTS
IMPORTANT VALUES
2 = 1.414 ln 10 = 2.303
3 = 1.732 log102 = 0.3010
5 = 2.236 log103= 0.4770
= 3.142 log107 = 0.845
e (Euler’s constant) = 2.718
[2]
SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
Single Correct Type Questions 2
(2) If friction, on bead is kinetic
1. At a moment a car is travelling with linear
velocity v on a circular road of radius r. If the
2
speed is increasing at the rate of ‘a’ metre/sec2, (3) If friction, is static
then the resultant acceleration of car at that
(4) If bead does not slide relative to rod, then
moment, will be-
friction will not exist between bead and rod
v2 2
2 − a m/sec
2
(1)
r 4. A block of mass 5.0 kg slides down from the top
of an inclined plane of length 3 m. The first 1 m
v4 2
2 + a m/sec
2
(2) of the plane is smooth and the next 2 m is rough.
r The block is released from rest and again comes
v4 2
to rest at the bottom of the plane. If the plane is
2 − a m/sec
2
(3) inclined at 30 with the horizontal, find the
r
coefficient of friction on the rough portion
v2 2
2 + a m/sec
2
(4)
r
[3]
7. A heavy uniform chain lies on a horizontal table. The river flows towards east. Which of the
If the co-efficient of friction between the chain following is true?
and table surface is 0.25, then the maximum
fraction of length of the chain, that can hang over
one edge of the table is
(1) 0.20
(2) 0.25
(3) 0.35
(4) 0.15
(1) Swimmers A and B cannot collide
(2) Swimmers A and B will definitely collide
8. With forces F1 and F2 applied on a system as somewhere on line connecting points A & B
shown in figure, match the following : (g = 10 (3) Swimmers A and B will definitely collide
m/s2) somewhere to the east of line connecting
points A & B
(4) Swimmers A and B will definitely collide
somewhere to the west of line connecting
points A & B
[4]
14. A smooth ring P of mass m can slide on a fixed
horizontal rod. A string tied to the ring passes
over a fixed pulley and carries a block Q of mass
(m/2) as shown in the figure. At an instant the
system is released when, the string between the
ring and the pulley makes an angle 60° with the (1) 12 (2) 15
rod. The acceleration of the ring at that instant is (3) 10 (4) 20
[5]
22. A particle is projected obliquely from origin with 24. Block B is moving towards right with constant
1 velocity v0. Magnitude of velocity of block A with
speed 12 5 m/s at an angle tan −1 with X
2 v
respect to block B is 0 . Value of x is______.
axis in a vertical X-Y plane in a region of space x
where acceleration due to gravity makes an angle
53° with the negative Y-axis as shown in figure.
The maximum possible X-coordinate of the (Assume all pulleys and strings are ideal)
particle till the time it crosses the X-axis is p
metre. Find the value of p. (g = 10 m/s2) 25. Reading shown in two spring balances S1 and S2 is
90 kg and 30 kg respectively when lift; is
accelerating upwards with acceleration 10 m/s2.
The mass is stationary with respect to lift. Then
the mass of the block will be______kg. (g = 10
m/s2)
SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
Single Correct Type Questions 29. The ion that has sp3d2 hybridization of the central
26. Consider the following statements. atom, is
(I) Element with atomic number 43 belongs to (1) [ICl2]– (2) [IF6]–
d-block.
(II) 64Gd is present in group 3. (3) [BrF2]– (4) [ICl4]–
(III) Se has two unpaired electrons in p-subshell.
The correct statement(s) is(are) 30. Following transformations are carried out.
(1) Only (III) (2) Only (I) & (II) NO ⎯→ NO+ + e– ...(I)
(3) Only (I) & (III) (4) (I), (II) & (III) CN + e ⎯→ CN
– –
...(II)
27. The alkaline earth metal halide (X = Cl, Br, I) Which of the following statement is correct?
having maximum covalent character is (1) Bond order is increased in (I) but decreased in
(1) BeX2 (2) SrX2 (II)
(3) CaX2 (4) MgX2 (2) Bond order is decreased in (I) but increased in
(II)
28. Among the following, choose the incorrect (3) Bond order is increased in both cases
statement. (4) Bond order is decreased in both cases
(1) SiF4 is non-polar whereas SF4 is polar
(2) I3− is linear 31. In which one of the following changes, bond
Cl
order and magnetic moment both increases?
