Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024

Exam Date 30/10/2024

Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 A vendor bought a certain number of bananas at 6 for ₹5 and sold them at 4 for ₹3. Find his loss percentage.
Ans 1. 12%

2. 10%

3. 8%

4. 15%

Q.2
A shopkeeper sold an article at a profit of 4%. If he had bought the article
at 5% less and sold it at ₹30 more, then he would have made a profit of
12%. What is the cost price (in ₹) of the article?
Ans 1. 1,260

2. 1,232

3. 1,200

4. 1,250

Q.3 The following table shows the percentage of marks obtained by five students (A,B,C,D and E) in different
subjects. (Maximum marks are given beside subjects)

How many more or fewer marks did Student A obtain in English, as compared to the marks obtained by Student E in the
same subject?
Ans 1. 20 less

2. 15 less

3. 20 more

4. 15 more

Q.4 Raghu lends ₹9,600 and ₹11,800 at simple interest to two different persons for the same time at the rate of 7% per annum
and 8% per annum, respectively. If he had received ₹9,696 as total interest from both, find the time period for which the
amounts were lent.
Ans 1. 10 years

2. 12 years

3. 8 years

4. 6 years
Q.5 The salary of a worker is first increased by 30% and later reduced by 28.5%. What is the net change in his salary?
Ans 1. 8.05% increase

2. 7.05% decrease

3. 6.05% increase

4. 9.05% decrease

Q.6

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.7 A banner at a garment shop advertises 'Buy 2 and get 5'. The shopkeeper has marked all the shirts at the same amount.
Gaurav was his relative and the shopkeeper gave him an additional discount of 2% on the total bill. Gaurav purchased 5
shirts and paid ₹1,274. What is the marked price of each shirt?
Ans 1. ₹520

2. ₹260

3. ₹650

4. ₹630

Q.8

Ans 1. 22

2. 21

3. 28

4. 25

Q.9 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 8% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
Ans 1. 740

2. 760

3. 800

4. 840

Q.10 The average weight of 14 persons out of 16 persons is 75 kg. The total weight of the remaining two persons is 48 kg more
than the average weight of all 16 persons. Find the average weight of the remaining two persons.
Ans 1. 66.6 kg

2. 54.6 kg

3. 60.6 kg

4. 48.6 kg
Q.11
The given bar graph shows the marks obtained by five students in Exam I
and Exam II.Study the bar graph carefully to answer the question that
follows.

If the marks obtained by Suresh in Exam-I were increased by 14% of the

original marks, what would be his new approximate percentage in Exam-I
if the maximum marks in Exam-I were 140?
Ans 1. 41%

2. 38%

3. 47%

4. 57%

Q.12 What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹360 in 2 years at 16% per year rate of interest?
Ans 1. 2250

2. 1125

3. 725

4. 1850

Q.13 Aman, Bheema and Rehman play cricket, the ratio of Aman's runs to Bheema's runs and Bheema's runs to
Rehman's runs is 5 : 4. They make together 549 runs. How many runs did Rehman make?
Ans 1. 108

2. 132

3. 144

4. 158

Q.14 What will be the average of the odd numbers from 1 to 51, both inclusive?
Ans 1. 25

2. 24

3. 26

4. 26.5
 Q.15 A spherical ball of iron is to be produced. If the radius of the ball is 3 cm and weight of iron per cm3 is 30g,what would be
the weight of the ball?
Ans 1. 108π g

2. 1040π g

3. 104π g

4. 1080π g

Q.16

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.17 Find the ratio in which rice worth ₹7.20/kg should be mixed with rice worth ₹5.70/kg to produce a mixture worth ₹6.30/kg.
Ans 1. 1 : 3

2. 2 : 3

3. 4 : 5

4. 3 : 4

Q.18 The average of first 9 whole numbers is:

Ans 1. 4

2. 4.5

3. 5

4. 3

Q.19 A policeman sees a thief at a distance of 50 m and starts chasing him at a speed of 7 m/s, while the thief runs at a speed of 5
m/s. What is the distance (in m) covered by the thief when he is caught?
Ans 1. 100

2. 150

3. 175

4. 125

Q.20 A man travelled from Tirupati to Tirumala at the speed of 20 km/h and walked back at the speed of 4 km/h. If the whole
journey took 24 hours, then find the distance (in km) between Tirumala and Tirupati.
Ans 1. 25

2. 80

3. 20

4. 30

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.
Q.2 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.3 HLTE is related to DHPA in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, VBNW is related to RXJS.
To which of the following is MUXK related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. IQSF

2. IPSF

3. JRUG

4. IQTG

Q.4 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the center (but not necessarily in the same
order). F is sitting second to the left of C. E is the immediate neighbour of A and C. G is sitting third to the right of D.

What is the position of B with respect to G?

