Geography

Subject Social Science (Geography)

Class 10

Board CBSE and State Boards

Chapter No. 1

Chapter Name Resources and Development

Type Important Questions and Answers

Session 2023-24

Weightage 4 marks

"Don't watch the clock; do what it does. Keep going."

- Sam Levenson

Resources and Development Class 10 Geography Important Questions with Answers

Q. No. 1) Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
i. Sharanya is making a list of natural resources for a project. She puts wing energy under
one column and coal under another column. On what basis is she classifying the resources?
a. On the basis of origin
b. On the basis of ownership
c. On the basis of exhaustibility
d. On the basis of the status of development
Ans. Option (c)
ii. Match the following:
Resources Examples

A. Renewable resources I. Forest and wildlife

B. Non-renewable resources II. The oceanic resources

C. National resources III. Roads, canals, and railway

D. International resources IV. Minerals and fossil fuels

Options
a. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
b. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
c. A-IV, B-I, C-IV, D-II
d. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
Ans. Option (a).
iii. India’s territorial water extends up to a distance of ____.
a. 12 km
b. 12 nautical miles
c. 19.2 miles
d. 200 nautical miles
Ans. Option (b) [12 nautical miles or 22.2 km]
iv. The ocean resources beyond 200 nautical miles are classified under which zone?
a. Exclusive Economic Zone
b. Export Processing Zone
c. Special Economic Zone
d. None of these
Ans. Option (a)
v. Which one of the following conferences was convened to discuss environmental
protection and socio-economic development at the global level in 1992?
a. Kyoto Protocol
b. Montreal Protocol
c. Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit
d. World Summit on Sustainable Development
Ans. Option (c)
vi. What is the aim of Agenda 21?
a. Technological development
b. Globalization
c. Economic development
d. Global sustainable development
Ans. Option (d)
vii. Which relief feature of India has 30% of the total surface area of the country?
a. Plateau
b. Mountain
c. Plain
d. Desert
Ans. Option (b)
viii. What percentage of land in India consists of fertile plains?
a. 70 %
b. 38 %
c. 61 %
d. 43 %
Ans. Option (d)
ix. Which of the following relief features of India possess the highest reserves of minerals
and fossil fuels?
a. Coastal plain
PUBLICb. Gangetic plain
c. Shivalik mountains
d. Chotanagpur plateau
Ans. Option (d)
x. Read the passage given below and answer the question that follows:
Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, and Madhya Pradesh are rich in mineral deposits. Arunachal
Pradesh has abundant water resources but lacks infrastructural development. Rajasthan is
endowed with solar and wind energy but lacks water resources. The cold desert of Ladakh
has a rich cultural heritage but it is deficient in water and infrastructure.
Which of the following BEST describes the passage?
a. All regions in India are economically self-sufficient to utilize resources.
b. Only Rajasthan has the scope to utilize renewable resources.
c. India has enormous diversity in the availability of resources.
d. Resource diversity is prevalent only in north India.
Ans. Option (c).
xi. The land which is left uncultivated for one or less than one agricultural year is called
_____.
a. Culturable wasteland
b. Current fallow land
c. Net sown area
d. Gross cropped area
Ans. Option (b)
xii. The piece of land left uncultivated for more than 5 agricultural years is called _____.
a. Barren land
b. Forest land
c. Grazing land
d. Culturable waste land
Ans. Option (d)
xiii. Which one of the following is an example of a Cultivable Wasteland?
a. Gross cropped area
b. Uncultivable land
c. Barren wasteland
d. Current fallow land
Ans. Option (b).
xiv. Forest area in the country is far lower than the desired _____ percent of geographical
area, as it was outlined in the National Forest Policy, 1952.
a. 24.43
b. 33
c. 30
d. 35
Ans. Option (b)
xv. India has land under a variety of relief features. Which of the following features ensure
the perennial flow of some rivers, and provide facilities for tourism and ecological aspects?
a. Plains
b. Plateaus
c. Islands
d. Mountains
Ans. Option (d).
xvi. Continuous use of land over a long period of time without taking appropriate measures
results in _____.
a. Land degradation
b. Soil erosion
c. Loss of soil nutrients
d. Denudation
Ans. Option (a)
xvii. Overgrazing is one of the main reasons for land degradation in the following states.
a. Punjab, Haryana, Western Uttar Pradesh
b. Maharashtra and Gujarat
c. Gujarat, Rajasthan, MP, Maharashtra
d. Maharashtra and Uttar Pradesh
Ans. Option (c)
xviii. In which of the following states, deforestation caused land degradation due to
mining?
a. Kerala
b. Punjab
c. Odisha
d. Rajasthan
Ans. Option (c) [In states like Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, and Odisha
deforestation due to mining is the main cause of land degradation.]
xix. Name the soil which is most widely spread in India.
a. Alluvial
b. Laterite
c. Black
d. Mountainous soil
Ans. Option (a)
xx. Name the soil which is generally poor in Phosphoric contents.
a. Mountain soil
b. Red soil
c. Black soil
d. Laterite soil
Ans. Option (c)
xxi. Which soil is also known as regur soil?
a. Black soil
b. Red soil
c. Alluvial soil
d. Laterite soil
Ans. Option (a)
xxii. Identify the soil with the help of clues given below:
• Develops in areas with high temperatures and heavy rainfall
• Is low in humus content
• Found in the hilly areas of Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu
Options
a. Forest soil
b. Yellow soil
c. Black soil
d. Laterite soil
Ans. Option (d) [Also remember the above features of laterite soil]
xxiii. By which name is the bad land in the Chambal basin known?
a. Fallow land
b. Ravines
c. Gullies
d. Wasteland
Ans. Option (b)
xxiv. What contributes to the stabilization of sand dunes in western India?
a. Shelter belts
b. Strip cropping
c. Terrace farming
d. Contour ploughing
Ans. Option (a)
xxv. Match the following efforts of resource conservation from column A with years from
column B.
Column A (Resource Conservation Efforts) Column B (Years)

A. The Club of Rome advocated resource conservation i. 1992

B. Gandhian Philosophy presented in "Small is Beautiful" ii. 1987

C. Brundtland Commission Report on "Sustainable Development" iii. 1974

D. Earth Summit at Rio de Janeiro iv. 1968

a. A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii

b. A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
c. A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
d. A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
Ans. Option (c)
xxvi. Match the items in Column A with that in Column B.
Column A Column B

A. Potential i. Solar Energy

B. Stock ii. Ponds

C. Individual iii. Wind energy in Rajasthan

D. Renewable iv. Hydrogen

a. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
b. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
c. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
d. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
Ans. Option (b)
xxvii. There are two statements given below, marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Resource planning is a complex process.
Reason (R): Resource planning helps in the effective and judicious use of resources.
Options
a. A is true but R is false
b. A is false but R is true
c. Both A and R are true and R explains A
d. Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
Ans. Option (d)
Q. No. 2) Identify the soil with the help of the following features.
• Red to brown in color
• Sandy in texture and saline in nature
• Lacks humus and moisture
• Develops due to high temperature and evaporation
Ans. Arid soil. [*Also remember the above features of arid soil. Questions can be asked like this:
Mention any 3 features of arid soil.]
Q. No. 3) Identify the soil with the help of the following features.
• It consists of various proportions of sand, silt, and clay.
• Soil particles appear somewhat bigger in size when we move closer to the
river valley.
• Such soils are more common in piedmont plains such as Duars, Chos, and
Terai.
Ans. Alluvial soil. [*Also remember the above features of alluvial soil. Questions can be asked
like this: Mention any 3 features of alluvial soil.]
Q. No. 4) Identify the soil with the help of the following features.
• It develops under tropical and subtropical climates with an alternate wet and
dry season.
• Mostly deep to very deep, acidic, and generally deficient in plant nutrients.
• It is humus-rich, but under sparse vegetation and in a semi-arid
environment, it is generally humus poor.
• They are prone to erosion.
Ans. Laterite soil. [*Also remember the above features of the soil. Questions can be asked like
this: Mention any 3 features of laterite soil.]
Q. No. 5) Define resources.
Ans. Everything available in our environment which can be used to satisfy our needs, provided,
it is technologically accessible, economically feasible, and culturally acceptable can be termed as
a ‘Resource’.
Q. No. 6) Explain the classification of resources on the basis of origin.
Ans. Classification of resources on the basis of origin:
• Biotic resources
 • Abiotic resources
Q. No. 7) Classify the resources on the basis of exhaustibility.
Ans. Renewable and Non-renewable resources.
Q. No. 8) Provide a suitable classification of resources on the basis of ownership.
Ans. Classification of resources on the basis of ownership:
• Individual resources
• Community-owned resources
• National resources
• International resources
Q. No. 9) Examine the major problems created as a result of the indiscriminate utilization of
natural resources. How can this situation be averted?
Ans. The problems created as a result of indiscriminate utilization of natural resources are:
• Depletion of resources at a faster rate for satisfying the greed of a few individuals.
• Accumulation of resources in few hands, as a result, dividing the society into two
segments i.e., haves and have-nots or rich and poor.
• Increase in global ecological crises such as global warming, ozone layer
depletion, environmental pollution, and land degradation.
Ways to avoid this situation:
• Judicious use of resources should be done keeping in mind the need of the present
and future.
• There should be equal distribution and sharing of resources so that everyone gets
desired benefits.
• Resource planning should be done.
• We should divert ourselves to the use of non-conventional sources.
Q. No. 10) What is Agenda 21? List its two principles.
Ans. Agenda 21 is the declaration signed by world leaders in 1992 at the United Nations
Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), which took place in Rio de Janeiro,
Brazil. It aims at achieving global sustainable development.
The two principles are:
• To combat environmental damage, poverty, and disease through global
cooperation on common interests, mutual needs, and shared responsibilities.
• Every local government should draw its own local Agenda 21.
Q. No. 11) Why is resource planning essential?
Or,
What is the need of doing resource planning in a country like India?
Ans. Resource planning is essential because:
• Resource planning is a widely accepted strategy for the judicious use of resources.
• Resources in India are not evenly distributed. Some parts of the country are rich
in one resource but deficient in other important resources. For example –
Rajasthan is rich in solar and wind energy but lacks water resources. Jharkhand is
rich in minerals and coal deposits but lacks industrialization.
• Most of the resources present in our environment are limited. Therefore, if these
resources are not preserved or not used rationally we will be in great trouble.
• To reduce regional disparity.
• To save for future generations and to avoid wastage or overutilization of
resources.
Q. No. 12) What are the three stages of resource planning?
Ans. The three stages of resource planning are:
• Identification and inventory of resources across the regions of the country. This
involves surveying, mapping, and qualitative and quantitative estimation and
measurement of the resources.
• Evolving a planning structure endowed with appropriate technology, skill, and
institutional setup for implementing resource development plans.
• Matching the resource development plans with overall national development
plans.
Q. No. 13) Write any three human activities which are responsible for land degradation in India.
Ans. Three human activities responsible for land degradation in India are:
• Mining: Expansion of mining and quarrying have contributed significantly to land
degradation. In Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, and Orissa
deforestation due to mining have caused severe land degradation.
• Over-grazing: In states like Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, and Maharashtra
overgrazing is one of the main reasons for land degradation
• Over-irrigation: In the states of Punjab, Haryana, and western Uttar Pradesh, over-
irrigation is responsible for land degradation due to water logging leading to an
increase in salinity and alkalinity in the soil.
• Mineral processing like the grinding of limestone for the cement industry and
calcite and soapstone for the ceramic industry generates huge quantities of dust in
the atmosphere. It retards the process of infiltration of water into the soil after it
settles down on the land.
Q. No. 14) Suggest and explain ways to protect the land from degradation in various states of
India.
Or,
Describe any three measures of controlling land degradation.
Ans. Measures to control land degradation:
• Afforestation and proper management of grazing should be done.
• Planting of shelter belts of plants and control over grazing should be done.
• Stabilization of sand dunes by growing thorny bushes.
• Control of mining activities and proper management of waste lands should be
done.
• Proper discharge and disposal of industrial effluents and wastes after treatment.
Q. No. 15) Explain the various purpose of land use.
Ans. Land resources are used for the following purposes:
i. Forests
ii. Land not available for cultivation
1. Barren and wasteland
2. Land put to non-agricultural uses, e.g. buildings, roads, factories, etc.
iii. Other uncultivated lands (excluding fallow land)
1. Permanent pastures and grazing land
2. Land under miscellaneous tree crops groves (not included in the net sown area)
3. Culturable wasteland (left uncultivated for more than 5 agricultural years)
iv. Fallow lands
1. Current fallow (left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year)
 2. Other than the current fallow (left uncultivated for the past 1 to 5 agricultural
years)
v. Gross cropped area
Area sown more than once in an agricultural year plus the net sown area is known as gross
cropped area.
Q. No. 16) Study the pie diagram representing the land use data of India for the year 1960-61 &
2014-15 and answer the following questions:

a. Mention the percentage of land under the net sown area in 1960-61 & 2014-15 respectively.
b. Why maximum share of land is under Net Sown Area in India? Give two reasons.
c. State why 33 % of the geographical area should be under forest as mentioned in the National
Forest Policy of 1952? Give two reasons.
Ans. a.
• 1960-61: 45.26%
• 2014-15: 45.5%
b. Maximum share of land is under the net sown area in India because:
• The growing food demand to feed the growing population of India is responsible
for the maximum share of land under the net sown area.
 • To achieve food security the share of land under the net sown area is more.
c. The reasons are:
• 33 % of the geographical area should be under forest as it is essential for
maintaining ecological balance.
• It provides a livelihood to millions of people who live on the fringes of these
forests and depend upon it.
Q. No. 17) What type of soil is found in the river deltas of the eastern coast? Give four main
features of this type of soil.
Ans. Alluvial soil is found in the entire northern plain. It is the most widely spread soil in India.
The main features of alluvial soil are:
• It is formed by the sediments deposited by river water.
• It consists of various proportions of sand, silt, and clay.
• It is very fertile. It contains an adequate proportion of potash, phosphoric acid,
and lime.
• It is ideal for the growth of sugarcane, paddy, wheat, and other cereals.
• Due to its high fertility, regions of alluvial soils are intensively cultivated and
densely populated.
Q. No. 18) Classify alluvial soil on the basis of age and differentiate between them.
Or,
Distinguish between Khadar and Bangar soil.
Ans. According to age, alluvial soils can be classified as old alluvial (Bangar) and new alluvial
(Khadar).
Khadar Bangar

i. It is a new alluvial soil. i. It is an old alluvial soil.

ii. Lower concentration of kankar nodules. ii. Higher concentration of kankar nodules.

iii. It has more fine particles. iii. It has less fine particles.

iv. It is more fertile. iv. It is less fertile.

