35

ASSOCIATION OF CHEMISTRY TEACHERS

National Standard Examination in Chemistry – 2024
Date of Examination: December 22, 2024
Time: 11:30 AM to 1:30 PM
Question Paper Code: 35
Student’s
Roll No:

Write the Question Paper Code (mentioned above) on YOUR OMR Answer Sheet (in the space
provided), otherwise your Answer Sheet will NOT be evaluated. Note that the same Question
Paper Code appears on each page of the Question Paper.

Instructions to Candidates:

1. Use of mobile phone, smart watch, and iPad during examination is STRICTLY PROHIBITED.
2. In addition to this Question Paper, you are given OMR Answer Sheet along with candidate’s copy.
3. On the OMR sheet, make all the entries carefully in the space provided ONLY in BLOCK
CAPITALS as well as by properly darkening the appropriate bubbles.
Incomplete/ incorrect/ carelessly filled information may disqualify your candidature.
4. On the OMR Answer Sheet, use only BLUE or BLACK BALL POINT PEN for making entries
and filling the bubbles.
5. Your Eleven-digit roll number and date of birth entered on the OMR Answer Sheet shall remain
your login credentials means login id and password respectively for accessing your performance /
result in National Standard Examination in Chemistry – 2024.
Question paper has two parts. In part A-1 (Q. No.1 to 48) each question has four alternatives, out of
which only one is correct. Choose the correct alternative and fill the appropriate bubble, as shown.
Q.No.12 a c d c c
d
In part A-2 (Q. No. 49 to 60) each question has four alternatives out of which any number of
alternative(s) (1, 2, 3, or 4) may be correct. You have to choose all correct alternative(s) and fill the
appropriate bubble(s), as shown
Q.No.52 a c
7. Attempt all sixty questions. For Part A-1, each correct answer carries 3 marks whereas 1 mark will
be deducted for each wrong answer. In Part A-2, you get 6 marks if all the correct alternatives are
marked and no incorrect. No negative marks in this part.
8. Rough work may be done in the space provided. There are 15 printed pages in this paper
9. Use of Non-programmable scientific calculator is allowed.
10. No candidate should leave the examination hall before the completion of the examination.
11. After submitting Answer Paper, take away the Question Paper & Candidate’s copy of OMR sheet for
your future reference.

Please DO NOT make any mark other than filling the appropriate bubbles
properly in the space provided on the OMR Answer Sheet.

OMR Answer Sheets are evaluated using machine, hence CHANGE OF ENTRY IS
NOT ALLOWED. Scratching or overwriting may result in a wrong score.

DO NOT WRITE ON THE BACK SIDE OF THE OMR ANSWER SHEET.

1
 35
Instructions to Candidates (Continued) :
You may read the following instructions after submitting the Answer Sheet.

12. Comments/Inquiries/Grievances regarding this Question Paper, if any, can be shared on the
Inquiry/Grievance column on www.iapt.org.in on the specified format till Dec 26, 2024.

13. The answers/solutions to this Question Paper will be available on the website:
www.iapt.org.in by Dec 24, 2024. The score card may be downloaded after Dec 30, 2024

14. CERTIFICATES and AWARDS:

Following certificates are awarded by IAPT/ACT to students, successful in the
National Standard Examination in Chemistry – 2024
(i) “CENTRE TOP 10 %” To be downloaded from iapt.org.in after 30.01.25
(ii) “STATE TOP 1 %” Will be dispatched to the examinee
(iii) “NATIONAL TOP 1 %” Will be dispatched to the examinee
(iv) “GOLD MEDAL & MERIT CERTIFICATE” to all students who attend OCSC – 2025 at
HBCSE Mumbai
Certificate for centre toppers shall be uploaded on iapt.org.in

15. List of students (with centre number and roll number only) having score above Minimum
Admissible Score (MAS) will be displayed on the website: www.iapt.org.in by Dec 28, 2024. See
the MAS clause on the student’s brochure on the web.

16. List of students eligible to appear for Indian National Chemistry Olympiad (INChO – 2025) shall be
displayed on www.iapt.org.in by Dec 31, 2024.

