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1. The “Develop Project Management Plan” process involves:

A. Authorizing the project and providing the PM with authority.

B. Integrating subsidiary plans into a comprehensive plan.
C. Performing the project work and implementing approved changes.
D. Tracking and reporting project progress against objectives.

2. Which of the following is not true about schedule management on agile projects?

A. It uses longer cycles to undertake work, review results, and adapt

B. The role of the project manager is the same as it would be on a waterfall project
C. Rapid, frequent feedback is collected on deliverables
D. An on-demand, pull-based scheduling system is used

3. When managing conflict, we may use the technique of ______ to work together to incorporate
multiple viewpoints in a cooperative and constructive manner.

A. Force/Direct
B. Collaborate/Problem Solve
C. Withdraw/Avoid
D. Compromise/Reconcile

4. When sequencing activities, we must determine relationships (or dependencies) between

tasks. _____ dependencies are those that are determined based on knowledge of best practices.

A. Mandatory
B. Discretionary
C. External
D. Internal

5. Which of the following processes involves decomposing the project work into smaller
components?

A. Define Scope
B. Sequence Activities
C. Collect Requirements
D. Create WBS

6. PMOs that train project managers and provide templates and best practices are referred to as:

A. Supportive
B. Controlling
C. Directive
D. Strategic

7. Which of the following is not true about procurement management on agile projects?

A. Specific sellers may be used to extend the team.

B. Buyers and sellers can collaborate to share risk and rewards.
C. It is ideal when buyers and sellers are collaborating together in a virtual environment.
D. Large projects may use agile for some deliverables and a more stable approach for others.
8. Which of the following lifecycles is commonly used in large organizations with large,
enterprise-wide system deployments?
A. Agile
B. Iterative
C. Predictive
D. Adaptive

9. According to a RACI matrix, an individual who has ultimate ownership and decision making
authority is ______.

A. Responsible
B. Accountable
C. Consulted
D. Informed
10. You are working for a car company and are leading a project to construct a new battery
factory. Currently, the team is performing the plan risk management process. In doing so,
which of the following activities might they complete?

A. Exploring options for addressing risks that have been previously identified.
B. Determining which risks to transfer to a third party.
C. Determining the stakeholders' appetite for risk.
D. Meeting with project team members to brainstorm sources of overall project risk.

11. Which of the following processes involves specifying the procurement approach and
identifying potential sellers?

A. Conduct Procurements
B. Manage Communications
C. Control Procurements
D. Plan Procurement Management
12. Which of the following are tools and techniques used in the “Manage Quality” process?

A. Benchmarking, Checklists, Test & Inspection Planning

B. Design for X, Quality Improvement Methods, Inspections
C. Process Analysis, Audits, Problem Solving
D. Data Analysis, Testing & Product Evaluations, Meetings

13. After we identify risks that could impact the success of our project and make assessments of
their probability and impact, we can begin quantitative risk analysis. In doing so, we may use
______, which helps to determine the individual project risks that have the most potential
impact on project outcomes. One way of displaying this information is through a Tornado
diagram.

A. Decision Tree Analysis

B. Monte Carlo Simulation
C. Delphi Techniques
D. Sensitivity Analysis
14. Which of the following stages of team development occurs when the team members begin to
encounter potential conflict, and if they fail to work together, performance could be
impacted?

A. Storming
B. Performing
C. Forming
D. Norming

15. Which of the following is a response to negative risks that involves shifting the risk to another
party?
A. Avoid
B. Transfer
C. Mitigate
D. Accept

16. During the "Manage Quality" process, we may use a(n) ______ to show the relationship between
two variables. It helps us understand what might be contributing to a quality defect.
A. Affinity Diagram
B. Scatter Diagram
C. Matrix Diagram
D. Interrelationship Digraph

17. All of the following are true about fixed price incentive fee (FPIF) contracts except:

A. Incentives are awarded typically for meeting cost, schedule, or performance targets.
B. The seller is reimbursed for all allowable expenses.
C. The price is set at the start of the contract.
D. Bonuses can be given if certain predetermined objectives are achieved.

18. Which of the following processes involves aggregating the costs of individual activities to
generate the cost baseline?

A. Control Costs
B. Estimate Costs
C. Estimate Activity Durations
D. Determine Budget

19. Which of the following is an input to the “Plan Scope Management” process?

A. Project Management Plan

B. Scope Management Plan
C. Expert Judgment
D. Requirements Documentation

20. Which of the following is not true about projects?

A. They could end early if a project is terminated

B. They could end if the need for the project no longer exists
C. They do not impact operational stakeholders
D. They produce a unique product, service, or result
21. Which of the following is an input to “Plan Quality Management”?

A. Enterprise Environmental Factors

B. Quality Management Plan
C. Cost-Benefit Analysis
D. Quality Checklists

22. All of the following are inputs of the “Identify Stakeholders” process except:

A. Project Charter
B. Business Documents
C. Enterprise Environmental Factors
D. Stakeholder Register

23. The “Issue Log” is updated during each of the following processes except?

A. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

B. Identify Stakeholders
C. Plan Stakeholder Engagement
D. Manage Stakeholder Engagement

24. “Define Scope” is performed in which process group?

A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Monitoring and Controlling

25. A project manager is overseeing the construction of a new restaurant. She receives feedback
from experts on the project that customer seating can be installed one week after painting is
complete. In this situation, which of the following processes were used?

A. Define Activities
B. Sequence Activities
C. Develop Schedule
D. Control Schedule

26. Which of the following does not occur during the “Initiating” process group?

A. Total scope is established

B. The charter is authorized
C. Finances are committed
D. Initial scope is proposed

27. When collecting requirements, _____ may be used. These are focused, interactive sessions with
key stakeholders to define product requirements.

A. Interviews
B. Facilitated Workshops
C. Observations
D. Benchmarking
28. When collecting requirements, _____ may be used. These are used to gather early feedback on
requirements by sharing a working version of a product.

A. Prototypes
B. Observations
C. Benchmarking
D. Focus Groups

29. If we apply a/an _____ when sequencing activities on our project, there is a successor that will
be delayed with respect to a predecessor.

A. Milestone
B. Lead
C. Activity
D. Lag
30. A project is underway to restore a classic video game using newly-available technology.
During the project, the team spends time monitoring outcomes of quality activities to evaluate
performance against expectations. What is an input to that particular process?

A. Quality Control Measurements

B. Verified Deliverables
C. Work Performance Reports
D. Deliverables

31. Which of the following quality management tools are used to organize and display the origins
of a quality problem? They are also known as fishbone diagrams.

A. Cause and Effect Diagrams

B. Histograms
C. Control Charts
D. Pareto Diagrams
32. Which of the following processes involves approximating the labor and material needed for
activities?

A. Develop Schedule
B. Estimate Activity Resources
C. Determine Budget
D. Estimate Activity Durations
33. As you manage a project, which of the following questions would not be asked when
considering how to tailor the processes within Project Communication Management to your
own project?

A. How many languages are used?

B. Does the organization have a formal knowledge management repository?
C. What is the physical location of team members?
D. What is the most appropriate lifecycle approach?
34. Which of the following best describes a leader (as opposed to a manger)?

A. Do things right
B. Focus on operational issues
C. Challenge the status quo
D. Rely on control
35. Which of the following techniques for developing the schedule involves fast tracking or
crashing the schedule to finish remaining project activities on time.

A. Critical Path Method

B. Agile Release Planning
C. Resource Optimization
D. Schedule Compression

36. When determining the budget, we may use this technique, which involves reviewing data from
previous projects to generate estimates.

A. Funding Limit Reconciliation

B. Historical Information Review
C. Project Funding Requirements
D. Cost Aggregation

37. If a project manager aggregates estimates of low-level WBS components to generate an

estimate of activity durations, this is referred to as:

A. Bottom-Up Estimating
B. Analogous Estimating
C. Parametric Estimating
D. Three-Point Estimating

38. Dependencies that are legally required or inherent in the nature of the project work are:

A. Mandatory
B. Discretionary
C. External
D. Internal

39. During the "Manage Quality" process, we may use a/an ______, which organizes causes of
defects into categories.

A. Design for X
B. Affinity Diagram
C. Scatter Diagram
D. Matrix Diagram

40. A project is underway to implement new payment technology at several retail stores. The
new tools will allow the stores to accept cryptocurrency as payment. During the project, the
team spends time tracking and reporting project progress against the objectives. In this case,
what process is being performed?

A. Manage Project Knowledge

B. Manage Communications
C. Report Management
D. Monitor and Control Project Work
41. Which of the following would not be a tailoring consideration in Project Schedule
Management?

A. Life cycle approach

B. Continuous improvement
C. Resource availability
D. Technology support

42. In Earned Value Management, _____ is the expected cost to finish the remaining project work.

A. Budget at Completion (BAC)

B. Estimate at Completion (EAC)
C. Estimate to Complete (ETC)
D. Variation at Completion (VAC)

43. The “Develop Schedule” process involves:

A. Documenting how the schedule will be managed.

B. Identifying steps required to product project deliverables.
C. Approximating the number of work periods needed to complete activities.
D. Analyzing activities sequences, estimates, and constraints to create the schedule.

44. When considering cost of quality (COQ), which of the following represents an appraisal cost?

A. Testing
B. Training
C. Process Documentation
D. Scrap

45. Which of the following is not an input to “Control Quality”?

A. Project Management Plan

B. Work Performance Data
C. Quality Metrics
D. Quality Control Measurements

46. Which of the following is not an input to the “Perform Integrated Change Control” process?

A. Work Performance Data

B. Project Management Plan
C. Change Requests
D. Organizational Process Assets

47. The _____ knowledge area includes the processes involved with identifying and engaging with
anyone that could be impacted the project.

A. Project Communications Management

B. Project Stakeholder Management
C. Project Integration Management
D. Project Resource Management
48. When we acquire resources, if we rank team members to determine who should be selected,
the technique of ______ is being used.

A. Pre-Assignment
B. Negotiation
C. Acquisition
D. Multi-Criteria Decision Analysis

49. At a grocery store chain, a project is in process to deploy self-checkout registers at all of the
company’s California locations. During the project, the team spends time creating and using
knowledge to support the project and the organization. What is a tool or technique that may
be needed to perform this process?

A. Lessons Learned Register

B. Project Management Information System
C. Information Management
D. Issue Log

50. ____ is a contract type in which the cost may not be fully defined at the start of the contract and
could be left open-ended. It is useful for staff augmentation.

A. Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)

B. Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)
C. Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF)
D. Time & Materials (T&M)

51. The “Monitor Risks” process involves:

A. Prioritizing risks by evaluating their probability of occurrence and their impact.

B. Numerically analyzing the effect of risks on project objectives.
C. Defining actions to reduce threats to project.
D. Tracking existing risks and identifying/analyzing new risks.

52. In a communication model, after a sender encodes and shares a message, the receiver decodes
it and sends which of the following messages?

A. Feedback Message
B. Transmit Message
C. Decode Message
D. Acknowledge Message

53. In which of the following project lifecycles is the product developed through a series of
repeated cycles and where each increment delivers more functionality?

A. Iterative
B. Predictive
C. Adaptive
D. Phased

54. All of the following are examples of projects except:

A. Constructing an office building on a newly acquired parcel of land

B. Performing regular maintenance on a fleet of vehicles
C. Deploying workforce management software across an organization
D. Designing a new printer and complementary ink cartridges
55. Which of the following methods of communication involves sending messages, such as memos
and e-mails, to a large group of stakeholders that need it?

A. Push Communication
B. Communication Requirements Analysis
C. Interactive Communication
D. Pull Communication

56. When measuring the success of a project, we determine whether or not we operated within
each of the following constraints except:

A. Cost
B. Time
C. Customer Satisfaction
D. Risk

57. Your sponsor wants to know the methods that were used and assumptions that were made
when your cost estimate was generated. Which of the following tools or techniques should be
used?
A. Project Funding Requirement
B. Funding Limit Reconciliation
C. Vendor Bid Analysis
D. Basis of Estimates

58. A project manager on a government project documents the actual costs that were spent on
labor and materials over the last week. Those actual costs would be classified as which type of
project information?

A. Work Performance Information

B. Work Performance Data
C. Enterprise Environmental Factors
D. Work Performance Reports

59. You have just been assigned to lead a project that is already underway. The objective is to
design and test a new self-driving car. At this time, the develop team process is being
performed. In doing so, which of the following activities might be completed?

A. Resolving a conflict between two team members.

B. Ensuring that assigned resources are available as originally planned.
C. Arranging for key project team members to be at the same site near critical milestones.
D. Evaluating alternative resource options, such as renting or buying the needed equipment.

60. As we are gathering information about potential risks on our project, what tool or technique
could be used that involves researching the underlying sources of an issue?

A. Root Cause Analysis

B. Assumptions Analysis
C. Delphi Technique
D. SWOT Analysis
61. Which of the following is not true about process groups?

A. Process groups are not the same as project lifecycle phases.

B. Multiple process groups can occur within a single project lifecycle phase.
C. Process groups usually only occur once.
D. Process groups often overlap each other.

62. Which of the following "spheres of influence" involves the project manager staying current
and informed about trends in the marketplace?

