CRIMINOLOGY

1. May be defined as a study and investigation of crime and criminals and

concerned with application of knowledge regarding crime to social
programs of crime prevention and control.
___A) Etiology ___C) Criminalist
___B) Criminology ___D) Criminal process

2. The process which explain human behavior. The experiences which help
determine the nature of a person’s as a reacting mechanism: that factors of
experiences in connection thereto impinges differentially upon different
personalities, producing conflict which is the aspect of crime.
___A) Criminogenic process ___C) Criminal psychodynamics
___B) Etiology of crime ___D) Cretinism

3. The study of mental processes of criminal in action: the study of the

genesis, development, and motivation of human behavior that conflicts
with accepted norms and standards of society; this study concentrates on
the study of individuals as opposed to general studies of mass populations
with respect to their general criminal behavior.
___A) Criminal psychodynamics ___C) Cultural conflict
___B) Criminogenic process ___D) Cretinism

4. A disease associated with prenatal thyroid deficiency and subsequent

thyroid activity, marked by physical deformities, arrested development,
goiter, and various forms of mental retardation, including imbecility.
___A) Cretinism ___C) Cultural conflict
___B) Criminogenic process ___D) Crime statistics

5. A reported instance of a crime recorded in a systematic classification.

___A) Crime statistics ___C) Cultural conflict
___B) Crime index ___D) Contumacy

6. A clash between societies because of contrary beliefs or substantial

variance in their respective customs, language, institutions, habits,

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 learning, traditions, etc.
___A) Cultural conflict ___C) Contumacy
___B) Crime index ___D) Custom

7. A collective term of mental disorders that begin at or shortly after puberty

and usually lead to general failure of the mental faculties, with the
corresponding physiological impairment.
___A) Delirium ___C) Demophobia
___B) Dementia Praecox ___D) Delusion

8. In medical jurisprudence, a false belief about the self, caused by

morbidity, present in paranoia and dementia praecox.
___A) Dementia Praecox ___C) Delirium
___B) Delusion ___D) Episodic criminal

9. A noncriminal person who commits a crime when under extreme

emotional stress; a person who breaks down and commits a crime as a
single incident during the regular course of natural and normal events.
___A) Delusion ___C) Erotomania
___B) Episodic criminal ___D) Euthanasia

10. A morbid propensity to love or make love; uncontrollable sexual desire,

or excessive sexual craving by members of either sex.
___A) Euthanasia ___C) Episodic criminal
___B) Erotomania ___D) Exhibitionist

11. As opposed to introvert, a person highly adapted to living in and deriving

satisfaction from external world; he is interested in people and things than
ideas, values and theories. He likes people, being around them and being
liked by them.
___A) Self-centered individual ___C) Exhibitionist
___B) Extrovert ___D) Euthanasia

12. It signifies the release from life given a sufferer from an incurable and
painful disease.
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___A) Euthanasia ___C) Suicide
___B) Extrovert ___D) Self-destruction

13. In medical jurisprudence, an apparent perception without any

corresponding external object, especially in psychiatry, any of the
numerous sensations, auditory visual or tactile, experienced without
external stimulus, and cause by derangement, intoxication or fever, hence
may be a sign of approaching insanity.
___A) Delusion ___C) Delirium
___B) Hallucination ___D) Dementia Praecox

14. It may be a transmission of physical characteristics, mental traits:

tendency to disease, etc. from parents to offspring. In genetics, the
tendency manifested by an organism to develop in the likeness of an
progenitor due to the transmission of genes in the reproductive process.
___A) Heredity ___C) Environment
___B) Inheritance ___D) Hallucination

15. Have been believed to share about equally in determining disposition,

that is, whether a person is cheerful or gloomy, his temperament, and his
nervous stability.
___A) Heredity ___C) Environment
___B) Heredity and Environment ___D) Hallucination

16. An individual with strongly self-centered patterns of emotion fantasy and

thought.
___A) Extrovert ___C) Introvert
___B) Hallucination ___D) Delusion

17. An uncontrollable morbid propensity to steal or pathological stealing.

The symptoms of this disease usually consist of peculiar motives for
stealing and hoarding.
___A) Kleptomania ___C) Legal insanity
___B) Phobia ___ D) Manila a potu

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18. A morbid of insanity characterized by a deep and morbid sense of
religious feeling.
___A) Mania ___C) Manila fanatics
___B) Delusion ___D) Legal insanity

19. A condition of sexual perversion in which a person derives pleasure from

being dominated or cruelly treated.
___A) Maturation ___C) Megalonia
___B) Masochism ___D) Melancholia

20. A mental disorder characterized by excessive brooding and depression of

spirits: typically of manic-depressive psychosis, accompanied with
delusions and hallucinations.
___A) Melancholia ___C) Masochism
___B) Megalomania ___D) Methomonia

21. A mental disorder in which the subject thinks himself great or exalted.
___A) Melancholia ___C) Masochism
___B) Megalomania ___D) Methomonia

22. Morbid craving, usually of an erotic nature for dead bodies. It is also a
form of perversion where sexual gratification is achieved either through
sexual intercourse with, or mutilation of dead body.
___A) Sex maniac ___C) Masochism
___B) Necrophilism ___D) Oikei mania

23. This is a term applied to a specialist in the study of mental disorders;

sometimes interchangeably used with psychiatrist.
___A) Anthropology ___C) Autophobia
___B) Alienist ___D) Biometry

24. It is a science devoted to the study of mankind and its development in

relationship to its physical mental and culture history.
___A) Anthropology ___C) Autophobia
___B) Alienist ___D) Biometry
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25. It is a morbid fear of one’s self or of being alone.
___A) Autophobia(Monophobia) ___C) Anthropology
___B) Biometry ___D) Biosocial Behavior

26. In criminology; a measuring or calculating of the probable duration of

human life, the attempt to correlate the frequency of crime between
parents and children or brothers and sisters (siblings.)
___A) Biosocial behavior ___C) Charles Goring
___B) Biometry ___D) Dr. Cesare Lombroso

27. A person’s biological heritage, plus his environment and social heritage,
influence his social activity. It is through the reciprocal actions of his
biological and social heritage that a person’s personality is developed.
___A) Biosocial behavior ___C) Charles Goring
___B) Biometry ___D) Dr. Cesare Lombroso

28. An English statistician, who studies the case histories of 2,000 convicts.
He found that heredity is more influential as a determiner of criminal
behavior than environment.
___A) Charles Darwin ___C) Dr. Cesare Lombroso
___B) Charles Goring ___D) Alphonse Bertillon

29. A person who originated a system of classifying criminals according to

bodily measurements. Because human skeleton is unchangeable after the
twentieth year and because no two individuals are alike in all dimensions,
this method of identification received prominence in 1880’s.
___A) Alphonse Bertillon ___C) Charles Darwin
___B) Dr. Cesare Lombroso ___D) Charles Goring

30. The world famous criminologist who advocated the Positivist Theory,
that crime is essentially a social and moral phenomenon and it cannot be
treated and checked by the imposition of punishment. Hence, a criminal is
just any other person who is sick, that he should be treated in hospital for
his possible rehabilitation and reformation.
___A) Dr. Cesare Lombroso ___C) Alphonse Bertillon
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___B) Charles Darwin ___D) Dr. Mark Angel

31. A sexual desire of an adult for children. This adult may obtain sexual
gratification from various forms of sexual intimacies and with the young.
___A) Sex maniac ___C) Masochism
___B) Pedophilia ___D) Homosexual

32. It has been considered as the “cradle of human personality,” for in it the
child forms the fundamental attitudes and habits that endure throughout
his life.
___A) School ___C) Religion
___B) Home ___D) Police agency

33. It is a strategic position to prevent crime and delinquency. It receives hint

when he is young, observes, supervise, and teaches him for many hours
each week during some of his most impressionable years.
___A) School ___C) Religion
___B) Home ___D) Police agency

34. A statement that we would have no crime if we had no criminal laws and
that we could eliminate merely by abolishing all criminal law.
___A) Discriminalization ___C) Logomachy
___B) Abolish Legislative body ___D) All of the above

35. Any record of crimes, such as crimes known to the police arrests,
convictions, or, commitments to prison.
___A) Crime statistics ___C) Police blotter
___B) Crime index ___D) Police record

36. Place and period where and when the classical school of criminology and
of criminal law development, based on the hedonistic psychology.
___A) England, during the last half of the 19th century
___B) USA, during the last half of the 19th century
___C) Italy, during the last of the 19th century
___D) China, during the last half of the 19th century
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37. An American authority in Criminology, who in his book “Principle of
Criminology,” considers criminology at present as not a science, but it has
hopes of becoming a science.
___A) William Mckorkle ___C) CesareBeccaria
___B) Edwin H. Sutherland ___D) George L. Wilker

38. A Criminologist, who in his book “The Scientific Adequacy of

Criminology Concept,” argued that criminology cannot possibly become a
science. Accordingly, general propositions of universal validity are the
essence of science; such proposition can be made only regarding stable
and homogenous unit but varies from one time to another; thereto
universal proposition cannot be made regarding crime, and scientific
studies of criminal behavior are possible.
___A) Edwin H. Sutherland ___C) William Mckorkle
___B) George L. Wilker ___D) CesareBeccaria

39.Who, in his book “An Essay of Crimes and Punishments,” (London

Almon, 1967), advocated and applied the doctrine of penology: that is to
make punishment less arbitrary and severe than it had been; that all
persons who violated a special law should receive identical punishment
regardless of age, sanity, wealth, position, or circumstances.
___A) William Mckorkle ___C) CesareBeccaria
___B) Edwin H. Sutherland ___D) R. Garofalo

40. Another Italian Criminologist, who developed a concept of the natural

crime and defined it as a violation of the prevalent sentiments of pity and
probity.
___A) W. A. Bonger ___C) CesareBeccaria
___B) R. Garofalo ___D) Dr. Cesare Lombroso

41. Another International Criminologist, who classified crimes by the

motives of the offenders as economic crimes, sexual crimes, political
crimes, and miscellaneous crimes with vengeance as the principal motive.
___A) W. A. Bonger ___C) CesareBeccaria
___B) R. Garofalo ___D) Dr. Cesare Lombroso
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42. A law of a foreign country which prohibited mothers and nurses from
taking children under two years of age into their beds.
___A) Prussian Law of 1784 ___C) Chinese Law of 1784
___B) Russian Law of 1784 ___D) Italian Law of 1784

43. An author in criminology, who advocated the theory that

“feeblemindedness inherited as Mendelian unit, cause crime for the reason
that feebleminded person is unable to appreciate the consequences of his
behavior, or appreciate the meaning of law.
___A) Walter Bromberg ___C) Richard Dugdale
___B_ H. H. Goddard ___D) W. F. Ogburn

44. One school of criminology based on writings of Marx and Angels, began
in 1850 and emphasized economic determinism; that crime is only a
byproduct; variations in crime rates in association with variations in
economic conditions.
___A) Socialist School of ___C) Social Psychological
Criminology School
___B) Sociological School ___D) All of them

45. School of criminology which interpreted crime as function of social

environmental; emphasizing importance of “imitation” in crime
causation.
___A) Socialist School of Criminology
___B) Sociological School
___C) Social Psychological School
___D) “M Naghten Rule”

46. Generally, “insanity” is used to describe legally harmful behavior

perpetrated under circumstances in which the actor did not know the
nature or quality of his act or did not know the right from wrong. This
explanation was formulated in England in 1843.
___A) Social Psychology
___B) Sociological School
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___C) “M Naghten Rule”
___D) Socialist School of Criminology

47. It is perhaps the most significant social condition accompanying the

industrial and democratic revolutions; because of this, a condition of
anonymity was created and the agencies by which control had been
secured in almost all earlier societies were greatly weakened.
___A) Migrants ___C) Culture conflict
___B) Mobility ___D) Economic and political
individualism

48. Family trees have been used extensively by certain scholars in the effort
to prove that criminality is inherited. Perhaps the most famous of these
family trees is the study by Dugdale and Estabrook, who reported that of
about 1,200 members of this family, 140 were criminals, 7 were convicted
of murder, 60 of theft, and 50 of prostitution.
___A) Kallikak’s family ___C) Zeros family
___B) Jukes family ___D) Jonathan Edward’s family

49. One family tree that contradicted the theory that criminality is inherited; a
famous preacher in the colonial period; none of his descendants were
found to be criminals, while many were presidents of the United States,
governor of states, members of the Supreme Court and of other high
courts, and famous writers, preachers, and teachers. That his ancestors did
have criminal records; his maternal grandmother was on the ground of
adultery, his grand aunt murdered her own son, his grand uncle murdered
his own sister.
___A) Jonathan Edward’s family ___C) Jukes family
___B) Zeros family ___D) Kallikak’s family

50. One school of criminology advocated by John Dewey, George Mead,

Charles Cooley, and W. I. Thomas. That the development of criminal
behavior is considered as involving the same learning process as does the
development of the behavior of a banker, a doctor, etc.; that the content of

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 learning, not the process itself, is considered as the significant element
determining whether one becomes a criminal or noncriminal.
___A) Social Psychological ___C) Sociological
___B) Socialist ___D) Physical and Environment

51. Crime rates not only vary from one relation to another, but also generally
among the several sections of each nation. Such that the rate of
convictions for homicides per million of population varies widely in
different regions in the whole of the Philippines.
___A) Cultural conflict ___C) Rural-Urban distribution
___B) Regionalism ___D) Neighborhood

52. According to Marshall B. Olinard, this kind of criminality is explained by

the person’s identification with delinquents and his conception of himself
as reckless and mobile, an explanation which is consistent with
differential association.
___A) Gang ___C) Rural criminality
___B) Cultural conflict ___D) Neighborhood

53. It is a means of disseminating techniques of delinquencies, of training in

delinquency, of protecting its members engaged in delinquency, and of
maintaining continuity in delinquency.
___A) Gang ___C) Rural criminality
___B) Family ___D) Neighborhood

54. It is the first agency to affect the direction which a particular child will
take and that no child is so constituted at birth that it must inevitably
become a delinquent or that it must inevitably be law-abiding.
___A) Gang ___C) Rural criminality
___B) Family ___D) Broken home

55. One of the most obvious elements in the delinquency of some children is
the criminalistics behavior of other members of the child’s family.
___A) Gang ___C) Rural criminality
___B) Family ___D) Broken home
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56. The modification of home conditions by death, divorce or desertion has
generally been believed to be an important reason for delinquency of the
children.
___A) Broken home ___ C) Home discipline
___B) Criminality in the home ___D) Gang

57. It is considered as four times as important as poverty in the home in

relation to delinquency; that it fails most frequently because of
indifference and neglect.
___A) Criminality in the home ___C) Broken home
___B0 Home discipline ___D) Government

58. It is the organized authority that can influence social control through its
branches particularly in the making of laws.
___A) Church ___C) Government
___B) Police agency ___D) All of them

59. It includes assessment of those forces resulting from man’s collective

survival effort with emphasis upon his institution, economic, financial,
educational, political, religion as well as recreation.
___A) Economic approach ___C) Sociological and cultural
approach
___B) Ecological ___D) All of them

60. The unjust utilization of economic resources sometimes create resentment

among individuals which often lead them to frustration and develop a
feeling of hatred and provocated criminal conduct.
___A) Economic approach ___C) Sociological and cultural
approach
___B) Ecological ___D) All of them

61. It emphasizes of morals and life’s highest spiritual values, the work and
dignity of an individual, and respect for the person and property of others,
generally powerful forces.
___A) The School ___C) The Government
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___B) Religion ___D) The Police agency

62. The general explanation of one topic in relation to criminal behavior is

that causes of crime lie primarily in the area of personal interaction and
that personal interaction is confined almost entirely in local communities
and neighborhood.
___A) Social institutions and crime
___B) Culture areas and crime
___C) Crime and social process
___D) The home and family in relation to crime

63. A process which appears in the life history of persisting criminals. This
process describes the development of criminality, with reference first to
the general attitudes toward criminality, and second, to the techniques
used in criminal behavior.
___A) Segregation
___B) Maturation
___C) Progressive conflict
___D) Competitive development of techniques of crime and protection
against crime

64. This may be observed in the in the interaction between criminals and the
public. Thus, a person with criminal record may ostracized in one
community but may become a political leader in other communities.
___A) Segregation
___B) Maturation
___C) Progressive conflict
___D) Competitive development of techniques of crime and protection
against crime

65. This process begins with arrest which is interpreted as defining a person
as enemy of society and which calls forth hostile reactions from
representative of society prior to and regardless of proof of guilty that
each side tends to drive the other side to greater violence unless it
becomes stabilized on a recognized level.
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___A) Segregation
___B) Maturation
___C) Progressive conflict
___D) Competitive development of techniques of crime and protection
against crime

66. Both sides may appropriate the inventions of modern science so far as
they useful to them. When the police develop and invention for the
detection or identification of criminals, the criminals utilize a device to
protect themselves.
___A) Competitive development of techniques of crime and of the
protection
___B) Progressive conflict
___C) Maturation
___D) Segregation

67. Certain types of crimes have disappeared almost entirely, thus the general
situation may change and cause the disappearance of crime. Now in Metro
Manila, armored bank robbery by a group of heavily armed men seems to
become the craze of the century.
___A) Organization of criminals ___C) Professionalization
___B) Fashions in crime ___D) All of them

68. This may be developed thru the interaction of criminals. This may be a
formal association with recognized leadership, understanding, agreements,
and division of labor or it may be a formal similarity and reciprocity of
interests and attitudes.
___A) Organization of criminals ___C) Professionalization
___B) Fashions in crime ___D) Gang

69. When applied to a criminal refers to the following things: the pursuit of
crime as a regular day-by-day occupation, and status among criminals.
___A) Organization of criminals ___C) Professionalization
___B) Fashions in crime ___D) Underground World

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70.Progress in the explanation of disease is being made principally by the
studies of specific diseases. Similarly, it is desirable to concentrate
research work in criminology on specific crimes and on specific
“sociological units” within the broad area of crime and within the legal
definition of specific types of crime such kidnapping and robbery.
___A) Behavior systems in crime ___C) Professional crimes
___B) Under World ___D) Organization of criminals

71. The behavior system in crime may be described by its three principal
characteristics, except…
___A) It is an integrated unit or essence of esprit de corps
___B) The behavior which occurs in a behavior system is not unique to any
particular individual
___C) While commons and joint participation in the system is the essential
characteristics of a behavior system, it can frequently be defined by
the feeling of identification of those who participate if
___D) It is not merely an aggregation of individuals criminal acts

72. An American authority in police matters who in his book “The Big Con
(Indianapolis: Bobbs Merrill, 1940) once said, “The dominant culture
could control the predatory cultures without difficulty, and what is more,
it could exterminate them, for no criminal subculture can operate
continuously and professionally without the connivance of the law.”
___A) David W. Maurer ___C) John Edgar Hoover
___B) Orlando Wilson ___D) August Vollmer

73. This school of Penology, which Beccaria made of the first significant
contributions and to which Rousseau, Montesquieu, and Voltaire
belonged, maintained the doctrine of psychological hedonism, that the
individual calculates pleasures and pains in advance of action and
regulates his conduct by the results of his calculations. That since
punishment must be one that can be calculated, it must be same for all
individuals, regardless of age, mentality, social status, or other conditions.
___A) Classical School ___C) Positive School
___B) Neo-classical School ___D) Punitive reaction to crime
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74. This school arose at the time of the French Revolution and the period
immediately following maintained that while the classical school was
correct in general, it should be modified in certain details; since children
and lunatics cannot calculate pleasures and pains, they should not be
regarded as criminals or to be punished.
___A) Classical School ___C) Positive School
___B) Neo-classical School ___D) Punitive reaction to crime

75. This school denied individual responsibility and reflected and

essentially non-punitive reaction to crime and criminality. The
adherents of this school maintained that an crime, as any other act,
is a natural phenomenon, just like a tornado, a flood, typhoon, or a
stroke of lightning.
___A) Classical ___C) Positive
___B) Neo-classical ___D) Justifying or exempting
circumstances

76. During the history of mankind, four principal methods of implementing

the punitive policy have been used. One of the following, however, was
not of the four methods, and that is…
___A) By becoming a slave of the offended party
___B) Removal from the group by death, by exile, or by imprisonment
___C) Physical torture
___D) Social degradation
___E) Financial loss

77. In the matter of death penalty, two techniques of death penalty were
practiced in Switzerland until about 1400; and death by drowning until
about 1600. These two techniques of inflicting death in Switzerland
were…
___A) Burning and boiling in oil
___B) Impaling and immuring
___C) Breaking at the wheel and iron coffin
___D) Drowning and choking
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78. The country where the last burning at the stake was made until 1786.
___A) Prussia ___C) China
___B) Berlin ___D) Italy

79. One of the World Leaders who, as late as 1817, tried in vain to substitute
simple hanging for treason in place of the existing penalty of hanging,
cutting down alive, disemboweling, cutting off the head, and quartering
the body.
___A) Romily ___C) Hitler
___B) Alexander the Great ___D) Montagu

80. In 1786, after the Americans gain their independence from England, the
prisoners of England were transported to another colony until 1867. What
is the name of this country today, then a colony of England?
___A) Romily ___C) Argentina
___B) Australia ___D) Brazil

81. What nation who pioneered banishment as a form of punishment?

___A) Ancient Rome ___C) England
___B) China ___D) Spain

82. What nation who pioneered the modern legalization of transportation in

1597, and concerned “rogues, vagabonds, and sturdy beggars?”
___A) Ancient Rome ___C) England
___B) China ___D) Spain

83. It is kind of early form of punishment where prisoners are shipped or

moved from one placed to another for the purpose of cheap labor.
___A) Transportation ___C) Penal colony
___B) Slavery ___D) Banishment

84. In 1241, some Jews were convicted of what crime and were ordered
either to pay twenty thousand mark or else be kept perpetual prisoner?
___A) Killing a Christian child
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___B) Circumcising a Christian child
___C) Marrying a Christian woman
___D) Killing a sheep

85. In what period when the First House of Correction appeared in England,
on the petition of Bishop Ridley of London for help in dealing with
thesturdy vagabonds in the city, the King gave his place in Bridewell to be
one of the hospitals of the city, of the lewd and idle, and a place for the
employment of the unemployed and the training of children?
___A) Middle of the 16th century
___B) First half of the 16th century
___C) First half of the 15th century
___D) Middle of the 17th century

86. A private person who, in 1669, established a workhouse in Hamburg at

his own expense because he had observed that thieves and prostitutes
were made worse instead of better by the pillory, and he hoped that they
might be improved by work and religious instruction in the workhouse.
___A) August Vollmer ___C) Bishop Riddley
___B) Peter Rentzel ___D) Garofalo

87. The great prison reformer, who wrote “The State of Prisons in England”
in 1777, after a personal investigation of practically all the prisons in
England.
___A) John Howard
___B) Peter Rentzel
___C) August Vollmer
___D) Garofalo, seconded by Ferri and Floretti

88. The foremost advocate of reparation and restitution method; that if the
offender is solvent, his property should be attached at the time
proceedings are stated, so that he can be compelled by ordered of the court
to make restitution.
___A) Bonneville de Marsangy ___C) John Howard
___B) Garofalo, seconded by ___D) Orlando Wilson
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 Ferri and Floretti

89. A code after a name of a person who firstly adopted the principle “an eye
for an eye and a tooth for a tooth” in the imposition of punishment, in
about 1875 B.C.
___A) Code of Kalantiao ___C) Hammurabi’s Code
___B) Code of Maragtas ___D) Dewey Code

REPUBLIC ACT NO. 8551

An Act Providing For the Reform and Reorganization of the Philippine

National Police and for Other Purposes, Amending Certain Provisions of
R.A No. 6975, Entitled “An Act Establishing the PNP under a Recognize
Department of the Interior and Local Government, and for Other
Purposes, dated February 25, 1998

90. It is hereby declared the policy of the State to establish a highly efficient
and competent police force which is national in scope and civilian in
character administered and controlled by a National Police Commission.
___A) RA No. 6975 ___C) RA No. 4864
___B) RA No. 8551 ___D) RA No. 7160

91. It is hereby declared the policy of the State to promote peace an order,
ensure public safety and further strengthen local government capability
aimed towards the effective delivery of basic services to the citizenry
through the establishment of a highly efficient and competent police force
that is national in scope and civilian in character. Towards this end, the
State shall bolster a system of coordination and cooperation among the
citizenry, local executives and the integrated law enforcement and public
safety agencies created under the act.
___A) RA No. 6975 ___C) RA No. 4864
___B) RA No. 8551 ___D) RA No.7160

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92. It is hereby declared to be the policy and purpose of this Act to achieve
and attain a higher degree of efficiency in the organization,
administration, and operation of local police agencies with the end in view
that peace and order may be maintained more effectively and the
lawsenforced with more impartiality. It is also the object of this Act to
place service on a professional level.
___A) RA No. 6975 ___C) RA No. 4864
___B) RA No. 8551 ___D) RA No.7160

93. It shall be a community and service oriented agency responsible for the
maintenance of peace and order and public safety . As such it shall be
organized to ensure accountability and uprightness in police exercise of
discretion as well as to achieve efficiency and effectiveness of its
members and units in the performance of their functions.
___A) PNP ___C) All Law Enforcement
Agencies
___B) NBI ___D) All Bureau of Fire Protection
and Jail Management and
Penology

94. As a civilian in character, it is a non-military organization, nor any

position thereof shall be occupied by any active member of the Armed
Forces of the Philippines, whose administration is governed by the
Department of the Interior Local and Government through the Office of
the NAPOLCOM and its personnel qualification and security of tenure is
governed by the Civil Service Law.
___A) PNP ___C) Personnel of the NAPOLCOM
___B) NBI ___D) Government Employees

95. It is a law governs the Code of Conduct and Ethical Standards for official
and employees of the Government- National or Local.
___A) RA No. 6713 ___C) RA No.6975
___B) RA No. 7160 ___D) RA No. 8551

96. The role of the PNP on matters involving the suppression of insurgency
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 and other serious threats to national security.
___ A) After twenty-four(24) months from the effectivity of this Act, the
PNP of DILG shall take over from the AFP the primary role of
preserving internal security-suppression of insurgency
___B) The DILG or PNP is already relieved of the primary responsibility
on matters involving the suppression of insurgency and other
serious threats to national security
___C) All of the above
___D) None of the First Two above-mentioned

97. It is an agency attached to the DILG for policy and program coordination.
It is composed of a Chairperson, four/94) Regular Commissioners and the
Chief of the PNP as ex officio member. Three(3) of the Regular
Commissioners shall come from the civilian sector who are neither active
nor former members of the Police or Military, one(1) of whom shall be
designated as Vice Chairperson by the President. The fourth regular
commissioner shall come from the law enforcement sector either active or
retired. That an active member of a law enforcement agency shall be
considered resigned from said agency once appointed to the Commission.
Provided further, that at least one(1) of the Commissioners shall be a
woman. The Secretary of the Department shall be the ex officio
Chairperson of the Commission, while the Vice Chairperson shall act as
the Executive Officer of the Commission.
___A) NAPOLCOM
___B) Commission on Human Rights (CMR)
___C) Commission of Audit (COA)
___D) Sandigang Bayan

98. As the inherent Powers of the government, it may be defined as the

power vested in the legislative by the Constitution to make, ordain and
establish all manner of wholesome and reasonable laws, statutes and
ordinances, either with penalties or without, not repugnant to the
Constitution, as they shall sudge to be for the good and welfare of the
State and the subjects of the same.
___A) Statutory Police Power
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 ___B) Police Power
___C) Power of Eminent Domain
___D) Power of Taxation
___E) All of the above

99. It is the power vested in the police by the Legislative Body of the land to
enforce the laws of the land in order to maintain peace and order, protect
lives and properties, effect arrest of criminal offenders, bring to justice
and assist the public prosecutors in the prosecution of criminal offenders.
___A) Statutory Police Power
___B) Police Power
___C) Power of Eminent Domain
___D) Power of Taxation
___E) All of the above

100. A law otherwise known as An Act Defining Certain Rights of Persons

Arrested, Detained, or Under Custodial Investigation as well as the
Duties of the Arresting, Detaining, and Investigating Officers, and
Providing Penalties for violations thereof.
___A) RA No. 7160 ___C) RA No. 8505
___B) RA No. 7434 ___D) RA No. 6713

101. The first of the Thirty (30) enumerated duties a Policeman on duty.
___A) He shall be ready at all times to perform his duties and obey the
law orders of his superior officers or higher authority
___B) He shall enforce all pertinent traffic laws, ordinances, or
regulations and shall take appropriate action on any violations of
law that may come to his attention
___C) He shall operate the patrol car at a moderate rate of speed and in
such a manner as will enable him to observe any condition or
occurrence in his patrol beat which may require police attention.
He shall adhere to the method prescribed for foot patrol, except as
may otherwise directed.
___D) All of the above

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102. The first of the Nine (9) enumerated duties a policeman assigned to
Traffic on duty.
___A)He shall enforce all pertinent traffic laws, ordinances, or
regulations and shall take appropriate action on any violations of
law that may come to his attention
___B) He shall be ready at all times to perform his duties and obey the
law orders of his superior officers or higher authority
___C) He shall operate the patrol car at a moderate rate of speed and in
such a manner as will enable him to observe any condition or
occurrence in his patrol beat which may require police attention.
He shall adhere to the method prescribed for foot patrol, except as
may otherwise directed.
___D) All of the above

103. The first of the Six (6) enumerated duties of a Policeman assigned to a
police car patrol duty.
___A) He shall enforce all pertinent traffic laws, ordinances, or
regulations and shall take appropriate action on any violations of
law that may come to his attention
___B) He shall be ready at all times to perform his duties and obey the
law orders of his superior officers or higher authority
___C) He shall operate the patrol car at a moderate rate of speed and in
such a manner as will enable him to observe any condition or
occurrence in his patrol beat which may require police attention.
He shall adhere to the method prescribed for foot patrol, except as
may otherwise directed.
___D) All of the above

104. On the average nationwide, the manning levels of the PNP shall be
approximately in accordance with…
___A) A police-to-population ratio of One (1) Policeman for every Five
Hundred (500) persons.
___B) The authorized ratio of ranks in a police force
___C) The maximum police-to-population ratio shall not be more than
One (1) Policeman for every One Thousand (1,000) persons
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 ___D) All of the above

105. As the term relatively applied to paragraph (g) Section 14 of RA No.

8551, amending Section 30 of RA No. 6975, it may mean an act of
baseness, vileness or morally evil oftentimes offensive to senses of
sensibility or highly disagreeable sins where one is convicted by final
judgment of the offense or crime committed is deprived of his
parental authority, guardianship over the ward, marital authority, and
the right to manage his property and to dispose of the same by an “ act
interviews (during his life time).”
___A) Moral Turpitude
___B) Violation of Anti-Graft and Corrupt Practices
___C) Morality
___D) All of the above

106. Of the four (4) general qualifications for appointment to the police
service where a waiver may be made, one of the following is not
included:
___A) Age ___C) Weight ___E) Related Talent
___B) Height ___D) Educational Requirements

107. A policeman’s nature of appointment under a Waiver Program.

___A) Conditional Appointment
___B) Temporary Appointment
___C) Permanent Appointment
___D) All of the above

108. This is one requirement for Permanent Appointment to the PNP.

___A) To undergo a Field Training program for 12 months involving
actual experience and assignment in Patrol, Traffic, and
Investigation
___B) A holder of relevant Master’s Degree in Criminology, Law
Enforcement, National Security or Law
___C) A member of any Cultural Minority
___D) All of the above
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109. Under Section 21 of RA No. 8551, amending Section 32 of RA No.
6975 one of the following has now the authority to conduct
Examinations for Policemen.
___A) Civil Service Commission
___B) National Police Commission
___C) Professional Regulation Commission
___D) DILG

110. Any civilian who is either a member of the Bar with at least 5 years of
law practice, Licensed Criminologist or graduate of the PNPA and
who possesses the general qualifications for appointment as Chief of a
City of Municipal Police Station, provided that in both cases, the
appointee has successfully passed the required Field Training Program
and has complied with other requirements as may be established by
the NAPOLCOM.
___A) True ___C) Somewhat True
___B) False ___D) Somewhat False
___E) None of the above

111. In the Police service, it may mean the loss in the personnel of its
organization in the normal course of events due to attainment of
maximum tenure in position, relief for just cause, demotion in position
or rank, non-promotion or separation from the service or retirement.
___A) Attrition ___D) Missing in Action (MIA)
___B) Banishment ___E) All of the above
___C) Absent Without Official Leave (AWOL)

112. A kind of attrition of PNP Members holding key positions in the PNP.
___A) Attrition by Attainment of Maximum Tenure in Position
___B) Attrition by Relief
___C) Attrition by Non-promotion
___E) Attrition on the bases of Retirement and Separation

113. An Attrition of any PNP Uniformed personnel for just cause and has
not been given an assignment within two (2) years after, shall be
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 retired or separated.
___A) Attrition by Attainment of Maximum Tenure in Position
___B) Attrition by Relief
___C) Attrition by Non-promotion
___E) Attrition on the bases of Retirement and Separation

114. An Attrition of any PNP Uniformed personnel who has been nailed or
has never been moved from one rank or position to another for a
continuous period of ten (10) years, shall be retired or separated.
___A) Attrition by Attainment of Maximum Tenure in Position
___B) Attrition by Relief
___C) Attrition by Non-promotion
___E) Attrition on the bases of Retirement and Separation

115. On the basis of promotion for PNP Uniformed personnel, one of the
following is not included:
___A) Merits
___B) Availability of Vacant Positions in the PNP staffing
___C) Clearance from the PLEB and the Office of the Ombudsman of any
complaint preferred against him or her, if any
___D) Approval by the Commission on Appointment

116. It is an act or instance of elevating a personnel from a lower rank to

higher rank or position, either by regular or special process.
___A) Promotion ___C) Lateral Promotion
___B) Performance Evaluation ___D) All of them

117. It shall be administered in such a way as to foster the improvement of

individual efficiency and behavioral discipline as well as the
promotions of organizational effectiveness and respect for the
constitutional and human rights of citizens, democratic principles and
ideals and the supremacy of civilian authority over the military.
___A) Promotion ___C) Lateral Promotion
___B) Performance Evaluation ___D) Monthly Retirement Benefits

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118. It shall be paid by 20% of the above pay and longevity pay of the
retired grade in case of 20 years of active service, increasingly by 2
½% for every year of active service rendered beyond 20 years to a
maximum of 90% for 36 years of active service and over. Provided
that the uniformed personnel shall have the option to receive in
advance and in lump sum his retirement pay for the first 5 years,
which shall be made within 6 months from the effectivity date of
retirement and/or completion, and that the retirement pay of the
officers/non-officers of the PNP shall be subject to adjustments based
on the prevailing scale of base pay of police personnel in the active
service,
___A) Monthly Retirement Benefits
___B) Monthly Salary
___C) Increase Monthly Salary
___ D) Permanent Physical Disability

119. A kind of benefit when an officer or non-officer who is permanently

and totally disabled as a result of injuries suffered or sickness
contracted in the performance of his duty as duly certified by the
National Police Commission, upon finding and certification by the
appropriate medical officer, that the extent of the disability or sickness
renders such member unfit or unable to further perform the duties of
his position, shall be entitled to one year’s salary and the lifetime
pension equivalent to 80% of his last salary, in addition to other
benefits as provided under existing laws.
___A) Monthly Retirement Benefits
___B) Monthly Salary
___C) Increase Monthly Salary
___D) Permanent Physical Disability

120. However, should such member who has been retired under Permanent
Total Disability under Section 35 of RA No. 8551 die within 5 years
from his retirement, his surviving legal spouse or there be none, the
surviving dependent legitimate children shall be entitled to the
pension for…
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 ___A) the remainder of the 5 years guaranteed period
___B) Lifetime pension benefit of the surviving heirs
___C) the remainder of the 10 years guaranteed
___D) All of the above

121. It is a kind of retirement, where an officer or non-officer shall be upon

attainment of age 56, provided in case of any officer with the rank of
Chief Superintendent, Director or Deputy Director General, the
Commission may allow his retention in the service for an
unextendible period of 1 year.
___A) Optional Retirement ___C) Permanent Total Disability
___B) Compulsory Retirement ___D) Separation

122. It is a kind of retirement which may be availed of, upon accumulation

of at least 20 years of satisfactory active service, an officer or non-
officer, at his own request and with the approval of the Commission,
shall be retired from the service and entitled to receive benefits
provided for by law.
___A) Optional Retirement ___C) Permanent Total Disability
___B) Compulsory Retirement ___D) Separation

123. It is an office which is independent of the PNP, which is composed of

the National, Regional and Provincial Offices, headed by Inspector
General, Directors and Superintendents respectively. It head is a
civilian who shall meet the qualification requirements provided
therein.
___A) CIDG
___B) Internal Affairs Service (IAS)
___C) People’s Law Enforcement Board (PLEB)
___D) Ombudsman
___E) Sandigang Bayan

124. As the term used in the disciplinary Machinery, Minor Offense shall
refer to any act or omission not involving moral turpitude, but not
limited to the following, with the exception of one, that is…
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 ___A) Simple misconduct or negligence; insubordination
___B) Frequent absences and tardiness
___C) Habitual Drunkenness and Gambling prohibited by law
___D) Homosexual or Lesbian

125. It may mean wrongful, improper or unlawful conduct, motivated by

premeditated, obstinate or intentional purpose. It usually refers to
transgression of some established and definite rule of action, where no
discretion is left except what necessity may demand. It does not
necessarily imply corruption or criminal intention but implies
wrongful intention and not more error of judgment.
___A) Simple Misconduct or Malfeasance
___B) Neglect of Duty or Negligence or Nonfeasance
___C) Insubordination
___D) All of the above

126. It may mean a filing of a complaint, either criminal or administrative

involving the same cause of action filed in two or more different
courts of law or quasi-judicial bodies.
___A) Venue and Jurisdiction
___B) Forum Shopping or Multiple Filing of a complaint
___C) Disciplinary Machinery
___D) People’s Law Enforcement Board (PLEB)

127. Is that power of the NAPOLCOM, Chief of the PNP and PNP
Regional Directors, who after due notice and summary hearings, may
immediately remove or dismiss any respondent PNP member in any
of the cases enumerated under RA No. 6975, as amended.
___A) Summary Dismissal Power
___B) Authority
___C) Statutory Police Power
___D) All of the above

128. The required number of days when a PNP or officer may be

considered as Absent Without Official Leave ( AWOL), and who
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 shall be dismiss immediately from the service.
___A) Continuous period of 15 days or more
___B) Continuous period of 30 days or more
___C) Continuous period of 45 days or more
___D) All of the above

129. An instance or instances when the Court orders a PNP member or

officer to be suspended or be put under preventive suspension.
___A) Upon the filing of a complaint or information sufficient in form
and substance against a member of the PNP for grave felonies
where the penalty imposed by law is 6 years and 1 day or more,
whose suspension period shall not exceed 90 days from
arraignment
___B) If it can be shown by evidence that the accused is harassing the
complaint and/or witnesses, the Court may order for preventive
suspension of the accused PNP member even if the charge is
punishable by a penalty lower than 6 years and 1 day. Such
preventive suspension shall not exceed more than 90 days except if
the delay in the position of the case is due to fault, negligence or
petitions of the respondent
___C) Letter A only
___D) Letter B only
___E) All of the above

130. When such order of suspension or preventive suspension may sooner

be lifted by the court?
___A) In the exigency of the service upon the recommendation of the
PNP Director General. In such a case, it shall be subject to
continuous trial and shall be terminated within 90 days from
arraignment of the accused
___B) When the complainant executed an Affidavit of desistance
___C) When said PNP accused member is transferred to another PNP
Office or Station
___D) All of the above

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131. When may a PNP member be entitled to legal assistance by the
Government?
___A) When said PNP member is indigent litigant
___B) When said PNP member is facing before a prosecutor’s office, the
court of competent body, a charge or charges arising from any
incident which is related to the performance of his official duty
___C) When said PNP member is permanently totally disabled
___D) All of the above

132. It is an office in every police station throughout the country that is to

administer and attend to cases involving crimes against chastity,
sexual harassment, abuses committed against women and children and
other similar offenses.
___A) Women’s Desk ___C) Women’s Lib. Office
___B) Unisex Desk ___D) All of the above

133. Which means to include but not limited to the establishment of equal
opportunities for women in the PNP, the prevention of sexual
harassment in the work place, and the prohibition of discrimination on
the basis of gender of sexual orientation.
___A) Bill of Rights of Women in the PNP
___B) Gender Sensitivity Program for Policewomen
___C) PNP Women’s League
___D) All of the above

134. The effect or legal consequence of the established rules and

regulations regarding Gender Sensitivity and Gender Equality is
violated.
___A) The offender or the violator will be suspended without pay for not
less than 30 days and shall undergo Gender Sensitivity Seminar
___B) The offender or violator will be transferred to Autonomous Region
of Muslim Mindanao (ARMM)
___C) The offender or violator is demoted
___D) All of the above

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135. They are deputized as representatives of the NAPOLCOM in their
respective territorial jurisdictions.
___A) Governors and Mayors
___B) Governors and Congressman
___C) Mayors and Barangay Chairmen
___D) All of the above

136. When the operational supervision and control of the Mayors over their
Police Station and its members may be suspended.
___A) During the 30 day period immediately preceding and the 30 days
following any national, local, or barangay elections
___B) During the period of suspension of the Mayor
___C) During the election period where the incumbent Mayor files his
candidacy for re-election and/or other elective office
___D) During the period when the Mayor is in vacation

137. It shall mean the power to direct, superintendent, to oversee the day-
to-day functions of police investigation in accordance with the rules
and regulations promulgated by the NAPOLCOM.
___A) Employment
___B) Operational supervision and control
___C) Deployment
___D) All of the above

138. The term refers to the utilization of units or elements of the PNP for
purposes of protection of lives and properties, enforcement laws,
maintenance of peace and order, prevention of crimes, arrest of
criminal offenders and bring the offenders to justice, and ensuring
public safety, particularly in the suppression of disorders, riots,
lawlessness, violence rebellions and seditions conspiracy, insurgency,
subversion or other related activities.
___A) Employment
___B) Operational supervision and control
___C) Deployment
___D) All of the above
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139. It shall mean the orderly and organized physical movement of
elements or units of the PNP within the province, city or municipality
for purposes of employment.
___A) Employment
___B) Operational supervision and control
___C) Deployment
___D) All of the above

140. One of the following is not within the other powers or authority
of the city or municipal Mayors over the PNP units in their
respective jurisdiction.
___A) The authority to choose the chief of police from a list 5 eligibles
recommended by the Provincial Police Directors
___B) The authority to recommend to the Provincial Police Director the
transfer, reassignment or detail of PNP members outside of their
respective city or town residences
___C) The authority to recommend from a list of eligible previously
screened by the Peace and Order Council the appointment of new
members to be assigned to their respective cities or municipalities
without which no such appointments shall be arrested
___D) To choose his own close-in body guardanywhere he goes

141. Who are the local Government Officials to be officially Deputized

Representatives of the NAPOLCOM?
___A) Governors and Congressmen, upon having been elected and having
qualified as such. As a deputized agent of the NAPOLCOM, he or
she can inspect police force a unit conduct audit and exercise other
functions as may be authorized by the NAPOLCOM
___B) Governors and Mayors, upon having been elected and having
qualified as such. As deputized agents of the NAPOLCOM, local
Government Executives can inspect police forces and units,
conduct audit and exercise other functions as may be authorized by
the NAPOLCOM
___C) Mayors and Barangay Chairmen only upon having been elected
and having qualified as such. As deputized agents of the
Page 32
 NAPOLCOM said Mayors and Barangay Chairmen can inspect
police forces and units, conduct audits and exercised other
functions as may be authorized by the NAPOLCOM
___D) All of the above

142. Of the 4 grounds when the deputation be suspended or withdrawn,

one of the following is not included:
___A) Gambler or having a mistress or another man other than her own
husband
___B) Frequent unauthorized absences
___C) Abuse of authority
___D) Providing material support to criminal elements, or
___E) Engaging in acts inimical to national security or which negate the
effectiveness of the peace and order campaign

143. It is the central receiving entity for any citizen’s complaint

against the officers and members of the PNP.
___A) People’s Law Enforcement Board (PLEB)
___B) Internal Affairs Service (IAS)
___C) National Police Commission
___D) Ombudsman
___E) All of the above

144. A kind of liability of any Police Superior Officer who fails to act on
any request for suspension of any PNP Member without any valid
grounds.
___A) Severally and jointly criminally liable
___B) Administratively liable for serious neglect of duty
___C) Criminally liable
___D) Civilly liable
___E) All of the above

145. Of the following instances when the PLEB may request for preventive
suspension against a subordinate police officer, one of them is not
included, and that is…
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 ___A) When the PLEB has received a report that the respondent
subordinate PNP member is or has an elicit relation with any
relatives of the PLEB members
___B) When the respondent refuses to heed the PLEB’s summon or
subpoena
___C) When the PNP members has been charged with offenses involving
bodily harm or grave threats
___D) When the respondent is in a position to tamper with the evidence
___E) When the respondent is in a position to unduly influence the
witness

CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION

146. No officer of any correction institution shall, in his relation to the

inmates use force except in…
___A) Self-defense
___B) In case of attempted escape to hold prisoners
___C) Active or passive physical resistance to a lawful order
___D) All of them

147. All members of the custodial force of any correctional institution shall
bear in mind about prisoners that the purpose of confinement is not so
much for restriction but for reformation and rehabilitation.
___A) Prisoners are sick people and need treatment
___B) Prisoners are enemies of society
___C) Prisoners are human beings too
___D) All of them

148. The only one instance when a prisoner may be given passes or leaves
from jails or places of confinement, as may be allowed by law or
regulation, upon approval of the appropriate authority, or the court, if
already committed by court order and upon the recommendation of
the warden.

Page 34
 ___A) When he puts bail for his temporary liberty
___B) Very meritorious cases
___C) On recognizance
___D) All of the above

149. A prisoner/inmate may be taken out of jail only upon…

___A) Bail for his temporary liberty
___B) On recognizance
___C) Orders of competent court or authority and provided with armed
escorts
___D) All of them

150. As far as practicability is concerned, only those police personnel who

can be assigned to duty in city or municipal jails are the ones…
___A) Who have the aptitude for custodial and security work or those
who have undergone the appropriate jail training
___B) Police officers assigned to jail duty as a form of punishment or
disciplinary action
___C) Transferred police officers
___D) All of them

151. Corporal punishment, confinement in a dark cell or sweat boxes, or

any cruel, unusual, inhuman or degrading punishment is…
___A) Somewhat prohibited ___C) Fairly prohibited
___B) Absolutely prohibited ___D) All of them

152. Shall not be required to work but he/she may polish his/her cell or the
jail area and perform such other labor as maybe necessary for
hygienic and sanitary reasons.
___A) Women prisoners
___B) Prisoners over 60 years of age
___C) Detention prisoners
___D) All of them

153. May be excused from hard work and place on less strenuous details or
Page 35
 works.
___A) Prisoners over 60 years of age
___B) Women prisoners
___C) Trustee prisoners
___D) All of them

154. The general rule is that, “no prisoner shall be allowed to exercise
authority over another.” Who are prisoners who may assist in the
vocation and general instructions of prisoners?
___A) Detention of prisoners
___B) Technically skilled in prisoners
___C) Trustee prisoners
___D) All of them

155. Such above-named prisoners may assist in the vocation in general

instruction of other prisoners, provided that this relationship shall not
carry with it…
___A) A salary and other kinds of compensation
___B) Delegated authority
___C) Disciplinary authority
___D) All of the above

156. Prisoner work-groups shall perform essential community services

charge of quarters, kitchen maintenance of equipment and facilities,
library administration, or personal services, normally in rotation basis.
___A)

157. One of the important phases of jail management is…

___A) Punishment ___C) Imprisonment
___B) Custody and control ___D) All of them
of prisoners

158. Which of the following is the ultimate goal of imprisonment and can
be attained if the necessary structure, personnel and methods which
provide for security are present.
Page 36
 ___A) Punishment ___C) Rehabilitation
___B) Control ___D) All of the above

159. In prison, it is commonly thought of as a procedure to prevent

escapes, riots and disorders, and the punishment of those involved
___A) Control ___C) Punishment
___B) Discipline ___D) Morale

160. Is that kind of prisoners discipline applied after an offense has been
committed, in the since that many cases, punishment does not deter.
___A) Positive discipline ___C) Strict discipline
___B) Negative discipline ___D) Leniency

161. It is one which will relieve inmates feeling of insecurity about his
situation; it is likewise essential in effecting new changes which affect
the masses on inmate population.
___A) Food and reaction ___C) Good communication
___B) Conjugal leave ___D) Religion

162. Involves supervision of prisoners to insure punctual and orderly

movement to and from the dormitories, place of work, church,
hospitals recreational facilities, etc…
___A) Discipline ___C) Control
___B) Security ___D) All of them

163. A well-rounded correctional program having for its aim the

rehabilitation of prisoners must be correlated with and into the
system of…
___A) Custody ___C) Control
___B) Security ___D) All of them

164. Prisoner discipline should not only be applied after a breach of laws,
rule or regulations having been committed; more effective p[erhaps in
the application of discipline at its…
___A) Preventive stage ___C) Non-punitive measure
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 ___B) Punitive stage ___D) Punishment

165. Is a form of executive clemency, which is exercised by the Chief

Executive; it is an act of grace and the recipient is not entitled to it as
a matter of right.
___A) Pardon ___C) Communication
___B) Amnesty ___D) Reprieve

166. It is in the nature of contract, so that it must first be accepted by the

recipient before it takes effect; that the grantee is under obligation to
comply strictly with the conditions imposed therein.
___A) Absolute pardon ___C) Amnesty
___B) Conditional pardon ___D) Reprieve

167. It is one which if granted wipes away the guilt of the grantee without
any condition attached to it.
___A) Absolute pardon ___C) Commutation
___B) Conditional pardon ___D) Amnesty

168. It is a general pardon extended to a group of persons and generally

exercised by executive clemency with the concurrence of the
congress.
___A) Commutation ___C) Reprieve
___B) Amnesty ___D) Good Conduct-Time
Allowance
169. It is an act of clemency by which an executive act changes heavier
sentence to a lesser or less serious one, or a long term to a shorter
term.
___A) Amnesty ___C) Commutation
___B) Reprieve ___D) Good Conduct-Time
Allowance

170. It is a temporary stay of the execution of the sentence.

___A) Reprieve ___C) Good Conduct-Time
Allowance
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 ___B) Commutation ___D) Probation

171. It is the statutory shortening of the maximum sentence the prisoner

serves because good behavior while in prison.
___A) Deduction for loyalty ___C) Probation
___B) Good Conduct-Time ___D) Parole
Allowance

172. It is a disposition under which a defendant after conviction and

sentenced, is released subject to conditions imposed by the court and
to the supervision of an appropriate authority.
___A) Good Conduct-Time ___C) Parole
Allowance
___B) Probation ___D) PD 603

173. It is a procedure by which prisoners are selected for release on the

basis of individual response and progress within the correctional
institutions and a service by which they are provided with necessary
controls and guidance as they serve the remainder of their sentence
within the free community.
___A) Parole probation ___C) PD 603
___B) Probation ___D) Indeterminate sentence law

174. Popularly known as probation for young offender, who is committed

to the custody or care of the Department of Social Welfare, or to any
training institution operated by the Government.
___A) PD 968 ___C) Indeterminate sentence law
___B) PD 603 ___D) Revised Family Code

175. Its purpose is to uplift and redeem valuable human material and
prevent unnecessary and excessive deprivation of personal liberty and
economic usefulness.
___A) PD 603 ___C) PD 968
___B) Indeterminate sentence law ___D) Revised Family Code

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176. More than any other imperialistic countries in Europe, this country
made extensive use of transportation of prisoners. It first began in
1718, by sending her convicted prisoners to the American colonies
until the American Revolution.
___A) England ___B) Spain ___C) Portugal
___D) Italy ___E) All of the above

177. The year that the first Fleet transported 564 male and 162 female
prisoners on the eight-month voyage to the present site of Sydney
Australia.
___A) 1561 ___C) 1800
___B) 1787 ___D) 1900

178. In the pre-Spanish Philippines, the penal system of this country was
jurisdictionally local and tribal. It is consisted mostly of native mores
and customs administered by Regional Chieftain. The most extensive
among the Code was…
___A) Maragtas Code of DatuSumakwel
___B) Code of Sikatuna
___C) Code of Kalantiao
___D) Hammurabi’s Code

179. A Code (of about 2300 BC) after a name of a person who firstly
adopted the principle: “An Eye For An Eye, and a Tooth For A
Tooth” in the imposition of punishment.
___A) Code of Kalantiao
___B) Hammurabi’s Code
___C) Maragtas Code
___D) Code of Sikatuna

180. Under the development of penology in line with the modern approach,
the term “correction” or the institution of penology is often used today
to indicate the chief concerned is…
___A) To punish criminals
___B) To pay for the crime committed
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 ___C) To correct anti-social behavior
___D) All of the above

181. It is the main goal of the protection program in correctional

administration.
___A) To rehabilitate the prisoner mainly by changing his attitude
___B) To protect the society from convicted offenders
___C) To protect the convicted offenders from the society
___D) All of the above

182. As one of the principal theories of punishment, it affords the society

or individual who was wronged the opportunity of imposing upon the
offender such suitable punishment as might be enforced.
___A) Retribution
___B) Expiration
___C) Deterrence
___D) Reformation
___E) Protection of the society

183. As one of the principal theories of punishment, it rests on the belief

that a wrong done must be atoned for by a punishment which
compensates for the crime committed, that is balancing the skill of
justice to the degree of severity of the crime.
___A) Retribution
___B) Expiration
___C) Deterrence
___D) Reformation
___E) Protection of the society

184. It is based on the principle that the punishment received by convicted

offenders prevent others from performing similar actions for fear that
they will receive similar punishment.
___A) Retribution
___B) Expiration
___C) Deterrence
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 ___D) Reformation
___E) Protection of the society

185. That the essential purpose of punishment is to bring about the moral
transportation of the wrong doers that once release from the prison
walls he will become once again a law abiding citizen and useful
member of the society.
___A) Retribution
___B) Expiration
___C) Deterrence
___D) Reformation
___E) Protection of the society

186. The theory that the basic purpose of punishment is to isolate the
convicted offenders from doing more or another harm against the
society.
___A) Retribution
___B) Expiration
___C) Deterrence
___D) Reformation
___E) Protection of the society

