Instruments Questions FTC

1. At flight level 330 the RAS of an aircraft is 285kt. The temperature deviation from the
Standard is -12C (JSA). Use your computer to determine:
1. The TAS
a) 564 kts
b) 454 kts
c) 530 kts
d) 480 kts

2. The local speed of sound

a) 480 kts
b) 530 kts
c) 564 kts
d) 629 kts

3. The Mach number

a) .75
b) .80
c) 1.02
d) .85

2. Calculate, without using the computer, the altitude in the standard atmosphere at
Which 470kt TAS corresponds to Mach 0.82?
a) FL283
b) FL207
c) FL360
d) FL310

3 If a decrease of 0.13 in the Mach number results in a decrease of 77kt in the TAS
What is the real speed of sound?
a) 650 kts
b) 394 kts
c) 875 kts
d) 592 kts

4 An aircraft is at FL350, TAS 463kt at Mach 0.79 when the temperature deviation from
Standard is +9C. Without using the computer give the temperature deviation at
FL 310 which at Mach 0.79 would give a TAS of 463kt.
a) +1º
b) -46º
c) -24º
d) -15º

5 If an aircraft climbs from sea level to 30 000ft in the standard atmosphere at a

Constant mach number, what would the TAS do?
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Stay constant
d) None of the above
6 When climbing in the standard atmosphere at a constant RAS, state whether the
Mach number would:
a) Increase
b) Remain constant
c) decrease
d) none of the above

General Questions

1. If the Pitot Head and Static Vent were blocked by ice, which instruments would be?
affected?
a) ASI, Altimeter and Slip indicator.
b) Altimeter, VSI and ASI would give inaccurate readings.
c) The ASI would under read.

2. If the Pitot head is blocked, what airspeed indication can he expected?

a) No change of IAS in level flight, even with large power changes.
b) A decrease of IAS during a climb.
c) Constant IAS during a descent.

3. If the static vent became blocked during a descent the ASI would read:
a) Zero
b) High
c) Low

4. If the Pitot opening is blocked, which instruments would be affected (separate static?
vent)?
a) ASI, Altimeter and VSI.
b) ASI and VSI.
c) ASI only.

5. Rectified Airspeed is:

a) IAS corrected for instrument and pressure error.
b) IAS corrected for density error.
c) IAS corrected for density and compressibility errors.

6. An aircraft is maintaining FL 120 in cloud. The ASI reading falls to zero. The most
probable cause is:
a) Static vent blocked by ice.
b) Pitot head and static vent blocked by ice.
c) ASI malfunctions.

7. An aircraft is flying from a cold air mass into a warm air mass. The TAS and true
altitude will:
a) TAS increases, true altitude decreases.
b) TAS decreases, true altitude increases.
c) Both increases.
8. An aircraft flying from warm air to cold air at a constant TAS. The RAS would:
a) Remain constant
b) Increase
c) Decrease

9. Pressure altitude 10000 feet OAT + 3C. What is Density Altitude?

a) 11000 ft
b) 12300 ft
c) 9200 ft

10. Pressure Altitude 15000 ft

QNH Altitude 15600 ft
OAT + 10C
What is true altitude?
a) 15900 ft
b) 16450 ft
c) 17100 ft

11. Pressure Altitude 8000 ft

QNH Altitude 7500 ft
OAT + 30C
Terrain elevation 5700 ft
The approximate absolute altitude is:
a) 500 ft
b) 1800 ft
c) 2650 ft

12. Airfield Elevation 4000 ft OAT+15C QNH995hPa

What is Density Altitude?
a) 5000 ft
b) 5600 ft
c) 6200 ft

13. An aircraft leaves FL 160 for an approach and landing at an airfield. The pilot will set
QNH at the:
a) Transition Layer.
b) Transition level.
c) Transition Altitude.

14. Transition altitude is obtained from: (caa)

a) ATC or VOR ATIS.
b) Jespersen or Aerad flight guides.
c) 1500 feet above airfield elevation.

15. Transition level is obtained from: (caa)

a) ATC or VOR ATIS.
b) Jeppesen or Aerad flight guides.
c) 1500 feet above airfield elevation.
16. The location of the static vent which could provide the most accurate measurement
of static pressure under variable flight conditions is:
a) At the Pitot head which encounters relatively undisturbed air.
b) In the cockpit where it is not influenced by a variable angle of attack.
c) One on each side of the aircraft where the system will compensate for
Variation of aircraft attitude.

17. Pressure Altitude at an airfield is indicated by an altimeter when the barometric subscale
is set to:
a) QNH
b) QFE
c) 1013.25 hPa

18. If while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of static
pressure vented inside the aircraft, with the cabin pressure being lower than static,
the following variations in instrument indication would be expected:
a) the altimeter will read higher than normal, airspeed will not change and the
vertical-speed indicator will momentarily show a descent;
b) the altimeter will read higher than normal, airspeed greater than normal and
the vertical-speed indicator will momentarily show a climb;
c) the altimeter will read lower than normal, airspeed greater than normal and the
vertical-speed indicator will momentarily show a climb and then a descent.

19. Assume that an aeroplane at 17000 FT AMSL has a cabin pressure equal to an
altitude of 7000 FT. If the pitot static tubes break at a point within the cockpit, the
altimeter would read:
a) 10000 FT (7000 ft + 3000 ft) which is the allowance for pressure differential;
b) 17000 ft;
c) The cabin pressure altitude, i.e. 7000 ft.

