NPT-8

NEET PART TEST - 8 (06-01-2025)

SR ELITE (SET-I)
SYLLABUS
Botany : Biomolecules, Cell cycle and cell division, Photosynthesis in higher plants, Respiration in plants, Plant growth
and development, Sexual reproduction in flowering plants, Principles of inheritance and Variation, Molecular
basis of Inheritance, Biotechnology - Principles & Processes and applications and Microbes in Human welfare
Zoology : Neural Control and Coordination, Chemical coordination and Integration, Human reproduction, Reproductive
Health, Principles of inheritance and Variation, Molecular basis of Inheritance, Evolution, Human Health and
Diseases, Biotechnological Applications in Medicine, Organisms and Population, Eco system and Biodiversity
SR ELITE, AIIMS S60 & MPL
and conservation.
Physics : Track1: Friction, Wok Power Energy, Collisions, Systems of Particles and Rotational motion, Oscillations, Waves,
Dual nature of Radiation and Matter , Atoms, Nuclei, Semiconductors, Ray optics and Optical Instruments and
Wave optics: Complete chapter
Track 2: Mechanical Properties of Fluids, Gravitation, Electrical charges and Fields, Electrostatic Potential and
Capacitance, Current Electricity, Moving Charges and Magnetism, Magnetism and matter, EMI, AC circuits, EM
waves and Units and Measurements.
Expt Skills: Vernier calipers and screw gauge
Chemistry : Track-1: Ionic Equilibrium, Chemical Bonding and Molecular structure, Solutions, Electrochemistry, Chemical
Kinetics and Biomolecules
Track-2: Organic chemistry: Alkanes to Diazonium compounds, 13th to 18th group elements, Transition and
Inner transition elements and Coordination compounds
Guidelines:
1. Duration of the Exam is 3 Hours.
2. The question paper consists of 180 questions, comprising of 45 questions in each subject.
3. Each question carries four marks. One mark will be deducted for every incorrect response
from the total score. Maximum marks are 720.

Learn more at https://infinitylearn.com

 NEET PT – 8 (06-01-25)
BOTANY 5. Mouse stayed alive and candle continuously
1. Bakanae disease is caused by burned in Priestly experiment due to
(1) Bacteria (1) Liberation of oxygen by mint plant
(2) Virus during respiration
(3) Fungus (2) Liberated of CO2 by mouse during
(4) Hormone deficiency respiration
2. Match Column-I with Column-II (3) Liberation of oxygen by mint plant
Column-I Column-II during photosynthesis
A Allergic pollen I Pinus (4) Absorption of O2 by mint plant during
B Light pollen II Zostera
photosynthesis
C Sticky pollen III Oryza(grass)
6. Beta galactoside ( Lactose) in lac operon is
D Winged pollen IV Parthenium (1) Enzyme
E Pollen remain V China rose (2) Inducer
viable for months (3) Negative gene regulator
F Ribbon like pollen VI Rose (4) Repressor
A B C D E F 7. Read the list of structures given below
(1) V IV II III I VI
A) Golgi complex
(2) VI V IV III II I
(3) IV III I II VI V B) Endoplasmic reticulum
(4) IV III V I VI II C) Nucleolus
3. Read the following statements
D) Mitotic/spindle apparatus
A) Elements present in a sample of earth
Which among them disappear and appear by
crust are also present in the sample of living
the end of prophase during mitosis ?
tissues.
Disappear Appear
B) Saturated fatty acid contain double
(1) A , B, D C
bond
(2) C A, B , D
C) Duration of cell cycle can vary from
(3) A, B, C D
organism to organism and also from cell type
(4) D A, B , C
to cell type.
8. Meristem namely A principally contribute to
D) In animal cell formation of a new cell
wall begins with the formation of a simple the elongation of plant along its axis whereas
precursor called cell plate during cytokinesis meristem B contribute to increase the girth of
Pick the correct pair
plant organs. What are A & B meristems ?
(1) A & B
(2) B & C A B
(3) C & D (1) Apical Intercalary
(4) A & C (2) Lateral Apical
4. If desired gene is inserted within Pvu I and (3) Apical Lateral
(4) Intercalary Apical
Pvu II site on PBR 322 , it would inactivate
9. Chemiosmosis require all except
(1) tet r gene and ori (1) Thylakoid membrane
(2) ampr gene and rop gene (2) Proton gradient
(3) Proton pump
(3) ampr gene and tet r gene
(4) Light harvesting complex
(4) tet r gene and ampr gene
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 NEET PT – 8 (06-01-25)
10. What is the vitamin present in a coenzyme B) Ubiquinone receive reducing
NAD ? equivalents via FADH2 that is generated
(1) Thiamine during oxidation of succinate in glycolysis.
(2) Riboflavin C) Continued oxidation of Acetyl CoA via
(3) Niacin
TCA cycle require continuous replenishment
(4) Pyridoxine
11. Which one is a product of dedifferentiation in of NAD+ ,FAD and oxalo acetic acid.
a dicot plant ?
D) Lactic acid and alcoholic fermentation
(1) Wood
more energy than aerobic respiration
(2) Mesophyll tissue
Choose correct statements
(3) Cork cambium
(1) A & B
(4) Epidermis
(2) B & C
12. How many CO2 , ATP and NADPH2 are
(3) C & D
needed to make one molecule of glucose (4) A & C
through Calvin pathway ? 16. Read the following statements and pick the
CO2 ATP NADPH2
correct pair

