PRE-CAST TEST BATCH - 2025

TEST –11 (Explanation)

1.
Ans. a
Sol.
Statement 1 is incorrect:
As per Article 239AA(4) of the Constitution, the strength of the Council of Ministers in the
Delhi Legislative Assembly cannot exceed 10% of the total number of members in the
assembly. This is a distinct provision for Delhi and differs from the general rule for states,
where the cap is 15% of the Legislative Assembly's strength.
Statement 2 is correct:
The Council of Ministers in Delhi is collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly,
as mandated by Article 239AA(6) of the Constitution. This ensures that the Council is
accountable to the elected representatives and operates in alignment with parliamentary
principles.
Statement 3 is incorrect:
Art 239 AA (5): The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the President and other Ministers
shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Chief Minister and the Ministers
shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.

2.

Ans. a
Sol.
Statement 1 is correct.
The Constitution of India specifies the qualifications and disqualifications for the Members of
Parliament (MPs) in Article 84 for Lok Sabha and Article 102 for Rajya Sabha. These articles
outline the basic eligibility criteria (such as age, citizenship, etc.) and the disqualifications
(such as holding an office of profit, bankruptcy, or being convicted of certain crimes) for MPs
in both Houses.
Statement 2 is not correct.
Political parties do not have a legal expenditure limit for their campaign during elections.
However, individual candidates contesting elections have a limit on their expenditure, as
specified by the Election Commission under the Representation of the People Act, 1951. For
example, there are specific limits for the expenses of candidates in Lok Sabha and State
Assembly elections. But political parties are not bound by a specific cap on their election
expenditure.
Statement 3 is not correct.
While the Representation of the People Act, 1951 originally allowed for election disputes to be
filed in Election Tribunals for State Legislative Assembly elections, in practice, Election
Tribunals are not currently functional. Now, election petitions related to both Lok Sabha and
State Legislative Assembly elections must be filed with the High Courts. Thus, an aggrieved
person can only approach the High Court for election disputes, not the tribunals.

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 Statement 4 is not correct.
There is a time limit for filing election petitions. Under the Representation of the People Act,
1951, an election petition can be filed within 45 days from the date of the declaration of the
election result. After this period, the petition cannot be entertained, unless there are
exceptional circumstances.

3.
Ans. d
Sol.
The compulsory (obligatory or mandatory) and voluntary (discretionary or optional)
provisions (features) of the 73 rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) or the Part IX of the
Constitution:
o Fixing tenure of five years for panchayats at all levels and holding fresh elections within
six months in the event of supersession of any panchayat. Establishment of a State
Election Commission for conducting elections to the panchayats.
o Constitution of a State Finance Commission after every five years to review the financial
position of the panchayats.
o Voluntary Provisions Devolution of powers and responsibilities upon panchayats to
prepare plans for economic development and social justice; and to perform some or all of
the 29 functions listed in the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution.
o Granting financial powers to the panchayats, that is, authorizing them to levy, collect and
appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and fees.

4.
Ans. b
Sol.
Statement 1 is correct: An assertive judiciary plays an active role in protecting and
enforcing constitutional rights. It may challenge government actions, laws, or policies that
violate citizens' rights or constitutional principles, ensuring that justice is served. This
proactive role is central to an assertive judiciary.

Statement 2 is incorrect: An assertive judiciary is not about avoiding interference with the
legislative and executive branches. Rather, it involves the judiciary stepping in when
necessary to ensure that the government adheres to constitutional principles. Judicial
restraint, which focuses on limiting judicial interference in government actions, is the
opposite of an assertive judiciary.

Statement 3 is correct: An assertive judiciary ensures that the government fulfills its
constitutional duties. It may intervene to uphold individual rights, protect democracy, and
ensure that laws are aligned with constitutional mandates, even if it means stepping in to
hold other branches accountable.

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5.
Ans. c
Sol.
Statement 2 is correct.
Election of Chairperson and Members of Panchayats
All the members of Panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels shall be elected
directly by the people.
The Chairperson of a Panchayat at the village level shall be elected in such manner as
determined by the State Legislature.
The Chairperson of Panchayats at the intermediate and district levels shall be elected
indirectly by and from amongst the elected members thereof.
Article 243C (4)
“The Chairperson of a Panchayat and other members of a Panchayat whether or not chosen
by direct election from territorial constituencies in the Panchayat area shall have the right to
vote in the meetings of the Panchayats.
Statement 1 is correct
Article 243D (6)
“Nothing in this Part shall prevent the Legislature of a State from making any provision for
reservation of seats in any Panchayat or offices of Chairpersonsin the Panchayats at any
level in favour of backward class of citizens.

6.
Ans. b
Sol.
Features:
o Integrated Approach: Works alongside flagship schemes like Jal Jeevan Mission, Samagra
Shiksha Abhiyan, and National Health Mission to deliver holistic solutions.
o Focus on Tribal Empowerment: Specifically targets Scheduled Tribes (ST) communities to
bridge the developmental gap.
o Use of Technology: Enhances access to digital services in tribal areas, including internet
connectivity for education and governance.
Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan
The Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan, also known as the Pradhan Mantri
Janjatiya Unnat Gram Abhiyan (PM-JUGA), is a government initiative aimed at improving
the socio-economic conditions of tribal communities in India. It seeks to bring holistic
development to tribal villages, focusing on addressing critical gaps in infrastructure,
education, healthcare, and livelihood opportunities.
Objectives:
1. Holistic Development of Tribal Villages:
o Improve socio-economic indicators and bring tribal areas in line with national
averages.
2. Pucca Housing and Basic Amenities:

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 o Provision of pucca houses for eligible tribal households under the PM Awaas
Yojana (Gramin).
o Ensure access to tapped water under the Jal Jeevan Mission and electricity
through the RDSS (Reforms-Based Distribution Sector Scheme).
3. Access to Quality Healthcare:
o Ensure tribal households are covered under the Ayushman Bharat PM Jan Arogya
Yojana (health insurance scheme).
o Establish health and wellness centers to provide comprehensive primary
healthcare.
4. Focus on Education:
o Aim to increase Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in school and higher education to
match national levels.
o Establish tribal hostels and improve educational facilities under the Samagra
Shiksha Abhiyan.
5. Infrastructure Development:
o Build all-weather road connectivity in tribal-majority villages under the PM Gram
Sadak Yojana.
o Provide mobile and internet connectivity through the BharatNet initiative.
o Develop health, nutrition, and education-related infrastructure. Hence, option (b)
is correct.

7.
Ans. c
Sol.
Context:
Union Cabinet approved health cover for senior citizens under the Ayushman Bharat
Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB PM-JAY).
Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB PM-JAY)
The Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB PM-JAY) is a flagship scheme
of the Government of India aimed at achieving Universal Health Coverage (UHC). It is the
largest government-funded healthcare program in the world, providing free medical coverage
to economically vulnerable populations.
It focusses on
1. Health Coverage:
o Provides a health cover of up to ₹5 lakh per family per year for secondary and
tertiary care hospitalization.
o Beneficiaries can access cashless treatment across empaneled public and
private hospitals.
2. Beneficiaries:
o Targets 10.74 crore poor and vulnerable families (approximately 50 crore
individuals) identified through the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) data.
o Includes both rural and urban households under specific deprivation and
occupational categories.
3.
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 4. Comprehensive Coverage:
o Covers almost all secondary and tertiary care procedures, including critical
illnesses like cancer, heart surgeries, and kidney transplants.
o Includes pre-hospitalization (3 days) and post-hospitalization (15 days)
expenses, covering diagnostics, medications, and follow-ups.
5. Ayushman Bharat Health and Wellness Centres (AB-HWCs):
o Aims to establish 1.5 lakh Health and Wellness Centres (HWCs) across India for
providing comprehensive primary healthcare.
o Services include maternal and child health, management of non-communicable
diseases, and basic diagnostic and therapeutic care.
o HWC’s are renamed as Ayushman Arogya Mandirs (AAMs).
o They are envisaged to deliver expanded range services, beyond Maternal and
child health care services, to include care for non -communicable diseases,
palliative and rehabilitative care, Oral, Eye and ENT care, mental health etc.
o Hence, option (c) is not correct. It does not exclusively focus on ENT.

8.
Ans. b
Sol.
Context:
Supreme Court penalised the possession and storage of Child Sexual Exploitation and Abuse
Material (CSEAM) under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act.

Statement 1 is correct: The POCSO Act, 2012 defines a ‘child’ as any person below the age
of 18 years. This definition ensures the protection of minors under the provisions of the Act.

Statement 2 is correct: The POCSO Act mandates that certain individuals (like medical
professionals, teachers, etc.) must report any instance of child sexual abuse they become
aware of. This helps in early intervention and protection of the child.

Statement 3 is not correct: While the POCSO Act provides for stringent punishments,
including life imprisonment, it did not initially prescribe the death penalty. The death penalty
was introduced as a possible punishment for aggravated sexual assault under the POCSO
Act in 2019 through an amendment.

9.
Ans. d
Sol.
Statement 1 is not correct.
As per Section 9A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, a person will not be
disqualified from contesting elections for being a manager or secretary of a company unless
the government holds 25% or more shares in the company. The 49% threshold mentioned in
the statement is irrelevant here because the disqualification applies when the government
holds 25% or more shares, not 49%.
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 Statement 2 is not correct.
As per Section 123(3) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, disrespecting the
national flag or other national symbols can lead to disqualification, but only if the candidate
is sentenced to imprisonment for the offense.
However, even without a sentence of imprisonment, if the candidate disrespects the national
flag, they can be disqualified from contesting elections, provided the offense is proven and
they are charged with it.

10.
Ans. b
Sol.
Statement 1 is correct.
The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act (2013) amended the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act
(1946) and made the changes like, The Central Government shall appoint the Director of CBI
on the recommendation of a three-member committee consisting of the Prime Minister as
Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and the Chief Justice of India or
Judge of the Supreme Court nominated by him.

Statement 2 is not correct and 3 is correct.

Jurisdiction includes only the entities receiving foreign donations over Rs 10 Lakhs per year
under the Foreign Contribution Regulation Act. The act has provisions for confiscation of
properties that are acquired by corrupt means, even while prosecution is pending.

Statement 4 is not correct.

The Lokpal cannot initiate an investigation on its own (suo moto) against any public servant.

11.
Ans. d
Sol.
Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Doctrine of Pith and Substance is used to determine the
true nature of a legislation and identify which list it belongs to (Central or State), particularly
when there is a conflict between Central and State laws. This doctrine ensures that legislative
powers are exercised within their constitutional boundaries.

Pair 2 is correctly matched: The Doctrine of Due Process of Law protects individuals from
laws that deprive them of life and personal liberty arbitrarily. It emphasizes that laws must
be both fair and reasonable, upholding the principles of justice and equality under the law.

Pair 3 is correctly matched: The Doctrine of Severability ensures that when a law is
partially inconsistent with the Constitution, only the invalid portion is struck down, while the
rest of the law remains effective. This prevents the entire law from being rendered void, thus
preserving the law's intent.

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 Pair 4 is correctly matched: The Doctrine of Eclipse holds that laws violating fundamental
rights are not automatically void but temporarily unenforceable. The law remains dormant
and can be revived once the constitutional issue is resolved, maintaining its potential
applicability.

12.
Ans. d
Sol.
o The Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 or PESA is a
law enacted by the Government of India for ensuring self-governance through traditional
Gram Sabha for people living in the Scheduled Areas of India.
o Scheduled Areas are areas identified by the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India
(Not Schedule VI areas). Scheduled Areas are found in ten states of India which have
predominant population of tribal communities. It benefits not only the majority of tribals
but also extended to cover minority non-tribal communities Hence, option (d) is not
correct.