20. If an altimeter indicates 3500 feet with QNH 1004.7 hPa set, what is the pressure
altitude?
a) 3755 ft
b) 3500 ft
c) 3160 ft

21. An altimeter is set to 1010.9 hPa. The aircraft lands at an airfield (elevation 772 feet
AMSL, QNH 1016.1 hPa). What will the altimeter read on landing?
a) 932 ft
b) 160 ft
c) 612 ft

22. En route at FL 270, the altimeter is set correctly. On the descent the pilot fails to reset
the altimeter to QNH 1026.1. If the airfield elevation is 1300 feet, what will the
altimeter indicate after landing?
a) 1700 ft
b) 900 ft
c) 400 ft
23. An aircraft flies from Johannesburg (QNH 1020) to Durban (QNH 995) at FL 100. In
the cruise the aircraft is:
a) Descending
b) Climbing
c) Maintaining altitude

24. An aircraft levels out after a rapid descent. The altimeter would:
a) Read correctly.
b) Overread for a brief period.
c) Underread for a brief period.

25. An airfield, elevation 3000 feet, has a pressure altitude of 3500 feet. What is the
QNH?
a) 1029.9 hPa
b) 1013.2 hPa
c) 996.5 hPa
What is the QFE?
a) 896.5 hPa
b) 913.s hPa
c) 879.8 hPa

26. An aircraft is flying at FL 120, the QNH is 995 hPa. What clearance has the aircraft
over high ground 1982 metres AMSL?
a) 4950 feet
b) 6050 feet
c) 6250 feet

27. An aircraft heading 003 (M), drift 10 left, has to pass over high ground that is 2200
metres AMSL. Minimum clearance over the high ground is 2000 feet, QNH 1025 hPa.
What is the lowest IFR flight level?
a) FL090
b) FL100
c) FL105

28. An aircraft maintains a constant TAS of 350 kts in the climb:

a) Local Speed of sound decreases and the RAS decreases.
b) Local Speed of sound decreases and the Mach No. decreases.
c) Local Speed of sound increases and the Mach No. increases.

29. An aircraft flying at FL 330, Mach 0.82 flies into a colder airmass. The TAS will:
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remain constant.

30. An aircraft descends from FL 410 to FL 200 at a constant Mach number. The TAS
will:
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remain constant.
31. Climbing at a constant Mach number, the RAS will:
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remain constant.

32. As air density increases, the ASI compressibility error will:

a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remain constant.

33. The local speed of sound is 1050 ft/sec. What is the TAS of an aircraft flying at Mach
0.84?
a) TAS 502
b) TAS 512
c) TAS 522

34. Calculate the altitude in the ISA where a TAS of 480 kts equals Mach 0.82.
a) 29000 ft
b) 31500 ft
c) 34000 ft

35. An aircraft is flying at a constant Flight Level. An increase in power results in the
Mach number increasing by 0.15 and the TAS by 87 knots, the aircraft is flying at:
a) FL290
b) FL310
c) FL330

36. An aircraft flies from a cold air mass into a warm air mass at a constant FL and RAS.
The mach number will:
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remain Constant

37. For an aircraft flying at Mach 0.82 at FL 350, COAT - 35C, the RAS would be:
a) 251 kts
b) 264 kts
c) 279 kts

38. If the static vent becomes blocked during a climb the machmeter will:
a) overread;
b) read correctly;
c) underread.

39. Ambient static pressure is fed to the ASI in flight to:

a) Cancel dynamic pressure in the pitot tube.
b) Subtract the static pressure from the dynamic pressure.
c) Cancel static pressure entering the instrument diaphragm through the pitot
tube.
40. The static vent is blocked. If the glass covering the VSI is broken, the instrument will:
a) Read correctly.
b) Read zero under all conditions.
c) Readings will be reversed.

41. During a pre-flight check the VSI shows 100 ft/min climb. You may:
a) Fly in IFR conditions and allow for the error.
b) Have the VSI adjusted before flight.
c) Fly in IFR conditions and ignore the error.

42. The ASI has a pressure error of + 5 knots at IAS 130 kts. At this airspeed the VSI
would:
a) Over read
b) Read correctly
c) Under read

43. The reported QNH of a given station is the:

a) actual barometric pressure measured at the station;
b) actual barometric pressure measured at sea level;
c) Station's barometric pressure corrected to mean sea level pressure.

44. When ambient temperature is warmer than standard at a particular altitude, the
altimeter will indicate:
a) higher than true altitude;
b) lower than true altitude;
c) the same as true altitude.

45. ASI compressibility error will increase with increase of TAS and:
a) Increase with altitude.
b) Decrease with altitude.
c) Increase with increase of density.

46. The Principle and Operation of the Machmeter precludes the following errors:
a) Density, compressibility and pressure errors.
b) Position, density and barometric errors.
c) Temperature, compressibility and density errors.

47. An aircraft leaves airfield X (elevation 510 feet) with the QFE 999 hPa set on the
altimeter, enroute to Y (510 nm from X) where the QNH is 1025 hPa. A spot height
(450 metres AMSL) 114 nm from X is cleared by 2000 feet. What was the altimeter
reading over the spot height?
a) 2906 feet
b) 3476 feet
c) 4046 feet
48. Airfield A Elevation 2100 feet QFE930hPa
Airfield B Elevation 1200 feet
A pilot sets airfield elevation on his altimeter prior to take-off from A. On landing at B
the altimeter reads 1500 feet. What is the QNH at B?
a) QNH 990
b) QNH 1010
c) 1013.2

49. An aircraft leaves A (elevation 540 feet) with QFE 1008 set on the altimeter, enroute
to B (1000 nm from A, QNH 1000 hPa). A spot height 232 metres AMSL, 250 nm
from A is cleared by 1500 feet. What was the altimeter reading over the spot height?
a) 1916 feet
b) 2261 feet
c) 2606 feet

50. An aircraft leaves Y, airfield pressure 960 hPa, and the altimeter reads airfield
elevation of 1860 feet. The aircraft lands at Z (elevation 1000 feet) where the
altimeter reads 1270 feet. What is the QNH at Z?
a) QNH 1013
b) QNH 1022
c) QNH 1031

51. During a pre-flight check the following details were noted:

Airfield Elevation 5000 feet
Apron Elevation 4980 feet
Height of static vent above ground 25 feet
Altimeter reading (QFE set) 45 feet
What is the instrument error?
a) 40 ft under read
b) 05 ft under read
c) 40 ft over read

52. The Instantaneous Vertical Speed Indicator incorporates an accelerometer unit. The
pistons of the accelerometer unit are connected:
a) directly to the VSI needle to give an instantaneous deflection when a climb or
a descent is initiated;
b) directly to the capsule by a leaf spring which exerts or relieves pressure on the
capsule when a climb or a descent is initiated;
c) to the static pressure tube leading to the capsule and their movement creates
an immediate pressure change inside the capsule when a climb or descent is
initiated.