(1) 6 12 18 A) Haem is a prosthetic group for

peroxidase and catalase.
(2) 6 18 12
B) Malonate closely resemble succinic
(3) 1 18 12
dehydrogenase and act as competitive
(4) 1 30 12 inhibitor of succinic acid
C) Ligases catalyse the removed of groups
13 All the following occur during prophase I of from substrate by mechanisms other than
meiosis except hydrolysis leaving double bonds
(1) Pairing of homologous chromosomes
D) Peptide bond (between two amino
(2) Recombinations between homologous
chromosomes acids), glycosidic bond (between two sugars)
(3) Separation of homologous and ester bond (between phosphate and
chromosomes and their movement towards hydroxyl group of sugar) are formed by
two opposite poles
(4) Chromosomes are fully condensed and dehydration
assembly of meiotic spindle (1) A & C
14. Environmental plasiticity is observerd in (2) B & C
(1) Butter cup (3) C & D
(2) Cotton (4) A & D
(3) Larkspur 17. ATP synthesis in glycolysis is by a process
(4) Coriander namely
15. Read the following statements and pick the (1) Oxidative phosphorylation
correct pair. (2) Photo phosphorylation
A) Respiratory pathway comes into picture
(3) Substrate level phosphorylation
during breakdown and synthesis of fatty
acids & proteins. (4) Chemiosmosis
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 NEET PT – 8 (06-01-25)
18. Match Column-I with Column-II (4) A & D
Column-I Column-II 22. The stage in between two meiotic divisions is
A Antibody I Drug used to treat called
certain kinds of
(1) G1 phase
cancer
B Vinblastin II Phospholipid (2) G0 phase
present in cell (3) Interkinesis
membrane (4) S phase
C Lecithin III Unsaturated fatty
23. Which is a key end product formed by
acid with twenty
carbons glycolytic catabolism of glucose in
D Arachidonic IV Proteins produced cytoplasm ?
acid by immune system (1) Acetyl CoA
in the presence of (2) Pyruvic acid
antigens (3) Lactic acid
A B C D (4) Fructose 6 phosphate
(1) III II I IV
(2) IV II I III 24. NAD is reduced to NADH+H during all
(3) IV I II III these steps except
(4) IV III I III (1) Glycolysis
19. Which one among the following is enzyme (2) Oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvic
mediated process leading to occurrence of acid
recombinations ?
(3) Fermentation
(1) Disjunction
(2) Synapsis (4) Kreb’s cycle
(3) Crossing over 25. Match Column-I with Column-II
(4) Denaturation in PCR Column-I Column-II
20. Lenticels help in uptake of oxygen required A Lactate I Incomplete
for respiration in dehydrogenase oxidation of
(1) Soft green stems
glucose under
(2) Woody stems
(3) Animals anaerobic
(4) Leaves conditions in
21. Read the following statements and pick the yeast
correct pair B Pyruvate II Production of
A) Water deficiency does not affect dehydrogenase Acetyl CoA &
phosynthesis.
CO2 & NADH+H
B) Photorespiration is absent in C4 plants
C NADH III Oxidation of
as they have mechanism that increase the
concentration of oxygen at RubsiCO site dehydrogenase NADH produced
C) C4 acid is transported from mesophyll in matrix during
to bundle sheath cells and a C3 acid is ETS
transported from bundle sheath cells to D Alcohol IV Muscle cells in
mesophyll cells during C4 pathway. dehydrogenase oxygen
D) Calvin pathway is common to all plants deprivation
namely C3 ,C4 &CAM plants. A B C D
(1) IV III II I
(1) A & B
(2) IV I II III
(2) B & C
(3) I II III IV
(3) C & D
(4) IV II III I
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 NEET PT – 8 (06-01-25)
26. Read the comparative table and pick the Column-I Column-II
wrong match A Genotypes that code I YyRr
DNA replication Transcription for recombinant
phenotype
(1) Entire DNA is Only a part of B Double homozygous II YYRR, yyrr
copied DNA is copied recombinant
(2) Helicase is RNA genotypes
involved to open polymerase is C Double homozygous III YYrr, yyRR
the helix by involved to parental genotypes
breaking hydrogen unzip the DNA D Double heterozygous IV YYrr, Yyrr,
bonds helix by genotype yyRR, yyRr
breaking A B C D
hydrogen (1) I II III IV
bonds (2) II III I IV
(3) DNA primers are RNA primers (3) III I IV II
needed are needed (4) IV III II I
(4) Deoxy ribo Ribonucleoside 29. Infection, blending and centrifugation are
nucleoside triphosphates
three sequential steps in
triphosphates act as act as energy
substrate and source and (1) PCR
energy source substrate (2) Messelson and Stahl experiment
(3) Hershey & Chase experiment
27. Read the following statements and pick the
correct pair (4) Avery experiment
A) A hybrid genotype always gives an 30. Given below are two statements. One is
intermediate phenotype labelled Assertion (A) and the other is
B) An unmodified allele always produce a
non functional enzyme leading to recessive labelled Reason (R).
triat Assertion (A): Each restriction endonuclease
C) F1 Hybrids in Mendel’s experiments recognizes a specific palindromic nucleotide
contain alleles of contrasting traits but sequence in DNA.
express only one of the parental characters Reason (R): The palindrome in DNA is a
D) In a polygenic trait, the phenotype sequence of base pairs that reads same on
reflects the contribution of each allele i.e., the both the strands when orientation of reading
effect of each allele is additive. is kept different.
(1) A and B In light of the above statements, choose the
(2) B and C correct answer from the options given below.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
(3) C and D
correct explanation of (A).
(4) A and C (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
28. Match Column-I with Column-II in relation the correct explanation of (A).
to Mendelian dihybrid cross (3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
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 NEET PT – 8 (06-01-25)
31. Match Column-I with Column-II with regard 34. It is a genus belonging to deuteromycetes. It
to radioactive / heavy elements and their is employed in elimination of root borne
contribution in various discoveries fungal pathogen. What is that genus ?
Column-I Column-II (1) Trichoderma
A Heavy 15 N I Trace the (2) Monascus
intermediates (3) Saccharomyces
of Calvin (4) Alternaria
cycle 35. Match the column – I with column - II
B Radioactive( 14 C II Provide Column – I Column - II
in CO2 unequivocal (A) Tassels (I) Orchids
proof for
(B) Achenes & (II) Mango
DNA as
Pseudocarp / false
genetic
fruit
material
C Radioactive III Proof for semi (C ) Nucellar embryos (III) Corn
32
P and 35S conservative
(D) Fruit with many (IV) Strawberry
DNA
tiny
replication
nonendospermic
D Isotope 18 O in IV Source of
seeds
H2O oxygen
released in
photosynthesis
A B C D
is water
(1) III I II IV
A B C D
(2) III IV II I
(1) I II III IV
(3) IV III II I
(2) II III I IV
(4) I II III IV
(3) III I II IV
36. Viruses could function as
(4) IV III II I
(1) Biofertilizers
32. RNAi is blocking mRNA with the help of
(2) Biocontrol agents
(1) tRNA
(3) Biogas producers
(2) dsRNA
(4) Flocs in STP
(3) ssDNA
37. Given below are two statements. One is
(4) dsDNA
labelled Assertion (A) and the other is
33. Read the following statements and choose the
labelled Reason (R).
correct one
Assertion (A) : Pollination in Vallisnaria
(1) Water is needed for both pollination and
occuer on the surface of water
fertilization in all terrestrial flowering plants
Reason (R ) : Vallisnaria is a marine free
(2) Nutritive tissue in seeds is endosperm
floating hydrophyte
(3) Female gametophyte is liberated from
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
sporophyte at 7 celled 8 nucleated stage from
correct explanation of (A).
parent plant
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
(4) Both meiosis and fertilization is
the correct explanation of (A).
obligatory in production of apomictic seed
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
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 NEET PT – 8 (06-01-25)
38. Cloning vector used in genetic engineering 44. Which of the following inspect , recognize
need to possess all characters except and cleave the DNA into fragments?
(1) Selectable markers helpful in selection of (1) PBR 322
transformants .
(2) DNA polymerase
(2) One recognition site for one type of
(3) EcoRI
restriction enzyme
(4) Taq DNA polymerase
(3) Ori supporting low copy number
45. Given below are two statements. One is
(4) Ori supporting high copy number
labelled Assertion (A) and the other is
39. Pick the incorrect match from the following :
labelled Reason (R).
(1) GA : Early seed production in conifers
Assertion (A): Cytokinins delay senescence
(2) Auxins : Induction of parthenocarpy in
in leaves.
tomato
Reason (R): Cytokinins cause nutrient
(3) ABA : Increase tolerance in plants to