13.
Ans. b
Sol.
Statement 1 is incorrect:
o Constitution of India does not mandate a uniform structure of governance for Urban
Local Bodies (ULBs). Instead, it provides a framework under the 74th Constitutional
Amendment Act, 1992, which allows states the flexibility to establish ULBs based on
their specific needs, population size, and geographic factors. Article 243Q outlines the
classification of ULBs into three categories: Municipal Corporations for large urban
areas, Municipal Councils for smaller urban areas, and Nagar Panchayats for
transitional areas moving from rural to urban. This classification demonstrates that
states can tailor the governance structure of ULBs to suit their local contexts, and
there is no requirement for uniformity across all states.
Statement 2 is correct:
o The Election Commission of India (ECI) plays no role in the conduct of elections to
Urban Local Bodies. Instead, Article 243K mandates the State Election Commission
(SEC) to oversee and conduct elections to ULBs and Panchayati Raj Institutions.
However, the Finance Commission of India, established under Article 280, does play
an indirect role in ULB finances by recommending the distribution of funds between
the Union and the states. Furthermore, Article 243I provides for the establishment of
a State Finance Commission, which specifically recommends the devolution of funds
to ULBs and Panchayati Raj Institutions. Hence, while the ECI has no involvement,
the Finance Commission does have an important role in financial devolution.
Statement 3 is correct:
o Article 243X empowers Urban Local Bodies to levy and collect taxes, duties, tolls, and
fees to generate their own revenue. However, their financial autonomy is often

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 curtailed by limitations imposed by state governments through state legislation. States
can regulate the extent of ULBs’ taxation powers and control their ability to generate
and utilize funds independently. This makes their financial autonomy conditional and
subject to state-level policies and administrative controls.

14.
Ans. c
Sol.
Explanation
o The local government structure goes right up to the district level. A few gram
panchayats are grouped together to form what is usually called a panchayat samiti or
block or mandal.
Statement 1 is correct.
o The members of this representative body are elected by all the panchyat members in
that area. All the panchayat samitis or mandals in a district together constitute the
zilla (district) parishad. Most members of the zilla parishad are elected.
Statement 2 is correct
o Members of the Lok Sabha and MLAs of that district and some other officials of other
district level bodies are also its members. Zilla parishad chairperson is the political
head of the zilla parishad. Similarly, local government bodies exist for urban areas as
well.Both municipalities and municipal corporations are controlled by elected bodies
consisting of people’s representatives.

15.
Ans. a
Sol.
Statement 1 is correct: Judicial review is the judiciary's power to examine the
constitutionality of legislative and executive actions. Article 137 grants the Supreme Court
the power to review its own judgments.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Judicial overreach, however, refers to the judiciary stepping
beyond its authority and interfering with the functions of the legislature or executive.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Judicial restraint, on the other hand, is the approach where the
judiciary refrains from interfering with legislative or executive actions and limits its role to
interpreting laws.
Additional Information:
Judicial Activism: This often emerges in situations where the judiciary steps in to address
issues of public interest, especially when legislative or executive authorities fail to act. A
prominent example is the Vishaka Guidelines issued to protect women from workplace
sexual harassment.
Judicial Review: This is a critical power of the judiciary, especially in a constitutional
democracy like India. It ensures that laws and executive actions comply with the
Constitution.

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 Judicial Overreach: While judicial activism can be seen as necessary to uphold justice,
judicial overreach occurs when courts extend their authority beyond their constitutional
mandate, often creating tension between the judiciary and other branches of government.

16.
Ans. B
Sol.
Statement 1 is not correct.
o The Gram Sabha would comprise all the adult members registered as voters in the
Panchayat area. Its role and functions are decided by State legislation.
Statement 2 is correct
o The State Election Commissioner is an independent officer and is not linked to nor is
this officer under the control of the Election Commission of India.

17.
Ans. b
Sol.
Statement 1 is not correct.
The Administrative Tribunals Act of 1985 empowers the Central government to establish
State Administrative Tribunals at the specific request of the concerned state governments.
Like the CAT, the SATs exercise original jurisdiction in relation to recruitment and all service
matters of state government employees.

Statement 2 is correct.
There shall be a selection committee of the concerned state government for the purpose of
selection of members of the concerned SAT. The chairman and members of the SATs are
appointed by the President after consultation with the Governor of the state concerned.

18.
Ans. b
Sol.
Context:
Recently, Prime Minister felicitated 11 lakh new 'Lakhpati Didis' in a function organised at
Jalgaon in Maharashtra.
o The Lakhpati Didi Initiative is a government-led program under the Ministry of Rural
Development, aimed at empowering rural women associated with Self-Help Groups
(SHGs). The primary goal is to increase the annual income of women to at least ₹1 lakh by
promoting sustainable livelihood activities such as agriculture, livestock rearing, and
small-scale enterprises.
The initiative focuses on:
o Income Enhancement: Enabling rural women to achieve economic independence by
leveraging local resources and entrepreneurial opportunities.
o Skill Development: Training women in business management and technical skills to boost
productivity and profitability. Hence, option (b) is correct.
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19.
Ans. c
Sol.
o NPS Vatsalya is a government-backed pension scheme in India designed specifically
for minors (children under 18 years old). It's a way for parents or guardians to invest
in their child's future financial security. Here's a breakdown:
Key Features:
o Purpose: To encourage saving for the long term, giving children a head start on their
retirement planning.
o Eligibility: Any Indian citizen under 18 years old.

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 o Account Opening: A parent or legal guardian opens and manages the account on
behalf of the minor.
o Contributions: The minimum contribution is ₹1,000 per year, and there's no
maximum limit.
o Investment Options: Similar to regular NPS, with choices in equity, corporate bonds,
and government securities.
o Maturity: The child gains control of the account at 18. They can then choose to
withdraw the funds or continue investing under a regular NPS account.
Benefits:
o Financial Security: Provides a foundation for the child's financial future, especially for
retirement.
o Disciplined Saving: Inculcates the habit of saving from a young age.
o Flexibility: Offers various investment options and withdrawal flexibility after the child
turns 18.
o Tax Benefits: Contributions can qualify for tax deductions under certain sections of
the Income Tax Act.

How it Works:
1. Account Opening: The parent/guardian opens an NPS Vatsalya account with a Point
of Presence (PoP) like a bank.
2. Contributions: They contribute regularly to the account.
3. Investment: The funds are invested in market-linked instruments as per the chosen
investment option.
4. Maturity: At 18, the child takes control, converting it to a regular NPS account and
deciding how to manage the corpus.
In essence, NPS Vatsalya is a powerful tool for parents and guardians to secure their child's
financial well-being, fostering financial responsibility and providing a strong foundation for
their future. Hence, option (c) is correct.

20.
Ans. a
Sol.

India overtook China in the MSCI Emerging Markets Index.

o In September 2024, India surpassed China in the MSCI Emerging Markets Investable
Market Index (EM IMI), which includes large, mid, and small-cap companies. India's
weight stood at 22.27%, compared to China's 21.58%. This means that Indian equities
now have a larger weighting in the index than Chinese equities. This happened for the
first time in history and reflects India's growing economic strength and the challenges
China is facing.
o The MSCI India Index, designed to measure the performance of large and mid-cap
segments of the Indian market, comprises 156 constituents and covers approximately
85% of the Indian equity universe. Hence, option (a) is correct.
About:
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 o The MSCI Emerging Markets Index is published by MSCI Inc. (formerly known as
Morgan Stanley Capital International), a leading provider of global equity indexes,
analytics, and portfolio construction tools for institutional investors.

21.
Ans. d
Sol.
The Constitution of India (Article 148) provides for an independent office of the Comptroller
and Auditor General of India (CAG). He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts
Department. He is the guardian of the public purse and controls the entire financial system
of the country at both levels the Centre and the State. Hence, option (d) is the correct
answer.

22.
Ans. d
Sol.
Under the provisions of the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968:
o If a motion for the removal of a Supreme Court or High Court Judge is admitted, the
Speaker of the Lok Sabha or the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha must constitute a
three-member committee to investigate the charges.
o The committee must include the following:
o The Chief Justice or a Judge of the Supreme Court.
o The Chief Justice of a High Court.
o A Distinguished Jurist. Hence, option (d) is correct.
Additional Information:
The Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, provides the procedural framework for investigating and
presenting evidence during the impeachment process of a Judge.

23.
Ans. d
Sol.
Statement 1 is incorrect:
From 1950 to 1973, the convention was to appoint the senior-most judge of the Supreme
Court as the Chief Justice of India. However, this practice was broken in 1973 when A.N. Ray
was appointed as Chief Justice, superseding three senior judges. While the Supreme Court in
the Second Judges Case (1993) emphasized the importance of seniority, no constitutional
amendment mandates that the senior-most judge must always be appointed as Chief Justice.

Statement 2 is incorrect:

There have been instances where judges were appointed as Chief Justice of India by
superseding the senior-most judge. Notable examples include:
A.N. Ray (1973): Appointed as Chief Justice, superseding three senior judges.
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 M.U. Beg (1977): Appointed as Chief Justice, superseding the then senior-most judge.
Additional Information:
Articles 124(2) and 217 of the Constitution govern the appointment of judges to the Supreme
Court and High Courts, including the Chief Justice of India.
The convention of seniority is based on tradition and judicial precedent, not constitutional
provisions.

24.
Ans. b
Sol.
Statement 1 is correct: While the Constitution does not explicitly mention the term
"impeachment," it refers to the procedure for removing judges from the Supreme Court
(under Article 124) and High Courts (under Article 218), which is commonly known as
impeachment.

Statement 2 is correct: According to Article 124(4) of the Indian Constitution, a judge of the
Supreme Court can only be removed through a presidential order, but such an order can
only be made after an address in each House of Parliament. The address must be supported
by a special majority, which includes not just a two-thirds majority of members present and
voting, but also a majority of the total membership of each House.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Judges (Inquiry) Act of 1968 does not mandate prior written
consent from the Chief Justice of India to begin impeachment proceedings against High
Court judges. The Act outlines the process for the inquiry, but consent is not a requirement
for initiating the impeachment motion in Parliament.

25.
Ans. b
Sol.
Statement 1 is correct.
Judges of the Supreme Court are prohibited from practicing law after their retirement. This
ensures that judges cannot be influenced by future professional interests and preserves their
impartiality. However, they may assume other constitutional offices, such as the President or
Governor, if they wish.

Statement 2 is incorrect.
While the senior-most judge is typically appointed as the Chief Justice of India, this process
is not explicitly stated in the Constitution. The practice has developed as a convention rather
than a constitutional mandate.

Statement 3 is incorrect.

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 The Constitution ensures that Parliament cannot reduce the jurisdiction of the Supreme
Court. Under Article 138, Parliament can increase the jurisdiction but cannot limit or curtail
it, thereby ensuring the Court’s independence in its judicial functions.

Statement 4 is correct.
The salaries, allowances, pensions of the Supreme Court judges, and the Court's
administrative expenses are paid from the Consolidated Fund of India. This provision
ensures the financial autonomy of the Court, protecting it from external financial pressures.
Additional Information:
o These safeguards are critical to maintaining the judiciary's independence and
ensuring that justice is administered fairly, without interference from the executive
or legislative branches.

26.
Ans. a
Sol.
The CAT exercises original jurisdiction in relation to recruitment and all service matters of
public servants covered by it. Its jurisdiction extends to the all-India services, the Central
civil services, civil posts under the Centre and civilian employees of defence services.
However, the members of the defence forces, officers and servants of the Supreme
Court and the secretarial staff of the Parliament are not covered by it.
Hence, option (a) is correct

27.
Ans. b
Sol.
Statement 1 is correct The constitutional provisions dealing with the language of the courts
and legislation are as follows:
1. Until Parliament provides otherwise, the following are to be in the English language only:
(a) All proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every high court.
(b) The authoritative texts of all bills, acts, ordinances, orders, rules, regulations and bye-
laws at the Central
and state levels.
Statement 2 is correct The president should appoint a special officer for linguistic
minorities to investigate all matters relating to the
constitutional safeguards for linguistic minorities and to report to him. The president should
place all such reports before the Parliament and send to the state government concerned.
Statement 3 is not correct The Constitution does not specify the official language of
different states. In this regard, it makes the following provisions:
"The legislature of a state may adopt any one or more of the languages in use in the state or
Hindi as the official
language of that state. Until that is done, English is to continue as official language of that
state".
Hence, option (b) is correct.
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28.
Ans. b
Sol.
The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) is the nodal ministry for all matters of union territories
(UTs) relating to legislation, finance and budget, services, and appointment of lieutenant
governors and administrators under the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules,
1961. Hence, option (b) is correct.

