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This book is designed to help aspiring Laboratory Technologists. It is specifically developed for students
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Technologists Entrance Exams. We created this book based on our vast experience as renowned institute,
acknowledging the need for a comprehensive resource to build future Laboratory Technologists equipped
with in-depth understanding of Medical Laboratory Technology.

This book contains multiple-choice questions (MCQs) of the following subjects:

 Anatomy And Physiology

 Haematology And Blood Banking

 Clinical Pathology

 Biochemistry

 Microbiology

 Laboratory Management

These MCQs are designed to provide authentic knowledge and practical understanding for future
Laboratory Technologists.
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01 Anatomy and Physiology............................................................................................01-94
1. Cell ............................................................................................................................................ 01-11
2. Tissue ........................................................................................................................................ 11-13
3. Nutrition .................................................................................................................................... 13-16
4. Digestive System...................................................................................................................... 16-26
5. Excretory System ..................................................................................................................... 27-32
6. Respiratory System .................................................................................................................. 32-40
7. Cardiovascular System............................................................................................................. 40-49
8. Lymphatic System .................................................................................................................... 49-52
9. Skeletal System ........................................................................................................................ 52-56
10. Muscular System...................................................................................................................... 56-62
11. Nervous System ....................................................................................................................... 62-73
12. Endocrine System .................................................................................................................... 73-82
13. Reproductive System ............................................................................................................... 82-89
14. Reticuloendothelial System....................................................................................................... 89-92
15. Sensory Organs ........................................................................................................................ 92-94

02 Haematology and Blood Banking..........................................................................95-188

1. Introduction of Haematology ................................................................................................... 95-97
2. Laboratory Organization and Maintenance ............................................................................ 97-99
3. Introduction of Blood ............................................................................................................. 99-102
4. Formation of Blood .............................................................................................................. 102-108
5. Collection and Preservation of Blood Sample for Various Haematological Estimations . 108-110
6. Haemoglobin .......................................................................................................................... 110-113
7. Cell Counting .........................................................................................................................113-118
8. Differential Leucocyte Count (DLC) ................................................................................. 118-121
9. Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR) .............................................................................. 122-124
10. Packed Cell Volume (PCV)/Haematocrit Value (HCT) .................................................... 124-128
11. Red Cell Indices (RCI) ....................................................................................................... 128-131
12. Absolute Eosinophil Count (AEC) ...................................................................................... 131-134
 13. Reticulocyte Count ............................................................................................................... 134-137
14. Platelets Count ..................................................................................................................... 137-140
15. Preparation of Blood Films ................................................................................................. 140-144
16. Routine Staining Techniques in Haematology .................................................................... 144-149
17. Bone Marrow Examination - Different Sites and Needles Used .................................... 149-153
18. Osmotic Fragility Test (OFT) .............................................................................................. 153-155
19. Estimation of Fetal Hemoglobin .......................................................................................... 155-157
20. G6PD Estimation.................................................................................................................. 157-159
21. Sickling Test ......................................................................................................................... 159-161
22. Investigation of Bleeding Disorders .................................................................................... 161-166
23. Blood Group System and Blood Group Incompatibility ..................................................... 166-176
24. Blood Banking Preparation .................................................................................................. 176-179
25. Quality Control in Blood Banks .......................................................................................... 179-183
26. Test Done for Bleeding Disorders ...................................................................................... 183-188

03 Clinical Pathology....................................................................................................189-292
1. Urine Analysis............................................... .................................................................. 189-195
2. Cerebrospinal Fluid Analysis ................................................................................................ 195-199
3. Semen Analysis .................................................................................................................... 199-203
4. Sputum Analysis..........................................................................................................203-207
5. L.E. Cell test, Test for Cold Agglutination ........................................................................ 207-209
6. Biochemical Examination of Body Fluids - Pleural, Ascitic Fluid .................................... 209-212
7. Gerneral Principal of Histo-Pathological Work: Collection of Specimen, Numbering
and Giving Tissue Bits ......................................................................................................... 212-214
8. Equipment used in Histopathology : Their Merits & Demerits, and care to be taken ... 214-218
9. Fixatives Used in Histopathology - Preparation, Advantages, and Disadvantrages. ....... 218-221
10. Decalcification - Methods, Advantages and Disadvantages .............................................. 221-223
11. Tissue Processing ................................................................................................................. 223-226
12. Automated Tissue Processors, Principles and Advantages/Disadvantages
of Manual vs Automated Tissue Processing ...................................................................... 226-229
13. Embedding in Histopathology Process, Cassettes and Instruments Used ........................ 229-231
14. Leuk-Hart Moulds: Types and Uses in Histopathology ..................................................... 232-234
15. Microtome : Types and uses ............................................................................................... 234-236
16. Morbid Anatomy-Making of Blocks and Section Cutting, Errors in
Section Cutting and Their Correction ................................................................................. 236-239
17. Honing and Stropping in Histopathology: Applications in Routine Practice ..................... 239-241
18. Frozen Section and Cryostat Technique, Staining and Mounting ...................................... 241-243
19. Adhesives in Histopathology & Cytopathology: Types, Uses and Application ................ 243-246
 20. H&E Staining Process: Role of Acetone, Xylene and Variations .................................... 246-249
21. Hematoxylin and Eosin Stain, Common Histochemical Stains for Glycogen, Bacteria,
Fungi and Collagen .............................................................................................................. 249-250
22. Mounting ............................................................................................................................... 250-255
23. Preparation of Fixatives for Mounting................................................................................ 255-257
24. Techniques of Mounting ...................................................................................................... 257-258
25. Preparation of Different Types of Special Stains .............................................................. 258-261
26. Special Staining Techniques ................................................................................................. 261-264
27. Immunohistochemistry .......................................................................................................... 264-267
28. Immuno-Histochemical and Immuno-cytochemical Staining .............................................. 267-270
29. Introduction of Cytopathology, Methods of Collection of Material,
Making Smears & Preparation of fixatives Used ............................................................. 270-274
30. Instruments used in Specimen Collection in Cytopathology:
Uses, Advantages and Disadvantages ................................................................................ 274-276
31. Specimen Collection Technique in Cytopathology :
Clinical Importance, Collection Methods and Associated Diseases .................................. 277-279
32. Different Stains Used, Their Preparation and Staining the smears ................................. 279-282
33. MGG Staining, PAP Smear, and Other Stains in Cytopathology:
Uses, Merits and Demerits ................................................................................................. 283-285
34. Demonstration of Barr-Bodies (Sex Chromatin)................................................................ 285-287
35. Organization of Medical Laboratory and Museum and Their Maintenance .................... 287-291
36. Museum Techniques in Histopathology:
Importance, Applications and Maintenance ........................................................................ 291-292

04 Biochemistry..............................................................................................................293-410
1. Solution : Normal, Molar, Saturated, Unsaturated & Buffer ............................................ 293-295
2. Preparation of Solution ........................................................................................................ 295-298
3. Clearing ................................................................................................................................. 298-299
4. Pipettes ................................................................................................................................. 299-301
5. pH ......................................................................................................................................... 301-303
6. Colorimeter ........................................................................................................................... 303-305
7. Distillation ............................................................................................................................. 305-307
8. Proteins ................................................................................................................................. 307-314
9. Disorders of Amino Acids metabolism ............................................................................... 314-317
10. Carbohydrates.............................................................................................................317-327
11. Lipids ..................................................................................................................................... 328-339
12. Electrolytes in Body Fluids .................................................................................................. 339-343
13. Enzymes : Assays in Clinical Laboratory ........................................................................... 343-351
 14. Vitamins ................................................................................................................................ 351-368
15. Jaundice ................................................................................................................................ 368-372
16. Liver Function Test (LFT) .................................................................................................. 373-376
17. Renal Function Test (RFT) ................................................................................................. 376-380
18. Clearance Test ..................................................................................................................... 380-383
19. Hormones ............................................................................................................................. 383-388
20. Metabolic Disorders Associated with Nucleic Acid Metabolism, Gout etc. .................... 388-391
21. Cardiac Profile Tests (Application and Significance) ........................................................ 392-394
22. Pencreatic Enzymes & Diagnostic Importance ................................................................. 394-397
23. Hemoglobin Biosynthesis, Breakdown and Porphyrias ...................................................... 397-404
24. Constituents of Gastric Juice & Diagnostic Importance ................................................... 404-407
25. Electrophoresis ..................................................................................................................... 407-410

