PYQs : AIPG – 2013

ANATOMY

1. Common carotid artery is palpable at

a. Upper border of thyroid cartilage
b. Upper border of cricoid cartilage
c. At hyoid bone
d. Lower border of cricoid cartilage
2. Most frequently damaged cranial nerve with a motor component
a. Occulomotor
b. V
c. VII
d. IX
3. Third nerve palsy causes all except
a. Ptosis
b. Miosis
c. Outward eye movement
d. Diplopia
4. Propioceptive fibres are not carried by which cranial nerval
a. Cranial accessory
b. Glossopharyngeal
c. Trigeminal
d. Facial
5. Intrinsic muscles of eyeball are all except
a. Levator palpebrae superioris
b. Ciliaris
c. Sphincter pupillae
d. Dilator pupillae
6. Not a retractor of scapula
a. Trapezius
b. Rhomboideus major
c. Rhomboideus minor
d. Levator scapulae
7. Infection from facial vein spread to cavernous sinus because
a. Venous connection do not have value
b. Value are stretched on opening
c. Facial vein opens into interior jugular vein
d. Ophthalmic vein
8. Painful sensations from ethmoid sinus are transmitted by
a. Frontal
b. Nasociliary
c. Infratrochlear
d. Lacrimal
9. Claw hand deformity occurs due to lesion of
a. ulnar
b. radial
c. Median
d. Axillary

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10. Embryo is important in uterus by
a. 14 days
b. 28 days
c. 8 weeks
d. 24 weeks
11. Not an extrinsic membrane of larynx
a. Cricothyroid
b. Thyrohyoid
c. Cricotracheal
d. Hypoepiglottic
12. Muscles of mastication are derived from which branchial arch
a. 1
b. 2
c. 5
d. 6
13. With advancing age pattern of bone resorption in mandible becomes
a. Centrifugal
b. Centripetal
c. Depends upon stage
d. Centrifugal anteriorly centripetal posteriorly
14. All are supplied by anterior division of mandibular nerve except
a. Medial pterygoid
b. Lateral pterygoid
c. Temporalis
d. Masseter
15. Which of the following is not a pneumatic bone?
a. Maxilla
b. Mandible
c. Frontal
d. Ethmoid
16. Sensory supply to nasal cavity is by
a. Trigeminal
b. Facial
c. Frontal
d. Ethmoid
17. Danger space is
a. Carotid sheath
b. Space between the alar plate and prevertebral fascia
c. Posterior to prevertebral area
d. Space posterior to carotid sheath in posterior triangle

PHYSIOLOGY

18. Compliment factor used to identify activation through common pathway is

a. C3
b. C4
c. C5
d. Factor B

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19. Factor presents both in serum and plasma
a. Prothrombin
b. Factor V
c. Factor VII
d. Factor VIII
20. 75% of brain growth is complete by
a. 6 months
b. 2 year
c. 5 year
d. 12 year
21. Function of cerotid body is
a. Sense O2 partial pressure in arterial blood
b. Sense O2 partial pressure in venous blood
c. Regulate tissue fluids
d. Regulate haemoglobin synthesis
22. Moderate exercise causes what change in blood flow to brain
a. Increased
b. Decreased
c. Temporary increases then decrease
d. No chance
23. Pain to usually non noxious stimuli is called
a. Allodynia
b. Paresthesia
c. Hyperesthesia
d. Dysesthesia
24. Interference with oxygen exchange in lungs is a type of
a. Histotoxic hypoxia
b. Hypoxic hypoxia
c. Anoxia anoxia
d. Anoxemia
25. Gastroesophageal reflux occurs most commonly due to
a. Temporary intermittent loss of tone of lower esophageal sphincter
b. Hypotensive lower esophageal sphincter
c. Hiatus hernia
d. Inadequate esophageal clearance
26. The difference between stem cells and progenitor cells is
a. Stem cells can form all hematogenous cell lineages while progenitor cell cannot
b. Progenitor cells can’t differential further while stem cells can
c. Stem cells are only present in bone marrow
d. Meiosis is seen in stem cells
27. Fe deficiency anemia shows
a. Increases om transferrin saturation
b. TIBC is increased
c. Increase in transferrin receptor
d. TIBC decreased
28. Microvilli in the intestine helps to
a. Increase in cell surface area

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b. Counteract viral infection
c. Increasing cell surface receptor
d. Forming immunoglobulins