A. Industry
B. Organization
C. Project
D. Professional Discipline

63. Which of the following is a response to a positive risk that involves working with another
party who can help us seize the benefit?

A. Transfer
B. Enhance
C. Share
D. Accept

64. Which of the following are tools and techniques used in “Determine Budget” process?

A. Financing, Expert Judgement, To-Complete Performance Index

B. Funding Limit Reconciliation, Cost of Quality, Parametric Estimating
C. Cost Aggregation, Funding Limit Reconciliation, Reserve Analysis
D. Historical Information Review, Earned Value Analysis, Trend Analysis

65. A “Probability and Impact Matrix” is a tool used in which of the following processes?

A. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Identify Risks

66. When planning for procurements, we use ______ to examine the capabilities of potentials sellers
to meet the needs of the project.

A. Market Research
B. Make or Buy Analysis
C. Source Selection Analysis
D. Meetings

67. All of the following are components of the PMI Talent Triangle® except:

A. Strategic and Business Management

B. Leadership
C. Technical Project Management
D. Industry Knowledge
68. Which of the following techniques is a structured review of the work being performed by a
contractor? On a construction project, it could involve “walkthroughs” of the site.

A. Claims Administration
B. Inspections
C. Data Analysis
D. Audits

69. In regards to agile projects, which of the following is not true?

A. Infrequent checkpoints are valued and prevent distraction

B. If the scope is not yet fully defined, projects may not benefit from detailed cost calculations
C. Detailed estimates are used for short-term planning horizons
D. Close collaboration among team members is critical

70. All of the following are true about the “Project Management Plan” except:

A. It grants the project manager authority.

B. It may be updated if a change is formally approved.
C. It must align with a program management plan, if that exists.
D. It documents how the project will be executed.

71. “Direct and Manage Project Work” is performed as part of which process group:

A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Planning
72. A project to widen broadband access in Poland was undertaken to fulfill a politician’s
campaign promise. During the project, the team spends time prioritizing risks by evaluating
their probability and impact. What is a tool or technique that may be needed to perform this
process?

A. Sensitivity Analysis
B. Simulations
C. Organizational Process Assets
D. Risk Probability & Impact Assessment
73. Which of the following processes involves defining how to conduct risk management on the
project?

A. Plan Risk Responses

B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
C. Identify Risks
D. Plan Risk Management
74. Which of the following subsidiary plans of the project management plan describes how the
project team will acquire goods from an external organization?

A. Procurement Management Plan

B. Resource Management Plan
C. Cost Management Plan
D. Scope Management Plan
75. “Cost Aggregation” is a technique used in which of the following processes?

A. Determine Budget
B. Estimate Costs
C. Plan Cost Management
D. Control Costs
76. A team is designing a video game that will accompany a major motion picture. During that
project, the team identifies steps required to produce project deliverables. What is an output
from that process?

A. Project Schedule Network Diagram

B. Basis of Estimates
C. Decomposition
D. Activity Attributes
77. Which of the following is not a trend or emerging practice in project procurement
management?

A. Emphasizing the allocation of specific risks to capable entities

B. Using trial engagements with candidate sellers
C. Using technology, such as web cameras, to improve stakeholder communications
D. Minimizing the flow of materials across international borders

78. A technology company that specializes in creating software applications for dental offices is
working on several multi-year projects for their customers. However, three new competitors,
who are seeking to take away those customers, have recently entered the market. In this
scenario, these marketplace conditions would be best classified as which of the following?

A. An enterprise environmental factor

B. An industry standard
C. An organizational process asset
D. A lesson that was learned

79. The most important benefit of performing integrated change control is that:

E. It allows each stakeholder to feel valued. (All of them can propose changes.)
F. It allows for changes to be considered in the context of overall project plans.
G. It ensures changes are communicated to all of the affected stakeholders.
H. It ensures we have a historical record of proposed changes.

80. ____ is a contract type in which the price is set at the start of the contract and is not subject to
change.

A. Firm Fixed Price (FFP)

B. Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF)
C. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment (FP-EPA)
D. Time & Materials (T&M)

81. The “Estimate Costs” process involves:

A. Documenting how to manage and control costs.

B. Aggregating the costs of individual activities to generate the cost baseline.
C. Monitoring project costs and managing changes to the cost baseline.
D. Approximating the finances needed to complete project activities.
82. Which of the following documents typically outlines who is responsible for approving changes
requests?

A. Stakeholder Register
B. Project Management Plan
C. Project Charter
D. Change Log

83. The _____ process group involves establishing the total scope and outlining the path to achieve
the project objectives.

A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Planning
D. Monitoring and Controlling

84. “Work Performance Information” is an output of which of the following processes?

A. Validate Scope
B. Sequence Activities
C. Direct and Manage Project Work
D. Determine Budget

85. All of the following are purposes of the WBS except:

A. Articulate the components of work that will satisfy project objectives.

B. Subdivide the project work into more manageable components.
C. Provide detailed information, such as codes of account, about WBS components.
D. Provide a hierarchical structure for assigning costs to work packages.

86. At a recent meeting on a project to design a memory card, you discuss progress being made on
planning stakeholder engagement. What is an activity that could be performed during that
process?

A. Identifying the information needs of stakeholders.

B. Preparing a stakeholder engagement assessment matrix.
C. Identifying organizational process assets that may influence communication on the project.
D. Classifying stakeholders based on their level of authority.

87. Which of the following represents the lowest level in the WBS?

A. Activity
B. Summary Task
C. Project
D. Work Package

88. A project manager at a company that designs smartphones works with suppliers in six
different countries. During that engagement, she ensures that she is sensitive to differences
in cultures. This behavior would fit into which of the following skills set in the PMI Talent
Triangle®?

A. Technical Project Management

B. Political Awareness
C. Leadership
D. Strategic and Business Management
89. Which of the following is not a trend or emerging practice in project resource management?

A. The need to invest in emotional intelligence

B. The rise of self-organizing teams
C. The use of resource management methods, such as the theory of constraints
D. The use of earned value management

90. All of the following is true about requirements or requirements documentation except:

A. They describe what the customer or sponsor needs.

B. They describe how requirements meet business objectives.
C. They can be in written or verbal format.
D. The format of requirements documentation may vary from a simple list to complicated matrices.

91. “Pre-Assignment” is a technique used in which of the following processes?

A. Develop Team
B. Acquire Resources
C. Manage Team
D. Plan Resource Management

92. _____ requirements are those that describes the features or functions of a product or service.

A. Business
B. Stakeholder
C. Solution
D. Project

93. Which of the following is not true about the sequencing of activities?

A. It involves documenting the durations of activities.

B. It defines the logical order of work given the constraints of the project.
C. It helps build a realistic project schedule.
D. Every task (except for the first and last) should have both a predecessor and a successor.

94. A ____ is a task that logically comes before another task.

A. Work package
B. Successor
C. Constraint
D. Predecessor

95. When sequencing activities, which of the following represents a “finish-to-finish”

relationship?

A. The awards ceremony cannot start until the race has finished.
B. Writing a document is required to finish before editing the document can finish.
C. Leveling concrete cannot begin until pouring the foundation begins.
D. The first security guard shift cannot finish until the second security guard shift starts.
96. All of the following are tools or techniques of the “Plan Schedule Management” process,
except:

A. Expert Judgment
B. Meetings
C. Rolling Wave Planning
D. Data Analysis

97. Which interpersonal skill, when used on a project, can help to reduce miscommunication and
misunderstandings? It often involves acknowledging and clarifying information.

A. Networking
B. Active Listening
C. Motivation
D. Political Awareness

98. “Contingent Response Strategies” are techniques used in which of the following processes?

A. Plan Risk Responses

B. Monitor Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Identify Risks

99. On a project to construct a new warehouse, two weeks before painting is complete, the activity
to lay carpet can begin. This is an example of:

A. Task
B. Lag
C. Activity
D. Lead

100. In Earned Value Management, _____ is the authorized budget assigned to an activity. It excludes
management reserve.

A. Forecasted Cost
B. Planned Value
C. Earned Value
D. Actual Cost

101. Project cost and staffing levels are the highest at what point in the project?

A. Starting the project

B. Organizing and preparing
C. Carrying out the work
D. Closing the project

102. “Recognition and Rewards” are tools used in which of the following processes?

A. Plan Resource Management

B. Acquire Resources
C. Develop Team
D. Manage Team
103. All of the following are true about portfolios except:

A. They may include programs, projects, and operations

B. The projects and programs underneath a portfolio may not be directly related
C. Elements of the portfolio aim to achieve common strategic objectives
D. A portfolio must have at least one program

104. A project has been funded by a foreign country to install several water pumps in Sub-Saharan
Africa. The goal is to increase the availability of clean water. During the project, the team
spends time documenting the procurement method and identifying potential sellers. Which
of the following is not an output from that process?

A. Source Selection Criteria

B. Agreements
C. Bid Documents
D. Independent Cost Estimates

105. “Develop Project Management Plan” is included in which of the following knowledge areas?

A. Project Integration Management

B. Project Scope Management
C. Project Schedule Management
D. Project Cost Management

106. In Earned Value Management, _____ is a measure of cost efficiency on a project. It is the ratio of
earned value to actual cost.

A. SV
B. CPI
C. SPI
D. CV

107. The “Activity List” is an input to which of the following processes?

A. Define Scope
B. Define Activities
C. Sequence Activities
D. Control Schedule

108. Which of the following does not occur during the “Monitoring and Controlling” process group?

A. Project risks are identified and analyzed

B. Changes are reviewed and approved
C. Project health is determined
D. Scope is validated

109. The cost performance index (CPI) on a project is 1.25. Given this measurement, which of the
following is true?

A. Cost efficiency is aligned with our expectation.

B. Project work is behind schedule.
C. Cost efficiency is better than expected.
D. Cost efficiency is less than expected.
110. As a project manager, you know that your projects are impacted by factors that are often
outside of your control. Those factors could be internal or external to your organization, and
they could have a positive or negative impact. Enterprise environmental factors are one such
example. All of the following are enterprise environmental factors except:

A. Organizational Culture
B. Industry Standards
C. Marketplace Conditions
D. Project Files from Previous Projects

111. All of the following statements are true concerning operations except:

A. They are repeatable

B. They support the day-to-day needs of the business
C. An example would be to upgrade an inventory system
D. Resources often perform the same tasks on a regular basis

112. A project team member was assigned to take random samples of completed phone cases and
compare them for color consistency according to the specified quality requirements. In this
scenario, which of the following processes were used?

A. Control Quality
B. Plan Quality Management
C. Manage Quality
D. Monitor and Control Project Work

113. Which of the following processes involves developing strategies to appropriately engage
stakeholders during the project?

A. Identify Stakeholders
B. Manage Stakeholder Engagement
C. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement
D. Plan Stakeholder Engagement

114. On a given project; earned value (EV) is $30,000; actual cost (AC) is $35,000; and planned
value (PV) is $28,000. What is the cost variance (CV)?

A. $2,000
B. -$5,000
C. $5,000
D. -$2,000

115. All of the following are inputs to the “Plan Risk Management” process except:

A. Project Management Plan

B. Risk Register
C. Project Charter
D. Enterprise Environmental Factors

116. Which of the following are tools and techniques used in “Create WBS” process?

A. Expert Judgment and Decomposition

B. Inspection and Decision Making
C. Data Analysis and Product Analysis
D. Context Diagram and Prototypes
117. On a given project; earned value (EV) is $30,000; actual cost (AC) is $35,000; and planned
value (PV) is $28,000. What is the schedule performance index (SPI)?

A. 0.86
B. 1.16
C. 1.07
D. 0.93

118. As you manage a project, which of the following questions would not be asked when
considering how to tailor the processes within Project Quality Management to your own
project?

A. How will quality improvement be managed on the project?

B. Is there a collaborate environment for stakeholders and suppliers?
C. Are there any specific quality standards in the industry that need to be applied?
D. Are buyers and sellers in the same location?

119. Which of the following processes involves performing the project work and implementing
approved changes?

A. Monitor and Control Project Work

B. Close Project or Phase
C. Direct and Manage Project Work
D. Perform Integrated Change Control

120. During a project to plan an event for an association of realtors, the team spends time
documenting how they will estimate and control costs. What is a tool or technique that may
be needed to perform this process?

A. Analogous Estimating
B. Cost Aggregation
C. Alternatives Analysis
D. Expert Judgment

121. Which of the following is a key output of an “Initiating” process that becomes an input to a
“Planning” process?

A. Stakeholder Register
B. Deliverables
C. Risk Register
D. Requirements

122. Which of the following quality management tools is used for data gathering and involves
collecting data for a portion of the population?

A. Benchmarking
B. Histograms
C. Control Charts
D. Statistical Sampling
123. On a project to design a new self-driving vehicle, the team spends time developing a detailed
product description that will help set boundaries for the project. What is an input to that
particular process?