Useful constants
Charge of electron, e  1.602 1019 C
Mass of electron, me  9.11031 kg
Planck’s constant, h  6.631034 J s
Speed of light, c  3.0  10 8 ms 1
Avogadro constant, N A  6.022 1023 mol 1
Faraday constant, F  96500 C mol 1
Molar gas constant, R  0.082 L atmmol 1K 1
 8.314 J mol 1 K 1

2
 35

ASSOCIATION OF CHEMISTRY TEACHERS

NATIONAL STANDARD EXAMINATION IN CHEMISTRY
(NSEC - 2024)
Time: 120 minute Max. Marks: 216
Attempt All Sixty Questions
A–1
ONLY ONE OUT OF FOUR OPTIONS IS CORRECT. BUBBLE THE CORRECT OPTION.

1. At 300 K, a 2 L vessel with gas X at a pressure of 100 kPa is attached through a tube and tap of
negligible volume to a 4 L vessel with gas Y at a pressure of 300 kPa. The final pressure in the vessels
when the tap is opened, and the gases are given time to mix is
[X and Y are non-reacting gases at 300 K]
(a) 100 kPa
(b) 133 kPa X Y
V=2L V=4L
(c) 200 kPa P = 100 kPa P = 300 kPa
(d) 233 kPa

2. A typical passenger-side airbag in the cars contain x g of NaN3 which dissociates to produce nitrogen
gas during the crash. The air bag can expand up to a volume 30.0 L. What mass of sodium azide would
be used to produce 30.0 L of nitrogen gas when measured at 27°C and 100 kPa?
[R = 8.314 kPa L K-1 mol-1]
(a) 45.2 g (b) 30.1 g (c) 52.1 g (d) 35.4 g

3. 1.0 mL of 0.1 M sulphuric acid was diluted to 100.0 mL using deionised water. 10.0 mL of this solution
was then diluted to 100.0 mL again using deionised water. The pH of the final solution is
[Assume complete dissociation of sulphuric acid]
(a) 3.0 (b) 3.7 (c) 4.0 (d) 4.5

4. Solid calcium carbonate was added to a hydrochloric acid solution. Which of the following best depicts
how each species' concentration changes over time as the reaction progresses?
[H+] [Ca2+] [Cl-]
(a) decreases increases increases
(b) decreases increases no change
(c) decreases no change increases
(d) no change increases increases

5. A galvanic cell is constructed under standard conditions using metal X in its aqueous salt solution
X(NO3)2 and metal Y in its aqueous salt solution Y(NO3)3.
Given:
𝑋 2+ (𝑎𝑞) + 2𝑒 − → 𝑋(𝑠) 𝐸 ° = −0.24 𝑉
3+ (𝑎𝑞) −
𝑌 + 3𝑒 → 𝑌(𝑠) 𝐸 ° = −0.38 𝑉

Which statement(s) from the following about this cell is/are correct?
I. The standard cell potential is − 0.14 V
II. Y is the anode
III. X is undergoing reduction as the reaction proceeds
(a) I only (b) II only (c) I and II only (d) II and III only

3
 35
6. ‘CYD’, a car manufacturing company has developed a fuel engine using liquid methane and liquid
oxygen. The enthalpy change of vaporization of methane is +X kJ mol-1 and the enthalpy change of
vaporization of oxygen is +Y kJ mol-1.
The enthalpy change for combustion of methane as given below is -Z kJ mol-1.
𝐶𝐻4 (𝑔) + 2𝑂2 (𝑔) → 𝐶𝑂2 (𝑔) + 2𝐻2 𝑂(𝑔) ∆𝐻 = −𝑍 𝑘𝐽 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1

The change in enthalpy of reaction in kJ when one mole of liquid methane reacts completely with liquid
oxygen to form CO2 (g) and H2O (g) is given by
(a) X + Y + Z (b) X + 2Y – Z (c) X + 2Y + Z (d) Y – X + 2Z

7. A 20.00 g metal piece is heated to 77.1 ℃ and submerged in 200.0 g of water at 30.0 ℃. The metal and
water are at 30.5 ℃ after the system reaches equilibrium.
The metal is:
[Given: Specific heat capacity of H2O = 4.2 J g-1 °C-1]
(a) P (Cp 0.24 J g-1 ˚C-1) (b) Q (Cp 0.39 J g-1 ˚C-1)
(c) R (Cp 0.45 J g ˚C )
-1 -1
(d) S (Cp 0.90 J g-1 ˚C-1)