05 Microbiology............................................................................................................411-754
1. Historical Introduction .......................................................................................................... 411-413
2. Microscopy and Morphology of Bacteria ........................................................................... 413-419
3. Growth, Nutrition and Metabolism of Bacteria .................................................................. 419-422
4. Sterilisation and Disinfection ................................................................................................ 422-428
5. Culture Media ...................................................................................................................... 428-433
6. Culture Methods ................................................................................................................... 433-436
7. Identification of Bacteria ..................................................................................................... 436-440
8. Bacterial Taxonomy ............................................................................................................. 440-445
9. Bacterial Genetics ................................................................................................................ 445-450
10. Microbial Pathogenicity ........................................................................................................ 450-454
11. Immunity ............................................................................................................................... 454-459
12. Antigen.................................................................................................................................. 459-461
13. Antibodies-Immunoglobins .................................................................................................... 461-465
14. Antigen-Antibody Reactions ................................................................................................ 465-472
15. Complement System ............................................................................................................ 472-474
16. Structure and Functions of Immune System ...................................................................... 474-478
17. Immune Response ................................................................................................................ 478-481
18. Immunodeficiency Diseases ................................................................................................ 481-486
19. Hypersensitivity .................................................................................................................... 486-492
20. Autoimmunity ........................................................................................................................ 492-496
21. Transplantation and Tumor Immunity .................................................................................. 496-501
22. Immunohaematology ............................................................................................................. 501-507
Bacteria :-
23. Staphylococcus ..................................................................................................................... 507-513
24. Streptococcus and Enterococcus ......................................................................................... 514-519
25. Pneumococcus ...................................................................................................................... 519-524
26. Neisseria and Moraxella ...................................................................................................... 524-529
27. Corynebacterium .................................................................................................................. 529-532
28. Bacillus .................................................................................................................................. 533-536
29. Clostridium ............................................................................................................................ 536-540
30. Nonsporing Anaerobes ......................................................................................................... 540-544
31. Enterobacteriaceae ............................................................................................................... 544-548
32. Shigella .................................................................................................................................. 548-553
33. Salmonella ............................................................................................................................. 553-555
34. Campylobacter, Helicobacter, Mobiluncus .......................................................................... 556-560
35. Pseudomonas, Stenotrophomonas, Burkholderia ................................................................. 560-564
36. Yersinia, Pasteurella, Francisella ......................................................................................... 564-567
37. Legionella .............................................................................................................................. 567-571
38. Haemophilus and Gardnerella .............................................................................................. 571-574
39. Bordetella .............................................................................................................................. 574-577
40. Brucella ................................................................................................................................. 577-580
41. Non-Tuberculous Mycobacteria ........................................................................................... 580-585
42. Mycobacterium Tuberculosis ............................................................................................... 585-589
43. Mycobacterium Leprae ........................................................................................................ 589-593
44. Spirohaetes ............................................................................................................................ 593-597
45. Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma ............................................................................................. 597-601
46. Actinomycetes ...................................................................................................................... 601-604
47. Miscellaneous Bacteria ........................................................................................................ 604-609
48. Rickettsia, Orientia, Coxiella, Ehrlichia, Bartonella ............................................................ 609-614
49. Chlamydia and Chlamydophila ............................................................................................. 614-619
Virolgy :-
50. General Properties of Viruses ............................................................................................. 619-623
51. Virus-Host Interactions ........................................................................................................ 623-627
52. Bacteriophage ....................................................................................................................... 627-631
53. Poxviruses ............................................................................................................................. 631-634
54. Herpesviruses ....................................................................................................................... 634-638
55. Adenoviruses ........................................................................................................................ 638-641
56. Picornaviruses ...................................................................................................................... 641-645
57. Orthomyxoviruses ................................................................................................................. 645-649
58. Paramyxoviruses .................................................................................................................. 649-653
59. Arboviruses ........................................................................................................................... 653-658
60. Rhabdoviruses ...................................................................................................................... 658-661
 61. Hepatitis Viruses .................................................................................................................. 662-665
62. Retoviruses: HIV ................................................................................................................. 666-670
63. Miscellaneous Viruses .......................................................................................................... 670-674
64. Oncogenic Viruses ............................................................................................................... 674-679
Mycology :-
65. Medical Mycology ................................................................................................................ 679-690
66. Normal Microbial Flora of the Human Body .................................................................... 690-695
67. Sore Throat and Pneumonia ................................................................................................ 695-699
68. Urinary Tract Infections ...................................................................................................... 699-703
69. Diarrhoeal Diseases ............................................................................................................. 703-707
70. Meningitis .............................................................................................................................. 707-709
71. Bacteraemia, Septicaemia, Infective Endocarditis .............................................................. 709-711
72. Fever of Unknown Origin ................................................................................................... 711-713
73. Sexually Transmitted Diseases ............................................................................................ 713-716
74. Health Associated Infection ................................................................................................ 716-720
75. Prophylactic Immunisation ................................................................................................... 720-725
76. Antimicrobial Threapy .......................................................................................................... 725-728
77. Antimicrobial Sensitivity Testing .......................................................................................... 728-732
78. Molecular Detection of Microorganisms ............................................................................ 732-734
79. Bacteriology of Water, Milk and Air .................................................................................. 734-738
80. Hand Hygine ........................................................................................................................ 738-741
81. Biomedical Waste Management .......................................................................................... 741-746
82. Vehicles and Vectors ........................................................................................................... 747-749
83. Prophylactic Immunization ................................................................................................... 749-754

06 Laboratory Management.......................................................................................755-806
1. Laboratory Planning ............................................................................................................. 755-760
2. Laboratory Organization ...................................................................................................... 760-764
3. Care of Laboratory Glassware, Equipment and Chemicals .............................................. 764-773
4. Specimen Handling............................................................................................................... 773-781
5. Laboratory Safety ................................................................................................................ 781-785
6. Safety Measures .................................................................................................................. 785-790
7. Communication ..................................................................................................................... 790-793
8. Quality Control ..................................................................................................................... 793-799
9. Material Management .......................................................................................................... 799-806
Anatomy and Physiology [1]