mobilization into leaves.
various stresses
In light of the above statements, choose the
(4) Ethylene : Bolting in cabbage & Beet
correct answer from the options given below.
40. What is the value of respiratory quotient for
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
fats ?
correct explanation of (A).
(1) Equal to one
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
(2) Less than one
the correct explanation of (A).
(3) zero
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) More than one
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
41. Read the statement
ZOOLOGY
“ He postulated the presence of adaptor
46. Given below are two statements
molecule that would on one hand read the
Statement(S-I): Malignant tumor cells starve
code & on other hand would bind to specific
the normal cells by competing for vital
aminoacid”
nutrients
Who is the scientist & adaptor molecule ?
Statement(S-I): Cancer cells actively divide
(1) Holley & t RNA
and grow
(2) Nirenberg & m RNA
In the light of the above statements, choose
(3) Crick & t RNA
the most appropriate answer from the options
(4) Crick & m RNA
given below:
42. Blue white selection in genetic engineering
(1) Both statement I and statement II are
is used to / for
correct
(1) Separation of DNA from host cell
(2) Both statement I and statement II are
(2) Direct gene transfer
incorrect
(3) Test the presence of insert in a plasmid /
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
heterologous host
incorrect
(4) Purify and formulate the gene product
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
43. Aerobic bacteria and fungi are employed in
correct
(1) Fermentation 47. The largest known gene is present on.
(2) Biogas plants (1) 9th chromosome
(2) 1st chromosome
(3) Sewage treatment plants
(3) Y– chromosome
(4) Bread production (4) X– chromosome
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 NEET PT – 8 (06-01-25)
48. Which theory, regarding the origin of life, is (1) A–v, B–ii, C–iii, D–i
alternatively also called (2) A–iv, B–iii, C–ii, D–v
“Panspermia”? (3) A–iv, B–iii, C–ii, D–i
(1) Special Creation (4) A–iii, B–iv, C–ii, D–v
(2) Spontaneous Generation 53. Which of the given statement is wrong as per
(3) Theory of catastrophism the “Theory of Special Creation”?
(4) Spore theory (1) All living organisms were created as such
49. Darwin proposed that new species evolve (2) Diversity changes as time changes
from ancestral forms by (3) Earth is about 4000 years old
(1) Accumulation of mutations (4) Diversity was always same
(2) Struggle for unlimited resources 54. Match the columns.
(3) Inheritance of acquired characters List-I List-II
(4) Gradual accumulation of small variations A) Pre-historic i) 10,000 years
50. In which condition, gene frequency remains cave art back
constant in a population?
B) Agriculture ii) 18,000 years
(1) Gene flow
back
(2) Random mating
(3) Mutation C) Neanderthal iii) 1.5 mya
(4) Genetic drift man
51. During the growth of any population more D) Homoerectus iv) Between
individuals acquire peripheral character value 1,00,000-40,000
at both ends of the distribution curve which years back
lead to the
(1) Disruption (1) A–i, B–iii, C – ii, D–iv
(2) Directional change (2) A–ii, B–i, C–iv, D–iii
(3) Stabilisation (3) A–ii, B–i, C–iii, D–iv
(4) Centripetal selection (4) A–iii, B–i, C–iv, D–ii
52. Match the following. 55. Given below are two statements: one is
List-I List-II labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
A) Gross i) Plasmodium labelled as Reason (R)
deformities of Assertion(A): Deficiency of insulin leads to
genital organs diabetes mellitus
Reason(R): Insulin mainly acts on
B) Dry, scaly ii) Entamoeba hepatocytes, adipocytes and enhances cellular
lesions on skin glucose uptake and utilisation
C) Stools with iii) Microsporum In the light of above statements, choose the
excess mucous most appropriate answer from the options
and blood clots given below.
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the
D) Chill and high Iv) Wuchereria correct explanation of A
fever recurring (2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT
every 3 to 4 the correct explanation of A
days (3) A is not correct but R is correct
(4) A is correct, but R is not correct
v) Ascaris
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 NEET PT – 8 (06-01-25)
56. Correct order of extinctions through (2) A qualitative problem of haemoglobin
geological time scale is (3) Characterised by mental retardation
(1) Pelycosaurs, Therapsids, thecodonts, (4) Characterised by lack of secondary
dinosaurs sexual characters
(2) Thecodonts, Dinosaurs, Pelycosaurs, 63. Match the following.
Therapsids List-I List-II
(3) Therapsids, Thecodonts, Pelycosaurs, A) Suppress sperm i) Vasectomy
Dinosaurs motility
(4) Pelycosaurs, Thecodonts, Therapsids, B) Makes the ii) LNG – 20
Dinosaurs cervix hostile to
57. The given pedigree shows inheritance of the sperms
autosomal recessive gene. What are the C) Increase iii) Lippes loop
genotypes of A and B phagocytosis of
sperms
D) Blocks gamete iv) Multiload 375
transport
(1) A–ii, B–iii, C–i, D–iv
(2) A–iv, B–ii, C–iii, D–i
(1) Aa, AA (2) aa, Aa (3) A–ii, B–iii, C–iv, D–i
(3) aa, AA (4) Aa, aa (4) A–iv, B–iii, C–ii, D–i
58. All are characters of Down’s syndrome 64. Non – specific type of defence is caused by.
except (1) T – cells
(1) Many ‘loops’ on finger tips (2) Antibodies
(2) Broad flat face (3) B – Cells
(3) Congenital heart disease (4) Neutrophils
(4) Small and smooth tongue 65. Given below are two statements: one is
59. Find the autosomal dominant trait in the labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
following. labelled as Reason (R):
(1) Thalassemia Assertion(A): New forms of life have arisen
(2) Phenylketonuria at different times in the history of earth
(3) Sickle-cell anaemia according to paleontological evidences and
(4) Myotonic dystrophy geological time scale.
60. In a Hardy-Weinberg population of 1000 Reason(R): A study of fossils showed that
individuals, 160 individuals show recessive life-forms were uniform at different
phenotype, find out the heterozygous geological time-span and not restricted to any
dominant individuals in the population geological time-span.
(1) 360 (2) 840 In the light of the above statements, choose
(3) 250 (4) 480 the most appropriate answer from the options
61. Sex of the offspring is determined by the given below:
chromosome “W” in case of (1) Both A and R are correct and R is the
(1) Drosophila (2) Grasshopper correct explanation of A
(3) Honeybee (4) Pigeon (2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT
62. Thalassemia is the correct explanation of A
(1) A quantitative problem of haemoglobin (3) A is not correct but R is correct
(4) A is correct, but R is not correct
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 NEET PT – 8 (06-01-25)
66. FSH and LH are gonadotropins, in males (3) A is not correct but R is correct
FSH acts on (4) A is correct, but R is not correct
(1) Spermatogonia and stimulates the 69. Secondary lymphoid organs provide the sites
process of spermiation for interaction of (A) with the (B), then (A)
(2) Leydig cells and stimulates the secretion proliferate to become effector cells.
of androgens Fill the blanks with correct option:
(3) Sertoli cells and stimulates the secretion (1) (A) – Lymphocytes, (B) – antigens
of some factors which help in (2) (A) – Memory cells, (B) – lymphocytes
spermiogenesis (3) (A) – Auxillary cells, (B) – antibodies
(4) Leydig cells and stimulates the secretion (4) (A) – Antigens, (B) – antibodies
of inhibin. 70. In which of the following interactions both
67. Given below are two statements partners are affected?
Statement-I: Oral contraceptive pills inhibit (1) Sea anemone and clown fish
ovulation and implantation (2) Flamingoes and resident fishes in South
Statement-II: Surgical contraceptive methods American lakes
are highly effective but their reversibility is (3) Fig tree and pollinator wasp
very poor. (4) Epiphytic orchid on a mango branch
In light of the above statements, choose the 71. Given below are two statements
appropriate answer from the options given Statement-I: Red colourblindness is X-linked
below recessive disorder
(1) Both statement I and statement II are Statement-II: To form red colourblind son,
correct father should be red colourblind.
(2) Both statement I and statement II are In light of the above statements, choose the
appropriate answer from the options given
incorrect
below
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is (1) Both statement I and statement II are
incorrect correct
