the photoemission of electrons and work function of the metal surface.

Given: Planck’s constant

h = 6.625 × 10-34 Js and mass of electron m = 9.1 × 10-31 kg. [υ0 = 4.55 × 1014 Hz, ϕo = 1.88 Ev or
3.01 × 10-19 J]
6. A monochromatic source of light of power 36 W emits photons of wavelength 589 nm. Calculate (a)
Energy of photon emitted by the source (b) Number of photons emitted by the source in one second
[ E = 3.37 × 10-19 J, N = 10.67 × 1019 photons/s]
7. Light of frequency 7.21 × 1014 Hz is incident on a metal surface. The cut-off wavelength for photoelectric
emission from the metal surface is 540 nm. Calculate the speed of the photoelectrons emitted from the
surface. Given: Planck’s constant h = 6.625 × 10-34 Js and mass of electron m = 9.1 × 10-31 kg.
[ v = 4.91 × 105 ms-1]
8. When light of wavelength 400 nm is incident on a photosensitive surface, the stopping potential for the
photoelectrons emitted is found to be 0.96 V. When light of wavelength 500 nm is incident on the same
photosensitive surface, the stopping potential is found to be 0.34 V. Calculate the Planck’s constant.
Given: speed of light in vacuum is 3 × 108 ms-1 and electronic charge e = 1.6 × 10-19 C.
[h = 6.625 × 10-34 Js]
ANSWER KEYS TO MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22
B B A B C C A A B C A C A C A D B B A B B D

ANSWERS TO FIBS:
1. Heinrich Hertz, 2. kinetic energy, 3. wave, 4. photon, 5. Intensity