Q. No. 19) Write the features of ‘regur’ soil.

Ans. The following are the characteristics of regur soil (also known as black soil):
• It is made up of extremely fine clayey material. They are well-known for their
capacity to hold moisture.
• It is rich in soil nutrients such as calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash, and lime.
• These soils are generally poor in phosphoric contents.
• They develop deep cracks during hot weather, which helps in the proper aeration
of the soil.
• It is ideal for growing cotton, so it is also known as ‘black cotton soil’.
Q. No. 20) Distinguish between red and laterite soils.
Ans.
Red soil Laterite soil
 i. Formed due to the weathering of igneous and
i. Formed by the leaching process.
metamorphic rocks.

ii. Develop in areas of low rainfall. ii. Develop in areas of high rainfall.

iii. Red in color due to the presence of iron in iii. Red in color due to little clay and
them. much gravel of red sandstones

iv. These are less crystalline. iv. These are crystalline.

v. These are highly porous and less fertile, but v. These are less fertile, only grass grows
where these are deep, these are fertile. in abundance.

Q. No. 21) Define soil erosion. Explain the two types of soil erosion mostly observed in India.
What are the causes of soil erosion in India?
Ans. Soil erosion is the displacement of the upper layer of soil, caused by various agents such as
water, wind, and human activities. This can lead to loss of fertile land, reduced crop yields, and
increased risk of landslides and flooding.
Types of soil erosion:
• Gullies: The running water cuts through the clayey soil and makes deep
channels/gullies. The unfit land caused by gullies is called bad land or ravines.
• Sheet erosion: Water flows as a sheet over large areas down a slope. The topsoil is
washed away. This process is known as sheet erosion.
Causes of soil erosion:
• Human activities like deforestation, over-grazing, construction, mining, etc. are
responsible for soil erosion.
• Natural forces like wind, glaciers, and water also lead to soil erosion. Running
water cuts through the clayey soil and makes deep channels known as gullies,
which makes the land unfit for cultivation. The wind blows loose soil off flat or
sloping land known as wind erosion.
• Soil erosion is also caused due to defective methods of farming. Ploughing in the
wrong way i.e., up and down the slope forms channels for the quick flow of water
leading to soil erosion.
Q. No. 22) What are the factors that have contributed to the development of various types of soils
in India? Suggest any three methods through which soil erosion can be prevented.
Or,
Suggest any three methods of soil conservation suitable to Indian conditions.
Or,
What steps can be taken to control soil erosion in hilly areas?
Ans. India has varied relief features, landforms, climatic reals, and vegetation types which have
contributed to the development of various types of soils.
Measures to prevent soil erosion:
• Contour ploughing: Ploughing along the contour lines can decrease the speed of
water flow down the slopes and soil erosion can be prevented.
• Terrace cultivation: Step or terrace cultivation on slopes restricts erosion. Western
and Central Himalayas have well-developed terrace farming.
 • Strip cropping: Large fields can be divided into strips and strips of grass are left to
grow between the crops. This breaks up the force of the wind and prevents soil
erosion.
• Shelter belts: Rows of trees called shelter belts have led to the stabilization of
sand dunes in the desert in western India.

Subject Social Science (Geography)

Class 10

Board CBSE and State Boards

Chapter No. 2

Chapter Name Forest and Wildlife Resources

Type Important Questions and Answers

Session 2023-24

Weightage 2 marks

Forest and Wildlife Resources Class 10 Important Questions with Answers

Q. No. 1) Which of the following options represent potential measures that can be taken to
mitigate the threats posed to the tiger population and biodiversity?
1. Banning hunting, giving legal protection to their habitats, and restricting
trade in wildlife
2. Prohibiting the visit of the public into the forest area.
3. Establishing wildlife sanctuaries and National Parks
4. Converting forests into Reserved and Protected forests
Options:
a. Statement 1 and 2 are correct.
b. Statement 2, 3 & 4 are correct
c. Statement 2 is correct.
d. Statement 1, 3 & 4 are correct.
Ans. Option (d)
Q. No. 2) What is Biodiversity? Why is biodiversity important for human lives?
Ans. Biodiversity is the number and variety of organisms found within a specified geographic
region. It refers to the varieties of plants, animals, and microorganisms, the genes they contain,
and the ecosystems they form.
Importance of Biodiversity:
 • The plants, animals, and micro-organisms re-create the quality of the air we
breathe, the water we drink, and the soil that produces our food without which we
cannot survive.
• Forests play a key role in the ecological system as these are also the primary
producers on which all other living beings depend.
• The forest ecosystems are repositories of some of the country's most valuable
forest products, minerals, and other resources that meet the demands of the
rapidly expanding industrial-urban economy.
Q. No. 3) “Forests play a key role in the ecological system.” Highlight the value of forests in our
life.
Ans. Importance of Forests:
• Forests play a key role in the ecological system as these are the primary producers
on which all other living beings depend.
• It supports diverse flora and fauna which are part of our life.
• It provides us with fruits, flowers, medicine, wood, etc.
Q. No. 4) Which state has the largest area under permanent forest?
Ans. Madhya Pradesh.
Q. No. 5) What benefit do local communities get when they undertake protection activities
mostly on degraded forest land managed by the forest department?
Ans. The members of these communities are entitled to intermediary benefits like non-timber
forest produces and share in the timber harvested by ‘successful protection'.
Q. No. 6) What is Sacred Groves?
Ans. They are a form of nature worship practiced by the tribal people of India. Tribes consider
forests as Gods and Goddesses and preserve them in their pristine form. Any human interference
is banned in this Sacred Groves.
Q. No. 7) Classify the types of forests found in India and explain them.
Ans. Types of forests found in India:
• Reserved forests: More than half of the total forest land has been declared
reserved forests. Reserved forests are regarded as the most valuable as far as the
conservation of forest and wildlife resources is concerned.
• Protected forests: Almost 1/3rd of the total forest area is protected forest, as
declared by the Forest Department. This forest land is protected from any further
depletion.
• Unclassed forests: These are other forests and wastelands belonging to both
government and private individuals and communities.
* Reserved and protected forests are also referred to as permanent forests.
Q. No. 8) How has Joint Forest Management (JFM) proved to be beneficial in Orissa?
Ans. JFM furnishes a good example for involving local communities in the management and
restoration of degraded forests. The program has been in formal existence since 1988 when the
state of Odisha passed the first resolution for joint forest management. JFM depends on the
formation of local (village) institutions that undertake protection activities mostly on degraded
forest land managed by the forest department. In return, the members of these communities are
entitled to intermediary benefits like non-timbers forest produces and share in the timber
harvested by ‘successful protection'.
Q. No. 9) Describe the steps taken by the government to protect the species from becoming
extinct.
Ans. Steps taken by the government to protect the species from becoming extinct are:
• The Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act was implemented in 1972, with various
provisions for protecting habitats.
• An all-India list of protected species was also published.
• The main focus was on protecting the remaining population of certain endangered
species by banning hunting, giving legal protection to their habitats, and
restricting trade in wildlife.
• Central and many state governments established national parks and wildlife
sanctuaries.
• The central government also announced several projects for protecting specific
animals, which were seriously threatened such as tigers, one-horned rhinoceros,
etc.
Q. No. 10) ‘Nature worship an age-old tribal belief has preserved several virgin forests in a
pristine form called sacred groves.’ Comment on the statement with the help of examples.
Ans. Sacred groves are a form of nature worship practiced by the tribal people of India. Tribes
consider forests as Gods and Goddesses and preserve them in their pristine form. These patches
of forest or parts of large forests have been left untouched by the local people and any
interference with them is banned.
Certain societies revere a particular tree that they have preserved from time immemorial. The
Mundas and the Santhal of the Chota Nagpur region worship mahua and kadamba trees, and the
tribals of Odisha and Bihar worship the tamarind and mango trees during weddings. To many of
us, peepal and banyan trees are considered sacred.
Sacred qualities are often ascribed to springs, mountain peaks, plants, and animals which are
closely protected.
Q. No. 11) Describe the role of the community in forest and wildlife conservation.
Ans. Role of the community in forest and wildlife conservation:
• In some areas of India, local communities are struggling to conserve forests (their
habitat) along with government officials.
• In Sariska Tiger Reserve, Rajasthan, villagers have fought against mining by
citing the Wildlife Protection Act.
• The inhabitants of five villages in the Alwar district of Rajasthan have declared
1,200 hectares of forest as the Bhairodev Dakav ‘Sonchuri’, declaring their own
set of rules and regulations which do not allow hunting and protecting the wildlife
against any outside encroachments.
• The famous Chipko movement in the Himalayas successfully resisted
deforestation and showed that community afforestation with indigenous species
can be enormously successful.
• Farmers and citizen groups like the Beej Bachao Andolan in Tehri and Navdanya
have shown that diversified crop production without the use of synthetic
chemicals is possible and economically viable.
• Joint Forest Management is a program that involves local communities in the
management and restoration of degraded forests.
 Class 10

Board CBSE

Chapter No. 3

Chapter
Water Resources
Name

Important Questions &

Type
Answers

Session 2023-24

Weightage 04 marks

"Every student can learn. Just not on the same day or the same way."