(1) O2 → O2+ (2) N2 → N2–
(3) has more magnitude of dipole
(3) B2 → B2+ (4) C2 → C2–
Cl
Cl
32. Bond distance in HF is 9.17 × 10–11 m. Dipole
moment of HF is 6.104 × 10–30 C m. The
moment than that of percentage ionic character in HF will be
(1) 61.0% (2) 38.0%
(4) ClF3 is polar (3) 35.5% (4) 41.6%
[6]
33. The correct order of increasing s-character (in 39. In which one of the following groups all the
percentage) in the hybrid orbitals of central atom members have linear shape?
in following molecules/ions is (consider (1) NO 2 , N3− , ICl+2
s-character is equally distributed between bond-
(2) N3− , I3− , NO +2
pairs and lone-pairs)
(3) XeF2 ,C2 H 2 ,SO 2
(I) CO32− (II) XeF4
(4) CO 2 , BeCl2 ,SnCl2
(III) I3− (IV) NH3
(V) NO +2 40. Given below are two statements, one is labelled
as Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as
(1) II < III < IV < I < V
Reason (R)
(2) II < IV < III < V < I
Assertion(A): Bond energy of Cl − Cl bond is
(3) III < II < I < V < IV
more than F − F bond.
(4) II < IV < III < I < V
Reason(R): Shorter the bond length, more is the
bond energy.
34. In which one of the following pairs, the dipole
In the light of above statements choose the
moment of first species is greater than second?
correct option
(1) NH3, NF3
(1) A is correct, R is correct & R is the correct
(2) BF3, BCl3
explanation of A.
(3) trans-But-2-ene, cis-But-2-ene
(2) A is correct, R is correct but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct and R is incorrect.
(4) (4) A is incorrect and R is correct.
[7]
44. Correct order of ionic size is 47. A third period element has successive ionisation
(1) Be2+ ~~ Li + Na + Mg 2+ enthalpies as 1000, 2000, 3000, 5000, 6200,
21200 kJ mol–1. Maximum covalency is x and
(2) Be2+ Mg 2+ ~~ Li + Na + maximum oxidation state is y. Then, the value of
(3) Mg 2+ Na + Be 2+ Li + x · y is_______.
(4) Li + Be2+ Mg 2+ Na +
48. Among NO,CN − , H 2 , He 2+ , Li 2 , B2 ,C 2 , N 2 ,
45. From the following, identify the incorrect O −2 , NO + ,O 22− and F2, the number of diamagnetic
statement. species is_______.
(1) Van der waal’s radius of iodine is more than
its covalent radius 49. How many of the following species contain one
(2) IE1 of nitrogen is greater than that of or more lone pair(s) on central atom, that is
oxygen while IE 2 of oxygen is higher than present in an orbital having contribution from
d-orbital?
that of nitrogen
(3) 1st Electron affinity of oxygen is less than
SOF4 SeOCl2 SeF3+ ICl−4
sulphur XeF5+ XeOF4 TeF5−
(4) Na has a positive 1st electron gain enthalpy
SECTION-III (MATHEMATICS)