Ans. (b) Transport of nutrients and waste products

Cell Exp. The extracellular space contains interstitial fluid that
helps in the transport of nutrients, oxygen, and waste
products between cells and blood vessels, facilitating
1. What is the primary role of the extracellular
efficient exchange and maintaining homeostasis.
matrix (ECM) in tissues?
4. What feature of the plasma membrane allows it
(a) To provide structural support to cells
to selectively regulate the entry and exit of
(b) To facilitate the synthesis of ATP
substances?
(c) To replicate DNA
(a) Selective permeability
(d) To transport lipids across the cell membrane (b) Fluid mosaic model
Ans. (a) To provide structural support to cells (c) Integral proteins
Exp. The extracellular matrix provides structural and (d) Phospholipid bilayer
biochemical support to the surrounding cells. It is Ans. (a) Selective permeability
essential for tissue integrity and plays a crucial role Exp. The plasma membrane is selectively permeable,
in cell communication, differentiation, and
allowing it to regulate what enters and exits the cell
proliferation.
efficiently. This property is crucial for maintaining
2. Which component is NOT typically found in
cellular homeostasis and responding to environmental
the extracellular matrix?
changes.
(a) Collagen (b) Elastin 5. What role do membrane proteins play in the
(c) Ribosomes (d) Fibronectin function of the plasma membrane?
Ans. (c) Ribosomes (a) Energy storage
Exp. Ribosomes are not a part of the extracellular matrix; (b) Acting as enzymes
they are cellular structures involved in protein (c) Serving only structural purposes
synthesis found within the cell. The ECM mainly (d) DNA replication
consists of fibrous proteins like collagen, elastin, Ans. (b) Acting as enzymes
and fibronectin. Exp. Membrane proteins play various roles including
3. Which function is primarily facilitated by the acting as enzymes to speed up metabolic processes,
fluids in the extracellular space? as receptors for signaling, and as transporters to
(a) Energy storage help substances move across the membrane.
(b) Transport of nutrients and waste products 6. Which molecule in the plasma membrane is
(c) DNA transcription primarily responsible for the membrane’s
(d) Protein folding fluidity?
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Anatomy and Physiology [27]
Ans. (b) To filter blood and produce urine
Excretory System Exp. The kidneys filter waste products and excess
substances from the blood, which results in the
production of urine. This process is vital for cleansing
1. What is the primary function of the excretory the blood and balancing the body’s fluids and
system? electrolytes.
(a) To digest food and absorb nutrients 5. What is the functional unit of the kidney called?
(b) To circulate blood throughout the body (a) Nephron (b) Alveolus
(c) To eliminate waste products of metabolism from (c) Hepatocyte (d) Neuron
the body
Ans. (a) Nephron
(d) To produce hormones
Exp. The nephron is the functional unit of the kidney.
Ans. (c) To eliminate waste products of metabolism
Each kidney contains about one million nephrons,
from the body
which are responsible for filtering the blood and
Exp. The excretory system is responsible for removing
producing urine.
waste products from the body, which are produced
6. Which substance is NOT normally found in the
as a result of metabolic processes. This is essential
filtrate in healthy kidneys?
to maintain homeostasis and prevent damage to the
(a) Urea (b) Glucose
body.
(c) Red blood cells (d) Sodium ions
2. Which organs are included in the human
excretory system? Ans. (c) Red blood cells
(a) Heart, liver, kidneys Exp. Healthy kidneys typically do not allow red blood
(b) Lungs, skin, liver cells to pass into the urine. Their presence in the
(c) Kidneys, ureters, bladder, urethra urine can indicate damage to the nephrons or other
(d) Stomach, intestines, colon parts of the kidney.
Ans. (c) Kidneys, ureters, bladder, urethra 7. What major processes occur in the nephron?
Exp. The excretory system primarily includes the kidneys, (a) Heartbeat regulation
ureters, bladder, and urethra. These organs work (b) Blood clotting
together to filter blood, create urine, and expel urine (c) Filtration, reabsorption, secretion
from the body. (d) Hemoglobin synthesis
3. How does the excretory system help regulate Ans. (c) Filtration, reabsorption, secretion
blood pressure? Exp. In the nephron, three main processes occur: filtration
(a) By controlling the volume of blood of the blood at the glomerulus, reabsorption of
(b) By producing digestive enzymes necessary nutrients and water back into the
(c) By secreting insulin bloodstream, and secretion of additional wastes into
(d) By absorbing nutrients in the intestines the tubular fluid.
Ans. (a) By controlling the volume of blood 8. Where does filtration primarily occur within
Exp. The excretory system, particularly through the the nephron?
kidneys, helps regulate blood pressure by controlling (a) Bowman’s capsule
the volume of blood (through adjusting fluid balance) (b) Proximal convoluted tubule
and the amount of salts in the blood, which in turn (c) Distal convoluted tubule
affects the blood pressure. (d) Collecting duct
4. What is the primary role of the kidneys in the Ans. (a) Bowman’s capsule
excretory system? Exp. Filtration in the nephron begins in the Bowman’s
(a) To produce bile capsule, where blood pressure forces water and
(b) To filter blood and produce urine solutes from the blood in the glomerulus into the
(c) To digest proteins capsule. This filtrate then passes through the rest
(d) To circulate blood of the nephron for further processing.
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[82] Anatomy and Physiology
Ans. (b) By binding to receptors on the cell surface 2. Which system works closely with the
and activating intracellular signaling reproductive system to influence its functions?
pathways (a) The skeletal system
Exp. Peptide hormones are not lipid-soluble and cannot (b) The endocrine system
pass through the cell membrane. Instead, they bind (c) The respiratory system
to specific receptors on the surface of target cells. (d) The digestive system
This binding triggers a series of signaling events Ans. (b) The endocrine system
within the cell, often involving second messengers, Exp. The endocrine system works closely with the
to elicit the appropriate response. reproductive system by producing hormones that
49. What determines the specific response of a regulate sexual development, reproductive cycles,
cell to a hormone? and reproductive structures. Hormones such as
(a) The blood type of the individual estrogen, testosterone, and progesterone play critical
(b) The presence and type of receptor on the cell’s roles in reproductive health and function.
surface 3. What is the role of genetic material in the
(c) The concentration of glucose in the cell reproductive system?
(d) The type of neurotransmitter released by the (a) To provide energy for gamete production
cell (b) To repair damaged cells within reproductive
Ans. (b) The presence and type of receptor on the organs
cell’s surface (c) To transmit genetic information to offspring
Exp. The specific response of a cell to a hormone is (d) To synthesize hormones necessary for
primarily determined by the presence and type of reproduction
receptors that the cell expresses. Different cells Ans. (c) To transmit genetic information to offspring
may have different receptors, and the same hormone Exp. The reproductive system is crucial for transmitting
can have varied effects depending on the receptor genetic information from parents to offspring through
it binds to and the intracellular machinery available. gametes. Sperm and eggs each carry half the genetic
material required, which combine during fertilization
to form a genetically unique individual.
Reproductive System 4. What is the primary male reproductive organ
that produces sperm and hormones?
(a) Urethra (b) Penis
1. What is the primary function of the human (c) Testis (d) Prostate gland
reproductive system? Ans. (c) Testis
(a) To regulate hormones and maintain homeostasis Exp. The testes are the primary male reproductive organs
(b) To enable digestion and nutrient absorption responsible for producing sperm, the male gametes,
(c) To produce, store, and transport gametes and and hormones such as testosterone, which regulates
nourish offspring male secondary sexual characteristics and
(d) To provide immune protection against pathogens reproductive functions.
Ans. (c) To produce, store, and transport gametes 5. What role does the prostate gland play in the
and nourish offspring male reproductive system?
Exp. The primary function of the reproductive system (a) It controls the temperature of the testes.
is to produce, store, and transport gametes (b) It produces a fluid that is part of semen.
(sperm and eggs), facilitate fertilization, and (c) It stores sperm until maturation.
support the development and nourishment of (d) It transports sperm directly to the penis.
offspring during pregnancy and after birth in the Ans. (b) It produces a fluid that is part of semen
case of females.
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 Exp. A hemocytometer is a device used to count cells in a
Introduction to Haematology blood sample, which is essential in haematology labs
for tasks like total blood counts.
4. In Haematology, why is a microscope important?
1. What is the primary focus of Haematology? (a) It is used for DNA sequencing
(a) Study of blood and blood-forming organs (b) It is used for visualizing and identifying blood cells
(b) Study of heart and circulatory system (c) It is used for protein analysis
(c) Study of the nervous system (d) It is used for measuring blood pressure
(d) Study of the immune system Ans. (b) It is used for visualizing and identifying blood
Ans. (a) Study of blood and blood-forming organs
cells
Exp. Haematology is the branch of medicine concerning
Exp. Microscopes are essential in haematology for
the study of blood, the blood-forming organs, and blood
examining blood smears and identifying different types
diseases.
of blood cells.
2. Which of the following is the key importance of
5. Which of the following is a significant advantage
Haematology in medical science?
of understanding Haematology?
(a) It aids in understanding cardiac diseases
(a) Early detection of blood-related disorders
(b) It helps in the diagnosis and treatment of blood
(b) Improved digestion
disorders
(c) It is used to study neural connections (c) Enhanced memory function
(d) It is primarily used for metabolic studies (d) Faster muscle recovery
Ans. (b) It helps in the diagnosis and treatment of Ans. (a) Early detection of blood-related disorders
blood disorders Exp. Knowledge of haematology enables the early
Exp. Haematology plays a crucial role in diagnosing and detection and treatment of various blood disorders,
treating various blood disorders such as anemia, which can be critical for patient outcomes.
leukemia, and clotting disorders. 6. Which haematology equipment is essential for
3. Which equipment is primarily used in a determining the blood's oxygen-carrying
haematology laboratory for cell counting? capacity?
(a) Centrifuge (a) Electrophoresis apparatus
(b) Microscope (b) Hemoglobinometer
(c) Hemocytometer (c) Centrifuge
(d) Electrophoresis apparatus (d) Spectrophotometer
Ans. (c) Hemocytometer Ans. (b) Hemoglobinometer
Haematology and Blood Banking [131]
Ans. (a) Low MCV and low MCH 2. How is the Absolute Eosinophil Count (AEC)
Exp. Microcytic hypochromic anemia, such as that caused calculated?
by iron deficiency, is characterized by low MCV (a) Multiplying the total white blood cell count by the
(small cell size) and low MCH (less hemoglobin per percentage of eosinophils
cell). (b) Counting eosinophils in a stained blood smear
24. Which condition is least likely to be associated (c) Measuring eosinophil concentration using flow
with high MCV? cytometry
(a) Alcoholism (d) Dividing the total white blood cell count by the
(b) Hemolysis number of eosinophils
(c) Myelodysplastic syndrome Ans. (a) Multiplying the total white blood cell count
(d) Vitamin B12 deficiency by the percentage of eosinophils
Ans. (b) Hemolysis Exp. AEC is calculated by multiplying the total white blood
Exp. Hemolysis does not typically cause high MCV. cell count by the percentage of eosinophils identified
Conditions like alcoholism, myelodysplastic syndrome, in a differential count.
and vitamin B12 deficiency are more commonly 3. What is considered a normal range for Absolute
associated with macrocytic anemia (high MCV). Eosinophil Count in adults?
25. Which of the following conditions might present (a) 50-400 cells/µL
with both high MCV and high RDW? (b) 500-1,000 cells/µL
(a) Megaloblastic anemia
(c) 1,000-2,000 cells/µL
(b) Iron deficiency anemia
(d) 5-50 cells/µL
(c) Chronic liver disease
Ans. (a) 50-400 cells/µL
(d) Acute blood loss
Exp. The normal range for AEC in adults is typically
Ans. (a) Megaloblastic anemia
between 50-400 cells per microliter, though slight
Exp. Megaloblastic anemia, often due to vitamin B12 or
var iati ons may occur bas ed on lab orat ory
folate deficiency, typically presents with high MCV
standards.
(macrocytosis) and high RDW (variation in cell
4. What type of stain is typically used for eosinophil
size).
morphology?
(a) Romanowsky stain
Absolute Eosinophil Count (AEC) (b) Haematoxylin and eosin (H&E)
(c) Wright's stain
(d) Giemsa stain
1. What is the primary function of eosinophils in Ans. (c) Wright's stain
the immune system? Exp. Wright's stain is commonly used for blood smears to
(a) Phagocytosis of bacteria differentiate eosinophils based on their granules
(b) Response to parasitic infections and allergic staining red-orange.
reactions 5. Eosinophils are best recognized by which of the
(c) Production of antibodies following morphological features?
(d) Clot formation (a) Bilobed nucleus and large, red granules
Ans. (b) Response to parasitic infections and allergic (b) Multilobed nucleus and small granules
reactions
(c) Kidney-shaped nucleus and blue granules
Exp. Eosinophils play a key role in the immune response to
(d) Round nucleus and clear cytoplasm
parasitic infections and are involved in allergic
Ans. (a) Bilobed nucleus and large, red granules
reactions, where they release enzymes and toxic
Exp. Eosinophils have a distinctive bilobed nucleus and large,
proteins to combat pathogens.
red-orange granules in their cytoplasm.
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Haematology and Blood Banking [153]
Ans. (c) Myelodysplastic syndrome 4. Which type of solution is used in the osmotic
Exp. Ringed sideroblasts, which are abnormal erythroblasts fragility test?
with iron-loaded mitochondria forming a ring around (a) Distilled water
the nucleus, are a characteristic finding in (b) Isotonic saline solution
myelodysplastic syndromes. (c) Hypertonic saline solution
(d) Hypotonic saline solution
Ans. (d) Hypotonic saline solution
Osmotic Fragility Test Exp. Hypotonic saline solutions are used in the osmotic
fragility test to stress the red blood cells' membranes,
causing cells with weaker membranes to lyse more
1. What is the osmotic fragility test primarily used readily.
to assess? 5. What is the normal range of osmotic fragility for
(a) Platelet aggregation red blood cells?
(b) White blood cell count (a) Hemolysis begins at 0.35% saline and is complete
(c) Red blood cell membrane stability at 0.25% saline
(d) Hemoglobin concentration (b) Hemolysis begins at 0.55% saline and is complete
Ans. (b) Red blood cell membrane stability at 0.65% saline
Exp. The osmotic fragility test evaluates the stability of (c) Hemolysis begins at 0.45% saline and is complete
red blood cell membranes in hypotonic solutions, at 0.35% saline
helping to diagnose conditions like hereditary (d) Hemolysis begins at 0.65% saline and is complete
spherocytosis where membrane integrity is at 0.75% saline
compromised. Ans. (c) Hemolysis begins at 0.45% saline and is
2. Which condition is associated with increased complete at 0.35% saline
osmotic fragility? Exp. In a normal osmotic fragility test, hemolysis typically
(a) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia begins at 0.45% saline and is complete at 0.35%
(b) Iron deficiency anemia saline. Variations from this range suggest membrane
(c) Polycythemia vera abnormalities.
(d) Hereditary spherocytosis 6. In the osmotic fragility test, red blood cells are
Ans. (d) Hereditary spherocytosis most likely to lyse in:
Exp. In hereditary spherocytosis, red blood cells are more (a) Hypertonic solutions
fragile due to abnormalities in their membranes, (b) Neutral solutions
making them more prone to rupture in hypotonic (c) Isotonic solutions
solutions, which increases osmotic fragility. (d) Hypotonic solutions
3. How does the osmotic fragility test work? Ans. (d) Hypotonic solutions
(a) It measures red blood cell destruction in hypotonic Exp. RBCs are more prone to lyse in hypotonic solutions
solutions as water enters the cells, causing them to swell and
(b) It counts red blood cells under a microscope burst.
(c) It calculates hemoglobin content 7. A right shift in the osmotic fragility test curve
(d) It evaluates the size of red blood cells indicates:
Ans. (a) It measures red blood cell destruction in (a) Increased fragility
hypotonic solutions (b) Decreased fragility
(c) Normal fragility
Exp. The osmotic fragility test exposes red blood cells to
(d) No fragility
decreasing concentrations of saline, and the degree
Ans. (b) Decreased fragility
