TRƯỜNG THPT KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CÁC TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN

CHUYÊN LÊ KHIẾT KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ

TỈNH QUẢNG NGÃI LẦN THỨ XV, NĂM 2024
ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 10
Thời gian: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
(Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề)
(Đề thi gồm 19 trang)

SECTION A: LISTENING (50 points)

HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
● Bài nghe gồm 4 phần; mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 05 giây; mở đầu
và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu. Thí sinh có 20 giây để đọc mỗi phần câu hỏi.
● Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thí sinh có 03 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài
trước tín hiệu nhạc kết thúc bài nghe.
● Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe

Part 1. You will listen to a short conversation about the Birmingham exhibition. For
questions 1-5, complete the form below by writing NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A
NUMBER for each answer. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes
provided on the answer sheet. (10pts)

BIRMINGHAM EXHIBITION
• Purpose of calling: purchasing tickets
• Open in: (1) …………..…………..
• Length of exhibition: (2) ……………………….
• A wide range of manufacturers will be showcased.
• Some cars are available to observe and the others are for (3) …………………….
• The (4) ……………………. is prohibited to take into the museum.
• Every ticket includes one free (5) ……………….

Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

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Part 2. For questions 6-10, you will hear a talk about sleepwalking, decide if these
statements are true (T) or false (F). (10pts)
6. Human brain can be active when sleeping.
7. Sleepwalking happens in both children and adults, affecting 17% of them.
8. Some people sit up and look around, drive, and even eat when they are sleepwalking.
9. Researchers measured people’s responses to questions when they’re sleeping through
brain activity and facial movements.
10. The tests found that 29% made a correct response, while 60.8% got no response at all.

Your answers:

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. You will hear part of a radio interview in which a young man called Toby Burrow
is talking about a year he spent doing voluntary work in Madagascar. For questions 11-15,
choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. (10pts)

11. Why did Toby choose to work in Madagascar?

A. He thought it would offer interesting travel experiences.
B. He knew other students who had been there before him.
C. He believed it would offer challenging opportunities.
D. He had been influenced by a television programme.
12. How did Toby's mother respond when he announced he was going to Madagascar?
A. She tried to dissuade him from taking the job.
B. She told him about her experience of working abroad.
C. She insisted he take measures to protect his health.
D. She did some research on the country.
13. How did Toby feel after the incident with his wallet?
A. He wanted to quit his job and go home.
B. He thought it was a shame that not all people were honest.
C. He no longer trusted the people he worked with.
D. He believed he was partly responsible for the situation.
14. What does Toby say about his return to the UK?
A. He was eager to discuss his adventures with friends.
B. He felt relieved to be back in familiar surroundings.

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C. He was keen to return to Madagascar.
D. He felt critical of his own country.
15. What advice does Toby offer students who are about to graduate?
A. Have the right attitude towards people you are helping.
B. Give up your voluntary work if you are unhappy.
C. Avoid just going abroad for your own pleasure.
D. Travel with someone you already know well.

Your answers:

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 4. You will listen to a piece of news. For questions 16-25, complete the summary by
writing NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS in each gap. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided. (20pts)

16. In December 2015, China issued a red alert warning for their capital, Beijing due to its
excessive smog and ____________________.
17. Many ____________________ occupied top spots in terms of cleanliness according to
the Green City Index report.
18. While Denmark and Switzerland impose heavy restrictions on high polluting vehicles,
there is also a ____________________ to use public transit, bicycling and walking.
19. Curitiba in Brazil was the first city to introduce ____________________ in 1974.
20. Singapore keep the city clean through ____________________ and infrastructure
investment.
21. ____________________ recycling and water treatment plants in Singapore are designed
around supplying the uniquely compact city.
22. Recycling a significant amount of waste, San Francisco is described as a
____________________ city.
23. A way to maintain low use of energy in San Fransico is to require
____________________ to submit energy usage reports on a regular basis.
24. Accra in Ghana get high scores for establishing a ____________________with the
government.
25. In general, it is ____________________ to be involved that fundamentally contributes to
the protection of the environment.
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Your answers:

16. 21.
17. 22.
18. 23.
19. 24.
20. 25.

SECTION B: LEXICO- GRAMMAR (40 points)

Part 1. For questions 26-55, choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the following
sentences and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided on the
answer sheet. (30 pts)
26. I was talking to _________ the manager about the taste of the dishes we ate.
A. no one rather than B. no one better than
C. none other than D. none whatsoever rather
27. Learning English isn’t so difficult, once you get _________.
A. down to it B. off it C. on it D. down with it
28. Yesterday, the police _______ my father’s car because he parked in a restricted area.
A. impeached B. impounded C. impaled D. interned
29. Don’t _______ to any conclusion before you know the full facts.
A. rush B. dive C. leap D. fly
30. _________ that consumers who use a product are seldom aware of where all its
components come from.
A. So complicated today trade international is
B. So complicated today international trade is
C. International trade is today so complicated
D. So complicated is international trade today
31. The man was_________ of manslaughter by the jury.
A. blamed B. arrested C. charged D. convicted
32. His change of job has __________ him with a new challenge in life.
A. led B. presented C. initiated D. introduced
33. Unfortunately, not all scientists are working for a good __________.
A. end B. aim C. effect D. cause
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34. The driver’s attention was __________ by a child running across the road.
A. deterred B. disturbed C. distracted D. destroyed
35. I recommend that you __________ out the information for the courses online. You’ll find
everything you need there.
A. checking B. to check C. check D. for checking
36. There is a large effort _________ to rebuild arts education in the New York city public
schools.
A. under way B. a long way C. out of the way D. in the way
37. I’m hoping that this work experience will stand me in ________ in my future career.
A. a good grounding B. good stead C. fine precedent D. stable footing
38. Your essay _________ in on Monday. Why wasn’t it on my desk?
A. should be B. must have been C. should have been D. could be
39. So why is it that the hardest workers _______ standard are always the poorest of people.
A. by any B. from any C. for every D. in every
40. There are a lot of computer programmers nowadays, but really good ones are few and far
________.
A. amongst B. apart C. away D. between
41. ______ the two sisters, Mary is ______.
A. Of – the prettier B. Between – the prettiest
C. Of – prettier D. Between – the prettier
42. From mass production clothing to managing factory lines to understanding the nature of
different fabrics, he kept _______ and that has brought him where he is today.
A. a millstone around his neck B. a sword in the stone
C. his heart of stone D. his nose to the grindstone
43. Why should we have to pay a lifetime of premiums, making some insurance company
masses of money, just on the _______ that one day we can make a claim?
A. fighting chance B. mischance C. off-chance D. perchance
44. Roger Williams was a clergyman, ______ the colony of Rhode Island, and an outspoken
advocate of religious and political freedom.
A. founded B. the founder of C. was the founder of D. the founded
45. As far as her future goes, Olivia is _________. She hasn't got a clue what career to follow.
A. on the level B. all at sea C. behind the scenes D. in the know

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46. - “How are things with the new employee?”
- “The boss appears ________ to her and that’s why she is now working harder.”
A. to speak B. to speaking C. to have spoken D. to be spoken
47. He gave such a ________ speech that some people actually fell asleep.
A. long-range B. long-term C. long-winded D. long-standing
48. She found the movie ________ funny.
A. comically B. jokingly C. humorously D. hilariously
49. _________ a fire, hotel guests are asked to remain calm.
A. As a result of B. In the event of C. By reason of D. In the time of
50. But _________ some countries have ruined their agriculture, squandering money on
uneconomic factories, the Ivory Coast has stuck to what it is good at.
A. after B. during C. when D. while
51. Her punk hairstyle showed she was not one for following the ______.
A. flock B. herd C. swarm D. group
52. ______ invisible to the unaided eye, ultraviolet light can be detected in a number of ways.
A. Although is B. Despite C. Even though it D. Although
53. The family were roundly subjected to insults, smutty comments and had a multitude of
_______ cast on them about their manhood for the duration of their walk around the town.
A. aspersions B. criticisms C. doubts D. vilifications
54. ________ the increasing depletion of the Earth resources, it’s vital to recycle on a
wider scale than we do at present.
A. Given B. In spite of C. Irrespective of D. Providing
55. We did our best to fix the broken computer, but our efforts bore no __________.
A. success B. luck C. fruit D. end
Your answers:
26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35.
36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45.
46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55.

Part 2. For questions 56-65, fill each gap with the correct form of the words in brackets.
Write your answer in the boxes provided on the answer sheet. (10 pts)
56. You must realize that such ___________ cannot be tolerated. (OBEY)
57. His work brought him fame, but little ____________ reward. (MONEY)
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58. There was a heavy ____________ yesterday afternoon which completely ruined the
church Garden Party. (POUR)
59. He left us with the _____________ impression that we had been speaking to a future
leader. (ERADICATE)
60. At first glance of the fair maiden, the prince became _____________ and dazed by her
beauty. (MOON)
61. I am glad that the children have taken advantage of the long walk so ___________.
(FELICITY)
62. What most of us remember from history books are the ___________ events.
(CLIMAX)
63. We need to ___________ the problem before we can understand its origin.
(CONTEXT)
64. For twenty-five years, he ____________ amassed evidence to support his hypothesis.
(PAIN)
65. By 1980 the Republican Party platform had become antiabortion; and a president who
pledged to ____________ abortion altogether had been elected. (LAW)

Your answers:
56. 57. 58. 59. 60.

61. 62. 63. 64. 65.

SECTION C: READING (60 points)

Part 1. For questions 66-75, read the following passage and decide which option (A, B, C,
or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes on the
answer sheet. (15 pts)

EMOTIONS AND THE BODY

Most languages have expressions like 'to get cold feet’(66)_________emotions to different
parts of the body. It now seems these associations are (67) _________, with the same
emotions rooted in the same location, (68) _________ of a person's country of
(69)_________.

Scientists from Aalto University, Finland, (70)_________an experiment using more than 700
volunteers from Finland, Sweden and Taiwan. Participants were shown emotional videos,
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pictures of facial expressions and stories intended to (71) _________certain feelings. They
then used computer-generated human silhouettes to (72) _________ their bodies they had felt
any stimulus.

The results showed (73) _________ patterns of bodily sensations associated with each of the
basic emotions. Many emotions provoked changes in the face, while throat and belly
sensations only really appeared in participants feeling disgust. In contrast with all the other
emotions, happiness was associated with (74) _________sensations all over the body.

The authors said their study could in future be applied to the treatment of emotion
(75)_________ such as depression and anxiety.

66. A. bridging B. fastening C. unifying D.linking

67. A thorough B. universal C. sweeping D. expansive
68. A. regardless B. because C. account D. considering
69. A. beginning B. source C. initiation D. origin
70. A. conducted B. administered C. directed D. operated
71. A. trigger B. set C. pioneer D. touch
72. A. design B. plan C. map D .programme
73. A. steady B. consistent C. proportional D. solid
74. A. uplifted B. glorified C. maximised D. enhanced
75. A. disruptions B. distractions C. disorders D. displacements

Your answers:

66. 67. 68. 69. 70.

71. 72. 73. 74. 75.

Part 2. For questions 76-85, read the text below and think of word which best fits each gap.
Use only ONE word in each gap. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
(15pts)
Men and women are different. It is a premise universally accepted, (76) _________ the
subsequent argument concerning access to equal opportunities. However, what is beginning
to emerge is just how wide the gap is between the sexes.
(77) _________ recently, it had been thought that many of the hundreds of genes on the
X and Y chromosomes were inactive, a consequence of damage during the (78)_________ of

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combination and recombination which leads to the creation of a new human being. It was
believed that (79) _________ one of the two X chromosomes in women was active and (80)
_________ there were none on the Y chromosomes on men, (81) _________ the result that
both sexes would be comparable to (82)_________ one working X chromosome.
Now, it is known that both X chromosomes in women (83) _________ to a women's
genetic inheritance, while startling new evidence shows that the Y chromosome is
(84)_________ from inactive. This means that men and women differ (85) _________ as
much as one to two percent of their genomes, an astounding figure when considering that
there is only a 1.5% difference between a man and a male chimpanzee, or a woman and a
female chimpanzee.

Your answers:

76. 77. 78. 79. 80.

81. 82. 83. 84. 85.

Part 3. For questions 86-95, read the following passage and circle the best answer to each
of the following questions. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes provided
on the answer sheet. (15pts)

POWERING THE INDUSTRIAL REVOLUTION

In Britain one of the most dramatic changes of the Industrial Revolution was the harnessing
of power. Until the reign of George III (1760–1820), available sources of power for work and
travel had not increased since the Middle Ages. There were three sources of power: animal or
human muscles; the wind, operating on sail or windmill; and running water. Only the last of
these was suited at all to the continuous operating of machines, and although
waterpower abounded in Lancashire and Scotland and ran grain mills as well as textile
mills, it had one great disadvantage: streams flowed where nature intended them to, and
water-driven factories had to be located on their banks, whether or not the location was
desirable for other reasons. Furthermore, even the most reliable waterpower varied with the
seasons and disappeared in a drought. The new age of machinery, in short, could not have
been born without a new source of both movable and constant power.

The source had long been known but not exploited. Early in the century, a pump had come
into use in which expanding steam raised a piston in a cylinder, and atmospheric pressure

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brought it down again when the steam condensed inside the cylinder to form a vacuum. This
“atmospheric engine,” invented by Thomas Savery and vastly improved by his partner,
Thomas Newcomen, embodied revolutionary principles, but it was so slow and wasteful of
fuel that it could not be employed outside the coal mines for which it had been designed. In
the 1760s, James Watt perfected a separate condenser for the steam, so that the cylinder did
not have to be cooled at every stroke; then he devised a way to make the piston turn a wheel
and thus convert reciprocating (back and forth) motion into rotary motion. He thereby
transformed an inefficient pump of limited use into a steam engine of a thousand uses. The
final step came when steam was introduced into the cylinder to drive the piston backward as
well as forward, thereby increasing the speed of the engine and cutting its fuel consumption.

[A] Watt’s steam engine soon showed what it could do. [B] It liberated industry from
dependence on running water. [C] The engine eliminated water in the mines by driving
efficient pumps, which made possible deeper and deeper mining. [D] The ready availability
of coal inspired William Murdoch during the 1790s to develop the first new form of nighttime
illumination to be discovered in a millennium and a half. Coal gas rivaled smoky oil lamps
and flickering candles, and early in the new century, well-to-do Londoners grew accustomed
to gaslit houses and even streets. Iron manufacturers, which had starved for fuel while
depending on charcoal, also benefited from ever-increasing supplies of coal; blast furnaces
with steam-powered bellows turned out more iron and steel for the new machinery. Steam
became the motive force of the Industrial Revolution, as coal and iron ore were the raw
materials.

By 1800 more than a thousand steam engines were in use in the British Isles, and Britain
retained a virtual monopoly on steam engine production until the 1830s. Steam power did not
merely spin cotton and roll iron; early in the new century, it also multiplied ten times over the
amount of paper that a single worker could produce in a day. At the same time, operators of
the first printing presses run by steam rather than by hand found it possible to produce a
thousand pages in an hour rather than thirty. Steam also promised to eliminate a transportation
problem not fully solved by either canal boats or turnpikes. Boats could carry heavy weights,
but canals could not cross hilly terrain; turnpikes could cross the hills, but the roadbeds could
not stand up under great weights. These problems needed still another solution, and the
ingredients for it lay close at hand. In some industrial regions, heavily laden wagons, with
flanged wheels, were being hauled by horses along metal rails; and the stationary steam

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engine was puffing in the factory and mine. Another generation passed before inventors
succeeded in combining these ingredients, by putting the engine on wheels and the wheels on
the rails, so as to provide a machine to take the place of the horse. Thus the railroad age sprang
from what had already happened in the eighteenth century.

86. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the
highlighted sentence in paragraph 1? Incorrect choices change the meaning in
important ways or leave out essential information.
A. Running water was the best power source for factories since it could keep machines
operating continuously, but since it was abundant only in Lancashire and Scotland,
most mills and factories that were located elsewhere could not be water driven.
B. The disadvantage of using waterpower is that streams do not necessarily flow in places
that are the most suitable for factories, which explains why so many water-powered
grain and textile mills were located in undesirable places.
C. Since machines could be operated continuously only where running water was
abundant, grain and textile mills, as well as other factories, tended to be located only
in Lancashire and Scotland.
D. Running water was the only source of power that was suitable for the continuous
operation of machines, but to make use of it, factories had to be located where the
water was, regardless of whether such locations made sense otherwise.
87. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that before the reign of George III there were
no sources of power that ___________.
A. were movable
B. were widely available
C. did not disappear during certain seasons of the year
D. could provide continuous power
88. Which of the following best describes the relation of paragraph 2 to paragraph 1?
A. Paragraph 2 shows how the problem discussed in paragraph 1 arose.
B. Paragraph 2 explains how the problem presented in paragraph 1 came to be solved.
C. Paragraph 2 provides a more technical discussion of the problem introduced in
paragraph 1.
D. Paragraph 2 shows why the problem discussed in paragraph 1 was especially
important to solve.

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89. The word “exploited” in the passage is closest in meaning to_______.
A. utilized B. recognized C. examined D. fully understood
90. According to paragraph 2, the “atmospheric engine” was slow because ________.
A. it had been designed to be used in coal mines
B. the cylinder had to cool between each stroke
C. it made use of expanding steam to raise the piston in its cylinder
D. it could be operated only when a large supply of fuel was available
91. According to paragraph 2, Watt’s steam engine differed from earlier steam engines
in each of the following ways EXCEPT ___________.
A. It used steam to move a piston in a cylinder.
B. It worked with greater speed.
C. It was more efficient in its use of fuel.
D. It could be used in many different ways.
92. The word “retained” in the passage is closest in meaning to ________
A. gained B.established C. profited from D. maintained
93. According to paragraph 4, which of the following statements about steam engines is
true?
A. They were used for the production of paper but not for printing.
B. By 1800, significant numbers of them were produced outside of Britain.
C. They were used in factories before they were used to power trains.
D. They were used in the construction of canals and turnpikes.
94. According to paragraph 4, providing a machine to take the place of the horse
involved combining which two previously separate ingredients?
A. Turnpikes and canals
B. Stationary steam engines and wagons with flanged wheels
C. Metal rails in roadbeds and wagons capable of carrying heavy loads
D. Canal boats and heavily laden wagons
95. Look at the four squares [_] that indicate where the following sentence can be added
to the passage.
The factories did not have to go to the streams when power could come to the factories.
Where would the sentence best fit?
A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]

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Your answers:
86. 87. 88. 89. 90.
91. 92. 93. 94. 95.

