Dropper NEET

ROI Milestone Test-06 Phase-2

DURATION: 200 Minutes DATE: 29/09/2024 M.MARKS: 720

Topics Covered

Physics: Rotational Motion, Gravitation, Mechanical Properties of Solids and Mechanical Properties of Fluids
Chemistry: Thermodynamics and Thermochemistry, Equilibrium
Botany: Molecular Basis of Inheritance and The Living World
Zoology: Body Fluids and Circulation, Excretory Products and Their Elimination, Locomotion and Movement

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple choice questions (four options with
a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 50 questions in each subject are
divided into two sections (A and B) as per details given below:
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos. – 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and
151 to 185). All Questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos. – 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to 150 and
186 to 200). In section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section-B before they start attempting the question
paper. In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate
shall be evaluated.
3. There is only one correct response for each question.
4. Each correct answer will give 4 Mark while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong answer. The maximum marks are 720.
5. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic
device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
 [MS-6 | 29-Sep-2024 | ROI | Dropper | Ph-2]
Rotational Motion, Gravitation, Mechanical Properties of Solids and Mechanical Properties of Fluids

(PHYSICS)
SECTION-A 5. If S is stress and Y is Young’s modulus of material
of a wire, the energy stored in the wire per unit
1. The pressure of confined air is p. If the atmospheric
volume is:
pressure is P, then:
S 2Y
(1) (2)
2Y S2
S2
(3) (4) 2S2Y
2Y

6. If the terminal speed of a sphere of gold (density =

19.5 g/cm3) is 0.2 m/s in a viscous liquid (density
(1) P is equal to p = 1.5 g/cm3), find the terminal speed of a sphere of
(2) P is less than p silver (density = 10.5 g/cm3) of the same size in the
(3) P is greater than p same liquid.
(4) P may be less or greater than p depending on (1) 0.4 m/s (2) 0.133 m/s
the mass of the confined air (3) 0.1 m/s (4) 0.2 m/s

2. A ball falling in a lake of depth 200 m shows 0.1% 7. A wheel of radius R rolls without slipping on the
decrease in its volume at the bottom. What is the ground with a uniform velocity v. The velocity of
bulk modulus of the material of the ball: (Density topmost point relative to centre of the wheel is:
of lake water = 1000 kg/m3, g = 9.8 m/s2) (1) v (2) 2v
(1) 19.6 × 108 N/m2
v
(2) 19.6 × 10–10 N/m2 (3) (4) zero
2
(3) 19.6 × 1010 N/m2
(4) 19.6 × 10–8 N/m2
8. A sphere of mass 40 g in air has a cavity of volume
3. Two cylinders, one hollow and one solid, with the 35 cm3. It just floats in water. The specific gravity
same radius, start rolling down an inclined plane of material of the sphere is:
without slipping. Which one will reach the bottom (1) 2 (2) 4
of the incline first? (3) 6 (4) 8
(1) The solid cylinder
(2) The hollow cylinder 9. Two soap bubbles are connected by a tube as
(3) Both will reach simultaneously shown in figure. Then which of the following
(4) The heavier cylinder, regardless of being solid statement is true?
or hollow

4. When at rest, a liquid stands at the same level in

both limbs of given U-tube. Height difference
occurs when the system is given an acceleration
g
a = towards the right as shown in figure. Value
3 (1) Volume of A will increase
of h is equal to: (2) Volume of A will remain constant
(3) Volume of B will increase
(4) Volume of B will decrease

10. In case of steady flow of liquid of viscosity () in

a capillary tube of length (L) and radius (r) under a
pressure difference (P) across it, the volume of
liquid flowing per second is given by:
Pr 4 8Pr 4
5L L (1) (2)
(1) (2) 8L  L
3 6
L 2L 8Pr 3 Pr 3
(3) (4) (3) (4)
3 3 L2 8L2
11. Two parallel wires each of length 10 cm are 0.5 cm 16. Given below are two statements:
apart. A film of water is formed between them. If Statement I: The viscosity of a gas increases as the
surface tension of water is 0.072 N/m, then the temperature rises.
work done in increasing the distance between the Statement II: The viscosity of a liquid decreases
wires by 1 mm is: as the temperature rises.
(1) 1.44 × 10–5 J (2) 1.72 × 10–5 J In the light of the above statements, choose the
–4
(3) 1.44 × 10 J (4) 1.72 × 10–4 J most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
12. The gravitational potential difference between the (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
surface of a planet and 10 m above is 5 J/kg. If the (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
gravitational field is supposed to be uniform, the incorrect.
work done in moving a 2 kg mass from the surface (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
of the planet to a height of 8 m is: correct.
(1) 2 J (2) 4 J (4) Statement I and Statement II both are
(3) 6 J (4) 8 J incorrect.

17. A disc and a hollow sphere of the same mass have

13. Two spheres of masses m and M are situated in air
the same moments of inertia about their respective
and the gravitational force between them is F. The
diameters, the ratio of their radii is:
space around the masses is now filled with a liquid
(1) (2)3/2 : (3)1/2 (2) (3)1/2 : (2)1/2
of specific gravity 3. The gravitational force will
(3) 3 : 2 (4) 2 : 3
now be.
(1) 3 F (2) F
18. A 10 cm edge-length aluminium cube has one face
F F rigidly fixed to a vertical wall. A 100 kg mass is
(3) (4)
3 9 attached to the centre of the opposite face, causing it
to deform. Given the shear modulus of aluminium is
14. The stress versus strain graphs for two materials A 25 GPa. The resulting vertical deflection of the face
and B are shown below. to which the mass is attached is: (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 1 × 10–6 m (2) 3 × 10–6 m
–7
(3) 2 × 10 m (4) 4 × 10–7 m

