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VAJIRAM & RAVI

PowerUp Prelims – 2023
GS Test – 09 – Polity (V4339)

(Time Allowed: 2 hours) (Maximum Marks: 200)

INSTRUCTIONS
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responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on
the Answer Sheet.
In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each
item.
4. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet
provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. All items carry equal marks.
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in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet.
6. There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by a candidate. For each wrong
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7. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer,
even if one of the given answers happens to be correct.
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1. With reference to the President of India, 4. Consider the following statements:

which one of the following statements is not 1. Remission refers to the substitution of one
correct? form of punishment for a lighter form of
(a) More than five former Vice-Presidents of punishment.
India were later elected as the President. 2. Remission cannot be availed as a right by
(b) Oath of the President is administered by the convicts.
the Chief Justice of India. 3. Central and State Governments are
(c) Both the President and the Vice-President empowered to remit whole or any part of
can resign from their office by giving the punishment with or without conditions.
resignation in writing to each other.
Which of the statements given above are
(d) No candidate has been elected
correct?
unopposed in the Presidential elections till
date. (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
2. With reference to the State Legislative (c) 1 and 3 only
Assembly, consider the following statements: (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Both the Governor and Speaker can call
for a floor test in the State Legislative 5. With reference to National Investigation
Assembly. Agency (NIA), consider the following
2. Composite Floor Test is conducted only statements:
when more than one person stakes claim 1. It can enter a state without permission of
to form the Government. the State Government for investigation of
3. Political parties can issue whip to ensure offences.
presence of their members during a floor 2. Its jurisdiction applies to Indian citizens
test. residing in India only.
Which of the statements given above are 3. The Central Government can suo motu
correct? direct NIA to investigate a scheduled
(a) 1 and 2 only offence.
(b) 2 and 3 only Which of the statements given above are
(c) 1 and 3 only correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
3. A 36 years old person who is a citizen of India,
is qualified for election as a member of the (c) 1 and 3 only
Lok Sabha and does not hold any office of (d) 1, 2 and 3
profit. In this context, this person is qualified
for elections to which of the following other 6. With reference to Financial Emergency in
offices? India, consider the following statements:
1. President of India 1. There is no maximum period prescribed
2. Governor for its operation in the Constitution.
3. Vice-President of India 2. Repeated parliamentary approval is not
Select the correct answer using the code required for its continuation.
given below: Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 and 2 only correct?
(b) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Test No.09- Polity (V4339)
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7. With reference to the Representation of the (a) 1 only

People Act (RPA), 1951, consider the (b) 2 only
following statements: (c) 1 and 3 only
1. It defines bribery, under corrupt practices, (d) 1, 2 and 3
as any gift, offer or promise by an election
candidate. 10. With reference to the Presidents of India and
2. Pre-poll promises made by a political United States of America (USA), consider the
party in election manifestos do not following statements:
constitute ‘corrupt practice’ under the Act. 1. While the Indian President is part of the
Which of the statements given above is/are Parliament, the American President is not
correct? a part of the US Congress.
(a) 1 only 2. The Indian President can dissolve the Lok
(b) 2 only Sabha but the American President cannot
(c) Both 1 and 2 dissolve the lower house of the US
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Congress.
3. The pocket veto power of the Indian
8. Consider the following statements: President is greater than that of the
1. Elected and nominated members of the American President.
Parliament are part of the Electoral College Which of the statements given above are
for Presidential and Vice-Presidential correct?
elections. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. Members of the State Legislative (b) 2 and 3 only
Assemblies do not take part in the election (c) 1 and 3 only
of the Vice-President of India. (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Members of the dissolved State Legislative
Assembly cease to be qualified to vote in
11. Which one of the following statements best
the Presidential election.
describes ‘Gram Sabha’?
Which of the statements given above are
(a) It is a local government body at the tehsil
correct?
or taluka level.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) It is an elected body that functions at the
(b) 2 and 3 only
district levels in all states.
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) It is a village assembly consisting of all the
(d) 1, 2 and 3
registered voters in the area of a
9. With reference to the Criminal Procedure Panchayat.
(Identification) Act, 2022, which of the (d) It is a village assembly of all the people
following is/are included under the definition residing in the area of Panchayat.
of measurements that are stored by the
National Crime Records Bureau? 12. Which of the following statements is/are
correct with reference to the ordinance
1. Finger-impression
making power of the Governor of a State?
2. Iris and retina scan
1. It is a discretionary power.
3. Signature 2. In case of bicameral legislature,
Select the correct answer using the code ordinance can be promulgated when the
given below: State Legislative Council is not in
session.

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3. It is wider than the legislative power of the 3. Like the Regional Council, it is
State Legislature. empowered to assess and collect land
Select the correct answer using the code revenue.
given below: Which of the statements given above are
(a) 1 and 2 only correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
13. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Union Public Service 16. Consider the following statements:
Commission (UPSC): 1. The Government has a constitutional
1. It is consulted by the Government while obligation to pay compensation to a
making reservations of appointments in Minority Educational Institution when it
favour of backward class of citizens. acquires its property.
2. A selection by the UPSC does not confer 2. A property in a State accrued to the State
a right to the post upon the candidate. through escheat, lapse or bona vacantia
Which of the statements given above is/are would vest with the concerned State.
correct? 3. Resources within the territorial waters and
(a) 1 only the Exclusive Economic Zone vest with
(b) 2 only the respective coastal state.
(c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the statements given above are
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
14. In context of Indian political system, who (b) 2 and 3 only
among the following takes the oath of (c) 1 and 3 only
secrecy? (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. President of India
2. Prime Minister 17. Consider the following statements with
3. Private Members of Parliament reference to the foreign visits of the Ministers
4. Chief Justice of India of State Legislature:
5. Speaker of Lok Sabha 1. It is mandatory for the Ministers to get final
6. Ministers of State Legislature
clearance from the Union Ministry of
Select the correct answer using the code
Finance before their official visit.
given below:
2. Chief Ministers of State require approval
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
from the Prime Minister’s Office before an
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
official foreign visit.
(c) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) 2 and 6 only
15. Consider the following statements with correct?
reference to the District Council established (a) 1 only
under the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution (b) 2 only
of India: (c) Both 1 and 2
1. Some of its members are nominated by (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the Governor of the respective State.
2. It can make regulations for the control of
money lending and trading by non-tribals.

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18. Consider the following statements: Select the correct answer using the code
1. No civil and criminal proceedings can be given below:
initiated against the President and the (a) 1 and 2 only
Prime Minister during their tenure. (b) 2 and 3 only
2. Civil servants are conferred personal (c) 1 and 3 only
immunity from legal liability for official
(d) 1, 2 and 3
contracts.
3. Ministers do not enjoy any immunity for
their personal acts and can be sued for 22. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar compared which one of the
crimes like common citizens. following Constitutional functionaries in India
Which of the statements given above are with the President of the United States of
correct? America?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) President
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) Vice-President
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Prime Minister
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Governors of the State

19. Consider the following statements: 23. A new All India Services (AIS), common to both
1. Any speech delivered to insult citizens’ union and states, can be created by the
religious beliefs is a punishable under law Parliament if:
in India. (a) Rajya Sabha passes a resolution supported
2. The term, Hate Speech & Blasphemy, is by two-thirds of the members present and
mentioned as a reasonable restriction to
voting
the Fundamental Right to Freedom of
(b) Lok Sabha passes a resolution supported
Speech and Expression.
by two-thirds of the members present and
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? voting
(a) 1 only (c) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha pass
(b) 2 only resolutions supported by simple majority
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Lok Sabha passes a resolution supported
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 by special majority with the consent of 50
percent of the states
20. Which one of the following is the common
goal of Indian Socialism and Marxism? 24. With reference to a Motion in the Lok Sabha,
(a) Nationalisation of all means of production consider the following statements:
(b) Abolition of private property 1. It allows the members to raise matters of
(c) Democratic elections urgent public importance.
(d) Equality 2. The notice of a Motion is given in writing
and addressed to the Speaker.
21. Who among the following can be registered 3. A motion can be disallowed by the
as service voters under the Representation of Speaker if it affects the procedure of the
People Act, 1950? house.
1. Member of the armed Forces of the Union Which of the statements given above are
2. Member of an Armed Police Force of a correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
State serving outside that state
(b) 2 and 3 only
3. Person employed under the Government
(c) 1 and 3 only
of India, in a post outside India (d) 1, 2 and 3
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25. With reference to the Governor of a State (c) 1 and 3 only

consider the following statements: (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. The 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 28. With reference to the Lokpal, consider the
1956 enabled the appointment of the following statements:
same person as a Governor for two or 1. It has jurisdiction to inquire into
more states. allegations of corruption against the
2. The allowance of the Governor of two or Prime Minister.
more states is paid from the Consolidated 2. It can suo motu proceed against any
Fund of India. public servant.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
29. Consider the following statements with
26. With reference to the Lok Sabha and State reference to the National Capital Territory of
Legislative Assembly elections in India, Delhi:
consider the following statements: 1. The Chief Minister and the other ministers
1. The Returning officer of a constituency is are appointed by the Lieutenant Governor.
designated by the Election Commission of 2. The term Government referred to in any
India. law made by the State Legislative
2. The Returning officer of a constituency Assembly implies Lieutenant Governor.
declares the result of the election. 3. The Lieutenant Governor can promulgate
Which of the statements given above is/are an ordinance when the Assembly is
correct? dissolved or suspended.
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 2 only correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) None
27. Consider the following pairs:
Sl. Type of Description 30. Consider the following statements:
No. Secularism 1. Natural rights are rights based on a sense
1. Indian version of : State-supported of goodness and public opinion.
secularism religious reform 2. Legal rights can be enforced against both
individuals and governments.
2. French version of : Keeping religion
3. There can be no legal sanctions against
secularism out of the public
sector the violation of moral rights.
Which of the statements given above are
3. American : Separation of state correct?
version and religion
of secularism (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
Which of the pairs given above are correctly
(c) 1 and 3 only
matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only

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31. With reference to the Union Council of 34. Which of the following has the authority to
Ministers, which one of the following establish a Joint State Public Service
statements is not correct? Commission (JSPSC) for two or more states
(a) It is a constitutionally mandated body. in India?
(a) Union Public Service Commission
(b) Its total strength shall not exceed fifteen
(b) State Public Service Commission of the
percent of the total strength of the
respective States
Parliament. (c) Parliament
(c) Its advice tendered to the President shall (d) Concerned State Legislatures
not be inquired into any court.
(d) A Member of Parliament disqualified on 35. Consider the following statements with
the ground of defection is also disqualified reference to the Finance Commission:
from appointment as a Minister. 1. It recommends to the President the
measures needed to augment the
32. Consider the following statements: Consolidated Fund of a State to
1. All the executive actions of the supplement the resources for rural and
Government of India are taken in the urban local bodies.
2. The Union Government is constitutionally
name of the President of India.
mandated to implement its
2. The Prime Minister makes rules for more
recommendations.
convenient transactions of the business of Which of the statements given above is/are
the Government of India. not correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 only
correct? (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 36. A method applied to determine the relative
precedence of private members’ bills and
resolutions, notice of questions, half-an-hour
33. Consider the following statements with discussions or any other notice given by more
reference to Human Rights Courts in India: than one member simultaneously for being
1. The Protection of Human Rights Act, taken up on the same day is referred to as:
1993, provides for the establishment of a (a) Point of order
Human Rights Court in every district. (b) List of Business
(c) Draw of lot
2. These courts can be set up by the State
Government with the concurrence of the (d) Guillotine
Chief Justice of the concerned High
37. In which of the following circumstances shall
Court.
3. The State Government can appoint an a person be disqualified from being a Member
advocate as a Special Public Prosecutor of the Parliament?
1. Voluntarily giving up the membership of
in every Human Rights Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are the political party on whose ticket the
correct? person is elected to the House
2. Abstaining from voting in the House
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only contrary to the direction given by the
(c) 3 only Presiding Officer of the House
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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3. An independently elected member joining (a) 1 only

a political party within six months (b) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code (c) Both 1 and 2
given below: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only 41. With reference to the State Legislative
(c) 1 and 3 only Council, consider the following statements:
(d) 3 only 1. The Governor of the State acts as its de-
facto Chairperson.
38. Which of the following offices come directly 2. Its maximum strength is fixed at one-half
under the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) in of the total strength of the State
India? Legislative Assembly.
1. Department of Atomic Energy 3. It can be established and abolished by the
2. Department of Space respective State Legislative Assembly.
3. Department of Biotechnology Which of the statements given above is/are
Select the correct answer using the code correct?
given below: (a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) None
(d) 1, 2 and 3
42. Consider the following statements:
39. The allowances and salaries of who among 1. An ordinary bill can be introduced in either
the following are charged on the Consolidated House of the Parliament but it cannot be
Fund of India? introduced in the State Legislative
1. Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha Council.
2. Deputy Chairperson of Rajya Sabha 2. In case of deadlock over passage of a Bill,
3. Comptroller and Auditor General the provision of Joint Sitting is available to
4. Chairperson of State Public Service the Parliament and not to the State
Commission Legislature.
5. High Court Judges Which of the statements given above is/are
Select the correct answer using the code
correct?
given below:
(a) 1 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 1, 4 and 5 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 3 and 5 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

40. Consider the following statements with 43. With reference to the election in Panchayats,
reference to the office of profit: consider the following statements:
1. The expression ‘office of profit’ has not 1. All the members of Panchayats at the
been defined in the Constitution or in the village, intermediate and district levels are
Representation of the People Act, 1951. directly elected.
2. The final decision of whether a Member of 2. The Chairperson of Panchayats at the
Parliament is disqualified for holding any intermediate and district levels are
office of profit rests with the Parliament. elected indirectly by and from amongst
Which of the statements given above is/are the elected members.
correct?
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Which of the statements given above is/are 4. Tripura

correct? 5. Himachal Pradesh
(a) 1 only Select the correct answer using the code
(b) 2 only given below:
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1, 4 and 5 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 5 only
44. With reference to the sessions of the (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Parliament, consider the following
statements: 47. With reference to the enactment procedure of
1. Adjournment terminates the sitting of the the Union Budget, consider the following
Parliament for a specified time. statements:
2. The power of adjournment and 1. Budget is presented by the Union Minister
adjournment sine die lies with the of Finance before a joint sitting of both the
Houses of Parliament.
Presiding Officer of the House.
2. No demand for a grant shall be made
3. Prorogation terminates both the sitting
except on the recommendation of the
and session of the House.
President.
4. Dissolution is applicable in the case of Lok
3. The Speaker can put demands for grant
Sabha only.
to vote irrespective of whether they have
Which of the statements given above are
been discussed or not.
correct?
Which of the statements given above are
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only correct?
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
45. Consider the following statements:
1. The State Finance Commission 48. With reference to All-India Service (AIS),
recommends grants-in-aid to Panchayati consider the following statements:
Raj Institutions from the Consolidated 1. Members of AIS hold the office during the
Fund of a State. pleasure of the President.
2. Unlike the Election Commission of India, 2. No government employee of the AIS can
the State Election Commission is a not a be dismissed by an authority subordinate
Constitutional body. to the one that appointed him/her.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