A. Stakeholder Register
B. Project Scope Statement
C. Alternatives Analysis
D. Requirements Documentation

124. Which of the following is an example of work performance information?

A. Finish Dates of Schedule Activities

B. Forecasted Estimates to Complete
C. Status Reports
D. Memos

125. The “Procurement Statement of Work” is an output of which of the following processes:

A. Develop Project Management Plan

B. Conduct Procurements
C. Control Procurements
D. Plan Procurement Management

126. Which of the following is not included in the “Communications Management Plan”?

A. Approaches for updating the communications management plan

B. The reason for the communication
C. Any communication limitations
D. All other answers are possible components of the plan

127. Which of the following is not true about programs and projects?

A. Programs include a group of related projects

B. A project must be part of an overall program
C. Projects in the program are managed in a coordinated way
D. Programs have larger scope than projects

128. All of the following statements are true concerning the information in the PMBOK® Guide
except:

A. It provides for a common vocabulary

B. It applies to most projects most of the time
C. It encompasses all project management knowledge
D. It is "generally recognized" and "good practice"

129. A risk has a 50% probability of occurring. If it does occur, the impact would be low, according
to our definitions in the Risk Management Plan. If our low risk rating equates to a score of 0.2,
what is the overall rating of this risk?

A. 0.04
B. 0.10
C. 0.40
D. 0.01
130. Which of the following are tools and techniques used in the “Develop Team” process?

A. Virtual Teams, Negotiation, Pre-Assignment

B. Conflict Management, Influencing, Project Management Information System
C. Colocation, Recognition & Rewards, Training
D. Meetings, Individual & Team Assessments, Multi-Criteria Decision Analysis

131. Which of the following is not true about stakeholder management on agile projects?

A. Aggressive transparency of project information is encouraged

B. Teams go through layers of management to facilitate timely, productive discussions.
C. Stakeholders are invited to project meetings in public spaces to ensure issues surface quickly.
D. It requires active engagement and involvement with project stakeholders.

132. All of the following are true about time and materials (T&M) contracts except:

A. The scope may not be fully defined at the start of the contract.
B. The contract could be left open-ended.
C. They are useful for staff augmentation.
D. They cannot include cost or time limits.

133. Which of the following is not true about projectized organizations?

A. Project managers hold more authority than functional managers

B. Resource availability for projects is high
C. Functional managers control less of the budgets than project managers
D. Project managers have roles that are part-time

134. A project manager is preparing a communications management plan for a project that
includes constructing a new wing in a hospital that will focus on the treatment of cancer
patients. Which of the following would not be included in that document?

A. The information needs of your stakeholders

B. A list of resources that will be allocated to communication activities
C. A description of strategies that will be used to engage those impacted by the project
D. The process that the project manager or stakeholders can use to escalate concerns

135. All of the following statements are true about project phases except:

E. At the end of a phase, there is a transfer of work product

F. A project can have one or more phases
G. They are a collection of project activities that creates deliverables
H. Phases cannot overlap

136. Which of the following is an input to the “Develop Schedule” process?

A. Duration Estimates
B. Parametric Estimating
C. Schedule Data
D. Cost Baseline
137. The _____ knowledge area includes the processes that define the work required (and only the
work required) to complete the project.

A. Project Scope Management

B. Project Time Management
C. Project Integration Management
D. Project Quality Management

138. Which of the following is a tool or technique of the “Plan Communications Management”
process?

A. Project Communications
B. Communications Management Plan
C. Negotiation
D. Communication Requirements Analysis

139. Which of the following are tools and techniques used in “Sequence Activities” process?

A. Dependency Determination and Bottom-Up Estimating

B. Project Management Information System and Schedule Network Analysis
C. Precedence Diagramming Method and Leads & Lags
D. Critical Path Method and Decomposition

140. “Selected Sellers” are an output of which of the following processes?

A. Plan Procurement Management

B. Manage Stakeholder Engagement
C. Conduct Procurements
D. Control Procurements

141. During a project to migrate user data between database technologies, the project manager
spends time tracking team member performance, providing feedback, and resolving issues.
What is an output from that process?

A. Project Team Assignments

B. Change Requests
C. Team Charter
D. Enterprise Environmental Factors

142. All of the following are enterprise environmental factors except:

A. Organizational Culture
B. Industry Standards
C. Project Files from Previous Projects
D. Marketplace Conditions

143. A project manager is working with a team to automate several manufacturing steps at a tire
production plant. At this point, she needs to understand what process should be used when
the project team (or stakeholders) need to escalate concerns. Which document should be
reviewed to find this information?

A. Communications Management Plan

B. Risk Management Plan
C. Stakeholder Register
D. Stakeholder Engagement Plan
144. As you manage a project, which of the following questions would not be asked when
considering how to tailor the processes within Project Integration Management to your own
project?

A. How will historical information be made available to future projects?

B. What special resources are needed in the industry?
C. What is an appropriate project lifecycle?
D. How will change be managed on the project?

145. A project to implement enterprise resource planning software within a government agency is
underway. Currently, the team is performing the control scope process. In doing so, which of
the following activities might they complete?

A. Determining which of the documented requirements will be completed as part of the project.
B. Reviewing verified deliverables with the sponsor to determine if they have been completed
properly.
C. Splitting the work of the project to make it easier to manage and monitor.
D. Evaluating the completion of project deliverables and preventing scope creep.

146. All of the following are inputs to the “Plan Cost Management” process except:

A. Organizational Process Assets

B. Project Management Plan
C. Project Funding Requirements
D. Enterprise Environmental Factors

147. All of the following are inputs to the “Monitor Communications” process except:

A. Project Communications
B. Issue Log
C. Communication Methods
D. Work Performance Data

148. On a project to identify a solution to address a major software vulnerability, the team spends
time obtaining the manpower, materials, and equipment needed to complete the project. In
this scenario, what process is being performed?

A. Estimate Activity Resources

B. Acquire Resources
C. Control Resources
D. Plan Resource Management

149. On a given project; earned value (EV) is $250,000; actual cost (AC) is $215,000; and planned
value (PV) is $300,000. What is the schedule variance (SV)?

A. $35,000
B. $50,000
C. -$85,000
D. -$50,000
150. Using the ______, we classify stakeholders based on their level of authority and active
involvement.

A. Power/Interest Grid
B. Power/Influence Grid
C. Influence/Impact Grid
D. Salience Model
ANSWER KEY (BLANK)

1 ________ 26 ________ 51 ________ 76 ________ 101 ________ 126 ________

2 ________ 27 ________ 52 ________ 77 ________ 102 ________ 127 ________
3 ________ 28 ________ 53 ________ 78 ________ 103 ________ 128 ________
4 ________ 29 ________ 54 ________ 79 ________ 104 ________ 129 ________
5 ________ 30 ________ 55 ________ 80 ________ 105 ________ 130 ________
6 ________ 31 ________ 56 ________ 81 ________ 106 ________ 131 ________
7 ________ 32 ________ 57 ________ 82 ________ 107 ________ 132 ________
8 ________ 33 ________ 58 ________ 83 ________ 108 ________ 133 ________
9 ________ 34 ________ 59 ________ 84 ________ 109 ________ 134 ________
10 ________ 35 ________ 60 ________ 85 ________ 110 ________ 135 ________
11 ________ 36 ________ 61 ________ 86 ________ 111 ________ 136 ________
12 ________ 37 ________ 62 ________ 87 ________ 112 ________ 137 ________
13 ________ 38 ________ 63 ________ 88 ________ 113 ________ 138 ________
14 ________ 39 ________ 64 ________ 89 ________ 114 ________ 139 ________
15 ________ 40 ________ 65 ________ 90 ________ 115 ________ 140 ________
16 ________ 41 ________ 66 ________ 91 ________ 116 ________ 141 ________
17 ________ 42 ________ 67 ________ 92 ________ 117 ________ 142 ________
18 ________ 43 ________ 68 ________ 93 ________ 118 ________ 143 ________
19 ________ 44 ________ 69 ________ 94 ________ 119 ________ 144 ________
20 ________ 45 ________ 70 ________ 95 ________ 120 ________ 145 ________
21 ________ 46 ________ 71 ________ 96 ________ 121 ________ 146 ________
22 ________ 47 ________ 72 ________ 97 ________ 122 ________ 147 ________
23 ________ 48 ________ 73 ________ 98 ________ 123 ________ 148 ________
24 ________ 49 ________ 74 ________ 99 ________ 124 ________ 149 ________
25 ________ 50 ________ 75 ________ 100 ________ 125 ________ 150 ________
ANSWER KEY (COMPLETED)

1 B 26 A 51 D 76 D 101 C 126 D
2 A 27 B 52 D 77 D 102 C 127 B
3 B 28 A 53 A 78 A 103 D 128 C
4 B 29 D 54 B 79 B 104 B 129 B
5 D 30 D 55 A 80 A 105 A 130 C
6 A 31 A 56 C 81 D 106 B 131 B
7 C 32 B 57 D 82 B 107 C 132 D
8 C 33 D 58 B 83 C 108 A 133 D
9 B 34 C 59 C 84 A 109 C 134 C
10 C 35 D 60 A 85 C 110 D 135 D
11 D 36 B 61 C 86 B 111 C 136 A
12 C 37 A 62 A 87 D 112 A 137 A
13 D 38 A 63 C 88 C 113 D 138 D
14 A 39 B 64 C 89 D 114 B 139 C
15 B 40 D 65 B 90 C 115 B 140 C
16 B 41 B 66 A 91 B 116 A 141 B
17 B 42 C 67 D 92 C 117 C 142 C
18 D 43 D 68 B 93 A 118 D 143 A
19 A 44 A 69 A 94 D 119 C 144 B
20 C 45 D 70 A 95 B 120 D 145 D
21 A 46 A 71 B 96 C 121 A 146 C
22 D 47 B 72 D 97 B 122 D 147 C
23 C 48 D 73 D 98 A 123 D 148 B
24 B 49 C 74 A 99 D 124 B 149 D
25 B 50 D 75 A 100 B 125 D 150 B
CAPM Sample Questions

Rules:

1.) You have 30 minutes to solve 30 questions.

2.) Please be honest and try to solve th ese questions by yourselves.

Q1. A Project is…

a) …an ongoing endeavor to create repetitive products, services, or results.

b) …a unique service undertaken to create a temporary product or result.
c) …a unique endeavor undertaken to create a temporary product, service, or result.
d) …a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result

Q2. The Project manager is the person…

a) …assigned by the performing organization to achieve the project objectives.

b) …responsible for meeting the organization’s strategic goals.
c) …responsible for an organization’s level of profitability.
d) …responsible for an organization’s overall productivity.

Q3. Enterprise environmental factors includes all of the following except

a) Organizational culture
b) Political climate
c) Physical environment
d) Work authorization system
Q4. A Program is…

a) …a group of related projects managed in a coordinated way.

b) …a project for which earned value management is used.
c) …projects grouped together to facilitate effective management of their work to meet business
objectives.
d) …a way of effectively handling change control in a group of related projects.

Q5. The stakeholder influence is highest at which phase of the project:

a) Middle stage
b) Influence is similar at all stages
c) Final stage
d) Initial stage

Q6. You are the Project Manager for GeoThermal Systems. Which of the following must be done
FIRST before proceeding with a new project?

a) Create the Project Scope Statement

b) Stakeholder analysis
c) Product analysis
d) Obtain Project Charter approval

Q7. A PMO (Project management office)is an organizational unit to…

a) …centralize and coordinate management of projects under its domain.

b) …ensure proper payment of acquired project human resources.
c) …ensure customer satisfaction during the handover of deliverables.
d) …manage sub-project work under the domain of the project manager.
Q8. The Project life cycle…

a) …documents the costs caused by the project at certain point in time.

b) …is presales, project execution, product handover and documentation.
c) …is a technique especially for extreme programming and agile project management.
d) …is a collection of sequential or overlapping Project phases.

Q9. What is true for Stakeholders of a project?

a) All stakeholders belong to the performing organization.

b) The project team is not regarded as a key stakeholder.
c) Identifying stakeholders can be difficult but critical.
d) The sponsor of the project is not regarded as a key stakeholder.

Q10. Which of the following is NOT typical for Weak matrix organizations?

a) The project managers role is part-time.

b) The project managers authority is high.
c) Resource availability is limited.
d) The project managers authority is limited.

Q11. Projectized organizations…

a) …are those whose most resources are involved in project work.

b) …usually lack skills and competence in project management.
c) …usually have a strong hierarchically built functional organization.
d) …give usually weak authority to their project managers.
Q12. The five Project management process groups are:

a) Planning, auditing, directing, monitoring, and closing.

b) Selling, planning, staffing, executing, and documenting.
c) Initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, and closing.
d) Initiating, executing, controlling, reviewing, and closing.

Q13. What is true for Project management processes?

a) They are limited to the processes of design, development, deployment and maintenance.
b) All processes described must always be applied uniformly in all projects without tailoring.
c) The project manager is responsible for determining which processes are appropriate for the
project.
d) They are fully independent of the Product-oriented processes that may also be part of the
project.