Biochemistry

29. Acetyl CoA can produce all of the following except

a. Glucose
b. Fatty acid
c. Cholesterol
d. Ketone bodies
30. Increased pyruvate and lactate are found in deficiency of
a. Thiamine
b. Niacin
c. Vitamin C
d. Pyridoxine
31. During a routine urine examination of an adult precipitation occurs at 60* C and on increasing at
temperature further it dissolves completely it is indicative of
a. Ketosis
b. Bence jones proteins
c. Uremia
d. Nephrotic syndrome
32. All are caused amino acid deficiency except
a. Phenylketonuria
b. Homocysteinemia
c. Alkaptonuria
d. Galactosemia

Pathology

33. Down syndrome associated with mental retarding is seen in all of the following genotypes except
a. Trisomy 21
b. Delete 21
c. Robersonian translocation
d. Mosaicism
34. All are mediator inflammation except
a. TNF
b. Interferon
c. Prostaglandin
d. Myeloperoxidase
35. Episodic generalized weakness is related to all except
a. Hypokalemia
b. Hyponatremia
c. Hypocalcemia
d. Hypophosphatemia
36. Candiovascular effects seen in AIDS are all except
a. Pericardial effusion
b. Cardiac tamponade
c. Dilated cardiomyopathy

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d. Aortic aneurysm
37. CD4 helper T cells are required for all of the following function except
a. Antibody generation
b. Cytotoxic T cell function
c. Memory B cell
d. Opsonisation
38. Intracerebral haemorrhage is controlled by administration of factor
a. VII
b. VIII
c. II
d. III
39. Which of the following typically involves epiphysis of long bones
a. Ewing sarcoma
b. Osteogenic carcinoma
c. Osteoclastoma
d. Chondromyxoid fibroma
40. An adult female has amenorrhea and absence 0f secondary sexual feature all of the following chromosomal
abnormally will not be seen except
a. 47XXYU
b. 45XO
c. 47XXX
d. 46XY
41. Amoebic liver abscess true to
a. Pus formation occurs due to suppuration
b. Trophozoites can be demonstrated in pus
c. Portal system acts as a filter in spread of infection
d. Commonest site is upper portion of left lobe
42. A 15year old boy presents with history of bleeding gums subconjunctival bleeding and purpuric rash since
one day his blood picture reveals HG 6..4 gm/dl TLC 26500/mm platelet 35000/cm PT 0 seconds with control
of 13 sec PTT 50 seconds and fibrinogen 10 gm/dl peripheral smear confirms diagnosis of myeloblastic
leukemia the blood picture is consistent with the diagnosis of
a. Myloblastic leukaemia without maturation
b. Myloblastic leukaemia with maturation
c. Premyelocytic leukaemia
d. Myelomonocytic leukaemia
43. A 15year old girl with recurrent epistaxis haematuria and haematochezia her mother gives history of profuse
bleeding from umbilical stump at birth the blood investigation reveal normal PT, APTT, TT fibrinogen normal
platelet count and normal platelet a positive urea clot lysis test most probable factor deficiency is
a. X
b. XI
c. XII
d. XIII
44. All of the tumor induce viruses in children except
a. Herpes simplex
b. Epstein Barr
c. Varicella zoster
d. Cytomegalovirus

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45. In scurvy bones are affected because of
a. Decreased mineralization
b. Increased osteoclastic activity
c. Decreased osteoid matrix formation
d. Altered calcium and phosphate metabolism
46. Not a market of new bone formation
a. Alkaline phosphates
b. Urine hydroxyproline
c. Osteocalcine
d. Procollagen peptide
47. A recipient is AB negative the supply of type specific blood has been exhausted the best choice for
substitution is
a. O -ve
b. A -VE
c. A +VE
d. AB +ve
48. Extrahepatic cholestasis causes
a. Increased urobilinogen in urine
b. Increased urobilinogen in serum
c. Increased bilirubin in urine
d. Increased bilirubin in both urine and serum
49. A person aspirin will have
a. Increased PT
b. Increased CT
c. Increased BT
d. Thrombocytosis
50. Measurement of HbA1e is required for
a. Screening controlled diabetes
b. Screening uncontrolled diabetes
c. Monitoring diabetes
d. Confirmation of diabetes
51. Immediate transient increase in vascular permeability inflammation is caused by
a. Endothelial gap caused by histamine
b. Apoptosis of endothelial cells
c. Direct endothelial cell injury
d. Transcytosis of pinocytosis vesicles
52. Endotoxic shock is initiated by
a. Peripheral vasodilation
b. Injury to endothelial cells
c. Inadequate blood volume
d. Failure of myocardial pump
53. Rapid correction of severe hyperglycemia only insulin causes
a. Hyponatremia
b. Hypernatremia
c. Hypernatremia
d. Hyperkalemia
54. Nephrotic syndrome causes of except