********************************************************************************************

12. ATOMS
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:
1. The condensed matter and dense gases at all temperature emit electromagnetic radiation due to
(A) High temperature (B) Oscillations of atoms and molecules
(C) Head on collision between atoms and molecules (D) None of these
2. The source of α-particle in Geiger-Marsden experiment is
(A) radium-226 (B) bismuth - 214 (C) radon - 222 (D) cobalt - 60
3. The thickness of gold foil in α-particle scattering experiment
(A) 1.1 mm (B) 1.2 × 10-4mm (C) 2.1 × 10-4mm (D) 2.1 cm
4. The detector in α-particle scattering experiment is coated with
(A) silver nitrate screen (B) phosphorescent (C) barium sulphide (D)zinc sulphide
5. The light emitted by mercury vapour lamp is due to
Statement I: Interaction between the individual atoms
Statement II: The average spacing between the atoms is large
(A) Both I and II are true and II is correct explanation of I
(B) Both I and II are true but II is not correct explanation of I
(C) I is true but II is false
(D) Both I and II are false.
6. From kinetic theory, the size of an atom was known to be
(A) 10-10 m (B) 10-14 m (C) 10-18 m (D) 10-22 m
7. The size of atom is about ___________ times larger than the size of the nucleus
(A) 102 to 103 (B)103 to 104 (C) 104 to 105 (D)105 to 106
8. The α-particles are nuclei of
(A) H-atom (B) H+ - atom (C) He – atom (D) He2+ - atom
9. Rutherford α-particles scattering experiment determines the size of
(A) Nucleus (B) Electron (C) Proton (D) Neutron
10. The negative sign in Electrostatic Potential energy of an electron signifies that
(A) Potential energy of an electron is unstable (B) Electrostatic force is in the – r direction.
(C) Kinetic energy of all electron is constant (D) None of these.
11. The emission line spectrum is a characteristics of
(A) a molecule (B) a solid (C) an atom (D) a liquid
12. The emission line spectrum serves as
(A) Paper print of gases (B) Photo print of gases
(C) Colour print of gases (D) Finger print of gases
13. Bohr’s atomic model imitates
(A) sun-earth system (B) earth-moon system (C) sun-planet system (D) sun-comet system
14. The principal quantum number for Bohr Radius is
(A) n2 = 4 (B) n2 = 9 (C) n2 = 1 (D) n2 = 16
15. The minimum energy required to free the electron from the ground state of the hydrogen atom is
called
(A) first excitation energy (B) zero potential energy
(C) excitation energy (D) ionisation energy
16. According to Louis De Broglie, waves associated with orbital electrons are
(A) Progressive wave (B) Stationary wave (C) Longitudinal wave (D) Continuous wave
17. Bohr model is applicable to
(A) H atom (B) He+ atom (C) Li++ atom (D) All of these
18. For an electron revolving around the nucleus,
(A) kinetic energy and potential energy are positive, total energy is negative
(B) kinetic energy is positive, potential energy and total energy are negative
(C) potential energy is negative, kinetic energy and total energy are positive
(D) kinetic energy and potential energy are negative, total energy is positive.
19. Statement I: The atom is electrically neutral.
Statement II: An atom contains some positive charge to neutralize few negative charge of the
electrons
(A) Both I and II are true and II is correct explanation of I
(B) Both I and II are true but II is not correct explanation of I
(C) I is true but II is false
(D) Both I and II are false.
20. Statement I: Many of α-particles pass through the gold foil in α-particle scattering experiment
Statement II: Only about 14% of the incident α-particles scatter by more than 10.
(A) Both I and II are true and II is correct explanation of I
(B) Both I and II are true but II is not correct explanation of I
(C) I is true but II is false
(D) Both I and II are false.
21. When an electron in Hydrogen atom revolves in stationary orbit, it
(A) does not radiate energy though its velocity changes
(B) does not radiate energy and velocity remains unchanged
(C) radiates energy but its velocity is unchanged
 (D) radiates energy with the change of velocity
22. Radius of first orbit of hydrogen atom is 0.53Å. The radius of its fourth orbit will be
(A) 0.193Å (B) 4.25Å (C) 2.12Å (D) 8.48Å
23. When a hydrogen atom is raised from the ground state to an excited state
(A) potential energy increases and kinetic energy decreases
(B) potential energy decreases and kinetic energy increases
(C) Both kinetic energy and potential energy increases
(D) Both kinetic energy and potential energy decreases
24. According to classical theory,
Statement I: The electron will fall into the nucleus
Statement II: An accelerated electron emits radiation in circular path
(A) Both I and II are true and II is correct explanation of I
(B) Both I and II are true but II is not correct explanation of I
(C) I is true but II is false
(D) Both I and II are false.

FILL IN THE BLANKS:

(Nucleus, -13.6eV, +13.6eV, Different, Dark, Bright)
1. The entire mass of an atom is concentrated in a small volume called _______________.
2. Energy of the electron in the first orbit of hydrogen atom is _____________.
3. Ionization energy of the hydrogen atom is __________________
4. Line emission spectrum consist of bright line on a _____________background.
5. Line absorption spectrum consist of dark line on a ____________ background.

TWO MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Write the two limitations of Bohr’s atom model.
2. Mention the different types of atomic model.
3. What is ionization energy of an electron? Give its value for ground state of H atom.
4. What is the energy for highest energy state in H atom? How does energy states arranged as principal
quantum number increases.
5. What does the negative sign in total energy of the electron signifies? What happens if total energy is
positive?
6. What is Bohr radius? Write its formula.
7. Mention the expression for energy of the nth stationary orbit of hydrogen atom. Explain its terms.
8. Draw the trajectories traced by different alpha particles in Geiger – Marsden experiment .
9. Calculate the energy required to excite an electron from ground state to second excited state. [ 12.09 eV]