Part 4. For questions 96-105, read the passage and do the following tasks. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes on the answer sheet. (15 pts)

MOLES HAPPY AS HOMES GO UNDERGROUND

A. The first anybody knew about Dutchman Frank Siegmund and his family was when
workmen tramping through a field found a narrow steel chimney protruding through the grass.
Closer inspection revealed a chink of sky-light window among the thistles, and when amazed
investigators moved down the side of the hill, they came across a pine door complete with
leaded diamond glass and a brass knocker set into an underground building. The Siegmunds
had managed to live undetected for six years outside the border town of Breda, in Holland.
They are the latest in a clutch of individualistic homemakers who have burrowed underground
in search of tranquility.
B. Most, falling foul of strict building regulations, have been forced to dismantle their
individualistic homes and return to more conventional lifestyles. But subterranean suburbia,
Dutch-style, is about to become respectable and chic. Seven luxury homes cosseted away
inside a high earth-covered noise embankment next to the main Tilburg city road recently
went on the market for $296,500 each. The foundations had yet to be dug, but customers
queued up to buy the unusual part-submerged houses, whose back wall consists of a grassy
mound and whose front is a long glass gallery.
C. The Dutch are not the only would-be moles. Growing numbers of Europeans are burrowing
below ground to create houses, offices, discos and shopping malls. It is already proving a way
of life in extreme climates; in winter months in Montreal, Canada, for instance, citizens can
escape the cold in an underground complex complete with shops and even health clinics. In
Tokyo builders are planning a massive underground city to be begun in the next decade, and
underground shopping malls are already common in Japan, where 90 percent of the
population is squeezed into 20 percent of the landspace.
D. Building big commercial buildings underground can be a way to avoid disfiguring or
threatening a beautiful or "environmentally sensitive" landscape. Indeed many of the

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buildings which consume most land -such as cinemas, supermarkets, theatres, warehouses or
libraries -have no need to be on the surface since they do not need windows.
E. There are big advantages, too, when it comes to private homes. A development of 194
houses which would take up 14 hectares of land above ground would occupy 2.7 hectares
below it, while the number of roads would be halved. Under several metres of earth, noise is
minimal and insulation is excellent. "We get 40 to 50 enquiries a week," says Peter Carpenter,
secretary of the British Earth Sheltering Association, which builds similar homes in Britain.
"People see this as a way of building for the future." An underground dweller himself,
Carpenter has never paid a heating bill, thanks to solar panels and natural insulation.
F. In Europe the obstacle has been conservative local authorities and developers who prefer
to ensure quick sales with conventional mass-produced housing. But the Dutch development
was greeted with undisguised relief by South Limburg planners because of Holland's chronic
shortage of land. It was the Tilburg architect Jo Hurkmans who hit on the idea of making use
of noise embankments on main roads. His two- floored, four-bedroomed, two - bathroomed
detached homes are now taking shape. "They are not so much below the earth as in it," he
says. "All the light will come through the glass front, which runs from the second-floor ceiling
to the ground. Areas which do not need much natural lighting are at the back. The living
accommodation is to the front, so nobody notices that the back is dark."
G. In the US, where energy-efficient homes became popular after the oil crisis of 1973, 10,000
underground houses have been built. A terrace of five homes, Britain's first subterranean
development, is under way in Nottinghamshire. Italy's outstanding example of subterranean
architecture is the Olivetti residential center in Ivrea. Commissioned by Roberto Olivetti in
1969, it comprises 82 one-bedroomed apartments and 12 maisonettes and forms a house/ hotel
for Olivetti employees. It is built into a hill and little can be seen from outside except a glass
facade. Patnzia Vallecchi, a resident since 1992, says it is little different from living in a
conventional apartment.
H. Not everyone adapts so well, and in Japan scientists at the Shimizu Corporation have
developed "space creation" systems which mix light, sounds, breezes and scents to stimulate
people who spend long periods below ground. Underground offices in Japan are being
equipped with "virtual" windows and mirrors, while underground departments in the
University of Minnesota have periscopes to reflect views and light.
I. But Frank Siegmund and his family love their hobbit lifestyle. Their home evolved when
he dug a cool room for his bakery business in a hill he had created. During a heatwave they
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took to sleeping there. "We felt at peace and so close to nature," he says. "Gradually I began
adding to the rooms. It sounds strange but we are so close to the earth we draw strength from
its vibrations. Our children love it; not every child can boast of being watched through their
playroom windows by rabbits
Questions 96-103
The reading passage above has nine paragraphs (A-I). Choose the most suitable heading
for each paragraph from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate numbers (i-
xii) in boxes 96-103 on your answer sheet. Paragraph A has been done for you as an
example.

NB: There are more headings than paragraphs so you will not use all of them.

List of Headings
i. A designer describes his houses
ii. Most people prefer conventional housing
iii. Simulating a natural environment
iv. How an underground family home developed
v. Demands on space and energy are reduced
vi. The plans for future homes
vii. Worldwide examples of underground living accommodation
viii. Some buildings do not require natural light
ix. Developing underground services around the world
x. Underground living improves health
xi. Homes sold before completion
xii. An underground home is discovered

Example Paragraph A: _____xii____

Paragraph B : (96) ____________

Paragraph C : (97)____________

Paragraph D : (98)____________

Paragraph E : (99)____________

Paragraph F : (100)____________

Paragraph G : (101)____________

Paragraph H : (102)____________

Paragraph I : (103) ____________

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Questions 104-105: Complete the sentences below with words taken from the reading
passage. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Write your answers
in boxes 104-105 on your answer sheet.

104. Japanese scientists are helping people ____________ underground life.

105. Frank Siegmund's first underground room was used for ______________.

Your answers:

96. 97. 98. 99. 100.

101. 102. 103. 104. 105.

D. WRITING (50 points)

Part 1. (20 pts)

The chart below shows information about the problems people have when they go to live
in other countries.

Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features and make
comparisons where relevant. You should write about 150 words.

Integration problems for people living abroad (%)

40
35
30 sorting out finances

25
sorting out healthcare
20
15
finding schools for
10 my children
5
0
people aged people aged people over 55
18-34 35-54

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Part 2. (30 pts)
While some believe that social media brings people closer and fosters communication,
others argue that it leads to social isolation and mental health issues.
Discuss both views and give your own opinion.
Write an essay of about 250 words.
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-------------- HẾT --------------

Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu.
Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm.
Giáo viên ra đề thi: 1. Hồ Thị Thạch Thảo 0362963858
2. Lê Thị Thúy Kiều 0398008195

Page 19 of 19
 QUẢNG NINH KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CÁC TRƯỜNG THPT
TRƯỜNG THPT HÒN GAI CHUYÊN KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐBBB
LẦN THỨ XV, NĂM 2024

ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 10
Thời gian: 180 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)
(Đề thi gồm 20 trang)

A. LISTENING (50 points)

Part 1: Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS
AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. (14 points)
Cycle tour leader: Applicant enquiry
Example:
Name: Margaret .............Smith.............
About the applicant:
• wants a (1) ______________ job
• will soon start work as a doctor
• has led cycle trips in (2) ______________
• interested in being a leader of a cycling trip for families
• is currently doing voluntary work with members of a (3)______________ club
• available for five months from the 1st of May
• can’t eat (4) ______________
Contact details:
• address: 27 (5) ______________ Place, Dumfries
• postcode: (6) ______________
Interview:
• interview at 2.30 pm on Tuesday
• will plan a short (7) ______________ about being a tour guide
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4.
5. 6. 7.

Page 1 of 20
Part 2: You are going to hear a scientist talking about the body clock. Complete the
sentences with a word or a short phrase. Write your answers in the corresponding
numbered spaces provided below. (16 points)
It is only when our normal routine is interrupted that we notice our physical or (8)
______________.
Everyone’s biological clock is determined by (9) _____________ of day into night,
night into day.
(10) ______________ works best around midnight and 9 o’clock in the morning but
normally lasts about 10 minutes or so.
The best time for (11) ______________ is around 11 o’clock in the morning.
Three in the afternoon is when (12) ______________ works best.
It’s right time to memorize important things like a piece of music or (13)
______________.
Late afternoon or early evening are best time for physical activities like volleyball or
basketball because your (14) ______________ are quickest.
A splash of cold water and a blast of (15) ______________ can help you wake up in
the morning.
Your answers:

8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
Part 3. For questions 16-20, listen to an audio on whether can a virus catch a virus,
decide if these statements are true (T) or false (F). (10p)
16. A virus is not classified as a living organism because it does not possess metabolic
processes and proteins necessary for transcription and replication.
17. After scientists had discovered the mimivirus, it was anticipated that the discovery
of its relative was imminent.
18. Sputnik aids mamavirus in replicating by releasing its energetic materials.
19. Whether virophage should be regarded as viral parasites or not is still a source of
controversy.
20. There is incontrovertible proof that some giant viruses safeguard themselves by
taking their hosts' genetic material.
Your answers:

Page 2 of 20
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

Part 4. For questions 21-25, listen to an interview on laughter therapy and choose the
correct answer A, B, C, or D which fits best according to what you hear. Write
your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
21. What do Stella and Rick see as the main explanation for the popularity of what are
called 'laughter clubs'?
A. They allow people to share their problems with others.
B. They don't require people to make a long-term commitment.
C. They are a cost-effective way for people to access professional help.
D. They appeal to people who may be sceptical about other forms of therapy.
22. Rick feels that the main role of a laughter therapist is to
A. ensure that people get sufficient rest and relaxation.
B. help people to escape from one pattern of behaviour.
C. make people aware of the consequences of depression.
D. investigate the causes of people's emotional problems.
23. What does Rick regard as the principal benefit of the laughter therapy sessions he
runs?
A. They enable people to feel less inhibited.
B. They stop people taking life too seriously.
C. They give people a good physical workout.
D. They encourage people to form lasting bonds.
24. Rick's interest in laughter therapy initially arose from
A. first-hand experience of another method.
B. participation in his wife's group sessions.
C. a desire to help his clients more effectively.
D. his mistrust of other alternative approaches.
25. Why does Rick tell us about a client who had problems giving presentations?
A. to suggest an alternative remedy for work-related stress.
B. to highlight the way in which essential oils affect the senses.
C. to show how stress can affect a person's level of performance.
D. to support Stella's point about making time for certain activities.
Your answers:

Page 3 of 20
21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 POINTS)

Part 1: For questions 26-40 , choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to each of the
following questions. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes
provided. (15 points)
26. The whole movie was filmed on_____in the Southern Indian.
A. site B.location C. spot D. venue
27. Eventually the list of candidates for the job was_____down to three.
A. lowered B. decreased C. narrowed D. dropped
28. The doctor gave the patient a(n)_____examination to discover the cause of his
collapse.
A. thorough B. universal C. exact D. whole
29. I’m not sure I believe Jason’s story- it is a bit_________.
A. plausible B. inhospitable C. far-fetched D. endless
30. His health was gradually ________ by drink and drugs.
A. ravaged B. injured C. destroyed D. rectified
31. ________, I had to buy a new one.
A. My dictionary losing B. My dictionary had been lost
C. My dictionary having been lost D. Because my dictionary lost
32. The sheep were huddled into a ____________ to protect them from overnight frosts.
A. cage B. kennel C. pen D. hutch
33. We stand on the ____________ of a new era in space exploration.
A. threshold B. basis C. brink D. surface
34. Three lives were lost in an accident at the____________ of a driver who had been
drinking.
A. mercy B. expense C. high D. hands
35. The _______ of chickens in cages is cruel, so many farmers allow them to wander
freely.
A. constraint B. confinement C. distress D. slaughter
36. The residents are blowing ______ over this issue. It’s impossible to know what they
really want.
A. dry and wet B. hot and cold C. warm and cool D. light and heavy
37. “I have a reservation for a ______ of six. The name’s Jones.” - “I’ll show you to
your table.”
A. band B. circle C. party D. platoon

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38. Thanks to the new infrastructure, the run-down areas in this city have ______.
A. come up in the world B. made a world of difference
C. done the world of good D. had the world of their feet
39. The year 2020 was a ______ in my sister’ life - she changed her career and got
married.
A. beefeater B. touchstone C. watershed D.
loudmouth
40. Despite all the evidence, he wouldn’t admit that he was in the ____________.
A. fault B. error C. wrong D. slip

26. 27. 28. 29. 30.

31. 32. 33. 34. 35.
36. 37. 38. 39. 40.

Part 2 : Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions. (10 points)
41. Jazz had developed into the predominantly American musical style by the 1930s

A B C D

42. The musicians played with advanced harmony, changed chordstructures, and got

A B C

chord substitutions.

43. Their writing is naturalistic and is not connected to particular intellectual

movements.
A B C D
44. Britain is unique between the large European countries in giving mostly no financial
help to
A B C D
their film industry.
45. The Raleigh International Bike Ride is open to anyone that wants to raise money for
a good reason.

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 A B C
D
Part 3. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
46. The company’s publishing operations include business and consumer ______.
(PERIOD)
47. Yesterday the company ______ a soaring 28 percent rise in profits for the year to
December. (VEIL)
48. Such changes are ______ to even the best-trained eye. (PERCEIVE)
49. There have been __________ rumours that the managing director might take early
retirement. (PERSIST)
50. He is a totally ______________person who deliberately defies all standards.
(MORAL)
51. She did not reply, but sat with crimson cheeks and ______________eyes. (CAST)
52. People were ______________by the pictures the satellite sent back to Earth. (AWE)
53. They tracked and controlled construction costs to avoid cost__________. (RUN)
54. The new healthcare policy aims to address healthcare needs__________.
(COMPREHEND)
55. How does societal perception of __________ roles and responsibilities vary across
different cultures. (FAMILY)

SECTION C: READING (60 points)

Part 1. For questions 56-65, read the following passage and decide which option (A,
B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes.
(10 points)
Dyslexic minds
Why some children (56) ______ so much with reading used to be a mystery. Now
researchers know what's wrong - and what to do about it.
When some children look at a page of text, they can see letters’ names. They can
even tell you what sounds those letters make. Nevertheless, even for (57) ______high
school students, to tell what words those letters form is baffling, to say the (58) ______.
They see a wall, a hurdle to get over, and often (59) ______ that some letters are easier
to figure out than others.
The condition is called dyslexia, a reading (60) ______ that persists (61) ______
good schooling and normal or even above average intelligence. It's a handicap that (62)

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______ 10% of the population, according to experts, though some put the figure higher
– up to 20%. The exact (63) ______ of the problem has eluded doctors, teachers, parents
and dyslexics themselves since it was first described more than a century ago. (64)
______, it is so hard for skilled readers to imagine what it's like not to be able to
effortlessly absorb the printed word that they often (65) ______ the real problem is
laziness or obstinacy or a proud parent's inability to recognise that his or her child isn't
that smart after all.
56. A. fight B. strive C. struggle D. cope
57. A. talkative B. articulate C. mindful D. well-educated
58. A. most B. least C. truth D. fact
59. A. admit B. assume C. predict D. accept
60. A. malfunction B. disease C. disorder D. fault
61. A. despite B. although C. besides D. without
62. A. affects B. effects C. influences D. attacks
63. A. type B. characteristics C. quality D. nature
64. A. However B. Indeed C. Really D. Nevertheless
65. A. doubt B. reject C. wonder D. suspect

Your answers:
56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65.

Part 2. For questions 66-75, fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE
suitable word and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
HARD ROAD TO SUCCESS

In today’s music industry it is hard to (66) ______ out in the crowd but the band,
Makeover Mayhem, seem to have done just that. They only got together a couple of
months ago, but their first album, which was ready for downloading only a week ago, is
already speeding (67) ______ the charts. It looks as if they are (68) ______ to become
the biggest success story of the year. If this continues, they stand (69) ______ reach
number one and make their fortunes. Their music harks (70) ______ to the early rock
and roll of the fifties and the reason for their success is probably due to two main things:

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first, the modern twist which they have put on rock and roll music and, secondly, the
(71) ______ of nostalgia that seems to be sweeping through the music-buying public.

In sharp contrast to the band, Josh Logan is an actor who has been struggling for
years to (72) ______ a name for himself. But, finally, he has just finished his first lead
role in a film at the age of 32. (73) ______ he loves working on films, he finds it
difficult to tap into the emotional (74) ______ required when the scenes do not follow
on from each other as they do in a stage play. The film (75) ______ to have been
released in spring next year, but that has now changed to the autumn, mainly because of
the director’s pedantic obsession with a perfection that only exists in his head. However,
Josh knows that tenacity and belief in what you are doing is a prerequisite for an actor
and he is prepared to work long hours to be the best he can be.

Your answers:
66. 67. 68. 69. 70.
71. 72. 73. 74. 75.