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a. General edema
b. Hematuria
c. Hyperlipidemia
d. Hypercholesterolemia
55. Which of the following enzyme initiates the event of O 2depending killing by neutrophils?
a. NADPH oxidase
b. Catalase
c. Superoxide dismutase
d. Glutathione peroxide
56. Vegetations are not firmly attached to cusp in which of the following
a. Rheumatoid
b. Rheumatoid
c. Libman’s sack endocarditis
d. Infection endocarditis
57. If father is hemophilic and mother is normal which of the following will be affected
a. 50% sons will be affected
b. All daughter are carries
c. All song are carriers
d. 50% of his daughter are carriers

PHARMACOLOGY

58. Antibiotic induce colitis is caused by

a. Neomycin
b. Vancomycin
c. Clindamycin
d. Chloramphenicol
59. When two drug & B are compared false statement is
a. If 1 mg of drug A produce same effect as 3 mg of drugs B then A is more potent than B
b. If drug A produce more effect than maximum tolerable dose of drug B than A is more efficacious
than B
c. If 1 mg of drug A has higher degree of same effect than 1 mg of drug B then A is more and drug
efficacious than B
d. Dose and drug efficacy are not related
60. Drug of choice in a patient who develops anaphylaxis following administration of local anaesthesia is
a. Atropine
b. Epinephrine
c. Dopamine
d. Corticosteroids
61. Co-prescription of amoxicillin & clavulanic acid is an example of
a. Antagonism
b. Synergism
c. Cumulative action
d. Displacement
62. Loading dose depend upon
a. Volume of distribution
b. Clearance
c. Great of administration

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d. Half life
63. First generation cephalosporin is
a. Ceftazidime
b. Cefipime
c. Cefotaxime
d. Cefadrox
64. Cross resistant of isoniazid is seen with
a. Rifampicin
b. Ethionamide
c. Cycloserine
d. Ethambutol
65. Shortest acting opioid is
a. Morphine
b. Fentanyl
c. Remifentanyl
d. Sufentanyl
66. Which drug does not cause seizures
a. Tramadol
b. Lamotrignine
c. INH
d. Tacrine
67. Not an antimigraine drug
a. Propranol
b. Zonisomide
c. Flunarizine
d. Divalproex sodium
68. Not a b lactam antibiotic
a. Monobactam
b. Sulfonamide
c. Carbapenem
d. Cephalosporin
69. Which of the antiplatelet drug is prodrug?
a. Ticlodipine
b. Dypyramidole
c. Tirofiban
d. Aspirin
70. Dissociative anaesthesia is cause by
a. Ketamine
b. Propofol
c. Domperidone+ fantanyl
d. Sevoflurane
71. Which of the following is not true about Penicillin-G:
a. Very active against sensitive gram positive cocci
b. Destroy by gastric acid
c. More concentrated in prostatic secretion and intraocular fluid
d. Use for treatment of mening ococcan meningitis
72. Which of the following is true about heparin

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a. It’s a mixture of sulphated polypeptides
b. Plasma half life is 90 minutes
c. It causes idiopathic thrombocytosis
d. It decreases action of antithrombin III
73. Most important factor for calculating dose for NSAIDS in children
a. Age of child
b. Body weight of child
c. Flavour of child
d. Extent of pain

MICROBIOLOGY

74. Spores used for analysis of efficiency of efficacy of autoclaving

a. C. Tetani
b. B septilis barniger
c. Bacillus stereothermophilus
d. B burnillin
75. What is sterilization
a. Destroying all organism except spores Environment
b. Destroying all organism except spores
c. Kills all pathogenic organism
d. Deactivate the spores and only pathogenic organism
76. Organism most resistant to sterilization
a. Prions
b. Spores
c. Fungus
d. Mycobacteria
77. Type I hypersensitivity is caused by
a. IGA
b. IgD
c. IgE
d. IgG
78. Ig predominant in saliva is
a. IgA
b. IgD
c. IgE
d. IgM
79. Hepatitis E virus causes which of the following
a. Chronic liver diseases
b. Cirrhosis of liver
c. Chronic renal failure
d. Acute liver failure

GENERAL SURGERY

80. A patient has haemoglobin of 6gm% which of the following should not be administered
a. Fresh frozen plasma
b. Whole blood
c. Random donor platelets