THREE MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Write the three postulates of Bohr’s atom model
2. Give De-Broglie’s explanation of Bohr’s second postulate of quantization of angular momentum
3. Draw the neat diagram representing the Schematic arrangement of Geiger-Marsden setup for the alpha
particle scattering.
4. Define impact parameter. What are the angle of scattering for a) minimum impact parameter; b) larger
impact parameter
5. Explain J J Thomson’s plum pudding model on atomic structure.
6. Draw neat labeled diagram for energy level of H atom.
FIVE MARK QUESTIONS:
1. Derive an expression for energy of an electron in nth stationary orbit of hydrogen atom by assuming
the expression for radius.
2. A Hydrogen atom initially in the ground level absorbs a photon, which excites it to the n = 4 level.
Determine the wavelength and frequency of photon. [ λ = 9.75 × 10-8 m, υ = 3.08 × 1015 Hz]
3. Using the Bohr’s model calculate the speed of the electron in the hydrogen atom in n = 1, 2 levels and
also calculate the orbital period in each of these levels.
[ v1 = 2.18 × 106 ms-1, T1 = 1.528 × 10-16 s, v2 = 1.09 × 106 ms-1, T2 = 12.22 × 10-16 s]
4. It is found experimentally that 13.6eV energy is required to separate a hydrogen atom into a proton and
an electron. Compute the orbital radius and the velocity of the electron in a hydrogen atom.
[ r = 5.3 × 10-11 m, v = 2.2 × 106 ms-1]
5. In a Geiger Marsden experiment, what is the distance of closest approach to the nucleus of a 7.7 MeV,
α-particle before it comes momentarily to rest and reverses its direction? [ d = 30 fm]
6. The electron in a given Bohr orbit has a total energy of – 1.5 eV. Calculate its a) kinetic energy b)
potential energy c) wavelength of emitted light, when the electron makes a transition to the ground state.
Given: Ground state energy = – 13.6 eV. [ K = 1.5 eV, U = – 3eV, λ = 1022.7 Å]

ANSWER KEYS TO MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
B B C D A A C D A B C D
13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
C C D B D B B C A D A A

ANSWERS TO FIBS:
1.nucleus 2. -13.6eV, 3. +13.6eV 4. dark 5. bright
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13. NUCLEI
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:
1. Nucleus of an atom whose atomic mass is 24 consists of
(A) 11 electrons, 11 protons and 13 neutrons (B) 11 electrons, 13 protons and 11 neutrons
(C) 11 protons and 13 neutrons (D) 11 protons and 13 electrons
2. Isotopes are atoms having
(A) Same number of protons but different number of neutrons
(B) Same number of neutrons but different number of protons
(C) Same number of protons and neutrons
(D) None of the above
3. The radius of a nucleus of a mass number A is directly proportional to
(A) A3 (B) A (C) A2/3 (D) A1/3
4. Which of the following is correct for nuclear forces
(A) Short ranged attractive and charge independent
(B) Short ranged attractive and charge dependent
(C) Long ranged repulsive and charge independent
(D) Long ranged repulsive and charge dependent
5. Density of any nucleus is
(A) 2.29 × 1010 kgm-3 (B) 2.29 × 1017 kgm-3 (C) 2.29 × 1012 kgm-3 (D) 2.29 × 1013 kgm-3
6. Binding energy of a nucleus is
(A) Energy given to its nucleus during its formation
(B) Total mass of nucleus converted to energy units
(C) Energy required to break a nucleus into constituent nucleons
(D) Total K.E. and P.E. of the nucleons in the nucleus
7. The binding energy per nucleon is maximum in the case of
(A) (B) (C) (D)
8. For effective nuclear forces, the distance should be
(A) 10-10 m (B) 10-13 m (C) 10-15 m (D) 10-10 m
9. The -particle is the nucleus of an atom of
(A) Neon (B) Hydrogen (C) Helium (D) Deuterium
10. Radioactivity is
(A) Reversible process (B) Self disintegration process
(C) Spontaneous process (D) Both (B) and (C)
11. Radioactive substance emits
(A) α-rays (B) β- rays (C) γ-rays (D) All of the above
12. Fusion reaction takes place at high temperature because
(A) Atoms are ionised at high temperature
(B) Molecules break-up at high temperature
(C) Nuclei break-up at high temperature
(D) Kinetic energy is high enough to overcome repulsion between nuclei
13. The explosion of the atomic bomb takes place due to
(A) Nuclear fission (B) Nuclear fusion (C) Scattering (D) Thermionic emission
14. Energy generation in stars is mainly due to
(A) Photo emission (B) Fission of heavy nuclei
(C) Fusion of light nuclei (D) Fusion of heavy nuclei
15. Fusion reaction is initiated with the help of
(A) Low temperature (B) High temperature (C) Neutrons (D) Any particle
16. In nucleus, there are
(A) 138 protons and 88 neutrons (B) 138 neutrons and 88 protons
(C) 226 protons and 88 electrons (D) 226 neutrons and 138 electrons
17. The mass and energy equivalent to 1 a.m.u. respectively
(A) 1.67 × 10-27 g, 9.315 MeV (B) 1.67 × 10-31 g, 1 MeV
(C) 1.67 ×10-27 g, 1 MeV (D) 1.67 × 10-27 kg, 931.5 MeV
18. Mn and Mp represent mass of neutron and proton respectively. If an element having atomic mass
M has N-neutron and Z-proton, then the correct relation will be
(A) M  [NMn  ZMP ] (B) M  [NMn  ZMP ]
(C) M  [NMn  ZMP ] (D) M  N[Mn  MP ]
19. Two nucleons are at a separation of 1 × 10-15 m. The net force between them is F1 , if both are
neutrons, F2 if both are protons and F3 if one is a proton and other is a neutron. In such a cas
(A) F2 > F1 > F3 (B) F2 > F1 = F3 (C) F1 = F2 = F3 (D) F2 < F1 < F3
20. Which of the following is the fusion reaction
(A) 1H
2
 1 H 2  2 He 4 (B) 0n
1
 7 N 14  6 C 14  1 H 1