Part 3. For questions 76-85, read the following passage and circle the best answer to
each of the following questions. Write your answers in corresponding numbered
boxes provided. (10 points)
AN UNLIKELY MUSE
A new wave of music and arts projects has emerged, focusing on someone who
may seem for some a dubious source of inspiration. Imelda Marcos, former first lady of
the Philippines, is currently becoming the subject of musicals, song cycles and shows on
a worldwide arena.
When the Marcos regime collapsed in 1986, and Imelda and her husband
Ferdinand were exiled in Hawaii, they carried with them allegations of embezzlement,
corruption and human rights abuses. Imelda had spent the last twenty years living off a
seemingly endless supply of funds, living an exotic and glamorous lifestyle and
rubbing shoulders with powerful figures worldwide. In 1972, when the superstar
couple’s popularity was fading and they were at risk of losing their power, Ferdinand
Marcos instated martial, leading to an era of chaos and plunder, and what is described
by some as the second most corrupt regime of the twentieth century. Ferdinand and

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Imelda fled in 1986 to escape the People’s Power Revolution, Imelda leaving behind
some 2000 pairs of shoes.
After her husband died in Hawaii due to ill health, Imelda stood trial in the United
States on behalf of her husband. Following that, she returned to the Philippines to face
seventy more counts of corruption and tax evasion. She has now returned to congress in
the Philippines, her make-up and gowns as flawless as ever.
So what makes Imelda Marcos such an appealing muse? Undoubtedly, Imelda
Marcos’s resolute character which has withstood exile, legal battles and the wrath of her
enemies makes her an appealing heroine, but film-maker Fenton Bailey attributes her
iconicity to her sense of glamour and style, and her role as a cultural trend-setter. And
like so many women who let nothing come between them and their goals, she has
gained a certain iconic status, particularly among homosexuals, not unlike that of Judy
Garland and Lady Gaga.
And now the story of Imelda Marcos can be seen in the format of a musical, an
artistic genre which is quite befitting for this flamboyant, entertaining figure of beauty
and glamour. ‘Imelda – A new musical’ has played in Los Angeles and New York. The
artistic director of the musical, Tim Dang, realises that the musical glosses over the
darker aspects of the Marcos regime, but wanted to portray Imelda as a person with all
her faults on display, leaving the audience to come to a verdict. However, despite the
glitz of the show, reviews were mixed, stating the ‘the serio-comic spoof... had a
vacuum at its centre’.
The story of Imelda Marcos has also been immortalised as a song cycle, ‘Here Lies
Love’ written by David Byrne and Norman Cook, in which Imelda comes across as both
a hero and villain. Their reasoning was to try to understand the story of how people can
attain positions of such power and greed. They were also inspired by Imelda’s love of
dancing and clubbing, and how her own style of music could be incorporated into their
own. Byrne adds that their story is not black and white – the couple were very popular
at first, and Imelda headed a lot of public works in the Philippines and added much to
the nation’s sense of culture and identity.
At the Cultural Centre of the Philippines, a tour named ‘La Vida Imelda’ led by
Carlos Sedran describes the life of Imelda Marcos, the cold war and martial law, while

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also portraying the glamour of the Imelda lifestyle. He describes it as an eternal story, in
which her extravagance can be seen as either distasteful or in some ways estimable.
There is a danger that these new art forms airbrush out the atrocity which
accompanied the ostentation and glamour. It was a time when democracy was
suppressed, political enemies disappeared, and billions of dollars which could have
helped the poverty-stricken country were spent on the Marcos’s extravagant lifestyle.
However, the artists involved are keen to make clear that the regime also resulted in
great leaps forward in the country’s culture, architecture and infrastructure. The Marcos
legacy remains in the form of hospitals, Heart and Lung Centres, Folk Art theatres and
homes for children and the elderly, notwithstanding that the Marcos couple set their
war-ravaged, poverty-stricken land onto the world stage.

76. Why are Imelda’s shoes mentioned in the second paragraph?

A. To illustrate how little she cared for her personal possessions
B. To illustrate her love of fashion and beauty
C. To indicate how quickly she had to flee the country
D. To illustrate the extravagance of her lifestyle
77. What aspect of Imelda’s character is emphasised in paragraph 3?
A. her flamboyance B. her beauty C. her doggedness D. her forbearance
78. Why is Imelda compared with Judy Garland and Lady Gaga?
A. Due to her status as a gay icon B. Due to her ambition and drive
C. Because she has created new fashions D. Because she has triumphed over legal battles
79. The phrase “rubbing shoulders” in the second paragraph mostly means ______.
A. hobnobbing B. abetting C. fostering D. conferring
80. Why was the musical of Imelda’s life criticised?
A. Because it did not portray Imelda’s faults B. Because the show was too shallow
C. Because it was too glamorous and showy D. Because it was both serious and comedic
81. What was it about Imelda’s story that interested David Byrne and Norman Cooke?
A. The ongoing themes of power, greed and music
B. The fact that the story had both a clear hero and villain
C. The reasoning why people such as Imelda become who they are

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D. The fact that her musical taste was similar to theirs
82. The word “incorporated” in the sixth paragraph is closest in meaning to _____.
A. inverted B. infused C. integrated D. interbred
83. According to Carlos Sedran, how do people respond to Imelda’s expensive lifestyle?
A. Most people are shocked by it. B. It evokes both positive and negative
feelings.
C. People want to be like her. D. People realise why she did it.
84. The word “atrocity” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _____.
A. complexity B. indignity C. mendacity D. barbarity
85. Which of the following is not mentioned in the text as something Imelda Marcos did
for the Philippines?
A. She made health services available to the people.
B. She gave the country a cultural identity.
C. She reduced the levels of poverty for Filipino people.
D. She drew the world’s attention to the country.

Your answers:
76. 77. 78. 79. 80.
81. 82. 83. 84. 85.

Part 4. For questions 86-95, read the passage and do the following tasks. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes on the answer sheet. (20 points)
How should reading be taught?
By Keith Rayncr a Barbara R Foorman

A. Learning to speak is automatic for almost all children, but learning to read requires
elaborate instruction and conscious effort. Well aware of the difficulties, educators have
given a great deal of thought to how they can best help children learn to read. No single
method has triumphed. Indeed, heated arguments about the most appropriate form of
reading instruction continue to polarize the teaching community.

B. Three general approaches have been tried. In one, called whole-word instruction,
children learn by rote how to recognise at a glance a vocabulary of 50 to 100 words.

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Then they gradually acquire other words, often through seeing them used over and over
again in the context of a story.
Speakers of most languages learn the relationship between letters and the sounds
associated with them (phonemes). That is, children are taught how to use their
knowledge of the alphabet to sound out words. This procedure constitutes a second
approach to teaching reading – phonics.
Many schools have adopted a different approach: the whole-language method. The
strategy here relies on the child’s experience with the language. For example, students
are offered engaging books and are encouraged to guess the words that they do not
know by considering the context of the sentence or by looking for clues in the storyline
and illustrations, rather than trying to sound them out.
Many teachers adopted the whole-language approach because of its intuitive appeal.
Making reading fun promises to keep children motivated, and learning to read depends
more on what the student does than on what the teacher does. The presumed benefits of
whole-language instruction – and the contrast to the perceived dullness of phonics – led
to its growing acceptance across American during the 1990s and a movement away
from phonics.

C. However, many linguists and psychologists objected strongly to the abandonment of

phonics in American schools. Why was this so? In short, because research had clearly
demonstrated that understanding how letters related to the component sounds in words
is critically important in reading. This conclusion rests, in part, on knowledge of how
experienced readers make sense of words on a page. Advocates of whole-language
instruction have argued forcefully that people often derive meanings directly from print
without ever determining the sound of the word. Some psychologists today accept this
view, but most believe that reading is typically a process of rapidly sounding out words
mentally. Compelling evidence for this comes from experiments which show that
subjects often confuse homophones (words that sound the same, such as rose and
‘rows). This supports the idea that readers convert strings of letters to sounds.

D. In order to evaluate different approaches to teaching reading, a number of

experiments have been carried out, firstly with college students, then with school pupils.
Investigators trained English-speaking college students to read using unfamiliar
symbols such as Arabic letters (the phonics approach), while another group learned
entire words associated with certain strings of Arabic letters (whole-word). Then both
groups were required to read a new set of words constructed from the original
characters. In general, readers who were taught the rules of phonics could read many
more new words than those trained with a whole-word procedure.
Classroom studies comparing phonics with either whole-word or whole-language
instruction are also quite illuminating. One particularly persuasive study compared two

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programmes used in 20 first-grade classrooms. Half the students were offered traditional
reading instruction, which included the use of phonics drills and applications. The other
half were taught using an individualised method that drew from their experiences with
languages; these children produce their own booklets of stories and developed sets of
words to be recognised (common components of the whole-language approach). This
study found that the first group scored higher at year’s end on tests of reading and
comprehension.

E. If researchers are so convinced about the need for phonics instruction, why does the
debate continue? Because the controversy is enmeshed in the philosophical differences
between traditional and progressive (or new) approaches, differences that have divided
educators for years. The progressive challenge the results of laboratory tests and
classroom studies on the basis of a broad philosophical skepticism about the values of
such research. They champion student-centred learned and teacher empowerment.
Sadly, they fail to realise that these very admirable educational values are equally
consistent with the teaching of phonics.

F. If schools of education insisted that would-be reading teachers learned something

about the vast research in linguistics and psychology that bears on reading, their
graduates would be more eager to use phonics and would be prepared to do so
effectively. They could allow their pupils to apply the principles of phonics while
reading for pleasure. Using whole-language activities to supplement phonics instruction
certainly helps to make reading fun and meaningful for children, so no one would want
to see such tools discarded. Indeed, recent work has indicated that the combination of
literature-based instruction and phonics is more powerful than either method used alone.
Teachers need to strike a balance. But in doing so, we urge them to remember that
reading must be grounded in a firm understanding of the connections between letters
and sounds. Educators who deny this reality are neglecting decades of research. They
are also neglecting the needs of their students.

Questions 1-10
The reading passage has six sections, A-F.
Choose the correct heading for sections B-F from the list of headings below.
Write the correct number, i-ix, in boxes 86-90 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings
i Disagreement about the reading process
ii The roots of the debate
iii A combined approach
iv Methods of teaching reading
v A controversial approach

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vi Inconclusive research
vii Research with learners
vii Allowing teachers more control
ix A debate amongst educators
Example
Section A ix
86. Section B
87. Section C
88. Section D
89. Section E
90. Section F
Questions 91-95
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the reading passage ?
In boxes 6-10 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

91. The whole-language approach relates letters to sounds.

92. Many educators believe the whole-language approach to be the most interesting
way to teach children to read.
93. Research supports the theory that we read without linking words to sounds.
94. Research has shown that the whole-word approach is less effective than the whole-
language approach.
95. Research has shown that phonics is more successful than both the whole-word and
whole-language approaches.

Your answers:
86. 87. 88. 89. 90.
91. 92. 93. 94. 95.

Part 5: You are going to read some extracts taken from an article on artificial
intelligence. Choose from the sections (A-E) the correct answer to each of the
question . The sections may be chosen more than once. Write your answers on the
answer sheet (10 points).

THE MACHINE AGE

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A. As the pace of technological development advances at ever greater speeds, society
has had to come to terms with some exceedingly rapid changes. This has led to some
deep collective soul searching about the effects of technology on ordinary lives. The
question is whether the sudden adoption of the virtual world of cyber space is having a
profound effect on human isolation. Do people talk anymore? Or is communication now
mainly through the various electronic media that so many people use? Many lament the
rise of these media within society and wonder how far this virtual life will go. Will we
reach the stage where we can actually transpose our brains into an avatar and lives our
lives vicariously in cyberspace? This could finally be the route to immortality that has
long been a subtle human desire, the ability to cheat death and for all.

B. But just how real the fears about the role of technology in our lives are is a complex
question to answer. And there is some evidence that we are simply worrying about the
wrong thing. Research does not support the idea that the increased connectivity afforded
people by the interest has led to greater social isolation. In fact, it appears to have had
the opposite effect, in that the people who are the most connected on social networks
tend to have greater social interaction and are more engaged in public life than those
who do not use them. The ease of use and convenience of new technologies have
induced people to adapt to them and to do so at great speed. It is this speed of change
that has alarmed some people. It’s a phenomenon that could simply be described as
“The Shock of the New” and it’s one that has greeted all major societal changes
throughout history and it could, reasonably, be regarded as nothing more alarming than
a process by which change comes to be accepted.

C. So, are there any valid fears with regard to this sudden rise in technological
breakthroughs? One possibly legitimate fear is that the machines may, in the not so
distant future, attain greater intelligence than humans. As technology becomes more
sophisticated, we come closer to the reality of artificial intelligence that exceeds our
own. The danger of this is that with so much of our future lives likely to be very deeply
interconnected with machines, they will, in a real sense, control our behavior even if it
is only in very subtle, unobtrusive ways. There is also something to be said for the idea
that even now machines have extensive control in the developed world. Were they to be

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suddenly switched off, entire sectors of our society would simply collapse. There would
be no access to banking, shopping, transport or communication.

D. In the end, we need to ask ourselves, as a society, whether this interconnectedness

with technology is something we should embrace or resist. And the truth of the matter is
that it is almost impossible to envisage an ideology that would seek to reverse the march
of technology. Technology is now an inherent part of our society and culture and so
interwoven into every aspect of our lives that to remove it would essentially mean the
collapse of our civilization as it currently exists. No one would have thought it credible
that suddenly, in the 19th century, the brakes should have been put on the industrial
revolution and Europe and North America should have returned to a rural farming
existence. The same argument stands for the technology of today.

E. So, in essence, we have no real choice but to embrace technology and its inexorable
rise within society. To try to do otherwise is counterproductive to our own good as a
species as well as an exercise in futility. That the machines will gain in intelligence in
the near future is inevitable, but there are ways to safeguard our systems from nefarious
control, as long as we remember that all systems need to have built-in checks and
balances, whether the systems are within or external to the machines in our lives.
Humanity is, without doubt, now set firmly on a path which is dominated by the integral
coexistence of man and machine.

In which section are the following mentioned? Your answers:

A refutation of a popular assumption about the way people socialize 96.

nowadays

The possibility of living forever in the form of an avatar 97.

An explanation of anxiety about the advancing intelligence of 98.

machines

The idea that face-to-face contact is diminishing rapidly 99.

Why concern about intelligent machines may be justified 100.

The possibility of human existence becoming an entirely virtual 101.

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experience

The need to ensure that all structures within society have measures 102.
to prevent them from becoming corrupt

The inevitability of the development of the intellectual capability of 103.

machines

An example from the past used to illustrate the ridiculousness of a 104.

current idea

The parts of society already entirely dependent on machine input 105.

SECTION D: WRITING
Part 1: Chart description.(20 points)
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
The line graph below shows the percentage of tourists to England who visited four
different attractions in Brighton.

Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features and make
comparisons where relevant.

Write at least 150 words.

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Part 2. Write an essay (40 points)

Write an essay of about 250 words to express your opinion on the following issue
(40 pts)

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The use of e-cigarettes (vaping) has become increasingly popular, especially
among young people. Many argue that this is a dangerous habit that needs to be
stopped.

Discuss the harmful effects of e-cigarette use on health and propose solutions to curb
this issue.

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-------------- HẾT --------------

(NGUYỄN THỊ VÂN ANH-0986919868.)

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 1

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CÁC

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN KHU VỰC
HOÀNG VĂN THỤ ĐỒNG BẰNG DUYÊN HẢI BẮC BỘ
TỈNH HOÀ BÌNH Năm học: 2023 – 2024

Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút

ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT - Anh 10 (không kể thời gian giao đề)

A. LISTENING (50 points)

Part 1: You will listen to a short conversation about job vacancies in restaurants. For
questions 1-5, complete the table using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A
NUMBER for each answer. (10 points)

Location Job title Responsibilities Pay and conditions

Wivenhoe Breakfast Checking (1) Starting salary 9.50 per

Street supervisor ________ hour
Making sure Start work at (2)
equipment is clean ________

(3) Junior chef Supporting the senior Annual salary £23,000

__________ staff and (4) ______ No work on every (5)
Maintaining stock and _______
arranging deliveries

Your Answer:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
 2

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to a talk about how to keep calm under pressure and
decide whether these statements are True (T), False (F). Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided. (10 points)
6. A repeated breathing exercise will help you feel calmer.
7. If you are going to speak in public, it’s helpful to breathe quickly.
8. When you feel panic, a deep breathing through your nose will do you good.
9. Researches have shown that humming cannot stimulate heart rate.
10. Sports trainers always use “process thinking” to help athletes focus.
Your answers:

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. For questions 11-15, listen to an interview with the head of an employment
agency about job expectations and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best
according to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes
provided. (10 points)
11. How does Diane Webber view ‘jobs for life’?
A. She regrets the fact that this situation is no longer the norm.
B. She feels that many long-serving employees failed to make a useful contribution.
C. She believes that people should have challenged their employers’ motives more.
D. She wishes the workplace had been more secure in the past.
12. According to Diane, younger workers in today’s workplace ______.
A. learn all the skills they need early on. B. accept lateral moves if they are attractive.
C. expect to receive benefits right from the start. D. change jobs regularly to achieve a
higher level.
13. What does Diane say about staff continuity in companies?
 3

A. It is desirable in both junior and senior management.

B. It is impossible to achieve in today’s more competitive environment.
C. It is unimportant, due to the greater emphasis on teamwork.
D. It is necessary, but only up to a point.
14. According to Diane, what is the actual benefit of higher levels of personnel movement?
A. higher levels of output B. better problem-solving
C. more creativity D. greater efficiency
15. Diane considers that nowadays, companies are at most risk from ______.
A. run-of-the-mill employees who play safe. B. successful high-fliers who quickly move
on.
C. unreliable staff who lack commitment. D. external advisors who have undue power.
Your answers:

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 4. You will listen to a recording about Koalas. For questions 16-25, complete the
summary by writing NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS in each gap. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (20 points)
Koalas are being particularly (16)._______________ in New South Wales as their habitats
are being destroyed.
Koala seems to be (17). ________________ and probably quite hungry.
It is estimated that hundreds of koalas have died in (18).________________ raging in
Eastern Australia since September.
(19) _____________ koalas have been admitted by the region's Port Macquarie Koala
Hospital so far this year.
 4

While the disaster has inflicted serious damage on the animal, the support from the public
has been (20).________________.
The number of visitors coming to the Koala Hospital over the last 5-6 weeks has been (21)
_________________.
A large amount of money has been set aside to help (22).________________ koalas.
There are concerns that a new heat wave could further (23) .________________ infernos.
Very little would actually survive in there (24) ______________
Rising temperatures, which dry out their habitats, deforestation and disease are
(25).________________.
Your answers:
16. 17.

18. 19.

20. 21.

22. 23.

24. 25.

