CHAP 1

1. Which statement regarding communication skills in the workplace is correct?

a. The COVID-19 pandemic has revealed the relative unimportance of good communication
skills in the workplace.
b. Communication skills often rank at the bottom of recruiters’ wish lists.
c. Superior communication skills will make you marketable in the workplace of the future
regardless of economic climate.
d. Today's workers communicate less, not more, since information technology and social
media have swept the workplace.

2. Communication skills _______.

a. are not as important as technical skills for career success
b. are not necessary in today's competitive job market
c. are ranked by recruiters at the top of qualities they most desire in job seekers
d. cannot be learned; they are innate

3. Which of the following statements is an accurate description of communication in the

workplace today?
a. Workers today communicate less than in previous years.
b. Technology has not affected how and why we communicate.
c. Businesses today generate a wide range of messages using a variety of media.
d. Writing is a skill set used only by managers and corporate executives.

4. The combination of communication, logical reasoning, critical-thinking, teamwork, and

management skills used to be referred to as soft skills, but now are being referred to instead
as interpersonal skills or _______.
a. statistical skills
b. professional skills
c. emotional skills
d. executive skills

5. Strategic use of e-mail, internet, voice mail, and texting are important in developing your
_______.
a. on-the-job accuracy
b. relationships with your co-workers
c. professional image
d. productivity goals
6. Major trends in today's dynamic world of work include increased emphasis on self-directed
work groups and virtual teams, heightened global competition, innovative communication
technologies, new work environments, and focus on _______.
a. creating an entirely online presence
b. promoting from within
c. increasing levels of management
d. business ethics

7. Which one of the following statements about today's business environments is correct?
a. The number of telecommuting employees is expected to decline in the future.
b. All companies assign offices for employees.
c. Many employees today no longer need an office; they can work anytime and anywhere.
d. Workers today spend more time in offices than workers in the past.

8. Which statement below is an accurate description of today’s workplace?

a. Employees can expect to have more managers.
b. Very few businesses involve employees in decision making.
c. Today's employees can expect to interact with people from many cultures.
d. Businesses use social media only to interact with customers.

9. The term flattened management hierarchies refers to _______.

a. renewed emphasis on ethics
b. fewer levels of management
c. more levels of management
d. less individual decision making and communication

10. The ability to access data on remote servers with a computer or mobile device is called
_______.
a. presence technology
b. cloud computing
c. videoconferencing
d. podcasting

11. According to researchers, most people listen at what level of proficiency?

a. 100 percent
b. 5 percent
c. 25-50 percent
d. 75 percent

12. Which of the following statements is an accurate statement about listening?

a. Very few management problems are related to listening.
b. The average person remembers nearly three quarters of what he or she hears following a
10-minute presentation.
c. We misinterpret, misunderstand, or change very little of what we hear.
d. Most people are not very good listeners.

13. Many of us are poor listeners because _______.

a. the brain can process information at least three times as fast as people talk
b. we have become a distractible society
c. we rely more on visual cues
d. we rely more on non-verbal cues

14. The lag time between the speed with which listeners process words per minute (450) and
the speed at which speakers talk (about 125 to 175 words per minute) is called the _______.
a. speech-thought differential
b. mind gap
c. listening gap
d. speaking distinction

15. Which of the following is a psychological barrier for listening?

a. Hearing disabilities
b. Poor acoustics
c. Noisy surroundings
d. Personal values

16. Your boss is giving instructions for a new method of keeping expense accounts. However,
you find it difficult to concentrate because you think the change is unnecessary. What type of
barrier to effective listening are you experiencing?
a. Language problem barrier
b. Psychological barrier
c. Physical barrier
d. Nonverbal distraction barrier

17. Breanna must inform her workforce that the company will need to let go of a certain
number of employees. Which word would be best for Breanna to use when delivering this
news to the employees?
a. Layoff
b. Streamlining
c. Paradigm shift
d. Rightsizing

18. Which of the following is associated with active listening?

a. Establishing a receptive mindset
b. Focusing on appearance and delivery
c. Concentrating on your next comment
d. Taking as many notes as possible

19. To show that you are actively listening during a job interview, you should _______.
a. Nod strategically and maintain eye contact
b. reply quickly to minimize lag time
c. use ambient noises to create a relaxed environment
d. adopt a sympathetic attitude

20. Amelia has made a conscious effort to become an active listener. Therefore, she shuts
down her computer, turns off her cell phone, and asks her assistant to hold all incoming calls
when she conducts interviews. What technique is she using to improve listening?
a. Keeping an open mind
b. Establishing a receptive mindset
c. Capitalizing on lag time
d. Controlling her surroundings

21. Nonverbal communication includes _______.

a. all unwritten and unspoken messages
b. only body language and gestures that accompany a spoken message
c. only eye contact and facial expressions that support the meaning of the words
d. only cues that reveal agreement with or contradiction of the verbal message

22. Examples of nonverbal communication include facial expressions, eye contact, and
_______. a. taking notes
b. speaking in a loud voice
c. posture
d. appropriate dress

23. Which of the following statements is an accurate description of nonverbal

communication?
a. Nonverbal communication comprises very little of a message that is sent or received.
b. When verbal and nonverbal messages contradict, receivers believe that the verbal message
is more accurate.
c. Meanings of nonverbal behaviors are often influenced by the communication context and
by one's culture.
d. Nonverbal communication applies to only intended messages.
24. Most people think that the best predictor of a speaker's true feelings is their _______.
a. facial expressions
b. posture
c. gestures
d. eyes

25. Which of the following statements about posture and gestures is accurate?
a. The meaning of some gestures can vary among cultures.
b. Gestures are only movements without meaning attached to them.
c. Leaning towards a speaker suggests boredom and disinterest.
d. Erect posture tends to convey rigidity and stubbornness.
26. According to Edward T. Hall, in which spatial zone do most people converse with friends
and family members?
a. Intimate
b. Personal
c. Social
d. Public

27. According to Edward T. Hall, which spatial zone is the largest?

a. Intimate
b. Personal
c. Social
d. Public

28. Which of the following tips should you follow to improve your nonverbal communication
skills?
a. Focus only on the speaker’s words when you are engaged in conversation.
b. Observe yourself on video.
c. Avoid individuals from other cultures so that you don't start using inappropriate nonverbal
behaviors displayed in other cultures.
d. Avoid asking the speaker questions when their nonverbal and verbal messages contradict.

29. In addition to her attire and physical engagement during an interview, what other element
of Laylah’s candidacy for the position embodies nonverbal communication?
a. How well she shows that she has researched the company in her responses to questions
b. The visual appeal of the resume and cover letter she has submitted
c. The content of the questions she asks at the end of the interview
d. All of these

30. Stephen's manager notices that he slammed his desk drawer right after he said that he was
happy to work late. To optimize communication, the manager should _______.
a. tell Stephen that he should behave more professionally
b. respond to the verbal message only and thank him for working late
c. seek additional information by saying, I'm not sure that you're okay with staying late. Do
you have somewhere you need to be?
d. avoid asking Stephen to stay late in the future

31. Every country has a unique culture or common heritage that _______.
a. teaches its members how to behave and conditions their reactions
b. results from a common gene pool
c. is created by a structured educational system
d. comes from an orderly system of government and laws
32. The five dimensions of culture are: power distance, individualism, context, time
orientation, and _______.
a. tolerance
b. collectivism
c. communication style
d. space orientation

33. The most important cultural dimension is _______.

a. power distance
b. communication style
c. time orientation
d. context

34. Which of the following is a common trait of a business communicator from a low-context
culture?
a. Valuing group membership
b. Preferring indirect verbal interaction
c. Placing emphasis on written information
d. Relying on context and feeling

35. Communicators from North America, Scandinavia, and Germany tend to be logical,
analytical, and action oriented. They also depend little on the context of a situation to convey
their meaning. These communicators represent what kind of culture?
a. High-context
b. Primitive
c. Ancient
d. Low-context

36. Which of the following countries represents a high-context culture?

a. United States
b. Germany
c. Norway
d. Japan

37. North Americans value straightforwardness and are suspicious of evasiveness. These
traits identify the cultural dimension of _______.
a. individualism
b. power distance
c. communication style
d. time orientation

38. Which of the following countries would likely view a business contract as a binding
document?
a. Mexico
b. Greece
c. Japan
d. Germany

39. Which one of the following statements accurately describes the effect of social media and
communication technology on culture?
a. Because of social media, communicators can now reach out to larger and more varied
audiences than in the past.
b. Social media always makes individuals of various cultures feel connected.
c. Social media offers very little potential for intercultural engagement.
d. Developers of social media should use the same design principles for all audiences.

40. Which one of the following is an accurate statement about ethnocentrism?

a. Ethnocentrism occurs in only Western cultures.
b. Ethnocentrism does not exist in today's culturally diverse workplace.
c. Ethnocentrism causes us to judge others by our own values.
d. Ethnocentrism is the oversimplified perception of a behavioral pattern or characteristic
applied to all groups.

41. An American businessperson who thinks that all Swiss are hardworking, efficient, and
neat is demonstrating an example of _______.
a. ethnocentrism
b. tolerance
c. stereotyping
d. a cultural norm

42. Learning about beliefs and practices different from our own and appreciating them means
displaying _______.
a. tolerance
b. individualism
c. stereotyping
d. gender norming

43. One of the best ways to increase tolerance when communicating with those from other
cultures is to practice empathy, which refers to _______.
a. speaking louder and listening more actively
b. sharing your preferred communication style with others
c. trying to see the world through others' eyes
d. thinking more individualistically

44. While conducting business with a customer from Italy, Zoe was careful to speak slowly
and clearly, using short sentences and familiar words. However, she noticed that the customer
had a glazed expression and did not understand her. Zoe should _______.
a. repeat what she has said in a louder voice
b. graciously accept the blame for not making her meaning clear
c. end the conversation until an interpreter can be found
d. require the Italian businessperson to restate the message in simple words

45. When speaking with someone for whom English is a second language, you should talk
slowly, enunciate clearly, check frequently for comprehension, observe eye messages, listen
without interrupting, and _______.
a. follow up important messages in writing
b. avoid smiling, which might make you appear to lack seriousness
c. use words that will impress the listener
d. assume that the listener understands if he or she nods and smiles in agreement

46. Which of the following is an example of an idiom, which can cause confusion for
multicultural audiences?
a. This product really rocks!
b. Our products can improve your bottom line.
c. Please submit your report ASAP.
d. Call me if you have any questions. paragraphs, and action-specific verbs.

47. Max is preparing a contract between his company and one in Mexico. What should he do
when citing numbers in the contract?
a. Use the metric system.
b. Use American currency figures.
c. Write all months as figures rather than as words.
d. Avoid using any figures in the contract.

48. The benefits of a diverse work environment include improved ability to respond to a
diverse customer base, better decision making and problem solving, and _______.
a. being able to charge more money for products and services
b. having lower payroll expenses
c. improve employee relationships
d. increased automation of lower skill jobs

49. Which of the following is key to improving workforce diversity?

a. Hiring a more homogenous work group
b. Making fewer assumptions
c. Ignoring differences
d. Requiring employees to conform to a standard company culture

50. Workers who communicate successfully with diverse audiences must make few
assumptions, learn about their own
and other cultures, and _______.
a. seek common ground
b. help others conform
c. avoid noticing differences
d. encourage group thinking

51. Because of today's communication technology, employees in today's workforce can

expect to write fewer messages.
a. True
b. False

52. Recruiters often rank communication skills as the highest skill set sought by employers.
a. True
b. False

53. Only managers and business executives need strong communication skills.
a. True
b. False

54. Employees in today's workforce must be prepared to write using a variety of media.
a. True
b. False

55. Appreciating diversity is an example of a "soft" skill.

a. True
b. False

56. The COVID-19 pandemic has accelerated the shift to _______.

a. remote-based work
b. smaller offices
c. larger breakout areas for impromptu meetings
d. digital databases

57. As a frontline employee, you can expect to have more managers in the workforce.
a. True
b. False

58. As an employee in today's digital workplace, you can expect to work more independently
rather than collaboratively in groups.
a. True
b. False

59. Faking attention while others are speaking often increases listening skills.
a. True
b. False
60. Psychological barriers to listening include hearing disabilities, poor acoustics, and noisy
surroundings.
a. True
b. False

61. Physical barriers to listening include only environmentally produced noises.

a. True
b. False

62. Trying to write down the majority of what a speaker is saying can improve your listening
skills.
a. True
b. False

63. If you want to become a better listener, your first step is to stop talking.
a. True
b. False

64. To improve your listening ability, focus both on what is spoken and what is unspoken.
a. True
b. False

65. Brooke is listening to a difficult presentation on nanotechnology development. As a good

listener, she should ask as many questions as possible during the presentation.
a. True
b. False

66. Establishing a receptive mindset refers to the listener's openness to learn something new.
a. True
b. False

67. When verbal and nonverbal messages conflict, listeners tend to believe the verbal
message.
a. True
b. False

68. Most communication is nonverbal.

a. True
b. False

69. Understanding a message involves listening to only the spoken words.

a. True
b. False
70. Most Americans communicate with business associates at approximately 11⁄2 feet.
a. True
b. False

71. The physical appearance of your business documents (such as resume and cover letter)
transmit important nonverbal messages.
a. True
b. False

72. Zach's company does business globally. By associating with people from diverse cultures,
Zach can widen his knowledge of intercultural messages and can increase his tolerance of
differences.
a. True
b. False

73. Guilherme wants to make sure that his posture during his upcoming job interview affirms
his interest in the position. To accomplish this, he should lean slightly forward, sit erectly,
and maintain eye contact.
a. True
b. False

74. Our culture molds the way we think, behave, and communicate.
a. True
b. False

75. Communication style is the most important dimension of culture.

a. True
b. False

76. Individuals in high-context cultures prefer direct verbal interaction, value individualism,
rely on logic, say "No" directly, and give authority to written information.
a. True
b. False

77. The United States is an example of a low-context culture.

a. True
b. False

78. Laura values individualism and personal responsibility in herself and coworkers. These
values are typical of North American culture.
a. True
b. False
79. North Americans consider time a precious commodity and correlate it with productivity,
efficiency, and money.
a. True
b. False

80. Individuals in Western cultures are more relaxed about social status and the appearance of
power.
a. True
b. False

81. Emphasis on the importance of individual words, especially in contracts and negotiations,
is a trait of lower-context cultures such as that of the United States.
a. True
b. False

82. The first step in learning intercultural skills is being aware of your own culture and how it
contrasts with others.
a. True
b. False

83. Ethnocentrism can be found in all cultures.

a. True
b. False

84. Cross-cultural communication can be improved by practicing tolerance and

ethnocentrism.
a. True
b. False

85. When communicating face-to-face with a person from another culture, you can always
assume that the other person is understanding your ideas if he or she smiles.
a. True
b. False

86. For international trade it is a good idea to learn and use the metric system.
a. True
b. False

87. The U.S. workplace is expected to remain dominated by males and be Anglo-oriented.
a. True
b. False

88. Diversity has become a critical bottom-line business strategy in today's global economy.
a. True
b. False

89. Businesses that want to capitalize on cultural diversity need to train workers to think and
act alike to reduce conflicts.
a. True
b. False

90. Lori will be traveling to Germany for a business meeting. Because she and her German
counterparts work for the same company, she can rightfully assume that they are like-minded
and have similar ideas about how to accomplish goals.
a. True
b. False

91. Juan Jose’s supervisor has noticed that Juan Jose works effectively in teams, has excellent
presentation skills, and has strong initiative at resolving problems when they arise. These
qualities that Juan Jose’s supervisor appreciates in Juan Jose as an employee are his _______.
a. professional skills
b. technical skills
c. communication skills
d. emotional skills

92. The ability to store and manage applications and data in remote locations is known as
_______.
a. cloud computing
b. information sharing
c. the Internet of things
d. artificial intelligence

93. Among the five most desirable attributes in job seekers––management, leadership,
problem-solving skills, written and oral communication, and teamwork––which one ranked
first?
a. Leadership
b. Management
c. Written and oral communication
d. Teamwork skills

94. During Maram’s interview, the interviewer was interested in learning more about
Maram’s background and extended the interview an extra 15 minutes. This is an example of
what type of non-verbal communication?
a. Space
b. Territory
c. Time
d. Appearance
95. What are the key components of what constitutes culture, as shared by a society, region,
or country?
a. A complex system of values, traits, morals, and customs
b. A complex system of beliefs and attitudes
c. A complex system of language, religion, and social structure
d. A complex system of social hierarchy and power

96. According to a model developed by cultural anthropologist Edward T. Hall, context refers
to the stimuli, environment, or ambience surrounding an event. When cultures are placed on a
continuum from low to high in relation to context, the model becomes especially useful for
helping to understand differences in _______.
a. personalities
b. attitudes
c. preferences
d. communication styles

97. The belief in the superiority of one's own culture, an attitude found naturally in all
cultures, is known as _______.
a. stereotyping
b. ethnocentrism
c. intolerance
d. closed-mindedness

98. What term describes the oversimplified perception of a behavior pattern or characteristic
applied uncritically to entire groups?
a. Stereotyping
b. Ethnocentrism
c. Empathy
d. Intolerance

99. Power distance refers to how people in different societies see and address differences in
_______.
a. equality
b. diversity
c. communication style
d. individualism

100. Tolerance means learning about those who are not like us and being receptive to new
experiences. One of the best ways to develop this trait is to practice _______.
a. open-mindedness
b. patience
c. empathy
d. ethnocentrism
 CHAP 2

1. Communication is defined as "the transmission of information and meaning from a sender

to a receiver." The crucial element of this definition is _______.
a. transmission
b. information
c. meaning
d. individual

2. The communication process begins when the sender _______.

a. determines the appropriate communication channel
b. has an idea
c. encodes an idea into a message
d. plans for feedback

3. Converting ideas into words or gestures to convey meaning is called _______.

a. feedback
b. decoding
c. encoding
d. nonverbal communication

4. A communication channel _______.

a. is anything that interrupts the transmission of a message
b. should be selected before idea formation
c. includes only digital means for transmitting messages
d. is the medium over which the message travels

5. Which of the following helps improve the communication process?

a. The sender selecting the best communication channel
b. The receiver decoding the message
c. The receiver providing clear and complete feedback
d. The sender encoding the message

6. The process of translating a message from its symbol form into meaning is called _______.
a. feedback
b. decoding
c. encoding
d. noise

7. Communication noise _______.

a. occurs only with the sender in the communication process
b. includes only environmentally produced sounds that prevent the message from being
transmitted
c. is anything that interrupts the transmission of a message
d. describes the medium over which the message travels

8. Feedback can be improved by _______.

a. showing greater empathy
b. speaking more loudly
c. delivering the message in person
d. timing the delivery appropriately

9. Communication is successful only when _______.

a. verbal feedback has been sent to the receiver
b. the sender encodes the idea and transmits the message
c. verbal and nonverbal feedback have been sent to the receiver
d. the receiver understands an idea as the sender intended it

10. Which one of the following statements about the communication process is correct?
a. The use of digital networks as a means to transmit messages is declining in today's
workplace. b. Because the meanings of words are the same among people, participants in the
communication process need not worry about their word selection or usage.
c. Only senders are affected by their mood, frame of reference, background, or culture.
d. Feedback helps the sender know that the message was received and understood.

11. The primary purpose for sending business messages is typically to inform or persuade. A
secondary purpose should be to _______.
a. earn a promotion
b. create documentation for legal purposes
c. sell a product
d. promote goodwill

12. When preparing a business message, you should make your writing audience oriented.
Audience oriented means _______.
a. writing to solve a problem or convey information
b. attempting to get your audience to believe and accept your message
c. presenting ideas clearly but concisely
d. concentrating on looking at the message from the receiver's perspective

13. Business writing should be purposeful. In this context purposefulness can best be defined
as _______.
a. presenting ideas clearly and concisely
b. concentrating on the receiver's perspective instead of your own
c. solving problems and conveying information
d. getting your audience to believe and accept your message
14. Business writing should be economical. In this context economical can best be defined as
_______.
a. presenting ideas clearly and concisely
b. concentrating on the receiver's perspective instead of your own
c. solving problems and conveying information
d. getting your audience to believe and accept your message

15. The first phase of the writing process involves analyzing the audience and your purpose
for writing, anticipating your audience's reaction to your message, and _______.
a. investigating background information
b. composing your message
c. adapting your message to the audience
d. looking for previous company documents on the topic

16. Adapting your message to the audience involves _______.

a. thinking of the right words and tone to use in your message
b. rewriting your message several times to ensure it is clear
c. selecting the best research to incorporate within the message
d. conducting a thorough audience analysis

17. During the second phase of the writing process, you conduct research, _______.
a. clarify the audience demographics, and edit word choices
b. anticipate audience reaction, and adapt the message
c. organize ideas, and compose the message
d. evaluate message effectiveness, and revise as needed

18. In the final phase of the writing process, check the message for clarity and readability,
proofread for errors, and _______.
a. evaluate for effectiveness
b. assess the cost of the selected delivery channel
c. solve the problem
d. forward the document to the publishing department

19. According to writing experts, approximately what percentage of time should you spend
on the prewriting phase of a business message?
a. 90 percent
b. 50 percent
c. 25 percent
d. 5 percent

20. Experts say that writers should spend the most time in the ____ stage of the writing
process. a. prewriting
b. drafting
c. revising
d. thinking

21. Before Melissa organizes and composes her message, she should ask two questions: (1)
Why am I sending this message? and (2) _______.
a. Why did my boss give this task to me?
b. What do I hope to achieve with this message?
c. How can I get this message written as quickly as possible?
d. Do I have enough time and financial resources to complete the work?

22. One technique that improves business writing is the use of empathy, which allows you to
adapt the message to the readers' needs. An abbreviation that you should keep in mind to help
you do this is _______.
a. FIFO
b. ROI
c. WIIFM
d. FYI

23. Lindsay is writing a property description for a new real estate brochure. To make her
brochure more effective, Lindsay should anticipate her audience. This means she _______.
a. identifies the property's outstanding traits and describes them clearly
b. concentrates on the price and value of the property
c. writes using familiar words and a friendly, informal tone
d. considers what the readers are like and how they will react to the message

24. Profiling the audience for a business message helps the writer _______.
a. identify the appropriate tone, language, and channel
b. guarantee that the audience will respond positively to the message
c. select slang the audience will recognize and appreciate
d. create a perfect first draft
25. Travis must determine the appropriate channel for an important business message. In this
context the channel refers to the _______.
a. individuals who will receive the message
b. degree of formality required
c. medium through which the message is sent
d. tone and approach needed to accomplish his purpose

26. Media richness refers to _______.

a. a message's impact on the company's bottom line
b. how much a communication channel costs the company to use
c. the extent to which a channel represents all of the information available
d. the receiver's actions upon receiving the message
27. As Human Resources Manager, Claire must inform Anthony that company job changes
will require him to seek retraining or lose his position. The best channel for Claire to deliver
this message is _______.
a. an e-mail message
b. a face-to-face conversation
c. a voice mail message
d. an instant message

28. Michael usually holds team meetings on Tuesday mornings, but he needs to reschedule
next week's meeting to Wednesday morning. To tell team members of the date change for the
next meeting, Michael should _______.
a. send an e-mail
b. meet in person with each team member
c. call a team meeting
d. write a short team report

29. When selecting a communication channel, you should follow two tips: use richer media
for persuasive or personal messages and _______.
a. use the richest media available
b. select the cheapest channel to reduce costs
c. never use digital media such as instant or text messaging on the job
d. consider what media is the easiest for you to use

30. The primary benefit of choosing a richer medium is that _______.

a. the message can be delivered more quickly
b. messages delivered with a richer medium require less preparation
c. the richer medium allows the sender to be more concise
d. the richer medium allows for greater interactivity and feedback

31. Adaptation is the process of _______.

a. creating a message that suits the audience
b. impressing your audience with high-level diction and long sentences
c. sending feedback to the sender of a message
d. proofreading and editing a written message

32. One technique that improves business writing is the use of empathy. Empathy refers to
_______.
a. using inclusive language to eliminate bias
b. putting yourself in the receiver's shoes to adapt the message to the receiver's needs
c. appealing to the audience by using a sender focus
d. formatting documents to meet business standards

33. Which of the following sentences focuses on audience benefits?

a. We are very pleased to have you as our newest customer.
b. You can help us by sending us your payment immediately.
c. Register now to lock in your preferred travel dates.
d. Act quickly to help us meet our year-end goals.