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d. Packed red cells
81. Standard treatment verrucous carcinoma of lip
a. Surgery & radiotherapy
b. Surgery excursion
c. Laser therapy
d. Interferon
82. A 36year female complains of abdominal pain & constipation since 5 year she had on & off rectal bleed when
she tried to defecate forcefully the most probable diagnosis is
a. Ulcerative colitis
b. Crohn’s diseases
c. Tuberculous intestine
d. Irritable bowel syndrome
83. A 15year old boy is suffering from hodgkin’s diseases which shows involvement of lymph nodes which of the
following treatment will have success rate
a. Lymph node resection
b. Chemotherapy
c. Immunotherapy
d. Surgery+ immunotherapy
84. Throat pack true is
a. Not used with cuffed endotracheal tubes
b. Removed prior to extubation
c. Well tolerated by awake patient
d. Should be used even after surgery
85. All of the following tests can be useful in identifying syncope except
a. Pet scan
b. Table tilt test
c. Horlanders test
d. Electrophysiology

DENTAL MATERIALS

86. Picking is done with

a. 50% HCL
b. 90%HCL
c. 50% Phosphoric acid
d. 50% Hydrofluoric acid
87. Cold cure methyl-methacrylate acrylic resin when immersed in H 2 O absorbs water and expands linearly to
a. 1% w/w & 23% linear
b. 10% w/w % 23% linear
c. 1yr H2O sorption % 2% linear
d. 1yr H2O sorption % non linear
88. Surface active agent like lime and gum Arabic are added to gypsum because
a. They increasesH2O requirement
b. They increasesH2O requirement
c. Would not affect water requirement
d. Increases surface activity
89. Working times of dental plaster in influenced by
a. Addition of warm water

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b. Increase spatulation time
c. Increasing water powder ratio
d. Using a cold bowl
90. Mercury disposal is done by
a. Deep burial
b. Treatment with acid
c. Safe collection & reuse
d. Controlled combustion
91. Main advantage of zinc phosphate over GIC
a. Increases compressive strength
b. Increases modulus of elasticity
c. More biocompatibility
d. Increased tensile strength
92. Which of the following will leave a residue upon burn out when used to make inlay pattern
a. Acrylic
b. Composite
c. Inlay wax
d. Pattern wax
93. Best cement for cementation of orthodontics molar bands which cement causes least enamel decalcification
when used for cementation of orthodontics molars bands
a. Zinc phosphate
b. Silicate
c. Silicophosphate
d. GIC
94. The significance of free eugenol in root canal sealer cements is an increase in
a. Dimensional stability
b. Cytotoxicity
c. Setting time
d. Strength
95. Increased VDO causes
a. Decreased retention
b. Drooping of corners of mouth
c. Creases and wrinkles on face
d. Increases trauma to tissue
96. Chromium is added to dental casting alloy mainly for
a. Abrasion resistance
b. Sag resistance
c. Corrosion resistance
d. Surface lustre
97. Gypsum investment disintegrates at
a. 700oC
b. 200oC
c. 140oC
d. 195oC
98. Cold mold seal is composed of
a. 2% sodium alginate
b. 2% barium alginate

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c. Petroleum oil
d. Isopropyl alcohol
99. Role of flux in soldering is
a. Remove oxidase
b. To preheat
c. To melt the solder
d. Restrict flow solder
100. Cold bending test measuring
a. Malleability
b. Ductility
c. Tensile strength
d. Compressive strength
101. Polymerisation of Self cure resin taken faster in
a. Cold water
b. Hot water
c. Under pressure
d. In vacuum

Dental anatomy

102. Root resorption in primary deciduous central incisor start by

a. 6 months
b. 4 year
c. 5 year
d. 2 year
103. Correct jaw position at birth in a normal child is
a. Both jaws at same level
b. Maxilla prognathic mandible retrognathic
c. Mandibular prognathic
d. Maxilla prognathic
104. Most of the structure of oral cavity are formed by
a. Endodermal layer
b. Mesodermal layer
c. Ectodermal layer
d. Ectoderm and mesoderm
105. According to the hydrodynamic theory of dentin sensitivity the movement of fluid through dentinal
tubules
a. Stimulates the sensory nerve fibers of the underlying pulp
b. Displaces odontoblasts into the pulp tissue
c. Has minimal effect on the odontoblast
d. Result in the death of many odontoblast

ORAL PATHOLOGY AND MEDICINE

106. Neonatal teeth are defined as

a. Teeth as erupt at birth
b. Teeth that erupt within 30 days of birth
c. Teeth that erupt after the 120 days
d. Teeth that erupt within 45 days

