4 4

Science Test
35 Minutes — 40 Questions

INSTRUCTIONS: Each of the seven passages in this test is Note your answer on your answer sheet. You may return to the
accompanied by several questions. Read the passage, and then passages as often as you need.
choose the best answer to each question. You may NOT use a calculator on this test.

PASSAGE I Figure 1

Malaria is an infectious disease that kills more than

600,000 people every year. Several species of the genus
Plasmodium cause malaria, with two of the most common
being Plasmodium falciparum and Plasmodium vivax.
Though both species cause a very similar illness, P. falci-
parum malaria is more likely to result in fatalities than P.
vivax malaria, while P. vivax malaria is more likely to recur
-- to return after a period of time during which the patient
is healthy and has no parasites present in the blood.

The two species of malaria parasites respond differently

to antimalarial medications, but in many areas where
malaria is common, testing to determine what type of
malaria a patient has is not widely available. Therefore,
malaria treatments are often tested against both species
of the parasite, and first-line malaria treatments in these
regions ideally should be effective against both parasites.

Experiment 1

For many years, public health professionals in Papua New Experiment 2

Guinea have recommended a treatment regimen, Drug
Combination A, as a first-line malaria treatment. Recently On rare occasions, patients have severe allergic reactions
a new treatment regimen, Drug Combination B, has been to a compound that is found in both Drug Combination
proposed as a potential replacement for Combination A, A and Drug Combination B. In these cases, a second-line
and a study was conducted to compare their effective- treatment must be used. A second study was conducted
ness. to determine which of several drug combinations would
be the best second-line drug to recommend for use in
Children entering a local health clinic with malaria Papua New Guinea. Table 1 shows the treatment re-
symptoms were tested to determine which Plasmodium sponse to the second-line drug combinations.
species they carried. The patients were then randomly
assigned Drug Combination A or Drug Combination B,
and their blood was tested periodically for the presence Table 1
of parasites.

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1. According to Figure 1, the percentage of P. falci- 5. Suppose a patient is brought to the clinic with a
parum patients with parasites remaining in their life-threatening case of P. falciparum malaria. As the
blood on day 14 was approximately: patient’s condition is deteriorating quickly, it is essen-
tial that they be given the treatment that eliminates
A. 1% for patients treated with Drug Combination A, parasites from their blood within 7 days. Based on
12% for patients treated with Drug Combination the data from Experiments 1 and 2, which treatment
B. should they be given?
B. 12% for patients treated with Drug Combination
A, 1% for patients treated with Drug Combination A. Drug Combination A
B. B. Drug Combination D
C. 7% for patients treated with Drug Combination A, C. Drug Combination E
14% for patients treated with Drug Combination D. Drug Combination B
B.
D. 0% for both drug combinations. 6. Drug treatments that are eliminated from a patient’s
body very quickly are likely to result in recurrence of
2. Based on the data from Experiment 1, on which day P. vivax in the patient. Based on the information in
of treatment could a patient expect to be free of par- the passage, which of the following drugs is likely
asites regardless of which species they were infected NOT removed from the body quickly?
with or which drug combination they were given?
A. Drug Combination A
A. Day 7 B. Drug Combination C
B. Day 14 C. Drug Combination D
C. Day 28 D. Drug Combination E
D. There is no day that meets this criteria.

3. Recurrences of P. vivax malaria are known to be

caused by hypnozoites, a form of the malaria para-
site that can go dormant in the patient’s liver for up
to two weeks, that remain alive following the initial
treatment. Based on the data in Figure 1, which of the
following conclusions is most likely to be true?

A. Drug Combination A eliminates hypnozoites in

all patients, but Drug Combination B eliminates
hypnozoites only in some patients.
B. Drug Combination B eliminates all hypnozoites,
but Drug Combination A eliminates hypnozoites
only in some patients.
C. Drug Combination B eliminates all hypnozoites
in all patients, but Drug Combination A does not
eliminate any hypnozoites.
D. Neither treatment kills hypnozoites.

4. If 1000 patients in the P. falciparum group were

treated with Drug Combination B in Experiment 1,
approximately how many of those patients remained
infected on Day 7?