34. One of the best ways to develop audience benefits is to use the "you" view, which
_______. a. means that all messages are written in the active voice
b. dictates that all sentences be written as commands
c. emphasizes second-person pronouns instead of first-person pronouns
d. uses slang and abbreviations to personalize the message

35. Jorge must inform Samantha that she is not eligible to have an August vacation for which
she recently applied. Which of the following sentences best demonstrates the "you" view
Jorge should use in denying Samantha's application?
a. I have not approved your August vacation because you applied too late.
b. We didn't receive your application early enough for the August vacation schedule.
c. Although the August vacation schedule is full, you may qualify for a vacation in
September if you apply now.
d. The August vacation schedule was posted in May. You should have consulted it earlier.

36. Business messages are most effective when they convey which type of tone?
a. Authoritative
b. Conversational
c. Inquisitive
d. Formal

37. Which of the following sentences demonstrates conversational business writing?

a. Your return policy is the worst.
b. I am upset about your return policy.
c. Your return policy has provoked me to write this letter.
d. I kindly request that my purchase be refunded forthwith.

38. Which of the following sentences is written in an active voice?

a. You will be given your password upon completing the form.
b. We will provide your password after you have completed the form.
c. Your password will be given to you after you complete the form.
d. Errors were made in the report.

39. Which of the following is the best example of bias-free language?

a. Two firemen will collect the toy donations.
b. Every flight attendant must submit her security clearance card before boarding.
c. All managers and their wives are invited to Friday's cocktail party.
d. The servers at Cafe Divine are always professional.

40. Positive language in business messages _______.

a. is an attempt to mislead readers
b. conveys less information than negative language
c. grants the reader all requests or demands
d. tells what is and what can be done

41. Which of the following represents the best business writing?

a. We regret that we are unable to accept you as a credit customer at this time.
b. You will never be sorry that you opened a checking account with our bank.
c. We cannot accept the returned merchandise because it is not resalable.
d. You can return all resalable merchandise for a store credit.

42. Which of the following represents a courteous approach to writing business messages?
a. Use words that sound demanding or authoritative.
b. Turn demands into rhetorical questions.
c. Express legitimate emotions of anger and frustration.
d. Emphasize writer benefits.

43. Which of the following would help to create a conversational but professional tone in a
business message?
a. Headings for skim value
b. Technical terms to establish the writer's industry knowledge
c. Familiar words and personal pronouns
d. Frequent abbreviations such as IMHO and BTW

44. Which of the following demonstrates non-gender-biased business writing?

a. The company’s executives and their wives will attend the Reno conference.
b. All salesmen must meet monthly sales quotas.
c. The female attorney graduated from Yale.
d. The ice personnel will assist you with your forms.

45. Which of the following sentences demonstrates recommended use of pronouns in

business writing?
a. Every physician must carry his own malpractice insurance.
b. Every physician must carry their own malpractice insurance.
c. All physicians must carry their own malpractice insurance.
d. Every physician must carry his or her own malpractice insurance.

46. Which of the following demonstrates effective business writing?

a. An Asian CEO was the keynote speaker.
b. An African-American man was the next customer.
c. A record number of Japanese investors are purchasing real estate in the United States.
d. Mr. Hernandez, a Mexican, is my boss.
47. Business writers who use words such as interrogate, remuneration, and terminate are
using language many readers would consider _______.
a. slang
b. conversational
c. jargon
d. unfamiliar

48. Which one of the following suggestions about using jargon in a business writing should
you follow?
a. Jargon should never be used in business writing.
b. Jargon can always be used in a business writing because it is generally understood by both
insiders and outsiders within a field.
c. Effective business communicators know to include some jargon within any message to
demonstrate their intelligence and command of the English language.
d. Jargon should be used only when the audience will understand it.

49. Which of the following is most acceptable for business writing?

a. Please think about the new insurance option.
b. Caltrek experienced a change in profits during the last fiscal year.
c. Retailers can expect to pay higher amounts for their goods and services.
d. Sheila will examine the job proposal carefully.

50. The communication process begins when the receiver provides feedback to the sender.
a. True
b. False

51. Words have universal meaning among all cultures.

a. True
b. False

52. The medium over which the message travels is called the channel.
a. True
b. False

53. A weak Internet signal is an example of channel noise.

a. True
b. False

54. Translating a message from its symbol form into meaning involves encoding.
a. True
b. False

55. Effective communicators encourage feedback to help them know that their messages have
been understood.
a. True
b. False

56. Paraphrasing a sender's message is an effective tool to promote understanding.

a. True
b. False

57. Digital communication (such as e-mail or social media) has much opportunity for
distraction and breakdown.
a. True
b. False
58. A business message should be long because quantity enhances quality.
a. True
b. False

59. When writing a business message, you should always write it from your perspective.
a. True
b. False

60. The ability to prepare concise, audience-centered, persuasive, and purposeful messages
comes naturally.
a. True
b. False

61. Business writing is very similar to academic writing, in that you should focus on
discussing your feelings and displaying your knowledge.
a. True
b. False

62. An important aspect of the first phase of writing a business message is anticipating the
audience's reaction to the message.
a. True
b. False

63. Shannon is writing a proposal to the board of directors to upgrade the company's
computer equipment. After completing the prewriting phase, Shannon should immediately
start composing the proposal.
a. True
b. False

64. The final task in the third phase of the writing process is evaluating your message to
decide whether it accomplishes your goal.
a. True
b. False
65. In order to be an effective writer, you must follow the three phases of the writing process
in sequence, moving from Phase 1 to Phase 2 to Phase 3 in order.
a. True
b. False

66. You should plan to spend equal amounts of time on each phase of the writing process.
a. True
b. False

67. One of the most important questions you can ask yourself as you begin to compose a
message is What do I hope to achieve?
a. True
b. False

68. The primary purposes of most business documents are to inform and to persuade. A
common secondary purpose is sales growth.
a. True
b. False

69. You are more likely to achieve your communication goals if you profile your audience
and shape the message to that profile.
a. True
b. False

70. You should always approach the writing of a business message with the thought, What's
in it for me?, which encourages you to focus on how you will benefit by sending the message.
a. True
b. False

71. Although messages may have a primary and a secondary audience, the writer needs to
profile only the primary audience to determine the best presentation of the message.
a. True
b. False

72. A written report is a richer communication medium than a face-to-face conversation

because a report can be revisited and revised if necessary.
a. True
b. False

73. An important factor affecting channel choice is the importance of the message.
a. True
b. False
74. Using the "you" view is an effective way for writers to avoid taking on blame in business
messages.
a. True
b. False
75. Empathy, which increases the likelihood of a successful message, occurs when writers put
themselves in the audience's shoes when creating the message.
a. True
b. False

76. The following sentence represents an audience focus: Our product guarantee becomes
effective after we receive full payment.
a. True
b. False

77. Most business messages replace conversation, so they are more effective when they
convey an informal tone.
a. True
b. False

78. To emphasize the "you" view in e-mail messages, you must avoid any phrases that
include the "I/we" view such as I'm happy or We're delighted.
a. True
b. False

79. The active voice is generally preferred in business writing.

a. True
b. False

80. Monica is writing her first safety-inspection report. To sound businesslike and
professional, Monica should include expressions such as the affected party, the undersigned,
and the writer.
a. True
b. False

81. Please enjoy your food or drinks before entering our store as an example of a positive
message.
a. True
b. False

82. Positive language generally conveys more information than negative language does.
a. True
b. False
83. The sentence You must submit your application by Friday is a more effective business
message than Please submit your application by Friday.
a. True
b. False

84. Every mechanic has ten minutes for his morning break is an effectively written sentence.
a. True
b. False

85. In adapting your message to its audience, be sure your language is sensitive and bias free.
Be cautious about expressions that might be biased in terms of gender, race, ethnicity, age,
and_______.
a. religion
b. accented speech
c. disability
d. nationality

86. Whenever possible in business writing, substitute longer, less familiar words for shorter,
simpler words.
a. True
b. False

87. Jargon should never be used in business writing.

a. True
b. False

88. As a business communicator, you should use strong verbs and concrete nouns in your
writing.
a. True
b. False

89. The sentence Our company experienced an increase in profits during the last fiscal year
uses precise, vigorous wording.
a. True
b. False

90. What is the transmission of information and meaning from a sender to a receiver?
a. Communication
b. Transmission
c. Encoding
d. Decoding

91. The verbal and nonverbal responses from a receiver are called _______.
a. encoding
b. feedback
c. transmission
d. decoding

92. During which phase of the writing process does the writer analyze the audience and the
purpose for writing?
a. Prewriting
b. Drafting
c. Revising
d. Editing

93. Sam is collecting and organizing information for a marketing report he is writing. Which
phase of the writing process is Sam currently involved in?
a. Prewriting
b. Drafting
c. Revising
d. Editing

94. When describing richness of communication, the term richness refers to which aspect of
the communication process?
a. The sender encoding the idea
b. The sender decoding the idea
c. The sender selecting the channel to transmit the message
d. The receiver decoding the message

95. The richest mode of communication among the following would be ______.
a. an e-mail, because the message can be retrieved and added to quickly if necessary
b. a wiki, because readers can make their own changes to a group document
c. a letter, because it provides more formality and a printed record
d. a face-to-face interaction, because it provides both verbal and nonverbal messages

96. The style of writing that identifies who is doing the acting is called _______.
a. active voice
b. passive voice
c. business writing
d. you-viewpoint

97. What is the benefit of remembering and applying the acronym WIIFM?
a. WIIFM is a reminder to consider the benefits to yourself.
b. WIIFM is a reminder to consider the benefits to the audience that you are writing to.
c. WIIFM is a reminder to adjust your radio channel.
d. WIIFM is used by business consumers to prioritize their interests.
98. Putting yourself in the receiver's shoes to better adapt your message to that person's needs
is called _______.
a. a benefit
b. a feature
c. empathy
d. richness

99. Which of the following is an example of effectively using positive language?

a. As soon as your new credit line is approved, we will issue you a credit card.
b. Your credit score is insufficient for offering you a credit card.
c. We would like very much to extend to you a line of credit but regret that we are unable to.
d. Please understand how sorry we are that we cannot comply with your request at this time.

100. What is the primary purpose of using jargon?

a. Jargon is used to make sure that only insiders understand your message.
b. Jargon can be used to let readers know that you are an expert in your field.
c. Jargon is used to communicate complex ideas quickly.
d. Jargon is used to purposefully confuse and obfuscate your message.

CHAP 3

1. The second phase of the 3-x-3 writing process begins with _______.
a. analyzing the audience
b. composing the message
c. researching the topic
d. organizing the message

2. Before composing a business document, you should gather information that will answer
which of these questions?
a. Will I have enough time to complete thorough research?
b. What is the receiver to do?
c. What information will be the easiest to locate?
d. How will I use this information?

3. Which of the following would require a formal research method?

a. Routine e-mail messages
b. Business letters
c. Long reports and proposals
d. Oral presentations

4. All of the following are informal research methods except _______.

a. interviewing the target audience
b. conducting a scientific experiment
c. looking in company files
d. brainstorming for ideas

5. When brainstorming to generate ideas, you should _______.

a. critique each idea as it is suggested
b. record ideas without judging them
c. always work alone for greater efficiency
d. allow no more than five ideas to be discussed

6. Which of the following is a formal research method?

a. Talking with your boss
b. Investigating primary sources
c. Brainstorming
d. Looking in company files

7. Which of the following research sources will provide you with firsthand information?
a. Internet websites and articles
b. Reference books
c. Electronic databases
d. Interviews

8. As interns in human resource management, Brad and his team are administering a
professionally developed employee questionnaire to collect information on workplace
violence. This type of research produces data that is considered_______.
a. firsthand information
b. informal documentation
c. supplementary, secondary information
d. scientific experimentation

9. Quality Building Materials Inc. has developed a new whole-house weather blanket and
needs to determine the price point at which builders would switch to this new product. The
best research method for this is a(n) _______.
a. manual search of other companies' price lists
b. interview with a local builder
c. Internet search of insulation values for weather blankets
d. scientific experiment that presents price choices with controlled variables

10. Ahna is sending a persuasive memo to her staff asking them to participate in the new
wellness program. Which of the following sources of information would be most appropriate
to help Ahna shape an effective persuasive message for her staff?
a. Tightly controlled scientific experimentation
b. Library research
c. Questionnaires and surveys of employees
d. Research in company files

11. According to communication experts, what is the greatest failing of business writers?
a. Poor spelling
b. Unclear sentence structure
c. Ambiguous wording
d. Poor organization

12. The direct strategy would be most appropriate when _______.

a. delivering bad news
b. presenting ideas requiring persuasion
c. expecting the audience to be pleased, mildly interested, or neutral
d. revealing sensitive news
13. A scratch list for a message is _______.
a. a list of topics that should not be covered
b. a complex, hierarchical arrangement of your ideas
c. a list of the general topics you wish to include
d. an inventory of illustrations or visuals you plan to include

14. Which of the following is an advantage of the direct strategy?

a. Minimizes a negative reaction
b. Respects the feelings of the reader
c. Saves the reader's time
d. Encourages a fair hearing

15. Which of the following business messages would use the indirect strategy?
a. An e-mail message to staff introducing a new employee
b. An oral presentation detailing the specifics of a new company wellness initiative
c. A letter to a coworker congratulating them on a recent promotion
d. A letter to a customer denying their request for credit

16. Which of the following message openings is the most direct opening for an e-mail
message announcing a new telecommuting plan?
a. A number of employees have asked about telecommuting options.
b. Many businesses have been implementing telecommuting programs, and we have studied
their programs extensively.
c. Rising gas prices have led many companies to allow telecommuting, and we think this
might be a good idea
d. Our new telecommuting program will begin on August

17. Which of the following is an advantage of the indirect strategy?

a. Saves the reader's time
b. Respects the feelings of the audience
c. Reduces frustration
d. Sets a proper frame of mind

18. When you expect a reader of your message to be uninterested, unwilling, displeased, or
hostile, you should _______.
a. put the bad news first
b. begin with the main idea
c. explain all background information first
d. send the message via e-mail, text message, or IM

19. The indirect strategy is most appropriate for what kind of messages?
a. Bad-news messages
b. Sensitive messages
c. Persuasive messages
d. The indirect strategy is appropriate for all the answer choices.

20. Which of the following kinds of business messages typically use the indirect strategy?
a. Nonsensitive memos
b. Routine requests
c. Informational reports
d. Sensitive messages

21. What kind of sentence contains only one independent clause?

a. Simple sentence
b. Compound sentence
c. Complex sentence
d. Compound-complex sentence

22. What kind of sentence contains two independent clauses?

a. Simple sentence
b. Compound sentence
c. Complex sentence
d. Compound-complex sentence

23. What kind of sentence contains an independent clause and a dependent clause?
a. Simple sentence
b. Compound sentence
c. Complex sentence
d. Compound-complex sentence

24. Which of the following is a complex sentence?

a. Visit our website to learn more about our newest product line.
b. The conference will be held on Monday, but few managers will be able to attend.
c. Employers are now using social media sites to screen applicants; therefore, job seekers are
advised to clean up their digital presence.
d. Because of rising insurance premiums, many companies are of ering employee-wellness
incentives.

25. Which of the following is a simple sentence?

a. If health insurance costs continue to rise, employee copays may increase.

b. Having healthy employees decreases the cost of monthly premiums; therefore, we will be
implementing a wellness program.
c. HMO and PPO insurance plans for additional cost savings.
d. Because we will be reducing employee health insurance benefits, some employees may be
unhappy; however, we must make sure that they understand the reason for the change.

26. What is a sentence fragment?

a. Two independent clauses connected without punctuation or a conjunction
b. Two independent clauses connected by a comma without a conjunction
c. A broken-off part of a sentence
d. The part of a sentence containing the verb

27. What is a comma splice?

a. Two independent clauses run together without punctuation or a conjunction
b. Two independent clauses joined by a comma without a conjunction
c. A broken-off part of a sentence
d. Two dependent clauses

28. What is a run-on sentence?

a. Two independent clauses run together without punctuation or a conjunction
b. Two independent clauses joined by a comma without a conjunction
c. A broken-off part of a sentence
d. An independent clause containing two dependent clauses

29. Technology has changed the working environments of employees, that is why employees
are telecommuting more than ever is an example of a _______.
a. complete sentence
b. fragment
c. fused or run-on sentence
d. comma splice

30. What is the recommended maximum number of words for a sentence?

a. 10
b. 20
c. 25
d. 30
31. Placing an idea in italic or bold font is an example of achieving emphasis through
_______. a. style
b. structure
c. mechanics
d. syntax

32. Which of the following sentences emphasizes an idea through style?

a. Consider adding a statement of qualifications section on your résumé; but, most important,
include specific and relevant previous employment information.
b. Add a statement of qualifications section on your résumé, but also include specific and
relevant previous employment information.
c. A résumé should include a statement of qualifications section and specific and relevant
previous employment information.
d. You should include a statement of qualifications section and specific and relevant previous
employment information on your résumé.

33. Which of the following sentences is most effective in de-emphasizing the bad news?
a. Although cash refunds are not of ered, you can exchange resaleable merchandise.
b. Although you can exchange returned merchandise, cash refunds are not available.
c. Because we only exchange merchandise, it is impossible for you to receive a cash refund.
d. Because of our exchange policy, you may not receive a cash refund.

34. Although most business writing should be in the active voice, passive voice is useful to
_______.
a. stress the performer of the action
b. be more concise
c. make the message more direct
d. de-emphasize negative news

35. Which of the following uses only active voice in a complete sentence?
a. The company's rigid return policy was criticized by a few unhappy customers.
b. Because a few unhappy customers criticized the company's rigid return policy.
c. Managers were told about the unhappy customers who criticized the company's rigid return
policy.
d. A few unhappy customers criticized the company's rigid return policy.

36. When should passive voice be used in business writing?

a. When you want to de-emphasize the action or the recipient of the action
b. When you want to emphasize the bad news
c. When you want to conceal the doer of the action
d. Never

37. The use of similar structures to express similar ideas is known as ________ construction.
a. parallel
b. grammatical
c. mechanical
d. dependent

38. Which of the following uses parallel structure?

a. Our new paralegal must be smart, efficient, and have flexibility.
b. The accident shattered her pelvis, dislocated her foot, and her spinal column was broken in
three places.
c. Big business demands superior forecasting, reporting, and analyzing.
d. A good financial planner must be certified, competent, and must possess ethical standards.

39. A(n) ________ modifier occurs when the word or phrase it describes is not close in the
sentence enough to be clear.
a. parallel
b. misplaced
c. distant
d. run-on

40. To avoid dangling modifiers, you can ask which of the following questions after writing
an introductory phrase?
a. Why?
b. Who or What?
c. When?
d. How many?

41. The sentence that expresses a paragraph's main idea is called the _______.
a. blueprint
b. preview
c. supporting content
d. topic sentence

42. How many main ideas should be developed in a paragraph?

a. Two
b. Three to five
c. One
d. As many as needed to convey effective meaning

43. In effective business writing, where in a paragraph does a topic sentence usually appear?
a. At the beginning, to let readers know what to expect
b. Midway through, to keep readers focused
c. At the end, to summarize what has been discussed
d. Topic sentences are unnecessary in business writing.
44. A topic sentence _______. a. provides specific details, explanations, and evidence that
support the main idea of a paragraph
b. links sentences within a paragraph
c. is unnecessary in a paragraph
d. states the main idea of the paragraph

45. The primary purpose of a paragraph supporting sentences is to _______.

a. state the main idea of the paragraph
b. repeat the topic sentence
c. introduce the main idea of the previous paragraph
d. illustrate and strengthen the topic sentence by providing specific details, explanations, and
evidence

46. Paragraphs lack coherence when _______.

a. all sentences are written in the active voice
b. each sentence includes dependent and independent clauses
c. ideas are organized randomly and illogically
d. all sentences are compound sentences

47. To build paragraph coherence, a writer should _______.

a. sustain a key idea by repeating the same expression or a similar one
b. avoid using transitional expressions
c. use nouns instead of pronouns
d. exclusively use active voice

48. Which of the following transitions would help to clarify an idea?

a. Next
b. As a result
c. For example
d. Instead

49. Transitional expressions such as next, first, and finally are useful to show _______.
a. cause and effect
b. illustration
c. comparison and contrast
d. time association

50. Which of the following is true about paragraph length?

a. Shorter paragraphs are generally considered more readable.
b. Longer paragraphs make the writer appear more knowledgeable.
c. Paragraph breaks should be avoided because they may cause the reader to lose interest.
d. Paragraphs should contain multiple main ideas to save space.
51. The prevalence of digital communication has de-emphasized writing skills in the
workplace. a. True
b. False

52. Research is key to helping a writer shape a business message.

a. True
b. False

53. One question writers should attempt to answer before drafting a message is What will
happen if the receiver doesn't complete the requested action?
a. True
b. False

54. Amrit is researching the financial impact of a job-sharing benefit for employees. Talking
with his boss about the possible effects of offering this benefit to employees is an effective
method of formal research.
a. True
b. False

55. Conducting scientific experiments is a method to gather formal research.

a. True
b. False

56. Most routine business messages require formal research.

a. True
b. False

57. Looking in company files for information is considered formal research.

a. True
b. False

58. Brainstorming is an ineffective research technique.

a. True
b. False

59. Many communication experts regard poor organization as the greatest failing of business
writers.
a. True
b. False

60. A scratch list is a detailed, hierarchical plan for organizing ideas and information.
a. True
b. False
61. When you expect the reader to be pleased, mildly interested, or neutral, use the indirect
pattern of organization.
a. True
b. False

62. When you develop a major component on an outline into subpoints, you must have at
least two subpoints.
a. True
b. False

63. Another name for the direct strategy is frontloading.

a. True
b. False

64. One advantage of the direct strategy is that it saves the reader time.
a. True
b. False

65. The indirect strategy works well with three kinds of messages: (a) bad news, (b) ideas that
require persuasion, and (c) sensitive news.
a. True
b. False

66. One advantage of the indirect strategy is that it respects the feelings of the audience.
a. True
b. False

67. The most compelling and effective messages contain one repeated sentence pattern rather
than a variety of sentences.
a. True
b. False

68. The new software system will be installed on Monday; therefore, our intranet will be
unavailable to employees. This is an example of a complex sentence.
a. True
b. False

69. Words such as although, if, because, and since often introduce dependent clauses.
a. True
b. False

70. When introductory dependent clauses precede independent clauses, they are always
followed by a comma.
a. True
b. False

71. A compound-complex sentence contains two complete but related thoughts.

a. True
b. False

72. Employers want employees who can write messages appropriately. They also want
employees who can speak effectively with others. This is an example of a well-written
sentence. a. True
b. False

73. A run-on sentence results when a writer joins two independent clauses with a comma.
a. True
b. False

74. Business writers should strive for a balance of shorter and longer sentences within
paragraphs to avoid monotony.
a. True
b. False

75. Although mechanical means are occasionally appropriate to create emphasis, more often a
writer achieves emphasis stylistically.
a. True
b. False

76. Careful writers avoid labeling main ideas because they know that readers prefer to
identify main ideas for themselves.
a. True
b. False

77. The following sentence effectively uses a stylistic device to de-emphasize the bad news:
Although we don't have any available positions at this time, we were pleased to receive your
application and will keep it on file for six months.
a. True
b. False

78. In the active voice, the subject is acted upon. In the passive voice, the subject is the doer
of the action.
a. True
b. False

79. Passive voice should never be used in business writing.

a. True
b. False
80. The following sentence demonstrates parallel structure: Maggie was organized, punctual,
and she was always positive.
a. True
b. False

81. Modifiers must be close to the words they describe or limit.

a. True
b. False

82. The following sentence contains a dangling or misplaced modifier: Working all night, the
brief was filed with the court on time.
a. True
b. False

83. A paragraph is unified when it develops at least three ideas.

a. True
b. False

84. The topic sentence should relate the main idea of a paragraph.
a. True
b. False

85. Business writers generally place the topic sentence near the end of a paragraph to serve as
a summary.
a. True
b. False

86. All support sentences in a paragraph must relate to the topic sentence.
a. True
b. False

87. Instead would be an effective transition to show contradiction.

a. True
b. False

88. Good writers should avoid repetition of words or key ideas because it shows lack of
creativity.
a. True
b. False

89. Writers can use words and phrases such as on the other hand, as opposed to, and
conversely to show contrast in business messages.
a. True
b. False

90. Business writers should strive for paragraphs with eight or fewer printed lines.
a. True
b. False

91. Interviewing the target audience is what type of research method?

a. Formal
b. Informal
c. Ad hoc
d. Secondary

92. What type of research is generally recommended for long reports and proposals?
a. Formal
b. Informal
c. Primary
d. Observational

93. The organizational writing technique that involves placing the main idea first and
following it with details, an explanation, or evidence is called _______.
a. indirect strategy
b. outlining
c. drafting
d. frontloading

94. Which strategy should be used for messages that contain bad news or ideas that require
persuasion?
a. Direct
b. Indirect
c. Frontloading
d. Outlining

95. What type of sentence contains two independent clauses and one dependent clause?
a. Compound
b. Complex
c. Compound-Complex
d. Simple

96. Joining two independent clauses with a comma results in a _______.

a. run-on sentence
b. comma splice
c. fragment
d. dangling modifier
97. Which of the following is an example of the passive voice?
a. The new organizational chart was presented by our recently hired CEO.
b. Camdyn wrote the annual report.
c. The committee interviewed three candidates.
d. Management encouraged the employees to work from home.