19. If the radius of the earth shrinks by 1.5% (mass

remaining same), then the value of acceleration due
to gravity at the surface of earth changes by:
(1) 1% (2) 2%
A. Young’s modulus of material A is greater than (3) 3% (4) 4%
material B.
20. If the density of the material increases, the value of
B. Material A is more ductile compare to material
Young's modulus:
B.
(1) increases
C. Material B is more brittle compare to material
(2) decreases
A.
(3) first increases, then decreases
D. Material B is more stronger compare to (4) first decreases, then increases
material A.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the 21. The radii of circular orbits of two satellites A and B
options given below: of the earth are 9R and R, respectively. If the speed
(1) A, C and D only (2) A, B and C only of satellite A is 3V, then the speed of satellite B will
(3) A and B only (4) B, C and D only be;
(1) 3V (2) 6 V
15. A wire of length L and cross-sectional area A is (3) 12 V (4) 9 V
made of a material of Young’s modulus Y. The
work done in stretching the wire by an amount x is 22. When a body is taken from the equator to the poles
given by: of earth, its weight?
YAx 2 YAx 2 (1) Remains constant
(1) (2) (2) Always increases
L 2L (3) Always decreases
YAL2 YAL2 (4) Increases at North-pole and decreases at
(3) (4)
x 2x South-pole.
23. A rubber rope of length 8 m is hung from the ceiling 29. Statement I: Relation between gravitational field
of a room. What is the increase in length of the rope dV
and gravitational potential V is E = − (Symbol
due to its own weight? (Given : Young's modulus of dr
elasticity of rubber = 5 × 106 N m–2, density of have their usual meaning.)
rubber = 1.5 ×103 kg/m3 and g = 10 m/s2). Statement II: If gravitational field E = 0 in a
(1) 96 mm (2) 48 mm region of space, then gravitational potential V =
(3) 64 mm (4) 192 mm constant in that region.
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
24. A satellite revolves around the earth in an elliptical (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
orbit. Its speed: incorrect.
(1) is the same at all points in the orbit. (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(2) is greatest when it is closest to the earth. correct.
(3) is greatest when it is farthest from the earth. (4) Statement I and Statement II both are
(4) goes on increasing or decreasing continuously incorrect.
depending upon the mass of the satellite
30. If rotational kinetic energy of a purely rolling body
25. A uniform cube is subjected to volume compression. is 40% of its translational kinetic energy, then the
If each side is decreased by 1%, then bulk strain is: body is:
(1) 0.01 (2) 0.06 (1) Ring
(3) 0.02 (4) 0.03 (2) Solid sphere
(3) Hollow sphere
26. Given below are two statement: one is labelled as (4) Solid cylinder
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: Steel is more elastic than rubber. 31. The moment of inertia of a rod of mass M and
length L about an axis passing through a distance
Reason R: Deformation in steel is less than rubber
of L/3 from the centre and perpendicular to its
for equal deforming force.
length will be:
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below: ML2 5ML2
(1) (2)
(1) A is true but R is false. 3 24
(2) A is false but R is true. 7ML2 ML2
(3) (4)
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 36 12
explanation of A.
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct 32. A thin circular disc of mass M and radius r is
explanation of A. rotating about an axis perpendicular to its plane
with a constant angular velocity ω. Two objects
27. A rigid body is rotating with angular acceleration each of mass m are attached gently to the opposite
20 rad/sec2. If it started from rest, then find the ends of a diameter of the disc. The disc will now
angular displacement of the body in 10 seconds? rotate with an angular velocity.
(1) 500 rad  ( M + 4m ) M
(1) (2)
(2) 1000 rad M M + 4m
(3) 225 rad  ( M − 4M ) M
(3) (4)
(4) 1500 rad M + 2m M + 2m

28. A body of mass 10 kg is attached to a 30 cm long 33. Four equal masses (m each) placed at the corners
wire whose breaking stress is 4.8 × 107 N/m2. The of a square of side ‘a’. The gravitational potential
area of cross section of the wire is 10–6 m2. What is at the centre of a square is;
the maximum angular velocity in rad/s with which Gm
(1) zero (2) 4 2
it can be rotated in a horizontal circle? a
(1) 2 (2) 5 Gm Gm
(3) −4 2 (4) −4 2
(3) 4 (4) 6 a 2a
34. For a satellite moving in an orbit around the earth, 38. Water is flowing from a pipe as shown in the figure.
the ratio of magnitude of potential energy to kinetic Let A be the cross-sectional area of the liquid flow
at the time when velocity is 5 m/s. The cross-
energy is.
sectional area of the liquid flow when water has
1 1 descended by 10 m is; [Take g = 10 m/s2]
(1) (2)
2 2
2
(3) (4) 2
1
A
35. There are four-point masses each of mass m on the (1) 3A (2)
3
corners of a square of side length l. What is the A
(3) (4) 2A
moment of inertia of the system about one of its 2
diagonals? 39. The diagram shows venturimeter through which
(1) 2ml2 (2) ml2 water is flowing. The speed of water at X is 4 cm/s.
(3) 4ml2 (4) 6ml2 Find the speed of water at Y (Taking g = 1000 cm/s2).

SECTION-B

36. A particle of mass m is projected with a velocity v

making an angle of 60° with the horizontal. The
magnitude of the angular momentum of the
projectile about the point of projection when the (1) 32 cm/s (2) 15 cm/s
particle is at its maximum height is: (3) 11 cm/s (4) 8 cm/s
(1) Zero 40. Figure shows a cylindrical vessel of height 90 cm
3 filled upto the top. There are four holes in the vessel
3mv
(2) as shown. The liquid falling at maximum
16 g
horizontal distance from the base of vessel would
3mv3 come from:
(3)
8g

2mv3
(4)
9g

37. A vertical U-tube has two liquids 1 and 2. The

height of liquid columns in the limbs are h and 3h, (1) hole 1 (2) hole 2
as shown in the figure. If the density of the liquid 1 (3) hole 3 (4) hole 4
is 2. The density of liquid 2 is: 41. A uniform wooden plank of cross-sectional area A
and length L is placed on a frictionless horizontal
plane as shown in the figure. A horizontal force F
starts acting on the plank. If the Young’s modulus
of the material of the plank is Y, what is the change
in length of the plank?

(1) 2 FL
(1)
2 AY
(2) 
3 FL
(2)
 2 AY
(3) 2 FL
2 (3)
 3 AY
(4) (4) The length does not change
4
42. A uniform bar of length L is supported as shown 46. If a graph is plotted between T2 and r3 for a planet
using two elastic strings of different material and then its slope will be: (T is the time period of
identical dimensions. satellite revolving around a planet of mass M in a
orbit of radius r)
42 GM
(1) (2)
GM 42
(3) 4GM (4) zero

If the bar is kept horizontal then the ratio of 47. A disc with a radius of 1 m and a moment of inertia
Young’s modulus of wires A and B is: of 4 kg-m² is initially at rest. If a string wrapped
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 2 : 1 around its circumference is pulled with a constant
(3) 3 : 2 (4) 1 : 2 force of 20 N, what will be the disc's angular
velocity after 4 seconds?
43. A bar of cross-section A is subjected to equal and (1) 10 rad/sec
opposite tensile forces F at its ends. Consider a (2) 20 rad/sec
plane through the bar making an angle  with a (3) 15 rad/sec
plane at right angles to the bar length. The shearing (4) 25 rad/sec
stress at this plane, in terms of F, A and  is:
48. Infinite particles each of mass ‘M’ are placed at
positions x = 1 m, x = 2 m, x = 4 m … upto ∞. Find
the gravitational field intensity at the origin.