46. Which of the following states come under the 49. Which of the following functions is/are
purview of the Fifth Schedule of the Indian performed by the Chief Minister of a State?
Constitution? 1. Recommends the dissolution of the State
1. Assam Legislative Assembly to the Governor
2. Telangana 2. Acts as a Chairperson of the concerned
3. Maharashtra Zonal Council by rotation
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3. Appoints the Advocate General of the 54. With reference to the Resolutions in the
concerned state Parliament of India, consider the following
Select the correct answer using the code statements:
given below: 1. All motions are resolutions but not all
(a) 1 only resolutions are motions.
(b) 2 and 3 only 2. All the resolutions must be voted upon in
(c) 3 only the House.
(d) 1 and 3 only 3. A statutory resolution can be moved only
by a Minister.
50. Which among the following offices is the Which of the statements given above is/are
lowest in position in the table of precedence correct?
in India? (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) Former Presidents (b) 2 only
(b) Holders of Bharat Ratna (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) Judges of Supreme Court (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Leaders of Opposition in Rajya Sabha
and Lok Sabha 55. Consider the following statements with
respect to the Parliament of India:
51. Consider the following statements:
1. Fourth Schedule of the Indian
1. The executive power of the State is
Constitution deals with allocation of seats
vested in the Governor.
2. The Governor has constitutional in the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
discretion for the reservation of a Bill for 2. Both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
the consideration of the President. have representation from all the Union
Which of the statements given above is/are Territories of India.
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
52. What is the main basis for allocation of seats
to various States in the Lok Sabha? 56. In which of the following matters, the powers
(a) Pre-Independence conventions of the State Legislative Council are equal to
(b) Population of the state that of the State Legislative Assembly?
(c) Total area of the state 1. Introduction of Money Bills
(d) Gross State Domestic Product of the state 2. Removal of Council of Ministers by a No
Confidence Motion
53. Consider the following states: 3. Approval of ordinances issued by the
1. Andhra Pradesh
Governor
2. Madhya Pradesh
4. Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the
3. Maharashtra
4. Karnataka State Public Service Commission
5. Tamil Nadu Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the states mentioned above have a given below:
bicameral legislature? (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 5 only (c) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only (d) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
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57. With reference to the evolution of the Urban 60. With reference to the Union Cabinet
Local Bodies in India, consider the following Committees in India, consider the following
statements: statements:
1. The first Municipal Corporation in India 1. The Constitution of India does not provide
was set up by the Regulating Act of 1773. for the establishment of Cabinet
2. Local Self-government was a provincial Committees.
subject under the Government of India 2. They can include a non-Cabinet Minister as
Act, 1935. its member.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. All the cabinet committees are invariably
correct? headed either by the Prime Minister or the
(a) 1 only Union Home Minister.
(b) 2 only Which of the statements given above are
(c) Both 1 and 2 correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
58. Consider the following statements: (c) 1 and 3 only
1. The Governor of Gujarat can establish (d) 1, 2 and 3
separate development boards for
Saurashtra and Kutch region. 61. Who among the following presides over the Lok
2. No act of Parliament relating to ownership Sabha in case of vacancy in the office of both
and transfer of land would apply to the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker?
Nagaland unless permitted by the State (a) Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha
Legislative Assembly. (b) A Member of Lok Sabha appointed by the
Which of the statements given above is/are President
correct? (c) Senior-most Member of Parliament
(a) 1 only appointed by the President
(b) 2 only (d) A Member of the Panel of Chairpersons
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 62. Which of the following functional items can be
placed within the purview of Panchayat under
59. With reference to the Enforcement the Eleventh Schedule of the Indian
Directorate (ED) of India, consider the Constitution?
following statements: 1. Minor Forest Produce
1. It was created as an attached body to the 2. Water supply for domestic and industrial
Central Bureau of Investigation. purposes
2. It has the power to arrest an accused 3. Regulation of land use and construction of
under the Prevention of Money buildings
Laundering Act, 2002, without a warrant. 4. Education, including primary and secondary
Which of the statements given above is/are schools
correct? 5. Family welfare
(a) 1 only Select the correct answer using the code given
(b) 2 only below:
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2, 3 and 5 only
(c) 1, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
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Test No.09- Polity (V4339)
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63. Consider the following statements: 66. Consider the following statements:
1. The right to vote is a Fundamental Right 1. The privileges of the State Legislature
in India. extend to both the Governor and
2. Individuals under preventive detention are Advocate General of the State.
not eligible to cast their votes in an 2. The State Legislature can punish
election. members as well as outsiders for breach
Which of the statements given above is/are of its privileges or contempt.
correct? 3. Members of the House can refuse to
(a) 1 only appear as a witness in a Court when the
(b) 2 only State Legislature is in session.
(c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the statements given above are
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
64. Consider the following:
(b) 2 and 3 only
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act,
(c) 1 and 3 only
1992, provides for compulsory reservation in
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Panchayat for:
1. Scheduled Castes
67. Which of the following Urban Local Bodies
2. Scheduled Tribes
3. Backward Classes are provided under the Constitution (74th
4. Women Amendment) Act, 1992?
Which of the statements given above are 1. Nagar Panchayat
correct? 2. Municipal Corporations
(a) 1 and 2 only 3. Town Panchayat
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only 4. Municipal Council
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only Select the correct answer using the code
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
65. Consider the following statements with (b) 2 and 3 only
reference to the Panchayats (Extension to the (c) 4 only
Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA): (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. Its provisions are applicable to the states
mentioned in the Sixth Schedule of the 68. With reference to the finances of the local
Indian Constitution. bodies, consider the following statements:
2. All seats of Chairpersons of Panchayats 1. The State Legislature can authorize a
at all levels shall be reserved for the municipality to levy, collect and
Scheduled Tribes. appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and fees.
3. Reservation for the Scheduled Tribes in 2. The Governor provides for the
Panchayats shall not be less than two- constitution of funds for crediting all
third of the total number of seats. money of the municipalities.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Test No.09- Polity (V4339)
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69. Consider the following pairs: 71. Consider the following statements:
1. The Council of Ministers is collectively
responsible to the Lok Sabha.
Sl. Veto Description
No. 2. There is no provision for the individual
responsibility of Ministers under the Indian
1. Absolute veto : Withholding of Constitution.
assent to the bill 3. Any order of the President is countersigned
passed by the by the Council of Ministers in India.
legislature Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
2. Qualified veto : Can be overridden by
the legislature only
(a) 1 only
through an ordinary (b) 2 and 3 only
majority (c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Suspensive : Can be overridden by
veto the legislature only 72. Consider the following statements with
through a special reference to the Model Code of Conduct (MCC):
majority
1. It comes into force on the first day of filing
4. Pocket veto : Taking no action on nomination papers by the candidates.
the bill passed by the 2. It has statutory backing under the
legislature Representation of the People Act, 1951.
3. During bye-elections to the State Legislative
Which of the above pairs are correctly
Assembly, the code is applicable in the
matched?
entire State.
(a) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are not
(b) 1 and 4 only
correct?
(c) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
70. Which of the following are Constitutional
(d) 1, 2 and 3
bodies?
1. National Commission for Scheduled
73. With reference to the Cabinet, consider the
Castes
following statements:
2. National Commission for Scheduled
1. The functions of the Cabinet are explicitly
Tribes
defined under the Indian Constitution.
3. National Commission for Minorities
4. National Commission for Backward 2. Its decisions are binding on the Council of
Ministers.
Classes
5. National Commission for Women 3. Its total members shall not exceed more
Select the correct answer using the code than ten percent of the total strength of the
given below: Council of Ministers.
(a) 1 and 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only correct?
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only (a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Test No.09- Polity (V4339)
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74. Who among the following is/are qualified to 77. Consider the following statements with
be a member of the Finance Commission of reference to municipal personnel systems in
India? India:
1. A person who is the judge of a High Court 1. The Separate Personnel System for
or qualified to be appointed as one municipalities is against the principle of
2. A person who has wide experience in
local autonomy.
financial matters and in administration
2. In the Unified Personnel System, the
3. A person who has special knowledge of
State Government appoints and controls
economics
Select the correct answer using the code the municipal personnel.
given below: 3. In the Integrated Personnel System, the
(a) 1 and 2 only municipal personnel are the members of
(b) 2 only the state services.
(c) 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) 1, 2 and 3 correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
75. Consider the following statements: (b) 2 and 3 only
1. The Constitution of India has no provision (c) 3 only
for the reservation of seats for the
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled
Tribes in the Rajya Sabha.
2. The 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 78. With reference to the Scheduled Areas under
2019, ceased the reservation for the the Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution,
Anglo-Indians in Lok Sabha and the State consider the following statements:
Legislative Assemblies. 1. Parliament has the power to declare an
Which of the statements given above is/are area as a Scheduled Area.
correct? 2. The executive power of the State
(a) 1 only Government doesn’t extend to the
(b) 2 only Scheduled Areas in the State.
(c) Both 1 and 2
3. The Governor has the authority to restrict
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
applicability of a law to a Scheduled Area
76. Consider the following statements: in the State.
1. All Financial Bills can be introduced in Lok Which of the statements given above is/are
Sabha only. correct?
2. The Rajya Sabha can neither amend nor (a) 1 and 2 only
reject any Financial Bill. (b) 2 only
3. The Speaker of Lok Sabha can certify a (c) 3 only
Bill as a Money Bill. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
79. Which of the following statements are correct
(a) 1 only
with reference to the Prime Minister of India?
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only 1. Resignation or death of an incumbent
(d) 1 and 3 only Prime Minister automatically dissolves the
Council of Ministers.

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2. S/He appoints the Attorney General and 82. Consider the following statements with
the Comptroller and Auditor General of reference to District Planning Committees
India. (DPC) and Metropolitan Planning
3. S/He advises the President with regard to Committees (MPC):
1. They are created by an executive
summoning and proroguing of the
resolution of the State Governments.
sessions of the Parliament. 2. One-third of their total members must be
Select the correct answer using the code elected directly by the members of
given below: Panchayats and Municipalities.
(a) 1 and 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 2 and 3 only correct?
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
80. Consider the following statements:
1. In 'First Past the Post System', a 83. Consider the following statements with
candidate must get more than fifty percent reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
of the votes polled to win the election. and the Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha:
2. In the 'Proportional Representation 1. Both are elected from amongst the
System', every political party gets seats in members of their respective Houses.
the legislature in proportion to the 2. Both exercise a casting vote in the case
percentage of votes polled by it. of equality of votes in their respective
Houses.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

81. Consider the following statements: 84. Consider the following statements with
1. It is not a statutory body. reference to the Goods and Services Tax
(GST) Council:
2. It is created for the administration of a
1. Every decision is taken by a majority of
fast-developing town due to not less than three-fourths of the weighted
industrialisation. votes of the members present and voting
3. All the members are nominated by the at the meeting.
State Government. 2. The weightage of votes of the Central
Which of the following Urban Local Bodies is Government is greater than the combined
described in the statements given above? total weightage of all the State
(a) Special Purpose Agency Governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) Notified Area Committee
correct?
(c) Town Area Committee (a) 1 only
(d) Township (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Test No.09- Polity (V4339)
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85. Consider the following statements with 2. The Prime Minister of India is the
reference to State Public Service Commission Chairperson of NITI Aayog.
(SPSC): 3. Its Governing Council is headed by the
1. Its members are appointed and can be
Union Home Minister.
removed by the Governor of the State.
2. Its Chairperson is eligible for re- Which of the statements given above are
appointment upon the completion of the first correct?
term. (a) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) 2 and 3 only
correct? (c) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 89. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Union Territory of Jammu and
86. Which of the following statements are correct Kashmir:
with reference to the Vice-President of India? 1. The Chief Minister and other Ministers are
1. S/He assumes the office of the President appointed by the President on the
when it falls vacant for the unexpired term. recommendation of the Lieutenant
2. S/He does not perform the duties of the
Chairperson of Rajya Sabha while acting as Governor.
the President. 2. The areas under Pakistan-occupied-
3. S/He does not preside over the joint sitting Kashmir are to be taken into account while
of both Houses of the Parliament. taking in account the total membership of its
Select the correct answer using the code given Legislative Assembly.
below: 3. The Lieutenant Governor may nominate two
(a) 1 and 2 only women members to the Legislative
(b) 2 and 3 only
Assembly.
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
87. Consider the following statements with (a) 1 and 2 only
reference to National Human Rights (b) 2 only
Commission (NHRC): (c) 3 only
1. One of its members must be a woman.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. A former Judge of the Supreme Court is
eligible to be appointed as its Chairperson.
3. Its Chairperson is not eligible for re- 90. Under which of the following conditions can a
appointment. political party be recognized as a National Party
4. It can punish violators of human rights up to in India?
2 years of imprisonment. 1. A party gets recognition as State Party in
Which of the statements given above are four or more States.
correct?
2. The party wins 2 percent of seats in the Lok
(a) 1 and 2 only
Sabha from at least three different States.
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only correct?
88. Consider the following statements with (a) 1 only
reference to NITI Aayog: (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. It was created by an executive resolution
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
by the Government of India.

