Dropper’s Batch (2024-25) TRINITY CLASSES

Date : 08/12/2024 Paper Code : TC-B1/24-25/015

TRINITY CLASSES
Medical | IIT-JEE | Foundations
Head Office :-C-9/4, YAMUNA VIHAR, DELHI-110053, Ph. 8510804020
MM : 720 Test No. – 15 Time : 3 Hrs.

Mock Test for NEET 2025

Test Syllabus :
Physics :- (NLM + Electric Potential and Capacitance)
Chemistry :- (Physical Chemistry)
Biology :- (Class XIIth Unit-1st and Unit-2nd)

Instructions :
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35
questions from Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the
total score. Unanswered/unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other
rubbing material on the answer sheet.

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Dropper’s Batch (2024-25) TRINITY CLASSES
Q.6. The horizontal acceleration that should be
PHYSICS 𝟏 𝟏
given to a smooth inclined plane of angle 𝐬𝐢𝐧
SECTION – A 𝒍
to keep an object stationary on the plane relative
Question Nos. 1 to 35 All are compulsory
to the plane is :
Q.1. Essential characteristics of equilibrium is :
a) b) g√𝑙 − 1
a) Momentum equals zero √
b) Acceleration equals zero c)
√
d)
√
c) K.E. equals zero
Q.7. The pulleys and strings shown in the Fig. are
d) Velocity equals zero
smooth and of negligible mass. For the system to
Q.2. When a force of constant magnitude always
remain in equilibrium, the angle θ should be :
acts perpendicular to the motion of a particle then:
a) Velocity is constant
b) Acceleration is constant
c) K.E. is constant
d) None of these
Q.3. Three quals weights of mass 2 kg each are
hanging on a string passing over a fixed pulley as a) 0° b) 30°
shown in Fig. What is the tension in the string c) 45° d) 60°
connecting weights B and C ? Q.8. A plank with a box on it at one end is gradually
raised about the other end. As the angle of
inclination with the horizontal reaches 30°, the
box starts to slip and slides 4.0 m down the plank
in 4.0 s. the coefficients of static and kinetic
friction between the box and the plank will be,
respectively :

a) Zero b) 13 N
c) 3.3 N d) 19.6 N
Q.4. In the system shown in Fig, the mass 30 kg is
pulled by a force 210 N. At the instant when the 15
kg mass has acceleration 6 m/s2, the acceleration a) 0.4 and 0.3 b) 0.6 and 0.6
of 30 kg mass will be : c) 0.6 and 0.5 d) 0.5 and 0.6
(Assume the spring to be massless) Q.9. A block of mass m is in contact with the cart C
as shown in the Fig. The coefficient of static
friction between the block and the cart is μ. The
acceleration α of the cart that will prevent the
a) 2 m/s2 b) 3 m/s2 block from falling satisfies :
c) 3.4 m/s2 d) 4 m/s2
Q.5. A person wishes to slide down a rope whose
𝟑
breaking load is of the weight of the person.
𝟓
Minimum acceleration by which the person should
slide down without breaking the rope is :
a) 0.8 g b) 1.2 g a) α < b) α >
c) 0.6 g d) 0.4 g
c) α > d) α ≥

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Dropper’s Batch (2024-25) TRINITY CLASSES
Q.10. If 100 N force is applied to 10 kg block as
shown in diagram, then acceleration produced for
slab :

a) VC > VB = VA b) VB > VC = VA
c) VA > VB = VC d) VA = VC = VB
Q.16. Ten electrons are equally spaced and fixed
a) 1.65 m/s2 b) 0.98 m/s2
around a circle of radius R. Relative to V = 0 at
c) 1.2 m/s 2 d) 0.25 m/s2
infinity, the electrostatic potential V and the
Q.11. The radii of two metallic spheres P and Q are
electric field E at the centre C are
r1 and r2 respectively. They are given the same
a) V ≠ 0 and 𝐸⃗ ≠ 0 b) V ≠ 0 and 𝐸⃗ = 0
charge. If r1 > r2, then on connecting them with a
thin wire, then c) V = 0 and 𝐸⃗ = 0 d) V = 0 and 𝐸⃗ ≠ 0
a) The charge will flow from P to Q Q.17. A uniform electric field having a magnitude
b) The charge will flow from Q to P E0 and direction along the positive X-axis exists. If
c) Neither the charge will flow from P to Q nor from Q the potential V is zero at x = 0, then its value at X =
to P +x will be
d) The information is incomplete a) Vx = +xE0 b) Vx = ‒xE0
Q.12. A hollow metal sphere of radius 5 cm is c) Vx = +x2E0 d) Vx = x2E0
charged so that the potential on its surface is 10 V. Q.18. An electron enters in high potential region V2
The potential at the centre of the sphere is from lower potential region V1, then its velocity
a) 0 V a) Will increase
b) 10 V b) Will change in direction but not in magnitude
c) Same as at point 5 cm away from the surface c) Will change both in direction and magnitude
d) Same as at point 25 cm away from the surface d) None of the above
Q.13. Three charges 2q, ‒q, ‒q are located at the Q.19. At distance ‘r’ from a point charge, the ratio
𝑼
vertices of an equilateral triangle. At the centre of (where ‘U’ is energy density and ‘V’ is potential)
𝑽𝟐
the triangle is best represented by :
a) The field is zero but potential is non-zero
b) The field is non-zero but potential is zero
c) Both field and potential are zero
d) Both field and potential are non-zero
Q.14. The electric potential at a point on the axis of a) b)
an electric dipole depends on the distance r of the
point from the dipole as
a) ∝ b) ∝
c) ∝ 𝑟 d) ∝ c) d)
Q.15. A hollow conducting sphere is placed in an Q.20. In the electric field of a point charge q, a
electric field produced by a point charge placed at certain charge is carried from point A to B, C, D and
P as shown in figure. Let VA, VB, VC be the potentials E. Then the work done
at points A, B and C respectively. Then