8. Water (with traces of dilute sulphuric acid) is electrolysed by passing a current of 0.2 A for 4 hours. The
number of moles of hydrogen gas produced at the cathode and the volume in Litres it occupies as a dry
gas at a pressure of 1 atm and 27 ℃ respectively are
(a) 0.0298 mol; 0.734 L (b) 0.0149 mol; 0.367 L
(c) 0.0186 mol; 0.464 L (d) 0.0372 mol; 0.928L

9. The proposed mechanism for the acid rain due to SO2 gas is given as
SO2(aq) + 2H2O(l)  HSO3- (aq) + H3O+(aq)
2HSO3- (aq) + O2(aq)  S2O72-(aq) + H2O(l)
S2O72-(aq) + 3H2O(l)  2SO42- (aq) + 2H3O+(aq)
Choose the correct option?
Reactant Catalyst Intermediate
(a) SO2(aq) O2 (aq) HSO3- (aq), H3O+(aq)
(b) SO2(aq) HSO3- (aq) S2O72-(aq)
(c) SO2(aq), H2O(l) S2O72-(aq) HSO3- (aq)
(d) SO2(aq), H2O(l) None HSO3- (aq), S2O72-(aq)

1. Mushrooms are a rich source of ergosterol, a precursor of

10.
vitamin D2 which is formed when dry mushrooms are
exposed to UV light. The kinetics of this reaction was
studied by monitoring the production of vitamin D2. The
order of the reaction with respect to ergosterol and the rate
constant for the production of vitamin D2 from dry
mushroom respectively are
(a) Zero order, 0.875 g (g dry mushroom)-1 s-1
(b) First order, 0.04478 s-1
(c) First order; 0.875 g s-1
(d) Zero order; 0.0146 g (g dry mushroom) -1 s-1

11. Which of the following electronic configuration represents an atom in an excited state?
(a) 1s2 2s2 2p5 (b) 1s2 2s2 2p5 3s2
2 2 6 1
(c) 1s 2s 2p 3s (d) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1

4
 35
12. Properties of substances P, Q and R were experimentally studied in the laboratory. The data collected is
given below:
Substance P Q R
Melting point (℃) 1800 600 1506
Electrical Conductivity in Solid Phase None High None
Electrical Conductivity in Liquid Phase None High High

Choose the correct bonding in substances P, Q and R

Substance P Substance Q Substance R

(a) Network covalent Ionic Metallic
(b) Ionic Molecular Network covalent
(c) Molecular Network covalent Metallic
(d) Network covalent Metallic Ionic

13. A mixture of 𝑁𝑂2 (𝑔) and 𝑁2 𝑂4 (𝑔) is at equilibrium in a rigid reaction vessel. The equilibrium is
represented by the equation given below:
2𝑁𝑂2 (𝑑𝑎𝑟𝑘 𝑏𝑟𝑜𝑤𝑛 𝑔) ⇌ 𝑁2 𝑂4 (𝑐𝑜𝑙𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑙𝑒𝑠𝑠 𝑔) Δ𝐻 = −150 𝑘𝐽 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1

Which of the following statement(s) are correct?

I. The most accurate determination of the concentration of the NO2(g) at equilibrium can be done
by measuring the colour intensity.
II. The forward reaction is thermodynamically favoured at all temperatures.
III. If temperature of the mixture is decreased, then [𝑁2 𝑂4 ] will increase and the mixture will turn a
lighter brown.
IV. If temperature of the mixture is increased, then [𝑁𝑂2 ] will increase and the mixture will turn a
darker brown.

Choose the correct option.