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Test No.09- Polity (V4339)
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91. With reference to the President’s rule, Which of the statements given above is/are
consider the following statements: correct?
1. The resolution approving the (a) 1 only
proclamation of the President’s rule must (b) 2 only
be approved by both the Houses of (c) Both 1 and 2
Parliament by a special majority.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The Governor administers the State with
the help of the Chief Secretary during the
President's rule. 94. With reference to Central Bureau of
3. The Presidential proclamation imposing Investigation (CBI), consider the following
President’s rule in a state is subject to statements:
judicial review. 1. It functions under the Ministry of Home
Which of the statements given above are Affairs.
correct? 2. It was established on the
(a) 1 and 2 only recommendation of Santhanam
(b) 2 and 3 only Committee.
(c) 1 and 3 only
3. The Central Government can authorize it
(d) 1, 2 and 3
to investigate a crime in a State without
92. With reference to the Comptroller and the consent of the concerned State.
Auditor-General (CAG) of India, consider the Which of the statements given above is/are
following statements: correct?
1. Salaries, pensions and administrative (a) 1 and 2 only
expenses of CAG are charged upon the (b) 2 only
Consolidated Fund of India. (c) 2 and 3 only
2. Unlike in Britain, the CAG in India only (d) 3 only
audits the accounts after the expenditure
is made. 95. Consider the following statements with
3. The audit reports of CAG relating to the
reference to central deputation of All India
accounts of the Government are
Services officers:
submitted to the President.
Which of the statements given above are 1. Concurrence of State Government is
correct? required for central deputation of cadre
(a) 1 and 2 only officers.
(b) 2 and 3 only 2. At any point in time, central deputation
(c) 1 and 3 only cannot be more than 40% of the total
(d) 1, 2 and 3 cadre strength.
Which of the statements given above is/are
93. With reference to the Election Commission of correct?
India (ECI), consider the following (a) 1 only
statements: (b) 2 only
1. In case of differences among members of (c) Both 1 and 2
ECI, the matter is decided by the Chief (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Election Commissioner.
2. It has advisory jurisdiction in the matter of
disqualification of members of Parliament
and State Legislatures.

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Test No.09- Polity (V4339)
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96. With reference to the Parliamentary 99. Which of the following provisions were
Committees, consider the following introduced under the Forty-Fourth
statements: Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978?
1. A Minister cannot be appointed as a 1. National Emergency can be proclaimed
member of the Public Accounts only on the basis of written advice
Committee. tendered by the Cabinet.
2. Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha have 2. Fundamental Rights guaranteed by
representation in the Estimates Articles 20 and 21 of the Indian
Committee. Constitution cannot be suspended during
3. The members of the Committee on Public the National Emergency.
Undertakings are nominated by the 3. The National Emergency can be
Speaker of the Lok Sabha. extended to an indefinite period with the
Which of the statements given above are not approval of the Parliament for every six
correct? months.
(a) 1 and 2 only Select the correct answer using the code
(b) 2 and 3 only given below:
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
97. Consider the following: (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
2. K. Kasturirangan Committee 100. Which of the following are the functions of
3. Thungon Committee the Constitution?
4. G.V.K. Rao Committee 1. It enables the Government to create
Which of the committees given above are necessary conditions for a just society.
related to Panchayati Raj Institutions in India? 2. It confers a limit on the power of the
(a) 1 and 3 only Government to impose restrictions on
(b) 2 and 4 only citizens.
(c) 3 and 4 only Select the correct answer using the code
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
98. Consider the following statements: (c) Both 1 and 2
1. Claims become rights when they are (d) Neither 1 nor 2
recognised by society.
2. Rights are entitlements granted to an
individual by the society.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Test No.09- Polity (V4339)
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PowerUP Prelims Test 09 (V4339) -Answer Key

1. (d) 11. (c) 21. (d) 31. (b) 41. (d) 51. (c) 61. (b) 71. (a) 81. (b) 91. (b)
2. (d) 12. (b) 22. (c) 32. (a) 42. (b) 52. (b) 62. (c) 72. (d) 82. (d) 92. (d)
3. (a) 13. (b) 23. (a) 33. (d) 43. (c) 53. (d) 63. (d) 73. (b) 83. (b) 93. (b)
4. (b) 14. (d) 24. (c) 34. (c) 44. (d) 54. (b) 64. (b) 74. (d) 84. (a) 94. (b)
5. (c) 15. (d) 25. (a) 35. (b) 45. (a) 55. (d) 65. (b) 75. (c) 85. (d) 95. (c)
6. (c) 16. (a) 26. (c) 36. (c) 46. (c) 56. (d) 66. (b) 76. (c) 86. (b) 96. (b)
7. (c) 17. (c) 27. (d) 37. (c) 47. (b) 57. (b) 67. (a) 77. (b) 87. (a) 97. (d)
8. (b) 18. (b) 28. (a) 38. (a) 48. (c) 58. (c) 68. (a) 78. (c) 88. (a) 98. (a)
9. (d) 19. (a) 29. (b) 39. (a) 49. (a) 59. (b) 69. (b) 79. (c) 89. (c) 99. (d)
10. (d) 20. (d) 30. (b) 40. (a) 50. (c) 60. (a) 70. (b) 80. (b) 90. (c) 100. (c)

Q1.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Six of the former Vice-Presidents of India were later elected as President. They were
- Dr. S. Radhakrishnan (1962), Dr. Zakir Hussain (1967), Shri V.V. Giri (1969), Shri R.
Venkataraman (1987), Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma (1992) and Shri K.R. Narayanan
(1997).
● Article 60 of the Constitution of India states that the oath is conferred to the President
by the Chief Justice of India and in his absence, the senior most judge of the Supreme
Court available. There is no written rule that the Presidents should be sworn in on 25th
July. Since Neelam Sanjiva Reddy took the oath on 25 July in 1977, this practice has
continued. Many successive Presidents have since then taken oath on 25th July.
● Both the President and the Vice-President can resign by giving resignation to each
other. Both of them hold the office for a term of five years from the date on which
they enter upon their office.
● The country's seventh President Neelam Sanjiva Reddy was the only one to be
elected unopposed to the post. In 1977, following the death of Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed,
Vice President B.D Jatti took over as acting President. Later, Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
succeeded Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed in 1977.
Therefore, option (d) is the answer.
Relevance: Recently, elections for the office of President and Vice-President took place.

Q2.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The floor test upholds the collective accountability of the elected government to the
legislature.
● When the State Legislative Assembly is not in session, the Governor can call for a floor
test. However, when the House is in session, it is the Speaker who can call for a floor

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test. Under Article 175(2) of the Indian Constitution, the Governor can summon the
House and call for a floor test to prove whether the government has the numbers. So,
statement 1 is correct.
o In the Shivraj Chouhan vs Speaker Madhya Pradesh case, the Supreme Court
ruled that a Governor can ask for a floor test if he/she believes, based on facts,
that the government no longer shares the confidence of the legislature. The
apex court has also stated that the Governor, in no way, shall favour any party
when it comes to the timing of the trust vote.
● Composite Floor Test is conducted only when more than one person stakes claim to
form the Government. When the majority is not clear, the Governor might call for a
special session to see who has the majority. The majority is counted based on those
present and voting. Some legislators may be absent or choose not to vote. So,
statement 2 is correct.
● To ensure presence/voting in the Assembly, political parties can issue whip, the non-
compliance of which might lead to disqualification. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently floor test was in the news due to the Maharashtra political crisis.

Q3.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● A person to be eligible for election as President should fulfil the following
qualifications:
o S/He should be a citizen of India.
o S/He should have completed 35 years of age.
o S/He should be qualified for election as a member of the Lok Sabha.
o S/He should not hold any office of profit under the Union Government or any
State Government or any local authority or any other public authority. So,
point 1 is correct.
● The Constitution lays down only two qualifications for the appointment of a person as
a Governor. These are:
o He should be a citizen of India.
o He should have completed the age of 35 years.
o Article 157 states that no person shall be eligible for appointment as Governor
unless he is a citizen of India and has completed the age of thirty-five years. In
contrast, a person must not be less than 25 years of age in the case of the Lok
Sabha. So, point 2 is correct.
● A person to be eligible for election as Vice-President should fulfill the following
qualifications:
o He should be a citizen of India.
o He should have completed 35 years of age.
o He should be qualified for election as a member of the Rajya Sabha. So, point
3 is not correct.
o He should not hold any office of profit under the Union Government or any
State Government or any local authority or any other public authority.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

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Q4.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Remission implies reducing the period of sentence without changing its character.
For example, a sentence of rigorous imprisonment for two years may be remitted to
rigorous imprisonment for one year. On the contrary, commutation denotes the
substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form. For example, a death
sentence may be commuted to rigorous imprisonment, which in turn may be
commuted to a simple imprisonment. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● Section 432 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) vests ‘appropriate
governments’ – Central or State, with the power to remit whole or any part of the
punishment with or without conditions. While the power under Section 432 is quite
broad, Section 433A restricts the power in serious cases such as murder. In such cases
remission can be granted only when the convict has served at least 14 years of
imprisonment. In any case, prisoners do not have a right to remission, only a right to
ask for it. So, statements 2 and 3 are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: There was a recent controversial remission of sentence of people convicted under
the Bilkis Bano case.

Q5.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● National Investigation Agency (NIA) is an agency at the national level to investigate
and prosecute offenses affecting the sovereignty, security and integrity of India,
security of State, friendly relations with foreign States and offenses under Acts
enacted to implement international treaties, agreements, conventions and
resolutions of the United Nations, its agencies and other international organizations.
● It has the power to enter any state without permission from the respective State
Government to investigate and arrest people. So, statement 1 is correct.
● Its jurisdiction extends to the whole of India and it applies also— to citizens of India
outside India; to persons in the service of the Government wherever they may be; to
persons on ships and aircrafts registered in India wherever they may be; and to
persons who commit a Scheduled Offense beyond India against the Indian citizen or
affecting the interest of India. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● If the Central Government is of the opinion that a Scheduled Offense has been
committed which is required to be investigated under NIA Act, 2008, it may, suo
motu, direct the Agency to investigate the said offense. So, statement 3 is correct.
● Scheduled Offences under the NIA Act, 2008 are the offences which are explicitly
provided under the schedule of the act.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: NIA has recently investigated cases in Russia related to an ISIS bomber.

Q6.
Answer: c

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Explanation:
● Article 360 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to proclaim a Financial
Emergency if s/he is satisfied that a situation has arisen due to which the financial
stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened.
● Once approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the Financial Emergency continues
indefinitely till it is revoked. This implies two things:
o There is no maximum period prescribed for its operation. So, statement 1 is
correct.
o Repeated parliamentary approval is not required for its continuation. So,
statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q7.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Section 123 in The Representation of the People Act, 1951 defines ‘Corrupt practices’
such as:
● Bribery is any gift, offer or promise by a candidate or his agent or by any other
person with the consent of a candidate or his election agent of any gratification.
So, statement 1 is correct.
● The promotion of, or attempt to promote, feelings of enmity or hatred between
different classes of the citizens of India on grounds of religion, race, caste,
community, or language, by a candidate or his agent or any other person with
the consent of a candidate or his election agent for the furtherance of the
prospects of the election of that candidate or for prejudicially affecting the
election of any candidate.
● In the Balaji case judgment, a Division Bench of the Supreme Court had held that
making promises in election manifestos do not amount to a ‘corrupt practice’ under
Section 123 of the Representation of People Act (RP). So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Supreme Court to reconsider judgment that making promises in election
manifestos is not ‘corrupt practice’.

Q8.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The President of India is elected not directly by the people but by members of the
Electoral College consisting of: the elected members of both the Houses of
Parliament; the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the states and the
elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and
Puducherry.
o Thus, the nominated members of Rajya Sabha, the nominated members of the
State Legislative Assemblies, the members (both elected and nominated) of
the State Legislative Councils (in the case of the bicameral legislature) and the

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nominated members of the Legislative Assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry do

not participate in the election of the President. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● Electoral college of Vice-President is different from the electoral college for the
election of the President as it consists of both elected and nominated members of the
Parliament (in the case of President, only elected members) and it does not include
the members of the State Legislative Assemblies (in the case of President, the elected
members of the State Legislative Assemblies are included). So, statement 2 is correct.
● Where an Assembly is dissolved, the members cease to be qualified to vote in the
Presidential election, even if fresh elections to the dissolved assembly are not held
before the Presidential election. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q9.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act 2022 provides legal sanction to the police
to take physical and biological samples of convicts as well as those accused of crimes.
The police can collect data as per section 53 or section 53A of the Code of Criminal
Procedure (CrPC), 1973.
● As per the Act, "Measurements" include finger-impressions, palm-print impressions,
foot-print impressions, photographs, iris and retina scan, physical, biological samples
and their analysis, behavioural attributes including signatures, handwriting or any
other examination.
● National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) will store, preserve, share with any law
enforcement agency and destroy the record of measurements at national level. The
record of measurements shall be retained in digital or electronic form for a period of
seventy-five years.
● Any person convicted, arrested or detained under any preventive detention law will
be required to provide "measurements" to a police officer or a prison official.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Concerns related to privacy were raised against certain sections of Criminal
Procedure (Identification) Act, 2022.

Q10.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● According to Article 79 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the
President of India and the two Houses of Parliament known as Council of States
(Rajya Sabha) and House of the People (Lok Sabha). The Presidential form of
government, on the other hand, lays stress on the separation of legislative and
executive organs. Hence, the American President is not regarded as a constituent
part of the United States (US) Congress. Hence the US President and his secretaries
are not responsible to the Congress for their acts. They neither possess membership
in the Congress nor attend its sessions. So, statement 1 is correct.

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● The President of the United States of America (USA) cannot dissolve the House of
Representatives, the lower house of the Congress. The Indian President can dissolve
the Lok Sabha on recommendation of the Prime Minister. So, statement 2 is correct.
● The Indian President can exercise pocket veto power as the Constitution does not
prescribe any time-limit within which he has to take the decision with respect to a Bill
presented to him for his assent. In the USA, on the other hand, the President has to
return the bill for reconsideration within 10 days. Hence, it is remarked that the
pocket of the Indian President is bigger than that of the American President. So,
statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q11.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Gram Sabha: The Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992, provides for a Gram
Sabha as the foundation of the Panchayati Raj system. It is a body consisting of
persons registered in the electoral rolls of a village comprised within the area of
Panchayat at the village level. Thus, it is a village assembly consisting of all the
registered voters in the area of a Panchayat. It may exercise such powers and perform
such functions at the village level as the legislature of a State determines.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q12.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The ordinance-making power of the Governor is not a discretionary power. This
means that he/she can promulgate or withdraw an ordinance only on the advice of
the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● He/She can promulgate an ordinance only when the Legislative Assembly (in case of
a unicameral legislature) is not in session or (in case of a bi-cameral legislature) when
both the Houses of the State Legislature are not in session or when either of the two
Houses of the State Legislature is not in session. So, statement 2 is correct.
● His ordinance-making power is coextensive with the legislative power of the State
Legislature. This means that s/he can issue ordinances only on those subjects on which
the State Legislature can make laws. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the answer.
Relevance: The Karnataka Governor promulgated an ordinance on the recommendation of
the State Cabinet to increase the reservation for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.