Water Resources Class 10 Geography Important Questions with Answers

Q. No. 1) Rooftop rainwater harvesting was commonly practiced to store drinking water,
particularly in __________.
Ans. Rajasthan.
Q. No. 2) Which place in India has an artificial lake to conserve water that dates to the 11th
century?
a. Delhi
b. Bhopal
c. Mumbai
d. Kolhapur
Ans. Option (b)
Q. No. 3) Explain how water becomes a renewable resource.
Ans. Freshwater is mainly obtained from surface runoff and groundwater that is continually
being renewed and rechanged through the hydrological cycle. All water moves within the
hydrological cycle ensuring that water is a renewable resource.
Q. No. 4) Why does the availability of water resources vary over space and time?
Ans. The availability of water resources varies over space and time, mainly due to the variations
in seasonal and annual precipitation.
Q. No. 5) Which state has a 200-year-old system of tapping stream and spring water by
using bamboo pipes?
Ans. Meghalaya.
Q. No. 6) Multipurpose projects and large dams have come under great scrutiny and
opposition. Explain with reason.
Ans. Multipurpose projects and large dams have come under great scrutiny and opposition
because:
• Regulating and damming rivers affect their natural flow causing poor sediment
flow and excessive sedimentation at the bottom of the reservoir, resulting in
rockier stream beds and poorer habitats for the rivers’ aquatic life.
• Dams also fragment rivers making it difficult for aquatic fauna to migrate,
especially for spawning.
• The dams have triggered floods due to sedimentation in the reservoir and the
release of excess water during heavy rains.
• Multipurpose projects induced earthquakes, caused water-borne diseases, and
pests, and lead to pollution resulting from excessive use of water.
Q. No. 7) How is agriculture responsible for creating stress on water resources? Suggest
any one solution for it.
Ans. Agriculture is responsible for creating stress on water resources in the following ways:
• To facilitate higher food-grain production, water resources are being over-
exploited to expand irrigated areas for dry-season agriculture.
• Irrigated agriculture is the largest consumer of water.
• Most farmers have their own wells and tube wells on their farms for irrigation to
increase their productivity. This lead to falling groundwater levels, adversely
affecting water availability and food security of the people.
Q. No. 8) What are the diversion channels of the Western Himalayas called?
Ans. Guls or Kuls.
Q. No. 9) Case-Based Question:
Maharashtra is a state located in western India, with a population of over 110 million people. The
state is home to several large cities, including Mumbai, and has a significant agricultural sector.
However, the state is facing a severe water crisis, with its water resources coming under
increasing pressure due to climate change, industrialization, and urbanization. The main
challenges faced by water resource management in Maharashtra are:
I. Overexploitation of groundwater: Maharashtra is one of the most groundwater-stressed states
in India, with the demand for water exceeding the supply. Overexploitation of groundwater for
agriculture and urban use has led to a decline in water levels, which has severe implications for
the sustainability of water
resources.
II. Pollution of surface water: Industrialization and urbanization have led to the pollution of
surface water bodies such as rivers and lakes. The pollution has led to water quality degradation,
which poses risks to human health and the environment.
III. Inefficient irrigation practices: The agricultural sector is the largest user of water in
Maharashtra, accounting for around 80% of total water use. However, traditional irrigation
practices such as flood irrigation are inefficient and lead to the wastage of water.
i. Mention any two reasons for the water crisis faced by the state of Maharashtra.
Ans. Two reasons for Maharashtra facing a water crisis are over-exploitation of groundwater and
pollution of surface water bodies due to industrialization and urbanization.
ii. Despite being the second-highest rainfall-receiving state of the country, Maharashtra still faces
a water crisis. Substantiate this statement in 40 words.
Ans. Despite receiving the second-highest rainfall in the country, traditional irrigation practices
like flood irrigation leading to water shortages in Maharashtra. This is because flood irrigation
involves excessive water use, and the water gets lost due to runoff, leading to less water available
for other uses.
iii. Propose any one solution to mitigate the water crisis faced by Maharashtra state.
Ans:
• To mitigate the water crisis in Maharashtra, one solution could be to promote the
adoption of more efficient irrigation practices, such as drip irrigation and sprinkler
systems, that use less water and are more targeted in their delivery.
• The state can also use a rainwater harvesting system to improve groundwater
levels along the western side of the Western Ghats which receive maximum
rainfall. This will increase the efficiency of water use in the state of Maharashtra.
Q. No. 10) Intensive industrialization and urbanization exerted pressure on existing
freshwater resources. Justify the statement with suitable examples.
Ans. Intensive industrialization and urbanization have exerted pressure on existing freshwater
resources:
• Post-independent India witnessed intensive industrialization and urbanization.
• The ever-increasing number of industries has made matters worse by exerting
pressure on existing freshwater resources.
• Industries, apart from being heavy users of water, also require power to run them.
• Much of this energy comes from hydroelectric power.
• Today, in India hydroelectric power contributes approximately 22% of the total
electricity produced.
• Multiplying urban centers with large and dense populations and urban lifestyles
has not only added to water and energy requirements but has further aggravated
the problem.
• Most of the housing societies or colonies in the cities have their own groundwater
pumping devices, which result in the over-exploitation of fragile water resources.
Q. No. 11) On which river Bhakra-Nangal Dam has been constructed?
Ans. Sutluj.
Q. No. 12) The Hirakud project in the ________ basin integrated the conservation of water
with flood control.
Ans. Mahanadi.
Q. No. 13) How are multipurpose projects and large dams the cause of social movements?
Ans. Multipurpose projects and large dams are the cause of social movements:
• Multi-purpose projects and large dams have been the cause of many new
environmental movements like the ‘Narmada Bachao Andolan’ and the ‘Tehri
Dam Andolan’.
• Resistance to these projects has primarily been due to the large-scale displacement
of local communities.
• Local people often had to give up their land, livelihood, and their meager access
and control over resources for the greater good of the nation.
• But these local people are not benefited much from these projects. The benefited
ones are the landowners and large farmers, industrialists, and a few urban centers.
Q. No. 14) Who proclaimed dams as the temples of modern India? Why?
Ans. Jawaharlal Nehru proclaimed the dams as the ‘Temples of modern India’ because
 • They integrate the development of agriculture and the village economy with rapid
industrialization and growth of the urban economy.
• They provide water for irrigation.
• They provide water for electricity generation
• Provide water supply for domestic and industrial uses.
• Helps in flood control.
• Provide recreation
• Helps in inland navigation.
• Useful for fish breeding.
Q. No. 15) What is the need for rainwater harvesting?
Ans. The need for rainwater harvesting are:
• Rainwater harvesting is needed to provide it for agriculture, collect drinking
water, irrigate the fields, and to moisten the soil.
• Rainwater harvesting is a viable alternative, both socio-economically and
environmentally to multipurpose projects.
Q. No. 16) What is a multipurpose river valley project? Mention any four objectives of it.
Ans. A project where many uses of the impounded water are integrated with one another is
known as a multipurpose project. It is built for –
• Irrigation
• Electricity generation
• Water supply for domestic and industrial uses
• Flood control
• Recreation
• Inland navigation
• Fish breeding.
Q. No. 17) What is water scarcity and what are its main causes?
Ans. Water scarcity is the lack of freshwater resources to meet the demands of water usage
within a region.
Main causes of water scarcity:
• Water scarcity in most cases is caused by over-exploitation, excessive use, and
unequal access to water among different social groups.
• Water scarcity may be an outcome of a large and growing population and
consequent greater demands for water and unequal access to it.
• To facilitate higher food-grain production, water resources are being over-
exploited to expand irrigated areas for dry-season agriculture.
• Intensive industrialization and urbanization exerted pressure on existing
freshwater resources.
• Even if water is sufficiently available to meet the needs of the people, much of it
is maybe polluted by domestic and industrial wastes, chemicals, pesticides, and
fertilizers used in agriculture, thus causing water scarcity.
Q. No. 18) Explain the working of underground tanks as a part of the rooftop rainwater
harvesting system practiced in Rajasthan.
Or,
What do you understand by Palar Pani? How Palar Pani is collected?
Ans. Rainwater is commonly referred to as Palar Pani in the arid and semi-arid regions of
Rajasthan.
 • In the semi-arid and arid regions of Rajasthan, particularly in Bikaner, Phalodi,
and Barmer, almost all the houses traditionally had underground tanks for storing
drinking water.
• The tanks could be as large as a big room.
• The tanks were part of the well-developed rooftop rainwater harvesting system.
• They were connected to the sloping roofs of the houses through a pipe.
• Rain falling on the rooftops would travel down the pipe and be stored in these
underground tanks.
• The first spell of rain was usually not collected as this would clean the roofs and
the pipes.
• The rainwater from the subsequent showers was then collected.
Q. No. 19) Analyze the importance of rooftop rainwater harvesting in Rajasthan.
Ans. Importance of rooftop rainwater harvesting in Rajasthan:
• It was commonly practiced to store drinking water.
• The rainwater can be stored in the tanks till the next rainfall, making it an
extremely reliable source of drinking water when all other sources are dried up,
particularly in the summers.
• Rainwater (Palar Pani) is considered the purest form of natural water.
• Many houses construct underground rooms adjoining the ‘tanks’ to beat the
summer heat as it would keep the room cool.
• Some houses still maintain the tanks since they do not like the taste of tap water.
Q. No. 20) Describe any three traditional methods of rainwater harvesting adopted in
different parts of India.
Ans. Traditional methods of rainwater harvesting:
• In hill and mountainous regions, people built diversion channels like the ‘guls’ or
‘kuls’ of the Western Himalayas for agriculture.
• ‘Rooftop rainwater harvesting’ was commonly practiced to store drinking water,
particularly in Rajasthan.
• In the flood plains of Bengal, people developed inundation channels to irrigate
their fields.
• In semi-arid and arid regions, agricultural fields were converted into rain-fed
storage structures that allowed the water to stand and moisten the soil like the
‘khadins’ in Jaisalmer and ‘Johads’ in other parts of Rajasthan.
Q. No. 21) Compare the advantages and disadvantages of multi-purpose river valley
projects.
Ans. Advantages:
• They provide water for irrigation.
• They provide water for electricity generation
• Provide water supply for domestic and industrial uses.
• Helps in flood control.
• Provide recreation
• Helps in inland navigation.
• Useful for fish breeding.
Disadvantages:
 3. Regulating and damming of rivers affect their natural flow causing poor sediment
flow and excessive sedimentation at the bottom of the reservoir, resulting in
rockier stream beds and poorer habitats for the rivers’ aquatic life.
4. Dams also fragment rivers making it difficult for aquatic fauna to migrate,
especially for spawning.
5. The dams have triggered floods due to sedimentation in the reservoir and the
release of excess water during heavy rains.
6. Multipurpose projects induced earthquakes, caused water-borne diseases, and
pests, and lead to pollution resulting from excessive use of water.
7. Irrigation has changed the cropping pattern of many regions with farmers shifting
to water-intensive and commercial crops. This has great ecological consequences
like salinization of the soil.
8. The dams increase the social gap between the richer landowners and the landless
poor.
9. The dams create inter-state water disputes with regard to sharing the costs and
benefits of the multi-purpose project.
Q. No. 22) What is Bamboo Drip Irrigation? Mention any two features of it.
Ans. The Bamboo Drip Irrigation system is a 200-year-old system of tapping stream and spring
water by using bamboo pipes and transporting water from higher to lower regions with the help
of gravity.
Features:
4. 18-20 liters of water enter the bamboo pipe system, gets transported over
hundreds of meters, and finally reduces to 20-80 drops per minute at the site of
the plant.
5. The flow of water into the pipes is controlled by manipulating the pipe positions.
6. If the pipes pass a road, they are taken high above the land.
CBSE Guidance

Subject Social Science (Geography)

Class 10

Board CBSE and State Boards

Chapter No. 4

Chapter Name Agriculture

Type Important Questions & Answers

Session 2023-24

Weightage 05 marks
"Focus on being productive instead of busy."

Agriculture Class 10 Important Questions & Answers

Q. No. 1) Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
i. Which type of agriculture practice is famous in North-Eastern states like Assam, Meghalaya,
Mizoram, and Nagaland?
a. Jhumming
b. Slash and burn farming
c. Commercial farming
d. Subsistence farming
Ans. Option (a)
ii. Jhumming in Brazil is called _____.
a. Ladang
b. Masole
c. Roca
d. None of these
Ans. Option (c)
iii. Choose the correctly matched pair about the Primitive Cultivation in India from the following
options:
a. Dahiya – Madhya Pradesh
b. Kumari - Jharkhand
c. Khil - Andhra Pradesh
d. Koman - Karnataka
Ans. Option (a)
iv. What is common between primitive subsistence farming and intensive subsistence farming?
a. Both require the use of modern machinery.
b. Both are done on large tracts of land.
c. Both require large amounts of credit.
d. Both are labor-intensive
Ans. Option (d)
v. Kamal uses high-yielding variety (HYV) seeds and chemical fertilizers to increase his wheat
production. Which type of farming is Kamal practicing?
a. Intensive subsistence farming
b. Primitive subsistence farming
c. Commercial farming
d. Organic farming
Ans. Option (c)
vi. Watermelon, muskmelon, cucumber, vegetables, and fodder crops are the types of _____.
a. Zaid crop
b. Kharif crop
c. Rabi crop
d. None of these
Ans. Option (a)
vii. Which of the following is the staple food crop of a majority of the people in India?
a. Jowar
b. Bajra
c. Wheat
d. Rice
Ans. Option (d)
viii. Which of the following crop is grown three times in a year and is also called Aus, Aman,
and Boro in the states of Assam, West Bengal, and Orissa?
a. Tea
b. Paddy
c. Wheat
d. Sugarcane
Ans. Option (b)
ix. Fill in the blank
Barley: Rabi crop, Cotton: Kharif crop, _____: Zaid crop.
a. Wheat
b. Mustard
c. Soya bean
d. Cucumber
Ans. Option (d)
x. Observe the flow chart given below:

What will come in the empty box?