A. 100
B. 300
C. 700
D. 900

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PASSAGE II

Gregor Mendel discovered the basic principle of in-

dependent assortment in genetics through selective
cross-breeding of common pea plants (Pisum sativum).
Table 1 lists the possible alleles of 4 of the genes Mendel
discovered and the possible genotypes for each.

Table 2 lists Pisum sativum genotypes and the phenotype

associated with each genotype.

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Table 3 lists 6 Pisum sativum crosses, the genotypes of

each parent, and the percentage of offspring that dis-
played each phenotype for the traits listed in Table 2. Mul-
tiple matings of each genotype pairing were performed.

7. Based on the information provided, a P. sativum plant 8. Based on the information provided in Table 3, ¾
that is heterozygous for each of the 4 genes will have of the offspring in which of the following crosses
which of the following phenotypes? produced phenotypes expressing purple flowers and
green pods?
A. White flowers, green seeds, yellow pods, smooth
pods A. AABBCCDD × aabbccdd
B. White flowers, green seeds, yellow pods, con- B. aaBBCcDd × aabbCcDd
stricted pods
C. Purple flowers, yellow seeds, green pods, smooth C. AabbCcdd × AabbCcdd
pods D. AaBbccDD × AaBbccDD
D. Purple flowers, yellow seeds, green pods, con-
stricted pods

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9. Based on the information in Table 3, if Cross 5 pro- PASSAGE III

duced 100 offspring, approximately how many would
be expected to have white flowers? Sea turtles are often incidentally captured in commercial
fishing operations in the Atlantic Ocean. The National
A. ​25 Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS) records and reports
B. 50
incidents of sea turtle capture. The figures below show
C. 75
D. 100 the seasonal distribution and relative abundance of
leatherback (Dermochelys coriacea) and loggerhead
10. Based on the information provided, all of the off- (Caretta caretta) sea turtles caught by the U.S. Atlantic
spring of Cross 6 produced constricted pods be- longline fleet from 1992 through 1995. Figure 1 shows a
cause each received: map of fishing areas in the Atlantic Ocean. Table 1 shows
A. allele a from Parent 1 and allele a from Parent 2 leatherback (Lb) and loggerhead (Lh) turtle captures by
month in some areas shown in Figure 1. Table 2 shows
B. allele B from Parent 1 and allele b from Parent 2
captures by area. Table 3 shows CPUE (catch-per-unit-
C. allele c from Parent 1 and allele C from Parent 2 effort) values for the number of turtles caught per 1000
D. allele d from Parent 1 and allele d from Parent 2 hooks fished, as well as whether longline fishing vessels
were using chemical light sticks to attract fish at the time
11. According to the information in Table 3, which of the of capture.
following pairs of parental genotypes would produce
offspring in which 50% presented yellow pea pods
and 50% presented green pea pods?

A. Parent 1: CC Parent 2: CC
B. Parent 1: Cc Parent 2: Cc
C. Parent 1: Cc Parent 2: cc
D. Parent 1: cc Parent 2: cc

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Tables and figures adapted from Witzell, Wayne N., “Distribution and Relative Abundance of Sea
Turtles Caught Incidentally.” Fishery Bulletin 97(1). https://www.sefsc.noaa.gov//turtles/PR_Wit-
zell_1999_FBull.pdf. ©1999 by the Southeast Fisheries Science Center.

12. According to the information provided in Figure 1 15. Vessels fishing for swordfish generally work at night
and Table 1, which of the following areas accounted using chemical lightsticks to attract baitfish while
for the greatest number of loggerhead sea turtles vessels fishing for tuna generally fish during the day
incidentally caught during the period studied? without lightsticks. Does the data presented in Table
3 for Areas 1-9 support the conclusion that fishing
A. Caribbean for swordfish is more harmful to endangered sea
B. North east coastal turtle populations than fishing for tuna?
C. North east distant
D. Florida east coast A. Y
​ es, because Lb and Lh CPUE values were higher
when lightsticks were used.
13. According to Table 2, during which year was the num- B. Yes, because Lb and Lh CPUE values were lower
ber of loggerhead turtles caught greater than the when lightsticks were used.
number of leatherback turtles in Area 6? C. No, because Lb and Lh CPUE values were higher
when lightsticks were used.
A. 1992 D. No, because Lb and Lh CPUE values were lower
B. 1993 when lightsticks were used.
C. 1994
D. 1995

14. According to Table 1, during which of the following

months was the greatest number of sea turtles cap-
tured during the period studied?