F sin 2
(1)
2A
F cos 2
(2)
A
F cos 2 4 3
(3) (1) GMiˆ (2) GMiˆ
2A 3 4
F sin 2 4 3
(4)
A
(3) − GMiˆ (4) − GMiˆ
3 4

44. A rubber cord has a cross-sectional area 1 mm2 and 49. If velocity given to an object from the surface of
total unstretched length 10 cm. It is stretched to 12 cm the earth is n times the escape velocity ve then what
and then released to project a mass of 5g. Young’s will be its residual velocity v at infinity?

( )
modulus for rubber is 5 × 108 N/m2. The velocity
of projection of mass is: (1) v = nve (2) v = n2 − 1 ve

( )
(1) 10 m/s (2) 20 m/s
(3) v = n2 + 1 ve (4) v = (n2 − 1)ve
(3) 15 m/s (4) 25 m/s

45. A thin uniform wire of mass m and length L is bent 50. Shown in the figure is a rigid and uniform one-
into a circular shape. The moment of inertia of the metre-long rod AB, held in the horizontal position
wire when rotated about an axis that is tangent to by two strings tied to its ends and attached to the
the circle and perpendicular to the circular plane is: ceiling. The rod is of mass m and has another
2mL2 weight of mass 2m hung at a distance of 75 cm from
(1)
2 A. The tension in the string at A is:
mL2
(2)
2
mL2
(3)
22
mL2 (1) 2 mg (2) 0.5 mg
(4) 2
3 (3) 0.75 mg (4) 1 mg
 [MS-6 | 29-Sep-2024 | ROI | Dropper | Ph-2]
Thermodynamics and Thermochemistry, Equilibrium

(CHEMISTRY)
SECTION-A 56. 15 moles of an ideal gas expands spontaneously into
vacuum. The work done by the gas is;
51. For the given exothermic reaction,
(1) Zero (2) 10 J
N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g) + 2kcal, (3) 20 J (4) 15 J
the favourable conditions are;
(1) low temperature, low pressure and catalyst 57. In a vessel containing SO3, SO2 and O2 at
equilibrium, some helium gas is introduced so that
(2) low temperature, high pressure and catalyst
the total pressure increases while temperature and
(3) high temperature, low pressure and catalyst
volume remains constant. According to Le-
(4) high temperature, high pressure and catalyst
Chatelier principle, the dissociation of SO3 ;
52. For the reaction, (1) increases
(2) decreases
A(g) → 2C(g) + D(g), the correct relation between
(3) remain unaltered
H and U is;
(4) change is unpredictable
(1) H = U
(2) H > U 58. Which of the following is incorrect regarding
(3) H < U Gibb’s energy?
(4) H ≤ U (1) It is a state function.
(2) It is an extensive property.
(3) Its value is negative for a spontaneous process.
53. A solution of NaOH contains 0.04 g of NaOH per
(4) It is an intensive property.
litre. Its pOH is:
(1) 10
59. The pKa of formic acid is 3.75. The pH of a solution
(2) 9 containing 0.01 M formic acid and 0.01 M sodium
(3) 3 formate is;
(4) 12 (1) 3.80 (2) 5.00
(3) 3.75 (4) 4.25
54. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) 3
60. Given that: S (s) + O2 (g) → SO3 (g) + 2z kcal;
Assertion (A): The reactants in an open beaker is 2
an example of an open system. 1
SO2 (g) + O2 (g) → SO3 (g) + y kcal
Reason (R): In an open system, there is exchange 2
of energy and matter between system and What would be the enthalpy of formation (in kcal)
surroundings. of SO2(g)?
In the light of the above statements, choose the (1) y –2z (2) 2z + y
(3) 2zy (4) z + y
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A is false but R is true.
61. Given below are two statements:
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Statement I: If Qc < Kc, the reaction will proceed in
explanation of A. the direction of the products (forward reaction).
(3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct Statement II: If Qc > Kc, the reaction will proceed
explanation of A. in the direction of reactants (reverse reaction).
(4) A is true but R is false. In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
55. NH3 is a; (1) Statement I and statement II both are correct.
(1) Bronsted base (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(2) Lewis acid incorrect.
(3) Arrhenius base (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct.
(4) Arrhenius acid
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
62. An ideal gas is expanded isothermally from 10 L to 20 67. Given below are two statements:
L at constant pressure of 2.0 atm. What is the change Statement I: For the reaction,
in internal energy of system? N2 (g) + O2 (g)  2NO (g), increase in pressure at
(1) –30 L-atm
equilibrium has no effect on the reaction.
(2) +30 L-atm
Statement II: The reaction, N2(g) + O2(g)  2NO(g),
(3) –60 L-atm
(4) 0 L-atm is not accompanied by any change in number of
moles of gaseous species.
63. Match List I (hypothetical reactions) with List II In the light of the above statements, choose the
Kp correct answer from the options given below:
(ratio for the given reactions) and select the (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
Kc
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
correct answer using the code given below in the
incorrect.
lists:
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
List I List II correct.
A. A2(g) + 3B2(g)  I. (RT)–2 (4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
2AB3(g)
B. II. (RT)0 68. The enthalpy of reaction for:
A2(g) + B2(g) 
1
2AB(g) 2C(graphite) + 3H2(g) + O2(g) → C2H5OH(l) is
2
C. A (g) + 1.5B2(g)  III. 1
–A kJ. What is the enthalpy of formation of
( RT ) 2
AB3(g) C2H5OH (l)?
D. AB2(g)  AB(g) + IV. 3 (1) –A kJ mol−1
( RT )− 2 (2) –2A mol−1
0.5B2(g) (3) +A kJ mol−1
Choose the correct answer from the options given (4) −4A kJ mol−1
below:
(1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV 69. The equilibrium constant (Kp) for the reaction
(2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I PCl5(g)  PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) is 16. If the volume of
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III the container is reduced to one-half of its original
volume, the value of Kp for the reaction at the same
64. Among the following, standard enthalpy of temperature will be;
formation is zero for; (1) 32 (2) 64
(3) 16 (4) 4
(1) C (diamond)
(2) Br2(l)
70. A system does 200 J of work and at the same time
(3) H2(l)
absorbs 100 J of heat. The magnitude of the change
(4) CO2 (g)
in internal energy is;
(1) 370 J (2) 210 J
65. If the value of an equilibrium constant for a
(3) 100 J (4) 60 J
particular reaction is 1.6 × 1012, then at equilibrium
the system will contain;
71. At 90°C pure water has [H3O+] = 10–6 M. What is
(1) mostly reactants
the value of Kw at this temperature?
(2) mostly products
(1) 10–6
(3) similar amounts of reactants and products
(2) 10–12
(4) all reactants
(3) 10–13
(4) 10–14
66. The reaction, 2A(s) + 3B(g) → A2B3(s) is
exothermic in nature. The reaction would be;
Cp
(1) Spontaneous at all temperatures 72. The value of  = for a monoatomic gas is;
(2) Spontaneous at low temperature Cv
(3) Spontaneous at high temperature (1) 1.66 (2) 1.4
(4) Non spontaneous at all temperatures (3) 1.33 (4) 0.33
73. For the reversible reaction: 77. A buffer solution can be prepared from a mixture of:
N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g) at 500°C, the value of A. Sodium acetate and acetic acid in water
B. Sodium chloride and HCl in water
Kp is 1.44 × 10–5 when partial pressure is measured
C. Ammonia and NH4Cl in water
in atmospheres. The corresponding value of Kc,
The correct options is/are;
with concentration in mole litre–1, is;
(1) A and B
1.44  10−5 (2) A and C
(1)
( 0.082  500 )−2 (3) A, B and C
(4) Only A
1.44  10−5
(2)
(8.314  500 )2 78. Match List I with List II
−5
1.44  10 List I List II
(3)
( 0.082  773)2 (Reactions at standard (Enthalpy change)
temperature and
1.44  10−5 pressure)
(4)
( 0.082  773)−2 A. H2(g) → 2H(g) I. Standard
enthalpy of
74. The bond enthalpy of H–H bond, H–C bond and C– combustion
C bond are p, q and r kJ mol–1 respectively. What is B. 13
C4 H10 (g) + O2 (g) → II. Enthalpy of
2 atomization
the enthalpy change (in kJ mol–1) for the following 4CO2 (g) + 5H 2O(l )
reaction?
C. Na+Cl–(s) → Na+(g) III. Lattice
+ Cl–(g) enthalpy
D. H2O(l) → H2O(g) IV. Standard
enthalpy of
(1) 4p – 8q – 2r (2) 4p – q – r vaporization
(3) 4p + 8q – 2r (4) p – 8q – 2r Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
75. Given below are two statements: (1) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
Statement I: Le Chatelier’s principle states that a (2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
change in any of the factors that determine the (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
equilibrium conditions of a system will cause the (4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
system to change in such a manner so as to reduce
the effect of the change 79. Given that the equilibrium constant for the reaction,
Statement II: The temperature dependence of the 2SO2(g) + O2(g)  2SO3(g), has a value of 278 at
equilibrium constant depends on whether the
a particular temperature. What is the value of the
reaction is exothermic or endothermic.
equilibrium constant for the following reaction at
In the light of the above statements, choose the
the same temperature?
correct answer from the options given below:
1
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. SO3(g)  SO2(g) + O2(g)
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is 2
–2
incorrect. (1) 1.8 × 10
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (2) 3.6 × 10–2
correct. (3) 6.0 × 10–2
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect. (4) 1.3 × 10–2