Q14. The Process group that provides feedback to implement corrective or preventive action is:

a) Testing
b) Planning
c) Executing
d) Monitoring and Controlling

Q15. The processes of which Process group are often done external to the project‘s scope of control?

a) Planning
b) Testing
c) Initiating
d) Executing
Q16. You are working on a large project that is divided into the following phases: feasibility,
conceptual, design, prototype, and build. You want to use the process groups with these different
phases. What is the recommended approach?

a) Assign one process group to each phase

b) Eliminate your phase structure and rename each phase with one of the process group names
c) Skip a couple of the process groups since they don't apply to a large project
d) Repeat all the five process groups for each phase

Q17. Which of the following is least likely to be a project?

a) Regular updates of the company website

b) Responding to a contract solicitation
c) Running a campaign for a political office
d) An endeavor that lasts for 10 years

Q18. David was required to investigate a business problem and describe the higher-level needs of the
business as a whole. David’s final reports describes in detail the features, functions and characteristics of
the product that will meet the business and stakeholder requirements. What is wrong with David’s
report?

a) David was asked to analyze the solution requirements but he focused on the business
requirements.
b) David was asked to analyze the business requirements but he focused on the solution
requirements.
c) David was asked to analyze the functional requirements but he focused on the non-functional
requirements.
d) David was asked to analyze the non-functional requirements but he focused on the functional
requirements.
Q19. Many project managers have seen a graph that shows “Influence of Stakeholders” starting out
high and declining as the project progresses. In contrast, it also shows the “Cost of Changes” starting out
low and increasing as the project progresses. What is the key insight a project manager should gain from
this graph?

a) Stakeholder influence is not important at the end of the project.

b) Make changes as early in the project as possible.
c) Set aside money for expected changes at the end of the project.
d) Place the project on hold until all changes are made.

Q20. Which of the following is an enterprise environmental factor?

a) Configuration management knowledge base

b) Change control procedures
c) Historical information
d) Commercial databases

Q21. While the five process groups are usually completed in order, they often overlap with each
other throughout the project. Which two process groups usually do not overlap during the course of the
project?

a) Initiating and Closing

b) Initiating and Executing
c) Initiating and Monitoring and Control
d) Planning and Closing
Q22. Nancy is engaged in the construction of three office buildings. Although the construction sites
are in various places, she has managed each team efficiently to complete the work on time and within
budget. Which of the following statements describes the effort Nancy is doing?

a) Construction of each building is a project because each building is separate in nature.

b) Construction of each building is an operational work because it is repetitive in nature.
c) The building construction is considered neither a project nor operational work.
d) Construction of all three buildings is considered one project.

Q23. Which of the following components of a project scope statement is useful in reducing scope
creep?

a) Acceptance criteria
b) Deliverables
c) Scope description
d) Exclusions

Q24. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) A collection of unrelated programs can constitute a portfolio.

b) The scope of a portfolio is typically smaller than that of a program.
c) A program is a group of unrelated projects.
d) A program need not consist of projects.

Q25. Which of the following is not a PMBOK Knowledge Area?

a) Procurement management
b) Integration management
c) Execution management
d) Communications management
Q26. A project manager is managing a research project. Typically, research projects are not clearly
defined and involve a lot of uncertainty. The project has four phases in which a phase can only start
when its previous phase is complete. What project lifecycle and phase-to-phase relationship should the
project manager use for this project?

a) Predictive lifecycle with sequential phase to phase relationship

b) Iterative lifecycle with sequential phase to phase relationship
c) Predictive lifecycle with overlapping phase to phase relationship
d) Iterative lifecycle with overlapping phase to phase relationship

Q27. The transition from one phase to another within a project's lifecycle (e.g., from design to
manufacturing) is typically marked by:

a) Kill point
b) Monte Carlo
c) Constraint
d) Decision tree

Q28. Estimating the type and quantities of material, people, equipment, and supplies required to
perform each activity is:

a) Estimate Activity Workload

b) Estimate Activity Input
c) Resource calendars
d) Estimate Activity Resources

Q29. Which of the following is not a project competing constraint?

a) Cost
b) Procurement
c) Risk
d) Resource
Q30. A single point of failure (SPOF) is the part of a system that, upon failure, stops the entire
system from working or makes the system useless. Which of the following events can render a
knowledge management system ineffective?
a) If the project team is not motivated to share knowledge
b) Project team is geographically distributed.
c) When project knowledge cannot be classified as explicit or tacit.
d) Knowledge is shared using a mixture of knowledge management tools and techniques.
CAPM® Exam Prep Practice Exam One

This is an assessment exam. It covers all topics in the course.

This is part of the learning process! Keep taking this test over and
over until you reach a perfect score. As always, if you’ve
comments or questions add them to the course discussion.
1. Assumption identification and documentation should happen as early as possible
in the project. This helps the team plan more effectively. All of the following are
assumptions except for which one?
A. Planning on agreeable weather for a construction project
B. Allowing 10 percent of the time for travel delays
C. Planning on completing the project work during daylight hours only
D. A predetermined budget of $125,000
2. Stakeholder identification is a process that should start as early as possible in the
project and continue through the project closure. This activity ensures that
stakeholders are engaged and managed throughout the entire project life cycle.
When does a stakeholder exert the most influence over a project?
A. At the project’s start
B. During the project’s execution
C. During the project’s planning phase
D. During the project’s closing phase
3. You are the project manager of an industrial expansion in your city. Which one of
the following groups could be viewed as a negative stakeholder?
A. The finance department that will pay for the expansion
B. An environmental group that is opposed to expansion
C. The city council that believes the expansion may bring more jobs to the
community
D. The change control board for your project because they do not want
changes to the project scope

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CAPM® Exam Prep Practice Exam One

4. Stakeholder identification is essential to effective project managers. All of the

following are key stakeholders on every project except for which one?
A. The project manager
B. The project management team
C. Influencers
D. Government agencies
5. You are a project management consultant to the DWD Project. The team on the
project is concerned about stakeholder identification and stakeholder
management. They want to define the roles and responsibilities for stakeholder
management. Who identifies project stakeholders and determines their
requirements for the project?
A. The project champion
B. The project team
C. Influencers
D. The project sponsor
6. A project has been initiated to implement quality improvement throughout your
organization. You have been assigned the role of project manager. Which one of
the following is needed first for this quality improvement project?
A. A quality management plan
B. Quality control mechanisms
C. A project charter
D. A communications management plan
7. You are the project manager for your organization and you’re working with
management to ensure that every project in the organization has a standard
project charter. What is the primary concern of a project charter?
A. To authorize the project
B. To identify the project manager
C. To determine the project budget and schedule
D. To launch the project

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CAPM® Exam Prep Practice Exam One

8. A project charter has been written for your project which spans multiple
departments within your matrix-structured organization. Who should actually
charter this project?
A. You, the project manager
B. The functional managers of each affected department
C. An entity outside of the project but within the organization
D. The project management team
9. You are a project manager for your organization. One of the managers is refusing
to allow her employees to spend time on your project. Which one of the following is
likely to be missing from your project in this instance?
A. A project manager
B. A risk management plan
C. Project scope
D. A project charter
10. As project manager, you will be managing a politically charged and expensive
project. However, you anticipate that managers from around the company will try
to use the project team for their own aims rather than focus on the goal of the
project. Given this, who should charter the project?
A. The project manager
B. The functional manager that is perceived to have the most power
C. An entity that is at an organization level and that is appropriate for
authorizing the project’s funding
D. The primary customer affected by the project’s outcome
11. Beth is the project manager of the NQL Project for her company and she’s working
with the project management team to draft the project charter. In Beth’s charter,
she should define all except one of the following in order for the project charter to
be approved. Which one does not need to be defined?
A. The project manager and the authority level
B. Anticipated quality standards
C. Summary milestones
D. A summary budget

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CAPM® Exam Prep Practice Exam One

12. The project manager reports that the project is progressing according to scope.
Management asks to change a few requirements with the scope. Which plan
details how requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed in the
project?
A. The scope management plan
B. The change control system
C. The communications management plan
D. The requirements management plan
13. You are the project manager of a large construction project you are completing for
another organization. You and the project team have finished the requirements
gathering process and are creating the work breakdown structure for the project.
The customer informs you, however, that they need to increase the size of the
building by 10,000 square feet. They are willing to accept the fee and time
schedule change. What must happen next?
A. The project scope must be revised.
B. The project must be started over.
C. Nothing. The project manager can add the 10,000 square feet to the
WBS.
D. The change must be managed through the cost control system.
14. You are the project manager of a large construction project. You and your project
team are planning a method to control changes during the construction project,
and both of you realize that changes often happen in the field—changes that may
be different than what the blueprints in the office reflect. The goal of your planning
activity is a way to track actual changes in the field and reflect those changes in
the blueprints in the office. You want consistency between what’s actually being
constructed and what the blueprints in the office reflect. What is this process
called? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Project management planning
B. Change assessment
C. Scope validation
D. Configuration management

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CAPM® Exam Prep Practice Exam One

15. In most projects, change is inevitable. Changes must be considered for their
impact on the project as a whole, documented, and tracked throughout the entire
project. Which system would track how project deliverables are controlled,
changed, and approved?
A. The change control system
B. The project management information system
C. The change management system
D. The scope management system
16. Kevin is the project manager of the BQA Project for his organization and he’s
working with management and the project team to define the change control
system. All of the following activities should be planned as part of the change
control system except for which one?
A. Methods to identify that a change has occurred (or must occur)
B. The process for reviewing and approving requested changes
C. A method for documenting the impact of requested changes
D. A methodology to track team personnel changes
17. You and the project team are creating the change control system for your project.
Marcy, a project team member, wants to know why there is so much emphasis on
creating and documenting the change control system. Which one of the following is
the best answer to Marcy’s query?
A. A documented change control system is required by management.
B. A documented change control system is required by the project customer.
C. A documented change control system allows the project to improve
because the impact of each change must be considered before it is
approved.
D. A documented change control system allows the project’s profitability to
improve because each change may affect the profit and loss of the
project.
18. You are the project manager of the Absolute Quality Company. You are working
with your project team to determine the best approach for identifying and analyzing
project risks. Which of the following is not a risk diagramming technique?
A. Influence diagrams
B. A network diagram
C. A process flowchart
D. Cause-and-effect diagrams

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CAPM® Exam Prep Practice Exam One

19. Risks should be identified as early as possible in the project and then analyzed
and tracked for their outcomes and in-depth planning. The risk register contains all
but one of the following. Which doesn’t it include?
A. Qualitative risk analysis
B. Root causes of risks
C. Updated risk categories
D. A list of potential responses
20. You are the project manager of the GGJ Project and you’re working with your
project team to create the project’s risk management plan. Which one of the
following items is NOT part of the risk management plan?
A. Budgeting
B. Risk categories
C. The risk register
D. Methodology
21. As the project manager of a new project, the sponsor thinks that there may be
unidentified risks in the project. Which of the following items is not an input to the
risk identification process?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Pareto charts
C. The project scope statement
D. The risk management plan
22. Barry is working with his project team and key stakeholders to identify project risks.
Which of the following items is a tool or technique for risk identification?
A. Control charts
B. Defect repair review
C. Strength, Weakness, Opportunities, and Threats (SWOT) analysis
D. A product analysis

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23. You are the project manager of the new server project for your company. This
project will replace 128 network servers on your company’s network. Your project
sponsor has requested that you keep her informed of the outcomes of the
quantitative risk analysis process. Which of the following is a common quantitative
risk analysis technique?
A. Risk categorization
B. Expected monetary value analysis
C. A probability-impact matrix
D. A risk register
24. Which quantitative analysis diagramming technique can help the project manager
make the best decision by evaluating a situation and the implication of each
variable?
A. Alternatives identification
B. The precedence diagramming method
C. The arrow diagramming method
D. A decision tree
25. Which risk diagramming technique can help predict project cost based on
probability and cost of risk?
A. Cost simulation
B. The Pareto chart
C. An Ishikawa diagram
D. A decision tree
26. You and your project team have just created the proposed project plan, but your
functional manager disagrees with you on many areas of it. Because you are
operating in a functional environment, you’d like some compromise with your
functional manager. Which individual has the power in a functional organization?
A. The project manager
B. The customer
C. The functional manager
D. The program manager

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CAPM® Exam Prep Practice Exam One

27. Your project plan may not be approved due to the amount of working capital your
project would require to move into execution. Working capital is defined as which
one of the following?
A. Funds that have been invested into a project that is failing to meet
performance objectives
B. Funds available to invest in a new project
C. Funds the project will generate before the project is even completed
D. The amount of funds the monies would have earned if they were invested
in a savings account rather than in a project
28. You and your project team have just created the proposed project plan, but a
functional manager disagrees with you on many areas of it. Because you are
operating in a strong matrix environment, you’d like some compromise with your
functional manager. Which individual has more power in a strong matrix
organization?
A. The project manager
B. The customer
C. The functional manager
D. The program manager
29. Alice is the project manager of the LAB Project for her company. She’s working
with her project team to create the project management plan. Which of the
following statements about the project plan is true?
A. A project plan is not needed for all projects.
B. A project plan cannot be changed during the project implementation.
C. Management must approve the project plan.
D. Customers have the final say regarding the project plan’s approval.