98. What type of error results when the word or phrase a modifier describes is missing from
its sentence?
a. Dangling modifier
b. Run-on sentence
c. Comma splice
d. Misplaced modifier

99. What is the effect when a paragraph employs techniques such as strategic repetition and
transitional expressions?
a. Strong coherence
b. Frontloading
c. Direct strategy
d. Indirect strategy

100. Which of the following are examples of transitional expressions that show time
association?
a. “As a result” and “therefore”
b. “But” and “however”
c. “Before” and “meanwhile”
d. “As opposed to” and “on the other hand”

CHAP 4: Revising Business Messages

1. The final phase of the 3-x-3 writing process is _______. a. pre-writing

b. revising
c. drafting
d. editing

2. Which of the following describes the role of evaluating in the writing process?
a. Evaluating is not necessary for experienced business writers.
b. Evaluating is the process of analyzing whether your message achieves its purpose.
c. Evaluating is only necessary for informal documents such as internal memos or e-mail
messages.
d. Evaluating usually happens during the writing stage as you select words and form
sentences.
3. Monica's supervisor has expressed concern about the readability of her messages, claiming
that paragraphs are often too
long. What aspect of her writing should Monica focus on to address this issue?
a. Researching
b. Proofreading
c. Formatting
d. Evaluating her purpose

4. Slashing wordy expressions, getting rid of long lead-ins, dropping fillers, and rejecting
redundancies are all ways of making your writing more _______.
a. informal
b. formal
c. persuasive
d. concise

5. Which of the following statements regarding concise writing is accurate?

a. Concise writing is only appropriate for short messages.
b. Concise writing is easier to read and comprehend.
c. Concise writing has the same impact as writing that is wordy, so long as the message is the
same.
d. Concise writing should be used only with logical messages, not emotional ones.

6. Slashing wordy expressions means _______.

a. making your writing style more direct
b. making your writing more persuasive
c. combining sentences so that you have fewer sentences overall
d. clarifying and shortening vague expressions

7. Due to the fact that is a wordy expression that could be shortened to the word(s) _______.
a. Because
b. Until
c. Despite
d. Although
8. Long sentence lead-ins _______.
a. are unnecessary introductory words
b. introduce the "meat" of the message
c. avoid reader confusion
d. demonstrate effective language usage

9. A long lead-in is a series of introductory words that _______.

a. are not necessary for the essential meaning of the message and should be removed
b. play an important role in making the message sound more professional
c. are essential for making the message more persuasive
d. can be retained or removed in the message because they do not change the meaning of the
message

10. There is and It is are examples of _______.

a. long lead-ins.
b. unnecessary fillers.
c. redundancies.
d. grammatical errors.

11. Which of the following sentences contains a redundancy?

a. At this point in time your account is now up to date.
b. This is to inform you that your account is up to date.
c. Due to the fact that we have just received your check, your account is up to date.
d. Your account has been updated.

12. There is a new software company that will be hiring employees is an example of a
sentence with _______.
a. concise wording
b. a wordy prepositional phrase
c. a filler
d. faulty parallelism

13. Which of the following sentences contains unnecessary filler?

a. There is a need to discuss three important issues at today's meeting.
b. Only one job opening is available.
c. Our of ice manager is the one who won the raf le.
d. Three candidates are running for the board.

14. Which sentence contains a redundant expression?

a. It is essential that our accounting records are accurate.
b. Let's not repeat our competitor's mistakes again.
c. Please refer to the June financial statements.
d. I want to thank each stockholder.

15. Microblogging _______.

a. is ineffective for communication with customers
b. involves adding website links to a blog to encourage feedback from others
c. consists of short messages exchanged on social media networks
d. is performed primarily by corporate officials who write comments about their companies

16. Which of the following are tips one should follow when microblogging?
a. Ignore spelling, grammar, and punctuation errors.
b. Include only the main ideas.
c. Depersonalize your message if possible.
d. Include long, vivid descriptions.

17. One way to improve the clarity of your writing is to apply the KISS formula. KISS stands
for _______.
a. Key Ideas Succinctly and Swiftly
b. Keep It Short and Simple
c. Knowledge Is Supported and Summarized
d. Know Intentions, Strategies, and Solutions

18. Katelyn is writing a letter to thank a potential employer for her job interview. Which of
these sentences contains modern expressions Katelyn should use?
a. Thank you in advance for considering me for your available position.
b. You will note that my coursework has thoroughly prepared me for your medical technician
position.
c. Enclosed herein please find the salary history you requested during the interview.
d. Pursuant to your request, I will return for a second interview on May 28.

19. Think outside the box is an example of _______.

a. clear, precise language
b. a buried verb
c. a cliché
d. outdated language

20. Expressions that are intended to impress rather than express are known as _______.
a. clichés
b. buzzwords
c. trite phrases
d. overly exuberant

21. Which of the following sentences contains a cliché?

a. We can prove the wicked good benefits of exercise for stress reduction.
b. Employees who engage in a regular fitness program are likely to pass the physical exam
with flying colors.
c. If you join this health club, you won’t blow your budget.
d. ICYMI, you, to, should join the fitness program so you can take advantage of the company
discount.

22. Snarky is an example of a(n) ____________ expression.

a. slang
b. clichéd
c. active
d. passive
23. Using slang in business writing will have the effect of _______.
a. clarifying meaning
b. sounding professional
c. using words that quickly go out of fashion.
d. creating an impression of being hip and up to date

24. What does the social media slang expression br mean?

a. be real
b. best regards
c. be ready
d. best results

25. Converting verbs into noun expressions _______.

a. decreases sentence length
b. reduces verb strength
c. increases the reader's ability to process the information
d. does all of these choices

26. Which of the following sentences contains an example of a buried verb?

a. Your supervisor will give consideration to all capital budget requests.
b. The committee worked on establishing a fund for scholarships.
c. The benefits committee will be approving the plan.
d. The scholarship committee discussed several promising applications.

27. Words such as definitely, quite, actually, extremely, and totally are _______.
a. adjectives that add a welcome degree of emotion to your writing
b. adjectives that may be omitted because they are imprecise
c. adverbs that should be used only sparingly in business writing
d. adverbs that should be used as often as possible in business writing to show excitement and
enthusiasm

28. Jordan is a marketing manager for a vacation resort. In writing a description of his resort,
which of these descriptions illustrates clear writing that creates meaningful images and uses
vivid adjectives?
a. The resort of ers luxurious suites with Jacuzzi tubs and heated outdoor saunas.
b. The all-inclusive, top-notch resort of ers totally marvelous suites with incredible extras.
c. The resort has nice rooms.
d. The resort of ers all-inclusive amenities.

29. Which of the following sentences uses precise language?

a. The board approved a substantial budget increase.
b. The board approved a 34 percent budget increase.
c. The board approved a large budget increase.
d. The board approved a sizeable budget increase.

30. Which of the following sentences demonstrates clear writing?

a. A supervisor asked everyone to work an extra day.
b. A supervisor asked production employees to work an extra day.
c. A supervisor asked everyone to work on Saturday.
d. Lindsey Goulet asked production employees to work on Saturday.

31. Document design techniques to improve readability include _______.

a. use of white space
b. typefaces and fonts
c. headings for visual impact
d. all of these choices

32. White space refers to _______.

a. unclear content
b. margins only
c. the time a reader takes to process information
d. empty space on the page
33. To improve readability and comprehension, _______.
a. use approximately 20 or fewer words per sentence
b. construct paragraphs consisting of 12-15 printed lines
c. develop long paragraphs
d. avoid the use of topic sentences on shorter paragraphs

34. Dylan is designing a document. Which of the following suggestions will help Dylan
enhance readability and comprehension in his document?
a. Justify the left and right margins so they are both even.
b. Create white space by using headings, bulleted or numbered lists, short paragraphs, and
effective margins.
c. Use multiple typefaces within the document.
d. Use ALL CAPS anywhere in a document to emphasize key points.

35. Which statement about margins and text alignment is true?

a. Margins define the reading area and provide important visual relief.
b. Nearly all text in Western cultures is aligned at the right.
c. Business letters and memos usually have side margins of 2 inches.
d. Ragged right margins decrease white space and readability.

36. What is the most common serif typeface?

a. Arial
b. Times New Roman
c. Univers
d. Calibri

37. How many typefaces should you use in a business document?

a. No more than two
b. At least three
c. Up to five
d. At least ten

38. Which font size are readers generally most comfortable with for body text?
a. 8- to 9-point
b. 10- to 12-point
c. 14-point
d. more than 14-point

39. Which of the following statements describes the benefit of using bulleted or numbered
lists?
a. Lists decrease a reader's comprehension of the main ideas.
b. Lists allow readers to review main ideas quickly.
c. Lists confuse readers because they are visually distracting.
d. Lists decrease the readability level of a document.

40. Listed items should reflect parallel structure, which means that _______.
a. they should be next to each other rather than vertical
b. each should be followed by a comma
c. they should all use the same graphic font
d. they should be expressed using the same grammatical structure

41. The term parallelism means _______.

a. making sure that the same number of words is used in each of the items in a bulleted or
numbered list
b. using the same grammatical structure for items in a bulleted or numbered list
c. ensuring that you have a minimum of three items in your bulleted or numbered list
d. making sure that your bulleted or numbered lists start with a verb

42. Which statement regarding headings is correct?

a. Headings provide visual distraction for readers; thus, they should be avoided.
b. Headings appear most often in business letters.
c. Headings highlight information and improve readability.
d. Headings should be avoided in all business documents.

43. Which statement about proofreading is correct?

a. Good business writers wait at least 24 hours or longer to proofread a document.
b. Only important messages or documents need to be proofread.
c. Documents with errors do not affect a person's credibility because readers understand that
everyone makes mistakes.
d. Proofreading should occur while the document is being written.
44. Proofreading includes which of the following tasks?
a. Improving content and tone
b. Fine-tuning sentence and paragraph structure
c. Correcting spelling, grammar, punctuation, names and numbers, and format
d. Determining whether the message should be written using the direct or indirect
organizational pattern

45. Branch managers of First Federated Savings and Loan received this e-mail message:
Please inform all personal that management retains the right to check personal belongings of
employees before employees leave the bank. What error did the writer make?
a. A grammatical mistake
b. A proofreading error
c. A failure to use spell check
d. No error was made. The sentence is correct as written.

46. Which of the following recommendations should you follow when you proofread a
routine document?
a. If proofreading on screen, display the entire document at once.
b. Proofread the document using a printed copy.
c. Proofread your document as you compose your ideas.
d. Rely solely on a spell-checker to catch any errors.

47. Which of the following suggestions should you follow for proofreading a complex
document?
a. Be prepared to find errors.
b. Increase your reading speed.
c. Read the message only once.
d. Proofread the message immediately after it has been fully written.

48. A good standard to apply to your writing is to remember that it _______.

a. is not as important as it seems
b. takes the place of a personal appearance
c. is not read closely by many audiences
d. should primarily be used for formal messages

49. What is the best way to judge the success of your writing?
a. Receiving a raise or promotion
b. Using a spell-checker
c. Receiving feedback from your receiver
d. Organizing your message using the direct organizational strategy
50. Taylor is enrolled in a business communications course at her local community college.
She just received a paper back from her professor who noted that Taylor should review the
principles for comma usage. How should Taylor handle this criticism?
a. Report her teacher to the president of the college for abuse.
b. Argue with her teacher about comma rules.
c. Withdraw from the class.
d. Accept the feedback and use it constructively to improve her future writing assignments.

51. The terms editing, proofreading, and evaluating are synonymous.

a. True
b. False

52. Professional writers develop a system of writing and revising that works for them; they
may revise at any point in the process.
a. True
b. False

53. Concise messages are easier to read and comprehend.

a. True
b. False

54. You can often reduce wordy expressions to single words.

a. True
b. False

55. In the near future is a more effective expression in business writing than soon.
a. True
b. False

56. You will be interested to learn that is an effective way to begin a business message
because it fosters goodwill.
a. True
b. False

57. There are many account representatives who can help you with your order is an example
of a cliché.
a. True
b. False

58. Redundant words or phrases convey a meaning more than once.

a. True
b. False
59. Each and every student will be required to participate in one group writing project
contains a redundant expression.
a. True
b. False

60. Microblogging consists of short messages exchanged on social media sites.

a. True
b. False

61. Conciseness is critical when microblogging.

a. True
b. False

62. Only main ideas should be included in a microblog.

a. True
b. False

63. Your goal as a business writer is to impress your reader.

a. True
b. False

64. Expressions such as pursuant to your request and thank you in advance increases the
professionalism of business messages.
a. True
b. False

65. The following sentence demonstrates effective writing: Please do not hesitate to call me if
you have any questions.
a. True
b. False

66. Clichés such as think outside the box are effective to use with multicultural audiences
because they have flexible meanings.
a. True
b. False

67. To sound current, fresh, and trendy, effective business communicators make ample use of
slang when writing and speaking.
a. True
b. False
68. In describing sexual harassment in the workplace, Julia explains that Supervisors are
getting burned in harassment lawsuits. Julia is using slang in this statement.
a. True
b. False

69. Converting a verb into a noun creates stronger, more professional business writing (e.g.,
made a decision instead of decided).
a. True
b. False

70. The following sentence contains a zombie noun: Our purchasing department will give
consideration to the RFP submitted by Powertex.
a. True
b. False

71. You can streamline your writing and make it more emphatic by using vivid adverbs such
as very, extremely, and actually as often as possible.
a. True
b. False

72. As you revise, make your writing clear by using specific verbs, concrete nouns, and vivid
adjectives.
a. True
b. False
73. The following sentence contains clear and precise wording: In some businesses they
won't let you accumulate sick leave.
a. True
b. False

74. Well-designed documents give the impression that the writer is intelligent.
a. True
b. False

75. When designing documents, you should place as much text as possible on a page to keep
the reader engaged.
a. True
b. False

76. Nearly all text in Western cultures is aligned at the left and reads from left to right.
a. True
b. False

77. When right margins are not aligned or justified, they provide more white space and
improve readability.
a. True
b. False

78. Business messages should contain at least three typefaces to add emphasis and contrast.
a. True
b. False

79. Typing a sentence in all capital letters is an effective way to create emphasis.
a. True
b. False

80. Use bulleted lists to represent a sequence of ideas or a numbered order.

a. True
b. False

81. When using either a bulleted or numbered list, you should always follow each idea with
end punctuation.
a. True
b. False

82. Headings are an effective tool for highlighting information.

a. True
b. False

83. Headings should be used only in formal messages.

a. True
b. False
84. Editing and proofreading are interchangeable terms.
a. True
b. False

85. An electronic grammar- or spell-checker provides sufficient proofreading for business

messages.
a. True
b. False

86. You are more likely to find errors when proofreading on a computer screen than on a
printed copy.
a. True
b. False

87. Proofreading should take place only after the content of a message is in its final form.
a. True
b. False
88. You should follow the same proofreading process for a routine document and a complex
document.
a. True
b. False

89. Proofreading is the last step in Phase 3 of the 3-x-3 writing process.
a. True
b. False

90. The best way to judge the success of your communication is through feedback.
a. True
b. False

91. The final phase of the 3-x-3 writing process focuses on _______.
a. drafting and writing
b. editing, proofreading, and evaluating
c. brainstorming and researching
d. revising the flow of ideas

92. There are three building sites we are considering. The phrase There are is an example of
a(n) _______.
a. long lead-in
b. wordy expression
c. buried verb
d. unnecessary filler

93. Each and every is an example of a(n) _______.

a. trite expression
b. unnecessary filler
c. cliché
d. redundant expression

94. Short messages exchanged on social media networks such as Twitter, Facebook, and
Tumblr are called _______.
a. e-mails
b. blogs
c. microblogs
d. weblogs

95. Words that have become fashionable and often are meant to impress rather than
express––such as optimize, incentivize, and impactful––are called _______.
a. buzzwords
b. slang
c. clichés
d. trite expressions

96. The expression shoot from the hip is an expression that has been exhausted by overuse
and is an example of _______.
a. a cliché
b. slang
c. a trite expression
d. excessive exuberance

97. Empty space on a page is called _______. a. white space

b. margins
c. justified
d. headings

98. What is an effective tool for highlighting information and improving readability by
encouraging the writer to group similar material together and help readers separate major
ideas from details?
a. Margins
b. White space
c. Headings
d. Justified

99. The process of checking for problems with spelling, grammar, punctuation, names and
numbers, and format is called _______.
a. proofreading
b. editing
c. evaluating
d. drafting

100. The process known as curbing exuberance involves _______.

a. slashing wordy expressions
b. guarding against excessive use of intensifiers such as very, definitely, and really
c. shunning slang and buzzwords
d. eliminating zombie nouns

CHAP 5: Short Workplace Messages and Digital Media

1. Which of the following statements about communication in today's workplace is correct?

a. Despite the increased use of social media networks, companies are reluctant to use social
media sites such as Facebook and Twitter to conduct business.
b. Individuals are using more mobile electronic devices to communicate with others.
c. Because individuals are more dispersed, messages are longer and less frequent.
d. Because of social media networks, today's communication includes more one-on-one
conversations.

2. Which statement about the use of e-mail in today's workplace is correct?

a. Workers report spending about three hours per day on work e-mail.
b. Businesses use memos more frequently than e-mail messages to communicate internally
with employees.
c. Only managers and top-level business executives use e-mail to communicate with others.
d. Today's workers spend very little time writing e-mail messages.

3. Which of the following is an effective strategy for controlling your e-mail inbox?
a. Read and respond to each message within 10 minutes.
b. Check your e-mail only in the mornings.
c. Check your e-mail at set times during the day.
d. Ask your co-workers not to e-mail you unless it's urgent.

4. Which of the following is an appropriate situation for sending an e-mail message in a

business context?
a. Matthew is angry with one of his colleagues and wants to let her know exactly how he
feels.
b. Jane found a great political joke she wants to share with her colleagues.
c. Chris must send the monthly sales data to his department.
d. Maggie needs to vent her frustrations about working conditions to her shift supervisor.

5. Which of the following is an effective subject line?

a. PARKING PERMITS
b. Staf Meeting
c. Please Respond to Job Satisfaction Survey
d. Important! Please Read Now

6. What is the current advice on the use of a greeting on business e-mails?

a. Omit greetings because they make an e-mail appear too casual.
b. Add a greeting only when forwarding an e-mail with a lengthy header.
c. Don't waste precious digital space on the nonessential keystrokes of a greeting or
salutation.
d. Begin with a greeting to provide a visual cue and to show friendliness.

7. Bennett is sending an e-mail message about a change in procedure for submitting work
hours. Which of the following states the purpose in a way that could be used to start the email
message?
a. Recently, the management staf discussed our process for submitting work hours.
b. A new procedure for submitting work hours will go into ef ect on April 1.
c. Are you in the mood to try something a little different?
d. We all hate when procedures change, but sometimes change is needed.

8. Which of the following will help improve the readability of an e-mail message’s body
section?
a. Including a friendly salutation
b. Using numbered or bulleted lists
c. Writing ideas in long, well-developed paragraphs
d. Starting the message indirectly

9. Which of the following should be included in an effective email closing?

a. An action statement with due dates and requests
b. A promise to follow up later
c. A reminder of the sender’s credentials and expertise
d. A specific timeframe in which the sender should reply

10. The final element of an e-mail message should be _______.

a. your name and full contact information
b. a witty phrase and your name
c. the name of the business or organization only
d. an attachment

11. What advice should you follow when using down-editing to reply to an e-mail message?
a. Do not include a courteous opening with your reply message.
b. Avoid the use of different colors when inserting your comments.
c. Delete the sender's message header, signature, and all unnecessary parts.
d. Add a comment after every sentence in the original message.

12. Which of the following tips can help with e-mail inbox management?
a. Reply to all messages immediately so that they don’t get lost in the shuffle.
b. For messages that require more than two minutes for a response, add them to your to-do
list or schedule them on your calendar to take care of later.
c. Send a polite note of receipt for every message you receive.
d. Leave your inbox open at all times so you can see the messages as they come in.

13. Because Maya knows that the most important part of an e-mail message is the subject
line, she should _______.
a. avoid using verbs
b. use all caps to grab the reader's attention
c. adjust the subject line if the topic changes after repeated replies
d. limit her phrasing to three words for conciseness

14. Although e-mail has largely replaced memos, you may still need to use the memo format
if _______.
a. the message is being sent to an external audience
b. a permanent record is needed
c. the message needs to be written in a more informal tone
d. all employees have access to e-mail

15. Sam wants to ensure that the tone of his informational e-mail matches his intent. He
should _______.
a. delete the e-mail and phone the recipient instead
b. read the message aloud to himself
c. wait 72 hours before sending the message
d. include several exclamation points to express enthusiasm

16. When preparing to send an e-mail with an attachment, you should _______. a. notify the
recipient via phone that they will be receiving an attachment
b. leave the body of the e-mail blank
c. specify the date, sender's name, receiver's name, and subject line on the attachment
d. include the word ATTACHMENT (in all caps) in the subject line

17. Most e-mail messages and memos _______.

a. have nonsensitive topics and begin directly
b. require persuasion
c. are indirect and begin with an explanation
d. need not be carefully organized because they are informal

18. Both e-mails and memos have four key guide words calling for a subject line, a dateline,
the identification of the sender, and _______.
a. the sender’s location
b. the receiver’s location
c. the identification of the receiver
d. the time

19. The use of all caps for phrasing in an e-mail message is often read as _______.
a. positive emphasis
b. deadline oriented
c. shouting
d. humor or sarcasm

20. An e-mail message or memo usually ends with action information, dates, or deadlines; a
summary of the message; or a _______.
a. witty quotation
b. copyright notice or confidentiality statement
c. closing thought
d. reference line that includes the typist's initials
21. Binh is delivering some office equipment to one of his company’s clients. He wants to
text the admin, whom he has never met, and let them know what time he will be arriving.
Which of the following etiquette tips should he follow?
a. Identify himself, giving his name, the purpose of his visit, and his phone number.
b. Text the admin all the details of the delivery, including the cost of the equipment.
c. Text a greeting and wait for a response.
d. Don’t text because the admin doesn’t know him.
22. Which of the following statements describes the benefit of instant messaging for
businesses?
a. Although companies have found instant messaging to be a valuable tool for employees to
communicate with one another, they have been hesitant to use instant messaging for customer
service.
b. Unlike text messaging, instant messaging is not subject to discovery in lawsuits.
c. Instant messaging allows people to share information immediately and make decisions
quickly.
d. Instant messaging decreases presence functionality.

23. Which of the following is a disadvantage of instant messaging and text messaging?
a. Lack of privacy
b. Low cost
c. Real-time communication
d. Speed

24. Text messaging requires a SMS, which stands for _______.

a. simple message synchronization
b. short message service
c. systems messaging synchronization
d. single mobility system

25. Why do some employers forbid employees to use instant messaging (IM) and texting?
a. Instant messaging and texting are more expensive to use than faxes or phone calls.
b. Some employers consider IM and texting distractions.
c. Delivery of instant and text messages takes longer than e-mail message delivery.
d. According to federal regulations, businesses cannot conduct business using instant or text
messaging.

26. Zahra’s company has decided to let employees use instant messaging (IM) as an internal
communication tool, and she wants to make sure that she's using it professionally. What
should she do?
a. Make sure she's available via IM at all times so that her colleagues can always reach her. b.
Include both professional and personal contacts on the same IM contact list for efficiency.
c. Respect her receivers by using proper grammar, spelling, and proofreading in her instant
messages.
d. Create an imaginative IM name for herself such as "PrettySmart1."
27. Tara is starting a new job that will allow her to use text messaging. What advice should
she follow?
a. When she doesn't receive an immediate response from a coworker, continue to text
message the coworker until he or she responds.
b. Feel free to send any kind of message to her coworkers using this medium.
c. Identify herself when texting a new contact.
d. Send texts while she is having a face-to-face conversation to demonstrate her popularity.