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107. A mother comes to office with her son who has a yellow spot on newly erupted central incisor she
gives history of trauma deciduous tooth 3 year back with the subsequent infection and recurrent pus
discharge the possible etiology of the spot is
a. Fluorosis
b. Turner hypoplasia
c. Tetracycline stains
d. Pulpal trauma
108. Vitamin whose role in tooth development is least document is
a. A
b. C
c. E
d. D
109. Streptococci adhere to the oral surfaces and contribute to caries development as they
a. Penicillinase resistant
b. Produce acid during metabolism
c. Produce extracellular polysaccharides
d. Ferment carbohydrate
110. Bacteria are normally most populated in which area of teeth
a. Occlusal
b. Lingual
c. Buccal
d. Proximal
111. A developmental anomaly in which two teeth are joint together only by cementum is
a. Fusion
b. Gemination
c. Concrescence
d. Twinning
112. Classical amelogenesis imperfecta is
a. Ectodermal disturbance
b. Endodermal disturbance
c. Mesodermal disturbance
d. Mesomorphic disturbance
113. Developmental cyst is form by
a. Epithelium entrapment between embryonic processes of bone and union lines
b. Entrapment of tooth germ in mandible
c. Entrapment of papillary cells in the mass of salivary gland
d. Entrapment of skeletal cells in soft tissue
114. Adhesion of plaque to tooth occurs mainly due to
a. Production of dextrans
b. Presence of bacteria
c. Presence of epithelial cells
d. Presence of sucrose
115. A patient with a history tooth extraction a month back reported with swelling in mouth and multiple
draining sinus at angle of mandible examination of the pus revealed yellow sulphur granules
a. Actinomycosis
b. Streptococcal infection
c. Staphylococcal infection

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d. Herpangina
116. Smoker and pan chewers have high incidence of oral cancer biopsy of such a lesion will usually
reveals
a. Squamous cells carcinoma
b. Adenoma
c. Verrucous Ca
d. Oat cells Ca
117. In a patient the crown size, root size and shape, eruption pattern is different on right and left side
the diagnosis should be aimed at which of the following
a. Cherubism
b. Achondroplasia
c. Crouzon’s syndrome
d. Hemifacial atrophy
118. A patient has visible evident retrognathic mandible steep mandibular short chin the diagnosis most
probably
a. True mandibular micrognathia
b. True maxillary prognathism
c. Apparent mandibular micrognathia
d. Maxilla and mandible in straight line
119. Reed Sternberg cells is seen in
a. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
b. T cell lymphoma
c. Marginal zone lymphoma
d. Anaplastic large cell lymphomas
120. Brown tumour is seen in
a. Hyperparathyroidism
b. Pigmented villonodular synovitis
c. Osteomalacia
d. Neurofibromatosis
121. Internal resorption true is
a. Seen as superimposition over normal canal anatomy in radiograph
b. Is associated with systemic diseases
c. Is associated with trauma
d. required deferment of T/T with careful watching
122. Hypodontia is seen in all except
a. Papillon lefevre syndrome
b. Ectodermal dysplasia
c. Cleidocranial dysostosis
d. Osteopetrosis
123. Which of the following is the most aggressive type of cyst
a. Dentigerous cyst
b. Residual cyst
c. Globulomaxillary cyst
d. Naso palatine cyst
124. Which of the following is a malignant salivary gland tumor
a. Mucoeidermoid carcinoma
b. Cystadenoma lymphomatosum

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c. Pleiomorphic adenoma
d. AOT

PROSTHODONTICS

125. If trial of complete denture is to be recorded in India the preferred wax will be
a. Type I modelling wax
b. Type III modelling wax
c. Corrective wax
d. Base plate wax
126. On closing a denture patient produce a click sound while doing functional movement the cause may
be
a.Tightly fitting maxillary denture
b.Newly rebased dentures
c.Reduced interocclusal space
d.Horizontal displacement of mandibular
127. Change in position of anterior teeth causes change in which sounds
a. Ch
b. S
c. F
d. V
128. In a case of tongue tie the major connector of choice is
a. Lingual bar
b. Cingulum bar
c. Linguoplate
d. Sublingual bar
129. Which of the following treatment should be done to reduce gagging reflex in a patient:
a. Prescription drugs
b. Psychiatric counselling
c. Remove all biologic and mechanic factor causing gagging
d. Any or combination of above
130. Check biting in denture is caused by
a. Increases occlusal vertical dimension
b. Steep corpus angle in posterior
c. Decreased pad coverage
d. Reduced horizontal overlap of posterior
131. A patient is wearing a new denture for last 3 months he complains of burning sensation on palatal
mucosa where should be denture be relieved
a. Frenum
b. Post dam area
c. Labial flange
d. Incisive foramen
132. What is the function of guiding plane in a cast partial denture?
a. Multiple paths of insertion and removal
b. Single path of insertion and removal
c. Creation of food traps
d. Retention against dislodgement
133. What is the function of guiding plane in a cast partial denture?