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30. Why should the project manager and the project team invite the stakeholders to
participate in the project planning sessions?
A. Actually, the project stakeholders should not be involved in the project
planning because their presence may stifle creativity among the project
team members.
B. The project stakeholders are usually the individuals that are paying for the
project work, so they should be involved in the planning sessions.
C. The project stakeholders must be present to monitor the planning
sessions in case the project team moves away from their requirements.
This way they can correct the discussion and keep the planning on track
for their deliverables.
D. The stakeholders have skills and knowledge that can be leveraged in
developing the project plan.
31. Your project is just beginning and you have invited all of the key stakeholders, the
project team, and members of management to participate in an initial meeting.
What is this type of meeting called?
A. A requirements gathering meeting
B. A risk identification meeting
C. A kick-off meeting
D. A team development meeting
32. You are the project manager for your company and you’ve recently been assigned
to a new high-profile project. When should the project kick-off meeting happen?
A. When the project manager has the project team assembled for the first
time
B. When the project manager has approved the project plan
C. When management has approved the initial project plan
D. At the start of scope validation
33. You are the project manager for your company and you’re managing a new
project. You want to schedule a kick-off meeting but your project sponsor doesn’t
want to do this. Why should you host a kick-off meeting?
A. It allows all the stakeholders to meet.
B. It allows the project to begin.
C. It ensures that all of the participants understand the project’s purpose.
D. It builds morale for all of the stakeholders.

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34. Beth wants to host a project kick-off meeting for her new project. Which of the
following is false about the project kick-off meeting?
A. It allows all the stakeholders to meet one another.
B. Only the project team should attend.
C. It ensures that all of the participants understand the project’s purpose.
D. It builds morale for all of the stakeholders.
35. A project manager has added time between two activities. This is an example of
which one of the following?
A. Lag
B. Lead
C. Crashing
D. Fast tracking
36. You are working with a vendor that is completing some of the project activities.
Some of the vendor’s activities are on the critical path. Which one of the following
statements about the critical path is true?
A. The critical path is the path with the most activities.
B. The critical path is the path with zero float.
C. The critical path is the path with the least lag.
D. The critical path is the path with critical activities.
37. You are a project manager for your organization and are working on assigning
project team members to activities. You must complete an activity by a
predetermined date. Currently, with four project team members assigned to the
activity, the work will take 40 hours. You know that by adding eight project team
members to the work, the task won’t necessarily be reduced to 20 hours. This is
because of which one of the following?
A. Herzberg’s Theory of Motivation
B. The law of diminishing returns
C. Parkinson’s Law
D. Theory Z

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38. You are the project manager of a two-year project for your company. You’re
working with the project team to identify the constraints and assumptions of the
project. Your project sponsor comes to the analysis meeting and wants to know
when the largest percentage of the project budget will be spent. What should you
tell the project sponsor?
A. During the initiation processes
B. During the planning processes
C. During the execution processes
D. During the control processes
39. You are the project manager of an interior decorating project. Currently, the project
plan calls for the painter to prime the walls for painting, wait four hours for the walls
to cure, and then begin the painting process. However, due to humidity, the walls
are taking four hours longer to cure than planned. The painting activities are on the
critical path. Which one of the following is an acceptable solution for this problem
that won’t change the project end date?
A. Add lead time to the painting activity.
B. Add lag time to the painting activity.
C. Change the relation of other activities so the primer can cure faster.
D. Examine the network diagram to determine if the relationships between
activities can be changed. If so, move the painting activities to later in the
project.
40. You are the project manager of a building restoration project. You have elected to
add more workers to an activity on the critical path so the project can finish on
time. This is an example of which one of the following?
A. Risk management
B. Time management
C. Crashing
D. Fast tracking

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41. You are the project manager of a project to create a training manual. The project is
running late. You elect to change the relationship of several activities from finish-
to-start to start-to-start so the project may complete on schedule. This is an
example of which one of the following?
A. Crashing
B. Fast tracking
C. Rolling wave planning
D. Expert judgment
42. Ned is the project manager of the NQA Project and he’s using earned value
management to show project performance. He learns, however, that his project
has an SPI of .80. A project with an SPI of .80 means what?
A. The project is behind schedule.
B. The project is ahead of schedule.
C. The project is losing money.
D. The project is 80 percent complete.
43. A project is moving toward completion. Janet, an engineer on the project, has
identified a risk that can cause the project to stop if the pressure in a valve goes
below 80 percent. The 80 percent pressure is known as what?
A. Risk
B. The management horizon
C. Risk impact
D. The threshold
44. The first phase of a project has been completed. The project manager reports the
results of the project to management and they elect to stop the project. The end of
the first phase of completion is also known as which one of the following?
A. The kill point
B. Progressive elaboration
C. Rolling wave planning
D. Project scheduling

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45. Which of the following can best be used to determine the true progress of a
project?
A. Variance reports
B. Baselines
C. Change requests approved versus declined
D. Interviews with the project team
46. A performance report leads to a change request. Which one of the following is the
most likely reason why a performance report can lead to a change request?
A. The project is not performing well, so a change request is made to cancel
the project.
B. The project is not performing well, so a change request is submitted to the
project manager.
C. The project is not performing well, so a change request is made to remove
the project manager and replace him with a more experienced project
manager.
D. The project is performing well, so additional requirements are added to the
project scope.
47. Management wants to know how long the project work will take. The project
manager uses a similar project to predict the duration of the current project work.
The project manager is using which form of estimating?
A. Parametric
B. Analogous
C. Bottom-up
D. Expert judgment

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CAPM® Exam Prep Practice Exam One

48. Quality assurance is needed in every project based on your organizational process
assets and enterprise environmental factors. Which of the following statements
best defines quality assurance?
A. Work results are monitored to see if they meet relevant quality standards.
If the results do not meet the quality standards, the project manager
applies root cause analysis to determine the cause of the poor
performance and then eliminates the cause.
B. The overall performance is evaluated to ensure the project meets the
relevant quality standards.
C. The project performance is measured and evaluated, and corrective
actions are applied to improve the product and the project.
D. It is an international standard that helps organizations follow their own
quality procedures.
49. You are preparing for quality assurance with your quality department and the
project team. Which of the following tools cannot be used with quality assurance?
A. Herzberg’s Theory of Motivation
B. Benefit cost analysis
C. Flowcharting
D. Design of experiments
50. Your project is running late and you need to make a decision about whether you
should purchase a piece of software or have your project team build the software.
Thus, you need to complete a make-or-buy analysis for a procurement decision. In
which process is the make-or-buy analysis used?
A. Contract closeout
B. Source selection
C. Purchase planning
D. Initiating
51. Management has demanded a change to your project scope but this change has a
risk that management is not willing to accept. They recommend you buy errors and
omissions insurance. This is an example of which one of the following?
A. Mitigation
B. Transference
C. Avoidance
D. Countermeasure

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CAPM® Exam Prep Practice Exam One

52. You are a project manager for your organization. You have procured four staff
members from a vendor to help with the project work. Two of these staff members
are no longer needed on the project. Which document will determine how the
procured project team members may be excused from the project?
A. The contract between your organization and the vendor
B. The staffing management plan
C. The scope management plan
D. The schedule management plan
53. You are hosting a bidders’ conference. Which one of the following is the best
approach in managing the session?
A. Require all vendors to present their pricing information during the session.
B. Allow vendors time to ask questions to clarify the project requirements.
C. Allow vendors time to negotiate the pricing.
D. Allow the contract manager to negotiate with the bidders.
54. You are the project manager of a construction project. You have procured an
electrician to complete the wiring for the project. The electrician reports that he is
finished with the services you have hired him to complete. Which one of the
following must you do next in regard to the electrician?
A. Complete the invoice
B. Pay the invoice
C. Inspect the work results
D. Sign off on the work
55. The project manager will sign off on the work once it has been inspected and
deemed acceptable. The project has been completed and management wants to
know exactly how much money has been spent with each vendor on the project.
Which of the following is most likely to happen in this situation?
A. An audit of the project plan
B. An audit of the quality of the project
C. An audit of the procurement documents
D. An audit of the project team members’ work

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56. You are the project manager for your organization and you’re starting the project
process of conducting project procurements. Which of the following is an example
of a screening system?
A. An organization breakdown structure
B. An independent estimate
C. A requirement for the seller to have a CAPM® on staff
D. A weighted model
57. You are a project manager for your organization, but one of the managers is
refusing to allow her employees to spend time on your project. Which one of the
following is likely to be missing from your project in this instance?
A. The project manager
B. The risk management plan
C. The project scope
D. The project charter
58. You are a project manager in a weak matrix. You have recently completed the
project schedule. You must now get the project schedule approved so that the
resources can be officially assigned to their project work. Which one of the
following stakeholders will need to approve the project schedule?
A. Functional managers
B. The project champion
C. Project team members
D. No one. The project manager has autonomy on the project in this
structure.
59. Management says that your project is taking too long to complete. Which one of
the following is the best solution to this problem?
A. Add lead time
B. Add lag time
C. Add qualified resources to the critical path
D. Fast track the project

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60. You are a project manager for your organization. You are currently determining the
physical resources, the amount of resources needed, and when the resources will
be needed in the project schedule. This is called which one of the following?
A. Resource selecting
B. Source selection
C. Resource planning
D. Resource process selection
61. David is a project manager for his company and he’s reviewing the defined change
control processes as part of his company’s enterprise environmental factors. In his
review, he sees that changes to the project’s product are controlled by a particular
system. Which of the following systems will control changes to the project’s
product?
A. The scope configuration system
B. The change configuration system
C. The product scope
D. The configuration management system
62. You are the project manager for your organization. Marcy, the sponsor of the
project, has asked that you use a different grade of materials for your project. She
believes the current materials used are of lesser quality than the materials she
proposes. The customer demands the highest quality on the project deliverable.
This change in materials will cause the project costs to increase by 20 percent.
Which one of the following best describes the cost of the materials?
A. Gold plating
B. Cost of quality
C. The project management cost
D. Discretionary costs
63. You are a project manager for a manufacturing company. There are several OSHA
guidelines that must be met on your project. These OSHA guidelines ensure the
safety of the project team members. Which of the following is the most appropriate
reference to these guidelines?
A. Constraints
B. Assumptions
C. Standards
D. Regulations

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CAPM® Exam Prep Practice Exam One

64. Finish this statement: _______________ is planned into a project, not inspected
in.
A. Quality
B. Safety
C. Control
D. Teamwork
65. Dean’s company uses ISO 9000 as part its manufacturing environment. Dean has
been asked to incorporate an ISO 9000 approach to his projects. What is ISO
9000?
A. A quality management system
B. A quality control system
C. A management approach to implement quality on customer projects
D. A method of following procedures created internally to an organization
66. You are the project manager of the Call Center Improvement Project. The project
calls for training all 320 call center representatives on the new software your
project team will be installing. Part of the project also involves an improvement in
the customer service support of the call center agents. You and the call center
manager have set operational definitions for the call center. Which one of the
following is an operational definition?
A. All customer service reps will complete the required training.
B. All customer service reps will complete the required training within 30
days.
C. A live operator will answer all inbound telephone calls within one minute.
D. All customer service reps will answer the telephone calls with their name
and a standard greeting.
67. The project manager and a quality engineer have completed a six-month analysis
of production in a manufacturer’s environment. The quality engineer now wants to
plot out the results to identify trends. Which one of the following is the chart or
diagram that will best satisfy the request?
A. A Pareto chart
B. An Ishikawa diagram
C. A control chart
D. A flowchart

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68. Quality must first be defined before it can be achieved. There is a cost factor to the
achievement of quality and a cost factor for poor quality. Which of the following is
NOT an example of the cost of poor quality?
A. Rework
B. Corrective actions
C. Safety measures
D. A loss of customers
69. As a project manager and a CAPM® candidate, you should be able to discern
quality assurance and quality control. Which of the following statements about
quality control is true?
A. Quality control is the process of the project customer accepting the project
deliverables.
B. Quality control is the process of ensuring the project deliverables are in
alignment with the project scope.
C. Quality control is the process of obtaining customer acceptance of the
work.
D. Quality control is concerned with the correctness of the work.
70. Monitoring and controlling the project is the process of ensuring the project plans
are executed accurately. The quality management plan must be understood in
order to track its effectiveness in the project. Which one of the following do the
quality management plans not dictate?
A. Quality control
B. Quality assurance
C. Quality improvement
D. Six Sigma programs
71. What is the difference between quality control and scope validation?
A. Quality control is done by the customer after the project has been
completed.
B. Scope validation is done by the project team to ensure that the project has
been completed according to the project scope.
C. Both are inspection-driven, but the project manager facilitates quality
control while the project team does scope validation.
D. Both are inspection-driven, but the project manager facilitates quality
control without the customer, and then scope validation with the customer.

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CAPM® Exam Prep Practice Exam One

72. You are the project manager of the Sales Automation Project. Jennifer, a project
team member, has learned that the vendor you are purchasing a phone system
from as part of this project will likely be two months late on half of the order. Which
subsidiary plan should be updated?
A. The risk management plan
B. The risk response plan
C. The procurement management plan
D. The scope management plan
73. Risks are identified, monitored, tracked, and responded to. One element which
must also be identified is a risk trigger. What is a risk trigger?
A. A risk trigger is a risk that causes a secondary risk.
B. A risk trigger is a risk that causes a residual risk.
C. A risk trigger is a plan to respond to risk events.
D. A risk trigger is a sign or symptom that risks have occurred or are about to
occur.
74. You are the project manager for a construction project. One of the identified risks
within the project has a 20 percent chance of happening. If the risk occurs, it will
cost your project an additional $150,000. Given this, what is the contingency
amount you’ll need for this risk event?
A. $150,000
B. $30,000
C. $75,000
D. Zero. The risk is not real until it occurs.
75. You are the project manager for a large project that spans several of your
organization’s sites. There are many risks identified throughout the project in each
of the sites of the project. Which one of the following is the most effective method
of dealing with the project risks?
A. Create risk owners for each of the project risks.
B. Buy insurance for each of the identified risks.
C. The project manager will need to travel to each of the sites as the risk
event is coming into the project schedule.
D. The project manager will need to schedule the risk events so that no risk
events overlap at any one time.