187. It is written order of the court or any other competent authority

consigning an offender to a jail or prison for confinement.
___A) Commitment Order
___B) Warrant of Arrest
___C) Writ of Execution
___D) Mittimus
___E) All of them

188. A warrant issued by a court bearing its seal and the signature of the
judge, directing the jail or prison authorities to receive inmates for
custody or service of sentence imposed therein.
___A) Commitment Order
___B) Warrant of Arrest
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 ___C) Writ of Execution
___D) Mittimus
___E) All of them

189. A person who is convicted by final judgment, and classified either an

insular, provincial, city or municipal inmate.
___A) Prisoner ___C) Under custody
___B) Detention inmate ___D) Rehabilitation

190. It is the device, contrivance, tool or instrument used to hold back,

keep in, check or control an inmate.
___A) Contraband ___C) Lock-Up
___B) Instrument of Restraint ___D) Jail Van

191. It is temporary custody of a person for his own protection, safety or

care and/or his security from harm, injury, or danger for the liability
he has committed.
___A) Commitment Order ___C) Safekeeping
___B) Mittimus ___D) Inmate

192. It is a program of activity directed to restore an inmate’s self-respect

thereby making him a law-abiding citizen after serving his sentence.
___A) Safekeeping ___C) Penology
___B) Protection of the society ___D) Rehabilitation

193. It refers to reassigning or grouping of inmates according to their

sentence, gender, age, nationality, health, criminal records, etc
___A) Classification of prisoners
___B) Control of prisoners
___C) Discipline of prisoners
___D) Rehabilitation of prisoners

194. Which one of the following does not or is not included in the
classification of detainees?
___A) Undergoing of investigation
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 ___B) Awaiting or Undergoing trial
___C) Awaiting final judgment
___D) Safekeeping

195. Which one of the following does not or is not included in the
classification of inmates?
___A) Political Prisoner
___B) Insular Prisoner
___C) Provincial Prisoner
___D) City Prisoner
___E) Municipal Prisoner

196. The year when the first Bilibid Prison was constructed and became the
central place of confinement for Filipino prisoners by virtue of the
Royal Decree of the Spanish Crown.
___A) 1521 ___C) 1847
___B) 1900 ___D) 1900

197. The very place where the first Bilibid Prison was constructed.
___A) Muntinlupa ___C) Fort Santiago
___B) May Haligue Estate ___D) Fort Bonifacio

198. It was established in Zamboanga for the confinement of political

prisoners and was named after its founder of the Spanish Royal Army.
___A) San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm
___B) Iwahig Penal Colony
___C) May Haligue
___D) Fort Del Pilar

199. A penal colony which was envisioned by Governor Forbes was and
still is renown over as the first Open Penal Institution, where the
colonist have their families with them with an assigned piece of land,
and are encouraged to cultivate, raise poultry and livestock for their
personal use. The products are sold to the Colony Post Exchange.
___A) San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm
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 ___B) Iwahig Penal Colony
___C) Davao Penal Colony
___D) Sablayan Penal Colony and Farm

200. This was established in 1931 on an 18 Hectare piece of land in

Mandaluyong in authority of Act No. 3579, which was passed on
November 27, 1929.
___A) The Correctional Institution for Women
___B) Sablayan Penal Colony and Farm
___C) Davao Penal Colony
___D) Sampaguita Correctional Institution

201. The first ever Philippine Probation Law.

___A) Presidential Decree No. 968, as amended
___B) Act No. 4221
___C) Act No. 1
___D) Act No.623

202. A shoemaker in Boston, USA was the first probation was originated
who interceded with the courts to suspend the sentence of his charge.
___A) John Augustus
___B) Father Cook
___C) John Peterson
___D) John Philip Law

203. A Philippine Jurisprudence or the case decided by the Philippine

Supreme Court when the first Probation of 1936 was declared
unconstitutional because it was considered a class legislation.
___A) People vs. William
___B) People vs. Vera 37 OG 164
___C) People vs. Calalang
___D) US vs. Miranda

CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION
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204. It is defined as an art which deals with the identity and location of the
offender and provides evidence of his guilt through criminal
proceedings.
___A) Criminal Investigation
___B) Interview and Interrogation
___C) Confession and Admission
___D) Criminal Action

205. Criminal investigation is not a science; it is not governed by rigid

rules or laws, but most often, it is governed by…
___A) Institution
___B) Felicity of inspiration
___C) To a minor extent by a chance
___D) All of them

206. As an initial step on criminal investigation whereby the investigator

should strictly observe one of the nine (9) golden rules upon arrival at
the crime scene.
___A) Arrest the suspect and prosecute him
___B) Do not touch or move any object
___C) Save the life of the victim, and at the same time be able to
identify the suspect, if any
___D) Apply immediately the mechanics of search and cordon the crime
scene

207. Articles and materials which are found in connection with

investigation and which aides in establishing the identity of the
penetrator or the circumstances under which the crime was committed
or which in general, assist in the prosecution of the criminal.
___A) Corpus Delicti
___B) Fruits of the crime
___C) Physical evidence
___D) Chain of custody of physical evidence

208. A kind of evidence which may link the suspect of the crime scene or
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 offense. Examples: fingerprints and shoe impressions
___A) Associate evidence ___C) Tracing evidence
___B) Physical evidence ___D) Chain of custody

209. It involves a number of persons who might have handled evidence

between the time of commission of the alleged offense and the
ultimate disposition of the case, should be kept to a minimum. Each
transfer of evidence should be receipted.
___A) Chain of custody ___C) Interview
___B) Tracing evidence ___D) Interrogation

210. May be used to mean the simple questioning of a person who is

cooperating with the investigation.
___A) Interrogation
___B) Interview
___C) Circumstantial evidence
___D) Information, interrogation and instrumentation

211. It may be used to describe the vigorous questioning of one who is

reluctant to divulge information.
___A) Interrogation
___B) Interview
___C) Use of 3rd degree
___D) Information, interrogation and instrumentation

212. The following are the 3 tools in criminal investigation, whereby their
application varies in proportion on their necessity to establish the guilt
of the accused in a criminal action.
___A) Criminalistics, confession & admission
___B) Information, interrogation &instrumentation
___C) Movie, intent & circumstantial evidence
___D) Investigation, criminalistics & prosecution

213. Its identification establish indirectly proving other facts or

circumstances from which, either alone or in connection with other
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 facts, the identity of the offender can be inferred.
___A) Sufficient, strong and convincing evidence
___B) Physical evidence
___C) Circumstantial evidence
___D) Testimony of a witness

214. It may be defined as that body of the crime or fact of a specific loss or
injury sustained.
___A) Corpus Delicti ___C) Intent
___B) Motive ___D) Modus Operandi

215. It is one which induces the criminal to act and need not be shown in
order to obtain conviction.
___A) Motive ___C) Modus Operandi
___B) Intent ___D) Background Interview

216. It is the accomplishment of the act, and which must be proved where
it is an element of the offense charged.
___A) Motive ___C) Modus Operandi
___B) Intent ___D) Background Interview

217. Means the method of operation; it will enable the investigator to

recognize pattern of criminal behavior; to associate a group of crimes
with a single perpetrator; to enable them to predict approximately the
next target of the criminal and to assist complaints; eyewitness and
investigators to recognize the perpetrators by means of the recorded
information concerning the characteristics of his or their criminal
activities.
___A) Modus Operandi ___C) Reconstruction of the crime
___B) Background interview ___D) Admission

218. It may be the simpliest type of interview which concerns with the
gathering of information regarding the personal circumstances of a
person who is the subject of investigation.
___A) Reconstruction of the crime
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 ___B) Background interview
___C) Admission
___D) Confessions

219. After the completion of the search, effort must be made to determine
from the appearance of the place and objects what actually occurred
and what the circumstances of the crime are.
___A) Reconstruction of the crime
___B) Background interview
___C) Admission
___D) Confessions

220. It may be a self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling short of

an acknowledgment of guilt.
___A) Admission ___C) Disposition
___B) Confession ___D) Informant

221. It may be a direct acknowledgment of the truth of the guilty fact as

charge or of some essential part of the commission of the criminal act
itself.
___A) Admission ___C) Disposition
___B) Confession ___D) Informant

222. It may be defined as the testimony of a witness reduced to writing

under oath or affirmation, before a person empowered to administer
an oath in answer to interrogation and cross interrogations submitted
by the party desiring it.
___A) Tracing ___C) Sources of information
___B) Deposition ___D) Informant

223. He may be one who gives the necessary information to the

investigator. He may give the information openly and even offer to be
a witness or he may inform the investigator surreptitiously and request
to remain anonymously.
___A) Informant ___C) Sources of information
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 ___B) Tracing ___D) Surveillance

224. It is the application of all procedures for the search missing persons.
___A) Rogues Gallery ___C) Information
___B) Tracing ___D) Sources of information

225. It is the designated of secret observation of places, persons and

vehicles for the purpose of obtaining information concerning the
identities of activities of the subject.
___A) Information ___C) Shadowing or tailing
___B) Surveillance ___D) Surveillanceof place

226. The crimes which require this type of surveillance are: gambling,
prostitutions, illegal sales of drugs, alcohol and dishonesty among
employees or infidelity of a spouse.
___A) Surveillance of place ___C) One-man shadow
___B) Shadowing or tailing ___D) Two-man shadow

227. It is a kind of gathering information whereby a subject is being

followed.
___A) One-man shadow ___C) Convoy
___B) Shadowing or tailing ___D) Two-man shadow

228. From among the kinds of surveillance, one is the most common
because it involves the use of the least number of manpower.
___A) One-man shadow ___C) Convoy
___B)Two-man shadow ___D) Undercover assignment

229. In the process of surveillance, sometimes the subject or suspect is

being guarded against and he usually stays at the rear of the subject.
___A) Two-man shadow ___C)Convoy
___B)Convoy ___D) To protect life

230. It is a form of investigation in which the investigator assumes a

different and unofficial identity in order to obtain information.
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 ___A) Convoy ___C)Undercover assignment
___B)One-man shadow ___D) Disguise

231. One of the following 3 constitutional rights accorded to every arrested

person under custodial investigation, one of them is not included.
___A) Right to bail bond
___B) Right to remain silent
___C) Right to have a legal counsel
___D) Right to be informed of the nature and cause of accusation

232. Sweating, color change, dry mouth, pulse and breathing if found to be
abnormal to a subject/suspect, may mean…
___A) Sufficient, strong and convincing evidence of guilt
___B) Physiological symptoms of guilt
___C) Circumstantial evidence of guilt
___D) All of them

233. Voluntariness of a confession may be shown by one of the following,

except…
___A) Presence of the physiological symptoms of guilt
___B) The statement obtained by urging or request was a spontaneous or
self-induced utterance of the accused
___C) The statement was obtained without coercion and free from any
force or intimidation
___D) The statement was obtained during the official investigation after
the accused was informed of the cause and nature of the offense
charged of the fact, the evidence can be used against him at the
trial

234. On the five (5) good friends of the criminal investigator, one is not
included.
___A) HOW it was committed
___B) HOW much is involved
___C) By WHOM it was committed
___D) WHERE it was committed
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 ___E) WHY was it committed

235. A mechanic of search where the searchers (A, B & C) proceed slowly
at the same pace along the path parallel to one side of the rectangle.
At the end of the rectangle, the searcher turns the proceed back along
new lanes but parallel to the first movement.
___A) Spiral method ___C) Zone method
___B) Step method ___D) Wheel method

236. The searchers follow each other in the path of a crime scene beginning
in the outside and circling around a central point.
___A) Strip method ___C) Zone method
___B) Spiral method ___D) Wheel method

237. The area to be searched is divided into quadrants and each searcher is
assigned to one quadrant.
___A) Strip method ___C) Zone method
___B) Spiral method ___D) Wheel method

238. This may be applicable to a crime scene which is approximately

circular or oval. The searchers gather at the center and proceed
outward along radius or spokes.
___A) Wheel method ___C) Zone method
___B) Spiral method ___D) Strip method

239. Criminals may be identified by…

___A) Confession
___B) Eyewitness testimony
___C) Circumstantial evidence
___D) Associative evidence
___E) All of them

240. Of the following different techniques in interrogation, one is not of

them.
___A) Financial assistance
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 ___B) Emotional appeal
___C) Sympathetic approach
___D) Friendliness

FIRE TECHNOLOGY AND ARSON INVESTIGATION

241. In essence, it is a chemical reaction in which a substance combines

with oxygen, heat is released and the form of substance is destroyed.
___A) Fire ___C) Oxygen
___B) Fuel ___D) Ignition

242. Of the three things essential before a fire can occur, which one of the
following is not included?
___A) Fuel ___C) Oxygen
___B) Wind ___D) Initial source of heat

243. In fire statistics, the initial source of heat is generally termed as…
___A) Determinant ___C) Primer
___B) Convection ___D) Ignition

244. The term describes the transfer of heat within a solid material from
hotter to cooler parts.
___A) Conduction ___C) Radiation
___B) Convection ___D) Fire

245. The term describes a mass movement in a fluid (i.e., a liquid or a gas)
where fluid at one temperature and density moves under the influence
of through surrounding fluid at a different temperature and density,
mixing with it and gradually exchanging heat with it until it is all at
the same temperature.
___A) conduction ___C) Radiation
___B) Convection ___D) Fire

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246. The term describes the transfer of heat through a gas or vacuum in a
similar way to light.
___A) Conduction ___C) Radiation
___B) Convection ___D) Fire

247. It is a measurement use in fire of the rate at which heat produce.

___A) “Intensity” of combustion
___B) Density
___C) Velocity
___D) Temperature

248. It is a term of the start of combustion. Its detailed process of a solid is

very complicated, since the proportions of different flammable
vapors evolved vary from one material to another and contact with
oxygen must take place before combustion can begin.
___A) Combustion ___C) Propellant
___B) Ignition ___D) Starter

249. Wood, and its products, such as hardboard and fireboard, are the
principal combustible materials present in the construction of a
building.
___A) Combustible contents ___C) Solids
___B) Combustible structure ___D) Dusts

250. Articles inside a building will normally include many combustible

materials which may be present in considerable quantity and represent
total caloric value many times greater than that of the combustible
materials used in the construction of the building.
___A) Combustible contents ___C) Solids
___B) Combustible structure ___D) Dusts

251. This will burn very readily if the surface area is large in proportion to
the weight of material.
___A) Combustible contents ___C) Solids
___B) Combustible structure ___D) Dusts
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252. They are a special case of combustible solids when they are present in
building, and the capable of spreading fire very rapidly, for instance
along roof beams or lodges.
___A) Combustible contents ___C) Solids
___B) Combustible structure ___D) Dusts

253. This is a term used to describe a transition which occur in the

development of fire when, for example, most of all of the combustible
surfaces within a room are heated above their ignition temperature at
the same time.
___A) Ignition ___C) Starter
___B) Flash-over ___D) Intensity

254. It is a term used when taking into account possible causes of fire and
relating them to the local hazard of the construction and contents of a
building.
___A) Risks ___C) Intentional
___B) Negligence ___D) Peril

255. This term is used to describe the fire resisting property structural
element and may be used to describe the behavior of a building
material in a fire; it is used to predict how long it resist the effects of a
fire before it fails.
___A) Fire proof ___C) Building resistance
___B) Fire resistance ___D) Fire duration

256. It consists of small carbonaceous particles, suspended in the

atmosphere, which may of such color, size and quality that they can
obscure the passage of light, thus preventing exists and exit signs from
being seen. It may also contribute to panic because of its effects on
eyes, nose and throat.
___A) Smoke ___C) Carbon monoxide
___B) Fire ___D) Toxic

257. It is poisonous and is a normal product of combustion, especially

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 when the air supply to the fire is restricted.
___A) Carbon dioxide ___C) Smoke
___B) Carbon monoxide ___D) Gas

258. It is the main product of the combustion of carbon. It is not poisonous

but is an asphyxiant which lowers the proportions of oxygen available
for breathing.
___A) Carbon dioxide ___C) Smoke
___B) Carbon monoxide ___D) Gas

259. The first action after discovery of a fire.

___A) Run for your life
___B) To raise the alarm
___C) Pack up personal belongings
___D) Call an ambulance

260. Considered as the most effective fixed installation for controlling fire,
which will discharge water into incipient fire from heads located near
the ceiling.
___A) Automatic Sprinkler System
___B) Fire Hydrant
___C) Water soaked blanket
___D) Extinguishers

261. It is used to include not only to architects responsible for the design as
erection of a complete building but also the various specialists engine
who may be concerned with the structure, the electrical installation,
heating and ventilation system and so on.
___A) Building contractors
___B) Designers
___C) Office of building permit
___D) Building planners

262. The primary purpose of statutory requirements for fire protection is…
___A) To see to it that buildings are insured
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 ___B) To safeguard life
___C) To see to it that buildings are fire
___D) To generate income for the government

263. The most important reason for providing good access for the fire
brigade is…
___A) To enable firemen to rescue people who may be trapped or
injured by fire
___B) To enable firemen to rescue goods of commercial value
___C) To minimize fire damage
___D) To avoid traffic accident during the outbreak of fire

264. Are contracts between the insured and the insurer under which insurer
undertakes to indemnify the insured against loss incurred by clearly
defined events in respect of clearly defined buildings and contents
under specified conditions.
___A) Business Contracts
___B) Insurance Policies
___C) Building Permit Contracts
___D) Life Insurance Policies

265. It is, in most cases, the initial step for obtaining information determine
the origin and cause of fire.
___A) Interviewing witness
___B) Surveillance
___C) Undercover work assignment
___D) To investigate the insurance company and the owner of insurance
policy

266. What do you think is the significant data for an arson investigator to
gather from the fire scene?
___A) Odor
___B) Color of smoke & color of flames
___C) Rapidity of fire
___D) All of them
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267. It is a thing which will help an arson investigator solve the fire
mystery. The fact that fire feeds on combustible while propagating
itself, this thing will indicate generally be deepest from where the fire
originated.
___A) Charring ___C) Smoke
___B) Allegator Pattern ___D) Flame

268. It is in this area that physical evidence o0f criminal designed most
likely to be observed, by following the path of the burning to its
source, will trace a path according to the intensity of the fire.
___A) Charring ___C) Smoke
___B) Allegator Pattern ___D) Flame

269. The fire and arson investigators success depends on his ability to
determine correctly…
___A) The exact cause of the fire
___B) The point of origin of fire
___C) The insurable interest of the owner
___D) The modus operandi

270. Whether it be liquid, solid, or gas, is the minimum temperature that

the substance must be heated in order to sustain combustion.
___A_) Temperature ___C) Flash Point
___B) Ignition Temperature ___D) Burning Point

271. It is a term used for any preparation to set a fire. It is designed to feed
the fire as rapidly as possible when ignition device is lighted.
___A) Plant ___C) Intention
___B) Setting on Fire ___D) Arson

272. It probably enjoys the most widespread usage of any type of Malotov
Cocktail manufactured.
___A) Rag Cocktail ___C) Improvised Cocktail
___B) Soap Cocktail ___D) All of them

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273. It enjoys widespread use throughout combat troops in the world. Here,
the breakable container is employed.
___A) Rag Cocktail ___C) Improvised Cocktail
___B) Soap Cocktail ___D) All of them

274. Arsonist may be classified into…

___A) Arson for profit fire setters
___B) Solitary fire setters
___C) Group fire setters
___D) All of them

275. It is probably the most rapidly increasing from fire-setting. This is a

rational act and therefore, the elimination of the potential profit should
prevent and attempt.
___A) Arson for Profit ___C) Group fire setters
___B) Solitary fire setters ___D) None of the above

276. Most malicious fires are set by individuals in secret; it’s either set for
revenge or spite, self-aggrandizing; or set by pyromaniacs, or set by
psychotic fire setter, or set by sexual deviate for sexual gratification.
___A) Arson set for profit ___C) Group fire setters
___B) Solitary fire setters ___D) All of the above

277. The kind of fire setter may be classified either of vandalism fires, riot
fires, and political fires. Nevertheless, the presence of peers
encourages this particular behavior in contrast to most circumstances
where the presence of others inhibits the fire setting.
___A) Arson set for profit ___C) Group fire setters
___B) Solitary fire setters ___D) All of the above

278. In planning the arson investigation two principal points should be

considered into by fire and arson investigator. Of these two principal
points, one of the two following is not included, and that is…
___A) Establish the fire incendiary origin and a willful act burning

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 ___B) Identify the suspect or suspects and connect them with the willful
origin of the fire beyond reasonable doubt the degree of proof
required by law
___C) Establish the cause of the fire and reason for setting the fire
___D) None of the above

279. The first and most necessary step before making any attempt to put in
motion any plans for investigation is…
___A) To view the “situs” of the crime involved
___B) To prepare and gather assistance available
___C) To interview the witness
___D) All of them

280. It means to keep the site of the fire or crime in the same physical
condition as it was left by the perpetrator.
___ A) To view the “situs” of the crime involved
___B) Preserving the fire or crime scene
___C) To interview the witness
___D) Do not touch or move any object

281. The greatest concern of the firemen at the fire or crime scene is to…
___A) To protect and prevent the removal and destruction evidence
present at the scene of fire or crime
___B) To view the “situs” of the crime involved
___C) To interview the witness
___D) Identify and locate the suspect

282. After the fire or crime scene has been firmly secured, the next step for
the fire/arson investigator to do is…
___A) Call an ambulance
___B) Search for physical evidence
___C) Photograph the fire scene
___D) Identify the perpetrator and owner of the building or property on
fire

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283. What factors are taken into consideration in the determination of the
liability of the person found guilty of arson?
___A) The kind of building or property that was burned
___B) The location of the building
___C) The extent of the damage due to fire
___D) Whether the building is inhabited or not
___E) All of the above

284. Burning one’s house is punishable with the penalty of arresto mayor
in its maximum period to prisioncorreccional in its maximum period,
if the arson was committed for any of the following except…
___A) If the burning was used only for the purpose of destroying his
own property and without prejudice to another
___B) To defraud or cause damage to another
___C) In the absence of such fraud nor damage to another, damaged
actually resulted, burned in an inhabited place
___D) All of them

285. Corpus delicti is established in arson by proving two elements,

except…
___A) Burning of the house or property
___B) Criminal agency in causing it
___C) The value of the insurable property being burned
___D) None of them

286. In which of the following are elements of arson of property of small

value?
___A) Burning of any uninhabited hut, storehouse, barn, sheet, or any
other property
___B) Under circumstances clearly excluding all danger of fire
spreading
___C) Value of the property dies not exceed ₱25.00
___D) All of the above

287. One form of arson which is punished by reclusion temporal if what

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 has been burned is…
___A) Inhabited house
___B) Any other building in which people are accustomed to meet and
offender did not know such building was occupied at the time
___C) Moving freight train or motor vehicles and value of the damage
exceeds ₱5,000
___D) All of the above

288. It is an important activity of any installation, and this consists of the

elimination of fire hazards, the provision of fire-safety education, and
the training of fireguards, fire watchers and fire brigade fighters.
___A) Fire Prevention Program
___B) Fire Fighting Course
___C) Fire Technology and Investigation
___D) All of the above

289. One of the most effective means of fire protection in a building is

the…
___A) Stand Pipes
___B) Automatic Sprinkling System
___C) Fire Hydrants
___D) Portable Hand Extinguishers

290. Located inside the building from the lowest to the top floor with water
under pressure for use in case of fire.
___A) Fire Hydrants
___B) Automatic Sprinkling System
___C)Stand Pipes
___D) Portable Hand Extinguisher

291. This type of fire results from burning of wood, paper, textiles and
other carbonaceous materials. Extinguishment of this type is by
quenching and cooling.
___A) Class “A” Fire ___C) Class “C” Fire
___B) Class “B” Fire ___D) Class “D” Fire
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292. Fires which are caused by flammable liquids like kerosene, gasoline,
benzene, oil products, alcohol and other hydrocarbon derivations.
___A) Class “A” Fire ___C) Class “C” Fire
___B) Class “B” Fire ___D) Class “D” Fire

293. Those which start in live electrical wires, equipment, motors,

electrical appliances and telephone switchboards.
___A) ___A) Class “A” Fire ___C) Class “C” Fire
___B) Class “B” Fire ___D) Class “D” Fire

294. This fire is the result of the combustion of certain metals in finely
divided forms-magnesium, potassium, zinc, etc.
___A) ___A) Class “A” Fire ___C) Class “C” Fire
___B) Class “B” Fire ___D) Class “D” Fire

POLICE ORGANIZATION

295. All except one of the following is basic police activities. The
exception…
___A) Prevention of Criminality
___B) Repression of Crime
___C) Apprehension of Offenders
___D) Recovery of Stolen Property
___E) Prosecution of Criminals

296. In the pre-Spanish Philippines, the function of what is now properly

known as the police was devoted on the…
___A) Agurang ___D) Headman
___B) Guardrilleros ___E) Guardia Civil
___C) Sultan

297. This was a body of rural police organized in each town and
established by the Royal Decree on January 8, 1836.

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 ___A) Katipunan ___D) Politia
___B) Guardia Civil ___E) Barangay Police
___C) Guardrilleros

298. An ACT providing for the Organization and Government of Insular

Constabulary.
___A) RA 4864, Sept. 8, 1966 ___D) RA 5487, Jun. 13, 1969
___B) ACT 255 Of Oct. 3, 1901 ___E) PD 765, Aug. 8, 1975
___C) RA 6975, Dec. 13, 1990

299. This was created by a Royal Decree issued by the Crown on Feb. 12,
1852, to partially relieve the Spanish Peninsular Troops of their work
in policing towns.
___A) Katipunan ___D) Politia
___B) Guardia Civil ___E) Barangay Police
___C) Guardrilleros

300. One of the police activities that a constructive approach to the crime
problem must get to its very roots to the factors of the community life
which create criminal tendencies and lead the individual to indulge in
anti-social behavior.
___A) Prevention of Criminality
___B) Repression of Crime
___C) Apprehension of Offenders
___D) Recovery of Stolen Property
___E) Regulation of Non-Criminal Conduct

301. Adequate patrol plus continuous effort toward eliminating or reducing

hazards is stressed as a means of reducing the opportunities for
criminal activity.
___A) Prevention of Criminality
___B) Repression of Crime
___C) Apprehension of Offenders
___D) Recovery of Stolen Property
___E) Regulation of Non-Criminal Conduct
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302. In addition to its repressive influences, apprehension enables society
to punish offenders; prevents repetition of their offenses by restraining
their movements; and provides the opportunity for their rehabilitation.
___A) Prevention of Criminality
___B) Repression of Crime
___C) Apprehension of Offenders
___D) Recovery of Stolen Property
___E) Regulation of Non-Criminal Conduct

303. This is an activity intended to reduce the money cost of crime, as well
as to restrain those who, though not active criminals, might benefit
from gains of crime.
___A) Prevention of Criminality
___B)Recovery of Stolen Property
___C)Regulation of Non-Criminal Conduct
___D) Repression of Crime
___E)Apprehension of Offenders

304. Policemen are considered as servants of higher authorities and people

have little or no share at all in their duties, nor any direct connection
with them.
___A) Regulation of Non-Criminal Conduct
___B) Continental Theory
___C) Home Rule Theory
___D) Old Concept
___E) Modern Concept

305. Policemen are considered as servants of the community, who depend

for the effectiveness of their functions upon the express wishes of the
people.
___A) Regulation of Non-Criminal Conduct
___B) Continental Theory
___C) Home Rule Theory
___D) Old Concept
___E) Modern Concept
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306. This philosophy means throwing more people in jail rather than
keeping them out of jail; that punishment is the sole instrument of
crime control.
___A)Continental Theory ___D) Modern Concept
___B)Home Rule Theory ___E) Patrol Division
___C)Old Concept

307. Under this philosophy, the yardstick of efficiency of the police is the
absence of crime, and has for its objective the welfare of the
individual as well as that of society.
___A) Modern Concept ___D) Friction and Misunderstanding
___B)Old Concept ___E) Friction and Misunderstanding
___C)Patrol Division

308. The backbone of the police department is generally recognized to be

the…
___A) Traffic Division ___D)Friction and Misunderstanding
___B) Patrol Division ___E) Records Division
___C) Discipline

309. In the aspect of personnel, probably the most serious problem

currently confronting police administrators.
___A) Organization ___D) Promotion and Assignment
___B) Discipline ___E) Deployment
___C) Recruitment

310. The unit which does most to coordinate and bind together all other
functional divisions of a police department.
___A)Records Division ___D) Criminalistics Division
___B)Traffic Division ___E) Warrant Division
___C) Finance Division

311. The combined used of inspection, period reports of activities, follow

up procedures, etc.
___A) Coordination ___D)Discipline
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 ___B) Control ___E)Deployment
___C) Command

312. Is the power that is vested on those who are in the authority to enforce
and compel the observance of laws, rules and regulations, and
ordinances, with or without invoking criminal processes.
___A) Police Power
___B) Statutory Power of the Police
___C) Arrest
___D) Law Enforcement
___E) All of the above

313. The principle that each individual in an organization should be under

the immediate control of only one person is known as…
___A) Unit of Command ___D) Functional Organization
___B) Span of Control ___E) All of them
___C) Command Responsibility

314. In the opinion of many authorities, the foremost task of management

is…
___A) The technique of Executive Control
___B) The Management of Men
___C) Planning for the future of the organization
___D) The Management of Fiscal Affairs
___E) All of the above

315. The synchronization of all line and staff activity.

___A) Coordination ___D) Planning
___B) Command ___E) Unity of Command
___C) Control

316. In which of the following types of police work is routine and fairly
frequent rotations or transfer of personnel considered most desirable.
___A) Patrol Division ___D) Vice
___B) Criminalistics ___E) Juvenile
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 ___C) Records

317. A supervisor’s span of control is usually computed in terms of the

number of…
___A) Subordinates reporting directly to him
___B) Superiors from whom he takes orders
___C) Superiors from whom he reports
___D) Functions for which he has final responsibility
___E) All of the above

318. Under which of the following broad management function is “liaison”

most properly classified.
___A) Planning ___D) Coordinating
___B) Controlling ___E) Directing
___C) Organizing

319. The significant weakness of the simple organization for police workis
that…
___A) It is too simple to provide for the complex organization
___B) Systematize the number of points at which interrogation is
necessary
___C) Minimize the number of points at which interrogation is
necessary
___D) Eliminate latitude in the performance of assigned duties
___E) Eliminate latitude in the performance of assigned duties

320. The basic purpose of organization is to channel the efforts of its

members in such manner as to...
___A) Facilitate the attainment of objectives
___B) Systematize the number of points at which interrogation is
necessary
___C) Minimize the number of points at which interrogation is
necessary
___D) Eliminate latitude in the performance of assigned duties
___E) Eliminate latitude in the performance of assigned duties
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321. Those tools of the administrator’s by which he can be assured that his
direction of the department is effective are known as…
___A) Planning Devices ___D) Organization Devices
___B) Coordinating Devices ___E) Discipline
___C) Control Devices

322. To say that control is implemented by inspection is to imply that the

main function of inspection is to…
___A) Acquire Information ___D) Audit Supervision
___B) Maintain Discipline ___E) Control
___C) Insure Uniformity

323. Territorial decentralization is most likely to be appropriate in

connection with which of the following police function?
___A) Patrol ___D) Criminalistics
___B) Traffic ___E) None of the above
___C) Records

324. The one of the following situations which best illustrate unity of
command in a police organization is that…
___A) Only one subordinate is directly commanded or supervised by
each superior
___B) Only one superior officer is in complete commandos each
situation
___C) Only one superior officer is responsible for the job performance
of subordinate officers
___D) All of them

325. Means having authority, in the interest of the employer, to hire,

transfer, suspended, layoff, recall, promote, discharge, assign, reward,
or discipline other employees, or responsibility to direct them, or to
adjust their grievances, or effectively to recommend such action with
the foregoing exercise of such authority is not merely routine or
clerical nature but requires the use on independent judgment.
___A) Supervisor ___D) Administrator
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 ___B) Leader ___E) Manager
___C) Executive

326. As a unit head you are reassigned to head a different organizational

unit, and you find your ideas of organizational methods and
procedures differ radically from those of the previous unit head.
Under the best practice, first you should…
___A) Sit tight and see if some of the subordinates also recognized a
need for change
___B) Immediately start the machinery necessary to initial your propose
changes
___C) Look for reasons for the existing practice
___D) Conduct a suggestion contest
___E) Assume existing practice is best and do nothing about it

327. Which one of the following methods of approach has least value to the
officer charge with the responsibility for the police activities?
___A) Experimental control ___D) Clinical study
___B) Statistical approach ___E) Class history method
___C) History approach

328. Ordinarily the best approach to the problem of simplification

procedures is to…
___A) Prepare and analyze a functional organization CHART
___B) Prepare and analyze a work flow chart
___C) Analyze the job classification scheme
___D) Do a job analysis by point rating methods
___E) Prepare and analyze a work progress chart

329. With respect to the allocation of authority in a public agency,

integration means nearly…
___A) Delegating the responsibility for each integral department to
department head
___B) Placing responsibility for final decisions in the hands of an
advisory council
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 ___C) Appoint an advisory committee to integrate activities
___D) Gathering into the hands of an administrator for all the
administrative authority for the agency
___E) Providing for the administrator to refer all decisions to the chief
executive for approval

330. The effectiveness of each unit or division of a police department is

best measure in…
___A) Terms of the accomplishment of its primary purpose
___B) Its interrelationship with other closely related units of the
department
___C) Its interrelationship with all units of the department
___D) Its interrelationship with the community
___E) All of them

331. Of the following, the one which is the chief barrier to the development
of professionalization for police officers and members throughout the
country.
___A) Relatively how salaries paid law enforcement officers despite the
hazards that confront them
___B) Relatively low entrance requirements for entry into the police
field
___C) Failure by police administrators to make effective use of the
probationary period to eliminate the unfit
___D) The desire of the police to receive general public support even if
it involves the failure to enforce unpopular laws
___E) All of the above

332. Planning must be continuous at every level and in every unit of the
police department even though the general planning job may be the
primary concern of one person or bureau. The one of the following
which is not implied by this statement is that such planning.
___A) It is necessary when there is a lack of attention to it at the higher
echelons of the department

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 ___B) Should permeate the entire organization even though it is the first
responsibility of the planning officer
___C) Should consider the possibility of intra-departmental conflicts
arising and the need to eliminate them at lower levels before they
develop
___D) May stipulate the acceptance of responsibility for effective job
performance at all levels in the organization

333. Objective indexes of police performance, such as crime and accident

rates, provide a most exact comparison when comparing.
___A) Variations in efficiency resulting from changes of procedure
within a given police department when the comparison is between
two successive years and the accuracy of the basic data has
been clearly established
___B) Variations in efficiency resulting from a change of procedure
within a given police department when the change is made in only
one procedure and the influence of other factors remains nearly
constant
___C) Different police agencies which have similar administrative
structures and problems
___D) Different police agencies which operate in communities which
have similar crime problems and are in the same population group

334. Preparing functional chart is likely to be least valuable in

discovering…
___A) Failure to place definite responsibility for satisfactory
performance of certain activities on any one person or group of
persons
___B) Failure to develop efficient methods and procedure
___C) Failure to delegate authority sufficiently
___D) Overlapping authority
___E) All of the above

335. Which of the following steps performed by a supervisor in setting up

his work should immediately precede the assignment of the particular
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 tasks and the authority to perform the tasks?
___A) Make plans so the desired goals may be attained
___B) Make remedial plans if necessary
___C) Know what is going on (supervision in progress)
___D) Picture the entire project
___E) All of the above

336. Command is synonymous with initiative and self-reliance in meeting

and accepting responsibility. It follows from the statement that, on
obtaining officer rank, a man will be expected to consider that he
should…
___A) Perform his duties without relying on his subordinates at all
___B) Stand on his own feet and assume full responsibility for his
conduct
___C) Know what is going on (supervision in program)
___D) Picture the entire project
___E) All of the above

337. The one of the following bases of organizational division work which
is least often used in police department is…
___A) Clientele ___D) Time
___B) Purpose ___E) Process
___C) Area

338. A specialist or expert rather than an “all around” man is placed in

charged in which one of the following types of organization?
___A) Line ___D) Geographic
___B) Functional ___E) Staff
___C) Line and Staff

339. While it is desirable in one sense to minimize the police executive’s

spanof control, this reduction may tend to block the vertical flow of
information which is vital to the exercise of proper executive control.
One answer to this problem is for the police executive to retain control

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 of certain key activities. In this context, “key activities” includes all of
the following except…
___A) General Patrol ___D) Public Relations
___B) Internal Discipline ___E) Planning and Research
___C) Vice Control

340. Staff is _____________________________ of the Commander.

___A) Alter Ego ___D) Administrative Bodyguard
___B) Extension ___E) Check and Balances

341. The most important distinction between the operating and service
functions of an administration organization is that…
___A) Service activities involve public relations to a greater extent than
operating activities
___B) Service activities are functional while operating activities are
often termed “housekeeping”
___C) Operating activities are an end in themselves; service activities
are a means to an end
___D) Operating activities may be thought of as institutional, while
service activities are of primary important
___E) All of the above

342. A functional basis or assumption in the justification of an independent

police administrative vice squad, reporting directly to the Chief of
Police, is that…
___A) Vice control is one of the most troublesome of police functions
___B) Vice activities are always controlled by a central criminal element
___C) Personal loyalty to a superior is one of the strongest of human
motives
___D) In the case of District Commanders, alertness decreases as
geographic or administrative distance increase
___E) Until professional salaries are paid police officers, some amount
of graft is inevitable

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343. Probably, the most effective way in which a police chief can eliminate
friction or misunderstanding due to the problems arising from
functional supervision by staff officers is to…
___A) Hold regular staff meetings to discuss the problems of
supervisors and plan future work
___B) Designate either the line or the staff organization the final
authority
___C) Draw up organization charts showing line-staff relationships
___D) Set a heavy penalty on the supervisors who get into conflict
___E) Transfer personnel among the several divisions until those are
found who can cooperate in the jobs

344. The existence of specialized operating units in a police organization is

most justified when such a unit.
___A) Assist the patrol force by its used of specialized knowledge and
methods
___B) Assumes complete and sole responsibility for police performance
in a specialized area of gravity
___C) Devotes an equal amount of time and effort to the duties and
responsibilities of the unspecialized patrol force
___D) In relieved of any responsibility for the regular duties of the
unspecialized patrol force
___E) All of them

345. A good executive is least likely to delegate responsibility for

assignment or review of work, his own work will be increasingly
likely to…
___A) Become simplified and less demanding
___B) Emphasize coordinating activities
___C) Become more complex and detailed
___D) Diminish in scope
___E) Required closer contact with actual work in process

346. A high degree of specialization, or division of work, is most likely to

create problems of…
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 ___A) Coordinating ___D) Directing
___B) Controlling ___E) Planning
___C) Staffing

347. As a supervisor delegates to others his responsibility for assignment or

review of work, his own work will be increasingly likely to…
___A) Become simplified and less demanding
___B) Emphasize coordinating activities
___C) Become more complex and detailed
___D) Diminish in scope
___E) Required closer contact with actual work in process

348. How often should personnel be transferred into new assignments? Is

the public interest best served by long term familiarity with one task
of district, or by work perspective born of varied police experience?
From the police administrator’s standpoint, this problem is best solved
by…
___A) Frequent transfers of newer officers, letting them fit into place as
they gain experience
___B) Frequent transfers among desirable assignments but long term
assignments to undesirable posts

349. The one of the following factors which is the most important
determinants of the degree to which the patrolman resist the ever-
present temptations to corruption is the…
___A) Amount of participation in the activities of national professional
police organization
___B) Quality of leadership exerted by superior officers, especially
those in the immediate contact with the patrolman
___C) Thoroughness of training in department procedures given to new
members of the department
___D) Salary, hours of work, promotion opportunities, and types of
crime involved
___E) All of the above

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350. A police officer is doing very satisfactory work on a rather simple and
repetitive assignment. Test show him to be above average in
intelligence. A position to which he could properly be assigned,
requiring exercise of some judgment and initiative, is vacant. When
told of the vacancy, he shows no particular desire or enthusiasm for
the change. In the interest of good management, it would be best to…
___A) Give him a trial on the vacancy
___B) Look for someone else to fill the vacancy
___C) Give him some instruction and see how he responds
___D) Talk to his wife or family
___E) Recognize the work so no vacancy exists

351. Good personnel practice indicates the large public organizations

should have some sort of program for systematically dealing with
suggestions made by employees. Such program is usually of most
value to an organization in terms of…
___A) Giving an objective basis for employees evaluation and rating
___B) Fostering a sense of participation in individual employees
___C) Keeping lower level of supervision on their toes
___D) Developing a competitive spirit between employees and
employee groups
___E) Effecting long range monetary savings to the organization

352. The supervisor of division B, who receives work from division A and
passes it on to division C, decides that the total flow of work could be
speeded up by the addition of a “cover sheet” indicating status of the
item of work at all times. Whenever practicable, the best first step for
supervisor B to take would be to…
___A) Discuss the change informally with supervisors A and C
___B) Discuss the change thoroughly with the staff of his division
___C) Examine the operations of divisions A and C in detail to
determine how the change will affect them
___D) Develop a description of the revised procedures and forward it to
his superior indicating the savings that will result if it is adopted

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 ___E) Report his idea to the planning or coordinating official with a
draft of the suggested form

353. Incoming telephone calls at police headquarters should be…

___A) Channeled in order of importance
___B) Given immediate importance
___C) Given low priority
___D) Answered only after regular business is completed
___E) All of the above

354. The development and use of an effective communications system

theoretically gives greatest impetus to which of the following
organizational principles?
___A) Span of control ___D) Delegation of authority
___B) Line of command ___E) All of the above
___C) Unity of command

355. For good administration, matters requiring a supervisor’s written

approval before final action may be taken should…
___A) Be reduced to a minimum
___B) Include practically all matters of more than momentary
importance
___C) Not be definitely specified

356. Authorities in the field recommend locating the communications

center in the records division under the control of the records officer
primarily because…
___A) The training for records and communications is similar
___B) Control of the line division heads concerned with prompt dispatch
and mobilization of men is more effective
___C) The communications center usually prepares the original records
of complaints received
___D) Communications control should like in an operating division
___E) The records officer usually has more rank than the
communication officer
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357. Police radio primarily is important because it increases the speed of
police action and observed it…
___A) Provides a sense of security to patrolling officer
___B) Attracts better men to the police service
___C) Makes possible more effective use of the patrol force
___D) Aids the department in obtaining public acceptance of its crime
prevention program
___E) All of the above

358. Effective communication within an organization-the interchange of

thoughts, ideas and opinions-requires that the lines of communication
be essentially…
___A) Upward, downward, and across
___B) Upward
___C) Downward
___D) Across
___E) Upward and downward, with communication across the
organization actively discouraged

359. On special occasions, members of the Police Department may be

directed to report directly to their place of assignment in uniform. The
most likely reason for this special arrangementis to…
___A) Eliminate the roll call
___B) Save travelling time
___C) Insure complete coverage
___D) Make it easier for the men to get there
___E) All of the above

360. What unit of the Police Department is best suited and primarily
responsible for taking direct action when a crime has been committed?
___A) Patrol ___D) Criminal Investigation
___B) Criminalistics Division ___E) Medico-legal Officer
___C) Inspection

361. In establishing shift hours, the greatest degree of efficiency is

Page 79
 provided when there is the…
___A) Largest load fluctuation between shifts
___B) Largest load fluctuation between a given shifts
___C) Smallest load fluctuation between shifts
___D) Smallest load fluctuation between a given shifts

362. The most i8mportant consideration in locating a police station is…

___A) Near working center of police activities
___B) Center of civilization
___C) Zoning restricting
___D) Convenience to public
___E) All of the above

363. In a division in which straight eight-hour shifts are used, which of the
following provides the best basis for determining the breaking point
for the watches?
___A) Watches should be so broken that maximum manpower is
available at the time of greatest need
___B) Watches should be so broken that the need for patrol services
tends to be equal for all watches
___C) Watches should be so broken that the need for patrol services is at
a minimum at the breaking times
___D) Watches should be so broken that, in each watch, the load is
greater in the first half of the watch
___E) All of the above

364. The division of a given area into patrol districts can be most validly
made in such a way that requirements of each district tend to be equal.
These requirements are best determined considering…
___A) The area to be covered in each district
___B) Both the area and the number of occurrences
___C) The number of people residing and working in the area at any
given time in each district
___D) The number of occurrences in each district which require police
attention
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 ___E) Both the population density and the frequency occurrences, that is
crimes per capita per unit area

365. Deployment of patrol forces is ordinarily made according to some

measure of the need for police service. Which of the following is the
least valid factor which might be used as, or included in, a measure of
such need?
___A) Property loss in Pesos
___B) Number of complaints
___C) Amount of inspection and routine patrol required
___D) Number of arrest
___E) Number of crimes committed

366. In deployment as well as in other matters, it is frequently said that the

patrol force is the backbone of the police department. The best reason
is…
___A) The patrol function is largely preventive in nature
___B) The patrol function is very wide in scope
___C) Community welfare is more directly served by patrol than by the
more specialized services
___D) Patrol is the only service which carries out the basic police
function; other divisions are basically regulatory or administrative
___E) The patrol force is of service to a greater number of people that
are the specialized services

367. The need for patrol services may be defined in terms of the man-hours
required for the various duties which a patrol man performs or maybe
called upon to perform. The main disadvantage of using such man-
hour requirements as a basis for assignment and deployment of a
patrol force is that…
___A) Time standards cannot be accurately established for many patrol
duties
___B) A few non-standard or irregular occurrences can unbalance the
entire deployment program

Page 81
 ___C) While time standards can be determined with reasonable
accuracy, the man-hour requirement for any one watch cannot
___D) The morale of the patrol division will be reduced because the
patrolmen will infer a “speed up” from such standards
___E) With the exception of very large patrol divisions, application of
such standards results in split shifts and variable reporting times

368. The concept of performance budgeting is generally contrasted with

budgeting by…
___A) Sources of Revenue ___D) Economy
___B) Object of Expenditure ___E) All of the above
___C) Time and/or Distance

369. Closed specification for the purchase of equipment are considered to

be contrary to good public policy, specifically in that they are likely to
result in…
___A) Collusion between suppliers and public officials
___B) Equipment with inferior materials and/or workmanship
___C) Equipment which far exceeds public service requirements
___D) Difficulty in securing replacement parts
___E) All of the above

370. Of the following, the chief advantage of central purchasing is the

saving that is made possible through…
___A) A better balance of supplies and more prompt delivery services
___B) Lower unit costs and better discount terms on larger quantities
___C) The improvement of uniforms standards and specifications
___D) The lessened expense of buying and maintaining supplies
___E) A more efficient routine for processing purchases

371. In order to make sure that necessary supplies will be on hand when
wanted, the supply officer should…
___A) Take inventory once a month to see what supplies need to be
reordered

Page 82
 ___B) Decide on reserve minimum for each kind of supplies and reorder
when that minimum is reached
___C) When a new supply of an article comes in, decide how long it
should last and order more immediately
___D) Secure an estimate of needed supplies from those people who use
the article
___E) Order the year’s supply on the record of last year’s consumption

372. Budgeting in a police department is primarily a phase of…

___A) Planning ___D) Staffing
___B) Commanding ___E) All of the above
___C) Coordinating

373. It is the sum total of dealings of the police it serves and whose good
will and cooperation it craves for the greatest possible efficiency in
public service.
___A) Public Relations
___B) Police Community Relations
___C) Police Public Relations
___D) Human Relations
___E) Rapport

374. The fact of bringing about better understanding, confidence and

acceptance for an individual or an organization.
___A) Public Relations
___B) Police Community Relations
___C)Police Public Relations
___D) Human Relations
___E0 All of the above

375. The continuing process by which endeavors are made to obtain the
good will and cooperation of the public for the effective enforcement
of the law and the accomplishment of the police purposes.
___A) Police Community Relations
___B)Police Public Relations
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 ___C)Public Relations
___D) Human Relations

376. Consists of those fundamental precepts, both moral and legal, which
govern the relationship of man in all aspects of life.
___A) Human Relations ___C)Police Public Relations
___B)Public Relations ___D)Police Community Relations

377. The best public relations between the police and the public exist when
the public attitude is one of…
___A) Confidence, respect and approval
___B) Tacit acceptance
___C) Indifference
___D) Resignation to exercise authority

378. Favorable public opinions are desirable today because…

___A) It will make possible great expansion of the organization
___B) Our living patterns are interwoven with those of our neighbors
___C) It will cut competition
___D) Of the extreme rapidity and ease which they can change, reversed
or started on an entirely new approach

379. The best measured of public opinion of the police department may be
obtained by…
___A) Degree to which the community voluntarily cooperates with the
police department in the performance of their duties
___B) Nothing the opinion expressed in an adequate of newspaper
articles
___C) Keeping a check on the number of complaints and
commendations of police which come in
___D) The daily contacts of uniform police officers with the public
___E) All of the above

380. In determining public attitudes between the police and the public the
most important medium is the…
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 ___A) Print Mass Media ___D) P.R.O
___B) Radio and Television ___E) All of the above
___C) Individual Policeman

381. While the wise police administrator does not attempt to conceal police
news from the press, he may occasionally find it necessary to
designate a case or activity as being “Off the Record.” If the above
statement is applicable to field of a police functions more than to any
other, that field would most probably be…
___A) Vice ___D) Investigation
___B) Intelligence ___E) All of the above
___C) Internal discipline

382. From a police officer’s viewpoint, public relation is primarily…

___A) A method of winning the confidence of the public
___B) A means of improving contacts with the public
___C) Something which effects them but for which they have very little
personal concern
___D) His attitude toward the public while on duty
___E) All of the above

383. The best criterion of a patrolman’s performance of his duties is…

___A) The fact that he is never absent
___B) The public’s attitude toward him
___C) The number of summonses he issues daily
___D) His record and seniority rating
___E) All of the above

384. A newspaper reporter learns of a case in which a police officer alleged

to have been implicated in a criminal complaint. He tells the said
police officer that he wants to expand his information to a feature
story. The police officer should…
___A) Supply all necessary details so that the article will be accurate
___B) Refer him to his division head even though the division head is
not familiar with the details
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 ___C) Give the details on the condition that he represents the department
in a sympathetic light
___D) Given him the details on the condition that he allow him to read
the copy before printing
___E) None of the above

385. Individual policemen are the most important factor in determining

public attitudes toward the police. It is further concluded that efforts
of policemen to improve public attitudes should be largely directed
toward…
___A) The creation of as many favorable public contacts as possible
___B) Tolerant enforcement of minor regulatory statutes and ordinances
___C) Insuring that the policeman is also an exemplary citizen
___D) All of the above

386. Immediately after a newsworthy arrest has been made, an accredited

newspaper reporter enters the police headquarters and request certain
information about the arrest which the desk officer feels should not be
divulged because the ends of justice might be defeated. Of the
following, the best answer the desk officer should give the reporter in
this situation is…
___A) “I am sorry but you must know that I am unable to give you the
information you seek.”
___B) “I am sorry but THE Police Department Rules and Regulations
prevent me from giving you this information.”
___C) “Such information involves police matters which cannot be
disclosed.”
___D) “Please wait until the story is release by the proper police
authorities through the regular department channels.”
___E) All of the above

387. Of the following steps in the planning of a “Community Relations

Program,” one of the following should be undertaken first is to…
___A) Study the public with which the police department deals
___B) Contact editors of local newspapers
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 ___C) Develop procedures for dealing with the public
___D) Establish civilian complaint procedures
___E) Train personnel in public contacts

388. In his contact with the public, a patrolman should pay most attention
to the…
___A) Character of the police he talks
___B) Time when the contacts are made
___C) Impression he creates
___D) Attitude of the public toward time
___E) All of the above

389. Of the following, the best argument for publicizing both the plans
involved in an efficient road blockade and the police activity involved
in actually applying them is that…
___A) The public, being forewarned, could not validly complain of any
inconvenience to which it might be subjected
___B) All plans which affect the public should be given full publicity
___C) Publicity would probably be instrumental in reducing the number
of criminals who escape such blockade
___D) Adequate publicity would insure constructive criticism
___E) The potential criminal would hesitate to break the law, hence his
activities would be hampered

CODE OF ETHICS AND PROFESSIONAL CONDUCT

390. Is that branch of moral science which treats of the duties which a
police officer owes to the public and the community.
___A) Police Ethics ___D) Loyalty
___B) Police Profession ___E) All of the above
___C) Courtesy

391. The basic idea of government in the Philippines is that of a

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 _________________________ the officers being mere agents and not
rulers of the people, one where no one man or set of men has
propriety or contractual right to an office, but where every officer
accepts office pursuant to the provisions of law and holds the office as
a trust for the people whom he represents. The word or phrase which
best fills the blank in the above paragraph is the…
___A) Representative Government
___B) A Public Office is a Public Trust
___C) Democratic Ideal
___D) Autocratic

392. It is the essence of good manners; it is a manifestation of

sportsmanship and an exposition of gentility and culture.
___A) Morale ___D) Loyalty
___B) Discipline ___E) All of the above
___C) Courtesy

393. Is everyone’s duty and obligation, regardless of his intelligence,

degree of instruction, education, social standing, religion, sect, or
color, and etc.
___A) Faith allegiance to the Government and Constitution
___B) Loyalty and Love of Country
___C) Public Office is a Public Trust
___D) Code of Ethics
___E) All of the above

394. Public officers and employees shall serve with the highest degree of
responsibility, integrity, loyalty, and efficiency and shall remain
accountable to the people.
___A) Faith allegiance to the Government and Constitution
___B) Loyalty and Love of Country
___C) Public Office is a Public Trust
___D) Code of Ethics
___E) All of the above

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395. A police officer on the witness stand is not called upon to express his
view about the case, nor to tell what he heard others say about it, nor
to make a speech. Of the following the most accurate statement of this
situation is that…
___A) Be courteous ___C) Nothing but the truth
___B) Do not volunteer ___D) All of the above

396. To tell the facts as they are in the sole function of a police officer on
the witness stand.
___A) Be courteous ___C) Nothing but the truth
___B) Do not volunteer ___D) All of the above

397. Police officer shall treat official business as such, and shall not impart
the same to anyone except those for whom it is intended, or as
directed by his superior officer, or as required by law.
___A) Criminal Investigation ___C) Confession
___B) Confidential Information ___D) All of the above