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Dropper’s Batch (2024-25) TRINITY CLASSES
the charge (+Q) fixed at B, the charge (‒q) at A is
moved to another point C such that ABC forms an
equilateral triangle of side l. The net work done in
moving the charge (‒q) is
a) b)

c) Qql d) Zero
a) Is least along the path AB
Q.26. Two metal spheres of capacitance C 1 and C2
b) Is least along the path AD
carry some charges. They are put in contact and
c) Is zero along all the paths AB, AC, AD and AE
then separated. The final charges Q1 and Q2 on
d) Is least along AE
them will satisfy
Q.21. Three charges Q, +q and +q are placed at the
vertices of a right-angled isosceles triangle as a) < b) =
shown. The net electrostatic energy of the c) > d) <
configuration is zero if Q is equal to
Q.27. A capacitor of capacity C is connected with a
battery of potential V in parallel. The distance
between its plates is reduced to half at once,
assuming that the charge remains the same. Then
to charge the capacitance upto the potential V
again, the energy given by the battery will be
a) CV2/4 b) CV2/2
c) 3CV2/4 d) CV2
a) b) Q.28. A parallel plate condenser is immersed in an
√ √
c) ‒2q d) +q oil of dielectric constant 2. The field between the
Q.22. Two equal charges q are placed at a distance plates is
of 2a and a third charge ‒2q is placed at the a) Increased by 2 b) Decreased by
midpoint. The potential energy of the system is
c) Increased by √2 d) Decreased by
a) b) √
Q.29. A capacitor when filled with a dielectric K =
c) − d) 3 has charge Q0, voltage V0 and field E0. If the
Q.23. Four equal charges Q are placed at the four dielectric is replaced with another one having K =
corners of a square of each side is ‘a’. Work done 9, the new values of charge, voltage and field will
in removing a charge ‒Q from its centre to infinity respectively be
is a) 3Q0, 3V0, 3E0 b) Q0, 3V0, 3E0
√ c) Q0, , 3E0 d) Q0, ,
a) 0 b)
Q.30. A parallel plate capacitor is made by stacking
√
c) d) n equally spaced plates connected alternately. If
Q.24. A molecule with a dipole moment p is placed the capacitance between any two plates is C, then
in an electric field of strength E. Initially the dipole the resultant capacitance is
is aligned parallel to the field. If the dipole is to be a) C b) nC
rotated anti-parallel to the field, the work c) (n – 1)C d) (n + 1)C
required to be done by an external agency is Q.31. Two capacitors of capacity C1 and C2 are
a) ‒2pE b) ‒pE connected in series and potential difference V is
c) pE d) 2pE applied across it. Then the potential difference
Q.25. A charge (‒q) and another charge (Q) are across C1 will be
kept at two points A and B respectively. Keeping

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Dropper’s Batch (2024-25) TRINITY CLASSES
a) V b) V dielectric material is to be used to have the same
capacitance C in this capacitor, then its dielectric
c) V d) V constant k is given by
Q.32. Three identical capacitors are combined
differently. For the same voltage to each
combination, the one that stores the greatest
energy is
a) Two in parallel and the third in series with it
b) Three in series
c) Three in parallel
d) Two in series and third in parallel with it
Q.33. A condenser of capacity C1 is charged to a a) = + + b) = +
potential V0. The electrostatic energy stored in it is
c) k = + 2k3 d) k = k1 + k2 + 2k3
U0. It is connected to another uncharged
condenser of capacity C2 in parallel. The energy Q.37. Three capacitors are connected to D.C.
dissipated in the process is source of 100 volts shown in the figure below. If
the charge accumulated on plates of C1, C2 and C3
a) 𝑈 b) 𝑈
are qa, qb, qc, qd, qe and qf, respectively, then
c) 𝑈 d) 𝑈
( )
Q.34. Two identical capacitors, have the same
capacitance C. One of them is charged to potential
V1 and the other to V2. The negative ends of the
capacitors are connected together. When the
positive ends are also connected, the decrease in
energy of the combined system is
a) qb + qd + qf = C b) qb + qd + qf = 0
a) C(𝑉 − 𝑉 ) b) C(𝑉 + 𝑉 )
c) qa + qc + qe = 50 C d) qb = qd = qf
c) C(𝑉 − 𝑉 ) d) C(𝑉 + 𝑉 ) Q.38. The resultant capacitance between A and B
Q.35. A parallel plate capacitor with air as medium in the following figure is equal to
between the plates has a capacitance of 10 μF. The
area of capacitor is divided into two equal halves
and filled with two media as shown in the figure
having dielectric constant k1 = 2 and k2 = 4. The
capacitance of the system will now be

a) 1 μF b) 3 μF
c) 2 μF d) 1.5 μF
Q.39. To obtain 3 μF capacity from there
capacitors of 2 μF each, they will be arranged
a) 10 μF b) 20 μF a) All the three in series
c) 30 μF d) 40 μF b) All the three in parallel
SECTION – B c) Two capacitors in series and the third in parallel
Question Nos. 36 to 50 Attempt any 10 (Ten) with the combination of first two
Q.36. A parallel plate capacitor of area A, plate d) Two capacitors in parallel and the third in series
separation d and capacitance C is filled with three with the combination of first two
different dielectric materials having dielectric Q.40. Four identical capacitors are connected as
constants k1, k2 and k3 as shown. If a single shown in diagram. When a battery of 6 V is

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Dropper’s Batch (2024-25) TRINITY CLASSES
connected between A and B, the charge stored is
found to be 1.5 μC. The value of C1 is

a) 8q2 b) 8q1
c) 6q2 d) 6q1
Q.44. The electric potential at a point (x, y, z) is
given by
a) 2.5 μF b) 15 μF
V = ‒x2y – xz3 + 4
c) 1.5 μF d) 0.1 μF
The electric field 𝑬⃗ at that point is
Q.41. In the figure shown, the electric potential
energy of the system is (q is the centre of the a) 𝐸⃗ = 𝚤̂(2𝑥𝑦 + 𝑧 ) + 𝚥̂𝑥 + 𝑘 3𝑥𝑧
conducting neutral spherical shell of inner radius b) 𝐸⃗ = 𝚤̂ 2𝑥𝑦 + 𝚥̂(𝑥 + 𝑦 ) + 𝑘 (3𝑥𝑧 − 𝑦 )
a and outer radius b) c) 𝐸⃗ = 𝚤̂𝑧 + 𝚥̂𝑥𝑦𝑧 + 𝑘 𝑧
d) 𝐸⃗ = 𝚤̂(2𝑥𝑦 − 𝑧 ) + 𝚥̂𝑥𝑦 + 𝑘 3𝑧 𝑥
Q.45. A 40 μF capacitor in a defibrillator is charged
to 3000 V. The energy stored in the capacitor is
sent through the patient during a pulse of duration
2 ms. The power delivered to the patient is
a) 0 b)
a) 45 kW b) 180 kW
c) − d) − c) 90 kW d) 360 kW
Q.42. Figure shows three points A, B and C in a Q.46. A block A of mass m1 rests on a horizontal
region of uniform electric field 𝑬⃗. The line AB is table. A light string connected to it passes over a
perpendicular and BC is parallel to the field lines. frictionless pulley at the edge of table and from its
Then which of the following holds good ? Here VA, other end another block B of mass m2 is
VB and VC represent the electric potential at points suspended. The coefficient of kinetic friction
A, B and C, respectively between the block and the table is μk. When the
block A is sliding on the table, the tension in the
string is :
𝑬⃗ a)
( )
b)
( )
( ) ( )
( ) ( )
c) d)
( ) ( )
a) VA = VB = VC b) VA = VB > VC Q.47. A block of mass M slides down a rough
c) VA = VB < VC d) VA > VB = VC inclined surface of inclination ‘θ’ and reaches the
Q.43. Two charges q1 and q2 are placed 30 cm bottom at speed ‘v’. However, if it slides down a
apart, as shown in the figure. A third charge q3 is smooth inclined surface of same length and same
moved along the arc of a circle of radius 40 cm inclination, it reaches the bottom with speed kv.
from C to D. The change in the potential energy of Coefficient of friction between the block and the
𝒒
the system is 𝟑 k, where k is rough incline is :
𝟒𝝅𝜺𝟎
a) sin θ (k2 – 1) b) tan θ