Single Correct Type Questions 7 + 33
(3) ,
1 1 1 4 2
51. It is given that 4 + 4 + 4 + .... to = .
1 2 3 90
7 − 33
1 1 1 (4) −,
Then 4 + 4 + 4 + .... to is equal to
2
1 3 5
4 4
(1) (2) 54. If a, b, c are in G.P. and a – b, c – a, b – c are in
96 45
H.P., then the value of a + 4b + c is equal to
894 4 (1) 1 (2) 0
(3) (4)
90 180 (3) 2abc (4) b2 + ac
52. If a, b, c, d are in G.P., then (a2 + b2 + c2) (b2 + c2 55. Let , , be roots of the cubic x3 + ax + a = 0
+ d2) equals to where a R – {0}, then the value of ( + ) –1 +
(1) ab + bc + cd (2) (ab + bc + cd)2 ( + ) –1 + ( + ) –1 is equal to
(3) (ab + bc + cd) (4) (ab + bc + cd)1/2
4
(1) 0 (2) –1
(3) 1 (4) a2
53. The value of p for which both roots of the
quadratic equation 2x2 – 2(1 + 2p)x + p(1 + p) = 56. If a2 + b2 = 23ab (a, b > 0), then A.M. of lna and
0 (p R) are smaller than 2 is lnb is equal to
7 − 33 7 + 33 1 a+b
(1) −, , (1) ln(a + b) (2) ln
2 2 2 25
7 − 33 7 + 33 a+b 1 a+b
(2) , (3) ln (4) ln
2 2 5 2 5
[8]
57. The sum to 50 terms of the series 64. If z1 = –3 + 5i ; z2 = –5 – 3i and z is a complex
1 3 7 15 number lying on the line segment joining z1 and
+ + + + ...., is
2 4 8 16 z2, then arg(z) can be :
(1) 250 – 51 (2) 1 – 2–50 3
(1) − (2) −
(3) 2–50 + 49 (4) 250 – 1 4 4
5
58. The number of imaginary roots of the equation (3) (4)
6 6
(x – 1) (x – 2) (3x – 2) (3x + 1) = 32 is
(1) Zero (2) 1 65. The sum to 10 terms of the series whose nth term
(3) 2 (4) 4
is n2 – 5, is
(1) 230 (2) 335
59. If 2(y – a) is H.M. of y – x and y – z, then x – a, y
(3) 125 (4) 151
– a and z – a are in
(1) A.P. (2) G.P.
(3) H.P. (4) A.G.P. 66. If T1 , T2 , T3 , T4 , .... are in G.P. Such that T1 = 1
and 4T2 + 5T3 is minimum, then common ratio, is
60. Let be a root of quadratic equation ax + bx + 2
5 2
c = 0 and be a root of quadratic equation –ax2 + (1) (2)
2 5
bx + c = 0, where a, b, c are real numbers and 0 <
−2 −5
a (3) (4)
< , a > 0. If the equation x 2 + bx + c = 0 has 5 2
2
a positive root then which of the following
67. The roots of ax2 + bx + c = 0 are greater than the
must be true?
roots of 2x2 + 3x + 1 = 0 by unity, then
(1) < min. {, } (2) > min. {, }
(1) 2b2 = a2 (1 + 4ac)
(3) < < (4) < – <
(2) 2b2 = a2 (1 + 8ac)
(3) 8b2 = a2 (1 + 4ac)
61. Let α, β be real and z be a non-real complex
(4) 4b2 = a2 (1 + 16ac)
number. If z2 + αz + β = 0 has two distinct roots
on line Re(z) = 1, then it is necessary that
(1) β (–1, 0) (2) |β| = 1 (−1 + i 3)12 (−1 − i 3)12
68. + is equal to
(3) β (1, ) (4) β (0, 1) (1 − i )20 (1 + i)20
(1) –8 (2) 8
[9]
72. The AM of 2 positive numbers is 9 times their the A.P. and common ratio of the G.P. are equal
HM. The GM of those numbers will be k times to n each, n N. Number of such terms in this
their HM. The value of k is series which are perfect squares of a natural
number for all n, is
73. If a, b, c and d are four positive real numbers
such that abcd = 1, the minimum value of (1 + a) a b
1 − i 2 i −1 3
=1=
(1 + b) (1 + c) (1 + d) is If
75. (where a, b are natural
1+ i 1+ i
74. rth term of a series is the sum of rth term of an numbers), then minimum value of (a + b) is
A.P. and rth term of a G.P., whose first terms are
equal to one each and the common difference of
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