53. In the servo altimeter the servo motor drives the:

a) amplifier and the induction pick-off;
b) the counters and the cam;
c) the I-bar.
54. By changing from QNH to QNE on a servo assisted Altimeter:
a) The motor drives the "E" bar sensing an error, then amplified and fed to the
counter.
b) The anvil moves the worm gear, changing the air gaps between the "E" and "I"
bars.
c) The "I" bar moves, changing the air gaps between the "E" and "I" bars.

55. If the static pressure ports iced over while descending from altitude, the airspeed
indicator would read:
a) High
b) Low
c) Correctly.

Questions

1. The rigidity of a spinning wheel is directly proportional to:

a) the speed of rotation and indirectly proportional to the mass of the rotor; CAA
b) the moment of inertia and inversely proportional to the speed of rotation;
c) the speed of rotation and inversely proportional to the moment of inertia.

2. Errors in both pitch and bank indication on an attitude indicator are usually at a
maximum as the aircraft rolls out of a:
a) 90 degree turn;
b) 180 degree turn;
c) 270 degree turn.

3. When an aircraft is rapidly accelerated in straight and level flight, or at take-off, what
inherent precession characteristic will be displayed on the attitude indicator?
a) The miniature aircraft would indicate a descent.
b) The miniature aircraft would indicate a climb.
c) The miniature aircraft would indicate a climb and bank.

4. What is the approximate angle of bank for a rate one turn at 110 knots?
a) 18 degrees
b) 25 degrees
c) 30 degrees

5. The Turn and Slip indicator pre-flight check consists of:

a) Aircraft level, ball central, turn needle central.
b) Aircraft level, turn needle central, ball central, fluid in tube.
c) Aircraft not level, turn needle and ball displaced.

6. What indications should you get from the Turn and Slip indicator during taxi?
a) The needle and ball should move freely in the direction of the turn.
b) The ball moves opposite to the turn and the needle deflects in the direction of
the turn.
c) The ball deflects opposite to the turn and the needle remains central.
7. The effect of decreasing rotor speed in the turn and slip indicator will cause:
a) the turn indicator to over-read and the slip indicator to under-read;
b) the turn indicator to under-indicate the angle of bank but will not effect the slip
indicator;
c) the turn indicator to under-read the rate of turn.

8. The angle of tilt of the rate gyro in a turn indicator is due to:
a) the force in the horizontal plane generated by secondary precession balancing
the tilt caused by primary precession;
b) the tension of the control spring opposing the angular tilt of the gyro;
c) primary precession which is generated by an aeroplanes rate of turn.

9. To complete a 360turn using the Turn Co-ordinator, takes 131 seconds. The rotor
speed is:
a) High
b) Low
c) Correct

10. The rigidity of a gyro is directly proportional to:

a) Rotor speed and inversely proportional to rotor mass.
b) Gyro inertia and inversely proportional to rotor speed.
c) Gyro inertia and rotor speed.

11. If the rotational speed of the Turn and Slip gyro rotor is below the calibrated speed
the:
a) Turn indicator overreads.
b) Turn indicator and Slip underreads.
c) Turn indicator underreads, slip not affected.

12. A warning flag appears on an electrical Turn and Slip indicator, this means:
a) Total instrument failure.
b) Turn indicator failure. Slip indicator serviceable.
c) Turn indicator underreads, slip not affected.

13. The principle of rigidity is used for the operation of the following gyroscopic
instruments:
a) Directional Gyro and Artificial Horizon.
b) Directional Gyro and Turn indicator.
c) Artificial Horizon and Turn indicator.

14. An Artificial Horizon employs a;

a) Tied gyro
b) Earth gyro
c) Rate gyro

15. One characteristic that a properly functioning gyro depends upon for operation is the:
a) Resistance to deflection of the gyro rotor.
b) Ability to resist precession at 90 degrees to an applied force.
c) Position of the gyro axis relative to the Earth's axis.
16. The Latitude Rider nut of a DGI compensates for:
a) Real wander.
b) Earth rotation wander.
c) Transport wander.

17. The Latitude Rider nut of a DGI is set to give zero drift due to the Earth's rotation at
30ºS. The gyro readings will:
a) Increase when flying North from 30 S.
b) Increase when flying South from 30 S.
c) Remain correct when flying East or West along the 30 S parallel.

18. The rotor of the DGI spins up and away from the pilot when 090 is indicated. The
latitude compensation nut situated on the near right hand side of the inner gimbal
from the gyro axis, has been set to give zero drift on the ground at the equator. To
compensate for earth rotation at 30 S the latitude compensating nut:
a) must be adjusted outwards;
b) must be adjusted inwards;
c) is not adjusted since the latitude nut can only be used to correct for apparent
wander in the northern hemisphere.

19. What is earth rotation wander at 30 degrees S?

a) +7.5 degrees per hour.
b) +7.5 degrees per minute.
c) -7.5 degrees per hour.

20. If a vacuum gauge indicates the pressure to be lower than the minimum limit, the airoperated
instruments that would be affected, are:
a) pressure altimeter;
b) heading indicator (DGI);
c) vertical-speed indicator.