c) cos θ d)
Q.48. A body of mass M rests on a horizontal plane
having coefficient of friction μ. At t = 0 a horizontal

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Dropper’s Batch (2024-25) TRINITY CLASSES
force 𝑭⃗ is applied that varies with time 𝑭⃗(t) = 𝑭⃗𝟎 t, ∆H (in kJ) for the reaction 2A + 3E → 13D, will be
where 𝑭⃗𝟎 is a constant vector. The time instant t0 a) ‒2000 b) +1200
at which motion starts and distance moved in t c) +2500 d) ‒2800
seconds will be : Q.54. Assertion : Entropy of perfectly crystalline solid
is zero at zero kelvin.
a) 𝑎𝑛𝑑 (𝑡 − 𝑡 )
Reason : At 0°C all molecular motion ceases.
b) 𝑎𝑛𝑑 (𝑡 − 𝑡 ) a) Both A and R are true but is not the correct
explanation of A
c) 𝑎𝑛𝑑 (𝑡 − 𝑡 )
b) A is true but R is false
d) 𝑎𝑛𝑑 (𝑡 − 𝑡 ) c) A is false but R is true
Q.49. A block released from rest from the top of a d) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
smooth inclined plane of inclination 45° takes explanation A
time ‘t’ to reach the bottom. The same block Q.55. If the enthalpy of formation of N2O(g),
released from rest, from top of a rough inclined N2O4(g), CO(g) and CO2(g) is 800, 15, ‒100, and ‒
plane of same inclination, takes time ‘2t’ to reach 400 kJ/mol respectively, then ∆fH for the given
the bottom, coefficient of friction is : reaction is
a) 0.75 b) 0.5 N2O4(g) + 3CO(g) → N2O(g) + 3CO2(g)
c) 0.25 d) 0.4 a) +90 kJ/mol b) ‒115 kJ/mol
Q.50. A block of mass 2 kg rests on a rough c) +115 kJ/mol d) ‒500 kJ/mol
horizontal plank, the coefficient of friction Q.56. A path function among the following is
between the plank and block is 0.3. If the plank is a) Temperature b) Internal energy
pulled horizontally with a constant acceleration of c) Enthalpy d) Heat
4 m/s2, the distance moved by the block on the Q.57. Intensive property among the following is
plank in 5 second starting from rest (in m) is : a) Temperature b) Volume
(take g = 10 m/s2) c) Enthalpy d) Gibbs free energy
a) 5 b) 10 Q.58. Which among the following match is
c) 25 d) 50 incorrect ?
∆rH° ∆rS° ∆rG° Description
CHEMISTRY (1) ‒ + ‒ Reaction spontaneous at
SECTION – A all temperature
(2) ‒ ‒ ‒ Reaction spontaneous at
Question Nos. 51 to 85 All are compulsory
low temperature
Q.51. The difference between heat of reaction at (3) + + ‒ Reaction
constant pressure and constant volume for the nonspontaneous at high
reaction 2C6H6(l) + 15O2(g) → 12CO2(g) + 6H2O(l) temperature
at 25°C in kJ is (4) + ‒ + Reaction
a) +7.43 b) +4.83 nonspontaneous at all
c) ‒7.43 d) ‒4.83 temperature
a) (1) b) (2)
Q.52. Entropy of vaporization of water at 100°C, if
c) (3) d) (4)
molar heat of vaporization is 7460 cal mol‒1 will be
Q.59. In carbon suboxide, the oxidation state(s) of
a) 25 cal K‒1 mol‒1 b) 20 cal K‒1 mol‒1
carbon are
c) 30 cal K‒1 mol‒1 d) 28 cal K‒1 mol‒1
a) +2 and +3 b) +2 and 0
Q.53. Consider the following reactions
c) +2 only d) +1 and +3
Reaction ∆H(kJ)
A→B +300 Q.60. How many moles of Cr2𝑶𝟐𝟕 is needed to
2B → 3C + D ‒200 oxidise one mole of H2S to sulphur in acidic
E + C → 4D +700 medium ?