Ans 1. To the immediate right

2. Third to the right

3. Second to the right

4. Second to the left

Q.5 79 is related to 164 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 98 is related to 183. To which ofthe following is 112
related, following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
Ans 1. 197

2. 182

3. 195

4. 187

Q.6 What should come in place of question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?
CEB, GHE, KKH, ONK, ?
Ans 1. TQO

2. SQO

3. TQN

4. SQN
Q.7 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All apples are mangoes.
No mango is a kiwi.

Conclusions:
(I) No apple is a kiwi.
(II) No kiwi is a mango.
Ans 1. Only conclusion I follows

2. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

3. Only conclusion II follows

4. Both conclusion I and II follow

Q.8 20 is related to 401 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 15 is related to 226. To which of the following is 18
related, following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 - Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying, etc.. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 364

2. 346

3. 352

4. 325

Q.9 Which of the following interchanges of signs would make the given equation correct?
96 × 8 − 15 ÷ 5 + 100 = 37
Ans 1. ÷ and ×

2. − and ÷

3. × and +

4. × and −

Q.10 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series?
4, 10, ?, 82, 244, 730, 2188
Ans 1. 21

2. 38

3. 28

4. 20

Q.11 Three statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered 1 and 2. Assuming the statements to be true, even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
Some Jeans are Pants
No Pant is a Shirt
Some Shirts are T-shirts
Conclusions:
1. Some T-shirts are Shirts
2. Some T-shirts are Jeans
Ans 1. Both conclusions 1 and 2 follow

2. Only conclusion 2 follows

3. Only conclusion 1 follows

4. Neither conclusion 1 nor 2 follows

Q.12 AFKO is related to CHMQ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, ILRS is related to KNTU.
To which of the following is BDGI related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. RTUI

2. DFIK

3. SIND

4. HDJI

Q.13 In a certain code language, ‘HOME’ is coded as ‘5317’ and ‘EAST’ is coded as ‘6528’.What is the code for ‘E’ in the given
code language?
Ans 1. 6

2. 7

3. 5

4. 8

Q.14 In a certain code language, ‘JUGS’ is coded as ‘3715’ and ‘GOLD’ is coded as ‘6524’. What is the code for ‘G’ in that
language?
Ans 1. 6

2. 4

3. 1

4. 5

Q.15 A, B, C, D, E, F, and G, are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). Only 3
people sit between E and F when counted from the right of E. A and D are both immediate neighbours of G. B sits immediate
to the right of C. Only 1 person sits between B and D. How many people sit between A and E when counted from the right of
A?
Ans 1. 1

2. 3

3. 4

4. 2

Q.16 In a code language, 'PINK' is coded as ‘WFUH’ and 'DORM' is coded as ‘KLYJ’. How will 'BUGI' be coded in that language?
Ans 1. KSOE

2. IRNF

3. JROF

4. KSNE

Q.17 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?
2 ÷ 90 × 5 – 4 + 10 = ?
Ans 1. 30

2. 35

3. 37

4. 29
Q.18 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.
Q.19 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of ? will logically complete the series.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.
 Q.20 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which of the following rivers flows through Madhya Pradesh?

Ans 1. Sharda

2. Bhima

3. Shyok

4. Betwa

Q.2 Cyanobacteria belong to the domain of:

Ans 1. Tertiary Consumers

2. Decomposers

3. Producers

4. Primary Consumers

Q.3 The Hindi novel 'Jhutha Sach' is written by:

Ans 1. Jaishankar Prasad

2. Premchand

3. Yashpal

4. Shrilal Shukla
Q.4 On 10 April 2023, the Government of India launched tourism infrastructure and amenities in the __________________
villages through the ‘Vibrant Villages Programme’.
Ans 1. Desert

2. Border

3. Coastal

4. Hill

Q.5 Which of the following states has bicameral (two houses) state legislature?
Ans 1. West Bengal

2. Goa

3. Punjab

4. Karnataka

Q.6 Which of the following statements is/are INCORRECT?

A) 1833 Charter Act has changed the designation for Governor-General of Bengal, renamed as Governor-General of India.
B) Lord William Bentick was the first Governor General of India.
Ans 1. Both A and B

2. Only A

3. Neither A nor B

4. Only B

Q.7 The oceanic trenches or the narrow depressions on the seafloor are formed by reason of:
Ans 1. thermohaline circulation

2. tidal currents

3. tsunamis

4. tectonic activity

Q.8 In the number 0.002609, the number of significant figures is ______.