21. The air driven Artificial Horizon erection error is due to:
a) Centrifugal Force acting at the bottom of the pendulous unit.
b) Centrifugal Force displacing the vanes.
c) Wear and tear of the gimbal bearings.

22. The DGI, Artificial Horizon and Turn indicator are:

a) Rate, Earth and Tied gyros respectively.
b) Tied, Rate and Earth gyros respectively.
c) Tied, Earth and Rate gyros respectively.

23. Erection errors in an air driven Gyro Horizon Indicator are due to:
a) Loss of gyro rigidity due to the reduction in rotor speed at high altitudes.
b) The movement of the pendulous vanes during aircraft accelerations and
manoeuvres.
c) The displacement of the pendulous gyro casing during acceleration or a turn.
24. In an electrically driven artificial horizon, the axis wander about the pitch axis is
controlled by:
a) A mercury switch at right angles to the pitch axis inducing torque about the roll
axis.
b) A mercury switch parallel to the pitch axis inducing torque about the pitch
axis.
c) A mercury switch at right angles to the roll axis inducing torque about the pitch
axis.

25. During a stabilised climbing turn at a constant rate, the instruments which indicate the
correct pitch and bank are the:
a) vertical-speed indicator and turn-and-slip indicator;
b) altimeter and turn-and-slip indicator;
c) attitude indicator and turn-and-slip indicator.

26. A RMI (Radio Magnetic Indicator) displays a warning flag which indicates a compass
failure. The radio bearing pointers:
a) are not to be used;
b) can be used to home to an NDB;
c) can be used to home to an NDB and a VOR station.

QUESTIONS

1. During the correcting swing of a direct reading magnetic compass the following
readings were noted.
MAGNETIC HEADING COMPASS HEADING
359 001
090 088
181 179
269 273
Calculate the value of Coefficients A, B and C. What will the compass read after
compensation of Coefficients B and C on the Southerly and Westerly headings?

2. The following figures appear on an aeroplane deviation card:

FOR MAGNETIC STEER COMPASS
045 038
090 092
The compass heading to steer to maintain a heading of 075 (M) is:
a) 072
b) 074
c) 076
3. During a compass swing the following reading were noted:
MAGNETIC HEADING COMPASS HEADING
000 358
089 092
178 182
269 268
After correction for coefficients B and C, the compass reading on the westerly
heading was:
a) 266
b) 270
c) 271

4. The following Coefficients apply to a particular compass system:

Co-eff A + 2 Co-eff B + 4 Co-eff C - 3
What deviation would you expect on heading 135 (C)?
a) 6.95
b) 2.71
b) 1.29

5. A compass system has Co-eff A + I and Co-eff B + 3. The deviation on heading 230
(C) is - 3. What is the value of Co-eff C?
a) +2.65
b) -9.82
c) -3.71

6. Coefficient A+3 is corrected on heading 300 (C). What is the compass reading after
correction of Co-eff A?
a) 330 (C)
b) 303 (C)
c) 297 (C)

7. A compass system has Co-eff A -2, B-4, C+3. Required track 022 (T), Drift 7 left.
Variation 16W. The compass heading to steer will be:
a) 042 ( C )
b) 045 ( C )
c) 048 ( C )

8. Compass deviation on 130 (C) is 4 W.

Compass deviation on 230 (C) is 8 E.
Compass deviation on 315 (C) will be:
a) -4.7
b) -1.5
c) +3.3

9. A direct reading magnetic compass has coefficients A, B and C only. Deviations on

000(C) is 0. Deviation on 090(C) is + 3. Coefficient C is +2. The deviation on
180(C) is:
a) -2
b) -4
c) 0
10. During a compass swing the following deviations were found.
HEADING COMPASS DEVIATION
000 0
090 -5
180 -4
The value of Coefficients A, B and C were:
a) A-3 B-3 C-2
b) A-2 B-3 C+2
c) A-2 B+2 C+2

11. An agonic line joins places of:

a) Equal magnetic variation.
b) Zero magnetic variation.
c) Equal horizontal force H.

12. Variation is called Westerly when:

a) Magnetic North is to the West of True North.
b) True North is to the West of Magnetic North.
c) The Magnetic Meridian is to the West of Compass North.

13. You are turning right from 150 (C) onto 220 (C) in the Southern Hemisphere. On what
compass heading would you roll out of the turn?
a) 210 ( C )
b) 220 ( C )
c) 230 ( C )

14. An aeroplane heading 030(C) in the Southern Hemisphere, turns left onto 170(C)
using a direct reading magnetic compass. The roll out of the turn should be initiated
on a compass heading off:
a) 145
b) 170
c) 195

15. Compass deviation is caused by:

a) The difference in the location of the Earth's Magnetic and Geographic Poles.
b) The angle of magnetic dip.
c) Aircraft magnetism distorting the Earth's magnetic field.

16. A magnetic compass will show an apparent turn to the North in the Southern
Hemisphere when:
a) The aircraft accelerates on 000 (C).
b) The aircraft accelerates on 090 (C).
c) The aircraft decelerates on 270 (C).

17. The direct reading magnetic compass has magnetic correctors for:
a) Coefficient A, B and C.
b) Coefficients B and C only.
c) Coefficients B, C and R.
18. In regard to acceleration errors, they are caused because:
a) The C. of G. of the magnet system is above the pivot.
b) The C. of G. of the magnet system lies between the pivot and the nearer pole.
c) The C. of G. lies between the pivot and the equator.

19. Select the true statement regarding the magnetic compass in the southern
hemisphere.
a) If on a westerly heading and the aircraft's speed is decreased, the aircraft will
indicate a turn to the north.
b) If on a northerly heading a turn is made toward the west, the compass will
indicate a turn in the opposite direction.
c) If on an easterly heading the aircraft is accelerated, the compass will indicate
a turn to the north.