29.
Ans. a
Sol.
Cantonment Board:
Statement 1 is correct
Functioning as autonomous bodies under the supervision of the Ministry of
Defence, Cantonment Boards were established by the Central Government through
the Cantonment Act of 2006.
o This partially elected and partly nominated body has its ex-officio President as the
military officer commanding the station.
o The Vice-President is selected from elected members, and the executive officer is
appointed by the President of India.
o Elected members serve a five-year term, while nominated members continue as long as
they hold their office in that station.
o Currently, there are 62 Cantonment Boards in the country, with limited resources due
to government-owned property on which no taxes can be imposed.
Statement 2 is not correct
o Financial assistance, in the form of grants-in-aid, is provided by the Central Government.
The boards are tasked with mandatory duties, including public health, sanitation,
primary education, and street lighting.
30.
Ans. d
Sol.
The right to vote is a constitutional right under Article 326 of the Constitution.
Statement 1 is correct.
Under Section 62(5) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, individuals in the lawful
custody of the police and those serving a sentence of imprisonment after conviction cannot
vote. Undertrial prisoners are also excluded from participating in elections even if their
names are on the electoral rolls.
Statement 2 is correct.
A person under preventive detention (who is detained without trial, usually for national
security reasons) still has the right to vote in elections, provided they are not convicted and
sentenced to more than two years of imprisonment. Preventive detention does not affect a
person’s eligibility to vote.
Statement 3 is correct.

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 A person’s name is not removed from the electoral roll just because they are imprisoned,
unless they are disqualified for reasons like conviction for certain offenses or being of
unsound mind. Imprisonment does not impact their electoral rights unless they are
sentenced to a term of over two years.

31.
Ans. b
Sol.
Statement 1 is not correct.
The Central Government appoints the National Commission for Women to exercise the
powers conferred on, and to perform the functions assigned to, it under this Act. The
Commission shall consist of a Chairperson, committed to the cause of women, to be
nominated by the Central Government (there is no mention of NCW to be headed by a woman
chairperson only);
Statement 2 is correct.
A Chairperson, committed to the cause of women, to be nominated by the Central
Government (MoW&CD). Five Members to be nominated by the Ministry from amongst
persons of ability, integrity, and standing who have had experience in law or legislation, trade
unionism, management of an industry potential of women, women’s voluntary organizations
(including women activists), administration, economic development, health, education or
social welfare. Provided that at least one Member each shall be from amongst persons
belonging to the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes respectively.

Statement 3 is correct.
National Commission for Women is empowered to look into complaints and take suo moto
notice of matters relating to deprivation of women’s rights, non-implementation of laws
enacted to protect women and also to achieve the objective of equality and development, and
ensuring welfare and providing relief to women, and take up the issues arising out of such
matters with appropriate authorities.
32.
Ans. b
Sol.
Statement 1 is not correct.
The Constitution of India does not explicitly provide for postal ballots. Instead, the provision
for postal ballots is found under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, and the Conduct
of Election Rules framed by the Election Commission.
Postal ballots are provided for certain categories of voters such as service voters (armed
forces, government employees posted abroad, etc.) or voters who are unable to attend the
polling stations due to specific reasons.
Statement 2 is correct.
Postal ballots are issued in advance of the actual polling day. This allows individuals who
cannot be present at polling stations, such as service voters (e.g., military personnel,
government employees posted abroad, or people in detention), to cast their vote remotely
before the designated election date.
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 Statement 3 is correct.

According to the Election Commission's rules, once a voter has received and cast a postal
ballot, they are not allowed to vote in person at the polling station. This is to avoid double
voting.
If a postal ballot is cast, it is considered the voter’s official vote for the election, and they are
excluded from voting at the polling booth.

33.
Ans. d
Sol.
Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court (Article 143):
The Constitution allows the President to seek the opinion of the Supreme Court:
On any question of law or fact of public importance that has arisen or is likely to arise in the
future. In this case, the Supreme Court has the discretion to either tender or refuse to tender
its opinion.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Court is not obligated to provide its opinion on all matters
but retains the right to decide whether to respond in such cases.

Statement 2 is incorrect:
The Supreme Court's advisory opinions are not legally binding and do not carry the status of
judicial pronouncements. They are meant only to advise the executive branch and are not
enforceable in the same manner as court judgments.

Statement 3 is incorrect:
The President has the authority to seek the Supreme Court's opinion on both questions of
law and questions of fact of public importance and is not restricted to legal questions alone.

Additional Information:
o The advisory role under Article 143 emphasizes the consultative relationship between
the judiciary and the executive.
o While the Court’s opinion is not binding, it carries significant moral and political
weight due to the Supreme Court’s authority and credibility.

34.
Ans. c
Sol.
Context: 10 years of Make in India.
Some points about Make in India:
Launched in September 2014, "Make in India" is a flagship initiative by the Government of
India aimed at transforming the country into a global manufacturing hub, boosting
employment, and enhancing economic growth. The program seeks to attract investments,
foster innovation, and enhance skills to promote manufacturing across 25 key sectors.
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 Achievements of Make in India
Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
1. FDI Growth:
o India became a top FDI destination, with inflows surpassing $500 billion (2014–
2024).
o Liberalized FDI norms in defense, insurance, and railways boosted investments.
2. Defense Manufacturing:
o Defense exports grew from ₹1,500 crores in 2014 to ₹16,000 crores in 2022-23.
o Key projects: Tejas jets, INS Vikrant, and global partnerships.
3. Infrastructure Development:
o Industrial corridors like DMIC and smart cities enhanced manufacturing
capacity.
4. Job Creation:
o Significant employment growth in electronics, textiles, and MSMEs.
5. Sectoral Success:
o India became the 2nd largest mobile phone manufacturer and a key player in
automobiles and renewable energy.
6. Ease of Doing Business:
o India rose from 142nd (2014) to 63rd (2019) in global rankings.
Limitations and Challenges
1. Statement 2 is not correct. Unmet Manufacturing Target: Contribution to GDP
remains at 16-17%, below the 25% target.
2. Insufficient Job Creation: Growth concentrated in low-wage or informal sectors.
3. Regulatory Hurdles: Issues like land acquisition and red tape deter investments.
4. Import Dependency: Heavy reliance on imports for semiconductors and defense.
5. Low Private Investment: Domestic demand constraints limit private sector growth.
6. Global Competition: Rival nations like Vietnam and China offer better cost advantages.
7. Pandemic Impact: COVID-19 disrupted supply chains and slowed manufacturing
progress.
35.
Ans. d
Sol.
Context:
o Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) introduced new regulations permitting
mutual funds to both purchase and sell Credit Default Swaps (CDS). This initiative aims
to enhance liquidity in the corporate bond market and provide mutual funds with
additional tools for risk management.
About CDS:
o A CDS is not an equity-based derivative. CDS contracts are credit-based derivatives,
meaning they are based on the credit risk of an underlying debt instrument (such as
bonds or loans). Equity derivatives, on the other hand, are based on the price movements
of stock or equity instruments. CDSs do not directly involve equities; they are used to
manage credit risk related to debt securities Hence, option d is incorrect.

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 o A Credit Default Swap (CDS) is a type of financial derivative that allows one party (the
buyer) to purchase protection against the risk of default on a debt instrument, such as a
bond or loan, issued by a third party (the reference entity). The other party (the seller)
agrees to compensate the buyer in case the reference entity defaults. Hence, option (d) is
correct.

36.
Ans. c
Sol.

Context:
o The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) has lauded India’s efforts to implement measures
to tackle illicit finance including money laundering and terror funding. A joint FATF-APG-
EAG assessment has concluded that India has implemented an anti-money laundering
and counter-terrorist financing (AML/CFT) framework that is achieving good results.
Authorities make good use of financial intelligence and co-operate effectively, both
domestically and internationally.
o Following the assessment, India has been placed in “regular follow-up” which is the
highest rating category by FATF. UK, France and Italy are among the only G-20 countries
which have been placed in this category apart from India, he disclosed.

Statement 1 is correct:
o The FATF was established in 1989 by the G7 nations to create international standards for
combating money laundering (AML) and the financing of terrorism (CFT).

Statement 2 is not correct:

o FATF does not have the authority to impose economic sanctions on countries. Instead, it
encourages member countries to impose sanctions or other measures on non-compliant
countries. FATF's influence is largely through public listings (gray and black lists), which
can damage a country’s reputation but does not involve direct economic sanctions.
Statement 3 is correct:
o FATF maintains a "gray list" for countries that are under increased monitoring due to
deficiencies in their AML/CFT frameworks. The "black list" is for countries with serious
deficiencies and insufficient progress in addressing these gaps.

37.
Ans. a
Sol.
Statement 1 is not correct.
Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI) is a statutory body functions under Ministry of
Fisheries, Animal Husbandry & Dairying. An advisory body advising the Government of India
on animal welfare laws, and promotes animal welfare in the country of India. The Animal
Welfare Board of India was established in 1962 under Section 4 of The Prevention of Cruelty
to Animals Act, 1960. The Board consists of 28 Members, who serve for a period of 3 years.
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Statement 2 is correct.
It works to ensure that animal welfare laws in the country are followed and provides grants
to Animal Welfare Organisations. And it also takes care of the welfare of domesticated and
wild animals in captivity.

Statement 3 is not correct.

The Wild Life (Protection) Act was amended in 1991, adding a new chapter dealing with zoos
to the Act and allowing the Central Government to establish the Central Zoo Authority to
oversee the functioning and development of zoos in the country.

38.
Ans. c
Sol.
Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution provides general provisions for Union Territories,
but does not have specific provisions for territories acquired after Independence. Acquisition
of territories, if any, is governed by specific legislation or acts passed by Parliament.
Statement 2 is correct: When territories are acquired, the general provisions for Union
Territories under Articles 239 to 241 of the Constitution apply, unless specific provisions are
made through separate laws.

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 Statement 3 is correct: Under Article 1 of the Constitution, the territory of India comprises
three categories of territories: (a) territories of the states; (b) union territories; and (c)
territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any time. At present, there are
twenty-eight states, eight union territories and no acquired territories.

39.
Ans. a
Sol.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Gram Nyayalayas were created under the Gram Nyayalaya Act,
2008, not the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. The Act aims to provide easy and
accessible justice at the rural level through mobile courts.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Gram Nyayalayas have the authority to adjudicate both civil
and criminal cases within their jurisdiction as outlined in the First and Second schedules of
the Act. They can address rural and minor criminal cases.

Statement 3 is correct: The Gram Nyayalayas are guided by the principles of natural
justice. While they are not bound by the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, they ensure fairness
in their proceedings through these principles.
Additional Information:
o Gram Nyayalayas were designed to improve access to justice in rural and remote
areas, allowing for a more inclusive judicial process.
o They operate as mobile courts and focus on resolving minor disputes efficiently,
enhancing justice delivery at the local level.

40.
Ans. c
Sol
Statement 1 is correct.
As per Article 316 of the Constitution, the Chairman of a State Public Service Commission
(SPSC) is eligible for appointment as the Chairman or a member of the Union Public Service
Commission (UPSC) or as the Chairman of another SPSC.
However, the Chairman of UPSC is not eligible for further employment either under the
Government of India or under the government of any state

Statement 2 is correct.
Under Article 316, the chairman and other members of SPSCs are appointed by the Governor
of the respective states.