A. March
B. July
C. November
D. December

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16. Sea turtles migrate to different oceanic regions over Figures 1-3 each show how a property of solutions of
the course of the year, and higher sea turtle capture ethylene glycol in H₂O varies as the concentration of eth-
numbers indicate a higher population of sea turtles ylene glycol increases at 1 atmosphere (atm) of pressure.
in a given region. Which of the following observations Concentration is given as the percent ethylene glycol by
about sea turtle migration is supported by Table 1? mass in H₂O. Figure 1 shows how the freezing point var-
Some sea turtle populations: ies with % ethylene glycol. Figure 2 shows how the boiling
point varies with % ethylene glycol. The surface tension is
A. r​ eside in Area 2 during January, February, and
March and migrate to Area 3 during June, July, the property of the surface of a liquid that allows it to re-
August, and September. sist an external force due to the cohesive forces between
B. reside in Area 7 during June, July, August, and molecules in the liquid. Figure 3 shows how surface ten-
September and migrate to Area 1 during January, sion varies with % ethylene glycol at 25°C.
February, and March.
C. reside in Area 3 during June, July, August, and
September and migrate to Area 6 during January,
February, and March.
D. reside in Area 1 during June, July, August, and
September and migrate to Area 7 during January,
February, and March.

PASSAGE IV

Ethylene glycol, a popular industrial chemical used in the

manufacture of polyester fibers and in industrial applica-
tions like antifreeze, has the structure shown below:

Figures 1-3 each show how a property of solutions of

ethylene glycol in H₂O varies as the concentration of eth-
ylene glycol increases at 1 atmosphere (atm) of pressure.
Concentration is given as the percent ethylene glycol by
mass in H₂O. Figure 1 shows how the freezing point var-
ies with % ethylene glycol. Figure 2 shows how the boiling
point varies with % ethylene glycol. The surface tension is
the property of the surface of a liquid that allows it to re-
sist an external force due to the cohesive forces between
molecules in the liquid. Figure 3 shows how surface ten-
sion varies with % ethylene glycol at 25°C.

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21. Based on Figure 1, at 1 atm, how many gallons of

pure H2O would need to be added to 4 gallons of
pure ethylene glycol to produce an antifreeze solu-
tion with a freezing point of −20°C ?

A. 1 gallon
B. 2 gallons
C. 5 gallons
D. 6 gallons

Tables and figures adapted from MEGlobal, “Ethylene Glycol Product Guide.”
http://www.meglobal.biz/media/product_guides/MEGlobal_MEG.pdf. ©2008 by PASSAGE V
MEGlobal.

Electricity can be defined as the movement of electrons.

Three of the most important concepts to understand in
17. According to Figure 1, at 1 atm, which of the following
order to manipulate electricity to perform work are volt-
solutions has a freezing point furthest from the freez-
age, current, and resistance.
ing point of pure H2O ?

A. 15% ethylene glycol Voltage (measured in volts (V)) describes the amount
B. 40% ethylene glycol of potential energy between two points on a circuit and
C. 65% ethylene glycol is created by a difference in charge between those two
D. 90% ethylene glycol points.

18. At 25°C and 1 atm, as % ethylene glycol increases

Current (measured in Amperes (A)) is the rate at which
from 0% to 100%, the cohesive forces between mol-
electrons flow through a circuit. A rate of one ampere is
ecules in aqueous ethylene glycol solutions:
equivalent to 1 coulomb (a standard unit of charge) per
A. increase only. second.
B. decrease only.
C. increase, then decrease. Resistance (measured in ohms (Ω)) is a measurement
D. decrease, then increase. of how much a material resists the passage of current
through the material. Materials with high resistance are
19. According to Figure 1, at 1 atm, the melting point of referred to as insulators, while materials with low resis-
pure 100% ethylene glycol is closest to which of the
tance are referred to as conductors.
following?