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Dropper’s Batch (2024-25) TRINITY CLASSES
a) b) 3 Choose the correct option :
a) I-D, II-B, III-C, IV-A
c) d) 2
b) I-C, II-A, III-D, IV-B
Q.61. Statement I : Oxidation number of Cr in CrO5 is c) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
+6. d) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B
Statement II : In CrO5, five oxygen atoms are involved Q.66. Statement I : Phosphoric acid has more than
in peroxide linkage. one ionizable proton per molecule acid.
a) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect Statement II : Higher order ionization constants (𝐾
b) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct and 𝐾 ) are higher than the lower ionization constant
c) Both statement I and II are correct
(𝐾 ) for phosphoric acid.
d) Both statement I and II are incorrect
a) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect
Q.62. Match column-I with column-II.
b) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct
Column I Column II
c) Both statement I and II are correct
I 2KClO3 A Non-metal
∆ displacement redox d) Both statement I and II are incorrect
(s) 2KCl(s) + Q.67. Assertion : The ionization of CH3COOH is
3O (g) reaction
2
suppressed on adding CH3COONa.
II V2O5(s) + 5Ca(s) B Decomposition Reason : Common ion effect is observed on addition
∆
2V(s) + 5CaO(s) redox reaction
of acetate ions to acetic acid solution.
III Fe(s) + 2HCl(aq) → C Combination redox a) Both A and R are true but is not the correct
FeCl2(aq) + H2(g) reaction explanation of A
IV CH (g) + 2O (g) ∆ D Metal displacement
4 2 b) A is true but R is false
CO (g) + 2H O(l) redox reaction
2 2 c) A is false but R is true
Choose the correct option, d) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
a) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D explanation A
b) I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C Q.68. At 25°C, pH of a 10‒8 M aqueous KOH solution
c) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C will be
d) I-C, II-B, III-A, IV-D a) 7.04 b) 6.02
𝑲𝒄
Q.63. At 300 K, the value of will be lowest for c) 8.02 d) 9.02
𝑲𝒑
Q.69. The equilibrium constant KC for the reaction
a) 2HI(g) ⇌ H2(g) + I2(g)
is 4 × 𝟏𝟎𝟐 at 300 K. The ∆𝑮⊖ of the reaction is
b) PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
a) +6.48 kJ mol‒1 b) +14.96 kJ mol‒1
c) N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)
c) ‒6.48 kJ mol‒1 d) ‒14.96 kJ mol‒1
d) N2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO(g)
Q.70. Assertion : Aquatic species are more
Q.64. Statement I : All measurable properties of the
comfortable in cold water rather than in warm water.
system remain constant at equilibrium.
Reason : Solubility of gases increases with increase in
Statement II : Equilibrium is possible only in a open
temperature.
system at a given temperature.
a) Both A and R are true but is not the correct
a) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect
explanation of A
b) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct
b) A is true but R is false
c) Both statement I and II are correct
c) A is false but R is true
d) Both statement I and II are incorrect
d) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Q.65. Match column I with Column II.
explanation A
Column I Column II
I AB2 A 108s5 Q.71. Statement I : 0.5 molal aqueous solution of urea
II A2B3 B 27s4 contains 30 g of urea in 1 kg water.
III AB C 4s3 Statement II : Solution containing one mole of solute
IV AB3 D s2 in 1000 g solvent is called one molal solution.

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Dropper’s Batch (2024-25) TRINITY CLASSES
a) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect
b) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct
c) Both statement I and II are correct
d) Both statement I and II are incorrect
Q.72. Consider the following statements.
(i) Mixture of phenol and aniline shows negative
deviation from Raoult’s law.
(ii) Nitric acid and water from maximum boiling
azeotrope.
a) (a) and (b) only b) (a), (b) and (c) only
(iii) Two solutions having same osmotic pressure at a
c) (c) and (d) only d) (c) only
given temperature are called isotonic solutions.
Q.79. The weight of copper (At wt = 63.5) displaced
The correct statement(s) is/are
by a quantity of electricity which displaces 11200
a) (i) and (ii) only b) (ii) and (iii) only
mL of O2 gas at STP will be
c) (i) only d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
a) 31.75 g b) 63.5 g
Q.73.
c) 95.25 g d) 127 g
Q.80. Intercept of graph which is plotted between
Λm an c1/2 for strong electrolyte is (Λm plotted on y-
axis)
a) 𝛬° b) √𝜅
c) κ d) °

Q.81. The limiting ionic molar conductivities of K+,

In the above graph which point indicates freezing Al3+, 𝐒𝐎𝟐𝟒 ions are x, y and z S cm2 mol‒1
point of H2O ? respectively. The 𝝀°𝒎 value for potash alum is
a) Point A b) Point B a) (2x + y + 4z) S cm2 mol‒1
c) Point C d) Point E b) (2x + 2y + 4z) S cm2 mol‒1
Q.74. 31 g of ethylene glycol (C2H6O2) is mixed with c) (2x + 2y ‒ 4z) S cm2 mol‒1
500 g of water. What is the freezing point of the d) + + 𝑥 S cm2 mol‒1
solution ?
Q.82. For the following cell reaction
[𝑲𝒇(𝑯𝟐 𝑶) = 𝟏. 𝟖𝟔K kg mol‒1]
Ni(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Ni2+(aq) + Cu(s)
a) 271.14 K b) 275.01 K
𝑬°𝑵𝒊𝟐 /𝑵𝒊 = −0.25 V and 𝑬°𝑪𝒖𝟐 /𝑪𝒖 = 0.34 V ∙ ∆𝑮°
c) 273.15 K d) 269.43 K
Q.75. 200 ml of an aqueous solution contains 18 g Reaction is
of glucose. The osmotic pressure of the solution at a) ‒2.2 F b) ‒1.18 F
27°C will be (Molar mass of glucose = 180 g mol‒1) c) ‒3.21 F d) ‒1.75 F
a) 6.12 atm b) 8.25 atm Q.83. Anode and cathode of lead storage battery
c) 12.3 atm d) 10.5 atm respectively are made up of
Q.76. Anode used in commercial dry cell is a) Lead plates, grid of Pb packed with Fe2O3
a) Graphite b) Zinc b) Lead plates, grid of Pb packed with PbO2
c) Copper d) Lead c) Iron plates, grid of Pb packed with Fe2O3
Q.77. What is the product of electrolysis of d) Iron plates, grid of Pb packed with PbO2
KNO3(aq) using Pt electrodes ? Q.84. In He+ ion radius of first Bohr orbit is x then
a) K, NO2 b) H2, NO2 the radius of second orbit of Li2+ ion as
c) K, O2 d) H2, O2 a) x b) x
Q.78. Which of the following graphs is incorrect ? c) x d) x