Statement 3 is correct.
Although appointed by the Governors, The Chairman or any other member of SPSC
shall only be removed from his/her office by order of the President of India. And The
Governor of the state shall suspend the Chairman or any other member from his/her office.
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41.
Ans. b
Sol.
Lakshadweep Islands:
o Established as a Union Territory in 1956 following the States Reorganization Act,
1956.
Chandigarh:
o Created as a Union Territory in 1966 when Punjab was reorganized, and Haryana was
carved out.
Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu:
o Initially, Dadra and Nagar Haveli became a Union Territory in 1961 after liberation
from Portuguese rule.
o Daman and Diu were established as Union Territories in 1987 after Goa attained
statehood.
o Both were merged into a single Union Territory in 2020.
Ladakh:
o Became a Union Territory on October 31, 2019, after the bifurcation of Jammu and
Kashmir under the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganization Act, 2019.

42.
Ans. b
Sol.

Statement 1 is correct.
The Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment,
Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Bill, 2023 was enacted in December 2023. It
replaces the Election Commission (Conditions of Service of Election Commissioners and
Transaction of Business) Act, 1991.It provides for the appointment, salary, and removal of
the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and Election Commissioners (ECs). According to the
act, The CEC and ECs will be appointed by the President upon the recommendation of a
Selection Committee consist of the Prime Minister, a Union Cabinet Minister, and Leader of
Opposition/leader of the largest opposition party in Lok Sabha.

Statement 2 is correct
Constitution provided in Art 324 (5) : “Provided that the Chief Election Commissioner
shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on the like grounds as a
Judge of the Supreme Court, and the conditions of service of the Chief Election
Commissioner shall not be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment.". The Chief
Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of
Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023 does provide for the removal in line with that of article
324. Hence, Statement 2 is not the right explanation for Statement-I.

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43.
Ans. c
Sol.
Statement 1 is correct:
o As per Article 239 of the Constitution, Union Territories without a legislature
are administered by the President through an Administrator appointed by
him/her.
o The Administrator functions as the President's agent and does not enjoy the
constitutional status or powers of a Governor, who is the head of a state.
Statement 2 is correct:
o Under Article 239(2), the President can appoint the Governor of a state as the
Administrator of an adjacent Union Territory.
o In such a scenario, the Governor acts independently of the state's Council of
Ministers for matters related to the Union Territory.
Statement 3 is correct:
o As per Article 240, the President has the authority to make regulations for the peace,
progress, and good governance of specific Union Territories, including:
o Andaman and Nicobar Islands
o Lakshadweep
o Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu
o Puducherry (with limitations based on its legislature)
o The President cannot make such regulations for Union Territories that have
functional legislatures under Article 239A or 239AA (e.g., Delhi and Puducherry
during the functioning of their legislatures).
o Thus, the power to make regulations is applicable only to certain Union Territories
and not all.

44.
Ans. b
Sol.
Article 312 makes the following provisions in respect of all-India services:
(a) The Parliament can create new all India services (including an all-India judicial service), if
the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution declaring that it is necessary or expedient in the
national interest to do so.
Such a resolution in the Rajya Sabha should be supported by two-thirds of the members
present and voting. This power of recommendation is given to the Rajya Sabha to protect the
interests of states in the Indian federal system.
Thereafter, Parliament has to enact a law creating the AIS.
This means no constitutional amendment will be required for establishment of a All India
Service. So neither ratification of states nor Prior consent of President is required to
pass Such a resolution.
Hence, option (b) is correct

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45.
Ans. d
Sol.
1. Succession
All property and assets that were vested in the Dominion of India or a province or an Indian
princely state, before the commencement of the present Constitution, became vested in the
Union or the corresponding state. Similarly, all rights, liabilities and obligations of the
government of the dominion of India or a province or an Indian state would now be the
rights, liabilities and obligations of the Government of India or the corresponding state.

2. Escheat, Lapse and Bona Vacantia

Any property in India that would have accrued to King of England or ruler of Indian state
(princely) by escheat (death of a person inter-state without any heir), lapse (termination of
rights through disuse or failure to follow appropriate procedures) or bona vacantia (property
found without any owner) for want of a rightful owner, would now vest in the state if the
property is situated there, and in the Union, in any other case. In all these three cases, the
property accrues to the government as there is no rightful owner (claimant).

3. Sea-Wealth
All lands, minerals and other things of value under the waters of the ocean within the
territorial waters of India, the continental shelf of India and the exclusive economic zone of
India vests in the Union. Hence, a state near the ocean cannot claim jurisdiction over these
things.

All property and assets that were vested in Indian Princely states will be vested in the
respective State Executive.

Hence option (d) is correct.

46.
Ans. b
Sol.
Statement 1 is not correct.
o Three-Tier System The act provides for a three-tier system of village in every state, that
is, panchayats at the village, intermediate, and district levels. Thus, the act brings
about uniformity in the structure of panchayati raj throughout the country. However,
a state having a population not exceeding 20 lakh may not constitute panchayats at
the intermediate level.

Statement 2 is correct.
o Method of Election of Chairperson: The chairperson of a panchayat at the village level
shall be elected in such manner as the state legislature determines.

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47.
Ans. c
Sol.
Statement 1 is correct: The Chairman of the Permanent Lok Adalat must be either a
District Judge, an Additional District Judge, or someone who has held a judicial office of a
rank higher than a District Judge. The Chairman plays a crucial role in resolving disputes,
particularly those concerning public utility services.

Statement 2 is correct: Every award made by the Permanent Lok Adalat is final and
binding on all parties involved in the dispute. The decision is made by the majority of the
panel, ensuring that it is enforceable without further legal recourse.
Statement 3 is correct: The Permanent Lok Adalat does not have jurisdiction over matters
that involve offences not compoundable under the law. This restriction is in place because
the body is focused on resolving civil disputes, particularly those related to public utility
services.
Additional Information:
o The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, was amended in 2002 to establish
Permanent Lok Adalats to expedite dispute resolution in cases concerning public
utility services like water, electricity, transportation, etc.
o Before a dispute reaches any court, a party can approach the Permanent Lok Adalat
for settlement.

48.
Ans. b
Sol.
Removal of Judges
A Judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from office by an order of the President of
India. This removal process requires an address passed by both Houses of Parliament in the
same session, based on the grounds specified.

Grounds of Removal:
The Constitution permits the removal of a Judge only on two specific grounds:
o Proved Misbehaviour: This involves actions or conduct unbecoming of a Judge,
undermining the integrity or impartiality of the judiciary.
o Incapacity: This refers to a physical or mental condition rendering the Judge incapable of
performing judicial functions.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
Grounds such as "unsound mind" or "holding an office of profit" are not specified for the
removal of Judges under the Constitution.

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49.
Ans. c
Sol.
o Statement 1 is correct: Transgender persons are recognized as a vulnerable group,
the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 does provide legal aid to transgender
individuals.
o Statement 2 is correct: Victims of ethnic violence or caste-based atrocities are
entitled to receive free legal aid under the Act.
o Statement 3 is correct: Mentally ill or otherwise disabled individuals are eligible for
legal aid under the provisions of the Act.
o Statement 4 is incorrect: The Act provides legal aid only to industrial workers, not
all workers in services or other sectors.
o Statement 5 is correct: Women and children below the age of 18 are entitled to free
legal aid, regardless of their financial condition.
o Statement 6 is correct: Victims of human trafficking are also entitled to receive legal
services under the Act.
Additional Information:
o The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 was enacted to fulfill the constitutional
directive of Article 39A, which mandates free legal services for people who are unable
to afford them.
o The key objectives of the Act include providing free legal aid and advice, spreading
legal awareness, organizing Lok Adalats for alternative dispute resolution (ADR), and
compensating victims of crimes. It also works to promote fair and accessible justice for
marginalized groups.

50.
Ans. b
Sol.
Statement 1 is not correct.
The Constitution has not prescribed the qualifications (legal, educational, administrative or
judicial) of the members of the Election Commission. The Constitution has not specified the
term of the members of the Election Commission.

Statement 2 is correct.
Originally the commission had only one election commissioner but after the Election
Commissioner Amendment Act 1989, it was made a multi-member body. For the first time
two additional Commissioners were appointed on 16th October 1989 but they had a very
short tenure till 1st January 1990. Later, on 1st October 1993 two additional Election
Commissioners were appointed. The concept of multi-member Commission has been in
operation since then, with decision making power by majority vote.

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 Statement 3 is not correct.
The President appoints CEC and Election Commissioners as per the CEC and Other ECs
(Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023. And parliament has
no role to play in appointment of CEC and Election Commissioners.

51.
Ans. c
Sol.
Statement 1 is incorrect:
Judicial review does not ensure judicial supremacy, but rather constitutional
supremacy. Judicial review empowers the judiciary, particularly the Supreme Court and
High Courts, to examine laws or executive actions and strike them down if they violate
constitutional provisions. This serves to protect the Constitution's supremacy over any other
form of governance.

Statement 2 is correct:
Judicial review plays a key role in maintaining the federal character of the Indian
Constitution. Through this power, the judiciary ensures that laws passed by the central
government do not infringe upon the federal structure, particularly if they violate the
autonomy of states or their rights under the Constitution.

Statement 3 is correct:
Judicial review also applies to executive actions, including ordinances issued by the
President and Governors. For instance, in the DC Wadhwa v. State of Bihar case (1986), the
Supreme Court ruled that the re-promulgation of ordinances without legislative approval is
unconstitutional. Furthermore, in the Krishna Kumar Singh & Anr v. State of Bihar & Ors
(2017) case, the Court reaffirmed that the power of the President and Governors to issue
ordinances is subject to judicial review.
Additional Information:
o Judicial review serves as a crucial mechanism to ensure that laws and executive
actions align with the fundamental principles of the Constitution, thus preserving the
rule of law and constitutional governance in India.

52.
Ans. c
Sol.
Statement 1 is correct:
o The unemployment rate (UR) for persons aged 15 years and above has shown a
consistent decline over the past five years. The unemployment rate was 4.8% in 2019-
20, decreased to 4.2% in 2020-21, further dropped to 4.1% in 2021-22, and reached
3.2% in 2022-23, remaining the same at 3.2% in 2023-24. This steady reduction
indicates an improving job market and reflects the positive impact of various economic
recovery measures.

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 Statement 2 is correct:
o The Female Labor Force Participation Rate (LFPR) for those aged 15 years and above
has consistently increased over the last five years. It rose from 30.0% in 2019-20 to
32.5% in 2020-21, 32.8% in 2021-22, 37.0% in 2022-23, and reached 41.7% in
2023-24. In rural areas, the LFPR showed significant improvement, rising from 50.7%
in 2017-18 to 63.7% in 2023-24, demonstrating the enhanced participation of
women in rural labor markets, particularly in informal and agricultural sectors.
Statement 3 is correct:
o The overall Labor Force Participation Rate (LFPR) for persons aged 15 years and above
in 2023-24 was higher in rural areas (63.7%) compared to urban areas (52.0%). This
trend is consistent for both males and females, with rural areas offering more
opportunities in agriculture and informal sectors, contributing to higher participation
rates.
Refer for images and infographics:
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2057970

53.
Ans. c
Sol.
Context
T.V. Somanathan has been appointed Cabinet Secretary of India following the
superannuation of incumbent, Mr. Rajiv Gauba.

OFFICE OF CABINET SECRETARIAT

o Office of Cabinet Secretariat was created in 1947.
o It is headed politically by the Prime Minister and administratively by the Cabinet
Secretary
o Cabinet Secretariat has three wings – Civil Wing, Military Wing and Intelligence Wing.
o Enjoys status of a department of the Government of India under Allocation of
Business Rules, 1961
o Cabinet Secretariat has subject related advisors to the Prime Minister
The functions of the Cabinet Secretariat include
o Providing secretarial assistance to the cabinet and its committees.
o Facilitating smooth transaction of government in ministries as per rules.
o Ensuring inter-ministerial coordination.
o Providing a monthly summary of government activities to the President, Vice
President, and Ministers.
o Assisting ministers in their parliamentary and policy-making functions.
o Framing rules, principles of procedure, and legislation.
o Contributing to program formulation and secretarial planning.
Hence, all statements are correct.