A. 0°C Students in a physics course conducted several experi-

B. −13°C ments to investigate the relationship between these three
C. −33°C electrical properties.
D. −52°C
Experiment 1
20. According to Figures 2 and 3, at 1 atm, an aqueous
solution of ethylene glycol that has a boiling point of Students were provided with a variety of batteries, re-
130°C will have a surface tension closest to which of sistors (electrical components that resist the flow of
the following at 25°C? current), and an ammeter (a device to measure current
flow), along with wire and connectors. The students con-
A. 50 g·cm/s2 structed circuits based on the circuit diagram below and
B. 53 g·cm/s2 measured the current in each circuit. Table 1 shows their
C. 60 g·cm/s2 results.
D. 63 g·cm/s2

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Figure 2

Table 1

Experiment 3

Students repeated the procedure from Experiment 2

using 1-meter wire coils of a variety of other metals. Their
results are given in Table 2.

Table 2

Experiment 2

To further study the property of resistance, students re-

placed the resistor in their circuit with coils of nickel wire
of various lengths. Students used a variable power supply
to adjust voltage until the current was equal to 1 A. They
then used the relationship between voltage, current, and
resistance determined in Experiment 1 to calculate the
resistance of the wire coil. Their results are graphed in
Figure 2.

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22. Based on the data in Experiment 1, which of the 26. The resistance of a length of wire is dependent on the
following best describes the relationship between material’s conductivity: materials with high conductiv-
current, voltage, and resistance? Current: ities provide less resistance than materials with low
conductivity. Based on the data in Experiments 2 and
A. increases with an increase in voltage (V) and 3, which of the following lists metals in increasing
increases with an increase in resistance (Ω). order of conductivity?
B. increases with an increase in voltage (V) and de-
creases with an increase in resistance (Ω). A. copper, aluminum, tungsten, nickel
C. decreases with an increase in voltage (V) and B. tungsten, nickel, aluminum, copper
increase with an increase in resistance (Ω). C. copper, aluminum, nickel, tungsten
D. decreases with an increase in voltage (V) and D. nickel, tungsten, aluminum, copper
decreases with an increase in resistance (Ω).
27. Experiments 1-3 were completed in a classroom at
23. In an additional experiment, the students set up a 20°C. During the previous school year, the air con-
circuit similar to the one in Experiment 1, except that ditioning was broken, so the same lab was complet-
they used a 2V battery and a 5Ω resistor, and dis- ed at 28°C. It is known that conductivity of metals
covered that the current measured in this circuit is decreases as temperature increases. How would the
0.400 A. What current should the students expect to higher classroom temperature have affected the volt-
measure in this same circuit if they doubled both the age required to reach 1 A in Experiment 2?
voltage and the resistance?
A. The same amount of voltage would be required.
A. 0.100 A B. More voltage would be required.
B. 0.400 A C. Less voltage would be required.
C. 0.800 A D. It is impossible to determine from the information
D. 1.600 A provided.

24. Silver is a slightly better conductor than copper.

Considering the data from Experiment 3, which of the
following could be the resistance of a 1-m silver coil?

A. 0.0202
B. 0.0281
C. 0.0414
D. 0.0702 PASSAGE VI

25. What would you expect to happen to the current in

Scientists concerned about significant long-term effects
the circuit if the 2-m nickel coil from Experiment 2
of global warming discuss a geoengineering proposal to
was used to replace the resistor in the Trial 1 circuit
in Experiment 1? cool the planet.

A. Current would decrease, because resistance in Scientist 1

the circuit would increase.
B. Current would decrease, because resistance in Solar Radiation Management (SRM) could reverse glob-
the circuit would decrease. al warming by seeding the stratosphere with sulfuric
C. Current would increase, because resistance in the aerosols (SO4), recreating past periods of global cooling
circuit would decrease. caused by volcanic activity. Naturally reflective sulfate
D. Current would increase, because resistance in the aerosols resulting from this seeding would be dispersed
circuit would increase. by atmospheric winds, forming a layer of fine particles
that would reflect about 1% of sunlight back into space.
On the basis of computer models, scientists have predict-
ed that SRM would reduce the amount of sunlight enter-
ing earth’s atmosphere, thereby reducing global average
temperatures.