of hemolysis is measured, indicating the stability of
Exp. A rightward shift on the OFT graph indicates
the cell membrane.
decreased fragility of red blood cells.
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 Ans. (b) 4.5-8.0
Urine Analysis Exp. The normal urine pH ranges from 4.5 to 8.0, depending
on diet and systemic conditions.
5. Which chemical test is used to detect glucose in urine?
1. What is the primary waste product excreted in
(a) Benedict's test (b) Iodine test
urine?
(c) Biuret test (d) Sulkowitch test
(a) Urea (b) Glucose
Ans. (a) Benedict's test
(c) Albumin (d) Hemoglobin
Exp. Benedict's test detects reducing sugars like glucose
Ans. (b) Urea
in urine, commonly used in diabetes testing.
Exp. Urea, a byproduct of protein metabolism, is the major
6. What is the typical specific gravity of urine?
nitrogenous waste excreted in urine, accounting for
(a) 1.005-1.030 (b) 1.030-1.050
around 90% of the total nitrogen in urine.
(c) 1.000-1.010 (d) 1.050-1.100
2. Which of the following is correct regarding the
Ans. (a) 1.005-1.030
collection of urine specimens?
Exp. The specific gravity reflects the concentration of
(a) Urine should be collected midstream
solutes in urine, with normal ranges from 1.005 to
(b) First-morning urine is discarded
1.030.
(c) Urine is best collected in the afternoon
7. Which of the following is NOT typically found in
(d) Urine should be stored at room temperature for
normal urine?
24 hours
(a) Urea (b) Creatinine
Ans. (a) Urine should be collected midstream
(c) Glucose (d) Chloride
Exp. Midstream urine collection reduces contamination
Ans. (c) Glucose
from the urethra and external genitalia.
Exp. Glucose is not normally present in urine and may
3. Which component of urine gives it a
indicate conditions like diabetes if found.
characteristic yellow color?
8. Which cells are commonly seen during
(a) Urobilinogen (b) Hemoglobin
microscopic examination of urine?
(c) Bilirubin (d) Urochrome
(a) Red blood cells (b) White blood cells
Ans. (d) Urochrome
(c) Epithelial cells (d) Platelets
Exp. Urochrome is a pigment that gives urine its yellow
Ans. (c) Epithelial cells
color, formed from the breakdown of hemoglobin.
Exp. Epithelial cells, shed from the lining of the urinary
4. What is the normal pH range for freshly voided
tract, are commonly found in urine samples.
urine?
9. The presence of ketones in urine suggests what
(a) 2.0-3.0 (b) 4.5-8.0
underlying condition?
(c) 9.0-10.0 (d) 11.0-12.0
[212] Clinical Pathology
19. A 40-year-old woman with known liver cirrhosis Ans. (a) To track the specimen's origin
presents with fever and abdominal pain. Ascitic Exp. Accurate labeling ensures that the specimen can be
fluid analysis reveals a white blood cell count of traced back to the correct patient and anatomical site.
350 cells/µL, predominantly neutrophils. What Any mislabeling can lead to incorrect diagnosis and
is the next step in management? treatment.
(a) Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics 3. What is the role of tissue numbering in
(b) Perform a liver biopsy histopathology?
(c) Order a CT scan of the abdomen (a) To categorize tissue size
(d) Repeat the ascitic fluid analysis in 48 hours (b) To assign unique identifiers
Ans. (a) Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics (c) To record the weight
Exp. A neutrophil count above 350 cells/µL in ascitic fluid (d) To count the cells
suggests spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP), Ans. (b) To assign unique identifiers
which requires immediate treatment with broad- Exp. Each specimen is given a unique number to ensure
spectrum antibiotics. proper identification throughout the processing and
20. A 55-year-old male presents with shortness of reporting phases, preventing mix-ups or errors.
breath and pleural effusion. Pleural fluid analysis 4. Why is the selection of tissue bits important
shows a milky appearance and elevated during sampling?
triglycerides. What is the most likely diagnosis? (a) To preserve cells
(a) Empyema (b) Chylothorax (b) To avoid excess tissue
(c) Pneumonia (d) Pulmonary embolism
(c) To represent the lesion
Ans. (b) Chylothorax
(d) To minimize chemicals
Exp. A milky appearance and elevated triglycerides in
Ans. (c) To represent the lesion
pleural fluid are characteristic of chylothorax, caused
Exp. Tissue bits must be representative of the lesion or
by lymphatic obstruction or trauma.
disease area. If unrepresentative tissue is chosen, it
can lead to misdiagnosis.
General Principles of 5. What is the most common method for collecting
Histo-Pathological Work: a specimen in histopathology?
Collection of Specimen, (a) Biopsy (b) Fine-needle aspiration
Numbering, and Giving Tissue Bits (c) Punch biopsy (d) Surgical excision
Ans. (a) Biopsy
Exp. A biopsy is the most common method where a small
1. What is the first step in the histopathology piece of tissue is removed for examination under a
specimen collection process? microscope to determine the presence or extent of
(a) Numbering (b) Fixation disease.
(c) Documentation (d) Trimming 6. What does the term "grossing" refer to in
Ans. (c) Documentation histopathology?
Exp. The first step is proper documentation, which involves (a) Macroscopic examination
identifying the specimen, recording patient information, (b) Viewing under a microscope
and ensuring correct labeling. This is critical to prevent (c) Weighing the specimen
errors later in the process. (d) Cutting tissue
2. Why is accurate labeling important in
Ans. (a) Macroscopic examination
histopathology?
Exp. Grossing refers to the macroscopic examination of
(a) To track the specimen's origin
the specimen to describe its size, color, texture, and
(b) To avoid contamination
any visible lesions. This step is crucial for selecting
(c) To ensure correct diagnosis
the area for microscopic analysis.
(d) To maintain temperature
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[234] Clinical Pathology
Exp. Leuk-Hart moulds can be sterilized by autoclaving, (a) Rotary microtome
as they are heat-resistant and can withstand high (b) Sliding microtome
temperatures without deforming. (c) Electron microtome
(d) Freezing microtome
Ans. (c) Electron microtome
Microtome : Types and uses Exp. Electron microtomes are used in electron microscopy,
not conventional histopathology.
6. In a sliding microtome, which part moves during
1. What is the primary function of a microtome in sectioning?
histopathology? (a) Blade (b) Specimen
(a) Staining tissue samples (c) Knife holder (d) Rotary wheel
(b) Embedding tissue samples Ans. (a) Blade
(c) Cutting thin sections of tissue Exp. In a sliding microtome, the knife slides over a
(d) Fixing tissue samples stationary specimen block to produce sections.
Ans. (c) Cutting thin sections of tissue 7. Which type of microtome is best suited for
Exp. A microtome is used to cut very thin slices of tissue cutting frozen tissue sections?
for microscopic examination. (a) Rotary microtome
2. Which part of the microtome holds the knife or (b) Vibrating microtome
blade in place? (c) Cryostat
(a) Knife holder (b) Stage (d) Sliding microtome
(c) Rotary wheel (d) Specimen clamp Ans. (c) Cryostat
Ans. (a) Knife holder Exp. Cryostats are specialized microtomes used for cutting
Exp. The knife holder securely holds the microtome blade, frozen tissue sections, ideal for quick diagnosis.
ensuring precise cutting of tissue sections. 8. Which microtome is primarily used for ultra-thin
3. What is the most commonly used type of sections, often for electron microscopy?
microtome in routine histopathology? (a) Rotary microtome
(a) Cryostat (b) Sliding microtome
(b) Rotary microtome (c) Ultramicrotome
(c) Sliding microtome (d) Cryostat
(d) Ultramicrotome Ans. (c) Ultramicrotome
Ans. (b) Rotary microtome Exp. Ultramicrotomes are used for cutting sections thinner
Exp. The rotary microtome is widely used in laboratories than 100 nm, suitable for electron microscopy.
for cutting paraffin-embedded tissue sections. 9. Which part of the microtome holds the tissue
block?
4. Which part of a rotary microtome is responsible
(a) Blade holder (b) Specimen clamp
for moving the specimen forward for each cut?
(c) Stage (d) Rotary wheel
(a) Specimen holder
Ans. (b) Specimen clamp
(b) Coarse adjustment knob
Exp. The specimen clamp holds the tissue block in place
(c) Micrometer screw
during sectioning.
(d) Knife guard
10. Which of the following is adjusted to change the
Ans. (c) Micrometer screw
thickness of the sections in a microtome?
Exp. The micrometer screw advances the specimen holder, (a) Blade angle
allowing the tissue to be moved forward by a precise (b) Specimen holder
amount for each slice. (c) Thickness adjustment knob
5. Which of the following is NOT a type of (d) Knife guard
microtome used in histopathology? Ans. (c) Thickness adjustment knob
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 Ans. (d) A solution that cannot dissolve more solute at
Solution : Normal, Molar, Saturated,
Unsaturated & Buffer a given temperature
Exp. A saturated solution cannot dissolve any more solute
under specific conditions.
1. What is a normal solution?
4. What is an unsaturated solution?
(a) A solution with 1 mole of solute in 1 liter of
(a) A solution with excess solute dissolved
solvent
(b) A solution that can still dissolve more solute at a
(b) A solution containing 1 equivalent of solute in 1
given temperature
liter of solvent
(c) A solution with less solute than solvent
(c) A solution with 1 gram of solute in 1 liter of
(d) A solution that is highly concentrated
solvent
Ans. (b) A solution that can still dissolve more solute at
(d) A solution with an unknown concentration of
a given temperature
solute
Exp. An unsaturated solution has the capacity to dissolve
Ans. (b) A solution containing 1 equivalent of solute in
more solute at a particular temperature.
1 liter of solvent
5. Which one of the following describes a buffer
Exp. A normal solution contains one equivalent of solute
solution?
per liter of solvent.
2. Which of the following defines a molar solution? (a) A solution that changes pH rapidly when an acid
(a) 1 mole of solute dissolved in 1 liter of solution is added
(b) 1 equivalent of solute dissolved in 1 liter of (b) A solution that resists changes in pH when small
solution amounts of acid or base are added
(c) 1 mole of solute in 500 mL of solution (c) A solution that has no change in temperature
(d) A solution that has variable solute concentration (d) A solution with high solute concentration
Ans. (a) 1 mole of solute dissolved in 1 liter of solution Ans. (b) A solution that resists changes in pH when
Exp. A molar solution consists of 1 mole of solute in 1 liter small amounts of acid or base are added
of solution. Exp. A buffer solution maintains its pH when small
3. A saturated solution is. amounts of acids or bases are introduced.
(a) A solution with more solvent than solute 6. The concentration of a molar solution is expressed
(b) A solution with 1 mole of solute in 1 liter of in.
solvent (a) Moles per liter (b) Milligrams per liter
(c) A solution that is diluted (c) Grams per liter (d) Kilograms per liter
(d) A solution that cannot dissolve more solute at a Ans. (a) Moles per liter
given temperature Exp. Molar concentration is expressed in moles per litre.
[328] Biochemistry
(a) Chylomicrons (b) LDL
lipids (c) VLDL (d) HDL
Ans. (d) HDL
Exp. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) is involved in
1. The primary function of lipids in the body is to.
reverse cholesterol transport, carrying cholesterol
(a) Store energy
from peripheral tissues back to the liver for excretion.
(b) Provide immediate energy
7. Triglycerides are composed of.
(c) Synthesize DNA
(a) Three fatty acids and one glycerol molecule
(d) Facilitate oxygen transport
(b) Two fatty acids and one glucose molecule
Ans. (a) Store energy
(c) Three glucose molecules and one fatty acid
(d) One amino acid and one fatty acid
Exp. Lipids, primarily in the form of triglycerides, are used
Ans. (a) Three fatty acids and one glycerol molecule
for long-term energy storage in the body.
Exp. Triglycerides consist of three fatty acid chains
2. Which of the following is a lipid that serves as a
attached to one glycerol molecule and are the primary
precursor for steroid hormones?
form of fat stored in the body.
(a) Cholesterol (b) Phospholipids
8. Which enzyme is responsible for breaking down
(c) Triglycerides (d) Glycogen
triglycerides in the small intestine?
Ans. (a) Cholesterol
(a) Amylase
Exp. Cholesterol is the precursor for steroid hormones such
(b) Lipase
as estrogen, testosterone, and cortisol.
(c) Pepsin
3. Which of the following lipoproteins is responsible
(d) Lactase
for transporting cholesterol from the liver to
Ans. (b) Lipase
peripheral tissues?
Exp. Pancreatic lipase breaks down triglycerides into fatty
(a) HDL (b) LDL
acids and glycerol in the small intestine.
(c) VLDL (d) Chylomicrons
9. Which of the following is considered “good
Ans. (b) LDL
cholesterol” because it helps remove cholesterol
Exp. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) transports cholesterol
from the bloodstream?
from the liver to peripheral tissues and is often
(a) LDL (b) HDL
referred to as “bad cholesterol.”
(c) VLDL (d) Triglycerides
4. Lipid digestion begins in the.
Ans. (b) HDL
(a) Mouth (b) Stomach
Exp. HDL is known as “good cholesterol” because it helps
(c) Small intestine (d) Large intestine
remove cholesterol from the bloodstream and
Ans. (c) Small intestine
transport it to the liver for excretion.
Exp. Lipid digestion primarily begins in the small intestine
10. A patient’s blood test shows elevated levels of LDL
with the help of bile salts and pancreatic lipase.
cholesterol. This increases the risk of.
5. Which of the following is a ketone body produced
(a) Atherosclerosis (b) Hypoglycemia
during the breakdown of fatty acids?
(c) Hypertension (d) Liver disease
(a) Acetone (b) Glucose
Ans. (a) Atherosclerosis
(c) Urea (d) Glycerol
Exp. Elevated levels of LDL cholesterol are associated
Ans. (a) Acetone
with an increased risk of atherosclerosis, which can
Exp. Acetone is one of the three ketone bodies produced
lead to cardiovascular diseases like heart attacks and
during the breakdown of fatty acids for energy,
strokes.
especially during fasting or carbohydrate restriction.
11. Which process describes the breakdown of lipids
6. Which of the following lipoproteins is involved in
for energy during periods of fasting or
reverse cholesterol transport, carrying cholesterol
carbohydrate restriction?
from tissues back to the liver?
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Biochemistry [351]
Exp. SGPT (ALT) is another enzyme elevated in bile duct Exp. Retinal, Retinol, and Retinoic acid are all active forms
obstruction, often used alongside alkaline of Vitamin A with distinct functions.
phosphatase to assess liver dysfunction. 4. Vitamin A can be classified as.
77. In cases of suspected bone disease with elevated (a) Protein-soluble (b) Water-soluble
alkaline phosphatase, which enzyme is typically (c) Fat-soluble (d) Alcohol-soluble
NOT elevated? Ans. (c) Fat-soluble
(a) Amylase (b) Creatine kinase Exp. Vitamin A is a fat-soluble vitamin, meaning it is stored
(c) Acid phosphatase (d) SGPT (ALT) in the body’s fatty tissues.
Ans. (d) SGPT (ALT) 5. Which of the following statements about Vitamin
Exp. SGPT (ALT) is more specific to liver damage and is A synthesis by intestinal bacteria is correct?
not typically elevated in bone diseases like (a) Vitamin A is synthesized by intestinal bacteria
osteoporosis or Paget’s disease. (b) Vitamin A is not synthesized by intestinal bacteria
78. A patient presents with severe muscle pain and a (c) Only â-carotene is synthesized by bacteria
diagnosis of rhabdomyolysis. Which enzyme is (d) Intestinal bacteria synthesize active Retinol
used to monitor muscle damage in this condition? Ans. (b) Vitamin A is not synthesized by intestinal
(a) Lipase (b) Alkaline phosphatase bacteria
(c) SGOT (AST) (d) Creatine kinase Exp. Unlike some B vitamins and Vitamin K, Vitamin A is
Ans. (d) Creatine kinase not synthesized by intestinal bacteria.
Exp. Creatine kinase levels are significantly elevated in 6. Which of the following is a primary function of
rhabdomyolysis due to muscle breakdown and are Vitamin A in the body?
monitored to assess the extent of muscle damage. (a) Blood clotting
(b) Vision in low light
(c) Collagen synthesis
Vitamins (d) Calcium absorption
Ans. (b) Vision in low light
Exp. Vitamin A is essential for the formation of rhodopsin,
Vitamin : A a pigment in the retina that helps in low-light vision.
7. Retinoic acid, a derivative of Vitamin A, primarily
1. What is the common name for Vitamin A? affects.
(a) Phylloquinone (b) Ascorbic acid (a) Eye function
(c) Tocopherol (d) Retinol (b) Glucose metabolism
Ans. (d) Retinol (c) Muscle contraction
Exp. Vitamin A is commonly known as Retinol. (d) Cell differentiation
2. Which of the following is a precursor of Vitamin Ans. (d) Cell differentiation
A? Exp. Retinoic acid plays a crucial role in regulating cell
(a) Thiamine (b) Niacin growth and differentiation.
(c) â-carotene (d) Riboflavin 8. Which of the following is the richest dietary
Ans. (c) â-carotene source of Vitamin A?
Exp. â-carotene is a provitamin that is converted into (a) Liver (b) Spinach
Vitamin A in the body. (c) Milk (d) Whole grains
3. Which of the following is the active form of Ans. (a) Liver
Vitamin A? Exp. Liver is an exceptionally rich source of preformed
(a) Retinal (b) Retinol Vitamin A (Retinol).
(c) Retinoic acid (d) All of the above 9. Carrots are a good source of which form of
Ans. (d) All of the above Vitamin A?