76. H and S for a reaction are 4500 J mol–1 and 4.5 J 80. Consider the reaction,
K–1 mol–1 respectively. The reaction will be 2X(s) + Y(g) → 2Z(g) + 700 kJ
spontaneous; The signs of ΔH, ΔS and ΔG respectively are;
(1) Above 1000 K (1) H = –ve, S = –ve, G = –ve
(2) At 900 K (2) H = –ve, S = +ve, G = +ve
(3) Below 1000 K (3) H = –ve, S = –ve, G = +ve
(4) Below 900 K (4) H = –ve, S = +ve, G = –ve
81. The initial pressure of A is 100 torr. The total SECTION-B
pressure of the system becomes 150 torr when the
86. In which of the following reactions entropy increases?
equilibrium, A(g)  B(g) + C(g) is attained at
A. CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)
constant temperature. The value of Kp of this B. 4Fe(s) + 3O2(g) → 2Fe2O3(s)
reaction is; 1
(1) 15 C. H2(g) + O2(g) → H2O(l)
2
(2) 10
The correct options is/are;
(3) 25
(1) Only A
(4) 50
(2) Only B
82. 1.2 moles of an ideal gas expands isothermally and (3) A and B
reversibly at 25°C from a volume of 20 L to 40 L. (4) A,B and C
What is the change in entropy of the gas?
(1) 1.2 R 87. The dissociation constant of monobasic acids A, B
(2) 1.2R ln2 and C are 10–4, 10–6 and 10–10 respectively. The
(3) 2.303 R ln2 concentration of each monobasic acid is 0.1 M.
(4) −R ln2 Which of the following has been arranged in
increasing order of pH?
83. What causes the change in the value of equilibrium (1) C < B < A
constant of any equilibria? (2) A < B < C
(1) Adding of inert gas at constant pressure (3) B < C < A
(2) Increasing the pressure
(4) B < A < C
(3) Adding of inert gas at constant volume
(4) Decreasing the temperature
88. The path function among the following is;
(1) Work
84. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: First law of thermodynamics is able to (2) Gibbs energy
predict the spontaneity of a chemical reaction. (3) Enthalpy
Statement II: For chemical reactions, heat (4) Internal energy
absorbed at constant volume, is measured in a bomb
calorimeter. 89. Given below are two statements:
In the light of the above statements, choose the Statement I: Equilibrium constant for the reverse
correct answer from the options given below: reaction is the inverse of the equilibrium constant
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. for the reaction in the forward direction.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is Statement II: The value of equilibrium constant is
incorrect. independent of initial concentrations of the reactants
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is and products.
correct. In the light of the above statements, choose the
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect. correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I and statement II both are correct.
85. Steam reacts with iron at high temperature to give
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
hydrogen gas and Fe3O4(s). The correct expression
incorrect.
for the equilibrium constant is;
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(1) PH2 2
correct.
(PH2 )4 (4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
(2)
(PH2O )4
90. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
4
(PH2 ) [Fe3O4 ] (1) System and the surroundings together
(3)
(PH2O )4 [Fe] constitute the universe.
(2) The energy of an isolated system is constant.
(4)
 Fe3O4  (3) ∆H is negative for endothermic reactions.
 Fe (4) Temperature is an intensive property.
91. In the reaction A + 2B,  2C. if 2 moles of A, 3 96. If the enthalpy of formation of ammonia is –A kJ
mol–1, the enthalpy change for the reaction,
moles of B and 2 moles of C are placed in a 2 L flask
and the equilibrium concentration of C is 0.5 mol/L. 2NH3(g) → N2(g) + 3H2(g) is;
The equilibrium constant (Kc) for the reaction is; (1) 2A kJ mol–1
(1) 0.073 (2) 4A kJ mol–1
(2) 0.147 (3) 8A kJ mol–1
(3) 0.05 1
(4) A kJ mol–1
(4) 0.026 2