a. Gram
b. Maize
c. Millets
d. Pulses
Ans. Option (c)
xi. Which of the following crops have high nutritional value?
a. Wheat
b. Rice
c. Millets
d. Maize
Ans. Option (c)
xii. A type of millet rich in iron, calcium, other micronutrients, and roughage is
a. Bajra
b. Rajma
c. Jowar
d. Ragi
Ans. Option (d)
xiii. Identify the crop with the help of the following information
• It is a crop that is used both as food and fodder.
• It is a kharif crop that requires a temperature between 21°C to 27°C.
• It grows well in old alluvial soil.
• The use of modern inputs has contributed to the increasing production of this
crop.
Options:
a. Wheat
b. Maize
c. Rice
d. Sugarcane
Ans. Option (b)
xiv. Which of the following crop do not help in restoring soil fertility by fixing nitrogen from the
air?
a. Tur (arhar)
b. Urad
c. Moong
d. Masur
Ans. Option (a)
xv. The largest tea-producing state is _____.
a. Karnataka
b. Assam
c. Andhra Pradesh
d. Arunachal Pradesh
Ans. Option (b)
xvi. Choose the correctly matched pair about the crops and the areas they are grown in:
a. Groundnut – Assam
b. Tea – Gujarat
c. Coffee – Karnataka
d. Sugarcane – Chhattisgarh
Ans. Option (c)
xvii. Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY reason why the Government of India
introduced a comprehensive land development program in the 1980s and 1990s?
a. To help farmers across the country as the earlier policies concentrated development in a few
states only
b. To help farmers grow those crops that are produced in countries where agriculture is
subsidized
c. To help farmers buy the land which was re-distributed during Bhoodan and Gramdan
d. To encourage farmers to practice organic farming and reduce environmental stress
Ans. Option (a)
xviii. Raghu was an Indian farmer during the 1950s. Which of the following institutional reforms
would he have witnessed in the 1950s?
a. Package technology being used in agriculture
b. Kissan Credit Card (KCC) being launched
c. Establishment of the Grameen banks
d. Abolition of the zamindari system
Ans. Option (d)
xix. Which of the following might NOT help in modernizing agriculture?
a. Improving rural infrastructure
b. Establishing agricultural universities
c. Increasing export duties on agricultural products
d. Investing in research in meteorology and weather forecast
Ans. Option (c)
xx. Look at this picture of Maahir, who practices organic farming from his rooftop.
What is MOST LIKELY to be true about Maahir?
a. He does not have enough money to buy crops from the market.
b. He is practicing a type of farming that is environmentally friendly.
c. He is only growing kharif crops on his rooftop.
d. He is a farmer by profession.
Ans. Option (b)
xxi. According to some economists, which of these is a quick fix for farmers to increase their
incomes and reduce environmental degradation?
a. diversifying their cropping pattern away from cereals
b. joining alternative employment opportunities in the agriculture sector
c. using high-yielding variety (HYV) seeds for obtaining higher productivity
d. seeking more subsidies on fertilizers and decreasing the cost of production
Ans. Option (a)
Q. No. 2) Case-Based Questions
A. Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate
option:
There has been a gradual shift from the cultivation of food crops to the cultivation of fruits,
vegetables, oil seeds, and industrial crops. This has led to the reduction in net sown area under
cereals and pulses. With the growing population of India, the declining food production puts a
big question mark on the country’s future food security. The competition for land between non-
agricultural uses such as housing etc. and agriculture has resulted in a reduction in the net sown
area. The productivity of land has started showing a declining trend. Fertilizers, pesticides, and
insecticides, which once showed dramatic results, are now being held responsible for degrading
the soils. Periodic scarcity of water has led to a reduction in the area under irrigation. Inefficient
water management has led to water logging and salinity.
i. One can infer from the above-given information that marginal and small farmers have been
pushed out of cultivation. Which one of the following is the prominent cause?
a. Food and fruit crops are expensive in the market
b. Shift to multifarious crops according to demand
c. Periodic scarcity of water in many regions
d. Soil degradation and extensive Green Revolution
Ans. Option (d)
ii. Read the following statements and find the correct ones from the given options:
• Indian farmers are diversifying their cropping pattern.
• They are shifting production from cereals to fruits, vegetables, etc.
• Jute is in high demand in the Indian market.
Options:
a. I & II
b. II&III
c. III Only
d. II Only
Ans. Option (a)
iii. According to the information given above, there has been a reduction in the net sown area
under cereals and pulses. Identify the reason.
a. Lack of markets to sell cereals and pulses
b. Earn more income from the non-agricultural sector
c. Need of huge labor in cultivating cereals and pulses
d. Availability of more profits from commercial crops
Ans. Option (d)
iv. ‘Fertilisers, pesticides, and insecticides, which once showed dramatic results, are now being
held responsible for degrading the soil.’ Infer the positive effects of these inputs noticed earlier
from the following statements:
a. These inputs have shown increased outputs and productivity.
b. These are integral to the process of reducing agrarian losses.
c. These inputs can cut the amount of harvestable produce.
d. These are the leading causes of mortality and health problems.
Ans. Option (a)
v. There are states in India that are using fertilizers, pesticides, and insecticides at an excessive
level to increase their agricultural production. Identify the states which are at a prominent level
from the following options.
a. Karnataka and Kerala
b. Haryana and Punjab
c. Punjab and Gujarat
d. Haryana and Telangana
Ans. Option (b)
vi. Food production provides the base for food security and is a key determinant of food
availability. Why is this trend shifting towards industrial crops? Choose the correct option in
reference to the context.
a. To improve the land use pattern
b. To use intensive farming techniques
c. To improve the fertility of the soil
d. To fetch more income and high earnings
Ans. Option (d)
B. Read the information about climate-smart agriculture and answer the question that follows.
Climate-smart agriculture (CSA) is an approach that helps guide actions to transform agri-food
systems towards green and climate-resilient practices. CSA supports reaching internationally
agreed goals such as the Sustainable Development Goals and the Paris Agreement on climate
change. CSA supports the Food and Agriculture Organisation Strategic Framework 2022-2031
based on the Four Betters: better production, better nutrition, a better environment, and a better
life for all, leaving no one behind.
Source (edited): Food and Agriculture Organisation
(i) A CSA expert suggested increased production and consumption of millets in India. Justify
their stance.
(ii) What is the necessity to think of CSA in India?
(iii) Suggest two methods through which India can shift towards CSA.
Ans. i.
• Millets have high nutritional value.
• They are rainfed, hardly need any irrigation facilities, and hence can be grown in
arid and semi-arid regions.
• Millets do not require a lot of investment to flourish which can help them be great
commercial grain substitutes in poorer nations.
ii. It is important to start planning for CSA in India because of the changing climate due to global
warming.
iii.
• use of genetically modified seeds resistant to insect damage for cropping
• shift towards organic and natural farming methods
Q. No. 3) Why agriculture is the mainstay of India?
Or,
Write the features of Indian agriculture.
Ans. Agriculture is the mainstay of India due to the following reasons:
• Two-thirds of the population is engaged in agricultural activities.
• An age-old economic activity of India.
• Agriculture is a primary activity, which produces most of the food that we
consume.
• Besides food grains, it also produces raw materials for various industries.
• Some agricultural products like tea, coffee, spices, etc., are also exported.
Q. No. 4) i. Explain slash-and-burn agriculture. How it is known in different parts of India.
ii. By which other names are slash-and-burn farming or shifting agriculture known in
different countries?
Ans. i. Farmers clear a patch of land and produce cereals and other food crops to sustain their
families. When the soil fertility decreases, the farmers shift and clear a fresh patch of land for
cultivation. This type of shifting allows nature to replenish the fertility of the soil through natural
processes. Land productivity in this type of agriculture is low as the farmer does not use
fertilizers or other modern inputs.
It is known by different names in different parts of India:
• Jhumming in north-eastern states like Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, and
Nagaland.
• Pamlou in Manipur
• Dipa in Bastar district of Chattishgarh and in Andaman and Nicobar islands.
ii. Slash-and-burn farming or shifting agriculture is known by different names in different
countries
• Mexico and Central America – Milpa
• Venzuela – Conuco
• Brazil – Roca
• Vietnam – Ray
• Central Africa – Masole.
Q. No. 5) State the characteristics of primitive subsistence farming.
Ans. The characteristics of primitive subsistence farming are:
• In this type of farming, farmers grow crops for self-consumption.
• It is practiced on small patches of land.
• Farmers use primitive tools like hoe, dao, digging sticks, etc.
• Completely depends upon monsoon, natural fertility of the soil, and suitability of
other environmental conditions for the crops grown.
• Only family labor is used for farming.
• Land productivity is low.
• It is also known as slash-and-burn agriculture.
Q. N0. 6) Establish the difference between Commercial farming and Subsistence farming
with the help of a suitable example.
Ans.
Subsistence farming Commercial farming

i. Practiced on small patches of land. i. Practiced on big land holdings.

ii. Primitive techniques and tools are used. ii. Modern techniques and tools are used.

iii. Production for the local markets. iii. Production for the export.

iv. Dependent on monsoons. iv. Dependent on irrigation facilities.

v. Family members provide labor. v. Labourers are hired.

vi. No costly fertilizers are used. vi. Chemical fertilizers are used.