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (40 points)

Part 1: Choose the correct answer (A,B,C or D) to complete each of the following
sentences. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (30
points)

1. The foot _______ diligently searched the area for signs of the enemy.

A. squad B. force C. party D. patrol

 5

2. Being a _______ entrepreneur, you will have to make a special effort for people to take
you seriously.

A. successful B. budding C. blossoming D. flowering

3. I wanted to resign, but my boss _______ with me to stay.

A. pleaded B. parted C. argued D. bargained

4. His explanation was so _______ that it left everyone more confused than before.

A. convoluted B. precise C. lucid D. coherent

5. The artist's latest exhibition was _______ received by critics.

A. passionately B. indifferently C. warmly D. coldly

6. The manager's new policy _______ unnecessary expenditures.

A. cut off B. cut back C. cut down D. cut out

7. After months of investigation, the committee _______ the director from all allegations
of fraud.

A. liberated B. exonerated C. emancipated D. discharged

8. The CEO is known for his _______ to innovative ideas and approaches.

A. hostility B. openness C. reservation D. opposition

9. The _______ light of the setting sun cast long shadows on the ground.

A. glaring B. dimming C. fading D. blinding

10. The film was not just a box office success; it was ______ acclaimed.

A. critically B. uncritically C. ironically D. skeptically

11. To the _______ of the committee, the proposal was rejected outright.
 6

A. dismay B. delight C. amusement D. apathy

12. The solution to the problem was _______ in its simplicity.

A. ingenious B. naïve C. complex D. baffling

13. Despite the hype, the new restaurant did not _______ our expectations.

A. come up to B. fall short of C. live up to D. get around to

14. The detective's keen eye for detail helped him _______ the truth.

A. uncover B. discover C. recover D. unearth

15. The scientist's theory was _______ at the conference.

A. widely discredited B. widely accepted

C. narrowly rejected D. eagerly anticipated
16. The company decided to _______ the old equipment to make way for new
technology.

A. discard B. preserve C. abandon D. retain

17. The novel's plot is _______ with unexpected twists and turns.

A. replete B. devoid C. scarce D. wanting

18. The chairman's remarks were seen as a _______ to the opposition.

A. challenge B. concession C. retreat D. surrender

19. The hotel room was _______ and offered a stunning view of the city skyline.

A. cramped B. spacious C. confined D. narrow

20. The teacher's _______ approach made even the most difficult subjects seem easy.

A. pedagogical B. didactic C. pedagogic D. instructional

21. Was it really necessary that I _______ there watching you the entire time you were
 7

rehearsing for the play? It was really boring watching you repeat the scenes over and over
again.

A. sits B. am sitting C. be sitting D. To sit

22. ______ as taste is really a composite sense made up of both taste and smell.

A. That we refer to B. What we refer to

C. To which we refer D. What do we refer to

23. ______ the increasing depletion of the Earth resources, it’s vital to recycle on a wider
scale than we do at present.

A. Given B. In spite of C. Irrespective of D. Providing

24. On the island _______ the only representation of the island’s handicraft.

A. remain B. does it remain C. did it remain D. remains

25. _________, the balcony chairs will be ruined in this weather.

A. Leaving uncovered B. Having left uncovered

C. Left uncovered D. Been left uncovered

26. I ________ with the performances but I got flu the day before.

A. had helped B. helped C. was to help D. was to have helped

27. She said that she would be punctual for the opening speech, ______she were late?

A. but what if B. how about C. and what about D. so if

 8

28. In her time, Isadora Duncan was ______ today a liberated woman.

A. what calling we would B. who would be calling

C. what we would call D. she would call her

29. Our projects are funded through the Private Finance Initiative, the costs _____ spread
over ten years.

A. are B. being C. have been D. will be

30. Only when more stringent traffic laws are passed _____ on the national highway
decrease.

A. is the number of accidents B. the number of accidents is

C. the number of accidents will D. will the number of accidents

Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.

Part 2: For questions 1-10, write the correct form of each bracketed word in each
sentence. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (10
points)
 9

1. Democracy died after a period of ________ (cease) wars, imperial expansion abroad,
and the rise of demagoguery at home.

2. The consequences of ________ (compel) gambling are comparable to those of any

other addictive disease and are not simply those of financial loss.

3. The prison service has the twin goals of punishment and ________ (habit).

4. The first ________ (conceive) is that legal study at university is exclusively for
students who intend becoming solicitors or advocates.

5. The ________ (intricate) of the design required exceptional skill and attention to
detail.

6. The ________ (contend) issue in the debate was how to allocate the funding fairly.

7. The ________ (intuitive) of her solution demonstrated her deep understanding of the
problem.

8. The ________ (presume) of the young scientist in challenging established theories was
both daring and admirable.

9. The ________ (elude) of the criminal made the investigation particularly challenging
for the police.

10. The ________ (transcend) nature of the experience left everyone in awe.

Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
 10

III. READING (60 points)

Part 1: Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits
each gap. (15 points)

Many artefacts of (1) …………. cultural significance from the last century were made
from plastic. It was always confidently assumed that this rather (2) …………. material
was virtually indestructible. Now that some of these artefacts have become museum (3)
…………., we have discovered that this (4) …………. was sadly mistaken.

The degradation of plastics is worrying both scientists and historians, who are racing
against time to save our plastic heritage before it (5) …………. into dust. Our love affair
with plastics (6) …………. in large part from the fact they can be (7) …………. into just
about any shape imaginable. When it comes to longevity, however, they have a serious
(8) ………….: their chemical structure breaks down when they are exposed to air and
sunlight.

Many now argue that we must consider the cultural (9) …………. we will be leaving
future generations. Without urgent (10) …………. many artefacts will be lost forever.
But developing effective conservation strategies is difficult because what works to
preserve one type of plastic can have a catastrophic effect on the lifespan of another.

1. A. enduring B. lingering C. unceasing D. perennial

2. A. trivial B. routine C. customary D. mundane

3. A. items B. articles C. pieces D. objects

4. A. concept B. premise C. notion D. proposition

 11

5. A. crumbles B. shatters C. erodes D. shrivels

6. A. starts B. sparks C. stems D. sprouts

7. A. cast B. moulded C. engraved D. dissected

8. A. fault B. snag C. stigma D. flaw

9. A. bequest B. legacy C. endowment D. heirloom

10. A. intervention B. interception C. interference D. Intercession

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 2. For questions 1-10, read the text below and think of a word which best fits
each space. Use only ONE word in each space. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided. (15 points)

Advancements in artificial intelligence (AI) have (1) _______ transformative changes

across various sectors, from healthcare to finance and beyond. AI systems are (2) _______
capable of processing vast amounts of data and performing complex tasks with
unprecedented accuracy. This technological revolution has sparked debates about the
ethical implications of AI and its (3) _______ impact on society.

One area where AI has shown remarkable promise is in healthcare. AI-powered

diagnostic tools can (4) _______ early signs of diseases with high accuracy, potentially
saving lives through early intervention. However, concerns (5) _______ privacy and data
security have emerged, as these systems rely heavily on personal health information.
 12

In the realm of business, AI algorithms are (6) _______ used to streamline operations
and enhance productivity. By automating repetitive tasks, companies can allocate human
resources more efficiently and (7) _______ on strategic initiatives. Nevertheless, there is
apprehension about the impact of AI on employment, with fears that automation may (8)
_______ jobs traditionally performed by humans.

Ethically, the development of AI raises questions about accountability and transparency.

As AI systems make decisions autonomously, ensuring they operate ethically and (9)
_______ bias becomes paramount. Moreover, there is a need for international collaboration
to establish (10) _______ guidelines that govern the ethical use of AI across borders.

Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3: Read the passage and choose the best option A, B, C, or D to answer the
questions. (15 points)

BIOLOGICAL PATENTS

The patenting on biological matter has become particularly awkward and publicly
controversial in recent times. The reason for this is that scientists are patenting life itself,
though we should be careful about what we mean by 'life'. Many countries have allowed
people to own and register plant varieties for decades. America took the lead, starting with
the 1930 Plant Patent Act, followed by Germany and other European countries. Britain
passed its Plant Varieties and Seeds Act in 1964, when it awarded a full monopoly right to
the owner of any plant that can be shown to be novel, distinct, uniform and stable. The test
 13

of novelty is much looser than that required for an industrial patent (who knows what plants
may be growing in the wild?). So, a plant qualifies for protection even if it has a history of
growing wild as long as it has not been sold commercially for more than four years.

At the same time, patenting a seed or a plant for agricultural purposes was regarded as
being no different from patenting a chemical or biological recipe for pharmaceutical
purposes. This notion was particularly welcome for Western farmers and horticulturalists
who were eager to increase yields as their own costs grew (especially farm wages) and
foreign imports from low-wage countries undercut their prices. They were also keen to
grow new varieties that could be harvested and brought to market a few weeks earlier. So,
the huge investments in faster-growing and more disease-resistant seeds over the past fifty
years might not have been made if the seed companies had not been able to protect their
work.

Over that period the number of applications for plant and genetic patents has increased
rapidly. Technological advances in biotechnology have extended scientists' ability to
exploit biological matter from whole plants into their various components; from whole
animals to parts of animals; and from animals to humans. Developments in DNA and in
cell technology have allowed scientists to identify, nurture and remix cells so that they can
create living material. The identification of the human genome, which contains the genes
that control the 'design' of each human, will also require a property contract.

But should the genome be public property in the same way as the knowledge of blood
types is? Or should it be private property? In 1952, the American Supreme Court famously
said, 'Anything under the sun that is made by man is patentable.' Since then, its position
has shifted. In Diamond v. Chakrabarty in 1980, it was asked to rule on a patent application
by Anand Chakrabarty for a genetically modified bacterial microorganism designed to
gobble up oil spills at sea. It decided to shift the dividing line to between the product of
 14

nature, whether living or not, and human-made inventions which may, of course, be living,
and it approved the patent. In 1987, the US Patent Office issued new guidelines which
stated that all bio-organisms except humans could be patented.

The Patent Office later issued a patent to Harvard University for an experimental mouse
known as Oncomouse, into which an oncogene had been inserted for the purpose of
medical research. The European Patent Office, after initially demurring, did likewise. It
said Oncomouse was such a considerable manipulation of genetic material as to be new
and unique. It was protested on ethical grounds that the mice would suffer during the
research, but the EPO decided that the benefit to society outweighed the loss to the mouse;
a neat variation on the 'property contract' that balances the creator's reward against the
social gain. This rapid shift over seven years was a breath-taking expansion of private
property and a massive change in attitude towards the ownership of life.

Another odd case that reinterpreted the property contract against our common instincts
occurred when a Californian University medical centre managed to own and patent the cell
line found in a spleen taken from a patient John Moore, who had hairy-cell leukaemia. The
doctors had discovered that Moore's T-lymphocytes were extremely rare and of great
medical value. Without informing him, they carried out intensive tests that ended with the
removal of his spleen. The cells were indeed as valuable as expected, generating products
worth hundreds of millions of dollars. When Moore discovered how the university had
privatised his cells, and made huge profits, he sued, but he lost. The Supreme Court of
California decided that we do not have an exclusive right to ownership of our cells after
they have left our body.

1. Under the 1964 Act, one requirement that qualified a plant for a patent was that it

A. had been developed as a result of commercial exploitation.

 15

B. had been discovered in the wild fewer than four years earlier.

C. exhibited characteristics that distinguished it from other plants.

D. had no prior history of being used in an industrial process.

2. The word horticulturalists refers to those who

A. grow flowers B. study cultures C. import seeds D. grow organic

foods

3. Why were Western farmers keen to raise production levels in the 1960s?

A. Their overheads were making them less competitive.

B. The market price of their products had been reduced.

C. Disease that could destroy their crops was becoming rife.

D. Fast-growing weeds were making their harvest less lucrative.

4. The writer suggests that advances in biotechnology

A. have allowed scientists to conduct their experiments more precisely.

B. are dependent on the financial rewards they can generate.

C. will ultimately lead to the introduction of designer babies.

D. may be considered unethical if they involve exploitation.

5. The phrase gobble up mostly means

A. consuming B. supplying C. spreading D. destroying

 16

6. The shift in position of the US Supreme Court in 1980 meant that

A. any biological organism could be patented.

B. knowledge of how DNA functions was patentable.

C. patents were no longer restricted to inanimate things.

D. tinkering with cells from living creatures was immoral.

7. The word demurring mostly means

A. advocating B. objecting C. reinforcing D. investigating

8. The European Patent Office ruling on Oncomouse

A. was never in doubt because Harvard University was involved.

B. became open to interpretation by experts in property laws.

C. totally disregarded the moral issues related to the case.

D. highlighted the emphasis on the greater good in legal decisions.

9. Which saying is most appropriate to the verdict handed down in the case involving
John Moore?

A. Property has its duties as well as its rights.

B. No person's property is safe while legislature is in session.

C. If something is worth money, it is worth possessing.

D. Possession is nine-tenths of the law.

 17

10. Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?

A. Patenting Oncomouse met with some disapprovals concerning ethical matters.

B. The USA blazed a trailed in patenting kinds of plants.

C. The doctors removed Moore’s spleen unbeknownst to him.

D. Companies’ patenting their seeds provided an incentive for agricultural breakthroughs.

Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 4: Read the text below carefully and then do the following exercises. (15 points)

RISING SEA

Paragraph 1 - INCREASED TEMPERATURES

The average air temperature at the surface of the earth has risen this century, as has the
temperature of ocean surface waters. Because water expands as it heats, a warmer ocean
means higher sea levels. We cannot say definitely that the temperature rises are due to the
greenhouse effect; the heating may be part of a ‘natural’ variability over a long time - scale
that we have not yet recognized in our short 100 years of recording. However, assuming
the buildup of greenhouse gases is responsible, and that the warming will continue,
scientists – and inhabitants of low-lying coastal areas – would like to know the extent of
future sea level rises.

Paragraph 2
 18

Calculating this is not easy. Models used for the purpose have treated the ocean as passive,
stationary and one -dimensional. Scientists have assumed that heat simply diffused into the
sea from the atmosphere. Using basic physical laws, they then predict how much a known
volume of water would expand for a given increase in temperature. But the oceans are not
one -dimensional, and recent work by oceanographers, using a new model which takes into
account a number of subtle facets of the sea –including vast and complex ocean currents –
suggests that the rise in sea level may be less than some earlier estimates had predicted.

Paragraph 3
An international forum on climate change, in 1986, produced figures for likely sea-level
rises of 20 cms and 1.4 m, corresponding to atmospheric temperature increases of 1.5 and
4.5C respectively. Some scientists estimate that the ocean warming resulting from those
temperature increases by the year 2050 would raise the sea level by between 10 cms and
40 cms. This model only takes into account the temperature effect on the oceans; it does
not consider changes in sea level brought about by the melting of ice sheets and glaciers,
and changes in groundwater storage. When we add on estimates of these, we arrive at
figures for total sea-level rises of 15 cm and 70 cm respectively.

Paragraph 4

It’s not easy trying to model accurately the enormous complexities of the ever-changing
oceans, with their great volume, massive currents and sensitively to the influence of land
masses and the atmosphere. For example, consider how heat enters the ocean. Does it just
‘diffuse’ from the warmer air vertically into the water, and heat only the surface layer of
the sea? (Warm water is less dense than cold, so it would not spread downwards).
Conventional models of sea-level rise have considered that this the only method, but
measurements have shown that the rate of heat transfer into the ocean by vertical diffusion
is far lower in practice than the figures that many modelers have adopted.
 19

Paragraph 5

Much of the early work, for simplicity, ignored the fact that water in the oceans moves in
three dimensions. By movement, of course, scientists don’t mean waves, which are too
small individually to consider, but rather movement of vast volumes of water in huge
currents. To understand the importance of this, we now need to consider another process –
advection. Imagine smoke rising from a chimney. On a still day it will slowly spread out
in all directions by means of diffusion. With a strong directional wind, however, it will all
shift downwind, this process is advection – the transport of properties (notably heat and
salinity in the ocean) by the movement of bodies of air or water, rather than by conduction
or diffusion.

Paragraph 6.

Massive ocean currents called gyres do the moving. These currents have far more capacity
to store heat than does the atmosphere. Indeed, just the top 3 m of the ocean contains more
heat than the whole of the atmosphere. The origin of gyres lies in the fact that more heat
from the Sun reaches the Equator than the Poles, and naturally heat tends to move from the
former to the latter. Warm air rises at the Equator, and draws more air beneath it in the
form of winds (the “Trade Winds”) that, together with other air movements, provide the
main force driving the ocean currents.

Paragraph 7

Water itself is heated at the Equator and moves poleward, twisted by the Earth’s rotation
and affected by the positions of the continents. The resultant broadly circular movements
between about 10 and 40 North and South are clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere. They
flow towards the east at mid latitudes in the equatorial region. They then flow towards the
Poles, along the eastern sides of continents, as warm currents. When two different masses
 20

of water meet, one will move beneath the other, depending on their relative densities in the
subduction process.The densities are determined by temperature and salinity. the
convergence of water of different densities from the Equator and the Poles deep in the
oceans causes continuous subduction. This means that water moves vertically as well as
horizontally. Cold water from the Poles travels as depth – it is denser than warm water –
until it emerges at the surface in another part of the world in the form of a cold current.

Paragraph 8
HOW THE GREEN HOUSE EFFECT WILL CHANGE OCEAN
TEMPERATURES

Ocean currents, in three dimensions, form a giant ‘conveyor belt’, distributing heat from
the thin surface layer into the interior of the oceans and around the globe. Water may take
decades to circulate in these 3-D gyres in the lop kilometer of the ocean, and centuries in
the deep water. With the increased atmospheric temperatures due to the greenhouse effect,
the oceans conveyor belt will carry more heat into the interior. This subduction moves heat
around far more effectively than simple diffusion. Because warm water expands more than
cold when it is heated, scientists had presumed that the sea level would rise unevenly
around the globe. It is now believed that these inequalities cannot persist, as winds will act
to continuously spread out the water expansion. Of course, of global warming changes the
strength and distribution of the winds, then this ‘evening-out’ process may not occur, and
the sea level could rise more in some areas than others.

Questions 1 - 6

There are 8 paragraphs numbered 1 - 8 in Reading Passage. The first paragraph and the
last paragraph have been given headings.
 21

From the list below numbered A - I, choose a suitable heading for the remaining 6
paragraphs.

There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use all the headings.

List of headings

A THE GYRE PRINCIPLE

B THE GREENHOUSE EFFECT
C HOW OCEAN WATERS MOVE
D STATISTICAL EVIDENCE
E THE ADVECTION PRINCIPLE
F DIFFUSION VERSUS ADVECTION
G FIGURING THE SEA LEVEL CHANGES
H ESTIMATED FIGURES
I THE DIFFUSION MODEL

J FUTURE OF THE OCEAN CURRENTS

Example: Paragraph 1: ……B……….