92. The internal energy change when a system goes 97. In the beginning of the reaction, A  B, 4 moles of
from state P to Q is 20 kJ/mol. If the system goes
from P to Q and returns to state P by a reversible A are taken, out of which 0.8 moles gets dissociated.
path, what would be the net change in internal What is the degree of dissociation of A?
energy? (1) 1
(1) ∆U < 20 kJ/mol (2) 0.125
(2) ∆U = 0 (3) 0.2
(3) ∆U = 20 kJ/mol (4) 3
(4) ∆U > 20 kJ/mol
98. Given below are two statements:
93. The reaction, Statement I: A process or change is said to be
2A(g) + B(g)  3C(g) + D(g) reversible, if a change is brought out in such a way
Is begun with the concentrations of A and B both at that the process could be reversed by an
an initial value of 1.00 M. When equilibrium is infinitesimal change.
reached, the concentration of D is measured and Statement II: A reversible process proceeds
found to be 0.25 M. The value for the equilibrium infinitely slowly by a series of equilibrium states
constant for this reaction is given by the expression; such that system and the surroundings are always in
(l) [(0.75)3 (0.25)]  [(0.50)2 (0.75)] near equilibrium with each other.
(2) [(0.75)3 (0.25)]  [(0.50)2 (0.25)] In the light of the above statements, choose the
(3) [(0.75)3 (0.25)]  [(0.75)2 (0.25)] correct answer from the options given below:
(4) [(0.75)3 (0.25)]  [(1.00)2 (1.00)] (1) Statement I and statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
94. CH of carbon to CO2 is –400 kJ mol–1 then how much incorrect.
heat will be evolved upon formation of 17.6 g CO2 from (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
carbon and oxygen gas? correct.
(1) 200 kJ (4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect
(2) 600 kJ
(3) 540 kJ
99. A catalyst;
(4) 160 kJ
(1) Increases the equilibrium concentration of
95. Given below are two statements: reactants.
Statement I: The acid-base pair that differs only by (2) Decreases the equilibrium concentration of
one proton is called a conjugate acid-base pair. reactants.
Statement II: OH– is called the conjugate base of (3) Does not affect equilibrium composition of
an acid H2O. reactants or products.
In the light of the above statements, choose the (4) Affects equilibrium composition of reactants
correct answer from the options given below: or products.
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is 100. Born Haber cycle is used to measure indirectly;
incorrect. (1) Lattice enthalpy of ionic compound
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (2) Enthalpy of formation of covalent compounds
correct. (3) Enthalpy of combustion of organic compounds
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect. (4) Enthalpy of atomisation of diatomic molecules
 [MS-6 | 29-Sep-2024 | ROI | Dropper | Ph-2]
Molecular Basis of Inheritance and The Living World

(BOTANY)
SECTION-A 107. In replication, the discontinuously synthesised
DNA fragments are later joined by the enzyme;
101. The process of replication in E. coli completes
(1) DNA ligase.
within;
(2) DNA polymerase.
(1) 24 minutes. (2) 18 minutes.
(3) DNase.
(3) 40 minutes. (4) 30 minutes.
(4) RNA polymerase.