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54.
Ans. b
Sol.
Context
A 9-Judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court in the Mineral Area Development
Authority (MADA) vs SAIL declared that royalty imposed on mining is not a tax. Thus, the
court overruled its own seven judge bench judgment in the India Cements vs State of Tamil
Nadu judgement (1989), which ruled that royalty are a tax.
According to Mineral Area Development Authority (MADA) vs SAIL case
Statement 1 is not correct.
o Royalty is not a tax but a contractual consideration paid by the mining lessee for
enjoyment of mineral rights.
Statement 3 is correct.
o Legislative power to tax mineral rights vests with the State legislatures. Parliament
does not have legislative competence to tax mineral rights under Entry 54 of Union
List, since this is a general entry. States have the legislative competence
o The Supreme Court has ruled that states have the legislative competence to levy
taxes on minerals and mineral-bearing lands in addition to the royalty imposed by
the Centre.
o Power to tax mineral rights is expressly enumerated in Entry 50 of State List,
therefore, Parliament cannot use its residuary powers in this matter.
Statement 2 is correct.
o Entry 54 of Union List: Regulation of mines and mineral development to the extent
to which such regulation and development under the control of the Union is
declared by Parliament by law to be expedient in the public interest.
o Entry 23 of State List: Regulation of mines and mineral development subject to the
provisions of Union List with respect to regulation and development under the
control of the Union.
o Entry 50 of State List: Taxes on mineral rights subject to any limitations imposed
by Parliament by law relating to mineral development.

55.
Ans. c
Sol.
Statement 1 is correct.
Duration of Panchayats
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 provides for a five-year term of office to
the Panchayat at every level from the date of its first meeting.
However, it can be dissolved before the completion of its term.
Fresh elections to constitute a Panchayat shall be completed:
o before the expiry of its duration of five years,
o in case of dissolution, before the expiry of a period of six months from the date of its
dissolution.

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 o It is to be noted that, where the remainder of the period (for which the dissolved
Panchayat would have continued) is less than six months, it shall not be necessary to
hold any election for constituting the new Panchayat for such a period.
o Moreover, a Panchayat constituted upon the dissolution of a Panchayat before the
expiration of its duration shall continue only for the remainder of the period for which
the dissolved Panchayat would have continued had it not been so dissolved.
o In other words, a Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution does not enjoy
the full period of five years but remains in office only for the remainder of the period.
Statement 2 is correct
o The provision relating to the reservation of seats in Panchayats (both Chairpersons
and Members) for the Scheduled Castes is not applicable to the State of Arunachal
Pradesh. This provision was added later by the 83rd Constitutional Amendment Act of
2000 on the rationale that the State is inhabited fully by indigenous tribal people and
there are no Scheduled Castes (SCs).

56.
Ans. a
Sol.
Statement 1 is not correct.
Universal Adult Franchise (UAF) grants the right to vote to all adult citizens (18 years and
above), but it does not automatically grant the right to contest elections to all adults. To
contest elections, a person must fulfil additional eligibility criteria such as age requirements
(at least 25 years for Lok Sabha and 30 years for Rajya Sabha), not being disqualified for any
legal reason, etc. Therefore, while UAF ensures voting rights, it does not universally
guarantee the right to contest elections.
Statement 2 is correct.
The Nehru Report of 1928, drafted by a committee headed by Motilal Nehru, did indeed
advocate for Universal Adult Franchise (UAF) and a parliamentary system of government for
India. The report recommended that all adults, regardless of caste, creed, or gender, should
have the right to vote, marking a significant step toward the establishment of democratic
rights in India.
Statement 3 is not correct.
India implemented Universal Adult Franchise in 1950 after gaining independence, when the
first general elections were held. In contrast, the United Kingdom only introduced UAF for all
adults in 1928, after the Representation of the People Act was passed, which gave voting
rights to all women over the age of 21 and men over 21 as well. Thus, India implemented
UAF about 22 years before the UK.

57.
Ans. d
Sol.
Statement 1 is correct: The President of India has the power to appoint a High Court judge
as an ad hoc judge of the Supreme Court for a temporary period. This provision ensures that
the Supreme Court can function even when there is a shortage of judges.
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 Statement 2 is correct: Ad hoc judges are appointed when there is a lack of quorum in the
Supreme Court. This situation can arise when there are not enough sitting judges to hold a
session, and the President may appoint ad hoc judges to resolve the issue.

Statement 3 is correct: Art 127- Chief Justice of India may, with the previous consent of
the President and after consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court concerned,
request of a Judge of a High Court as an ad hoc Judge.

Statement 4 is correct: The ad hoc judge appointed must be a judge of a High Court and
should possess the qualifications necessary for appointment as a regular judge of the
Supreme Court.

58.
Ans. a
Sol:
Statement 1 is not correct.
The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is the central recruiting agency in India.
Constitution visualizes UPSC to be watchdog of merit system in India. It is an independent
constitutional body in the sense that it has been directly created by the Constitution. Articles
315 to 323 in Part XIV of the Constitution contain elaborate provisions regarding the
composition, appointment, and removal of members along with the independence, powers,
and functions of the UPSC. The salary and allowances of UPSC chairman and members are
drawn from Consolidated Fund of India. The Constitution, without specifying the strength of
the Commission has left the matter to the discretion of the President, who determines its
composition.
Statement 2 is not correct.
The UPSC presents, annually, to the president a report on its performance. The President
places this report before both Houses of Parliament, along with a memorandum explaining
the cases where the advice of the Commission was not accepted and the reasons for such
non-acceptance.
Statement 3 is correct:
The Constitution visualizes the UPSC as a watchdog of merit and an advisory body. As per
Articles 320(1) and 320(3), it advises the government on matters related to:
 Recruitment to civil services.
 Appointments, promotions, and transfers.
 Disciplinary matters.

59.
Ans. d
Sol.
Statement 1 is not correct.
The Election Commission of India does not conduct elections for the Deputy Chairman of
Rajya Sabha. The election of the Deputy Chairman is conducted within the Rajya Sabha
itself, under the supervision of the Chairman of Rajya Sabha. The Election Commission is
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 responsible for conducting general elections, elections to the President, and elections to the
Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, but not internal elections like that of the Deputy Chairman.
Statement 3 is not correct.
Article 324 of the Constitution provides for the office of Election Commission as a permanent
and an independent body to ensure free and fair elections in the country.
It has not prescribed the qualifications of the members of the Election Commission.
It has not specified the term of the members of the Election Commission.
It has not debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the
government.
Statement 2 is not correct.
CEC can be removed by the president on the basis of a resolution passed to that effect by
both the Houses of Parliament with special majority, either on the ground of proved
misbehaviour or incapacity. Thus, he does not hold his office till the pleasure of the
president, though he is appointed by him.
Any other election commissioner or a regional commissioner cannot be removed from office
except on the recommendation of the chief election commissioner.

60.
Ans. a
Sol.
Statement 1 and 2 are correct.
Based on the recommendations of the SRC, 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1957 was
enacted, whereby Articles, 350 A & B were included in the Constitution. Article 350-B
provides for a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities, who is known as the Commissioner for
Linguistic Minorities in India (CLM) to investigate all the matters relating to the Safeguards
provided for the linguistic minorities in India under the Constitution and reporting to the
President at such intervals as the President may direct
Statement 3 is not correct:
President causes all such reports to be laid before each House of the Parliament and sent to
the States/UTs concerned. However linguistic minorities are different across states. The
report is transmitted to the states by the president.

61.
Ans. a
Sol.
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 241 of the Constitution of India, Parliament has the
authority to establish a High Court for a Union Territory. While creating or reorganizing a
High Court, it consults the Chief Justice of India as a procedural requirement.
consultation with the Chief Justice of India (CJI) is not explicitly mentioned in the
Constitution under Article 241 or other related provisions for establishing a High Court for a
Union Territory. However, consultation with the CJI is a part of the established constitutional
convention and practice followed in judicial matters, especially regarding appointments,
jurisdiction, and establishment of High Courts.

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 Thus, while consultation is not explicitly mandated, it is considered integral to the process in
practice.
Statement 2 is not correct:
Delhi is indeed a Union Territory with its own High Court. However, the Delhi High Court
was not established under the States Reorganization Act, 1956. It was established by the
Delhi High Court Act, 1966, and became operational on October 31, 1966.
Delhi is not the only Union Territory with a High Court.
Other Union Territories, like Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh, fall under the jurisdiction of
the Jammu and Kashmir High Court, which is also a standalone High Court.

62.
Ans. c
Sol.
Statement 1 is correct:
The Supreme Court has ruled that it has the power to punish for contempt not only of itself
but also of high courts, subordinate courts, and tribunals functioning across the country.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
According to the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, criminal contempt (not civil contempt) refers
to acts such as:
○ Scandalizing or lowering the authority of a court.
○ Prejudicing or interfering with the due course of a judicial proceeding.
○ Obstructing the administration of justice in any other manner.
Statement 3 is correct:
Fair and accurate reporting of judicial proceedings does not amount to contempt of court.
Additionally, fair criticism of the merits of a judicial order, once the case is heard and
disposed of, is also not considered contempt.

Statement 4 is correct:
The term "contempt of court" is not defined in the Constitution. However, the Contempt of
Courts Act, 1971, elaborates on the concept, defining it as an offence of showing disrespect
to the dignity or authority of a court.
Additional Information:
o Civil contempt pertains to the willful disobedience of court orders or breach of an
undertaking given to a court.
o The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, aims to maintain the dignity of the judiciary while
respecting the right to freedom of speech and expression.
63.
Ans. a
Sol.
Statement 1 is not correct.
Although the Chairperson and members of a State Public Service Commission (SPSC) are
appointed by the Governor, they can be removed only by the President. The President can
remove them on the same grounds and in the same manner as he can remove a chairperson
or a member of the UPSC.
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 Statement 2 is correct.
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) is appointed by the President of India by
a warrant under his hand and seal. The CAG, before taking over her/his office, makes and
subscribes before the President an oath or affirmation. S/He can be removed by the
President on the basis of a resolution passed to that effect by both the Houses of Parliament
with special majority, either on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.

Statement 3 is not correct.

The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) is provided with the security of tenure. S/He cannot
be removed from her/his office except in the same manner and on the same grounds as a
judge of the Supreme Court. Article 324 (5) of the Constitution of India safeguards the CEC
from arbitrary removal. However, it does not provide similar protection to the Election
Commissioners and it merely says that they cannot be removed from office except on the
recommendation of the CEC.

Statement 4 is not correct.

Under Article 155 and 156 of the Constitution, a Governor is appointed by the President and
holds office “during the pleasure of the President”. If this pleasure is withdrawn before
completion of the five-year term, the Governor has to step down. As the President works on
the aid and advice of the Prime Minister and the council of ministers, in effect, the
Governor can be appointed and removed by the central government

64.
Ans. c
Sol.
o The legislature of Puducherry is created through a parliament act, Union territory of
Puducherry (TheGovernment of Union Territories Act, 1963 whereas 69th
constitutional amendment act, 1991 paved the way for creation of NCT legislature.
o The legislative assembly of Puducherry can make laws on any subject of the State list
and concurrent list.
o The legislative assembly of Delhi can make laws on any subject of the State List (except
public order, police and land) and the concurrent list.
o Likewise, the legislative assembly of Jammu and Kashmir can make laws on any
subject of the State List (except public order and police) and the Concurrent List
Hence, option (c) is correct

65.
Ans. c
Sol.
LM Singhvi Committee:
o Appointed in 1986 by the Rajiv Gandhi Government, the LM Singhvi Committee
proposed constitutional recognition, protection, and preservation of Panchayati Raj
Institutions.