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CAPM® Exam Prep Practice Exam One

76. You are the project manager of a large construction project. There are several
pieces of work within the project that you have procured to a vendor. The smaller
contracted work is completed through a time and materials contract. What
stipulation must exist within the contract in order to prevent inherent risks in the
project?
A. A deadline
B. It should not exceed specifications
C. The costs per hour
D. The total costs for the procured work
77. You are the project manager of a project to install new wireless devices at more
than 900 retail stores throughout North America. One of the identified risks in the
project is that some of the stores may receive interference from other outlets in the
shopping area. Mary, an installer of the wireless devices, has identified a store she
is working on that is receiving interference from other signals in the area. The risk
response you have planned is to install a slightly higher-cost radio device. This risk
response that Mary should now implement is which one of the following?
A. A countermeasure
B. A mitigation
C. A transference
D. A contingency plan
78. Not all risk responses are managed internally because some risks can be solved
through purchases and outsourcing. For example, errors and omission insurance
is an example of which risk response?
A. Trigger
B. Threshold
C. Transference
D. Countermeasure
79. You are the project manager of the GHY Project for your company. This project is
scheduled to last two years and has a budget of $1,250,000. You have identified a
new risk in your project. What must be updated?
A. The risk response plan
B. The work breakdown structure
C. The risk register
D. The scope statement

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CAPM® Exam Prep Practice Exam One

80. As a CAPM®, you should be familiar with the project management processes and
their components. Which one of the following is NOT an input to risk control?
A. The project management plan
B. The work breakdown structure
C. The risk register
D. Work performance data
81. Your project is moving toward closure and several risks that have been identified
did not come into fruition. What should be updated?
A. The historical records
B. The work breakdown structure
C. The risk register
D. The risk response plan
82. Controlling project risks is an ongoing activity to ensure that the risk status has not
changed and to react properly and quickly should it change. Which of the following
is NOT a valid reason for risk control?
A. To determine if project assumptions are still valid
B. To identify trends within risk identification
C. To determine if the contingency reserve is adequate
D. To determine if vendor contracts are valid
83. You and your project team have just completed the Warehouse Construction
Project. For the project to be officially complete, what must happen next?
A. Quality inspections
B. You must sign off on the project mechanisms
C. Scope validation
D. Contract closeout
84. Scope validation must be documented and communicated with the project team
and project stakeholders to ensure the timing and scheduling of the event. When
does scope validation happen?
A. Only at the end of the project
B. At the end of each project phase
C. With each deliverable
D. As the customer sees fit

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CAPM® Exam Prep Practice Exam One

85. You are the project manager of the GDS project. The project is in month seven
and is scheduled to last 15 months. Management has decided to cancel the project
altogether due to circumstances outside of your control and does not hold you
responsible for the project cancellation. Which of the following statements best
describes scope validation in this case?
A. Scope validation should be measured against the deliverables that were
created up to the point of the project’s cancellation.
B. Scope validation should be deemed successful because management
canceled the project due to circumstances outside of your control.
C. Scope validation is not needed because the scope was never fulfilled.
D. Scope validation is not needed unless the project is more than 50 percent
complete.
86. Which one of the following is NOT a component of administrative closure?
A. Activities needed to satisfy project completion
B. Rework
C. Operational transfer of the project’s product
D. Lessons learned
87. You are the project manager of the NHX Project. The project has several vendors.
Vendor ABC has completed their work according to the terms of the contract. What
should happen next?
A. Whatever the terms of the contract call for
B. Scope validation
C. Project closure
D. Lessons learned
88. You and the vendor are in a dispute about the work within the project. The vendor
is demanding payment for work they completed. You disagree with their demands.
What is the likely outcome of this scenario?
A. Unresolved claims may be subject to litigation
B. Scope validation
C. Project closure
D. Procurement audits

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CAPM® Exam Prep Practice Exam One

89. You are the project manager of a customer relationship management program that
will involve people from all parts of your organization. Your project team will
include representatives of people from all parts of the company. Functional
managers need to know when their workers will be released from your project.
Which one of the following is the subsidiary project plan that documents this
information?
A. The human resources management plan
B. The staffing management plan
C. The WBS
D. The cost control plan
90. Marcy is no longer needed on your project. You are the project manager in a
projectized organization operating under a PMO. How can Marcy be released from
the project team?
A. Marcy cannot be released. A projectized team is on the project full-time
through project completion.
B. Marcy cannot be released. A PMO requires that project team members
stay on the project until the project is completed.
C. The project manager may elect to remove Marcy.
D. The project manager should meet with the PMO to remove Marcy from the
project team.
91. Elizabeth is a project team member and she doesn’t want to complete the lessons
learned documentation on this project. Elizabeth doesn’t see the value in the
documentation or the process. What is the point of the lessons learned
documentation?
A. It keeps the project manager focused on the project work.
B. It maintains communication with management.
C. It ensures that all of the project work is complete.
D. It allows other project managers to learn from this project.
92. Which process includes the documentation of the project’s success or failure?
A. Configuration management
B. Administrative closure
C. Quality control
D. Scope validation

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93. All projects should include a final project report that’s archived as part of the
project’s organizational process assets. Why should the final project report be
archived? (Choose the best answer.)
A. In case the customer has a change to the project scope
B. In case the project’s finances are ever called into question
C. In case the organization needs to update the project’s product
D. In case future project teams need the project’s information to help them
complete their project
94. Which of the following is NOT a source of conflict within a project?
A. Project priorities
B. Schedule
C. Personality conflicts
D. Quality
95. Which of the following is not an example of contributing to the project management
knowledge base?
A. Giving a lecture on project risk management
B. Writing articles on project management topics
C. Referring a friend to the PMI web site for information on obtaining the
CAPM® title
D. Publishing a book on project management methodologies
96. You have written a book on project management that’s for sale in bookstores and
web sites. This is an example of which one of the following?
A. A conflict of interest if you are a CAPM®
B. A breach of the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct
C. An example of contributing to the project management knowledge base
D. An example of providing the public with information on the CAPM® career
and certification
97. You have created a newsletter for your company that provides monthly information
on CAPM® certification, project management methodologies, and how your
company is implementing project management. This is an example of which one of
the following?

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CAPM® Exam Prep Practice Exam One

A. Ensuring integrity
B. Contributing to the knowledge base
C. Applying professional knowledge
D. Balancing stakeholder interests
98. You are teaching a project management class for your project team members. This
class is an example of which one of the following in regard to professional
responsibility?
A. Informing others about project management principles
B. Helping the profession grow into a respectable career track
C. A conflict of interest with applying professional knowledge
D. A contribution to the project management knowledge base
99. You are taking a project management class to help you better prepare to be a
project manager. This class is an example of which one of the following in regard
to professional responsibility?
A. Informing others about project management principles
B. Helping the profession grow into a respectable career track
C. A conflict of interest with applying professional knowledge
D. Enhancing individual competence
100. You are a new project manager for your organization. Your company does not
have the resources to send you to a project management training class at this
time. Which one of the following is not a method you could use to enhance your
individual competence until you can complete formal training?
A. Do nothing. You cannot enhance your competence without formal training.
B. Read historical information from past projects.
C. Emulate successful project managers.
D. Serve as an assistant to another project manager.

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CAPM® Exam Prep Practice Exam One

Exam 1 Answer Key

1. D. A predetermined project budget is a cost constraint. A, B, and C are incorrect
because each is an assumption.
2. A. Stakeholders have the most influence on a project’s success at the start of the
project. B, C, and D are incorrect because all are false statements.
3. B. Because the environmental group is opposed to your project, they are viewed as
a negative stakeholder. A is incorrect. The finance department is a stakeholder, but
they are likely positive since they are part of your organization. C is incorrect. The
city council is a positive stakeholder because they are in favor of your project. D is
also incorrect. The change control board is also a stakeholder, but they will likely be
positive given they’re part of your organization.
4. D. Because government agencies are not key stakeholders on every project. A is
incorrect because the project manager is a key stakeholder on every project. B is
incorrect because the project management team is a key stakeholder on every
project. C is also incorrect because influencers are key stakeholders on every
project.
5. B. The project team is responsible for identifying stakeholders and determining the
requirements for the project. A, C, and D are incorrect because these are all false
statements.
6. C. All projects, regardless of their intent, first need a project charter. A is incorrect.
While a quality management plan will likely be needed, a project charter comes first.
B is incorrect because a project charter is needed before quality controls. D is also
incorrect because a communications management plan will likely be needed, but
only after the project charter has been issued.
7. A. All projects, regardless of their intent, first need a project charter. The charter
authorizes the project. B is incorrect because the primary concern of the charter is
not to identify the project manager. C is incorrect because the project charter does
not determine the project schedule and budget. D is also incorrect. While one could
argue that a charter launches the project, they’d be wrong. The question asks for the
primary concern of the charter, which is to authorize the project.
8. C. All projects should be chartered and authorized external to the project and with
the power to execute decisions for resources and time. A is incorrect. The project
manager needs authority from a higher entity within the organization. B is incorrect.
There should be one entity that charters the project. This scenario will likely cause
power struggles for the project resources and deliverables. D is also incorrect
because the project management team does not authorize the project.
9. D. The functional manager is likely not allowing her employees to work on the
project because there is no charter requiring the manager to do so. A is incorrect
because you are the project manager. B is incorrect because the risk management
plan is not applicable to this scenario. C is also incorrect. The project scope may be
missing, but it is not as important as the project charter, which authorizes the project.

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CAPM® Exam Prep Practice Exam One

10. C. The project should be charted by an entity outside of the project organization that
can authorize the project funding. A is incorrect because you are already the project
manager. B is incorrect because the functional manager may not have the authority
to authorize resources and funds for the project. D is also incorrect. The primary
customer isn’t always the project sponsor. In addition, the question does not allude
to which customer is affected by the project the most, so one must consider that the
customer could be outside of the organization altogether.
11. B. Anticipated quality standards are not part of the project charter requirements. The
project charter should define the project purpose, project objectives, high-level
requirements, assumptions and constraints for the project, risks, project boundaries,
milestones, budget, stakeholder list, approval requirements, project manager, and
the project sponsor. A is incorrect. The project manager and level of authority is one
of the project charter requirements. C is incorrect because summary milestones is
one of the project charter requirements. D is also incorrect because a summary
budget is one of the project charter requirements.
12. D. The requirements management plan defines everything when it comes to
identifying, documenting, and controlling project requirements. A is incorrect
because the scope management plan defines just the details of the project scope
and how it is defined and controlled. B is incorrect because the change control
system is the process for all of change management. C is also incorrect because the
communications management plan does not detail how changes to the scope will be
documented.
13. A. Revisions are a special type of project schedule change, and cause the project
start date and, more likely, the project end date to be changed. Revisions typically
stem from project scope changes. B is incorrect. The project has really just started
because the WBS hasn’t even been created yet. Thus, it isn’t necessary to scrap the
project and start over at this point. C is incorrect. The project manager cannot simply
add the additional requests into the WBS. They must be added to the project scope,
documented, planned for, and then migrated into the WBS. D is also incorrect. A
cost control system may not be created at this point. In addition, the project is being
completed for another entity and they demand the change.
14. D. This is an example of configuration management, which seeks consistency in
tracking and monitoring approved changes in a project. A is incorrect. Though this is
part of project planning, it does not fully answer the question. B is incorrect. This is
not a valid choice for this question because no changes have been proposed yet;
the project team is simply planning on how configuration management should work
within their project. C is incorrect. Scope validation happens with the customer and
seeks acceptance of the project work.
15. A. The change control system seeks to control how deliverables are controlled,
changed, and approved. B is incorrect because this is not a valid answer for this
question. C is incorrect because this, too, is not a valid answer for this question. D is
also incorrect because this is not a valid answer for this question as well.