(C) 0n
1
 92 U 238  93 Np 239   1   (D) 1H
3
 2 He 3   1  

FILL IN THE BLANKS:

(nuclear fission, independent, 26.7 MeV, atomic mass unit, mass spectrometer, nuclear fusion)

1. ________________ is of mass of the carbon-12 atom in stable state.

2. The instrument is used to measure the atomic masses is _____________.

3. The nuclear density is ____________ of its mass number.
4. The source of energy in nuclear reactors, which produce electricity is _____________.
5. Four hydrogen atoms combine to form an atom with a release of ___________ of energy.

TWO MARK QUESTIONS:

1. What are isotopes? Give an example.
2. What are isobars? Give an example.
3. What are isotones? Give an example.
4. Write the expression for mass defect. Explain the terms.
5. What is nuclear binding energy? Explain.
6. What is meant by binding energy per nucleon? Explain.
7. Nuclear forces are strongest forces in nature. Why?
8. What are controlled and uncontrolled chain reactions?
9. What is a controlled thermonuclear fusion? Explain.
10. What is the radius of a nucleus of mass number 27? Given R0=1.2 f m. [ 3.6 fm]

THREE MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Write the names and formula of isotopes of hydrogen.
2. Show that 1 atomic mass unit (u) = 1.66 × 10-27 kg
3. How the size of the nucleus is experimentally determined? Explain.
4. Explain Einstein’s mass-energy relation.
5. Draw a graph showing the variation of potential energy as a function of their separation. What is the
significance of negative potential energy in this graph?
6. What is nuclear fission? Explain with example.
7. What is nuclear fusion? Explain with example.
8. Two nuclei have mass numbers in the ratio 8 : 125. What is the ratio of their nuclear radii? [ 2 : 5]
9. Calculate the mass defect of oxygen nucleus ( )using the following data in Mev: Mass of proton =
1.007825 u; Mass of neutron =1.008665 u; Mass of oxygen nucleus = 15.995, u [ 0.13692 u]
10. Mass defect of chlorine ( ) nucleus is 0.31092 u. Calculate binding energy and binding energy per
nucleon of an chlorine nucleus. [ 289.466 MeV, 8.2704 MeV]