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 o It suggested adding a new chapter to the Constitution and establishing Nyaya
Panchayats for clusters of villages.

Thungon Committee:
o Established in 1988 under the leadership of PK Thungon, the Thungon Committee
investigated the political and administrative organization in the district and district
planning.
o It urged the strengthening and constitutional validation of the Panchayati Raj System.
Gadgil Committee:
o Established in 1989 under the leadership of VN Gadgil, the committee focused on
formulating policies and programs for Panchayats.
o The responsibility for preparing and executing socio-economic development plans
should rest with Panchayati Raj authorities, with a designated list of subjects in the
Constitution.
Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957):
o This committee recommended the establishment of PRIs at the village, intermediate,
and district levels. It also recommended that PRIs be given financial resources and
powers to decide on local issues.
Ashok Mehta Committee (1977):
o This committee recommended that PRIs be given more powers and resources and that
they be made responsible for planning and implementing development projects at the
local level.

66.
Ans. b
Sol.
Statement 1 is correct.
o The Constitution of India (Article 148) provides for an independent office of the
Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG).
o The CAG of India only performed the role of an Auditor General, and not of a Comptroller;
but in Britain, it has the power of both Comptroller as well as Auditor General.
o That means, in India, the CAG audits the accounts after the expenditure is committed i.e.
ex post facto. In UK, no money can be drawn from the public exchequer without the
approval of the CAG.

Statement II is correct.
o In India, CAG is not a member of the parliament; while in Britain, CAG is a office of house
of the Commons.
o The Constitution of India has established the CAG as an independent constitutional
authority to ensure the accountability of the executive to Parliament and the state
legislatures.

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 o In the United Kingdom, the CAG is, by convention, a member of the House of Commons
Public Accounts Committee (PAC). This committee is responsible for examining the
government's expenditure and holding it to account for the way public money is spent.
o Both the Statements are correct. But the Statement II is not the correct
Explanation for Statement-I.

67.
Ans. b
Sol.
Statement 1 is correct.
The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India. It is tasked with
determining the boundaries of constituencies for Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and State
Legislative Assemblies. The Commission works in collaboration with the Election Commission
of India (ECI) to ensure that the constituencies are properly demarcated and that the
electoral process is fair and balanced.
Statement 2 is not correct.
The total number of parliamentary constituencies in India is based on the 1971 census, not
the 2001 census. The 1971 census data was used to determine the allocation of seats among
the states. Although the boundaries of constituencies were redrawn based on the 2001
census under the Delimitation Act, 2002, the actual number of seats in the Lok Sabha (545)
was frozen based on the 1971 census and has remained the same until 2026. This freeze was
introduced by the 84th Amendment to the Constitution in 2002.
Statement 3 is correct.
Delimitation Commissions have been set up four times in India's history:
1950 (based on the 1951 Census)
1963 (based on the 1961 Census)
1973 (based on the 1971 Census)
2002 (based on the 2001 Census)
Each delimitation commission was tasked with adjusting the boundaries of constituencies to
reflect changes in population and ensure fair representation.

68.
Ans. d
Sol.
Explanation
Statement 1 is not correct
o Art 243X: The Legislature of a State may, by law—
o authorise a Municipality to levy, collect and appropriate such taxes, duties, tolls and
fees in accordance with such procedure and subject to such limits;
o The constitution only empowers the state to enact laws which may authorise a
municipality to levy, collect and appropriate taxes.
Statement 2 is not correct
o Mayor is the figurative head of the Corporation.
o Municipal Commissioner is administrative head of the Corporation and is responsible
for the implementation of the decisions taken by the Council.

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69.
Ans. B
Sol.
Statement 1 is not correct.
The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory body and is constituted by a
notification of the Government of India, Ministry of Law & Justice, Department of Legal
Affairs with definite terms of reference to carry out research in the field of law and the
Commission makes recommendations to the Government as per its terms of reference.
The first Law Commission of independent India was established on September 5, 1955.
Since 1955, the Law Commission has been reconstituted several times, with each
commission having a tenure of three to five years.

Statement 2 is correct.
The Commission works on projects based on the references received from the Central
Government and/or from the Supreme Court and High Courts. At times, keeping in view the
importance of the subject matter, the Commission initiates study on specific subjects, suo
moto.

Statement 3 is correct.
The Law Commission has recommended legal reforms in Criminal Law (e.g., IPC and CrPC
amendments), Civil Law (e.g., personal laws and tort law), and Commercial Law (e.g.,
insolvency and arbitration frameworks).

70.
Ans. c
Sol.
Option c is correct: Judicial Federalism refers to a system where both the Federal Court
(Supreme Court) and State High Courts have equal powers within their own jurisdictions,
with each court having authority over distinct legal matters. This ensures independence in
their functioning while maintaining balance between the two systems.
Additional Information:
o Integrated Judiciary differs from Judicial Federalism as it features a unified court system
with the Supreme Court at the top, overseeing both High Courts and subordinate courts
in a hierarchical manner.
o In Integrated Judiciary, the Supreme Court has the power to transfer cases from
subordinate courts to itself and suspend judgments, which is not a characteristic of
Judicial Federalism.
o Judicial Federalism emphasizes a clear division of powers between the courts at the
federal (Supreme Court) and state levels, with each court acting independently and within
its own sphere of jurisdiction.

71.
Ans. d
Sol:

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 Statement 1 is not correct.
The Directorate of Enforcement or the ED is a multi-disciplinary organization
mandated with investigation of economic crimes and violations of foreign exchange laws. The
ED functions under the Dept of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. The origin of this Directorate
goes back to 1st May 1956, when an ‘Enforcement Unit’ was formed in the Department of
Economic Affairs for handling Exchange Control law violations under the Foreign Exchange
Regulation Act, 1947. And its creation or establishment was not provided for under any Act.
Statement 2 is correct.
The statutory functions of the ED include the enforcement of the following acts:
1. The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA)
2. The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA)
3. The Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 (FEOA)

72.
Ans. b
Sol.
Context
Nagaland to implement inner line permit in three more districts
About:
o Inner Line Permit: The Inner Line Permit is the travel document that must be availed
by domestic tourists to visit these Protected and Restricted Areas of the ILP states, for
a limited period.
Option c is not correct.
o ILP States: Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Nagaland and Manipur. Protected areas are
broader than the Inner Line areas. Inner line permit is also mandatory for entering into
Lakshadweep.
Option a is not correct.
o Protected Area Permit: For foreign tourists (except Bhutanese), the permit is known as the
Protected Area Permit.
Option b is correct.
o Inner Line Permit System Importance
o The Inner Line Permit was created to preserve the indigenous character of all tribes living
in the restricted areas of the country's northeastern regions.
o The influx of a large number of illegal migrants is one of the reasons for the introduction
of this system.
o Other reasons for its introduction include the protection of their religious, social, and
customary laws, the ownership and transfer of land, the administration of civil and
criminal justice, and so on.
Option d is not correct.
An ILP is issued by the state government concerned not the Home ministry itself.

73.
Ans. a
Sol.
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 Context
Recently, the Supreme Court of India has invoked the expression ‘Caged Parrot’ for the
Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) in a case over the alleged liquor policy ‘scam’ in Delhi.
About Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI):
o The term “Caged Parrot” was first coined by the Supreme Court of India in 2013
during the infamous coal block allocation scam. At that time, the CBI was criticized for
its perceived lack of independence and susceptibility to political influence.
Origins and Purpose:
o It traces its roots back to the Special Police Establishment (SPE), established in 1941
during World War II to investigate bribery and corruption cases.

Statement 2 is not correct.

o In 1963, acting on the recommendations of the Santhanam Committee, the CBI was
formally set up by a resolution of the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Statement 1 is not correct.

Legal Framework:
o CBI operates under the Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act 1946, which
grants it the authority to investigate cases related not only to corruption but also to
major criminal offences.
o However, interestingly, the term “CBI” itself doesn’t explicitly appear in the DSPE Act.
It is not a statutory body.
Functions
o It functions under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions of the
central government, and is exempted from the purview of the Right to Information
(RTI) Act.
o Investigating Corruption: The CBI handles cases related to corruption, bribery, and
economic offences.
o Economic Crimes: It tackles financial frauds, narcotics, smuggling, and other
economic crimes.
o Special Crimes: Terrorism, kidnapping, and other serious offences fall within its
purview.
o It is also the nodal police agency in India that coordinates investigations on behalf of
Interpol member countries.
Jurisdiction
o Section 6 of the DPSE Act authorises the central government to direct CBI to probe a
case within the jurisdiction of any state on the recommendation of the concerned state
government.
The courts can also order a CBI probe, and even monitor the progress of investigation.
Statement 3 is correct.
o CBI can suo-moto take up investigation of offences only in the Union Territories and
not in states as it requires state’s consent.

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74.
Ans. a
Sol.
Context:
President called out ‘Black Coat Syndrome’, and urged Supreme Court to Lead with Justice
for All
o Highlighting the delay in Justice, the President used this term to describe anxiety
experienced by ordinary citizens in court settings.
o Term is analogous to the “White Coat Hypertension” i.e. increase in people’s blood
pressure in the hospital. Hence, option (a) is correct.

75.
Ans. c
Sol.
Statement 1 is correct.
National Legal Services Day is observed every year on 9th November, whereby nationwide
programmes are organized to make people aware of the various services provided by
Legal Services Authorities. The day commemorates the commencement of the Legal
Services Authorities Act, 1987. In the year 1987, the Legal Services Authorities Act was
enacted by the Parliament which came into force on 9th November, 1995 to establish a
nationwide uniform network for providing free and competent legal services to the weaker
sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.

Statement 2 is not correct.

The first Lok Adalat was organized in Gujarat in 1982 as a voluntary and conciliatory agency
with no legal sponsorship for its decision.

76.
Ans. a
Sol.
Under Section 126 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, all election campaigning
stops during this period that concludes with the end of voting.
Statement 1 is correct.
The silence period, also known as the "campaign silence" period, typically lasts 48 hours
before the election day, which includes the day before polling and the day of polling. During
this period, no election campaigning or political propaganda is allowed to ensure that voters
can make their decision without external influence right before they cast their votes.
Statement 2 is not correct.
The silence period does have a legal basis in Indian law, particularly under the
Representation of the People Act, 1951. The Election Commission issues guidelines related to
the silence period, which prohibits any form of campaigning or dissemination of political
material during the last 48 hours before polling. While not explicitly mentioned in the
Constitution, the practice is legally mandated by the Election Commission's powers and the
Representation of the People Act.
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 Statement 3 is not correct.
During the silence period, no political leaders, including star campaigners, are allowed to
campaign or communicate with the public or media. The restriction applies to all political
leaders, and even star campaigners are not allowed to make public statements or engage in
media appearances related to the election. The purpose is to ensure a peaceful election
process and to prevent any undue influence on voters in the final moments leading up to the
election.

77.
Ans. b
Sol.
Statement 1 is incorrect:
Writ Jurisdiction:
○ The Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of Fundamental
Rights.
○ The High Court can issue writs not only for enforcing Fundamental Rights but also
for any other purpose (such as enforcement of ordinary legal rights).
○ Therefore, the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is narrower than that of
the High Court.

2. Statement 2 is Correct:
Territorial Jurisdiction:
○ The Supreme Court can issue writs throughout India, covering all territories within
the nation.
○ The High Court can issue writs within its territorial jurisdiction and, in some
cases, outside its jurisdiction if the cause of action arises within its territorial
boundaries.
○ Therefore, the territorial jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is broader than that of a
High Court.
Additional Points:
○ Article 32 of the Constitution guarantees the right to move the Supreme Court for
enforcement of Fundamental Rights, making the remedy mandatory for the
Supreme Court.
○ Article 226, on the other hand, empowers the High Court to issue writs but grants
it discretion to refuse the exercise of such power.