Atmospheric CO2 levels were around 275 parts per

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million (ppm) prior to the Industrial Revolution. A level of 28. Which of the following statements best explains why
350 ppm is the critical threshold beyond which significant Scientist 1 mentioned sulfuric aerosols?
global warming occurs; current levels are around 400
ppm. Since CO2 remains in the atmosphere for a very long A. Seeding the atmosphere with sulfuric aerosols
could increase global warming.
time, even eliminating all CO2 emissions
B. Seeding the atmosphere with sulfuric aerosols
immediately would leave global temperatures elevated
could decrease global warming.
far into the future. Reducing CO2 emissions alone is not
C. Sulfuric aerosols help replenish ozone in the
enough to preserve our climate; further action is needed.
atmosphere.
Preliminary research suggests SRM may be a way to stop
D. Sulfuric aerosols help replenish CO2 in the atmo-
or even reverse global warming. sphere.

Scientist 2 29. Scientist 1 would most likely state that the elevated
atmospheric levels of CO2 that are present in the
More research needs to be conducted before atmosphere today were caused by:
seriously discussing the injection of sulfate aerosols into
the stratosphere. It will do nothing to affect CO2 levels, A. a prolonged period of global volcanic activity.
and unintended consequences of SRM are so severe that B. injection of sulfate particles into the stratosphere.
it should not be considered as a possible "solution" to C. unintended consequences of Solar Radiation
global warming. There is no way to experimentally predict Management.
the consequences of manipulating the atmosphere on D. carbon dioxide emissions from industrial activity.
a worldwide scale, as climate patterns simply cannot be
isolated and manipulated on a local scale. 30. Scientist 2 would most likely agree with which of the
following statements?
Injecting sulfate particles into the stratosphere would
A. Solar Radiation Management could cause atmo-
increase acid rain and have a drastic impact on Earth's spheric CO2 levels to increase.
protective ozone layer. One study concluded that artificial
B. Sulfuric aerosols from SRM would affect only the
injections of sulfates could destroy between one-fourth Northern Hemisphere.
and three-fourths of the ozone layer above the Arctic. C. Between one-fourth and three-fourths of the
This could affect a large part of the Northern Hemisphere ozone layer lies over the Arctic.
because of atmospheric circulation patterns.The sulfates D. Ozone levels are expected to rise over the course
would also delay the expected recovery of the ozone hole of the coming century.
over the Antarctic by about 30 to 70 years, or until at
least the last decade of the century. A healthy ozone layer 31. Both scientists would likely agree that which of the
is critical for life on Earth because it blocks dangerous following would NOT be affected if a large-scale Solar
ultraviolet radiation from the sun. Radiation Management program were implemented?

A. The amount of radiation reaching the atmo-

Adapted from Rotman, David, A Cheap and Easy Plan to Stop Global
sphere.
Warming. MIT Technology Review. 8 Feb 2013. AND National Science
B. The amount of ultraviolet radiation reaching
Foundation Press Release. 08-069. “Injecting Sulfate Particles into earth’s surface.
Stratosphere Could Have Drastic Impact on Earth's Ozone Layer.” C. Global temperature levels.
D. The composition of the ozone layer.

32. Both scientists would most likely agree that the distri-
bution of fine particles throughout the upper atmo-
sphere is largely maintained by:

A. high levels of CO2 in the air.

B. global cooling caused by volcanic activity.
C. circulation caused by wind.
D. injection of sulfate aerosols into the stratosphere.