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Dropper’s Batch (2024-25) TRINITY CLASSES
Q.85. Which among the following represents all a) Increases
isoelectronic species ? b) Decreases
a) 𝐶𝑂 , 𝑁𝑂 , 𝑆𝑂 b) Na+, K+, Rb+, Ca+ c) May increase or decrease
c) CO, N2, NO+, CN‒ d) O2‒, N3‒, F‒, H‒ d) Remains constant
SECTION – B Q.93. For [CrCl3.x NH3], elevation in boiling point of
Question Nos. 86 to 100 Attempt any 10 (Ten) one molal solution is double of one molal solution
Q.86. For the reaction A4(s) → 4A(g) if ∆U = 2 kcal of glucose, hence x is, if complex is 100% ionized.
and ∆S = 10 cal K‒1 at 27°C then the ∆G for the given a) 3 b) 4
reaction is [R = 2 cal mol‒1 K‒1] c) 5 d) 6
a) 1 kcal b) 1.4 kcal Q.94. Solution showing negative deviation from
c) 5.6 kcal d) 7.4 kcal Raoult’s law is
Q.87. A 5 litre cylinder contained 440 g of CO2 gas a) HCl + H2O
at 27°C. After some time, it was found that the b) CCl4 + CHCl3
cylinder is empty as the whole gas has leaked out. c) CH3OH + H2O
If the atmospheric pressure is 1 atm then the work d) C2H5Br + C2H5I
𝑴
done by the gas is Q.95. The molar conductance of solution of a
𝟔𝟒
a) 5 L-atm b) ‒241.3 L-atm weak monoacidic base is 5.0 S cm2 mol‒1 and at
c) 0 L-atm d) 413.2 L-atm infinite dilution is 200 S cm mol‒1. The
Q.88. Oxidation numbers of A, B and C are +3, +4 concentration of OH‒1 in this solution is
and ‒2 respectively. Possible formula of the a) 1.25 × 10 M b) 3.90 × 10 M
compound is c) 6.25 × 10 M d) 1.25 × 10 M
a) A2BC3 b) A2BC5 Q.96. In mercury cell, the electrolyte used is
c) A2B3C5 d) AB3C5 a) A paste of NH4Cl and ZnCl2
Q.89. Consider the follow equilibrium b) A paste of KOH and ZnO
2NH3(g) ⇌ N2(g) + 3H2(g) c) 33% solution of sulphuric acid
If the partial pressure of ammonia at equilibrium d) 20% solution of NaCl
is 4 atm and total pressure is 20 atm then the Q.97. For the transition of an electron from n = 3 to
equilibrium constant (Kp) of the reaction will be n = 2, photon with the shortest wavelength will be
a) 9 atm2 b) 81 atm2 emitted by
c) 432 atm 2 d) 32 atm2 a) H atom b) Li2+ ion
Q.90. The minimum volume of water required to c) He+ ion d) Be3+ ion
dissolve 4.08 gram of Calcium Sulphate at 298 K is Q.98. The angular momentum of electron in d
[Given Ksp of Calcium Sulphate is 9 × 𝟏𝟎 𝟔 ] orbital is equal to
a) 2.5 L b) 5.0 L a) √2 b) √6
c) 10.0 L d) 12 L
Q.91. Kp and K’p are the equilibrium constants of c) 2√3 d) Zero
the two reaction, respectively given below : Q.99. The number of waves in the fourth orbit of H
𝟏
N2(g) +
𝟑
H2(g) ⇌ NH3(g) Kp atom is
𝟐 𝟐
a) 2 b) 4
N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) K’p
c) 6 d) 8
Therefore Kp and K’p are related by
Q.100. Maximum number of electron present in an
a) Kp = K b) Kp = K atom having quantum numbers, n = 4 and ms = +
𝟏
𝟐
c) Kp = 2K d) Kp = 𝐾 is
Q.92. With increase in temperature, pOH of pure a) 4 b) 8
water c) 16 d) 32

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Dropper’s Batch (2024-25) TRINITY CLASSES
160 to aa. Based on this data the frequency of
BIOLOGY allele A in the population is
SECTION – A a. 0.5 b. 0.6
Question Nos. 101 to 135 All are compulsory c. 0.7 d. 0.4
Q.101. Which of the following factor does not affect Q.109. One of the revolutionary concepts in
hardy weinberg equilibrium ? biology was Charles Darwin’s ‘origin of species’. It
a. Gene migration b. natural selection deals with
c. gene recombination d. random mating a. Gene mutation
Q.102. The allelic frequency of recessive allele is b. use of disuse of organs
0.3. find out the no. of heterozygous individuals in c. Germplasm theory
a population of 200? d. Natural selection leading to the survival of the
a. 21 b. 18 fittest
c.42 d. 84 Q.110. A geneticist mixed together many different
Q.103. All of the following plants have been kind of fruit flies – some with long wings, some
evolved from psilophyton except with short wings. He allowed the flies to feed, mate
a. Bryophytes b. sphenopsids randomly, and reproduce by millions. After many
c. ferns d. conifers generation most of the flies in the population had
Q.104. The diversity in the type of beaks of finches medium wings. The experiments appears to
adapted to different feeding habits on the demonstrate
Galapagos island, as observed by Darwin provides a. Stabilizing selection
evidence for b. geographic variation
a. Intraspecific competition c. diversifying selection
b. interspecific competition d. genetic drift
c. Origin of species by natural selection Q.111. Embryological support for evolution was
d. origin of species by mutation proposed by
Q.105. When two species of different genealogy a. Karl Ernst von bear b. Charles Darwin
come to resemblance each other as a result of c. Alfred Wallace d. Ernst heckle
adaptations, the phenomenon is termed Q.112. The similarity of bone structure in the
a. Divergent evolution forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example of:
b. Microevolution a. Homology b. Analogy
c. Co-evolution c. convergent evolution d. Adaptive radiation
d. convergent evolution Q.113. Industrial melanism is an example of
Q.106. Analogous organs are a. Natural selection b. Mutation
a. Similar in origin c. Neo Lamarckism d. Neo Darwainism
b. similar in structure Q.114. Variation caused by mutation, as proposed
c. non-functional by hugo de vries are
d. similar in function a. Random and directional
Q.107. At a particular locus, frequency of allele A is b. random and directionless
0.6 and that of allele is, 0.4, what would be the c. small and directional
frequency of heterozygotes in a random mating d. small and directionless
population at equilibrium? Q.115. Find out the incorrect statement
a. 0.36 b. 0.16 a. The first human-like being the hominid was
c. 0.24 d. 0.48 homo habilis with cranial capacity 650-800 cc
Q.108. In a population of 1000 individuals, 360 b. Homo erectus existed about 1.5 mya and
belong to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and remaining probability eat meat