28. Podcasts and wikis are part of the new user-centered virtual environment called _______.
a. the Total Network
b. Web 2.0
c. cloud computing
d. VPN

29. A big benefit of podcasting is _______.

a. permanence
b. portability
c. teleconference capability
d. presence functionality

30. Businesses have embraced podcasts for audio and video messages because podcasts
_______.
a. do not require a live presence, yet offer a friendly human face
b. can't replace costlier live teleconferences but can replace most business travel
c. provide up to 1,000 views per podcast, saving money over individual presentations
d. broadcast interactive, nonrepetitive information

31. TED Talks are a popular example of podcasts. TED refers to _______.
a. Teaching Educators to Make a Difference
b. Teamwork, Education, and Drive
c. Technology, Education, and Design
d. the first name of the organization's founder

32. The four main players of podcasts are corporations, entrepreneurs, news/media
organizations, and _______.
a. religious organizations
b. government organizations
c. organizations devoted to promoting education
d. non-profit organizations

33. Which type of podcast would a federal credit union likely support through buying podcast
ads?
a. A true crime podcast
b. A podcast offering advice on how to manage one’s money
c. A current events podcast
d. A sports podcast

34. Crowdsourcing is _______.

a. the ability to send short messages consisting of 140 characters or fewer
b. the practice of tapping into the combined knowledge of an online community to solve
problems and complete assignments
c. the use of fraudulent schemes on the Internet
d. an e-mail response technique that includes only those parts of an e-mail message to which
the receiver is responding

35. As a project manager, Mallory needs to make sure that employees who missed a live
training session are able to view or complete it later. Which of the following tools should she
consider using for this purpose?
a. A smartphone
b. A podcast
c. A blog
d. A video conference

36. Why are many companies eager to jump into making a podcast series?
a. Podcasts are independent of media algorithms and help to diversify their media channels.
b. Podcasts can be produced easily and quickly.
c. Podcasts provide a permanent record, similar to a memo.
d. Podcasts are useful for communicating information when a company is faced with a crisis
or emergency.

37. Blogs are most similar to _______.

a. tweets
b. text messages
c. journal entries
d. instant messages

38. Which of these statements correctly describes why businesses are using blogs?
a. Blogs have the potential to reach a vast, far-flung audience and can help companies share
the story of their brand.
b. Blogs have become the primary method of internal business communications.
c. Blogs provide companies with anytime access to digital audio and video files containing
corporate training, marketing, and informational messages.
d. Blogs can safeguard against hackers and rival companies.

39. What percent of today’s Fortune 500 companies maintain a public facing blog?
a. Less than 30 percent
b. 54 percent
c. 75 percent
d. More than 90 percent

40. You are an executive chairman faced with a business emergency so severe that the
company risks losing customers and employees. You want to use the blog to help mitigate the
impact of the crisis. Which of the following approaches will help you to achieve your goal?
a. Use the blog to emphasize company strengths and downplay the crisis.
b. Use the blog to create transparency and communicate up-to-date information regarding the
business's emergency.
c. Post information on the blog that will soothe emotional reactions.
d. Do not address rumors or misinformation on the blog; address factual content only.

41. Which of the following is an effective strategy to make your blog post engaging?
a. Use long sentences.
b. Write long paragraphs including a lot of information.
c. Use numbers to structure the post.
d. Impress your readers with high-level vocabulary.

42. The opening of a blog should _______.

a. identify a need and propose to solve the problem
b. include a call to action
c. provide examples, quotations and testimonials, or statistics
d. include your name and title

43. Geoffrey must create a corporate blog. Advice he should follow in writing his blog is that
it should be structured with numbers, bullets, and sub-headings, contain expressive action
verbs, and use_______.
a. academic vocabulary
b. formal language
c. conversational language
d. texting abbreviations

44. Marketers often use blogging as a platform to get their messages to spread rapidly online,
also known as _______.
a. blowing up
b. going viral
c. optimization
d. trend advertising

45. One of the key advantages for businesses of using social media is that social media
_______.
a. is less expensive
b. has less privacy risk
c. is more efficient
d. allows for the exchange of ideas

46. Which demographic within the American population contains the most avid social media
users?
a. Generation X
b. Millennials
c. Generation Z
d. All generations use social media equally.

47. Why are many companies investing in internal social networking platforms?
a. Creating their own networking platform is less expensive.
b. They hope that it will lead to greater employee engagement and productivity.
c. Their employees are dissatisfied with the current social media platforms.
d. Current social media platforms appeal only to teenagers.

48. What are the advantages of using enterprise social media networks versus e-mail?
a. Both e-mail and enterprise social media networks provide effective two-way
communication.
b. Social media networks are less expensive and easier to manage than company e-mail.
c. Social media networks help to maintain a strong corporate hierarchy.
d. Enterprise social media networks are searchable, and users can access and send
information more efficiently.

49. What are the risks for businesses using enterprise social media networks?
a. Unexpected expenses, technical failures, and lack of compatibility with existing systems
b. Lost productivity, damage to their reputation, and legal issues
c. Lack of employee adoption and lack of customer engagement
d. Cyber bullying and loss of privacy

50. Travis has asked you for some advice regarding the use of social networking in the
workplace. What advice will you share?
a. Feel free to share any information on social networking sites.
b. Refuse friend requests or "unfriend" people to avoid jeopardizing professional
relationships.
c. Establish boundaries, and don’t share information online that you wouldn’t share openly in
the office.
d. Assume the content posted on a social networking site is protected.

51. Social media messages have replaced e-mail messages within organizations and to
external audiences.
a. True
b. False
52. E-mail is appropriate for short, informal messages that request information and respond to
inquiries.
a. True
b. False

53. Most e-mails should be organized using the indirect organizational strategy.
a. True
b. False

54. Greetings such as Hi, Katy are unnecessary in e-mail messages because it is already clear
that the receiver is the intended recipient.
a. True
b. False

55. Like e-mail messages, memos can be used to communicate within an organization and
with external customers, companies, and organizations.
a. True
b. False

56. Memos are used to convey procedures, official instructions, and reports.
a. True
b. False

57. Memos should be organized directly by conveying the main idea first. a. True
b. False

58. Deadlines and action information should be included in the body of an e-mail message or
memo.
a. True
b. False

59. Although teenagers use instant messaging (IM) frequently, corporations do not use this
communication tool.
a. True
b. False

60. Text and instant messaging are replacing e-mail for short internal communication.
a. True
b. False

61. The major attraction of instant messaging (IM) in business is real-time communication
with colleagues anywhere in the world as long as a cell phone signal or a Wi-Fi connection is
available.
a. True
b. False

62. Some advantages of texting and instant messaging include immediacy and cost.
a. True
b. False

63. All companies in today's workplace allow employees to text or instant message on the
job.
a. True
b. False

64. One benefit of using text or instant messaging on the job is that these messages cannot be
used as evidence in lawsuits.
a. True
b. False

65. Before using IM or text messaging on the job, be sure you have permission.
a. True
b. False

66. When texting or instant messaging on the job, don't worry about your grammar and
spelling because your goal is to send quick, short messages.
a. True
b. False

67. The top digital media device being used to disseminate information today is podcasts.
a. True
b. False
68. Podcasting has experienced large growth and has spread among various user groups
online.
a. True
b. False

69. Businesses use podcasting for sending audio and video messages that do not require a live
presence yet offer a friendly human face.
a. True
b. False

70. One advantage of podcasts is that they can replace costlier forms of communication
technologies such as teleconferences.
a. True
b. False

71. Podcasts are digital audio programs resembling _______.

a. radio shows
b. TV shows
c. teleconferencing
d. videoconferencing

72. The most popular genre of podcasts is _______.

a. news
b. sports
c. comedy
d. true crime

73. What is the advantage of podcasts over live teleconferences?

a. Podcasts are less expensive to produce than live teleconferences.
b. Podcasts are more impersonal than live teleconferences.
c. Podcasts are more popular than live teleconferences.
d. Podcasts require little training to produce.

74. Which audiences do businesses target when they produce podcasts?

a. Internal audiences only, e.g., employees
b. External audiences only, e.g., customers
c. Both internal and external audiences
d. Potential customers

75. Blogs can be useful to a company for crisis communication.

a. True
b. False

76. Although blogs have proven to be an effective tool for some individuals, businesses are
reluctant to use them because they are limited in the audiences that they reach.
a. True
b. False

77. Blogs can produce unbiased consumer feedback more quickly and cheaply than familiar
techniques like focus groups and surveys.
a. True
b. False

78. Effective blog entries use informal language and active verbs.
a. True
b. False

79. Companies use blogs only for public and customer relations.
a. True
b. False
80. One of the prominent business uses of blogs is to provide up-to-date company
information to the press and the public.
a. True
b. False

81. Three Ways to Improve Your Resume is an effective title for a blog post.
a. True
b. False

82. An effective blogging strategy is to post compelling comments on other bloggers’ posts.
a. True
b. False

83. Social networking sites enable businesses to connect with customers and employees,
share company news, and exchange ideas.
a. True
b. False

84. Twitter is very popular for personal use with employees under age 35, but businesses
have not yet found positive business applications for this digital communication tool.
a. True
b. False

85. Many companies have modeled their internal social networks after Facebook.
a. True
b. False

86. Social networks can help connect employees who are geographically dispersed.
a. True
b. False

87. Social media is more widely used for marketing than for daily job tasks.
a. True
b. False

88. You must be wary of the many risks in the cyber world, which include not only appearing
in inappropriate photographs but also making "friends" online.
a. True
b. False

89. Twitter is the most popular social media network in America, used by nearly 80 percent
of adults.
a. True
b. False

90. Privacy settings on social networking sites prevent others from accessing your personal
information.
a. True
b. False

91. What does the term “down-editing” mean when responding to an e-mail?
a. Down-editing involves inserting your responses to parts of the incoming message.
b. Down-editing means trimming the word count of your response, ensuring that your
language is as concise as possible.
c. Down-editing has the same meaning as curbing exuberance: editing your language to
remove unnecessary intensifiers.
d. Down-editing refers to the practice of putting your reply in a lower position than the e-mail
you are responding to.

92. Guide words in an e-mail message or memo include To, From, Date, and _______.
a. location
b. subject
c. time
d. day

93. What is the name of the feature that enables you to use the internet or an internal
corporate communication platform to communicate in real time with others by exchanging
brief text-based messages?
a. Blogging
b. Podcasting
c. Crowdsourcing
d. Instant messaging

94. Similar to the internet, an internal corporate communication platform is called a(n)
_______.
a. social network
b. intranet
c. podcast
d. blog

95. What is a digital audio file that can be downloaded to a computer or smartphone?
a. Blog
b. Social network
c. Podcast
d. Voice mail
96. The unauthorized collection of sensitive data such as financial information or medical
data is an example of what type
of cyberthreat?
a. Breach of privacy
b. Disinformation
c. Deepfake
d. Cyberbullying

97. Online harassment through the sharing of embarrassing information online is known as
_______.
a. cyberbullying
b. deepfake
c. trolling
d. doxxing

98. What is the term that describes a website with journal entries on any imaginable topic
usually written by one person?
a. A blog
b. A podcast
c. An internal memo
d. A press release

99. What is viral marketing?

a. A term that describes when a computer virus infects the marketing department
b. A term that depicts the rapid spread of online messages, much like infectious diseases that
pass from person to person
c. A term that describes a marketing effort that has failed
d. A term that describes a marketing effort that is copied by a competitor

100. What type of audience is LinkedIn geared to?

a. A professional audience
b. A teenage audience
c. An academic audience
d. An exclusive audience of business executives

CHAP 6: Positive and Neutral Messages

1. Business letters are typically sent _______.
a. to relay bad news
b. within an organization
c. outside an organization
d. only by high-level executives
2. Most workplace messages should be organized _______.
a. indirectly
b. chronologically
c. directly
d. topically

3. Which of the following messages is a considered a routine business message?

a. An e-mail message to a coworker that confirms the time for an upcoming meeting
b. A letter to a customer denying a request for credit
c. A memo proposing the purchase of a new printer
d. A cover letter applying for a job

4. A popular format of business letters, called _______ style, aligns all parts on the left of the
page.
a. justified
b. formal
c. informal
d. block

5. Which of the following statements accurately describes the use of letters, e-mails, and
memos in businesses today?
a. Businesses use memos to deliver positive messages internally and externally, but they use
formal business letters to deliver negative messages.
b. E-mail delivers most internal communication, hard-copy memos deliver most external
communication, and letters communicate only legal issues.
c. Despite the popularity of e-mail, in certain situations letters remain the preferred channel of
communication for delivering messages outside an organization.
d. Businesses today use e-mail, memos, and letters interchangeably for all audiences,
purposes, and messages.

6. Although e-mail is successful for both internal and external communication, you should
still use letters when _______.
a. you need immediate feedback
b. the message must reach your reader very quickly
c. formality and sensitivity are essential
d. you have too little time to proofread

7. In which of the following situations should you send a letter instead of an e-mail message?
a. You are planning a sales team meeting.
b. You are asking leading members of the community to contribute to a fundraising event to
improve local parks.
c. You are inviting employees to the annual sales seminar.
d. You are reminding employees of Friday's divisional meetings.
8. Which statement about the format of a business letter is accurate?
a. Legal agreements are invalid if they do not demonstrate the correct letter format.
b. Business letters are required to use the block formatting style.
c. The appearance of a business letter can send nonverbal messages about a sender to a
receiver.
d. Legal agreements are only valid if they are printed on company letterhead.

9. In the popular block letter format, which of the following guidelines apply?
a. Use ragged, unjustified right margins.
b. Use fully justified margins on all sides and center the body of the letter on the page.
c. Start the sender's address, the dateline, and the complimentary close at the midpoint; align
all other letter parts at the left margin.
d. Double-space all content to improve readability.

10. Frontloading a message refers to _______.

a. including an attachment
b. proofreading only the beginning of a letter
c. including a salutation or greeting
d. placing the main idea of the message first

11. Which of the following is an effective opening for a routine request message?
a. Please answer the following questions about your Web services.
b. My name is Jill Aubrey, and I am the of ice manager for Cape Consulting Inc.
c. I recently read an article about your firm in the local newspaper.
d. Cape Consulting Inc. is the premier communication-consulting firm in the Cape and
islands area.

12. Which part(s) of your messages are readers likely to find most interesting and read first?
a. Footnote
b. Opening and closing
c. Middle paragraphs of justification and explanation
d. Salutation

13. Courtney is getting married and is trying to gather information about the banquet facilities
of a potential venue in Las Vegas. She has lots of questions and decides to write a routine
informational message. How should she present these questions in her message?
a. As a separate enclosure
b. In a bulleted or numbered list in the body of her message
c. In paragraph form in the body of her message
d. In a follow-up e-mail

14. The body of a routine request message presents _______.

a. details explaining the request
b. action responses from the receiver
c. deadlines and approvals from governmental agencies
d. cost-to-benefit ratio analyses

15. End dates and specific actions in a routine request message should be placed in the
_______.
a. introduction
b. body
c. closing
d. enclosure notation

16. Which of the following statements is an example of a closing statement for a routine
action request message that includes a clear request for action, a deadline, and applies a polite
tone and style?
a. Please send a contract for heating and ventilation work by April 1 to allow installation to
begin by April 15.
b. We hope you can get our work completed in a timely manner.
c. Thank you in advance for complying with our request by April 1.
d. I would appreciate receiving a copy of the contract for your proposed installation at your
earliest possible convenience.

17. In responding positively to a claim, begin the message with _______.

a. information promoting other products
b. the good news that you are complying with the customer's request
c. an explanation of the reasons the request is granted
d. a reminder of the problem

18. The _______ of a direct reply letter generally refers in abbreviated form to previous
correspondence and/or summarizes an earlier message.
a. body
b. subject line
c. closing
d. attachment

19. Which of the following is the most effective opening sentence for a response message?
a. Your letter of June 23, in which you sought information about our corporate travel
packages, has been referred to me for reply.
b. This is to inform you that we received your letter of June 23 seeking information about our
corporate travel packages.
c. Yes, we can put together a corporate travel package that will meet your needs and fit your
budget.
d. Thank you so much for your interest in our corporate travel packages.

20. The conclusion of a response message should _______.

a. avoid repeating the information provided or referring to its use
b. include familiar expressions such as "If I may be of further assistance, please don't hesitate
to call me" c. provide specifics if further action is required
d. omit the sender's name to avoid legal liability

21. Which of the following sentences promotes the organization and its products by
emphasizing reader benefits in a message responding to a customer inquiry?
a. We offer an outstanding variety of thank-you gifts for our most valuable customers.
b. You will find that our top-selling host gift baskets not only welcome your guests but also
save you money and time compared to individually purchasing and assembling your host
baskets on site.
c. Can I interest you in anything else?
d. If I can be of further assistance with any of our other fine products, do not hesitate to
contact me.

22. One important guideline when preparing instructions is to _______.

a. follow an indirect approach to soften the impact of the demand for compliance
b. begin with an admonition or warning of the punishment for failure to comply fully with
directions as written
c. put all steps of the instructions in one paragraph
d. divide the process into logical steps and present them in the correct order

23. Which of the following options would complete the sentence with correct parallelism: We
are very concerned with the quality of raw materials, their location, and _______.
a. how much it costs to transport them
b. what are the costs of transportation
c. the cost of transportation
d. what the costs of transportation are

24. In writing messages that deliver instructions, what advice should you follow?
a. Use an autocratic tone to establish the importance of the instructions.
b. Assume that employees want to contribute to the success of the organization.
c. Focus on the steps in the procedure and let the tone take care of itself.
d. Criticize the person(s) responsible for trouble with previous procedures and then praise the
person(s) responsible for the new procedure.

25. Which channel of communication for a complaint will more convincingly establish a
record of what happened?
a. A telephone call
b. A letter
c. A post on social media
d. An email
26. Arika is following the three-part plan to write a claim message about a problem with her
digital communication service bundle. What should she put in her opening?
a. A clear description of the desired action
b. An explanation of the nature of her problem with the digital communication service bundle
c. A goodwill statement and end date
d. Her phone number

27. Which of the following openings is appropriate for a direct claim message?
a. For the past four years, we have held our annual banquet at your fine restaurant.
b. On January 31 a number of our employees attended a banquet at your restaurant.
c. Please process a refund for $68 to reimburse us the amount we were overcharged for our
banquet.
d. We were extremely upset to learn that we were charged too much for our banquet.

28. You can improve the effectiveness of a claim message by _______.

a. using a few threatening words to get your point across
b. providing a detailed timeline of what happened and the specific person who is to blame for
the problem
c. explaining the problem with necessary details
d. including a subtle reference to your attorney or to the Better Business Bureau

29. Joaquin will use the three-step writing plan for his claim message. In the body of the
message, Joaquin will _______.
a. assume the company understands his request without explanation
b. use emotional language to show how upset he is about the situation
c. assume the company purposely tries to cheat its customers
d. identify enclosed copies of all pertinent documents

30. When service is involved in a claim, you should _______.

a. demand a full refund of the service fee and a repeat service call
b. avoid naming the service representatives involved or otherwise identifying responsible
company employees
c. cite names of individuals spoken to and dates of calls
d. enclose a photograph of yourself crying or suffering other severe emotional distress
because of the poor service

31. In the closing of a claim message, you should _______.

a. justify and explain your request
b. promote goodwill and summarize your request
c. reference all copies of pertinent documents enclosed
d. warn the company that failure to comply could cause legal action

32. Which of the following sentences represents an appropriate end date in a claim message?
a. Because we have enjoyed your prompt service in the past, we hope to receive the correct
projectors by January 12.
b. We wish to end our contract with your company if you cannot improve your service.
c. Service calls were made to our Washington Street of ice on May 20, May 22, and May 27
without resolving the problem.
d. Please replace the five Panasonic projectors we received on December 22 because the
model numbers do not match the models ordered.

33. Which of the following tips would you give to someone who wants to post a complaint
online?
a. Individuals should give companies an opportunity to resolve the issue before writing an
online complaint.
b. Posting negative comments online poses no risk because businesses and professionals
cannot sue individuals for negative online comments.
c. A complaint that you post on social media can only be shared by you.
d. Post anonymously because anonymous complaints or reviews cannot be traced.

34. Most companies receiving a claim message tend to _______.

a. ignore the first phone call, e-mail, or letter
b. respond only to letters containing complaints that could result in lawsuits or financial harm
c. respond promptly because they want to maintain customer goodwill and loyalty
d. wait two to six weeks to establish a "cooling-off period" prior to responding

35. When granting a customer's claim, a business communicator should include an opening in
an adjustment message that _______.
a. summarizes the reader's claim and request
b. presents the good news immediately
c. explains and clarifies the company's position
d. builds goodwill

36. Adjustment messages should rectify a wrong if one exists, regain the confidence of the
customer, and _______.
a. avoid humiliation by downplaying the mistake
b. verify the honesty of the customer's claim
c. warn the customer of possible legal action
d. promote future business and goodwill

37. Which of the following openings for an adjustment message granting a claim achieves the
main objective of an effective opening?
a. We are very sorry to hear that your meal with us did not meet your expectations.
b. Thank you for your letter of November 16 describing your bad dining experience with us
last weekend.
c. Although we believe that the food we served last weekend was of the highest quality, we
are willing to refund the cost of your dinner this time only.
d. The enclosed check for $78, which covers the cost of your dinner, demonstrates our desire
to satisfy our customers and earn their confidence.

38. If you feel that an apology is appropriate, which of the following apologies sounds
customized, sincere, and uses positive language?
a. We understand your reliance on a high-performance router and apologize for the
incomplete installation of your DataServe router.
b. We are sorry for any inconvenience this may have caused.
c. We regret the error that caused the system failure you claim on your DataServe router.
d. It is unfortunate that your DataServe router has failed, and we promise that this failure will
never occur again.

39. Dean has decided to include an apology as part of an adjustment message he is writing.
Where in the message should he include it?
a. The subject line
b. The opening
c. The closing
d. Multiple places throughout

40. Which of the following sentences is an example of sensitive language in an adjustment

letter?
a. If you had followed the directions, you would have been able to use the product
successfully.
b. We can guarantee that this mistake will not occur again.
c. Our goal is to earn your confidence with quality products and excellent service.
d. We regret the trouble you had because of our error.

41. Which of the following adjustment message closings successfully shows confidence?
a. We are happy that this problem is resolved because it wasn’t our fault.
b. We hope that you are satisfied because the resolution demanded an enormous amount of
time and energy on our part.
c. The cost of the resolution was more than the product itself, so we hope it meets your
expectations.
d. Thanks for writing. Your satisfaction is important to us. Service to our customers is our top
priority and we look forward to continued business with you.

42. Why do writers often procrastinate writing goodwill messages?

a. They are lazy.
b. They overestimate how long the writing task will take.
c. They find the task of expressing thanks, recognition, and sympathy intimidating.
d. They think a commercially produced card would be more effective than something that
they write personally.

43. Goodwill messages should be short, selfless, specific, spontaneous, and _______.
a. sassy
b. sincere
c. spiritual
d. suave

44. In writing a thank-you message, how can a writer make a letter sound warm and
conversational?
a. By using the receiver’s name along with contractions and positive words
b. By using abbreviations common in text messaging, such as U for you.
c. By using formal titles such as Dr. and Mr. and Mrs. and Ms. to show respect.
d. By starting the message inquiring about the recipient’s well being.

45. Which of the following openings for a note expressing thanks for a gift achieves the goal
of customizing the message and expressing sincerity?
a. Thank you, Elena, for the e-reader commemorating my twenty years with Brown Sales; it
will make a perfect travel companion.
b. Thanks for the gift!
c. I cannot believe I have been with the company for twenty years.
d. A lot has changed over the past twenty years.

46. Messages expressing thanks should _______.

a. open indirectly
b. contain fewer than five sentences
c. be specific, warm, and conversational
d. be written on letterhead to avoid appearing ostentatious

47. If you want to express sympathy immediately after learning of a death or an accident, you
might precede a phone call or a written condolence message by _______.
a. visiting the person’s home
b. sending flowers
c. delivering baked goods such as cookies or brownies
d. sending an e-mail

48. Which of the following sentences in a sympathy note seems formulaic and insincere?
a. We are deeply saddened, Corbin, to learn of the death of your wife.
b. Bethany's volunteer work in the job center endeared her to many.
c. If we may help you during this difficult time or lighten your load in any way, you need
only call.
d. I am sorry to hear your sad news; but if I may be of any help, please do not hesitate to
contact me.