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CAPM® Exam Prep Practice Exam One

16. D. Changes to the team personnel are not part of the change control system. A, B,
and C are incorrect. Neither of them is a valid answer for the question because each
is part of the change control system.
17. C. A change control system requires that each change request be evaluated and its
impact on the project considered before approving the change request. A is
incorrect. While this is likely true in many organizations, it is not the best answer for
this question. B is also incorrect. The project customer may not know or realize that
a change control system exists. In addition, this is not the best answer for Marcy’s
question. D is incorrect as well. This is not a valid answer for this question because
not every project has a profit and loss statement (consider micro projects and not-
for-profit endeavors).
18. B. A network diagram does not help identify risks but is instead a tool used in
activity sequencing to identify precedents and dependencies. A is incorrect because
influence diagrams are graphical representations showing causal influences and can
help identify risks. C is incorrect because process flowcharts show how elements of
a system interrelate and can help identify risks. D is incorrect as well. Cause-and-
effect diagrams are also known as Ishikawa or fishbone diagrams and can help
identify risks.
19. A. Qualitative risk analysis is not contained in the risk register. B is incorrect
because root causes of risks describe the fundamental conditions or events that give
rise to the risk, and are included in the risk register. C is incorrect because the
process of identifying risk can lead to new categories of risk and these are included
in the risk register. D is also incorrect. Potential responses may be identified during
the risk identification process and are included in the risk register.
20. C. The risk register is not part of the risk management plan but rather the output of
the risk identification process. A is incorrect because it assigns resources and cost
estimates for risk management activities and is therefore part of the risk
management plan. B is incorrect because risk categories provide a structure that
ensures a comprehensive process to identify risks to a consistent level of detail and
is, therefore, part of the risk management plan. D is incorrect because a
methodology defines the approach, tools, and data sources that will be used to
perform risk management and is thus part of the risk management plan.
21. B. While Pareto charts are useful for quality control, they are not specific inputs to
the risk identification process. A is incorrect. Organizational process assets are an
input to risk identification because information on prior projects may be available,
including actual data and lessons learned. C is incorrect. The project scope
statement is an input to risk identification because any uncertainty in project
assumptions should be evaluated as a potential cause of risk. D is incorrect. The risk
management plan is a key input to risk identification, including roles and
responsibilities, provisions for risk management activities in the budget and
schedule, and categories of risk.
22. C. This technique ensures examination of the project from each of the SWOT
perspectives to increase the breadth of considered risks. It is therefore an effective
risk identification technique. A is incorrect. The purpose of control charts is to
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CAPM® Exam Prep Practice Exam One

determine whether or not a process is stable, or has predictable performance. Thus,

it is not a risk identification technique. B is incorrect. Defect repair review is an action
taken by the quality control department to ensure defects are repaired. It is therefore
not a risk identification technique. D is also incorrect. Product analysis uses
techniques like product breakdown to help define the scope of a project rather than
identify risks.
23. B. Expected monetary value analysis is a statistical concept that calculates the
average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen.
Therefore, it is a quantitative analysis technique. A is incorrect. Risk categorization
determines areas of the project most exposed to the effects of uncertainty, but it is
not a quantitative analysis technique. C is incorrect because this matrix prioritizes
risks for further quantitative analysis. D is incorrect because the risk register is an
output of the risk identification process and is not a quantitative analysis technique.
24. D. This is a decision tree diagram that describes a situation and the implications of
each of the available choices with the costs and rewards of each choice. A is
incorrect. Alternatives identification is a technique used to generate different
approaches to perform the work of the project rather than a quantitative risk analysis
technique. B is incorrect. The precedence diagramming method is a way to construct
the project schedule and thus is not a quantitative risk analysis technique. C is
incorrect. The arrow diagramming method is a way to construct the project schedule
network diagram and is therefore not a quantitative risk analysis technique.
25. A. Through numerous iterations, this chart describes the cumulative distribution of
results from a cost simulation. B is incorrect because a Pareto chart is a quality
control technique. C is incorrect because an Ishikawa diagram is used for root cause
analysis rather than quantitative risk analysis. D is also incorrect because a decision
tree diagram is a quantitative risk analysis technique, but this is not what is shown in
the diagram.
26. C. The functional manager has the power in a functional organization. A is incorrect.
The project manager has limited power in a functional organization and may even be
known as a project coordinator or team leader. B is incorrect. Although the customer
sets the project requirements, they have little project management authority. D is
incorrect because a program manager won’t likely exist in a functional organization.
27. B. Working capital is the money an organization has to run the business and invest
in new opportunities—which includes projects. A is incorrect. This explanation
describes sunk costs. C is incorrect. This explanation describes the return on
investment for the project. D is incorrect. This explanation describes the time value
of money.
28. A. The project manager has the power in a strong matrix organization. B is incorrect.
Although the customer sets the project requirements, they have little project
management authority. C is incorrect because the functional manager has limited
power in a strong matrix organization. D is incorrect because a program manager
may not even exist in a strong matrix organization.

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CAPM® Exam Prep Practice Exam One

29. C. Management must approve all project plans. A is incorrect. All projects need a
project plan. B is incorrect. Project plans can, and often are, changed during project
implementation. D is incorrect. Customers have input, but not the final say on a
project plan’s approval.
30. D. Stakeholders have skills and knowledge that can be leveraged in developing the
project plan. A is incorrect because this isn’t true. B is incorrect. While this statement
may be true in many instances, it is not the best reason to involve stakeholders in
the project planning sessions. C is also incorrect. This is not true because the goal
of involving stakeholders is to use their knowledge about the deliverable they want,
not to direct the project team in their discussion on how to best create the
deliverables.
31. C. A project kick-off meeting gets the project moving and identifies the individuals
involved in the project. A is incorrect. This is not the requirements gathering meeting,
though project requirements may be touched on. B is incorrect because this is not a
meeting for risk identification. D is also incorrect because this is not a team
development meeting.
32. C. The project kick-off meeting happens after the initial project plan has been
approved. A is incorrect because this does not answer the question as well as C. B
is incorrect because the project manager does not necessarily approve the project
plan—management does. D is incorrect because this is not a valid statement
because scope validation is an inspection-drive process that aims for the project
customer to accept the project work.
33. C. The project kick-off meeting happens so that the participants can all understand
the project’s purpose. A is incorrect because while this may be a true statement for
many projects, it is not the primary purpose of the project’s kick-off meeting. B is
incorrect because the project charter is technically what launches the project, not the
kick-off meeting. D is incorrect because this is not the primary purpose of the
project’s kick-off meeting.
34. B. All of the key stakeholders should attend the project kick-off meeting, not just the
project team. A is incorrect because this is true of the project kick-off meeting. C is
incorrect because this is true of the project kick-off meeting. D is incorrect because
this is true of the project kick-off meeting.
35. A. Lag time is waiting time. When a project manager adds times between activities,
he is adding lag. B is incorrect. Lead is subtracting time between activities. C is
incorrect because crashing adds resources to activities so they can finish faster. D is
incorrect because fast tracking changes the relationship between activities so they
can finish faster.
36. B. The critical path is the path with zero float. A is incorrect. A path can have many
activities and not be the critical path. C is also incorrect. While lag can increase a
project’s duration, a path with the least lag does not make it the critical path. D is
incorrect because this is not a valid answer.
37. B. The law of diminishing returns affects the yield of work in relation to work
duration. A is incorrect because Herzberg’s Theory of Motivation deals with hygiene

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CAPM® Exam Prep Practice Exam One

agents and motivating agents. C is incorrect because Parkinson’s Law states that
work will expand to fulfill the time allotted to it. D is also incorrect because Ouchi’s
Theory Z believes in cooperative management.
38. C. The largest percentage of the project budget will be spent during the project
execution processes. A is incorrect. The initiation processes do not require the bulk
of the project budget. B is incorrect because the planning processes do not require
the bulk of the project budget. D is also incorrect because the control processes do
not require the bulk of the project budget.
39. D. Because the critical path cannot be expanded, the only logical choice is to
attempt to move the activities to later in the project. The project team should focus
on other activities while the primer cures. A is incorrect because lead time subtracts
time from the scheduled start time of activities. B is incorrect. Lag time will increase
the time of the painting activities. C is also incorrect because changing the
relationship of activities will not help the primer cure faster.
40. C. Crashing allows the project manager to add resources to an activity to complete it
faster. This does not always work because some activities have a fixed duration. A is
incorrect. This is not risk management. Fast tracking, not crashing, introduces new
risk for projects. B is incorrect because this is not an example of time management.
D is also incorrect. Fast tracking allows activities that should start in succession to
overlap so the project may finish sooner. Fast tracking may also use lead time.
41. B. Fast tracking changes the relationships of activities so the project may finish
sooner than expected. A is incorrect. Crashing allows the project manager to add
resources to the project work in order to complete it sooner than expected. C is
incorrect. Rolling wave planning allows planning to be completed based on the
conditions within the project in waves or successions. D is also incorrect because
this is not an example of expert judgment.
42. A. A schedule performance index of .80 means the project is behind schedule. The
closer to “1” the SPI is, the better the project. B is incorrect because an SPI of .80
means the project is behind schedule, not ahead. C is also incorrect. While the
project likely will result in being over budget due to the labor demands to complete
the project, the SPI deals with the project schedule. D is incorrect as well since an
SPI does not reflect the percentage complete of the project.
43. D. The 80 percent mark is known as a threshold. A is incorrect because the 80
percent mark is not the risk. The risk comes after the threshold is passed. B is
incorrect because the management horizon is the point in time when the project has
paid for the investment. C is also incorrect because risk impact is the affect the risk
event has on the project’s success.
44. A. Based on the end result of a phase, management or the customer may elect to
kill a project. B is incorrect. Progressive elaboration is the refinement of the project
concept as the project progresses. C is incorrect. Rolling wave planning is the
successions of planning that happen throughout a project based on conditions and
results of the project work. D is incorrect because this is not an example of project
scheduling.

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CAPM® Exam Prep Practice Exam One

45. B. Baselines can be used to compare what is actual against what was predicted. A
is incorrect because variance reports don’t necessarily reflect project progress. C is
incorrect because change requests do not reflect the progression of a project. D is
also incorrect because interviews with the project team may not reflect the project’s
overall progress.
46. B. When a project is going badly, operating beyond its budget, or off schedule,
changes may be made to reduce the project scope or to add quality activities to
ensure the product is correct. A is incorrect. Projects are not canceled via change
requests. C is incorrect. Change requests are not made for administrative changes.
D is also incorrect. A well-performing project should stay on course with no changes
to project scope.
47. B. Because the project manager is using another similar project to predict the
duration of the current project, he is using the analogous method. A is incorrect
because parametric estimating is based on parameters, such as units, metric tons,
and so on. C is incorrect. Bottom-up estimates start at zero and take in all costs for
each activity. D is also incorrect because this is not the best answer for the question.
48. B. Quality assurance maps to an organization’s quality policy and is typically a
managerial process. A is incorrect because this statement defines quality control. C
is incorrect because this statement defines quality improvement. D is also incorrect
because this statement defines ISO 9000.
49. A. Herzberg’s Theory of Motivation is based on motivating agents and hygiene
agents and is not applied to quality assurance. B is incorrect because benefit cost
analysis can be applied to quality assurance. C is incorrect because flowcharting
can be applied to quality assurance. D is also incorrect. Design of experiments is a
tool that can be applied to quality assurance.
50. C. You are creating a make-or-buy analysis to determine the need to complete the
work in-house or send the work to a vendor. At this point in the project, you are
completing procurement planning. A is incorrect. This is not done in contract
closeout. B is incorrect because source selection will happen if the decision is made
to buy the product or service. D is incorrect because solicitation will happen if the
result of the analysis is to buy the project or service from a vendor.
51. B. Purchasing insurance as a response to a risk is transference. A is incorrect
because mitigations are actions taken to reduce the impact or probability of a risk
event. C is incorrect because avoidance avoids the project risk. D is also incorrect
because countermeasures are actions taken to neutralize the risk impact.
52. A. The contract will determine how long the project team members will be allowed
to, or are required to, stay on the project. B is incorrect. The staffing management
plan will concur with the contract details to determine how procured resources are
released from the project. C is incorrect because the scope management plan
determines how the project scope may be changed. D is incorrect because the
schedule management plan determines how changes to the schedule will be
managed.