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is (2) Both statement I and statement II are
correct incorrect
68. Given below are two statements: one is (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
labelled as Reason (R)
correct
Assertion (A): Despite occupying about 70 72. Consider the following statements about
per cent of the earth’s surface, the ecological pyramids and choose the correct
productivity (annual NPP) of oceans are only statements:
55 billion tons per annum. A) Pyramid of energy can never be inverted,
Reason (R): In oceans, light acts as a limiting because when energy flows from a particular
factor and amount of nutrients (such as trophic level to the next trophic level, some
nitrogen) is less. energy is always lost as heat at each step.
In the light of the above statements, choose B) In parasitic food chain, the pyramid of
the most appropriate answer from the options numbers is upright.
given below: C) The pyramid of biomass of sea is
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the generally inverted because the biomass of
correct explanation of A fishes far exceeds that of phytoplankton.
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT (1) Only A (2) Only A and B
the correct explanation of A (3) Only A and C (4) A, B and C
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 NEET PT – 8 (06-01-25)
73. Saheli is a new oral contraceptive for females 76. In the ovary of female human, degeneration
developed by scientists at CDRI, Lucknow. It of a large number of primary follicles occurs
prevents during which phase?
(1) Ovulation (1) From menarche to menopause
(2) Menstruation (2) From birth to puberty
(3) Fertilisation (3) From foetal stage to birth
(4) Implantation (4) From menopause to death
74. Given below are two statements: one is 77. Given below are two statements
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is Statement-I(S-I): At resting state axonal
labelled as Reason (R): membrane is comparatively more permeable
Assertion(A): PCR is now routinely used to to sodium ions and nearly impermeable to
detect HIV in suspected AIDS patients potassium ions
Reason(R): Anti HIV antibodies are Statement-II(S-II): Ionic gradients across the
detected by PCR. resting membrane are maintained by the
In the light of the above statements, choose active transport of ions by the Na+ – K+ pump
the most appropriate answer from the options In light of the above statements, choose the
given below: appropriate answer from the options given
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the below
correct explanation of A (1) Both statement I and statement II are
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT correct
the correct explanation of A (2) Both statement I and statement II are
(3) A is not correct but R is correct incorrect
(4) A is correct, but R is not correct (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
75. Match the following: incorrect
List-I List-II (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
A) Correction of a (i) Injecting correct
genetic defect functional ADA 78. Study the following statements.
to the patient a) Rapid influx of Na+ followed by the
B) Pro-insulin (ii) Delivery of a reversal of the polarity at that site is called
normal gene into depolarisation
the individual b) Impulse transmission across the chemical
C) Enzyme (iii) Needs to be synapse similar to impulse conduction along
replacement therapy processed to become a single axon
mature and c) Fibres of the tracts are covered with
functional myelin sheath which constitute the outer part
D) Recombinant (iv) Do not induce of cerebral hemisphere is called white matter
therapeutics unwanted d) The cerebrum wraps around a structure
immunological called thalamus which is a major
responses coordinating centre for sensory and motor
(1) A–iii, B–ii, C–i, D–iv signaling
(2) A–ii, B–iii, C– iv, D–i Which of the above are incorrect?
(3) A–ii, B–iii, C–i, D–iv (1) b and c
(4) A–iii, B–ii, C–iv, D–i (2) a and d
(3) a and c
(4) b and d
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 NEET PT – 8 (06-01-25)
79. Study the following statements. c) Heroin is known for its effects on
a) Along with hypothalamus limbic system cardiovascular system of body
regulate sexual behavior, expressions of d) Crack is a depressant and slows down
emotional reactions and motivation body functions
b) Mid brain, pons and cerebellum make up (1) b and d
the brain stem (2) c and d
c) Hypothalamic hormones reach the (3) a and b
posterior pituitary through Portal circulatory (4) b and c
system 83. Study the following statements
d) Excess secretion of growth hormone in a) Endocrine gland that plays major role in
children results in a disorder called the development of immune system is
acromegaly Thymus
Which of the above are correct? b) Thymosins promote antibody production
(1) a and d to provide cell mediated immunity
(2) b and c c) Underproduction of hormones by the
(3) c and d adrenal cortex leads to a disease called
(4) Only a Cushing syndrome
80. Given below are two statements d) Epinephrine is derived from the amino
Statement(I): Hormone that stimulates uterine acid Tyrosine
contractions and milk ejection from the Which of the above are incorrect
mammary gland is prolactin (1) b and d (2) a and c
Statement(II): Hormone which (3) b and c (4) a and d
influences metabolism, pigmentation, 84. During oogenesis second polar body is
menstrual cycles and defense capability is formed.
melatonin (1) In tertiary follicle
In light of the above statements, choose the (2) In Graafian follicle
appropriate answer from the options given (3) Just before ovulation
below (4) After entry of sperm into the oocyte
(1) Both statement I and statement II are 85. Which of these are direct ancestors of turtles?
correct (1) Synapsids (2) Sauropsids
(2) Both statement I and statement II are (3) Pelycosaurs (4) Thecodonts
incorrect 86. Study the following statements
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is a) Erythropoietin is secreted by
incorrect juxtaglomerular cells of kidney
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is b) Secretion of HCI and pepsinogen in the
correct gastric glands is simulated by GIP
81. Protein hormone secreted by thyroid gland is c) Secretion of water and bicarbonate ions in
(1) Thymosine (2) Thyroxine the exocrine pancreas is stimulated by
(3) Parathormone (4) Calcitonin secretin
82. Select the correct statements from the d) CCK stimulates pancreas to secrete bile
following juice.
a) Opioid receptors are present in our CNS Which of the above are correct?
and GI tract. (1) b and d (2) a and c
b) Cannabinoid receptors are present (3) b and c (4) c and d
principally in the brain
12
 NEET PT – 8 (06-01-25)
87. Given below are two statements: one is speeds in opposite direction. The ratio of the
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is masses m2 : m1 is
labelled as Reason (R): (1) 1 : 2 (2) 3 : 1
Assertion(A): Extinctions across taxa are not (3) 1 : 1 (4) 2 : 1
random. 92. A thin circular ring of mass M and radius is
Reason(R): Some groups like amphibians rotating about is axis with an angular speed
appear to be more vulnerable to extinction  . Two particles having mass m each are
In the light of above statements, choose the now attached at diametrically opposite points.
most appropriate answer from the options The angular speed of the ring will become.
given below.
M M
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the (1)  (2) 
correct explanation of A M m M  2m
M  2m M  2m
(3)  (4) 
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A M  2m M
(3) A is not correct but R is correct 93. A constant power delivering machine has
(4) A is correct, but R is not correct towed a box, which was initially at rest, along
88. Due to competition which of the following a horizontal straight line. The distance moved
are appeared to be more adversely affected? by the in time ‘t’ is proportional to:
(1) Carnivores
(1) t (2) t 2/3
(2) Carnivores and herbivores 3/2 1/2
(3) Herbivores and plants (3) t (4) t
(4) Plants and carnivores 94. A mass M is attached to a horizontal spring
89. Which of the following cells have surface of force constant ‘K’, oscillates on a
antibodies? frictionless horizontal surface with time
(1) TH cells and plasma cells
(2) Plasma cells and memory B-cells period T and amplitude A. When the mass is
(3) Memory TC – cells and plasma cells passing through mean position, another mass
(4) B – cells and memory B – cells m is gently fixed upon it as shown in the
90. Match the following hosts and ectoparasites.
figure. The new amplitude of oscillation will
List-I List-II
A) Hedge plant i) Orchid be