49. Sending a goodwill message via e-mail (vs. a handwritten note) is acceptable if you
_______.
a. do not know the receiver well
b. frequently communicate with the receiver by e-mail
c. are expressing condolences instead of thanks
d. want to send an especially personal and lasting message

50. Minimizing I when praising others is a good way to ensure that your message is_______.
a. specific
b. selfless
c. spontaneous
d. sincere

51. Most of the workplace messages that you write will likely deal with routine matters that
require straightforward answers using the indirect method.
a. True
b. False

52. Letters are the preferred channel of communication for delivering messages inside an
organization.
a. True
b. False

53. Direct-mail letters remain a powerful tool to promote services and products and, in turn,
boost sales.
a. True
b. False
54. Business letters are more confidential than electronic media such as e-mail.
a. True
b. False

55. A well-crafted and professionally formatted business letter carries a powerful nonverbal
message.
a. True
b. False

56. In block letter style, headings are flush left, but paragraphs and some other elements are
indented.
a. True
b. False

57. When formatting business letters, you should use ragged-right margins.
a. True
b. False

58. Readers tend to look at the body of a message before the opening and closing.
a. True
b. False

59. Place any details explaining your request for information in the body of your request
message.
a. True
b. False

60. Thank you for your cooperation is an effective sentence for the closing paragraph of an
information-request message.
a. True
b. False

61. You can use our assessments to save time during the employee screening process is an
example of presenting reader benefits.
a. True
b. False

62. If you must provide large amounts of data or answer many questions in your response
message, make your message more readable with graphic devices such as lists, tables,
headings, boldface, or italics.
a. True
b. False

63. Trina must respond to a customer inquiry. Her response should not only answer the
customer's questions but also promote her business and its products and services.
a. True
b. False

64. Do not hesitate to contact me is an effective example of closing pleasantly in a response

message.
a. True
b. False

65. When you respond to customers online, you should do so in less than 24 hours.
a. True
b. False

66. Like requests and responses, instruction messages follow a straightforward, direct
approach.
a. True
b. False

67. The imperative mood is language that_______.

a. requests an action
b. describes a statement
c. conveys an emotion
d. expresses an irrefutable fact

68. The first step involves installing the app is an example of the indicative mood.
a. True
b. False

69. When you expect the receiver of your claim message to agree with your claim, you
should use the direct strategy.
a. True
b. False

70. Telephone claims are more effective than those made in writing because the caller can
better express emotion.
a. True
b. False

71. When a customer has a legitimate claim or complaint, he or she can expect a positive
response from a company.
a. True
b. False

72. When sending a claim letter by mail, include all original documents such as invoices,
sales slips, catalog descriptions, and repair records.
a. True
b. False

73. To get the best results, write your claim promptly because delaying a claim makes it seem
less important.
a. True
b. False
74. Social media experts advise that consumers exhaust all other options for complaints with
a company before venting online.
a. True
b. False

75. Individuals can be sued for negative comments made online.

a. True
b. False

76. When a company receives a claim and decides to respond favorably, the response
message is called an acceptance.
a. True
b. False

77. Businesses grant legitimate adjustments for two reasons: to protect themselves against
future damages and to satisfy their customers and retain their business.
a. True
b. False

78. Use a direct organizational pattern in an adjustment message granting a claim.

a. True
b. False

79. One goal of an adjustment message is to promote future business.

a. True
b. False

80. If you are responding favorably to your customer's claim, the best opening is an apology.
a. True
b. False

81. I'm sorry for any inconvenience we may have caused is an effective apology statement to
include in an adjustment message.
a. True
b. False

82. Avoid emphasizing negative words such as error, trouble, and inconvenience in the body
of an adjustment message.
a. True
b. False

83. In the closing paragraph of an adjustment message, the writer should _______.
a. show confidence that the problem has been resolved
b. convince the customer that the problem was not the company’s fault
c. question the customer’s integrity
d. try to mitigate the damage of the customer’s complaint

84. Most people regard writing goodwill messages as easier than writing other types of
business messages.
a. True
b. False

85. A personally written message will have more impact on your reader than a ready-made
card.
a. True
b. False
86. It is good business practice to write messages of thanks to customers who have
complained.
a. True
b. False

87. When writing goodwill messages, you should always use the "you" perspective.
a. True
b. False

88. Goodwill messages should be personalized and include specific incidents or

characteristics of the receiver.
a. True
b. False

89. When writing a message to send condolences, you should avoid referring to the deceased
person specifically and focus on the reader instead.
a. True
b. False

90. Business letters are necessary for situations requiring (a) a permanent record; (b)
persuasive and well-considered presentation; (c) formality and sensitivity; and (d) _______.
a. multiple recipients
b. use of letterhead
c. timely delivery
d. confidentiality

91. When writing messages that request information or action that you believe will be
received positively, you should frontload your message. Frontloading means _______.
a. making the first paragraph longer than the other paragraphs
b. starting your message with the main idea
c. starting your message with a greeting
d. putting the recipient’s name in the first sentence

92. The first sentence of a direct request is usually a question or a polite command. Which of
the following is an example of a polite command?
a. We appreciate your business.
b. Would you like to participate in a survey?
c. Please answer the following questions about your accommodations for a seminar.
d. Greetings from the marketing department.

93. Instructions should be written using command language, also known as the imperative
mood. Which of the following is an example of the imperative mood?
a. Sign the contract immediately.
b. The contract must be signed immediately.
c. The contract requires a signature.
d. A signature is required for the contract.

94. What type of message is used to identify or correct a wrong?

a. Routine
b. Adjustment
c. Goodwill
d. Claim

95. In which part of a claim message should you explain the problem and justify your
request?
a. The opening
b. The body
c. The closing
d. The opening and the body

96. When a company receives a claim and decides to respond favorably, the message is called
a(n) _______.
a. adjustment
b. goodwill message
c. claim letter
d. business letter

97. A common challenge writers face with adjustment letters is deciding whether or not to
issue a(n) _______ as part of the message.
a. refund
b. apology
c. credit
d. goodwill

98. Goodwill messages that follow the five Ss will be _______.

a. selfless, specific, sincere, spontaneous, and short
b. simple, sacred, smart, sophisticated, and speedy
c. selfless, speedy, simple, sincere, and special
d. special, sweet, strong, short, and selfless

99. What type of messages offer thanks, recognition, or sympathy?

a. Goodwill messages
b. Claims
c. Adjustments
d. Business letters

100. In writing a sympathy note be sure to _______.

 a. avoid mentioning the death or misfortune
b. hand deliver it to the person’s home
c. outline the specific ways you can offer assistance
d. end on a reassuring, forward-looking note

CHAP 7

1. As a Human Resources representative, Laura must inform Matt that his vacation request for August is not
approved. Which of the following should she do?
a. Plan the message strategically.
b. Ask the CEO to send the message.
c. Wait two weeks before sending the message.
d. Leave out an explanation about why she cannot approve requested dates.

2. The bad feelings associated with disappointing news can be reduced if the receiver feels that the news was
revealed sensitively, believes that the matter was treated seriously and fairly, and _______.
a. knows the reasons for the rejection clearly
b. learns of the bad news directly
c. understands the legal implications of the bad news
d. receives the bad news via certified mail

3. Business communicators have many goals in conveying negative news. These goals include explaining
clearly and completely, conveying empathy and sensitivity, and _______.
a. lightening the negative situation with humor
b. being vague in order to reduce liability
c. using technical vocabulary to establish yourself as the expert
d. projecting a professional image

4. To project a professional image when sending a negative message, you should _______.
a. respond briefly without providing details
b. readily accept all blame
c. use forceful language
d. control your emotions

5. Readers are more likely to accept negative news when _______.

a. the writer uses strong, forceful language
b. they feel that the decision was fair, impartial, and rational
c. the writer refers repeatedly to company policy
d. the message is delivered via phone rather than writing

6. Which of the following statements about writing to convey negative news is correct?
 a. Negative messages should never accept blame.
b. Negative messages should aim to end the communication by having the final word.
c. Even experienced communicators are sometimes unsuccessful in meeting the goals related to
negative messages.
d. Negative messages should be written with an aggressive tone to show dominance in the situation.

7. When writers must convey bad news, they must carefully consider the purpose, context, and _______.
a. flexibility
b. communication channel
c. audience
d. total number of words they use

8. Taylor must send a bad-news message to a client and indicate to her that he will be unable to meet a
delivery deadline. What should Taylor do first?
a. Ask his supervisor to write and send the message since she has more authority.
b. Gather information about his reasons for not meeting the deadline.
c. Write the opening of his message.
d. Analyze the bad news to see how it will affect his reader.

9. You will use the direct strategy for your message when the bad news is not damaging, when the receiver
might overlook the bad news, when directness is preferred, and when _______.
a. the bad news threatens the customer relationship
b. the bad news is unexpected
c. firmness is necessary
d. the bad news will provoke a hostile reaction

10. Which of the following bad-news messages should be organized using the direct strategy?
a. An announcement of changes in business services
b. A layoff notice for a long-time employee
c. A denial of benefits on an insurance claim to an angry customer
d. A notice of an unexpected plant closure to the city council and mayor

11. Using the indirect strategy to prepare the reader in a bad-news message _______.
a. shows insensitivity to your reader
b. allows you to confuse or distract the reader
c. helps you keep the reader's attention until you can explain the reasons for the bad news
d. demonstrates your ability to vary your strategies

12. The indirect strategy works best when the bad news is personally upsetting, when the news will prompt a
hostile reaction, and when _______.
a. the message arrives unexpectedly
b. firmness is necessary
c. the receiver may overlook the bad news
d. the bad news is not damaging
13. A device to reduce the shock or pain of bad news is called a(n) _______.
a. explanation
b. adjustment
c. buffer
d. deflector

14. Corbin must inform employees that overtime pay will be reduced from the current 2.0 factor to a 1.5
factor. Because he anticipates a hostile reaction, which of the following sequences should Corbin use for the
parts of his message?
a. Bad news, explanation, reasons, and closing
b. Bad news, reasons, buffer, and closing
c. Buffer, reasons, bad news, and closing
d. Buffer, explanation, reasons, and closing

15. The primary benefit of using the indirect strategy to communicate bad news is that it _______.
a. demonstrates your writing abilities
b. ensures that your reasoning will be read while the receiver is still receptive
c. disguises the bad news
d. places the bad news before the explanation

16. The primary difference between ethical and unethical communicators is that unethical communicators
_______.
a. intend to deceive
b. don't analyze their purpose for a message
c. sign someone else's name to their messages
d. take a reader-center approach

17. Which of the following approaches to using the indirect strategy in delivering bad news is unethical?
a. Delaying the bad news to soften the blow
b. Communicating your reasoning while the reader is still receptive
c. Burying the bad news late in the message to misrepresent the truth
d. Prioritizing compassion as well as communication

18. The buffer in a bad-news message should _______.

a. hint that good news will follow
b. be completely unrelated to the bad news so that receivers will not know that bad news is coming
c. contain information that encourages the receiver to continue reading
d. deny the requested action

19. Which of the following would be an effective way to begin a bad-news message to a customer using the
indirect strategy?
a. Thanking the customer for their email
b. Hoping that the message finds the customer well
 c. Revealing the best news
d. Revealing the bad news

21. Which of the following is an appropriate suggestion for apologizing in a negative-news message?
a. Be sincere and explain what you will do to prevent recurrence.
b. Apologizing should be avoided because it will negatively impact the company’s finances.
c. Focus on your regret.
d. Blame external factors.

22. Maya has decided to apologize briefly in the buffer of her bad-news message to a client. Which of the
following is an effective example of integrating an apology into the buffer?
a. We know that you rely on your espresso machine to function properly.
b. We apologize for any inconvenience this may have caused.
c. We sincerely apologize for the problems you experienced with your espresso machine. To prevent
recurrence of this problem, we will recalibrate the heating element at no charge to you.
d. It is unfortunate that you are unhappy with your espresso machine.

23. The ability to understand and enter into the feelings of another is called _______.
a. audience demographics
b. sympathy
c. empathy
d. buffering

24. Which of these messages effectively conveys empathy in a bad-news message?

a. You have every right to be disappointed. I am truly sorry that our product failed to perform as
expected.
b. I am deeply saddened that your service failure disrupted our sale, and we will do everything in our
power to improve our future performance.
c. We did not intentionally delay the shipment, and we will not accept the disappointment and
frustration you have expressed.
d. It is with great regret that we must take this step, but you have left us no choice.

25. Providing an explanation or reason for denying the request is important because doing so _______.
a. decreases the company’s risk of liability
b. manipulates the customer’s emotions
c. reduces feelings of ill will
d. will make the customer no longer desire the request

26. When presenting the reasons for bad news, you should _______.
a. use positive wording
b. use negative wording so that the bad news is clearer and avoids any ambiguity
c. include blanket company policy statements
d. deflect responsibility
27. You must decline an employee's request to telecommute three days per week. Which of the following
statements highlights the positive aspect of the rationale?
a. Our current company policy does not allow telecommuting.
b. Unfortunately, we regret that we are unable to afford the expenses associated with telecommuting.
c. I’m unable to grant your request to telecommute but am happy to reimburse you for mileage and
expenses.
d. Your work standards cannot be relied on unless we are able to observe you at your workstation.

28. Which statement demonstrates the use of positive wording?

a. Your request for an extended warranty has been rejected because we cannot find replacement parts
for your specific product.
b. Unfortunately, we are unable to extend the warranty.
c. Although your warranty will not be extended, we are happy to replace your item with a similar
product at no charge.
d. We regret to inform you that your request for an extended warranty has been denied.

29. Effective techniques for softening bad news include: suggesting a compromise or an alternative, placing
the bad news in a subordinate clause, and _______.
a. using active-voice verbs
b. positioning the bad news at the beginning or end of a paragraph
c. refusing explicitly to get it over with
d. using passive-voice verbs

30. Positive phrasing is important in bad-news messages because it _______.

a. keeps the reader in a receptive mood
b. describes what you can do instead of what you can't
c. often sounds more sincere
d. accomplishes all of these

31. Allison is declining a request for a monetary contribution from a charitable organization to which her
employer, BMI Industries, usually donates. Which of the following cushions the bad news by implying the
refusal?
a. BMI Industries regrets that it cannot contribute this year, but the company hopes to be able to next
year.
b. Although our profits are being reinvested in BMI Industries this year, we hope to be able to
contribute next year.
c. Although we cannot contribute this year, we may be able to next year.
d. Unfortunately, we are prevented from contributing this year, but we may be able to in the future.

32. The closing of a bad-news message should be personalized and may include a forward look, resale
information, a sales promotion, or _______.
a. a neutral statement such as “thank you for your business”
b. freebies
c. a restatement of company policy
 d. a summary of the bad news

33. Kiara must send a refusal letter to Ryan, who recently interviewed for a job. Which of the following
closings is recommended for a bad-news message?
a. If you have any questions, Ryan, please do not hesitate to call me.
b. If you had the required five years' experience in social work, we could have included you in the
final slate of candidates.
c. Again, Ryan, we truly regret being unable to offer you this position.
d. We wish you all the best in your job search.

34. When you must refuse typical requests, you should first think about how the receiver will react to your
refusal and decide _______.
a. whom or what to blame
b. where and how to apologize
c. how to invite further correspondence
d. whether to use the direct or the indirect strategy

35. Which of the following sentences presents the reason for denying a customer's request for credit in a way
that de-emphasizes the bad news?
a. Your request for credit has been denied.
b. Because you have not been employed for the past 15 months and have credit debts of over $4,000,
we will not be able to grant you credit at this time.
c. Although your credit rating does not meet our minimum standards, we would be happy to
reconsider your application if you add a cosigner.
d. Your failure to meet our standards will not allow us to issue you a credit account.

36. You can soften the blow of the bad news in refusing a typical request or claim by _______.
a. emphasizing the bad news
b. using the active voice
c. implying the refusal
d. accentuating the negative

37. Which of the following presents the bad news in a message refusing a customer's claim by
de-emphasizing the bad news?
a. We are sorry that we cannot give you a full refund for your DVD player.
b. Because you damaged the DVD player by trying to repair it yourself, we are unable to give you a
full refund.
c. The damage to your DVD player is not covered by the warranty, as explained in the enclosed copy
of the warranty that came with your DVD player.
d. Although a full refund cannot be issued, we would be happy to repair your DVD player for a
nominal fee.

38. When calling a customer by phone to address a problem or disappointment, you should describe the
problem and apologize, offer an explanation and resolution, and _______.
 a. follow up with a written message that documents the phone call and promotes goodwill
b. suggest a face-to-face meeting to resolve any remaining issues
c. come to an agreement on a refund or compensation
d. provide resale information or promote products and services

39. Personally delivering bad news is sometimes recommended, but written messages are important to
establish a record of the incident, to formally confirm follow-up procedures, and _______.
a. to promote good relations
b. to denote your leadership rank
c. to persuade the receiver to follow your recommendations
d. to allow you to identify your organization and position

40. Kenesha must respond to a negative comment written by a customer on Twitter. What advice should she
follow?
a. Investigate the situation thoroughly before responding.
b. Admit that her company erred if the complaint is legitimate and try to remedy the problem.
c. Suggest a refund or a discount on future services.
d. Kenesha should follow all these tips.

41. Constructing messages saying no to emotionally involved receivers is a challenging communication task.
Which of the following pieces of advice for this task is accurate?
a. Use the refusal-before-reason pattern to present the information artfully.
b. Place blame where blame is due, including on the customer if he or she is responsible.
c. Avoid offering resale information because it may weaken customer confidence.
d. Use neutral, objective language to explain the reason the claim is refused.

42. A bad-news message, whether delivered in person or in writing, is usually better received when you
_______.
a. give the reasons before the bad news
b. immediately share the bad news
c. provide the reasons and explanations but conceal the bad news
d. combine the buffer and bad news

43. In deciding to share negative information about another employee to your supervisor, what question
should you consider first?
a. Will I profit personally (promotion, bonus pay, or honors)?
b. Was the act criminal or hostile behavior or just a one-time mistake?
c. How should I time the information delivery (before or after a meeting)?
d. How can I avoid being identified as the tattletale by other employees?

44. When you must deliver bad news to one person or a small group, you should usually _______.
a. send a formal letter
b. address the issue in a department meeting
c. deliver the message in person
 d. wait at least one week so that you can formulate your thoughts

45. Delivering a bad-news message personally in the workplace can be done tactfully, professionally, and
safely as long as you gather all information, think about timing, prepare and rehearse, and_______.
a. consider taking a partner if you fear a "shoot the messenger" reaction
b. focus on the future and avoid discussing the past or the present
c. go alone to deliver the bad news so that the person doesn’t think you are ganging up on them
d. respond immediately

46. Human Resource Specialist Julie Woodard must inform employees of a major reduction in health care
benefits. When delivering this announcement, she should inform the employees promptly and _______.
a. let the employees find out through the office grapevine
b. deliver it on a Friday afternoon when people are more open to receiving bad news
c. deliver the news via email, if possible
d. be honest

47. In announcing negative news to employees, where should you place an alternative, when one exists?
a. The opening
b. The body
c. The closing
d. You should never provide an alternative in a bad-news message.

48. Which of the following sentences to employees explains the reasons for a reduction in a company
workforce in a way that displays empathy?
a. Although we would like to retain our current workforce, we have no choice but to reduce the
number of employees.
b. We did everything possible to prevent this from happening.
c. The decision cannot be changed.
d. Because of a decrease in sales, the number of employees will need to be reduced, which we know
will be difficult for all of you.

49. Which of the following pieces of advice is recommended for presenting the bad-news portion of your
negative message to employees?
a. Strive to sugarcoat the message to ease the employees' pain.
b. Place the bad news in the first sentence of a paragraph.
c. Position the bad news so that it does not stand out.
d. Use subjective language.

50. When bad news must be given to large groups of employees, which of the following digital media would
be appropriate for management to use?
a. E-mail
b. An intranet post
c. A webcast
d. All of these would be appropriate forms.
51. As an employee, you should avoid responding to customer complaints on Twitter, Facebook, or other
forms of social media because the audience is potentially too large.
a. True
b. False

52. One of the goals of delivering bad news is to regain the confidence of the receiver.
a. True
b. False

53. The bad feelings associated with disappointing news can generally be reduced if the receiver knows the
reasons for the rejection, feels that the news was revealed sensitively, and believes that the matter was treated
seriously and fairly.
a. True
b. False

54. When delivering bad news, you should explain the bad news clearly to make your readers understand
and, in the best case, accept the bad news.
a. True
b. False

55. When irate customers sound threatening and overstate their claims, you will have the most success in
getting them to accept your explanations if you make your tone match theirs.
a. True
b. False

56. In order to convey empathy and sensitivity for your receiver, you should always accept blame and
apologize for the bad news.
a. True
b. False

57. When you show that the decision for negative news was made fairly, impartially, and rationally, receivers
are far more likely to accept the negative news.
a. True
b. False

58. All bad-news messages should be presented using the indirect strategy.
a. True
b. False

59. The direct strategy saves time and is preferred by some who consider it to be more professional and even
more ethical than the indirect strategy.
a. True
b. False
60. If your receiver might overlook the bad news, it is appropriate to use the direct strategy.
a. True
b. False

61. If your message may create a hostile reaction, you should use the indirect strategy.
a. True
b. False

62. If you are worried that the indirect strategy seems manipulative, you should use the direct strategy to
break the bad news bluntly even though the direct strategy may cause hard feelings and pain.
a. True
b. False

63. The key to ethical communication lies in the motives of the sender.
a. True
b. False

64. The desire to avoid mentioning the negative news is an appropriate reason for using the indirect strategy.
a. True
b. False

65. Opening a bad-news message with Thank you for your message is considered an effective buffering
strategy.
a. True
b. False

66. A buffer is a device to reduce shock or pain.

a. True
b. False

67. All buffers should begin by complimenting the receiver.

a. True
b. False

68. The most important part of a bad-news message is the section that explains why a negative decision is
necessary.
a. True
b. False

69. Using the following statement in an explanation of the reasons for the bad news could help the receiver
to accept the message: Although we would like to consider installing the heating system you have offered,
we are seeking a more energy-efficient, environmentally friendly unit.
a. True
 b. False

70. Company policy prevents us from exchanging your defective wireless router more than 30 days after you
purchased it is an example of an effective explanation.
a. True
b. False

71. To take the spotlight off the bad news, place it at the end of a paragraph.
a. True
b. False

72. When you must refuse a request, you may sometimes offer an alternative, substitute, or compromise.
a. True
b. False

73. You should never include resale or sales promotion material in a negative-news message.
a. True
b. False

74. If you have any further questions, please do not hesitate to call me is a professional way to close a refusal
message.
a. True
b. False

75. If you are uncertain how the receiver will respond, use the indirect strategy to refuse requests and claims.
a. True
b. False

76. Every business will have unhappy customers at some point. The employee's goal should always be to
make the customer happy, no matter what it takes.
a. True
b. False

77. Smart business representatives always avoid calling an unhappy customer to resolve problems.
a. True
b. False

78. Written messages to customers are important because such messages establish a record of the problem.
a. True
b. False

79. E-mail and social networks are appropriate channels for both delivering and responding to complaints.
a. True
b. False
80. The reasons-before-refusal plan works well when denying claims.
a. True
b. False

81. In denial messages you must establish the proper tone and use you statements such as You would have
known that cash refunds are not available if you had read the receipt.
a. True
b. False

82. It is acceptable to place blame on the customer in denying a claim to protect the company from liability.
a. True
b. False

83. Whether to use a direct or an indirect strategy in delivering bad news to employees depends primarily on
the anticipated reaction of the receiver.
a. True
b. False

84. Although a reasons-first approach and tactful tone preserve friendly relations with customers, these
techniques are not useful for bad-news messages inside an organization.
a. True
b. False

85. When delivering bad news, you should first determine if the negative information is newsworthy.
a. True
b. False

86. When workplace bad news involves one person or a small group nearby, you should generally deliver
that news in person.
a. True
b. False

87. If you are required to deliver bad news to your employees in person, the best technique is to gather your
information and deliver it off the cuff to appear sincere.
a. True
b. False

88. Smart managers deliver bad news to employees promptly and honestly because receiving bad news via
the grapevine can seriously damage workplace morale.
a. True
b. False

89. Your buffer in a bad-news message to employees could be a compliment, appreciation, or solid facts.
 a. True
b. False

90. The closing in a bad-news communication to employees must never look forward or discuss what will
happen next because doing so can create a legal obligation.
a. True
b. False

91. You should use the direct strategy to organize your negative news when the bad news is insignificant,
does not personally affect the receiver, or when the _______.
a. receiver may overlook the bad news
b. bad news is unexpected
c. receiver may be uninterested
d. receiver may be hostile

92. Which organizational strategy do many business writers choose in order to soften bad news?
a. Direct
b. Indirect
c. Ethical
d. Empathetic

93. What type of behavior is displayed when a communicator writes a bad-news message with the intent to
deceive?
a. Competitive
b. Unethical
c. Ethical
d. Strategic

94. When a bad-news message uses the indirect strategy, it should begin with _______.
a. a buffer
b. the reasons
c. bad news
d. an apology

95. The sentence All of our discretionary funds are currently earmarked for next month's relocation, but we
hope that we will be able to support your worthwhile cause next year is an example of what type of refusal?
a. Direct
b. Indirect
c. Unethical
d. Implied

96. Understanding our emotional impact on others and making change as a result is _______.
a. integrity
b. honesty
 c. empathy
d. fairness

97. No matter how cleverly it is organized or written, a bad-news message will fail without providing
_______.
a. a buffer
b. sound reasons
c. empathy
d. an effective closing

98. Which writing technique for cushioning bad news enables you to effectively depersonalize an action?
a. Using the passive voice
b. Highlighting the positive
c. Showing fairness
d. Implying the refusal

99. Employee morale can be supported when communicating to employees about major events that affect
them and their jobs by delivering the news _______.
a. through the grapevine
b. through news accounts
c. from management personally
d. from co-workers

100. In which part of a bad-news message should business communicators include a forward look, good
wishes, a mention of freebies, or references to resale information or promotion?
a. Buffer
b. Reasons
c. Bad news
d. Closing

101. Smart organizations facing a crisis deal with it by_______.

a. communicating the news honestly and openly
b. waiting for the ideal moment for the communication
c. choosing not to communicate about the crisis because doing so would exacerbate the problem
d. revealing information only to employees and not other stakeholders

CHAP 8
1. Persuasion in today's businesses focuses on _______.
a. manipulating the facts to bolster sales
b. generating and sending messages using only electronic media
c. influencing others
d. writing direct messages
2. Persuasion is necessary when _______.
a. you anticipate that your audience will agree with your position
b. your audience may have resistance about your idea
c. audience attitudes match the objectives of your plan
d. your message is especially attractive to the audience

3. Which statement reflects how businesspeople today are using persuasion?

a. Because the number of persuasive messages Americans receive per day has declined,
businesspeople do not need to use persuasive skills as much as they did in the past.
b. Businesspeople are using persuasion as a means to manipulate others.
c. Because the number of persuasive messages that Americans receive per day has increased, business
people need to use pushy hard sell techniques to persuade effectively.
d. Businesspeople are using persuasive tactics that are more impersonal today than they were many
years ago

4. Effective persuasion has the aim of _______ others.

a. manipulating
b. confusing
c. influencing
d. motivating

5. As a persuasive writer, which of the following should you practice?

a. Showing that you are truthful, experienced, and knowledgeable
b. Offering a bribe or kickback to ensure that you win over your audience
c. Emphasizing only the emotional aspect of your message, since emotions are always more powerful
in persuasion than logic
d. Emphasizing only the logical aspect of your message, since logic is always more powerful as a
persuasive tool than emotions

6. Most persuasive requests should be organized _______.

a. directly
b. chronologically
c. quickly
d. indirectly

7. Which one of the following messages requires the indirect strategy to persuade an audience?
a. Informing employees of an upcoming routine all-staff meeting
b. Announcing the hiring of a new sales director
c. Asking an employer for clarification about agreed-upon benefits such as vacation time
d. Requesting favors and action from coworkers

8. When using the indirect strategy in a persuasive message, you should place the reasons and explanations
_______.
 a. in the closing of the message
b. after the main idea
c. before the main idea
d. in an attachment to the message

9. Sammie is planning a persuasive request. What advice should she follow for the opening of her request?
a. Provide her telephone number.
b. Capture the reader's attention and interest.
c. Cite facts, statistics, expert opinions, examples, and specific details to support her request.
d. Identify herself and her company.