20. The magnetic system of a compass is suspended pendulously to counteract the effect
of component:
a) H
b) Z
c) P

21. An aircraft being manufactured in the Northern Hemisphere is parked facing South
West:
a) Parameter P is positive.
b) Parameter Q is positive.
c) Parameter R is positive.

22. Parameter P is:

a) Fore and aft magnetism affecting Co eff. B.
b) Athwart ship magnetism affecting Co eff. B.
c) Fore and aft magnetism affecting Co eff. C.

23. A compass swing should be conducted:

a) with the radio equipment off.
b) with the engine shut down.
c) with the engine running.

24. A magnetic material that is easily magnetised is called:

a) soft iron magnetic material.
b) permanent magnet.
c) hard iron.

25. Compass accuracy is greatest:

a) in mid latitudes.
b) at the poles.
c) at magnetic equator.

26. The secular change in variation has a cycle of:

a) 96 years.
b) 690 years.
c) 960 years.
27. An aircraft constructed in South Africa has a red pole in the nose and right wing and
blue poles in the tail and left wing. The heading during construction was:
a) 045 degrees.
b) 315 degrees.
c) 135 degrees.

28. Which statement is true regarding magnetism:

a) compass deviation is the angular difference between true north and magnetic
north.
b) magnetic variation is the deflection of the compass needle which is caused by
magnetic attractions in the aircraft.
c) magnetic dip increases with an increase in latitude.

29. The type of compass least likely to suffer from parallax is:
a) Direct reading compass.
b) Remote reading compass.
c) A standby compass.

30. When a magnet cannot be made any more magnetic, it is said to be:
a) Impermeable.
b) Permeable.
c) Saturated.

31. In direct reading magnetic compass, the effect of dip is counteracted by:
a) Low centre of gravity.
b) Compass liquid.
c) Powerful magnets.

32. Assuming the compass to be only affected by hard iron magnetism causing deviation,
if the latitude changed the deviation would change because:
a) of the change in the aircraft's hard iron magnetism.
b) of the change in the Earth's total force.
c) of the change in the strength of the Earth's directive force.

33. With reference to the Sperry Gyrosyn CL2 compass system. The precession rate of
the gyro is kept low in order to:
a) Maintain the gyro axis in the horizontal plane.
b) Suppress turning and acceleration errors.
c) Allow the master unit to follow the gyro unit.

34. The Sperry CL2 compass system remains synchronised in a turn because:
a) The follow up motor keeps the compass synchronised.
b) The precession circuit is activated causing the gyro to follow the turn.
c) The signals from the detector unit to the signal selsyn change at the same rate
as the rotor of the signal selsyn turns.
35. The Sperry CL2 compass system does not indicate turning and acceleration errors
because of:
a) The annunciator circuits.
b) The slow precession rate of the gyro.
c) The Hooks joint suspension of the detector unit.

36. The Sperry CL2 compass system indicates aircraft heading by:
a) The detector unit senses the angle between the aircraft fore and aft axis and
the magnetic meridian.
b) The detector unit aligns itself with the magnetic meridian.
c) The signal selsyn measures aircraft heading.

37. During a turn the remote indicator of a CL2 compass remains synchronised with the
actual heading because:
a) the horizontal gyro due to its rigidity drives the pointers keeping them aligned
with the heading;
b) error signals raised in the stators of the gyro unit data selsyn are repeated in
the stators of the master indicator;
c) the detector unit, signal selsyn stator and horizontal gyro, rotate with the
aircraft in the same direction at the same rate.

Paper 1
1. The Central Air Data Computer (CADC):
(a) corrects or reduces all pressure instrument errors
(b) corrects the temperature error of the altimeter
(c) eliminates the time lag error in pressure instruments

2. Disregarding the effect of compressibility, at a constant IAS the ASI dynamic pressure
will be:
(a) the same at all altitudes
(b) greatest at sea level
(c) greatest at high altitude

3. If the pitot head and drain hole become blocked by ice during a climb the ASI would:
(a) overread
(b) under read
(c) fall to zero

4. Flying at a constant power setting, the highest indicated airspeed will occur when the
air is:
(a) Cold and dry
(b) Warm and moist
(c) Warm and dry

5. Static pressure is supplied to the ASI in order to:

(a) cancel the static component of dynamic pressure
(b) balance the static component of pitot pressure
(c) subtract the static pressure from the dynamic pressure
6. True airspeed is calculated from indicated airspeed by:
(a) rectifying and correcting for density error
(b) correcting for instrument, density and temperature errors
(c) correcting for instrument, pressure and position errors

7. An aeroplane is flying from a warm air mass to a cold air mass at a constant FL and
indicated airspeed. The TAS and true altitude will:
(a) TAS increase and true altitude decrease
(b) TAS decrease and true altitude increase
(c) Both decrease

8. The principle and operation of the Machmeter excludes the following errors:
(a) density, temperature and pressure errors
(b) compressibility, temperature and density errors
(c) temperature. position and density errors

9. An aircraft flying at Mach 0.82 where the local speed of sound is 1050 ft per second
has a TAS of.
(a) 490Kts
(b) 500Kts
(c) 510Kts

10. An aircraft flying from a cold air mass to a warm air mass at a constant FL and RAS
will experience:
(a) an increase in mach number
(b) no change in mach number
(c) a decrease in mach number

11 The altitude in the ISA where TAS 471 Kts corresponds to Mach 0.81 is:
(a) 32320 ft
(b) 34650 ft
(c) 36090 ft

12. For an aircraft climbing at a constant Mach No:

(a) the TAS and RAS will increase
(b) the TAS and RAS will decrease
(c) the TAS will increase and RAS decrease