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33. Scientists provided historical data of sulfuric aerosol PASSAGE VII

concentrations near active volcanoes to a computer
programmed to model global climate change. The One of the most common ways bacteria are grown in a
model failed to accurately predict any long-term lab is called batch culture. In batch culture, bacteria are
trends in global climate activity. Based on the in- added to a fixed amount of liquid growth media, a solution
formation provided, if this information were true, it that contains nutrients for bacterial growth and allowed
would most likely weaken the viewpoints of:
to grow under defined environmental conditions.
Bacterial growth in batch culture follows a predictable
A. Scientist 1 only.
B. Scientist 2 only. pattern of four phases:
C. both Scientist 1 and Scientist 2.
D. neither Scientist 1 nor Scientist 2. 1. Lag phase: Immediately after they are added to a new
media, bacteria must adjust their metabolism to the new
34. Scientist 2’s objections to Solar Radiation Manage- environment before they begin growing and dividing. The
ment include all of the following EXCEPT: number of bacteria in the culture does not change during
this phase.
A. it would destroy significant amounts of the ozone
layer.
B. it would be difficult or impossible to thoroughly 2. Log phase: Bacteria actively grow and divide, and the
test before implementing. number of bacteria in the culture grows exponentially.
C. it would adversely affect global atmospheric cir-
culation patterns. 3. Stationary phase: When an essential nutrient in the
D. it would increase the amount of harmful radiation media is depleted, growth slows substantially, such that
reaching earth’s surface.
growth rate in the culture becomes equal to death rate.
The number of bacteria in the culture is unchanged.

4. Death phase: When culture conditions can no longer

sustain any growth, bacteria die off exponentially.
Phases 2-4 will happen in every batch culture, given
enough time. However, it is possible for no lag phase to
be observed if little or no adjustment of metabolism is
needed for the bacteria to begin reproducing in their new
environment.

The following experiments were conducted to investigate

the variables that affect bacterial growth in batch culture.

Experiment 1

A batch culture of E. coli, a common bacterial species

used for lab studies, was grown in a nutrient rich media
called LB. When this culture reached log phase, 0.5 ml
samples of the liquid media was removed and used to
inoculate each of two 1L flasks. Each of these flasks con-
tained a different type of liquid growth media. The new
cultures were then allowed to grow at 37°C.

Growth of the cultures was monitored by taking period-

ic measurements of the optical density, or OD600, of the
growth media. Optical density is a measurement of how
easily light is able to pass through the media, and it is
directly related to the concentration of living bacteria in
the media. The resulting measurements are graphed in
Figure 1.

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Figure 1 35. Which of the following is true of the relationship be-

tween OD600 values and bacterial growth?

A. OD600 levels may increase, decrease, or remain

stable during stationary phase.
B. OD600 levels always increase when culture is in
stationary phase.
C. OD600 levels always stay stable when culture is in
stationary phase.
D. OD600 levels always decrease when culture is in
stationary phase.

36. Three hours after the media in Experiment 1 was

inoculated, which stage was each culture in?

Experiment 2 A. Medium 1: log phase; Medium 2: stationary phase

B. Medium 1: stationary phase; Medium 2: log phase
Eight 1L flasks of minimal growth media were inoculated
C. Medium 1: stationary phase; Medium 2: lag phase
with bacteria: four with E. coli, and four with P. aeruginosa.
D. Medium 1: lag phase; Medium 2: stationary phase
The flasks were then incubated at 37°C under one of two
conditions--either with or without oxygen--and OD600 mea- 37. Growth media can be minimal or nutrient rich.
surements were taken every hour to monitor growth. Minimal media contains only the bare minimum
After OD600 measurements stopped rising, the bacte- necessary to support growth. Nutrient rich growth
ria was separated from the media and weighed. These media contains a wide variety of compounds used in
measurements were used to calculate growth yield, or the growth, such as amino acids and vitamins. Of the two
percentage of carbon source(s) in the growth media that types of media tested in Experiment 1, which is more
was converted to biological material. Growth yield can be likely to be a minimal media?
used to determine how efficiently the bacteria are able to
use energy during a given set of growth conditions. The A. Growth Media 2 because the long lag phase sug-
gests the bacteria needed to turn on new meta-
results of these calculations are shown in Table 1.
bolic pathways before they could begin dividing.
B. Growth Media 2 because bacteria divide more
quickly in minimal media.
Table 1 C. Growth Media 1 because the long lag phase sug-
gests the bacteria needed to turn on new meta-
bolic pathways before they could begin dividing.
D. Growth Media 1 because bacteria divide more
quickly in minimal media.