10. In which part of a persuasive request message should you motivate action?
a. The subject line
b. The opening
c. The body
d. The closing

11. In the body of a persuasive request, you can reduce resistance by _______.
a. focusing exclusively on benefits to the writer of the request
b. shifting reader attention through praise and compliments
c. avoiding any potential reasons for resistance
d. anticipating objections and offering counterarguments

12. On behalf of your civic organization, you are inviting a motivational speaker to your semiannual
meeting. In your request you guarantee the speaker an enthusiastic audience and a positive impact on the
community, both of which emphasize _______.
a. praise for the reader
b. indirect benefits to the reader
c. the indirect strategy
d. the direct strategy

13. The closing of a persuasive request should _______.

a. establish your credibility and demonstrate your competence
b. meet governmental regulations
c. describe the problem
d. motivate action

14. In which part of the writing plan for persuasive requests should you focus on capturing the reader’s
attention and interest?
a. The opening
b. The body
c. The closing
d. The subject line
15. Persuasive claim messages are also called _______.
a. inquiries
b. adjustment messages
c. sales messages
d. complaint messages

16. Persuasive claims are often written when _______.

a. products are damaged, wrong shipments are delivered, or mistakes in billing occur
b. problems are encountered with poor customer service
c. sending an adjustment request alerting the business of a billing error on a routine charge
d. a customer is dissatisfied with the quality of products offered

17. Effective persuasive claim messages _______.

a. vent the writer's anger and frustration
b. present a logical case with clear facts
c. help the reader by showing who is to blame for the problem
d. display strong emotion

18. When developing a claim message, you should_______.

a. close the message by clearly specifying what you want done.
b. describe blow-by-blow the full chronology of the details
c. clearly express how upset you are about the issue
d. describe in detail what you will do if the reader does not comply with your request

19. When writing persuasive claim or complaint messages, you should _______.
a. suggest that the receiver intentionally deceived you or intentionally created the problem
b. use a moderate tone
c. inform the reader that you will contact the Better Business Bureau if your claim is not granted
d. use a strong tone with accusatory language to demonstrate your dissatisfaction

20. Mikhail's claim has been denied once. Now, he is writing a second persuasive claim message to his
digital media services company asking for a promised rebate package. Because he expects resistance, what
should he do?
a. Appeal to the receiver's sense of responsibility and pride in the company's good name.
b. Begin by presenting his resolution to the problem.
c. Address the message to a department or "To Whom It May Concern."
d. Show specifically how the receiver or the receiver's company caused the problem.

21. Graciella is making a persuasive complaint at work. Which of these examples illustrate how to convey a
complaint logically, clearly, and unemotionally?
a. If you can't be bothered with maintaining our equipment in good working order, how can I be
confident that you care about your employees? I can't be bothered filing repeated repair requests either.
b. I have put up with a broken fax in Workroom 223 for three weeks, and I am just fed up with this
waste of my time. Repair the fax or else!
 c. Did you realize that Bill has still not fixed the fax in Workroom 223 despite the work request I
completed two weeks ago? Make Bill fix it!!
d. For the past two weeks, fax machine No. 223- 51 has been unavailable to complete essential
business for 25 of our employees due to incomplete service. Please ensure our equipment is repaired by
Friday.

22. Messages flowing downward refers to messages that are written_______.

a. from subordinates to supervisors
b. from supervisors to subordinates
c. from coworkers to fellow coworkers
d. from managers to customers

23. Which of the following situations would require a persuasive message travelling upward?
a. The HR department outlining company policy on personal use of e-mail.
b. An employee asking their supervisor to approve a pay increase.
c. Senior management asking employees to accept a pay cut to avoid layoffs or plant closings.
d. A supervisor informing employees about the new process for reporting overtime hours.

24. Which of the following messages to subordinates would require use of the indirect strategy?
a. Instructions for operating a new phone system recently installed in all offices.
b. Announcement of an all-employee meeting.
c. Requests to contribute to the organization's United Way campaign goal.
d. Discussion of new carpooling opportunities.

25. Which of the following provides an ethical description of the use of persuasion in business?
a. Honesty is the best policy.
b. The goal is to manipulate employees into accepting a message.
c. Some puffery and skillful misrepresentation make persuasive messages more effective.
d. The key to persuasion is proving the weakness of the receiver's position.

26. As a manager, Corbin must inform his staff that all employees must now contribute more to their health
insurance premiums. What advice should Corbin follow when delivering his message?
a. Avoid telling the employees the reason for the decision.
b. Use a threatening tone so that employees know that this is a serious matter.
c. Be honest and provide the important reasons for the increase in individual contributions.
d. Tell the employees to "Suck it up" and deal with the increased individual costs.

27. You want to propose a workplace change to your employer. Which of these approaches uses facts,
figures, and evidence for presenting the proposal?
a. Provide anecdotes from several coworkers attesting that the proposed change will increase their
productivity.
b. Stress your own needs and how you will benefit from the change because this is your proposal.
c. Avoid words like suggest and recommend because these words make you look weak.
d. Focus on how much money the proposed change will save the company.
28. Which statement about direct-mail messages describes how companies are currently using direct mail?
a. Direct mail is an effective channel for personalized, tangible, three-dimensional messages that are
less invasive than telephone solicitations.
b. Today’s companies no longer send direct-mail messages to market their products or services; they
rely exclusively on electronic media instead.
c. Today’s companies prefer online marketing over direct mail.
d. The only companies that use direct mail are companies that have only a physical and not an online
presence.

29. An effective direct-mail sales letter _______.

a. uses only rational appeals
b. uses only emotional appeals
c. presents information completely, using a personalized tone
d. is designed for a general audience

30. Which of the following is true of sales messages sent through direct mail?
a. They are considered less invasive by most consumers than telephone calls or unsolicited e-mail
messages.
b. Sales messages sent through e-mail are more effective than those sent through direct mail.
c. Companies should focus on using sales messages sent through direct mail as their sole marketing
strategy.
d. Direct mail is considered just as invasive as spam.

31. Your primary goal in writing a sales or marketing message is to _______.

a. demonstrate creativity and marketing skills
b. create a strong personal and professional image for yourself
c. get your audience to devote a few moments of attention to your message
d. become a perceptive consumer of ideas, products, and services

32. AIDA, the indirect strategy for persuasive messages, seeks to gain the attention, interest, ________, and
action of the audience.
a. direction
b. desire
c. devotion
d. discernment

33. When you use the AIDA persuasive approach, your first task is to gain the reader's attention (A). Which
of the following represents your second step, or "I" tasks, of AIDA?
a. Describe the benefits a product or service offers and make rational or emotional appeals.
b. Include details of your company's reliability and reputation.
c. Grow more excited about your product and yourself as a salesperson.
d. Identify a proverb or famous quotation.
34. Learning the techniques of sales writing _______.
a. is only relevant for those who specialize in this type of writing
b. can help you recognize sales strategies directed at you
c. is a waste of time because you will probably never have to write a sales message
d. involves learning techniques that are too difficult for the average person to apply

35. You must write a sales message to prospective customers. What should you do in the opening of your
sales message?
a. Offer something valuable, promise a benefit to the reader, or use some other technique to gain your
reader's attention.
b. Convince your reader of the superiority of the product or service being sold.
c. Motivate your reader to take action.
d. Promise an incentive for responding by a specific date.

36. You can effectively build interest in a sales message by _______.

a. including your credentials
b. motivating action in the closing
c. emphasizing central selling points identified in the prewriting analysis
d. suggesting the reader lacks good judgment if he or she doesn't buy today

37. Rational appeals focus on making or saving money, increasing efficiency, and _______.
a. soothing the egos of managers
b. making good use of resources
c. identifying status in the workplace or community
d. enjoying sensory input

38. Emotional appeals _______.

a. focus on making or saving money
b. explain how to increase efficiency or protect resources
c. solve workplace problems
d. focus on status, ego, and sensual feelings

39. Use an emotional appeal when the _______.

a. product is expensive; long-lasting; or important to health, security, and financial success
b. product is inexpensive, short-lived, or nonessential
c. reader is comparing similar products from other companies
d. reader has a college education

40. Which of the following is an emotional appeal?

a. For a limited time you will receive our employee discount on any new General Motors vehicle.
b. Surround yourself in the uncompromising safety and luxury of a Lincoln because you've earned it.
c. Purchase a Jeep today, and you will receive a $1,500 college savings bond for tomorrow.
d. Save now and save later. With its low sticker price and great gas mileage, this Focus hybrid is a best
buy.
41. Marketing messages use testimonials, money-back guarantees, and free samples or trials as techniques to
elicit audience desire and_______.
a. guarantee customer loyalty
b. earn more money
c. overcome resistance
d. improve brand awareness

42. Which of the following illustrates a testimonial?

a. After completing your training, I received job offers from three employers in one week!
b. We are confident that your skills in applying for jobs and interviewing with employers will improve
with this training.
c. Scientifically proven self-actualization techniques will increase your self-confidence and boost your
interviewing skills.
d. Employers respond positively to well-written application letters and résumés, and they offer jobs to
candidates who are confident and well prepared.

43. Which of the following most effectively reduces resistance and builds desire?
a. If you are worried about booking a tour with us, please know that our European walking tours were
rated the safest and best planned in the industry.
b. Join one of our European walking tours this summer for an unbelievable cultural experience.
c. Going on a walking tour of Europe is fun.
d. Our travel company knows Europe and is eager to show it to you.

44. Byron has ended a sales message with the sentence Book your vacation by May 15 to receive our
reduced rate. What technique is he using to motivate action?
a. Offering a gift
b. Limiting the offer
c. Setting a deadline
d. Guaranteeing satisfaction

45. Effective closings for sales messages should take a multi-faceted approach to motivating action: offer a
gift, provide an incentive, set a deadline, and guarantee satisfaction. Which of the following statements
illustrate this multi-faceted approach to motivating action?
a. Making this training choice for your employees today may be the smartest business decision you'll
ever make. Consider the benefits and I am sure that you will agree.
b. Because we are confident that you will choose us for your training needs, we will visit you on
Friday to finalize your contract.
c. Complete the enclosed interest card and mail it to us at your earliest convenience.
d. If your sales don't increase at least 10 percent after your salespeople complete our "Closing the
Deal" training, you get a full refund. Use our toll-free number to call me by August 1 and begin training on
September 1.

46. The primary channel that consumers use to interact with brands today is _______.
 a. e-mail
b. focus groups
c. mall and shopping center surveys and sample booths
d. direct mail

47. Purposes of e-mail marketing include attracting new customers, keeping existing customers, encouraging
future sales, cross-selling, and _______.
a. seeking new employees
b. lobbying local legislators
c. cutting costs
d. importing products from international businesses

48. In crafting e-mail sales messages, the term above the fold refers to_______.
a. all main points following standard business etiquette and online netiquette.
b. adhering to legal standards.
c. your primary points appearing early in the message.
d. placing the main information of your message within the first screen

49. Which of the following will increase the effectiveness of an online sales message?
a. Sending it only to receivers who have given you permission to send them e-mail marketing
messages.
b. Eliminating a subject line to mask the purpose of the message.
c. Avoiding the use of testimonials.
d. Making the message formal and extensive in length.

50. Which of the following is true about short persuasive messages submitted online?
a. All four parts of the AIDA strategy must be incorporated.
b. Social media are primarily suited for overt selling.
c. Twitter should be avoided because the 140-character limit prevents messages from being effective.
d. Tweets and other online posts can be used to project a professional, positive image.

51. Persuasion used in today's business environment focuses on manipulating others.

a. True
b. False

52. You will need to use persuasion if you anticipate resistance.

a. True
b. False

53. In helping us understand how persuasion works, Perloff emphasizes that persuasion is most successful
when people are_______.
a. forced to comply
b. given free choice in how to respond
c. strongly pressured using emotional appeals
 d. strongly pressured using logical appeals

54. Robert Cialdini’s model illustrating persuasion describes six psychological triggers: reciprocation,
commitment, social proof, liking, authority, and _______.
a. scarcity
b. abundance
c. domination
d. antipathy

55. The process of influencing others is usually a(n) _______ process.

a. almost impossible
b. gradual and slow
c. intermittent
d. easy

56. Pushy hard-sell persuasive techniques are waning because today’s consumers are _______.
a. well-informed, have many choices, and can be fickle
b. more influenced by social media and other communication channels
c. tired of being bombarded by persuasive messages and have learned to ignore them
d. easily manipulated by other types of persuasive techniques

57. Citing others' expert opinions and research to support your position is an effective way to establish your
credibility for a persuasive message.
a. True
b. False

58. When creating a persuasive message, you should expect and overcome resistance.
a. True
b. False

59. Both direct claim messages and persuasive requests should begin with the main idea.
a. True
b. False

60. Persuasive requests are generally more effective when they are organized directly.
a. True
b. False

61. The opening of a persuasive request should gain your reader's attention and interest.
a. True
b. False

62. To capture the reader's attention and interest in a persuasive request, you can make an unexpected
statement, suggest reader benefits, offer praise or compliments, or ask a stimulating question.
 a. True
b. False

63. The body of a persuasive request should motivate action.

a. True
b. False

64. To reduce resistance in a persuasive request, you should offer_______.

a. bribes
b. threats
c. flattery and compliments
d. counterarguments

65. When requesting a favor or action, you should discuss only the direct benefits to the reader because
indirect benefits are not persuasive.
a. True
b. False

66. In the closing of a persuasive request, your goal is to prove the merit of your request.
a. True
b. False

67. Another name for a complaint message is a claim message.

a. True
b. False

68. Persuasive claim or complaint messages may involve damaged products, mistaken billing, inaccurate
shipments, warranty problems, limited return policies, insurance snafus, or faulty merchandise.
a. True
b. False

69. Your claim message will be most effective if you make a reasonable and valid request, present a logical
case with clear facts, and display some anger and emotion.
a. True
b. False

70. Claim messages should include a blow-by-blow chronology of the details of the problem to adequately
inform the reader of the problem.
a. True
b. False

71. Lynette received unsatisfactory service at a recent business dinner. In her persuasive claim message to
the restaurant manager, she should enclose a copy of her restaurant receipt.
a. True
 b. False

72. In developing a claim message, you should leave the adjustment (or solution) up to the receiver so that
you do not sound too demanding.
a. True
b. False

73. Claim messages should appeal to the receiver's sense of responsibility and pride in the company's good
name.
a. True
b. False

74. Directives moving downward from superiors to subordinates usually follow the indirect strategy.
a. True
b. False

75. A manager's goals in writing a persuasive memo to employees using the indirect strategy are to present a
strong but honest argument and to avoid manipulation or trickery.
a. True
b. False

76. As a manager, Mary must inform her production employees that they will need to work extra hours to
meet a customer's order. Mary's message will be most effective if she uses warm words and a conversational
tone.
a. True
b. False

77. Michelle needs to sell her idea to remodel their business waiting room to her boss. Michelle is more
likely to succeed if she can base her argument on saving or earning money.
a. True
b. False

78. Messages to management are more persuasive when they include words such as "you must" or "we
should."
a. True
b. False

79. A successful persuasive message is typically longer than a direct message.

a. True
b. False

80. Traditional direct-mail marketing is more effective than online marketing.

a. True
b. False
81. Your primary goal in writing a sales message is to get someone to devote a few moments of attention to
it.
a. True
b. False

82. The most effective sales messages follow the AIDA strategy, which seeks to elicit desire in the closing.
a. True
b. False

83. The opening of a sales message is less important than the body.
a. True
b. False

84. You will receive a free one-year subscription to Netflix when you purchase any Sony flat-panel
television is an example of a rational appeal.
a. True
b. False

85. Learning how to write sales messages can help you as both a professional communicator and a consumer.
a. True
b. False

86. Effective sales messages focus on three to five selling points to keep the reader interested.
a. True
b. False

87. One effective strategy for crafting online sales messages is letting receivers know how they may opt out
of receiving future messages.
a. True
b. False

88. Online sales messages are generally shorter than direct-mail messages.
a. True
b. False

89. The most important points in an e-mail sales message should be placed at the end of the message where
they will be remembered the most.
a. True
b. False

90. Tweets are effective in persuading others only if they include all four parts of the AIDA strategy.
a. True
b. False
91. You will save 10 percent off and free shipment on purchases greater than $50 is an example of
a(n)_______.
a. emotional appeal
b. rational appeal
c. dual appeal
d. ethical appeal

92. According to Richard Perloff, reactance is_______.

a. a defensive strategy of resistance that people experience when they feel pressured to act in a certain
way
b. a normal reaction to any type of persuasive request
c. a plan that you make in developing your persuasive strategy
d. the result of implementing a successful persuasive strategy

93. In which part of a persuasive request should you build interest, explain the purpose of the request
logically and concisely, prove its merit, and reduce resistance?
a. The opening
b. The body
c. The closing
d. Between the body and the closing

94. In which part of a persuasive request should you motivate action?

a. The opening
b. The body
c. The closing
d. In all three parts of the message

95. What type of persuasive messages are used to complain about damaged products, mistaken billing,
inaccurate shipments, warranty problems, limited return policies, insurance snafus, faulty merchandise, and
other problems?
a. Sales letters
b. Direct mail messages
c. Persuasive claim messages
d. E-mail sales messages

96. Retargeting is a practice whereby marketers_______.

a. identify consumers who have visited their website and follow up by sending them e-mails
advertising their products
b. identify consumers who have visited their stores and follow up by sending them e-mails advertising
their products
c. identify consumers who have e-mailed them and follow up with direct mailpieces
d. identify consumers who have visited their website, match their name to a postal address, and follow
up with a direct mailpiece
97. The following techniques––delay mentioning the price until after you have created a desire for the
product, show the price in small units, demonstrate how the reader saves money, and compare the prices with
those of a competitor––are all examples of_______.
a. reducing resistance and building desire
b. motivating action
c. anticipating objections
d. capturing attention

98. Tweets and online posts can be used to influence others and project a professional, positive online
presence. In persuasive tweets and posts, writers generally try to_______.
a. pitch offers or draw attention to interesting events, sales, and media links
b. repeat the same information that is on the website so that the message is driven home to the
audience
c. repeat the same information that is in e-mail sales messages in case customers don’t check their
e-mails
d. offer personal information about employees in order to create a personal connection with the
company

99. A rational appeal focuses on_______.

a. making or saving money, increasing efficiency, or making good use of resources
b. status, ego, and sensual feelings
c. values, morals, and ethics
d. logic and facts

100. What is a dual appeal?

a. An emotional and ethical appeal
b. A rational and ethical appeal
c. A rational and an emotional appeal
d. A feature and a benefit

CHAP 9
1. Reports in today’s business environment range widely in length and purpose, help organizations sift
through data and make decisions, and _______.
a. can be delivered orally or digitally
b. should never be stored on cloud servers off-site for security purposes
c. are nevertheless becoming obsolete
d. are used strictly for providing information

2. Reports that present data without analysis or recommendations are _______.

a. informational reports
b. analytical reports
 c. cost-benefit analysis reports
d. justification reports

3. Which of the following should be written as an informational report?

a. A recommendation from the Information Technology Department that your company install a
wireless network
b. A feasibility study addressing possible tuition reimbursement for employees
c. A comparison of five handheld communication devices that your company might purchase
d. A summary of information presented at a recent conference for technical writers

4. Reports that provide data or findings with analyses and conclusions are _______.
a. informational reports
b. analytical reports
c. summaries
d. progress reports

5. Which of the following reports is an example of an analytical report?

a. A report summarizing the details of a recent seminar you attended
b. A report recommending an antiterrorism security system for mass transit
c. A report outlining the new company procedure for reporting workplace injuries
d. A report showing state budget allocations for education

6. The direct strategy of organization is appropriate for a business report when readers _______.
a. need to be educated
b. must be persuaded
c. are informed
d. may be disappointed or hostile

7. When you organize an informational report directly, in what order should the ideas be presented?
a. Introduction/background, facts/findings, and summary
b. Introduction/background, summary, and facts/findings
c. Summary, introduction/background, and facts/findings
d. The direct strategy presents ideas in any order for maximum effectiveness and flexibility.

8. The indirect strategy of organization is appropriate for a business report when readers _______.
a. are supportive of the topic
b. must be persuaded
c. are familiar with the topic
d. want to know the results immediately

9. When you organize an analytical report indirectly, in what order should the ideas be presented?
a. Introduction/problem, conclusions/recommendations, facts/findings, and discussion/analysis
b. Introduction/background, facts/findings, and summary
c. Introduction/problem, facts/findings, discussion/analysis, and conclusions/recommendations
 d. The indirect strategy does not follow a set order of ideas

10. An informal writing style includes _______.

a. contractions (for example, wouldn't, don't, they're)
b. second-person pronouns (for example, you and your)
c. mainly passive-voice verbs
d. longer sentences

11. Which of the following sentences uses an informal writing style for an informal report?
a. James, Deloitte, and Wilts, Inc., after extensive review of references and credentials of contractors,
has elected to contract with Peck Builders for the new office complex.
b. We're pleased to announce the selection of Peck Builders as general contractor for our new office
complex.
c. After conducting an exhaustive search of building design elements and cost-efficiency data, the
company has verified the qualifications of Peck Builders.
d. The findings demonstrate the imperative of selecting a fully qualified and bonded contractor for the
new building project of James, Deloitte, and Wilts, Inc.; that contractor is Peck Builders.

12. Which of the following sentences demonstrates active-voice verbs?

a. Superior writing skills are required by many employers.
b. Employee use of e-mail was monitored by management.
c. Research indicates a correlation between strong writing skills and promotions.
d. The proposals were carefully reviewed by the screening committee.