FIVE MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Explain the features of binding energy curve.
2. Distinguish between nuclear fission and nuclear fusion.
3. What is a nuclear force? Write any four characteristics of nuclear force.
4. Calculate the binding energy per nucleon of the nucleus , given that nuclear mass of Bi is
208.980388u, mass of proton = 1.007825u, mass of neutron = 1.008665u. [ 7.641 MeV]
5. Calculate energy released in joule when 2 gram of undergoes fission completely as per the
following equation. + → + + 3 + energy.
6. Given: rest mass of U = 235.044 u; rest mass of Ba141 = 140.920 u; rest mass of Kr92 = 91.885 u; rest
235

mass of = 1.009 u. [ 1.688 × 1011 J]

7. How long can an electric lamp of 100 W be kept glowing by fusion of 2.0 kg deuterium? The fusion
reaction can be taken as + → + + 3.27 MeV [ 4.99 × 104 years]

ANSWER KEYS TO MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C A D A B C B C C D D D A C B B D A C A

ANSWERS TO FIBS:
1. atomic mass unit 2. mass spectrometer 3. independent 4. nuclear fission 5. 26.7 MeV.

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14. SEMICONDUCTOR ELECTRONICS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:
1. Following pairs of elemental semiconductors
(A) Silicon and aluminium (B) silicon and germanium
(C) germanium and cadmium (D) aluminium and cadmium
2. The energy band determines the electrical conductivity of the material is
(A) Conduction band (B) energy gap
(C) valence band (D) all the above
3. In an intrinsic semiconductor, number of free electros is
(A) Greater than number of holes (B) lesser than number of holes
(C) equal to number of holes (D) more than number of atoms.
4. The electrical conductivity of pure germanium can be increased by
(A) increasing the temperature (B) doping with acceptor impurities
(C) doping with donor impurities (D) all the above
5. When the electrical conductivity of a semiconductor is due to the breaking of its covalent bonds,
then the semiconductor is said to be
(A) Donor (B) Acceptor (C) Intrinsic (D) Extrinsic
6. The valence of an impurity added to germanium crystal in order to convert it into a P-type
semiconductor is
(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 3
7. The majority charge carriers in P-type semiconductor are
(A) Electrons (B) Protons (C) Holes (D) Neutrons
8. A semiconductor dopped with a donor impurity is
(A) p-type (B) n-type (C) npn type (D) pnp type
9. A P-type semiconductor can be obtained by adding
(A) Arsenic to pure silicon (B) Gallium to pure silicon
(C) Antimony to pure germanium (D) Phosphorous to pure germanium
10. The thickness of depletion layer is approximately
(A) 1 µm (B) 1 mm (C) 1 cm (D) 1m
11. The diffusion current in a p-n junction is greater than the drift current in magnitude
(A) If the junction is forward-biased (B) If the junction is reverse-biased
(C) if the junction is unbiased (D) both (A) and (B)
12. When a PN junction diode is reverse biased
(A) Electrons and holes are attracted towards each other and move towards the depletion region
(B) Electrons and holes move away from the junction depletion region
(C) Height of the potential barrier decreases
(D) No change in the current takes place
13. The cut-in voltage for silicon diode is approximately
(A) 0.2 V (B) 0.7 V (C) 1.1 V (D) 1.4 V
14. The PN junction diode is used as
(A)An amplifier (B) A rectifier (C) An oscillator (D) A modulator
15. The output of the full wave rectifier is
(A) Pure AC (B) pure DC (C) pulsating DC (D) pulsating AC
16. The forbidden energy band gap in conductors, semiconductors and insulators are Eg1 , Eg 2 and
Eg 3 respectively. The relation among them is
(A) Eg1  Eg2  Eg3 (B) Eg1  Eg2  Eg3
(C) Eg1  Eg2  Eg3 (D) Eg1  Eg2  Eg3
17. The energy band gap in Germanium and silicon in eV respectively is
(A) 0.7, 1.1 (B) 1.1, 0.7 (C) 1.1, 0 (D) 0, 1.1
18. In a semiconductor, the concentration of electrons is 8 1014 / cm3 and that of the holes is 5  1012 cm3 .
The semiconductor is
(A) p-type (B) n-type (C) Intrinsic (D) pnp-type
19. Which of the following energy band diagram shows the N-type semiconductor
Conduction Conduction
band (CB) band (CB)
(A) (B)
Impurity
Eg 1eV 1eV level
Valance Valance
band (VB) band (VB)