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Biochemistry [397]
(a) Gallbladder disease 24. A patient with chronic pancreatitis presents with
(b) Pancreatic cancer malabsorption and weight loss. Which pancreatic
(c) Hepatitis enzyme supplementation would be most
(d) Kidney failure beneficial?
Ans. (a) Gallbladder disease (a) Lipase (b) Amylase
Exp. Elevated amylase levels with normal lipase levels may (c) Trypsin (d) Protease
suggest a condition like gallbladder disease, as lipase Ans. (a) Lipase
is more specific to pancreatic inflammation. Exp. Lipase supplementation is commonly used in chronic
21. A patient with chronic pancreatitis has reduced pancreatitis to aid in fat digestion and improve
levels of amylase. What does this suggest about symptoms of malabsorption and weight loss.
the progression of the disease?
(a) Improved pancreatic function Hemoglobin Biosynthesis,
(b) Ongoing pancreatic inflammation Breakdown and Porphyrias
(c) Severe pancreatic damage
(d) Liver failure 1. Hemoglobin is composed of.
Ans. (c) Severe pancreatic damage (a) One heme group and two globin chains
Exp. Reduced amylase levels in chronic pancreatitis suggest (b) Four heme groups and four globin chains
severe pancreatic damage, where the pancreas is no (c) Two heme groups and two globin chains
longer able to produce sufficient enzymes. (d) Three heme groups and two globin chains
22. A patient with elevated lipase and normal amylase Ans. (b) Four heme groups and four globin chains
levels is diagnosed with pancreatitis. What is the Exp. Hemoglobin consists of four heme groups and four
significance of the elevated lipase? globin chains, which bind oxygen for transport in
(a) It indicates a chronic condition the blood.
2. The primary function of hemoglobin is to.
(b) It confirms gallbladder disease
(a) Transport glucose
(c) It indicates severe pancreatic inflammation
(b) Transport oxygen
(d) It suggests liver dysfunction
(c) Transport carbon dioxide
Ans. (c) It indicates severe pancreatic inflammation
(d) Transport lipids
Exp. Elevated lipase levels in the absence of elevated
Ans. (b) Transport oxygen
amylase indicate severe pancreatic inflammation,
Exp. Hemoglobin’s primary function is to transport oxygen
which is more specific for diagnosing pancreatitis.
from the lungs to the tissues.
23. A patient with acute pancreatitis has elevated
3. Heme is synthesized in which of the following
lipase levels that remain high for several days.
organs?
What is the most appropriate next step in (a) Liver and bone marrow
monitoring the patient’s condition? (b) Kidneys and liver
(a) Perform a liver biopsy (c) Lungs and bone marrow
(b) Continue monitoring enzyme levels and (d) Spleen and kidneys
symptoms Ans. (a) Liver and bone marrow
(c) Administer corticosteroids Exp. Heme is synthesized primarily in the liver and bone
(d) Perform cardiac enzymes marrow, where red blood cells are produced.
Ans. (b) Continue monitoring enzyme levels and 4. The globin chains in hemoglobin are composed of.
symptoms (a) Carbohydrates
Exp. Continued monitoring of enzyme levels and symptoms (b) Lipids
is necessary in cases of acute pancreatitis to assess (c) Amino acids
the progression and response to treatment. (d) Nucleotides