38. Bacteria that require oxygen for growth are called ob-
ligate aerobes, while bacteria that cannot grow in the
presence of oxygen are called obligate anaerobes.
Facultative aerobes can grow with or without oxygen,
though they may grow better in one condition than
in the other. Considering the data in Table 1, which of
the following is most likely to be true?

A. P. aeruginosa is an obligate anaerobe, while E.

coli is an obligate aerobe.
B. P. aeruginosa is an obligate anaerobe, while E.
coli is a facultative aerobe.
C. P. aeruginosa is an obligate aerobe, while E. coli is
a facultative aerobe.
D. P. aeruginosa is an obligate aerobe, while E. coli is
an obligate anaerobe.

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39. P. aeruginosa uses the ED metabolic pathway to con-

vert glucose to pyruvate, while E. coli uses the EMP
metabolic pathway to convert glucose to pyruvate.
In the presence of oxygen, both bacteria use the
citric acid cycle (CAC) to convert pyruvate to ener-
gy. Based on this information and the data in Table
1, which of the following lists the three pathways in
increasing order of their efficiency at converting food
sources to energy?

A. ED, EMP, CAC

B. EMP, ED, CAC
C. CAC, ED, EMP
D. CAC, EMP, ED

40. An E. coli culture in LB media growing in aerobic

conditions was used to inoculate a new flask of LB
media, which was then allowed to grow in anaerobic
conditions. Given that in E. coli, different metabolic
pathways are used for growth in anaerobic condi-
tions than aerobic conditions, which of the following
could be a growth curve for the the culture grown in
anaerobic conditions?

A.

B.

C.

D.

END OF TEST 4
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 Grading Your Practice ACT
Congratulations! You finished a full-length ACT Practice Test. Now it’s time to see how you scored.
Step 1: Answer Key
The first step in grading your ACT Practice Test is to figure out how many questions you answered correctly. Use the
answer key below to grade your test.

TEST 1 - ENGLISH TEST 2 - MATH TEST 3 - READING TEST 5 - SCIENCE

1. A 41. D 1. E 41. E 1. A 1. A
2. A 42. B 2. D 42. E 2. D 2. D
3. C 43. A 3. B 43. B 3. A 3. B
4. B 44. B 4. E 44. B 4. C 4. B
5. D 45. C 5. D 45. D 5. D 5. C
6. D 46. D 6. A 46. D 6. A 6. C
7. B 47. D 7. A 47. A 7. C 7. C
8. B 48. C 8. B 48. D 8. B 8. C
9. C 49. C 9. B 49. A 9. A 9. A
10. C 50. A 10. E 50. E 10. C 10. D
11. B 51. D 11. B 51. B 11. D 11. C
12. C 52. B 12. D 52. C 12. B 12. C
13. A 53. C 13. D 53. D 13. A 13. D
14. A 54. D 14. E 54. A 14. A 14. B
15. C 55. B 15. C 55. A 15. B 15. A
16. C 56. B 16. C 56. D 16. D 16. B
17. B 57. D 17. D 57. D 17. C 17. C
18. B 58. D 18. A 58. A 18. B 18. B
19. D 59. C 19. C 59. A 19. B 19. B
20. B 60. C 20. A 60. A 20. D 20. A
21. C 61. A 21. D 21. B 21. D
22. B 62. C 22. B 22. C 22. B
23. D 63. D 23. D 23. B 23. B
24. C 64. B 24. D 24. C 24. A
25. A 65. B 25. D 25. D 25. C
26. B 66. A 26. B 26. A 26. D
27. A 67. D 27. C 27. B 27. B
28. C 68. A 28. E 28. D 28. B
29. C 69. A 29. C 29. C 29. D
30. C 70. C 30. B 30. B 30. D
31. D 71. C 31. D 31. B 31. A
32. C 72. C 32. E 32. B 32. C
33. D 73. D 33. D 33. B 33. A
34. D 74. C 34. E 34. D 34. C
35. D 75. A 35. A 35. C 35. C
36. A 36. C 36. A 36. C
37. C 37. B 37. C 37. A
38. C 38. D 38. A 38. C
39. D 39. C 39. B 39. A
40. A 40. A 40. D 40. C

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