398. A person making a complaint to an officer which seems unreasonable

and of little importance. Of the following, the best action for the
officer to take is…
___A) Listen to the person making the complaint and tell him that the
matter will be investigated
___B) Criticize the person making the complaint for taking up his
valuable time
___C) Tell the person that anyone responsible for his grievance will be
prosecuted
___D) Tell the person to make a format written complaint and make it
broadcast over radio station
___E) All of the above

399. The importance of public support in law enforcement cannot be over-

emphasized. This is true primarily because…
___A) Substantial public support increases the morale of police
personnel and thereby facilitates efficient law enforcement
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 ___B) The police cannot be adequately perform their functions unless
reinforced by the cooperation of the public
___C) The public is the sole determinant of the quality of police
performance
___D) The public is the best source of moonlighting
___E) All of the above

400. It is an accepted fact that the police officer has no private life as long
as he remains in the Police Department, whether on or off duty. Such
that he is subject to unrelenting scrutiny and critical analysis of the
public he serves. Of the following, the most supportable deduction for
a police officer to make from this statement is that…
___A) PNP members should recognize it, accept it and govern their
activities, on or off duty, accordingly
___B) It indicates the need for more rigid self-regulation by the PNP
members than now exists
___C) It is unfair, since it establishes a higher code of conduct for one
type of public employment
___D) PNP rules should liberally interpreted in favor of police personnel
to offset the higher standard demanded
___E) PNP members are expected to be “robocops”

401. Means more than reporting to work on time; it involves as well every
detail of the policeman’s daily activity.
___A) Protection of the underdog
___B) Punctuality to all calls, requirements of duty,etc
___C) Maltreatment of prisoners
___D) Due process of law
___E) All of the above

402. In all contractual property or other relations, when the parties is at if

disadvantage on account of his moral dependence, ignorance, mental
weakness, tender age or other handicap, the police must be vigilant for
the protection of this party.
___A) Protection of the underdog
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 ___B) Punctuality to all calls, requirements of duty, etc
___C) Maltreatment of prisoners
___D) Due process
___E) All of the above

403. May be committed by a police officer who shall overdo himself in the
correction or handling of a prisoner or detention or detention prisoner
under his charge, by the imposition of punishment not authorized by
the regulation, or by inflicting such punishment in a cruel and
humiliating manner.
___A) Maltreatment of prisoners
___B)Due process
___C)Protection of the underdog
___D)All of the above

404. If a statute is unpopular, it is the police officer who must bear the
brunt of public resentment when it is enforced. In view of this
situation, the one of the following policies most likely to assist in the
over all attainment of law enforcement objective is…
___A) Selective enforcement procedures should be used
___B) Specific public relations techniques should be used
___C) Specially trained groups should enforce such laws in an attempt
to allay popular resentment
___D) The police should make a sincere enforcement effort despite the
unpopularity of the law
___E) None of the above

405. During the period immediately following his appointment, the

assignment of a new appointee may be change from one type of
work to another every few weeks. The chief advantage of rotation of
new appointee in this manner is that it…
___A) Gives the new appointee an understanding of his department as a
whole
___B) Allows the new appointee to devote all of his time to a single type
of work
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 ___C) Keeps the new appointee continually under the same supervising
officer
___D) Eliminates the need for additional training
___E) None of the above

406. A proper thing to do for a police officer who leaves the police service,
either by retirement, resignation, suspension or dismissal from the
service thereof, losses/terminates himself from being a member of the
PNP.
___A) Usurpation of authority
___B) Surrender of property
___C) Illegal use of uniform or insignia
___D) None of the above

407. It is just as much the duty of a policeman to ascertain or see that a

person suspected of any criminal offenses are not deprived of their
statutory or constitutional rights as it is to convict them of crimes of
which they may be suspected.
___A) Civil liberties ___D) Democratic ideal
___B) Due process ___E) All of the above
___C) Under custodial investigation

408. As a rule, police officer is not allowed/permitted to engaged in any

other business or calling.
___A) Moonlighting ___D) On or off duty
___B) Bribery ___E) All of the above
___C) Immorality

409. Is the omission or refusal, without official excuse, to perform an act or

duty, which it is the officer’s legal obligation to perform.
___A) Bribery
___B) Neglect of duty or nonfeasance
___C) Incompetence
___D) Dishonesty

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410. Is the doing either through ignorance, inattention or malice, of that
which the police officer had no legal right to do at all, as where he
acts without any authority whatsoever or exceeds, ignores or abuses
his powers.
___A) Misconduct or malfeasance
___B) Neglect of duty or nonfeasance
___C) Incompetence
___D) Dishonesty

411. Is the manifest lack of adequate ability and fitness for the satisfactory
performance of official duties by reason of the officer’s vice or
vicious habits.
___A) Neglect of duty or nonfeasance
___B) Incompetence
___C) Dishonesty
___D) Disloyalty

412. Is the concealment of truth in a matter of fact relevant to one’s office,

or connected with the performance of his duties.
___A) Incompetence ___C) Disloyalty
___B) Dishonesty ___D) All of the above

413. Consist of abandonment or renunciation of one’s loyalty to the

government of the Philippines, or advocating the overthrow of the
government.
___A) Dishonesty ___C) Treason
___B) Disloyalty ___D) All of the above

414. A police officer is forbidden to engage in idle conversation while on

duty. Specifically this prohibition refers to…
___A) Gossip and idle talk
___B) Vexing of humiliating another
___C) Communication outside organization
___D) All of the above

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415. Failure of a police officer to discover a condition requiring police
attention, within a reasonable time after arriving on his post. In affect
a police officer must be…
___A) Attitude toward profession
___B) Constantly on alert in any eventually
___C) Malingering
___D) All of the above

416. A police officer in uniform is prohibited from carrying any package or

bundle unless it is needed in the performance of his duty. The
likelihood, the said officer will be misinterpreted to…
___A) Have accepted favors
___B) A trim appearance while in uniform is important
___C) Be a “comprador” for his wife
___D) All of the above

417. When a police officer arrives at his assigned post, the first thing he
should do is…
___A) Answer the call of nature
___B) Secure a folding bed and sleep
___C) Inspect the post
___D) Call and inform his wife of his whereabouts

418. A police officer must wear his uniform securely buttoned at all times
because…
___A) A complete uniform attracts “chicks”
___B) A neat appearance commands respect
___C) Loose clothing is likely to catch obstruction
___D) All of the above

419. The main responsibility of a supervising police officer is to…

___A) See that required work is done properly
___B) Insure an atmosphere of mutual trust between his men and
himself

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 ___C) Make certain that all his men are treated equally as to assigned
duties
___D) Create a receptive attitude toward the objective of the department
___E) All of the above

420. The police supervisors should realize that the performance of

unpleasant duties is generally…
___A) Unavoidable; it is part of his responsibility as a leader
___B) Undesirable; they should be avoided whenever possible
___C) Predictable; mistakes follow an established pattern
___D) All of the above

421. In order to assure effective supervision, which one of the follo9wing

is the most important for a newly supervisor to know when he begins
his job?
___A) History and progress of the department
___B) Progress of other department doing related work
___C) Nature and scope of authority in each field in which he functions
___D) The public relations activities of the department

422. In the motivation of employees, financial incentives are best regarded

as…
___A) Necessary but not alone sufficient
___B) The essence
___C) Desirable, but of now fundamental importance
___D) Unrelated to the problem of motivation
___E) Completely unnecessary if supervisors is adequate

423. Intelligent supervision on the part of superior officers will…

___A) Eliminate personal animosity among subordinates
___B) Improve the efficiency of the force as a whole
___C) Ease his promotion to the next higher rank
___D) All of the above

424. All of the following except one, are factors of successful supervision:
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 ___A) Set a good example by the proper use of the command function
___B) Feel that people are individual and consider their experience,
training and personality
___C) Remember that a command will get employees to produce more
work than with a suggestion or request
___D) Recognize the continued importance of personnel contacts with
members of his command

425. The efficient functioning of any police organization requires that each
member, regardless of rank, understands what he is to do and…
___A) Knows to whom he is responsible
___B) Has an opportunity to cooperate in the formulation of office
policies
___C) Is able to assume the duties of his supervisor when necessary
___D) Has a thorough knowledge of what the others in the police
organization are doing

426. In practice, the one of the following functions of the police officer on
which his subordinates judge his ability as a supervisor more than any
other is…
___A) Personal appearance
___B) Planning work assignments
___C) Discovering and adjusting grievances
___D) Giving orders
___E) Considerations with his peers

427. The most important control exercised by a police officer as a first-line

supervisor is…
___A) Manpower control
___B) Planning and cooperation control
___C) Control over organization
___D) Cost control
___E) All of the above

428. The police supervisor who establishes rapport during an interview

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 customarily…
___A) Puts the interviewee at ease
___B) Impress the interviewee with his importance and the necessity for
the conservation on his time
___C) Does not permit the interviewee to answer questions freely
___D) Negates the purposes of interview

429. Means how people feel emotionally about their way of life and the
people with whom they live.
___A) Discipline ___D) Honesty
___B) Leadership ___E) Hospitality
___C) Morale

430. To be an effective leader, it is most important that one must…

___A) Be born with the leadership ability
___B) Have acquired leadership ability
___C) Have a normal intelligence and a desire to be of service
___D) Have developed an impersonal attitude in human relations
___E) All of the above

431. It is a mental or moral training that makes a man willing to be subject

to controls and regulations for the good of the entire group of which
he is a member.
___A) Discipline ___D) Punishment
___B) Morale ___E) All of the above
___C) Courtesy

432. Shall refer to an act or omission not involving moral turpitude, but
affecting the internal discipline of the PNP, and shall include but not
limited to: simple misconduct or negligence; insubordination; frequent
absences or tardiness; habitual drunkenness; and gambling prohibited
by law.
___A) Minor offense ___D) Non-punitive action
___B) Serious offense ___E) Punitive action
___C) Discipline
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433. Minor offenses, if repeatedly committed may eventually constitute…
___A) Serious offense of habitual dereliction
___B) Summary dismissal from the service
___C) Discipline
___D) Punitive punishment
___E) None of the above

434. The citizen’s complaints may be brought before, where the offense is
punishable by privileges, restriction to specified limits, suspension or
forfeiture of salary, or any combination thereof, for a period not
exceeding fifteen (15) days.
___A) City or Municipal Mayor
___B) Chief of Police
___C) People’s Law Enforcement Board (PLEB)
___D) All of the above

435. Where the offense is punishable by withholding of privileges,

restriction to specified limits, suspension or forfeiture of salary, or
any combination thereof, for a period of not less than sixteen (16)
days but not exceeding thirty (30) days, the citizen’s complaints shall
be brought before.
___A) City or Municipal Mayor
___B) Chief of Police
___C) People’s Law Enforcement Board (PLEB)
___D) LupongTagapayapa
___E) All of the above

436. Where the offense is punishable by withholding or privileges,

restriction to specified limits, suspension or forfeiture of salary, or
any combination thereof, for a period exceeding thirty (30) days or
dismissal.
___A) People’s Law Enforcement Board (PLEB)
___B) Chief of Police
___C)City or Municipal Mayor
___D) LupongTagapayapa
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 ___E) All of the above

437. Discipline must be strict, but not devoid of personal sympathy or

understanding. In effect, this statement is best illustrated by the
superior officer who…
___A) Treats his subordinates equally regardless of personal sympathy
___B) Manifest command that are clear and understanding
___C) Investigates the reasons of a subordinate’s infractions or
violations
___D) All of the above

438. A superior officer who encourages or permits his subordinates to

come directly to him with any question or grievance.
___A) Creates an intolerable situation for his unit commanders
___B) Is a man of principle
___C) Is self-disciplinarian
___D) Is serving to better integrate his organization
___E) None of the above

439. Usually the most important controlling factor in disciplining or

reprimanding a subordinate by a police officer should be to…
___A) Maintain discipline
___B) Improve the effectiveness and morale of the men
___C) Uphold department rules and regulations
___D) Conduct outright investigation
___E) All of the above

440. From among the many procedures, the first obligation of a supervisor
in any matter requiring disciplinary action is to…
___A) Learn all the facts of the matter
___B) Transfer the subordinates concerned to other work
___C) Send him out of mission
___D) Allow him to avail of sick leave
___E) All of the above

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441. A subordinate police supervisor was called away from an assignment
he was directing. He left his subordinate in charge. When he returned,
he found that the assignment was not properly completed. Upon being
reprimanded by his Superior Officer for the mistake, the subordinate
supervisor should…
___A) Blame his subordinate left in charge
___B) Take responsibility for the error
___C) Blame the entire group working on the assignment
___D) Prepare and pass a “Memo” to his Superior Officer, explaining
among other things, that he is not supposed to be blamed at all

442. What disciplinary measure do you think will most likely to produced
discontentment and grievance?
___A) Unusual strictness
___B) Inconsistent administration
___C) Severity of punishment
___D) Impersonal attitude
___E) Standardized punishment

443. As a tool of effective supervision, discipline is best regarded as a form

of…
___A) Control ___C) Authority
___B) Punishment ___D) Training

444. The general rule is that a member of the PNP cannot withdraw his
firearm, except for…
___A) Necessary apprehension of criminals
___B) Necessary inspection or lawful use
___C) Necessary target practice
___D) All of the above

445. A member of the PNP while on duty, whether in uniform or not

should avoid unpleasant habits which affect not only himself as an
individual member, but also the whole organization where he belongs.
___A) Sleeping and loafing on duty
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 ___B) Intoxication and use of prohibited drugs
___C) Partisan political activities
___D) All of the above

446. In order to strictly obey one prohibition, a member of the PNP must
not only avoid evil, he must also avoid the appearance of evil.
___A) Sleeping and loafing on duty
___B) Intoxication and use of prohibited drugs
___C) Partisan political activities
___D) Absolutely morality

CANON OF ETHICS FOR REGISTERED CRIMINOLOGIST

447. This statement that: “Every person admitted to the practice of

Criminology as a Registered Criminologist shall accept as a sacred
obligation and responsibility as a citizen to support the Constitution of
the Philippines and as a Registered Criminologist to defend the
principles of liberty as defined the Constitution and law,” refers to
what primary responsibility of a responsibility of a Registered
Criminologist?
___A) Be loyal to his profession
___B) To bear allegiance to the Republic of the Philippines
___C) Conduct towards the public
___D) Private conduct

448. A Registered Criminologist shall strive to improve his effectiveness

by diligent study and sincere attention to improvement and welcome
the opportunity to disseminate practical and useful information
relating to matters accruing to the benefit of public safety and welfare.
This statement refers to…
___A) Be loyal to his profession
___B) To bear allegiance to the Republic of the Philippines
___C) Conduct towards the public

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 ___D) Private conduct

449. Which one of the following does not or is not included from among
the first duty of a Criminologist as upholder of the law?
___A) To know its bond upon him
___B) Be aware of limitations and prescription
___C) To recognize the system of government that gives to no man,
group or institution absolute power
___D) He must ensure that he is prime defender of that system and as
such must pervert its character
___E) He must not refuse a consultancy profession to anyone, including
the bad elements of the society

450. That a Registered Criminologist shall recognize the limitation of his

authority and at no time use the power of his profession for personal
advantage. As such, he shall, in the performance of his duty be…
___A) Just
___B) Impartial and reasonable
___C) Never according anyone more preferential treatment than another
___D) All of the above

451. That in the Private Conduct, a Registered Criminologist must…

___A) Be mindful of his special identification by the public as an
upholder of the law
___B) Never be lax in the conduct or manner in private life, express
disrespect for the law, nor weak to gain special privilege that
would be reflective upon the profession
___C) So conduct his private life that the public will regard his as an
example of stability, fidelity and morality
___D) All of the above

452. That in the Private Conduct, a Registered Criminologist must…

___A) Strive to elevate the standing of the profession in the public mind
___B) Strengthen public confidence in law enforcement
___C) Develop and maintain complete support and cooperation of public
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 ___D) Insure the effectiveness by encouraging complete cooperation of
members of their mutual benefit
___E) All of the above

453. This one Canon of Ethics for Registered Criminologist necessarily

requires a Criminologist to remind at times that dignity, fairness and
genuine willingness to help are essential to his public image and his
ability to do a good job; to be mindful of his responsibility to the
whole community, deal with individuals of the community in a
manner calculated to instill respect for its laws and his profession;
shall be habitually courteous and accept his responsibility by being
punctual and expeditious in his engagement and duties; and shall
regard his profession as a public trust and in the discharge of his duty,
bear constantly in mind his obligations to serve the public-efficiency
and effectively.
___A) Conduct towards the public
___B) Private conduct
___C) Attitude towards profession
___D) Limitation of authority

454. Which of the following does not or is not included in the

Criminologist’s attitude towards profession?
___A) Shall strive to make the best application of science to the solution
of crime, by diligent study and sincere attention to self-
improvement, and in the fields of human relationships, strive for
effective leadership and public influence in matters affecting
public safety
___B) Shall appreciate the importance and responsibility of his
profession as an honorable one rendering valuable service to his
community and country. Shall strive to attain certain technical
and professional conclusions capable of the most withering cross-
examination particularly from fellow criminologist and associates
___C) Shall avoid outside influence from overzealous and anxious
clients and his findings shall be based solely and entirely on

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 logical and scientific deduction derived from fair and
impartial examination personally performed by him
___D) To improve his/her financial and social standing in whatever
means and source after three (3) years from the date he/she
secured his/her license as Criminologist

455. When we speak of attitude towards fellow Criminologist we refer to…

___A) The Criminologist strive constantly to improve professional
standing of Criminology through association with others in the
profession and keeping abreast with the fast moving world of
science and technology through constant research and
development
___B) He shall cooperate fully with fellow criminologist regardless of
personal prejudices. He should however, be assured that such
action is proper and in accordance with law and guard against the
use of his office or person, knowingly or unknowingly in any
improper or illegal action. He must always bear in mind at all
times that it not sufficient to be proficient in one’s work, he must
also have a high sense of justice, a belief in dignity and worth of
all men and a proper motivation and attitude. He must possess a
sense of dedication to his profession and a sense of duty and
obligation to his fellowmen
___C) He shall cooperate with fellow criminologist and public officials
to the end that safety and general welfare of the public will be
assured, never permitting jealousies or personal indifference to
influence their professional duties and obligations
___D) All of the above

POLICE SUPERVISION

456. A superior officer can best obtain good supervisory relationship with
his subordinates by…
___A) Being lenient at all times

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 ___B) Being mildly friendly with them
___C) Extending financial loan to them
___D) Acting distant and aloof
___E) All of the above

457. A patrol assigned to your division does better than average work but
constantly complains about his work to other men, thereby adversely
affecting their morale. What do you think is the most advisable for
you to do as a superior officers?
___A) Have a confidential talk with him and try to secure his cooperation
but otherwise refuse to show him any special consideration
___B) Request his transfer, since your primary obligation is to foster the
morale of your command as a whole
___C) Give him additional work to do so he will have less time to
complain
___D) All of the above

458. From among the following, what do you think is the best justification
for a newly appointed superior officer to learn as much as possible
about the men under his new supervision from their previous
supervisor?
___A) Best results in handling men are usually obtained by treating them
equally without favor
___B) Effective handling of men is often based upon knowledge of
individual personality differences
___C) Some subordinates often function more effectively under one
supervisor than under another supervisor
___D) Confidence of the men in their supervisor is increased when they
know he is interested in impartial and fair supervision.

459. Let us assume that you have two (2) subordinate officers under your
command. One is constantly referring problems to you for decision,
while the other seems to never have problems requiring referral. Of
the first subordinate officer, what appropriate situation can you say of
him?
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 ___A) Has not been delegated sufficient authority
___B) Has not fully assumed authority given him
___C) Has more difficult problems than the other subordinate officer
___D) Enjoys better relations with you personally than the other
subordinate officer

460. If your subordinate officer seems to crave your command’s approval

for everything that he does, it would be most logical for you to
conclude that said subordinate officer is…
___A) Trying to impress you with his desire to please
___B) Lacking in self-confidence
___C) Trying to cover up for some deficiency
___D) Lacking in ability to do the work

461. A member of the PNP comes to his supervisor asking for ten (10)
minutes of his time to discuss a personal problem. According to most
writers on supervision, usually in a situation like this the supervisor
should.
___A) Try to help the PNP member think through the problem and arrive
at his own solution without direct advice from the supervisor
___B) Listen sympathetically and given whatever advice he can
___C) Refer the PNP member to the personnel officer of the Department
___D) Decline to discuss such matters during working hours but suggest
that said PNP member meet with the supervisor after work to
discuss his problem

462. Which of the following is generally regarded by authorities on

supervision as the most frequent cause of employee dissatisfaction?
___A) Failure to reprimand while matter is still “hot”
___B) Failure to prepare the employees for changes in policies and
procedures
___C) Strict and literal interpretation and application of office rules and
regulations
___D) Failure to introduce more up-to-date methods as rapidly as
possible
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463. A police officer informs his supervisor that he believes that a certain
police sergeant is too strict in supervising all his subordinates,
especially when compared with the supervision carried out by other
sergeant in the same command. What do you think is the best advice
said supervisor can give?
___A) Tell the police officer that you will conduct your own
investigation of the situation
___B) Tell the police officer that acceptance of the supervision is part of
his job
___C) Remind the police officer that his supervisor is often subject to
severe supervision
___D) Tell the police officer to request for his transfer to some other unit

464. A good attitude for a police supervisor to obtain the confidence of his
men is to…
___A) Fraternize with all his subordinates
___B) Be a fatherly-like attitude
___C) Make no promises unless they can be fulfilled
___D) All of the above

465. One of the indications of interest in the job on the part of subordinates
is that fact that they ask questions. Such questions are of value chiefly
because they…
___A) Indicate the efficiency of the men involved
___B) Can be utilized as part of the training process
___C) Provide an excellent guide to the reassignment of subordinates
___D) Serve to enhance the status of the supervisor when he answers him
___E) All of the above

466. In cases involving infraction of rules and regulations by newly

recruited policemen, the superior officer should…
___A) Temper discipline with understanding
___B) Tolerate minor infraction for a short time
___C) Be particularly strict to impress them with a sense of duty
___D) Treat every infraction alike regardless of the violator
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467. If a subordinate police officer is emotionally upset when he comes to
the supervisor with a problem, the supervisor should in all likelihood.
___A) Help the subordinate police officer to become calm before
attempting to discuss the problem
___B) Allow the employee to take his day off
___C) Give an immediate decision satisfactory to the employee
___D) Inquire into the subordinate policeman’s personal problems for the
cause of the emotional disturbance

468. The main purpose of letting the employee know about the personnel
policy of an organization is to…
___A) Get them to accept the policies
___B) Maintain morale and efficiency
___C) Work hard for promotion
___D) Induce loyalty

469. Which of the following is the best way to handle a patrolman’s

grievance request which you know cannot be granted?
___A) Explain why his request cannot be granted
___B) Show him so unreasonable his request is
___C) Deny the request without explanation
___D) Tell him to take it or leave it

470. In dealing with a new policeman, a good supervisor…

___A) Praises work which is above standard and constructively criticizes
work below standard
___B) Praise the new policeman even if he does not come up to what he
should
___C) Ask an older policeman to tell the new policeman the supervisor
thinks his work is satisfactory
___D) Comments nothing

471. One of the maxims of supervisory leadership is “Know your men,” if

a newly appointed supervisor, with no previous knowledge of the
group he is to take charge of, was to undertake to do this, what would
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 ordinarily be the best thing to do first?
___A) Conduct a short, informal interview with each man
___B) Get personnel records including personal background
___C) Get informal, unwritten opinions of several previous supervisors
of each man
___D) Organizing a program, and let them introduce to you individually

472. Which one of the following is the best way of beginning a

constructive criticism of the report your subordinate had prepared for
you?
___A) You will never learn how to write better if you keep this up
___B) You know you can do better work than this
___C) This is pretty good, but I’ll tell you how you can make it better
___D) This is partly right, now take it back and fix it up
___E) It is not the way I would have written it myself, but I’ll sign it
anyway

473. In his individual relationship, the best of the following ways for a
superior officer to secure cooperation from his subordinates and to
increase their work output is…
___A) Ask for their suggestions and act on good ones
___B) Lead them around by the hand, so to speak
___C) Agree enthusiastically with them in all matters
___D) Utilize the tricks of the trade to get around them and get them to
do what you want to them

474. A kind of supervisor who promptly conducts a complete and formal

hearing as soon as a dispute among his subordinates comes to his
attention.
___A) Misguided ___D) Democratic
___B) Paternalistic ___E) One-sided
___C) Tyrannical

475. From among the following, what do you think is the best thing to do
when your superior officer complains to you concerning a serious
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 error on the part of one of your subordinates?
___A) Tell your superior that you sincerely hope it will not happen again
___B) Assure him that you will check on it to prevent a similar mistake
in the future
___C) Accept the complaint and report the subordinate for disciplinary
action
___D) State that you cannot do more than spot check the work of your
subordinates
___E) Advise him that such mistakes are inevitable when emergencies
arise and men are under pressure

476. A certain subordinate always goes by the book and justifies his every
action by reference to the police manual. Your best course of action
is…
___A) Ignore the matter as hopeless
___B) Hold the subordinate responsible for an intelligence observance of
the police manual
___C) Advise the subordinate to use his own judgment regardless of the
manual
___D) Assign and transfer him to research division

477. From among the following, which one is the important justification
for a periodic rotation of the subordinate members of the PNP from
one assignment to another?
___A) Encourage alertness on their part
___B) Discourage requests for transfers from one type of assignment to
another
___C) Make each member equally efficient in all phases of the work
___D) Develop traits initiative and independence

478. Which of the following duties and responsibilities of a superior

officer may best be delegated to one of his subordinates under his
supervision?
___A) Keeping records and making reports
___B) Cooperation with other supervisors and units
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 ___C) Planning and scheduling
___D) Assignment of personnel

479. Which of the following responsibilities that a superior officer should

never delegates to any of his subordinates under his supervision?
___A) Representation of management to the men and the men to the
management
___B) Write up of necessary reports
___C) Supervision over a function for which he is responsible
___D) Development of new procedures which will affect all the men in
his command

CRISIS MANAGEMENT AND DECISION MAKING

480. While regulating traffic at an intersection, you saw a boy fall from a
truck just half a block away. The boy is apparently injured. Now, what
should you do?
___A) Remain on your traffic post but request a passerby to call an
ambulance
___B) Call an ambulance, administer first aid if necessary and make a
report
___C) Call your office, requesting that an ambulance be called and a
patrolman sent to take charge and make a report
___D) Arrest immediately the driver of the truck and order said driver to
bring the boy to the nearest hospital for immediate medical
attention

481. While regulating the traffic at a school crossing during the school
lunch hour, you are notified of a homicide about a block away. What
do you think is the most appropriate action for you to do?
___A) Go to the scene of the crime after notifying the principal of the
school and your office of your absence

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 ___B) Advise your informant to call the police department and remain on
your post
___C) Notify the nearest police precinct and return to the traffic post
immediately
___D) Call an ambulance and request that the police department send an
officer to take charge and report

482. Assume a dead body has been discovered on the street and being the
only police officer around, you have been called upon by a passerby
to proceed to the scene. Upon arriving at the scene, several onlookers
are gathered. As a rule, it is essential that a police officer should
refrain from expressing his opinion as to the probable cause death
because…
___A) The killer may overhear your conclusion
___B) You do not know the cause of death
___C) No useful purpose will be served
___D) Your opinion may influence the investigator assigned to the case

483. A person rushes excitedly up to you and stammers that there is a dead
man on the street. What would be your first action assuming you were
the police officer concerned?
___A) Verify the statement
___B) Ask another police officer to notify the police department
___C) Obtain the informers name and address
___D) Keep onlookers back and see that nothing is disturbed

484. If a police officer hears a gasping cry of “murder” coming from a

residence which there has been no unusual disturbance, he should take
which one of the following actions?
___A) Summon other police officers and when they arrive rush in with
them in a body
___B) Go at one’s himself to the building, enter it cautiously and
investigate
___C) Report what he has heard to headquarters

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 ___D) Summon men from the streets and adjoining buildings and with
them rush in a body

485. A police officer stops a physician, who is hurrying to treat an

emergency case, for a misdemeanor traffic violation. He believes that
the physician should be prosecuted but not arrested. The police officer
should…
___A) Take the physician’s and the patient’s names and addresses and let
the physician continue
___B) Complete a citation by normal procedure, then the physician
continue
___C) Forget the citation as it should not be given under the
circumstances
___D) Follow the physician to the scene of the emergency case and issue
the citation there
___E) Call the persons who summoned the physician and then tell him
there will be a delay

486. A mentally dangerous man has barricade himself in a house with a

number of small children inside. Which one of the following methods
of approach by the officers outside the house would be best under the
circumstances?
___A) To be casual and agreeable in talking to the man in order to calm
him
___B) To rush the house with weapons ready in order to surprise the man
___C) To throw tear gas grenades into the house in order to drive out the
man
___D) To anger the man with insults so that he will get things off his
chest
___E) To reason with man and tell him how wrong he is

487. The police officer reported that he discovered the fire at 2a.m on the
second floor of a four-story building. The smoke in the stairway was
very heavy, so he proceeded immediately to the roof and opened the

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 sky light over the stairway. The police officer’s action in this situation
was…
___A) Wise chiefly because hot gases and smoke were allowed to escape
from the burning before they could do additional damage
___B) Wise chiefly because fresh oxygen flowing through the skyline
probably facilitated subsequent use of the stairway for rescue
operation
___C) Unwise chiefly because the fresh oxygen might have caused the
flames to mushroom quickly through apartment doors
___D) Unwise chiefly because the police officer should have confined
his action to rescue work prior to the arrival of the firemen

488. In general, a member of the PNP will render most efficient service if
he…
___A) Observe unusual things
___B) Stands in inconspicuous places
___C) Is neatly attired
___D) Makes detailed entries in his memorandum notebook

489. The administrator should know that in managing his division he

should avoid…
___A) Delegating necessary authority wherever responsibility has been
assigned
___B) Making subordinate responsible to more than one supervisor
___C) Assigning definite responsibilities to his immediate subordinates
___D) Keeping his employees currently informed about actions taken,
new developments and other matters affecting their works

490. If a superior officer of the police department cannot readily check all
the work done in his office, he should…
___A) Delegate part of his work to a qualified subordinate
___B) Refuse to take additional work
___C) Work overtime until he can personally finish it all
___D) Ask his wife to do some work for him

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491. One of the following tasks of superior officer which can be most
successfully delegated is…
___A) Handling discipline
___B) Checking completed work
___C) Reporting to the division chief
___D) Responsibility for accomplishing the visions mission

492. The delegation of responsibility and authority to subordinate by their

superior generally does not…
___A) Involve a transfer of ultimate responsibility from superior to
subordinate
___B) Facilitate a division of labor or the development of specialization
___C) Permit the superior to carry out programs of work that exceed his
immediate personal limit of physical energy and knowledge
___D) Result in a downward transfer of work both mental and manual

493. As a division chief, you find that one of your new unit heads is
constantly bogged down with detail work. This was not the case with
his predecessors. The work load of the unit has remained the same. Of
the following the most likely reason that this unit head is so
overloaded with his work is that…
___A) Your division has too many unit supervisors
___B) He has failed to delegate some of the work to other members of
his command
___C) This unit has too much detail work assigned to it
___D) He assigns too much important work to his subordinates

494. In police administration, functional allocation involves…

___A) The distribution of a number of subsidiary responsibilities among
all levels of the police department
___B) Decentralization of administrative responsibilities
___C) Integration and the assignment of administrative power
___D) The assignment of the single power to a single administrative
power

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495. Of the following, what do you think is the most helpful action which
may be taken immediately to eliminate frictions between your two
subordinate officials who are in constant conflict in respect to the
authority of one of the unit head to consult certain records in the
office of the other?
___A) Call both concerned parties into a conference and explain the
necessity for cooperation
___B) Define the authority of each unit head
___C) Reprimand both unit heads
___D) Transfer one of them to another office

496. Of the following, a recognized procedure for avoiding conflicts in the

delegation of authority is to…
___A) Use the linear method of assignment
___B) Assign all related work to the same control
___C) Provide a workable span of control
___D) Review all assignments periodically

497. A principle which must be recognized by officers of superior rank is

that the most constructive aspect of leadership are those which are
exercised “face-to-face.” The superior officer who recognizes the
principle will…
___A) Place major responsibility for the execution of duties on the
immediate superior of the men involved
___B) Make certain that members in his command realize that orders are
made upon his authorization
___C) Avoid situations which require direct control of the actions of the
subordinates several ranks below him
___D) Insist that communications from his office to members in his
command be as short and direct as possible
___E) All of the above

498. A recently developed practice in administrations favors reducing the

number of levels of authority in organization, increasing the number
of subordinates reporting to a superior, and also increasing the
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 authority delegated to the subordinates. This practice would most
likely result in…
___A) An increase in detailed information that flows to a superior from
each subordinates
___B) An increase in the span of control exercised by superiors
___C) A decrease in the number of functions performed by the
organization
___D) A decrease in the responsibility exercised by the subordinates

499. To delegate work is one of the main functions of the superior. In

delegating work, the superior should remember that even though and
assignment is delegated to the subordinate, the superior ultimately is
responsible for seeing that the work is done. The most valid
implication of this quotation for a superior is that he should…
___A) Check the progress of delegated assignments periodically to make
certain that the work is being done properly
___B) Delegate as few difficult tasks as possible so as to minimize the
consequences of inadequate performance by his subordinates
___C) Delegate to his subordinates those tasks which he considers
difficult or time consuming
___D) Assign work to a subordinate without holding him directly
accountable for carrying it out

POLICE ADMINISTRATION

500. A personal conference is generally more desirable procedure for a

reprimanding a policeman than a public reprimand, chiefly because
a…
___A) Public reprimand may impair the moral of individual
___B) Public reprimand is more suitable for a group of two or three than
a single individual
___C) Private reprimand makes a better impression on the individual
___D) Private reprimand can be accomplished more quickly and saves

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 the time of both the officer and his subordinates

501. The justification for encouraging a police officer to ask questions

about the performance of his duties is that…
___A) Learning by doing is an effective training principle
___B) Confusion on even minor points may have serious consequence
___C) The question and answer method is especially efficient when a
large number of policemen must be trained
___D) The policeman who asks questions demonstrate a lack of general
orientation to the job

502. Assume that, as an officer, you are giving a subordinate under your
supervision instructions to perform a rather complex assignment. Of
the following, the best of the following in order to insure that he
understands the instructions adequately is to…
___A) Question him briefly concerning the chief aspects of the
assignments
___B) Have repeat the instructions word for word
___C) Invite him to ask questions if he has any doubt
___D) Be certain to check his performance as soon as he has completed
the job

503. Which one of the following trait or ability most essential to a police
officer?
___A) Very high intelligence
___B) A high standard of personal honesty
___C) Physical stamina and bearing
___D) Absence of physical fear

504. Suppose that, as an officer, you observe that a newly appointed

policeman under your supervision appears to be performing a specific
assignment improperly. Which one of the following is the best reason
for asking him to repeat the instruction he received?
___A) It is often easier to review instructions than to repeat them
___B) Instructions are sometimes misunderstood even by competent
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 subordinates
___C) Inefficiency on the part of the uniformed force may have serious
consequences
___D) The policeman obviously deserves a reprimand

505. Of the following, which one is the most desirable procedure for a
police officer to follow in order to keep policemen on their toes?
___A) Test their knowledge and alertness frequently
___B) Encourage initiative by delegating responsibility to the best
policemen
___C) Apply disciplinary measures for the violation of department rules
and regulations impartially
___D) To employ your “private eye and ear”

506. A competent officer will be friendly with the men under his
supervision but will avoid close familiarity of the following the best
justification for the statement is that…
___A) Familiarity with the men may reveal lack of competence on the
part of the officer
___B) Familiarity between an officer and a policeman creates an
appearance of special privilege
___C) An officer can deal more competently with his men when he is not
aware of their personal problems
___D) A friendly attitude on the part of the officer towards his men is
likely to create suspicion on the part of the other subordinates

507. From among the following, one is the chief justification why the
competent superior officer will attempt to develop respect from, rather
than fear on the part of the men under his supervision.
___A) Men who respect a supervisor are likely to give more than the
minimum required performance
___B) Respect is based on the individual and fear is based on the
organization as a whole
___C) Respect of superiors is a general incentives whereas fear is a
specific incentive
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 ___D) Experience has demonstrated that negative incentives are more
effective than positive incentives

508. Suppose that your subordinate disagrees with the procedure you have
prepared and outlined for him to follow is carrying out a certain
assignment. Of the following, what is the most desirable for you to tell
this subordinate?
___A) That in police organization, like in military, orders must be carried
out or discipline will be impaired
___B) You will evaluate his objections to the procedure you have
prepared and outlined
___C) Said outlined has been used successfully for many years in the
past
___D) You are merely carrying out the orders of your own superior

509. One of the following would probably contribute most to obtaining the
maximum cooperation of subordinates in carrying out a change in a
long established procedure.
___A) Hold staff conference to explain and discuss the changed
procedures prior to its adoption
___B) Make provision for abandoning the new procedure if it is not
accepted by the majority of the staff
___C) Give several weeks advance notice of the proposed change in
procedure
___D) Refrain from enforcing absolute compliance with the new
procedure at the very beginning

510. When subordinates never make complaints to their superior officer,

this means that the latter is probably not...
___A) Devoting sufficient time to checking up on the men
___B) Fault finder
___C) Sufficiently approachable
___D) Pushing the men sufficiently to achieve maximum work output

511. Your superior officer, discussing regulations with his subordinates,

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 commented that, “We ought to recognize that our interests are mutual
and that by working together, we can achieve our common objective.”
This approach is…
___A) Good; it recognizedthe status of the individual and avoids
favoritism
___B) Good; this attitude will promote cooperation between members
and officer
___C) Poor; on appealing in this way to the men, the officer is inviting
too much familiarity
___D) Poor; such an approach invites excessive criticism and bickering

512. Based on experience, an officer who demonstrates most serious lack

of leadership qualities is the one who…
___A) Rarely delegates authority to his subordinates
___B) Rarely asks others to do what he himself is unwilling to do
___C) Frequently praises subordinates in the presence of others
___D) Consciously tries to set an example for the men
___E) Allow the men to hold group meetings to discuss their work

513. One of the following is the best justification for having the limits of
authority and responsibility in an organization like the police
department.
___A) Responsibility is the most properly mutual and interrelated
___B) Overlapping authority will probably lead to conflicts
___C) Some officers may be more competent than others
___D) Every organization will probably benefit by exchange of
viewpoints at parallel levels of authority

514. From among the following procedures, one is most likely to lead to
accomplishing aim for a superior officer to make certain that all
required work is completed on time.
___A) Schedule the work and keep track of its progress
___B) Require every subordinate to submit a daily work report
___C) Hold each subordinate responsible for the work assigned to him

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 ___D) Impress your subordinates with the importance of getting work
done on time

515. As an officer, what is important for you to do in regard to your

relations with the men in your command?
___A) Delegate your responsibility to them who will ultimately perform
the work
___B) Recognize that you have your own likes and dislikes and to
compensate for them, that is, you must not allow your likes and
dislikes to influence your actions
___C) Avoid having likes and dislikes
___D) Restrict your relations with the men to official business

516. As a Senior Officer who wants to have an effective leader of those

men in your command, you must…
___A) Delegate to each personal under you an equal amount of
responsibility
___B) Outline repeatedly and in great detail the work to be performed by
each member of the command
___C) Develop the asset of your men and encourage them to work for the
good of the organization as a whole
___D) Utilize whatever motives for work you are able to discern in the
men working under your command

517. Command responsibility means…

___A) Each subordinate is responsible for his own act
___B) The chief Executive alone is not responsible for all the acts of his
subordinates
___C) Each superior officer is held responsible for the acts of his
subordinates
___D) Discretionary authority should not be delegated

518. The primary aim of discipline is to…

___A) Prevent the occurrence of more serious offense
___B) Help train the man involved
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 ___C) Punish the offender
___D) Carry out the rules of the Department

519. Responsibility for developing plans for specific areas should in

general be left to the local officers in the area who will be called upon
to meet the emergency in the event it occurs rather than the officers in
the central office. In effect such planning policy is…
___A) Less effective; plans developed will not benefit from the
experience of the whole department
___B) More effective; there will be fewer misinterpretations execution
and there will be a greater will to succeed
___C) More effective; the officers in the local area are better equipped
technically to set up valid plans than any central agency
___D) Less effective; a central office can obtain the outstanding men in
the department to plan each operation

520. Data and events relating to the detailed operations to the different
units in the Police Department should be collated and periodically
summarized and analyzed. The primary reason for this from the view
point of the Department Chief is to…
___A) Locate those operations which are unusually efficient or
inefficient
___B) Determine how much work the Department as a whole is doing
___C) Compare the amount of word done by different kinds of units
___D) Point out which men are most efficient

521. The morale of policemen is probably most closely dependent on the…

___A) Situation existing at emergencies
___B) Day-today working conditions and personal relations
___C) Abilities of the superior officers
___D) Tightness of discipline in the Department

522. A police officer may find that it is sometimes more effective to warn a
subordinate than to institute action for more severe punishment. The
most valid reason for this is that…
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 ___A) The warning may produce a more cooperative attitude
___B) The punishment is often inappropriate
___C) Warnings always create a greater impression than punishment
___D) Punishment is never a deterrent

523. Although human relations have large significance in the job of the
police officer in the Police Department, it is not necessarily true that
the…
___A) Officer is part of the management of the Police Department
___B) Ability to get along is the sole stock in trade of the Officer
___C) Officer must be a leader in order to do his job well
___D) Officer must be able to tell his men how to do their jobs in the
right way

524. Subordinates do not object to strict regulations if they…

___A) Are enforced without basis and favor
___B) Apply only to minor phases of the work
___C) Result in improved departmental procedures
___D) Believe the officer approves the regulation

525. A person attempts to conceal his inadequacies in certain activities by

over indulging in some other activity because…
___A) He is compensating for his inadequacies
___B) He has a delusion that he is inadequate in some activities
___C) He is projecting the pleasure he finds in the former activities to the
latter
___D) He is trying to develop skills in the former activities by indulging
in the latter

526. Assume that you are the Police Officer who learns that one of your
best men wishes to transfer to another kind of work. Of the following,
what is the most appropriate action for you to take?
___A) Discuss with the man the advantages of the kind of work he is
interested in
___B) Find out if any personal problems have arisen that make a transfer
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 desirable
___C) Help the man locate another job with another unit of the
Department
___D) Ask the other man in your unit if anything is wrong with the
present working conditions

527. These tasks of management which are directed towards the effective
accomplishment of both the operations or primary functions, and the
auxiliary or service functions. Otherwise stated, it is the policy
making body of any organization.
___A) Management ___C) Auxiliary Services
___B) Administration ___D) Chain of Command

528. It is otherwise the implementing arm of the administration of any

organization.
___A) Management ___C) Auxiliary Services
___B) Administration ___D) Chain of Command

529. It aids the operating or line officers in the performance of their duties
in any organization.
___A) Management ___C) Channel of Control
___B) Administration ___D)Auxiliary Services

530. This supports the principle of unity of command and keeps all
intermediate superior officers informed, but it is time consuming,
sometimes disastrously so in large organization.
___A) Chain of Command ___C) Channel of Control
___B)Auxiliary Services ___D)Channel of Contract

531. The channels of authority are established from top to the bottom of the
chain. Through this chain, communications are transmitted, either
starting or ending at the top executive.
___A) Channel of Control ___C)Chain of Command
___B)Channel of Contract ___D) Charts of Accomplishment

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532. This is much simpler and quicker to go directly from one channel to
another without having to clear through the top of the pyramid.
___A) Channel of Control ___C)Charts of Accomplishment
___B)Chain of Command ___D) Chronological Distribution

533. It is a graphic picture showing the workings and accomplishments of

the department as a whole organization.
___A) Chronological Distribution
___B)Charts of Accomplishment
___C) Color of Authority
___D) Communicating (Basic Methods)

534. A supervisor needs to choose that method which will best accomplish
his purposes, best meet the need of employees and the objectives of
the organization. He must be realistic and practical.
___A)Communicating (Basic Methods)
___B) Communication (Downward)
___C) Color of Authority
___D)Communication (Internal)

535. It is an apparent prima facie right of authority. The presumption of

authority which justifies the actions of an officer which derived from
a badge, certificate, or writ, which is apparently legal.
___A)Color of Authority ___C) Delegated Authority
___B) De Facto Authority ___D) Deputized Authority

536. A form of communication keeping employees informed. A man

cannot do his best work unless he knows why he is doing it.
___A) Communication (Internal)
___B) Communication (Downward)
___C) Color of Authority
___D)Communication (Upward)

537. It is one whereby all members of a police organization are informed as

to the primary police objectives and the understanding of the day-to-
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 day problems and accomplishments.
___A) Communication (Internal)
___B)Communication (Upward)
___C) Complaint Desk
___D) Complaint Records

538. The needs of management to draw up to it the ideas, suggestions and

knowledge of subordinates through the organization. And it may be
accomplished through personal discussion, conferences, committees,
memoranda, employee suggestions plans, etc.
___A) Communication (Internal)
___B) Communication (Upward)
___C) Control Methods
___D) Complaint Desk

539. The central or focal point of a police department at which complaints

are stated and recorded.
___A) Complaint Records ___C) Complaint Desk
___B) Complaint Sheet ___D) Communication (Upward)

540. It is a form with spaces for recording an incident and action taken by
the department. It is otherwise, the basic record of offenses.
___A) Complaint Records ___C) Complaint Sheet
___B)Control Methods ___D) Crime Index

541. It is one where cases reported to the police are classified by the nature
of the complaint or case. So long as the nature of the complaint is
recorded, it is relatively easy matter to locate a case even if the name
and date have been their forgotten or misplaced.
___A) Complaint Sheet ___C)Crime Index
___B) Police Blotter ___D) Crime Statistics

542. A reported instance of a crime recorded in a systematic classification.

The field agent is the patrolman, detective or investigator or civilian
who makes a report of the crime.
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 ___A)Crime Index ___C)Crime Statistics
___B) Complaint Sheet ___D)Police Blotter

543. Which means the distribution of authority and responsibility from top
management to lower intermediate officers or levels?
___A) Delegation of authority ___C) Decentralization
___B) Desired level of ___D) Centralization of Command
Achievement

544. It is one where there is the appointment of a person to act for another
or others. It is done in a form of downward authority; whereas, the
responsibility flows upward.
___A) Delegation of authority ___C) De Facto Authority
___B) Decentralization ___D) De Jury Authority

545. This must be done in proportion to the frequency and seriousness of

the police hazards-incidents or conditions which are conducive to
crime, traffic accidents, etc.
___A) Distribution of Patrol Force
___B) Division of Work
___C) Duty Manual
___D) Enforcement Index

546. The work of an organization must be divided in such a way that

similar functions will be grouped together and dissimilar functions
separated.
___A) Division of Work ___C) Duty Manual
___B) Division of Function ___D) Enforcement Index

547. An authoritative guide to the department’s organization, which

describes producers and duties of officers assigned to particular tasks.
___A) Division of Work ___C)Enforcement Index
___B) Division of Function ___D)Duty Manual

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 POLICE INTELLIGENCE

548. A Chinese Philosopher who once said: “If you know your enemy and
know yourself, you need not fear the result of a hundred battles. If you
know yourself but not the enemy, for every victory, you will suffer a
defeat. If you know neither yourself nor the enemy, you are a fool
who will meet defeat in every battle.”
___A) Confucius ___C) Chiang Kai-shek
___B) Sun Tzu ___D) Chu In Lai

549. May be defined as the product resulting from the collecting

information concerning an actual and potential situation and condition
relating to foreign activities and to foreign or enemy held areas.
___A) Interrogation ___C) Information
___B) Intelligence ___D) Investigation

550. It is defined as an evaluated and interpreted information concerning

organized crime and other major police problems.
___A) Military Intelligence ___C) Military Information
___B) Police Intelligence ___D) Police Investigation

551. It is the combination of two or more persons for the purpose of

establishing terror or corruption in the city/community or section of,
either a monopoly, or virtual monopoly or criminal activity in a field
that provides a continuing financial profit.
___A) Organized Crime ___C) Criminal Syndicate
___B) Criminal World ___D) Mafia

552. The social organization of criminals, having its own social classes
from the hobo to the moneyed gangster or racketeers.
___A) Criminal World ___C) Mafia
___B) Organized Crime ___D)Criminal Syndicate

553. It is a stable business with violence applied and directed at

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 unwelcome competitors.
___A) Mafia ___C) Criminal World
___B) Criminal Syndicate ___D) Organized Crime

554. A form of intelligence which concerns with the various types of

confidential information that filter into the possession of police, and
the techniques employed in developing these lines of information.
___A) Counter Intelligence ___C) Departmental Intelligence
___B) Undercover Intelligence ___D) Strategic Intelligence

555. Which a Police Administrator must rely as one of the most

indispensable tools of management; it is derived from organized
information available in the police records division which is
concerned with the nature, size and distribution of the police problems
of crime, vice and traffic.
___A) Strategic Intelligence ___C) Counter Intelligence
___B)Departmental Intelligence ___D)Undercover Intelligence

556. Intelligence which is primarily long-range in nature with little or no

immediate practical value.
___A) Departmental Intelligence ___C)Undercover Intelligence
___B)Strategic Intelligence ___D)Counter Intelligence

557. The type of intelligence activity which deals with defending of the
organization against its criminal enemies.
___A) Counter Intelligence ___C)Strategic Intelligence
___B) Military Intelligence ___D)Military Intelligence

558. It is an evaluated and interpreted information concerning an actual or

possible enemy or theatre of operations, including weather and terrain
together with the conclusions drawn therefrom.
___A) Line Intelligence ___C) Strategic Intelligence
___B) Military Intelligence ___D) Covert Operation

559. The type of intelligence which is of immediate nature and necessary

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 more effective police planning and operations.
___A) Line Intelligence ___C) Police Intelligence
___B) Military Intelligence ___D) Covert Operation

560. If the information or documents are procured openly without regard as

to whether the subject of the investigation becomes knowledgeable of
the purpose or purposes from which it is being gathered.
___A) Overt Operation ___C) Evaluation
___B) Covert Operation ___D) Interpretation

561. If the information is obtained without the knowledge of the person

against whom the information of documents may be used, or if the
method of procurement is done not in an open manner.
___A) Overt Operation ___C) Evaluation
___B) Covert Operation ___D) Interpretation

562. It is a critical appraisal of information as a basis for its subsequent

interpretation, which includes determining the pertinence of
information, the reliability of the source and agency through which
the information was derived and its accuracy.
___A) Interpretation ___C) Tasks
___B) Evaluation ___D) Operations

563. Determines the significance of the information with respect to what is

already known, and it draws conclusions as to the probable meaning
of the evaluated information; it is the result of critical judgment
involving analysis, integration and forming of conclusions.
___A) Evaluation ___C) Tasks
___B)Interpretation ___D) Operations

564. Is the proper, economical, and most productive use of personnel,

resources and equipment employed and/or utilized in planning the
collection of information and dissemination of intelligence.
___A) Cardinal Principle of Intelligence
___B) Economic Intelligence
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 ___C) Assets and Liability Intelligence
___D) Income and Expenditure Intelligence

PLANS AND OPERATIONS

565. In a very simple sense, it is deciding in advance on what is to be done

and how it is to be accomplished; it is in essence, preparations for
action.
___A) Operations ___C) Management
___B) Planning ___D) Administration

566. Shall be planned ti guide members in routine and field operations and
in some special operations in accordance with some procedures.
___A) Operational Plans
___B) Standard Operating Procedure
___C) Planning
___D) Characteristics of Plans

567. Of the following standard operating procedures, one which is intended

to be used in all situations of all kinds, and shall be outlines as a guide
to officers and men in the field.
___A) Headquarters Procedures
___B) Field Procedures
___C) Special Operating Procedures
___D) Characteristics of Plan

568. Of the following standard operating procedures, one which is included

in these procedures are the duties and dispatcher, jailer, matron, and
other personnel concerned which may be reflected in the duty manual.
___A) Headquarters Procedures
___B) Field Procedures
___C) Special Operating Procedures
___D) Operational Plans

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569. Of the following standard operating procedures, one which is included
are the operations of the special unit charged with the searching and
preservation of physical evidence at the crime scenes and accidents,
the control of licenses, dissemination of information about wanted
persons, and the like.
___A) Special Operating Procedures
___B)Headquarters Procedures
___C)Field Procedures
___D) Operational Plans

570. Of the following type of plans, one is considered as plans for the
operations of special divisions like patrol, traffic, vice, and juvenile
delinquency control.
___A) Policies and Procedures ___C) Tactical Plans
___B) Operational Plans ___D) Extra-Office Plans

571. Of the following types of plans, one is as those procedures for coping
with specific situations at known locations, such plans for dealing
with an attack against buildings with alarm systems and an attack
against Headquarters of the PNP.
___A) Tactical Plans ___C) Management Plans
___B) Extra-Office Plans ___D)Operational Plans

572. Of the following types of plans, one which deals with the active
participation of individual citizens is so vital to the success of the
Philippine National Police; to continue to motivate, promote, and
maintain an active concern in its affairs.
___A) Management Plans ___C)Operational Plans
___B) Extra-Office Plans ___D) Characteristics of Plans

573. Of the following types of plans, one which includes the mapping out
in advance all operations involved in the organization, management of
personnel and material and in the procurement and disbursement of
money, etc.
___A) Management Plans ___C) Operational Plans
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 ___B) Extra-Office Plans ___D) Characteristics of Plans

574. Of the following steps in planning, one is based on a careful view of

the matters relating to the situation for which plans are being
developed; such as ideas or opinions of persons who may speak with
authority on the subject, and views of the superior officer, other
government officials, and other professionals shall be considered.
___A) Frame of Reference ___C) Collecting All Pertinent Facts
___B) Clarifying the Problems ___D) Analyzing the Facts

575. Of the following steps in planning, one calls for identification of the
problem, understanding both records and its possible solution;
situation must exist for which something must and can be done.
___A) Collecting All Pertinent Facts
___B) Clarifying the Problems
___C)Analyzing the Facts
___D) Developing Alternative Plans

576. Of the following steps in planning, one which states that no attempt
shall be made to develop a plan until all facts relating to it have been
gathered.
___A) Collecting All Pertinent Facts
___B)Analyzing the Facts
___C)Developing Alternative Plans
___D) Selecting the Most Appropriate Alternative