102. Identify the Class of housefly form the following. 108. All the following species belong to same genus,
(1) Mammalia except;
(2) Arthropoda (1) tuberosum.
(3) Anacardiaceae (2) nigrum.
(4) Insecta (3) melongena.
(4) aestivum.
103. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t the genetic
code. 109. All of the following are Pyrimidines, except;
(1) The code is nearly universal. (1) cytosine.
(2) Codon is read in mRNA in a contiguous (2) uracil.
fashion. (3) guanine.
(3) The codon is triplet. (4) thymine.
(4) UGA acts as initiator codon.
110. In the taxonomic hierarchy, amongst the
following which category holds the highest
104. The number of species that are known and
position?
described ranges between;
(1) Genus
(1) 7 - 8 million.
(2) Order
(2) 1.7 - 1.8 million. (3) Class
(3) 2 - 3 million. (4) Family
(4) 2.7 - 3.8 million.
111. In RNA, every nucleotide residue has an
105. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as additional –OH group present at ______ in the
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: ribose.
Assertion A: DNA is a long polymer of (1) 5' -position
ribonucleotides. (2) 4' -position
Reason R: The length of DNA is usually defined (3) 2' -position
as the number of nucleotides present in it. (4) 1' -position
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below: 112. In the case of plants, classes with a few similar
(1) A is true but R is false. characters are assigned to a higher category
(2) A is false but R is true. called;
(1) Phylum.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(2) Order.
explanation of A.
(3) Family.
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
(4) Division.
correct explanation of A.
113. Francis Crick proposed the Central dogma in
106. All the following genera belong to the family molecular biology, which states that the genetic
Solanaceae, except; information flows from;
(1) Solanum. (1) DNA → RNA → Protein.
(2) Triticum. (2) Protein → RNA → DNA.
(3) Petunia. (3) DNA → Protein → RNA.
(4) Datura. (4) Protein → DNA → RNA.
114. Fishes, amphibians, reptiles and birds belong to 120. The first component in a biological name
the same; represents its ______ and it starts with _______.
(1) Kingdom. (2) Family. (1) genus, capital letter
(3) Order. (4) Genus. (2) species, capital letter
(3) genus, small letter
115. Given below are two statements: (4) species, small letter
Statement I: The two chains of DNA double
helix have anti-parallel polarity. 121. DNA as an acidic substance present in nucleus
Statement II: The two chains of DNA double was first identified by ______ who named it as
helix are coiled in a right-handed fashion. ‘Nuclein’.
In the light of the above statements, choose the (1) Frederick Griffith
most appropriate answer from the options given (2) Colin MacLeod
below: (3) Maclyn McCarty
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (4) Friedrich Meischer
incorrect.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is 122. Which one of the following belongs to the
correct. phylum Chordata?
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are (1) Man (2) Wheat
correct. (3) Housefly (4) Mango
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect. 123. All the following options are true for VNTRs,
except that they;
116. Considering the hierarchial arrangement of
(1) show a very high degree of polymorphism.
taxonomies, ‘Phylum’ lies between;
(2) are a type of mini-satellite DNA.
(1) Genus and Species.
(3) are used as a probe in DNA fingerprinting.
(2) Genus and Family.
(4) have a size range from 20 to 60 kb.
(3) Family and Class.
(4) Class and Kingdom.
124. Read the following and identify the number of
incorrect statement(s) related to biological
117. All of the following criteria should be fulfilled by
classification of humans.
a molecule to act as a genetic material, except;
A. They belong to the genus Homo.
(1) it should be able to generate its replica.
B. They belong to the class Primata.
(2) it should be unstable chemically and
C. They belong to the order Mammalia.
structurally.
D. They belong to the species indica.
(3) it should provide the scope for slow changes
(1) One (2) Two
(mutation) that are required for evolution.
(4) it should be able to express itself in the form (3) Three (4) Four
of 'Mendelian Characters’.
125. Choose the incorrect statement from the
118. Plant families like Convolvulaceae, Solanaceae following.
are included in the same taxonomic category (1) Initiator tRNA is specific.
named; (2) There is one tRNA for stop codons.
(1) Carnivora. (3) In actual compact structure, the tRNA looks
(2) Polymoniales. like an inverted L.
(3) Primata. (4) Secondary structure of tRNA looks like a
(4) Diptera. clover-leaf.

119. Two nucleotides are linked through _________ 126. Taxonomic studies consider a group of individual
linkage/bond to form a dinucleotide. organisms with fundamental similarities as a;
(1) glycosidic (1) species.
(2) 3'-5' phosphodiester (2) genus.
(3) hydrogen (3) family.
(4) peptide (4) order.
127. Match the List-I with List-II w.r.t lac operon. 133. Given below are two statements:
List-I List-II Statement I: Translation refers to the process of
(A) i gen (I) Codes for beta- polymerisation of amino acids to form a
galactosidase polypeptide.
(B) z gene (II) Codes for Statement II: The process of copying genetic
transacetylase information from one strand of the DNA into
(C) y gene (III) Codes for the repressor RNA is termed as transcription.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(D) a gene (IV) Codes for permease most appropriate answer from the options given
Choose the correct answer from the options below:
given below: (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I incorrect.
(2) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II correct.
(4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct.
128. Identify a ‘Division’ in a taxonomic hierarchy (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
from the following. incorrect.
(1) Angiospermae
(2) Dicotyledonae 134. While writing the scientific name of a species, the
(3) Monocotyledonae name of the author is printed;
(4) Arthropoda (1) before the specific epithet.
(2) at the beginning of the biological name.
129. Histones are; (3) in italics.
(1) negatively charged, acidic proteins (4) in abbreviated form.
(2) positively charged, acidic proteins
(3) positively charged, basic proteins 135. Match the List-I with List-II.
(4) negatively charged, basic proteins List-I List-II
(A) Taylor (I) DNA is the
130. Species sapiens belongs to which of the given
and genetic material
higher taxonomic categories?
colleagues
(1) Anacardiaceae. (2) Muscidae.
(3) Hominidae. (4) Poaceae. (B) Hershey (II) DNA replicates
and Chase semiconservatively
131. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as (C) Frederick (III) Biochemical
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: Griffith characterisation
Assertion A: The DNA strands in a double helix of‘ transforming
are said to be complementary to each other. principle’
Reason R: If the sequence of bases in one strand (D) Avery, (IV) Transforming
of DNA is known then the sequence in the other MacLeod principle
strand cannot be predicted. and Mc
In the light of the above statements, choose the Carty
correct answer from the options given below: Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(1) A is true but R is false. options given below:
(2) A is false but R is true. (1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (2) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
explanation of A. (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
correct explanation of A.
SECTION-B
132. Which of the following does not belong to 136. ICZN stands for;
Kingdom Animalia? (1) Indian Code of Zoological Naming.
(1) Panthera leo. (2) Indian Code of Zoological Nomenclature.
(2) Musca domestica. (3) International Code of Zoological Nomenclature.
(3) P. tigris.
(4) International Code of Zoological Naming.
(4) Solanum nigrum.
137. Prior to the work of Oswald Avery, Colin 144. The two words in biological names when
MacLeod and Maclyn Carty the genetic material handwritten, should necessarily be;
was thought to be a; (1) separately underlined.
(1) DNA (2) RNA (2) written in bold letters.
(3) protein (4) lipid (3) written in capital letters.
(4) italicised.
138. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: For plants, scientific names are 145. The commonly used hosts in Human Genome
based on agreed principles and criteria, which are
Project were;
provided in ICBN.
(1) bacteria and fungi.
Statement II: For animals, scientific names are
based on agreed principles and criteria, which are (2) bacteria and yeast.
provided in ICZN. (3) protozoa and bacteria.
In the light of the above statements, choose the (4) protozoa and yeast.
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is 146. The process by which organisms are grouped into
incorrect. convenient categories based on some easily
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is observable characters, is called;
correct. (1) taxonomy. (2) classification.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are (3) identification. (4) nomenclature.
correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are 147. Identify the correct statements w.r.t the goals of
incorrect. human genome project.
A. Improve tools for data analysis.
139. Semiconservative replication of DNA was first B. Store the information in databases.
demonstrated in; C. Address the ethical, legal, and social issues
(1) Escherichia coli.
that may arise from the project.
(2) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
D. Transfer related technologies to other
(3) bacteriophage.
(4) yeast. sectors, such as industries.
(1) A and B only
140. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as (2) A and D only
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: (3) B and C only
Assertion A: There are many categories/ranks (4) A, B, C and D
and are generally referred to as taxonomic
categories or taxa. 148. The ‘Family’ and ‘Order’ of wheat plant
Reason R: All the categories constitute a respectively are;
taxonomic hierarchy. (1) Poaceae, Sapindales.
In the light of the above statements, choose the (2) Poaceae, Poales.
correct answer from the options given below: (3) Anacardiaceae, Poales.
(1) A is true but R is false. (4) Anacardiaceae, Sapindales.
(2) A is false but R is true.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 149. In a typical nucleus, euchromatins are those
explanation of A.
regions of chromatin that are;
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
(1) densely packed and stains dark.
correct explanation of A.
(2) loosely packed and stains light.
141. The RNA polymerase III in eukaryotes is (3) densely packed and stains light.
responsible for transcription of; (4) loosely packed and stains dark.
(1) tRNA. (2) 5.8S rRNA.
(3) hnRNA. (4) mRNA. 150. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
142. Diptera is the Order of; (A) Kingdom (I) Hominidae
(1) mango. (2) wheat. (B) Class (II) Arthropoda
(3) housefly. (4) humans. (C) Family (III) Plantae
(D) Phylum (IV) Dicotyledonae
143. During post-transcriptional modification, an Choose the correct answer from the options
unusual nucleotide (methyl guanosine given below:
triphosphate) is added to the ______ of hnRNA (1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
for _______. (2) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(1) 3'-end, capping. (2) 5'-end, tailing. (3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3) 5'-end, capping. (4) 3'-end, tailing. (4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
 [MS-6 | 29-Sep-2024 | ROI | Dropper | Ph-2]
Body Fluids and Circulation, Excretory Products and their Elimination, Locomotion and Movement