Q13.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Articles 315 to 323 in Part XIV of the Indian Constitution contain elaborate provisions
regarding the composition, appointment and removal of members along with the
independence, powers and functions of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC).

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● The following matters are kept outside the functional jurisdiction of the UPSC. In other
words, the UPSC is not consulted on the following matters:
o While making reservations of appointments or posts in favour of any
backward class of citizens. So, statement 1 is not correct.
o While taking into consideration the claims of scheduled castes and scheduled
tribes in making appointments to services and posts.
● The Supreme Court held that a selection by the UPSC does not confer any right to the
post upon the candidate. However, the government is to act fairly and without
arbitrariness or mala fides. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q14.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Before the Prime Minister, Chief Ministers, and Ministers of both Centre and States
enter their respective offices, they are administered the oaths of office and secrecy.
So, points 2 and 6 are correct.
● In the oath of secrecy, they swear that they will not directly or indirectly communicate
or reveal to any person(s) any matter that is brought under his/her consideration or
becomes known to him/her except as may be required for the due discharge of his/her
duties.
● The President, Private Members of Parliament, Chief Justice of India and Speaker do
not take oath of secrecy. So, points 1, 3, 4 and 5 are not correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q15.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The Constitution, under Sixth Schedule, contains special provisions for the
administration of Tribal Areas in the four north-eastern states of Assam, Meghalaya,
Tripura and Mizoram.
● Each Autonomous District has a District Council consisting of 30 members, of whom
four are nominated by the Governor and the remaining 26 are elected on the basis of
adult franchise. The elected members hold office for a term of five years (unless the
council is dissolved earlier) and nominated members hold office during the pleasure
of the Governor. So, statement 1 is correct.
● The District Council can establish, construct or manage primary schools, dispensaries,
markets, ferries, fisheries, roads and so on in the district. It can also make regulations
for the control of money lending and trading by non-tribals. But, such regulations
require the assent of the Governor. So, statement 2 is correct.
● The District and Regional Councils are empowered to assess and collect land revenue
and to impose certain specified taxes. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Leh Apex Body and Kargil Democratic Alliance have sought constitutional
safeguards for Ladakh on the lines of the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution.

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Q16.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The Parliament as well as the State Legislatures are empowered to make laws for the
compulsory acquisition and requisitioning of private property by the Governments.
The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act (1978) has abolished the constitutional
obligation to pay compensation in this regard except in two cases:
o When the Government acquires the property of a minority educational
institution. So, statement 1 is correct.
o When the Government acquires the land held by a person under his personal
cultivation and the land is within the statutory ceiling limits.
● According to Article 296 of the Indian Constitution, any property in India that accrues
to the Indian state by escheat (death of a person without any heir), lapse (termination
of rights through disuse or failure to follow appropriate procedures) or bona vacantia
(property found without any owner) for want of a rightful owner, will vest in the state
if the property is situated there, and in the Union, in any other case. So, statement 2
is correct.
● India’s territorial waters extend to a distance of 12 nautical miles from the appropriate
baseline. Similarly, India’s Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) extends up to 200 nautical
miles. All lands, minerals and other things of value under the waters of the ocean
within the territorial waters of India, the continental shelf of India and the EEZ of India
vest in the Union. Hence, a State near the ocean cannot claim jurisdiction over these
things. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q17.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● In 1982, the Central Cabinet Secretariat issued guidelines regarding foreign travel of
Ministers of State Government and Union Territories and State Government officials.
It stated that foreign visits by members of the State Governments in their official
capacity would require clearances from the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA), the
Ministry of Home Affairs, the Finance Ministry, and the Central Administrative
Ministry. Later the order of 2004 modified the provisions to the extent that the final
orders were to be issued by the Union Finance Ministry. So, statement 1 is correct.
● The official order of 2004 stated that Chief Ministers required further approval from
the Prime Minister’s Office before an official visit. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Delhi State Transport Minister has moved to the court with a plea to set aside the
need for travel clearances by the Centre for private foreign visits of State Ministers.

Q18.
Answer: b
Explanation:

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● According to Article 361 of the Constitution of India, no criminal proceedings can be

started against the President and the Governor during their tenure in respect of their
personal acts. They cannot be arrested or imprisoned. However, civil proceedings can
be started against them during their term of office in respect of their personal acts
after giving two months’ advance notice. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● Under the Constitution, civil servants are conferred personal immunity from legal
liability for official contracts. This means that the civil servant who made a contract
in his official capacity is not personally liable in respect of that contract but it is the
Government (Central or State) that is liable for the contract. So, statement 2 is
correct.
● Ministers do not enjoy any immunity for their personal acts and can be sued for
crimes as well as torts in ordinary courts like common citizens. So, statement 3 is
correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q19.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Section 295(A) of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), punishes any speech, writings, or signs
that “with premeditated and malicious intent” insult citizens’ religion or religious
beliefs with a fine and imprisonment for up to three years. Section 295A is a
cognizable offence, which means that the police are authorised to arrest accused
persons without the need for a judicially sanctioned warrant. So, statement 1 is
correct.
● The term ‘Hate speech & Blasphemy’ is not mentioned as reasonable restriction on
the Fundamental Right to freedom of speech & expression. In 1957, the
constitutionality of Section 295A was challenged in Ramji Lal Modi v State of Uttar
Pradesh. The Supreme Court upheld the law on the grounds that it was brought in to
preserve “public order”. Public order is an exemption to the Fundamental Right to
Freedom of Speech and Expression and the Right to Religion recognised by the
Constitution. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

The State can impose reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the Freedom of speech and
Expression on the grounds of:
● Sovereignty and integrity of India
● Security of the state
● Friendly relations with foreign states
● Public order
● Decency or morality
● Contempt of court
● defamation
● Incitement to an offence
Relevance: The co-founder of a news channel has been arrested for allegedly hurting religious
sentiments.

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Q20.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Indian socialism is a blend of Marxism and Gandhism, leaning heavily towards
Gandhian socialism.
● The Indian brand of socialism is a ‘democratic socialism’ and not a ‘communistic
socialism’ (also known as ‘state socialism’). State socialism involves the
nationalisation of all means of production and distribution and the abolition of
private property.
● Democratic socialism, on the other hand, holds faith in a ‘mixed economy’ where both
public and private sectors co-exist side by side.
● A democratic polity, as stipulated in the Preamble, is based on the doctrine of popular
sovereignty, that is, possession of supreme power by the people. The Indian
Constitution provides for representative parliamentary democracy under which the
executive is responsible to the legislature for all its policies and actions. Whereas this
is not the same in Marxism.
● A common goal of both Indian Socialism and Marxism is equality.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q21.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Service voter is a voter having service qualification. According to the provisions of sub
– section (8) of Section 20 of Representation of People Act, 1950, service qualification
means:
o Being a member of the armed Forces of the Union
o Being a member of a force to which provisions of the Army Act, 1950 (46 of
1950), have been made applicable whether with or without modification
o Being a member of an Armed Police Force of a State, and serving outside that
state
o Being a person who is employed under the Government of India, in a post
outside India
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q22.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar stated, ‘if any functionary under our Indian Constitution is to
be compared with the United States President, he is the Prime Minister and not the
President of the Union’.
● In the scheme of the Parliamentary system provided by the Constitution of India, the
President is the nominal executive (de jure executive or titular executive) while the
Prime Minister is the real executive (de facto executive). Thus, the President is head
of the State, while the Prime Minister is head of the Government. The United States
of America (USA) has a presidential system and executive powers are in the hands of

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the President. Hence, the President of the United States is both the Head of the
Government and the Head of the State with real executive power. Thus, in India, real
executive power is exercised by the Prime Minister, and similarly, in the United States,
the President enjoys real executive power.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q23.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Article 312 of the Constitution of India provides for the Parliament to create new all-
India services. It makes the following provisions under the article:
● When the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) has declared by resolution supported
by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting that it is
necessary or expedient in the national interest so to do, Parliament may by law
provide for the creation of one or more all India services (including an All-India
judicial service) common to the Union and the States, and, subject to the other
provisions, regulate the recruitment, and the conditions of service of persons
appointed, to any such service.
● The law providing for the creation of the all-India judicial service, for giving effect
to the provisions of that law and no such law shall be deemed to be an
amendment of this Constitution for the purposes of Article 368.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q24.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● In Parliament, a proper procedure is to be followed for raising and discussing issues in
an orderly manner. The term 'motion' in its wide sense means any proposal made for
the purpose of eliciting a decision of the House. A Motion is one of the important
Parliamentary devices through which members can raise matters of urgent public
importance. So, statement 1 is correct.
● The notice of a motion is given in writing and addressed to the Secretary-General.
So, statement 2 is not correct.
● The admissibility of a motion or part thereof is decided by the Speaker. A motion may
be disallowed by the Speaker if it is an abuse of the right of moving a motion or, it
obstructs or affects the procedure of the House or, it is in contravention of rules. So,
statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q25.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Article 153 of the Indian Constitution states that there shall be a Governor for each
State. Later through the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956 it stated that the

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same person can be appointed as Governor for two or more States. So, statement 1
is correct.
● When the same person is appointed as the Governor of two or more states, the
emoluments and allowances payable to her/him are shared by the states in such
proportion as determined by the President. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q26.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The Returning Officer of a Parliamentary or State Legislative Assembly constituency is
responsible for the conduct of elections in the Parliamentary or State Legislative
Assembly constituency concerned.
● The Election Commission of India nominates or designates an officer of the
Government or a local authority as the Returning Officer for each of the State
Legislative Assembly and Parliamentary constituencies in consultation with the State
Government / Union Territory Administration. In addition, the Election Commission of
India also appoints one or more Assistant Returning Officers for each of the State
Legislative Assembly and Parliamentary constituencies to assist the Returning Officer
in the performance of his functions in connection with the conduct of elections. So,
statement 1 is correct.
● According to Section 64 of the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951, votes
are counted by or under the supervision / direction of the Returning Officer of the
Constituency. When the counting is completed, the Returning officer declares the
result as per provisions of Section 66 of RPA, 1951. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q27.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● “Sarva Dharma Samabhava” is a unique concept of Indian secularism. Indian
secularism does not focus only on religion-state separation and the idea of inter-
religious equality is crucial to the Indian conception. It deals not only with religious
freedom of individuals but also with religious freedom of minority communities. It has
made room for and is compatible with the idea of state-supported religious reform.
Thus, the Indian Constitution bans untouchability. The Indian state has enacted
several laws abolishing child marriage and lifting the taboo on inter-caste marriage
sanctioned by Hinduism. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
● The French version of secularism is known as Laicite. Laicite was meant to protect
religious beliefs held by minorities but also to keep religion out of the public sector.
This means that no French state school could hold morning prayers, no President could
be sworn in on the Bible, and no marriages would be legal if only conducted in a place
of worship. Religion, however, does exist. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
● In the American model, separation of religion and state is understood as mutual
exclusion. The state will not intervene in the affairs of religion and, in the same

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manner, religion will not interfere in the affairs of the state. No policy of the state can
have an exclusively religious rationale. No religious classification can be the basis of
any public policy. Similarly, the state cannot aid any religious institution. It cannot give
financial support to educational institutions run by religious communities. Nor can it
hinder the activities of religious communities, as long as they are within the broad
limits set by the law of the land. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q28.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The Lokpal was established under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, to inquire and
investigate allegations of corruption against public functionaries who fall within the
scope and ambit of the Act.
● The Lokpal has jurisdiction to inquire into allegations of corruption against:
o Anyone who is or has been Prime Minister, or a Minister in the Union
government, or a Member of Parliament, as well as officials of the Union
Government under Groups A, B, C and D.
o Chairpersons, members, officers and directors of any board, corporation,
society, trust or autonomous body either established by an Act of Parliament
or wholly or partly funded by the Union or State government.
o Any society or trust or body that receives foreign contributions above Rs 10
lakh. So, statement 1 is correct.
● It cannot suo motu proceed against any public servant and it can only superintend
cases of corruption referred to it. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q29.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The 69th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1991 provided a special status to the
Union Territory of Delhi, and predesignated it as the National Capital Territory of Delhi
and designated the administrator of Delhi as the Lieutenant (Lt.) Governor.
● The Chief Minister is appointed by the President. The other Ministers are appointed
by the President on the advice of the Chief Minister. Thus, the Ministers hold office
during the pleasure of the President. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● The Government of National Capital Territory (GNCT) of Delhi (Amendment) Act,
2021 gives primacy to the Lt. Governor over the elected Government of Delhi.
● According to the GNCT of Delhi (Amendment) Act, 2021, the term “Government”
referred to in any law made by the Legislative Assembly will imply Lt. Governor. The
elected government has to seek the opinion of the Lt. Governor for any executive
action. It gives discretionary powers to the L-G even in matters where the Legislative
Assembly of Delhi is empowered to make laws. So, statement 2 is correct.
● The Lt. Governor is empowered to promulgate ordinances during recess of the
assembly. But s/he cannot promulgate an ordinance when the assembly is dissolved
or suspended. So, statement 3 is not correct.

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Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Relevance: The Supreme Court had recently agreed to set up a Constitution bench to hear
the legal issues concerning the scope of legislative and executive powers of the Centre and
Delhi Government over the control of administrative services in Delhi.