Q. No. 7) What is plantation farming? Describe its characteristics.

Ans. Plantation farming: The plantation is a type of commercial farming. In this type of farming,
a single crop is grown on a large area using capital-intensive inputs, with the help of migrant
laborers.
Examples: Tea, coffee, rubber, sugarcane, etc.
Characteristics of plantation farming:
• Plantations have very large areas.
• Capital-intensive inputs are used.
• Migrant labor is used.
• It is done mainly for the market. The sole aim is to earn profit.
• It has an interface between agriculture and industry.
• All the produce is used as raw material in respective industries.
Q. No. 8) Which are the main cropping seasons in India? Mention their growing and
harvesting periods.
Ans. India has three cropping seasons: Rabi, Kharif, and Zaid.
• Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December and harvested in
summer from April to June. Wheat, barley, peas, gram, etc. are the main rabi
crops.
• Kharif crops are sown with the onset of monsoon in June-July and harvested in
September-October. Rice, maize, jowar, bajra, tur, moong, cotton, jute, groundnut,
etc. are the main kharif crops.
• In between the rabi and the kharif seasons, there is a short season during the
summer months known as the Zaid season. Some of the crops of this season are
watermelon, muskmelon, cucumber, vegetables, and fodder crops.
Q. No. 9) What are the growing conditions required for the main staple food crop of India?
Mention the main growing regions.
Ans. Rice is the staple food crop of a majority of people in India.
Growing conditions required for rice are:
• Temperature: High temperature (above 25°C).
 • Rainfall: High humidity with annual rainfall above 100 cm.
• Agricultural season: Kharif crop
• Major producing areas: West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Punjab,
Haryana, Uttar Pradesh.
Q. No. 10) What are the geographical conditions required for the cultivation of wheat and
explain its distribution also.
Ans. Wheat is the second staple food crop of a majority of people in India.
Growing conditions required for wheat are:
• Temperature: It requires a cool growing season and bright sunshine at the time of
ripening.
• Rainfall: 50-75 cm of annual rainfall evenly distributed over the growing season.
• Agricultural season: Rabi crop
• Major producing areas: Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar,
and Rajasthan.
Q. No. 11) a. Name any two important pulse-producing states.
b. State the importance of ‘Pulses crop’.
c. Why the pulses are mostly grown in rotation with other crops?
Ans. a. Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, and Karnataka.
b. Importance of Pulses:
• A major source of protein in a vegetarian diet.
• Being leguminous crops, pulses help restore soil fertility (except arhar) by fixing
nitrogen from the air.
• Pulses need less moisture and survive even in dry conditions.
c. Pulses are mostly grown in rotation with other crops because pulses being leguminous crops
help in restoring soil fertility (except arhar) by fixing nitrogen from the air.
Q. No. 12) Mohan owns a farm in Uttar Pradesh. He wishes to cultivate either Jute or
Sugarcane. Which crop out of these two should he cultivate keeping in mind the conditions
required for their growth? Explain.
Ans. He should cultivate Sugarcane as the geographical conditions it requires are available in
Uttar Pradesh.
10. Sugarcane grows well in a hot and humid climate
11. Requires a temperature of 21°C to 27°C
12. Needs annual rainfall between 75cm and 100cm
13. Irrigation is required in regions of low rainfall.
14. It can be grown on a variety of soils and needs manual labor from sowing to
harvesting. All these conditions are available in Uttar Pradesh.
Q. No. 13) i. Name any four oilseeds produced in India. Explain the importance of oilseeds
in our day-to-day life.
ii. State the importance of groundnut. Which state is the largest producer of groundnut?
Ans. i. Major oil seeds produced in India are :
7. Groundnut
8. Mustard
9. Coconut
10. Sesamum (til)
11. Soyabean
12. Castor seeds
The importance of oilseeds are:
3. Most of the oilseeds are edible and used as cooking mediums.
4. Used as raw materials in the production of soap, cosmetics, and ointments.
ii. Importance of groundnut are:
• Most of the oilseeds are edible and used as cooking mediums.
• Used as raw materials in the production of soap, cosmetics, and ointments.
Gujarat was the largest producer of groundnut.
Q. No. 14) Name the beverage crop that was introduced by Britishers in India. Write the
geographical conditions needed for its cultivation. Also, mention its two major producing
states.
Ans. Tea.
Geographical conditions needed for the cultivation of tea are:
• Tea grows well in tropical and sub-tropical climates endowed with deep and
fertile well-drained soil, rich in humus and organic matter.
• Tea bushes require a warm and moist frost-free climate all through the year.
• Frequent showers evenly distributed over the year ensure continuous growth of
tender leaves.
Two major tea-producing states are Assam and West Bengal (hills of Darjeeling and Jalpaiguri
districts).
Q. No. 15) Mr. Palani is from Tamil Nādu, and wishes to cultivate either Tea or Wheat. Which
one of the crops out of the two can he cultivate in his state? Substantiate your answer with any
two reasons.
Ans. Mr. Palani must cultivate Tea in Tamilnadu as the soil and climatic conditions in Tamil
Nādu are suitable for growing Tea.
• The tea plant grows well in tropical and sub-tropical climates endowed with deep
and fertile well-drained laterite soil, rich in humus and organic matter. Tea bushes
require a warm and moist frost-free climate all through the year.
• Frequent showers evenly distributed over the year ensure continuous growth of
tender leaves.
Q. No. 16) Explain rubber cultivation in India under the following heads:
a. Importance
b. Geographical conditions
c. Any two rubber-producing states.
Ans. a. Importance: Rubber is an important raw material for industries.
b. Geographical conditions: It is an equatorial crop. It requires a moist and humid climate with
rainfall of more than 200 cm and temperature above 25°C.
c. Two rubber-producing states are Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, etc.
Q. No. 17) a. Name the four major fiber crops grown in India. Out of these which fibre is
not obtained directly from the crops? Write the name of its production method.
b. Discuss the geographical conditions required to grow golden fiber and cotton.
c. Mention any four uses of the golden fiber.
Ans. a. Four major fiber crops are cotton, jute, hemp, and natural silk.
Silk is not obtained directly from the crops. It is obtained through sericulture (i.e., rearing of
silkworms for the production of silk fiber is known as sericulture).
b. The geographical conditions required to grow jute (also known as golden fiber) are:
 • Grows well on well-drained fertile soils in the flood plains where soils are
renewed every year.
• High temperature is required during the time of growth.
• The geographical conditions required to grow cotton are:
• Cotton grows well in drier parts of the black cotton soil of the Deccan plateau.
• It requires high temperature, light rainfall/irrigation, 210 frost-free days, and
bright sun-shine for its growth.
• It is a Kharif crop and requires 6-8 months to mature.
c. It is used in making:
• Gunny bags
• Mats
• Ropes
• Yarn
• Carpets, etc.
Q. No. 18) Why do we need technical and institutional reforms in agriculture?
Ans. We need technical and institutional reforms in agriculture because:
• Sustained uses of land without compatible techno-institutional changes have
hindered the pace of agricultural development.
• In spite of the development of sources of irrigation, most of the farmers still
depend upon monsoons and natural fertility in order to carry on their agriculture.
• Agriculture which provides a livelihood for more than 60 % of its population,
needs some serious technical and institutional reforms.
Q. No. 19) Explain the technical and institutional reforms brought by the government to
improve the condition of Indian agriculture in the 1980s and 1990s.
Or,
Describe any five steps taken by the government of India to increase the productivity of
agriculture in India.
Ans. Institutional reforms
• Collectivization, consolidation of holdings, cooperation, and abolition of
zamindari, etc. were given priority to bring about institutional reforms after
Independence.
• Laws of land reforms were enacted.
• Provision of crop insurance against drought, flood, cyclone, fire, and disease.
• Establishment of Grameen banks, cooperative societies, and banks for providing
loan facilities to the farmers at lower rates of interest.
• Introduction of Kissan Credit Card (KCC) and Personal Accident Insurance
Scheme (PAIS).
Technological reforms
• Green revolution and white revolution (operation flood)
• HYV seeds, chemical fertilizers, and pesticides were provided.
• Methods of irrigation modernized.
• Latest agricultural equipment introduced.
• Special weather bulletins and agricultural programs for farmers were introduced
on Radio and Television.
• Announcement of minimum support price (MSP), remunerative and procurement
prices for important crops.
Q. No. 20) Describe the major challenges faced by the farmers in India.
Ans. The major challenges faced by the farmers in India are:
1. Indian farmers are facing a big challenge from international competition and a
reduction in public investment in the agriculture sector.
2. Subsidy on fertilizers is decreased leading to an increase in the cost of production.
3. Reduction in import duties on agricultural products has proved detrimental to
agriculture in the country.
4. Farmers are withdrawing their investment from agriculture causing a downfall in
employment in agriculture.
5. Uncertainty of monsoon.
Q. No. 21) Why Bhoodan and Gramdan are called bloodless revolutions?
Ans. It is called a bloodless revolution because some zamindars, owners of many villages offered
to distribute some villages among the landless, and many landowners chose to provide some part
of their land to the poor farmers due to the fear of the Land Ceiling Act.
Q. No. 22) The process of increasing the area under cultivation does not have a bright
future. What steps should be taken to increase the food supply?
Ans. The steps taken are:
• Increasing productivity by the use of modern agricultural inputs like HYV seeds,
irrigation, fertilizers, and pesticides.
• Initiating agricultural research to evolve better production techniques.
• Increasing the use of organic manure.
• Using better irrigation methods like sprinklers and drip irrigation to irrigate the
larger areas with less water.
• Implementing land reform measures like a ceiling on land holdings, consolidation
of holdings, etc.
Q. No. 23) Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
Today, Indian agriculture finds itself at a crossroads. To make agriculture successful and
profitable, proper thrust should be given to the improvement of the condition of marginal and
small farmers. The green revolution promised much. But today it’s under controversy. The
keyword today is “gene revolution”, which includes genetic engineering. Organic farming is
[also] much in vogue today because it is practiced without factory-made chemicals such as
fertilizers and pesticides. A few economists think that Indian farmers have a bleak future if they
continue growing food grains on the holdings that grow smaller and smaller as the population
rises. India’s rural population is about 600 million which depends upon 250 million
(approximate) hectares of agricultural land, an average of less than half a hectare per person.
Indian farmers should diversify their cropping pattern from cereals to high-value crops. This will
increase incomes and reduce environmental degradation simultaneously. Because fruits,
medicinal herbs, flowers, vegetables, and bio-diesel crops like jatropha and jojoba need much
less irrigation than rice or sugarcane. India’s diverse climate can be harnessed to grow a wide
range of high-value crops.
Source: NCERT Contemporary India, Chapter-4, Agriculture
a. Give two reasons why the Green Revolution is under controversy.
b. ‘.... holdings that grow smaller and smaller as the population rises.' Evaluate why this is
a concern.
c. Bio-diesel crops like jatropha and jojoba have been referred to as high-value crops.
Why?
Ans. a. The Green Revolution is under controversy because:
5. chemical fertilizers ruined the soil fertility
6. negatively affected biodiversity
7. adversely affected underground water
b. The sentence means that the yield per land holding will not be enough to feed the rising
population hence a shift in agricultural practices is required.
c. Bio-diesel crops like jatropha and jojoba have been referred to as high-value crops because:
• Bio-diesel crops are of high value as they act as alternatives to fuels from
nonrenewable sources.
• Another reason is that these crops do not require much water or farmers' attention
to grow

Subject Social Science (Geography)

Class 10

Board CBSE and State Boards

Chapter No. 5

Chapter Name Minerals and Energy Resources

Type Important Questions Answers

Session 2023-24

Weightage 3-6 marks

"The only limit to our realization of tomorrow will be our doubts of today."
- Franklin D. Roosevelt

Minerals and Energy Resources Class 10 Important Questions & Answers

Q. No. 1) Fill in the blanks:
• The toothbrush and tube containing paste are made up of plastic obtained from
_________.
• The sparkle in some toothpaste comes from _________.
• In __________ rocks are the minerals deposited and accumulated in the strata?
 • Ferrous minerals account for about ________ of the total value of production of
metallic minerals.
• ________ rock consists of a single mineral.
• ________ is the basic raw material for the cement industry.
• __________ metal is obtained from Bauxite.
• ________ sands in Kerala are rich in thorium.
• __________ is used in electric and electronic industries due to its excellent
dielectric strength and resistance to high voltage.
• ________ is the most popular coal in commercial use.
• The Badampahar mine in Mayurbhanj and Kendujhar district is situated in
__________.
• In India, the Gulf of Khambhat, The Gulf of Kuchch, and the Gangetic delta
provide ideal conditions for utilizing ________ energy.
• Iron ore is exported to Japan and South Korea via ____________ port.
• In _________ iron ore belt, Kudremukh mines are located.
• Larger occurrences of minerals in igneous and metamorphic rocks are found in
_________.
• _________ is the largest bauxite producer in India.
Ans.
Petroleum
•
Mica
•
Sedimentary
•
Three-fourth
•
Limestone
•
Limestone
•
Aluminium
•
Monazite
•
Mica
•
Bituminous
•
Odisha
•
Tidal energy
•
Vishakhapatnam.
•
Bellari-Chitradurga-Chikkamagaluru-Tumakuru
•
Lodes
•
Odisha
•
Q. No. 2) Match the items in Column A with that in Column B.
Column A (Resources) Column B (Category)

A. Potash i. Non-Ferrous Mineral

B. Tin ii. Energy Resource

C. Manganese iii. Non-metallic mineral

D. Coal iv. Metallic mineral

Ans. A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
Q. No. 3) i. Match the items in Column A with that in Column B.
Column A Column B

a. Odisha-Jharkhand belt i. Karnataka

b. Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur belt ii. Ratnagiri

c. Ballari-Chitradurga-Chikkamagaluru-Tumakuru belt iii. Mayurbhanj

d. Maharashtra-Goa belt iv. Chhattisgarh

Ans. a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

ii. Observe the map given below showing the distribution of thermal and nuclear power plants
across India.
Air Quality Index (AQI) is used to measure real-time air pollution levels. A high AQI represents
poor air quality.
Accordingly, which of the following regions marked on the map is LIKELY to experience
comparatively better AQI?
a. P
b. Q
c. R
d. S
Ans. Option (c)
iii. Sharanya is making a list of natural resources for a project. She puts wind energy under one
column and coal under another column.
On what basis is she classifying the resources?
a. on the basis of origin
b. on the basis of ownership
c. on the basis of exhaustibility
d. on the basis of status of development
Ans. Option (c)
Q. No. 4) Define mineral.
Ans. A mineral is a homogenous, naturally occurring substance with a definable internal
structure.
Q. No. 5) Name the hardest and softest mineral.
Ans.
• Hardest: Diamond
• Softest: Talc
Q. No. 6) Name the iron ore which is the most important industrial iron ore in terms of the
quantity used.
Ans. Hematite.
Q. No. 7) How do minerals occur in sedimentary rocks?
Ans. In sedimentary rocks, minerals occur in beds or layers. They have been formed as a result
of deposition, accumulation, and concentration in horizontal strata.
Q. No. 8) Name any two minerals formed due to evaporation, especially in arid regions.
Ans. Gypsum, Potash salt, Sodium salt.
Q. No. 9) Explain three factors that make mineral extractions commercially viable.
Ans. Factors that make mineral extractions commercially viable are:
• The concentration of minerals in the ore.
• The ease of extraction
• Closeness to the market.
Q. No. 10) Differentiate between ferrous and non-ferrous minerals.
Ans.
Ferrous minerals Non-ferrous minerals

i. Minerals have iron content. i. Minerals do not have iron content.

ii. They have in the development of ii. They play an important role in a number of
metallurgical industries. Engineering and electrical industries.

iii. Example: iron ore, manganese, etc. iii. Example: lead, zinc, gold, etc.

Q. No. 11) Which three places are connected with the HVJ gas pipeline?
Ans. Hazira, Vijaipur, and Jagdishpur.
Q. No. 12) Explain the reason why are mineral found in varied forms.
Ans. A particular mineral that will be formed from a certain combination of elements depends
upon the physical and chemical conditions under which the material forms.
Q. No. 13) What are placer deposits? Give examples of minerals found in such deposits.
Ans. Certain minerals may occur as alluvial deposits in the sands of valley floors and the base of
hills. These deposits are called placer deposits.
Gold, silver, tin, and platinum are found in such deposits.
Q. No. 14) Distinguish between Metallic minerals and Non-metallic minerals.
Ans.
Metallic minerals Non-metallic minerals

i. Metallic minerals are those which provide i. Non-metallic minerals are those which do
metal after processing such as iron, copper, not provide metals such as mica, potash, coal,
aluminium, etc. limestone, etc.

ii. They are often hard. ii. They are not so hard.

iii. They are generally associated with iii. They are generally associated with
igneous rocks. sedimentary rocks.

iv. They have a luster or shine of their own. iv. They do not have a shine.

v. They are ductile and malleable. v. They are not ductile and malleable.