(ZOOLOGY)
SECTION-A 159. Coronary Artery Disease is also referred as:
(1) atherosclerosis (2) angina
151. Which of the following is known as the pacemaker
(3) heart failure (4) heart attack
of the heart?
(1) Sino-atrial node (2) Atrioventricular node
(3) Bundle of His (4) Purkinje fibres 160. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I List-II
152. Which one of the following is also known as A. Hypertension I. High blood pressure
antidiuretic hormone? B. Tunica externa II. Squamous endothelium
(1) Oxytocin (2) Vasopressin C. Tunica intima III. Fibrous connective tissue
(3) Adrenaline (4) Calcitonin D. Tunica media IV. Smooth muscle and
elastic fibres
153. Which of the following structure holds the fascicles Choose the correct answer from the options given
together? below:
(1) Sarcolemma (2) Fascia (1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) Muscle fibre (4) Blood capillary
(2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
154. Identify the incorrectly matched pair from the
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
following.
(1) Sympathetic nerves → Increase heartbeat rate
161. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
(2) Parasympathetic nerves → Decrease heartbeat
rate Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
(3) Adrenal medullary hormones → Decrease Assertion A: The nodal musculature of heart is auto-
cardiac output excitable.
(4) Sympathetic nerves → Increase cardiac output Reason R: The number of action potentials
generated in a minute is same by different parts of
155. Which of the following condition is characterised the nodal system.
by accumulation of urea in the blood? In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) Renal calculi (2) Glomerulonephritis correct answer from the options given below:
(3) Uremia (4) Ketonuria (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
156. Select the incorrect pair. (2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
(1) Axial skeleton → 80 bones explanation of A.
(2) Skull region → 29 bones (3) A is true but R is false.
(3) Floating ribs → 2 pairs (4) A is false but R is true.
(4) False ribs → 12 pair
162. How much Carbon dioxide is removed by lungs?
157. Match List-I with List-II: (1) 200 mL/second (2) 200 mL/minute
List-I List-II (3) 200 mL/day (4) 200 ml/hour
A. Calcium ion I. Mesodermal in origin
B. Rh antigen II. Clotting of blood 163. Given below are two statements:
C. Lacteal III. Absorption of fat Statement I: The heart is protected by a double-
D. Heart IV. Rhesus monkey walled membranous bag, pericardium, enclosing the
Choose the correct answer from the options given pericardial fluid.
below: Statement II: The walls of the ventricles are much
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II thicker than that of the atria.
(2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV In the light of the above statements, choose the most
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
158. Saddle joint occurs between;
(1) carpal and metacarpal of thumb. incorrect.
(2) cranial bones. (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(3) femur and pelvic girdle. correct.
(4) phalanges. (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
164. Which of the following contains podocytes? 171. Serum differs from plasma in:
(1) Bowman's capsule (1) lacking globulins
(2) Medullary pyramids (2) lacking albumins
(3) Renal column of Bertini (3) lacking clotting factors
(4) Glomerulus (4) lacking antibodies

165. Which of the following represents the renal pelvis? 172. The network of peritubular capillaries is formed by;
(1) Efferent arteriole
(2) Afferent arteriole
(3) Efferent veins
(4) Afferent veins