13. At FL 410 in standard conditions the speed of sound is:

(a) 559Kts
(b) 586Kts
(c) 573Kts

14. If the static vent becomes blocked during a climb the machmeter will:
(a) overread
(b) read correctly
(c) under read
15. Altimeter instrument errors:
(a) are constant throughout the range of the instrument
(b) are maximum at sea level
(c) increase with altitude

16. Altimeters indicate:

(a) altitude above mean sea level
(b) true altitude when corrected for non standard temperatures
(c) altitude above the pressure level set on the altimeter

17. When the barometric pressure sub-scale setting of a servo assisted altimeter is
adjusted the altimeter pointer and counters are aligned by:
(a) direct high ratio gearing between the sub-scale and the pointers
(b) mechanically changing the position of the E bar followed by electronic
realignment of the E bar
(c) mechanically changing the position of the I bar followed by electronic
alignment of the E bar

18. An aeroplane flying at 1000 ft with QFE 982 hPa set on the altimeter is in the circuit at
an airfield (elevation 1200 ft). A second aeroplane at FL 40 is overflying the airfield.
The minimum vertical separation between the two aeroplanes would be:
(a) 1554 ft
(b) 1800 ft
(c) 2070 ft

19. An aircraft heading 003 (M), drift 10 left, has to pass over high ground that is 2200
metres AMSL. Minimum clearance over the high ground is 2000 feet, QNH 1025 mbs.
The lowest IFR flight level is:
(a) FL 090
(b) FL 100
(c) FL 105

20. The DGI Directional Gyro Indicator operates on the principle of.
(a) Rigidity in space
(b) precession
(c) gyro drift

21. The rigidity of a gyro is directly proportional to the:

(a) speed of rotation and inversely proportional to the moment of inertia
(b) mass of the rotor and inversely proportional to the rotational speed
(c) moment of inertia and the rotor speed

22. The attitude indicator is the primary pitch instrument, other indications of pitch are
provided by:
(a) ASI and altimeter only
(b) ASI and VSI only
(c) ASI, VSI and altimeter
23. The gyroscopic instrument that cannot topple is the:
(a) attitude indicator
(b) turn indicator
(c) directional gyro

24. Apparent wander of a directional gyro in a stationary aircraft will cause the readings
to:
(a) increase in the northern hemisphere
(b) decrease in the northern hemisphere
(c) increase in both hemispheres

25. Precession or gyro drift of a DGI may be caused by:

(a) gimbal friction, earth rotation and reduced rotor speed
(b) earth rotation, transport wander and reduced moment of inertia
(c) bearing friction, earth rotation and an applied force

26. The DGI gyro with the axis aligned north/south may topple due to excessive:
(a) pitch on north and excessive bank on west
(b) pitch on east and excessive bank on south
(c) pitch on west and excessive bank on north

27. The artificial horizon erection error is due to:

(a) displacement of the vanes covering the exhaust ports
(b) centrifugal forces acting on the pendulous gyro casing
(c) reduced gyro rigidity due to low suction

28. The artificial horizon outer gimbal has freedom of movement about the:
(a) Pitch axis
(b) Roll axis
(c) Vertical axis

29. If an aircraft makes a 360turn the magnitude of the turning errors of a air driven
artificial horizon are at a maximum at:
(a) 90into the turn
(b) 180into the turn
(c) 270into the turn

30. In an electrically driven artificial horizon gyro wander about the pitch axis is controlled
by:
(a) a mercury levelling switch at right angles to the pitch axis producing a torque
about the roll axis
(b) a mercury levelling switch parallel to the pitch axis producing a torque about
the pitch axis
(c) a mercury levelling switch at right angles to the roll axis producing a torque
about the roll axis
31. The rate gyro of the turn indicator has : -
(a) freedom of movement in one plane only and indicates the angle of bank in a
turn using the principle of rigidity
(b) freedom of movement in one plane only and indicates the rate of turn using
the principle of precession
(c) freedom in two planes using the topple principle to measure angular velocity in
the yawing plane

32. An aircraft enters a balanced rate 1 turn as indicated by the turn indicator. After two
minutes and 15 seconds the aircraft has turned through 360. The rotor speed of the
gyro is:
(a) Too high
(b) correct
(c) too low

33. During the swing of a Direct Reading Magnetic Compass the following readings were
recorded:
Magnetic Heading Compass Heading
358 002
087 091
182 181
271 269
After correction for Coefficients B and C the compass reading on the Westerly
heading was:
(a) 271
(b) 272
(c) 273

34. A direct reading magnetic compass has Coefficients A -2. B -3 and C +4 only. The
deviation on 155(C) would be:
(a) 0.5W
(b) 3.7W
(c) 6.9W

35. A compass has the following Coefficients :- A –2, B –3, C + 4.

During the compass swing a deviation of -4was noted on heading 223(C).
After correction of Coefficients A, B and C the residual deviation on 223 (C) would be:
(a) -1.1
(b) +2.1
(c) -3.6
36. A compass has Coefficients A. B and C only.
The following readings were recorded during a compass swing:
Landing Compass Heading (C)
003 359
088 091
180 182
The Coefficients present in the compass are:
(a) A+1 B-4 C+3
(b) A+1 B+2 C-3
(c) A -1 B-2 C-3

37. A direct reading magnetic compass has magnetic correctors for Coefficients:
(a) A and C
(b) B and C
(c) B,C and A

38. Magnetism in an aircraft is represented by a Red Pole that bears 315relative from
the compass position. The Coefficients present are:
(a) -B and -C
(b) -B and +C
(c) +B and -C

39. The magnitude of acceleration errors of a direct reading magnetic compass depend
on:
(a) The angle of dip and the speed of the aircraft
(b) Magnetic latitude and aircraft heading
(c) The mass of the magnets and the distance between the C of G and the pivot.