1. Paragraph 2……………..
2. Paragraph 3……………..
3. Paragraph 4……………..
4. Paragraph 5……………..
5. Paragraph 6……………..
6. Paragraph 7……………..

Question 7-10
 22

Read each of the following statements, according to the information in the reading
passage.

Write:

T If it is true
F If it is false,
NG If there is no information about the statement in the reading passage.

7. The surface layer of the oceans is warmed by the atmosphere.

8. Advection of water changes heat and salt levels.
9. A gyre holds less heat than there is in the atmosphere.
10. The sea level is expected to rise evenly over the Earth's surface.

Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

IV. WRITING (50 points)

Part 1. Graph Description (20 points)

The bar chart below shows the popularity of well-known Instagram accounts in 2011 and
2021.

Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant. (20pts)
 23

Part 2. Write an essay of about 250 words on the following topic. (30 points)

Some people think that a sense of competition in children should be encouraged. Others
believe that children who are taught to cooperate rather than compete become more
useful adults.

Give reasons to support your opinion and include any relevant examples from your own
experience or knowledge.

_______ THE END_______

Nguời ra đề: Tô Thị Thanh Hà, 0915478799

SỞ GD & ĐT THÁI BÌNH KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CÁC TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ
LẦN THỨ XV, NĂM 2024
ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH 10
(Đề thi gồm 11 trang) Thời gian thi: 180 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)

 Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi này

 Mọi hành vi gian lận (bàn bài, sử dụng tài liệu, …) đều bị cấm
 Vi phạm quy định trên, thí sinh sẽ bị đình chỉ thi và kết quả bài thi bị hủy bỏ
 Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm

SECTION A: LISTENING (50 points – 2 points per question)

HƯỚNG DẪN LÀM BÀI THI NGHE HIỂU
 Phần thi Nghe có 04 bài, mỗi bài nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 05 giây.
 Mở đầu và kết thúc phần nghe có tín hiệu nhạc.
 Thí sinh có 20 giây để đọc kĩ câu hỏi mỗi bài.
 Thí sinh có 02 phút để hoàn thành phần nghe trước khi kết thúc tín hiệu bài nghe.

Part 1: You will listen to a man who has just retired telephoning a part-time society to ask about
membership activities. For questions 1 – 5, complete the following note with ONE WORD ONLY for
each blank. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.

NOTES ON A PART-TIME SOCIETY

Name of society: Leighton
Location: 1 ......... house
Want: 2 ......... actors and singers (no experience required)
Transportation: shuttle services (need someone who is able to 3 .............)
Meeting time: 6:00-8:00pm every 4 ..............
Close time: during 5 .............

Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Part 2: You will listen to a short lecture on a story's point of view. For questions 6 – 10, decide whether
the following statements are TRUE (T) or FALSE (F). Write your answers (T or F) in the
corresponding numbered boxes.
6. The speaker asserts that recognizing the narrator's identity is crucial for becoming a proficient reader.
7. First-person narrators are limited to conveying only the events and information they have directly
experienced or know about.
8. The speaker suggests that second-person point of view is prevalent in modern literature.
9. In the story of Rita and Beni, the third-person narrator can access the thoughts and emotions of both
characters concurrently.
10. The speaker implies that the reader's interpretation of Rita and Beni's story would remain unchanged if it
were told from a first-person perspective.
Your answers
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part 3: You will listen to an interview with an archaeologist called Julian Radwinter. For questions 11
– 15, choose the answers (A, B, C or D) which fit best according to what you listen to. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.

1
11. To what does Julian attribute his fascination with archaeology during his adolescent years?
A. An aspiration to gain his father's approval
B. His innate sense of curiosity
C. A desire to earn additional income
D. His dissatisfaction with agrarian life
12. What aspect of archaeology continues to captivate Julian in the present day?
A. The systematic nature of a significant portion of the work
B. The gratification derived from unraveling ancient enigmas
C. The opportunity to precisely determine the age of artifacts using sophisticated instruments
D. The process of formulating hypotheses based on limited information
13. How does Julian regard his current research position?
A. He laments the relatively limited opportunities for travel
B. He desires that his colleagues would treat it with greater gravity
C. He concedes that the challenges can be disheartening at times
D. He implies that it is comparatively cost-effective
14. What does Julian aspire to demonstrate through his ongoing research?
A. The population levels in England across various eras
B. The duration of existence of certain villages
C. The impact of broader trends on local communities
D. The diversity of ancient agricultural practices
15. The objective of Julian's project on humor in archaeology is to ______.
A. Commemorate an otherwise undocumented aspect of archaeologists' lives
B. Compare archaeological discoveries with anecdotal evidence
C. Compile a collection of jokes pertaining to archaeology
D. Cultivate the accessibility of archaeological reports for non-specialists
Your answers
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
Part 4: You will listen to a short speech about William Buckland. For questions 16 – 25, complete the
summary with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each blank. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes.
WILLIAM BUCKLAND
William Buckland, a pioneering geologist and priest in 19th-century Britain, was known also as a(n)
(16) ___________________________, as he aimed to consume one of every animal species on the planet.
His (17) ___________________________ often involved unusual props and dramatic declarations, such as
proclaiming that the stomach ruled the world.
Buckland's household, packed (18) ___________________________ with an array of living and
deceased specimens, was a veritable menagerie, with meals featuring exotic fare such as (19)
___________________________, panther, hedgehog, mole, crocodile, sea slug, and even earwig. One (20)
___________________________ involved comparing a tortoise's tracks on pie pastry to fossilized prints in
ancient sandstone.
As a religious man, Buckland initially sought to reconcile geological evidence with the Biblical
account of the Great Flood. However, his examination of the remains of (21)
___________________________ in a North Yorkshire cave led him to question the Bible's timeline, as he
realized these animals had once inhabited the region before geological time. Such findings redefined Britain
Isle as a(n) (22) ___________________________. Buckland's 1824 description of "Megalosaurus" remains
from an Oxfordshire quarry marked the first scientific account of a dinosaur. The bones were described by
(23) ___________________________ Georges Cuvier as similar to those of living lizards.
His wife Mary, a skilled geologist and illustrator, depicted the (24) ___________________________
for the Royal Society and created teaching aids for William's lectures, potentially contributing more to his
major works than is widely acknowledged. The Bucklands, despite being (25)
___________________________, demonstrate that scientific pursuits are not confined to traditional settings
and can be carried out in household spaces.

2
 SECTION B: GRAMMAR AND LEXICO (40 points – 1 point per question)
Part 1: For questions 1 – 30, choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D to each of the following questions.
Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
1. ______, playing music is an effective way for them to open their heart to the outside world.
A. Being visually impaired people B. Such were their visual impairments
C. Having been visually impaired D. For those with visual impairments
2. There are _______ words in English having more than one meaning. Pay close attention to this fact.
A. a large many B. quite many C. a great many D. quite a lot
3. Had Lam read unit 7 before his class, he ______ unruffled when being asked questions by his English
teacher now.
A. wouldn't feel B. wouldn't have felt C. would have felt D. would feel
4. Not only Jane's friends but also her sister ______ in completely with her story of having been robbed,
and they all lent her some money when being asked for.
A. has been taken B. have been taken C. was taken D. were taken
5. We took CDs with us to our gatherings. Actually, we _____ that, for there was no CD player to play
them on.
A. mustn't have done B. didn't have to do C. needn't have done D. couldn't have done
6. VigilEASE, Inc. has made a profit of $1,000 million, ______ its branches to expand across the continent.
A. allowing B. allows C. to allow D. is allowed
7. It is advisable that the injured boy _____ to hospital as soon as possible.
A. should take B. has been taken C. be taken D. should have taken
8. Benzene, _____ by Faraday, became the starting point in the manufacture of many dyes, perfumes and
explosives.
A. discovered B. discovering C. was discovered D. discover
9. Yesterday my mother bought______.
A. beautiful Italian some cotton hats B. Italian some beautiful cotton hats
C. some beautiful Italian cotton hats D. some hats beautiful Italian cotton
10. _______ be impolite to our parents.
A. Not in any circumstances should we B. In any circumstances shouldn’t we
C. In no circumstances should we D. No circumstances should we not
11. The first round of interviews only really serves to ______ the very weakest of applicants.
A. tide over B. beat about C. bark out D. weed out
12. People, with a patriarchic ______, came up with their preference for a single male child. The idea of a
happy family became parents with a single male child.
A. onset B. mindset C. upset D. sunset
13. He sent his children to the park so that he could have some ______.
A. fresh and quiet B. quiet and peace C. peace and quiet D. quiet and fresh
14. The kids are getting in my ______ today, so I need you to watch them for a little bit.
A. hair B. nose C. mouth D. tongue
15. Recent altercation and family feud has negatively affected and _______ their marital relationship.
A. crumbled B. bungled C. catapulted D. besmirched
16. I was ______ surprised by the excellent customer service. That company really cares about its
customers.
A. pleasantly B. totally C. sharply D. seriously
17. He _____ denied the accusations, saying they were totally false
A. excessively B. superficially C. strenuously D. unstintingly
18. The runner was far ahead for most of the race, but at the end she won only _______.
A. larger than life B. on the dot C. by a whisker D. a notch above
19. The CEO's ambitious expansion plans left many employees feeling like they were just ______ in a
corporate game of chess.
A. flies on the wall B. pawns in the game C. chips on the table D. cogs in the machine
20. The chef had to ______ several ingredients from the recipe because they were out of stock.
A. parse out B. pare down C. perch on D. plunder through
21. Since beauty is our _______, it does not matter whether her appearance is good-looking or not.
A. skin match B. skin graft C. skin diver D. skin deep

3
22. Even though she presented herself as a model citizen, it was later revealed that Tkach had a ______ – a
scandalous corruption charge.
A. wrench in the gears B. elephant in the room
C. party pooper D. skeleton in the closet
23. If the client group undertakes ______ diligence, they may check references and visit similar projects,
including ones completed by your firm.
A. near B. due C. complete D. well-rounded
24. The cadence of drums built to a(n) ______ as the dragon dance reached its pinnacle under showers of
firecrackers.
A. overture B. diminuendo C. interlude D. crescendo
25. The majestic dragon swirling through the streets elicited cheers from the ______ crowds gathered to
welcome prosperity
A. diffident B. morose C. nascent D. raucous
26. Many people no longer trust their own ______ memories and commit every detail of their lives to some
digital device or other and are completely lost without it.
A. fallible B. susceptible C. vulnerable D. controllable
27. I have great _______ for the young teachers who devote their life to teaching children in remote and
mountainous areas.
A. intention B. admiration C. sympathy D. consideration
28. I cannot open the envelope because it is _______
A. concealed B. locked C. sealed D. secured
29. Deciding what _______ to focus on in university can be a difficult decision.
A. freebie B. mentor C. perseverance D. discipline
30. I get ______ pains up my spine whenever I try to move.
A. splitting B. thumping C. shooting D. stinking
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
Part 2: For questions 31 – 40, complete each of the following sentences with the correct form of each
bracketed word. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
31. The effect of ______ (SCHISM) causes two individuals having a conversation to ramp up different
styles, which results in a disagreement that does not stem from actual difference of opinion.
32. Jewels made of ______ (PRECIOUS) material were more affordable, and this affordability gave
common people the chance to own costume jewelry.
33. Transactions in cattle are surrounded by _______ (SECRET), as people don’t prefer public revelation.
34. Olga was a ______ (DOUBT) debater with a caustic tongue in polemics and a touch in irony in writing.
35. Upholders of the scientific faith shudder at the implications of having to mix it with such _______
(REDEEM) subjective and impure elements.
36. On their own, ______ (EXPERIMENT) designs do not allow one to make definitive causal inferences;
however, they provide valuable information that cannot be obtained by experimental methods alone.
37. After shooting to fame in a movie, Oliver became a ______ (SOCIAL).
38. Before enrolling on a course, you should first ensure that it has been ______ (VALID) by an officially
recognized body.
39. The prospect of being unemployed and of being subjected to a new war, in a word the terrible
uncertainty of the current situation, has a strongly ______ (MORALE) effect.
40. The first symptoms of measles typically begin seven to 14 days after exposure and include fever, cough,
a runny nose and red, ______ (WATER) eyes.
Your answers
31. 32. 33. 34. 35.
36. 37. 38. 39. 40.

4
 SECTION C: READING (60 points – 1.5 points per question)
Part 1: For questions 1 – 10, read the following text and decide which option (A, B, C, or D) best fits
each gap. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
Microplastics, as the name (1) _____, are tiny plastic particles. Officially, they are (2) _____ as
plastics less than five millimeters (0.2 inches) in diameter—smaller in diameter than the standard pearl used
in jewelry. There are two categories of microplastics: primary and secondary.
Primary microplastics are tiny particles (3) _____ for commercial use, such as cosmetics, as well as
microfibers shed from clothing and other (4) _____, such as fishing nets. Secondary microplastics are
particles that result from the (5) _____ of larger plastic items, such as water bottles. This breakdown is (6)
_____ by exposure to (7) _____ factors, mainly the sun’s radiation and ocean waves.
The problem with microplastics is that — like plastic items of any size — they do not readily break
down into harmless molecules. Plastics can take hundreds or thousands of years to (8) _____ — and in the
meantime, wreak havoc on the environment. On beaches, microplastics are (9) _____ as tiny multicolored
plastic bits in sand. In the oceans, microplastic pollution is often (10) _____ by marine animals.
1. A. implies B. means C. points D. aims
2. A. defined B. discussed C. clarified D. shown
3. A. carried B. destroyed C. advertised D. designed
4. A. processes B. textiles C. ingredients D. components
5. A. mixture B. collection C. breakdown D. production
6. A. led B. continued C. caused D. seen
7. A. economic B. social C. personal D. environmental
8. A. deteriorate B. decompose C. rot D. spoil
9. A. visible B. usable C. manageable D. convertible
10. A. marked B. consumed C. worsened D. cleaned
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part 2: For questions 11 – 20, read the text below and fill in each of the following numbered blanks
with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
Everyone who uses the wealth of language wants to use it in some way that is characteristically his
own. He wants it, (11) _____ a sense, as his private property. This desire is the most genuine tribute we (12)
_____ to our heritage because it is unspoken and often unacknowledged, but it is steady.
Henry Seidel Canby said that style is like happiness: “Everyone recognizes it; everyone describes it,
(13) _____ no two people agree as (14) _____ its exact nature.” There are many views and many mysteries
(15) _____ which the student can delve, but for working purposes, style may be (16) _____ upon as our
personal appearance in print, our self-image given in speech. When we become personal about the language,
we become conscious (17) _____ style, for it is through style (18) _____ we make the language our own. A
style, representing the sum total of choices made in daily speech and writing, expresses our individual
connection with that vast and confusing body of knowledge known as language. It is (19) _____ of our
surest and most creative conceits that the way we write and talk must have features that mark us (20) _____
from the mass.
Your answers
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
Part 3: For questions 21 – 30, read the passage below and choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) to
each of the following questions. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
ADVERTISING SHIFTS FOCUS
The average citizen is bombarded with TV commercials, posters and newspaper advertisements
wherever he goes. Not only this, but promotional material is constantly on view, with every available public
space from shop to petrol station covered with advertising of some kind. People who are foolish enough to

5
drive with their windows open are likely to have leaflets advertising everything and anything thrust in at
them. The amount of advertising to which we are exposed is phenomenal, yet advertisers are being hurt by
their industry's worst recession in a decade and a conviction that is in many respects more frightening than
the booms and busts of capitalism: the belief that advertising can go no further. Despite the ingenuity of the
advertisers, who, in their need to make their advertisements as visually attractive as possible, often totally
obscure the message, the consumer has become increasingly cynical and simply blanks out all but the
subtlest messages. The advertising industry has therefore turned to a more vulnerable target: the young.
The messages specifically aimed at children are for toys and games - whose promotional budgets
increased fivefold in the 1990s - and fast food, which dominates the children's advertising market.
Advertisers acknowledge that the commercial pressures of the 1990s had an extraordinary effect on
childhood: it is now generally believed that the cut-off point for buying toys has been falling by one year
every five years. Research, suggests that while not so many years ago children were happy with Lego or
similar construction games at ten or eleven, most of today's children abandon them at six or seven. In effect,
the result is the premature ageing of children.
There is nowhere where the advertising industry's latest preoccupation with the young is so
evident as in schools. Increasingly low budgets have left schools vulnerable to corporate funding and
sponsorship schemes in order to provide much needed equipment, such as computers, or to enable them to
run literacy schemes. While on the face of it this would seem to be a purely philanthropic gesture on the part
of the companies concerned, the other side of the coin is a pervasive commercial presence in the classroom,
where textbooks and resource books are increasingly likely to bear a company logo.
This marked shift in advertising perceptions also means that a great deal of supposedly adult
advertising has an infantile appeal, inasmuch as adult products can be presented within an anecdote or
narrative, thus making the message more accessible to young teenagers and smaller children. Children
obviously cannot buy these things for themselves; what is behind these advertisements is more subtle.
Advertisers have come to recognize that if children can successfully pester their parents to buy them the
latest line in trainers, then they can also influence their parent's choice of car or credit card, and so children
become an advertising tool in themselves.
There are many, on all sides of the ideological spectrum, who would argue that advertising has little
influence on children, who are exposed to such a huge variety of visual images that advertisements simply
become lost in the crowd. Rather, they would argue that it is the indulgent parents, who do not wish their
children to lack for anything, who boost sales figures. While there may be a great deal of truth in this, it
would seem that to deny that advertising influences at all because there is so much of it, while accepting that
other aspects of life do have an effect, is a little disingenuous. In fact, the advertising industry itself admits
that since peer pressure plays such an important role in children's lives, they are not difficult to persuade.
And of course, their minds are not yet subject to the advertising overload their parents suffer from. The
question that arises is whether indeed, we as a society can accept that children, far from being in some sense
protected from the myriad of pressures, decisions and choices which impinge on an adult's life, should now
be exposed to this influence in all aspects of their lives, in ways that we as adults have no control over. Or
do we take the attitude that, as with everything else from crossing city streets to the intense competition of
the modern world, children will have to learn to cope, so the sooner they are exposed the better?
21. What does the writer say about advertising in the first paragraph?
A. Capitalism has led to the demise of advertising.
B. We should have a cynical view of advertisers.
C. Advertising is facing new challenges these days.
D. The industry has run out of new ideas.
22. The bombardment of advertisements has led to ________.
A. children taking more notice of them B. greater difficulty in attracting consumers' attention
C. more appealing advertisements D. people being less likely to spend money
23. How have children changed during the past decade?
A. They have become consumers. B. They are growing up more quickly.
C. They are becoming cleverer. D. They are not playing as much.
24. Which of the following square brackets [A], [B], [C], or [D] best indicates where in the paragraph the
sentence “However, the main thrust of advertising in this area is no longer towards traditional
children's products.” can be inserted?