577. Of the following steps in planning, one which after all the data have
been gathered, a careful study and evaluation shall be made; this
provides the basis from which a plan or plans are evolved.
___A) Developing Alternative Plans
___B) Analyzing the Facts
___C)Selecting the Most Appropriate Alternative
___D) Selling the Plan

578. Of the steps in planning, in which the initial phases of plan

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 development, several alternative measures shall appear to be logically
comparable to the needs of a situation.
___A) Developing Alternative Plans
___B) Analyzing the Facts
___C) Selling the Most Appropriate Alternative
___D)Selecting the Most Appropriate Alternative

579. One of the steps in planning, which a careful consideration of all facts
usually leads to the selection of the best alternative proposals.
___A) Analyzing the Facts
___B)Selecting the Most Appropriate Alternative
___C)Selling the Plan
___D) Arranging for the Execution of the Plan

580. One step in planning, which a plan to be effectively carried out, must
be accepted by persons concerned at the appropriate level of the plans
development.
___A) Selecting the Most Appropriate Alternative
___B)Selling the Plan
___C)Arranging for the Execution of the Plan
___D) Evaluating the Effectiveness of the Plan

581. One step in planning, such that the execution of a plan requires the
issuance of orders and directives to units and personnel concerned, the
establishment of a schedule, and the provision of manpower and
equipment for carrying out the plan.
___A) Selling the Plan
___B)Arranging for the Execution of the Plan
___C)Evaluating the Effectiveness of the Plan
___D)Selecting the Most Appropriate Alternative

582. One step in planning, that such is necessary in order to know whether
a correct alternative was chose, whether or not the plan is correct,
which phase was poorly implemented, and whether additional
planning may be necessary.
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 ___A) Evaluating the Effectiveness of the Plan
___B) Arranging for the Execution of the Plan
___C)Selecting the Most Appropriate Alternative
___D)Selling the Plan

583. This activity requires the duty of a superior officer of any unit of the
Philippine National Police and its unit subordinates to establish
rapport of good relationship with other law enforcement agencies of
the government.
___A) Police Executive Training
___B) Coordinates and Cooperation
___C) Business-like Activity
___D) Socialization

584. Shall accomplish the primary responsibility of safeguarding the

community through protection of persons and property, the
suppression of criminal activities, the apprehension of criminals, the
enforcement of laws and ordinances and regulations of conduct, and
performing necessary services and inspections.
___A) Traffic Division
___B) Patrol Force
___C) Theft and Robbery Division
___D) Juvenile Delinquency Control Division

585. In its basic function is to investigate certain designated crimes against

property and clear them by recovery of stolen property and arrest and
conviction of the offenders.
___A) Theft and Robbery Division
___B) Patrol Force
___C)Traffic Division
___D) Juvenile Delinquency Control Division

586. It shall facilitate the safe and rapid movement of vehicles and
pedestrians; to this end, the inconvenience, dangers and economic

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 losses that arise from this movement, congestion, delays, stopping and
parking of vehicles must be lessened.
___A) Juvenile Delinquency Control Division
___B)Traffic Division
___C) Vice Control Division
___D) Theft and Robbery Division

587. Its operation shall be based on law rather than moral concepts;
constant raids of known vice dens shall be undertaken, and it shall do
to any violation, exert all efforts to eliminate them.
___A) Vice Control Division
___B)Juvenile Delinquency Control Division
___C)Theft and Robbery Division
___D)Traffic Division

588. The nature of its task shall be determined by the field activity given
the greatest emphasis, and this influenced by the needs of the
community; effective crime control necessitates preventing the
development of individuals as criminals.
___A) Vice Control Division
___B) Juvenile Delinquency Control Division
___C) Theft and Robbery Division
___D) Traffic Division

589. Police operation is a continuing activity, and therefore, it must be

based on valid and practical plans that are constantly made current.
Every operation completed shall be followed by a critique and
rendition of an after-operation report shall be…
___A) Coordinated ___C) Analyzed
___B) Properly evaluated ___D) Reviewed

590. The police officer must inform the person to be arrested of his
authority and the cause of his arrest except when the…
___A) Officer is in uniform so that he is authorized
___B) Person is arrested in the actual commission of crime
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 ___C) Person arrested is a habitual offender
___D) All of the above

591. When frisking a suspect, it is considered most important that the

police officer keep his eyes on the…
___A) Suspect’s head ___C) Suspect’s hands
___B) Suspect’s accomplices ___D) People’s standing nearby

592. It is recommended police procedure that for safest results, a lone

police officer should never attempt to frisk more than…
___A) Four individuals ___C) Three individuals
___B) Two individuals ___D) One individual

593. You positively recognize a man on a busy street as one wanted for
falsification of public documents. Which one of the following is the
most appropriate for you to take?
___A) Approach, then arrest the man
___B) Follow the man and summon a civilian to assist you in arresting
said man
___C) Follow the man until he stops long enough for you to summon
assistance from the headquarters
___D) Follow a man until a place is reached where there are few people,
then take out his gun, if any, and arrest him

594. Whenever an arrest is made upon a court want, the arrested person
must be immediately…
___A) Inform his three constitutional rights
___B) Bring him to the appropriate court who issued the warrant
___C) Interrogate him for the purpose of gathering information about his
criminal associates
___D) Bring him to Surety Company to secure and file a bond

595. A Police Officer may arrest without warrant if…

___A) A crime is committed in his presence
___B) A woman complains of a crime committed against her chastity
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 ___C) A man’s wife complains of womanizing of her husband
___D) A man to be arrested is the Mayor’s political enemy

596. In most cases, a policeman who arrests a female will cause her to be
searched by a policewoman. An exception to this, when the policeman
may search the female by himself, is when the arrestee…
___A) Is a prostitute
___B) Is believed to have armed with a weapon
___C) Is a T-bird
___D) Is married

597. If a police officer feels sympathetic toward a violator, it should not

deter an arrest because…
___A) Criminal should receive no consideration
___B) Arrest goals must be maintained
___C) The police officer must be objective in his work
___D) Police officers are expected to be devoid of personal feeling

598. A policewoman on plainclothes duty in a downtown department store,

observes a young woman taking some merchandise and hide it in her
underwear garments. Probably the best procedure for the
policewoman to follow would be to…
___A) Arrest the young woman on the spot
___B) Ask other customers to act as witnesses to the activity
___C) Follow her out of the department store and question her
___D) Call the attention of the house detectives

599. When officers of the two-man Patrol Car stop another vehicle for a
routine field interrogation, one officer approached the driver to talk to
him. To other officer should…
___A) Walk slowly about the other car looking for evidence of law
violations
___B) Take position at the right rear of the other vehicle
___C) Remain in the Patrol Car to listen for radio calls for his unit

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 ___D) Accompany his partner to the other car, but remain about two feet
in the back of him

LAW ENFORCEMENT AND CRIME

600. The most effective method of crime prevention is believed by

authorities in the field generally to be…
___A) Eradication of the causes of crime
___B) More severe punishment of offenders
___C) Decriminalization
___D) People’s moral generation

601. Law enforcement and Public Safety Officials attribute the recent high
crime rate to…
___A) Laxity in the administration of Criminal Justice System
___B) Lack of adequately trained policemen
___C) Decline in moral stamina on a national scale
___D) Existence of “Law of the Jungle”

602. The one of the following characteristics most susceptible to

modification by a change of social environment is…
___A) Intelligence ___C) Climatic condition
___B) Taste in music ___D) Mental deficiency

603. From the police point of view probably the best argument against the
abolition of death penalty is that…
___A) Police tasks are becoming burdensome
___B) Criminal offenders are encouraged to commit serious offenses
___C) More criminals are being feed by the government
___D) Religious organizations are interfering with the police task

604. Lombrosian theory holds that…

___A) All criminals are mentally defective at the commission of crime

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 ___B) Few criminals have demonstrable abnormality
___C) Criminals constitute a distinct physical stomata
___D) None criminals are handsome

605. A person that derives pleasure from self-punishment or torture by a

person of opposite sex referred to as…
___A) Masochist ___D) Hedonist
___B) Macho ___E) Exhibitionist
___C) Sadist

606. In a family of two children, one becomes delinquent and the other
does not. The delinquent child most likely was the one who…
___A) Was given discipline
___B) Had greater emotional tensions
___C) Had higher intelligence
___D) Was the first born child

607. Girls and women habitually guilty of sexual immorality are most
likely to be…
___A) Mentally inferior ___C) Mentally normal
___B) Sexually attractive ___D) Mentally superior

608. Of the following types of criminal, the one most like to work in a
gang is…
___A) Vagrant ___C) Robber
___B) Pickpocket ___D) Swindler

609. From the view point of crime prevention themust vulnerable children
among those exposed to crime are those…
___A) Whose parents have low standards of living and morality
___B) Whose parents are both working
___C) Who are habitual truants from school
___D) Whose parents are liberally minded

610. From the viewpoint of law enforcement and public safety, the
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 repression of crime is chiefly dependent upon the continuous and
intensive maintenance of…
___A) Socialization with community leaders
___B) Patrols
___C) More arrest
___D) Correctional institutions

611. The most difficult to solve of the following types of forgery cases is…
___A) Forgery of endorsement on lost or stolen checks
___B) The signing of the name of some living persons with intent to
defraud
___C) Forgery of fictitious name on stolen bank blank checks of an
established concern
___D) Writing a personal check on a bank with the knowledge that no
account is there

612. In crime prevention work, the most effective long range method of
combating harmful influences in a community is to…
___A) Educate the public
___B) Police socialization with community leaders
___C) More police budget
___D) Enlarge the police force

613. Other factors being equal, the best available means at present of
determining the general effectiveness of the police in dealing with
crime is…
___A) The accident rate ___C) Modus Operandi File
___B) The crime rate ___D) Crime statistics

614. The most effective institution for control of juvenile delinquency is…
___A) The Church
___B) The Home
___C) Juvenile Delinquency Control of the Police
___D) The Church

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615. The relationship between social mores and laws is best expressed by
which of the following statements?
___A) When mores are inadequate, laws are unnecessary
___B) When mores are adequate, laws are unnecessary
___C) When laws are adequate, mores are disregarded
___D) When mores are adequate, laws are ineffective

616. Crime statistics, even when gathered in a scrupulous honest manner

and with all due diligence, are often unsatisfactory mainly because…
___A) Incomplete reporting at the level of arrest
___B) The number of crimes that go unreported
___C) The lack of appropriate statistical formulas
___D) Absence of coordination from among police units

617. It has been suggested that a good measure of the efficiency of a police
department is the number of crimes committed per 1,000 of
population. Of the following, the chief limitation of this suggested
index of police efficiency is that…
___A) Police department in areas which have high rate of crime
incidence may prevent a large number of crimes
___B) The more efficient the police department, the smaller the number
of crimes committed in that area is likely to be
___C) Areas in which crime is rampant may have a lower index of crime
incidence that areas in which there is little crime
___D) The size of the total population in an area should be related to the
number of crimes committed

TRAFFIC AND ACCIDENT INVESTIGATION

618. Vehicle speed as calculated from skid marks is usually best taken as
an indication of…
___A) Average speed during the skid
___B) Minimum speed at the start of the skid

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 ___C) Maximum speed at the end of the skid
___D) Minimum speed at the end of the skid

619. The minimum safe travelling distance between two vehicles travelling
40 mph is…
___A) Four car lengths ___C) Six car lengths
___B) Two car lengths ___D) Three car lengths

620. The main reason why both traffic officers and signal lights are used on
some intersections is that…
___A) Traffic can be kept moving at a faster rate
___B) Greater safety to pedestrians and motorists is effected
___C) As officer can stop and start traffic is necessity demands
___D) Motorists are discouraged from “jumping signals”

621. From the stand point of the police administrator, of the following, the
most advantage of two-wheel motorcycles for traffic work is generally
the…
___A) Objections of the motorists
___B) Limited equipment the can carry
___C) Hazard to the operator
___D) Maintenance expenses

622. A number of traffic regulations revolve around the question of right of

way. For practical purposes, one of the following is the best definition
of the term Right of Way…
___A) The personal right to move from one place to another
___B) The privilege of the immediately use as a particular section of the
highway
___C) A way or place open to the motorists and pedestrians
___D) The right of a vehicle to occupy a space which at the time is
occupied by another vehicle

623. Within the human element which is at fault in a large majority of

vehicular accidents, the most important defect is generally attributed
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 to…
___A) Attitudinal ___C) Perceptual
___C) Intellectual ___D) Decision

624. The effectiveness of a traffic law enforcement program is best

measure by…
___A) A reduction of traffic accidents and delays
___B) An increase in traffic enforcement actions
___C) A decreases in the ration to enforcement actions
___D) Smooth flow of the traffic

625. An officer has stopped a traffic offender. As an initial remark the

officer says, “Do you know why I stopped you?” This remark is
undesirable under these conditions mainly because…
___A) It could be used as evidence in a false arrest action
___B) It invites a denial and subsequent loss of face by the offender
___C) It is a leading question
___D) It is a password for corruption

626. Where two or more emergency vehicles, operating as such, approach

the same intersection from different directions, creating a probability
conflict an officer directing traffic at the intersection must give
preference to or and cause the others to yield the right way. Of the
following, the type of vehicle which should generally be given
preference over any of the other is the…
___A) Ambulance ___C) Fire truck
___B) Police car ___D) Wrecker

627. A unit is assigned to traffic patrol, and is given no special instructions

as manner of patrol. During a period when traffic is heavy, the unit
who not engaged in taking action against a specific violator is
expected to…
___A) Park in a position readily visible to the motorists
___B) Maintain “visible patrol” continuously

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 ___C) Use its own discretion as to what manner of patrol will yield best
results under the circumstances
___D) Keep off the most congested routes but in a position where it can
observe violations effectively

628. In testing a suspected intoxicated driver, which one of the following

tests should be given last?
___A) Handwriting ___C) Pupils of eyes
___B) Balance ___D) Walking and turning

629. Which one of the following approved in issuing a citation to a traffic

violator, where the violator remains seated at the driver’s wheel of his
vehicle throughout the entire process?
___A) Stand on the curb alongside the police vehicle when actually
writing the citation
___B) Place foot or hand on the vehicles as means of reducing an
awkward differential in height between officer and violator
___C) Ask the violator if he realizes why he was stopped
___D) Immediately after stating the violation, explain the accident hazard
involves in it

630. A certain intersection, for several reasons, has more traffic accidents
than any other in the area. The police unit assigned to the area
should…
___A) Park near the intersection, in plain view, and wait for violators
___B) Cruise all the assigned area but give extra attention to the
intersection
___C) Park near the intersection, more or less, hidden from view
___D) Park your motorcycle at the center of intersection to caution
motorists

631. A traffic police officer stationed along the route of a parade has been
ordered by his superior to allow no cars to cross the route. While the
parade is in progress, an ambulance driver on an emergency run
attempts to drive his ambulance across the route while the parade is
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 passing. Under these circumstances the traffic police officer should…
___A) Stop the parade long enough to permit the ambulance to cross the
street
___B) Direct the ambulance driver to the shortest detour which will add
at least ten minutes to run
___C) Hold up the ambulance in accordance with the superior’s order
___D) Ask the driver to wait until the traffic police officer contacts his
superior and obtains a decision

632. A general principle of traffic accident investigation is to…

___A) Look for the “key event” that caused the accident and investigate
any two-car collision as if it were two accidents, each with its own
causes
___B) Regard any unfavorable factor, existing immediately prior to the
accident, as a cause
___C) Consider violations as primary causes and any other factors as
secondary causes
___D) Consider road conditions as limiting conditions rather than as
causes

633. The basic principle behind selective enforcement in traffic control

is…
___A) Selection of geographic areas for strict enforcement
___B) Direction of enforcement activities to those points greatest traffic
danger
___C) Concentration of enforcement activities as peak traffic hours
___D) A warning rather than a citation will act as a preventive for future
violation

634. It would be most correct to state that a very thorough investigation of

traffic accidents, which would probably include technical
measurements and procedures, should be undertaken…
___A) Principally for the purpose of obtaining evidence for court
presentation

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 ___B) For all traffic accidents regardless of the extent of personal of
property damage
___C) Only when a person is killed in an accident or dies as a result of
injuries received in the accident
___D) All of the above

635. The responsibility for developing a traffic program rests primarily

with…
___A) Headquarters of the Police Department
___B) The top level of Police Traffic Management
___C) City Mayor’s Office
___D) All of the foregoing

636. The most effective way to reduce to number of traffic accidents is

to…
___A) Arrest and prosecute traffic violators
___B) Increase the premium of insurance and decrease the car insurance
liability to a minimum
___C) Frequent checks on all cars for mechanical defects
___D) All of the foregoing

637. With respect to minor traffic violations, the traffic police officer
should be guided foremost by the consideration that…
___A) The aim is to discourage violations
___B) Violations must be punished
___C) Some traffic violations are caused by negligence
___D) Some traffic violations are intended

638. From among the following measures, one is the most effective in
police campaign directed at the new parking regulations.
___A) Written warning ___C) Verbal warning
___B) Citation ___D) All of the foregoing

639. The best measure of the effectiveness of police traffic control is

the…
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 ___A) Number of fines and prosecuted for traffic violations
___B) Number of citations issued
___C) Automobile accident rate
___D) Existence of numbers of Insurance Adjusters

640. The following are the three basic approaches to a Traffic Safety
Program.
___A) Money, Management and Machinery
___B) Education, Enforcement and Engineering
___C) Road, Route and Rescue
___D) All of the foregoing

641. One important purpose of accident investigation is to ascertain the

personal circumstances of traffic violators who are involved in traffic
accidents. Information of this sort is in turn useful in…
___A) Traffic and Fund Raising
___B) Basis for Traffic Educational Program
___C) Determining the need for engineering improvements
___D) Deploying traffic enforcement officers
___E) All of the foregoing

642. The best accident rate criterion for purposes of distribution of

personnel is the number of…
___A) Accidents involving criminal negligence
___B) Fatal accidents
___C) Reported accidents
___D) Accidents with result in injuries

643. The overwhelming factor in causing traffic accidents is…

___A) Human behavior, leading to traffic violations
___B) Physical and mental fatigue
___C) Combination of drinking and speeding
___D) Educational background of traffic violators

644. Which one of the following types of accidents is most decrease by the
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 installation of Traffic Lights?
___A) Accidents of confusion
___B) Accidents of decision of right of way
___C) Cross traffic accidents
___D) Misunderstanding between motorists and traffic officers

645. In interviewing parties involved in a traffic accident, the investigator

should talk to them…
___A) At the same time, but insisting that they tell their stories one at a
time
___B) Separately, which the others are not hearing but in view
___C) Separately, so that others are not aware of the interview
___D) At the same time, so that each may correct mistakes in the others
statement
___E) All of the foregoing

646. Several persons were injured as a result of a bus skidding on a wet

pavement. In preparing an incident report, the term “Apparently in
good condition” should not be used in reference to…
___A) The brakes ___C) The tires
___B) An injured passenger ___D) The operator

647. The greatest single cause of Taxi Cabs traffic accidents is attributed
to…
___A) Conversation with the fare
___B) Following too close to other vehicles
___C) Unnecessary speed
___D) General recklessness

648. It is the practice of traffic enforces, motorcycle or patrol hiding behind

billboards, viaducts, trees, posts, etc., in ambush, waiting for the
opportunity of apprehending moving traffic violators, such as those
who are speeding, passing in a no-passing zone, illegal parking and
loading and non-loading signs.
___A) Traffic Tolerance
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 ___B) In the Hole Enforcement
___C) Fair Play Enforcement
___D) All of the above

649. The amount of forbearance or indulgence by the public, judging the

reasonableness of the traffic enforcement program of the police
department.
___A) Traffic Tolerance
___B) In the Hole Enforcement
___C) Fair Play Enforcement
___D) All of the above

650. It is the ratio of traffic warnings, citation and arrests to the frequency
of traffic accidents.
___A) Crime Index ___C) Duty Manual
___B) Enforcement Tax ___D) In the Home of Enforcement

CRIMINALISTICS

FORENSIC CHEMISTRY:

651. It may be defined as the application of instruments and methods of

physical science to the detection of crime.
___A) Forensic Chemistry ___C) Criminalistics
___B) Instrumentation ___D) All of the foregoing

652. May be defined as the sum total of all sciences in crime detection.
___A) Forensic Chemistry ___C) Criminalistics
___B) Instrumentation ___D) All of the foregoing

653. All of the following are accurate tests for the presence of alcohol in
the human body except one.
___A) Blood Test ___D) Harger Breath Test

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 ___B) Fecal Test ___E) Saliva Test
___C) Criminalistics

654. The primary reason that tissues of the human body are frequently
destroyed even by a relative small fire because of the…
___A) High content of organic gases
___B) High aft content in the body wall
___C) High phosphorus content of the body
___D) Human body is flammable

655. A useful method of identifying or comparing certain substances, such

as small glass particles found in connection with a hit-and-run case, is
to measure the relative velocity of light through the substance. The
instrument for doing this is the…
___A) Microtome ___C) Pycnometer
___B) Refractometer ___D) X-ray diffraction camera

656. One of the following is usually the best method of chemical analysis
of every minute quantities of an organic substance is analysis by…
___A) Flouroscopy ___C) Regents
___B) Spectograph ___D) Electron microscope

657. In comparison with other methods of analysis used in a police

laboratory, the unique advantage of the spectrograph is that…
___A) Minute traces of substance can be analyzed
___B) It is relatively inexpensive to acquire and operate
___C) The sample is not destroyed in the analytical process
___D) It produces a permanent record of the analysis

658. In investigation of a rape case, use of ultra-violet light is a useful

method…
___A) Only to establish whether certain stains are semen stains, after
they have been located by some other method
___B) To locate stains, but not to establish whether they are semen stains

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 ___C) Both to locate stains and to establish whether they are semen
stains
___D) Neither for finding stains nor for determining their nature

659. A drop of blood which falls from a moving object or person is

elongated and the splashes are found to be concentrated around one
end of the drop of blood indicates…
___A) Direction of movement ___C) Flesh blood
___B) Route ___D) Dried stain

660. The direction from which a blunt object has broken a piece of glass
may be determined by examination of the fractured cross-sectional
surfaces of the glass. In this case, the direction of the blow is indicated
by…
___A) The pattern of curve lines, bevel angle of the fracture, and the
position of flaking or chipping on the cross section
___B) Convexity or concavity of the fractured surface
___C) The position of crystal structure deformations
___D) All of the foregoing

661. A simple test for distinguishing a blood stain from their substances is
the…
___A) Benzidine Test ___C) Diphynylamine Test
___B)Alphanapthylamine Test ___D) Hydrochloric Acid Tesr

662. Is extremely used in producing evidence such as footprints and tire

marks in dirt or mud.
___A) Moulage ___C) Cementing
___B) Casting ___D) Pickling

663. Is the technique of reproducing facsimile or physical evidence by the

plaster moulds and the impression of which is made through the
successive formation of a negative mould and positive cast.
___A) Moulage ___C) Cementing
___B) Casting ___D) Pickling
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664. A characteristic post-mortem symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning
is a…
___A) Marked protuberance of the eyeballs
___B) Pinkish lividity of all or part of the body
___C) Waxy texture and appearance of the skin
___D) Grotesque or contorted position of the body

665. The most commonly used for determining intoxication of a motor

vehicle driver is the…
___A) Blood Test ___C) Breath Test
___B) Urine Test ___D) Spinal Fluid Test

666. Investigators occasionally encounter retrograde amnesia in persons

they wish to interview or interrogate. Retrograde amnesia is a loss of
memory that…
___A) Covers a period of time immediately preceding severe shock
___B) Is a form of hysteria, in which the memory gradually returns as the
victim calms down
___C) Is feigned
___D) Begins to affect the mind only after a considerable lapse of time
following a severe shock

667. Identifying marks which are place on physical evidence of the scene
of a crime may consist of…
___A) Letter of the alphabet only
___B) Any distinctive marks which is difficult to duplicate
___C) Numbers only
___D) Numbers and letters only

668. The investigator who collects physical evidence should take it to the
laboratory by himself whenever this is possible, otherwise, he should
obtain a receipt from each person to whom he gives or receives
evidence. This statement is best applicable to…
___A) Chain of Custody of Evidence
___B) Three tools in criminal investigation
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 ___C) Cardinal rules in criminal investigation
___D) To establish the guilt of the accused

669. Evidences which change quickly, such skid marks, the wounds and
bruises will heal and disappear before the case comes to trial. Such
evidence can be preserved by…
___A) Pickling Method and introduced in court as evidence
___B) Photography and introduced in court as evidence
___C) Casting and Mould and introduced in court as evidence
___D) All of the foregoing

670. The direction and identification of poisons is called…

___A) Chemistry ___C) Toxicology
___B) Bacteriology ___D) Carbon Monoxide

FINGERPRINTING AND PERSONAL IDENTIFICATION:

671. Are means of personal identification; they aid the investigator in

identifying persons in custody; when found at a crime scene, they lead
the investigator to the perpetrator.
___A) Fingerprints ___C) Petrology
___B) Circumstantial evidence ___D) Motive and Intent

672. The technique of fingerprinting is called…

___A) Dactyloscopy ___C) Palmistry
___B) Poroscopy ___D) Latent print

673. Practically, all fingerprint experts believe that the fingerprint patterns
are…
___A) Inherited as Mendelian characteristics
___B) Never inherited
___C) Always inherited
___D) Sometimes inherited

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674. In taking fingerprints, the subject should be instructed to…
___A) Relax the fingers
___B) Stiffen the fingers
___C) Exert a little pressure on the inking surface
___D) Wash his both hands before taking prints

675. In the development of impressions, the fingerprint powder should be

applied as soon as the ridges become visible…
___A) In the interspaces
___B) In the direction of the ridge trend
___C) Across the ridge
___D) Uniformly cover the center of the print

676. The following are the types of fingerprint registration…

___A) The 10-print or principal registration and the single print
registration
___B) Whole print with classification
___C) Impression of the 10 fingers
___D) All of the foregoing

677. It has long been a rule that is required for minimum identical and
characteristic details must be found to justify the conclusion of
identity of two points.
___A) Nine (9) ___C) Fifteen (15)
___B) Twelve (12) ___D) Eighteen (18)

678. It is a triangular shaped detail of the pattern formed by the bifurcation

of forking of a ridge at the outer portion of the pattern, and it
determines the other boundary of the pattern as it flows around the
pattern.
___A) Delta ___C) Ridge
___B) Core ___D) Latent prints

679. Are those fingerprints left at the crime scene; and it is either imprints
of impressions.
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 ___A) Pattern ___C) Loop
___B) Latent print ___D) Ulnar

680. Is that center of the fingerprint pattern; it may be a ridge resembling

loop, a rod, or a spiral in the very center of the pattern.
___A) Core ___C) Ridge
___B) Delta ___D) Whorl

681. Is a kind of fingerprint in which one or more ridges enter on either

side of the impression by a recurve, pass out or terminate on the same
side as the ridge or ridges entered.
___A) Loop ___C) Radial Loop
___B) Ulnar Loop ___D) Tented Arch

682. Of the following fingerprint patterns, one in which the downward

slant of the ridge or ridges is from the thumb toward the little finger or
ulnar bone.
___A) Loop ___C) Radial Loop
___B) Ulnar Loop ___D) Tented Arch

683. A fingerprint pattern in which the downward slant or ridge or ridges

from the little finger toward the thumb or radius bone.
___A) Radial Loop ___C) Radial Loop
___B) Loop ___D) Tented Arch

684. A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges flow from one circle to the
other without recurving, usually having a slight upward curve in the
center, giving the appearance of an arch.
___A) Plain Loop ___C) Radial Loop
___B) Loop ___D) Tented Arch

685. A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges flow from one side to the
other without recurving but differ from plain arches, as the ridges rise
in the center, giving the pattern the appearance of the tent.
___A) Whorl ___C) Plain Loop
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 ___B) Tented Arch ___D) Radial Loop

686. A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges form a series of circles or

spirals around the core axes.
___A) Tented Arch ___C) Central Pocket Loop
___B) Whorl ___D) Double Loop

687. Are those patterns in which most of the ridges represent a pattern
known as loop, but when one or more ridges within such loop or those
surrounding the core recurve down through its axis, thereby forming
the second delta.
___A) Central Pocket Loop ___C)Double Loop
___B) Whorl ___D)Accidental

688. Is a kind of fingerprint pattern consisting of two separate and distinct

sets of shoulders and two deltas.
___A) Accidental ___C) Central Pocket Loop
___B)Double Loop ___D)Whorl

689. Is a kind of fingerprint pattern in which two of the different types of

patterns are represented except the plain loop.
___A) Double Loop ___C) Central Pocket Loop
___B) Accidental ___D) Whorl

690. A German criminologist who had thoroughly studied the history of

fingerprints in the Far East and found that fingerprinting were already
commonly used for identification purposes during the Tang Dynasty
from 618 to 906 A.D.
___A) Robert Heindle
___B) Henry Faulds
___C) Prof. Johannes James Herschel
___D) Dr. Nehemiah Greu

691. A British Scientist and a cousin of Scientist Charles Darwin, who

devoted himself to the study of fingerprints, and who established his
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 own system in England.
___A) Alphonse Bertillon ___C) Samuel Clemens
___B) Sir Francis Galton ___D) Robert Heindle

692. An American who used his own fingerprint on commissary orders in

New Mexico in order to prevent forgery, and was the first
authenticated record of official use of fingerprints in the United
States.
___A) Mr. Gilbert Thompson ___C) Alphonse Bertillon
___B) Samuel Clemens ___D) Robert Heindle

693. Known for his enthropometric measurement, and who was the first to
propose his system in the year 1879, and was the first Chief of the
Identification Bureau of the Paris, France, Criminal Police…
___A) Mr. Gilbert Thompson ___C) Samuel Clemens
___B) Alphonse Bertillon ___D) Sir Francis Galton

694. Known as the “Father of Fingerprints” who was Herschel’s successor

in India who develop a fingerprint classification; was adopted in
Scotland Yard, London.
___A) Alphonse Bertillon
___B) Sir Edward Richard Henry
___C) Juan Vucetich
___D) Dr. Henry P. de Forest

695. The first leading judicial decision in the Philippine Jurisprudence on

the science of fingerprinting.
___A) PP vs. Medina, 59 Phil. 330
___B) PP vs. Pacana, 47 Phil. 48
___C) US vs. Asensi, 34 Phil. 750
___D) PP vs. Ponferada, et al, 54 Phil. 68

696. The first Filipino authority on fingerprinting, and who topped the first
examination in fingerprints in 1937 which was given by Capt. Thomas
Dugon of New York Police Department.
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 ___A) Col. Jose Lukban ___C) Atty. Lorenzo Sunico
___B) Atty. Agustin Patricio ___D) Gen. RafaelCrame

697. The easiest way to discover latent impressions is to view the area.
___A) Directly
___B) At a distance of about one-half inch
___C) Obliquely
___D) All of the foregoing

698. The most likely place to look for fingerprints of the thief in an
automobile which has been stolen and abandon is on the…
___A) Steering Wheel ___C) Dashboard
___B) Rear View Mirror ___D) Door Handles

699. To aid in identifying the subject, when seeking information from the
Immigration Commission regarding an alien, it is most important to
provide that the agency with data regarding the…
___A) Port of entry of the alien
___B) Residence of the alien
___C) Occupation of the alien
___D) Educational background of the alien

700. In a “wanted” case, the miscellaneous information concerning the

suspect which probably be least useful to a police officer on duty
would be…
___A) His occupation ___C) How he dresses
___B) Where he hangs out ___D) His companions

701. In identification of a person by a photograph, it is best form an officer

making an investigation to…
___A) Show the witness several photographs including of the suspect and
ask him to pick out the person in question
___B) Use photograph for identification purposes only when the witness
is also to give a complete description of the subject
___C) Ask the witness for a description of suspect and attempt to make
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 the identification himself
___D) Show witness photograph of the suspect and ask him of the
suspect and ask him to pick out the person in question

702. The first two digits on an individual’s Social Security Number are
best taken as indication of…
___A) The Region in which the individual originally registered
___B) The month in which the individual originally registered
___C) The income group to which the individual belonged at the time of
original registration
___D) The occupation of the individual at the time of his registration

703. Aside from the Central Bank’s warnings and other published
warnings, the best means of detecting counterfeit paper money is by…
___A) The sharpness of the engraving
___B) The spacing of the colored threads in the paper
___C) The quality of the ink and paper used
___D) The odor of the money

704. The body of the man is found in a river. The body is fully clothed but
badly mutilated, water clogged and swollen. The clothing contains no
identifying papers. One of the following means of identification of the
body that is least reliable is…
___A) Scars of the body
___B) Measurements of the body
___C) Tattoo marks on the body
___D) Fingerprints

705. The biggest disadvantage of “Portrait Parle” as an identification

system is its…
___A) Intricacy and Complexity ___C) Lack of Communicability
___B) Impermanence ___D) Lack of Specificity

706. Which of the following would be the most important information to

have in undertaking a search for a person who was been reported as
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 missing?
___A) Personal habits
___B) Physical description
___C) Mental condition and attitude at the time of disappearance
___D) The previous criminal and clinical history of the person

707. The most easily used and positive means of personal identification of
criminal is…
___A) The Portrait Parle ___C) Physical Stigma
___B) The fingerprint system ___D) Anatomical description

708. The name that is commonly associated with a personal identification

system, the basis for which is that “No Two individuals in the world
are exactly the same size and that the human skeleton does not change
appreciably after 20th year, is…
___A) Bertillon ___C) Galton
___B) Darwin ___D) Mendel

QUESTIONED DOCUMENTS:

709. Is concerned with the examination of forged, altered, or suspected

papers to see if they are genuine, or if they have been changed in any
way.
___A) Falsification of document
___B) Questioned Document Examination
___C) Forgery
___D) Estafa

710. May be committed in two ways: 1) by giving to a treasury or bank

notes or any instrument payable to bearer or two order, and the
appearance of a genuine document; and 2) by erasing, substituting,
counterfeiting, or altering by any means, the figures, letters, words, or
signs contained therein.

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 ___A) Falsification of document
___B)Forgery
___C)Questioned Document Examination
___D) Estafa

711. May be committed by the following means: 1) counterfeiting or

imitating any handwriting, signature or rubic; 2) causing it to appear
that persons have participated in any act or proceeding when they did
not in fact so participated; 3) etc…nevertheless it applies to
documents whether private, public, official or commercial documents.
___A) Falsification of document
___B) Forgery
___C) Questioned Document Examination
___D) Estafa

712. In addition to its use in developing secret writing, iodine fumes can be
used to…
___A) Determine if erasures have been made on a document
___B) Determine the kind of papers used in writing
___C) Determine the kind of ink used in writing
___D) Determine the personal character of the author

713. Of the following, the most reliable single criterion in judging the
authenticity of paper money is the…
___A) Color of the seal
___B) Quality of the engraving
___C) Wet strength of the paper
___D) Arrangement of the red and blue threads in the paper

714. In connection with analysis of questioned documents, which of the

following is least likely to be successful?
___A) Establishment of the age of ink
___B) Determination of make and age of typewriter
___C) Restitution of erased or eradicated writing
___D) Identifying the peculiarity of an individual
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715. What system of handwriting classification based on the following
factors: forms, skill combination, shading movement, slant, terminals
and embellishment has proved useful to police departments in large
cities.
___A) Sir Edward Richard Henry
___B) Rolando Wilson
___C) Lee and Abbey
___D) Landsteiner and Levine

716. Handwriting samples of the same writer may vary somewhat

according to the conditions under which the writing was done. In
which of the following classes of writers are such variations in
genuine writing likely to occur?
___A) Men writers
___B) Practiced writers
___C) Women writers
___D) Semi-illiterate r unpracticed writers

717. In which of the following respects in forged handwriting most likely

to differ from the genuine writing which the forgery attempts to
imitate?
___A) Over-all flow or running quality
___B) Average height and breadth of letters
___C) Starting finishing tails or estraneous flourishes
___D) Width of pen or pencil lines

718. A condition of coin when it is made of metal, whether of inferior or

superior intrinsic value to that of the genuine coin, and is given the
appearance of one of legal tender.
___A) Mutilated Coin ___C) Priceless Coin
___B) False or Counterfeit Coin ___D) All of the foregoing

719. It is the act of diminishing, by ingeneous means, the metal in the coin:
to take advantage if the metal abstracted; he appropriates a part of the
metal of the coin, hence the coin diminishes in intrinsic value.
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 ___A) Mutilation of Coins ___C) Priceless Coin
___B)Counter or False Coin ___D) None of the foregoing

720. In order to sustain a charge for an offense under Article 168 of the
Revised Penal Code, the possession of the false treasury and blank
notes must be coupled with…
___A) The intention to keep it at home
___B) The intent to use the same
___C) Intent to surrender the same to proper authorities
___D) All of the foregoing

721. Is any written statement by which a right is established or an

obligation extinguished; it is a deed, instrument or other duly
authorized paper by which something is proved, evidenced or set
forth.
___A) Document ___C) Rubric
___B) Tablet ___D) Contract

722. A classification or falsification, that for the act to be punished, it must

be shown that some prejudice or damage to a third party must have
been caused or intended to be caused.
___A) Falsification of a private document
___B) Falsification of public document
___C) Falsification of official document
___D) Falsification of commercial document

723. A classification of document in which damage is immaterial, for what

is important is the violation of public faith, and the destruction of the
truth, and the change must affect the integrity of the document.
___A) Falsification of commercial document
___B) Falsification of public document
___C) Falsification of official document
___D)Falsification of a private document

724. A kind of document which is executed by a private person without the

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 intervention of a notary public, or of competent public official, by
which some disposition or agreement is proved, evidence or set forth.
___A) Private document ___C) Official document
___B) Public document ___D) Commercial document

725. A kind of document in which public officials participated.

___A) Public document ___C)Private document
___B)Official document ___D) Commercial document

726. A kind of document which is executed by person on authority a by

private parties but notaries public or by competent officials.
___A) Public document ___C) Private document
___B) Official document ___D) Commercial document

727. A kind of document which is recognized by the Code of Commerce

and other Mercantile Laws.
___A) Private document ___C)Public document
___B)Commercial document ___D)Official document

728. Is an exemplar that has been obtained from an official records,

personal letter, or any other document that is known to have been
written by the suspect, when the suspect refuses to write an exemplar,
when the suspect is not available, or when the investigation is
conducted without the knowledge of the suspect.
___A) Collected standard document
___B) Questioned document
___C) Simulated document
___D) All of the foregoing

729. It is an instrument that can be legally used in comparison with a

questioned document; its origin is known and can be proven.
___A) Simulated document ___C) Forged document
___B) Standard document ___D) Falsified document

730. This group includes all papers on which it is alleged that some
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 changes have been made fraudulently by erasure, addition, or
substitution, etc.
___A) Handwriting specimen
___B) Countersigned
___C) Document on which the signature is questioned
___D) Document containing alleged fraudulent alteration

731. This group of document includes those papers which the entire writing
is in question as spurious, forged or counterfeit in its entirely fall into.
___A) Wills and Testament
___B) Holographic documents questioned or disputed
___C) Stroke of handwriting
___D) None of the foregoing

732. Fraudulent tampering with a document often involves two kinds of

erasures, namely:
___A) Mechanical and Chemical erasures
___B) Electronic and Mechanical erasures
___C) Electronic and Chemical erasures
___D) All of the foregoing

733. A kind of erasure through the use of a rubber eraser, sharp knife, razor
blade or picking instrument.
___A) Chemical erasure ___C) Electronic erasure
___B)Mechanical erasure ___D) All of the foregoing

734. A kind of erasure by using an ink eradicator or blending agent.

___A) Chemical erasure ___C) Electronic erasure
___B) Mechanical erasure ___D)None of the foregoing

735. May be accomplished by the insertion of a word, phrase, or sentence

between two lines of the original writing.
___A) Forgery
___B) Intercalation on a genuine document
___C) Substitution
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 ___D) Insertion

FORENSIC BALLISTICS:

736. May be defined as the scientific examination of firearms shells,

bullets allegedly used in the commission of a crime.
___A) Forensic Ballistics ___C) Exterior Ballistics
___B) Interior Ballistics ___D) All of the foregoing

737. May be defined as treats of the motion of projectiles while still in the
barrel, namely: studies of combustion of the powder, pressure
developed, velocity, etc.
___A) Interior Ballistics ___C)Forensic Ballistics
___B)Exterior Ballistics ___D) All of the foregoing

738. Treats of the motion of projectiles after leaving the muzzle of the gun,
namely: trajectory, velocity, energy, range, penetration, etc.
___A) Interior Ballistics ___C) Forensic Ballistics
___B) Exterior Ballistics ___D) All of the foregoing

739. Their existence in firearms is brought about by the failure of a tool in

the normal operation through wear, abuse, mutilations, corrosion,
erosion and other fortuitous causes.
___A) Individual accidental characteristics
___B) Factory defect
___C) Individual intentional characteristics
___D) Pricipitate

740. Refling in the bore of small arms is designed to…

___A) Decrease the amount of recoil
___B) Prevent the bullet from turning end over end in the air
___C) Increase the speed of the bullet
___D) Increase the damage of the object hit by the bullet

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741. Cannelure are valuable in firearms identification because they help the
expert determine the…
___A) Manufacturer of the bullet
___B) Manufacturer of the weapon
___C) Identify the weapon that fired a particular bullet
___D) Type of gun that fired a particular bullet

742. For all intents and purposes, a barrel of any firearm is considered as…
___A) Part of a weapon ___C) Nomenclature
___B) Complete firearm ___D) All of the foregoing

743. When a revolver is fired, a small portion of burned and unburned

gunpowder is forced under great pressure from the opening between
the forward and the rear of the barrel. Such is frequently deposited on
the index finger of the back of the hand in which the gun is fired.
___A) Precipitate ___C) Dirt
___B) Residue ___D) Powder burn

744. A very accurate test by which an expert can determine the distance
from a bullet hole at which the gun was fired is called the…
___A) Alphanopthylamine Test ___C) Photo-micrograph Test
___B) Diphenylamine Test ___D) Triangulation Process

745. The pitch or rate of twist in the rifling of a pistol or rifle barrel is
called…
___A) Ogive ___C) Land
___B) Leed ___D) Groove

746. Of the following, the most accurate statement concerning the

identification of an unknown firearm by means of ballistics is that…
___A) Pistols with the same number of lands can be differentiated by the
direction of the leed
___B) Most pistols which have left leed have at least eight lands
___C) The width of the groove in a pistol can be determined by the angle
of the leed
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 ___D) The angle of the leed is the angle which the land forms with the
groove

747. A homicide has been committed with a shotgun. All parts of the
exploded shall have been recovered by a police officer who
investigated the crime. In order to identify the shell with the gun that
fired it, the laboratory should be given.
___A) The wadding
___B) The cap and the pellets
___C) The cap and the wads
___D) The cap, the wads and the pellets

748. The term “Double Action,” with reference to a revolver, means most
nearly that…
___A) The revolver can fire with or without automatic shell ejection
___B) Pulling the trigger cocks the hammer and presents a fresh cartridge
for firing
___C) The shell of a fired shot is ejected and a fresh cartridge is pushed
from the magazine at the same time
___D) The revolver has both safety and automatic firing action

749. The part of the mechanism of a firearm that withdraws the shell or
cartridge from the chamber is called…
___A) Extractor ___B) Striker
___B) Ejector ___D) Cylinder

750. A pistol that is to be tested and used in evidence should be picked up

by…
___A) Grasping the barrel with a handkerchief
___B) Grasping the handle with a handkerchief
___C) Placing a pencil through the trigger guard
___D) Inserting a pencil in the barrel

751. When booking a fired bullet, it should be identified by a mark on…

___A) Its side ___C) Its nose
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 ___B) Its base ___D) Its side and base

752. When a shot is fired from an automatic pistol by a criminal,…

___A) The shell in most cases will be found at the scene of the crime
___B) The empty shell remains within the chamber
___C) The shell is rarely if ever found at the scene of the crime
___D) The shell is usually disposed of by the criminal

753. The identification of a shell with the revolver from which it has been
fired may be recognized from the…
___A) Mark of the firing pin hole
___B) Mark of the firing pin hole and mark of the breech lock
___C) All of the aforementioned
___D) None of the aforementioned

754. Of the following three most important problems that may arise in the
investigations of crimes involving the use of firearms, one is not
included, and that is…
___A) Motive, intent and opportunity
___B) Whether or not a person has fired a gun with his bare hands,
within a pertinent period of time
___C) The means of determining the probable gunshot range, that is, the
distance the firearm was held from the body of the victim at the
time of discharge
___D) When the firing of the gun becomes an issue

755. Is a kind of wound that is inflicted when the muzzle of the gum is held
against the body of the victim at the time of discharge.
___A) Contact wound ___C) Physical injury
___B) Fatal wound ___D) All of the foregoing

756. Is produced when the gun is held from about two inches to a
maximum of eight inches.
___A) Tattooing ___C) Contact wound
___B) Smudging ___D) Fatal wound
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757. The area of blackening around the perforation will be fund to diminish
in size of the muzzle of the gun is held further and at a distance of
eight inches all the blackening around the hole will completely
disappear.
___A) Smudging ___C) Residue
___B) Powder Tattooing ___D) Fatal wound

758. In the identification of firearms, in most cases it is necessary to

supplement the serial number with.
___A) Frame number ___C) Barrel length
___B) Make and model number ___D) Caliber

759. Identifying markings or imprint are not left on a shell by the…

___A) Extractor ___C) Hammer
___B) Ejector ___D) Firing pin

POLYGRAPHY OR LIE DETECTION:

760. It is an essential requirement for the administration of criminal justice.

___A) Evidence ___C) Proof
___B) Knowledge of the truth ___D) Firing Corpus Delicti

761. It is a scientific police method in the detection of crime, therefore, not

a part of criminalistics, but rather a kind of instrumentation in the
detection of crime.
___A) Photography ___C) Chemistry
___B) Polygraph or lie detection ___D) Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA)

762. One who is capable of being able to detect deception or verify truth of
the statement through instrumentation or the use of mechanical
device.
___A) Polygraph examiner ___C) Detective
___B) Interrogator ___D) Medico-legal officer

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763. Which one of the following is not included in the limitations of the
Polygraph?
___A) It is admissible evidence in the court of justice
___B) It is an invaluable investigative aid, but never a substitute for an
investigation
___C) It is not a lie detector, it is a scientific diagnostic instrument
___D) It does not determine fact, it records responses to that which the
subject knows to be true, and
___E) It is only as accurate as the examiner is competent

764. Of the three (3) devices which record the psycho-physiological

response, one of the following is not included.
___A) Use of polygraph or a lie detector machine
___B) Use of the Word Association Test (WAT)
___C) Use of the Psychological Stress Evaluator (PSE)
___D) Use of the Water Therapy

765. Which one of the following is not included in the four (4) phases in
the conduct of a Polygraph or lie detection test?
___A) Psychological threat upon the subject or person to be examined
___B) Initial interview with the investigator or person requesting the
examination
___C) Pre-test with the person to be examined
___D) Conduct of the instrumental test with the asking of the prepared
list of questions previously reviewed with subject
___E) Post-test interview with the person examined

766. Which one of the following is not a required qualification and quality
expected of a polygraph examiner?
___A) A graduate of Bachelor of Laws (LLL.B) Criminology or
Psychology
___B) Technical Know How (TKH)
___C) Moral and Honesty
___D) Be mindful of his official obligation
___E) None of the above
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767. It is one where before the actual testing is done, the examiner must
first make an informal interview of the subject which may last from
20 to 30 minutes.
___A) Pre-test interview
___B) Actual interrogation and interview and recording of the
proceedings
___C) Post-test interrogation
___D) All of the above

768. These are questions, which have no bearing to the case under
investigation.
___A) Control ___C) Relevant
___B) Irrelevant ___D) Supplementary

769. These are questions pertaining to the issue under investigation.

___A)Control ___C) Relevant
___B) Irrelevant ___D) Supplementary

770. These are questions which are unrelated to the matter under
investigation but are of similar nature although less serious as
compared to those relevant questions under investigation.
___A) Control ___C) Relevant
___B) Irrelevant ___D) Supplementary

771. A kind of test that may be performed and incorporated as a part of the
standard tests described above, depending upon the result of the
standard test in order to draw a better conclusion.
___A) Control ___C) Relevant
___B) Irrelevant ___D) Supplementary

772. This test may be given if the subject is not yet informed of the details
of the offense for which he is being interrogated by the investigator,
or by other persons or from other sources like print media.
___A) Silent answer ___C) Guilt complex
___B) Peak-on-tension ___D) Narrative
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773. This test is applied when the response to relevant and control
questions are similar in degree and consistency and in a way that the
examiner cannot determine whether the subject is telling the truth or
not.
___A) Silent answer ___C) Guilt complex
___B) Peak-on-tension ___D) Narrative

774. This test is conducted in the same manner as relevant, irrelevant and
control questions are asked, but the subject is instructed to answer the
questions silently, to himself, without making any verbal response.
___A) Silent answer ___C) Guilt complex
___B) Peak-on-tension ___D) Narrative

775. In this of test, a list of stimulus and non-stimulus words are read to the
subject who is instructed to answer as quickly as possible. The
answers to the questions may be “yes” or “no.” this test is not
concerned with the answer, be it “yes” or “no.” The important is the
time of response in relation to delay the answer.
___A) Use of the Word Association Test (WAT)
___B) Use of the Psychological Stress Evaluator (PSE)
___C) Use of a Serum
___D) Use of a Water Therapy
___E) Confession

776. This kind of test detects, measures and graphically displays the voice
modulation that we cannot hear. Such as when a person is relaxed and
responding honestly to the questions, those inaudible frequencies are
registered clearly on the instrument. But when a person is under
stress, as when he is lying, these frequencies tend to disappear.
___A) Use of the Word Association Test (WAT)
___B) Use of the Psychological Stress Evaluator (PSE)
___C) Use of a Serum
___D) Use of a Water Therapy
___E) Confession

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777. In this kind of test, the hyoscinehydrobromide drug is given
hypodermically in repeated doses until a state of delirium is induced.
When the proper point is reached, the questioning begins and the
subject feels a compulsion to answer the questions truthfully.
___A) Hypnotism
___B) Administration of Truth Serum
___C) Narcoanalysis or Narcosynthesis
___D) Intoxication with the use of alcoholic beverage

778. In this kind of test, psychiatric sodium penthotal is administered to the

subject. When the effects appear, questioning stars. It is claimed that
the drug causes depression of the inhibitory mechanism of the brain
and the subject induces to talk freely.
___A) Administration of Truth Serum
___B) Narcoanalysis or Narcosynthesis
___C)Hypnotism
___D) Intoxication with the use of alcoholic beverage

779. This test which has the apparent stimulation, is really the result of the
control mechanism of the brain. The ability of this kind of test to
reveal the real person behind the mask which all of us are said to
wear- “mask of sanity, is reflected in the age-old maxim: “In Vino
Veritas,” which means, “In Wine There Is Truth.”
___A) Administration of Truth Serum
___B) Narcoanalysis or Narcosynthesis
___C) Hypnotism
___D) Intoxication with the use of alcoholic beverage

780. It is the alteration of consciousness and concentration in which the

subject manifests a heightened of suggestibility while awareness is
maintained.
___A) Administration of Truth Serum
___B) Narcoanalysis or Narcosynthesis
___C) Hypnotism
___D) Intoxication with the use of alcoholic beverage
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781. This Chart Interpretation changes the individual norm which may be
considered indicative of deception.
___A) Galvanograph Tracing ___C) Cardiosphygmograph
___B) Pneumograph ___D) All of the above

782. This is normally located at the center portion of the Chart, when
properly balanced, it takes the form of slightly wavering line across
the middle portion of the Chart with minor response to spoken stimuli.
___A) Galvanograph Tracing ___C) Cardiosphygmograph
___B) Pneumograph ___D) All of the above

783. This takes the form of specific responses indicative of deception, such
as, increase or decrease of blood pressure, increase or decrease of
pulse, etc.
___A) Galvanograph Tracing ___C) Cardiosphygmograph
___B) Pneumograph ___D) All of the above

LEGAL MEDICINE

784. It is a branch of medicine, which deals with the application of medical

knowledge to the purpose of law in the administration of justice.
___A) Legal Medicine ___C) Medical Jurisprudence
___B) Forensic Medicine ___D) All of the above

785. It concerns with the application of medical science to elucidate legal

problems.
___A) Legal Medicine ___C) Medical Jurisprudence
___B) Forensic Medicine ___D) All of the above

786. It denotes knowledge of law in relation to the practice of medicine.

___A) Legal Medicine ___C) Medical Jurisprudence
___B) Forensic Medicine ___D) All of the above

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787. There are synonymous and in common practice, are used
interchangeably.
___A) Legal Medicine ___C) Medical Jurisprudence
___B) Forensic Medicine ___D) All of the above

788. The nature of the study or knowledge of legal medicine means…

___A) The ability to acquire facts
___B) The power to arrange those facts in their logical order
___C) The draw a conclusion from the facts which may be useful in the
administration of justice
___D) All of the above

789. A physician who specialized or is involved primarily with medico-

legal duties is known as Medical Jurist, or…
___A) Medical Examiner ___C) Medico-Legal Officer
___B) Medico-Legal Expert ___D) All of the above

790. He was the earliest recorded medico-legal expert, the chief physician,
the architect of King Zoser of the Third Dynasty in Egypt and the
builder of the first pyramid.
___A) Imhotep (2980 B.C)
___B) Paulus Zacchias (1584-1659)
___C) San Juan De Bautista
___D) Antitius

791. The first ever known “police surgeon” or forensic pathologist, who
performed the autopsy of Julius Caesar (100-44 B.C), who was
murdered and whose body was exposed in the forum. He found out
that Julius Caesar suffered from 23 wounds and only one penetrated
the chest cavity through the space between the first and second ribs.
___A) Imhotep (2980 B.C)
___B) Paulus Zacchias (1584-1659)
___C) San Juan De Bautista
___D) Antitius

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792. A Papal Physician, who was regarded as the Father of Forensic
Medicine. He published a book on Questions Medico-Legales which
dealths with the legal aspects of wounds and the first two-chapter
dealth with the detection of secret medicine.
___A) Imhotep (2980 B.C)
___B) Paulus Zacchias (1584-1659)
___C) Dr. Gregorio T. Lantin
___D) Antitius

793. The first Chief of Medico-Legal Section when Commonwealth Act

No. 181 was enacted on December 10, 1937, creating the Division of
Investigation under the Department of Justice.
___A) Dr. Gregorio T. Lantin ___C) Dr. Pedro P. Solis
___B) Dr. Sixto de Los Angeles ___D) Dr. Enrique V. de Los Santos