173. Arrange the following events in the proper sequence.

A. Increased ventricular pressure
(1) I (2) II B. Ventricular diastole
(3) III (4) IV C. Ventricular systole
D. Closure of tricuspid and bicuspid valve
(1) A → B → C → D
166. Which of the following symptom is seen in renal
(2) B → A → C → D
calculi?
(3) C → A → D → B
(1) Deposition of sand particles in intestine.
(4) A → C → B → D
(2) Deposition of protein in urethra.
(3) Crystallisation of oxalates in kidney. 174. Tetany is a muscular disorder which is characterised
(4) Deposition of fat in artery. by rapid muscle spasms and is caused by;
(1) high Ca2+ levels in body fluid.
167. Stimulation of a muscle fibre by a motor neuron (2) low Ca2+ levels in body fluid.
occurs at; (3) high uric acid levels in body fluid.
(1) motor-end plate. (2) synapse. (4) high urea levels in blood.
(3) myofibril. (4) sarcoplasmic reticulum.
175. Which pair of ribs do not articulate directly with the
168. Mitral valve in mammals guards the opening sternum but attach with hyaline cartilage of other ribs?
between: (1) 6th, 7th, 8th
(1) left atrium and left ventricle. (2) 8th, 9th, 10th
(2) pulmonary artery and left atrium. (3) 7th, 8th, 9th
(3) aorta and right atrium. (4) 10th, 11th, 12th
(4) right atrium and left ventricle.
176. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I List-II
169. Dark bands in myofibrils, which contain myosin,
A. Glycosuria I. Artificial removal of
are termed as;
urea from blood
(1) A-bands or Isotropic bands
B. Hemodialysis II. Kidney failure
(2) A-bands or Anisotropic bands C. Renal failure III. Inflammation of
(3) I-bands or Isotropic bands glomeruli
(4) I-bands or Anisotropic bands D. Glomerulonephritis IV. Presence of glucose
in urine.
170. Choose the incorrect statement from the following. Choose the correct answer from the options given
A. Renin converts angiotensinogen in blood to below:
angiotensin I and further to angiotensin II. (1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
B. Angiotensin II, being a powerful vasodilator, (2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
increases the glomerular blood pressure and (3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
thereby GFR. (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
C. Aldosterone causes reabsorption of Cl– and
177. The second heart sound 'dub' is associated with the;
water from the distal parts of the tubule.
(1) closure of the mitral valves.
D. The JGA plays a complex regulatory role. (2) closure of the semilunar valves.
(1) B and C (2) A, B and D (3) opening of bicuspid valves.
(3) C only (4) A and D only (4) closure of tricuspid valves.
178. Select the odd one out regarding mode of 185. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
nitrogenous waste elimination. Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
(1) Terrestrial amphibians Assertion A: Each kidney has nearly two million
(2) Aquatic amphibians complex tubular structures called nephrons.
(3) Aquatic insects Reason R: Nephrons are the functional units of the
(4) Bony fishes kidney.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
179. Given below are two statements: correct answer from the options given below:
Statement I: Filtration is a non-selective process (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
performed by the glomerulus using the glomerular explanation of A.
capillary blood pressure. (2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A.
Statement II: The kidneys have built-in
(3) A is true but R is false.
mechanisms for the regulation of glomerular
(4) A is false but R is true.
filtration rate.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most SECTION-B
appropriate answer from the options given below: 186. To initiate muscle contraction, Ca2+ ions bind to
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. which of the following muscle proteins?
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (1) Tropomyosin (2) Actin
incorrect. (3) Troponin (4) Myosin
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct. 187. Which of the following sequence is correct in terms
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. of abundance in blood?
(1) Platelets > WBC > RBC
(2) WBC > RBC > Platelets
180. What is the amount of GFR in a healthy individual
(3) RBC > Platelets > WBC
per hour?
(4) RBC > WBC > Platelets
(1) 125 ml (2) 250 ml
(3) 7.5 litres (4) 15 litres 188. Which of the following structure present in scapula
articulates with the clavicle?
181. The duration of cardiac cycle is: (1) acromion process
(1) 0.8 second (2) 0.5 second (2) acetabulum
(3) 0.3 second (4) 0.4 second (3) glenoid cavity
(4) pectoral girdle
182. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Micturition in humans is completely 189. The progressive degeneration of skeletal muscles
an endocrine mechanism. due to a genetic disorder is known as;
Statement II: The micturition is an involuntary (1) Myasthenia gravis
(2) Tetany
process.
(3) Muscular dystrophy
In the light of the above statements, choose the most (4) Osteoporosis
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. 190. Given below are two statements:
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is Statement I: The outer layer of the kidney is a
incorrect. tough capsule.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is Statement II: Inside the kidney, there are two
correct. zones, an outer medulla and an inner cortex.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
183. What does the QRS complex represent in ECG? (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(1) Atrial diastole (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect.
(2) Atrial systole
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(3) Ventricular systole
correct.
(4) Joint diastole (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

184. Flame cells are the excretory structure found in; 191. When the plasma of a person has both anti A and
(1) aschelminthes. anti B antibodies, the blood group of this person
(2) arthropods. would be;
(3) platyhelminthes. (1) A. (2) AB.
(4) molluscs. (3) B. (4) O.
192. Approximately how much blood is filtered by the 197. Given below are two statements:
glomerulus per second? Statement I: During each cardiac cycle two
(1) 15 ml absolutely prominent sounds are produced which can be easily
(2) 20 ml approximately heard through a stethoscope.
(3) 120 ml approximately Statement II: Heart sounds are of clinical
(4) 110 ml approximately diagnostic significance.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
193. A closed circulatory system is present in; appropriate answer from the options given below:
A. Arthropoda (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
B. Annelida (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
C. Chordata incorrect.
D. Mollusca (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(1) B and C (2) A and B correct.
(3) B and D (4) A and D (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

194. Match List-I with List -II w.r.t vertebra. 198. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
List-I List-II Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
A. Cervical I. 12 in number Assertion A: Each rib is a thin flat bone connected
B. Thoracic II. 1 in number after fusion dorsally to the vertebral column and ventrally to the
C. Coccygeal III 7 in number sternum.
D. Lumbar IV. 5 in number Reason R: The bones of the limbs along with their
Choose the correct answer from the options given girdles constitute the appendicular skeleton.
below: In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I correct answer from the options given below:
(2) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III (1) A is true but R is false.
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (2) A is false but R is true.
(4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
195. Counter current mechanism helps in; (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
(1) production of concentrated urine. explanation of A.
(2) maintaining concentration gradient in the
medullary interstitium. 199. Which of the following conditions cause
(3) water conservation. erythroblastosis foetalis?
(4) All of these (1) Mother is Rh-ve and foetus is Rh+ve
(2) Both mother and foetus are Rh+ve
196. Identify 'X' in the following given structure? (3) Both mother and foetus are Rh -ve
(4) Mother is Rh+ve and father is Rh-ve

200. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as

Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: Both actin and myosin proteins are
arranged as rod-like structures.
Reason R: These proteins are parallel to each other
and also to the longitudinal axis of the myofibrils.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is a correct
explanation of A.
(1) Afferent arteriole (2) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
(2) Efferent arteriole explanation of A.
(3) Bowman's capsule (3) A is true and R is false.
(4) PCT (4) A is false and R is true.
■■■

Scan this QR code to provide

feedback on the Examination Paper