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a. Multiple paths of insertion and removal
b. Single path of insertion and removal
c. Creation of food traps
d. Retention against dislodgement
134. The curve which runs from anterior to posterior in the natural dentition is called
a. Curve of Von spee
b. Curve of monson
c. Curve of Wilson
d. Pleasure curve
135. Post insertion occlusal correction of a complete denture is best done by
a. Static transfer of occlusal records to articulator and balancing
b. Transfer to articulator with new interocclusal records and balancing
c. Using previous articulator mountings for occlusal grinding
d. Use of 3 pin articulator
136. Lingual flange of pawer denture is
a. Concave
b. Convex
c. Straight
d. Convex and towards the base of tongue

CONSERVATIVE DENTISTRY

137. Common component of most root canal sealers is

a. Resin
b. Calcium hydroxide
c. ZOE
d. Precipitated silver
138. Silver alloys used for inlay preparation in primary teeth
a. Eutectic
b. Sterling
c. High copper
d. Peritectic
139. In order to complete a cutting circle of the canal wall the triangular instrument requires
a. 1/3
b. 1/2
c. 1/4
d. Full turn
140. A patient with previous history of trauma to tooth reveals metallic sound on percussion of the
central incisor the possible injury that occurred was
a. Lateral luxation
b. Extrusion
c. Subluxation
d. Concussion
141. Buccal cavity of mandibular canine is to be restored with light cured composite what should not be
done
a. Remove soft dentin
b. Pulp capping
c. Acid etching

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d. Bevelling of cavity margins
142. Most important properties in fissure sealants is
a. Inclusion of colouring agents
b. Low viscosity
c. Increased compressive strength
d. Increased filler content
143. First consideration in a case with root fracture
a. Immobilization and stabilization
b. Immediate root canal therapy
c. Restoration of the tooth
d. Tooth should be extracted
144. In office whitening has what effect on tooth colored restorative materials
a. No effect
b. Decay of tooth and margin failure
c. Mild chemical softening
d. Hybrid composite and GIC significant effect no effect on RM-GIC
145. A tooth which has been acid etched gets contaminated by hand piece oil what should be done
a. Wash with sodium hypochlorite and bone
b. Wash with alcohol dry and bone
c. Wash with distilled water dry and bond
d. Wash with water 10sec re etch and bond
146. Maintenance of pulp vitality in a fracture of crown with pulp exposure in mature will
a. Improves prognosis when done before treatment
b. Improves prognosis in mature teeth
c. Improves prognosis in mature teeth
d. Does not affect prognosis
147. True in case of traumatic tooth fracture involving dentin
a. Pin retained composite is treatment of choice
b. Emergency treatment should be directed towards saving pulp vitality
c. Tooth can be restored immediately or after 9 weeks
d. Immediate splinting of teeth should be done
148. Why is GP selected as master cone:
a. It suits canal anatomy just like standardized instrument size
b. Useful in narrow tortuous and curved canal
c. It is rigid and has strength
d. It is flexible
149. Silver cones are indicated in
a. Narrow canal wide till 20 or 25
b. Wide straight canal
c. Calcified canal
d. Young patient with incomplete apex
150. In vertical condensation technique with thermoplasticized GP which of the following is done
a. GP is softened by heat and condensed to fill the lateral canals in all 3 dimensions
b. Solvent softening and warm condensation
c. Choose master cone and cut with warm instrument
d. Softening by heat and chemicals