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c. In evolution of modern man there is parallel c. It overestimates reproductive capacity of
evolution of human brain and language animals and plants
d. The fossils of Ramapithecus has been d. It does not explain vestigial organs
discovered in Ethiopia and Tanzania Q.121. Match
Q.116. Which of the following is correct w.r.t a. 500 mya - i Evolution of jawless fishes
Lamarckism? b. 350 mya - ii sea weed and few plants existed
a. A change in environment brings about c. 320 mya - iii land reptiles went back into
changes in organism water to evolve into fish like reptiles
b. An organ can develop further or degenerate d. 200 mya - iv invertebrates were formed and
only due to continuous variation active
c. Only those variations are passed on to the a. a(i) b(iv) c(iii) d(ii)
offspring which affect germ cells b. a(ii) b(iii) c(i) d(iv)
d. Appetency does not play any role in evolution c. a(iii) b(i) c(ii) d(iv)
Q.117. Read the statement given below and find d. a(iv) b(i) c(ii) d(iii)
the incorrect statement Q.122. Which of the following statement is true?
a. On the primeval earth, organic compounds got a. Wing of birds and insects are homologous
degraded due to free oxygen organs
b. Arrhenius suggested that primitive form of life b. Human hands and bird’s wings are analogous
called panspermia consisted of spores or organ
seeds which existed throughout universe and c. Human hands and bat’s wings are analogous
produced different forms of life on this earth organ
c. Life appeared 500 million years after the d. Flipper of penguin and dolphin are analogous
formation of earth i.e almost four billion years organ
ago Q.123. which of the following is not the function of
d. Louis Pasteur by careful experimentation testosterone ?
demonstrated that life comes only from pre (a) Catabolic effects on protein and carbohydrates
existing life metabolism
Q.118. Darwin’s theory states that (b) Influences the male sexual behaviour
a. Characters are acquired through inheritance (c) Spermatogenesis
b. Species change morphologically with time (d) Development of prostate gland and seminal
c. Nature selects organisms which can adapts vesicle
Q.124. Sertoli cells which are located within
d. Evolution is due to effect of environment
seminiferous tubules are not known for one
Q.119. Adaptive radiation refers to
amongst the following
a. Adaptations due to geographical isolation
(a) They are elongated, pyramidal cells with their
b. Evolution of different species from a common
apices projecting into lumen
ancestor
(b) They provide attaching sites to spermatocytes
c. Migration of members of a species to different and spermatids
geographical areas (c) They function in response to LH
d. Power of adaptation in an individual to a (d) They secrete nourishing substance for
variety of environment differentiation of cells undergoing
Q.120. One major criticism of darwin’s theory is spermatogenesis hence called nurse cell
that Q.125. A similarity between Spermatogenesis and
a. It presumes that environment upon earth has oogenesis is that
been changing through ages (a) Both are discontinuous processes
b. It does not explain variations with heredity (b) Both show prolonged growth phase
(c) Both produce larger and motile gametes

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Dropper’s Batch (2024-25) TRINITY CLASSES
(d) Both produce haploid gametes from primary Reason: founder carry all the parental genes pool to a
gametocytes new location
Q.126. Which of the following statement is correct Q.131. Assertion: adaptive ability is inhertited
regarding STIs ? Reason : fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt
(a) A person may contact syphilis by sharing milk and get selected by the nature
with one already suffering from the disease Q.132. Assertion: Directional selection changes the
(b) Haemophilia is one of the STIs population towards one particular direction
(c) Genital herpes and sickle-cell anaemia are Reason : this type of selection favours average sized
both STIs
individuals
(d) None of these
Q.133. ASSERTION : The endometrium undergoes
Q.127. which of the following is wrongly matched?
cyclical changes during menstrual cycle
(a) IUI – Semen collected from husband or donor
REASON : The myometrium exhibit strong
is artificially introduced into uterus
contractions during delivery of the baby
(b) GIFT – Transfer of embryos with more than 8
blastomers into fallopian tube Q.134. ASSERTION : The female external genitalia
(c) ICSI – Sperm directly injected into the ovum includes mons pubis, labia majora and labia minora
(d) ZIFT – Transfer of embryos upto 8 blastomers REASON : The glandular tissue of each breast is
into the fallopian tube divided into 5-10 mammary lobes
Q.128. which of the following statements are Q.135. ASSERTION : The middle piece is called the
correct regarding surgical methods of power house of the sperm
contraception ? REASON : The numerous mitochondria coiling around
(i) These are generally advised to axial filament produce energy for the movement of the
male/female partner as a terminal method tail.
to prevent any more pregnancies. SECTION – B
(ii) Surgical procedure in male is called
Question Nos. 136 to 150 Attempt any 10 (Ten)
tubectomy and that in the female is called
Q.136. Assertion : Periodic abstinence is a method in
vasectomy
which couples avoid from coitus from day 10 to 17 of
(iii) Reversibility is easily possible
(iv) They block gamete transport and thereby menstrual cycle.
prevent conception Reason : It is a very effective method and 100% sure
a. (II) and (III) (b) (I) (II) & (III) of birth control.
(c) (I) & (IV) (d) (II) & (iv) a) If both A and R are true and the reason is a correct
DIRECTIONS : in the following questions, a statement explanation of A
of assertion is followed by statement of reason. Mark b) If both A and R are true but R is not a correct
the correct choice as explanation of A
a. If both are correct and reason is correct c) If A is true but the R is false
explanation of assertion d) If A is false but the R is true
b. If both are correct but reason is not correct Q.137. Assertion : Females infected with STDs,
explanation of assertion remain undetected for long.
c. If assertion is correct but reason is incorrect Reason : Infected females may often be
d. If reason is correct but assertion is incorrect asymptomatic.
Q.129. Assertion : Evolution is not a direct process a) If both A and R are true and the reason is a correct
in sense of determinism explanation of A
Reason : Evolution is a stochastic process based on b) If both A and R are true but R is not a correct
chance events in nature and chance mutation in the explanation of A
organism c) If A is true but the R is false
Q.130. Assertion: founder effect may lead to d) If A is false but the R is true
formation of new species