Ans 1. four

2. three

3. seven

4. six

Q.9 'Attolu Eidu' is the cultural festival of which of the following union territories?
Ans 1. Lakshadweep

2. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

3. Jammu and Kashmir

4. Dadra and Nagar Haveli

Q.10 Chand Minar at Daulatabad is a 210-feet-high tapering tower divided into _____ storeys.
Ans 1. three

2. six

3. five

4. four

Q.11 What is the term used for the line that a raider must cross to score points in Kabaddi?
Ans 1. Half line

2. Baulk line

3. Centre line

4. Bonus line
Q.12 The Indian reformer Jyotirao Phule was primarily critical of which social evil of the Indian society?
Ans 1. Sati System

2. Caste Discrimination

3. Child Marriage

4. Poverty

Q.13 Which of the following folk dances is conducted during the Bwisagu Festival?
Ans 1. Bagurumba

2. Bihu dance

3. Bhortal

4. Jhumur

Q.14 Which of the following is a natural indicator for acid and base?
Ans 1. Curry tree

2. Fungi

3. Algae

4. China rose

Q.15 What are the three components of the empowerment model in SAPAP of SHGs?
Ans 1. Public resource allocation, capacity building, and microfinance

2. Collective empowerment, capital formation, and poverty eradication

3. Social mobilisation, economic development, and education

4. Social mobilisation, capital formation, and capacity building of the poor

Q.16 Harappa, one of the sites of the Harappan culture, was found in which of the following states of pre-independent India?
Ans 1. Sindh

2. Balochistan

3. United Province

4. Punjab

Q.17 Who is National Security Advisor of India as of July 2023?

Ans 1. Sanjeev Sanyal

2. Ajit Doval

3. Rajiv Gauba

4. Rajnath Singh

Q.18 Which port situated at the head of Gulf of Kutch has helped to reduce the pressure at Mumbai port?
Ans 1. Kandla

2. Kochi

3. Kolkata

4. Haldia
 Q.19

Ans 1. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

2. A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

3. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

4. A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

Q.20 According Census 2011 of India, which of the following union territories has the second highest literacy rate?
Ans 1. Daman and Diu

2. Andaman and Nicobar

3. Lakshadweep

4. Chandigarh

Q.21 Identify the personality on the basis of the given clues:

i) She is an acclaimed Bharatanatyam dancer.
ii) She is the recipient of Padma Shri 2016 award.
Ans 1. Padmaja Reddy

2. Pratibha Prahlad

3. Aruna Mohanty

4. Padma Sharma

Q.22 In which year did Rohan Bopanna become world number one in the Men's Doubles category of Lawn Tennis?
Ans 1. 2017

2. 2015

3. 2024

4. 2023

Q.23 Which of the following is NOT a salient feature of Fundamental Duties of the Indian Constitution?
Ans 1. It is non-justiciable.

2. There is clear difference between Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties.

3. They are enforceable by law and can be challenged in court.

4. Fundamental Duties are both civic and moral in nature.

Q.24 According to National Multidimensional Poverty Index 2023 (A Progress Review), what is the percentage of the total
population who are multidimensionally poor (Headcount Ratio) in Bihar state?
Ans 1. 45.98%

2. 36.12%

3. 33.76%

4. 40.54%

Q.25 Which treatise of Indian classical music was composed by Pandit Sharanga Deva?
Ans 1. Sangeet Tarang

2. Sangeet Makarand

3. Sangeet Samay Saar

4. Sangeet Ratnakar

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.
Ans 1. Disapoint

2. Consensus

3. Conceive

4. Disappear

Q.2 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment without changing its meaning in the given
sentence.

Entrepreneurial endeavours drive economic growth and innovation, empowering individuals to bring their ideas to fruition.
Ans 1. ventures contribute to economic flourishing

2. pursuits manipulates economic success

3. actions spur economic recession

4. projects discourage economic prosperity

Q.3 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence.
James is just an old eccentric.
Ans 1. Humble

2. Follower

3. Ordinary

4. Cranky

Q.4 In the following sentence the underlined part contains an error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
Wolfia is the tiny plant in the world.
Ans 1. tinier

2. most tiny

3. more tiny

4. tiniest

Q.5 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Please turn off the lights _________ leaving the house.

Ans 1. before

2. amid

3. during

4. between

Q.6 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The farmer stood by the roadside stand to sell his _________.
Ans 1. productivity

2. volume

3. consequence

4. produce

Q.7 Identify the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word in brackets.

Her candid remarks were a (refreshing) change from the usual diplomatic responses.
Ans 1. Bracing

2. Invigorating

3. Revitalising

4. Stale
Q.8 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word from the given sentence.

The explorer's adventuros spirit led to the discovery of an ancient civilisation.

Ans 1. Adventuros

2. Ancient

3. Discovery

4. Explorer's

Q.9 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Abolished

2. Annoyed

3. Adverse

4. Abodomen

Q.10 Select the most appropriate adjective to fill in the blank.

According to the chairman, his proposal was ___________ than Mr. Jackson’s.
Ans 1. worst

2. ill

3. bad

4. worse

Q.11 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

I had to choose the best of the two options available.