40. An aircraft is flying along a railway line that runs 122/302(T) on a map. Aircraft
heading 137(C), drift 5right, Variation 16W. Compass deviation is:
(a) 4W
(b) 1E
(c) 5E

41. The requirement of aperiodicity in a direct reading magnetic compass is achieved by

the use of.
(a) Two or four short magnets suspended in a compass liquid
(b) A low Centre of Gravity and two or four short magnets
(c) A low Centre of Gravity and the magnet system suspended in a damping
liquid

42. The detector unit of the Sperry CL2 compass transmits electrical signals to the master
indicator signal selsyn:
(a) which are proportional to the aircraft’s heading
(b) when the flux-valve is not aligned with magnetic north
(c) when the annunciator indicates an unsynchronised state
43. The Sperry CL2 compass system is not affected by the turning and acceleration
errors of a direct reading compass due to:
(a) the slow precession rate of the gyro
(b) the gyro rigidity resisting the turning or acceleration forces
(c) the detector unit being suspended by a Hookes joint

44. The Sperry CL2 compass remains synchronized with the aircraft heading in a turn
because:
(a) error signals sensed by data selsyn B are transmitted to data selsyn C
(b) the detector unit turns at the same rate as the gyro
(c) the gyro remains rigid and drives the compass pointers as the aircraft turns
about the gyro

45. An aircraft in the Southern Hemisphere turns left from 175onto 350. The aircraft
should roll out of the turn on a heading of:
(a) 330
(b) 350
(c) 010

46. An aircraft heading 180(C) initiates a left turn onto 350(C) in the Southern
Hemisphere. Initially the compass will indicate a:
(a) lesser amount of turn than is actually being made,
(b) turn in the opposite direction,
(c) greater amount of turn than is actually being made.

Paper 2

1 The Central Air Data Computer (CADC) has a Static Air Temperature (SAT) input in
order to:
(a) calculate the local speed of sound
(b) calculate TAS from Mach number
(c) correct the temperature error of the altimeter

2. If the static vent becomes blocked during a climb the ASI would:
(a) overread
(b) under read
(c) read correctly:

3. Movement of the ASI needle is proportional to:

(a) pitot pressure
(b) dynamic pressure
(c) dynamic + static pressure

4. If the pitot and drain hole of the ASI become blocked by ice:
(a) the IAS would fall to zero
(b) the IAS would under read during a climb
(c) the IAS would remain constant in level flight
5. An aircraft flies a measured course of 5 nm between two pylons at 7000 ft pressure
altitude temperature 15C in 2 minutes 45 seconds: Flying the reverse course the
time is 2 minutes 19 seconds.
If the lAS was 100 Kts the ASI was under reading by:
(a) 1Kt
(b) 3Kts
(c) 5Kts

6. Converting RAS to TAS using a navigational computer:

(a) the TAS will always be higher than RAS
(b) the TAS will be lower than RAS if density altitude is lower than pressure
altitude
(c) the TAS will be higher than RAS if air density is higher than standard

7. The value of compressibility error of an ASI:

(a) increases with an increase of airspeed and altitude
(b) increases with an increase of density
(c) increases with an increase of airspeed and a decrease of altitude

8. ASI errors:
(a) increase with an increase in airspeed
(b) are independent of airspeed
(c) decrease with an increase in airspeed

9. The machmeter employs:

(a) an airspeed capsule linked to a dashpot
(b) an airspeed capsule and an altimeter capsule linked to a common axis
(c) an airspeed capsule and an altimeter capsule, their axes 90apart

10. An aircraft reduces power which results in the Mach No falling by 0.11 and the TAS
reducing by 64 Kts. The aircraft is flying at:
(a) FL270
(b) FL300
(c) FL330

11. The altitude in the ISA where the local speed of sound is 975 Ft per second is:
(a) 31000 ft
(b) 34000 ft
(c) 37000 ft

12. An aircraft is flying at FL 330, OAT -35C, RAS 297 Kts. M 0.83. The EAS is:
(a) 260Kts
(b) 270Kts
(c) 280Kts

13. When the air temperature is higher than standard at altitude. the indication on an
altimeter with QNH set is:
(a) higher than true altitude
(b) lower than true altitude
(c) the same as true altitude
14. The bi-metallic strip in an altimeter corrects for:
(a) non standard ISA temperatures
(b) temperature rise due to compressibility
(c) temperature changes in the instrument

15. Pressure Altitude 11000 ft

QNH Altitude 11500 ft
Temperature -5C
Terrain Elevation 1265 Metres
The absolute altitude is:
(a) 6975 ft
(b) 7428 ft
(c) 7860 ft

16. At an airfield (Elevation of 4325 ft. QNH 1007 hpas the Transition Altitude is 6000 ft
and the Transition Level is 70.
The height of the Transition Level above the airfield is:
(a) 2489ft
(b) 2675ft
(c) 2861ft

17. An aircraft flying at FL 130 where the QNH is 1022 hPa has to pass over high ground
2137 metres above mean sea level. The height of the aircraft above the high ground
will be:
(a) 5727 ft
(b) 6255 ft
(c) 6525 ft

18. An aircraft descends from FL 190 to land at an airfield 1325 feet AMSL where the
QNH is 1005.5 hPa. If the pilot was unable to set the QNH due to a jammed baro
setting control the altimeter reading on touchdown would be:
(a) 1556ft
(b) 1176ft
(c) 1094ft

19. A space gyro has:

(a) freedom of movement in two planes, gyroscopic rigidity relative to space and
controlled by processional forces
(b) freedom of movement in three planes, mounted in two gimbals and the
property of rigidity in space
(c) freedom of movement in three planes. mounted in three gimbals and is
affected by processional forces

20. The term ‘gyro drift” applies to movement of the gyro axis in the:
(a) horizontal plane
(b) vertical plane
(c) both the horizontal and vertical planes
21. A perfectly balanced space gyro is spinning with its axis vertical at the equator. After
18 hours the gyro axis will be:
(a) vertical having toppled through 180
(b) horizontal with the axis north/south
(c) horizontal with the axis east/west