(a) I and II only (b) I, III and IV only (c) III and IV only (d) I and III only

14. The valence electronic configuration of element X is 3s2 3p1 and that of Y is 2s2 2p4. The probable
empirical formula for a compound of the two elements is
(a) X2Y3 (b) XY2 (c) X3Y2 (d) X2Y

15. SO3(g) dissociates into SO2(g) and O2(g) at 1350 ℃.

4.80 moles of SO3 were placed into an evacuated 4.0 L flask. The concentration of SO2 gas measured at
equilibrium was found to be 0.20 M. The equilibrium constant, Kc, for the reaction is
(a) 1.6 × 10−4 (b) 1.0 × 10−3 (c) 2.0 × 10−3 (d) 4.0 × 10−3

16. Di-t-butyl peroxide (DTBP) is a commonly used radical initiator. In the gaseous state, DTBP
decomposes into acetone and ethane by a first-order reaction.
𝐶8 𝐻18 𝑂2 (𝑔) ⟶ 2𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝐶𝐻3 (𝑔) + 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻3 (𝑔)
DTBP acetone ethane
If the initial pressure of DTBP and the total pressure at time ‘t’ are 𝑝0 and 𝑝𝑡 respectively,
Partial pressure of DTBP at time ‘t’ (𝑝𝐷𝑇𝐵𝑃 ) can be given as
𝑝 −3𝑝 3𝑝 −𝑝
(a) ( 𝑡 2 0 ) (b) 𝑝0 − 𝑝𝑡 (c) 3𝑝0 − 𝑝𝑡 (d) ( 02 𝑡 )

17. Metal having atomic mass 120g/mol has cubic unit cell with edge length of 400pm. Density of the metal
is 12.5 g/cm3. The metal belongs to
(a) Simple Cubic (b) Body Centered Cubic
(c) Face Centered Cubic (d) End Centered Cubic

5
 35
18. Potentially toxic transition metal, ‘M’ which naturally does not occur in metallic form and exist in two
oxidation states. Lower oxidation state of ‘M’ is more stable. Salts of ‘M’ in lower oxidation state are
usually pink in colour but in acidic medium acquire blue colour. ‘M’ is:
(a) Cr (b) Co (c) Cd (d) As

19. An aqueous solution of (X) does not give a precipitate on passing H2S in mild acidic condition. (X)
during flame test imparts green color to the flame. (X) upon heating with solid K2Cr2O7 and conc.
H2SO4, evolves reddish brown gas(Y). The gas (Y) when passed through an aqueous solution of NaOH
turns it yellow due to formation of (Z). (X), (Y) and (Z) are respectively:
(a) BaCl2, CrO2Cl2, Na2CrO4 (b) CuCl2, CrO2Cl2, Na2Cr2O7
(c) BaCl2, Cr2(SO4)3, Na2CrO4 (d) CuCl2, Cr2(SO4)3, NaCr(OH)4

20. Which one of the following sequences depicts an increasing oxidation number of the central atom?
(a) MnO4-, CrO2-, ClO3-, CrO42- (b) CrO2-, CrO42-, MnO4-, ClO3-
- - - 2-
(c) ClO3 , CrO2 , MnO4 , CrO4 (d) CrO2-, ClO3-, CrO42-, MnO4-

21. The incorrect trend regarding hydrides of group 16 (H2E) is:

(a) The H-E-H bond angle increases down the group.
(b) The acidic character of these increases down the group.
(c) Thermal stability of these decreases down the group.
(d) Bond enthalpy for the dissociation of H–E decreases down the group.

22. The reaction not involved in the mechanism related to depletion of ozone layer in the stratosphere from
the following reactions is:
UV
(a) CF2 Cl2(g) → Cl·(g) + CF2· Cl(g) (b) ClO· + O(g) → Cl·(g) + O2(g)
(c) 3CH4 + 2O2 → 3CH2 = O + 3H2 O (d) ClO·(g) + NO2(g) → ClONO2(g)

23. A blue colored water insoluble compound is used as a pigment. Blue colour is due to charge transfer
spectra. It is prepared by reacting ferrous salt with potassium ferricyanide.
(a) K4[Fe(CN)6] (b) K3[Fe(CN)6] (c) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 (d) Fe3[Fe(CN)6]2

24. Observe the following changes in oxidation states (OS) with the reduction potentials (E0V) involving
various species of Mn and I2.