Q30.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Natural rights are rights possessed by men in the state of nature and these rights were
attributed to individuals as if they were the essential properties of individuals as
individuals. Therefore, rights are inalienable, imprescriptible and indefeasible. They
are parts of human nature and reason. This strand of political theory maintains that
an individual enters into society with certain basic rights and that no Government
can deny these rights. Sense of goodness and public opinion are the sanctions behind
moral rights and not natural rights. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● Legal rights are rights that are enshrined in law and are, therefore, enforceable
through the courts. These rights can be enforced against individuals and also against
the government. In this way, legal rights are different from moral rights. Legal rights
are equally available to all citizens. They can go to the courts for getting their legal
rights enforced. So, statement 2 is correct.
● Moral rights are based on human consciousness. They are supported by the moral
force of the human mind. These are based on the human sense of goodness and
justice. If any person disrupts any moral right, no legal action can be taken against
him. Moral rights include rules of good conduct, courtesy and moral behaviour. So,
statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q31.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The Constitution of India provides for a Parliamentary system of Government
modelled on the British pattern. Article 74 of the Constitution provides for a Council
of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President.
● Article 75 deals with the appointment, tenure, responsibility, qualification, oath and
salaries and allowances of the Ministers. The total number of Ministers, including the
Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers, shall not exceed 15% of the total strength
of the Lok Sabha (not the Parliament). This provision was added by the 91st
Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003.
● The Council of Ministers aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his
functions, act in accordance with such advice. However, the President may require the
Council of Ministers to reconsider such advice and the President shall act in
accordance with the advice tendered after such reconsideration. The advice tendered
by the Ministers to the President shall not be inquired into in any court.

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● A Member of either house of Parliament belonging to any political party who is

disqualified on the ground of defection shall also be disqualified to be appointed as
a Minister. This provision was also added by the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act
of 2003.
Therefore, option (b) is the answer.

Q32.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Some important executive powers of the President are as follows:
o All executive actions of the Government of India are formerly taken in the
President’s name. So, statement 1 is correct.
o The President can make rules specifying the manner in which the orders and
other instruments made and executed in his name shall be authorised.
o The President (not Prime Minister) can make rules for more convenient
transactions of business of the Union Government, and for allocation of the
said business among the ministers. So, statement 2 is not correct.
o The President appoints the Prime Minister, the Attorney general of India, the
Comptroller and Auditor General of India, the Chief Election Commissioner and
other Election Commissioners, the Chairman and Members of the Finance
Commission, the Chairman and Members of Union Public Service Commission,
and the Governors of states and so on.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q33.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 provides for the establishment of a Human
Rights Court in every district for the speedy trial of violation of human rights. So,
statement 1 is correct.
● These Human Rights Courts can be set up by the State Government only with the
concurrence of the Chief Justice of the High Court of that state. So, statement 2 is
correct.
● For every Human Rights Court, the State Government specifies a Public Prosecutor or
appoints an advocate (who has practiced for seven years) as a Special Public
Prosecutor. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q34.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The Indian Constitution makes a provision for the establishment of a Joint State Public
Service Commission (JSPSC) for two or more States.

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● While the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) and the State Public Service
Commission (SPSC) are created directly by the Constitution, a JSPSC can be created by
an Act of Parliament at the request of the concerned State Legislatures.
● A JSPSC is a statutory and not a constitutional body. The Chairperson and members
of the JSPSC are appointed by the President.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q35.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Article 280 of the Constitution of India provides for a Finance Commission as a quasi-
judicial body. The Finance Commission is required to make recommendations to the
President of India on the following matters:
o The distribution of the net proceeds of taxes to be shared between the Centre
and the states, and the allocation between the states of the respective shares
of such proceeds.
o The principles that should govern the grants-in-aid to the states by the Centre
(i.e., out of the Consolidated Fund of India).
o The measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to
supplement the resources of the panchayats and the municipalities in the
state on the basis of the recommendations made by the State Finance
Commission. So, statement 1 is correct.
o Any other matter referred to it by the President in the interests of sound
finance.
● The recommendations made by the Finance Commission are only advisory in nature
and hence, not binding on the Government. It is up to the Union Government to
implement its recommendations on granting money to the states. So, statement 2 is
not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the answer.
Relevance: The Fifteenth Finance Commission has recommended a total Post Devolution
Revenue Deficit Grant of Rs. 86,201 crores to 14 states for the financial year 2022-23.

Q36.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Draw of lot is a method applied to determine the relative precedence of private
members' bills and resolutions, notices of questions, half-an-hour discussions or any
other notice given by more than one member simultaneously for being taken up on
the same day.
● Point of Order is an extraordinary process which, when raised, has the effect of
suspending the proceedings before the House and the member who is on her/his legs
gives way. This is meant to assist the presiding officer of the House in enforcing the
Rules, Directions and provisions of the Constitution for regulating the business of the
House.

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● List of Business is a list of items of business scheduled to be taken up in the House on

a particular day of the sitting.
● Guillotine means to bunch together and fast-track the passage of financial business.
Parliament, unfortunately, has very limited time for scrutinising the expenditure
demands of all the ministries. So, once the prescribed period for the discussion on
demands for grants is over, the Speaker applies the 'guillotine', and all the outstanding
demands for grants, whether discussed or not, are put to vote at once.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q37.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Disqualification on the Ground of Defection under the provisions of Tenth Schedule:
A member of Parliament incurs disqualification under the defection law:
o If s/he voluntarily gives up the membership of the political party on whose
ticket s/he is elected to the House. So, point 1 is correct.
o If s/he votes against or abstains from voting in the House contrary to the
directions given by his political party (not the Presiding Officer of the House).
So, point 2 is not correct.
o If any independently elected member joins any political party later. No specific
time period is mentioned in this case. So, point 3 is correct.
o If any nominated member joins any political party after the expiry of six
months.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Constitutional provisions regarding disqualification: A person shall be disqualified for

being elected as a Member of Parliament

● If s/he holds any office of profit under the Union or State government (except
Ministers or other offices exempted by the parliament).

● If s/he is not a citizen of India or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign
state.

● If s/he is disqualified under any law made by the Parliament.

Q38.
Answer: a
Explanation:
• The Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) came into being on August 3, 1954 under
the direct charge of the Prime Minister through a Presidential Order. According to
the Resolution constituting the AEC, the Secretary to the Government of India in the
Department of Atomic Energy is ex-officio Chairman of the Atomic Energy
Commission. So, point 1 is correct.

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• The Department of Space was established in 1972 to bolster the Indian space
program. It acts on the policy recommendations of the Indian Space Commission and
is broadly responsible for the day-to-day management of India’s space activities. DoS
achieves its mandate primarily through the Indian Space Research Organization
(ISRO), India’s official space agency and its many attached and autonomous bodies.
While headed by a secretary who also leads ISRO, the department falls under the
direct purview of the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO). So, point 2 is correct.
• The Department for Biotechnology was created in 1986 within the Ministry of
Science and Technology, Government of India. The department had, therefore, to
focus on developing human resources, creation of appropriate infrastructure,
research and development, and creating a regulatory framework. So, point 3 is not
correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) is directly overseeing the 5G rollout in the
country.

Q39.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Budget consists of two types of expenditure: expenditure ‘charged’ on the
Consolidated Fund of India and expenditure ‘made’ from the Consolidated Fund of
India.
● The ‘charged’ expenditures are non-votable by the Parliament. It can only be
discussed by the Parliament. Some of the important ‘charged’ expenditures on the
Consolidated Fund of India are as follows:
o Emoluments and allowances of the President of India
o Salaries and allowances of the Chairperson and Deputy Chairperson of the
Rajya Sabha and the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha. So, points
1 and 2 are correct.
o Salaries, allowances and pensions of the Comptroller and Auditor General of
India. So, point 3 is correct.
o Salaries, allowances and pensions of the judges of the Supreme Court.
● Salaries, allowances and pensions of the Chairman and members of the Union Public
Service Commission. The allowance of the members and Chairperson of the State
Public Service Commission (SPSC) is not charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
The entire expense including the salaries, allowances and pensions of the Chairman
and members of an SPSC are charged on the Consolidated Fund of the State. So,
point 4 is not correct.
● Pensions of the judges of High Courts are charged on Consolidated Fund of India, but
their salaries and allowances are charged on the Consolidated Fund of states. So,
point 5 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q40.
Answer: a
Explanation:

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• The expression “Office of Profit” has not been defined in the Constitution or in the
Representation of the People Act, 1951, or in the Parliament (Prevention of
Disqualification) Act, 1959, evidently, because it is not easy to frame an all-embracing
definition, covering all the different kinds of posts which exist under Government and
those which might hereafter be created. So, statement 1 is correct.
• Unless otherwise declared by Parliament by law, a person is disqualified for being
chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of Parliament if he holds any office
of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State. If any
question arises as to whether a Member of Parliament has become subject to any of
the disqualifications laid down in the Constitution, including the one whether he is
holding an office of profit or not, the question is referred for the decision of the
President and his decision is final. However, before giving any decision on any such
question, the President is required to obtain the opinion of the Election Commission
and shall act according to such opinions. It is important to note that in this matter the
President does not act on the advice of his Council of Ministers.
• In Ashok Kumar Bhattacharya vs Ajoy Biswas, the Supreme Court held that to
determine whether a person holds an office under the Government, each case must
be measured and judged in the light of the relevant provisions and sections. The final
interpretation and decision whether a person is disqualified or not rests with the
courts and not with the Parliament. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q41.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Under the bicameral system in the State’s Legislature, the Legislature is divided into
two parts - Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council.
● The Chairperson of the State Legislative Council is elected by the Council itself from
amongst its members. As a Presiding Officer, the powers and functions of the
Chairperson in the Council are similar to those of the Speaker in the State Legislative
Assembly. The Governor is not its Chairperson. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● The maximum strength of the Council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the
Assembly and the minimum strength is fixed at 40. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● The Constitution provides for the abolition or creation of Legislative Councils in States.
Accordingly, the Parliament (not the State Legislative Assembly) can abolish a
Legislative Council or create it, if the Legislative Assembly of the concerned State
passes a resolution to that effect. Such a specific resolution must be passed by the
State Assembly by a special majority, that is, a majority of the total membership of
the Assembly and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of the
Assembly present and voting. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

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Q42.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The ordinary bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament. It can be introduced
either by a Minister or by a Private Member. Similarly, the ordinary bill can be
introduced in either House of the State Legislature. It can be introduced either by a
Minister or by a Private Member of the State Legislature. So, statement 1 is not
correct.
● The Constitution of India provides for the mechanism of joint sitting of two Houses of
Parliament to resolve a deadlock between them over the passage of a Bill. However,
there is no Constitutional provision for joint sitting of two Houses of the State
Legislature to resolve a deadlock between them over the passage of a Bill. So,
statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q43.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● According to the Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992, all the members of
Panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels shall be elected directly by
the people. So, statement 1 is correct.
● Further, the Chairperson of Panchayats at the intermediate and district levels shall be
elected indirectly by and from amongst the elected members thereof. However, the
chairperson of a Panchayat at the village level shall be elected in such manner as the
State Legislature determines. So, statement 2 is correct.
● The Chairperson of a Panchayat and other members of a Panchayat elected directly
or indirectly shall have the right to vote in the meetings of the Panchayats.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q44.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● A session of Parliament consists of many meetings. Each meeting of a day consists of
two sittings. A sitting of Parliament can be terminated by adjournment or
adjournment sine die or prorogation or dissolution (in the case of the Lok Sabha).
● Adjournment suspends the work in a sitting for a specified time, which may be hours,
days or weeks. Adjournment only terminates a sitting and not a session of the House.
Power to adjourn a house lies with the presiding officer of the House. So, statement
1 is correct.
● Adjournment sine die means terminating a sitting of Parliament for an indefinite
period. In other words, when the House is adjourned without naming a day for
reassembly, it is called adjournment sine die. The power of adjournment sine die lies
with the presiding officer of the House. So, statement 2 is correct.

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● Prorogation not only terminates a sitting but also a session of the House. Power to
prorogue a session lies with the President. The President can prorogue a session
within the next few days after the House is adjourned sine die, or even while the
House is in session. So, statement 3 is correct.
● Dissolution ends the very life of the House and a new House is constituted after the
general elections are held. Rajya Sabha, being a permanent House, is not subjected
to dissolution. Only the Lok Sabha is subjected to dissolution. So, statement 4 is
correct.
● The dissolution of the Lok Sabha may take place in either of two ways:
o Automatic dissolution takes place on the expiry of its tenure of five years or
the term as extended during national emergency.
o The President is also authorized to dissolve the Lok Sabha. If the Lok Sabha is
dissolved before the completion of its normal tenure, the dissolution is
irrevocable.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q45.
Answer: a
Explanation:
State Finance Commission:
● Under Article 243-I (added by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992) of the
Constitution of India, the Governor of a State is required to constitute a Finance
Commission every five years. Article 243-Y also brought city councils or
municipalities under the purview of the State Finance Commission.
● It recommends the following:
o Taxes, levies and fees levied or appropriated by Panchayats themselves.
o Grants-in-aid to Panchayati Raj Institutions from the Consolidated Fund of a
State. So, statement 1 is correct.
o Ways to improve the financial position of the Panchayati Raj Institutions.
o Measures for the overall improvement of Panchayat’s finances.
State Election Commission:
● Article 243K of the Constitution of India added by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment
Act, 1992, provides for the establishment of the State Election Commission. It states
that the superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls
for, and the conduct of all elections to the Panchayats (Municipalities under Article
243ZA) shall be vested in a State Election Commission. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q46.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of
Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in any state except the four states of Assam,
Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
● The tribal majority areas in the states of Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Gujarat,
Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Himachal Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha,

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and Rajasthan are included under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution. So, points 2,
3 and 5 are correct.
● The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration of the tribal
areas in the four north-eastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
So, points 1 and 4 are not correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: A political party had recently promised implementation of the Constitution's Fifth
Schedule and the Panchayat (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, in tribal regions of
Gujarat if it is voted to power in the state.