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 5. Louis Pasteur disproved the theory of:
Historical Introduction (a) Germ theory
(b) Spontaneous generation
(c) Evolution
1. Who is considered the father of microbiology?
(d) Cell theory
(a) Louis Pasteur (b) Joseph Lister
Ans. (b) Spontaneous generation
(c) Robert Koch (d) Paul Ehrlich
Exp. Pasteur's experiments with swan-neck flasks
Ans. (a) Louis Pasteur
demonstrated that microorganisms are not
Exp. Louis Pasteur made significant contributions to the
spontaneously generated.
field of microbiology, including the development of
6. The method of preventing disease by exposure
pasteurization and vaccines.
to a weakened or killed pathogen is known as:
2. Which scientist is known for his work in
(a) Vaccination (b) Sterilization
antiseptic surgery?
(c) Antisepsis (d) Chemotherapy
(a) Louis Pasteur (b) Joseph Lister
Ans. (a) Vaccination
(c) Robert Koch (d) Paul Ehrlich
Exp. Vaccine against small pox is the 1st discovered
Ans. (b) Joseph Lister vaccine known and was discovered by Edward
Exp. Joseph Lister is famous for introducing antiseptic Jenner.
surgical techniques, reducing postoperative 7. Joseph Lister's contribution to microbiology
infections. primarily involved:
3. Robert Koch is best known for his discovery of: (a) Vaccine development
(a) Penicillin (b) Tuberculosis bacillus (b) Antibiotic discovery
(c) Polio vaccine (d) Smallpox vaccine (c) Antiseptic surgery
Ans. (b) Tuberculosis bacillus (d) Bacterial classification
Exp. Robert Koch identified the causative agents of Ans. (c) Antiseptic surgery
tuberculosis, cholera, and anthrax. Exp. Lister's use of carbolic acid as an antiseptic greatly
4. Who discovered the first effective treatment for reduced infections in surgical patients.
syphilis? 8. Paul Ehrlich's work led to the development of:
(a) Louis Pasteur (b) Joseph Lister (a) Vaccines (b) Antibiotics
(c) Robert Koch (d) Paul Ehrlich (c) Chemotherapy (d) Antiseptics
Ans. (d) Paul Ehrlich Ans. (c) Chemotherapy
Exp. Paul Ehrlich developed Salvarsan, the first effective Exp. Ehrlich's work on selective toxicity laid the foundation
treatment for syphilis along with sahachiro hata. for chemotherapy.
Microbiology [445]
A. Kingdom B. Phylum Ans. (c) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
C. Genus D. Species Exp. Enterobacteriaceae is an example of a phylum,
List II: Escherichia is a genus, Escherichia coli is a species,
1. A group of similar species and E. coli K-12 is a strain.
2. The highest taxonomic rank
3. A group of similar genera
4. A group of strains sharing high genetic similarity Bacterial Genetics
(a) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
(b) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(c) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 1. Bacterial chromosomes are typically:
(d) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 (a) Linear (b) Circular
Ans. (a) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4 (c) Multiple (d) Diploid
Exp. Kingdom is the highest taxonomic rank, phylum is a Ans. (b) Circular
group of similar genera, genus is a group of similar Exp. Most bacteria have a single, circular chromosome.
species, and species is a group of strains sharing high 2. The process by which bacterial DNA is
genetic similarity. transferred from one cell to another by a
43. Match the method with its type of classification: bacteriophage is called:
List I: (a) Transformation (b) Conjugation
A. Biochemical tests (c) Transduction (d) Mutation
B. DNA-DNA hybridization Ans. (c) Transduction
C. 16S rRNA sequencing Exp. Transduction involves the transfer of bacterial DNA
D. Adansonian classification by a bacteriophage.
List II: 3. Which enzyme is responsible for synthesizing
1. Genetic classification new DNA strands during DNA replication in
2. Phenotypic classification bacteria?
3. Numerical classification (a) DNA polymerase (b) RNA polymerase
4. Evolutionary classification (c) Ligase (d) Reverse transcriptase
(a) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 Ans. (a) DNA polymerase
(b) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1 Exp. DNA polymerase synthesizes new DNA strands by
(c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 adding nucleotides to a growing DNA chain.
(d) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 4. The uptake of naked DNA from the environment
Ans. (c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 by a bacterial cell is known as:
Exp. Biochemical tests are used in phenotypic classification, (a) Transduction (b) Conjugation
DNA-DNA hybridization in genetic classification, 16S (c) Transformation (d) Recombination
rRNA sequencing in evolutionary classification, and Ans. (c) Transformation
Adansonian classification in numerical classification. Exp. Transformation involves the uptake of naked DNA
44. Match the classification level with its example: from the environment by a bacterial cell.
List I: List II: 5. Which process involves the direct transfer of
A. Phylum 1. Escherichia coli genetic material between two bacterial cells that
B. Genus 2. Enterobacteriaceae are temporarily joined?
C. Species 3. Escherichia (a) Transduction (b) Conjugation
D. Strain 4. E. coli K-12 (c) Transformation (d) Transposition
(a) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1 Ans. (b) Conjugation
(b) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 Exp. Conjugation is the process by which genetic material
(c) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4 is directly transferred between two bacterial cells that
(d) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 are temporarily joined.
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[506] Microbiology
1. Blood typing Exp. Hemolytic transfusion reaction involves severe
2. Peripheral blood film examination immune reaction with hemolysis, febrile non-hemolytic
3. Crossmatching transfusion reaction involves donor leukocytes causing
4. Screening for infectious diseases fever, allergic transfusion reaction involves reaction
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 to plasma proteins, and TRALI involves acute lung
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, and 4 injury due to immune response.
Ans. (c) 1, 3 and 4 46. Match the test with its purpose in blood
Exp. Ensuring blood transfusion safety involves blood typing, transfusion:
crossmatching, and screening for infectious diseases. List I:
44. Match the blood group with its corresponding A. Blood typing
antibodies: B. Crossmatching
List I: C. Direct Coombs test
A. Type A D. Indirect Coombs test
B. Type B List II:
C. Type AB 1. Ensure compatibility between donor and recipient
D. Type O 2. Identify blood group antigens
List II: 3. Detect antibodies bound to red blood cells
1. Anti-B antibodies 4. Detect free antibodies in the serum
2. Anti-A antibodies (a) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
3. No antibodies against A or B (b) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
4. Both anti-A and anti-B antibodies (c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 (d) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 Ans. (b) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(c) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3 Exp. Blood typing identifies blood group antigens,
(d) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 crossmatching ensures compatibility between donor
Ans. (a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 and recipient, the direct Coombs test detects antibodies
Exp. Type A has anti-B antibodies, Type B has anti-A bound to red blood cells, and the indirect Coombs test
antibodies, Type AB has no antibodies against A or B, detects free antibodies in the serum.
and Type O has both anti-A and anti-B antibodies. 47. Match the type of blood donation with its
45. Match the blood transfusion reaction with its description:
description: List I:
List I: A. Autologous donation
A. Hemolytic transfusion reaction B. Allogeneic donation
B. Febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction C. Directed donation
C. Allergic transfusion reaction D. Apheresis donation
D. Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) List II:
List II: 1. Blood donation from one person for another
1. Reaction involving donor leukocytes causing fever 2. Blood donation from the same individual for future
2. Severe immune reaction with hemolysis use
3. Allergic reaction to plasma proteins 3. Donation of specific blood components
4. Acute lung injury due to immune response 4. Blood donation from a specific donor for a specific
(a) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 recipient
(b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 (a) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(c) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 (b) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(d) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 (c) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
Ans. (a) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 (d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
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Microbiology [507]
Ans. (d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 5. Which of the following enzymes is produced by
Exp. Autologous donation is blood donation from the same Staphylococcus aureus and contributes to its
individual for future use, allogeneic donation is from virulence?
one person for another, directed donation is from a (a) Thermoneuclease
specific donor for a specific recipient, and apheresis (b) DNase
donation involves the donation of specific blood (c) Coagulase
components. (d) All of the above
Ans. (d) All of the above
Exp. Staphylococcus aureus produces various enzymes like
Staphylococcus thermoneuclease, DNase, and coagulase, contributing
to its virulence.
6. Which of the following antibiotics is
1. What is the typical arrangement of
Staphylococcus aureus commonly resistant to?
Staphylococcus aureus?
(a) Penicillin (b) Vancomycin
(a) Chains (b) Pairs
(c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Amoxicillin
(c) Clusters (d) Single cells
Ans. (a) Penicillin
Ans. (c) Clusters
Exp. Staphylococcus aureus is commonly resistant to
Exp. Staphylococcus aureus typically forms grape-like
penicillin due to the production of beta-lactamase.
clusters.
7. The mecA gene in Staphylococcus aureus is
2. Which of the following tests is used to
responsible for resistance to which antibiotic?
differentiate Staphylococcus aureus from other
(a) Erythromycin (b) Methicillin
Staphylococci?
(c) Tetracycline (d) Gentamicin
(a) Coagulase test (b) Catalase test
Ans. (b) Methicillin
(c) Oxidase test (d) Urease test
Exp. The mecA gene encodes a penicillin-binding protein
Ans. (a) Coagulase test
(PBP2a) that confers resistance to methicillin and
Exp. The coagulase test is used to differentiate
other beta-lactam antibiotics.
Staphylococcus aureus, which is coagulase-positive,
8. Which toxin produced by Staphylococcus aureus
from other Staphylococci, which are coagulase-
causes scalded skin syndrome?
negative.
(a) Exfoliative toxin
3. Which pigment is produced by Staphylococcus
(b) Enterotoxin
aureus?
(c) Toxic shock syndrome toxin
(a) Pyocyanin (b) Prodigiosin
(d) Hemolysin
(c) Staphyloxanthin (d) Green
Ans. (a) Exfoliative toxin
Ans. (c) Staphyloxanthin
Exp. Exfoliative toxin produced by Staphylococcus aureus
Exp. Staphyloxanthin is a carotenoid pigment that is
is responsible for scalded skin syndrome.
produced by some strains of Staphylococcus aureus,
9. What is the shape of Staphylococcus aureus
and is responsible for the characteristic golden yellow
cells?
color.
(a) Rod-shaped (b) Spiral
4. What is the primary habitat of Staphylococcus
(c) Coccus (d) Filamentous
epidermidis?
Ans. (c) Coccus
(a) Soil (b) Water
Exp. Staphylococcus aureus cells are spherical (coccus)
(c) Human skin (d) Air
in shape.
Ans. (c) Human skin
10. Staphylococcus saprophyticus is most commonly
Exp. Staphylococcus epidermidis is primarily found on
associated with which type of infection?
human skin.
(a) Respiratory infections