When the reaction is carried out by adding the acidic KMnO4 dropwise to the KI solution, the oxidized
and reduced products I2 and Mn2+ are formed respectively. But when instead KI solution is added
dropwise to acidified KMnO4, which of the following statements is correct explaining the formation of
products initially, using the above diagram?
(a) KMnO4 will reduce to MnO2 and iodide will oxidise to IO3- and IO4-
(b) KMnO4 will reduce to Mn2+ and iodide will oxidise to IO3-
(c) KMnO4 will reduce to Mn2+ and iodide will oxidise to IO4-
(d) KMnO4 will reduce to Mn2+ and iodide will oxidise to I2

6
 35
25. A reddish brown gas is obtained when three crystalline solids (X, Y and Z) are each warmed with
sulphuric acid and metallic copper. When X is heated it gives a yellowish white crystalline solid and
liberates a gas which relights a glowing wooden splint. When Y is heated it produces a reddish brown
gas; a gas which relights a glowing wooden splint and a yellow residue which fuses with the glass of the
test tube. When Z is heated it gives no solid. On warming Z with NaOH solution it liberates a gas which
turns moist red litmus paper blue. Identify X, Y and Z from the following options.
(a) KNO3, PbNO3 and NH4NO3 (b) NaNO3, MgNO3 and KNO3
(c) PbNO3, MgNO3 and NH4NO3 (d) MgNO3, NH4NO3 and NaNO3

26. A sulphide ore (p) on roasting leaves a residue (q). This residue (q) on heating with chlorine gives (r),
soluble in water, addition of excess KI to a solution of (r) gives a solution (s). A brown precipitate is
formed when a solution of ammonium sulphate is added to an alkaline solution of (s). Identify the
correct option:
(p) (q) (r) (s)
(a) Ag2S AgO AgCl K2[AgI4]
(b) HgS HgO HgCl2 K2[HgI4]
(c) Cu2S CuO CuCl2 [Cu(NH3)4]SO4
(d) CuFeS2 FeO FeCl2 K2[FeI4]

27. Which of the method can be used to get highly pure titanium and zirconium from impure metals?
(a) Kroll process (b) Van Arkel-de Boer method
(c) Mond’s Process (d) Zone refining method

28. Consider the following experimental observation:

heat
𝑀𝑛+ + 𝐻𝐶𝑙 ⟶ 𝑤ℎ𝑖𝑡𝑒 𝑝𝑟𝑒𝑐𝑖𝑝𝑖𝑡𝑎𝑡𝑒 ⟶ 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟 𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑏𝑙𝑒
The metal ion 𝑀𝑛+ is

(a) 𝐻𝑔2+ (b) 𝐴𝑔+ (c) 𝑃𝑏 2+ (d) 𝑆𝑛2+

29. Following observations are made during qualitative analysis of a salt (X)

BaCl2 in presence NaOH/heat

Z X Y
of HCl (Light green) Gas with
White ppt
Crystalline pungent
compound odor

Aqueous
solution of
K3[Fe(CN)6]

W
Blue
‘X’ is
(a) 𝐹𝑒𝑆𝑂4 (b) (𝑁𝐻4 )2 𝑆𝑂4
(c) 𝐹𝑒𝑆𝑂4 . (𝑁𝐻4 )2 𝑆𝑂4 . 6𝐻2 𝑂 (d) 𝐹𝑒2 𝑂3

30. Given below are some complexes of nickel.

(i) [Ni(H2O)6]+2 (ii) [Ni(NH3)6]+2 (iii) [Ni(NO2)6]-4
The correct order of absorption wavelengths for above complexes is
(a) i > ii > iii (b) ii > i > iii (c) iii > ii > i (d) iii > i > ii

7
 35
31. Which one of the following factors is of no significance for roasting sulphides ores to the oxides and not
subjecting the sulphides ores to carbon reduction directly?
(a) Metal sulphides are thermodynamically more stable than CS2
(b) CO2 is thermodynamically more stable than CS2
(c) Metal sulphides are less stable than the corresponding oxides.
(d) CO2 is more volatile than CS2
32. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) K2CO3 can’t be prepared by Solvay process because KHCO3 is highly soluble in water.
(b) Li+ ionic mobility in aqueous phase > Na+ ionic mobility in aqueous phase.
(c) Lithium is the strongest reducing alkali metal in aqueous phase.
(d) KOH is used as absorber of CO2 gas.