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53. B. Vendors should have ample time to ask questions to clarify the project
requirements. A is incorrect. Vendors likely will not have pricing information during
the bidders’ conference. C is incorrect because vendors will not negotiate pricing in
the conference. D is also incorrect because the contract manager may handle
negotiations with bidders, but the negotiation process does not happen at the
bidders’ conference
54. C. Once the vendor reports that the work is complete, the project manager should
inspect the work. This inspection can be done firsthand, if the project manager is
qualified, or by another qualified person or group. A is incorrect because the vendor
completes the invoice for the buyer. B is incorrect. The project manager will pay the
invoice according to the project contract—and after the work is verified as complete.
D is also incorrect.
55. C. Management will likely want to complete an audit of the procurement records. A is
incorrect because a project plan audit is not needed. B is incorrect. While the quality
of the project work is needed, it will not help management ascertain where the
monies have been spent in the project. D is also incorrect. The project team
members’ work may be audited for quality and completeness, but it will not answer
management’s question about the finances.
56. C. The requirement for the vendor to have a CAPM® on staff can be used as a
screening system to filter out vendors that do not have the proper qualifications. A is
incorrect because an organization breakdown structure shows how the organization
is decomposed into departments, groups, managers, and other functional-based
components. B is incorrect because an independent estimate is used to compare
vendors’ bids on the project work. D is also incorrect because a weighted model
scores vendors in different categories of qualification.
57. D. The functional manager likely isn’t allowing her employees to work on the project
because there is no charter requiring the manager to do so. A is incorrect because
you are the project manager. B is incorrect because the risk management plan is not
applicable to this scenario. C is also incorrect. The project scope may be missing,
but it is not as important as the project charter, which authorizes the project.
58. A. The functional managers in a weak matrix will have to approve the project
schedule. B is incorrect because the project champion does not approve the project
schedule. C is incorrect. The project team does not approve the project schedule;
they may provide input, but not approval. D is also incorrect because the project
manager has limited authority in a weak matrix structure.
59. C. When there are unused resources that can help, the project manager should add
these resources to the critical path to reduce the duration of the activities. A is
incorrect because lead time is not the best solution. B is incorrect because lag time
will cause the project to last longer. D is also incorrect. Fast tracking the project will
shorten the project duration, but it also increases risk. Plus, adding unused
resources is the best solution to attempt first.
60. C. Resource planning considers the resource pool, resource availability, resource
costs, and resource calendars against the project calendar, scheduled activities, and

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overall need for particular resources to determine what is the best resource for a
given activity. A is incorrect. Resource selecting is simply choosing which resource
is appropriate for the project team or the project work. B is incorrect. Source
selection is a procurement process to determine which vendor is the best choice for
the project work. D is incorrect because this answer is an invalid choice and is not
appropriate.
61. D. The configuration management system controls changes to the functional and
physical characteristics of a product or component. A, B, and C are incorrect
because they are not valid choices for this question.
62. B. The cost to quality is the best choice. The expense of the better materials is
attributed to the better product the project will create. A is incorrect. Gold plating is
the act of adding work, additional materials, or more expensive than needed
materials to drive up the project cost for personal gain. C is incorrect. This is not an
example of project management costs. D is incorrect. These are not discretionary
costs but costs attributed to the cost of the quality as demanded by the customer.
63. D. OSHA guidelines are requirements your project must meet. A is incorrect. While
some project managers may view these regulations as constraints, regulations are a
better description for the rules. If the project manager does not follow these
regulations, it may cause fines, penalties, and even injuries or death to the project
team members. B is incorrect because these are not assumptions. C is incorrect.
Standards are optional, while OSHA regulations are not optional.
64. A. Quality is planned into a project from the start. Inspections prove its existence. B
is incorrect. While safety is important, it is not the correct answer. Safety may be
inspected into a project when you consider construction projects, electrical wiring
projects, or similar work. C is incorrect because control is not a viable choice. D is
incorrect. Teamwork is developed, planned, and hoped for, but this is not the best
choice for the question.
65. D. ISO 9000 is not a quality system, but a method of following procedures created
internally to an organization. A is incorrect because ISO 9000 is not a quality
management system. B is incorrect because ISO 9000 is not a quality control
system. C is incorrect because ISO 9000 is an organization-wide approach, not just
a project-centric one.
66. C. A live operator will answer all inbound telephone calls within one minute is an
example of an operational definition because it has a given metric. A, B, and D are
incorrect because these are examples of project requirements.
67. C. A control chart will allow the quality engineer and the project manager to plot out
the results to find assignable causes for variances. A is incorrect because a Pareto
chart maps out the causes and frequency of quality problems. B is incorrect because
an Ishikawa diagram is a cause-and-effect diagram to determine root-cause
analysis. D is incorrect because a flowchart shows the relation of components within
a system and how a process works through a system.
68. C. Safety measures are a cost of the conformance to quality. If the measures are not
taken, accidents may happen and the project then stopped for investigation, rework,

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CAPM® Exam Prep Practice Exam One

and other measures. A is incorrect. Rework is an example of the cost of

nonconformance to quality. When work is unacceptable, it has to be corrected. B is
incorrect. Corrective actions are part of the cost of nonconformance to quality. When
work, performance, and other components are unacceptable, corrective actions
steer the project back online. D is also incorrect because when customers get
disgusted due to quality issues, they will find other providers.
69. D. Quality control is focused on the correctness of the work. A, B, and C are
incorrect because these statements describe scope validation.
70. D. Not all companies will use a quality management program like Six Sigma. A is
incorrect because quality control is detailed in the quality management plan. B is
incorrect because quality assurance is also detailed in the quality management plan.
C is incorrect as well. Quality improvement is detailed in the quality management
plan.
71. D. Quality control is concerned with the correctness of the work, while scope
validation is concerned with the customer accepting the work. A, B, and C are
incorrect because all of these statements are false.
72. B. Responses to risks are identified and documented in the risk response plan. A is
incorrect because the risk management plan details how risk analysis, risk
identification, and other risk-related management activities will proceed. It does not
include the responses to individual risk. C is incorrect. The procurement
management plan does not need to be updated based on this scenario. The
question does not indicate that a different vendor is needed. D is incorrect. The
scope management plan does not need to be changed because there is no
indication of changes, or threats of changes, to the project scope.
73. D. These are warning signs or symptoms that a risk has occurred or is about to
occur. A is incorrect because a secondary risk can be created by solutions to a
different risk in the project. B is incorrect. Residual risks are smaller risks caused by
response to other risks. C is incorrect because a risk trigger is not a plan to respond
to the risk event.
74. B. The risk has a 20 percent chance of happening and will cost the project
$150,000. Twenty percent of $150,000 is $30,000—the expected amount of
contingency. A is incorrect. $150,000 is 100 percent of the risk event occurring. C is
incorrect. $75,000 is based on a 50 percent likelihood of the risk occurring. D is
incorrect because the risk is real even if the risk event does not occur.
75. A. Risk owners can monitor, respond, and communicate on risk events. B is
incorrect. Buying insurance, also known as transference, may not be an affordable
or available solution for all the risks within the project. C is incorrect. This is not
feasible because multiple risks may overlap each other in the schedule. In addition,
the project manager’s presence won’t address the risk event itself. D is incorrect.
This also is not a feasible option. A project may have multiple risks on multiple
paths. It would be highly unlikely for the project manager to schedule activities so
that activities with risks do not overlap.

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76. B. A time and materials (T&M) contract needs a Not to Exceed (NTE) stipulation. A
is incorrect because not all T&M contracts have deadlines. C is incorrect because
the costs per hour is a prerequisite for this type of contract. D is incorrect. Not all
T&M contracts have a total costs for the projected work. This is why the NTE clause
is needed.
77. D. Contingency planning requires additional funding and time set aside for the risk
event. A is incorrect because a countermeasure is an action to neutralize the risk
event. B is incorrect because mitigation is steps taken to reduce the impact and
likelihood of the risk event. C is also incorrect. Transference moves the risk
ownership to a third party.
78. C. Transference transfers the risk to someone else. A is incorrect because a trigger
is a sign that a risk event has occurred or is about to occur. B is incorrect because
thresholds are metrics that mean a risk event is occurring as conditions pass the
preset mark. D is also incorrect because countermeasures are actions to neutralize
the risk event.
79. C. When a new risk has been identified, the risk register must be updated. A is
incorrect. The risk response may need to be updated—if there is to be a response to
the identified risk. The first step is to update the risk register. B is incorrect because
the WBS does not need to be updated since the project scope has not changed. D is
also incorrect because the scope statement is not updated as a result of risk
discovery.
80. B. The WBS is not an input to risk monitoring and control. A is incorrect because the
project management plan, specifically its risk management plan, is an input to risk
monitoring and control. C is incorrect. The risk register is an input to risk monitoring
and control. D is incorrect because work performance data is also an input to risk
monitoring and control.
81. C. When a risk has been identified, it is documented in the risk register. The risk is
then tracked through the risk register. A is incorrect. Historical records are records
that have occurred before this project began. Your project is creating future historical
records. B is incorrect because the WBS is not updated. D is incorrect because the
risk response is not updated.
82. D. The contract type is determined as part of the procurement process. A, B, and C
are incorrect because these are not valid reasons for risk monitoring and control.
Project managers will need to test assumptions for risks, identify risk trends, and
evaluate the contingency reserve of risk events.
83. C. Scope validation is the process of obtaining formal acceptance. A is incorrect.
While scope validation uses inspections, it is not only concerned with quality, but
with the fulfillment of the requirements. B is incorrect because the sign-off of the
project mechanisms is not an applicable choice. D is incorrect because contract
closeout can happen throughout the project when vendors have completed their
project obligations, not just at the project’s conclusion.
84. B. Scope validation is the assurance that the project deliverables have met the
project scope. A is incorrect because scope validation does not happen only at the

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end of a project. C is incorrect because each deliverable does not demand a scope
validation. D is also incorrect. Scope validation happens as phases or projects are
completed, not only when the customer sees fit.
85. A. Although the project has been canceled, scope validation should take place for
the deliverables up to the point the project was canceled. B is incorrect. Scope
validation is still needed although management canceled the project due to outside
circumstances. C is also incorrect. Although the scope was never completed, scope
validation is still needed. D is incorrect because this is not a valid option for the
question.
86. B. Rework is not an output of administrative closure. If rework is needed, the project
or phase cannot be closed. A is incorrect. You’ll need to complete all of the planned
activities in order to do administrative closure. C is incorrect. Once the project is
completed, the operational transfer of the product must happen so the project can be
closed and resources released. D is incorrect because lessons learned are also part
of administrative closure.
87. A. The terms of the contract should be followed here since they may have provisions
for an audit, payment procedures, and forms that the vendor may have to complete
to be paid. B is incorrect. Just because a vendor has completed work on the project
does not mean the project needs scope validation at this point. C is incorrect. The
question does not state that the entire project is finished so this answer is not valid.
D is incorrect. Lessons learned are important, but this is not the best choice for the
question.
88. A. Unresolved claims may result in litigation. B is incorrect. Just because you and a
vendor have a disagreement about the completed work on the project does not
mean the project needs scope validation at this point. C is incorrect. The question
does not state that the entire project is finished, so this answer is not valid. D is
incorrect. A procurement audit may show your internal process for procurement, but
it does not resolve the issue between you and the vendor.
89. B. The staffing management plan will account for the employees’ time on the project.
A is incorrect because this is not a valid plan. C is incorrect. The WBS is not a
project plan. D is also incorrect because the cost control plan is not a valid choice.
90. D. When a project team member is no longer needed on a project team in a
projectized structure, the project manager should follow the operations of the PMO if
it exists. A is incorrect because this is not a valid statement. B and C are incorrect
because neither of these is a valid answer for this question.
91. D. Lessons learned are documents used for future reference. They allow other
project managers to learn from the current project. A is incorrect. The project plan
and scope statement keep the project manager focused on the project work, not the
lessons learned documentation. B is incorrect. Various reports are used to
communicate with management, not lessons learned documentation. This is not to
say that management won’t review the lessons learned documentation, it’s just not
the best answer for the question. Management will expect reports and other
communications to keep them informed. C is also incorrect. Lessons learned do not

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ensure that the project work is complete. Scope validation, peer reviews, and other
mechanisms can ensure that the project work is complete.
92. B. Administrative closure includes the creation of the final project report. A is
incorrect. Configuration management documents and controls the functions and
features of the project’s product. C is incorrect because quality control is concerned
with the correctness of the work. D is incorrect because scope validation is
concerned with the acceptance of the work.
93. D. Current project records become future historical information. A is incorrect
because the project scope is completed when the final report is created. B is
incorrect because financial audits typically happen before the final report is created.
C is also incorrect. Though this is often true, it is not the best answer.
94. D. There are seven common conflicts within a project: project priorities, schedule,
resources, cost, administrative procedures, technical issues, and personality
conflicts. A, B, and C are incorrect because these are all sources of conflict.
95. C. Referring a friend to PMI’s web site for info on the CAPM® certification is helpful,
but it is not an example of contributing to the project management knowledge base.
A is incorrect. Giving a lecture is an example of contributing to the project
management knowledge base. B is incorrect because writing articles is an example
of contributing to the project management knowledge base. D is incorrect because
publishing a book on project management methodologies is an example of
contributing to the project management knowledge base.
96. C. Writing and publishing a book on project management is an example of
contributing to the project management knowledge base. A is incorrect. This is not a
conflict of interest if you’re a CAPM®. You’re helping others learn about project
management. B is incorrect. This is not a breach of the PMI Code of Ethics and
Professional Conduct. D is incorrect. The question does not state that there is
career-related information available.
97. B. Although this may be a small, limited contribution, it is still a reference for others
on project management methods and application. A is incorrect because this is not
an example of ensuring integrity. C is incorrect. This is not an example of applying
professional knowledge—this is sharing professional knowledge. D is also incorrect
because this is not an example of balancing stakeholder interests.
98. D. You are enhancing your own competence through additional education. A is
incorrect because this is not a valid answer in regard to the professional
responsibility. B is incorrect. Project management is already a respectable career
track. C is also incorrect because this is not an example of a conflict of interest.
99. D. You are enhancing your own competence through additional education. A is
incorrect because this is not a valid answer in regard to the professional
responsibility. B is incorrect because project management is already a respectable
career track. C is also incorrect because this is not an example of a conflict of
interest.
100. A. This is not an acceptable answer. There is almost always something you can
do to enhance your skills. B is incorrect. Reading historical information from past
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CAPM® Exam Prep Practice Exam One

projects can teach a new project manager many things. C is incorrect because
emulating a successful project manager is an excellent way to achieve your goals. D
is also incorrect because serving as an assistant to an accomplished project
manager provides valuable training.

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