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Microbiology [533]
7. Which of the following is a common complication
Bacillus of inhalational anthrax?
(a) Pneumonia
(b) Tuberculosis
1. What is the Gram stain characteristic of Bacillus (c) Infectious mononucleosis
anthracis? (d) Meningitis
(a) Gram-positive rods
Ans. (a) Pneumonia
(b) Gram-negative rods
Exp. Pneumonia is a common complication of inhalational
(c) Gram-positive cocci
anthrax.
(d) Gram-negative cocci
8. What type of vaccine is available for anthrax?
Ans. (a) Gram-positive rods
(a) Subunit vaccine (b) Inactivated vaccine
Exp. Bacillus anthracis appears as Gram-positive rods.
(c) Toxoid vaccine (d) Live attenuated vaccine
2. Which medium is used to culture Bacillus
Ans. (a) Subunit vaccine
anthracis?
Exp. The anthrax vaccine is a subunit vaccine that contains
(a) MacConkey agar (b) Blood agar
protective antigen.
(c) Chocolate agar (d) Loeffler's medium
9. Which test is used to detect the protective
Ans. (b) Blood agar
antigen of Bacillus anthracis?
Exp. Bacillus anthracis is typically cultured on blood agar.
(a) Elek test (b) Schick test
3. Which test is used to confirm the presence of
(c) ELISA (d) Coagulase test
Bacillus anthracis in a clinical specimen?
Ans. (c) ELISA
(a) Gram stain
Exp. ELISA is used to detect the protective antigen of
(b) PCR for toxin genes
(c) Capsule staining Bacillus anthracis.
(d) All of the above 10. What is the primary mode of transmission for
Ans. (d) All of the above Bacillus anthracis infections?
Exp. Gram stain, PCR for toxin genes, Capsule staining, (a) Airborne transmission
and are used to confirm Bacillus anthracis. (b) Direct contact
4. What is the primary virulence factor of Bacillus (c) Vector-borne transmission
anthracis? (d) Ingestion
(a) Capsule (b) Anthrax toxin Ans. (a) Airborne transmission
(c) Endotoxin (d) Pilus Exp. Bacillus anthracis is primarily transmitted through
Ans. (b) Anthrax toxin inhalation of spores.
Exp. Anthrax toxin is the primary virulence factor of Bacillus 11. Which of the following conditions is NOT
anthracis. typically caused by Bacillus anthracis?
5. Which enzyme is produced by Bacillus anthracis (a) Cutaneous anthrax
and contributes to its pathogenesis? (b) Inhalational anthrax
(a) Hyaluronidase (b) DNase (c) Gastrointestinal anthrax
(c) Lethal factor (d) Coagulase (d) Endocarditis
Ans. (c) Lethal factor Ans. (d) Endocarditis
Exp. Lethal factor is a component of anthrax toxin and Exp. Bacillus anthracis is not typically associated with
contributes to the pathogenesis of Bacillus anthracis. endocarditis.
6. What is the habitat of Bacillus anthracis? 12. Which of the following antibiotics is commonly
(a) Soil (b) Water used to treat anthrax?
(c) Air (d) All of the above (a) Penicillin (b) Ciprofloxacin
Ans. (d) All of the above (c) Vancomycin (d) Erythromycin
Exp. Bacillus anthracis primarily resides in the soil, water Ans. (b) Ciprofloxacin
and air. Exp. Ciprofloxacin is commonly used to treat anthrax.
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[614] Microbiology
List I: List I:
A. Rocky Mountain spotted fever A. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
B. Q fever B. Q fever
C. Cat-scratch disease C. Cat-scratch disease
D. Scrub typhus D. Scrub typhus
List II: List II:
1. Fever, rash, and headache 1. Rickettsia rickettsii
2. Fever, lymphadenopathy, and papule at site of 2. Coxiella burnetii
scratch 3. Bartonella henselae
3. Fever, chills, and cough 4. Orientia tsutsugamushi
4. Fever, headache, and maculopapular rash (a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 (b) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(b) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 (c) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
(c) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2 (d) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(d) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3 Ans. (a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
Ans. (b) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 Exp. Rocky Mountain spotted fever is caused by Rickettsia
Exp. Rocky Mountain spotted fever presents with fever, rickettsii. Q fever is caused by Coxiella burnetii. Cat-
rash, and headache. Q fever presents with fever, chills, scratch disease is caused by Bartonella henselae.
and cough. Cat-scratch disease presents with fever, Scrub typhus is caused by Orientia tsutsugamushi.
lymphadenopathy, and a papule at the site of the
scratch. Scrub typhus presents with fever, headache,
and maculopapular rash. Chlamydia and Chlamydophila
47. Match the following organisms with their primary
habitat:
1. What is the Gram stain characteristic of
List I:
Chlamydia trachomatis?
A. Rickettsia rickettsii
(a) Gram-positive rods
B. Coxiella burnetii
(b) Gram-negative rods
C. Bartonella henselae
(c) Gram-positive cocci
D. Orientia tsutsugamushi
(d) Gram-negative cocci
List II:
Ans. (b) Gram-negative rods
1. Arthropods (ticks)
Exp. Chlamydia trachomatis are Gram-negative rods.
2. Mites
2. Which medium is commonly used to culture
3. Cats
Chlamydia trachomatis?
4. Livestock
(a) Blood agar (b) MacConkey agar
(a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(c) McCoy cells (d) Chocolate agar
(b) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
Ans. (c) McCoy cells
(c) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
Exp. Chlamydia trachomatis is commonly cultured in
(d) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
McCoy cells.
Ans. (b) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
3. Which test is used to confirm the presence of
Exp. Rickettsia rickettsii is found in arthropods (ticks).
Chlamydia trachomatis in a clinical specimen?
Coxiella burnetii is associated with livestock.
(a) Gram stain (b) ELISA
Bartonella henselae is found in cats. Orientia
(c) Catalase test (d) Coagulase test
tsutsugamushi is associated with mites.
Ans. (b) ELISA
48. Match the disease with the corresponding
Exp. ELISA is commonly used to confirm the presence of
pathogen:
Chlamydia trachomatis.
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Microbiology [619]
Exp. Trachoma is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. 6. How does the temperature affect virus stability?
Psittacosis is caused by Chlamydophila psittaci. (a) Viruses are more stable at higher temperatures
Atypical pneumonia is caused by Chlamydophila (b) Viruses are more stable at lower temperatures
pneumoniae. Pelvic inflammatory disease is associated (c) Temperature has no effect on virus stability
with Mycoplasma genitalium. (d) Viruses disintegrate at any temperature change
Ans. (b) Viruses are more stable at lower
temperatures
General Properties of Viruses Exp. Most viruses are more stable and can remain
infectious for longer periods at lower temperatures.
7. Which of the following agents can effectively
1. What is the typical size range of viruses?
inactivate viruses?
(a) 20-300 nm (b) 1-2 ?m
(a) High pH (b) Ultraviolet radiation
(c) 10-20 cm (d) 5-10 mm
(c) Lipid solvents (d) All of the above
Ans. (a) 20-300 nm
Ans. (d) All of the above
Exp. Most viruses range from 20 to 300 nanometers in
Exp. High pH, lipid solvents, and ultraviolet radiation are
size, making them much smaller than bacteria.
all effective in inactivating viruses.
2. Which of the following structures is a common
8. Which viral protein is responsible for the ability
feature of all viruses?
of some viruses to cause red blood cells to clump
(a) Ribosomes (b) Nucleus
together?
(c) Nucleic acid (d) Mitochondria
(a) Capsid (b) Hemagglutinin
Ans. (c) Nucleic acid
(c) Integrase (d) Reverse transcriptase
Exp. All viruses contain nucleic acid (either DNA or RNA)
Ans. (b) Hemagglutinin
as their genetic material.
Exp. Hemagglutinin is a viral protein that causes red blood
3. Viruses can have different shapes. Which of the
cells to clump (hemagglutination).
following is NOT a common shape of viruses?
9. Which phase is NOT part of the viral replication
(a) Helical (b) Icosahedral
cycle?
(c) Spherical (d) Cuboidal
(a) Attachment (b) Penetration
Ans. (d) Cuboidal
(c) Conjugation (d) Release
Exp. Common shapes of viruses include helical, icosahedral,
Ans. (c) Conjugation
and complex, but not cuboidal.
Exp. Conjugation is a process in bacteria, not a part of the
4. What type of nucleic acid is found in
viral replication cycle.
retroviruses?
(a) Double-stranded DNA 10. Animal inoculation, embryonated egg
(b) Single-stranded DNA inoculation, and tissue culture are methods used
(c) Single-stranded RNA for what purpose in virology?
(d) Double-stranded RNA (a) Virus isolation (b) Virus enumeration
Ans. (c) Single-stranded RNA (c) Virus inactivation (d) Virus destruction
Exp. Retroviruses contain single-stranded RNA as their Ans. (a) Virus isolation
genetic material. Exp. These methods are used to isolate and cultivate
5. Which chemical component is a major part of viruses in a laboratory setting.
viral envelopes? 11. What is the purpose of viral assays?
(a) Protein (b) Lipid (a) To count total viral particles
(c) Carbohydrate (d) Nucleic acid (b) To assay for viral proteins
Ans. (b) Lipid (c) To measure infectious virions
Exp. The viral envelope is primarily composed of lipid bilayer (d) To observepH change in viruses
derived from the host cell membrane. Ans. Both (a) and (c)