33. The largest number of hydrogens can be exchanged for deuterium when treated with KOD in D2O by:
(a) 3-methyl-1,2-cycloheptanedione (b) 2-methyl-1,3-cycloheptanedione
(c) 5-methyl-1,3-cycloheptanedione (d) 6-methyl-1,4-cycloheptanedione

34. para-Chloroaniline on treatment with acetic anhydride in pyridine yielded a mixture of 94% of para-
chloroacetanilide, contaminated with 6% unreacted amine. Among the following, the best used
methodology to purify the para-chloroacetanilide is to wash the solution of crude product in ether with:
(a) methyl iodide. (b) with concentrated brine (aq. NaCl).
(c) with 5% aqueous sulfuric acid. (d) with 5% aqueous sodium carbonate.

35. The best reagent for converting the amide of 2-phenylpropanoic acid, C6H5CH(CH3)CONH2, into1-
amino-2-phenylpropane is:
(a) excess H2 & Pt (b) NaOBr in aqueous base
(c) NaBH4 in methanol (d) LiAlH4 in ether

36. Two isomeric hydrocarbons (X and Y) with molecular formula C5H8 undergo catalytic (Pt)
hydrogenation to form hydrocarbon with molecular formula C5H10 as the product. On ozonolysis
followed by oxidative workup (H2O2), one isomer (X) gave a C5H8O4 diacid, while the other isomer (Y)
gave a C5H8O3 ketoacid. X and Y respectively are:
(a) cyclopentene and 1-pentyne (b) cyclopentene and 1-methylcyclobutene
(c) 1-methylcyclobutene and 3-methylcyclobutene (d) cyclopentene and 3-methylcyclobutene

37. The number of sp hybridized carbon atoms are present in 3-methyl-4-vinyl-1,2-heptadien-5-yne is:
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

38. N-Bromosuccinimide (NBS) is a versatile reagent, commonly employed for allylic and benzylic
bromination via free radical pathway. Reaction of 1-hexene with NBS forms two isomeric
bromohexenes, one of which is 3-bromo-1-hexene. Among the following the other isomer is:

(a) 1-bromo-2-hexene (b) 6-bromo-1-hexene (c) 1-bromo-1-hexene (d) 2-bromo-1-hexene

39. The sequence of reagents which would be best suitable for the following conversion is:
O OH
OH
??

cyclohexanone cis-cyclohexane-1,2-diol

(a) PCC in CH2Cl2 and base

(b) (i) NaBH4; (ii) H3PO4 & heat; (iii) Baeyer's reagent
(c) (i) NaBH4; (ii) H3PO4 & heat; (iii) K2Cr2O7
(d) (i) NaBH4; (ii) Alkaline KMnO4

8
 35
40. Among the following, the best sequence of reactions suitable for the following conversion is:
O

??

But-1-yne 2,2-Dimethyl-hexan-3-one

(a) (i) 2 equivalents of HBr, with peroxides, hydrolysis; (ii) addition of tert-butylmagnesium
bromide in ether; (iii) hydrolysis; (iv) PCC in CH2Cl2
(b) (i) 2 equivalents of HBr, with peroxides; (ii) NaBH4; (iii) PBr3; (iv) Mg in ether; (v) 2,2-
dimethylpropanal, followed by hydrolysis
(c) (i) Use of BH3 in THF followed by the treatment of H2O2/HO-; (ii) heated with 2,2-
dimethylpropanal under alkaline medium; (iii) palladium on calcium carbonate
(Pd/CaCO₃); (iv) PCC in CH2Cl2
(d) (i) Using HgSO4, H2SO4 (aq.); (ii) addition of tert-butylmagnesium bromide in
ether; (iii) hydrolysis workup; (iv) PCC in CH2Cl2

41. Consider the following reaction:

Peroxide
?
1-butene UV
CCl4
The major product formed and the correct intermediate involved with 1-butene in the given reaction is:
(a) 1,1,1,3-tetrachloropentane; .CCl3 (b) 1,1,1,2-tetrachloropentane; .Cl
(+)
(c) 1-chloro-2-trichloromethylbutane; CCl3 (d) 1,1-dichloro-2-ethylcyclopropane; (+) Cl