78.
Ans. D
Sol.
Statement 1 is correct.
Financial Commissions are constitutional and quasi-judicial bodies set up under Article
280 of the Constitution every five years to make recommendations on the distribution of
financial resources between the Union and the states constitutes by president of India.

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 Statement 2 is correct.
The Finance Commission consists of a chairman and four other members appointed by
the President of India. They serve for a term specified by the President and are eligible for
reappointment. The Constitution empowers Parliament to set the qualifications for the
Commission's members and outline the selection process. It is not provided in constitution
itself. Parliament has defined the qualifications required for both the Chairman and the
members. The Chairman must possess experience in public affairs, while the four other
members are to be chosen from the following categories:
o A judge of a High Court or an individual qualified for such an appointment.
o A person with specialized knowledge in finance and government accounting.
o An individual with extensive experience in financial matters and administration.
o A person who has specialized knowledge in economics.

Statement 3 is correct.
Accordingly, the first Finance Commission was constituted in 1951.The President of
India appoints a finance commission every five years or at an earlier time that he considers
necessary.

Statement 4 is correct.
The recommendations made by the Finance Commission are advisory, not binding.
This allows the central and state governments to selectively implement or even ignore the
Commission's proposals, potentially limiting its influence on financial decisions.

79.
Ans. a
Sol.
Statement 1 is correct.
To be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court, an advocate must have practiced for at
least 10 years in a High Court (or in two or more High Courts in succession). The same
qualification applies to appointments as a judge of a High Court.

Statement 2 is incorrect.
While the President can appoint a distinguished jurist to the Supreme Court as a judge, the
Constitution does not allow the appointment of a distinguished jurist to the High Court.

80.
Ans. a
Sol.
Statement 1 is correct: According to Article 130 of the Constitution, the Supreme Court
shall sit in Delhi or any other place as the Chief Justice of India may, with the approval of
the President, decide.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Chief Justice of India, with the approval of the President,
decides where the Supreme Court shall sit.
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 Statement 3 is incorrect: Parliament's approval is not required for changes to the seat of
the Supreme Court; it is the President’s approval that is required, not the Parliament’s.
Additional Information:
The Seat of the Supreme Court – Historical Debate:
○ During the drafting of the Constitution, there was a debate about whether Delhi should
be the permanent seat of the Supreme Court. Some members argued against giving
undue importance to Delhi.
○ The Chairman of the Drafting Committee justified the decision, emphasizing the need for
all courts to have a defined location to ensure clarity for the public and litigants.
○ Since Delhi was the capital at that time, it was the most logical location. However, the
draft allowed flexibility in case the capital were to shift, providing a provision to change
the seat of the Supreme Court without needing a constitutional amendment.

81.
Ans. c
Sol.
Statement 1 is correct.
The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) was initially set up through a resolution of
the Government of India in 1964, on the recommendations of the Santhanam Committee on
Prevention of Corruption. It was conferred with statutory status through the CVC Act of
2003. The CVC consists of a Central Vigilance Commissioner as Chairperson and not more
than two Vigilance Commissioners as Members.
On the recommendations of the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption,
the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) was established by a resolution of the Ministry of
Home Affairs in 1963. Later, it was transferred to the Ministry of Personnel and now it enjoys
the status of an attached office. At present, CBI derives the power to investigate from the
Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946. The superintendence of Delhi Special Police
Establishment vests with the Central Government whereas for investigations of offences
under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 the superintendence vests with the CVC.

Statement 2 is correct.
The CVC is not an investigating agency. The CVC either gets the investigation done
through the CBI or the Departmental Chief Vigilance Officers.

Statement 3 is correct.
The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act (2013) amended the Delhi Special Police
Establishment Act (1946) and made the following changes with respect to appointment of
the Director of CBI: The Central Government shall appoint the Director of CBI on the
recommendation of a three-member committee consisting of the Prime Minister as
Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and the Chief Justice of
India or Judge of the Supreme Court nominated by him.

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82.
Ans. a
Sol.
Context:
Recently, Afghanistan and
Turkmenistan officials jointly
inaugurated Turkmenistan-
Afghanistan-Pakistan-India (TAPI)
gas pipeline project on
Turkmenistan side and
Afghanistan said to begin work on
TAPI pipeline.
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct. The
TAPI pipeline does not connect
the capital cities of 3 out of 4
countries. It runs through
Turkmenistan, Afghanistan,
Pakistan, and India, but it does not directly connect the capitals of these countries. For
example, it does not pass through Kabul (Afghanistan's capital), as it follows a more strategic
route.
Statement 2 is correct. The TAPI pipeline is connected to the Galkynysh gas field in
Turkmenistan, which is one of the world's largest natural gas fields. Its reserves are
estimated to be between 4 to 14 trillion cubic meters, making it one of the largest globally.
Statement 3 is not correct. The Asian Development Bank (ADB) has been involved in
providing financial support for the TAPI project. ADB has acted as the transaction adviser
and is playing a role in the financial structuring of the pipeline, providing technical and
financial assistance to facilitate the project's development.

83.
Ans. c
Sol.
Context:
The Prime Minister of India attended the Quad Leaders’ Summit in Wilmington (US).
Explanation:
o The year 2024 marks 20 years since the formation of the grouping.
o The Quad Leaders’ Summit adopted the Wilmington Declaration.
o India will host the 2025 Quad Leaders Summit.
Key announcements in the Wilmington Declaration
o Health Security: ‘Quad Cancer Moonshot’, a partnership to save lives in the Indo-Pacific
region by combating cervical cancer.
o Quality Infrastructure: ‘Quad Ports of the Future Partnership’ which will harness the
Quad’s collective expertise to support sustainable port infrastructure development.

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 o Critical and Emerging Technologies: A ‘Semiconductor Supply Chains Contingency
Network Memorandum of Cooperation’ to enhance the resilience of Quad’s semiconductor
supply chains.
o Quad Investors Network (QUIN): Mobilizing several investments to promote supply chain
resilience, advance joint research
o Climate and Clean Energy: Collective Quad effort to boost energy efficiency, including
deployment and manufacturing of high-efficiency affordable cooling systems in the region.
o Space: India’s establishment of a space-based web portal for Mauritius, to support the
concept of open science for space-based monitoring of extreme weather events and
climate impact.
o Maritime Security: ‘Maritime Initiative for Training in the Indo-Pacific (MAITRI)’ to
maximize tools provided through Indo-Pacific Partnership for Maritime Domain Awareness
(announced in 2022) and other Quad initiatives.
o ‘Quad-at-Sea Ship Observer Mission’ in 2025 to improve interoperability and advance
maritime safety. Hence, option (c) is correct.

84.
Ans. a
Sol.
Context:
Shri Kirti Vardhan Singh, Minister of State for External Affairs and Environment, Forest and
Climate Change (MoS) visited Armenia and Malaysia from 9-15 September 2024.
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct.
India and Malaysia signed the CECA in 2011, aiming to promote trade and investment by
reducing tariffs and enhancing economic cooperation between the two nations. The
agreement has been instrumental in boosting bilateral trade across various sectors.
Statement 2 is not correct.
India and Malaysia have not signed a 2+2 Ministerial Dialogue. The 2+2 dialogue format
(which involves Foreign and Defense Ministers) is specifically implemented between India and
countries like the USA, Japan, and Australia, but not with Malaysia. The two countries have
had discussions and cooperation in defense matters, but not under this particular format.
Statement 3 is not correct.
The International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) is a multi-modal transport
network that links India, Iran, and Russia, aimed at facilitating trade between these regions.
While India is a participant in the project, Malaysia is not involved in this corridor as a
member or direct participant. INSTC focuses more on connecting India with Central Asia,
Russia, and Europe via Iran, with no direct inclusion of Malaysia.

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85.
Ans. b
Sol.
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: The First Judges Case (1981) did not establish the collegium
system but ruled that the consultation process with the CJI and other judges did not require
concurrence. The President was not bound by the CJI’s advice.

Pair 2 is correctly matched: In the Second Judges Case (1993), the collegium system was
introduced, which emphasized that "consultation" meant "concurrence," and the CJI's advice
was binding. The collegium was expanded to include the CJI and the two senior-most judges
of the SC, not a six-member body.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: The Third Judges Case (1998) clarified that the CJI's advice
alone was insufficient for judicial appointments. The CJI must consult with the collegium of
the four senior-most judges before sending any recommendation to the government.

86.
Ans. b
Sol.
In India, several committees have been constituted over the years to address various aspects
of elections, including electoral reforms, the functioning of the Election Commission, and the
administration of free and fair elections.
1. Dinesh Goswami Commission
2. Halim Commission
3. Ramnath Kovind commission
4. Tarkunde / J.P. Committee
5. Indrajit Gupta Committee
6. YB Chavan commission

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 National Education Commission (1964-1966), popularly known as Kothari Commission, was
an ad hoc commission set up by the Government of India to examine all aspects of the
educational sector in India, to develop a general pattern of education, and to recommend
guidelines and policies for the development of education. Hence, option (b) is correct.

87.
Ans. b
Sol.
PAP is issued by Ministry of Home affairs and not Autonomous councils. The Foreigners
(Protected Areas) Order, 1958 states that a Protected Area Permit (PAP) is required for non-
Indian citizens to visit certain areas in India (mainly in the Northeast India). Certain
requirements have to be fulfilled in order to get this permit. Indian citizens who are not
residents in these areas need an Inner Line Permit (ILP) to enter these places. The Inner Line
Permit is significantly easier to get. Other statements are correct as per Schedule VI.
Hence, option (b) is not correct.

88.
Ans. c
Sol.
Under the Representation of the People Act, 1951 (Section 8), if a Member of Parliament (MP)
is convicted of a criminal offense and sentenced to imprisonment for two years or more, they
are automatically disqualified from holding office as an MP. This disqualification applies even
if there is an appeal pending or the sentence has not yet been served.
The Lily Thomas case led to a landmark judgment in 2013 where the Supreme Court of India
struck down Section 8(4) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. This section allowed
convicted MPs and MLAs to stay in office while appealing their conviction.
The court deemed this provision unconstitutional, meaning that now, any MP or MLA
convicted of a crime and sentenced to two or more years in jail is immediately disqualified.
Thus, the conviction itself leads to immediate disqualification, irrespective of the appeal
process. Hence, option (c) is correct.
Why the other options are incorrect?
(a) is incorrect because the MP cannot remain in office if sentenced to three years of
imprisonment.
(b) is incorrect because disqualification is not deferred until the appeal is completed.
(d) is incorrect because the disqualification is automatic upon conviction, not dependent on
the Speaker’s decision.

89.
Ans. c
Sol.
Context: The Tamil Nadu government has recently distributed Dhaincha (green manure)
under the Chief Minister’s Mannuyir Kaathu Mannuyir Kaappom (MKMK) Scheme.

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 Solutions:
Option (c) is correct.
o Green Manuring involves cultivating leguminous plants and incorporating them into
the soil, which enriches the soil with organic matter, enhances fertility, and improves
soil structure.
o It also helps in reducing soil erosion, enhancing water retention, and fostering
beneficial microbial activity, supporting long-term soil health.

90.
Ans. b
Sol.
Context:
EU committed to forge stronger cooperation with India in Indo-Pacific.
o Explanation:
o Operation Atlanta is a critical maritime security operation under the EU Common
Security and Defence Policy (CSDP).
o Operation Atalanta, formally European Union Naval Force (EU NAVFOR) Somalia, is an
ongoing counter-piracy military operation at sea off the Horn of Africa and in the Western
Indian Ocean, that is the first naval operation conducted by the European Union (EU), in
support of United Nations resolutions.
o India shares similar concerns about security in these waters, as they are critical for global
shipping and India's trade routes. Hence, option (b) is correct.