B) Dogs ii) Lice

C) Marine fishes iii) Cuscuta
D) Human iv) Ticks
v) Copepods
(1) A–iv, B–v, C–i, D–ii
(2) A–i, B–iv, C–v, D–ii
(3) A–iii, B–v, C–iv, D–ii
(4) A–iii, B–iv, C–v, D–ii
Mm M
PHYSICS (1) A (2) A
91. An object of mass m1 collides with another M Mm
object of mass m2 , which is at rest. After the M Mm
(3) A (4) A
elastic collision the objects move with equal Mm M
13
 NEET PT – 8 (06-01-25)
95. A tuning fork A of unknown frequency 99. In the circuit given below, V(t) is the
produces 5 beats/s with a fork of known sinusoidal voltage source, voltage drop
frequency 340Hz. When fork A is filed, the VAB(t) across the resistance R is
beat frequency decreases to 2beat/s. What is
the frequency of fork A?
(1) 338 Hz (2) 335 Hz
(3) 342 Hz (4) 345 Hz
96. The energy that should be added to an
electron, to reduce its de-Broglie wavelength
–10 (1) Is half wave rectified
from 10 m to
(2) Is full wave rectified
0.5 1010 m , will be (3) Has the same peak value in the positive
(1) Four times the initial energy and negative half cycles
(2) Thrice the initial energy (4) Has different peak values during positive
(3) Equal to the initial energy and negative half cycle
(4) Twice the initial energy 100. A zener diode, having breakdown voltage
97. A photon of energy E ejects a photoelectron equal to 15 V, is used in a voltage regulator
from a metal surface whose work function is circuit shown in figure. The wattage of the
W0. If this electron enters into a uniform diode is
magnetic field of induction B in a direction
perpendicular to the field and describes a
circular path of radius r, then the radius r, is
given by (in the usual notation)
2m (E  W0 ) (1) 300 mW (2) 75 mW
(1) (2) 2m (E  W0 ) eB
eB (3) 150 mW (4) 225 mW
2e (E  W0 ) 2m (E  W0 ) 101. A particle of mass 500 gm is moving in a
(3) (4)
mB eB straight line with velocity v  bx5/ 2 . The
work done by the net force during its
displacement from x  0 to x  4m is
98. (Take b  0.25m3/ 2s1 ).
The logic circuit shown above is (1) 2 J (2) 4 J
equivalent to: (3) 8 J (4) 16 J
102. The ratio of acceleration of the electron in
singly ionized helium atom and hydrogen
(1)
atom (both in ground state) is
(1) 16:1 (2) 8:1
(3) 4:1 (4) 2:1
(2) 103. If narrow slit of width 2 mm is illuminated by
monochromatic light of wavelength 500 nm,
then the distance between the first minima of
(3) both side on a screen at a distance of 1 m is
(1) 5 mm (2) 0.5 mm
(4) (3) 1 mm (4) 10 mm