Q47.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Article 112 of the Constitution refers to the budget as the 'annual financial
statement' and the term ‘budget’ is nowhere mentioned in the Constitution. The
budget is a financial statement of the estimated receipt and expenditure. Article 113
requires that any proposal or estimate seeking the withdrawal of money from the
Consolidated Fund of India should be presented to the Lok Sabha in the form of
demand for grants.
● During the Presentation of the budget, it is presented by the Finance Minister with a
‘budget speech’. A budget is a Money Bill; therefore, it is introduced only in the Lok
Sabha (not before a joint sitting). The budget is laid before the Rajya Sabha at a later
sTagse where it can only be discussed but cannot be voted upon. So, statement 1 is
not correct.
● Article 113(3) states that no demand for a grant shall be made except on the
recommendation of the President. So, statement 2 is correct.
● On the last day of the days allotted for the discussion and voting on the demands for
grants, the Speaker puts all the remaining demands to vote and disposes of them
whether they have been discussed by the members or not. This is known as
‘Guillotine’. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q48
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Article 310 of the Indian Constitution provides a tenure of office to persons serving
the Union or a State.— (1) Except as expressly provided by the Constitution, every
person who is a member of a defence service or of a civil service of the Union or of
an All India Service or holds any post connected with defence or any civil post under
the Union, holds office during the pleasure of the President, and every person who is
a member of a civil service of a State or holds any civil post under a State holds office
during the pleasure of the Governor of the State. So, statement 1 is correct.
● Article 311 of the Indian Constitution provides certain constitutional safeguards to the
member of service:

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o Article 311 (1): No government employee either of an all India service or a

State Government shall be dismissed or removed by an authority subordinate
to the one that appointed him/her. So, statement 2 is correct.
o Article 311 (2): No civil servant shall be dismissed or removed or reduced in
rank except after an inquiry in which s/he has been informed of the charges
and given a reasonable opportunity of being heard in respect of those charges.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q49
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The Chief Minister enjoys the following powers as the leader of the house:
o She/He advises the Governor with regard to the summoning and proroguing
of the sessions of the state legislature.
o She/He can recommend the dissolution of the Legislative Assembly to the
Governor at any time. So, point 1 is correct.
o She/He announces the government policies on the floor of the house.
● In addition, the Chief Minister also performs the following functions:
o She/He is the Chairman of the State Planning Board.
o She/He acts as a Vice-Chairman of the concerned Zonal Council by rotation,
holding office for a period of one year at a time. So, point 2 is not correct.
▪ The Union Home Minister is the Chairman of each of these Councils
o She/He is a member of the Inter-State Council and the Governing Council of
NITI Aayog, both headed by the Prime Minister.
● The Governor of the State appoints the Advocate General, Chairman of the State
Public Service Commission of the concerned state, State Election Commissioner etc.
However, the Chief Minister advises the Governor with regard to such
appointments. So, point 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q50
Answer: c
Explanation:
Table of precedence:

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1. President 8. Ambassadors Extraordinary and Plenipotentiary

2. Vice-President and High Commissioners of Commonwealth
3. Prime Minister countries accredited to India, Chief Ministers of
4. Governors of States within their States outside their respective States,
respective States Governors of States outside their respective
5. Former Presidents States
9. Judges of Supreme Court
5A. Deputy Prime Minister
9A. Chairperson, Union Public Service Commission,
6. Chief Justice of India, Speaker of Lok Chief Election Commissioner, Comptroller &
Sabha Auditor General of India
7. Cabinet Ministers of the Union, Chief 10. Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha
Ministers of States within their respective Deputy Chief Ministers of States
States, Deputy Chairman, Planning Deputy Speaker, Lok Sabha
Commission, Former Prime Ministers, Members of the Planning Commission
Leaders of Opposition in Rajya Sabha and Ministers of State of the Union {and any other
Lok Sabha Minister in the Ministry of Defence for defence
7A. Holders of Bharat Ratna decoration matters}
11. Attorney General of India, Cabinet Secretary,
Lieutenant Governors within their respective
Union Territories

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q51.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Article 154 of the Indian Constitution states that the executive power of the State
shall be vested in the Governor and shall be exercised by him either directly or
through officers subordinate to him in accordance with this Constitution. So,
statement 1 is correct.
● The Governor has constitutional discretion in the cases such as:
o Reservation of a bill for the consideration of the President. So, statement 2 is
correct.
o Recommendation for the imposition of the President’s Rule in the state.
o While exercising his functions as the administrator of an adjoining union
territory (in case of additional charge).
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q52.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Under Article 82 of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament by law enacts a
Delimitation Act after every census.

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● Population is the basis of allocation of seats of the Lok Sabha. As far as possible,
every State gets representation in the Lok Sabha in proportion to its population as per
census figures.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q53.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● India follows a bicameral system at both the center and state levels. Under this
system, the State's Legislature is divided into two parts - Legislative Assembly or
Vidhan Sabha and Legislative Council or Vidhan Parishad.
● But most of the states have a unicameral system, while others have a bicameral
system. At present, only six states have two Houses (bicameral). These are Andhra
Pradesh, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra and Karnataka. The Jammu
and Kashmir Legislative Council was abolished by the Jammu and Kashmir
Reorganization Act, 2019. Madhya Pradesh and Tamil Nadu do not have a bicameral
legislature. So, points 1, 3 and 4 are correct and points 2 and 5 are not correct.
● Such Councils are formed or abolished by the use of Article 169 of the Constitution of
India.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q54.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● A resolution is one of the procedural devices to raise a discussion in the House of the
Parliament on a matter of general public interest. Every question when agreed to
becomes either an order or a resolution of the House.
● Resolutions are different from the Motion in the following respect:
o All the resolutions come in the category of substantive motions, that is, every
resolution is a particular type of motion. All the motions need not necessarily
be substantive. Thus all resolutions are motions but not all motions are
resolutions. So, statement 1 is not correct.
o All the motions are not necessarily put to vote in the House, whereas all the
resolutions are required to be voted upon. So, statement 2 is correct.
● Resolutions may be classified as:
o Government Resolutions: Resolution which was moved by a Minister.
o Private member’s Resolution: Resolutions that are moved by a member other
than Ministers.
o Statutory Resolutions: Resolutions that are moved in pursuance of a provision
in the Constitution or an Act of Parliament are termed statutory resolutions.
Notice of such resolution may be given either by a Minister or by a Private
member. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q55.

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Answer: d
Explanation:
● Fourth Schedule of the Indian Constitution provides for allocation of seats to the
Council of States or Rajya Sabha and not Lok Sabha. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● At present, the Rajya Sabha has representatives from only three Union Territories
(i.e., Delhi (3), Puducherry (1) and Jammu and Kashmir (4). Where as in Lok Sabha
there can be a maximum of 20 members. All the Union Territories have representation
in Lok Sabha (i.e., Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Lakshwadweep, Ladakh, Puducherry
and Chandigarh all have been alloted 1 seat each; Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman
and Diu have 2, Jammu and Kashmir has been alloted 5 and NCT of Delhi has 7 seats
alloted). So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q56.
Answer: d
Explanation:
In the following matters, the powers and status of the Legislative Council of the State are
broadly equal to that of the State Legislative Assembly:
● Selection of ministers including the Chief Minister. Under the Constitution, the
ministers including the Chief Minister can be members of either House of the State
Legislature.
● Approval of ordinances issued by the Governor. So, point 3 is correct.
● Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the State Public Service Commission. So, point 4 is
correct.
In the following matters, the powers and status of the Legislative Council of the State are
unequal to that of the State Legislative Assembly:
● A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Assembly and not in the Council. So, point
1 is not correct.
● The final power of passing an ordinary bill also lies with the Assembly. At most, the
Council can detain or delay the bill for the period of four months–three months in the
first instance and one month in the second instance.
● The council cannot remove the Council of Ministers by passing a no-confidence
motion. So, point 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q57.
Answer: b
Explanation:
The institutions of Urban Local Government originated and developed in modern India during
the period of British rule. Some of the major events in this context are as follows:
● In 1688, the first Municipal Corporation in India was set up at Madras. So, statement
1 is not correct.
● In 1726, Municipal Corporations were set up in Bombay and Calcutta.
● Lord Mayo’s Resolution of 1870 on financial decentralization visualized the
development of Local Self-government institutions.

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● In 1924, the Cantonments Act was passed by the Central Legislature.

● Under the dyarchical scheme introduced in Provinces by the Government of India Act
of 1919, Local Self-government became a transferred subject under the charge of a
responsible Indian Minister. Later, the Government of India Act, 1935 introduced the
provincial autonomy scheme. Under this scheme, Local Self-government was
declared a provincial subject. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q58.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Under Article 371 of the Indian Constitution, the President is authorized to provide
that the Governor of Maharashtra and of Gujarat would have special responsibility for
the establishment of separate development boards for:
o Vidarbha, Marathwada and the rest of Maharashtra,
o Saurashtra, Kutch and the rest of Gujarat. So, statement 1 is correct.
● Under Article 371-A the Acts of Parliament relating to the following matters would not
apply to Nagaland unless the State Legislative Assembly so decides:
o Religious or social practices of the Nagas;
o Naga customary law and procedure;
o Administration of civil and criminal justice involving decision according to Naga
customary law; and
o Ownership and transfer of land and its resources. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q59.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The Enforcement Directorate (ED) was established in 1956. It is a multi-dimensional
organization investigating economic offenses under the Prevention of Money
Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002, Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018, Foreign
Exchange Management Act, 1999 and Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973. It was
not created as an attached body to the Central Bureau of Investigation. So,
statement 1 is not correct.
● Under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002, the ED carries out
search (property) and seizure (money/documents) and will decide if arrest is needed
as per Section 19 (power of arrest). All PMLA offenses will be cognisable and non-
bailable. Therefore, ED officers are empowered to arrest an accused without a
warrant, subject to certain conditions. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q60.
Answer: a
Explanation:

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● The Cabinet Committees are formed to sort out issues, formulate proposals for the
consideration of the Cabinet. The Cabinet Committees also have some decision
making power. However, such decisions can be reviewed by the Cabinet. The Cabinet
Committees are extra-constitutional bodies as they are not mentioned in the
Constitution of India. However, Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok
Sabha provide for their establishment. So, statement 1 is correct.
● They are set up by the Prime Minister whenever the situation requires. Their number,
nomenclature and composition varies from time to time. They usually include only
the Cabinet Ministers as members. However, Non-Cabinet Ministers can also
become members of the committees. In case, the Prime Minister is a member of a
committee, he automatically becomes the head of that committee. So, statement 2
is correct.
● At present, there are eight Cabinet Committees in existence:
○ Appointments Committee of the Cabinet
○ Cabinet Committee on Accommodation
○ Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
○ Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs
○ Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs
○ Cabinet Committee on Security
○ Cabinet Committee on Investment and Growth
○ Cabinet Committee on Employment & Skill Development
● All the committees except Committees on Accommodation and Parliamentary
Affairs are headed by the Prime Minister. As of July 2022, Cabinet Committee on
Accommodation is headed by the Union Home Minister while Cabinet Committee
on Parliamentary Affairs is headed by the Union Minister of Defence. So,
statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q61.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● A member of the Panel of Chairpersons cannot preside over the House when the
office of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker is vacant. During such time, the
Speaker’s duties are to be performed by such members of the House as the President
may appoint for the purpose.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q62.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Eleventh Schedule contains 29 functional items placed within the purview of
Panchayats, some of which are:
o Agriculture, including agricultural extension
o Social forestry and farm forestry
o Minor forest produce. So, point 1 is correct.

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o Small-scale industries, including food processing industries

o Khadi, village and cotTagse industries
o Rural electrification, including distribution of electricity
o Poverty alleviation programme
o Education, including primary and secondary schools. So, point 4 is correct.
o Technical training and vocational education
o Health and sanitation including hospitals, primary health centers and
dispensaries
o Family welfare. So, point 5 is correct.
o Public distribution system.
● The 74th Amendment Act, 1992 added a new Twelfth Schedule to the Constitution.
This schedule contains eighteen functional items of municipalities. Items like
regulation of land use and construction of buildings and water supply for domestic,
industrial and commercial purposes are included in this Schedule. So, points 2 and 3
are not correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q63.
Answer: d
Explanation:
• The right to vote is not a Fundamental Right. It is also not mentioned under the Part-
III of the Constitution. Article 326 of the Indian Constitution states that the elections
to the House of the People and to the Legislative Assembly of every State shall be on
the basis of adult suffrage. So, statement 1 is not correct.
• As per Rule 18 of the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, the electors under preventive
detention are entitled to cast their votes by post. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q64.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Some of the compulsory provisions of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992)
or the Part IX of the Constitution:
o Reservation of seats (both members and Chairpersons) for Scheduled Castes
and Scheduled Tribes in Panchayats at all the three levels. So, points 1 and 2
are correct.
o Reservation of one-third seats (both members and Chairpersons) for women
in Panchayats at all the three levels. So, point 4 is correct.
● Providing reservation of seats (both members and Chairpersons) for backward classes
in Panchayats at any level is a voluntary provision. So, point 3 is not correct
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q65.
Answer: b

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Explanation:
● The Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) (PESA) Act, 1996 is a central
legislation that extends the provisions of the Panchayats, as given in Part IX of the
Constitution of India, to the Fifth Schedule Areas with certain modifications and
exemptions. So, statement 1 is not correct.
o The States with Fifth Schedule Areas that are covered under PESA are Andhra
Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya
Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan and Telangana.
● Important provisions of the Act are:
o All seats of Chairpersons of Panchayats at all levels shall be reserved for the
Scheduled Tribes. So, statement 2 is correct.
o The reservation for the Scheduled Tribes shall not be less than one-half of the
total number of seats. So, statement 3 is not correct.
o Every village shall have a Gram Sabha consisting of persons whose names are
included in the electoral rolls for the Panchayat at the village level.
o The reservation of seats in the Scheduled Areas in every Panchayat shall be in
proportion to the population of the communities for whom reservation is
sought to be given under Part IX of the Constitution.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Electoral Parties in Gujarat are mentioning about strictly implementing the
Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act, 1996.

Q66.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Privileges of a State Legislature are a sum of special rights, immunities and
exemptions enjoyed by the Houses of the State Legislature, their committees and
their members.
● Privileges of the State Legislature do not extend to the Governor who is also an
integral part of the State Legislature. The Constitution has extended the privileges of
the State Legislature to those persons who are entitled to speak and take part in the
proceedings of a House of the state legislature or any of its committees. These
include Advocate-General of the State and State Ministers. So, statement 1 is not
correct.
● The State Legislature can punish members as well as outsiders for breach of its
privileges or its contempt by reprimand, admonition or imprisonment (also
suspension or expulsion, in case of members). So, statement 2 is correct.
● Some of the privileges belonging to the members of the State Legislature individually
are:
o They cannot be arrested during the session of the State Legislature and 40
days before the beginning and 40 days after the end of such a session. This
privilege is available only in civil cases and not in criminal cases or preventive
detention cases.
o They are exempted from jury service. They can refuse to give evidence and
appear as a witness in a case pending in a court when the State Legislature is
in session. So, statement 3 is correct.