Valance
Valance
band (VB)
band (VB)
(C) Impurity
(D) 1eV
1eV
level
Conduction
Conduction
band (CB)
band (CB)
20. Which is the correct diagram of a half-wave rectifier
+ +

(A) (B)
– –

+ +

(C) (D)
– –

FILL IN THE BLANKS:

(depletion region, electrons, saturation current, one, valence band, holes )
1. ______________is the lower band which is completely occupied by the 4N valence electron at
temperature of absolute zero.
2. The ratio of number of holes to number of electrons in an intrinsic semiconductor is _________.
3. In n-type semiconductor, the number of __________ is more than the number of holes.
4. _____________ is the space charge region on either side of the junction where no mobile charge carriers
are present.
5. In a reverse biased p-n junction, the current through the circuit is called reverse ______________.

TWO MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Write two advantages of semiconductor devices over vacuum tubes.
2. Explain the formation of energy bands in solid.
3. What is forbidden energy band? Explain
4. What is a semiconductor? Give an example.
5. Name the types of semiconductors.
6. What is an intrinsic semiconductor? Give an example.
7. Draw the energy band diagram of an intrinsic semiconductor.
8. What is meant by doping? What are dopants?
9. Name two types of extrinsic semiconductors.
10. Explain how a hole in a semiconductor is formed?
11. Why majority charge carriers increase on doping a pure semiconductor?
12. Draw the energy band diagram of p-type semiconductor.
13. Draw the energy band diagram of n-type semiconductor.
14. Mention two important processes occur during the formation of p-n junction.
15. Give the circuit symbol of a p-n junction diode. Mention the significance of arrow in it.
16. What happens to the width of depletion layer of a p-n junction diode when it is
(i) forward biased and (ii) reverse biased?
17. What is the resistance of an ideal diode when (i) forward biased and (ii) reverse biased?
18. Under what condition does a p-n junction diode work as (i) a closed switch and (ii) an open switch.

THREE MARK QUESTIONS:

1. What is the order of the resistivity in a (i) conductor (ii) semiconductor (iii) insulator.
2. Define valence band, conduction band and energy gap.
3. Classify conductors, semiconductors and insulators on the basis of energy gap.
4. What is the order of the energy gap in a (i) conductor (ii) semiconductor and (iii) insulator.
5. Distinguish between intrinsic and extrinsic semiconductor.
6. Explain how a p-type semiconductor obtained from an intrinsic semiconductor.
7. Explain how a n-type semiconductor obtained from an intrinsic semiconductor.
8. Distinguish between n-type and p-type type semiconductor.
9. Explain the working of p-n junction diode when it is in forward bias.
10. Explain the working of p-n junction diode when it is in reverse bias.
11. How is forward biasing different from reverse biasing in a p-n junction diode?
12. Define the terms (i) cut in voltage (ii) breakdown voltage and (iii) reverse saturation current.

FIVE MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Explain the construction and formation of a p-n junction.
2. Draw the I-V characteristics of p-n junction diode and hence discuss the resistance of the junction in
both forward bias and reverse bias conditions.
3. What is rectifier? Describe with a circuit diagram, the working of a semiconductor diode as a half
wave rectifier. Draw input and output waveforms.
4. What is rectification? Describe with a circuit diagram, the working of a semiconductor diode as a full
wave rectifier. Draw input and output waveforms.

ANSWER KEYS TO MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B A C D C D C B B A A B B B C B A B B B

ANSWERS TO FIBS:
1. valence band 2. one 3. electrons 4. depletion region 5.saturation current

**********************************************************************