91.
Ans. b
Sol.
Context:
o The US announced a partnership with India to improve its semiconductor supply chain.
This plan will examine India’s ability to make and use semiconductors, setting the stage
for future projects between the two countries. It shows how important the semiconductor
industry is globally.
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct.
o he DLI scheme under the Semiconductor Mission promotes innovation and growth in
semiconductor design by providing incentives to domestic companies engaged in chip
design. It supports startups and businesses in creating semiconductor intellectual
property and prototypes, which are critical for developing a robust semiconductor
ecosystem.
Statement 2 is correct.
o The Semiconductor Mission provides fiscal support of up to 50% for the establishment of
semiconductor and display fabs (fabrication plants). This financial assistance helps
attract investments for setting up high-cost manufacturing facilities necessary for
semiconductor production.

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 Statement 3 is not correct.
o The Semiconductor Mission actively seeks foreign direct investments (FDI) and
partnerships to bring in advanced technologies, expertise, and funds. Collaboration with
global leaders in semiconductor manufacturing is a critical part of the mission to build
India's domestic semiconductor capabilities.

92.
Ans. b
Sol.
The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India was established on 12 October,
1993. The statute under which it is established is the Protection of Human Rights Act
(PHRA), 1993 as amended by the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2006. The
NHRC is considered as watchdog of the human rights violation in India as it is involved in
promotion and protection of human rights.
Statement 1 is not correct.
The Chairperson and the members of the National Human Rights Commission are
appointed by the President on the recommendations of a six-member committee consisting
of:
o The Prime Minister as its head,
o The Speaker of the Lok Sabha,
o The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha,
o The Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha,
o The Leader of the Opposition in the Rajya Sabha, and The Union Home Minister.

Statement 2 is correct
The NHRC has jurisdiction over Central and State government agencies and can also
inquire into human rights violations by private entities.

Statement 3 is not correct:

It is not mandatory for the Chairperson of the NHRC to be a retired Chief Justice. As per the
amended Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 (2019 amendment), the chairperson can
be either a retired Chief Justice of India or a judge of the Supreme Court.

Additional Info:
The commission is a multi-member body consisting of the following full-time members the
Chairperson and 5 other members and in addition to these full-time members, the
commission also has the following 7 ex-officio members:
o Chairperson of the National Commission for Minorities,
o Chairperson of the National Commission for SCs,
o Chairperson of the National Commission for STs,
o Chairperson of the National Commission for Women,
o Chairperson of the National Commission for BCs,
o Chairperson of the National Commission for the Protection of Child Rights, and
o The Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities.
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93.
Ans. c
Sol.
Statement 1 is correct:
Under British rule, "Chief Commissioner Provinces" were administrative units directly
controlled by the central government. After independence, these provinces were reorganized
into Union Territories, which are also administered by the central government.

Statement 2 is correct:
The original Constitution of India, enacted in 1950, did not specifically include provisions for
Union Territories. The concept of Union Territories was later introduced through
constitutional amendments and legislative changes to address administrative requirements
for smaller or strategically significant regions.

Statement 3 is correct:
Union Territories have varying administrative structures. Some have legislatures (e.g., Delhi
and Puducherry), while others are administered directly by the President through appointed
administrators. This lack of uniformity in their governance.

94.
Ans. d
Sol.
Statement 1 is not correct.
The Armed Forces Tribunal has been established by the Central Government under the
provisions of the Armed Forces Tribunal Act, 2007.

Statement 2 is not correct.

The Armed Forces Tribunal has jurisdiction over all serving under the Army Act, the Navy Act
and the Air Force Act. It is also applicable on retired personnel and their dependents in the
matters relating to service matters of the Army, Navy and Air Force.
It does not have jurisdiction over personnel of the Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) like
CRPF, BSF, CISF, etc., as these are paramilitary forces governed by separate acts and fall
under the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) or civilian courts for disputes.

Statement 3 is not correct.

In the Union of India v. Parashotam Dass case, the Supreme Court observed that the High
Court, under Article 226 of the Constitution, has the power of judicial review against the
judgements of the Armed Forces Tribunal.

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95.
Ans. a
Sol.
The States Reorganization Act of 1956 was primarily focused on reorganizing states along
linguistic lines and did not involve the creation of new Union Territories. However, at the time
of the enactment of the Act:
 Himachal Pradesh - Was a Union Territory in 1956.
 Uttar Pradesh - Was a full-fledged state, not a Union Territory.
 Arunachal Pradesh - Did not exist as a Union Territory; it was part of the North-East
Frontier Agency (NEFA), which later became a Union Territory in 1972.
 Sikkim - Was not part of India in 1956; it was an independent kingdom under Indian
suzerainty and became a state in 1975.
 Manipur - Was a Union Territory in 1956, having gained this status in 1950.
 Goa - Was not part of India in 1956; it was under Portuguese control until its annexation
in 1961.
Thus, at the time of the enactment of the States Reorganization Act, 1956, only Himachal
Pradesh and Manipur were Union Territories. Hence, option (a) is correct

96.
Ans. a
Sol.
Statement 1 is correct.
o GST Council is a constitutional body constituted under Article 279A which was added
by 101st Constitutional Amendment Act in 2016. It was set up to simplify the existing
tax structure in India, where both the Centre and states levied multiple taxes making it
more uniform across the country.
o The GST Council has to be constituted by the President. It is the joint forum of the Centre
and the States, shall consists of:
o Chairperson – Union Finance Minister
Member – The Union Minister of State, in-charge of Revenue of finance
Other members – The Minister In-charge of finance or taxation or any other Minister
nominated by each State Government.

Statement 2 is correct.
The Supreme Court ruled that the recommendations of the Goods and Services Tax
(GST) Council only have persuasive value, and not binding on union government and state
governments. The recommendations of the GST Council were earlier considered binding,
but in 2022 the Supreme Court in Union of India v. Mohit Minerals Pvt. Ltd Case ruled that
they are not binding, as both Parliament and State legislatures have "simultaneous" power
to legislate on GST.

Statement 3 is not correct.

The Council meets periodically to discuss and decide on important issues related to
GST. The Constitution states that one-third of the total number of GST Council members
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 shall constitute the quorum. Every decision of the GST Council shall be taken by a majority
of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting. It
shall have a weightage of
1.One-third of the total votes cast to the Centre
2.Two-thirds of the total votes cast to the States.
This inclusive weightage helps in promoting the spirit of the co-operative federalism.

97.
Ans. a
Sol.
Context: ‘Jute production to be 20% lower this year on floods’
Statement 1 is Correct.
o Jute farming contributes to carbon sequestration, helping lower atmospheric carbon
levels.
o It is biodegradable and an eco-friendly alternative to plastics, reducing pollution.
o The crop prevents soil erosion, maintains fertility, and supports sustainable
agriculture.
Statement 2 is not correct.
o Jute cultivation requires minimal fertilizers and pesticides, making it more sustainable
than resource-heavy crops like cotton.
Statement 3 is not correct.
o Jute cultivation is resilient and adaptable to diverse climatic conditions, making it a
reliable crop even under changing weather patterns.
Additional Information
Key Government Initiatives for Jute Sector Development:
o Jute-Improved Cultivation and Retting Exercises (ICARE): Enhances farming practices
with better seeds, mechanization, and retting techniques to boost productivity and
farmers’ incomes.
o Jute Diversification Scheme: Encourages the creation of innovative jute-based
products.
o Minimum Support Price (MSP) Enhancement: Ensures fair pricing with the MSP raised
from ₹500 crore to ₹700 crore.
o Incentive Scheme for Acquisition of Plant & Machinery (ISAPM): Promotes
modernization and technology upgrades in jute mills.
o Jute Smart Scheme: Aims to enhance sustainability and innovation in the jute
industry, emphasizing eco-friendly practices.

98.
Ans. b
Sol.
Context: The diversion of phosphoric acid, a key fertiliser ingredient, for making electric
vehicle batteries can become a source of worry for Indian agriculture.

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 Statement 1 is Correct.
o Phosphoric acid is primarily extracted from phosphate rock and is an essential
component in the manufacture of DAP.
o DAP is a widely used fertilizer that provides necessary nutrients for crop development
and supports agricultural productivity.
Statement 2 is Correct.
o Phosphoric acid is a key raw material for lithium-iron-phosphate (LFP) batteries,
which are extensively used in electric vehicles.
o The growing adoption of LFP batteries has significantly increased the demand for
phosphoric acid, creating competition between industrial and agricultural uses.
Statement 3 is not correct.
o India lacks sufficient reserves of phosphoric acid and relies heavily on imports to meet
its fertilizer production needs.
o The country imports phosphoric acid and rock phosphate from nations like Jordan,
Morocco, Senegal, and Tunisia, making it vulnerable to global market fluctuations.
o Over 50% of the DAP consumed in India annually is sourced through imports,
reflecting the dependency on foreign suppliers.
Additional Information
Key Imports and Challenges
o Major exporters of phosphoric acid to India: Jordan, Morocco, Senegal, Tunisia.
o Rock phosphate imports come from Morocco, Togo, Algeria, Egypt, Jordan, and UAE.
o Dependency on global markets exposes India to price fluctuations and supply chain
disruptions, affecting fertilizer availability.
Impact of Rising LFP Battery Demand
o Increased adoption of LFP batteries could divert phosphoric acid from agriculture to
the EV industry, creating a challenge for maintaining fertilizer supply.

99.
Ans. c
Sol.
Context: The Union Cabinet Committee, chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi approved
the 'Digital Agriculture Mission' on September 2, 2024.
Solutions:

o It is conceived as an umbrella scheme to support digital agriculture initiatives, such

as creating Digital Public Infrastructure, implementing the Digital General Crop
Estimation Survey (DGCES), and taking up other IT initiatives by the Central
Government, State Governments, and Academic and Research Institutions.

o Three major components of DPI are envisaged under the Digital Agriculture Mission:
AgriStack, Krishi Decision Support System (DSS), and Soil Profile Maps.

o Each of these DPI components will provide solutions that will allow farmers to access
and avail of various services.

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 o AgriStack: The farmer-centric DPI AgriStack consists of three foundational agri-sector
registries or databases: Farmers Registry, Geo-referenced Village Maps, and Crop
Sown Registry, all of which will be created and maintained by state/ UT governments.

o Krishi DSS: It will create a comprehensive geospatial system to unify remote sensing-
based information on crops, soil, weather, and water resources, etc.

o Soil Profile Maps: Under the Mission, detailed Soil Profile Maps (on a 1:10,000 scale) of
about 142 million hectares of agricultural land are envisaged to be prepared. A
detailed soil profile inventory of about 29 million ha has already been completed.
Hence, all options are correct.

100.
Ans. a
Sol.
Context: The Delhi government is taking proactive measures to prevent air pollution by
spraying a bio-decomposer solution over city farmlands. This solution aims to address the
issue of stubble burning, a major contributor to air pollution in the region.
Solutions:
Statement 1 is Correct.
o The bio-decomposer is an eco-friendly microbial spray designed to break down paddy
stubble into compost, reducing the harmful practice of stubble burning that
contributes to air pollution.
o The spray aids in the decomposition of stubble within 20 to 25 days, turning it into
compost that can improve soil health.
Statement 2 is not correct.
o The bio-decomposer was developed by the Indian Agricultural Research Institute
(IARI), not the Indian Council for Agricultural Research (ICAR).
o It uses microbial strains to decompose paddy stubble, Bacillus and Clostridium are
one of the strains used in its formulation.
Additional Information:
Benefits:
1. Soil Health: It enhances soil organic carbon and overall fertility.
2. Nutrient Recycling: It converts crop residues into simpler compounds, improving
nutrient availability for the next crop cycle.
3. Reduces Pollution: It helps to prevent harmful practices like stubble burning, which
contributes to air pollution.
4. Cost-effective: It minimizes the need for chemical fertilizers by enriching the soil
naturally.
5. Zero-waste Agriculture: It supports the practice of zero-waste farming by managing
agricultural waste efficiently.
6. Enhances Organic Farming: It promotes organic farming practices by enriching soil
naturally without harmful chemicals.
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