794. The first Chief of the Medico-Legal Division when Republic Act No.
157 was enacted, creating the Bureau of Investigation, on June 28,
1945.
___A) Dr. Gregorio T. Lantin ___C) Dr. Pedro P. Solis
___B) Dr. Sixto de Los Angeles ___D) Dr. Enrique V. de Los Santos

795. Which means that the greater the number of points of similarities and
dissimilarities of two persons compared, the greater is the probability
for the conclusion to be correct?
___A) Conclusion Evidence
___B) Prima Facie
___C) Law of Multiplicity of Evidence in Identification
___D) Real Evidence

796. This refers to a verbal, accurate and picturesque description of the

person identified, that is, the investigator does not have a picture of
the wanted or missing person.
___A) Rogues Gallery ___C) Tracing Evidence
___B) Portrait Parle ___D) Identification Card

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797. A Presidential Decree of President Ferdinand E. Marcos requiring
practitioners of Dentistry to keep records of their parents as ones
necessary means or factor in solving crimes and settling disputes over
claims of damages, insurance and inheritance.
___A) Presidential Decree No. 1612, March 1979
___B) Presidential Decree No. 1575, June 11, 1978
___C) Presidential Decree No. 968, August 1975
___D) Presidential Decree No. 1866, June 29, 1983

798. A study which resorted to after all the external identification of a

dead-body, and soft tissues have already disappeared.
___A) Personal Identification
___B) Study of Bones or Identification of Skeleton
___C) Study of Dead-Body
___D) All of the above

799. This test is to determine whether the blood is of human origin or not.
___A) Benzidine Test ___C) Leucomalachite Test
___B) Precipitin Test ___D) All of the above

800. Differential characteristics of blood from different sources. In effect,

Arterial Blood has…
___A) Bright scarlet in color
___B) Leaves the blood vessel with pressure
___C) High oxygen contents
___D) All of the above

801. Venous Blood has…

___A) Dark red color
___B) Does not spill far from the wound
___C) Low oxygen content
___D) All of the above

802. When blood is exposed to the atmosphere or some other influence, its
hemoglobin is converted into meth-hemoglobin or hematin. Thus, the
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 color changes from...
___A) Red to reddish-brown ___C) Red to chocolate color
___B) Red to clay color ___D) All of the above

803. Menstrual Blood…

___A) Has acidic reaction owing to mixture with vaginal mucous
___B) Does not clot
___C) On microscopic examination, there are vaginal epithelial cells
___D) Contains large number of deodorlein’s bacillus
___E) All of the above

804. This means that the bulb of the hair is irregular in form due to rupture
of the health and shows an undulating surface, together with
excrescencies of different shapes and sizes.
___A) That the hair has been extracted forcibly
___B) It means that the hair which has a rounded extremity, smooth
surface, and most probably show signs of a trophic or fatty
degeneration, especially in an orderly person
___C) Conditions of hair of a dead person
___D) All of the above

805. A naturally shed bulb hair means…

___A) That the hair has been extracted forcibly
___B) It means that the hair which has a rounded extremity, smooth
surface, and most probably show signs of a trophic or fatty
degeneration, especially in an orderly person
___C) Conditions of hair of a dead person
___D) All of the above

806. Hairs on body surface are…

___A) Very thick
___B) Fine
___C) Tapering gradually to fine point
___D) All of the above

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807. Hairs from the beard, mustache and scalp are…
___A) Very thick
___B) Fine
___C) Tapering gradually to fine point
___D) All of the above

808. Human’s hair grows…

___A) One (1) inch a month ___C) 2.5 centimeters a day
___B) 0.4 millimeter a day ___D) All of the above

809. Human’s beard hair grows…

___A) One (1) inch a month ___C) 2.5 centimeters a day
___B) 0.4 millimeter a day ___D) All of the above

810. It is a complete cessation of all the vital function without the

possibility of resuscitation; it is an irreversible loss of the properties of
living matter.
___A) Death ___C) Suspended animation
___B) Coma ___D) All of the above

811. It could be mistaken for death following administration of excessive

doses of modern sedatives and hypnotic it clinically appears to have
eliminated breathing and heart action, chill the body and makes
reflexes weak or totally non-existent.
___A) Death ___C) Suspended animation
___B) Coma ___D) All of the above

812. Previously, complete and persistent cessation and respiration (cardio-

respiratory) is the standard criteria in the determination of death.
___A) True ___C) False
___B) Somewhat true ___D) Somewhat false

813. A person will be considered medically and legally dead if…

___A) In the opinion of a physician, based on ordinary standards of
medical practice, there is the absence of spontaneous respiratory
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 and cardiac function and, because of the disease or condition
which caused, directly or indirectly, these functions to ceased,
attempts at resuscitation are considered hopeless; and in this
event, death will have occurred at the time these functions
ceases
___B) If in the opinion of a physician, based on the ordinary standards of
medical practice, there is the absence of spontaneous brain
function; and if based on ordinary standards of medical practice,
during reasonable attempts to either maintain or restore
spontaneous circulatory or respiratory function in the absence of
aforesaid brain function, it appears that further attempt at
resuscitation or supportive maintenance will not succeed, death
will have occurred at the time when these conditions first
coincide.
___C) All of the above
___D) None of the above

814. It is to be announced before artificial means of supporting respiratory

and circulatory function are terminated and before any vital organ is
removed for purposes of transplantation.
___A) Coma ___C) Suspended animation
___B) Death ___D) All of the above

815. This condition is not really death but merely a transient loss of
consciousness or temporary cessation of the vital functions of the
body on account of disease, external stimulus or other forms of
influence. It may arise especially in hysteria, uremia, catalepsy and
electrical shock.
___A) Coma ___C) Suspended animation
___B) Death ___D)Algor Mortis

816. This means that after death, the metabolic process inside the body
ceases. No more heat is produced but the body loses slowly its
temperature by evaporation or by conduction to the surrounding
atmosphere.
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 ___A) Coma ___C) Suspended animation
___B) Post-mortem Caloricity ___D) Algor Mortis

817. It is the rise temperature of the body after death due to rapid and early
putrefactive changes or some internal changes; it is usually observed
in the first two hours after death.
___A) Post-mortem Caloricity
___B)Algor Mortis
___C) Rigor Mortis
___D) Cadaver spasm or instantaneous rigor

818. This is principally due to the fact the last voluntary contraction of
muscle during life does not stop after death but continuous with the
act of such rigidity.
___A) Rigor Mortis
___B)Cadaver spasm or instantaneous rigor
___C) Putrefaction
___D) All of the above

819. In warm countries like Philippines, rigor mortis sets in how many
hours?
___A) 1 to 2 hours ___C) 3 to 4 hours
___B) 2 to 3 hours ___D) 4 to 6 hours

820. How many hours post-mortem lividity usually develops?

___A) 3 to 6 hours ___C) 6 to 8 hours
___B) 5 to 8 hours ___D) Average time is 24 to 48 hours

821. In the Philippines like other tropical countries, decomposition is early

and the average time is…
___A) 6 to 8 hours after death
___B) 8 to 12 hours after death
___C) 24 to 48 hours after death
___D) All of the above after death

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822. Their presence in the cadaver are useful to proximate the time of the
death; that the usual time for their eggs to be hatched into larva is 24
hours, so that by the mere fact that there are maggots in the cadaver,
one can conclude that the death has occurred more than 24 hours.
___A) Butterflies ___D) Bees
___B) Files ___E) All of the above
___C) Earthworms

823. This comprehensive study of a dead body, performed by a trained

physician employing recognized dissection procedure and techniques.
___A) Embalming ___C) Medical operation
___B) Autopsy ___D) Post-mortem examination

824. This refers to an external examination of a dead body without incision

being made, although blood and other body fluids may be collected
for examination.
___A) Embalming ___C) Medical operation
___B) Autopsy ___D) Post-mortem examination

825. This is done on a human body with the consent of the deceased
person’s.
___A) Medico-legal or Official Autopsy
___B) Hospital or Non-official Autopsy
___C) Embalming
___D) All of the above

826. The above mentioned kind of autopsy is done for purpose of…
___A) Determining the cause of death
___B) Providing correlation clinical diagnosis and clinical symptoms
___C) Determining the effectiveness of therapy
___D)Studyng the natural course of disease process and educating
students and Physicians
___E) All of the above

827. This is an examination performed on a dead body for purposes of

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 determining the cause, manner (mode), and time of death; recovering
identifying, and preserving evidentiary material; providing
interpretation and correlation of facts and circumstances related to
death; providing a factual, objective medical report for law
enforcement prosecution, and defense agencies; and separating death
due to disease from death due to external cause for protection on the
innocent.
___A) Medico-legal or Official Autopsy
___B) Hospital or Non-official Autopsy
___C) Embalming
___D) All of the above

828. In the injury, disease or the combination of both injury and disease
responsible for initiating the trend or physiological disturbance, brief
or prolonged, which produce the fatal termination.
___A) Cause of death ___C) The manner of death
___B) Cardio-respiratory arrest ___D) Use of the term “Probably”

829. This applies to cases when trauma or disease kills quickly that there is
no opportunity for sequelae or complications to develop. An example
is extensive brain laceration.
___A) Immediate or Primary Cause of death
___B) The proximate or Secondary Cause of death
___C) The Mechanism of death
___D) Cardio-respiratory arrest
___E) Manner of death

830. The injury or disease was survived for a sufficiently prolonged

interval which permitted the development of serious sequelae, which
actually cause the death. An example is the stab wound in the
abdomen later caused generalized peritonitis.
___A) Immediate or Primary Cause of death
___B) The proximate or Secondary Cause of death
___C) The Mechanism of death
___D) Cardio-respiratory arrest
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 ___E) Manner of death

831. It is the physiologic derangement or bio-chemical disturbance

incompatible with life which is initiated by the cause of death.
Examples are hemorrhage shock, metabolic disturbance, etc.
___A) Cardio-respiratory arrest
___B)The Mechanism of death
___C)Manner of death
___D)Use of the term “Probably”
___E) Sudden Unexplained Nocturnal Death (SUND)

832. It is a terminal mechanism of most causes of death and can never

stand independently as a reasonable explanation for the fatality.
Examples are hemorrhage, skull fracture, etc.
___A) Cardio-respiratory arrest
___B) The Mechanism of death
___C) Manner of death
___D) Use of the term “Probably”
___E) Sudden Unexplained Nocturnal Death (SUND)

833. It is the explanation as to how the cause of death came into being or
how the cause of death arose.
___A) Manner of death
___B)Sudden Unexplained Nocturnal Death (SUND)
___C)Use of the term “Probably”
___D) Medico-Legal Masquerade
___E) Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (Crib Death)

834. It is a term when violent deaths may be accompanied by minimal or

no external evidence of injury or natural death where signs of violence
may be present. Such that in case of homicide, the medical findings
may tend to favor suicide or accidental death, and visa versa.
___A) Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (Crib Death)
___B)Medico-Legal Masquerade
___C) Use of the term “Probably”
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 ___D)Sudden Unexplained Nocturnal Death (SUND)
___E) Euthanasia

835. Such a term must be discouraged as a qualification to a cause of death,

in as much as it is not definite.
___A) Medico-Legal Masquerade
___B) Use of the term “Probably”
___C)Sudden Unexplained Nocturnal Death (SUND)
___D)Euthanasia
___E) Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (Crib Death)

836. This is the unexpected death or infants, usually under six months of
age, while in apparently good health.
___A) Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (Crib Death)
___B) Sudden Unexplained Nocturnal Death (SUND)
___C)Euthanasia
___D) Automatism
___E) Starvation or inanition

837. It is the dehydration of the whole body, which results in the shivering,
and preservation of the body; it is observed in warm countries where
evaporation of body fluid takes place earlier and faster than
decomposition.
___A) Starvation or inanition ___D) Automatism
___B) Mummification ___E) Within 48 hours after death
___C) Euthanasia

838. It is the deprivation of a regular and constant supply of food and water
which is necessary to normal health of a person.
___A) Starvation or inanition ___D)Within 48 hours after death
___B) Mummification ___E)Embalming
___C) Euthanasia

839. It is the artificial way of preserving the body after death by injecting 6
to 8 quarts of antiseptic solution or formalin, perchloride of mercury
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 or arsenic, which is carried into the common catorid and the femoral
arteries.
___A) Within 48 hours after death
___B)Within 24 hours after death
___C) Embalming
___D) When the person died of communicable disease
___E) Starvation or inanition

840. Within how many hours under Section 1092, of the Revised
Administrative Code, when a dead body of a person be buried?
___A) Within 48 hours after death
___B) Within 24 hours after death
___C)Within 72 hours after death
___D) Within 3 hours after death
___E) Any of the above

841. Exception or exceptions provided for by said law when a dead body
may not be buried within the prescribed hours to be buried.
___A) When it is stills a subject matter of legal investigation
___B) When it is specifically authorized by the local health authorities
that the body may be buried more than the hours prescribed
___C) Impliedly when the body is embalmed
___D) Any of the above

842. If the person died of communicable disease, the body must be

buried…
___A) Within 12 hours unless the local health officer permits otherwise
___B) Within 6 hours unless the local health officer permits otherwise
___C) Within 3 hours unless the local health officer permits otherwise
___D) Within 48 hours unless the local health officer permits otherwise
___E) None of the above

843. The depth of the grave prescribed under Section 1100, Revised
Administrative Code, as amended by Presidential Decree No. 856
Section 91, Code of Sanitation is…
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 ___A) At least 1-1/2 meters deep and filled well and firmly
___B) At least 2 meters deep
___C) At least 1-1/2 meters deep filled well and firmly
___D) All of the above
___E) None of the above

844. Is the pulverization of the body into ashes by the application of heat.
___A) Cremation ___D) Charred
___B) Burning to ground ___E) Exhumation
___C) Pounding

845. This means that the deceased buried may be raised or disinterred upon
the lawful order of the proper authorities. The order may come from
the provincial or city fiscal, from the courts, and from any entity
vested with the authority to investigate.
___A) Cremation ___D) Area of Transfer
___B) Exhumation ___E) Vital reaction
___C) Kinetic energy

846. It is based on the mass and velocity factors and that the velocity is
square the velocity component is the important factor. This explains
why the M-16 bullet that has a speed of 3,200 feet per second will do
most damage than a 0. 38 Caliber bullet, which is heavier but has a
much slow velocity.
___A) Area of transfer ___C) Vital reaction
___B) Kinetic energy ___D) Time

847. This means that the shorter the period of time needed for the transfer
of energy, the greater the likelihood of producing damage. Thus, if a
person is hit on the body and the body moves towards the direction of
the force applied, the injury is less as when the body is stationary.
___A) Time ___C)Kinetic energy
___B)Area of transfer ___D)Vital reaction

848. This means that the larger the area of contact between the force
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 applied on the body, the lesser is the damage to the body. By applying
an equal force, the damage caused by stabbing is greater compared to
a blunt instrument.
___A) Vital reaction ___C) Kinetic energy
___B) Area of transfer ___D) Time

849. A wound which is the result of a person’s instinctive reaction of self-

protection, or injuries suffered by a person to avoid or repel potential
injury contemplated by the aggressor.
___A) Self-inflicted Wound ___C) Patterned Wound
___B) Defense Wound ___D) Mutilation

850. Wound in the nature and shape of an object or instrument and which
infers the object or instrument causing it.
___A) Self-inflicted Wound ___C) Patterned Wound
___B) Defense Wound ___D) Mutilation

851. It is a wound produced on oneself who has no intention to end his life.
___A) Self-inflicted Wound ___C) Patterned Wound
___B) Defense Wound ___D) Mutilation

852. A kind of wound where there is no breach of continuity of the skin or

mucous or membrane.
___A) Open Wound ___D) Hematoma
___B) Close Wound ___E) All of the above
___C) Contusion

853. This is a circumscribed extravasation of blood in the subcutaneous

tissue or underneath the mucous membrane.
___A) Close Wound ___C) Contusion
___B)Open Wound ___D) Hematoma

854. It is the effusion of blood into the tissue underneath the skin on
account of the rupture of the blood vessels as a result of the
application of blunt force or violence.
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 ___A) Hematoma ___C) Abrasion
___B) Contusion ___D) Incised wound

855. It is the extravasation or effusion of blood in the newly formed cavity

underneath the skin.
___A) Hematoma ___C)Incised wound
___B)Abrasion ___D) Stab wound

856. It is an injury characterized by the removal of the superficial epithelial

layer of the skin caused by a rub or friction against a hard rough
surface.
___A) Stab wound ___C) Abrasion
___B) Incised wound ___D) Punctured wound

857. This is produced by a sharp-edged or sharp-linear edge of the

instrument like a knife, razor, bolo, edge of oyster shell, metal sheet,
glass, etc.
___A) Stab wound ___C) Punctured wound
___B) Incised wound ___D) Laceration wound

858. This wound is produced by the penetration of a sharp-pointed and

sharp edged instrument like knife, saber, dagger, and scissors.
___A) Laceration wound ___C) Stab wound
___B) Punctured wound ___D) Shock

859. This wound is the result of a thrust of a sharp pointed instrument.

___A) Punctured wound ___C) Stab wound
___B)Shock ___D)Laceration wound

860. This wound is a tear of the skin and the underlying tissues due to
forcible contact with a blunt instrument.
___A) Laceration wound ___C)Shock
___B)Stab wound ___D) Hemorrhage

861. It is the extravasation or loss of blood from the circulation brought

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 about by wounds in cardio-vascular system.
___A) Hemorrhage ___C) Infection
___B) Shock ___D) Embolism

862. It is the disturbance of fluid balance resulting to peripheral deficiency,

which is manifested by the decreased volume of blood, reduced
volume of flow, hemo-concentration, and renal deficiency.
___A) Shock ___C) Infection
___B) Hemorrhage ___D) Embolism

863. It is the appearance, growth and development and micro-organism at

the side of injury.
___A) Infection ___C) Hemorrhage
___B) Embolism ___D) All of the above

864. This a condition in which foreign matters are introduced in the blood
stream causing block to the blood flow in the finer arterioles and
capillaries.
___A) Embolism ___C) Hemorrhage
___B) Infection ___D) All of the above

865. This kind of explosion occurs when the pressure inside a container
exceeds in structural strength. Examples are explosion of air pressure,
water pressure tanks, kerosene burner, etc.
___A) Mechanical (hydraulic) explosion
___B) Atomic explosion
___C) Chemical explosion
___D) Electrical explosion

866. This explosion occurs when a chemical reaction produces heat and gas
at a rate faster than the surrounding can dissipate.
___A) Chemical explosion
___B)Mechanical (hydraulic) explosion
___C)Electrical explosion
___D) Nuclear explosion
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867. The release of a significant amount of energy by fusion or fission and
consequently with a significant increase of destructiveness.
___A) Nuclear explosion
___B) Mechanical (hydraulic) explosion
___C) Chemical explosion
___D) Electrical explosion

868. In ballistics, the wounding power of a bullet, which, therefore, play a

very important role is due to…
___A) Bullet efficiency
___B) Mass (weight) and its Velocity
___C) Ballistics coefficient
___D) Flame

869. Which means that the cartridge powder can be burned in

approximately 0.00001 second; that the conversion rate by
combustion of the gunpowder to bullet energy is about 30-32 percent?
___A) Bullet efficiency
___B) Mass (weight) and its Velocity
___C) Ballistics coefficient
___D) Flame

870. This describes the ability of a bullet to maintain its velocity against air
resistance.
___A) Flame
___B)Ballistics coefficient
___C)Bullet efficiency
___D)Obturation
___E) Mass (weight) and its Velocity

871. This is the sealing or prevention of gunpowder gas after explosion

from escaping so as to maintain pressure in the firing chamber thereby
increasing the propulsive powder on the bullet.
___A) Mass (weight) and its Velocity
___B)Obturation
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 ___C) Bullet efficiency
___D)Ballistics coefficient
___E)Flame

872. This is the result of the ignition of the propellant; it is conical shape
with the vertex located at the gun muzzle. It does not usually go
beyond a distance of 6 inches, and in pistols or revolvers, the same is
often less than 3 inches.
___A) Flame
___B) Ballistics coefficient
___C) Bullet efficiency
___D)Mass (weight) and its Velocity
___E)Obturation

873. It is a term commonly used by physicians whenever there is

blackening of the margin of the gunshot wound of entrance.
___A) Powder burns
___B) Blackening
___C) Abrasion Collar (marginal abrasion)
___D) Contact fire
___E) The Odd and Even Rule in Gunshot Wounds

874. This due to smoke smudging, gunpowder tattooing and to a certain

extent burning of the wound margin.
___A) Powder burns
___B) Blackening
___C) Abrasion Collar (marginal abrasion)
___D) Wound of entrance
___E) Contact fire

875. The pressure of the bullet on the skin will cause the skin to be
depressed and the bullet lacerates the skin, the depressed portion will
be rubbed with the rough surface of the bullet.
___A) Powder burns
___B) Blackening
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 ___C) Abrasion Collar (marginal abrasion)
___D) Wound of entrance
___E) Contact fire

876. This means that not only the force of the bullet causes the nature and
extent of the injury but also by the gas of the muzzle blast and part of
the body involved.
___A) Wound of entrance
___B)Abrasion Collar (marginal abrasion)
___C)Contact fire
___D) Fired more than 60 centimeters distance
___E) Factors which make the wound of entrance bigger than the caliber

877. Effects of gunshot wounds when a firearm is fired more than 60

centimeters distance.
___A) Gunshot wound is circular or oval depending on the angle of
approach with abrasion collar
___B) Wound of entrance has no burning, smudging or tattooing
___C) Contact ring is missing
___D) All of the above

878. Of the factors which make the wound of entrance bigger than the
caliber, one of the following is not included.
___A) In contact or near fire
___B) Deformity of the bullet which entered
___C) Bullet might have entered the skin sidewise
___D) Acute angular approach of the bullet
___E) When a silencer is used

879. It does not show characteristic shape; it may be slit-like stellate,

irregular, this is due to the absence of external support beyond the
skin so the bullet tends to tear or shatter the skin while sufficient
amount of kinetic energy is still in the bullet during the process of
piercing the skin.
___A) Wound of the entrance
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 ___B) Exit (outshoot) wound
___C) The “Odd and Even Rule” in gunshot wounds
___D) Determination of the number of wounds of entrance in the body of
the victim
___E) Ante-mortem wound

880. This presumption is that the number of gunshot wounds of entrance

and exit found in the body of the victim is even, no bullet is lodged in
the body, but if the number of the gunshot wounds of entrance and
exit is odd, one or more bullets might have been lodge in the body.
___A) Ante-mortem wound
___B) The “Odd and Even Rule” in gunshot wounds
___C) Determination of the number of wounds of entrance in the body of
the victim
___D) Post-mortem wound
___E) Instances when the number of gunshot wounds of entrance is less
than the number of gunshot wounds of exist in the body of the
victim

881. The indication of gunshot wound if there has been profuse

hemorrhage, or there are signs of vital reaction in the tissue.
___A) Post-mortem wound ___D) Exit (outshoot) wound
___B)Ante-mortem wound ___E) Tandem bullet
___C) Wound of the entrance

882. The indication of gunshot wound inflicted after death will shown no
evidence of profuse hemorrhage, no retraction of the edges, and there
are no vital reaction.
___A) Post-mortem wound ___D) Russian Roulette
___B) Ante-mortem wound ___E) None of the above
___C) Tandem bullet

883. Which means that a group of person may agree to load a revolver with
a single live cartridge and member of the group will cock and pull the
trigger with the muzzle pressed or directed to the temple or towards
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 other vital parts of the body?
___A) Tandem bullet ___D) Assisting to suicide
___B) Russian Roulette ___E) Crime against person
___C) Mass suicide

884. It is a condition of a female who has not experienced sexual

intercourse and whose genital organs have not been altered by carnal
connection.
___A) Virginity ___D) Demi-virginity
___B) Moral virginity ___E) Virgo intacta
___C) Physical virginity

885. The state of not knowing the nature of sexual life and not having
experienced sexual relation.
___A) Virgo intacta ___D)Physical virginity
___B) Moral virginity ___E)Virginity
___C)Demi-virginity

886. A condition whereby a woman is conscious of the nature of the sexual

life but has not experienced sexual intercourse.
___A) Physical virginity ___D) Demi-virginity
___B)Virginity ___E) Virgo intacta
___C)Moral virginity

887. This term refers to a condition of a woman who permits any form of
sexual liberties as long as they abstain from rupturing the hymen by
sexual act.
___A) Demi-virginity ___D) Semen
___B) Virgo intacta ___E) Spermatozoon
___C) Defloration

888. Literally the term refers to a truly virgin woman; that there are
structural changes in her organ to infers previous sexual intercourse
and that she is a virtuous woman.
___A) Virgo intacta ___C) Physical virginity
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 ___B)Demi-virginity ___D)Defloration

889. It is laceration of the rupture of the hymen as a result of sexual

intercourse.
___A) Physical virginity ___C)Spermatozoon
___B)Semen ___D) Defloration

890. One of the following is the correct amount of semen per ejaculation.
___A) From 2.5 to 5.0 cubic centimeters
___B) About 2 Table Spoons
___C) About 6 drops of Medicine Dropper
___D) All of the above

891. It is the viscid, albuminous fluid with faint grayish yellow color,
having the characteristic fishy odor, and containing spermatozoa,
epithelial cells, lecithin bodies and other substances.
___A) Spermatozoon ___D) Heterosexual
___B) Semen ___E) Homosexual
___C) Blood stain

892. It is living organism, normally present in the seminal fluid consisting

of head, neck and tail.
___A) Spermatozoon ___D)Homosexual
___B) Semen ___E)Blood stain
___C)Heterosexual

893. Sexual desire towards the opposite sex- a normal behavior, social and
medically acceptable.
___A) Heterosexual ___C)Infantosexual
___B) Homosexual ___D) Tribadism

894. A special name for female homosexuals wherein a woman has the
desire to have sexual intercourse with another woman. Most of these
kind of woman have antipathy towards men.
___A) Heterosexual ___C)Tribadism
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 ___B) Homosexual ___D)Infantosexual

895. Sexual desire towards an immature person.

___A) Infantosexual ___C)Heterosexual
___B)Tribadism ___D)Homosexual

896. Sexual desire towards the same sex.

___A) Homosexual ___C) Tribadism
___B)Heterosexual ___D) Infantosexual

897. A sexual perversion characterized by erotic desire or actual

intercourse with a corpse.
___A) Gerontophilia ___C) Unconscious type
___B) Necrophilia ___D) Bestosexual

898. Sexual desire with elder person.

___A) Gerontophilia ___C)Bestosexual
___B) Necrophilia ___D)Unconscious type

899. The release of sexual tension may come about via the mechanism of
nocturnal stimulation with or without emission, which may also
considered as masturbation equivalent.
___A) Unconscious type ___C)Gerontophilia
___B)Bestosexual ___D)Sado-Masochism

DEOXYRIBONUCLEIC ACID (DNA) FINGERPRINTING

900. It is found in all nucleated cells in the body.

___A) Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA)
___B) Dynamic Natural Anti-body (DNA)
___C) Deonatural Acid (DNA)
___D) All of the above

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901. Science tell us that each person’s DNA is unique, except one of the
following:
___A) Husband and wife ___C) Non-identical twins
___B) Identical twins ___D) All of the above

902. It is the powerful scientific tool that is used to identify the source of
biological evidence by matching it with samples from victim or
suspect.
___A) Serology ___C) Fingerprinting
___B) DNA Testing or Profiling ___D) Forensic Chemistry

903. A British geneticist who pioneered the DNA Testing and coined DNA
fingerprinting, which led to the development of said test.
___A) Dr. Alec Jeffries
___B) Dr. Lowell C. Van Berkom
___C) Dr. William Neal Reynolds
___D) Dr. Henry Van Dyke

904. Are the only two buddy fluids that are routinely tested because they
are good sources of cells.
___A) Tears and Saliva ___C) Blood and Semen
___B) Urine and Saliva ___D) All of the above

905. A human being’s useable tissue attached to his/her body, which can be
tested for DNA.
___A) Bone ___C) Fingernails
___B) Hair ___D) Skin

906. Like serological evidence, DNA evidence is preserved best when…

___A) Kept cold and dry
___B) Refrigerated
___C) Kept heat and away from moisture
___D) All of the above

907. Biological evidences when recovered from the crime scene are
Page 201
 appropriate to request for DNA testing.
___A) Saliva, urine or tears ___C) Fingernails or skin
___B) Blood, semen or hairs ___D) All of the above

908. If it is very old crime, what DNA samples should be obtained for
purposes of DNA Testing?
___A) Sample from fingernails
___B) Samples from Urine , Saliva or Tears
___C) Samples from a skeleton
___D) All of the above

909. Genetically, identical twins have…

___A) Different fingerprints ___C) Same fingerprints
___B) Similar fingerprints ___D) All of the above

910. A laboratory work that would be the weak link in the chain of DNA
forensics.
___A) Technique ___C) Humidity
___B) Human error ___D) All of the above

911. The process of analyzing DNA, the genetics blueprint found in every
cell of the human body, that is, to determine whether two sample
“match” is complicated because it involves…
___A) Intricate laboratory work
___B) Sophisticated application of mathematical formulas
___C) All of the above
___D) None of the above

912. If evidence is hair or decayed bone, the DNA sample will most likely
be as such since the nucleus will be available.
___A) Mitochondrial DNA ___C) Helix
___B) Nuclear DNA ___D) All of the above

913. On the other hand, if the evidence is blood or saliva, the DNA sample
will most likely be as such since the nucleus will be available.
Page 202
 ___A) Nuclear DNA ___C) Helix
___B)Mitochondrial DNA ___D) All of the above

914. It is any spiral form or structure.

___A) Helix ___C)Nuclear DNA
___B) Nucleus ___D)Mitochondrial DNA

915. It is a complex, usually spherical body within a living cell that

contains most of the cell’s heredity material and that control its
metabolism, growth and reproduction.
___A) Nucleus ___C)Mitochondrial DNA
___B)Nuclear DNA ___D)Helix

916. It is inherited solely from the mother, found in the mitochondria

which is in the cell body.
___A) Nucleus ___C) Mitochondrial DNA
___B) Nuclear DNA ___D) Helix

917. The DNA Testing technique currently used by the Board of Criminal
Apprehension (BCA) Laboratory, Minnesota, USA, is referred to as
“RFLP,” which means…
___A) Regulated Fragment Length Polymorphisms
___B) Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphisms
___C) Reactivated Fragment Length Polymorphisms
___D) All of the above

918. DNA testing involves a series of steps and is very time consuming.
The time required for DNA testing varies. In general, how many
weeks to work a case from the start to finish once the case has been
started?
___A) A minimum of six (6) weeks
___B) A minimum of one (1) month
___C) A minimum of four (4) weeks

919. DNA results are admissible in evidence in the court of law.

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 ___A) True
___B) Not exactly admissible as more studies are still evaluated
___C) Not true
___D) None of the above

920. Another two important uses of DNA fingerprinting are:

___A) To diagnose inherited disorders both in prenatal and newborn
babies in hospital and to established paternity in custody and
child support litigation
___B) To predict the Intelligence Quotient (IQ) and face profile of a fetus
___C) To predict the sex and Intelligence Quotient (IQ) of a fetus
___D) All of the above

921. The basic building blocks of DNA.

___A) Letter A stands for Adenine
___B) Letter C stands for Cytosine
___C) Letter G stands for Guanine
___D) Letter T stands for Thymine
___E) All of the above

CRIMINAL LAW

922. May be defined as that branch or division of law which defines

crimes, treats of their nature and provides for their punishment.
___A) Penology ___C) Criminology
___B) Criminal Law ___D) Capital Offense

923. A theory underlying the system of our criminal law, of which Rafael
Garofalo and Enrico Ferri, including Dr. Cesare Lombroso, were the
greatest exponents, that crimes are considered as essentially a social
and natural phenomenon; as such it cannot be treated and checked by
the application of abstract principle of law and jurisprudence, nor by
the imposition of a punishment fixed and determined a priori, but

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 rather through the enforcement of individual measures in each
particular case after a personal, thorough and individual investigation
conducted by a competent body of psychiatrist and social scientists.
___A) Juristic or classical theory
___B) Positivist or realistic theory
___C) Punitive theory
___D) Non-punitive theory

924. Under this theory, man is considered as an essentially moral creature

with an absolute free will to choose between good and evil, therefore,
he should be adjudged or held accountable for his wrongful acts for as
long as his free will is unimpaired.
___A) Juristic or classical theory
___B) Positivist or realistic theory
___C) Territoriality
___D) Non-punitive theory

925. One of the characteristics of criminal law, where penal laws, like
those intended for public security and safety, shall be obligatory upon
all persons residing within the State , subject to the principles of
public international law and treaty agreements.
___A) Irretrospectivity ___C) Territoriality
___B) Generality ___D) All of the foregoing

926. One of the characteristics of criminal law, where penal laws do not
have retroactive effect, except in cases where they favor the accused
charged with felony and who are not habitual criminals.
___A) Irretrospectivity ___C) Territoriality
___B) Generality ___D) All of the foregoing

927. The third characteristics of criminal law, where penal laws

applicability is subject to punishment crimes committed within the
Philippine territory extending to the twelve-mile limits from the
headlands, except such limitations only as have been conceded by the
territorial sovereign through the proper political agencies.
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 ___A) Irretrospectivity ___C) Territoriality
___B) Generality ___D) All of the foregoing

928. One theory with respect to the jurisdiction to try crimes committed on
board a foreign vessels while found within Philippine territorial
boundaries, that is, when the crimes committed on board a foreign
vessels found within the territorial waters and parts of the Philippines
do not affect the tranquility, peace and security of such State, or when
its safety is not endangered, these offenses are triable in the courts of
the country represented by the flag of such foreign vessel.
___A) Nationality Theory (French Rule)
___B) Territoriality Theory (English Rule)
___C) American Military Bases Agreement Theory
___D) All of the foregoing

929. Under this theory crimes committed on board a foreign merchant

vessel while in a foreign port, save in cases covered by treaty
agreements, are subject to the jurisdiction of the local courts unless
they affect only the vessel or those belonging to her and do not
involve the dignity of the host country or the tranquility of the latter’s
port.
___A) Nationality Theory (French Rule)
___B) Territoriality Theory (English Rule)
___C) American Military Bases Agreement Theory
___D) All of the foregoing

930. Are those crimes committed against the society which produce direct
damage or prejudice common to all its members.
___A) Private crimes ___C) Felony
___B) Public crimes ___D) Infractions

931. Are those crimes committed against individuals, particularly against

their chastity, but which do not produce danger or prejudice common
to other members of the society.
___A) Private crimes ___C) Felony
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 ___B) Public crimes ___D) Infractions

932. Are those offenses of such serious character in their effect on society
as to call for the practically unanimous condemnation of its members.
___A) Mala prohibitu ___C) Public crimes
___B) Mala per se ___D) Private crimes

933. Are those infractions of mere rules of convenience designed to secure

a more orderly regulation of the affairs of society.
___A) Mala prohibitu ___C) Piracy
___B) Mala per se ___D) Felonies

934. It is a crime committed not against a particular country but against

mankind, consequently, jurisdiction over this particular offense
recognizes no territorial limits.
___A) Felonies ___C) Justifying circumstances
___B) Piracy ___D) Exempting circumstances

935. Are those acts and omissions committed not only by means of deceit,
but also by means of fault and are punishable by law.
___A) Justifying circumstances ___C)Exempting circumstances
___B)Felonies ___D) Attempted felony

936. Is committed whenever the offender commences the commission of a

crime directly by overt acts but does not perform all the acts of
execution which should produce the felony as a consequence by
reason of some cause or accident other than his own spontaneous
desistance.
___A) Frustrated felony ___C) Consumated felony
___B) Attempted felony ___D) All of the foregoing

937. In this respect, the offender performs all acts of execution which
would produce the felony as a consequence but which, nevertheless,
do not produce it by reason of causes independently of the will of the
perpetrator.
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 ___A) Frustrated felony ___C) Consumated felony
___B) Attempted felony ___D)Justifying circumstances

938. Circumstances wherein the acts of the person are in accordance with
the law and, hence, he incurs no criminal and civil liability.
___A) Justifying circumstances
___B) Exempting circumstances
___C) Mitigating circumstances
___D) Aggravating circumstances
___E) Alternative circumstances

939. Those wherein there is an absence in the agent of the crime any of all
the conditions that would make an act voluntary and, hence, although
there is no criminal liability, there is civil liability.
___A) Justifying circumstances
___B) Exempting circumstances
___C)Aggravating circumstances
___D) Mitigating circumstances
___E) Alternative circumstances

940. Circumstances where those that have the effect of reducing the
penalty because there is diminution of any of the elements of dolo or
culpa, which makes the act voluntary or because of the lesser
perversity of the offender.
___A) Mitigating circumstances
___B)Aggravating circumstances
___C)Alternative circumstances
___D)Justifying circumstances

941. Those which are either aggravating or mitigating according to the

nature and effects of the crime and other conditions attending its
commission.
___A) Alternative circumstances
___B) Aggravating circumstances
___C)Justifying circumstances
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 ___D)Mitigating circumstances

942. Circumstances which serve to increase the penalty without exceeding

the maximum provided by law because of the greater perversity of the
offender as shown by the motivating power of the commission of the
crime, the time and place of its commission, the means employed or
the personal circumstances of the offender.
___A) Mitigating circumstances
___B) Aggravating circumstances
___C) Alternative circumstances
___D) Instigation

943. This situation takes place when a peace officer induces a person to
commit a crime; without the inducement, the crime would not be
committed.
___A) Entrapment ___C) Voluntary surrender
___B) Instigation ___D) Recidivism

944. This signifies the ways and means devised by a peace officer to
apprehend a person who has committed a crime; with or without the
said devise or means and devise, the crime has already been
committed.
___A) Entrapment ___C) Voluntary surrender
___B) Instigation ___D) Recidivism

945. To be appreciated as mitigating, it must be made to a person in

authority or his agent; it may be present if made after the issuance of a
warrant of arrest, but before actual arrest is made.
___A)Voluntary surrender ___C) Habituality of reiteration
___B) Recidivism ___D) Treachery

946. These means at least two convictions and hence, it is a form of

plurality of crimes like reiteration, habitual delinquency; that the first
conviction must be final judgment and must take place prior to the
second conviction, and the subsequent conviction should be for an
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 offense committed before the offense in the prior conviction.
___A) Recidivism ___C)Treachery
___B)Habitualityor reiteration ___D) Principles

947. In this kind of aggravating circumstances, it is essential that the

offender be previously punished, that is, he has served the sentence
for an offense in which the law attaches, or provides for an equal or
greater penalty than that attached by law to the second offense, or for
two or more offenses, in which the law attaches a lighter penalty.
___A) Recidivism ___C) Principals
___B) Habituality or reiteration ___D)Treachery

948. This kind of aggravating circumstances is present when a person

commits any of the crimes against person employing such means,
methods or forms in the execution thereof which tend directly and
specially to insure its execution, without risk to himself arising from
the defense which the offended party might make.
___A) Treachery ___C) Accomplishes
___B) Principals ___D) Accessories

949. Those person who are criminally liable, or those who take direct part
in the execution of the act; who directly force or induce another to
commit it; and those who cooperate in the commission of the offense
by another act without which it would not have been accomplished.
___A) Principals ___C)Accessories
___B)Accomplishes ___D) All of the foregoing

950. They are those, who not being principals, cooperate in the execution
of the offense by previous or simultaneous acts.
___A) Accessories ___C) Principals
___B) Accomplices ___D) All of the foregoing

951. Are criminally liable whenever, having knowledge of the commission

of the crime, without having participated therein, takes part
subsequent to its commission, either in profiting themselves are
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 assisting to offenders to profit by the effects of the crime, by
concealing or destroying the body of the crime, or assisting the escape
of the principal, etc.
___A) Accessories ___C) Principals
___B) Accomplices ___D) None of the foregoing

952. In its juridical sphere, it means by the suffering undergone, because of

the action of society, by one who commits a crime, hence, it can only
be imposed after conviction in a criminal action.
___A) Penalty ___C) Amnesty
___B) Pardon ___D) All of the foregoing

953. Is a kind of Executive clemency that wipes away the guilt of the
convicted person, subject to the three limitations to be executed by the
President.
___A) Penalty ___C) Amnesty
___B) Pardon ___D) Reprieve

954. Is a kind of Executive clemency whereby the execution of penalty is

suspended.
___A) Pardon ___C) Amnesty
___B)Reprieve ___D) Commutation of sentence

955. The penalty imposed by the court upon an offender is reduced to a

lighter one.
___A) Commutation of sentence
___B) Reprieve
___C) Amnesty
___D) Civil interdiction

956. It is an accessory penalty provided by law when the principal penalty

imposed upon the offender for the commission of a crime is more than
twelve years imprisonment.
___A) Amnesty ___C) Capital offense
___B) Civil interdiction ___D) None of the foregoing
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957. It is one which, under the law existing at the time of its commission
and at the time of the application to be admitted to bail, may be
punishable by death, although a lower penalty than death may be
imposed after conviction.
___A) Capital offense ___C) Complex crime
___B) Civil interdiction ___D) Continuous offense

958. It is one for which the law imposes a single punishment for various
offenses. It is committed in either of two ways; when a single act
constitutes two or more grave or less grave offenses; or when an
offense is a necessary means for committing another.
___A) Continuous offense ___C)Capital offense
___B)Complex crime ___D) Impossible crime

959. Is a kind of crime which is committed by a person who performs an

act which would be an offense against persons or property, where it
not for the inherent impossibility of its accomplishment or on account
of the employment of inadequate or ineffectual means.
___A) Complex crime ___C) Prescription of crime
___B) Impossible crime ___D) Prescription of penalty

960. It may be defined as the forfeiture or loss of the right of the State to
prosecute the offender after the lapse of a certain time fixed by law.
___A) Impossible crime ___C)Prescription of penalty
___B)Prescription of crime ___D) Conditional pardon

961. It is the loss of forfeiture of the right of the government to execute the
final sentence after the lapse of a certain time fixed by law.
___A) Prescription of penalty ___C)Conditional pardon
___B) Prescription of crime ___D) Good conduct allowance

962. It means the mercy extended by the Chief Executive to a person

sentenced for an offense whereby the personal effects of the penalty
are suspended subject to the conditions, if accepted by the person
sentenced, produces the effect of freeing him from imprisonment if he
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 is deprived of liberty, or from preventing him from changing his
residence as he pleases, if he is sentenced to exile.
___A) Conditional pardon ___C) Deduction for loyalty
___B) Good conduct allowance ___D) Indemnification

963. This allowance is given, that is, 5 days for each month of good
behavior for first two years; 8 days for each month, third to 5 year; 10
days for each month, following years to the 10 th year; and 15 days for
each month in the 11th year and successive years, in consideration of
the good conduct of the prisoner while serving the sentence.
___A) Deduction for loyalty ___C) Amnesty
___B) Good conduct allowance ___D) Conditional pardon

964. It is the deduction of one-fifth (1/5) of the period of the sentence of a

prisoner if he, having evaded the service of sentence because of
calamity or any disorder under Art. 158, gives himself up to the
authorities within 48 hours following the issuance of a proclamation
regarding the passing away of the calamity.
___A) Deduction for loyalty ___C) Amnesty
___B) Good conduct allowance ___D) Conditional pardon

965. It may be defined as a disposition under which a defendant after

conviction and sentenced, is released subject to the conditions
imposed by the Court and to the supervision of a probation officer.
___A) Indemnification ___C) Reparation
___B) Reparation ___D) Probation

966. It is granted in connection with crimes against property, and is limited

to prejudice that the injured party suffered.
___A) Indemnification ___C) Prejudicial question
___B) Reparation ___D) Treason

967. This case may arise where the criminal action is suspended instead
until the termination of a civil or administrative preceding; that it must
be determinative of the case before the court; and jurisdiction to try
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 the case must be lodged in another tribunal.
___A) Prejudicial question ___C)Treason
___B) Reparation ___D) Levying war

968. This is a breach of the allegiance, which is the obligation of the

fidelity and obedience one owes to the government, or sovereign
under which he lives, in return for the protection he receives.
___A) Levying war ___C) Adherence to the enemy
___B) Treason ___D) Aid and comfort

969. As a mode of committing treason, it means an actual assemblage of

persons for the purpose of executing a treasonable design.
___A) Levying war ___C)Aid and comfort
___B)Adherence to the enemy ___D) Misprision of treason

970. Means an act which strengthens or tends to strengthen the enemy of

the government in the conduct of war against the government, or an
act which weakens or tends to weaken the power of the government or
the country to resist or to attack the enemies of the government of the
country.
___A) Levying war ___C) Aid and comfort
___B) Adherence to the enemy ___D) Misprision of treason

971. Means that a citizen intellectually or emotionally favors the enemy

and harbors sympathies or connections disloyal to his country’s policy
or interest.
___A) Levying war ___C) Aid and comfort
___B) Adherence to the enemy ___D) Misprision of treason

972. This requirement imports the degree of proof necessary to convict an

accused of the crime of treason consisting of the testimony of two
witnesses to the same overt act.
___A) Dangerous Tendency Rule
___B) Two-witness rule
___C) All of the foregoing
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 ___D) None of the foregoing

973. It is a felony by omission committed by an accused owing allegiance

to the government of the Republic of the Philippines, who, without
being a foreigner, and having knowledge of any conspiracy against
her, conceals, or does not disclose and make known, the same as soon
as possible to the proper authorities concerned. Such offender would
be considered as an accessory subject to the penalty imposed by law
upon such accessory to the crime of treason.
___A) Two-witness rule ___C) Espionage
___B) Misprision of treason ___D) None of the foregoing

974. It is committed by any person who, without authority therefore enters

a warship, for, or naval or military establishment or reservation, to
obtain any information, plans, photographs, or other data of a
confidential nature relative to the defense of the Philippine
Archipelago, etc.
___A) Rebellion ___C) Sedition
___B) Espionage ___D) War of crime

975. It is defined as the deprivation by a public officer of the liberty of a

person without any legal ground, if the offender is a private person,
illegal detention is committed.
___A) Illegal detention ___C) Violation of domicile
___D) Arbitrary detention ___D) Expulsion

976. It is committed by a public officer or employee who, not being

authorized by any judicial authority or order shall enter any dwelling
against the will of the owner thereof, having entered the dwelling not
against the will of the owner, shall search papers of their effects found
therein without the previous consent of the owner, or having
surreptitiously entered the dwelling and when being required to leave
shall refuse to do so.
___A) Trespass to dwelling ___C) Expulsion
___B) Violation of domicile ___D) Probable cause
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977. It is the unauthorized act of a public officer or employee of expelling
a person from the Philippines, or of compelling him to change his
residence.
___A) Probable cause ___C) Rebellion
___B) Expulsion ___D) Sedition

978. This crime is committed by rising publicly with arms against the
Government for the purpose of removing from the allegiance to sale
government or its laws, the territory of the Philippines r any part
thereof of any body of land, naval or other armed forces, or depriving
the Chief Executive or the Legislative, wholly or partially, of any of
their powers or prerogatives.
___A) Treason ___C) Sedition
___B) Rebellion ___D) Direct assault

979. There is a public or tumultuous uprising in order to attain by force

intimidation, or any other means, like the prevention of execution of
law or the holding of an election.
___A) Sedition ___C)Direct assault
___B) Rebellion ___D) Indirect assault

980. This crime is committed by attacking, employing force, seriously

intimidating or seriously resisting any person in authority or his agent
while engaged in the performance of official duties or on the occasion
of said performance.
___A) Direct assault ___C)Indirect assault
___B) Rebellion ___D) Resistance

981. This crime is committed upon a private person who comes to the aid
or agent of a person in authority on the occasion of direct assault
committed against the latter.
___A) Indirect assault ___C)Resistance
___B) Direct assault ___D) All of the foregoing

982. A coin is said to be, when it is made of metal, whether inferior or

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 superior intrinsic value to that of the genuine coin, and is given
appearance of one legal tender.
___A) False or counterfeit coin ___C) Forged
___B) Mutilation of coin ___D) Falsified

983. It is an act of diminishing, by ingenious means, the metal in the coin.

___A) False or counterfeit coin ___C) Forged
___B) Mutilation of coin ___D) Falsification

984. This crime is committed whenever the offender makes or intimates a

treasury or bank notes or certificates, of giving it the appearance of
one that is genuine.
___A) Falsification of document ___C) Intercalation
___B) Forgery ___D) Rubric

985. This crime is committed by counterfeiting or imitating handwriting,

signature or rubric; causing it to appear that persons have participated
in any act or proceeding when they did not in fact so participate; etc.
___A) Falsification of document ___C) Intercalation
___B) Forgery ___D) Copying

986. Those directly vested with the jurisdiction, whether as individuals or

as members of some court or government corporations, board or
commission, are…
___A) Public officer
___B) Persons in authority
___C) Agents of persons in authority
___D) Employee

987. Are those who by direct provision of law or by appointment of

competent authority are charged with the maintenance of public order
and the protection and security of life and property.
___A) Agents of persons in authority
___B)Public officer
___C)Persons in authority
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 ___D) All of them

988. Is one who, by direct provision of law, popular election or

appointment by competent authority, takes part in the performance of
public functions in the government of the Republic of the Philippines,
or performs in said government in any of its branches public duties as
an employee, agent or subordinate official, or any rank or class.
___A) Public officer
___B)Agents of persons in authority
___C) Persons in authority
___D) All of the foregoing

989. This crime is committed by any person without any distinction, by

performing under pretense of official position any act pertaining to
such person.
___A) Usurpation of authority
___B) Usurpation of real property or property rights
___C) Estafa
___D) All of the foregoing

990. Is the willful and corrupt assertion of falsehood under oath of

affirmation administered by authority of law on a material matter.
___A) Perjury ___C) Fraud
___B) False testimony ___D) None of the foregoing

991. This kind of falsification of document, for the act to be punishable, it

must be shown that some prejudice or damage to a third party must
have been caused or intended to be caused.
___A) Falsification of public document
___B) Falsification of private document
___C) Falsification of official document
___D) Falsification of commercial document

992. This kind of falsification of document, damage is immaterial, for what

is important is the violation of the public faith and the destruction of
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 the truth, and the change must affect the integrity of the document.
___A) Falsification of public document
___B) Falsification of private document
___C) Falsification of official document
___D) Falsification of commercial document

993. This is given in the course of judicial or quasi-judicial proceeding;

contemplates and actual trial where judgment of conviction or
acquittal is rendered and not merely a preliminary investigation, and
whether it is for or against the defendant-criminal or civil, both forms
are equally repugnant to the orderly administration of justice, and
serves to be rigorously repressed.
___A) Perjury ___C) Fraud
___B) False Testimony ___D) All of the foregoing

994. It is the act of person who knowingly offers in evidence a false

witness or testimony in any judicial or official proceeding.
___A) Perjury ___C) False testimony
___B) Subornation of perjury ___D) All of the foregoing

995. This felony is punishable under the law relating to a person who has
no visible means of support and lives without lawful employment, or
who keeps a house of public gambling or gaming; or prostitution; or
acts as pimp or procurer; or who is common gramble or prostitute; or
who, for the most part’ maintains himself by gambling or begging; or
habitually loiters in any inhabited or inhabited place belonging to
another without any lawful or justifiable purpose, or who are women
and for money or profit, habitually indulge in sexual intercourse or
lascivious conduct.
___A) Prostitute ___C) Vandalism
___B) Vagrancy ___D) All of the foregoing

996. This crime is committed by a public officer who agrees to commit a

criminal offense in connection with the exercise of the powers of his
office in consideration of a price, reward, promise, or gift.
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 ___A) Moonlighting ___C) Indirect bribery
___B) Direct bribery ___D) Estafa

997. This crime is committed by a public officer who agrees to commit and
act in consideration of the gift and this act is connected with the
discharge of his public duties.
___A) Moonlighting ___C) Indirect bribery
___B) Direct bribery ___D) Estafa

998. This crime is committed whenever a public officer does not account
for what he collects and he misappropriates the fees collected.
___A) Illegal exaction
___B) Estafa
___C) Malversation
___D) Corruption of public official

999. Whether committed by collecting different or larger sums, failing to

issues a receipt or receiving different objects, the officer accounts for
the money collected, but subsequently misappropriates it, said officer
committed the crime of…
___A) Illegal exaction
___B) Estafa
___C) Malversation
___D) Corruption of public official

1000. This crime is committed by any officer who embezzles or makes

personal use of any government fund or property for which he is
accountable, or abstract or misappropriates the same, or through his
fault or negligence permits any other person to abstract,
misappropriate, or make personal use thereof.
___A) Malversation
___B) Estafa
___C)Corruption of public official
___D)Illegal exaction

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1001. This is committed by a person who gives gift or makes the offer or
promise in the direct or indirect bribery.
___A) Estafa
___B)Corruption of public official
___C)Illegal exaction
___D)Malversation

1002. This crime is committed whenever a public officer who has under his
custody or charge a prisoner serving sentence by final judgment or
detention prisoner and he connives with or consents to the escape of
such prisoner.
___A) Evasion of service of sentence
___B) Infidelity in the custody of prisoner
___C) Jail break
___D) All of the above

1003. This is a crime committed by a public officer who does not

misappropriate public funds but appropriate them for purpose other
than those authorized by law.
___A) Realignment of funds ___C) Malversation
___B) Technical malversation ___D) Moonlighting

1004. This crime, it is the convict who evades service of sentence by

escaping during his term of imprisonment, and who is subject to
punishment.
___A) Infidelity in the custody of prisoner
___B)Evasion of service of sentence
___C) Jail break
___D) Escapee

1005. Takes place whenever some person is killed or wounded during the
confusion attendant to a quarrel among several persons not organized
into groups and the parties responsible cannot be ascertained.
___A) Homicide ___C) Infanticide
___B) Tumultuous affray ___D) Abortion
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1006. This is not a crime before society; before God, it is an enormous
offense; who is punished is the one who assists in self-destruction.
___A) Tumultuous affray ___C) Infanticide
___B) Suicide ___D) Abortion

1007. This is the willful conscious killing of any child less than three days
old.
___A) Abortion ___C) Maltreatment of prisoner
___B) Infanticide ___D) Kidnapping

1008. This crime is committed whenever a public officer or employee who

has under his charge, a prisoner or detention prisoner and he overdoes
himself in the correction or handling of such prisoner by imposing
punishment not authorized by regulation, or inflicting such
punishment in a cruel and humiliating manner.
___A) Police brutality ___C) Coercion
___B) Maltreatment of prisoner ___D) Unjust vexation