13. The format of a report depends primarily on its length, topic, audience and _______.
a. delivery mode
b. purpose
c. formality level
d. writing style

14. In which format should a short informal report to a customer be written?

a. Letter format
b. Memo or e-mail format
c. Manuscript format
d. Preprinted form

15. In which format should a short informal report that will stay inside your organization be written?
a. Letter format
b. Memo or e-mail format
c. Manuscript format
d. Preprinted form

16. Sondra works for a development firm and must explain to a customer the results of a year-long study of
potential sites for new stores. In what format should she develop this report?
 a. Memo or e-mail format
b. Preprinted form
c. Letter format
d. Manuscript format

17. You are an inventory specialist for a retail store. Your boss has asked you to compile a year-end report
listing the merchandise sold each month through the company's website. In what format should you present
this data?
a. Memo or e-mail format
b. Preprinted form
c. Letter format
d. Manuscript format

18. Visual representations of data or information that can easily be embedded into blogs and posts on social
media are referred to as _______.
a. PDF files
b. digital slide decks
c. infographics
d. report templates

19. Headings that show the sections of a report are called _______.
a. talking headings
b. signposts
c. functional headings
d. cross-sectional divisions

20. Headings that provide specific information about the content of a report section are called _______.
a. talking headings
b. signposts
c. functional headings
d. cross-sectional divisions

21. Which of the following is a talking heading?

a. IT Outsourcing
b. Savings
c. Cost Savings
d. Projected Cost Savings for IT Outsourcing

22. Katherine must use headings in a report. What should she do to make sure that her headings are
effective?
a. Place first- and second-level headings in all capital letters.
b. Use a period after each stand-alone bolded heading.
c. End a page with a heading to entice her audience to read the report further.
d. Include at least one heading per report page.
23. Your first step to writing an effective business report is _______.
a. collecting data
b. understanding the problem
c. selecting its format
d. creating headings

24. Appropriate sources of information for an informal report include company records, observation, and
_______.
a. blogs
b. personal experience
c. survey results
d. television shows

25. To help you clarify your reason for writing a report, you should write a _______.
a. thesis statement
b. transitional sentence
c. problem statement
d. topic sentence

26. Which of the following is an example of a statement of purpose for a report?

a. A wellness program will improve the health of all employees.
b. Most companies offer voluntary wellness programs.
c. Wellness programs have proven to be effective in improving the health of individuals.
d. Establish a wellness incentive program for all employees.

27. Factual information for reports falls into which two broad categories?
a. Primary and secondary
b. Direct and indirect
c. Informational and analytical
d. Literal and figurative

28. Primary data _______.

a. result from reading what others have experienced or observed and recorded
b. come from firsthand experience and observation
c. are the only type of factual information that should be included in informal reports
d. include printed materials found in libraries or through electronic resources

29. The most efficient means of investigating past performance and methods used to solve previous
problems in your workplace is to _______.
a. conduct interviews
b. observe others
c. construct questionnaires and inventories
d. visit company records and files
30. What type of research source produces excellent firsthand information?
a. Web pages or articles
b. Interviews
c. Company records
d. Databases

31. Reports that describe periodic, recurring activities or situational, nonrecurring events are _______.
a. justification/recommendation reports
b. informational reports
c. analytical reports
d. yardstick reports

32. Most informational reports are written _______.

a. using the indirect organizational strategy
b. by only top business executives
c. using a formal writing style
d. for a neutral or receptive audience

33. Kendra just attended a sales conference in Baltimore. She must now write a report summarizing her
conference. What advice should she follow?
a. Mention every topic that was discussed at the conference.
b. Begin her report by identifying the event.
c. Use a chronological organizational pattern.
d. Avoid the use of headings or bullets so that the reader does not become distracted.

34. A report that gives status updates on a current project is called _______.
a. the minutes of a meeting
b. an analytical report
c. a progress report
d. a summary

35. Which of the following situations might require a progress report?

a. The work of a committee preparing for an open house when a new wing of a hospital is completed
b. The reporting of monthly sales figures for all divisions
c. A study of whether a company should provide on-site childcare
d. A one-page summary of a long article in The Wall Street Journal

36. Which of the following sequences of sections is recommended for progress reports?
a. background; purpose; work completed so far; work in progress; current and potential problems and
remedies; future activities and expected completion date
b. purpose; background; work completed so far; work in progress; current and potential problems and
remedies; future activities and expected completion date
 c. current and potential problems and remedies; purpose; background; work completed so far; work in
progress; future activities and expected completion date
d. purpose; background; work completed so far; work in progress; current and potential problems and
remedies; future activities and expected completion date

37. As chairperson of a customer service task force, you must update management on your team's progress.
What kind of report will you write?
a. Justification/recommendation report
b. Trip report
c. Progress report
d. Feasibility report

38. When writing up meeting minutes, how should one begin?

a. State whether the previous minutes were approved or revised.
b. Record briefly the discussions of old business.
c. Identify the person recording the meeting.
d. Record the name of the group, date, time, and place of meeting.

39. Mathias is in charge of taking formal minutes during an Institute of Internal Auditors chapter meeting.
Which of the following suggestions will help Mathias record accurate and complete meeting minutes?
a. Record only new business because old business will appear in previous minutes.
b. Avoid using the exact wording of motions because that would be too time consuming.
c. Record voting results and actions taken.
d. Omit his name and signature as the person recording the minutes because he is acting on behalf of
the organization.

40. What type of summary provides the key points of a long report, proposal, or business plan?
a. Top-line summary
b. Technical summary
c. Executive summary
d. Analytical summary

41. A summary should condense a report or article by what percentage?

a. 5 percent
b. 25 percent
c. 85 to 90 percent
d. 50 percent

42. Which of the following guidelines should be followed when preparing a summary report?
a. Include specific examples from the report, article, or book you are summarizing.
b. Copy passages word for word to ensure that you cover the main ideas.
c. Avoid headings or lists to prevent reader distraction.
d. State the main idea or purpose as well as the source of the document being summarized.
43. A report that condenses a 200-page government policy report on oil drilling in Alaska into a shorter
report for Sierra Club members to read is a _______.
a. trip report
b. summary
c. meeting minutes report
d. progress report

44. How do informational reports and analytical reports differ?

a. Informational reports emphasize facts; analytical reports emphasize reasoning and conclusions.
b. Informational reports are intended for internal audiences; analytical reports are intended for external
audiences.
c. Informational reports are written using a formal writing style; analytical reports are written using an
informal writing style.
d. Informational reports emphasize reasoning and conclusions; analytical reports emphasize facts.

45. Justification/recommendation reports are sometimes called _______.

a. internal proposals
b. executive summaries
c. feasibility reports
d. yardstick reports

46. In what order should you organize your ideas when you believe your audience will be agreeable to the
suggestions in your justification/recommendation report?
a. Announce the recommendation, explain the recommendation, identify the problem or need, and
provide necessary action.
b. Provide necessary action, identify the problem or need, announce the recommendation, and explain
the recommendation.
c. Identify the problem or need, announce the recommendation, explain the recommendation, and
provide necessary action.
d. Identify the problem or need, provide necessary action, announce the recommendation, and explain
the recommendation.

47. Your department needs a new copier, and your job is to research the options. Based on your research, you
have selected an all-in-one machine that you believe will be cost effective and will perform well. What kind
of report would you write to present your findings?
a. Feasibility report
b. Justification/recommendation report
c. Yardstick report
d. Progress report

48. A report that determines whether your company should proceed with a plan for using an external
accounting firm is a(n) _______.
a. feasibility report
b. progress report
 c. informational report
d. summary

49. In which of the following types of reports should you announce your decision immediately in the
opening?
a. Summary
b. Justification
c. Yardstick
d. Feasibility

50. Yardstick reports _______.

a. are long formal reports used only in the manufacturing industry
b. do not include researched data
c. are rarely written or used in businesses today
d. examine problems with two or more solutions against set criteria

51. E-mail, PDF files, and PowerPoint sides are all examples of digital means of submitting reports.
a. True
b. False

52. Based on their function, business reports typically fall into one of two categories: instructional or
persuasive.
a. True
b. False

53. An informational report presents data without analysis and recommendations.

a. True
b. False

54. The direct organizational strategy presents the purpose for writing near the beginning of a report.
a. True
b. False

55. Reports should be organized using the direct strategy when the readers are informed or supportive of the
topic.
a. True
b. False

56. Analytical reports should always follow the indirect organizational strategy.
a. True
b. False

57. To show your respect for the reader, reports should always be written using a formal style.
a. True
 b. False

58. First-person pronouns and contractions are acceptable in business reports.

a. True
b. False

59. The format for a report relies solely on the intended audience.
a. True
b. False

60. The memo or e-mail format is appropriate for short informal reports that stay within organizations.
a. True
b. False

61. The manuscript format is appropriate for longer, more formal reports.
a. True
b. False

62. Because they are primarily visual, infographics are not considered an effective report format type.
a. True
b. False

63. When creating talking headings, it is best to write a few paragraphs first and then determine the heading.
a. True
b. False

64. Discussion of Findings is an example of a functional heading.

a. True
b. False

65. The first letter of each word in a heading should always be capitalized.
a. True
b. False

66. You should include at least one heading per report page.
a. True
b. False

67. The first step in preparing a report is to sit down and begin writing immediately; this technique allows
you to capture your best ideas quickly.
a. True
b. False

68. When you write a purpose statement for a report, you should use action verbs.
 a. True
b. False

69. One of the most important steps in the writing of a report is researching the report topic.
a. True
b. False

70. Primary data result from reading what others have experienced or observed and recorded.
a. True
b. False

71. Observation can be considered a valuable form of data collection for a business report.
a. True
b. False

72. Surveys are considered a source of secondary data.

a. True
b. False

73. Business writers often use electronic resources such as government sites, news media, periodicals,
nonprofit organizations, social networking sites, and blogs to conduct research for business reports.
a. True
b. False

74. Surveys provide the richest, most accurate firsthand information.

a. True
b. False

75. Informational reports often describe periodic, recurring activities as well as situational, nonrecurring
events.
a. True
b. False

76. Most informational reports have one thing in common: a neutral or receptive audience.
a. True
b. False

77. Informational reports should be written using the direct organizational strategy.
a. True
b. False

78. Progress reports are written for only internal readers.

a. True
b. False
79. Meeting minutes should include the precise wording of motions, including a count of votes and actions
taken.
a. True
b. False

80. The minutes of a meeting should identify the names of individuals present and absent.
a. True
b. False

81. Summary reports are typical in academic settings but rarely used in business settings.
a. True
b. False

82. A summary should be as long as necessary to ensure that all illustrations, examples, and references used
in the report or document are included within the summary.
a. True
b. False

83. Informational reports emphasize reasoning and conclusions; analytical reports emphasize facts.
a. True
b. False

84. When discussing alternative solutions in a recommendation report, you should begin with the alternative
most likely to succeed.
a. True
b. False

85. Most analytical reports answer questions about specific problems and aid in decision making.
a. True
b. False

86. Feasibility reports analyze a problem, discuss options, and present a recommendation, solution, or action
to be taken.
a. True
b. False

87. When your reader may oppose your recommendation, you should begin the report by announcing the
recommendation directly.
a. True
b. False

88. Feasibility reports answer such questions as Will this plan or proposal work?
a. True
 b. False

89. Feasibility reports are typically written for internal audiences.

a. True
b. False

90. Yardstick reports examine problems using differing sets of criteria.

a. True
b. False

91. What type of report presents data without analysis or recommendations?

a. Informational report
b. Analytical report
c. Justification report
d. Proposal

92. What kind of report provides data or findings, analyses and conclusions, and may also provide
recommendations if requested?
a. Informational report
b. Analytical report
c. Progress report
d. Sales report

93. Which report format is used for short (usually eight or fewer pages) informal reports addressed outside
an organization?
a. Letter
b. Email or memo
c. Infographic
d. Digital slide decks

94. What type of report format appears as a visual representation of data or information and can tell
compelling stories that help businesses attract and inform consumers?
a. Infographic
b. Slide deck
c. Email or memo
d. Letter

95. Use Empowered Team Decision-Making Without Losing Control is an example of a _______ heading.
a. functional
b. logical
c. bulleted
d. talking

96. Data that is the result of firsthand experience and observation is considered _______.
 a. primary data
b. secondary data
c. illegitimate data
d. first-person data

97. Data that come from reading what others have experienced or observed and recorded is called _______
data.
a. primary
b. secondary
c. printed
d. electronic

98. What type of report provides a status update on a project?

a. Progress report
b. Summary report
c. Meeting minutes
d. Executive summary

99. What type of report covers only what management needs to know about a longer report, proposal, or
business plan?
a. A regular summary
b. An executive summary
c. An analytical report
d. A progress report

100. What type of report attempts to solve problems by evaluating options and offering recommendations?
a. A justification report
b. A feasibility report
c. A yardstick report
d. A proposal

CHAP 10
1. Which of the following statements regarding business proposals is correct?
a. A proposal is a persuasive document used to solve problems, provide services, or sell products.
b. A proposal is always solicited.
c. A proposal is an informative document used to share problems, identify emerging issues, and
categorize available resources for resolution.
d. A proposal is developed for external audiences only.

2. Lisa works for a nonprofit agency seeking funding for a community project. What type of proposal is she
likely to write to the local foundation that supports the same cause within the community?
a. A purchase request
 b. A grant request
c. An RFP
d. An internal request

3. In which of the following situations should a business write a request for proposal in order to solicit
competitive bids?
a. Advertising openings for two sales positions
b. Attracting new clients
c. Renovating offices
d. Interviewing job candidates

4. An effective proposal should showcase the writer's expertise and build credibility, emphasize how the
writer's methods and products will benefit the reader, present ideas clearly and logically, and _______.
a. inform by providing data but without analysis or recommendations
b. make recommendations regarding the feasibility of a plan
c. get the reader's attention
d. analyze findings, draw conclusions, and make recommendations intended to solve a problem

5. You can make the introduction of a proposal more persuasive if you _______.
a. explain in great detail how much better you are than your competitors
b. hint at the problem you will solve but avoid explaining the reasons for the proposal
c. remain as vague as possible to keep the reader intrigued
d. provide a "hook" such as mentioning a remarkable resource available exclusively to the writer

6. In which part of an informal proposal should you convince your reader that you understand the problem
completely?
a. Introduction
b. Background
c. Authorization
d. Budget

7. All proposals share two significant characteristics: they show the value and benefits of the product or
service being recommended and _______.
a. they use formal, academic language
b. they are very long in length
c. they use easy-to-understand language
d. they are printed on hard copy because they are official documents

8. What should be included in the staffing section of an informal proposal?

a. Credentials and expertise of project leaders
b. List of projected costs
c. Copy of the RFP
d. Schedule or timetable of activities
9. The budget in a proposal should _______.
a. reflect careful research because once a proposal is accepted, it is legally binding
b. provide only rough estimates so that you can raise the price later if costs increase
c. never itemize hours and costs, but offer only a total sum
d. include a disclaimer to ensure that the budget is not legally binding

10. Jeremy has decided to include a deadline for acceptance in his proposal to install energy-efficient
workstations for a local manufacturer. In which section should Jeremy place the deadline?
a. Introduction
b. Background
c. Conclusion and authorization
d. Proposal

11. Although formal reports are similar to formal proposals, a primary difference is that formal reports
_______.
a. are the product of thorough research and data analysis
b. use a more conversational tone
c. are longer than formal proposals
d. are organized indirectly

12. What is the first step in writing a formal report?

a. Selecting an appropriate layout and format
b. Researching primary and secondary data
c. Writing a purpose statement
d. Determining the length of the report

13. Which of the following is recommended when writing a purpose statement for a formal report?
a. Write purpose statements only for external formal reports.
b. Omit limitations to avoid a negative tone.
c. Use action verbs that tell what you intend to do.
d. Use vague language to allow for flexibility.

14. Which type of statement can help you define the focus of your report and keep you on target?
a. Scope
b. Proposal
c. Purpose
d. Methods

15. Chronological organization arranges ideas by _______.

a. time
b. order of importance
c. physical location
d. simple to complex
16. Tanika must prepare a formal report detailing the findings of a year-long study of her company's new
wellness program. In this report she must discuss employee absenteeism before and after the program's
implementation. What type of organizational pattern will she likely use?
a. Chronological
b. Spatial
c. Compare/Contrast
d. Importance

17. Tyler is writing a report that analyzes the GlobalCom, Inc., market share of cell phone subscriptions
worldwide by region. He will probably organize his report _______.
a. chronologically by the date the cell phone subscriptions reached their maximums
b. around extensive secondary data to assure the reader that he conducted adequate research before he
wrote the report
c. using a functional arrangement to show types of subscriptions globally
d. geographically with sections representing each region's market share

18. Reviewing a report's mechanics before submission refers to checking it for _______.
a. format
b. content accuracy
c. grammar and usage
d. audience-oriented tone

19. Primary research data can be defined as _______.

a. information that comes from reading what others have experienced and observed
b. information gained from firsthand experience and observation
c. statistics collected during the first stage of research
d. data received from the World Wide Web

20. A newspaper article citing student input about the growing popularity of caffeinated energy drinks on
college campuses would be considered what type of information source?
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. Scholarly

21. The benefit of consulting with a reference librarian is they will _______.
a. do your research for you
b. direct you to only print resources
c. steer you in the right direction
d. explain how the library is organized

22. What type of print resource provides excellent in-depth, historical data?
a. Periodicals
b. Bibliographic indexes
 c. Databases
d. Books

23. Which of the following are considered secondary research sources?

a. Magazines
b. Interviews
c. Surveys
d. Systematic observation

24. In order to assess the credibility of a Web page, review the Web page for accuracy in content, verify the
credentials of the publishers or sponsors of the web page, and _______.
a. feel free to disregard errors in grammar or spelling because such errors are not related to issues of
credibility
b. identify print versions of the content
c. evaluate the overall content of a Web page and see how it compares with other resources on the
same topic
d. make sure that the Web page has a publication date

25. Which of the following is an example of an open-ended survey question?

a. What should the bookstore do about plastic bags?
b. How many times have you visited the bookstore this semester?
c. Would you be willing to change to another method of ordering books?
d. All of these are open-ended questions.

26. Surveys, which are used to collect firsthand data, have many advantages. One advantage is that ______.
a. those who respond to mailed or online surveys exactly represent the overall population
b. respondents can be relied on to respond openly and truthfully to anonymous surveys
c. data can be gathered economically and efficiently
d. return rates for online and mailed surveys are typically over 90 percent

27. Brittany is writing a business report about protecting workplace data and will be conducting an interview
with a data security expert. She should call before the interview to confirm the arrangements, learn about the
individual she is interviewing, and _______.
a. make her questions biased to the answers she hopes to receive
b. use dominant body language to show that she is in charge of the interview
c. ask open-ended questions rather than yes-or-no questions to draw out responses from the expert
d. take notes rather than recording the interview because a recorder may inhibit the expert from
speaking openly

28. Documenting data properly in business reports is important because it strengthens your argument,
protects you from charges of plagiarism, and _______.
a. makes your report longer
b. establishes your skill as a researcher
c. makes your report more concise
 d. saves time.

29. Which of the following describes what plagiarism is?

a. Plagiarism involves using good data from reputable sources to increase your credibility and to
enhance the logic of your reasoning.
b. Plagiarism only happens in academic settings.
c. Plagiarism is the act of using others’ ideas without proper documentation or by paraphrasing poorly.
d. Plagiarism occurs when writers acknowledge the sources of their researched information.

30. Which of the following statements would need to be documented in a report?

a. Tornadoes caused extensive loss of property and lives in Missouri.
b. You can get an idea of how dangerous a tornado is by its rating.
c. Damaging winds, common in strong tornadoes, caused problems for the residents of Missouri.
d. The Fujita-Pearson tornado scale rates tornadoes with wind speeds of 261 to 318 miles per hour as
F5 storms.

31. Which of the following is an effective strategy when paraphrasing?

a. Read the original material intently to make sure that you can use the same vocabulary.
b. Write your own version without looking at the original.
c. Repeat the grammatical structure of the original, replacing words with synonyms.
d. Borrow specific language to make sure that you covered the main points.

32. Which of the following is a valid purpose for using direct quotation?
a. To duplicate exact wording before criticizing an idea
b. To avoid giving your own opinion
c. To add length to a researched document
d. To provide subjective background information

33. Which of the following will help you avoid common problems when using direct quotations in a report?
a. Beware of overusing quotations because you may appear as if you have no ideas of your own.
b. If you use a direct quotation, don't dilute its impact by summarizing it or introducing it in your own
words.
c. Place the direct quotation in quotation marks but change a few words to show you have your own
ideas.
d. Avoid using any direct quotations in a report.

34. When you must use a long quotation, which of the following guidelines should you follow?
a. Put it directly at the start of the paragraph
b. Summarize and introduce it in your own words
c. Put another long quotation after it.
d. Put the long quotation as the first sentence of the introduction

35. To avoid charges of copyright infringement, you should _______.

a. include a footnote to all information
 b. use information only from Internet sites
c. ask permission only when using information from a legal publication
d. assume that all intellectual property is copyrighted

36. Graphics are important in business reports because _______.

a. they save the writer time
b. readers grasp meaning from visuals more quickly than from text
c. they allow for the distortion of data
d. written text is becoming outdated

37. Which of the following is the first element to consider when selecting an appropriate graphic for a
report?
a. The length of your report
b. Your word processing abilities
c. Your report's organizational pattern
d. Your objective

38. Yolanda must include a long table in a report she is preparing on employee Internet use. What advice
should she follow when creating the table?
a. Avoid distracting her readers with shading.
b. Place the table as close as possible to its text discussion.
c. Leave missing data blank.
d. Because the emphasis is on the data, avoid the use of headings for each row.

39. What type of graphic illustrates changes in data over time?

a. Line chart
b. Flowchart
c. Pie chart
d. Table

40. The major advantage of line charts is that they _______.

a. compare related items
b. present large amounts of data
c. show the proportion of parts to a whole
d. demonstrate trends

41. Which statement about pie charts is correct?

a. Pie charts are most appropriate for technical audiences.
b. Pie charts are most useful for showing percentages.
c. Pie charts are more flexible than bar or line charts.
d. Pie charts can be confusing to readers because of the use of multiple colors.

42. In her letter to policyholders, Min Yi needs to include a graphic depicting the procedure a policyholder
follows when filing a claim. Which of the following graphics would help her achieve her objective?
 a. Organizational chart
b. Flowchart
c. Illustration
d. Table

43. Which of the following pieces of advice regarding the use of graphics in a report is accurate?
a. Use restraint when using color.
b. Don't introduce a graphic; a good graphic should communicate information clearly by itself.
c. Avoid summarizing the main point of the graphic.
d. Avoid the use of headings on a graphic.

44. The front matter components of a formal report typically include: report cover, title page, letter of
transmittal, table of contents, and _______.
a. budget
b. list of figures or tables
c. appendix
d. schedule

45. What is the purpose of a letter or memo of transmittal?

a. To announce the topic of the report
b. To provide a list of sources used within the report
c. To introduce the writer of the report
d. To designate the parts of the report

46. What advice should you follow when preparing a table of contents?
a. Avoid leaders (spaced dots) on a table of contents to avoid confusing the reader.
b. Include only the front matter components and the main body headings and subheadings.
c. Center all major headings.
d. Title the page Contents or Table of Contents.