Q. No. 15) Give one point of difference between Magnetite and Hematite.
Ans.
• Magnetite: Finest iron ore, has up to 70% iron content.
• Hematite: Has a slightly lower iron content (50-60%).
Q. No. 16) Describe any three characteristics of the Orissa Jharkhand belt of iron ore in
India.
Ans. Three characteristics of the Orissa Jharkhand belt of iron ore in India are:
• In Orissa, high-grade hematite ore is found
• It is found in Badampahar mines in the Mayurbhanj and Kendujhar districts.
• In the adjoining Singhbhum district of Jharkhand, hematite ore is mined in Gua
and Noamundi.
Q. No. 17) Mention any four uses of manganese ore.
Ans. Uses of Manganese ore are:
• It is used in the manufacturing of steel and ferromanganese alloys.
• To manufacture bleaching powder.
• To manufacture insecticides.
• To manufacture paints.
Q. No. 18) Swamy visited a coal field at Neyveli along with his class X classmates as a
school project last week. Name the type of coal found there.
Ans. Lignite coal.
Q. No. 19) How is bauxite formed? Give its uses. Discuss its distribution in India.
Ans. Formation: Bauxite deposits are formed by the decomposition of a wide variety of rocks
rich in aluminium silicates.
Uses:
 • Bauxite is a clay-like substance from which alumina and later aluminium are
obtained.
• Aluminium is an important metal because it combines the strength of metals such
as iron with extreme lightness and also with good conductivity and great
malleability.
Distribution:
• Bauxite is found in the Amarkantak Plateau, Maikal Hills, and the plateau region
of Bilaspur-Katni.
• Odisha is the largest bauxite-producing state in India.
Q. No. 20) Why is mica considered the most important mineral in electrical and electronic
industries?
Ans. Mica is considered the most important mineral in electrical and electronic industries
because:
• Excellent dielectric strength
• Low power loss factor
• Insulating properties
• Resistance to high voltage.
Q. No. 21) How has mining become a problem for workers and the environment?
Or,
Analyze the impact of mining activities on the local environment and the health of the
surrounding communities.
Ans. Problems for miners:
• The miners have to work under tough conditions where no natural light is
available.
• There is always a risk of collapse of the mine roof, inundation with water, and
fire.
• Miners are at great risk of getting afflicted with pulmonary disorders.
Environmental Damage:
• The water sources in the region get contaminated due to mining.
• Dumping of waste and slurry leads to the degradation of land, and soil, and an
increase in stream and river pollution.
Q. No. 22) What are the two main ways of generating electricity? How are they different
from each other?
Ans. Two main ways of generating electricity:
• Hydroelectricity
• Thermal electricity.

Thermal Electricity Hydro Electricity

1. It is obtained by using coal, petroleum, and natural gas. 1. It is produced from water.

2. It is a non-renewable resource. 2. It is renewable.

3. It causes pollution. 3. It does not cause pollution.

4. It is expensive in the long run. 4. It is cheaper in the long run.

Q. No. 23) Why should we conserve minerals? Suggest three ways to conserve minerals.
Ans. We need to conserve minerals because:
15. The strong dependence of industry and agriculture upon mineral deposits and the
substances manufactured from them.
16. The geological processes of mineral formation are very slow.
17. Mineral resources are finite and non-renewable.
18. Continued extraction of ores leads to increasing costs as mineral extraction comes
from greater depths along with a decrease in quality.
Ways to conserve minerals:
13. A concerted effort has to be made in order to use mineral resources in a planned
and sustainable manner.
14. Improved technologies need to be constantly evolved to allow the use of low-
grade ores at low costs.
15. Recycling of metals, using scrap metals and other substitutes.
Q. No. 24) Explain the difference between conventional and non-conventional sources of
energy. Name the two most common conventional resources used in rural India. Why the
use of these conventional sources are discouraged?
Ans.
Conventional source of energy Non-conventional source of energy

1. These are the sources of energy

1. These are the traditional sources of energy
developed recently from the sun, wind,
produced from coal, petroleum, and natural gas.
tide, etc.

2. They are non-renewable. 2. They are renewable.

3. Their generation is expensive. 3. Their generation is cheaper.

4. They are pollution-free/less pollution

4. They pollute the atmosphere on a large scale.
sources.

5. Example: Solar energy, wind energy,

5. Example: coal, petroleum, natural gas, etc.
tidal power, etc.

5. Firewood and cattle dung cake are most common in rural India. More than 70%
energy requirement of rural households is met by these two.
6. Continual use of firewood is increasingly becoming difficult due to decreasing
forest area. Using dung cake is discouraged because it consumes the most
valuable manure which could be used in agriculture.
Q. No. 25) Which minerals are used to obtain nuclear energy? How is nuclear energy
obtained? Mention the names of all six nuclear power stations in India.
Ans. Uranium and Thorium are used to obtain nuclear energy.
Nuclear energy is obtained by altering the structure of atoms. When such an alteration is made,
much energy is released in the form of heat and this is used to generate electric power.
Six nuclear power stations are:
• Naraura Power Plant in Uttar Pradesh
 • Rawat Bhata Power Plant in Rajasthan
• Kakrapara Power Plant in Gujarat
• Tarapur Power Plant in Maharashtra
• Kaiga Power Plant in Karnataka
• Kalpakkam Power Plant in Tamil Nadu
Q. No. 26) How can solar energy solve the energy problem to some extent in India?
Ans. Solar energy can solve the energy problems to some extent in India:
• India is a tropical country therefore it receives sunlight in abundance throughout
the year.
• Solar plants can be easily established in rural and remote areas.
• It will minimize the dependence of rural households on firewood and dung cakes
which in turn will contribute to environmental conservation and adequate quantity
of manure.
Q. No. 27) Define geothermal energy. Also mention two projects which have been set in
India to harness geothermal energy.
Ans. Geothermal energy refers to the heat and electricity produced by using the heat from the
interior of the Earth. Geothermal energy exists because the Earth grows progressively hotter with
increasing depth.
Two experimental projects have been set up in India to harness geothermal energy:
• One is located in the Parvati valley near Manikarn in Himachal Pradesh.
• The other is located in the Puga Valley, Ladakh.
Q. No. 28) ‘There is a pressing need to use non-conventional energy sources in
India.’ Analyze the statement with reasons.
Or,
“Non-conventional resources are the best option to conserve the natural resources” Substantiate
this statement with Examples.
Ans. There is a pressing need to use non-conventional sources of energy in India:
• Because of the growing consumption of energy, the country is becoming
increasingly dependent on fossil fuels.
• Rising prices of oil and gas and their potential shortages have raised uncertainties
about the security of the energy supply in the future.
• These can have serious repercussions on the growth of the national economy.
• Increasing the use of fossil fuels also causes environmental problems.
Q. No. 29) Name the most abundantly available fossil fuel in India. Evaluate the
importance of its different forms.
Ans. The most abundantly available fossil fuel in India is coal.
Forms of Coal:
• Peat: It has low carbon and high moisture content and low heating capacity.
• Lignite: It is low-grade brown coal that is soft with high moisture content. It is
used for generating electricity.
• Bituminous: It is the most popular coal for commercial use. It has a special value
for smelting iron in blast furnaces.
• Anthracite: It is the highest quality hard coal.
Q. No. 30) Highlight the importance of petroleum. Explain the occurrence of petroleum in
India.
Ans. Importance of petroleum:
 • It provides fuel for heat and lighting
• It provides lubricants for machinery
• It provides raw materials for a number of manufacturing industries.
• Petroleum refineries act as a ‘nodal industry’ for synthetic textile, fertilizer, and
numerous chemical industries.
Occurrence of petroleum:
• Most of the petroleum occurrences in India are associated with anticlines and fault
traps in the rock formations of the tertiary age.
• In regions of folding, anticline, or domes, it occurs where oil is trapped in the
crest of the upfold.
• Petroleum is also found in fault traps between porous and non-porous rocks.
Q. No. 31) Which are the potential sources of biogas? State any four benefits of biogas.
Ans. Potential sources of biogas: Shrubs, farm waste, animal waste, human waste, etc.
Benefits of biogas:
• High thermal efficiency in comparison to kerosene, dung cake, and charcoal.
• It burns without smoke, causing no pollution.
• It is the most efficient use of cattle dung.
• It improves the quality of manure and also prevents the loss of trees and manure
due to the burning of fuel wood and cow dung cakes.
Q. No. 32) Gobar Gas plants in rural India provide which twin benefits to the farmers?
Ans.
6. Provision of energy
7. Improved quality of manure.
Q. No. 33) Distinguish between natural gas and biogas.
Ans.
Natural gas Biogas

1. It is a non-conventional source of energy obtained from

1. It is a conventional source of
the decomposition of shrubs, farm waste, and animal and
energy.
human wastes.

2. It is used as a raw material in

2. It is used as fuel and for lighting homes.
the petrochemical industry.

3. It is mainly used in urban

3. It is mainly used in rural areas.
areas.

4. It is non-renewable. 4. It is renewable.

5. It is not environmentally
5. It is environmentally friendly.
friendly.

Q. No. 34) Explain the need to adopt a cautious approach for the judicious use of our
limited energy resources.
Ans. The need to adopt a cautious approach for the judicious use of our limited energy resources:
 • Energy is a basic requirement for economic development. Every sector of the
national economy like agriculture, industry, transport, commercial, and domestic
needs inputs of energy.
• India is presently one of the least energy-efficient countries in the world. There is
an urgent need to develop a sustainable path of energy development.
• Various development plans require increasing amounts of energy to remain
operational. The success of economic development plans depends on energy
resources.
Q. No. 35) Suggest ways to conserve energy resources in India.
Ans. Ways to conserve energy resources are:
8. We have to adopt a cautious approach to the judicious use of our limited energy
resources.
9. Using public transport systems instead of individual vehicles.
10. Switching off electricity when not in use.
11. Using power-saving devices
12. Using non-conventional sources of energy.
Q. No. 36) How is tidal energy generated?
Ans. Floodgate dams are built across inlets. The water flows into the inlet during high tide and
gets trapped when the gate is closed. Once the tide recedes, the gates are opened so that water
can flow back to the sea/ocean. The flow of water is used to run the turbine to generate
electricity.
Q. No. 37) Which are the two planks of sustainable energy?
Ans. Promotion of energy conservation and increased use of renewable energy resources.

SubjectSocial Science (Geography)

Class 10
Board CBSE and State Boards
Chapter No. 6
Chapter Name Manufacturing Industries
Type Important Questions & Answers
Session 2023-24

"Do not wait for opportunities to come. Create them."