6
 [A] The messages specifically aimed at children are for toys and games - whose promotional budgets
increased fivefold in the 1990s - and fast food, which dominates the children's advertising market. [B]
Advertisers acknowledge that the commercial pressures of the 1990s had an extraordinary effect on
childhood: it is now generally believed that the cut-off point for buying toys has been falling by one
year every five years. [C] Research, suggests that while not so many years ago children were happy
with Lego or similar construction games at ten or eleven, most of today's children abandon them at six
or seven. In effect, the result is the premature ageing of children. [D]
A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]
25. Which of the following sentences best expresses the meaning of the underlined sentence?
A. The advertising industry's latest obsession with young people is rather obvious in schools.
B. Nowhere else can we see the advertising industry's latest products for the young as in schools.
C. Schools are places where the advertising industry's latest concern with youngsters is the least obvious.
D. It is in schools that the advertising industry's latest concern with youngsters is the most clearly seen.
26. What does the writer imply in the third paragraph?
A. Advertising agencies need to preserve their reputations.
B. Schools welcome aid from big business.
C. There are restrictions on how financial aid may be used.
D. Companies expect nothing in return for their help.
27. How have children changed the face of advertising?
A. Children are influencing the purchases of adult products.
B. They are now the advertising industry's sole market.
C. More products have to be sold to children.
D. Children have become more selective in their choices.
28. The word “who” in the last paragraph refers to ________.
A. many people B. the crowd C. parents D. children
29. What does the writer suggest in the last paragraph?
A. Adults feel increasingly threatened by advertising.
B. Children are unlikely to be influenced by their friends.
C. Parents avoid spending too much money on their children.
D. Children have a less sheltered existence than they used to.
30. In the text as a whole, the writer's purpose is to ________.
A. explain the inspiration for advertisements
B. expose the exploitation of children
C. deter parents from giving in to advertisers
D. prevent advertisers from infiltrating schools
Your answers
21. 22. 23. 24. 25.
26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
Part 4: For questions 31 – 40, read the passage below and do the following tasks.
A. The law influences all of us virtually all the time, it governs almost all aspects of our behavior, and even
what happens to us when we are no longer alive. It affects us from the embryo onwards. It governs the
air we breathe, the food and drink we consume, our travel, family relationships, and our property. It
applies at the bottom of the ocean and in space. Each time we examine a label on a food product, engage
in work as an employee or employer, travel on the roads, go to school to learn or to teach, stay in a hotel,
borrow a library book, create or dissolve a commercial company, play sports, or engage the services of
someone for anything from plumbing a sink to planning a city, we are in the world of law.
B. Law has also become much more widely recognised as the standard by which behavior needs to be
judged. A very telling development in recent history is the way in which the idea of law has permeated
all parts of social life. The universal standard of whether something is socially tolerated is progressively
becoming whether it is legal, rather than something that has always been considered acceptable. In
earlier times, most people were illiterate. Today, by contrast, a vast number of people can read, and it is
becoming easier for people to take an interest in law, and for the general population to help actually

7
 shape the law in many countries. However, law is a versatile instrument that can be used equally well for
the improvement or the degradation of humanity.
C. This, of course, puts law in a very significant position. In our rapidly developing world, all sorts of skills
and knowledge are valuable. Those people, for example, with knowledge of computers, the internet, and
communications technology are relied upon by the rest of us. There is now someone with IT skills or an
IT help desk in every UK school, every company, every hospital, every local and central government
office. Without their knowledge, many parts of commercial and social life today would seize up in
minutes. But legal understanding is just as vital and as universally needed. The American comedian Jerry
Seinfeld put it like this, 'We are all throwing the dice, playing the game, moving our pieces around the
board, but if there is a problem, the lawyer is the only person who has read the inside of the top of the
box.' In other words, the lawyer is the only person who has read and made sense of the rules.
D. The number of laws has never been greater. In the UK alone, about 35 new Acts of Parliament are
produced every year, thereby delivering thousands of new rules. The legislative output of the British
Parliament has more than doubled in recent times from 1,100 pages a year in the early 1970s, to over
2,500 pages a year today. Between 1997 and 2006, the legislature passed 365 Acts of Parliament and
more than 32,000 legally binding statutory instruments. In a system with so much law, lawyers do a great
deal not just to vindicate the rights of citizens and organizations but also to help develop the law through
legal arguments, some of which are adapted by judges to become laws. Law courts can and do produce
new law and revise old law, but they do so having heard the arguments of lawyers.
E. However, despite their important role in developing the rules, lawyers are not universally admired. Anti-
lawyer jokes have a long history going back to the ancient Greeks. More recently the son of a famous
Hollywood actor was asked at his junior school what his father did for a living, to which he replied, 'My
daddy is a movie actor, and sometimes he plays the good guy, and sometimes he plays the lawyer. For
balance, though, it is worth remembering that there are and have been many heroic and revered lawyers
such as the Roman philosopher and politician Cicero and Mahatma Gandi, the Indian campaigner for
independence.
F. People sometimes make comments that characterise lawyers as professionals whose concerns put
personal reward above truth, or who gain financially from misfortune. There are undoubtedly lawyers
that would fit that bill. Just as there are some scientists, journalists and others in that category, But, in
general, it is no more Just to say that lawyers are bad because they make a living from people's problems
than it is to make the same accusation in respect of nurses or IT consultants, A great many lawyers are
involved in public law work, such as that involving civil liberties, housing and other Issues. Such work
Is not lavishly remunerated and the quality of the service provided by these lawyers relies on
considerable professional dedication, Moreover, much legal work has nothing to do with conflict or
misfortune, but is primarily concerned with drafting documents. Another source of social disaffection for
lawyers, and disaffection for the law, is a limited public understanding of how law works and how It
could be changed. Greater clarity about these issues, maybe as a result of better public relations, would
reduce many aspects of public dissatisfaction with the law.
The passage has six paragraphs, A-F. For questions 31 – 36, choose the correct headings (i-viii) for
paragraphs A-F. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
LIST OF HEADINGS
i. Different areas of professional expertise
ii. Reasons why it is unfair to criticise lawyers
iii. The disadvantages of the legal system
iv. The law applies throughout our lives
v. The law has affected historical events
vi. A negative regard for lawyers
vii. Public's increasing ability to influence the law
viii. Growth in laws
31. Paragraph A: _______
32. Paragraph B: _______
33. Paragraph C: _______
34. Paragraph D: _______
35. Paragraph E: _______
36. Paragraph F: _______

8
For questions 37 – 40, decide whether the following statements are True (T), False (F) or Not Given
(NG). Write your answers (T, F or NG) in the corresponding numbered boxes.
37. In the past, the acceptability of behaviors was primarily determined by long-standing social norms rather
than legal standards.
38. Legal knowledge is as crucial and universally required as IT skills in today's world.
39. Anti-lawyer sentiments can be traced back to ancient Roman times.
40. The negative stereotypes about lawyers are justified due to their focus on personal gain over truth.
Your answers
31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36.
37. 38. 39. 40.

SECTION E: WRITING (50 points)

Part 1: (20 points) The graph below shows the percentages of tourists who used different types of
transport to travel within a particular nation between 1989 and 2009. Each tourist may have used
more than one type of transport. Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main
features, and make comparisons where relevant. Write at least 150 words.

9
Part 2: (30 points) Write an essay of between 250 and 300 words about the following topic:
In many countries today, if people want to find work, they have to move away from their families and
friends. Do you think the advantages of this development outweigh the disadvantages?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own experience or knowledge.

10
THE END

11
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO THANH HOÁ ĐỀ THI HSG CÁC TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN LAM SƠN KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ
LẦN THỨ XV, NĂM 2024
ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT
ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – LỚP 10
đ Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề.
Đề thi gồm 18 trang

SECTION A: LISTENING (50 points)

HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
 Bài nghe gồm 4 phần; mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 05 giây; mở đầu và
kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu. Thí sinh có 20 giây để đọc mỗi phần câu hỏi.
 Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thí sinh có 03 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài trước
tín hiệu nhạc kết thúc bài nghe.
 Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe

Part 1. Listen to a talk given by Peter Powell about how to give up smoking. For questions
1-5, complete the notes using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Write
your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided on the answer sheet. (10
points)
Ways to give up smoking
To stop smoking, it is important to remember that there is not only one way.
1. Having willpower means having the determination to _________.
2. Starting a hobby or having _________ can help take your mind off smoking.
3. Another way to keep on track is to find suitable _________ such as nicotine patches.
4. You may experience ________ as your body becomes accustomed to less nicotine.
5. You can buy smoking aids from supermarkets or ________.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2: For questions 6-10, listen to part of a recording and decide if the following statement
is true (T) or false (F). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided on
the answer sheet. (10 points)
6. Lauren administers a club about living green.
7. What Lauren has done is to find surrogates for disposable stuff in her daily life.
1
8. The US’s EPA prohibits the use of plastic straws.
9. Findings of a survey in California show that just under 20% of people will use plastic bags
if they are free.
10. Lauren argues that the government must require manufacturers to be held accountable for
recycling their products.
Your answers:
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. You will hear an interview with a woman called Amy Martles, who works as a
choreographer, creating dance performances for live shows. For questions 11-15, choose
the answer which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided on the answer sheet. (10 points)

11. Amy traces her decision to become a choreographer back to

A. the advice of her first dance teacher.
B. her need to express herself through movement.
C. the emphasis placed on dance in her primary school.
D. her failure to reach a high level of sporting achievement.
12. Amy feels that, above all, a good choreographer is one who
A. remains in touch with the everyday feeling of dancers.
B. keeps dancers motivated during long tiring sessions.
C. has experience of appearing on stage as a dancer.
D. is able to join in with the dancing itself if necessary.
13. In her work as a choreographer, Amy aims to
A. challenge the audience’s ideas about what dance is.
B. feel that she is conveying a message to the audience.
C. thrill the audience with some cutting-edge dance techniques.
D. draw the audience’s attention away from other elements in the show.
14. When asked about choosing dancers to work with, Amy says she
A. relies on the expertise top professionals bring to the creative process.
B. accepts the need to accommodate the feelings of sensitive people.

2
C. finds those with less experience an easier proposition.
D. likes to help those she has previous taught.
15. When she’s working on a new production of a well-known piece, Amy
A. tries to build on the work of those who have gone before.
B. is aware of the need to update the ideas in a play.
C. is annoyed if people make unfair comparisons.
D. remains faithful to her usual guiding principles.
Your answers:
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 4. You will listen to a recording about ecotourism. For questions 16-25, fill in the gaps
with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each gap. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided on the answer sheet. (20 points)
Ecotourism is the idea that in some places tourism can be specifically designed to support the
conservation of biodiversity and the well-being of local communities.
16. Ecotourism, theoretically, is a _______________.
17. One advantage of ecotourism is that agencies have ____________ to support reserves.
Much fund is provided to protect threatened or rare species.
18. They have also provided ____________ to local inhabitants, which has moved them
always from destructive forest practices.
19. In Madagasca’s Anja reserve, ecotourism has supported jobs for the local, sponsored
public schools, encouraged reforestation and restored the _____________ from 80 to about
350 at present.
20. Ecotourism has also helped to instill a ______________ among local residents for the
wildlife and heritage.
21. In fact, several ecotourism projects have led to deforestation because of a high
____________ to construct hotels to accommodate tourists.
22. _____________ can be turned into farmland due to high demand for food as well.
The vast quantity of tourists puts pressure on wildlife.
23. As wealthier individuals may own more money than the poor ones, the financial gain
from green travel can’t be _________________.
24. Ecotourism ventures that cannot provide _______________ or reachable
accommodations often fail to appeal to tourists.
3
25. Lack of tourism income can _______________ or deforestation, thereby diminishing
efforts of preservation.
Your answers:
16. 21.

17. 22.

18. 23.

19. 24.

20. 25.

SECTION B: LEXICO- GRAMMAR (40 points)

Part 1. For questions 26-55, choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the following
sentences and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided on the
answer sheet. (30 points)
26. My quarterly performance ________ went very well; my ratings were good and I was
praised for my efforts by my line manager.
A. benefit B. appraisal C. freeze D. career

27. As a result of hitting the glass ______ in corporate America, African American women
are starting businesses of their own.

A. basement B. attic C. ceiling D. staircase

28. The ongoing ________ looks likely to harm the company from a PR perspective and
could also yet result in strike action being taken by the employees affected.
A. payslip B. pay dispute C. payroll D. pay bed

29. She won her claim for ________ dismissal because she had been pressured into
resigning.

A. negative B. positive C. constructive D. casual

30. We had no choice but to ________ two-thirds of the workforce.
A. pay off B. take off C. drive off D. lay off
31. You are in ________ of your contract; consider yourself relieved of your duties as of
now.
A. return B. terms C. breach D. act
32. I am presently jobless and _______ the dole.
4
A. drawing B. giving C. taking D. pursuing
33.We were forced to take ________ action when our salaries were cut by 15%.
A. legal B. industrial C. disciplinary D. class

34. They have ________ a motion for debate at the next Party Conference.

A. taken B. drived C. accepted D. tabled

35. The owners have made the decision to ____ the business ____ as it can no longer operate
as a going concern.

A. wind/up B. put/up C. set/up D. take/up

36. All staff have been warned that they ________ should productivity not improve, and that
no one, no matter how senior, is exempt from having to up their performance.

A. face the axe B. break even C. set their sights on D. appear numbered

37. It was imperative for the authorities to _________ the epidemic.

A. succeed B. localise C. define D. evacuate

38. Ronald had the ________ to blame his teacher for his failure.

A. concern B. audacity C. regard D. chilvary

39. The vegetation on the island was ________.

A. exuberant B. chilvalrous C. overcast D. ingenious

40. People ________ their spending power when prices rise.

A. increase B. prolong C. curtail D. entail

41. His ________ excuses invariably exasperated the manager.

A. frail B. robust C. wealthy D. feeble

42. Don’t trust him, he’s cruel, _______ and unscrupulous.

A. treacherous B. trustworthy C. loving D. slack

43. The young man felt _______ in the presence of so many young ladies.

A. inhospitable B. inhibited C. hindered D. prohibited

44. Prices at Greek hotels are still affordable, but in Switzerland they are ________.

5
A. moderate B. reasonable C. exorbitant D. inaccessible

45. Many poets have ________ the beauties of the countryside.

A. feared B. excited D. inhibited D. extolled

46. I haven’t got time to do my own work, ________ help you with yours.

A. not counting B. apart from C. leaving aside D. much less

47. – But I didn’t know the information was confidential. - ________, it is still no excuse.

A. Be that as it may B. By that be as it is

C. Be that as it is D. Be that as it be

48. It is estimated that _____ 10% of the population goes to university.

A. a B. some C. the D. any

49. – How did you know I liked modern art? – Well, for one thing you have ______ books on
the subject.

A. quite a few B. quite few C. only a few D. really few

50. – I’ll ask Austin to help us. – Austin? I’m afraid he’s hardly a man _______.

A. whom to rely on B. to be relied on C. whom to count on D. with whom to

count

51. The Prime Minister of Malaysia opened his country to foreign investment, _________
came from Japan.

A. which bulk B. whose bulk C. of which the bulk D. the

bulk of which

52. I was looking for _________ more expensive book than this. It’s for a present, you see.

A. a fairly B. rather a bit C. a somewhat D. a quite

53. The answer is no. That’s all ________.

A. there is at it B. how it is C. there is to it D. there it is

54. As often happens at the Kennedy Center, _______ of the audience drifted in late.

A. many B. few C. some D. much

55. We ______ flown there but, due to the air controllers’ strike, we had to drive.

6
A. had to have B. were to have C. might have been D. must have

Your answers:

26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35.
36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45.
46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55.

Part 2. For questions 56-65, fill each gap with the correct form of the words in brackets.
Write your answer in the boxes provided on the answer sheet. (10 points)
56. She was (LOOK) _____ for the position because the interviewing panel felt there were
other candidates with more relevant experience.
57. Five hundred jobs were lost when the company went into (RECEIVE) ________ last
year.
58. There were serious riots among economically (AFFECT) ________ youths in
some cities.
59. We live in a (TECHNOLOGY) _______ where progress involves the mastering of
increasingly complex data.
60. Fundamentally the (TOTAL) _______ regime did not change, only its methods changed.
61. The survival of a (PARTY) ________ soldiers' honour ameliorated relations between
enemies.
62. The subject of interest rates continues to (POLE) ________ the business community.
63. The move has triggered a (SHUFFLE) ___________ of responsibilities among some of
the group's most senior executives.
64. The transactions were an attempt to conceal the (APPROPRIATE) __________
of money.
65. Economist generally reserve the term (INFLATE) _________ for cases when the
monthly rate reaches over 50 percent.
56. 61.
57. 62.
58. 63.
59. 64.
60. 65.

7
SECTION C: READING (60 points)
Part 1. For questions 66-75, read the following passage and decide which option (A, B, C,
or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes on the answer
sheet. (15 points)
Bill Gates
The founder of Microsoft, Bill Gates, has achieved (66) _____success as a computer
programmer, inventor and entrepreneur. His path to that point, however, was (67) _______
but typical. While attending Harvard University in the 1970s, he made a (68) ______ move
and left university before graduating to start his own company. His parents did not like the
idea at first, but Gates (69) _______ down and worked hard to get their support. He founded
Microsoft in 1975, which after a few short years caused a revolution in personal computing.
During the time that Gate was at the head of the company, some of his employees regarded
him as (70) ______ and arrogant. He would sometimes (71) ______ in on presentations,
expressing his dislike for certain ideas and proposals. He was often described as being (72)
_____; he did whatever he liked and was often hard to reach either in or out of the office.
But whatever anyone may have thought of these minor shortcomings, Gates was a (73)
______ competitor in the computer software industry who often (74) _____ the competition.
In his years as CEO of the company, he laboured hard at broadening Microsoft’s range of
software products, and whenever he achieved success in a particular area of computing,
Gates guarded the position with all his might. Since then, he has won international (75)
______ as one of the greatest computer software investors of all time.