42. The synthesis of para-iodobenzoic acid from para-nitrotoluene is performed using:

-
O ?? O
N+ CH3 I
O HO
para-nitrotoluene para-iodobenzoic acid
(a) (i) Br2 + FeBr2 (ii) Mg in ether, then CO2 (iii) 3 H2 & Pt or Ni catalyst (iv) HNO2 0 ºC (v) KI
solution
(b) (i) NBS in CCl4 & heat (ii) NaI in acetone (iii) 3 H2 & Pt or Ni catalyst (iv) HNO2 0
ºC (v) H3PO2
(c) (i) 3 H2 & Pt or Ni catalyst (ii) HNO2 0 ºC (iii) Cu2Br2 + HBr (iv) KMnO4 & heat (v) KI
solution
(d) (i) KMnO4 & heat (ii) 3 H2 & Pt or Ni catalyst (iii) HNO2 0 ºC (iv) KI solution

43. Consider the following reaction:

O
OH, heat
+ H2*C O
+ H C

* = 14C
CHO *CH2OH
The correct statement among the following is:
(a) Only ‘Crossed Cannizaro’ reaction will give the desired products.
(b) Only ‘Crossed Aldol’ reaction will give the desired products.
(c) ‘Crossed Cannizaro’ reaction followed by ‘Crossed Aldol’ reaction will give the desired
products.
(d) ‘Crossed Aldol’ reaction followed by ‘Nucleophillic Substitution’ reaction will give the desired
products.

9
 35
44. A hazardous environmental pollutant (‘X’), consists of 44.8% carbon, 1.25% hydrogen, and 44.0%
chlorine. The empirical formula of ‘X’ is:
(a) C10H8O4Cl4 (b) C12H6O2Cl4 (c) C6H2OCl2 (d) C10H6OCl4

45. From the following the compound which will give a single mono sulphonic acid as the product upon
aromatic electrophilic sulfonation is:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

46. The amino acids

(i) that will
(i) exhibit
(ii) three
(i) (ii)neutralization points(iv)
(iii)(i) (ii) (iii) each,(iii)
(ii) when(iv)titrated
(iii) against
(iv) NaOH
(iv)
separately are:
(a) Valine and Isoleucine (b) Alanine and Valine
(c) Arginine and Aspartic acid (d) Aspartic acid and Leucine

47. The structures of four ethyl ethers are shown below. Two of them undergo cleavage by aqueous acid
significantly more readily than the other two. Which of these ethers are more easily hydrolyzed?

OEt OEt OEt OEt

O O

I II III IV

(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) III and IV (d) I and IV

48. Predict the product of the following reaction?

BH3. THF
COOH 0oC
EtOOC

(a) (b)
COOH CH2OH
HOH2C HOH2C

(c) CH2OH (d) CH2OH

OHC EtOOC

10
 35
A–2
ANY NUMBER OF OPTIONS (4, 3, 2 or 1) MAY BE CORRECT
MARKS WILL BE AWARDED ONLY IF ALL THE CORRECT OPTIONS ARE BUBBLED AND NO INCORRECT.

49. Winkler method is one of the most accurate methods for measuring the concentration of Dissolved
Oxygen (DO) in water. Mn2+ is rapidly oxidised to Mn3+ under alkaline conditions by dissolved oxygen,
producing a pale brown precipitate of Mn(OH)3.
25.0 mL of a sample of river water is shaken with excess alkaline Mn2+, and the resulting pale brown
precipitate is then reacted with an excess of potassium iodide, which is oxidised to iodine. 25.0 mL of
0.001 M sodium thiosulfate (Na2S2O3) solution was used in the titration to estimate the iodine released
(iodometric titration).

Which of the following options is/are correct?

(a) The reactions involved in the oxidation of Mn(OH)2 to Mn(OH)3 is
4Mn(OH)2 + O2 + 2H2O  4Mn(OH)3
(b) The oxidation of KI by Mn(OH)3 is given by
Mn(OH)3 + KI  ½ I2 + Mn(OH)2 + KOH
(c) 1 mole of sodium thiosulphate requires 2 mol of iodine during the titration.
(d) The concentration of the dissolved oxygen in the given sample is 8 mg L-1

50. Human blood contains 0.1% by mass of glucose, the correct option/s is /are
(a) Blood contains 1000 ppm of glucose.
(b) The molality of glucose is 5.6 × 10 -3 m
(c) Molarity of glucose cannot be calculated as the density of the blood is not known.
(d) 0.1% glucose solution is isotonic with 0.1% urea solution (aq).