14
 NEET PT – 8 (06-01-25)
104. A uniform thin bar of mass 6 kg and length 108. A block of mass 2 kg rests on a rough
0
2.4 meter is bent to make an equilateral inclined plane making an angle of 30 with
hexagon. The moment of inertia about an axis the horizontal. The coefficient of static
passing through the centre of mass and friction between the block and the plane is
perpendicular to the plane of hexagon in 0.7. The frictional force on the block is
2
kg m (1) 9.8 N
(1) 0.8 (2) 4.8 (2) 0.7×9.8× 3N
(3) 8 (4) 28.8 (3) 9.8× 3N
105. The same size images are formed by a
(4) 0.7×9.8 N
convex lens when the object is placed at 20
109. In a resonance column lab experiment to
cm or at 10 cm from the lens. The focal
measure the velocity of sound, the first
length of convex lens is
(1) 12 cm (2) 40 cm resonance is obtained at a length l1 , the
(3) 18 cm (4) 15 cm second resonance at a length l2 and third
106. A photon collides with a stationary hydrogen resonance at l3 then l3 is
atom in ground state inelastically. Energy of
(1) 2l2  l1 (2) l2  2l1
the colliding photon is 10.2 eV. After a time
interval of the order of micro second another (3) l2  l1 (4) l2  l1
photon collides with same hydrogen atom 110. If displacement x and velocity v are related as
inelastically with an energy of 15 eV. What 4v2 = 25 – x2 in a SHM. Then time Period of
will be observed by the detector? given SHM is (Consider SI units)
(1) 2 photon of energy 10.2 eV (1)  (2) 2
(2) 2 photon of energy of 1.4 eV (3) 4 (4) 6
(3) one photon of energy 10.2 eV and an 111. The refractive index of a medium is 3. If
electron of energy 1.4 eV
the unpolarised light is incident on it at the
(4) one photon of energy 10.2 eV and another
polarizing angle of the medium, then angle of
photon of 1.4 eV
refraction is
107. Formation of real image using a biconvex
(1) 60º (2) 45º
lens is shown below.
(3) 30º (4) 0º
112. A body of mass m is situated in a potential
field U  x   U0 1  cos x  when U 0 and
 are constants. The time period of small
oscillations is
m
(1) 2
If the whole set up is immersed in water U 0
without disturbing the object and the screen
positions, what will one observe on the U 0 2
(2) 2
screen? m
(1) Image disappears
m
(2) Magnified image (3)
(3) Erect real image U 0 2
(4) No change m
(4) 2
U 0 2
15
 NEET PT – 8 (06-01-25)
113. Given below are two statements: one is (3) Statement-I is false, statement-II is true.
labelled as Assertion A and the other is (4) Statement-I is false, statement-II is false.
labelled as Reason R: 117. A particle of mass M is situated at the centre
Assertion-(A): The four bonding electrons of of a spherical shell of same mass and radius
nd rd
C, Si and Ge, respectively, lie in 2 , 3 and a. The gravitational potential at a point
th
4 orbit. a
situated at distance from the centre, will
Reason-(R): Carbon is insulator while Si and 2
Ge are intrinsic semiconductors even they be
have same lattice structure. 4GM 3GM
(1)  (2) 
In the light of the above statements, choose a a
the most appropriate answer from the options 2GM GM
(3)  (4) 
given below: a a
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the 118. A spherical body of mass m is moving in a
correct explanation of (A) viscous liquid with constant velocity v.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not Calculate constant velocity of another
the correct explanation of (A) spherical body of same material and mass 8
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false m in same liquid.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true (1) v (2) 2v
114. The nth division of main scale coincides (3) 4v (4) 3v
 n  1 division of vernier scale. Given one 119. Given below are two statements:
th

main scale division is equal to a units. Find Statement-I: Rise of a liquid in a capillary
the least count of the vernier. tube depends on the radius of capillary tube.
Statement-II: Surface tension of a liquid does
(2)  n  1
a
(1) not depend upon the shaped of vessel in
n 1

(3)
 n  1
(4) an
which it is kept.
In the light of the above statements, choose
a
the correct answer from the options given
115. In an experiment, the values, the values of
below.
two resistances were measured to be
(1) Statement-I is true, statement-II is true.
R1   5.0  0.2  and R2  10.0  0.1  . (2) Statement-I is true, statement-II is false.
Then, their combined resistance in series will (3) Statement-I is false, statement-II is true.
be (4) Statement-I is false, statement-II is false.
(1) 15  0.1  (2) 15  0.2  120. For a closed surface through which the net
flux is zero, each of the following four
(3) 15  2%  (4) 15  3% 
statements could be true. Which of the
116. Given below are two statements: statements must be true?
Statement-I: Energy cannot be divided by (A) There are no charges inside the surface
volume. (B) The net charge inside the surface is zero
Statement-II: Dimensions for energy and (C) The electric field is zero everywhere on
volume are different. the surface
In the light of the above statements, choose (D) The number of electric field lines
the correct answer from the options given entering the surface equals the number
below. leaving the surface
(1) Statement-I is true, statement-II is true. (1) A, C (2) B, D
(2) Statement-I is true, statement-II is false. (3) B, C (4) A, D
16
 NEET PT – 8 (06-01-25)
121. When a positive charge moves in the (1) U1  36 J , U2  36  J
direction of the electric field, the electric (2) U1  24 J , U2  12  J
potential energy of the charge–field system
(3) U1  36 J , U2  54  J
(1) decreases
(2) increases (4) U1  90 J , U2  90  J
(3) remains constant 126. The charge q on a capacitor varies with
(4) may increase or decrease voltage as shown in figure. The area of the
122. Two like charges Q1 and Q2 are separated by triangle AOB represents
a distance ‘d’. The electric intensity at the
location of Q1 is E1 and the electric intensity
at the location of Q2 is E2 . Which of the
following expressions is zero?
(1) Q1E1  Q2 E2 (2) Q1E1  Q2 E2
(3) Q1E2  Q2 E1 (4) Q1E2  Q2 E1
123. 15 joule of work has to be done against an
existing electric field to take a charge of
0.01C from A to B. Then, the potential (1) electric field between the plates
difference VB  VA  is
(2) electric flux between the plates
(3) energy density of electric field
(1) 1500 V (2) -1500V (4) energy stored by the capacitor
(3) 0.15 V (4) None of these 127. All bulbs in the figure are identical. Which
124. Two conducting spheres of radii R1 and R2 bulb(s) consumes maximum power?
are connected together by a metal wire. A
charge q is given to the system. The ratio of
the charge densities 1 and 2 on their
surfaces is