66. A. gruelling B. cunning C. crushing D. staggering

67. A. something B. nothing C. anything D. everything

68. A. gutsy B. virtuous C. candid D. noble

69. A. trickled B. knuckled C. bogged D. tied

70. A. impartial B. prudent C. inferior D. conceited

71. A. cut B. break C. put D. come

72. A. considerate B. candid C. noble D. impetuous

73. A. ruthless B. reckless C. worthless D. selfless

74. A. executed B. crushed C. snatched D. pocketed

75. A. assent B. endorsement C. acclaim D. concurrence

Your answers:

8
 66. 67. 68. 69. 70.

71. 72. 73. 74. 75.

Part 2. For questions 76-85, fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable
word and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes on the answer sheet. (15
points)
The Special Needs of Special Kids
‘Gifted’ or ‘talented’ youngsters are those who develop much more quickly than other
children their age in one or more areas. They, therefore, find themselves significantly (76)
_____ of their peers in some ways. Gifted children may excel in (77) _____ subjects, such as
science or languages, or in more creative areas such as music or art. (78) _____ talented
youngsters display exceptional leadership, decision-making or organizational skills.
It is important for educators to (79) _____ gifted children because they often suffer
when placed in classes with children of average abilities. They frequently experience boredom
and frustration (80) _____ for their peers to grasp concepts or complete tasks that seem easy
to them. (81) _____, many of them are made to feel like outsiders due to the fact that they can
sometimes be very intense or show strong preferences for hobbies, books, music or even foods
that are (82) ____ with others in their age group. As a result, they often feel misunderstood or
isolated, and may become very sensitive unless educators make (83) ____ for their special
needs. Certain learning difficulties are more common in gifted children than they are among
the (84) ____ of the population, and this also needs to be taken into account when planning the
(85) _____ of gifted children.

Your answers:

76. 77. 78. 79. 80.

81. 82. 83. 84. 85.

Part 3. For questions 86-95, read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B,
C or D) to each question. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes
provided.
What causes cancer? Tobacco smoke, most people would say. Probably too much
alcohol, sunshine or grilled meat; infection with cervical papillomaviruses; asbestos. All have
strong links to cancer, certainly. But they cannot be root causes. Much of the population is
exposed to these carcinogens, yet only a tiny minority suffers dangerous tumors as a
consequence.
9
 A cause, by definition, leads invariably to its effect. The immediate cause of cancer
must be some combination of insults and accidents that induces normal cells in a healthy
human body to turn malignant, growing like weeds and sprouting in unnatural places.
At this level, the cause of cancer is not entirely a mystery. In fact, a decade ago many
geneticists were confident that science was homing in on a final answer: cancer is the result of
cumulative mutations that alter specific locations in a cell's DNA and thus change the particular
proteins encoded by cancer-related genes at those spots. The mutations affect two kinds of
cancer genes. The first is called tumor suppressors. They normally restrain cells' ability to
divide, and mutations permanently disable the genes. The second variety, known as oncogenes,
stimulates growth – in other words, cell division. Mutations lock oncogenes into an active state.
Some researchers still consider that such significant growth-promoting changes to a small
number of cancer genes are the initial event and root cause of every human cancer.
For the past few years, however, prominent oncologists have increasingly challenged
that theory. No one questions that cancer is ultimately a disease of the DNA. But as biologists
trace tumors to their roots, they have discovered pieces of chromosomes are frequently
scrambled, truncated or fused together. Chemical addition to the DNA, or to the histone
protein around which it coils, somehow silences important genes, but in a reversible
process quite different from mutation.
The accumulating evidence has spawned at least three hypotheses that compete with the
standard dogma to explain what changes come first and which aberrations matter most in the
decade-long transformation of a cell and its descendants from well-behaved tissue to invasive
tumor. The challengers dispute the dominant view of the disease as the product of a defined
genetic state. [A] They argue that it is more useful to think of cancer as the consequence of a
chaotic process, a combination of Murphy’s Law and Darwin’s Law: anything can go wrong,
and in a competitive environment, the best adapted survive and prosper.
[B] Despite that shared underlying principle, the new theories make different
predictions about what kind of treatments will work best. [C] Some suggest that many cancers
could be prevented altogether by better screening, changes in diet and new drugs – or even by
old drugs, such as aspirin. [D].
(Adapted from https://www.scientificamerican.com/)

86. The word “malignant” in paragraph 2 is CLOSEST in meaning to ______.

10
A. perilous B. benign C. uncontrollable D. invasive
87. Theoretically, what is the direct cause of cancer?
A. Tobacco smoke B. Unhealthy diet
C. papillomavirus infection D. Changes in normal cells
D. The story of the train may not be completely factual.
88. It is TRUE that oncogenes _______.
A. deactivate cancerous genes B. spur cell expansion
C. constrain cell increase D. keep mutations in active state
89. According to the passage, there are several ways genetic alterations can contribute to
cancer. Which of the following statements about these alterations is most likely TRUE based
on the information provided?
A. Mutations in tumor suppressor genes always directly activate cell growth pathways.
B. Chemical modifications to DNA can only occur through exposure to environmental
carcinogens.
C. Disruptions of chromosomes will invariably create oncogenes.
D. Most oncologists believe cancers involve the alteration of a cell's DNA.
90. Which of the following sentences would be the best restatement for the sentence
“Chemical addition to the DNA, or to the histone protein around which it coils, somehow
silences important genes, but in a reversible process quite different from mutation” in
paragraph 4?
A. Chemical addition coils around DNA and deactivates important genes in a reversed process.
B. Important genes are deactivated due to chemical addition in a reversed process compared
to mutation.
C. Important genes are deactivated in a reversed chemical process compared to mutation.
D. DNA is silenced because of chemical addition to important genes, a process different from
mutation.
91. The word “aberrations” in paragraph 5 is CLOSEST in meaning to _____.
A. defects B. principles C. beliefs D. phenomena
92. The word “dispute” in paragraph 5 could be best replaced by _____.
A. question B. analyze C. puzzle D. canvass
93. Why does the author mention Murphy’s Law and Darwin’s Law in paragraph 5?
A. To argue the shared view of the challengers on both sides

11
B. To illustrate the view of cancer as the consequence of a disordered process
C. To support the view of cancer as the product of a defined genetic state
D. To introduce the logical combination of the two laws
94. Which would be the best place in the passage to insert the sentence “Other theories cast
doubt on that hope”?
A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]
95. What would be the best title for this passage?
A. Untangling The Roots of Cancer
B. New Understanding of A Dreaded Disease
C. New Hypotheses of Cancer
D. Controlling The Roots of Cancer
Your answers:

86. 87. 88. 89. 90.

91. 92. 93. 94. 95.

Part 4. For questions 96-105, read the passage and do the following tasks. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes on the answer sheet. (15 points)
Time Travel
Time travel took a small step away from science fiction and toward science recently
when physicists discovered that sub-atomic particles known as neutrinos – progeny of the sun’s
radioactive debris – can exceed the speed of light. The unassuming particle – it is electrically
neutral, small but with a “non-zero mass” and able to penetrate the human form undetected –
is on its way to becoming a rock star of the scientific world.
Researchers from the European Organisation for Nuclear Research (CERN) in Geneva
sent the neutrinos hurtling through an underground corridor toward their colleagues at the
Oscillation Project with Emulsion-Tracing Apparatus (OPERA) team 730 kilometres away in
Gran Sasso, Italy. The neutrinos arrived promptly – so promptly, in fact, that they triggered
what scientists are calling the unthinkable – that everything they have learnt, known or taught
stemming from the last one hundred years of the physics discipline may need to be
reconsidered.
The issue at stake is a tiny segment of time – precisely sixty nanoseconds (which is
sixty billionths of a second), which is how much faster than the speed of light the neutrinos
managed to go in their underground travels and at a consistent rate (15,000 neutrinos were sent
over three years). Even allowing for a margin of error of ten billionths of a second, this stands
as proof that it is possible to race against light and win. The duration of the experiment also
accounted for and ruled out any possible lunar effects or tidal bulges in the earth’s crust.
Nevertheless, there’s plenty of reason to remain sceptical. According to Harvard
University science historian Peter Galison, Einstein’s relativity theory has been “pushed harder

12
than any theory in the history of the physical sciences”. Yet each prior challenge has come to
no avail, and relativity has so far refused to buckle.
So is time travel just around the corner? The prospect has certainly been wrenched much
closer to the realm of possibility now that a major physical hurdle – the speed of light – has
been cleared. If particles can travel faster than light, in theory travelling back in time is
possible. How anyone harnesses that to some kind of helpful end is far beyond the scope of
any modern technologies, however, and will be left to future generations to explore.
Certainly, any prospective time travellers may have to overcome more
physical and logical hurdles than merely overtaking the speed of light. One such problem,
posited by René Barjavel in his 1943 text Le Voyageur Imprudent is the so- called grandfather
paradox. Barjavel theorised that, if it were possible to go back in time, a time traveller could
potentially kill his own grandfather. If this were to happen, however, the time traveller himself
would not be born, which is already known to be true. In other words, there is a paradox in
circumventing an already known future; time travel is able to facilitate past actions that mean
time travel itself cannot occur.
Other possible routes have been offered, though. For Igor Novikov, astrophysicist
behind the 1980s’ theorem known as the self-consistency principle, time travel is possible
within certain boundaries. Novikov argued that any event causing a paradox would have zero
probability. It would be possible, however, to “affect” rather than “change” historical outcomes
if travellers avoided all inconsistencies. Averting the sinking of the Titanic, for example, would
revoke any future imperative to stop it from sinking – it would be impossible. Saving selected
passengers from the water and replacing them with realistic corpses would not be impossible,
however, as the historical record would not be altered in any way.
A further possibility is that of parallel universes. Popularised by Bryce Seligman DeWitt
in the 1960s (from the seminal formulation of Hugh Everett), the many-worlds interpretation
holds that an alternative pathway for every conceivable occurrence actually exists. If we were
to send someone back in time, we might therefore expect never to see him again – any
alterations would divert that person down a new historical trajectory.
A final hypothesis, one of unidentified provenance, reroutes itself quite efficiently
around the grandfather paradox. Non-existence theory suggests exactly that – a person would
quite simply never exist if they altered their ancestry in ways that obstructed their own birth.
They would still exist in person upon returning to the present, but any chain reactions
associated with their actions would not be registered. Their “historical identity” would be gone.
So, will humans one day step across the same boundary that the neutrinos have? World-
renowned astrophysicist Stephen Hawking believes that once spaceships can exceed the speed
of light, humans could feasibly travel millions of years into the future in order to repopulate
earth in the event of a forthcoming apocalypse. This is because, as the spaceships accelerate
into the future, time would slow down around them (Hawking concedes that bygone eras are
off limits – this would violate the fundamental rule that cause comes before effect).

Questions 96-100
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the Reading Passage ?
In boxes 31-35 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
13
96. It is unclear where neutrinos come from.

97. Neutrinos can pass through a person’s body without being noticed.

98. It took scientists between 50-70 nanoseconds to send the neutrinos from Geneva to Italy.

99. Researchers accounted for effects the moon might have had on the experiment.

100. The theory of relativity has often been called into question unsuccessfully.

Questions 101-105

Complete the table below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 36-40 provided.

Original Theory Principle

Theorist

René Barjavel Grandfather paradox Time travel would allow for

101 ............... that would actually make time
travel impossible.

Igor Novikov Self-consistency It is only possible to alter history in ways that

principle result in no 102 ..................... .

103 .................. Many-worlds Each possible event has an 104 .....................,

interpretation so a time traveller changing the past would
simply end up in a different branch of history
than the one he left.

Unknown Non-existence theory If a time traveller changed the past to prevent

his future life, he would not have a 105
..................... as the person never existed.

Your answers:

96. 97. 98. 99. 100.

101. 102. 103. 104. 105.

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IV. WRITING (50 points)

Part 1. The graph below shows the number of films produced by five countries in three years.
Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.
Write at least 150 words.

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Part 2. Write an essay of around 250 words on the topic below.
Many employees can now do their work from home using modern technology. Is this a
positive or negative trend?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge
or experience.
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THE END

18
 KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CÁC TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN
KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ
LẦN THỨ XV, NĂM 2024

ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 10

Thời gian: 180 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)
Đề thi gồm 13 trang
Ngày thi: 16/7/2024
SECTION A: LISTENING (50 points)
HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
• Bài nghe gồm 4 phần; mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 05 giây; mở
đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu. Thí sinh có 20 giây để đọc mỗi phần
câu hỏi.
• Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thí sinh có 03 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài
trước tín hiệu nhạc kết thúc bài nghe.
• Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe

Part 1. You will listen to a short conversation. For questions 1-5, Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided on the answer sheet. (10 points)

Transport from Airport to Milton

Example: Distance Answer: 147 miles
Options:
• Car hire: - don't want to drive
• (1) _________________: - expensive
• Greyhound bus:
- $15 single, $ (2) ____________________ return
- direct to the city centre
- long 3________________
• Airport Shuttle
- (4) _____________service
- every 2 hours
- $35 single, $65 return
- need to (5) _____________________

Page 1 of 13
Part 2. You will listen to a talk by someone who works as a life coach, and decide whether
these statements are True (T) or False (F). Write your answers in the corresponding
numbered boxes provided.
6. The woman works with people to find out their real life goals.
7. According to the woman, paying attention to what you wish for prevents you from actually
achieving it.
8. The woman says people should start by deciding on a general goal.
9. The woman comes up with a pragmatic strategy to help her clients succeed sooner all by
herself.
10. The woman believes people may fail to see the big picture when working on their own.

Part 3. You will listen to an interview with Penny and Giles, who have both just returned to
Britain after travelling around the world and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D which
fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered
boxes provided.
11. Why did Giles decide to stay abroad for more than one year?
A. to decide which country he would eventually settle in
B. to gain work experience in a number of countries
C. to try and get his articles published in different countries
D. to become familiar with the cultures of other countries
12. What did Penny and Giles both find unexpected about their time abroad?
A. how little they knew about other countries
B. how difficult it was to learn other languages
C. how unadventurous they were about food
D. how many people were willing to talk to them
13. What aspect of tourism does Penny criticise?
A. the motives that some tourists have for travelling
B. its effect on traditional crafts
C. the physical changes that are made to some places
D. its economic impact on an area
14. Giles's reference to an incident that happened in Thailand is probably intended to
illustrate
A. his wish to avoid commitments.
B. his pleasure in making new friends.
C. his sense of responsibility.
D. his difficulty in learning foreign languages.
15. In relation to what he does in the future, Giles has decided
A. to work abroad for a period as a journalist.
B. to go ahead with his plan of becoming a travel journalist.

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C. to maximise his chances of getting work eventually.
D. to change to a career in politics.
Part 4. You will listen to a talk about sleep and supply the blanks with the missing
information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken from the recording for each
answer in the space provided.
SLEEP AND MENTAL HEALTH
16. The culprit behind our ______________________ relationship to sleep originates
from our ancient understanding of the subject.
17. Parents of small children have a disposition to be ______________________ in
routine negotiations.
18. Every reversal becomes a drama, every disappointment turns into a catastrophe and
every excitement shifts into ______________________.
19. An innovatively ______________________ approach to bedtimes when growing up
can be considered an expression of independence and individuality.
20. There are various ways of expressing our perceptions about lives, ranging from
positive narratives to appalling tales of complete ignorance and
______________________.
21. When exhaustion sets in, we tend to think in a ______________________ way.
22. When we lie in bed, we think that we bear a resemblance to a
______________________, for instance, a rabbit or a squirrel.
23. Given the harsh grown-up life, we need to be free to ______________________ this.
24. It is inferred from curled squirrel position that mental problems cannot be universally
handled by ______________________.
25. It is not until we have treated ourselves with a ______________________ or a long
night’s sleep that we understand the reasons to live.
SECTION B: LEXICO- GRAMMAR (40 points)
Part 1. For questions 26-55, choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the following
sentences and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided on the
answer sheet. (20 points)
26. He's really shy________ girl.
A. by B. at C. for D. with
27. ________ had booked in advance were allowed in.
A. Only who B. Only those who C. Only who were D. Only were who
28. I couldn’t quite ________ what they were doing because they were so far away.
A. bear out B. make out C. think out D. try out
29. The people who________ the survey said that they had examined over 1,000 accidents.
A. gave B. proceeded C. set D. conducted
30. People came from ______ to take part in the demonstration in Washington DC.
A. far and wide B. in the vicinity C. round in circles D. across the board
31. ______ over the last 12 – month period, we have managed to expand into new markets.
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A. By hard working B. To the hard work
C. Having worked hard D. Though working hard
32. I think my essay is good but could you ______ over it and point out any errors.
A. shed any light B. cloud your judgement
C. set your mind D. cast your eye
33. Donald Trumps________ when he found out that people disagreed with him about his
speech.
A. made my blood boil B. brought the house down
B. saw pink elephants D. hit the roof
34. By the time you come back next year, a new stadium________ in our province.
A. must have built B. will need being built
C. will have been building D. will have been built
35. Don’t worry – it’s ______ natural to feel annoyed when people let you down.
A. perfectly B. utterly C. fully D. highly
36. From 1949 onward, the artist Georgia O’keeffe made New Mexico ________.
A. her permanent residence was B. where her permanent residence
C. permanent residence for her D. her permanent residence
37. ________ is not clear to researchers.
A. Why dinosaurs having become extinct B. Why dinosaurs became extinct
C. Did dinosaurs become extinct D. Dinosaurs became extinct
38. Weren’t you supposed ______ your assignment with you to yesterday’s seminar?.
A. to be brought B. to have been brought
C. to have brought D. have brought
39. The first transatlantic telephone cable system was not established ________ 1956.
A. while B. until C. on D. when
40. Van Gogh suffered from depression ________ by overwork and ill-health.
A. taken up B. brought on C. come about D. put through
41. Jane has ______ a fantastic job with one of our top international companies.
A. earned B. launched C. won D. landed
42. It has been snowing for 24 hours and there is no sign of it ______.
A. shutting off B. giving away C. falling over D. letting up
43. No one ______ the building until the firefighters say it is safe to do so.
A. has to enter B. is entering to C. is to enter D. enters to
44. While employed as business banking manager of the bank, he ______ £300,000.and ran
away to another country.
A. swallowed B. embezzled C. confiscated D. annulled
45. We will have to economize _______ heating or we won’t be able to pay the bill.
A. about B. in C. on D. over
46. This job may not pay well, but it has certain _______ benefits, such as friendly colleagues
and a stimulating environment.
A. obscure B. tangential C. intangible D. immaterial
47. Paul’s decision to leave his position in the company_______ surprise.