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[674] Microbiology
30. Match the virus with its associated disease: (a) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
List I (b) Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
A. Human papillomavirus (HPV) (c) Human papillomavirus (HPV)
B. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) (d) Human T-cell leukemia virus (HTLV)
C. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) Ans. (c) Human papillomavirus (HPV)
D. Parvovirus B19 Exp. Human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly types 16
List II and 18, is strongly associated with the development
1. Infectious mononucleosis of cervical cancer.
2. Genital warts 2. Which virus is associated with Burkitt's
3. Fifth disease lymphoma, particularly in African populations?
4. Congenital infections (a) Human papillomavirus (HPV)
(a) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1 (b) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
(b) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 (c) Hepatitis C virus (HCV)
(c) A-2, B-2, C-4, D-3 (d) Human T-cell leukemia virus (HTLV)
(d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 Ans. (b) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
Ans. (d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 Exp. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is associated with Burkitt's
Exp. Human papillomavirus (HPV) causes genital warts, lymphoma, especially in African populations where
Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) causes infectious malaria is endemic.
mononucleosis, cytomegalovirus (CMV) is associated 3. What type of genetic material is found in human
with congenital infections, and parvovirus B19 causes T-cell leukemia virus (HTLV)?
Fifth disease. (a) Double-stranded DNA
31. Match the virus with its diagnostic method: (b) Single-stranded DNA
List I (c) Double-stranded RNA
A. PCR B. Serology (d) Single-stranded RNA
C. Viral culture D. Gram staining Ans. (d) Single-stranded RNA
List II Exp. Human T-cell leukemia virus (HTLV) contains single-
1. Detects viral RNA or DNA stranded RNA as its genetic material.
2. Identifies specific antibodies 4. Which hepatitis virus is associated with an
3. Grows the virus in the lab increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma?
4. Used for bacteria (a) Hepatitis A virus (HAV)
(a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 (b) Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
(b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 (c) Hepatitis E virus (HEV)
(c) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2 (d) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
(d) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 Ans. (b) Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
Ans. (d) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 Exp. Hepatitis B virus (HBV) is associated with an
Exp. PCR detects viral RNA or DNA, serology identifies increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma, particularly
specific antibodies, viral culture grows the virus in in chronic carriers.
the lab, and Gram staining is used for bacteria. 5. Which virus is associated with adult T-cell
leukemia/lymphoma (ATLL)?
(a) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
Oncogenic Viruses (b) Human papillomavirus (HPV)
(c) Human T-cell leukemia virus type 1 (HTLV-1)
(d) Hepatitis C virus (HCV)
1. Which of the following viruses is most strongly
Ans. (c) Human T-cell leukemia virus type 1 (HTLV-
associated with cervical cancer?
1)

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Microbiology [679]
(a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 Ans. (b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(b) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1 Exp. Hepatitis B virus (HBV) prevention is through
(c) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 vaccination, human papillomavirus (HPV) through
(d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 safe sex practices, human T-cell leukemia virus
Ans. (b) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1 (HTLV-1) through blood screening, and Epstein-Barr
Exp. PCR detects viral RNA or DNA, serology identifies virus (EBV) through avoiding sharing personal items
specific antibodies, Western blot confirms protein that can carry saliva.
expression, and viral culture grows the virus in the lab.
36. Match the oncogenic virus with its primary mode
of transmission: Medical Mycology
List I
A. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
B. Hepatitis B virus (HBV) 1. What is the primary structural component of
C. Human T-cell leukemia virus (HTLV-1) fungal cell walls?
D. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) (a) Cellulose (b) Peptidoglycan
List II (c) Chitin (d) Lignin
1. Sexual contact Ans. (c) Chitin
2. Blood and body fluids Exp. Fungal cell walls are primarily composed of chitin, a
3. Saliva long-chain polymer of N-acetylglucosamine, which
4. Vertical transmission (mother to child) provides rigidity and structural support.
(a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 2. How do fungi differ from bacteria in terms of
(b) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1 cellular structure?
(c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 (a) Fungi are prokaryotic, while bacteria are
(d) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3 eukaryotic
Ans. (d) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3 (b) Fungi lack a cell wall, while bacteria have one
Exp. Human papillomavirus (HPV) is primarily transmitted (c) Fungi are eukaryotic, while bacteria are
through sexual contact, hepatitis B virus (HBV) prokaryotic
through blood and body fluids, human T-cell leukemia (d) Fungi have ribosomes, while bacteria do not
virus (HTLV-1) through vertical transmission, and Ans. (c) Fungi are eukaryotic, while bacteria are
Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) through saliva. prokaryotic
37. Match the oncogenic virus with its prevention Exp. Fungi are eukaryotic organisms with a true nucleus
strategy: and membrane-bound organelles, while bacteria are
List I prokaryotic and lack these structures.
A. Hepatitis B virus (HBV) 3. Which classification of fungi includes molds and
B. Human papillomavirus (HPV) yeasts based on their morphology?
C. Human T-cell leukemia virus (HTLV-1) (a) Taxonomical classification
D. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) (b) Morphological classification
List II (c) Reproductive classification
1. Safe sex practices (d) Ecological classification
2. Vaccination Ans. (b) Morphological classification
3. Avoiding sharing personal items Exp. Fungi are classified morphologically into molds, yeasts,
4. Blood screening and dimorphic fungi based on their appearance and
(a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 growth characteristics.
(b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 4. Which fungal structure is responsible for sexual
(c) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 reproduction in fungi?
(d) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
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Microbiology [713]
15. What is the first-line treatment for FUO caused (a) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
by temporal arteritis? (b) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
(a) Antiviral therapy (c) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
(b) Empirical antibiotics (d) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
(c) High-dose corticosteroids Ans. (d) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
(d) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) Exp. Tuberculosis presents with pulmonary infiltrates and
Ans. (c) High-dose corticosteroids cavitation, lymphoma with night sweats and weight
Exp. High-dose corticosteroids are the first-line treatment loss, SLE with pleuritis and arthralgia, and temporal
for temporal arteritis, which can present as FUO. arteritis with high ESR and unilateral headache.
16. Which conditions are commonly associated with
FUO?
1. Tuberculosis Sexually Transmitted Diseases
2. Lymphoma
3. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
1. What is the first-line treatment for gonorrhea?
4. Hypertension
(a) Penicillin (b) Azithromycin
(a) 1, 3and 4 (b) 1, 2, and 3
(c) Doxycycline (d) Ceftriaxone
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (a) Penicillin
Ans. (b) 1, 2, and 3
Exp. Penicillin is the first-line treatment for gonorrhea, often
Exp. Tuberculosis, lymphoma, and SLE are commonly
administered with azithromycin to cover possible co-
associated with FUO; hypertension is not typically
infection with Chlamydia.
associated with FUO.
2. Which pathogen is responsible for causing
17. Which diagnostic tests are useful in evaluating
genital warts?
FUO?
1. Blood cultures (a) Human papillomavirus (HPV)
2. Chest X-ray (b) Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
3. Urinalysis (c) Treponema pallidum
4. CT scan (d) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2, and 3 Ans. (a) Human papillomavirus (HPV)
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 Exp. Human papillomavirus (HPV) is the causative agent
Ans. (c) 1, 2, and 4 of genital warts.
Exp. Blood cultures, chest X-ray, and CT scan are 3. Which stage of syphilis is characterized by a
commonly used to evaluate FUO and identify potential painless chancre at the site of infection?
causes. (a) Tertiary syphilis (b) Secondary syphilis
18. Match the cause of FUO with its typical clinical (c) Latent syphilis (d) Primary syphilis
feature: Ans. (d) Primary syphilis
List I Exp. Primary syphilis is characterized by the presence of
A. Tuberculosis a painless chancre at the site of infection.
B. Lymphoma 4. Which sexually transmitted infection is
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) commonly associated with a frothy, greenish-
D. Temporal arteritis yellow vaginal discharge?
List II (a) Gonorrhea (b) Trichomoniasis
1. Night sweats and weight loss (c) Chlamydia (d) Syphilis
2. High ESR and unilateral headache Ans. (b) Trichomoniasis
3. Pleuritis and arthralgia Exp. Trichomoniasis is commonly associated with a frothy,
4. Pulmonary infiltrates and cavitation greenish-yellow vaginal discharge.

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 4. Operational data in laboratory planning includes:
Laboratory Planning (a) Competitor analysis
(b) Staff requirements
(c) Costs of running laboratory operations
1. Laboratory planning should focus on: (d) Hospital services offered
(a) Efficiency of services Ans. (c) Costs of running laboratory operations
(b) Operational costs Exp. Operational data includes costs, staff, and equipment
(c) Accessibility of laboratory services needs for running the lab efficiently.
(d) All of the above 5. Guiding principles for planning a hospital
Ans. (d) All of the above laboratory service include all of the following
Exp. Laboratory planning aims to ensure efficient EXCEPT:
services, cost-effective operations, and accessible (a) Ensuring patient safety
services. (b) Increasing laboratory revenues
2. The primary goal of laboratory planning is: (c) Improving workflow efficiency
(a) To increase competition (d) Utilizing available resources effectively
(b) To provide quality health services Ans. (b) Increasing laboratory revenues
(c) To reduce staff workload Exp. Increasing revenue is not a primary principle; focus
(d) To introduce new equipment should be on safety, efficiency, and resource utilization.
Ans. (b) To provide quality health services 6. Planning for a basic health laboratory requires
Exp. Quality health services are the core focus in laboratory consideration of:
planning to ensure the best outcomes for patients. (a) Availability of skilled personnel
3. Market potential in laboratory planning refers (b) Proximity to healthcare centers
to: (c) Equipment costs
(a) The current demand for laboratory services (d) All of the above
(b) The future growth and opportunities for laboratory Ans. (d) All of the above
services Exp. A basic health laboratory must consider equipment
(c) The number of laboratories available costs, personnel, and its location for effective service.
(d) The type of services offered 7. Laboratory trends focus on:
Ans. (b) The future growth and opportunities for (a) The introduction of new technology
laboratory services (b) Patient diagnosis rate
Exp. Market potential is about future growth prospects and (c) Laboratory equipment wear and tear
opportunities in laboratory services. (d) Number of staff hired annually