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151. Which of the following may be used to fill the pathologic void of a non-perforating internal
resorption resorption
a. Silver amalgam
b. Zinc oxide eugenol
c. Gutta percha
d. All of the above
152. To avoid pupal irritation below any restoration material the minimum thickness of the dentin should
be
a. 1.3mm
b. 1.5mm
c. 2mm
d. 2.5mm
153. The popular use of hedstrom film is
a. To flare the canal from the apical region to the orifice
b. To establish a circular canal in apical third
c. To prepare cutting of the canal wall
d. Aspiration of solution
154. The most important aspect of irrigation is
a. Volume of irrigant used
b. Chelating action of solution
c. Lumen of needle
d. Aspiration of solution
155. Although each carious lesion is individual and influenced by multiple factors the carious process is
generally
a. Continuous
b. Rapid
c. Intermitted
d. Slow
156. True about inflammation confined to pulp
a. Stagnation of pulp vasculature
b. Increased vascularity
c. Vasoconstriction
d. Increased vascular permeability
157. Ideal property of root canal Sealer is
a. Fill the space between solid core materials and pulp canal
b. Seals and fills lateral canal
c. Extrudes beyond the apical foramen
d. Circular in morphology
158. What should be the first treatment for an acutely avulsed tooth
a. Gently replace wide finger using light pressure take radiograph and splint
b. Sterilize the root and reimplant
c. Pulp protection
d. Immediate endodontic treatment and reimplant

ORTHODONTICS ‘

159. Maximum bends that can gives in which wire before fracture
a. B-Titanium

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b. Co-Cr-Ni
c. Stainless steel
d. NiTi
160. Maximum friction is seen in which orthodontics wire
a. Stainless steel
b. Aj Wilcock
c. NiTi
d. B titanium
161. Progressive malocclusion is
a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. A+C
162. Tooth most likely to be displacement in case of mandibular arch crowding is
a. 1st molar
b. 2nd molar
c. 1st premolar
d. 2nd premolar
163. In a patient with cleft lip and palatal speech problems occurs because of
a. Improper seal between palatal and nasal cavity
b. Improper seal between tongue and epiglottis
c. Poor lip muscle function
d. Tongue not able to touch teeth properly
164. Which of the following orthodontics wire cannot be soldered
a. NiTi
b. B-Titanium
c. Stainless steel
d. Cobalt-chromium
165. Fishman’s index is used for
a. Studying skeletal maturity
b. Estimation of denture age
c. Estimation of body surface area
d. Studying chronologic age
166. Vertical height of face is measured by
a. Boyle gauge
b. Will’s gauge
c. Boobs gauge
d. All of the above
167. Normal mandibular plane angle is
a. 2-4o
b. 17-30 o
c. 45-90 o
d. 80-90 o
168. In a very child which of the following Is not used to make custom tray for impression
a. Vacuum formed thermoplastic
b. Vacuum formed vinyl
c. Cold cure acrylic

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d. Light cure acrylic
169. Facial profile of a child with a habit of thumb sucking
a. Convex and long face
b. Convex and short face
c. Convex and short face
d. Concave and long face
170. Catalans appliance is used for
a. Correction of anterior crossable
b. Correction of deep bite
c. Correction of posterior deep bite
d. Open bite correction

ORAL SURGERY

171. Tinnel sign is

a. Seen in condylar fracture
b. Start of nerve regeneration
c. Absence of lip sensation
d. Absence to close after administration of local anaesthetic
172. Ideal site of graft in a 10year old child who needs repairs of cleft lip and palate is
a. Anterior lliac
b. Post lliac
c. Rib graft
d. Calvarial graft
173. Standard treatment for unilocular ameloblastoma is
a. Ec bloc resection
b. Enucleation
c. Resection with I cm margin
d. Enucleation with cryotherapy
174. A patient with a prosthetic heart valve requires extraction of a tooth prior to extraction what should
be done
a. Prior antibiotic prophylaxis should be recommended
b. The patient does not require antibiotic prophylaxis
c. Patient should be prescribed analgesics
d. Only anti-inflammatory drugs should be prescribed

GENERAL AND LOCAL ANESTHESIA

175. Local anaesthesia with lowest placental transfer rate

a. Bupivacaine
b. Lidocaine
c. Chlorprocaine
d. Mepivacaine
176. A 26years old man with stickle cell trait needs surgery in left arm choice of anaesthesia will be all
except
a. Intravenous regional
b. Branchial plexus block via infraclavicular approach
c. Branchial plexus block via infraclavicular approach
d. Branchial plexus block via axillary route