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A. completely took me in B. took me completely by
C. was taken completely by my D. was completely taken in my
48. For our vacation, we rented a modern, ______ penthouse in the heart of Rome.
A. secluded B. spacious C. rugged D. picturesque
49. Although it’s a little off the beaten ______, the town is well worth visiting for its museum
and ancien castle.
A. terrain B. itinerary C. way D. track
50. Unfortunately, all attempts to find a peaceful solution to the ongoing conflict have been
______.
A. resourceful B. forceful C. fruitless D. relentless
51. If you are ______with something, you know or have access to something that can be useful
to you.
A. armed B. handed C. headed D. legged
52. Overseas visitors traveling around the country are advised to carry their passports with
them ______.
A. all times B. for all time C. of all time D. at all times
53. ______ about the job offer, I knew that relocating to Paris would be an adjustment.
A. Delighted though I was B. As I was delighted
C. However delighted was I D. Were I delighted
54. Jack does tend to exaggerate, but there is usually a ______ of truth in what he says.
A. shred B. grain C. speck D. touch
55. While teachers at the school are not particularly strict, they are never ______ with students
who skip classes or cheat on tests.
A. formal B. disciplined C. lenient D. adverse
Part 2. For questions 56-65, fill each gap with the correct form of the words in brackets.
Write your answer in the boxes provided on the answer sheet. (10 points)
56. Like his famous ______ , young Washington had a brave, adventurous spirit. (NAME)
57. Don’t you think she is ______ She always looks good in her photographs. (PHOTO)
58. Hardly a day goes by without Tim being ______ of eating sweets. (DESIRE)
59. More time will be needed for the troops and equipment to become ______
to desert conditions. (CLIMATE)
60. Anna managed to make an amazing coat out of ______ of different colored fabrics.
(REMAIN)
61. A younger person quarrels with his parents and then feels ______ for having said harsh
words. (CONSCIENCE)

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62. The diver decided to ______ himself in the crystal-clear water to explore the vibrant coral
reef below. (MERGE)
63. Sympathy is a (an) ______ here - we need practical help. (RELEVANT)
64. She ______ wakes up at 6 a.m. to go for a morning jog before starting her day.(CUSTOM)
65. More than 11,000 children die everyday around the world because of ______ caused by
diarrhoea. (HYDRATE)

SECTION C: READING (60 points)

Part 1. For questions 66-75, read the following passage and decide which option (A, B, C, or
D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes on the answer
sheet. (15 points)
In the nineteenth century, John Ruskin, an English writer and art critic, made great efforts to
encourage people to draw. He believed that drawing was a skill that was greatly neglected in
schools and (66) ______ that it was more important to the human race than writing.

In order to do something to improve the (67) ______ , he published two books on drawing and
gave a series of lectures at the Working Men’s College in London. His books were (68)
______ read, and his lectures attracted large audiences. This further (69) ______ Ruskin’s
belief that everybody should be given the opportunity to learn how to draw.

Ruskin’s efforts were not (70) ______ at turning people into good artists but at making them
happier. For him, drawings were of value even when they were done by people with no talent,
as drawing teaches people to (71) ______ things rather than just to see them. He felt that when
we are involved in the process of drawing something, we have to look at it very (72) ______
and become aware of the different parts which (73) ______ up the whole. It is in this way that
we (74) ______ to a deeper appreciation and (75) ______ of the thing itself.

66. A. convinced B. recommended C. expressed D. claimed

67. A. situation B. condition C. state D. case
68. A. vastly B. widely C. broadly D. immensely
69. A. raised B. ensured C. strengthened D. grew
70. A. pointed B. aimed C. designed D. intended
71. A. observe B. regard C. witness D. look
72. A. distinctly B. definitely C. exactly D. closely
73. A. work B. set C. make D. take
74. A. come B. reach C. arrive D. achieve
75. A. meaning B. understanding C. intelligence D. significance

Page 6 of 13
Part 2. For questions 76-85, fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable
word and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes on the answer sheet. (15
points)
Over the last century the world has become increasingly smaller. Not geographically, of
course, but in the sense that media, technology and the opening of borders has enabled the
world’s citizens to view, share and gain (76) ______ to a much wider range of cultures,
societies and world views. In this (77) ______ pot that the world has become, today’s child is
privy (78) ______ facets of the human experience that his immediate predecessors had no
inkling even existed. It (79) ______ to reason that in order to absorb, configure and finally
form opinions about this information-laden planet, children must be supplied (80) ______
certain tools. This list of tools includes education, social skills, cultural awareness, and
language acquisition, with the latter being the most important. Until recently, bilingual
children were considered rare. (81) ______ one-language phenomenon could be attributed to a
combination of factors. One of them is that the monolingual environment in which a child was
raised played a strong role, (82) ______ did the limited, biased education of the past. Sadly,
immigrant parents often withheld teaching their native language to their children in favor of
the more prestigious language of their new country. Nowadays, the situation has (83) ______
an almost complete reversal. In the majority of North American and European countries, most
children are given the opportunity to learn a second or (84) ______ a third language. Children
acquire foreign languages through various means, including compulsory state school curricula,
language schools, and private tuition. In other instances, children are born to bilingual parents,
(85) ______ , if they so desire, may teach the children two languages.

Part 3. For questions 86-95, read the following passage and circle the best answer to each of
the following questions. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes provided on
the answer sheet. (15 points)
1) Anthropology distinguishes itself from the other social sciences by its greater emphasis
on fieldwork as the source of new knowledge. The aim of such studies is to develop as
intimate an understanding as possible of the phenomena investigated. Although the length
of field studies varies from a few weeks to years, it is generally agreed that anthropologists
should stay in the field long enough for their presence to be considered ‘natural’ by the
permanent residents.
2) Realistically, however, anthropologists may never reach this status. Their foreign
mannerisms make them appear clownish, and so they are treated with curiosity and
amusement. If they speak the local language at all, they do so with a strange accent and
flawed grammar. They ask tactless questions and inadvertently break rules regarding how
things are usually done. Arguably this could be an interesting starting point for research,
though it is rarely exploited. Otherwise, anthropologists take on the role of the ‘superior
expert’, in which case they are treated with deference and respect, only coming into contact

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with the most high-ranking members of the society. Anthropologists with this role may
never witness the gamut of practices which take place in all levels of the society.
3) No matter which role one takes on, anthropologists generally find fieldwork extremely
demanding. Anthropological texts may read like an exciting journey of exploration, but
rarely is this so. Long periods of time spent in the field are generally characterised by
boredom, illness and frustration. Anthropologists in the field encounter unfamiliar climates,
strange food and low standards of hygiene. It is often particularly trying for researchers
with middle-class, European backgrounds to adapt to societies where being alone is
considered pitiful. It takes a dedicated individual to conduct research which is not in some
way influenced by these personal discomforts.
4) Nonetheless, fieldwork requires the researcher to spend as much time as possible in local
life. A range of research methodologies can be utilised to extract information. (1) These can
be classified as emic or etic. (2) While emic descriptions are considered more desirable
nowadays, they are difficult to attain, even if the researcher does his utmost to reproduce
the facts from the natives’ point of view. (3) More often than not, aspects of the
researcher’s own culture, perspective and literary style seep into the narrative. Moreover,
research generally involves translations from one language to another and from speech into
writing. In doing this, the meaning of utterances is changed. (4) The only truly emic
descriptions can be those given by the natives themselves in their own vernacular.
5) The least invasive type of research methodology is observation. Here, the researcher
studies the group and records findings without intruding too much on their privacy. This is
not to say, however, that the presence of the researcher will have minimal impact on the
findings. An example was Richard Borshay Lee, who, in studying local groups in the
Kalahari refused to provide the people with food so as not to taint his research, leading to
an inevitable hostility towards the researcher which would not otherwise have been present.
6) A variant on the observation technique, participant observation requires that the
anthropologist not only observes the culture, but participates in it too. It allows for deeper
immersion into the culture studied, hence a deeper understanding of it. By developing a
deeper rapport with the people of the culture, it is hoped they will open up
and divulge more about their culture and way of life than can simply be observed.
Participant observation is still an imperfect methodology, however, since populations may
adjust their behavior around the researcher, knowing that they are the subject of research.
7) The participatory approach was conceived in an attempt to produce as emic a perspective
as possible. The process involves not just the gathering of information from local people,
but involves them in the interpretation of the findings. That is, rather than the researcher
getting actively involved in the processes within the local community, the process is turned
on its head. The local community is actively involved in the research process.

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86. The main premise of the text is _____________.
A. the steps to be followed when undertaking anthropological fieldwork.
B. a history of anthropological fieldwork methodology.
C. the effects that an anthropological fieldwork has on local communities.
D. the problems with conducting anthropological fieldwork.
87. The main reason for anthropological researchers remaining in a community for an extended
period of time is that_____________.
A. they can gather as much information as possible.
B. they can try out a range of different research methodologies.
C. they want local people to behave naturally around them.
D. they need time to become accustomed to the conditions.
88. What does the passage say about researchers who are considered a ‘clown’ by locals?
A. They do culturally unacceptable things without realising it.
B. They do not gain respect among high-ranking members of the community.
C. They cannot conduct any research of value.
D. They do not study the language and culture of the region before their arrival.
89. The writer believes that the most difficult aspect of fieldwork for educated westerners is
_____________.
A. the lack of companionship. B. poor sanitary conditions.
C. failure to meet expectations. D. never being left alone.
90. In paragraph 3, it is implied that _____________.
A. the fieldworker’s emotions and mood prejudice the research.
B. the longer a researcher spends in the field, the more depressed he gets.
C. middle-class Europeans find field research more difficult than researchers from other
backgrounds.
D. anthropological texts tend to exaggerate the difficult conditions that researchers experience.
91. Which of the following is NOT true about an emic account?
A. It is likely to be more analytical in style than an etic account.
B. It is told from the perspective of the person being studied.
C. It is currently the preferred way of conducting anthropological research.
D. It cannot be translated without altering its meaning.
92. Why is the example of Richard Borshay Lee given in paragraph 5?
A. to demonstrate that observation is an ineffective method of gathering data.
B. to highlight why it is important that researchers minimize their impact on a community.
C. to show the dangers of researchers trying to lessen their impact on a community
D. to show how a researcher’s choice of methodology can influence the validity of his

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 findings.
93. How does participant observation differ vary from straightforward observation?
A. It requires the researcher to become actively involved in the daily lives of those being
studied.
B. It allows the subjects of the research a greater degree of privacy.
C. It eradicates the problem of research subjects altering their behaviour towards researchers.
D. It takes longer to perform this type of research effectively.
94. In paragraph 6, divulge is closest in meaning to _____________.
A. explain B. illustrate C. reveal D. propose
95. Which of the following is NOT true of the participatory approach?
A. It attempts to reduce etic accounts of a culture to a minimum.
B. It does not require a researcher to be present.
C. It aims to involve the subjects in both information gathering and analysis.
D. It is the reverse of the participant observation technique.

Part 4. For questions 96-105, read the passage and do the following tasks. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes on the answer sheet. (15 points)
THE STEAM CAR
The successes and failures of the Doble brothers and their steam cars
A
When primitive automobiles first began to appear in the 1800s, their engines were based on
steam power. Steam had already enjoyed a long and successful career in the railways, so it was
only natural that the technology evolved into a miniaturized version which was separate from
the trains. But these early cars inherited steam’s weaknesses along with its strengths. The boilers
had to be lit by hand, and they required about twenty minutes to build up pressure before they
could be driven. Furthermore, their water reservoirs only lasted for about thirty miles before
needing replenishment. Despite such shortcomings, these newly designed self-propelled
carriages offered quick transportation, and by the early 1900s it was not uncommon to see such
machines shuttling wealthy citizens around town.
B
But the glory days of steam cars were few. A new technology called the Internal Combustion
Engine soon appeared, which offered the ability to drive down the road just moments after
starting up. At first, these noisy gasoline cars were unpopular because they were more
complicated to operate and they had difficult hand-crank starters, which were known to break
arms when the engines backfired. But in 1912 General Motors introduced the electric starter,
and over the following few years steam power was gradually phased out.
C
Even as the market was declining, four brothers made one last effort to rekindle the technology.
Between 1906 and 1909, while still attending high school, Abner Doble and his three brothers
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built their first steam car in their parents’ basement. It comprised parts taken from a wrecked
early steam car but reconfigured to drive an engine of their own design. Though it did not run
well, the Doble brothers went on to build a second and third prototype in the following years.
Though the Doble boys’ third prototype, nicknamed the Model B, still lacked the convenience
of an internal combustion engine, it drew the attention of automobile trade magazines due to its
numerous improvements over previous steam cars. The Model B proved to be superior to
gasoline automobiles in many ways. Its high-pressure steam drove the engine pistons in virtual
silence, in contrast to clattering gas engines which emitted the aroma of burned hydrocarbons.
Perhaps most impressively, the Model B was amazingly swift. It could accelerate from zero to
sixty miles per hour in just fifteen seconds, a feat described as ‘remarkable acceleration’
by Automobile magazine in 1914.
D
The following year Abner Doble drove the Model B from Massachusetts to Detroit in order to
seek investment in his automobile design, which he used to open the General Engineering
Company. He and his brothers immediately began working on the Model C, which was intended
to expand upon the innovations of the Model B. The brothers added features such as a key-based
ignition in the cabin, eliminating the need for the operator to manually ignite the boiler. With
these enhancements, the Dobles’ new car company promised a steam vehicle which would
provide all of the convenience of a gasoline car, but with much greater speed, much simpler
driving controls, and a virtually silent powerplant. By the following April, the General
Engineering Company had received 5,390 deposits for Doble Detroits, which were scheduled
for delivery in early 1918.
E
Later that year Abner Doble delivered unhappy news to those eagerly awaiting the delivery of
their modem new cars. Those buyers who received the handful of completed cars complained
that the vehicles were sluggish and erratic, sometimes going in reverse when they should go
forward. The new engine design, though innovative, was still plagued with serious glitches.
F
The brothers made one final attempt to produce a viable steam automobile. In early 1924, the
Doble brothers shipped a Model E to New York City to be road-tested by the Automobile Club
of America. After sitting overnight in freezing temperatures, the car was pushed out into the
road and left to sit for over an hour in the frosty morning air. At the turn of the key, the boiler lit
and reached its operating pressure inside of forty seconds. As they drove the test vehicle further,
they found that its evenly distributed weight lent it surprisingly good handling, even though it
was so heavy. As the new Doble steamer was further developed and tested, its maximum speed
was pushed to over a hundred miles per hour, and it achieved about fifteen miles per gallon of
kerosene with negligible emissions.
G

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Sadly, the Dobles’ brilliant steam car never was a financial success. Priced at around $18,000 in
1924, it was popular only among the very wealthy. Plus, it is said that no two Model Es were
quite the same, because Abner Doble tinkered endlessly with the design. By the time the
company folded in 1931, fewer than fifty of the amazing Model E steam cars had been
produced. For his whole career, until his death in 1961, Abner Doble remained adamant that
steam-powered automobiles were at least equal to gasoline cars, if not superior. Given the
evidence, he may have been right. Many of the Model E Dobles which have survived are still in
good working condition, some having been driven over half a million miles with only normal
maintenance. Astonishingly, an unmodified Doble Model E runs clean enough to pass the
emissions laws in California today, and they are pretty strict. It is true that the technology poses
some difficult problems, but you cannot help but wonder how efficient a steam car might be
with the benefit of modem materials and computers. Under the current pressure to improve
automotive performance and reduce emissions, it is not unthinkable that the steam car may rise
again.
Questions 96-102
The reading Passage has seven paragraphs, A-G.
Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below.
Write the correct number, i-viii, in boxes 96-102 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings
i A period in cold conditions before the technology is assessed
ii Marketing issues lead to failure
iii Good and bad aspects of steam technology are passed on
iv A possible solution to the issues of today
v Further improvements lead to commercial orders
vi Positive publicity at last for this quiet, clean, fast vehicle
vii A disappointing outcome for customers
viii A better option than the steam car arises
96. Paragraph A ______
97. Paragraph B ______
98. Paragraph C ______
99. Paragraph D ______
100. Paragraph E ______
101. Paragraph F ______
102. Paragraph G ______
Questions 103-105
Complete the summary below.
Choose ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 103-105 on your answer sheet.

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 THE MODEL E
The Model E was road-tested in 1924 by the Automobile Club of America. They found it easy
to drive, despite its weight, and it impressed the spectators. A later version of the Model E
raised its 103………………, while keeping its emissions extremely low.
The steam car was too expensive for many people and its design was constantly being altered.
Under 104……………… cars were produced before the company went out of business.
However, even today, there are Model Es on the road in the US. They are straightforward to
maintain, and they satisfy California’s 105……………… emissions laws. Perhaps today’s
technology and materials would help us revive the steam car.
SECTION D. WRITING (50 points)
Part 1. (20 points)
The bar chart below shows information about the number of worldwide sales for the top five
best-selling handphone brands – Samsung, Apple, Nokia, LG and ZTE, from 2009 to 2013.
Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features and make comparisons
where relevant. You should write about 150 words on the answer sheet provided.

Part 2. (30 points)

In light of increasing environmental challenges, some people believe that individual actions are
insufficient to combat climate change and that systemic changes are necessary. To what extent
do you agree with this statement? Provide reasons and examples to support your view. You
should write about 250 words on the answer sheet provided.

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