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Q.138. Assertion : Amniocentesis is statutory b) If both A and R are true but R is not a correct
banned. explanation of A
Reason : Amniocentesis gives information about c) If A is true but the R is false
foetal abnormalities. d) If A is false but the R is true
a) If both A and R are true and the reason is a correct Q.143. Australopithecines probably lived in the
explanation of A a) East African grasslands
b) If both A and R are true but R is not a correct b) West African grasslands
explanation of A c) North American grasslands
c) If A is true but the R is false d) South American grasslands
d) If A is false but the R is true Q.144. Fossils discovered in java in 1891 belonged
Q.139. Assertion : Leydig cells are also known as to
interstitial cells. a) Homo habilis b) Neanderthal man
Reason : Leydig cells are stimulated by interstitial cell c) Homo erectus d) Ramapithecus
stimulating hormone. Q.145. Among following, the most recent is
a) If both A and R are true and the reason is a correct a) Homo sapiens b) Australopithecines
explanation of A c) Homo habilis d) Dryopithecus
b) If both A and R are true but R is not a correct Q.146. Which of the following cannot be detected
explanation of A in a developing foetus by amniocentesis ?
c) If A is true but the R is false a) Sex of the foetus
d) If A is false but the R is true b) Down syndrome
Q.140. Assertion : Spermatogenesis starts at puberty. c) Jaundice
Reason : There is a significant increase in GnRH at d) Klinefelter syndrome
puberty. Q.147. Artificial insemination means
a) If both A and R are true and the reason is a correct a) Transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube
explanation of A containing ova
b) If both A and R are true but R is not a correct b) Artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy donor
explanation of A into the vagina
c) If A is true but the R is false c) Introduction of sperms of a healthy donor directly
d) If A is false but the R is true into the ovary
Q.141. Assertion : Sertoli cells provide nutrition to d) Transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a test tube
germ cells. containing ova
Reason : Androgens stimulate process of Q.148. The Test-tube Baby Programme employs
spermatogenesis. which one of the following techniques ?
a) If both A and R are true and the reason is a correct a) Zygote intra fallopian transfer (ZIFT)
explanation of A b) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)
b) If both A and R are true but R is not a correct c) Intra uterine insemination (IUI)
explanation of A d) Gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIFT)
c) If A is true but the R is false Q.149. Which of the type of respiration probably
d) If A is false but the R is true arose first ?
Q.142. Assertion : One ovum is released in a human a) Aerobic as it releases more energy
female in a menstrual cycle. b) Anaerobic as it releases more energy
Reason : LH and FSH peaks during mid of follicular c) Aerobic as it is more complex
phase. d) Anaerobic as early atmosphere contained no free
a) If both A and R are true and the reason is a correct from of oxygen
explanation of A Q.150. Which of the following is not the result of
convergent evolution ?

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a) Forelimbs of whales and bats
b) Flippers of penguins and dolphins
c) Potato and sweet potato
d) Eye of the octopus and mammals
SECTION – A
Question Nos. 151 to 185 All are compulsory
Q.151. In lactational amenorrhoea, there is no
ovulation or menstruation during the period of
intense lactation following parturition, due to high
level of prolactin, which ?
a) Inhibits the release of gonadotropins Choose the correct option.
b) Inhibits the release of estrogen and progesterone A B C D
c) Stimulate the release of FSH and LH a) Gn-RH ICS Androge FSH
d) Stimulate the release of estrogen and progesterone H n
Q.152. Which of the following is wrong match b Gn-RH LH FSH Androgens
between the type of contraception and its )
function? c) Gonadotropin LH FSH Testosteron
s e
Contraceptive Function
d Gn-RH FSH LH Androgens
device
)
a) Contraceptive pills - Inhibit ovulation
Q.156. Which of the following can’t be considered
b) Sterilisation - Inhibit gamete
formation as advantage of amniocentesis ?
c) IUDs - Inhibit implantation a) Prenatal diagnostics
d) Natural methods - Avoid chances of b) Detection of biochemical abnormalities
ovum and sperm c) Detection of congenital defects
meeting d) Determination of sex to abort female foetus
Q.153. Which of the following is a copper releasing Q.157. Population growth rate depends upon
IUD ? a) Birth rate b) Death rate
a) Lippes loop b) Multiload 375 c) Age-sex ratio d) All of these
c) LNG-20 d) Progestasert Q.158. Which of the following STDs cannot be
Q.154. The mammary glands are paired structures treated with antibiotics ?
that contain the glandular tissue and variable A. Gonorrhoea B. Syphills
amount of fat. The correct sequence of tissues C. Chlamydia D. Genital herpes
involved in synthesis and flow of milk are a) D only b) B and D
a) Mammary lobes → Mammary alveoli → Mammary c) C and D d) C only
ampulla → Mammary duct → Lactiferous duct Q.159. Which of the following STDs is caused by
b) Mammary lobes → Mammary alveoli → Mammary the human papilloma virus (HPV) and is
duct → Mammary ampulla → Lactiferous duct transmitted through intimate contact with
c) Mammary lobes → Mammary alveoli → Lactiferous infected person ?
duct → Mammary ampulla → Mammary duct a) Genital herpes b) Genital warts
d) Mammary alveoli → Mammary lobes → Lactiferous c) AIDS d) Chlamydia
duct → Mammary duct Q.160. Most of the sexual transmitted diseases are
Q.155. Study the flow chart. Name the hormones completely curable if detected early and treated
labelled as A, B, C, D at each stage. properly, except
a) Hepatitis-B b) Genital herpes
c) HIV infections d) All of these

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Q.161. The stem cells which have potency to give d) Spermatids to sperms
rise to all tissues and organs are formed from Q.168. In spermatogenesis, a primary
a) Trophoblast spermatocyte produces four similar sperms while
b) Umbilical cord in oogenesis a primary oocyte forms
c) Inner cell mass a) Four similar ova
d) Placenta b) Three large ova and one polar body
Q.162. Foetal ejection reflex in human female is c) Two large ova and two polar bodies
induced by d) One large ova and 2-3 polar bodies
a) Differentiation of mammary gland Q.169. Identify the correct order of organization of
b) Pressure exerted by amniotic fluid genetic material from largest to smallest
c) Fully developed foetus and placenta a) Chromosome, genome, nucleotide, gene
d) Release of oxytocin from pituitary b) Chromosome, gene, genome, nucleotide
Q.163. Signals from fully developed foetus and c) Genome, chromosome, nucleotide, gene
placenta ultimately lead to parturition which d) Genome, chromosome, gene, nucleotide
requires the release of Q.170. Satellite DNA is important because it
a) Esrogen from placenta a) Code for enzymes needed for DNA replication
b) Oxytocin from maternal pituitary b) Codes for proteins needed in cell cycle
c) Oxytocin from foetal pituitary c) Shows high degree of polymorphism in population
d) Relaxin from leydig’s cells and also the same degree of polymorphism in an
Q.164. Which one of the following statements is individual, which is heritable from parents to children
incorrect about menstrual cycle ? d) Does not code for proteins and is same in all
a) The first menstruation begins at puberty and is members of the population
called menarche Q.171. Gene regulation governing lactose operon
b) Lack of menstruation may also occur due to some of E.coli that involves the lac I gene product is
environmental factors like stress, poor heath a) Feedback inhibition because excess of β-
c) Corpus luteum secretes large amounts of galactosidase and switch off transcription
progesterone which is essential for maintenance of b) Positive and inducible because it can be induced by
endometrium lactose
d) In absence of fertilization, corpus luteum c) Negative and inducible because repressor protein
degenerates in luteal phase and new follicles start prevents transcription
developing immediately d) Negative and repressible because repressor protein
Q.165. In the fertile human female, approximately prevents transcription
on which day of the menstrual cycle (28 days) does Q.172. Which of the following acts as substrate as
ovulation take place ? well as provide energy for DNA polymerization ?
a) Day 14 b) Day 18 a) Ribonucleoside
c) Day 1 d) Day 8 b) Deoxyribonucleoside
Q.166. During spermatogenesis, meiosis occurs in c) Ribonucleotide
a) Primary spermatocytes d) Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate
b) Secondary spermatocytes Q.173. DNA replication is
c) Both (a) and (b) a) Semi-conservative, continuous, unidirectional
d) Spermatogonia b) Conservative, continuous
Q.167. Spermiogenesis changes c) Semi-conservative, semi-discontinuous
a) Spermatogonium to primary spermatocytes d) Semi-continuous, conservative
b) Primary spermatocytes to secondary Q.174. Haploid content of human DNA contains
spermatocytes a) 4.6 × 10 bp b) 3.3 × 10 bp
c) Secondary spermatocytes to spermatids c) 6.6 × 10 bp d) 3.3 × 10 bp