(1) Only 1 (2) Only3 and 4

R12 R22 (3) Only 2 (4) Only 1 and 5
(1) 2 (2) 2
R2 R1 128. Two conductors have the same resistance at
R1 R2 but their temperature coefficients of
(3) (4)
R2 R1 resistance are and . The effective
125. Calculate energy stored in capacitance temperature coefficient of their series
combination is
C1 and C2 .
(1) .s  1  2
(2) .s  1.2
(3) .s  1  2
  2 
(4) . s   1
 2 
17
 NEET PT – 8 (06-01-25)
129. A proton enters a uniform magnetic field of (3) L12 : L22 (4) L22 : L12
induction B  xiˆ  0.6 ˆj  zkˆ tesla with a 133. The relative permeability of a material is
velocity v  (2i  3 j  6kˆ) m/s . If the proton
0.998. The sussceptibility of the material is
(1) 0.002 (2)  0.002
continues to move undeviated in the field,
(3) 1.998 (4) 1.002
then magnitude of the magnetic induction is
134. In an experiment, two bar magnets placed
about
one an another are allowed to oscillate a)
(1) 1.4 T (2) 1.0 T
with their similar poles on the same side b)
(3) 14 T (4) 10 T
with their dissimilar poles on the same side.
130. If a direct current of value ‘a’ ampere is
They are found making 20 and 10 oscillations
superimposed on an alternative current
per minute respectively at the same place.
I  b sin t flowing through a wire, what is
The ratio of their magnetic moments is
the rms value of the resulting current in the
(1) 5 : 2 (2) 3 : 5
circuit?
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 2 : 1
135. A proton, a deuteron and an  particle are
moving with same momentum in a uniform
transverse magnetic field. The ratio of
1/2 magnetic forces acting on them and their
 1  1/2
(1) a 2  b2  (2) a2  b2  speed are in the ratio
 2  (1) 1: 2 : 4 and 1:1: 2
1/2 (2) 1: 2 : 4 and 2:1:1
 a2   1 
1/2
(3)   b2  (4) a 2  b2  (3) 4 : 2 :1 and 2:1:1
2   2 
(4) 2:1:1 and 4 : 2 :1
131. Given below are two statements: one is
CHEMISTRY
labelled as Assertion A and the other is
136. Among the following compounds hydrogen
labelled as Reason R: bonding is strongest in
Assertion-(A): Self-inductance is called the
(1) H2O (2) HF
inertia of electricity.
Reason-(R): The induced emf produced due (3) CH3CHO (4) NH3
to self inductance opposes the change of 137. 0.1 F of electricity is passed through aqueous
current in the inductor. copper sulphate using inert electrodes.
In the light of the above statements, choose Incorrect statement is
the most appropriate answer from the options (1) Copper decomposes at anode
given below. (2) pH progressively decreases
(1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct. (3) 0.05 moles of copper deposits at cathode
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is (4) Composition of the solution changes
the correct explanation of (A) 138. Statement-I : For a complex reaction,
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not molecularity has no meaning.
the correct explanation of (A) Statement-II : For an irreversible
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. endothermic reaction, enthalpy of reaction is
132. Two choke coils of inductances L1 and L2 are always greater than activation energy.
connected in series to a battery. Due to (1) I is correct, II is incorrect
changing currents emf’s are induced in the (2) I and II are correct
coils. The ratio of the induced emf’s is (3) I is incorrect, II is correct
(1) L1 : L2 (2) L2 : L1 (4) I and II are incorrect
18
 NEET PT – 8 (06-01-25)
139. Glucose and fructose are (4) 3618 days
(1) Pair of enantiomers 144. Statement-I : Both BrF5 and Fe  CO5 have
(2) Pair of positional isomers
same shape.
(3) Pair of functional isomers 2
(4) Pair of diastereomers Statement-II : Both XeF4 and  Ni CN 4 
140. Weight of urea that must be dissolved in 500 have same shape and same hybridization.
ml solution whose osmotic pressure is 8.21 (1) I is correct, II is incorrect
atm at 270C is (2) I and II are correct
(1) 20 grams (2) 1 gram (3) I is incorrect, II is correct
(3) 10 grams (4) 2 grams (4) I and II are incorrect
141. Identify the correct statements 145. At certain temperature, vapour pressure of
A) Neither pH nor the degree of hydrolysis pure water is 45 mm Hg. If 0.6 grams of urea
of CH3COONH4 will be affected by is dissolved in 180 grams of water then the
dilution. vapour preesure of solution at that
B) At 298 K, pH of 0.1 M Na2 SO4 solution is temperature would be
(1) 44.955 mm
7
(2) 41.555 mm
C) Water is neutral at all temperatures
(3) 40.55 mm
D) As temperature increases, pH of pure
(4) 42.55 mm
water increases
146. A) Nickel-Cadmium battery
(1) A, B and C only
B) Dry cell
(2) C and D only
C) Lead storage battery
(3) D only
D) Mercury cell
(4) C only
Primary cells in the above list are
142.
(1) A & C (2) B & C
Column-I Column –II
(3) A & D (4) B & D
(Amino acid) (Classification) OH
147. p of a mixture containing 50 ml of 0.4 M
I) Valine A) Neutral P) Essential NH3 and 50 ml of 0.1 M HCl is
kb
II) Lysine B) Acidic Q) Non- (1) p
kb
essential (2) p  log3
kb
III) Tyrosine C) Basic (3) p  log3
k
IV) Glutamic (4) p b  1
acid 148. Specific conductivity of 0.1 M NiSO4
solution is ‘K’ Sm−1. Equivalent conductivity
Correct match is of NiSO4 is _____ mho m2 g eq−1
(1) IV-B-P (2) II-C-Q
K K
(3) I-A-P (4) III-C-P (1) (2)
200 50
143. 50% of a first order reaction is completed in
(3) 10000 K (4) 5000 K
1206 days. Time taken for 75% completion
149. All the following species are paramagnetic
of this reaction is
except.
(1) 1809 days
(2) 2412 days (1) O2 (2) B2
(3) 4824 days (3) N2 (4) C2
19
 NEET PT – 8 (06-01-25)
150. Assertion (A) : NaCl can be precipitated (3) 2 (4) 0.5
from its saturation solution by passing HCl 156. CH4 , SF4 , CHCl3 , XeF4 and ClF3 . How many
gas. molecules possess dipole moment ?
Reason (R) : By passing HCl gas through (1) 1 (2) 2
NaCl solution, ionic product of NaCl exceeds (3) 3 (4) 4
its solubility product. 157. A silver electrode in contact with 1M
(1) Both A and R are correct but R is not the AgNO3 is diluted by ten times. Reduction
correct explanation of A
potential of silver electrode
(2) Both A and R are correct R is the correct
(1) increases by 0.059 V
explanation of A
(2) increases by 0.0295 V
(3) A is not correct but R is correct
(3) decreases by 0.059 V
(4) A is correct but R is not correct
(4) decreases by 0.0295 V
151. Which of the following is not present in
158. Boiling point 0.1m NaCl solution is
RNA
100.0780C. Degree of ionization of NaCl is
(1) Adenine (2) Guanine
[kb of H2O = 0.52 K kg mol-1]
(3) Thymine (4) Cytosine
(1) 0.75 (2) 0.5
152. Three gases A,B and C are dissolved in water
(3) 0.25 (4) 0.4
at one bar. Solubility of A, B and C is 0.1 3Cl2 / 
m, 0.2 m and 0.4 m respcectivily. Ratio of 159. C7 H8   A 
Br2 / FeBr3
dark
 B 
Zn/ HCl
C
KH in K bar  for A,B and C is Compound ‘C’ is
(1) Toluene
(1) 4:2:1 (2) 2:3:6
(2) p-bromotoluene
(3) 2:1:4 (4) 6:3:2
(3) o-bromotoluene
153. For the reaction A  2 B, the following graph
(4) m-bromotoluene
is plotted
160.
Column-I Column-II
A (13th group (Property)
element)
Conc
I) In A) Least boiling
point
B II) Tl B) Least density
t time III) B C) Least melting
point
‘t’ corresponds ______% completion of the
IV) Ga D) Least ionization
reaction.
enthalpy
(1) t25 (2) t66.6
Correct match is
(3) t75 (4) t33.3 I II III IV
154. The pair of species which represent Lewis
(1) A D B C
acids is
(2) D A B C
(1) CO, SO2 (2) Zn2 , CO2
(3) A D C B
(3) CCl4 , PCl5 (4) SO3 , CH2  CH2
(4) B A C D
155. The reaction in which rate constant has the
same units as rate of reaction is
(1) 1 (2) 0
20
 NEET PT – 8 (06-01-25)
161. Cl