1009. It is the unlawful destruction, or the bringing forth prematurely, of

human fetus before the natural time of birth which results in death.
___A) Infanticide ___C) Parricide
___B) Abortion ___D) Murder

1010. A Presidential Decree which provides for the “Granting Immunity

from prosecution to Givers of Bribes and other Gifts to their
Accomplices in Bribery and other Graft Cases against Public
Officers.”
___A) PD 603 ___C) PD 765
___B) PD 749 ___D) PD 968

1011. If the person not yet confined in jail and he is maltreated by a public
officer to make him confess his guilt, the crime committed is…
___A) Police brutality ___C) Physical injuries
___B) Coercion ___D) All of the foregoing

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1012. If the person maltreated by a public officer has already been arrested
but is not yet booked in the office of the police and put in jail, the
crime committed is…
___A) Physical injuries ___C)Coercion
___B)Police brutality ___D) All of the foregoing

1013. This crime is committed by a public officer, whenever there is

pending before him a matter in which a woman is interested or with
respect thereto. He is required to submit a report to or immoral
advances upon said woman.
___A) Acts of lasciviousness ___C) Coercion
___B) Abuses against chastity ___D) Unjust vexation

1014. It is the intentional deprivation of any body organ necessary for

reproduction.
___A) Abortion ___C) Physical injuries
___B) Castration ___D) All of the foregoing

1015. This crime is committed whenever a person is killed who is the father,
mother or child, whether legitimate or illegitimate, or a legitimate
ascendant or descendant, or legitimate spouse of the accused.
___A) Homicide
___B) Parricide
___C) Murder
___D) Death under exceptional circumstances

1016. This is crime committed by a person who is legally married, who

surprises his spouse in the act of committing sexual intercourse with
another person; he kills or serious physical injuries are inflicted on
any of them; and he does so during the act of intercourse or
immediately thereafter.
___A) Parricide
___B) Death or physical injuries inflicted under exceptional
circumstances
___C) Murder
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 ___D) All of the foregoing

1017. This is a crime against liberty and the violent taking of another person
is not motivated by lewd designs.
___A) Forcible abduction ___C) Acts of lasciviousness
___B) Kidnapping ___D) Seduction

1018. This is a crime against chastity, and the violent taking of a woman is
motivated by lewd designs.
___A) Forcible abduction ___C) Acts of lasciviousness
___B) Kidnapping ___D) Seduction

1019. It is an act of a private person of entering the dwelling of another

effected against the latter’s will.
___A) Violation of domicile ___C) Threat
___B) Trespass to dwelling ___D) Grave coercion

1020. It is an act of a public officer or employee who enters the dwelling of

another effected against the latter’s will.
___A) Violation of domicile ___C) Threat
___B) Trespass to dwelling ___D) Grave coercion

1021. It is an intentional declaration made by a person orally, in writing or

through the mediation of another, to inflict upon the person of
another, his character or his property or upon that of his family, of
some wrong which may or may not be a crime.
___A) Grave coercion ___C) Unjust vexation
___B) Threat ___D) Violation of privacy

1022. This crime is committed by a person who prevents another from doing
something not prohibited by law or compels him to do something
against his will be it right or wrong; that the prevention or compulsion
is affected by violence, either by material force or such displays as
would produce intimidation or control the will of the offended party;
that the offender had no right to restrain that will and liberty of the
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 offended party under any law or in the exercise of a lawful right.
___A) Grave coercion ___C) Unjust vexation
___B) Threat ___D) Violation of privacy

1023. This crime is committed by a person who prevents another from doing
something not prohibited by law or compels him to do something
against his will be it right or wrong; that the prevention or compulsion
is affected by violence, either by material force or such displays as
would produce intimidation and control the will of the offended party;
that the offender had no right to restrain the will and liberty of the
offended party under any law or in the exercise of a lawful right.
___A) Grave coercion ___C) Unjust vexation
___B) Threat ___D) Violation of privacy

1024. In this crime against property, violence or intimidation is employed

upon the person of the offended party or force upon the thing itself,
and it is necessary that the unlawful taking its against the will of the
owner.
___A) Theft ___C) Highway robbery
___B) Robbery ___D) Estafa

1025. This kind of crime against property, no violence, or intimidation is

employed by the offender, and it is enough that consent of the owner
of the property taken is lacking.
___A) Theft ___C) Estafa
___B) Robbery ___D) Bribery

1026. This crime is committed by means of ingenuity or cunning for the

purpose of depriving the victim of his property and owner’s consent is
present.
___A) Theft ___C) Estafa
___B) Robbery ___D) Bribery

1027. They are a band of robbers composed of more than three armed
person for the purpose of committing by means of force and violence,
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 robbery to the highways, or kidnapping persons for the purpose of
extorting or to obtain ransom, or for any other purpose to be attained
by means of force or violence.
___A) Criminal gangs ___C) Extortionists
___B) Brigands ___D) Bandits

1028. It is that crime committed and punished under the Revised Penal
Code, by a person who, by means of violence or intimidation of
persons, shall take possession of any real property belonging to
another.
___A) PD 772-Anti-Squatting Law
___B) Usurpation of real property or rights in property
___C) Land grabbing
___D) All of the foregoing

1029. In its simple character, means the deliberate damaging or the property
of another inspired by hate, resentment, desire for revenge or other
evil motive.
___A) Vandalism ___C) Loitering
___B) Malicious Mischief ___D) Vagrancy

1030. It is an offense committed by a married woman through carnal

knowledge with a man not her husband who knows her to be married,
although the marriage be latter declared void.
___A) Concubinage ___C) Immortality
___B) Adultery ___D) All of the foregoing

1031. It may be defined as an act committed by a husband who keep a

mistress in the conjugal dwelling, or shall have sexual intercourse,
under scandalous circumstances, with a woman who is not his wife, or
shall cohabit with her in any place.
___A) Concubinage ___C) Immortality
___B) Adultery ___D) All of the foregoing

1032. They are those of acts of lewdness committed upon persons of either
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 sex not amounting to rape by using force or intimidation, or while the
offended party is deprived of reason or is unconscious, or if he or she
is under 12 years of age.
___A) Seduction ___C) Coercion
___B) Acts of lasciviousness ___D) Unjust vexation

1033. It is the act of a person of marrying for the second time, before the
former marriage has been legally dissolved or before the absent
spouse has been judicially declared presumptively dead.
___A) Polygamy ___C) Immorality
___B) Bigamy ___D) All of the foregoing

1034. It is a public and malicious imputation of a crime, or of a vice or

defect, real or imaginary, or any act, omission, condition, status, or
circumstances tending to cause the dishonor, discredit, or contempt of
a natural or judicial person, or to blacken the memory of one who is
dead.
___A) Black mail ___C) Violation of privacy
___B) Libel ___D) Innuendo

1035. It is a clause in a declaration, indictment, or other pleading containing

an averment which is explanatory of some preceding word or
statement.
___A) Libel ___C) Innuendo
___B) Violation of privacy ___D) Privileged communication

1036. It is one containing matters which would, under the law, be

considered defamatory and therefore actionable but for the occasion
and circumstances under which they are made.
___A) Libel ___C) Privileged communication
___B)Innuendo ___D)Black mail
1037. It is any lawful extortion of money by appeal to the fears of the
victim; especially, extortion of money through threats of accusation or
exposure.
___A) Black mail ___C) Slander or oral defamation
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 ___B) Privileged communication ___D) Incriminatory machinations

1038. Is or may be defined as the speaking of defamatory words or the

performance of acts, actuated by malice, which tend to cause
dishonor, discredit or contempt of natural or judicial person to the
prejudice of the latter’s reputation, office, business, or trade.
___A) Slander or oral defamation
___B)Incriminatory machinations
___C) Privileged communication
___D) Black mail

1039. These acts of punishable by law which are either intended to directly
impute to an innocent person the commission of crime, or which are
calculated to blemish the honor or reputation of a person by means of
intrigue.
___A) Incriminatory machinations
___B)Slander or oral defamation
___C)Black mail
___D) All of the foregoing

1040. One which is any act committed without violence but which
unjustifiably annoys an innocent person. As it is a punishable act, it
should include any human conduct which, although not productive of
some physical or material harm would however, unjustifiably annoy
an innocent person.
___A) Grave coercion ___C) Forcible abduction
___B) Unjust vexation ___D) Maltreatment of prisoners

SPECIAL PENAL LAWS

1041. An Act or Law regulating the activities and requiring the registration
of foreign agents in the Philippines.
___A) Batas PambansaBilang 39, dated September 7, 1979

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 ___B) Batas PambansaBilang 22, dated April 3, 1979
___C) Republic Act No. 7080, dated July 12, 1991
___D) Republic Act No. 6713, dated February 20, 1989

1042. An Act establishing the Code of Conduct and Ethical Standards for
Public Officials and Employees.
___A) Republic Act No. 7080, dated July 12, 1991
___B)Republic Act No. 6713, dated February 20, 1989
___C) Presidential Decree No. 46, dated November 10, 1972
___D) Batas PambansaBilang 39, dated September 7, 1979

1043. An Act creating a Board of Claims under the Department of Justice

for victims of unjust imprisonment or detention and victims of violent
crimes and for other purposes.
___A) Republic Act No. 6981, dated April 24, 1991
___B) Republic Act No. 7309, dated 3, 1991
___C) Republic Act No. 6713, dated February 20, 1989
___D) Batas PambansaBilang 22, dated April 3, 1979

1044. An Act to impose the death penalty of certain Heinous Crime

amending for that purpose the Revised Penal Code, as amended, other
Special Penal Laws, and for other purposes.
___A) Republic Act No. 7659, dated December 13, 1993
___B) Republic Act No. 7309, dated April 3, 1991
___C) Republic Act No. 7080, dated July 12, 1991
___D) Republic Act No. 7438, dated April 27, 1992

1045. An Act providing for a witness protection, security and benefit

program and for other purposes.
___A) Republic Act No. 6981, dated April 24, 1991
___B) Republic Act No. 7309, dated April 3, 1991
___C)Republic Act No. 7438, dated April 27, 1992
___D) Batas PambansaBilang 22, dated April 3, 1979

1046. An Act declaring forfeiture in favor of the State any property found to
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 have been unlawfully acquired by any public officer or employee and
providing for the procedure therefor.
___A) Republic Act No. 7080, dated July 12, 1991
___B) Republic Act No. 3019, dated August 17, 1960
___C) Republic Act No. 1379, dated June 18, 1955
___D) Republic Act No. 6981, dated April 24, 1991

1047. It means any asset, property, business enterprise or material

possession of any person within the purview of Section 2 hereof,
acquired by him directly or indirectly through dummies, nominees,
agents, subordinates and/or similar schemes enumerated under Rep.
Act No. 7080.
___A) Ill-gotten wealth ___C) Laundering
___B) Plunder ___D) Kickback

1048. It is a crime committed by any public officer who, by himself or in

connivance with members of his family, relatives by affinity or
consanguinity, business associates, subordinates or other person,
amasses, accumulates or acquires ill-gotten wealth through a
combination or series of overt or criminal acts as described in Section
1 (d) hereof in the aggregate amount or total value of at least a Fifty
Million Pesos (₱50,000,000.00).
___A) Money Laundering
___B) Plunder
___C) Kickback
___D) Violation of Anti-Graft and Corrupt Practices (RA No. 3019, as
amended)
___E) All of the above

1049. A kind of official document, under Oath to be True, and to be filed

with the corresponding Department Head, by every public officer,
within 30 days after assuming office and, thereafter, on or before the
15th day of April the following the close of every Calendar Year, as
well as upon the expiration of his term of office, or upon his
resignation or separation from office.
Page 230
 ___A) Statement of Assets and Liabilities (SAL)
___B) Annual Income Tax Return (AITR)
___C) Oath of Natural Born Citizen of the Philippines (ONBCP)
___D) Affidavit of No Pending Criminal Case (ANPC)

1050. An Act to declare unlawful of matching Filipino women for marriage

to foreign nationals on a Mail-Order basis and other similar practices,
including the advertisement, publication, printing on distribution or
brochures, fliers and other propaganda materials in furtherance thereof
and providing penalty thereof.
___A) Republic Act No. 7659, dated December 13, 1993
___B) Republic Act No. 6955, dated June 13, 1990
___C) Batas PambansaBilang 39, dated September 7, 1979
___D) Republic Act No. 6713, dated February 20, 1989

1051. It means any real or personal property, money or securities which the
respondents has at any time acquired by inheritance and the income
thereof, or by gift inter vivos before his becoming a public officer or
employee, or any property or income thereof already pertaining to him
when he qualified for public officer or employment, or the fruits and
income of the exclusive property of the respondent’s spouse.
___A) Other legitimate acquired property
___B) Money Laundering
___C) Plunder
___D) Sideline Income/Income derived from moonlighting

REVISED CRIMINAL PROCEDURE

December 1, 2000

1052. It may be defined as sworn written statement charging a person with

an offense, subscribed by the offended party, any peace officer or
other public charged with the enforcement of the law violated.
___A) Action ___C) Information

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 ___B) Complaint ___D) Police Blotter

1053. A mandatory requirement that a complaint or information shall be in

writing, against all persons who appear to be responsible for the
offense involved.
___A) In the Name of the People of the Philippines
___B) Instituted in the name of the aggrieved party
___C) Criminal action
___D) Civil action

1054. A possible consequence of a criminal action erroneously instituted in

the name of the aggrieved party and not in the name of the People of
the Philippines, that is, for failure to conform with the rules.
___A) May be quashed for failure to conform with the rules
___B) May not be quashed for failure to conform with the rules
___C) May not be entertained by the court for failure to conform with the
rules
___D) May be entertained by the court for failure to conform with the
rules

1055. The general rule is that corporations cannot be held criminally

responsible for the reason that the legal status of a corporation in its
corporate concept make it impossible to apply the personal and moral
responsibility that underlies the spirit of criminal law. In such case,
the following will be held criminally liable, for and in behalf of any
corporations.
___A) Officers of the corporation who commits crime crimes
___B) All of the officers of the corporation
___C) Only the President and/or Manager of the Corporation
___D) All of the foregoing
___E) None of them

1056. Section 12, Rule 110 of the Revised Criminal Procedure, dated
December 1, 2001 States that “The complaint or information must
states the name and surname of the person against whom or against
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 whose such which person has been or is known. If there is no better
way of identifying him, he must be described under a fictitious name.”
Suppose that the offended party is a juridical person such as San
Miguel Corporation, who would be named as he offended party?
___A) It is sufficient to state the name or its President and/or Manager by
which it is known or by which it may be identified, without need
or averring that it is a juridical person or that it is organized in
accordance with law.
___B) If the offended party is a juridical person it is sufficient to state the
name, or any name or designation by which it is known or by
which it may be identified, without need or averring that it is a
juridical person or that it is organized in accordance with law
___C) It is sufficient to state the name or its Local Manger and/or
administrator by which it is known or by which it may be
identified, without need or averring that it is a juridical person or
that it is organized in accordance with law
___D) All of the above

1057. One of the requirements of a valid complaint is that it must be under

oath, except when…
___A) The complaint is filed before the Chief of Police
___B) The complaint is filed before the Fiscals Office
___C) The complaint is filed by the offended party before the court
___D) All of the foregoing

1058. It is defined as an accusation in writing charging a person with an

offense subscribed by the fiscal and filed with the court.
___A) Action ___C) Information
___B) Complaint ___D) Police blotter

1059. The general rule is that, previous filing of complaint is not necessary
to the filing of an information, except…
___A) Prosecutions for the offenses committed by corporations
___B) Prosecutions for the offenses designated as private offenses
___C) Prosecutions for the offenses committed by youthful offenders
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 ___D) Prosecutions for the offenses committed upon youthful offenders

1060. Of the following remedies, one is the most desirable remedy if the
fiscal refuses to file information despite the presence of sufficient
evidence warranting the filing thereof.
___A) Lodge a new complaint against the offender either before the
Municipal Trial Court having jurisdiction over the case, or with
the Provincial Fiscal, and have a new examination conducted as
required by law
___B) File a petition for review with the Department of Justice
___C) Institute administrative charges against the erring fiscal
___D) File a civil action under Art. 27 of the Civil Code, for damages

1061. Under Section 5, Rule 110 of the Revised Criminal Procedure which
took effect on December 1, 2000, all criminal actions commenced by
a complaint or information shall be prosecuted under the direction and
control of the prosecutor. Now, suppose that prosecutor is absent or is
not available in the Municipal Trial Courts or Municipal Circuit Trial
Courts, who must prosecute criminal actions?
___A) The office of the Mayor
___B) The offended party, any peace officer, or public officer charged
with the enforcement of the law violated
___C) The Public Attorney’s Office (PAO)
___D) All of the above

1062. When may such an authority to prosecute criminal actions cease?

___A) Upon actual intervention of the prosecutor or upon elevation of
the case to the Regional Trial Courts
___B) Upon actual intervention of a private prosecutor or upon elevation
of the case to the Court of Appeals
___C) When the offense charged is one where death penalty is imposed
or upon elevation of the case to the Supreme Court
___D) All of the above

1063. An instance where the offended party may intervene by counsel in the
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 prosecution of the offense.
___A) When the amount of damages, other than actual, is specified in the
complaint or information
___B) When the offended party seeks to enforce civil liability against the
accused by way of moral, nominal, temperate or exemplary
damages without specifying the amount thereof in the complaint
or information
___C) Where the civil action for recovery of civil liability is instituted in
the criminal action pursuant to Rule 111
___D) All of the above

1064. The crimes of adultery and concubinage shall not be prosecuted

except…
___A) Upon a complaint filed by the offended spouse against both guilty
parties
___B) Upon a complaint filed by the offended spouse against his or her
guilty spouse only
___C) Upon the complaint filed by the fiscal only
___D) All of the foregoing

1065. The offenses of seduction, abduction, rape or acts of lasciviousness,

shall not be prosecuted except upon the complaint filed by…
___A) The offended party
___B) The parents of the offended party
___C) The grandparents or guardian of the offended party
___D) All of the foregoing successively in that order
___E) All of the foregoing in any order

1066. The offended party, even if she were a minor, has the right to institute
the prosecution for the offenses of seduction, abduction, rape or acts
of lasciviousness, independently of her parents, grandparents, or
guardian, unless…
___A) She is living separately from her parents, grandparents, or
guardian

Page 235
 ___B) She is under the case and custody of her parents, grandparents, or
guardian
___C) She is incompetent or incapable of doing so
___D) She is under the case and custody of the Department of Social
Welfare and Administration, per Presidential Decree No. 603
___E) None of them

1067. Under Rule 93 of the Rules of Court, the guardian must be legally
appointed in accordance with the provisions of said Rule. In effect,
“natural guardian,” therefore…
___A) Is included within the contemplation of the term “guardian”
___B) Does not fall within the contemplation of the term “guardian”
___C) Need not be legally appointed as “guardian” in accordance with
said Rule
___D) None of them

1068. In the concept of the insufficiency of complaint or information, the

more recent rulings of the Supreme Court are to the effect that a void
or fatally defective information, as one not alleging the elements of
the offense, cannot be validated by the evidence not objected to. To
hold otherwise is…
___A) To deny the defendant of his constitutional right to be informed of
the nature and cause of the accusation against him
___B) To continue and proceed with the institution of the complaint or
information, as such substantial defect can be cured by waiver of
right by the accused
___C) To quash for failure to conform with the rules
___D) To summarily dismiss the case for failure to conform with the
rules

1069. The purpose of requiring the name and surname of accused to be

stated in the complaint or information is to…
___A) To make certain of the identity of the accused
___B) To enable the court to acquire jurisdiction over his person and to
inform him of the facts
Page 236
 ___C) To enable the court to establish the sufficiency or evidence
presented
___D) All of the foregoing

1070. Whenever possible, a complaint or information, should state the

designation given to the offense by statute, besides the statement of
the acts or omissions constituting the same, and if there is no such
designation, reference should be made to the section or subsection of
the statute punishing it. The reason behind the rule requiring the
designation of the offense in the information or complaint is…
___A) To accord the constitutional guaranty that no person shall be
deprived of life, liberty, or property without due process of law
___B) To accord a speedy trial of the case
___C) To accord the accused of a good criminal trial lawyer
___D) To limit the criminal prosecution to one offense

1071. One purpose of the requirement under Section, Rule 110, that is, “The
acts or omissions complained of as constituting the offense not must
be stated in ordinary and concise language without repetition, not
necessarily in the terms of the statute defining the offense, but in such
form as is sufficient to enable a person of common understanding to
know what offense is intended to be charged, and enable to the court
to pronounce proper judgment.”
___A) To accord a speedy trial of the case
___B) Constitutional guarantees that in all criminal prosecutions the
accused shall be entitled to be informed of the nature and cause of
accusation
___C) To enable the court to weigh the sufficiency of the evidence
presented
___D) To accord the accused of a good criminal trial lawyer

1072. Section 10, Rule 110, itself pointed out the exception to the rule that
the information need not specify the exact place of the commission of
the offense. The exception is…

Page 237
 ___A) When the particular place wherein the offense was committed
constitutes an essential element of the offense charge
___B) When it involves the continuing offense
___C) When it involves a complex crimes
___D) All of the foregoing

1073. It is not necessary to state in the complaint or information the precise

time at which the offense was committed. However, in one of the
following crimes time of the commission is an essential element, and
therefore, must be alleged in the complaint or information.
___A) Infanticide ___C) Malicious Mischief
___B) Abortion ___D) Piracy

1074. A complaint or information must state the name or surname of the

persons against whom or against whose property the offense was
committed, or any appellation or nickname by which such person has
been or is known, and if there is no better way of identifying him, he
must be described under what name?
___A) His physical description
___B) Fictitious name
___C) His family or surname alone
___D) All of the foregoing

1075. A complaint or information must charge but one offense, except only
in those cases in which existing laws prescribe a single punishment
for various offense. Of the following crimes, one is the exemption.
___A) Complex crime ___C) Piracy
___B) Continuing crime ___D) Impossible crime

1076. The plea or arraignment mentioned in Section 14 Rule 110 of the

Rules of Court, which bars amendment of the substance of a
complaint or information refers to the plea before the following court.
___A) The proper court which has jurisdiction to try the offense charged
___B) Before the Municipal Trial Court for preliminary investigation
where arraignment is not a legal requisite
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 ___C) Before the Appellate Court
___D) Before quasi-judicial court

1077. Where an offense is committed on a railroad train, in an aircraft, or in

any other public or private vehicle while in the course of its trip, the
criminal action may be instituted and tried in the court of…
___A) The Municipality where such train, aircraft or other vehicle has
passed during such trip
___B) The Municipality where such train, aircraft or other vehicle has
departed during such trip
___C) The Municipality where such train, aircraft or other vehicle has
arrived during such trip
___D) All of the foregoing

1078. Where shall a criminal action be filed in all crimes committed outside
of the Philippines but punishable under Article 2 of the Revised Penal
Code?
___A) It shall be cognizable by the court where the offense was
committed
___B) It shall be cognizable by the court where the criminal action is first
filed
___C) It shall be cognizable by the court where the victim has resided
___D) All of the above

1079. Under Section 16 Rule 110 of the Rules of Court, the offended party
may intervene by counsel in the prosecution of the offense. Of the
following instances where the offended party loses his right to
intervene in the prosecution of criminal case, one is not from those
included therein.
___A) When he has waived the civil action
___B) When he expressly reserved his right to institute it
___C) When he has actually instituted the civil action even if he has not
made the waiver or reservation adverted to
___D) Where the nature of the offense or where the law defining and
punishing offense charge do not provide for indemnity
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 ___E) None of the foregoing

1080. When a criminal action is instituted, the civil action for the recovery
of civil liability arising from the offense charged is impliedly
instituted with the criminal action, unless the offended party…
___A) Expressly waives the criminal action
___B) or reserves his right to institute it separately
___C) All of the foregoing
___D) None of them

1081. After the criminal action has been commenced, the civil action cannot
be instituted until…
___A) The offended party has put up a bond
___B) Final judgment has been rendered in the criminal action
___C) The offender dies
___D) All of the foregoing

1082. The civil liability for reparation of damages and indemnification for
the harm done is…
___A) Purely statutory ___C) Purely privilege
___B) Purely Civil ___D) All of the foregoing

1083. Of the following enforceable civil damages against the accused, one is
not included.
___A) Subsidiary imprisonment ___C) Nominal and temperate
___B) Actual and moral ___D) Exemplary

1084. The general rule is that every person criminally liable for a felony is
also civilly liable. There are, however, certain crimes which do not
give rise to civil liability. Among these are the…
___A) Crimes of espionage
___B) Flight to enemy country
___C) Violation of neutrality
___D) Crimes against popular representation
___E) All of the foregoing
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1085. An action which independent and separate from criminal action,
therefore, a right to file separate civil action need not be reserved.
___A) Based on employee-employer relationship
___B) Based on failure or negligence of the police to render assistance
___C) Based on failure or negligence of any semi-public corporation
___D) Based on contractual liability or on culpa aquiliana

1086. When amember of the city or municipal police refuses or fails to

render aid or protection to any person in case of danger to life or
property, such peace officer shall be…
___A) Primarily liable for damages
___B) Exempt from civil liability
___C) Subsidiary liable with the PNP
___D) Subsidiary responsible with the city or municipality

1087. Extinction of the penal action does not carry with extinction of the
civil, unless…
___A) The extinction proceeds from a declaration in a final judgment
that the fact from which the civil might arise did not exist
___B) The extinction did not proceed from a declaration in a final
judgment that the fact from which the civil might arise did not
exist
___C) The extinction proceeds from a declaration in a final judgment
that the fact from which the civil might arise did exist
___D) None of the above

1088. Where the acquittal is based on reasonable doubt, or on the fact that
the guilt of the accused has not been established satisfactorily, or on
the fact that the defendant’s liability is civil in nature, the civil action
is…
___A) Forever barred ___C) Extinguished
___B) Not barred ___D) Not extinguished

1089. In case of acquittal for violation of the anti-squatting law, what do you
think is the remedy of the complainant?
Page 241
 ___A) To file a separate civil action of ejectment
___B) To hire an arsonist
___C) To dispose of the property to the Department of Agrarian Reform
___D) To influence the police department to harass the squatter

1090. One instance where the civil action will survive even if the accused is
finally acquitted in the criminal proceedings.
___A) When the civil liability of the accused did not rise from a civil
contract, but from a criminal act
___B) When the civil liability of the accused arises from a civil contract,
not from a criminal act
___C) When the civil liability of the accused arises both from a civil
contract and from criminal act
___D) All of the foregoing

1091. It is a question which arises in the case the resolution of which is

logical antecedent of the issue involved in said case and the
recognition of which pertains to another tribunal.
___A) Prejudicial question ___C) Civil question
___B) Political question ___D) All of the foregoing

1092. It is an exception to the rule that, a final judgment rendered in a civil

action absolving the defendant from civil liability is not a bar to a
criminal action.
___A) Where the civil action involves relatives within the same degree
___B) Where the civil action involves a question prejudicial to the
criminal action
___C) When the defendant dies before a final judgment rendered in a
civil action
___D) When the defendant is pardoned by the offended party

1093. Where one case is administrative and the other is civil case…
___A) No prejudicial question is involved
___B) There is prejudicial question

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 ___C) The administrative case is suspended upon pendency of prejudicial
in a civil action
___D) The civil action is suspended upon pendency of a prejudicial
question in an administrative case

1094. A petition for suspension of the criminal action based upon the
pendency of a prejudicial question in a civil action may presented in
the fiscal’s office during the…
___A) Arraignment ___C) Filing of the complaint
___B) Preliminary investigation ___D) All of the foregoing

1095. It is defined as an inquiry or proceeding for the purpose of

determining whether there is sufficient ground to engender a well-
founded belief that a crime cognizable by the Regional Trial Court has
been committed and that the respondent is probably guilty thereof,
and should be held for trial.
___A) Preliminary investigation ___C) Interrogation
___B) Criminal investigation ___D) Criminal prosecution

1096. The right to a preliminary investigation is…

___A) Constitutional, therefore, it is mandatory
___B) Merely statutory, therefore, it is personal one
___C) Discretionary on the part of the fiscal
___D) Ministerial on the part of the fiscal

1097. When may person lawfully arrested without warrant ask for a
preliminary investigation? And what must be acquired?
___A) Before the complaint or information is filed, but must sign a
waiver of the provisions of Article 125 of the Revised Penal
Code, as amended, in the presence of his counsel
___B) After the filing of the complaint or information in court without a
preliminary investigation with the same right to adduce evidence
in his defense as provided in this Rule (7a; Section 2, Republic
Act No. 7438).

Page 243
 ___C) At any time before arraignment, but he must sign a waiver of the
provisions of Art. 125 of the RPC, as amended
___D) All of the above

1098. The consequential effect if preliminary investigation is denied inspite

of command; it may just be remanded for preliminary investigation.
___A) The proceeding is not void
___B) The proceeding is void
___C) The case may be dismissed without fault on the part of the
defendant
___D) Tantamount to double jeopardy

1099. Of the following officers authorized to conduct preliminary

investigation, one of them is not included.
___A) Legal Adviser of the President
___B) Provincial or City Fiscals and their assistants
___C) Judges of the Municipal Trial Courts and Municipal Circuit Trial
Courts
___D) National and Regional State Prosecutors
___E) Such other officers as may be authorized by law

1100. In preliminary investigation, as a rule, a sworn complaint is not

required, except if the offense is…
___A) One which involved against national security
___B) One which cannot be prosecuted de officio or is private in nature
___C) Against one who is fugitive from justice
___D) One which involved against the law of nations

1101. For what offense where preliminary investigation is required to be

conducted?
___A) When a person is lawfully arrested without a warrant
___B) For an offense where the penalty prescribed by law is at least four
(4) years two (2) months and one (1) day without regard to fine
___C) For any offense when an inquest prosecutor is available
___D) All of the above
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1102. In what instance when a complaint or information may be filed by a
prosecutor without need of a preliminary investigation provided an
inquest has been conducted in accordance with existing rules?
___A) When a person is lawfully arrested without a warrant involving an
offense which requires a preliminary investigation
___B) For an offense where the penalty prescribed by law is at least four
(4) years two (2) months and one (1) day without regard to fine
___C) For any offense when an inquest prosecutor is absent or not
available
___D) All of the above

1103. Under the Revised Rules of Criminal Procedure, effective December

1, 2000, what would be basis of the complaint that may be filed by the
offended party or a peace officer with the proper court, in the absence
or unavailability of an inquest prosecutor?
___A)
___B)
___C)
___D)

1104. Of the instances when a warrant of arrest is not necessary, one of the
following does not included.
___A) If the accused is already under detention pursuant to a warrant
issued by the Municipal Trial Court in accordance with paragraph
(b) of Section 6, Rule 112 of the Revised Criminal Procedure,
effective Dec. 1, 2000
___B) If the complaint or information was filed pursuant to Section 7,
Rule 112
___C) For an offense penalized by fine only
___D) Involving an offense punishable by imprisonment of at least four
(4) years two (2) months and one (1) day

1105. In the preliminary investigation under Revised Criminal Procedure,

which took effect on December 1, 2000, the affidavits of the
complainant and or his witnesses shall be subscribed and sworn to
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 before any prosecutor or government official authorized to administer
oath. Now, in the absence of any prosecutor or government official
authorized to administer oath, who else is authorized to do so?
___A) The Notary Public
___B) Any member of a Barangay Lupon
___C) Barangay Chairman
___D) All of the above

1106. Before what authority where criminal actions shall be instituted for
offenses where a preliminary investigation is required pursuant to
Section 1 of Rule 112?
___A) By filing the complaint or information directly with the Municipal
Trial Courts and the Municipal Circuit Trial Courts, or the
complaint with the office of the prosecutor
___B) By filing the complaint with the proper officer for the purpose of
conducting the requisite preliminary investigation
___C) With the Barangay Chairman or Lupon
___D) All of the above

1107. Before what authority where criminal actions shall be instituted for all
other offenses where the preliminary investigation is not required?
___A) By filing the complaint or information directly with the Municipal
Trial Courts and the Municipal Circuit Trial Courts, or the
complaint with the office of the prosecutor
___B) By filing the complaint with the proper officer for the purpose of
conducting the requisite preliminary investigation
___C) With the Barangay Chairman or Lupon
___D) All of the above

1108. The legal and consequential affect upon the institution of criminal
action.
___A) It shall interrupt the running of the period of prescription of the
offense charged, unless otherwise provided by special laws
___B) It shall not interrupt the running of the period of prescription of
the offense charged, unless otherwise provided by special laws
Page 246
 ___C) It shall interrupt the running of the period of prescription of
penalty for the crime committed,unless otherwise provided by
special laws
___D) It shall not interrupt the running of the period of prescription of
penalty for the crime committed, unless otherwise provided by
special laws

1109. Of the following conditions in order that the Municipal Judge may
issue a search warrant, one of which is not included.
___A) He must examine the witnesses and requesting peace officer/s
personally
___B) He must examine the witnesses personally
___C) The examination must be under oath
___D) The examination must be reduced to writing in the form of
searching questions and answers

1110. It shall be the duty of the officer executing the warrant to arrest the
accused and…
___A) To deliver the person arrested to the prosecutor
___B) To deliver the person arrested to the authority of the Court who
issued the warrant of arrest
___C) Deliver the person arrested to the nearest police station or jail
without unnecessary delay
___D) All of the above

1111. What offense where a preliminary investigation is not required nor

covered by the Rule on Summary Procedure?
___A) Any offense punishable by imprisonment of less than six (6) years
___B) Any offense punishable by imprisonment of less than four (4)
years, two (2) months and one (1) day
___C) Any offense punishable by at least four (4) years, two (2) months
and one (1) day
___D) All of the above

1112. When making an arrest without a warrant, the officer shall inform the
Page 247
 person to be arrested of his authority and the cause of his arrest, unless
the latter…
___A) Is either engaged in the commission of the offense
___B) Is pursued immediately after its commission, has escaped, fleas
___C) Forcibly resists before the officer has the opportunity to so inform
him
___D) When the giving of such information will imperil the arrest
___E) All of the above

1113. When a private person making an arrest, what should he inform the
person to be arrested?
___A) Of the intention to arrest him and the cause of the arrest
___B) Of his authority and the cause of the arrest
___C) That as a civilian he can make or effect arrest as “Civilian’s
Arrest”
___D) In the name of the law I have the right to effect arrest

1114. It does not mean that particular facts must exist in each particular
case. It simply means that sufficient facts must be presented to the
judge or magistrate issuing the warrant to convenience him, not that
particular person has committed the crime, but there is “such thing”
for believing that the person whose arrest is sought committed the
crime charged.
___A) Probable cause
___B) Good faith and honest belief
___C) Warrant of arrest
___D) Search warrant

1115. In such a establishes the fact and unless rebutted or explained by

evidence becomes conclusive and its to be considered as if fully
proved.
___A) Circumstantial evidence ___C) Direct evidence
___B) Prima facie ___D) Presumptive

1116. The absence of a preliminary investigation does not affect the

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 jurisdiction of the Court or invalidate the information if no objection
was raised by the accused, and the dismissal of the cause by the
authorities who conducted the preliminary investigation will…
___A) not constitute double jeopardy
___B) constitute double jeopardy
___C) not constitute as fault of the defendant
___D) constitute as fault of the defendant

1117. An Article of the Revised Penal Code in relation to Section 7, that is,
when an accused lawfully arrested without warrant, said rule requires
the person being detained to waive his right in order that the
investigating officer may duly conduct the preliminary investigation
without fear or punishment.
___A) Art.124-Arbitrary detention
___B) Art.125-Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the proper
judicial authorities
___C) Art.126-Delaying release
___D) Art.237-Prolonging performance of duties and powers

1118. The required number of days in which the investigating officer must
finish the preliminary investigation from its inception.
___A) Five (5) days ___C) Seven (7) days
___B) Fifteen (15) days ___D) Thirty (30) days

1119. The required number of days in which the accused may ask for a
preliminary investigation with the same right to adduce evidence in
his favor, if the case has been filed in court without preliminary
investigation having been first conducted.
___A) Within five (5) days from the time he learns of the filing of the
information
___B) Within ten (10) days from the time he learns of the filing of the
information
___C) Within fifteen (15) days from the time he learns of the filing of the
information

Page 249
 ___D) Within thirty (30) days from the time he learns of the filing of the
information

1120. It is defined as the taking of the person into custody in order that he
may be bound to answer for the commission of an offense.
___A) Search warrant ___C) Criminal prosecution
___B) Arrest ___D) Imprisonment

1121. Of the following persons exempt from arrest, one of whom is not
included.
___A) Members of the Congress during their attendance at the session of
the Congress and in going to and returning from the same, for
offenses punishable by not more than six years imprisonment
___B) Ambassadors, ministers and persons belonging to their official
entourage
___C) Consuls
___D) None of them

1122. That a police officer, in the performance of his duty, must stand his
ground and cannot, like a private individual, take refuge in flight; his
duty requires him to overcome his opponent.
___A) Civilians resistance to a lawful arrest
___B) Use of necessary or reasonable force in effecting arrest
___C) Civilian’s assault upon a peace officer
___D) Maltreatment of prisoners

1123. A warrant which describes the person to be arrested as mere “John

Doe” or “Richard Doe” is void, unless there is such a thing as will
justify to act under it.
___A) Descriptio personae
___B) Physical appearance
___C) Personal identification
___D) By substitution of the person to be arrested

1124. Has no authority to issue a warrant of arrest, and is powerless to

Page 250
 validate an illegal detention by merely filing information or by any
other order of his own, either express or implied.
___A) Judges of Municipal Trial Courts
___B) Fiscals
___C) Judges of Municipal Circuit Trial Courts
___D) Judges of Regional Trial Courts

1125. An officer making and arrest has no right to confiscate any object
found in the possession of the party arrested unless…
___A) The object found in his possession was used in the commission of
the crime
___B) Was the fruit of the crime
___C) Which might furnish the prisoner with the means of committing
violence or escaping
___D) Which may be used as evidence in the trial of the case
___E) All of the foregoing

1126. Irregularity in the issuance of an order of arrest is considered as

waived by…
___A) Escaping from the custody of the law
___B) Submitting himself to the custody of the law
___C) Posting of bail bond
___D) Asking legal assistance from Citizen’s Legal Assistance Office
___E) All of the foregoing

1127. The required number of days where in the head of the office to whom
the warrant of arrest has been delivered for execution shall cause the
warrant to be executed.
___A) Within five (5) days from the receipt thereof
___B) Within ten (10) days from receipt thereof
___C) Within fifteen (15) days from receipt thereof
___D) Within twenty (20) days from receipt thereof

1128. In which of the following arrest by any peace officer or private

person, is lawful even without warrant?
Page 251
 ___A) When in his presence, the person to be arrested has committed, is
actually committing, or is attempting to commit an offense
___B) When an offense has in fact just been committed, and he has
personal knowledge of facts indicating that the person to be
arrested has committed it.
___C) When a person to be arrested is a prisoner who has escaped from a
penal establishment or place where he is serving final judgment or
temporarily confined while his case is pending, or has escaped
while being transferred from one confinement to another
___D) All of the foregoing

1129. When making an arrest by virtue of a warrant, the officer shall inform
the person to be arrested of the cause of the arrest and of the fact that a
warrant has been issued for his arrest, except…
___A) When he put up a bond for his temporary liberty
___B) When the arresting officer annoys and provokes the person to be
arrested without fault on the part of the latter
___C) When he flees or forcibly resists before the officer has opportunity
so to inform him or when the giving of such information will
imperil the arrest
___D) All of the foregoing

1130. In all cases enumerated wherein the law authorizes a peace officer to
arrest without warrant, said arresting officer should possess one thing,
and that is…
___A) Source of information from his informant about a person to be
arrested without warrant
___B) Personal knowledge of the situation
___C) Being arrested by a private person in the making of the arrest
without warrant
___D) All of the foregoing

1131. A peace officer by virtue of a warrant of arrest may execute it and

make an arrest on…
___A) Day time only, from 8:00 am to 5:00 pm
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 ___B) Any day and any time of the day or night
___C) Any day and any time of the day
___D) Any working day only and at any time

1132. An obligation of an arresting officer when making an arrest without a

warrant, unless the person to be arrested is then engaged in the
commission of an offense or it pursued immediately after its
commission or after an escape, or flees or forcibly resists before the
officer has opportunity to do, or when n the performance of such
obligation will imperil the arrest.
___A) Shall inform the person to be arrested of his authority and the
cause of the arrest
___B) To summon a private person to assist him the making of such
arrest
___C) To summon assistance from the nearest police headquarters
___D) To use force and violence in the execution of such arrest

1133. The power of a private person to arrest without warrant must be

exercised, or else it would be excuse for violation of the individual
liberties guaranteed in the Constitution.
___A) Civic mindedness
___B) Utmost good faith
___C) Agent of person in authority
___D) All of the foregoing

1134. A peace officer, in making lawful arrest, may orally summon a private
person to aid him in making the arrest. In effect, such a private person
becomes…
___A) An agent of a person in authority
___B) A civic minded citizen
___C) De jure peace officer
___D) A member of Barangay Tanod

1135. An officer in order to make an arrest either by virtue of a warrant, or

when authorized to make such arrest for an offense without warrant,
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 as provided in Section 5, may break into any building or enclosure in
which the person to be arrested is or is reasonably believed to be, if…
___A) He has at least two witnesses
___B) He is refused admittance thereto, after he has announced his
authority and purpose
___C) He has the authority to do so from the judge
___D) All of the foregoing

1136. When an officer has entered the building or enclosure in accordance

with Section 11, he may break out there from when necessary for the
purpose of…
___A) Justifying himself from breaking into any building or enclosure
___B) Liberating himself
___C) Minimizing the damaged of the property caused by him
___D) All of the foregoing

1137. Any lawyer or member of the bar, shall at the request of the person
arrested or of another acting in his behalf, have the right to visit and
confer privately with such person, in jail or any other place of custody
at…
___A) Any hour of the day or, in urgent cases, of the night
___B) Any hour of the working day only
___C) Any hour of Saturdays and Sundays
___D) Any hour of designated visiting day only

1138. May be defined as the security given for the release of a person in
custody of the law, furnished by him or a bondsman, conditioned
upon his appearance before any court as required under the conditions
specified by law.
___A) Pardon ___C) Probation
___B) Bail ___D) Parole

1139. From the moment person is placed under arrest, detention or restraint
by the officers of the law, he can claim this guarantee of the Bill of
Rights, and this right he retains unless and until he is charged with a
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 capital offense and…
___A) Evidence of his guilt is strong
___B) He attempts to escape
___C) Circumstantial evidence of his guilt is present
___D) He is an alien

1140. Bail is the security given to for the release of a person in custody of
the law, furnished by him or a bondsman, to guarantee his appearance
before any court as required under the conditions hereinafter
specified. In effect, what would be the nature or form of the bail?
___A) Corporate surety
___B) Property bond
___C) Cash deposit, or recognizance
___D) All of the above

1141. When may a person in custody be admitted to bail as a matter or

right?
___A) Before or after conviction by the Metropolitan Trial Court,
Municipal Trial Court, Municipal Trial Court in Cities, or
Municipal Circuit Trial Court
___B) Before conviction by the Regional Trial Court of an offense not
punishable by death, reclusion perpetua, or life imprisonment
___C) All of the above
___D) Letter “A” only

1142. It is an obligation under seal given by the accused with one or more
sureties, and made payable to the proper officer with the condition to
be void upon the performance by the accused of such acts as he may
legally he required to perform.
___A) Recognizance ___C) Pardon
___B) Bail Bond ___D) Probation

1143. It is an obligation of record, entered into before some court or

magistrate duty authorized to take it, with the condition to do some
particular act, the most usual condition in criminal cases being the
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 appearance of the accused for trial.
___A) Recognizance ___C) Pardon
___B) Bail Bond ___D) Probation

1144. Bondsmen are __________ if the accused commit a crime while at

liberty. The blank space provided for, refers to…
___A) Liable as conspirator
___B) Not liable
___C) A guarantor that the accused will commit no crime while in
temporary liberty
___D) Relieved of his being the jailer of the accused

1145. All persons in custody shall be entitled to bail as a matter of right,

except those charged with capital offense when the evidence of guilt,
thereof is strong. In these cases, since bail is a matter of right, the
granting of the same is…
___A) Discretionary on the part of the court
___B) Mandatory
___C) Ministerial in nature
___D) All of the foregoing

1146. The only instance when a bail is discretionary.

___A) Upon conviction by the Regional Trial Court of an offense not
punishable by death, reclusion perpetua, or life imprisonment
___B) After conviction by the Regional Trial Court of an offense not
punishable by death, reclusion perpetua, or life imprisonment
___C) Before conviction by the Regional Trial Court of an offense
punishable by death, reclusion perpetua, or life imprisonment
___D) All of the above

1147. It being discretionary, the application for a bail will be filed and acted
upon by what court despite the filing of a notice of appeal, provided it
has not transmitted the original record to the appellate court?
___A) Appellate Court ___C) Supreme Court
___B) Trial Court ___D) All of them
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1148. If the decision of the Trial Court convicting the accused changed the
nature of the offense from non-bailable, what court can the bail be
applied with, and who shall resolve it?
___A) Appellate Court ___C) Supreme Court
___B) Trial Court ___D) All of them

1149. The legal consequence of the bail if the penalty imposed by the Trial
Court is imprisonment exceeding six (6) years.
___A) The accused shall be denied bail, or his bail shall be cancelled
upon a showing by the prosecution of circumstances mention is
Section 5, Rule 114 of the Revised Criminal Procedure, will notice
to the accused
___B) The bail shall be returned to the accused, who may be granted
probation
___C) The bail will be confiscated in favor the government
___D) All of the above

1150. On the hearing of an application for admission to bail filed by any

person who is in custody for the commission of a capital offense, the
prosecution has the burden of showing that…
___A) Evidence of guilt is strong
___B) Evidence of guilt is sufficient
___C) The accused is a habitual criminal offender
___D) The accused will escape

1151. In the above cited situation, the evidence thus presented may be
rebutted by the accused by means of other evidence to…
___A) Establish his right to be admitted to bail
___B) Prove that his guilt is not strong
___C) Prove that he did not commit a capital offense
___D) All of the foregoing

1152. Under Section 12 of the Rules on Summary Procedure, no bail shall

be required in cases of violations of traffic laws, rules and regulations;
violations of rental law; violations of Municipal or City Ordinance,
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 etc… except when a warrant of arrest is issued in accordance with
Section 10, or where the accused…
___A) Is a recidivist
___B) Is fugitive from justice
___C) Is charged with physical injuries
___D) Does not reside in the place where the violation of the law or
ordinance was committed, or has no known residence

1153. The modern trend of court decision permits bail to prisoners,

irrespective of nature of the charges against them if their continuous
confinement during the pendency of their cases will be…
___A) Injurious to their health or will endanger their life
___B) New offenders, their putting them in jail will cause more harm
than good
___C) Aggravated by reason of shame and embarrassment
___D) All of the foregoing

1154. When a person has been in custody for a period equal to or more than
the possible maximum imprisonment of the offense charged to which
he may be sentenced, he shall be released immediately.
___A) With prejudice to the continuation of the trial thereof or the
proceedings on appeal
___B) Without prejudice to the continuation of the trial thereof or the
proceedings on appeal
___C) On probation
___D) On bail

1155. A person in custody for a period equal or more than the maximum of
the principal penalty prescribed for the offense charged, without
application of the indeterminate Sentence Law or any modifying
circumstances, and at the discretion of the court, shall…
___A) Be released on a reduce bill or on his own recognizance
___B) Be released on probation
___C) Be dismissed as if he had never been charged of any crime
___D) All of the foregoing
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1156. The judge who issued the warrant or granted the application shall file
reasonable amount of bail considering primarily…But the principal
fact considered, to the determination of which most other factors are
direct, is…
___A) The gravity of the offense
___B) The probability of the appearance of the accused, or of his flight to
avoid punishment
___C) The accused financial capability and willingness to put up bill
___D) The nature of the offense
___E) All of the foregoing

1157. With regard to the granting of bail bond and/or temporary liberty, the
fiscal has…
___A) The power to order either the commitment or the release on bail of
persons charged with a penal clause
___B) No power to order either the commitment or the release on bail of
persons charged with a penal clause
___C) The power to release a person on probation
___D) All of the foregoing

1158. An accused released on bail may be re-arrested without the necessity

of a warrant if…
___A) He attempts to depart from the Philippines without prior
permission of the court where the case is pending
___B) He commits the same or another offense while on temporary
liberty
___C) The amount of the bail bond is not sufficient for his temporary
liberty
___D) All of them

1159. May be defined as undertaking constituted as alien on the real

property given as security for the amount of the bail.
___A) Recognizance ___C) Property bond
___B) Collateral property ___D) All of them

Page 259
1160. An instance when the accused held to answer a criminal charge but
who is released without bail on the filing of complaint or information,
may, at any subsequent stage of the proceedings, be required to give
bail in the amount fixed, or in lieu thereof may be committed to the
custody.
___A) Whenever it appears to the court that evidence of guilt is strong
___B) He commits the same or another offense charge
___C) He committed a capital offense
___D) All of them

1161. The practice is that when appearance of an accused is required by the

court, his sureties are notified to produce him before the court on a
given date. If the accused fails to appear as required, the bond is…
___A) Increased upon the sound discretion of the court
___B) Reduced upon the sound discretion of the court
___C) Declared forfeited
___D) Cancelled and the defendant is rearrested

1162. Upon application filed with the court and after due notice to the fiscal,
the bail bond may be cancelled upon surrender of the accused or proof
of his death. On the other hand, the bail bond shall be deemed
automatically cancelled upon…
___A) Acquittal of the accused
___B) Dismissal of the accused
___C) Execution of the final judgment of conviction
___D) All of the foregoing

1163. One exception to the rule that, no bail shall be allowed after judgment
has become final; that he may be allowed temporary liberty under his
bail bond.
___A) In case the accused has applied for probation
___B) In case he is pardon by the President
___C) When amnesty is granted by the President
___D) All of the foregoing

Page 260
 Rule 115
Rights of the Accused

1164. This one right of the accused is founded on the principle of justice and
is intended not to protect the guilty but to prevent as far as a human
agencies can, the conviction of an innocent person.
___A) The presumption of innocence
___B) Right to be present and to defend himself at the trial
___C) The right to be informed of the nature and cause of accusation
___D) All of them

1165. Under the rules, the defendant is entitled to be present and defend in
person by an Attorney at every stage of the proceedings, that is, from
the arraignment to the promulgation of the judgment. This referred to
the Philippine Constitution as…
___A) The right to be heard by himself and counsel
___B) The right to be informed of the nature and cause of the accusation
___C) The right to testify as witness in his own behalf
___D) The right against self-incrimination
___E) All of them

1166. It requires that the charges against a person should be stated in such a
way as to enable him to know the meaning and nature of the
accusation against him.
___A) Right to be present and to defend himself at the trial
___B) Right to be informed of the nature and cause of accusation
___C) The right to testify as witness in his own behalf
___D) The right against self-incrimination
___E) All of the foregoing

1167. A denial of his right when requested by the defendant himself or his
counsel constitutes an error prejudicial to the substantive right of the
accused.
___A) Right to be informed of the nature and cause of accusation
___B) The right to testify as witness in his own behalf
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 ___C)The right against self-incrimination
___D) Right to be exempt from being compelled to be a witness against
himself

1168. The right extends not only to the right to refuse to answer questions,
put to the accused while on the witness stand, but also to forego
testimony, to remain silent and refuse to take the witness stand when
called as a witness by the prosecution.
___A) Right against self-incrimination
___B) Right to testify as a witness in his own behalf
___C) Right to be exempt from being compelled to be a witness against
himself
___D) Right to confront and cross-examine the witness against him at the
trial

1169. One of the Constitutional Rights, which may be defined as one that
can be had as soon after indictment as the prosecution can with
reasonable diligent prepare for it, and is conducted according to fixed
rules and proceedings of law, free from vexations, capricious and
oppressive delays.
___A) Right to testify as a witness in his own behalf
___B) Right to speedy trial
___C) Right to have compulsory process issued to secure the Attendance
of witnesses and production of other evidence in his behalf
___D) Right of appeal in all causes allowed and in the manner prescribed
by law

1170. This right accorded to every defendant is a statutory right; it is not a

necessary element of due process.
___A) Right to speedy trial
___B) Right to compulsory process
___C) Right to appeal
___D) Right to public trial

1171. A defendant who wishes to exercise his right to a speedy trial should
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 ask not for dismissal of the case, but for its…
___A) Retrial ___C) Trial
___B) Acquittal ___D) Postponement of the case

1172. In after the prosecution’s motion for postponement of the trial is

denied and despite the court’s order the fiscal does not or cannot
produce his evidence, the court upon defendant’s motion can…
___A) Retrial the case
___B) Dismiss the case
___C) Postponement of the case
___D) Appeal the case to higher court

1173. In all criminal prosecutions, the defendant is entitled to have

compulsory process issued to…
___A) Secure the attendance of witnesses in his behalf
___B) Secure his legal counsel
___C) Secure bail bond
___D) All of them

Rule 116
Arraignment and Plea

1174. A requirement which is considered as one of the safeguards set down

by law to secure and protect the right of the defendant. It is made
before the court where the complaint or information has been filed or
assigned for trial.
___A) Trial ___C) Prosecution
___B) Arraignment ___D) Judgment

1175. The requirement of the rules on arraignment is mandatory and failure

to observe them is ground for…
___A) Dismissal of the case
___B) Reversal of the judgment and the remanding of the case for new
trial
Page 263
 ___C) Appeal of the case
___D) All of them

1176. If the accused refuses to plead, or make conditional plea of guilty,

___________ shall be entered for him. The blank space is…
___A) A plea of guilty shall be entered for him
___B) A plea of not guilty shall be entered for him
___C) A combination of the first two
___D) None of them

1177. An accused may not enter a conditional plea of guilty in the sense that
he admits his guilt on condition that a certain penalty shall be imposed
upon him. Such kind of plea must be deemed a plea of…
___A) Guilty ___C) Waiver of arraignment
___B) Not guilty ___D) All of them

1178. An instance when the accused may be allowed by trial court to plead
guilty to a lesser offense, regardless or whether or not it is necessarily
included in the crime charge, or is cognizable by a court of lesser
jurisdiction than the trial court. Hence, no amendment of the
complaint or information is necessary.
___A) When he turns himself as a state witness
___B) Only with the consent of the offended party and the fiscal
___C) Only when he has less perversity in the commission of the crime
charged
___D) All of the above