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Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q67.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The Constitution (74th Amendment) Act, 1992 came into force on 1st June 1993,
● It provides for the constitution of 3 types of municipalities depending upon the size
and area namely:
o Nagar Panchayat for an area in transition from rural to urban areas
o Municipal Council for smaller urban areas
o Municipal Corporation for larger urban areas
● Demographics and other conditions which are determining factors for constituting a
particular type of municipality differ a great deal from one State to another.
● It has, therefore, been left to the State Legislatures to decide which specific type of
municipality will be constituted for a particular urban area.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q68.
Answer: a
Explanation:
The State Legislature may:
● Authorize a municipality to levy, collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and fees.
So, statement 1 is correct.
● Assign to a municipality taxes, duties, tolls and fees levied and collected by the State
Government.
● Provide for making grants-in-aid to the municipalities from the Consolidated Fund of
the State.
● Provide for the constitution of funds for crediting all money of the municipalities. So,
statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q69.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Under Article 111 of the Indian Constitution, the President has the veto power over
the bills passed by the Parliament, that is, he can withhold his assent to the bills.
● The President of India is vested with three—absolute veto, suspensive veto and
pocket veto.
● Absolute veto is withholding of assent to the bill passed by the legislature. The bill
then ends and does not become an Act. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
● Qualified veto can be overridden by the legislature with a higher majority. There is no
qualified veto in the case of an Indian President; it is possessed by the American
President. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
● Suspensive veto can be overridden by the legislature with an ordinary majority. So,
pair 3 is not correctly matched.

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● Pocket veto is taking no action on the bill passed by the legislature. So, pair 4 is
correctly matched.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q70.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Both the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and the National
Commission for Scheduled Tribes (STs) are constitutional bodies. The 89th
Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003 bifurcated the combined National
Commission for SCs and STs into two separate bodies, namely, National Commission
for Scheduled Castes (Article 338) and National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
(Article 338-A). So, point 1 and point 2 are correct.
● The National Commission for Minorities (NCM) is a statutory body (not a
Constitutional body) setup under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992.
So, point 3 is not correct.
● The National Commission for Backward Classes is a Constitutional body under Article
338B of the Indian Constitution. It was conferred constitutional status by the 102nd
Amendment Act, 2018. So, point 4 is correct.
● The National Commission for Women (NCW) is a statutory body established in 1992
under the provisions of the National Commission for Women Act, 1990. So, point 5
is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: According to recent reports, the Central government is yet to appoint the
Chairperson and members of the ninth National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC).

Q71.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Collective Responsibility of the Council of Ministers is the fundamental principle
underlying the working of the Parliamentary System of Government. According to
Article 75, the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha
and not to the Rajya Sabha. This means that all the Ministers own joint responsibility
to the Lok Sabha for all their acts of omission and commission. The principle of
collective responsibility also means that Cabinet decisions bind all the Cabinet
Ministers and other Ministers. So, statement 1 is correct.
● Article 75 contains the principle of individual responsibility. It states that the
Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President, which means that the
President can remove a Minister even at a time when the Council of Ministers enjoy
confidence in the Lok Sabha. However, the President removes a Minister only on the
advice of the Prime Minister. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● In India there is no provision in the Constitution for the system of legal responsibility
of a Minister. It is not required that an order of the President for a public act should
be countersigned by a Minister. Moreover, the courts are barred from enquiring into
the nature of advice rendered by the Ministers to the President. In Britain, every
order of the King for any public act is countersigned by a minister. If the

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order is in violation of any law, the minister would be held responsible and
would be liable in the court. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q72.
Answer: d
Explanation:
• Model Code of Conduct (MCC) is a voluntary agreement among the parties for
regulating the conduct of political parties and their members during elections to
assemblies and Parliament. The idea of a model code for political parties originated in
the State of Kerala, which adopted, for the first time, a code of conduct for observance
for political parties during the general election to the State Legislative Assembly in
February 1960.
• Model Code of Conduct comes into operation right from the time and day the
election schedule is announced by the Election Commission of India and remains in
force till the end of the complete electoral process. So, statement 1 is not correct.
• The Model Code of Conduct does not have legal sanctity and there is no statutory
backing of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 or the rules framed
thereunder. So, statement 2 is not correct.
• Applicability of MCC during general elections and bye-elections: During general
elections to the House of People (Lok Sabha), the code is applicable throughout the
country. During general elections to the Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha), the code
is applicable in the entire State. During bye-elections, the code is applicable in the
entire district or districts in which the constituency falls. So, statement 3 is not
correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the answer.

Q73.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The Council of Ministers includes all three categories of Ministers that are Cabinet
Ministers, Ministers of State and Deputy Ministers.
● The term Cabinet was inserted in Article 352 of the Indian Constitution in 1978 by the
44th Constitutional Amendment Act. Article 352 only defines the Cabinet saying that
it is ‘the council consisting of the Prime Minister and other ministers of Cabinet rank
appointed under Article 75’ and does not describe its powers and functions. So,
statement 1 is not correct.
● The functions of the Council of Ministers are determined by the Cabinet and it
implements the Cabinet decisions. The Cabinet takes decisions regarding policies and
directs the Council of Ministers which are binding on all the Ministers. So, statement
2 is correct.
● The total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers
shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha. But there is no such
provision defined for the Cabinet. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

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Q74.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Article 280 of the Constitution of India provides for a Finance Commission as a quasi-
judicial body. The Finance Commission consists of a Chairman and four other
members to be appointed by the President.
● The Constitution authorises the Parliament to determine the qualifications of
members of the commission and the manner in which they should be selected.
Accordingly, the Parliament has specified the qualifications of the Chairperson and
members of the Commission under the Finance Commission (Miscellaneous
Provisions) Act, 1951.
● The Chairperson should be a person having experience in public affairs and the four
other members should be selected from amongst the following:
o A judge of the High Court or one qualified to be appointed as one. So, point 1
is correct.
o A person who has specialised knowledge of finance and accounts of the
government.
o A person who has special knowledge of economics. So, point 3 is correct.
o A person who has wide experience in financial matters and in administration.
So, point 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Fifteenth Finance Commission has recommended a total Post Devolution
Revenue Deficit Grant of Rs. 86,201 crores to 14 states for the financial year 2022-23.

Q75.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Article 330 of the Indian Constitution provides for the reservation of seats for the
members from Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha and in State
Legislative Assemblies. There is no such provision of reservation for the Rajya Sabha
membership. So, statement 1 is correct.
● The 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019 amended Article 334 of the Indian
Constitution. The amendment extended the reservation for Scheduled Castes and
Scheduled Tribes for ten years (i.e., up to 2030) and discontinued the reservation for
Anglo-Indians in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies. So, statement 2 is
correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q76.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Financial Bills are those bills that deal with fiscal matters, that is, revenue or
expenditure. Financial Bills are of three kinds:

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o A Bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only those specific provisions

which are mentioned in Article 110. It can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha
by a Minister. Private members (other than Ministers) cannot introduce a
Money Bill in the Lok Sabha.
o Financial Bill (I) is a Bill under Article 117 (I) that contains any or all matters
mentioned in Article 110 and in addition other matters of general legislation
also. It also requires the prior recommendation of the President before its
introduction and can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
o Financial Bill (II), mentioned under Article 117 (3), contains provisions
involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India. Unlike the Money
Bill and Financial Bill (I), it does not include any of the matters mentioned in
Article 110. It is treated as an ordinary bill and can be introduced in both the
Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. It does not require the prior
recommendation of the President before its introduction in a House. So,
statement 1 is not correct.
● A Money Bill can neither be rejected nor be amended by Rajya Sabha. The Rajya
Sabha can only recommend some suggestions and should return the bill with or
without recommendations within a maximum period of 14 days. However, Financial
Bill (I) and Financial Bill (II) can be either rejected or amended by the Rajya Sabha. So,
statement 2 is not correct.
● Only the Speaker of the Lok Sabha has authority to decide whether a bill is a money
bill or not. The Speaker's decision in this regard is final and cannot be questioned in
any court of law or, in either the Houses of the Parliament or, even by the President.
So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q77.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● There are three types of municipal personnel systems in India:
o Under the Separate Personnel System, each local body appoints, administers,
and controls its own personnel. They are not transferable to other local bodies.
This system upholds the principle of local autonomy and promotes undivided
loyalty. So, statement 1 is not correct.
o In the Unified Personnel System, the State Government appoints,
administers, and controls the municipal personnel. In other words, state-wide
services (cadres) are created for all the urban bodies in the state. This system
is prevalent in Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Madhya
Pradesh and so on. So, statement 2 is correct.
o Under the Integrated Personnel System, the personnel of the State
Government and those of the local bodies form part of the same service. In
other words, the municipal personnel are members of the state services. This
system is prevalent in Odisha, Bihar, Karnataka, Punjab, Haryana and other
states. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

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Q78.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of
Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in any state except the four states of Assam,
Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
● The President is empowered to declare an area to be a Scheduled Area. He can also
increase or decrease its area, alter its boundary lines, rescind such designation or
make fresh orders for such re-designation on an area in consultation with the
Governor of the State concerned. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● The executive power of a State extends to the Scheduled Areas therein. But the
Governor has a special responsibility regarding such areas. Similarly, the executive
power of the Centre extends to giving directions to the states regarding the
administration of such areas. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● The Governor is empowered to direct that any particular act of Parliament or the
State Legislature does not apply to a Scheduled Area or apply with specified
modifications and exceptions.
o S/He can also make regulations for repealing or amending any act of
Parliament or the State Legislature, which is applicable to a Scheduled Area.
But all such regulations require the assent of the President. So, statement 3 is
correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q79.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Since the Prime Minister stands at the head of the Council of Ministers, the other
Ministers cannot function when the Prime Minister resigns or dies. In other words, the
resignation or death of an incumbent Prime Minister automatically dissolves the
Council of Ministers and thereby generates a vacuum. So, statement 1 is correct.
● He/She advises the President with regard to the appointment of important officials
like the Attorney General of India, Comptroller and Auditor General of India,
Chairman and members of the Union Public Service Commission, Election
Commissioners, Chairman and members of the Finance Commission.
● He/She advises the President with regard to summoning and proroguing of the
sessions of the Parliament. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q80.
Answer: b
Explanation:
• First Past the Post (FPTP) system: In this system the candidate who secures the
highest number of votes in that constituency is declared elected. It is important to
note that whoever has more votes than all other candidates is declared elected in this
system. The winning candidate need not secure a majority of the votes. So, statement
1 is not correct.

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• In Proportional Representation System, every party declares a list of its candidates.

But voters vote for the party and not for the candidates. A party gets seats in the
legislature in proportion to the votes polled by it. This allows even smaller parties with
a very small support base to get representation in the legislature. So, statement 2 is
correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q81.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● A Notified Area Committee is created for the administration of two types of areas–a
fast-developing town due to industrialisation, and a town that does not yet fulfil all
the conditions necessary for the constitution of a municipality, but which otherwise is
considered important by the State Government.
● Since it is established by notification in the Government Gazette, it is called a Notified
Area Committee.
● Though it functions within the framework of the State Municipal Act, only those
provisions of the Act apply to it which are notified in the Government Gazette by which
it is created. It may also be entrusted to exercise powers under any other Act. Its
powers are almost equivalent to those of a municipality.
● Unlike the municipality, it is an entirely nominated body, that is, all the members of
a Notified Area Committee including the Chairman are nominated by the State
Government. Thus, it is neither an elected body nor a statutory body.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q82.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The 74th Amendment Act of 1992 lays down that every state shall constitute at the
district level, a District Planning Committee (DPC) to consolidate the plans prepared
by Panchayats and Municipalities in the district, and to prepare a draft development
plan for the district as a whole. Similarly, every metropolitan area shall have a
Metropolitan Planning Committee (MPC) to prepare a draft development plan.
● Both DPC and MPC are Constitutional bodies set up under the provisions of Article
243ZD and Article 243ZE respectively. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● The act lays down that four-fifths of the members of a DPC should be elected by the
elected members of the district Panchayat and Municipalities in the district from
amongst themselves.
● Similarly, two-thirds of the members of an MPC should be elected by the elected
members of the municipalities and chairpersons of the Panchayats in the metropolitan
area from amongst themselves. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q83.
Answer: b

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Explanation:
● Article 93 of the Constitution provides for the election of both the Speaker and the
Deputy Speaker. The Speaker is the constitutional and ceremonial head of the House.
The Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members. In contrast, the
Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha is not elected from amongst its members. This
function is performed by the Vice-President of India who is the ex-officio Chairperson
of the Rajya Sabha. However, the Rajya Sabha elects a Deputy Chairperson from
amongst its members. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● The Speaker does not vote in the first instance. But s/he can exercise a casting vote
in the case of a tie. In other words, only when the House is divided equally on any
question, the Speaker is entitled to vote. Such a vote is called casting vote, and its
purpose is to resolve a deadlock. Similarly, the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha cannot
vote in the first instance. S/he too can cast a vote in the case of an equality of votes.
However, if at any sitting of the House a resolution for the removal of the Chairperson
from his office is under consideration, he is not to preside at that sitting. He cannot
also vote at all on such resolution or on any other matter during such proceedings. So,
statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q84.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The Goods and Services Tax Council or the GST Council is a Constitutional body,
created under the provisions of Article 279-A, which was inserted into the Constitution
by the 101st Amendment Act of 2016.
● Every decision of the Council is to be taken by a majority of not less than three-fourths
of the weighted votes of the members present and voting at the meeting. So,
statement 1 is correct.
● The decision is taken in accordance with the following principles:
o The vote of the Central Government shall have a weightage one-third of the
total votes cast in that meeting.
o The votes of all the State Governments combined shall have a weightage of
two-thirds of the total votes cast in that meeting. Thus, the weightage of votes
of the Central Government is less than the combined total weightage of all the
State Governments. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The 47th meeting of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council was recently held
in Chandigarh.