- Shigeo Takeuchi

Manufacturing Industries Class 10 Questions Answers

Q. No. 1) Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
i. Manufacturing industries fall in _____ and agriculture in _____.
a. Primary, Secondary sector
b. Secondary, Tertiary sector
c. Primary, Tertiary sector
d. Secondary, Primary sector
Ans. Option (d)
ii. What is the contribution of the manufacturing sector to GDP?
a. 17%
b. 27%
c. 10%
d. 21% in total of 31%
Ans. Option (a)
iii. NMCC refers to
a. National Marine Cadets Corps
b. Naval Military Corps Council
c. National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council
d. New Millennium Corps Council
Ans. Option (c) [Its aim is to improve the productivity of the manufacturing sector.]
iv. Which one of the following factors plays the most important role in the location of an industry
in a particular region?
a. Raw material
b. Market
c. Least production cost
d. Transport
Ans. Option (c)
v. Name the industry classified on the basis of capital investment.
a. Joint sector
b. Private sector
c. Large scale
d. Public sector
Ans. Option (c)
Classification of industries on the basis of capital investment:
• Small-scale industry: If the maximum investment allowed on the assets of a unit is Rs. 1
crore or less than Rs. 1 crore, it is called a small-scale industry.
• Large-scale industry: If the maximum investment allowed on the assets of a unit is more
than Rs. 1 crore, it is called a large-scale industry.
vi. Which one of the following is a joint sector industry?
a. BHEL
b. TISCO
c. OIL
d. SAIL
Ans. Option (c) [OIL – Oil India Limited]
vii. Which of the following options does not help in modernizing agriculture?
a. Manufacturing farm equipment
b. Providing unskilled labor force
c. Supplying fertilizers and pesticides
d. Providing tube well pumps and sprinkler
Ans. Option (b)
viii. In order to attract foreign manufacturing firms, a country needs to develop _____.
a. Agrarian facilities
b. Cultivable lands
c. Media facilities
d. Infrastructure facilities
Ans. Option (d)
ix. _____ is the only industry in the country that is self-reliant and complete in the value chain
i.e., from raw material to the highest value-added products.
a. Sugar industry
b. Textile industry
c. Iron and steel industry
d. Cement industry
Ans. Option (b)
x. Organic chemical plants are located near
a. Software parks
b. Petrochemical plants
c. Thermal power plants
d. Technoparks
Ans. Option (b)
xi. Which one of the following industries manufactures telephones, computers, etc.?
a. Steel
b. Aluminium
c. Electronic
d. Information technology
Ans. Option (c)
Q. No. 2) ‘Manufacturing sector is considered as the backbone of general and economic
development.’ Examine the statement in the context of India.
Ans. The manufacturing sector is considered the backbone of general and economic development
because:
1. Manufacturing industries help in modernizing agriculture.
2. It helps in reducing the heavy dependence of people on agricultural income by providing
them with jobs in secondary and tertiary sectors.
3. It helps eradicate unemployment and poverty in our country.
4. It helps in reducing regional disparities by establishing industries in tribal and backward
areas.
5. The export of manufactured goods expands trade and commerce and helps in bringing
foreign exchange.
6. Countries with large numbers of manufacturing industries are prosperous.
Q. No. 3) 'Agricultural sector and manufacturing sector move hand in hand.' Justify the above
statement with suitable examples.
Or,
Explain with examples how industries give a boost to the agriculture sector.
Ans.
• The given statement means that agricultural and manufacturing industries are not
exclusive of each other and are quite interconnected.
• Agro-industries in India have given a major boost to agriculture by raising its
productivity and efficiency.
• Agro-industries are units that add value to agricultural produce, intermediates, and/or
residues by processing or improving storability or by providing links from the farm to the market
or part thereof.
• Industries depend on agriculture for raw materials and sell their products such as
irrigation pumps, fertilizers, insecticides, pesticides, PVC pipes, machines, tools, etc to farmers.
• So, the development and competitiveness of manufacturing industries have not only
assisted agriculturalists and farmers in increasing their production but also made the production
processes very efficient and far better.
Q. No. 4) “Industrialization and urbanization go hand in hand.” Validate the statement.
Ans.
• After an industrial activity starts in a town, urbanization follows.
• The industry provides employment to the people of the area.
• Population migrates from rural hinterlands to seek jobs.
• Housing and transport facilities are developed to accommodate these people.
• Other infrastructural developments take place leading to the growth and development of
the town into a city.
• Sometimes, industries are located in or near the cities. Cities provide markets and
services such as banking, insurance, transport, labor, consultants, financial advice, etc. to the
industry.
• Thus, industrialization and urbanization go hand in hand.
Q. No. 5) What are agglomeration economies?
Ans. Many industries tend to come together to make use of the advantages offered by the urban
center (like banking, insurance, transport, labor, consultants and financial advice, etc.) is known
as agglomeration economies.
Q. No. 6) Describe the various physical and human factors responsible for the location of
industries.
Ans. Physical factors:
1. Availability of raw materials – This factor is more important for heavy industries like iron
and steel, cement industry, etc.
2. Availability of power resources – Proximity to power resources like coal, and electricity
will attract more industries.
3. Availability of water – Almost all industries require a huge quantity of water.
4. Availability of favorable climate.
Human factors:
1. The availability of skilled and unskilled laborers attracts more industries.
2. Proximity to market – This reduces transport costs and delays.
3. Infrastructural facilities – Like banking, transport, communication, etc. attract more
industries.
4. Government policy – Tax benefits and subsidies on inputs play an important role in
industrial location.
Q. No. 7) 'Determining an ideal industrial location is a challenging undertaking.' Examine the
above statement and elucidate.
Ans.
• Industrial locations are complex in nature as they are influenced by the availability of raw
materials, labor, capital, power, market, etc.
• Manufacturing tends to locate at the most appropriate place where all the factors of
industrial location are either available or can be arranged at a lower cost, which is the key
determining factor.
• Industrialization and urbanization go hand in hand. Cities provide markets and as well as
services like banking, insurance, transport, labor, consultants, etc. to the industry.
• Pre-1947, most industries were located near ports from the point of view of overseas
trade.
• Government policies and specialized labor also influence the location of industries.
Q. No. 8) Classify industries on the basis of the source of raw materials.
Ans. Classification of industries on the basis of source of raw materials:
• Agro-based industries (eg. Cotton, woolen, jute, silk, etc.)
• Mineral-based industries (eg. Iron and steel, cement, aluminium, etc.)
Q. No. 9) Classify industries on the basis of their main role. How are they different from each
other?
Ans. Classification of industries on the basis of the main role:
• Basic or key industries: These industries supply their products as raw materials to
manufacture other goods. Examples: iron and steel industry, copper smelting, aluminium
smelting.
• Consumer industries: These industries produce goods for direct use by consumers.
Examples: sugar, paper, toothpaste, fans, etc.
Q. No. 10) What are cooperative sector industries? Which industry, due to its seasonal nature, is
ideally suited to the cooperative sector?
Ans. Cooperative sector industries are owned and operated by the producers or suppliers of raw
materials, workers, or both. They pool the resources and share the profits or losses
proportionately.
The sugar industry is ideally suited to the cooperative sector.
Q. No. 11) Classify industries on the basis of ownership.
Ans. Classification of industries on the basis of ownership:
• Public sector industries: Public sector industries are owned and operated by government
agencies. For example BHEL, SAIL, etc.
• Private sector industries: Private sector industries are owned and operated by individuals
or a group of individuals. For example TISCO, Bajaj Auto Ltd., Dabur industries, etc.
• Joint sector industries: Joint sector industries are jointly run by the state and individuals
or a group of individuals. For example Oil India Limited (OIL).
• Cooperative sector industries: Cooperative sector industries are owned and operated by
the producers or suppliers of raw materials, workers, or both. They pool the resources and share
the profits or losses proportionately. For example Sugar industry, coir industry, etc.
Q. No. 12) Why is Aluminium smelting the second most important metallurgical industry in
India? Explain.
Ans. Aluminium smelting is the second most important metallurgical industry in India because:
• It is light, resistant to corrosion, a good conductor of heat, malleable, and becomes strong
when it is mixed with other metals.
• It is used to manufacture aircraft, utensils, and wires.
• It has gained popularity as a substitute for steel, copper, zinc, and lead in a number of
industries.
Q. No. 13) Name the two important requirements in Aluminium Smelting Industry.
Ans. Two important requirements are
• Assured source of raw material (Bauxite)
• A regular supply of electricity.
Q. No. 14) India does not have any reserves of which significant fertilizer element is used in the
fertilizer industry and is entirely imported.
Ans. Potash or potassium compounds.
Q. No. 15) The elder sister of Namit is employed in the IT industry in the electronic capital of
India. Name the city.
Ans. Bengaluru.
Q. No. 16) Why is copper mainly used in electrical cables and electronic industries?
Ans. Because of being malleable, ductile, and a good conductor of heat and electricity.
Q. No. 17) Examine the multi-pronged aspects of the Information Technology and Electronics
Industry.
Ans.
• The electronics industry covers a wide range of products from transistor sets to television,
telephones, cellular telecom, pagers, telephone exchange, radars, computers, and many other
equipments required by the telecommunication industry.
• Bangalore has emerged as the electronic capital of India. Other important centers for
electronic goods are Mumbai, Delhi, Hyderabad, Pune, Chennai, Kolkata, Lucknow, and
Coimbatore.
• 18 software technology parks provide single window service and high data
communication facilities to software experts.
• A major impact of this industry has been on employment generation.
• It is encouraging to know that 30 percent of the people employed in this sector are
women.
• This industry has been a major foreign exchange earner in the last two or three years
because of its fast-growing Business Processes Outsourcing (BPO) sector.
• The continuing growth in hardware and software is the key to the success of the IT
industry in India.
Q. No. 18) Describe how industries are responsible for environmental degradation.
Ans. Industries cause environmental degradation in the following ways:
• Air pollution: High proportion of carbon dioxide, sulphur dioxide, and carbon monoxide
create air pollution. Suspended particulate matters also create problems.
• Water pollution: Organic and inorganic industrial wastes and effluents cause water
pollution. Paper, pulp, chemicals, textiles, dyeing, petroleum refineries, etc. are the main culprits
of water pollution.
• Thermal pollution: Hot water from factories and thermal plants is drained into rivers and
ponds before cooling.
• Radioactive waste: wastes from nuclear power plants cause cancer, birth defects,
miscarriages, etc.
• Noise pollution: Results in irritation, hypertension, and hearing impairment.
Q. No. 19) Suggest ways through which the problem of environmental degradation by industries
can be resolved.
Or,
‘Environmental degradation has been everywhere.’ Explain the ways to prevent environmental
degradation.
Ans. Ways to prevent environmental degradation by industries:
• Water should be reused and recycled in the industry. This will help in minimizing the use
of fresh water.
• Rainwater harvesting should be promoted.
• Hot water and effluents should be treated before being released into rivers and ponds.
• Overdrawing of groundwater needs to be regulated legally.
• Particulate matter in the air can be reduced by fitting smoke stacks into factories with
electrostatic precipitators, fabric filters, etc.
• Smoke can be reduced by using oil or gas instead of coal in factories.
• Machinery and generators should be fitted with silencers.
Q. No. 20) ‘The challenge of sustainable development requires control over industrial pollution.’
Substantiate the statement with examples.
Ans.
• On the one hand, Industries lead to extensive industrial growth and expansion, and on the
other hand, these are also the cause of environmental degeneration which prompt different type
of air, and water pollution.
• There is an increasing requirement to use a further sustainable model.
• Industries must produce eco-friendly products and dump waste responsibly.
• The use of the latest technology can help industries to control pollution and lead toward a
sustainable mode of operation.
• Industries can use- The reuse-recycle-refuse approach.
• If necessary, dump waste in specified places, away from the land and water sources, for
example- before dumping treat it well and make it useful for other than drinking purposes, and
stop using thermal plants in some of the locations.
Q. No. 21) What steps have been taken by NTPC toward environmental protection?
Ans. NTPC (National Thermal Power Corporation) has taken the following steps toward
environmental protection:
• Optimum utilization of equipment adopting the latest techniques and upgrading existing
equipment.
• Minimizing waste generation by maximizing ash utilization.
• Providing green belts for nurturing ecological balance and addressing the question of
special purpose vehicles for afforestation.
• Reducing environmental pollution through ash pond management, ash water recycling
system, and liquid waste management.
• Ecological monitoring, reviews, and online database management for all its power
stations.
Lifelines of National Economy Class 10 Exam - Top Important Questions and Answers
Q. No. 1) Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
i. The Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways connect _____.
a. Delhi-Silchar-Madurai and Gandhinagar
b. Delhi-Mumbai-Chennai and Kolkata
c. Kashmir-Kanyakumari
d. Srinagar-Kanyakumari-Bhopal and Allahabad
Ans. Option (b)
ii. Which of the following corridors links Srinagar and Kanyakumari?
a. North-South Corridor
b. East-West Corridor
c. North-East Corridor
d. South-West Corridor
Ans. Option (a)
iii. Match the following roads from column A with the organization responsible for their
construction and maintenance from Column B
Column A (Types of Road) Column B (Organization)
A. Super Highways I. Zila Parishad
B. National Highways II. State Public Works Department
C. State Highways III. Central Public Works Department
D. District Roads IV. National Highway Authority of India
a. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
b. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
c. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
d. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Ans. Option (c)
iv. The National Highway 1 connects which of the following places in India?
a. Delhi-Amritsar
b. Delhi-Patiala
c. Delhi-Kashmir
d. Delhi-Lucknow
Ans. Option (a) [The historical Sher-Shah Suri Marg is called National Highway No.1, between
Delhi and Amritsar.]
v. Roads linking a state capital with different district headquarters are known as _____.
a. National highways
b. District roads
c. State highways
d. Other roads
Ans. Option (c)
vi. Which of the following types of roads received special impetus under the Pradhan Mantri
Grameen Sadak Yojana?
a. National highways
b. State highways
c. Rural roads
d. District roads
Ans. Option (c)
vii. Name the first water port which was made just after the independence.
a. Mumbai
b. Kandhla
c. Kocchi
d. Haldia
Ans. Option (b) [Kandla also known as the Deendayal Port]
viii. Which is the deepest landlocked and well-protected port in India?
a. Mumbai
b. Kandla
c. Vishakhapatnam
d. New Mangalore
Ans. Option (c)
ix. The second class mail includes which one of the following?
a. Book packets
b. Cards
c. Envelops
d. Invitation cards
Ans. Option (a)
x. What are the two components of trade?
a. Tariff and Non-Tariff
b. Transport and Time
c. Price and Cost
d. Export and Import
Ans. Option (d)
xi. Which of the following helps in the development of an international understanding of our
culture and heritage?
a. Tourism
b. Tradition
c. Topography
d. Commerce
Ans. Option (a)
Q. No. 2) Complete the following table with appropriate terms in place of (a) and (b).

Ans. a – pipelines, b – overseas.