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177. Fibreoptic intubation is indicated in all except
a. Previous difficult intubation
b. Previous easy intubation
c. Anticipated complication
d. Congenital anomaly
178. If by mistake a needle with lidocaine and adrenaline enters a vessel/artery what will be expected
a. Hypotension and tachycardia
b. Hypertension and tachycardia
c. Hypertension and bradycardia
d. Hypotension and bradycardia
179. A ligament injection of 2% lidocaine with 1:100:000 epinephrine will cause the pulp circulation to
a. Crease for about 30 minutes
b. Remain the same
c. Increases markedly
d. Decrease slightly
180. During day care anaesthesia which of the following muscle relaxant should be used in a patient
induced using fentanyl and is under preoperative b blockers
a. Pancuronium
b. Rocuronium
c. Vecuronium
d. Atracurium
181. Inhalation agent not considered safe in dental anaesthesia
a. Halothane
b. Sevoflurane
c. Isoflurane
d. Desflurane
182. A patient is discharge after a day care surgery under general anaesthesia what advise should be
given during discharge
a. Can drive back home
b. Can drive bank home
c. No driving or handling of machinery equipments on that day
d. Can operate machinery immediately

GENERAL AND ORAL RADIOLOGY

183. Standard film size for bitewing radiograph

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
184. Difference between conventional and digital radiograph is
a. Sensor difference mode of capturing of the radiographic signals
b. X-ray are not used
c. Hard copy is not available in digital x-ray
d. No radiation hazard to patient
185. Speeds of X-rays film recommended in dentistry are
a. D&E
b. C&E

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c. C&D
d. B&D

Community medicine and dentistry

186. Concentration of sodium fluoride in APF gel is

a. 1.23%
b. 2%
c. 5%
d. 10%
187. Absorped fluoride is eliminated eliminated mainly by
a. Kidney
b. Lung
c. Liver
d. Saliva
188. In statistic sample represents
a. Group of samples
b. Subset of sample
c. Represent each member
d. Arithmetic unit used like Kg, gm
189. Most frequency occurring value is
a. Mean
b. Median
c. Mode
d. Standard error
190. In a population in which the standard deviation is expected to be low keeping the sample small will
a. Give adequate precision
b. Increases standard error
c. Not be representative of population
d. Standard deviation more that expected
191. Medical ethics in genetic counselling involved all except
a. Beneficence
b. Confidentiality
c. Informed consent
d. Directive guidance
192. When analysing a small sample with two groups of variable with values independent of each other
which test should be used
a. Fischer’s test
b. Fischer’s Z test
c. Paired T test
d. Unpaired T test
193. A child administration dose of vitamin A routinely is an example of
a. Health promotion
b. Specific protection
c. Primodial prevention
d. Disability limitation
194. About crude birth rate all are true except
a. It is a measure of fertility

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b. Is actually a ratio rather than rate
c. Not influenced by age structure or population
d. Numerator does not include still births
195. Many congenital abnormalities occur due to interaction between genetic factor and environment
influences this type of association is known as multifactorial inheritance is known as multifactorial
inheritance is known as multifactorial inheritance all are true regarding multifactorial inheritance except
a. Risk is high in close relatives
b. Incidence of abnormally is high in relatives of severely affected patients
c. Female affects more than males in some condition
d. Consanguinity is commonly seen
196. About simple random sampling true to
a. Each member has equal chances of being selected
b. Adjacent member must not be chosen
c. Likely error cannot be estimated
d. Depends on subject densities
197. Which of the following is true
a. Both incidence and prevalence are rates
b. Incidence is rate and prevalence is not
c. Prevalence is rate and incidence is not rate
d. Both incidence and prevalence are not rate
198. Yearly increases in carious lesion in mouth is called
a. Caries incidence
b. Caries prevalence
c. Cumulative caries experience
d. Caries increment
199. Incidence is obtained through
a. Cross sectional studies
b. Case control studies
c. Prospective studies
d. Retrospective studies
200. There is positive correlation between two variable exact change in one will causes how much change
in one cause how much change in which can be determined by
a. Regression equation
b. Kappa statistics
c. Chi square test
d. Correlation
201. The type of study when subjects and investigator both are unaware of experimental group is called
a. Single blind
b. Double blind
c. Triple blind
d. Randomized trial

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 PYQs : AIPG – 2013

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 PYQs : AIPG – 2013

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Dr Amit Lall – 9350 256 286 www.bds2mds.com Dr Jasmine Lall – 99107 10669
 PYQs : AIPG – 2013

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Dr Amit Lall – 9350 256 286 www.bds2mds.com Dr Jasmine Lall – 99107 10669
 PYQs : AIPG – 2013

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Dr Amit Lall – 9350 256 286 www.bds2mds.com Dr Jasmine Lall – 99107 10669
 PYQs : AIPG – 2013

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Dr Amit Lall – 9350 256 286 www.bds2mds.com Dr Jasmine Lall – 99107 10669
 PYQs : AIPG – 2013

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