47. The purpose of an executive summary is to _______.

a. announce the topic of the report and tell how it was authorized
b. secure funding
c. present an overview of a longer report for people who may not have time to read the entire
document
d. show the main sections of a report

48. What information should be included in the introduction of a formal report?

a. Copies of surveys
b. A discussion of the report findings
c. Conclusions and recommendations
d. Explanation of the problem

49. The body of a formal report should _______.

 a. define important and unfamiliar terms
b. identify the individuals responsible for commissioning the report
c. discuss, analyze, interpret, and evaluate the research findings or solution to the problem
d. include a description of all secondary and primary data collected during the research phase of
writing the report

50. When developing a bibliographic list of sources for a formal report, the writer should _______.
a. include only published sources within your bibliographic list
b. label the page "Works Cited" when using either the APA or MLA format
c. list the sources in alphabetical order
d. omit the bibliographic list of sources because the in-text citations will identify each source used
within the report

51. In crafting the introduction to a proposal, you should make the proposal more persuasive by including a
hook that either hints at extraordinary results, promises low costs, or _______.
a. mentions a remarkable resource
b. keeps results general to avoid liability
c. mentions past successes with other companies
d. gives information from easily available resources

52. To help busy decision makers quickly understand the qualifications of the team who will complete the
work, the staffing section of a business report should _______.
a. attach copies of their full resumes
b. provide a summary highlighting their credentials
c. include letters of recommendations from other clients
d. include links to their LinkedIn profiles

53. Proposals are informative documents used to educate readers.

a. True
b. False

54. All proposals should use easy-to-understand language and show the value and benefits of the product or
services being recommended.
a. True
b. False

55. Because proposals are often selling products and services, they should always be written using a formal
tone.
a. True
b. False

56. In a solicited proposal, your goal is to convince the reader that a problem exists.
a. True
b. False
57. In the proposal, plan, and schedule section of a business proposal, your goal is to explain your plan for
solving the problem.
a. True
b. False

58. A proposal could become legally binding if accepted by the customer.

a. True
b. False

59. The conclusion of a proposal should remind the reader of the proposal's key benefits and make it easy for
the reader to respond.
a. True
b. False

60. Unlike a business proposal, a formal business report presents findings and recommendations based on
research and data analysis.
a. True
b. False

61. The first step in preparing a report is to conduct research.

a. True b. False

62. A primary goal of business report writing should be to present key findings that are relevant to your
audience.
a. True
b. False

63. Formal report writers conduct most of their research using primary sources.
a. True
b. False

64. A report discussing the correct procedure to process customer complaints should be organized using a
chronological order.
a. True
b. False

65. Focusing on the mechanics of a business report during the proofreading stage involves assessing its
overall visual appeal.
a. True
b. False

66. Secondary data come from reading what others have published, experienced, or observed.
 a. True
b. False

67. An advantage of secondary data over primary data is that secondary data are easier and cheaper to
develop.
a. True
b. False

68. Because of the vast amount of information available online, print resources are no longer considered
credible sources for business reports.
a. True
b. False

69. A database is a collection of information stored digitally so that it is accessible by computers and mobile
electronic devices.
a. True
b. False

70. Information about who sponsors a Web page is important to look for in assessing its authority and, in
turn, its credibility.
a. True
b. False

71. Surveys can generate primary data economically and efficiently from large groups of people.
a. True
b. False

72. When you conduct an interview, prepare closed-ended questions to ensure a variety of responses.
a. True
b. False

73. One reason to document sources in a report is to help the reader learn more about the topic.
a. True
b. False

74. The only item that you must document in a report is a quotation of another person's actual spoken or
written words.
a. True
b. False

75. Information that is common knowledge requires no documentation.

a. True
b. False
76. You can avoid plagiarism by using the grammatical structure of the original source and replacing select
words with synonyms.
a. True
b. False

77. Direct quotations are often useful to provide objective data and to establish the severity of a problem as
seen by experts.
a. True
b. False

78. You should assume that all intellectual property is copyrighted.

a. True
b. False

79. If your report contains complex data and numbers, using graphics can help you simplify complex ideas,
emphasize key data, and _______.
a. make key information easier to remember
b. make subjective data look objective
c. distract the reader from reading the report by focusing only on the graphics
d. make the report itself irrelevant because of the clarity of the graphics

80. Probably the most frequently used visual aid in reports is the table.
a. True
b. False

81. The major advantage of line charts is that they show changes over time, thus indicating trends.
a. True
b. False

82. Pie charts are an effective visual to demonstrate a procedure.

a. True
b. False

83. In order to help ensure that your reader will understand your graphic, tell your audience what to look for,
summarize the main point of the graphic, and _______.
a. place the graphic in the appendix
b. place the graphic next to the point it supports
c. assume the reader will reach the same conclusions you reached from the set of data
d. use general directives such as The Findings are shown in Figure 3

84. Report graphics should include a caption or title.

a. True
b. False
85. The front matter of a formal report refers to the preliminary sections before the body section.
a. True
b. False

86. If included with a report, a letter or memo of transmittal should be written using the indirect strategy.
a. True
b. False

87. The purpose of a table of contents is to present an overview of the report for people who may not have
time to read the entire report.
a. True
b. False

88. The introduction should be the principal section of a formal report.

a. True b. False

89. The most important section of a report to a reader is the conclusions and recommendations.
a. True
b. False

90. Regardless of the documentation format used, sources should be alphabetized in the bibliographic section
of a report.
a. True
b. False

91. In which part(s) of a proposal should you state the project completion date?
a. Proposal, Plan, and Schedule, and Conclusion and Authorization
b. Proposal, Plan, and Schedule, and Budget
c. Proposal, Plan, and Schedule
d. Conclusion and Authorization

92. A document that specifies a business or agency's requirements and solicits competitive bids from vendors
is known as an RFP, which stands for _______.
a. request for plan
b. request for proposal
c. research for proposal
d. research for plan

93. How do formal reports differ from formal proposals?

a. A formal report has an authorization section.
b. A formal report presents thorough investigation and analysis.
c. A formal report makes an offer.
d. A formal report has fewer sections.
94. Preparing a written purpose statement is helpful because it defines the focus of the report and _______.
a. determines the scope of the budget
b. provides a detailed schedule
c. provides a standard that keeps the project on target
d. details the important deadlines

95. You need to write a formal report that compares different alternatives, showing before and after
scenarios. Which strategy type for data arrangement should you use?
a. Chronological
b. Simple/Complex
c. Compare/Contrast
d. Importance

96. A collection of information stored digitally so that it is accessible by computers and mobile electronic
devices is a _______.
a. database
b. survey monkey
c. Wikipedia
d. Google doc

97. Which of the following sources found on the Internet would be considered credible enough to include in
a formal report?
a. Wikipedia and other online encyclopedias
b. Information found in discussion forums
c. A personal blog
d. Library databases

98. Information that is common knowledge requires no documentation. Which of the following is an
example of common knowledge?
a. The Wall Street Journal is a popular business newspaper.
b. Bangladesh is the fastest growing city in the world.
c. In 2021, the automobile company Tesla sold 936,172 vehicles.
d. Amazon is the leading e-retailer in the United States, with net sales amounting to close to 386
billion U.S. dollars in 2020.

99. An infographic is a type of visual aid that combines images and graphic elements to present complex
information in a format that is easy to understand, tells a story, and _______.
a. uses a lot of words
b. is more informational than persuasive
c. includes a call to action
d. allows for presenting biased information
100. The goal of an executive summary is to summarize a report’s major sections, such as the purpose,
background, conclusions, and _______.
a. recommendations
b. schedule
c. budget
d. letter of transmittal

CHAP 11
1. How do recruiters and employers view the importance of professional behavior in the workplace?
a. Although recruiters are impressed with applicants who speak and write well, a candidate's technical
expertise is all that matters.
b. Good manners and a businesslike, professional demeanor are among the top skills recruiters seek in
applicants.
c. Professionalism and soft skills are important only in service-oriented fields.
d. Team, communication, and people skills are low priorities for most recruiters and employers.

2. In today's digital age, professionalism requires all employees to maintain a positive _______ presence.
a. sales
b. nonverbal
c. online
d. managerial

3. A synonym for professionalism is _______.

a. hard skills
b. social acceptance
c. business etiquette
d. diversity

4. Which of the following statements about professionalism in the workplace accurately describes a current
trend?
a. Companies are not addressing issues of professionalism in the workplace because unprofessional
behavior affects only the individual who displays it.
b. More organizations are establishing procedures or policies to encourage professionalism.
c. Companies are only concerned about employees exhibiting professional behavior when working at
their desks.
d. Companies limit their policies regarding professional behavior to only nonverbal actions such as
dressing appropriately or maintaining eye contact with others.

5. Jue understands that soft skills and professional polish will ensure her long-term success on the job.
Which of the following is a soft skill?
a. Fast typing speed
b. Accountancy procedures
 c. The ability to work effectively as part of a team
d. Proficiency in using a variety of computer software packages

6. Professional behavior is comprised of six dimensions, including courtesy and respect, appearance and
appeal, tolerance and tact, honesty and ethics, reliability and diligence, and _______.
a. soft and hard skills
b. self-actualization and self-control
c. sharing and collegiality
d. education and training

7. Richard wants to prove that he has high emotional intelligence. Which of the following pieces of advice
will help to show that he has strong emotional intelligence?
a. Richard should focus on his job and avoid volunteering his services to a worthy community or
charity group.
b. Richard should avoid apologizing for any errors.
c. Richard should listen actively to customers and colleagues.
d. Richard should avoid any interaction with coworkers so that he stays focused on his job.

8. To demonstrate tolerance and tact in the workplace, which of the following should you do?
a. Avoid apologizing for errors or misunderstandings because doing so calls attention to them.
b. Choose writing over face-to-face interactions whenever possible.
c. Work to improve your vocal quality.
d. Keep your personal opinions of people private.

9. Which type of the following intelligences describes the ability to get along well with others and to get
them to cooperate with you?
a. Academic
b. Emotional
c. Social
d. Executive

10. Personal attacks, rudeness, and disrespectful comments run totally counter to which of the following
traits required for positive workplace relations?
a. Polish
b. Civility
c. Etiquette
d. Soft skills

11. Face-to-face communication _______.

a. is the least rich communication channel
b. increases the likelihood of misunderstandings
c. reduces cooperation and limits problem solving during conflict
d. is the most effective of all communication channels
12. Which of the following statements about the power of the human voice is correct?
a. The voice sends only verbal messages to receivers.
b. Individuals can learn to change their voice to make it more effective and powerful.
c. No correlation exists between the voice and perceived authority and trust.
d. Flat monotone voices are considered to be polished and professional

13. Saying words correctly and clearly with the accepted sounds and accented syllables reflects _______.
a. rate
b. pitch
c. vocal quality
d. proper pronunciation

14. To use your voice effectively, _______.

a. speak in a relaxed, controlled, well-pitched voice at about 125 words per minute
b. overemphasize all words to guarantee audience understanding
c. avoid listening to educated individuals to retain your speaking uniqueness
d. keep the same volume and rate while speaking

15. Uptalk is characterized by _______.

a. a flat or monotonous delivery
b. a rising inflection at the end of a sentence that makes statements sound like questions
c. self-gratifying comments to make you appear better than others
d. an unnaturally quick speaking pattern

16. Taylor wants to engage in workplace conversation. Which of the following suggestions would help
Taylor to be effective in striking up workplace conversation with coworkers?
a. Always use first names when addressing supervisors, customers, and coworkers.
b. Avoid social situations with coworkers.
c. Bring up controversial topics to show that you follow the news.
d. Learn to listen actively, expecting to learn something.

17. Brittany has never received criticism about her performance in the workplace. Which of the following
observations will help her in understanding and receiving workplace criticism?
a. When receiving criticism, individuals should focus on their feelings rather than on the content of the
criticism.
b. Most individuals like to give and receive criticism.
c. Giving and receiving criticism is a normal occurrence in the business world.
d. In today's workplace, only managers must give criticism.

18. You are in a meeting receiving your performance review and are surprised that your supervisor has
offered you many suggestions for improvement. How should you react to the criticism?
a. Interrupt your supervisor frequently to comment on his or her suggestions so that you don't miss
giving feedback on anything.
b. To avoid any type of confrontation with your supervisor, agree with all comments made.
 c. Try to deflect blame for anything negative said to others in your department.
d. Ask for clarification of comments when necessary.

19. You recently chaired a team implementing new federal confidentiality requirements. After
implementation, you must evaluate each team member's performance. Which of the following suggestions
about giving constructive criticism should you follow?
a. Use language that focuses on problems instead of improvement.
b. To show more compassion, be as vague as possible.
c. Ask the team members for feedback.
d. Discuss the person, not the behavior.

20. Which of the following statements demonstrates an appropriate way to deliver constructive criticism?
a. You seem to think that you can submit any kind of work and that it doesn't matter.
b. Your work is often shoddy.
c. Producing inferior work often causes this company to lose time and money.
d. You need to produce work that meets this company's standards.

21. When a workplace message is urgent and can't wait, which of the following communication channels do
business communication experts advise?
a. E-mail
b. Video conference
c. Phone
d. Text message

22. What is the first thing you should do before making a business telephone call?
a. Prepare an appropriate opening.
b. Ask yourself if the phone call is necessary.
c. Decide what you're going to say after the receiver answers.
d. Write down the ideas you want to discuss so that you don't forget them.

23. Which of the following pieces of advice would contribute to an effective business phone call?
a. Use casual, informal language.
b. Realize that the responsibility for ending a call lies with the person you are calling.
c. In the introduction of the phone call, name the person you are calling, identify yourself and your
affiliation, and give a brief explanation of your reason for calling.
d. Begin the phone call by asking the receiver of the call how they are.

24. Which of the following demonstrates a productive and efficient way to answer a telephone call?
a. This is Beth. May I help you?
b. Precision Integrations. What's on your mind?
c. Hello. What can I do for you?
d. Thanks for calling Precision Integrations. This is Beth Dittmer. How may I help you today?
25. If you are taking a phone call for someone else, which of the following behaviors would reflect well on
you, your colleague, and your organization?
a. Identify your colleague's whereabouts if you are answering their phone.
b. Guarantee the caller that your colleague will return the call within a few hours.
c. Verify telephone numbers and the spelling of names when taking messages.
d. Find your coworker immediately and report that they have an incoming call.

26. Which of the following responses will assure confidentiality when answering calls for others?
a. Annette is currently participating in an important budget meeting with our board of directors.
b. We're not really sure where Annette is right now, but she'll return your call immediately whenever
she gets back.
c. Annette has run down to the ladies' room for a few minutes, but she should be back soon.
d. Annette is away from her desk, but I will give her your message when she returns.

27. Elisha has just started a new job and must use a cell phone to communicate with coworkers and
customers. What advice should she follow to demonstrate professional cell phone use?
a. Talk openly and freely on her cell phone in any location and at any time.
b. Select a unique ringtone such as the music and lyrics to her favorite song so that she can recognize
when her phone is ringing.
c. Speak louder so that her receiver can hear her and her ideas.
d. Screen incoming calls if she is busy.

28. The benefits of voice mail include eliminating unnecessary chit chat, telephone tag, inaccurate messages,
and _______.
a. time zone barriers
b. the need for written messages
c. the necessity of a cordial, friendly greeting
d. prompt responses

29. Shawn wants to be sure to exhibit professional cell phone etiquette. Which of the following should he
follow?
a. Shawn should allow voice mail to take routine calls that are not pressing.
b. Shawn should make and receive calls in public places so that he seems more accessible to
coworkers.
c. Shawn should speak in high, excited, conversational tones.
d. Shawn should make calls while driving to save time.

30. Leticia has called a client and received his voice mail. Which of the following pieces of advice will help
Leticia improve the impression she makes when leaving a message?
a. Leticia should hang up and call back later; her client won't want to be bothered with having to listen
to a message.
b. Leticia should speak as quickly as possible to make her message more concise.
c. Leticia should smile when leaving her message to add warmth to her voice.
 d. Leticia should leave a complete message, including confidential details about the project Leticia is
working on, to make her message as useful as possible.

31. The impact of virtual teams on companies include happier employees, fewer absences, and _______.
a. cost savings
b. employees taking more vacation time
c. longer workdays
d. greater attrition

32. Which of the following statements is an accurate description of workplace teams and team behavior?
a. Teams tend to respond more slowly to competition or problem solving.
b. Teams tend to have decreased productivity due to internal conflicts.
c. Team members who are involved in the decision-making process show less resistance to change.
d. Teams make worse decisions than individuals.

33. In what phase of team development do teams select members, become acquainted, build trust, and form a
collaborative culture?
a. Storming
b. Forming
c. Norming
d. Performing

34. In what phase of team development do members select alternatives, analyze effects, implement their
plan, and manage their project?
a. Forming
b. Norming
c. Storming
d. Performing

35. What term describes groups of people who collaborate with one another to accomplish a shared task
across space, time, and organizational boundaries using technology?
a. Blogs
b. Virtual teams
c. Team players
d. Social networking

36. Which of the following would have a positive impact on team behavior?
a. Talking about one’s personal achievements
b. Competing for individual recognition
c. Analyzing tasks and defining problems
d. Avoiding conflict

37. Successful workplace teams _______.

a. agree on a purpose and procedures
 b. are homogeneous
c. avoid conflict
d. work independently

38. What is the optimal number of participants for an effective team?

a. Two
b. Four to six
c. Ten
d. There is no "ideal" number; more is always better.

39. Which of the following is helpful when dealing with conflict in a team?
a. Look for areas of mutual agreement.
b. To promote individuality, focus on the person rather than the task.
c. Do not allow team members to speak their minds because too many ideas could prevent the group
from reaching its goal.
d. Avoid conflict completely and let the chips fall where they may.

40. Which of the following would help a group achieve its goal?
a. Competition
b. Individual leadership
c. Emphasis on individualism
d. Collaboration

41. For which of the following purposes should you schedule a meeting?
a. To reach a decision
b. To share information
c. To discuss the background of a project that will start in three months
d. To discuss what snacks should be purchased for the next in-person meeting

42. What is your first task before holding a meeting?

a. Deciding how and where to meet
b. Preparing an agenda
c. Inviting participants
d. Determining your purpose

43. On average, how much of their time do workers spend in meetings?

a. More than a fifth
b. Less than a fifth
c. More than half
d. Not much at all

44. A meeting agenda should include the date and place of the meeting, start and end times, a brief
description of each topic with its time allotment, and _______.
a. a refreshment list
 b. an explanation of the leader's position on each of the agenda topics
c. any premeeting preparation expected of participants
d. All answer choices should be included on a meeting agenda

45. Which of the following tips will help to get a meeting started efficiently?
a. Wait until all participants arrive.
b. Give a quick recap to anyone who arrives late.
c. Establish ground rules.
d. Start voting on items prior to holding any discussion.

46. How should a group leader keep a meeting progressing effectively?

a. Engage in most of the talking to ensure that the meeting ends on time.
b. Allow group members to digress on a topic because other topics may be beneficial to explore.
c. Discourage members who monopolize the discussion.
d. Summarize only at the end of the meeting.

47. Which of the following is an optimal way to end a meeting?

a. A meeting should end only when participants have discussed all agenda items.
b. The leader should provide a summary of accomplishments and a review of action items.
c. The leader should remind participants that they are responsible for taking their own minutes.
d. Participants should pass their assigned tasks on to someone who did not attend.

48. Which of the following should be included in the minutes of a meeting?

a. The date and time of the meeting, and participant names, absentee names, meeting documents, key
points, decisions and action items
b. Decision and action items only
c. Names of participants and decision and action items only
d. Date and time of the meeting, and participant names, and action items

49. Which of the following is recommended as a good practice for virtual meetings?
a. Encourage participants to login 5 minutes early.
b. Encourage participants to login on time when the meeting starts.
c. Allow participants to multitask during the meeting.
d. Encourage participation by asking each participant to speak for 30 seconds without interruption.

50. Jeff will be leading a virtual team meeting. What should he do to make certain that the meeting runs
smoothly and professionally?
a. Send text messages and check his e-mail during the meeting.
b. Ensure that the technology is working for all participants before the meeting starts.
c. Discourage any chitchat among team members before or after the meeting.
d. Set the meeting time using Eastern Standard Time (EST).
51. Good manners and a businesslike, professional demeanor are among the top skills recruiters seek in
applicants.
a. True
b. False

52. The term social intelligence describes desirable workplace behavior.

a. True
b. False

53. Many businesses have established protocol procedures or policies to enforce civility.
a. True
b. False

54. Proper business attire and dining etiquette are no longer important to learn because many business
interactions now take place virtually.
a. True
b. False

55. Hard skills refer to personal qualities, habits, attitudes, communication skills, and social graces.
a. True
b. False

56. Truthfulness, respecting others, fair competition, and empathy are all characteristics of which dimension
of professional behavior?
a. Ethics
b. Collegiality
c. Reliability
d. Tact

57. An awareness of courtesy and etiquette can give you a competitive edge in the job market.
a. True
b. False

58. You must demonstrate professionalism only in face-to-face interactions.

a. True
b. False

59. Because today's technologies provide many alternate communication channels, face-to-face
communication is no longer important in business and professional transactions.
a. True
b. False

60. Your vocal quality sends only verbal messages.

a. True
 b. False

61. Which speech pattern makes the speaker appear weak and tentative?
a. Fillers
b. Speaking in monotone
c. Vocal fry
d. Uptalk

62. When conversing with others, always address them by their first names.
a. True
b. False

63. If you receive constructive criticism on the job, you should focus on your feelings as much as possible.
a. True
b. False

64. If another person has criticized you unfairly, you should disagree respectfully and constructively.
a. True
b. False

65. When you deliver constructive criticism, you should use the word "we" instead of "you" to avoid
sounding accusatory.
a. True
b. False

66. You should generally deliver most constructive criticism in writing rather than in person.
a. True
b. False

67. E-mail has made telephone use obsolete in the corporate world.
a. True
b. False

68. The statement I knew you would be the only one who could answer these two questions for me,
communicated during a phone call, would suggest that _______.
a. the speaker’s time was limited
b. the speaker wanted to flatter the person being called
c. the speaker wanted to communicate dependence on the person being called
d. the recipient of the call has a higher status than the caller

69. The responsibility for ending a call lies with the receiver.
a. True
b. False
70. When placing a call, your introduction should include three parts.
a. True
b. False

71. You should identify the extension when transferring a call.

a. True
b. False

72. To make your outgoing voice mail message more professional, use the computer-generated voice that
comes with most systems.
a. True
b. False

73. When answering phone calls for others, you should provide information about colleagues' whereabouts if
they are not in the office.
a. True
b. False

74. You should try to respond to voice messages within one week.
a. True
b. False

75. Decisions made by teams promote greater "buy-in" from group members.
a. True
b. False

76. In the norming phase of team development, teams discuss alternatives, evaluate outcomes, apply criteria,
and prioritize alternatives.
a. True
b. False

77. Virtual teams have greater autonomy than co-located teams and require members who are more
self-reliant.
a. True
b. False

78. Providing distractions is viewed as an effective technique to deal with group differences.
a. True
b. False

79. Groups with diverse members often produce the best decisions.
a. True
b. False
80. For optimal interaction, workplace teams should have 8-10 members.
a. True
b. False

81. Effective team members view participation in a team as an opportunity to compete with others.
a. True
b. False

82. Effective teams often have no formal leader.

a. True
b. False

83. Today's workers attend more meetings than ever.

a. True
b. False

84. Camden is the team lead for a project and needs to give his team some standard information on how the
project is progressing. How should he communicate this information in a way that is efficient for him and
effective for his team members?
a. By calling a face-to-face meeting
b. By sending an email, text message, or memo
c. By calling a virtual meeting
d. By leaving a voice mail for each one of the team members

85. The purpose of a meeting determines the number of participants.

a. True
b. False

86. Ground rules for a business meeting should be discussed only when a participant's behavior is harming
the progress of the agenda.
a. True
b. False

87. A conflict between two members of a meeting should be ignored so that the meeting can progress as
planned.
a. True
b. False

88. An in-person, face-to-face meeting is the richest of all available media.

a. True
b. False

89. Meeting minutes should be distributed within two weeks after the meeting or at least two days before the
next meeting, whichever comes first.
 a. True
b. False

90. Virtual meetings save travel costs and reduce employee fatigue.
a. True
b. False

91. What type of intelligence is the ability to empathize with others and identify one’s emotions as well as
those of other people?
a. Emotional intelligence
b. Social intelligence
c. Ethical intelligence
d. Civil intelligence

92. Skills such as the ability to work in teams, maintain a positive attitude, and demonstrate workplace
manners are all examples of _______.
a. hard skills
b. soft skills
c. professionalism
d. interpersonal habits

93. What is the term for the sound vibration frequency (the highness or lowness) of our voices?
a. Pronunciation
b. Volume
c. Rate
d. Pitch

94. Some young women in particular have a speech pattern that is characterized by a creaky, raspy sound at
the end of sentences. This speech pattern is called _______.
a. vocal fry
b. uptalk
c. monotonous tone
d. fillers

95. In which part of a phone call should you name the person being called, identify yourself and your
affiliation, and provide a brief explanation of the reason for the phone call?
a. After the introduction
b. The introduction
c. At the end of the phone call
d. In the middle of the phone call

96. If an executive needs to fire a worker, the recommended way to do this is _______.
a. via e-mail
b. in a private face-to-face meeting
 c. by leaving a voice mail
d. by letter

97. According to B.A. Tuckman, in which phase of team development do teams identify problems, collect
and share information, establish decision criteria, and prioritize goals?
a. Forming
b. Storming
c. Norming
d. Performing

98. What type of team allows people to connect with distant team members across borders and time zones,
and to work interdependently with a shared purpose across space, time, and organizational boundaries using
technology?
a. Face-to-face teams
b. Remote teams
c. Virtual teams
d. Office teams

99. What type of behavior would communicate a strong lack of professionalism during a meeting?
a. Texting and checking e-mail
b. Active listening
c. Being supportive
d. Taking notes

100. A record of points of discussion, decisions made, and tasks assigned at a meeting is known as _______.
a. the minutes
b. a briefing
c. a report
d. an agenda