1179. The legal and consequential effect in case of failure of the offended
party to appear during the arraignment despite due notice.
___A) The case filed against the accused will be dismissed
___B) The court may allow the accused to enter a plea of guilty to a
lesser offense which is necessary included in the offense charged
with the conformity of the trial prosecutor alone
___C) The offended party may be arrested upon a motion of the trial
prosecutor
Page 264
 ___D) All of the above

1180. In localities where no such members of the bar are available during
the arraignment, who shall be appointed by the court as Counsel de
Officio of the accused?
___A) The local Chief of Police
___B) The Vice Mayor of the locality
___C) Any person, resident of the province and of good repute for
probity and ability, to defend the accused
___D) All of the above

1181. How much time for Counsel de Officio to prepare for arraignment?
___A) Two Hours before proceeding with the arraignment
___B) Reasonable time to consult with the accused as to his plea before
proceeding with the arraignment
___C) Seventy-Two (72) hours before proceeding with the arraignment
___D) All of the above

1182. When shall arraignment be held?

___A) Within 30 days from the date the court acquires jurisdiction over
the person of the accused, unless a shorter period is provided by
special law or Supreme Court Circular
___B) Not later than 30 days from the date court acquires jurisdiction
over the person of the accused, unless a shorter period is provided
by special law or Supreme Court Circular
___C) 30 days after the date the court acquires jurisdiction overthe
person of the accused, unless a shorter period is provided by
special law or Supreme Court Circular
___D) All of the above

1183. Something for the accused to move, for him to enable to property
plead and prepare for trial. This motion shall specify the alleged
effects of the complaint or information and the details desired.
___A) Demurer of evidence
___B) Bill of particulars
Page 265
 ___C) Dismissal of the case
___D) Motion for a preliminary investigation

1184. An instance or instances when a motion to quash is a bar to another

prosecution for the same offense.
___A) The criminal action or liability has been extinguished, or the
accused has been previously convicted or acquitted of the offense
charged, or the case against him was dismissed or otherwise
terminated without his express consent
___B) The facts charged do not constitute an offense
___C) It contains avements which, if true, would constitute a legal
excuse or jurisdiction
___D) All of the above

1185. Of the following, one is the duty of the court when the accused pleads
guilty to a capital offense.
___A) The court shall conduct a searching inquiry into the voluntariness
and full comprehension of the consequences of his plea and
require the prosecution to prove his guilt and the precise degree of
culpability
___B) To order the investigating officer to conduct air tight investigation
of the case
___C) To redirect the fiscal to personally investigate the case
___D) To sentence the accused in accordance with his plea of guilty to
the capital offense charged with a note address to the Supreme
Court that the case should be reviewed

1186. Our purpose of automatic review in capital cases is…

___A) Decongest the penal institution
___B) To open entire record for scrutiny so that human life will not be
lost thru miscarriage of justice by misapplication of evidence
___C) To secure the execution of capital punishment
___D) None of the above

1187. The right to counsel is a personal one and therefore may be waived. It
Page 266
 is waived when the defendant…
___A) Voluntarily submits himself to the jurisdiction of the court and
proceeds with the defense
___B) Refuses to voluntarily submits himself to the jurisdiction of the
court
___C) Refuses to hire his counsel
___D) All of them

1188. In localities where no members of the bar are available, the court may
appoint to defend the accused.
___A) The Chief of Police
___B) Any Barangay Chairman/Captain
___C) Any person, resident of the province and of good repute for
probity and ability
___D) All of the foregoing

1189. Time granted to counsel de officio to consult with the accused as to

his plea before proceeding with the arraignment.
___A) At least one hour ___C) One day
___B) Two hours ___D) Two days

1190. After a plea of not guilty, the accused is entitled to such number of
days to prepare for trial unless the court for good cause grants him
further time.
___A) Two days ___C) One day
___B) Four days ___D) Three days

1191. The requirement that the accused should have such number of days to
prepare for trial is mandatory. A denial of this right is reverside error
and a ground for…
___A) Dismissal of the case ___C) New trial
___B) Habeas corpus ___D) All of them

1192. A kind of motion by the accused, at a before arraignment, that should

specify the alleged defects and the details desired, to enable him
Page 267
 properly to plead and to prepare for trial.
___A) To amend the complaint or information
___B) A bill of the particulars
___C) Right to confront the witnesses
___D) None of them

1193. If the accused appears to be suffering from an unsound mental

condition which effectively renders him unable to fully understand the
charge against him and to plead intelligently…
___A) The arraignment shall be suspended
___B) The criminal charged shall be dismissed
___C) The trial shall be suspended
___D) All of them

Rule 117
Motion to Quash

1194. At what time may the accused move to quash the complaint or
information?
___A) At any time before his arrest
___B) Only after entering his plea
___C) At any time before entering his plea
___D) All of them

1195. In the case above mentioned, if the defendant does not move to quash
the complaint or information at the appropriate time, he shall be
deemed to have waived all objections which are grounds for a motion
to quash. The only exceptions to this rule are…
___A) When the information fails to charge an offense
___B) When the court is without jurisdiction over the offenses charge or
the person of the accused
___C) That the criminal action or liability has been extinguished
___D) The accused had been previously convicted or acquitted of the
offense charged
Page 268
 ___E) All of the foregoing

1196. The motion to quash shall be in writing signed by the accused or his
counsel. It shall specify distinctly the factual and legal grounds
therefor and the court shall consider no grounds other than those
stated herein except…
___A) Lack of jurisdiction over the offense charged
___B) The criminal action or liability has been extinguished
___C) The accused had been previously convicted or acquitted of the
offense charged
___D)All of the foregoing

1197. In the case of People vs. Consulta, 70 SCRA 277, an order sustaining
motion to quash on ground that facts charged do not constitute an
offense is…
___A) A bar to another prosecution for the same offense
___B) Not a bar to another prosecution for the same offense
___C) Violation of “double jeopardy”
___D) A ground for retrial

1198. Section 6, Rule 110, prescribed the necessary requirements for the
sufficiency of a complaint or information. To be sufficient, a
complaint or information must…
___A) State the name of the defendant, the designation of the offense by
the statute, the acts or omissions complained of as constituting the
offense, name of the offended party, the time of the commissions
of the offense, and the place wherein the crime was committed
___B) State the Why? Whom? Where? When? Who? and How the crime
was committed?
___C) State the cause and nature of the offense committed
___D) All of the foregoing

1199. In the case mentioned above, insufficient allegations are…

___A) Cured by the defendants failure to move to quash or by plea or
guilty
Page 269
 ___B) Not cured bydefendants failure to move to quash or by plea or
guilty
___C) Grounds for retrial of the case
___D) Grounds for remanding of the case by the higher court to the
appropriate trial court

1200. It means the joinder of separate and distinct offenses in one and the
same complaint or information.
___A) Duplicity or multifariousness of offenses
___B) Clash suit
___C) Cause of action
___D) Prejudicial question

1201. In this jurisdiction, only one offense must be charged in a complaint

or information, except…
___A) A complex crimes as defined in Art. 8 of the Revised Penal Code
___B) When a single act constitutes two or more grave or less grave
felonies
___C) When an offense is a necessary means from committing the other
___D) All of the foregoing

1202. If the motion to quash is based on an alleged defect in the complaint

or information which can be cured by amendment, the court shall…
___A) Sustain a motion by the defendant to quash the complaint or
information
___B) Order the amendment to be made and shall overrule the motion to
quash
___C) Order the amendment to be made and shall sustain the motion to
quash
___D) None of them

1203. An amendment of the information or complaint which changes the

nature of the offense charged subject of formal preliminary
investigation constitutes…
___A) Due advantage over the accused
Page 270
 ___B) An undue advantage over the accused
___C) Ground for dismissal of the complaint or information
___D) None of the foregoing

1204. If the motion to quash based on any of the grounds other than lack of
jurisdiction is denied, the defendant shall…
___A) Appeal from the order of denial
___B) Petition for certiorari
___C) Immediately plead or go on with the trial then appeal after
conviction has been rendered
___D) All of the foregoing

1205. It means that a person is charged with an offense and the case is
terminated either by acquittal or conviction, or in any other manner
without the consent of the accused, the latter cannot be charged with
the same identical offense.
___A) Ex post facto law
___B) Double jeopardy
___C) Complex crimes
___D) Indeterminate Sentence Law

1206. One requisite of a double jeopardy is that there must be a complaint or

information or other formal charge __________ to sustain a
conviction. The vacant space means…
___A) Complete in its face
___B) Sufficient in form and substance
___C) Filed before the court of competent jurisdiction
___D) All of the foregoing

1207. The failure of the accused to assert any ground of a motion to quash
before he pleads to the complaint or information, either because he
does not file a motion to quash or failed to allege the same in said
motion, shall be deemed a waiver of the grounds of a motion to quash,
except…
___A) The grounds of no offense charged
Page 271
 ___B) Lack of jurisdiction
___C) Extinction of the offense or penalty
___D) Double jeopardy
___E) All of the foregoing

1208. A time when double jeopardy can be entertained.

___A) Only at any time before judgment is rendered by the trial court
___B) For the first time on appeal
___C) During the preliminary investigation
___D) All of the foregoing

1209. It is the process whereby the accused and the prosecutor in a criminal
case work out a mutually satisfactory disposition on the case subject
to court approval.
___A) Pre-trial ___C) Preliminary investigation
___B) Plea bargaining ___D) Arraignment

1210. It is conference conducted by the court where the accused and counsel
agree on the matters of plea bargaining, stipulation of facts, marking
for identification of evidence, waiver of objections to admissibility of
evidence, and such other matters as will promote a fair and
expeditious trial.
___A) Arraignment ___C) Preliminary investigation
___B) Pre-trial ___D) Trial

Rule 119
Trial

1211. It is defined as the examination before a competent tribunal, according

to the laws of the land, of the facts in issue in a cause, for the purpose
of determining such issue.
___A) Trial ___C) Arraignment
___B) Pre-trial ___D) Preliminary investigation

Page 272
1212. From among the things necessary to put off a postponement of a trial
on account of the absence of a witness, one of the following is not
included.
___A) That the witness is really material and appears to the court to be so
___B) That the party who applies for postponement has been guilty of no
neglect
___C) That the witness can he had at the time to which the trial has been
deferred
___D) That no similar evidence could be obtained
___E) That the witness has not paid yet the attorney’s fees

1213. When the accused had been to answer for an offense, he may, upon
motion with notice to all other parties, have witnesses conditionally
examined in his behalf in the manner provided by rules, but not
otherwise. The motion shall state…
___A) The name and residence of the witness
___B) The substance of his testimony
___C) That the witness is so sick or infirm as to afford reasonable ground
for believing that he will not be able to attend the trial, or resides
more than 100 kilometers from the place of trial, and has no
means to attend the same, or other similar circumstances exist that
would make him unavailable or prevent him from attending the
trial
___D) All of the foregoing

1214. Under the new rules, the examination of a defense witness may be
made before may judge, or if not practicable, before…
___A) Any chief of police who is likewise designated as municipal
police prosecutor
___B) Any municipal mayor
___C) Any member of the Bar in good standing designated by the judge
in the order
___D) All of them

1215. When the court is satisfied, upon proof of oath, that a material witness
Page 273
 will not testify when required, it may upon the motion of either party
order the witness to…
___A) To be discharge
___B) To be implicated in the complaint or information
___C) To post bail in such sum as may be deemed proper
___D) All of them

1216. In this jurisdiction, when two or more accused are jointly charged
with any offense, they shall be tried jointly. The granting of a separate
trial is…
___A) Within the sound discretion of trial court
___B) Mandatory , that any accused is entitled to it as of right
___C) Statutory requirement
___D) All of the foregoing

1217. That if granted by the Trial Court, motion for separate trial must be
filed…
___A) After the prosecution closed its evidence
___B) Before the commencement of trial
___C) For the first time on appeal
___D) All of the foregoing

1218. In criminal actions for adultery, the action must be instituted against
both guilty parties is…
___A) Not absolute, in the sense that either of the defendants may secure
a separate trial, or that the trial court may dismiss the charge as to
one of the accused
___B) Absolute, in the sense that the offended spouse may pardon the
guilty spouse and prosecute the paramour
___C) Within the sound discretion of the trial judge
___D) Within the sound discretion of the offended party

1219. Where the defendant has been jointly tried with his co-accused and his
lawyer did not object to the admission of the confession by one of the
accused, the former is…
Page 274
 ___A) Not bound by the confession of the latter
___B) Bound by the statement of the latter
___C) Implicated by the latter
___D) Remained as an accused, while he is discharged as a State witness

1220. Under the rules on discharge of accused to be state witness, evidence

adduced is support of the discharge shall automatically form part of
the trial. Now if the court denies the motion for discharge of the
accused as state witness, his sworn statement shall be…
___A) Admissible in evidence ___C) Documentary evidence
___B) Inadmissible in evidence ___D) Material evidence

1221. The prosecution is required to present evidence and the sworn

statement of each proposed state witness at the hearing in support of
the discharge. Thus, the motion to discharge the accused to be state
witness must be filed…
___A) Before the prosecution rests
___B) Before the presentation of evidence
___C) For the first time on appeal
___D) Before arraignment

1222. The order indicated in Section 9 shall amount to an acquittal of the

accused discharged and shall be a bar to future prosecution for the
same offense, unless…
___A) The accused is a principal to a commission of the crime charged
___B) The accused fails or refuses to testify against his co-accused in
accordance with his sworn statement constituting the basis for his
discharged
___C) The crime subject of the complaint is dismissed
___D) The offense charged is later found to be a complex crime

1223. The general rule is that a case shall not be provisionally dismissed.
However, one of the following is an exception to the general rule, and
that is…
___A) When the accused dies before the final judgment of the case
Page 275
 ___B) When the accused is expressly pardoned by the offended party
___C) With the express consent of the accused and with notice to the
offended party
___D) All of the above

1224. The legal effect if there is a provisional dismissal of offenses

punishable by imprisonment not exceeding 6 years or a fine of any
amount, or both.
___A) Without the consent of the offender, the provisional dismissal or
such offense will be void ab initio
___B) Such dismissal shall be valid, either with or without the express
consent of the accused
___C) Such dismissal shall become permanent 1 year after issuance of
the order without the case having been revived
___D) All of the above

1225. The legal effect if there is provisional dismissal of offenses punishable

by imprisonment of more than 6 years.
___A) The provisional dismissal shall become permanent 2 years after
issuance of the folder without the case having been revived
___B) Such dismissal shall become permanent 1 year after issuance the
order without the case having been revived
___C) Such dismissal shall be valid, either with or without the consent of
the accused
___D) All of the above

1226. The legal effect if and when all agreements, made or entered during
the pre-trial conference, which are reduced in writing, are not signed
by the accused and his counsel.
___A) It is considered as admission of guilt
___B) Cannot be used against the accused
___C) The court shall order for another pre-trial conference of the case
___D) All of the above

1227. What will happen if the counsel for the accused or the prosecutor does
Page 276
 not appear at the pre-trial conference and does not offer an acceptable
excuse for his lack of cooperation?
___A) The court may impose proper sanctions or penalties
___B) The court may proceed to Trial proper
___C) The court may order another pre-trial conference
___D) All of the above

1228. The number of days the accused has to prepare for trial after a plea of
not guilty is entered.
___A) Within 30 days ___C) Within 45 days
___B) At least 15 days ___D) All of the above

1229. The time when trial shall commence.

___A) Within 30 days from the receipt of the pre-trial order
___B) Within 15 days from the receipt of the pre-trial order
___C) Within 45 days from the receipt of the pre-trial order
___D) All of the above

1230. The status of an essential witness when his whereabouts are unknown
or his whereabouts cannot be determined by due diligence.
___A) Absent ___C) Hostile
___B) Unavailable ___D) Adverse

1231. The status of an essential witness whenever his whereabouts are

unknown but his presence for trial cannot be obtained by due
diligence.
___A) Absent ___C) Hostile
___B) Unavailable ___D) Adverse

1232. If the Public Attorney assigned to defend a person charged with a

crime knows that the latter is preventively detained, either because he
is charged with a bailable crime but has no means to post ball, or, is
charged with a non-bailable crime, or, is serving a term of
imprisonment in any penal institution, it shall be his duty to do the
following:
Page 277
 ___A) Shall promptly undertake to obtain the presence of the prisoner for
trial or cause a notice to be served on the person having custody of
the prisoner requiring such person to so advise the prisoner of his
right to demand trial
___B) Upon receipt of that notice, the custodian of the prisoner shall
promptly advise the prisoner of the charge and of his right to
demand trial. If at any time thereafter the prisoner informs his
custodian that he demands such trial, the latter shall cause notice
to that effect to be sent promptly to the Public Attorney
___C) Upon receipt of such notice, the Public Attorney shall promptly
seek to obtain the presence of the prisoner for trial
___D) When the custodian of the prisoner received from the public
attorney a property supported request for the availability of the
prisoner for purposes of trial, the prisoner shall be made available
accordingly
___E) All of them

1233. The legal remedy if the accused is not brought to trial within the time
limit required by Section 1 (g), Rule 116 and Section 1, as extended
by Section 6 of this Rule. This dismissal shall be subject to the rules
on double jeopardy.
___A) The information may be dismissed on motion of the accused on
the ground of denial of his right to speedy trial
___B) The court, in its own discretion may dismiss the information
___C) The information may be dismissed on motion of the prosecutor of
the case
___D) All of the above

1234. The authority of the court when satisfied, upon proof or oath, that a
material witness will not testify when required, upon motion of either
party.
___A) May proceed to the trial of the case
___B) May order the witness to post bail in such sum as may be deemed
proper
___C) Shall commit him to prison until he complies or is legally
Page 278
 discharged after his testimony has been taken
___D) All of the above

1235. The authority of the court upon refusal of the material witness to post
bond.
___A) May proceed to the trial of the case
___B) May order the material witness to be put in jail for obstruction of
justice
___C) Shall commit him to prison until he complies or is legally
discharged after his testimony has been taken
___D) All of the above

1236. Evidenced adduced in support of the discharged of the accused to be

state witness shall be automatically form part of the trial. If the court
denies the motion for discharge of the accused as state witness, his
sworn statement shall be…
___A) Inadmissible in evidence ___C) Put in archive
___B) Admissible in evidence ___D) All of the above

1237. Section 23, Rule 119 of the Revised Criminal Procedure provides two
instances when the court may dismiss the action: (1) on the ground of
insufficiency of evidence on its initiative, after the fiscal rests its case,
and after giving the prosecutor the opportunity to be heard, or…
___A) On the ground of lapses on the prosecution
___B) On the ground of prescription of crime
___C) Upon demurrer of evidence filed by the accused with or without
leave of court
___D) All of the above

1238. Of the two instances when the public is excluded from the courtroom,
one of the following is not included in the enumeration, and that is…
___A) If the evidence to be produced during the trials is offensive to
decency or public morals
___B) On motion of the accused, the judge may also exclude the trial
except court personnel and the counsel of the parties
Page 279
 ___C) If either one of the parties involved in a relative of the judge
___D) All of the above

1239. One reason for the opening of trial of a case.

___A) The judge may, motuproprio or upon motion, with hearing in
either case, reopen the proceeding to avoid a miscarriage of
justice
___B) The appearance of an essential witness
___C) The death of the accused during the trial
___D) The prescription of crimes

1240. One instance when the court, may motuproprio, exclude the public
from the court room.
___A) If the evidence to be produced during the trial is of such character
as to be offensive to decency of public morals
___B) If the accused is a woman of good reputation
___C) If the accused is an Ambassador
___D) All of the foregoing

1241. Charges for offenses, by mutual agreement of both prosecution and

defense, may be consolidate or tried jointly at the court’s discretion, if
said offenses are…
___A) Founded on the same issues or forming part of the series of
offenses of similar character
___B) Continuing offenses
___C) Complex crimes
___D) All of the foregoing

1242. When after the prosecution has rested its case, the accused files a
motion to dismiss the case on the ground of insufficiency of evidence,
he waives the right to present evidence and submits the case for
judgment on the basis of the evidence for the prosecution. This rule is
what is known as…
___A) Summary Proceeding
___B) Demurrer to evidence
Page 280
 ___C) Bill of particular
___D) Judgment without counter evidence

Rule 120
Judgment

1243. As used in Rule 120, it means the adjudication by the court that the
accused is guilty or is not guilty of the offense charged, and the
imposition of the proper penalty and civil liability provided for by law
on the accused.
___A) Judgment ___C) Acquittal
___B) Interlocutory ___D) Sentence

1244. From the provision of Section 1, Rule 120 it would seem that in a
judgment or acquittal, the court has…
___A) Authority to imposed a reprimand
___B) No authority to impose a reprimand
___C) Authority to call a conference with both prosecutor and defense
counsel
___D) All of the foregoing

1245. In the case of People vs. Tolentino, G.R. No. 46446, Dec. 24, 1983, a
decision rendered by a judge after his appointment has been
disapproved by the Commission on Appointments on the National
Assembly is…
___A) Valid ___C) De facto judgment
___B) Null and void ___D) All of the foregoing

1246. In the case of Regala vs. Judge of CFI of Bataan, 77 Phil. 684, a judge
who exercised his duties before being officially informed of the
disapproval of his appointment is a de facto judge. In effect, all his
official actions as such are…
___A) Valid on all legal points and for all kinds of cases as a judge
dejure
Page 281
 ___B) Invalid on all legal points and for all kinds of cases as a judge de
facto
___C) Remanded to appropriate judge for re-trial
___D) Of no effect at all

1247. In the case of People vs. Meneses, 75 Phil. 119, a judge who, in good
faith, continues to act and is recognized by common error after the
abolition of his court, is deemed…
___A) A de jure judge of a court which succeeds to the jurisdiction of
that presided over by him
___B) A de facto judge of a court which succeeds to the jurisdiction of
that presided over by him
___C) Criminally liable
___D) None of them

1248. In case of acquittal, the judgment shall make a finding on the civil
liability of the accused in favor of the offended party, except when…
___A) There is a clear showing that the act from which the civil liability
might arise did not exist
___B) There is a prejudicial question
___C) The offended is pardon by the offended party
___D) The guilty party dies before judgment

1249. The indemnity which a person is sentenced to pay, forms an integral

part of the penalty, it being expressly provided by Article 100 of the
Revised Penal Code, that every person criminally liable is…
___A) Civilly liable ___C) Presumed to be innocent
___B) Not civilly liable ___D) All of them

1250. It is said to exist when the complaint or information sets out an

offense but the evidence establishes another crime.
___A) Complex crimes ___C) Continuing crime
___B) Variance ___D) False accusation

1251. In case of variance between information and proof, and accused can
Page 282
 only be convicted of the…
___A) Graver offense which is included in the other
___B) Lesser crime which is included in the other
___C) Mitigating circumstances
___D) Aggravating circumstances

1252. Where the offense charged does not include the offense proved, it
matter not how conclusive and convincing the evidence or guilt may
be, an accused person cannot be convicted in any court of any offense
unless…
___A) The accused is charged of a complex crimes
___B) It is charged in the information which he is tried or necessarily
included therein
___C) The accused is recidivist
___D) All of them

1253. Takes place when the Clerk of Court enters judgment in accordance
with the order of the court and when judgment is thus entered, it is
legally promulgated.
___A) Rendering of the judgment
___B) Pronouncing of the judgment
___C) Legal promulgation of the judgment
___D) Either of them

1254. Under Section 6 of the Rule 120 of the Rules of Court, a judgment of
acquittal is validly promulgated after the Clerk of Court has entered it
in the criminal docket and the defendant served with copy thereof.
The presence of the defendant is not necessary where the judgment is
one of…
___A) Conviction of grave offense
___B) Acquittal
___C) Conviction of a lesser offense
___D) All of them

1255. In the case of People vs. Magumit, Court should not defer
Page 283
 pronouncement of judgment except in…
___A) Acquittal ___C) Capital punishment
___B) Lesser punishment ___D) All of them

1256. In the case of People vs. Tamayo, 86 Phil. 209, the court may modify
its judgment or decision or conviction only…
___A) Before the latter has become final
___B) Before an appeal is perfected
___C) Motupropio
___D) All of them

1257. A judgment becomes final after the lapse of the period for…
___A) Perfecting an appeal
___B) Presentation of evidence by the prosecution
___C) Presentation of evidence by the defense counsel
___D) All of them

Rule 121
New Trial or Reconsideration

1258. It portrays a proceeding whereby errors of law or irregularities are

expunged from the record, or new evidence is introduced , or both
steps are taken, in a new trial, by the very nature of its purpose and
what is to be done, both parties have to intervene.
___A) New Trial
___B) Motion for Reconsideration
___C) Trial
___D) All of them

1259. It contemplates no new hearing or proceeding of any kind or change

in judgment is accomplished on the basis of what is already in the
record.
___A) New Trial
___B) Motion for Reconsideration
Page 284
 ___C) Trial
___D) Appeal

1260. A motion for new trial should be filed at any time within fifteen days
from the promulgation of a judgment of conviction that is…
___A) Bef0ore the final entry of a judgment of conviction
___B) Before the appeal is perfected
___C) After the final entry of a judgment of conviction
___D) After the appeal is perfected, the trial court…

1261. Where the appeal has been perfected, the motion for new trial should
be presented to the appellate court, because once an appeal is
perfected, the trial court…
___A) Still retains its power to set aside the judgment rendered by it or to
grant a new trial
___B) Loses its power to set aside the judgment rendered by it to grant a
new trial
___C) All of the above
___D) None of them

1262. There are only two grounds for the Court to grant a new trial. One of
the following is not included.
___A) That a decision rendered by a judge after his appointment has been
disapproved by the Department of Justice
___B) That the errors of law or irregularities have been committed during
the trial prejudicial or substantial rights of the accused
___C) That new and material evidence has been discovered which the
accused could not with reasonable diligence have discovered and
produced at the trial, and which if introduced and admitted, would
probably change the judgment

1263. While there are two grounds for granting of a new trial, there is only
one ground for reconsideration, and that is…
___A) That is decision rendered by a judge after his appointment has
been approved by the Department of Justice
Page 285
 ___B) On errors of law or fact in the judgment, which require no further
proceedings
___C) Mistakes or errors of the defense counsel in conducting the cause
___D) Judgment rendered by a judge after abolition of his court

1264. The effect of granting a new trial when the ground is that of newly
discovered evidence.
___A) The evidence already taken shall stand and the new evidence and
such other evidence as the court may, in the interest of justice,
allow to be introduced, shall be taken and considered together
with the evidence already in the records
___B) All proceedings and evidence not affected by the occurrences of
such errors and irregularities shall stand but those affected thereby
shall be set aside and taken a new
___C) Is to acquit the accused of the crime of which the judgment finds
him guilty
___D) All of them

1265. The effect t of a new trial does…

___A) Not acquit the accused of the crime of which the judgment finds
him guilty
___B) Not place the defendant in double jeopardy
___C) All of them
___D) None of them

Rule 122
Appeals

1266. The right to appeal a case decided by a lower court is…

___A) Statutory right
___B) Inherent right
___C) Necessary element of due process of law
___D) All of them

Page 286
1267. When we say appeal from the judgment of the lower to higher courts,
we mean…
___A) An order overruling a motion to quash presented by the defendant
against the information does not dispose of the cause upon merits
and therefore interlocutory
___B) Only from final judgment of the lower court or courts of similar
jurisdiction
___C) An order denying the demurrer to the evidence
___D) A denial of the motion to dismiss

1268. When we say appeal from the orders of the lower court to higher
courts, we mean…
___A) Where the motion to quash is sustained
___B) And order of the court denying the request of the sureties to cancel
the bond, where the execution has issued
___C) The order authorizing the collection of the fine imposed upon the
accused from the bond put up by the sureties
___D) All of them

1269. When the law grants the right to appeal, and such right is improperly
refused, or unjustly denied, the appropriate remedy would be…
___A) To file an administrative case against the judge concerned
___B) To file criminal and civil cases against the judge concerned
___C) The writ of mandamus in order to compel allowance of the appeal
___D) All of them

1270. One exception under the rule that any party may appeal from a final
judgment or order.
___A) The denial of the motion to dismiss
___B) An order denying a demurrer to the evidence
___C) If the accused would be place on double jeopardy
___D) All of them

1271. Appeal by “either party” as used in the law has been interpreted to
mean…
Page 287
 ___A) Only the government and the accused
___B) Other persons who may be affected by the judgment rendered in
the criminal proceedings
___C) All of them

1272. The period for appeal from final orders, resolutions, awards
judgments or decisions of any court in all cases shall be…
___A) 15 days counted from the notice of the final order, resolution,
award, judgment or decision appealed from
___B) Within 15 days from the notice of the final order, resolution,
award, judgment or decision appealed from
___C) 15 days after the notice of the final order, resolution, award,
judgment or decision appealed from
___D) 15 days before the notice of the final order, resolution, award,
judgment or decision appealed from

1273. Corollary to the item above mentioned, when will the period for
perfecting an appeal be interrupted?
___A) After the time a motion for a new trial or reconsideration is filed
until notice of the order overruling the motion shall have served
upon the accused or his counsel
___B) After the time a motion for new trial or reconsideration is filed
until notice of the order overruling the motion shall have served
upon the accused or his counsel
___C) Before the time a motion for new trial or reconsideration is filed
until notice of the order overruling the motion shall have served
upon the accused or his counsel
___D) None of them

Rule 125
Search and Seizure

1274. It is defined as an order in writing issued in the name of the People of

the Philippines, signed by a judge and directed to a peace officer
Page 288
 commanding him to search for personal property described therein
and bring it before the court.
___A) Search warrant ___C) Warrant of arrest
___B) Seizure ___D) Sequestration order

1275. Persons protected by the provisions against unreasonable search and

seizure.
___A) Citizens of the Philippines only within the jurisdiction of the
Philippines
___B) To all persons whether citizens or aliens within the jurisdiction of
the State
___C) To all persons accused of acts and omissions punishable under the
Revised Penal Code
___D) All of them

1276. Under the rules, only tangible material object van be the subject of
illegal seizure. In effect, evidence illegally seized is…
___A) Inadmissible in evidence ___C) Violable in evidence
___B) Admissible in evidence ___D) All of them

1277. A search warrant may be issued for the search and seizure of personal
property.
___A) Subject of the offense
___B) Stolen embezzled and other proceeds or fruits of the offense
___C) Use or intended to be used as the means of committing an offense
___D) All of them

1278. A search warrant and seizure of personal property, ownership over it

is…
___A) Not necessary ___C) Indispensable
___B) Necessary ___D) Material

1279. It simply means that sufficient facts must be presented to the judge or
magistrate issuing the warrant, to convince him, not the particular
person has committed the crime, but that there is a cause for believing
Page 289
 that the person whose arrest is sought might have committed the crime
charged.
___A) Order for search warrant and seizure
___B) Probable cause
___C) Writ of execution
___D) Writ of confiscation

1280. Of the four requisites for issuing search warrant, one of the following
is not included.
___A) The warrant issued must particularly described the person who
committed the crime
___B) It must be issued upon probable cause
___C) The probable cause must be determined by the judge himself and
not by the applicant or any other person
___D) In the determination of probable cause the judge must examine
under oath or affirmation, the complainant and such witness as the
latter may produced
___E) The warrant issued must particularly describe the place to be
searched and the things to be seized

1281. Are outlawed because they place the sanctity of the domicile and the
privacy of communication and correspondence at the mercy of the
whims, caprice or passion of peace officers.
___A) Unreasonable search and seizures
___B) General search warrants
___C) Illegally seized documents
___D) All of them

1282. What will be the effect of irregularity of issuance of search warrant?

___A) The property described therein and seized thereunder will not be
order returned to the owner, nor the latter be exonerated, if such
property was in fact found in the place described in the application
for a search warrant
___B) The property described therein and seized thereunder willbe
order returned to the owner, nor the latter be exonerated, if such
Page 290
 property was in fact found in the place described in the application
for a search warrant
___C) The warrant is allowed for the purpose of obtaining evidence of an
intended crime but only after lawful evidence of an offense
committed
___D) The warrant is not allowed for the purpose of obtaining evidence
of an intended crime but only after lawful evidence of an offense
committed

1283. Assuming you are the peace officer directed by the court to execute
the search warrant, but admittance to the place is refused, what will
you do?
___A) Go back to the court and inform the judge of your failure to
execute the search warrant
___B) If refused admittance to the place directed search after giving
notice of his purpose and authority, he may break upon any outer
or inner door or window of a house or any part of a house to
execute the warrant or liberate himself or any person lawfully
aiding him when unlawfully detained therein
___C) All of them

1284. The warrant must direct that it be served in the day time, unless…
___A) The affidavit asserts that the property is on the person or in the
place ordered to be searched, in which case a direction may be
inserted that it be served at any time of the day or night
___B) The affidavit asserts that the property to be searched is worth an
amount within the jurisdiction of the Regional Trial Court
___C) The place to be searched is the subject of embezzlement
___D) All of them

1285. And where the affidavit is insufficient and the warrant issued on the
strength of such sworn statement is illegal, the search…
___A) Can also be affected at night
___B) Cannot be affected at night
___C) Is a really a mere continuation of the search begun the previous
Page 291
 day
___D) None of them

1286. Under Section 9 of Rule 126, a search warrant shall be valid for how
many days?
___A) 15 days from its date ___C) 10 days from its date
___B) 10 days from its date ___D) 15 days after its date

1287. To whom does the officer seizing property under warrant must give a
detailed receipt for the same?
___A) To the lawful occupant of the premises in whose presence the
search and seizure were made
___B) In the absence of such occupant, must, in the presence of least two
witnesses of sufficient age and discretion of residing in the same
locality, leave a receipt in the place in which he found the seize
property
___C) All of them
___D) None of them

1288. Under the rule, the officer must forthwith deliver the property seized
to the judge who issued the warrant, together a true inventory thereof
duly verified under oath. When may the concerned peace officer
retain property seized?
___A) Where the court which issued the warrant approved the retention
of the property by the peace officer making the seizure
___B) Where such property seized is fragile that the peace officer making
such seizure may retain the property
___C) Where such property is valueless
___D) All of them

1289. In what instance or instances may search and seizure be made without
warrant?
___A) When it is with the consent of the accused
___B) When search is incidental to arrest
___C) When it is made for dangerous weapon or anything which may be
Page 292
 used as proof of the commission of an offense
___D) All of them

CRIMINAL EVIDENCE

1290. It is the means, sanctioned by the rules, of ascertaining in a judicial

proceeding the truth respecting a matter of fact.
___A) Evidence
___B) Proof
___C) Fact
___D) Truth verifying examination

1291. Republic Act No. 4200 prohibits the admission in evidence in any
judicial, quasi-judicial, legislative or administrative investigation of
any communication or spoken work or any information procured by
wire-tapping and related means specified in said law, except…
___A) National security is involved
___B) In the cases therein specifically permitted
___C) Economic crime is involved
___D) All of them

1292. The Rules on evidence classify evidence according to form, into…

___A) Real evidence ___C) Testimonial evidence
___B) Documentary evidence ___D) All of them

1293. Is that form of evidence which is directly addressed to the senses of

the Court and consists of tangible things exhibit to or demonstrated in
open court, in an ocular inspection, or at a place designated by the
Court for its view or observation of an exhibition, experiment or
demonstration.
___A) Testimonial evidence ___C)Real evidence
___B) Documentary evidence ___D) Relevant evidence

Page 293
1294. It is a form of evidence supplied by written instruments or derived
from conventional symbols, such as letters, by which ideas are
represented on material substances.
___A) Real evidence ___C) Testimonial evidence
___B) Documentary evidence ___D) Material evidence

1295. It is that which is submitted to the court through the testimony or

deposition of a witness.
___A) Testimonial evidence ___C) Material evidence
___B) Relevant evidence ___D) Competent evidence

1296. It is a kind of evidence having any value in reason as tending to prove

any matter provable in action.
___A) Relevant evidence ___C) Competent evidence
___B) Material evidence ___D) Direct evidence

1297. It is that evidence directed to prove a fact in issue as determined by

the rules of substantive law and pleadings.
___A) Relevant evidence ___C) Competent evidence
___B) Material evidence ___D) Circumstantial evidence

1298. It is a kind of evidence that is not excluded by law in a particular case.

___A) Competent evidence ___C) Direct evidence
___B) Material evidence ___D) Circumstantial evidence

1299. Is that evidence that which proves the fact in dispute without the aid
of any inference or presumption.
___A) Circumstantial evidence ___C) Cumulative evidence
___B) Direct evidence ___D) Corroborative evidence

1300. It is a kind of evidence, the proof of fact or facts from which, taken
either singly or collectively, the existence of the particular fact in
dispute may be inferred as a necessary or probable consequence.
___A) Circumstantial evidence ___C) Prima facie evidence
___B) Corroborative evidence ___D) Cumulative evidence
Page 294
1301. It is evidence of the same kind and to the same state of facts.
___A) Corroborative evidence ___C) Prima face evidence
___B) Cumulative evidence ___D) Conclusive evidence

1302. It is additional evidence of a different character to the same point.

___A) Corroborative evidence ___C) Conclusive evidence
___B) Prima facie evidence ___D) Primary or best evidence

1303. Is that which, standing alone, unexplained or incontradicted, is

sufficient to maintain the proposition affirmed.
___A) Conclusive evidence ___C) Primary or best evidence
___B) Prima facie evidence ___D) Secondary evidence

1304. Is that class of evidence which the law does not allow to be
contradicted.
___A) Conclusive evidence ___C) Secondary evidence
___B) Prima facie evidence ___D) Positive evidence

1305. Is that which the law regards as affording the greatest certainty of the
fact in question.
___A) Primary or best evidence ___C) Positive evidence
___B) Secondary evidence ___D) Negative evidence

1306. Is that which inferior to the primary evidence and is permitted by law
only when the best evidence is not available.
___A) Primary or best evidence ___C) Positive evidence
___B) Secondary evidence ___D) Negative evidence

1307. It is one kind of evidence when the witness affirms that a fact did or
did not occur.
___A) Positive evidence ___C) Secondary evidence
___B) Negative evidence ___D) Primary or best evidence

1308. When the witness states he did not see or know the occurrences of a
fact.
Page 295
 ___A) Positive evidence ___C) Secondary evidence
___B) Negative evidence ___D) Primary or best evidence

1309. Where the evidence at the time of its offer appear to be immaterial or
irrelevant unless it is connected with the other facts to be subsequently
proved, such evidence may be received on condition that the other
facts will be proved thereafter, otherwise the evidence already given
will be stricken out.
___A) Conditional admissibility ___C) Curative admissibility
___B) Multiple admissibility ___D) All of them

1310. Where the evidence is relevant and competent for two or more
purposes, such evidence should be admitted for any or all the purposes
for which it is offered provided it satisfies all requirements of law for
its admissibility therefore.
___A) Conditional admissibility ___C) Curative admissibility
___B) Multiple admissibility ___D) All of them

1311. This doctrine treats upon the right of a party to introduce incompetent
evidence in his behalf where the court has admitted the same kind of
evidence adduced by the adverse party.
___A) Conditional admissibility ___C) Curative admissibility
___B) Multiple admissibility ___D) All of them

1312. The rule is that, there can be no evidence of a writing the contents of
which is the subject of inquiry, other than the original writing itself,
except in the following cases:
___A) When the original has been lost, destroyed, or cannot be produced
in court; when the original is a record or other document in the
custody of a public officer
___B) When the original is in the possession of the party against whom
the evidence is offered , and the latter fails to produce it after
reasonable notice
___C) When the original has been recorded in an existing record a
certified copy of which is made evidence by law
Page 296
 ___D) When the original consists of numerous accounts or other
documents which cannot be examined in court without great loss
of time and the fact sought to be established from them is only the
general result of the whole
___E) All of them

1313. In order that such secondary evidence may be admissible, there must
be proof by satisfactory evidence of…
___A) Due execution of the original
___B) Loss, destruction or unavailability of such original
___C) Reasonable diligence and good faith in the search for or attempt to
produce the original
___D) All of them

1314. Any evidence attitude, whether oral or written, which is intended to or

tends to vary or contradict a complete and enforceable agreement
embodied in a document. It is based upon the consideration that then
the parties have reduced their agreement on a particular matter into
writing, all their previous and contemporaneous agreements on the
matter are merged therein.
___A) Patrol evidence ___C) Secondary evidence
___B) Best evidence ___D) None of the above

1315. The rule is that, when the terms of an agreement have been reduced to
writing, it is to be considered as containing all such terms, and,
therefore, there be, between the parties and their successors in interest,
no evidence of the terms of the agreement other than the contents of
the writing except…
___A) Where a mistake or imperfection of the writing or its failure to
express the true intent and agreement of the parties, or the validity
of the agreement is put in issued by the pleadings
___B) When there is an intrinsic ambiguity in the writing
___C) All of the above
___D) None of the above

Page 297
1316. When an instrument is equally susceptible of two interpretations, one
in favor of natural right and the other against it, which one is to be
adopted or considered?
___A) Natural right ___C) All of the above
___B) Against the natural right ___D) None of the above

1317. When an instrument consists partly of written words and partly of a

printed form, and the two are inconsistent, which one of them shall
prevail or control?
___A) Printed form ___C) All of the above
___B) Written words ___D) None of the above

1318. All persons who, having organs of sense, can perceive, and
perceiving, can make known their perception to others, may be…
___A) Witnesses ___C) Defense counsel
___B) Prosecutor ___D) All of the above

1319. The following persons cannot be witnesses, except…

___A) Those who are of unsound mind at the time of their production for
examination, to such a degree as to incapable of perceiving and
making known their perception to others
___B) Children who appear to the court to be of such tender age and
inferior capacity as to be incapable of receiving correct
impressions of the facts respecting which they are examined, or of
relating them truly
___C) A person convicted of a crime
___D) All of the above

1320. The following persons cannot testify as to matters in which they are
interested, directly or indirectly.
___A) Parties or assignors or parties to a case, or persons in whose behalf
a case is prosecuted, against an executor or administrator or other
representative if a deceased person, or against a person of unsound
mind, upon a claim or demand against the estate of such deceased
person or against such person of unsound mind, cannot testify as
Page 298
 to any matter of fact occurring before the death of such deceased
or before such person became of unsound mind
___B) A husband cannot be examined for or against his wife without her
consent; nor a wife for or against her husband without his consent,
except in a civil case by one against the other
___C) No descendant can be compelled, in a criminal case, to testify
against his parents and ascendants
___D) All of them

1321. The interest which a witness has in the subject matter of the action or
in its outcome does not disqualify him from testifying, except those
covered by the rule on surviving parties, also known as…
___A) Dead Man Statute, or the Survivorship Disqualification Rule
___B) Expert Witness
___C) Confessional Box
___D) All of the above

1322. For the marital privileged communications to apply, it is necessary

that the elements thereof should be present, and that is…
___A) There was a valid marital relationship
___B) The privilege is invoked with respect to a confidential
communication between the spouse during the said marriage
___C) The spouse whom such evidence is being offered has not given his
consent to such testimony
___D) All of the above

1323. Since the confidential nature of the communication is the basis of the
privilege, the same cannot be invoked where it was not intended to be
kept in confidence by the spouse who received the same, as in the case
of dying declaration of the husband to his wife as to who was his
assailant. When may his privilege communication be lost?
___A) If said communication is overheard or comes into the hands of a
third person, whether legally or not
___B) If said communication is overheard or comes into the hands of a
third person, whether legally
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 ___C) If said communication is overheard or comes into the hands of a
third person, whether not legally
___D) All of the above

1324. It is one which has been made extra-judicially by the party to favor his
interests. It is not admissible in evidence.
___A) Incrimination ___C) Admission by silence
___B) Self-serving declaration ___D) Confession

1325. Any act or declaration made in the presence and within the
observation of a party who does or says nothing when the act or
declaration is such as naturally to call for action or comment if not
true, may be given in evidence against him.
___A) Confession ___C) Self-serving declaration
___B)Admission by silence ___D)Incrimination

1326. While rape cases can be compromised (Art. 344, last par… RPC) an
offer to compromised for a monetary consideration, and not to marry
the victim is considered as…
___A) An implied admission of guilt
___B) Confession
___C) Incrimination
___D) All of the above

1327. When may an admission by a conspirator be admissible against his

conspirator?
___A) If such conspiracy is shown by evidence aliunde
___B) If such admission was made during the late existence of the
conspiracy
___C) If the admission relates to the conspiracy itself
___D) All of the above

1328. The Rule is that extra-judicial admission made by a conspirator after

the conspiracy has terminated and even before trial are also not
admissible against the co-conspirator, except…
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 ___A) If made in the presence of the latter who expressly or impliedly
agreed therein as, in the former case, it would be adopted
admission and, in the latter case, it would be a tacit admission
under Section 23
___B) Where the facts stated in said admission are confirmed in the
individual extra-judicial confessions made by the co-conspirators
after their apprehensions
___C) As a circumstance to determine the credibility of a witness
___D) As a circumstantial evidence to show the probability of the latter’s
participation in the offense
___E) All of the above

1329. Assuming you are the assigned investigator, how would you infer the
existence of a conspiracy?
___A) From the acts of the accused
___B) From the confessions of the accused
___C) By prima facie proof thereof
___D) All of the above

1330. It is categorical acknowledgment of guilt made by an accused in a

criminal case, without and exculpatory statement or explanation.
___A) Admission ___C) Interrogation
___B) Confession ___D) Corpus delicti

1331. An extra-judicial confession is one made in any other place or

occasion and cannot sustained a conviction unless corroborated by
what?
___A) Corpus delicti
___B) Physical evidence
___C) Confession by a co-conspirator
___D) Interrogation

1332. For an extra-judicial confession to be admissible, it is necessary

that…

Page 301
 ___A) The confession must involve an express and categorical
acknowledgment of guilt
___B) The acts admitted must be constitutive of a criminal offense
___C) The confession must have been given voluntarily
___D) The confession must have been intelligently made; the accused
realizing the importance of his act
___E) All of them

1333. A kind of evidence, whether oral or documentary, if its probative

value is not based on the personal knowledge of the witness but on the
knowledge of some other person not on the witness stand. This kind
of evidence is excluded because the party against whom it is presented
is deprived of his right and opportunity to cross-examine the persons
to whom the statements or writings are attributed.
___A) Hearsy evidence ___C) Secondary evidence
___B) Patrol evidence ___D) Dying declaration

1334. It is an exception to the Hearsy Rule that made under a consciousness

of an impendin death, may be received in a criminal case wherein his
death is the subject inquiry, as evidence of the cause and surrounding
circumstances of such death.
___A) Dead Man Statute
___B) Dying Declaration or ante mortem statement
___C) Last Farewell
___D) Mi Ultimo Adios

1335. When may or in what instances may a dying declaration, also known
as ante mortem statement of statement if articulo mortis be admissible
in evidence?
___A) That death is imminent and the declarant is conscious of the fact;
that the declaration refers to the cause
___B) That the declaration relates to facts which the victim is competent
to testify to; that the declarant thereafter dies
___C) That the declaration is offered in a criminal case wherein the
declarant’s death is the subject of the inquiry
Page 302
 ___D) All of the above

1336. Dying declarations are admissible only in prosecutions for homicide,

murder or parricide wherein the declarant is a…
___A) Witness to the commission of the crime involved
___B) A victim of the aforementioned crimes
___C) Accused of the crime charged
___D) Expert witness

1337. It is an opposite of a self-serving declaration which is a statement

favorable to or intended to advance the interest of the declarant.
Consequently, in order that a statement may be admissible as such, it
is required that: 1) the declarant is dead, outside of the Philippines or
unable to testify; 2) it relates to a fact against the pecuniary or moral
interest of the declarant; 3) at the time he made said declaration the
declarant was aware that the same was contrary to his aforesaid
interest; and 4) the declarant had no motive to falsify and believed
such declaration to be true.
___A) Declaration against interest
___B) Incrimination
___C) Self-confession
___D) All of them

1338. It is one exception of the Hearsy Rule, when existing previous to the
controversy, respecting facts of public or general interest more than
30 years old, or respecting marriage or moral character, may be given
in evidence.
___A) Res Gestae
___B) Common Reputation
___C) Declaration against interest
___D) Character

1339. Statements made by person while starting occurrence is taking place

or immediately prior or subsequent thereto with respect to the
circumstances thereof, may be given in evidence as part of…
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 ___A) Res Gestae
___B) Common Reputation
___C) Dying Declaration
___D)Declaration against interest

1340. As exception to the Hearsy Rule, these refer to periodical or pamphlet

on subject of history, science of art is admissible as tending to prove
that truth of a matter stated therein if the court takes judicial notice, or
a witness expert in the subject, testifies that the writer of the statement
in the xxx, periodical or pamphlet is recognized in his profession or
calling as expert in the subject.
___A) Commercial list ___C) Opinion Rule
___B) Learned Treaties ___D) Expert witness

1341. The general rule is that, the opinion of a witness is not admissible in
evidence except…
___A) Expert witness regarding a question of science, art or trade, when
he is killed therein
___B) Opinion of a witness regarding the identity or handwriting of a
person, when he has knowledge of the person or handwriting; the
opinion of subscribing witness to a writing, the validity of which
is in dispute, respecting the mental sanity of the signer
___C) The opinion of an intimate acquaintance respecting the mental
sanity of a person, the reason for the opinion being given
___D) All of them

1342. In criminal cases, the prosecution cannot at the outset prove the bad
moral character of the accused, except in what instance?
___A) At the rebuttal stage, when the accused, in his defense attempts to
prove his good moral character than the prosecution can introduce
evidence of his bad moral character
___B) If such evidence will not establish the probability or improbability
of the offense charged
___C) The combination of both
___D) None of them
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1343. With respect to the offended party, proof of the bad character of the
victim in murder cases is not admissible if the crime is committed thru
what circumstance?
___A) Justifying or exempting circumstance
___B) Treachery or premeditation
___C) Mitigating circumstance
___D) All of the above

1344. An offer in writing to pay a particular sum of money or to deliver a

written instrument or specific personal property is, if rejected,
equivalent to the actual production and tender of money, instrument,
or property.
___A) Unaccepted offer ___C) Dation
___B) Legal tender ___D) All of the above

1345. In civil cases, the quantum of evidence required to sustain the

proponent of an issue is…
___A) Evidence of probable cause
___B) Preponderance of evidence
___C) Prima facie evidence
___D) Evidence of guilt beyond reasonable doubt

1346. In criminal cases, the quantum of evidence required to sustain

conviction is…
___A) Evidence of guilt beyond reasonable doubt
___B) Preponderance of evidence
___C) Prima facie evidence
___D)Evidence of probable cause

1347. Whenever a party has, by his own declaration, act or omission,

intentionally and deliberately lead another to believe a particular thing
true, and to act upon such belief, he cannot in any litigation arising out
of such declaration, act, or omission, be permitted to falsify it. This
particular instance of conclusive presumption refers to what doctrine?
___A) Categorical admission of facts
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 ___B) Estoppel in pais
___C) Quasi-conclusive presumption
___D) Disputable presumption

1348. Then judgment or order of a court, when declared by these rules to be

conclusive refers to the doctrine of…
___A) Rex adjudicate
___B) Estoppel in pais
___C) Quasi-conclusive presumption
___D) Disputable presumption

1349. Admission made by the parties in the pleadings, or in the course of the
trial or other proceedings do not require proof and cannot be
contradicted unless previously shown to have been made through
palpable mistake. This rule specifically refers to…
___A) Rex adjudicate ___C) Prejudicial questions
___B) Judicial admission ___D) Admission

PHILIPPINE CRIMINAL JUSTICE SYSTEM

1350. It is the sum total of instrumentation which a society uses in the

prevention and control of crime and juvenile delinquency.
___A) Law Enforcement and Public Safety Agencies
___B) Philippine Criminal Justice System
___C) Government
___D) All of the above

1351. In the inception of the Philippine Criminal Justice System, one of the
following pillars was not included.
___A) Law Enforcement ___D) Correctional Administration
___B) Prosecution ___E) Community
___C) Court

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1352. Of the components of the Philippine Criminal Justice, one of the
following is considered the weakest, mainly because of its failure to
reform offenders and prevent them from returning to a criminal life.
___A) Law Enforcement ___D) Correctional Administration
___B) Prosecution ___E) Community
___C) Court

1353. An appropriate authority in whereby minor cases will be referred to,

for possible amicable settlement before it shall be referred to any
authority, for purposes of filing a complaint and institution of criminal
action if necessary.
___A) Barangay Chairman and/or LupongTagapamayapa
___B) Municipal/ City Chief of Police
___C) Parish Priest
___D) Barangay Tanod
___E) All of the above

1354. That are fraught with meanings, or which attempt to regulate and/or
control human behavior contrary to the wishes of the people.
___A) Special Penal Law
___B) Natural Law
___C) Unpopular Laws or Ordinances
___D) Positive Law

1355. The first ever Police Law in the history of the Philippines where
reformation and professionalization of the country’s police service
gained official recognition.
___A) Republic Act No. 4864
___B) Presidential Decree No. 765
___C) Republic Act No. 6975
___D) Republic Act No. 8551

1356. This activity in law enforcement seeks to minimize the causes of

crime which requires the police to mingle with the community where
criminal activities originate and breed, and where the criminalistics
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 tendencies of individuals motivate them to indulge in anti-social
behavior.
___A) Repression of Criminal Activities
___B) Prevention of Crime
___C) Preservation of peace and order
___D) Protection of life and property
___E) Apprehension of criminals

1357. This activity emphasizes the presence of an adequate patrol system,

including the continuous effort toward elimination or reducing
hazards as the principal means of reducing the opportunities for
criminal action.
___A) Repression of Criminal Activities
___B) Prevention of Criminal Activities
___C) Preservation of peace and order
___D)Apprehension of criminals

1358. This requires a peace officer to gain the sympathy of the community
so that they may close ranks in combating crimes and any other anti-
social behavior.
___A) Repression of Criminal Activities
___B) Prevention of Criminal Activities
___C) Preservation of peace and order
___D) Apprehension of criminals

1359. This is one concept of enforcing laws by the police, that is, by simply
arresting anyone who has deviated from legislative norms of
acceptable behavior.
___A) Mechanical enforcement ___C) Democratic enforcement
___B) Diplomatic enforcement ___D) Rule of Law

1360. This concept of enforcement of laws by the police dramatically the

difficulties of the police role because of…
___A) Some police stations do not have the resources to enforce all penal
laws equally
Page 308
 ___B) The other components of the criminal justice system simply
cannot cope with all violations
___C) The police are faced with enforcing numerous laws regulating
social conduct-prostitution and gambling- to mention a few
___D) All of the above