AgCN Cl
2 / 
FeCl3

X(major)
Products ….electrophilic substitution
(4)
C2 H 5Cl Cl
NO2
AgNO 2  a  
) aq . N aO H
b ) 368 K
Y(major)
X and Y respectively NO2
(1) CH3CH2CN, CH3CH2 NC Products ……..nucleophilic substitution
(2) CH3CH2CN, CH3CH2 NO2 166. Number of unpaired electrons in
4 3
(3) CH3CH2 NC, CH3CH2NO2  Fe  CN 6  and Mn CN 6  is
(4) CH3CH2 NC, CH3CH2ONO respectively.

162. MnO4 
I
H
 X . ‘X’ is (1) 0,0 (2) 0,2
(3) 2,2 (4) 2,0
(1) I2 (2) I2O7
167. Statement-I : Benzyl amine cannot be

(3) IO 4 (4) I 2O5 prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
163. Propene Statement-II : 10 aryl amines cannot be

a ) B2 H 6 /THF
b ) H O / OH 
 A 
PCC
 B 
LiAlH 4
 C. prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
2 2
(1) I is correct, II is incorrect
A and C are (2) I and II are correct
(1) 10 alcohol, aldehyde (3) I is incorrect, II is correct
(2) 20 alcohol, 20 alcohol (4) I and II are incorrect
(3) 10 alcohol, 10 alcohol 168. Which one of the following can react with
(4) 10 alcohol, carboxylic acid steam ?
164. Boiling point is least for (1) Pb (2) Ge
(1) N2 (2) He (3) Sn (4) Si
(3) O2 (4) F2 169. Benzaldehyde and acetaldehyde can be
165. Wrong match among the following is distinguished using
(1) (1) Tollen’s reagent (2) Fehling’s reagent
CH 3
(3) 2,4 – DNP (4) Both 1& 2
170. A)  PtCl2  NH3 2  shows geometrical
 Cl2 / hv
isomerism
products……free radical substitution B) Co  NH3 5 ONO SO4 can show linkage
(2) isomerism
  Cl2 / hv
C) Cr  en 2 Cl2  Cl can show both

products …….free radical substitution geometrical and optical isomerism

(3) Correct statements are
(1) A & B only (2) A & C only
(3) B and C only (4) A, B and C

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 NEET PT – 8 (06-01-25)

171. CH  CH  I  177. Most reactive towards SN 2 reaction is

C2 H5OH  II  (1) C6 H5C CH3 2 Br
H 2O  III  (2) C6 H5CH2 Br
C6 H5OH  IV  . (3) C6 H5 3 CBr
Correct decreasing order of acidc strength is (4) C6 H5CH CH3  Br
indicated in 178. One mole of complex produces four moles of
(1) IV, III, II, I (2) IV,II, III, I ions in
(3) I, II, III, IV (4) I, III, II, IV
0
(1) Cr  H 2O 6  2  SO4 3
172. Statement-I : E Ce4 / Ce3
is positive
(2)  Pt  NH 3 4 Cl2  Cl2
Statement –II : Ce4  aq  acts like oxidizing
(3) Co  NH3 6  Cl3
agent.
(1) I and II are correct (4) Cr  en 2 Cl2  Cl
(2) I is correct, II is incorrect 2
179. CH  CH  A  B;
0
1) dil .H2 SO4 / Hg ,60 C
(3) I is incorrect, II is correct 2) NaOH  I2
3) H 
(4) I and II are incorrect
‘A’ gives positive Tollen’s test. Compound
173.
‘B’ is
CH3  CH2  COOH 
Cl2 /Red P
 A 
Aq KOH
 B.
one mole (1) CHl3 (2) CH3 I
‘B’ is
(3) CH2 I 2 (4) CI4
(1) Maleic acid (2) Acetic acid
(3) Lactic acid (4) Oxalic acid 180. The 3d series elements with highest melting
174. Bond angle is highest in point and highest enthalpy of atomization are
respectively
(1) H2O (2) H2S
(1) Cr, Cr (2) V,V
(3) NH3 (4) PH3 (3) V,Cr (4) Cr,V
OCH 3
Conc . HI / 
   A  B.
excess
175. A& B are
OH I

CH 3 I ; CH 3 I
(1) (2)
I OH

; CH 3 OH ; CH 3 OH
(3) (4)
176. Statement-I : Oxygen has least boiling point
among 16th group elements.
Statement-II : H2O is an exothermic product
whereas H2S is an endothermic product.
(1) I is correct, II is incorrect
(2) I and II are correct
(3) I is incorrect, II is correct
(4) I and II are incorrect
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