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Q.175. Which of the following nitrogenous bases Q.183. Absence or excess or abnormal
are common for both RNA and DNA ? arrangement of one or more chromosomes results
a) C, G, A b) G, A, U in
c) T, A, C d) U, A, C a) Point mutation
Q.176. Adjacent nucleotides in a polynucleotide b) Chromosomal disorders
chain are joined by c) Mendelian disorders
a) N-glycosidic bond d) Gene mutation
b) Phosphodiester bond Q.184. Mark odd one w.r.t. syndrome which occur
c) O-glycosidic bond due to failure of segregation of homologous pair of
d) Hydrogen bond chromosomes during cell division cycle.
Q.177. Sugars are attached to the pyrimidines by a) Klinefelter’s syndrome
the formation of b) Down’s syndrome
a) Hydrogen bond c) Turner’s syndrome
b) N-glycosidic bond d) Thalassemia
c) Phosphoester bond Q.185. Heterozygous round and yellow seeded pea
d) O-glycosidic bond plants were selfed and total 800 seeds are
Q.178. Cytidine is a collected. What is the total number of seeds with
a) Nucleoside first dominant and second recessive traits ?
b) Nitrogen base a) 950 b) 300
c) Nucleotide c) 200 d) 150
d) Comon dinucleotide in DNA and RNA SECTION – B
Q.179. Which of the following process is related to Question Nos. 186 to 200 Attempt any 10 (Ten)
reverse transcription ? Q.186. The phenotype of an individual may be
a) DNA dependent DNA synthesis affected if the modified allele produces
b) RNA dependent DNA synthesis (A) No enzyme at all
c) DNA dependent RNA synthesis (B) The normal/less efficient enzyme
d) RNA dependent polypeptide synthesis (C) A non-functional enzyme
Q.180. Which of the following structures are a) Only A is correct
present in core particle of nucleosome ? b) A and C are correct
a) Octamer of histone proteins c) B and C are correct
b) 200 bp of DNA d) Only C is correct
c) Non-histone proteins Q.187. What will be possible blood group in
d) Linker DNA children from the parents with B and AB blood
Q.181. Phenylketonuria is an inborn error of groups ?
metabolism that is inherited as a) A, O b) A, B, AB & O
a) Autosomal recessive trait c) A, B, AB d) B, O
b) Sex-linked dominant trait Q.188. In garden pe, starch is synthesized
c) X-lined recessive trait effectively in
d) Autosomal dominant trait a) Heterozygous round seeded plants
Q.182. Which of the following abnormalities is due b) Homozygous round seeded plants
to autosomal dominant mutation ? c) Wrinkled seeded plants
a) Colour blindness d) Pure and hybrid round seeded plants
b) Thalassemia Q.189. F1 progeny of Mendelian dihybrid cross
c) Myotonic dystrophy produces
d) Haemophilia a) Two types of pollen grains
b) Four genotypes of gametes

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c) Two types of eggs nutrition of developing embryo is generally a
d) Four types of pollens only __________ in angiosperms.
Q.190. Which of the following plant produces false a) Triploid tissue b) Diploid tissue
fruits ? c) Haploid tissue d) Hexaploid tissue
a) Apple Q.197. Scutellum is
b) Strawberry a) Single cotyledon in monocots
c) Cashewnut b) Radical sheath in monocots
d) More than one option is correct c) Plumule covering in monocots
Q.191. Which of the following change does not d) Cotyledons in dicots
occur in ovary as a result of sexual reproduction ? Q.198. The most common type of endosperm in
a) Ovary wall → Pericarp angiosperms is
b) Ovary → Fruit a) Helobial endosperm
c) Ovule → Fruit wall b) Cellular endosperm
d) Integument → Seed coat c) Nuclear endosperm
Q.192. Seeds of which plant were discovered d) Mosaic endosperm
during the archeological excavation at King Q.199. In most of the flowering plants, pollination
Herod’s palace near the Dead Sea ? takes place at __________ celled stage.
a) Rose b) Lupinus a) 2 b) 3
c) Phoenix d) Agave c) 4 d) 5
Q.193. Which is incorrect statement ? Q.200. What is incorrect for generative cell ?
I. Each cell of sporogenous tissue in anther is capable a) Floats in cytoplasm of vegetative cell
of giving rise to microspore tetrad. b) Spindle-shaped
II. The pollen grain represent male gametophyte. c) Having abundant food reserve
III. Pollen grains are usually triangular and 10-15 μm d) Has dense cytoplasm and a nucleus
in diameter.
IV. Sporopollenin is one of the most resistance organic
material which can be destroyed only by strong acids
and alkali.
a) I, II are incorrect but III, IV are correct
b) III, IV are incorrect but I, II are correct
c) I, III are incorrect but II, IV are correct
d) II, IV are correct but I, III are incorrect
Q.194. Select the odd one out w.r.t. haemophilia
a) X-linked dominant disorder
b) Bleeder’s disease
c) Criss-cross inheritance
d) X-linked recessive disorder
Q.195. Select the correct match.
a) Sex-limited trait - Colour blindness
b) Sex-limited trait - Express in both
sexes
c) Sex-influenced trait - More frequent in
one sex than in the
other
d) Sex-influenced trait - Porcupine skin
Q.196. The cells of the endosperm are filled with
reserve food materials and are used for the

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