1361. Its source is so vital to an effective, efficient, economic and

harmonious law enforcement; that deliberate efforts should be made
to arouse, promote and maintain public concept over the objectives
and affairs of the Philippine National Police.
___A) The active interest and participation of the citizens
___B) Standardize the quality and qualification of police recruit
___C) Disqualify PMA graduates from holding key positions in the PNP
qualification for police recruitment
___D) Make a diploma in Criminology as a minimum educational
qualification for police recruitment
___E) All of the above

1362. It is a social institution concerned with social problems; the agency

around where the community relies in times of tension and
emergency.
___A) The Church
___B) The Police
___C) The Department of Social Welfare and Development
___D) All of the above

1363. It means that it is just as much the duty of policemen that persons
suspected of criminal offenses are not deprived of their statutory
constitutional rights as it is to investigate them for the crimes of which
they are suspected.
___A) Due process of law ___C) Substantive process of law
___B) Procedural process of law ___D) All of them

1364. An Act or law defining certain rights of a person arrested, detained or

under custodial investigation, as well as the duties of the arresting,
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 detaining, and investigating officers, and providing penalties for
violations thereof.
___A) Republic Act No. 7659 ___C) Republic Act No. 6713
___B) Republic Act No. 7438 ___D) Republic Act No. 6981

1365. The penalty to be imposed upon any arresting public officer or

employee, or any investigating officer who falls to inform any person
arrested, detained or under custodial investigation, of his right to
remain silent and to have his competent and independent counsel
preferably of his own choice.
___A) Fine of ₱6,000 or a penalty of imprisonment of not less than 8
years but more than 10 years, or both
___B) Not more than 6 years of imprisonment and a fine of ₱5,000
___C) A penalty of imprisonment of not more than 8 years and
disqualification from office
___D) Termination only from the office or government service

1366. It is the process or method whereby accusations are brought before a

court justice to determine the innocence or guilt of the accused.
___A) Preliminary Examination ___C) Trial
___B) Prosecution ___D) Judgment

1367. In the criminal justice system, the prosecutor is considered as such, of

the state he represents.
___A) Prosecution ___C) Solicitor General
___B) Champion ___D) Arbitrator

1368. In the criminal justice system, the defense counsel is considered as

such, of the client he represents.
___A) Counsel de oficio ___C) Arbitrator
___B) Champion ___D) Lawyer

1369. The first screening function of the prosecutor before the preparation
and filing of the appropriate information in the court of law.
___A) When there is doubt that a conviction can be obtained either
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 because the evidence is insufficient due to lack or absence of
credible witness, or non-prosecution or lack of interest on the part
of the complainant or the act charged does not constitute the
crime alleged to have been committed.
___B) When the accused will do something to right the wrong in
accordance with rule of law, that is, the accused is willing to
settle the case amicably with the complainant
___C) When there is doubt over the jurisdiction of criminal case
___D) When the complainant files a separate civil action against the
accused

1370. The second screening function of the prosecutor before the

preparation and filing of the appropriate information in the court of
law.
___A) When there is doubt that a conviction can be obtained either
because the evidence is insufficient due to lack or absence of
credible witness, or non-prosecution or the crime alleged to have
been committed
___B) When the accused will do something to right the wrong in
accordance with the rule of law, that is, the accused is willing to
settle the case amicably with the complainant
___C) When there is doubt over the jurisdiction of the criminal case
___D) When the complainant files a separate civil action against the
accused

1371. Unknown to some, if not all, a prosecutor has a dual role, that of being
a prosecutor and that at the same time the…
___A) Champion of the state he represents
___B) The counsel of the state
___C) The Chief Law Enforcement Officer
___D) The Arbitrator

1372. It is a body to which the public administration of justice is delegated,

being a tribunal officially assembled under authority of law at the
appropriate time and place for the administration of justice through
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 which the State enforces its sovereign rights and powers.
___A) Prosecutor ___C) Court
___B) Judge ___D) Judicial power

1373. He is a public officer so named in his commission and appointed to

preside over and to administer the law in a court of justice.
___A) Prosecutor ___C) Court
___B) Judge ___D) Judicial power

1374. It shall be vested in the Supreme Court and in such Lower Courts as
may be established by law.
___A) Prosecutor ___C) Court
___B) Judge ___D) Judicial power

1375. It includes the duty of the courts to settle actual controversies

involving rights which legally demandable and enforceable, and to
determine whether or not there has been a grave abuse of discretion
amounting to lack or excess of jurisdiction on the part of any branch
or instrumentality of the government.
___A) Prosecutor ___C) Court
___B) Judge ___D) Judicial power

1376. It is an essential element of the so called “judicial power.” That no

judge worthy of the name can dispose or meet out justice with an
impartial eye and an even hand unless he can case or controversy
before him on its merits alone.
___A) Judicial independence ___C) Decision
___B) Constitutional office ___D) Judgment

1377. It is the judgment rendered by a court of justice or other competent

tribunals after the presentation of proof in an ordinary criminal case or
upon stipulation of facts upon which the disposition of the case is
based.
___A) Judicial independence ___C) Decision
___B) Constitutional office ___D) Judgment
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1378. It may be defined as the power possessed by a person or a body of
men to dispose of a cause or question judicially.
___A) Jurisdiction ___C) Capital offense
___B) Trial judge ___D) Cruel and unusual punishment

1379. He is sort of the chief administrative officer of the criminal system,

using his power to dismiss cases as a method of controlling the use of
criminal process.
___A) Cruel and unusual punishment
___B) Trial judge
___C) Counseling
___D) Classification

1380. It is a nature of punishment if its form or character is a such rather

than its severity in respect to duration or amount. Such as those
inflicted at the whipping post, or in the pillory, burning at stake,
breaking on the wheel, etc.
___A) Moderate punishment
___B) Adding more insult to the injury
___C) Cruel and unusual punishment
___D) Capital punishment

1381. In the matter of the Convention on the Rights of the Child, sponsored
by the UNICEF, the acronym CEDC means…
___A) Children’s Equality Development Coordination (CEDC)
___B) Children in Especially Difficult Circumstances (CEDC)
___C) Cooperation for Equal Children’s Development (CEDC)
___D) Children’s Equitable Development Center (CEDC)

1382. A Philippine law which governs the Child and Youth Welfare Code.
___A) Presidential Decree No. 603
___B) Presidential Decree No. 968
___C) Republic Act No. 6981
___D) Republic Act No. 7309

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1383. An office created in every police station designated as CYRS, which
means…
___A) Children’s Yearly Recreational Section (CYRS)
___B) Children and Youth Relations Section (CYRS)
___C) Community and Youth Relations Services (CYRS)
___D) Citizen’s and Youth Recreation Services (CYRS)

1384. It is defined as a relationship in which one endeavors to help another

understand and solve his problems of adjustment, which may be on
voluntary basis of the offender or by groups.
___A) Guidance
___B) Counseling
___C) Psychological Testing
___D) Reprimand, admonition or service

1385. As the fifth component of the Philippine Criminal Justice System, it

includes but is not limited to individuals, private groups and public
entities who, when performing or are involved in related criminal
justice activities.
___A) Correctional Administration
___B) Community
___C) Law Enforcement
___D) Court
___E) Prosecution

1386. It is commonly through of as a means of development and

maintenance of good behavior and conduct in accordance with the
norms of the society.
___A) Morale ___C) Education
___B) Parental Discipline ___D) Respect and Courtesy

1387. Have been considered the best instruments for information

dissemination and the best source of knowledge for the public.
___A) Television
___B) Mass Media and Radio Broadcast
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 ___C) Intelligence
___D) Campaign

1388. It was on August 4, 1974, on the occasion of Martial Law, through a

Presidential Decree No.528, when this kind of community was made
and it laid the ground work for the decentralization of the
Government/s program for the prevention and control of crime and
juvenile delinquency on the community level.
___A) SamahangKabataan (SK) ___C) Barangay Tanod
___B) Barangay ___D) Lupon

1389. To honor, is not only the symbol of our Republic and our national
solidarity but also the symbol of our fight for independence.
___A) To Honor the Philippine Flag
___B) To Honor the National Heroes
___C) To be Loyal to the Republic
___D) To Defend the State

1390. A citizen should bear in mind that employment is not the sole task and
obligation of the State. It is his own responsibility to live and to strive
to become a useful and productive member of the community.
___A) Government’s Job or Placement Fair
___B) To Engage in Gainful Work
___C) Self-Reliance for Overseas Work
___D) Placement for Overseas Employment Administration (POEA)

RECORDS MANAGEMENT AND ADMINISTRATION

1391. They are essential in the efficient performance of routine duties, in the
wise direction of police effort, in supervision and control of personnel,
and in the determination of department policy.
___A) Records ___C) Communication
___B) Public Relation ___D) All of them

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1392. Such records in the police department brings together at one point all
information concerning police activities, and it is through such that
the various line functions of the police department are coordinated.
___A) Decentralized Records ___C) Functions and Use of Records
___B) Centralized Records ___D) Incidents to be Recorded

1393. One of the following is one of the specific functions and uses of
police records.
___A) Present the community’s crime picture
___B) Violations of laws and ordinances reported and discovered
___C) It shall be accurate and shall state facts not opinions
___D) None of them

1394. This record maintains the arrest and jail booking report which is
required for all persons arrested.
___A) Arrest and Warrant Records
___B) Arrest and Booking Records
___C) Identification Records
___D) Administrative Records

1395. It is the third major division of police record; the police must
supplement it with a record of physical characteristics and in some
cases a photograph of the criminal.
___A) Identification Records
___B) Arrest and Booking Records
___C)Administrative Records
___D) Case Records

1396. These records required in the management of personnel and designed

to aid in assignments, promotions and disciplinary actions.
___A) Arrest and Booking Records
___B)Administrative Records
___C) Identification Records
___D)Case Records

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1397. The heart of any police record system, the basis for an analysis of
offenses and the methods by which they are committed.
___A) Case Records ___C) Case Report
___B) Complaint Sheet ___D) Investigation Report

1398. This is the foundation record of the police department; it is

accomplished by the desk officer or clerk, or telephone operator
receiving a call for police assistance.
___A) Case Report ___C) Complaint/Assignment Sheet
___B) Daily Records of Events ___D) Investigation Report

1399. This type of report is prepared as a written report on the finding of the
investigator.
___A) Investigation Report ___C) Complaint/Assignment Sheet
___B) Administrative Report ___D) Case Report

1400. Of the various methods of criminal identification, the fingerprint

system is the most reliable, which shall be prepared in at least 2
copies.
___A) Criminal Fingerprint ___C) Civilian Fingerprint
___B) Fingerprint Record ___D) Alien Fingerprint

1401. All persons arrested for an offense shall be fingerprinted and an

identification number shall be assigned to each prisoner to identify
records relating to him.
___A) Criminal Fingerprint ___C)Fingerprint Record
___B)Civilian Fingerprint ___D) Alien Fingerprint

1402. All persons requesting clearance certificate or other personal

identification purposes shall be fingerprinted using prescribed form.
___A) Civilian Fingerprint
___B)Criminal Fingerprint
___C) Fingerprint Record
___D) Criminal Specialty or Modus Operandi File

Page 317
1403. This consists of photographic records and methods of operation of
known criminals.
___A) Fingerprint Record
___B) Criminal Specialty or Modus Operandi File
___C)Criminal Fingerprint
___D)Civilian Fingerprint

1404. A kind of card where a police station shall prepare and maintain for
all names appearing in the case report, and another set of the same
kind of card for serial number and description of recovered lost or
stolen property that has been brought to their attention.
___A) Fingerprint Card
___B) Index Card
___C) Complainant’s/Visitor’s ID Card
___D) Class Cards

1405. Numbered property shall be indexed by the __________ of the serial

number. The answer for the blank space is…
___A) Last three digits ___C) Last digit
___B) Last two digits ___D) All of them

1406. It is an investigative aid of inestimable value in achieving the

objective in the identification and recovery of lost or stolen property.
___A) Stolen Property Index File ___C) Master Name Index File
___B) Last two digits ___D) Miscellaneous Records

1407. When more than one Index Card is filed behind one Guide Card, they
may be placed in __________. The blank space means…
___A) Numerical order according to the 3rd Digit from the end
___B) Last two digits
___C) Master Index File
___D) Follow-up Procedure

1408. It shall be established in every police station for monthly and annual
reports on cases handled and persons arrested by the police station,
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 including cases reported. These reports shall follow the prescribed
classification of offenses.
___A) Uniform Crime Reporting
___B) Spot Maps
___C) Record Policy and Security Discipline
___D) None of them

1409. These are useful to indicate the traffic accidents and crime location;
the location of crime hazards aids in the direction of enforcements
efforts.
___A) Uniform Crime Reporting
___B) Spot Maps
___C) Record Policy and Security Discipline
___D) None of them

LEADERSHIP

1410. It is the activity of influencing people to work harmoniously toward

some goal which they come to find desirable.
___A) Leadership ___C) Democratic Leadership
___B) Autocratic Leadership ___D) Free-rein Leadership

1411. That type of leadership in which the supervisor assumes full

responsibility for all action and seeks obedience from the group in the
following out of orders.
___A) Leadership ___C) Democratic Leadership
___B) Autocratic Leadership ___D) Free-rein Leadership

1412. That sort of leadership in which supervisor draws ideas and

suggestions from his group by means of discussion and consultation;
the staff is encouraged to take part in making decisions on policy,
methods, goals, etc.
___A) Free-rein Leadership ___C)Autocratic Leadership

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 ___B)Democratic Leadership ___D) Leadership

1413. A kind of leadership in which the supervisor is more or less an

information booth. He plays down his role in the group’s activities; he
is on hand mainly to provide materials and information, together with
a minimum control.
___A) Democratic Leadership ___C)Leadership
___B)Free-rein Leadership ___D)Autocratic Leadership

1414. One of the qualities of leadership: fairness, freedom from bias,

prejudice, or favoritism, open-mindedness; ability to recognize good
work; desire to give every man a square deal; willingness to listen
complaints and grievances, etc.
___A) Personal ___C) Physical
___B) Mental ___D) Money

1415. One of the qualities of leadership: intelligence, ability to think clearly

and rapidly; desire to avoid under advisement attitude about problems
judgment and ability to choose quickly between several courses of
action.
___A) Money ___C) Physical
___B) Mental ___D) Personal

1416. Good health; vitality; ability to give impetus to others; capacity to

stimulate; knowledge of how to motivate; ability to transmit self-
confidence to others.
___A) Mental ___C) Personal
___B) Physical ___D) Money

1417. Is considered by many to be one of the most essential factors of

leadership. Many experienced administrators and supervisors say that
“they would rather have a such kind of a worker who is not such
excellent officer than one man who is an excellent policeman.”
___A) Loyalty
___B) Positive Thinking
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 ___C) Genuine interest in and liking for people
___D) Initiative

1418. What a real leader should be. He thinks in terms of how things can be
done, not why they can’t an open mind to changes, new ideas, training
opportunities.
___A) Initiative
___B) Positive Thinking
___C) Genuine interest in and liking for people
___D) Loyalty

1419. This trait of leadership can be found to a supervisor who is mild

mannered, humble and friendly. He made you feel important too, by
his warm welcome, his close attention to your words, his interest in
what you were doing, his questions asking for your opinions.
___A) Genuine interest in and liking for people
___B)Initiative
___C)Positive Thinking
___D) Loyalty

1420. It is an evidence of an open and alert mind; he continually looks for

better ways to do things; he doesn’t wait for the other fellow to do
them; leaders are not afraid to take on more work than they are paid
for, etc.
___A) Loyalty
___B) Initiative
___C) Positive Thinking
___D)Genuine interest in and liking for people

1421. A prompt “yes” from the supervisor is all that is necessary. In many
minor cases, it takes a little difference whether the answer is “yes” or
“no,” the most important things is to get an answer.
___A) Decisiveness ___C) Sincerity and Integrity
___B) Tact and Courtesy ___D) Unobtrusive aggressiveness

Page 321
1422. It may mean saying and doing the right things at the right time. It
means treating people as important human beings, not tools to be used
for convenience of the supervisor.
___A) Decisiveness ___C) Sincerity and Integrity
___B) Tact and Courtesy ___D) Unobtrusive aggressiveness

1423. Arthur W.S. Herrington, one of the great industrialists described this
thing as the greatest force in the world; it shines in the eye and lends
strength to the voice, so that two people meeting for the first time may
judge each other fairly.
___A) Sincerity and Integrity
___B) Unobtrusive aggressiveness
___C) Humbleness without weakness
___D) Quiet self-confidence

1424. It means that leader must have the drives and will-power to do things;
they also must have to be somebody, a will to get ahead without
irritating others.
___A) Sincerity and Integrity
___B) Unobtrusive aggressiveness
___C) Humbleness without weakness
___D) Quiet self-confidence

1425. It means that people will be more comfortable in your presence in

nothing that you also are human and imperfect, while weak
supervisors cover up their feelings of inferiority by setting up a barrier
between themselves and their men, by shows of authority, etc.
___A) Humbleness without weakness
___B)Quiet self-confidence
___C) Teaching ability
___D) Friendly personality

1426. According to Professor Copeland of Harvard School of Business

Administration, “Good Executive, to mind, is a good teacher. The
man who cannot stand up on his own feet and express his ideas to one
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 man or group of men should not be supervisor.
___A) Friendly personality ___C) Quiet self-confidence
___B) Teaching ability ___D) Friendly personality

1427. The mousy, hesitant supervisor who lacks this trait of leadership in
himself cannot inspire confidence in his people.
___A) Quiet self-confidence
___B)Friendly personality
___C)Teaching ability
___D)Humbleness without weakness

1428. Real supervisors maintain a consistently this kind trait, although they
do not feel that way inside; avoid criticizing, instead they try to see
the good point in the other fellow.
___A) Teaching ability
___B) Friendly personality
___C)Quiet self-confidence
___D) Humbleness without weakness

1429. One must draw in his first appointment to an executive, such as Chief
of Police, in his relationships between himself and his men.
___A) First Line
___B) Development of Morale
___C) Training Development of Subordinates
___D) Getting work out of others

1430. It is not an easy and simple today as it was in the good old days,
particularly in the civil service. In the old days, a man either worked
or he was fired.
___A) Getting work out of others
___B)First Line
___C)Development of Morale
___D)Training and Development of Subordinates

1431. The esprit de corps of the department and the willingness of the
Page 323
 people to work toward common goals depend to a great extent upon
the leadership of the supervisor.
___A) Training and Development of Subordinates
___B) Development of Morale
___C)First Line
___D) Getting work out of others

1432. It means that a good supervisor in variably a good teacher. Great

leaders are developers of men. He sees to it that there is at least one
man trained and ready to take his place; and job runs smoothly.
___A) Development of Morale
___B)Training and Development of Subordinates
___C) First Line
___D) Getting work out of others

1433. The important thing to remember is that it can be developed by

conscientious study and effort; that we can change our personality to
suit ourselves.
___A) Leadership Traits ___C) Leadership must be earned
___B) Spark of Leadership ___D) All of them

1434. It means, that appointment to supervisory position does not, in itself

guarantee that a man will automatically become accepted as a leader.
___A) Leadership must be earned
___B) Spark of Leadership
___C)Leadership Traits
___D) All of them

FIREARMS AND EXPLOSIVES LAWS

1435. It was the first ever case in the pages of the Philippines jurisprudence
involving firearms that took place when a police officer was acquitted
of illegal discharge of firearm when he was trying to arrest an

Page 324
 offender who was resisting arrest. The law applied then was Article
408 of Spanish Codigo Pena.
___A) U.S vs. Pajarillo, 19 Phil. 288
___B) U.S vs. Resaba, et al., Phil. 311
___C) People vs. Robin Padilla
___D) People vs. Tani, 76 Phil. 346

1436. Another first recorded criminal case where firearms were involved in
an assassination (murder) with the use of revolver in the annals of
Philippines jurisprudence, where the case was appealed to the
Supreme Court where is affirmed the lower court’s decision
sentencing the accused to cadenaperpetua. This happened at a time
the Americans were trying to suppress an insurrection, after cession of
the Philippines by Spain, pursuant to the Treaty of Paris.
___A) U.S vs. Pajarillo, 19 Phil. 288
___B) U.S vs. Resaba, et al., Phil. 311
___C) People vs. Robin Padilla
___D) People vs. Tani, 76 Phil. 346

1437. The basic firearms law of the Philippines was enacted on October 16,
1916 as embodied in Act 2711, otherwise known as…
___A) Spanish Codigo Penal
___B) The Revised Administrative Code
___C) Presidential Decree No. 1866
___D) Act No.1

1438. A personal firearm license shall continue in force until…

___A) The death of the license
___B) Legal disability of the license
___C) Unless prior thereto, the license shall be surrendered by the
licensee or revoked by authority of the President of the Philippines
___D) All of the above

1439. It is conditioned on the delivery of the firearm to the Government on

demand; otherwise, the license will revoked.
Page 325
 ___A) Firearm’s Bond ___C) The firearm itself
___B) Firearm’s License ___D) All of the above

1440. Who shall have the duty to surrender a licensed firearm upon the
death of the licensee?
___A) Nearest relative of the licensee
___B) Legal representative of the licensee
___C) Other person who shall knowingly come into possession of such
firearm or ammunition
___D) Any of the above
___E) None of the above

1441. The only authority of the Government who may order for the
revocation of firearms license, at any time.
___A) The Chief of the PNP
___B) The President of the Philippines
___C) The Governor of the Province where the licensee is residing
___D) The Mayor of the City or Municipality where the licensee is
residing
___E) All of the above

1442. An instance or instances when Certificate of Deposit be forfeited by

order of the President, upon proof of such fact, which shall forwarded
to the Treasurer of the Philippines for collection, and the same be
deposited to the credit of the general fund.
___A) When said Certificate has been used as Security
___B) When the licensee fails to comply with any provision of Art. 901,
of the Revised Administrative Code, or of the regulations pursuant
therefore with the terms or license, or
___C) Or fails to have forthcoming upon proper demand the firearms
covered by his license, whether lost through accident or otherwise
___D) All of the above

1443. Among applicants who are qualified or entitled to license for firearms,
one of the following is not included:
Page 326
 ___A) Only citizen of the Philippines who are at least 21 years of age
___B) Filipino expatriates
___C) Elective or appointive government officials or employees to
include Barangay Captains
___D) Active or Retired personnel of the PNP and the AFP or on inactive
status
___E) Private firms, establishment or corporation as well as government
agencies or offices and government owned or controlled
corporation

1444. Pursuant to Section 3 of the Rules and Regulations Implementing

Presidential Decree No. 1866, dated June 29, 1983, person who are
lawful holders of firearms are prohibited from carrying their firearms
outside of residence. However, the Chief of the PNP may authorize
such person or persons to carry firearms outside of residence under
what instance or instances?
___A) Upon meritorious cases determined by the Chief PNP under such
condition as he may impose
___B) Only when such person or persons are under actual threat or
whose lives are in imminent danger due to the nature of their
position, occupation or calling
___C) Only upon submission of the required Clearance from the PNP
Intelligence Division
___D) Upon submission of the required Neuro-psychiatric Clearance
from the PNP, Government Hospital or any Government
accredited Psychiatrist
___E) All of the above

1445. Which one of the following does not or is not included from among
the kinds Firearm Licenses?
___A) Regular License and Long Regular License
___B) Short Regular License and Special Permit
___C) Long Certificate of Registration and Short Certificate of
Registration
___D) International or Universal License
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1446. This kind OF Firearm License issued to a private individual for his
personally-owned firearm and to security agencies/company guard
forces for firearm for use of their Security guards.
___A) Regular License (RL)
___B) Long Regular License (LRL)
___C) Short Regular License (SRL)
___D) Special Permit (SP)

1447. This kind of Firearm License is issued to private firms, establishments

or corporation for firearms to be used by their employees, not to
include security guards.
___A) Regular License (RL)
___B) Long Regular License (LRL)
___C) Short Regular License (SRL)
___D) Special Permit (SP)

1448. This kind of a Firearm License is issued for a private employee who
was issued by his employer a firearm covered by Long Regular
License (LRL).
___A) Short Regular License (SRL)
___B)Special Permit (SP)
___C)Long Regular License (LRL)
___D)Short Certificate of Registration (SCR)

1449. This kind of a Firearm License is issued to Government Officials and

Employees for privately owned firearms.
___A) Special Permit (SP)
___B) Long Certificate of Registration (LCR)
___C) Short Certificate of Registration (SCR)
___D) International or Universal License

1450. This kind of a Firearm License is issued to Government Agencies or

Offices and Government-owned or controlled corporations for
firearms to be used by their officials and employees, not to include
security guards.
Page 328
 ___A) Long Certificate of Registration (LCR)
___B)Short Certificate of Registration (SCR)
___C)Special Permit (SP)
___D) International or Universal License

1451. A kind of a Firearm License for a government official or employee

who was issued by his employer a firearm covered by Long
Certificate of Registration (LCR).
___A) Long Certificate of Registration (LCR)
___B) Short Certificate of Registration (SCR)
___C) Special Permit (SP)
___D) International or Universal License
___E) All of the above

1452. How many and what type of firearms may an individual be allowed to
possess?
___A) A maximum of only one (1) low-powered rifle caliber .22
___B) Shotgun not heavier than 12 Gauge
___C) One (1) Pistol or Revolver, not higher than .38 caliber
___D) All of the above

1453. If a civilian limited to possess only to a maximum of one (1) Revolver

or Pistol not higher than Caliber .38, what firearm and caliber he
cannot possess below Caliber .38?
___A) Caliber .357
___B) Caliber .22 Centerfire magnum
___C) All of the above
___D) None of the above

1454. Officers and enlisted personnel in the active service and in the retired
list of the AFP may hold under license a maximum of…
___A) Only (1) low-powered Rifle Caliber .22
___B) Shotgun not heavier than 12 Gauge
___C) One (1) sidearm of any type of caliber
___D) All of the above
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1455. Commissioned Officers in good standing of the Reserve Force of the
AFP who are on inactive status may hold under license maximum
of…
___A) Only (1) low-powered Rifle Caliber .22
___B) Shotgun not heavier than 12 Gauge
___C) One (1) sidearm not heavier than Caliber .45
___D) All of the above

1456. What firearm and type may a Commissioned Officer be limited to

possess or hold other than Caliber .45?
___A) Caliber .357
___B) Caliber .22 Centerfire magnum
___C) Including those which may later classified by the Chief PNP as
high-powered regardless of the type, make and caliber
___D) All of the above

KATARUNGANG PAMBARANGAY
Sections 399-422, RA No. 7160
Local Government Code of 1991
Dated January 1, 1992

1457. Section 412, Republic Act No. 7160, provides that, “No complaint,
petition, action, or proceeding involving any matter within the
authority of the Lupon shall be filed for adjudication…
___A) unless there has been a confrontation between parties before the
Lupon Chairman or the Pangkat
___B) and that no conciliation or settlement has been reached as certified
by the Lupon or Pangkat Chairman
___C) or unless the settlement has been repudiated by the parties thereto
___D) All of the above

1458. Corollary to Section 412, of the Republic Act aforesaid, one of the
following is the appropriate thing for the police to do, after it has for

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 record purposes, booked the complaint in the police blotter.
___A) To advise the complainant to refer his/her complaint to the
appropriate Barangay Lupon, who may have jurisdiction over the
dispute for possible amicable settlement.
___B) To summon the complainant and the suspect and proceed to
investigation proper
___C) To prepare the necessary information and file the case in court
___D) All of the above

1459. However, in the following cases, the parties may go directly to the
court, except one, that is…
___A) Where the accused is under detention
___B) Where a person has otherwise deprived of personal liberty calling
for habeas corpus proceedings
___C) Where action are coupled with provisional remedies such as
preliminary injunction, attachment, delivery of personal property,
and support pendente lite
___D) Where the action may otherwise be barred by the Statute of
Limitation
___E) Where either of the parties has waived his/her right to file the case
before the Lupon

1460. From among the qualifications of Lupon Members, one of the

following is not included:
___A) Must be a member of the Sangguniang Barangay
___B) Any person actually residing or working in the Barangay
___C) Not otherwise disqualified by law
___D) Possessing integrity, impartiality, independence of mind, sense of
fairness, and reputation of probity
___E) Has expressed his willingness to serve as Lupon Member

1461. While in the performance of their official duties, or on the occasion

thereof, Lupon Members are considered…
___A) Agents of Persons in Authority
___B) Persons in Authority
Page 331
 ___C) Members of the Barangay Judiciary
___D) All of the above

1462. It is constituted, for each dispute brought before the Lupon, consisting
of three (3) members, to be chosen by the parties to a dispute, from
among the 10 to 20 members of the Lupon.
___A) Conciliation Panel or PangkatTagapagsundo
___B) Barangay Judiciary
___C) Barangay Elders
___D) All of the above

1463. Section 402 of said RA No. 7160 enumerates the functions of the
Lupon in each Barangay, and one of the following is not included.
___A) Exercise administrative supervision over the conciliation panels
provided therein
___B) Meet regularly once a month to provide a forum for exchange of
ideas among its members and public on matters relevant to the
amicable settlement of disputes, and to enable various conciliation
panel members to share with one another their observations and
experiences in effecting speedy resolution of disputes
___C) Exercise such other powers and perform such other duties and
functions as may be prescribed by law or ordinance
___D) Exercise the functions of a judiciary, legislative and executive

1464. Under Section 408, the Lupon of each Barangay shall have authority
to bring together the parties actually residing in the same city or
municipality for amicable settlement of all disputes, except…
___A) Where one party is the government, or any subdivision or
instrumentality thereof
___B) Disputes between persons actually residing in the same Barangay
___C) All disputes involving real property or any interest therein
___D) Those involving actual residents of different Barangays within the
same city or municipality

1465. At what period and to whom shall objections to venue shall be raised,
Page 332
 otherwise, the same shall be deemed waived?
___A) In the mediation proceedings before the Barangay Chairman
___B) In the Police Station before the assigned police investigator of the
case
___C) In the Municipal Court before the judge
___D) All of the above

1466. Section 415, provides that, “In all KatarungangPambarangay

proceedings, the parties must appear in person without the assistance
of counsel or representative, except…
___A) For minors and incompetents ho may assisted by their next-of-kin
who are not lawyers
___B) In cases of sexual offenses
___C) In cases where parties are related to each other
___D) All of the above

1467. All proceedings for settlement shall be public and informal; Provided,
however, that the Lupon Chairman or the Pangkat Chairman, as the
case may be, exclude the public from the proceedings…
___A) In the interest of privacy, decency or public morals
___B) In cases where spouses are involved
___C) In cases where one or either of the parties is a member of the
Barangay Coucil
___D) In cases where one or either of the parties is a woman

1468. How many days should the Barangay Chairman mediate the
conflicting interest of the party litigants?
___A) Thirty (30) days from the first meeting or confrontation of the
parties before him
___B) Within fifteen (15) days from the first meeting or confrontation of
the parties before him
___C) Within sixty (60) days from the first meeting or confrontation of
the parties before him
___D) All of the above

Page 333
1469. After such mediation period, the Barangay Captain who fails in
mediation effort shall…
___A) Forthwith set a date for the constitution of the Conciliation Panel
or Pangkat in accordance with this Chapter
___B) Come up with his decision, no matter who gets hut
___C) Certify the case of “Non-Conciliation” and endorse the same to
the Chief of Police
___D) All of the above

1470. What happens to the offense or cause of action, upon filing of the
complaint with the Barangay Chairman, and while the dispute is under
the mediation, conciliation, or arbitration?
___A) The Chief of Police may entertain the case
___B) The prescriptive period for offenses or cause of action under
existing laws shall be interrupted or temporarily suspended
___C) The Court may intervene the case
___D) The case may be dismissed upon motion of the accused

1471. It means the settlement of a dispute by a person or persons chosen to

hear both sides and come to a decision.
___A) Arbitration ___C) Cause of action
___B) Mediation ___D) Conciliation

1472. A period from the date of settlement, where the Lupon may enforce
the amicable settlement or arbitration award by execution.
___A) Within 30 days ___C) Within 180 working days
___B) Within 6 months ___D) Within 30 working days

1473. The amicable settlement and arbitration award shall have, unless
repudiation of the settlement has been made, or a petition to nullify
the award has been filed before the proper city or municipality court.
___A) The force and effect of a final judgment of a court upon the
expiration of 10 days from the date thereof
___B) Attachment and execution
___C) Exempted from judicial intervention
Page 334
 ___D) All of the above

1474. It may be defined as the territorial limits within which judicial power,
or quasi-judicial power as regards to Lupon, exercised.
___A) Mediation ___C) Venue
___B) Arbitration ___D) Cause of Action

1475. An office in the Barangay that has the authority to amicably settles all
cases that fall within their jurisdiction.
___A) LuponTagapamayapa ___C) Barangay Tanod
___B) Barangay Council ___D) All of the above

1476. Requirements for every amicable settlement of cases that fall under
jurisdiction of the Lupon.
___A) Shall be in writing
___B) In a language or dialect known to the parties
___C) Signed by the parties concerned, and attested by the Lupon
Chairman or Pangkat Chairman
___D) All of the above

1477. The arbitration award shall be in writing in a language or dialect

known to the parties. When the parties to the dispute do not use the
same language or dialect, the award shall be…
___A) Written in the language or dialect known to them
___B) Written in English with a translation in a local dialect known to
them
___C) Written in language or dialect known to them with English
translation
___D) All of the above

1478. Notwithstanding the suspension of prescriptive period of offenses,

such interruption shall not exceed…from the filing of the complaint
with the Barangay Captain.
___A) 30 days ___C) 90 days
___B) 60 days ___D) 120 days
Page 335
1479. At what time the prescriptive period of offenses resume?
___A) When the complainant fails to appear in person
___B) Upon receipt by the complainant of the Certificate of repudiation,
or of the Certification To File Action issued by the Lupon or
Pangkat
___C) When the Lupon or Pangkat fails to come up with the decision of
the case
___D) All of the above

1480. A Lupon or Pangkat has no jurisdiction to amicably settle, or to bring

parties to conciliation for offenses punishable by…
___A) Imprisonment exceeding two (2) years, or a fine exceeding
₱10,000
___B) Imprisonment exceeding one (1) year, or a fine exceeding ₱5,000
___C) Imprisonment exceeding 6 years, or a fine exceeding 12 years
___D) None of the above

1481. Where one party is a public officer or employee, and the dispute
relates to the performance of his official functions, one of the
following appropriate entities acquires jurisdiction over it.
___A) Fiscal or Court, as the case may be
___B) Barangay Tanod
___C) Lupon or Pangkat
___D) Ombudsman

1482. All disputes involving real property or any interest therein shall be
brought in…
___A) The Barangay where the respondent or any of the respondents
actually resides, at the election of the complainant
___B) The Barangay where the real property or the larger portion thereof
is situated
___C) The Barangay where such complaint is residing, at his own option
___D) All of the above

1483. Upon payment of the appropriate filing fee, any individual who has a
Page 336
 cause of action against another individual involving to any matter
within the authority of the Lupon may complain to the Lupon
Chairman of the Barangay. And such complain may either be…
___A) Orally then put in writing ___C) Orally or in writing
___B) Must be in writing ___D) All of the above

1484. When may and what instances, may a civil case be brought to the
Lupon?
___A) At any time before the trial, the court in which non-criminal cases
not failing within the authority of the Lupon, motuproprio refer
the case to the Lupon concerned for amicable settlement
___B) When a complaint is a civil in nature and is filed by the plaintiff
before the Lupon concerned
___C) Upon advise of the Police
___D) All of the above

Page 337
 ANSWERS TO QUESTIONS
A. CRIMINOLOGY
1.B 19.B 37. B 55. C 73. A
2.A 20.A 38. B 56. A 74. B
3. A 21.B 39. C 57. B 75. C
4. A 22.B 40. A 58. C 76. A
5. A 23.B 41.A 59. C 77. B
6. A 24.A 42. A 60. A 78. B
7. B 25.A 43. B 61. B 79. A
8. B 26.B 44. A 62. A 80. B
9. B 27.A 45. B 63. B 81. A
10. B 28.B 46. C 64. A 82. C
11. B 29.A 47. B 65. C 83. A
12. A 30.A 48. A 66. A 84. B
13. B 31.B 49. A 67. B 85. A
14. A 32.B 50. A 68. A 86. B
15. B 33.A 51. B 69. C 87. A
16. C 34.C 52. C 70. A 88. B
17. A 35.B 53. A 71. D 89. C
18. C 36.A 54. B 72. A

B. REPUBLIC ACT NO. 8551

(PNP LAW)

90. B 102. A 113. B 124. D 135. A

91. A 103. C 114. C 125. D 136. A
92. D 104. A 115. D 126. B 137. B
93. A 105. A 116. A 127. A 138. A
94. A 106. E 117. B 128. D 139. C
95. A 107. B 118. A 129. E 140. D
96. B 108. A 119. D 130. A 141. B
97. A 109. B 120. A 131. B 142. A
98. B 110. A 121. B 132. A 143. A
99. A 111. A 122. A 133. B 144. B
100. B 112. A 123. B 134. A 145. A
101. A

Page 338
 C. CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION

146. D 158. C 170. A 182. A 194. D

147. A 159. B 171. B 183. B 195. A
148. B 160. B 172. B 184. C 196. C
149. C 161. C 173. A 185. D 197. B
150. A 162. C 174.B 186. E 198. A
151. B 163. D 175. B 187. A 199. B
152. C 164. A 176. A 188. D 200. A
153. A 165. A 177. B 189. A 201. B
154. B 166. B 178. C 190. B 202. A
155. C 167. A 179. B 191. C 203. B
156. A 168. B 180. C 192. D
157. B 169. C 181. A 193. A

D. CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION

204. A 212. B 220. A 228. A 236. A

205. D 213. C 221. B 229. B 237. C
206. B 214. A 222. B 230. C 238. A
207. C 215. A 223. A 231. A 239. E
208. A 216. B 224. B 232. B 240. A
209. A 217. A 225. B 233. A
210. B 218. B 226. A 234. B
211. A 219. A 227. B 235. A

E. FIRE TECHNOLOGY AND ARSON INVESTIGATION

241. A 252. D 263. A 274. D 285. C

242. B 253. B 264. B 275. A 286. D
243. B 254. A 265. A 276. B 287. D
244. A 255. B 266. D 277. C 288. A
245. B 256. A 267. A 278. C 289. B
246. C 257. B 268. B 279. A 290. C
247. A 258. A 269. A 280. B 291. A
248. B 259. B 270. B 281. A 292. B
249. B 260. A 271. A 282. B 293. C
250. A 261. B 272. B 283. E 294. D
251. C 262. B 273. A 284. A

Page 339
 F. POLICE ORGANIZATION

295. E 311. B 327. A 343. A 359. B 375. B

296. D 312. B 328. B 344. A 360. A 376. A
297. C 313. C 329. D 345. B 361.D 377. A
298. B 314. B 330. A 346. A 362. A 378. B
299. B 315. A 331. B 347. B 363. C 379. A
300. A 316. D 332. A 348.B 364. B 380. C
301. B 317. A 333. B 349.B 365. A 381. B
302. C 318. D 334. B 350. A 366. B 382. A
303. B 319. D 335. A 351. B 367. A 383. B
304. B 320. A 336. B 352. A 368. B 384. B
305. C 321. C 337. A 353. B 369. A 385. A
306. C 322. A 338. B 354. C 370. B 386. B
307. A 323. A 339. A 355. A 371. B 387. A
308. B 324. B 340. B 356. C 372. A 388. C
309. B 325. C 341. C 357. C 373. B 389. A
310. A 326. C 342. A 358. A 374. A

G. CODE OF ETHICS AND PROFESSIONAL CONDUCT

390. A 402. B 414. A 426. B 438. A

391. A 403. A 415. B 427. A 439. A
392. C 404. B 416. A 428. A 440. A
393. B 405. A 417. C 429. A 441. B
394. C 406. B 418. B 430. C 442. B
395. B 407. B 419. A 431. C 443. C
396. C 408. A 420. C 432. A 444. B
397. B 409. B 421. C 433. A 445. A
398. A 410. A 422. A 434. B 446. B
399. B 411. A 423. B 435. A
400. A 412. B 424. C 436. A
401. B 413. B 425. A 437. A

H. CANON OF ETHICS CRIMINOLOGIST FOR REGISTERED

447. B 449. E 451. C 453. A 455. D

448. A 450. D 452. E 454. E

I.POLICE SUPERVISION

456. B 461. A 466. A 471. B 476. B

457. A 462. B 467. A 472. C 477. A
458. B 463. A 468. B 473. A 478. A

Page 340
459. B 464. C 469. A 474. B 479. A
460. B 465. B 470. A 475. B

J. CRISIS MANAGEMENT AND DECISION MAKING

480. B 484. B 488. A 492. A 496. B

481. A 485. A 489. B 493. B 497. A
482. C 486. A 490. A 494. A 498. B
483. A 487. A 491. B 495. A 499. A

K. POLICE ADMINISTRATION

500. A 510. C 520. A 530. A 540. C

501. B 511. B 521. B 531. A 541. C
502. A 512. A 522. A 532.A 542. C
503. B 513. B 523. B 533. B 543. D
504. A 514. A 524. A 534. A 544. A
505. A 515. B 525. A 535. A 545. A
506. B 516. C 526. B 536. B 546. A
507. A 517. C 527. B 537. A 547. D
508. B 518. B 528. A 538. B
509. A 519. B 529. D 539. C

L. POLICE INTELLIGENCE

548. B 552. A 556. B 560. A 564. A

549. B 553. B 557. A 561. B
550. B 554. B 558. B 562. B
551. A 555. B 559. A 563. B

M. PLANS AND OPERATIONS

565. B 572. B 579. B 586. B 593. A

566. A 573. A 580. B 587. A 594. B
567. B 574. B 581. B 588. B 595. A
568. A 575. A 582. A 589. B 596. B
569. A 576. B 583. B 590. B 597. C
570. B 577. A 584. B 591. A 598. C

Page 341
571. A 578. B 585. A 592. B 599. B

N. LAW ENFORCEMENT AND CRIME

600. A 604. C 608. B 612. A 616. B

601. C 605. A 609. A 613. B 617. A
602. B 606. B 610. B 614. B
603. B 607. A 611. A 615. B

O. TRAFFIC AND ACCIDENTS INVESTIGATION

618. B 625. B 632. A 639. C 646. A

619. A 626. C 633. B 640. B 647. B
620. B 627. B 634. A 641. B 648. B
621. C 628. B 635. B 642. C 649. A
622. B 629. A 636. A 643. A 650. B
623. A 630. B 637. A 644. B
624. A 631. A 638. B 645. B

P. CRIMINALISTICS

1. Forensic Chemistry

651. B 655. B 659. A 663. A 667. B

652. C 656. B 660. A 664. B 668. A
653. B 657. A 661. A 665. C 669. B
654. B 658. B 662. B 666. A 670. C

2. Fingerprinting and Personal Identification

671. A 679. B 687. A 695. A 703. A

672. A 680. A 688. B 696. B 704. B
673. B 681. B 689. B 697. C 705. A
674. A 682. B 690. A 698. B 706. B
675. B 683. A 691. B 699. A 707. B
676. A 684. A 692. A 700. B 708. A
677. A 685. B 693. B 701. A
678. B 686. B 694. B 702. A

Page 342
3. Questioned Documents

709. B 715. C 721. A 727. B 733. B

710. B 716. B 722. A 728. A 734. A
711. A 717. A 723. B 729. B 735. B
712. A 718. B 724. A 730. C
713. B 719. A 725. B 731. B
714. A 720. B 726. A 732. A

4. Forensic Ballistics

736. A 741. A 746. A 751. B 756. B

737. A 742. B 747. A 752. A 757. B
738. B 743. B 748. B 753. C 758. B
739. A 744. A 749. A 754. B 759. C
740. B 745. B 750. C 755. A

5. Polygraphy or Lie Detection

760. B 765. A 770. A 775. A 780. C

761. B 766. A 771. D 776. B 781. B
762. A 767. A 772. B 777. B 782. A
763. A 768. B 773. C 778. B 783. C
764. D 769. C 774. A 779. D

Q. LEGAL MEDICINE

784. A 804. A 824. D 844. A 864. A 884. A

785. B 805. B 825. B 845. B 865. A 885. B
786. C 806. B 826. E 846. B 866. A 886. A
787. D 807. A 827. A 845. A 867. A 887. A
788. D 808. C 828. A 848. B 868. B 888. A
789. D 809. B 829. A 849. B 869. A 889. D
790. A 810. A 830. B 850. C 870. B 890. A
791. D 811. B 831. B 851. A 871. B 891. B
792. B 812. A 832. A 852. B 872. A 892. A
793. A 813. C 833. A 853. A 873. A 893. A
794. D 814. B 834. B 854. B 874. B 894. C

Page 343
795. C 815. C 835. B 855. A 875. C 895. A
796. B 816. D 836. A 856. C 876. C 896. A
797. B 817. A837. B 857. B 877. D 897. B
798. B 818. B 838. A 858. C 878. E 898. A
799. B 819. A 839. C 859. A 879. B 899. A
800. D 820. A 840. B 860. A 880. B
801. D 821. C 841. D 861. A 881. B
802. A 822. B 842. A 862. A 882. A
803. E 823. B 843. A 863. A 883. B

R. DEOXY RIBONUCLEIC ACID (DNA) FINGERPRINTING

900. A 905. B 910. B 915. A 920. A

901. B 906. A 911. C 916. C 921. E
902. B 907. B 912. A 917. B
903. A 908. C 913. A 918. A
904. C 909. A 914. A 919. A

S. CRIMINAL LAW

922. B 942. B 962. A 982.A 1002.B 1022. A

923. B 943. B 963. B 983. B 1003. B 1023. B
924. A 944. A 964. A 984. B 1004. B 1024. B
925. B 945. A 965. D 985. A 1005. B 1025. A
926. A 946. A 966. B 986. B 1006. B 1026. C
927. C 947. B 967. A 987. A 1007. B 1027. B
928. A 948. A 968. B 988. A 1008. B 1028. B
929. B 949. A 969. A 989. A 1009. B 1029. B
930. B 950. B 970. C 990. A 1010. B 1030. B
931. A 951. A 971. B 991. A 1011.B 1031. A
932. B 952. A 972. C 992. A 1012. A 1032. B
933. A 953. B 973. B 993. B 1013. B 1033. B
934. B 954. B 974. B 994. A 1014. B 1034. B
935. B 955. A 975. B 995. B 1015. A 1035. C
936. B 956. B 976. B 996. B 1016. B 1036. C
937. A 957. A 977. B 997. C 1017. B 1037. A
938. A 958. B 978. B 998. C 1018. B 1038. A
939. B 959. B 979. A 999. A 1019. B 1039. A

Page 344
940. A 960. B 980. A 1000. A 1020. A 1040. B
941. A 961. A 981. A 1001. A 1021. B

T. SPECIAL PENAL LAW

1041. A 1044. A 1047. A 1050. B

1042. B 1045. A 1048. B 1051. A
1043. B 1046. C 1049. A

U. CRIMINAL PROCEDURE

1052. B 1093. A 1134. A 1175. B 1216. A 1257. A

1053. A 1094. B 1135. B 1176. B 1217. B 1258. A
1054. B 1095.A 1136. B 1177. B 1218. A 1259. B
1055. C 1096. B 1137. A 1178. B 1219. B 1260. A
1056. B 1097. D 1138. B 1179. B 1220. B 1261. B
1057. B 1098. A 1139. A 1180. C 1221. A 1262. A
1058. C 1099. A 1140. D 1181. B 1222. B 1263. B
1059. B 1100. B 1141. C 1182. A 1223. C 1264. A
1060. A 1101. B 1142. B 1183. B 1224. C 1265. C
1061. B 1102. A 1143. A 1184. A 1225. A 1266. A
1062. A 1103. B 1144. B 1185. A 1226. B 1267. B
1063. C 1104. D 1145. B 1186. B 1227. A 1268. D
1064. A 1105. A 1146. A 1187. A 1228. B 1269. C
1065. D 1106. B 1147. B 1188. A 1229. A 1270. C
1066. C 1107. A 1148. A 1189. A 1230. A 1271. C
1067. B 1108. A 1149. A 1190. A 1231. B 1272. A
1068. A 1109. A 1150. A 1191. B 1232. E 1273. B
1069. B 1110. C 1151. A 1192. B 1233. D 1274. A
1070. A 1111. B 1152.E 1193. A 1234. B 1275. B
1071. B 1112. E 1153. A 1194. B 1235. C 1276. A
1072. A 1113. A 1154. B 1195. E 1236. A 1277. D
1073. A 1114. A 1155. A 1196. A 1237. C 1278. A
1074. D 1115. A 1156. B 1197. B 1238. C 1279. B
1075. A 1116. A 1157. B 1198. A 1239. A 1280. A
1076. A 1117. A 1158. A 1199. B 1240. A 1281. B
1077. D 1118. B 1159. C 1200. A 1241. A 1282. A
1078. B 1119. A 1160. A 1201. A 1242. B 1283. B

Page 345
1079. E 1120. B 1161. C 1202. B 1243. A 1284. A
1080. C 1121. C 1162. D 1203. B 1244. B 1285. B
1081. B 1122. B 1163. A 1204. C 1245. B 1286. C
1082. A 1123. A 1164. A 1205. B 1246. A 1287. C
1083. A 1124. B 1165. A 1206. B 1247. B 1288. A
1084. E 1125. E 1166. B 1207. E 1248. A 1289. D
1085. D 1126. C 1167. B 1208. A 1249. A
1086. A 1127. B 1168. A 1209. B 1250. B
1087. A 1128. D 1169. B 1210. B 1251. B
1088. B 1129. C 1170. C 1211. A 1252. B
1089. A 1130. B 1171. B 1212. E 1253. D
1090. B 1131. B 1172. B 1213. D 1254. B
1091. A 1132. A 1173. C 1214. D 1255. C
1092. B 1133. B 1174. B 1215. C 1256. D

V. EVIDENCE

1290. A 1302. A 1314. A 1326. A 1338. D

1291. B 1303. B 1315. C 1327. D 1339. A
1292. D 1304. A 1316. A 1328. E 1340. B
1293. C 1305. A 1317. B 1329. D 1341. D
1294. B 1306. B 1318. A 1330. B 1342. A
1295. A 1307. A 1319. C 1331. A 1343. B
1296. A 1308. B 1320. D 1332. E 1344. A
1297. A 1309. A 1321. A 1333. A 1345. B
1298. A 1310. B 1322. D 1334. B 1346. A
1299. B 1311. C 1323. A 1335. D 1347. B
1300. A 1312. E 1324. B 1336. B 1348. A
1301. B 1313. D 1325. B 1337. A 1349. B

W. PHILIPPINE CRIMINAL JUSTICE SYSTEM

1350. B 1358. C 1366. B 1374. D 1382. A

1351. E 1359. A 1367. B 1375. D 1383.B
1352. D 1360. D 1368. B 1376. A 1384. B
1353. A 1361. A 1369. A 1377. C 1385. B
1354. C 1362. B 1370. B 1378. A 1386. B
1355. A 1363. A 1371. C 1379. B 1387. B

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1356. D 1364. B 1372. C 1380. C 1388. B
1357. A 1365. A 1373. B 1381. B 1389. A
1390. B

X. RECORDS MANAGEMENT AND ADMINISTRATION

1391. A 1395. A 1399. A 1403. B 1407. A

1392. B 1396. B 1400. A 1404. B 1408. A
1393. A 1397. A 1401. A 1405. A 1409. A
1394. B 1398. C 1402. A 1406. B

Y. LEADERSHIP

1410. A 1415. B 1420. B 1425. A 1430. A

1411. A 1416. B 1421. A 1426. B 1431. B
1412. B 1417. A 1422. B 1427. A 1432. B
1413. B 1418. B 1423. A 1428. B 1433. A
1414. A 1419. A 1424. B 1429. A 1434. A

Z. FIREARMS AND EXPLOSIVES LAW

1435. B 1440. D 1445. D 1450.A1455. D

1436. A 1441. B 1446. A 1451. B 1456. D
1437. B 1442. D 1447. B 1452. D
1438. D 1443. B 1448. A 1453. C
1439. A 1444. E 1449. A 1454. D

AA. KATARUNGANG PAMBARANGAY

1457. D 1463. D 1469. A 1475. A 1481. A

1458. A 1464. A 1470. B 1476. D 1482. B
1459. E 1465. A 1471. A 1477. A 1483. C
1460. A 1466. A 1472. B 1478. B 1484. A
1461. B 1467. A 1473. A 1479. B
1462. A 1468. B 1474. C 1480. B

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 TABLE OF CONTENTS
A. CRIMINOLOGY 1-89
B. REPUBLIC ACT NO. 8551 (PNP LAW) 90-145
C. CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION 146-203
D. CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION 204-240
E. FIRE TECHNOLOGY AND ARSON INVESTIGATION 241-294
F. POLICE ORGANIZATION 295-389
G. CODE OF ETHICS AND PROFESSIONAL CONDUCT 390-446
H. CANON OF ETHICS FOR REGISTERED CRIMINOLOGIST 447-455
I. POLICE SUPERVISION 456-479
J. CRISIS MANAGEMENT AND DECISION MAKING 480-499
K. POLICE ADMINISTRATION 500-547
L. POLICE INTELLIGENCE 548-564
M. PLANS AND OPERATION 565-599
N. LAW ENFORCEMENT AND CRIME 600-617
O. TRAFFIC AND ACCIDENT INVESTIGATION 618-650
P. CRIMINALISTICS 651-783
1. Forensic Chemistry 651-670
2. Fingerprinting and Personal Identification 671-708
3. Questioned Document 709-735
4. Forensic Ballistics 736-759
5. Polygraph or Lie detection 760-783
Q. LEGAL MEDICINE 784-899
R. DEOXYRIBONUCLEIC ACID (DNA) FINGERPRINTING 900-921
S. CRIMINAL LAW 922-1040
T. SPECIAL PENAL LAW 1041-1051
U. CRIMINAL PROCEDURE 1052-1289
V. EVIDENCE 1290-1349
W. PHILIPPINE CRIMINAL JUSTICE SYSTEM 1350-1390
X. RECORDS MANAGEMENT AND ADMINISTRATION 1391-1409
Y. LEADERSHIP 1410-1434
Z. FIREARMS AND EXPLOSIVES LAW 1435-1456
AA. KATARUNGANG PAMBARANGAY 1457-1484

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