Q85.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● A State Public Service Commission (SPSC) consists of a Chairperson and other
members appointed by the Governor of the State.
● Although the Chairperson and members of a SPSC are appointed by the Governor,
they can be removed only by the President (and not by the Governor). The President

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can remove them on the same grounds and in the same manner as he can remove a
Chairperson or a member of the UPSC. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● The Chairperson or a member of a SPSC is (after having completed his first term) not
eligible for reappointment to that office (that is, not eligible for second term). So,
statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q86.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The American Vice-President succeeds to the presidency when it falls vacant, and
remains President for the unexpired term of his predecessor. The Indian Vice-
President, on the other hand, does not assume the office of the President when it falls
vacant for the unexpired term. He merely serves as an acting President until the new
President assumes charge. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● While acting as President or discharging the functions of President, the Vice-President
does not perform the duties of the office of the Chairman of Rajya Sabha. During this
period, those duties are performed by the Deputy Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha. So,
statement 2 is correct.
● The Speaker of Lok Sabha presides over the joint sitting of both the Houses of
Parliament. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q87.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, was enacted to provide for the
constitution of a National Human Rights Commission (NHRC), the State Human Rights
Commission (SHRC) and the Human Rights Courts for the protection of human rights.
● The NHRC and SHRC are Statutory (and not Constitutional) bodies.
● The Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019 provided for the following:
o An Increase in the Members of the Commission from two to three of which,
one shall be a woman. So, statement 1 is correct.
o A person who has been a Judge of the Supreme Court is also made eligible to
be appointed as Chairperson of the Commission in addition to the person who
has been the Chief Justice of India. So, statement 2 is correct.
o The term of the Chairperson and Members of the NHRC and the State
Commissions is reduced from five to three years and shall be eligible for re-
appointment. So, statement 3 is not correct.
o The functions of the commission are mainly recommendatory in nature. It has no
power to punish the violators of human rights, nor to award any relief including
monetary relief to the victim. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) has sought an action taken report
on the alleged detention of some students for five hours by a private school in Bhubaneswar
for non-payment of outstanding fees.

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Q88.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● On January 1, 2015, the NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) was
established as the successor to the Planning Commission.
● It was established by an executive resolution of the Government of India (i.e., Union
Cabinet). Hence, it is also neither a Constitutional body nor a Statutory body. In other
words, it is a Non-Constitutional or Extra-Constitutional body (i.e. not created by the
Constitution) and a non-statutory body (not created by an Act of Parliament). So,
statement 1 is correct.
● Prime Minister of India is the Chairperson of NITI Aayog. The Vice-Chairperson of NITI
Aayog is appointed by the Prime Minister. So, statement 2 is correct.
● The Governing Council comprises the Chief Ministers of all the States, Chief Ministers
of Union Territories with Legislatures (i.e., Delhi, Puducherry and Jammu and Kashmir)
and Lt. Governors of other Union Territories. It is not headed by the Union Home
Minister. So, statement 3 is not correct.
o The meetings of the Governing Council have been held under the chairmanship
of the Prime Minister with Chief Ministers/Lt Governors of the States/UTs and
other members of the Governing Council.
● Regional Councils of NITI Aayog are formed to address specific issues and
contingencies impacting more than one state or region. These are formed for a
specified tenure. These are convened by the Prime Minister and comprise the Chief
Ministers of States and Lieutenant Governors of Union Territories in the region. These
are chaired by the Chairperson of the NITI Aayog or his nominee.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the NITI Aayog has declared the holy city of Haridwar in Uttarakhand as
the best aspirational district on five parameters.

Q89.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, bifurcated the erstwhile State of
Jammu and Kashmir into two separate Union Territories, namely, the Union Territory
of Jammu & Kashmir and the Union Territory of Ladakh.
● The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Lieutenant Governor and the other
Ministers shall be appointed by the Lieutenant Governor on the advice of the Chief
Minister. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● Under the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the total number of seats
fixed for the Legislative Assembly of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir is 107.
But, 24 seats fall in the Pakistan-occupied-Kashmir (PoK). These seats are vacant and
are not to be taken into account for reckoning the total membership of the Assembly.
So, statement 2 is not correct.
● The Lieutenant Governor of Jammu and Kashmir may nominate two members to the
Assembly to give representation to women, if in his opinion; women are not
adequately represented in the Assembly. So, statement 3 is correct.

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Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Relevance: The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, has become a point of
discussion in the delimitation process of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh.

Q90.
Answer: c
Explanation:
• A registered party is recognized as a National Party only if it fulfils any one of the
following three conditions:
o At a General Election to the Lok Sabha or the Legislative Assemblies, the party
polls 6% of votes in four States and in addition it wins 4 Lok Sabha seats from
any State or States
o A party gets recognition as State Party in four or more States. So, statement
1 is correct.
o The party wins 2 per cent of the seats in the Lok Sabha from at least 3
different States. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q91.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Every resolution approving the proclamation of the President’s Rule or its
continuation can be passed by either House of Parliament only by a simple majority,
that is, a majority of the members of that House present and voting. So, statement 1
is not correct.
● The President either suspends or dissolves the State Legislative Assembly. When the
President’s Rule is imposed in a State, the President dismisses the State Council of
Ministers headed by the Chief Minister. The State Governor, on behalf of the
President, carries on the State administration with the help of the Chief Secretary of
the State or the advisors appointed by the President. So, statement 2 is correct.
● The 38th Amendment Act of 1975 made the satisfaction of the President in invoking
Article 356 final and conclusive which could not be challenged in any court on any
ground. But this provision was subsequently deleted by the 44th Amendment Act of
1978 implying that the satisfaction of the President is not beyond judicial review. The
Supreme Court in S. R Bommai case (1994) made the President proclamation imposing
President’s rule in a state subject to judicial review. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q92.
Answer: d
Explanation:

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● Article 148 of the Indian Constitution provides for an office of the Comptroller and
Auditor-General of India who shall be appointed by the President by warrant under
his hand and seal.
● The administrative expenses of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor-General
including all salaries, allowances and pensions payable to or in respect of persons
serving in that office, shall be charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India. So,
statement 1 is correct.
● In India, the CAG has no control over the issue of money from the Consolidated Fund
and many departments are authorised to draw money by issuing cheques without
specific authority from the CAG. Thus, CAG is concerned only at the audit sTagse
when the expenditure has already taken place. In Britain, the executive can draw
money from the public exchequer only with the approval of the CAG. So, statement 2
is correct.
o In India, CAG is not a member of the Parliament while in Britain; CAG is a
member of the House of the Commons.
● Article 151 of Constitution of India states that the Audit reports of the Comptroller
and Auditor-General of India relating to the accounts of the Union shall be submitted
to the President, who shall cause them to be laid before each House of Parliament.
So, statement 3 is correct.
o The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India relating to the
accounts of a State shall be submitted to the Governor of the State, who shall
cause them to be laid before the Legislature of the State.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q93.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Election Commission of India is a permanent Constitutional Body. It is responsible for
administering Union and State election processes in India. The body administers
elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies and the offices
of the President and Vice President in the country. However, the Municipal and
Panchayat elections in states and union territories are administered by the State
Election Commission.
● The Election Commission consists of the Chief Election Commissioner and two
Election Commissioners appointed by the President of India. In case of a difference of
opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and/or two other Election
Commissioners, the matter is decided by the Commission by a majority. So,
statement 1 is not correct.
● Under the Indian Constitution, it has advisory jurisdiction in the matter of post-
election disqualification of sitting members of Parliament and State Legislatures. So,
statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q94.
Answer: b
Explanation:

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● The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is the premier investigating police agency in
India. It functions under the Department of Personnel, Ministry of Personnel, Pension
& Public Grievances, Government of India. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● It derives its power to investigate from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act,
1946. However, it is not a statutory body. It was established on the recommendation
of the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962-1964) in 1963. So,
statement 2 is correct.
● The Central Government can authorize CBI to investigate a crime in a State but only
with the consent of the concerned State Government. It can suo-moto take up
investigation of offences only in the Union Territories. However, the Supreme Court
and High Courts can order CBI to investigate a crime anywhere in the country without
the consent of the State. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q95.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● A cadre officer may, with the concurrence of the State Governments concerned and
the Central Government, be deputed for service under the Central Government or
another State Government or under a company, association or body of individuals,
whether incorporated or not, which is wholly or substantially owned or controlled by
the Central Government or by another State Government. So, statement 1 is correct.
o In case of any disagreement, the matter shall be decided by the Central
Government and the State Government or State Governments concerned shall
give effect to the decision of the Central Government.
● According to existing norms, States have to depute the All India Services (AIS) officers,
including the Indian Police Service (IPS) officers, to the Central Government offices
and at any point, it cannot be more than 40% of the total cadre strength. So,
statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Proposed amendments to Rule 6 (Deputation of cadre officers) of the Indian

Administrative Service (Cadre) Rules, 1954
● If the State Government delays posting a State cadre officer to the Centre and does
not give effect to the Central government’s decision within the specified time, “the
officer shall stand relieved from cadre from the date as may be specified by the
Central Government.” Presently, officers have to get a no-objection clearance from
the State government for Central deputation.
● The Centre will decide the actual number of officers to be deputed to the Central
government in consultation with the State and the latter should make eligible the
names of such officers. According to existing norms, States have to depute the All
India Services (AIS) officers, including the Indian Police Service (IPS) officers, to the
Central government offices and at any point it cannot be more than 40% of the total
cadre strength.

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● In case of any disagreement between the Centre and the State, the matter shall be
decided by the Central government and the State shall give effect to the decision of
the Centre “within a specified time.”
● In specific situations where services of cadre officers are required by the Central
government in “public interest” the State shall give effect to its decisions within a
specified time.

Relevance: There is a tussle between Centre and certain States over deputation and changes
in Cadre rules.

Q96.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Public Accounts Committee: It was set up first in 1921 under the provisions of the
Government of India Act, 1919. At present, it consists of 22 members (15 from the
Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha). The term of office of the members is one year.
A Minister cannot be elected as a member of the committee. The Chairman of the
committee is appointed from amongst its members by the Speaker. So, statement 1
is correct.
● Estimates Committee: The origin of this committee can be traced to the standing
financial committee set up in 1921. Originally, it had 25 members but in 1956 its
membership was raised to 30. All the thirty members are from Lok Sabha only. The
term of office is one year. A Minister cannot be elected as a member of the committee.
So, statement 2 is not correct.
● Committee on Public Undertakings: It was created in 1964 on the recommendation
of the Krishna Menon Committee. In 1974, its membership was raised to 22 (15 from
the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha) from 15. The members of this committee
are elected by the Parliament every year from amongst its own members according
to the principle of proportional representation by means of a single transferable
vote. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the answer.

Q97.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Balwant Rai Mehta Committee: It was appointed in January 1957 and it
recommended the establishment of the scheme of ‘democratic decentralization’,
which ultimately came to be known as Panchayati Raj. So, point 1 is correct.
● K. Kasturirangan Committee: It prepared the National Educational Policy, 2019 which
is built on the foundational pillars of Access, Equity, Quality, Affordability and
Accountability. The Committee had proposed to rename MHRD as the Ministry of
Education (MoE). So, point 2 is not correct.
● Thungon Committee: It was appointed in 1988 to examine the political and
administrative structure in the district for the purpose of district planning. It suggested

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that Panchayati Raj bodies should be constitutionally recognized and a three-tier

system of Panchayati Raj should be established with panchayats at the village, block
and district levels. So, point 3 is correct.
● G.V.K. Rao Committee: It was appointed in 1985 to review the existing Administrative
Arrangements for Rural Development and Poverty Alleviation Programmes. It came to
the conclusion that the developmental process was gradually bureaucratised and
divorced from the Panchayati Raj. This phenomena of bureaucratisation of
development administration as against the democratization weakened the
Panchayati Raj institutions resulting in what is aptly called as ‘grass without roots’.
So, point 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q98.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Rights are social claims which help individuals attain their best selves and help them
develop their personalities. States never give rights, they only recognise them;
governments never grant rights, they only protect them. Rights emanate from society,
from peculiar social conditions, and, therefore, they are always social.
● Rights are indeed claims, but every claim is not a right. A claim is not a right if it is not
recognised; it is not a right if it is not enforced. Claims become rights when they are
recognised by society; they become rights when they are maintained and enforced by
the State. Rights are not merely claims, they are social claims. What this means is
that claims which are social in nature, alone are rights. Rights are social claims given
to the individuals as members of the society and are in the form of rewards as a
response to the duties the individuals have performed. So, statement 1 is correct.
● Rights are not entitlements a person is possessed with. Rights are not privileges
because they are not entitlements. There is a difference between rights and
privileges; rights are our claims on others as are others’ claims on us; entitlements on
the other hand are privileges granted to some and denied to others. Rights are
universal in the sense that they are assured to all; privileges are not universal because
they are possessed by few. Rights are obtained as a matter of right; privileges as a
matter of patronage. Rights emanate in democratic societies; privileges are features
of undemocratic systems. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q99.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Under Article 352, the President can declare a National Emergency when the security
of India or a part of it is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion.
● The President, however, can proclaim a national emergency only after receiving a
written recommendation from the cabinet. The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act
of 1978 introduced this safeguard to eliminate any possibility of the Prime Minister
alone taking a decision in this regard. This means that the emergency can be declared
only on the concurrence of the cabinet and not merely on the advice of the Prime
Minister. So, statement 1 is correct.

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● Article 359 authorises the President to suspend the right to move any court for the
enforcement of Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency. However, the 44th
Amendment Act of 1978 restricted the scope of Article 359. The President cannot
suspend the right to move the Court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights
guaranteed by Articles 20 (Protection in respect of conviction for offence) and Article
21 (Right to life and personal liberty). Thus, Article 20 and Article 21 remain
enforceable even during an emergency. So, statement 2 is correct.
● The proclamation of Emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament
within one month from the date of its issue. If approved by both the Houses of
Parliament, the emergency continues for six months and can be extended to an
indefinite period with the approval of the Parliament every six months. This
provision for periodical Parliamentary approval was added by the 44th Amendment
Act of 1978. Before that, the emergency, once approved by the Parliament, could
remain in operation as long as the Executive (cabinet) desired. So, statement 3 is
correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q100.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Societies with deeply entrenched inequalities of various kinds not only set limits on
the power of Government but also enable and empower the Government to take
positive measures to overcome forms of inequality or deprivation. Hence, it enables
the Government to create necessary conditions for a just society. For example -
Directive Principles of State Policy enshrined in the Indian Constitution. So,
statement 1 is correct.
● The Constitution sets some limits on what a Government can impose on its citizens.
These limits are fundamental in the sense that the Government may never trespass
on them. The most common way of limiting the power of Government is to specify
certain Fundamental Rights that all of us possess as citizens and which no
Government can ever be allowed to violate. So, statement 2 is correct.
● The Constitution provides a set of basic rules known to all members of the society
that allow for minimal coordination amongst themselves. In the absence of some basic
rules, every individual would feel insecure in anticipation of the actions of each other.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

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