Ans 1. better than

2. best than

3. better of

4. good of

Q.12 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

After the match, / the stadium was the messiest / it’s ever been.
Ans 1. the stadium was the messiest

2. No Error

3. After the match

4. it’s ever been

Q.13 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

The family members described their dream home's architectural elegance.

Ans 1. grandiosity

2. coarseness

3. gleam

4. fortitude

Q.14 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

My mother said / that the thief / Ramesh will learnt / his lesson soon.
Ans 1. his lesson soon.

2. My mother said

3. Ramesh will learnt

4. that the thief

Q.15 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Sree did not go to work today, as she was feeling a bit under the weather.

Ans 1. feeling tired

2. feeling ill

3. feeling excited

4. feeling nervous

Q.16 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM for the underlined word in the given sentence.

He is a lazy person.
Ans 1. perfect

2. hardworking

3. popular

4. casual

Q.17 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains an error in phrasal verb.

Gita got onto / the book / she was reading / this morning.
Ans 1. the book

2. this morning

3. Gita got onto

4. she was reading

Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

He is going to _________ the campaign against excessive use of _________ in local production units.
Ans 1. lead

2. combat

3. protest

4. spice

Q.19 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence.

I started feeling tired as I had been working for a long time and so I decided to call the day.
Ans 1. be a day for calling

2. call it a day

3. call off the day

4. be called a day

Q.20 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the highlighted group of words in the given sentence.

The tailor was called to stitch the long loose gowns worn by priests and choristers.
Ans 1. cassocks

2. petticoats

3. frocks

4. tuxedos
 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The Enlightenment, sometimes known as the ‘Age of Reason’, is described as the period of (1)________ scientific, political, and
philosophical debate that characterised European culture (2) ________ the ‘long’ 18th century: from the late 17th century until the end
of the Napoleonic Wars in 1815. This was an era of an enormous (3) ________ in thinking and reason, which historian Roy Porter
describes as ‘decisive in the formation of modernity’. Centuries of custom and tradition were (4) ________ in favour of exploration,
individuality, tolerance, and scientific (5) ________, all of which contributed to the formation of the ‘modern world’.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1..
Ans 1. auspicious

2. malicious

3. rigorous

4. cautions

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The Enlightenment, sometimes known as the ‘Age of Reason’, is described as the period of (1)________ scientific, political, and
philosophical debate that characterised European culture (2) ________ the ‘long’ 18th century: from the late 17th century until the end
of the Napoleonic Wars in 1815. This was an era of an enormous (3) ________ in thinking and reason, which historian Roy Porter
describes as ‘decisive in the formation of modernity’. Centuries of custom and tradition were (4) ________ in favour of exploration,
individuality, tolerance, and scientific (5) ________, all of which contributed to the formation of the ‘modern world’.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2..
Ans 1. throughout

2. along with

3. over with

4. above

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The Enlightenment, sometimes known as the ‘Age of Reason’, is described as the period of (1)________ scientific, political, and
philosophical debate that characterised European culture (2) ________ the ‘long’ 18th century: from the late 17th century until the end
of the Napoleonic Wars in 1815. This was an era of an enormous (3) ________ in thinking and reason, which historian Roy Porter
describes as ‘decisive in the formation of modernity’. Centuries of custom and tradition were (4) ________ in favour of exploration,
individuality, tolerance, and scientific (5) ________, all of which contributed to the formation of the ‘modern world’.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3..
Ans 1. secure

2. shield

3. embed

4. shift

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The Enlightenment, sometimes known as the ‘Age of Reason’, is described as the period of (1)________ scientific, political, and
philosophical debate that characterised European culture (2) ________ the ‘long’ 18th century: from the late 17th century until the end
of the Napoleonic Wars in 1815. This was an era of an enormous (3) ________ in thinking and reason, which historian Roy Porter
describes as ‘decisive in the formation of modernity’. Centuries of custom and tradition were (4) ________ in favour of exploration,
individuality, tolerance, and scientific (5) ________, all of which contributed to the formation of the ‘modern world’.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4..
Ans 1. dejected

2. discarded

3. defrosted

4. demean
 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The Enlightenment, sometimes known as the ‘Age of Reason’, is described as the period of (1)________ scientific, political, and
philosophical debate that characterised European culture (2) ________ the ‘long’ 18th century: from the late 17th century until the end
of the Napoleonic Wars in 1815. This was an era of an enormous (3) ________ in thinking and reason, which historian Roy Porter
describes as ‘decisive in the formation of modernity’. Centuries of custom and tradition were (4) ________ in favour of exploration,
individuality, tolerance, and scientific (5) ________, all of which contributed to the formation of the ‘modern world’.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5..
Ans 1. shirk

2. doodle

3. slacken

4. endeavour