51. [Ni(CO)4], [Ni(CN)4]2- and [Ni(Cl)4]2-are the three complex species. Identify set of correct statement
about them.
(a) [Ni(CO)4] and [Ni(CN)4]2- are diamagnetic while [Ni(Cl)4]2- is paramagnetic.
(b) The metal-ligand bond is stronger in [Ni(CN)4]2- and [Ni(Cl)4]2- as compared to the one in
[Ni(CO)4].
(c) [Ni(CO)4] is used in the purification of nickel.
(d) [Ni(CO)4] exhibits tetrahedral geometry while [Ni(CN)4]2- and [Ni(Cl)4]2- exhibit square planer
geometry.

52. In which of the following compound synergic bonding is found

(a) Ni(CO)4 (b) Fe2(CO)9 (c) BH3:CO (d) K[Pt(C2H4)Cl3]

53. A water sample dose not lather with soap. When 10mL of this water sample is titrated against 0.01M
Na2EDTA solution using Eriochrome black T as indicator, 9.6mL concordant reading is obtained. When
same sample is titrated against same Na2EDTA solution and Calcon indicator, 5.5 mL burette reading is
obtained. Water is boiled and then titrated as Na2EDTA using Eriochrome black T, 4.3mL burette
reading is obtained. Which of the following statement is/are correct? (Molar mass of CaCO3 is
100g/mol)
(a) Total hardness of the water is 960ppm of CaCO3
(b) Permanent hardness of the water sample is 430ppm of CaCO3
(c) Hardness due to Calcium ions is 410ppm of CaCO3
(d) Hardness of the water sample before boiling due to magnesium ions is 410ppm of CaCO3.

54. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

(a) XeF2 undergoes slow hydrolysis but more rapid in alkaline medium.
(b) XeF4 reacts violently with water, giving highly explosive solid
(c) Xe reacts with fluorine in 1:5 ratios to give XeF6
(d) XeOF4 is trigonal bipyramidal

11
 35
55. Correct decreasing order of different properties:
(a) Ksp :- Ba(OH)2 > Sr(OH)2 > Ca(OH)2 > Mg(OH)2 > Be(OH)2
(b) Electronegativity : - Be > Mg > Ca > Ba
(c) Heat of hydration : - Be+2 > Sr+2 > Ca+2 > Ba+2
(d) Basic strength : - CsOH > LiOH > KOH

56. The possible product(s) formed when glucose is treated with alkali is/are:
(a) Mannose (b) Fructose
(c) Maltose (d) Glutaric acid

57. Which of the following compound(s) give positive Tollen’s test?

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

58. Consider the following transformation:

H3C H3C OH
O
H3C OH
H3C

The correct route(s) to carry out the following conversion is:

(a) (i) aq. NaHSO3, KCN; (ii) H3O(+), heat; (iii) LiAlH4 in dry ether; (iv) H3O(+), distilled; (v)
CH2=O/HO(-)
(b) (i) MeMgI in dry ether followed by addition of aq. NH4Cl; (ii) H3PO4 heat; (iii) Bayer’s
reagent; (iv) H3O(+), distilled; (v) CH2=O/HO(-)
(c) (i) Hydrazine, KOH, heat; (ii) CH2=O/HO(-)
(d) (i) PCl5, heat; (ii) CH2=O/HO(-)

59. Which of the following procedure(s) is/are not feasible for preparing phenyl benzyl ether
(C6H5OCH2C6H5)?
(a) C6H5Cl + C6H5CH2O(-) Na(+) (b) C6H5O(-) Na(+) + C6H5CH2Cl
(c) 2 C6H5Cl + Na2O (d) 2 C6H5MgBr + CH2O

12
 35
60. Identify the set of correct statement/s about the major product X formed in the following reaction
sequence:

NO2 (i) excess Br2 + FeBr3

& heat
Major product
X
(ii) 3H2 & Pt or Ni catalyst

(a) Molar mass of X is 251

(b) X will consume two moles of acetic anhydride per mole for complete acetylation
(c) X dissolves in 1:1 HCl
(d) X is not an aromatic compound

13
35

14
 35
Rough Work

15