Q. No. 3) Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:
Today, the world has been converted into a large village with the help of efficient and fast-
moving transport. Transport has been able to achieve this with the help of an equally developed
communication system. Therefore, transport, communication, and trade are complementary to
each other. Today, India is well-linked with the rest of the world despite its vast size, diversity,
and linguistic and socio-cultural plurality. Railways, airways, waterways, newspapers, radio,
television, cinema, and the internet, etc. have been contributing to its socio-economic progress in
many ways. The trade from local to international levels has added to the vitality of its economy.
It has enriched our life and added substantially to growing amenities and facilities for the
comforts of life. It is thus, evident that a dense and efficient network of transport and
communication is a prerequisite for local, national, and global trade of today.
i. Why is there a need to interlink with the world?
Ans. For development, advancement, and globalization
ii. Infer the importance of means of transportation and communication for socio-economic
progress?
Ans. Importance of means of transportation and communication:
• They are the very basis of industries and trade in the country.
• Create job employment opportunities
• Help to grow economy
• Transport maintains the movement of persons and products from one region to another
region of the country
• For sending and receiving messages
• Interlinking world
• Increases awareness among the people at the national level
• Help in defending the independence and the national unity of a country.
• Encourage national and international tourism.
iii. How does trade strengthen the economy of a country?
Ans. Importance of trade:
• Trade between nation and countries are the index to their economic prosperity.
• It generates employment.
• It Helps in earning foreign exchange.
Q. No. 4) Describe the benefits of Roadways.
Or,
India has one of the largest road networks in the world, aggregating about 2.3 million km at
present. On what basis roadways have taken an edge over railways? Explain.
Or,
Compare and contrast the merits and demerits of roadways with those of railways.
Ans. Benefits of Roadways:
• Roads need less capital than railways.
• Road transport provides door-to-door service, thus the cost of loading and unloading is
much lower
• Road transport provides flexible service to men and materials.
• Road transport is useful for small distances.
• Road transport is helpful in the production of perishable goods as it facilitates the
distribution of perishable goods from point of production to point of consumption.
• Roads can negotiate higher gradients of slopes and as such can traverse mountains such
as the Himalayas.
• Road transport is also used as a feeder to other modes of transport such as they provide a
link between railway stations, air, and sea ports.
• The construction cost of roads is much lower than that of railway lines.
Q. No. 5) Classify roads into six classes according to their capacity.
Ans. Classification of Roads:
i. Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways:
• The government has launched a major road development project linking Kolkata-
Chennai-Mumbai and Delhi by six-lane Super Highways.
• The North-South corridors linking Srinagar (Jammu & Kashmir) and Kanniyakumari
(Tamil Nadu), and East-West Corridor connecting Silchar (Assam) and Porbandar (Gujarat) are
part of this project.
• These highway projects are being implemented by the National Highway Authority of
India (NHAI).
ii. National Highways:
• National Highways link extreme parts of the country.
• These are the primary road systems and are laid and maintained by the Central Public
Works Department (CPWD).
• A number of major National Highways run in North-South and East-West directions.
• The historical Sher-Shah Suri Marg is called National Highway No.1, between Delhi and
Amritsar.
iii. State Highways:
• Roads linking a state capital with different district headquarters are known as State
Highways.
• These roads are constructed and maintained by the State Public Works Department
(PWD).
iv. District Roads:
• These roads connect the district headquarters with other places in the district.
• These roads are maintained by the Zila Parishad.
v. Other Roads:
• Rural roads, which link rural areas and villages with towns, are classified under this
category.
• These roads received special impetus under the Pradhan Mantri Grameen Sadak Yojana.
vi. Border Roads:
• Border roads are very significant for the security of the country.
• These roads are constructed and maintained by the Border Roads Organization.
• It has provided access to areas of difficult terrain.
• It helps in the economic development of the area.
Q. No. 6) Identify the road development project from the map given below and briefly describe it
Ans. Identification: It is the six-lane Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways project being
implemented by NHAI.
Description
• Its main objective is to reduce the time and distance between the mega cities of India,
namely Delhi-Mumbai-Kolkata-Chennai.
• The North-South corridor links Srinagar (Jammu & Kashmir) and Kanniyakumari (Tamil
Nadu) while the East-West corridor links Silchar (Assam) and Porbandar (Gujarat).
Q. No. 7) What is the meaning of road density? Describe any four major problems faced by road
transport in India.
Ans. Road Density: The length of road per 100 sq. km of area.
Problems faced by roadways:
• Keeping in view the volume of traffic and passengers the road network is inadequate.
• About half of the roads are unmetalled and this limits their usage during the rainy
seasons.
• The national highways are inadequate too.
• Roads are highly congested in cities.
• Most of the bridges and culverts are old and narrow
Q. No. 8) Explain the importance of railways.
Or,
“Railways are the principal mode of transportation in India.” Explain.
Ans. Importance of railways:
• Railways are the principal mode of transportation for freight and passengers in India.
• It is convenient and safe to travel long distances by railway.
• Railways make it possible to conduct multifarious activities like business, sightseeing,
and pilgrimage along with the transportation of goods over longer distances.
• Railways in India bind the economic life of the country.
• Railways accelerate the development of industry and agriculture.
• It provides employment to a large number of people.
Q. No. 9) Examine the factors that influence the distribution pattern of the railway network in
India.
Ans. Physical and economic factors have influenced the distribution pattern of the Indian
Railways network in the following ways:
• Northern Plain: Level land, high population density, and rich agricultural resources have
favored the development of railways in these plains. However, a large number of rivers requiring
the construction of bridges across their wide river beds posed some obstacles.
• Peninsular region and the Himalayan region: It is a hilly terrain. The railway tracks are
laid through low hills, gaps, or tunnels. So, it is very difficult to lay the railway lines. The
Himalayan mountainous regions too are not favorable for the construction of railway lines due to
high relief, sparse population, and lack of economic opportunities.
• Desert of Rajasthan: On the sandy plain of western Rajasthan too, it is very difficult to
lay railway lines which have hindered the development of railways.
• Swamps of Gujarat, and forested tracts of Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Orissa, and
Jharkhand; are also not suitable for the development of railways.
• The contiguous stretch of Sahyadri could be crossed only through gaps or passes.
Although the Konkan railway along the west coast has been developed, it has also faced a
number of problems such as the sinking of track in some stretches and landslides.
Q. No. 10) Why do you think the northern plains of India provide favorable conditions where as
the Himalayan mountains provide unfavorable conditions for the growth of railways? Give three
reasons for both.
Ans. Favorable conditions for the growth of railways in the Northern Plains
• Vast level land
• High population density
• Rich agricultural resources
Unfavorable conditions for the growth of railways in the Himalayan mountains
• High relief
• Sparse population
• Lack of economic opportunities
Q. No. 11) What are the problems being faced by the Indian railways?
Ans. The following problems are being faced by the railways:
• Many passengers travel without tickets which leads to revenue loss.
• Thefts and damage to railway property have not yet stopped completely.
• People stop the trains and pull the chain unnecessarily and this causes heavy damage to
the railway.
Q. No. 12) Read the following table and answer the questions that follow:

i. Which gauge covers the maximum track length in hilly areas in India?
ii. Which gauge has the highest length in India?
Ans. i. Since hilly areas have dissecting and undulating terrain, a narrow gauge would be an
appropriate option.
ii. Broad gauge has the highest length of 1,17,560 km.
Q. No. 13) What is pipeline transportation? Write two merits and demerits of the same.
Ans. The pipeline transport network is the new mode of transport these days. In the past,
pipelines were used to transport water to cities and industries. Now, these are used for
transporting crude oil, petroleum products, and natural gas from oil and natural gas fields to
refineries, fertilizer factories, and big thermal power plants. Solids can also be transported
through a pipeline when converted into the slurry.
Merits
• Useful in transporting liquids and solid slurry from far away locations.
• Subsequent running costs after laying down the network are minimal.
• It rules out trans-shipment losses or delays.
• It saves time and reduces pressure on rail transport.
• Pipelines make transport fast, safe, and easy.
Demerits
• The initial cost of laying pipelines is high.
• Pipelines can burst or can have leakage leading to the wastage of valuable resources like
water, mineral oil, etc.
Q. No. 14) Name the longest National Waterway in India. Mention any three importance of
waterways in India.
Ans. The Ganga river between Allahabad and Haldia (National Waterway No. 1) is the longest
National Waterway in India.
Importance of waterways in India:
• Cheapest means of transport.
• Most suitable for carrying heavy and bulky goods.
• Fuel-efficient and environmentally friendly mode of transport.
• They are natural routes that do not involve the cost of construction.
Q. No. 15) Explain the characteristics of Kandla Seaport.
Ans. Characteristics of Kandla seaport:
• Kandla in Kuchchh was the first port developed soon after Independence.
• It eased the volume of trade at the Mumbai port.
• Kandla, also known as the Deendayal Port, is a tidal port.
• It caters to the convenient handling of exports and imports of the highly productive
granary and industrial states.
Q. No. 16) “Airways is the most preferred mode of transport in North-Eastern states of India.”
Give three reasons to prove this preference.
Ans. Airways is the most preferred mode of transport in North-Eastern states of India because:
• The northeastern part of the country is marked by the presence of big rivers, dissected
relief, and dense forests hence, it is difficult to construct roads and railway lines there.
• There are frequent floods and international frontiers, which require immediate and quick
attention from the government authorities. Floods also damage roads and railway lines.
• Air travel has made access to the northeastern part of the country easier and quicker.
Q. No. 17) Analyze the significance of communication for a nation.
Ans. Significance of communication for a nation:
• This is the age of communication using the telephone, television, films, and the Internet.
• Even books, magazines, and newspapers are important means of communication.
• Various means of communication have connected the world closer.
• It is a source of entertainment and knowledge.
Q. No. 18) Mention the six mail channels introduced recently to facilitate quick delivery of mail.
Ans. They are
• Rajdhani Channel
• Metro Channel
• Green Channel
• Business Channel
• Bulk Mail Channel
• Periodical Channel.
Q. No. 19) Describe the role of mass communication in India.
Or,
Explain the importance of ‘Radio’ and ‘Television’ as effective means of mass communication in
India.
Ans. Role of mass communication in India:
• Mass communication provides entertainment.
• Creates awareness among people about various national programs and policies. It
includes radio, television, newspapers, magazines, books, and films.
• All India Radio (Akashwani) broadcasts a variety of programs in national, regional, and
local languages
• Doordarshan broadcasts programs of entertainment, education, sports, etc. for people of
different age groups.
• India publishes a large number of newspapers and periodicals annually
• Newspapers are published in about 100 languages and dialects to create awareness among
people in different parts of the country.
• India produces short films; video feature films and video short films.
• Mass media creates awareness among people on various socio-economic and political
issues.
Q. No. 20) “The pace of change has been rapid in modern times and has impacted the ways of
communication as well.” In light of the given statement explain the role of a variety of means of
communication that are used in India in the current times.
Ans. Means of Personal Communication in India –
• The Indian postal network is the largest in the world. It handles parcels as well as
personal written communications. Cards and envelopes are considered first–class mail and are
airlifted between stations covering both land and air. The second–class mail includes book
packets, registered newspapers, and periodicals. To facilitate quick delivery of mail in large
towns and cities, six mail channels have been introduced recently. They are called Rajdhani
Channel, Metro Channel, Green Channel, Business Channel, Bulk Mail Channel, and Periodical
Channel.
• India has one of the largest telecom networks in Asia. Excluding urban places, more than
two-thirds of the villages in India have already been covered with Subscriber Trunk Dialling
(STD) telephone facility. There is a uniform rate of STD facilities all over India. It has been
made possible by integrating the development of space technology with communication
technology.
Mass communication in India –
• All India Radio (Akashwani) broadcasts a variety of programs in national, regional, and
local languages for various categories of people, spread over different parts of the country.
• Doordarshan, the national television channel of India, is one of the largest terrestrial
networks in the world. It broadcasts a variety of programs from entertainment, and education to
sports, etc. for people of different age groups.
• India publishes a large number of newspapers and periodicals annually. The largest
numbers of newspapers published in the country are in Hindi, followed by English and Urdu.
• India is the largest producer of feature films in the world. It produces short films; video
feature films and video short films. The Central Board of Film Certification is the authority to
certify both Indian and foreign films.
Q. No. 21) Define the following terms:
a. Trade
b. International Trade
c. Favourable Balance of Trade
d. Unfavourable Balance of Trade
Ans. a. Trade: The exchange of goods among people, states, and countries is referred to as a
trade.
b. International trade: Trade between two countries is called international trade.
c. Favourable balance of trade: When the value of export exceeds the value of imports, it is
called a favourable balance of trade.
d. Unfavourable balance of trade: When the value of imports exceeds the value of exports, it is
termed as an unfavourable balance of trade.
Q. No. 22) “Advancement of international trade of a country is an index to its economic
prosperity”. Elaborate with examples.
Or,
Explain why international trade is considered the economic barometer for the country.
Ans. The advancement of International Trade in a country is an index to its economic prosperity:
• Trade between two countries through sea, air, or land route helps in the development of
the country.
• No country can survive without International trade.
• Export and Import are the components of Trade.
• Commodities in export- agriculture and allied products, areas and minerals, gems and
jewellery, etc.
• The commodities imported to India include Petroleum and its products, precious stores,
chemicals, etc.
Q. No. 23) Why is tourism considered a trade?
Or,
Assam with its extensive tea gardens and high production of crude oil has a lot of potential for
the growth of tourism. What values are associated with the promotion of tourism?
Ans. Tourism is considered a trade because:
• Foreign tourists’ arrival in the country contributes to foreign exchange.
• Many people are directly engaged in the tourism industry.
• Tourism provides support to local handicrafts and cultural pursuits.
• Tourists visit India for medical tourism, eco-tourism, adventure tourism, cultural tourism,
and business tourism.
• It promotes national integration.
• It develops international understanding among countries.