22. The directional gyro rider nut corrects for:

(a) Real wander
(b) Earth rotation wander
(c) Transport wander

23. The gyroscope properties used by the directional gyro are:

(a) Rigidity to provide a reference datum and precession to maintain the gyro axis
in the aircraft’s yawing plane
(b) Rigidity to maintain the gyro axis in the horizontal and precession to correct for
earth rotational wander
(c) Rigidity to keep the gyro axis aligned with magnetic north and precession to
control gyro drift

24. The transport wander of an DGI in an aircraft flying westbound in the southern
hemisphere will cause the DGI readings to:
(a) Increase
(b) Remain constant as transport wander cancels earth rotation wander
(c) Decrease

25. The latitude rider control of the DGI is:

(a) four exhaust ports half covered by pendulous vanes
(b) an adjustable weight attached to the inner gimbal
(c) springs attached to the inner gimbal

26. The artificial horizon inner gimbal has freedom of movement about the:
(a) Pitch axis
(b) Roll axis
(c) Vertical axis

27. Bank indication in an artificial horizon is given by:

(a) movement of the sky plate attached to the outer gimbal
(b) rotation of the outer gimbal about the longitudinal axis
(c) movement of the AH casing about the outer gimbal and sky plate

28. The acceleration error of the electrically driven artificial horizon is less than the air
driven type because of:
(a) erection system cut-out switches
(b) a constant speed gyro
(c) less pendulosity

29. The fast erection system of an electrically driven artificial horizon may be used:
(a) At all times
(b) At start up on the ground only
(c) For straight and level flight only
30. The erection error of the suction type artificial horizon in a turn is:
(a) a false climb indicated
(b) a lesser amount of bank indicated
(c) a false descent indicated

31. A fail flag appears on an electrical turn and slip indicator which indicates that:
(a) the instrument has failed and is not to be used
(b) the instrument may be used with caution
(c) the turn indicator has failed but the slip indication is valid

32. The angle of tilt of the rate gyro in a turn indicator is due to:
(a) Primary precession produced by the angle of bank
(b) Primary precession being balanced by secondary precession
(c) Primary precession being balanced by the springs

33. In a balanced turn the angle of tilt of the rate gyro in the turn indicator:
(a) Increases as the angle of bank increases and the airspeed decreases
(b) Increases as the angle of bank decreases and the airspeed increases
(c) Remains constant for a 25angle of bank at any airspeed

34. The turn indicator uses a rate gyro, and including the spin axis has:
(a) freedom of movement in one plane only and indicates the angle of bank in a
turn using the principle of precession
(b) freedom of movement in two planes using the topple principle to measure
angular velocity in the yawing plane
(c) freedom of movement in two planes at 90to each other and measures the
rate of turn in the third plane

35. An aircraft enters a balanced rate 1 turn as indicated by the turn indicator. After two
minutes the aircraft has turned through 380. The rotor speed of the gyro is:
(a) too high
(b) correct
(c) too low

36. The main reason that the rate gyro of the turn indicator is electrically driven rather
than air driven is:
(a) to protect the gyro from moisture and dust in the air supply
(b) to ensure a constant rotor speed
(c) that a higher RPM gives greater rotor rigidity
37. During the swing of a Direct Reading magnetic (The compass the following readings
were recorded:
Landing Compass Magnetic Heading
000 359
087 091
179 182
271 269
After correction for Coefficients B and C the compass reading on the Southerly
heading was:-
(a) 180
(b) 181
(c) 184

38. A compass has Coefficients A B and C only. If Co-eff A is -2. Co-eff B is +2 and the
deviation on 305(C) is -1 the value of Co-eff C is:
(a) -1.1
(b) -2.9
(c) +4.6

39. The purpose of the torque motor in the Sperry CL2 compass system is to:
(a) Maintain the gyro axis North/South
(b) Maintain the gyro spin axis in the Earth’s horizontal plane
(c) Maintain the gyro spin axis in the aircraft’s yawing plane

40. The annunciator circuit of the Sperry CL2 compass system:

(a) Indicates when the gyro axis is aligned 90to the Magnetic meridian
(b) Monitors the signals from the signal selsyn to the precession coil and indicates
that the gyro axis is aligned with the signal selsyn rotor
(c) Monitors the synchronization state of the gyro and assists with manual
synchronization

41. The Sperry CL2 detector unit contains three flux-valves mounted 120 apart instead of
a single flux-valve in order to:
(a) Improve sensitivity
(b) Resolve heading ambiguity
(c) Neutralise the effect of component Z of the Earth’s magnetic field when the
aircraft is climbing or descending

42. The voltage induced into the secondary pick-off coils of a Sperry CL2 flux-valve is
proportional to:
(a) The frequency of the AC current to the exciter coil
(b) The value of component h of the Earth’s magnetic field and the direction at
which it intersects the flux-valve
(c) The efficiency of the flux-valve collector horns

43. An aircraft heading 360(C ) initiates a left turn onto 180( C ) in the Southern
hemisphere. Initially the compass will indicate a:
(a) Lesser amount of turn than is actually being made
(b) Turn in the opposite direction
(c) Greater amount of turn than is actually being made
44. An aircraft is turning right from 050( C ) onto 220( C ) in the Southern hemisphere.
On what compass heading should the aircraft roll out of the turn?
(a) 210(C)
(b) 220(C)
(c) 230(C)

45. A compass system has co-eff A -2. B -4. C +3. Required track 022(T). Drift 7left.
Variation 16 W. The compass heading to steer will be:
(a) 042(C)
(b) 045(C)
(c) 048(C)

46. A magnetic compass will show an apparent turn to the North in the Southern
hemisphere when.
(a) The aircraft accelerates on 000( C)
(b) The aircraft accelerates on 090(C)
(c) The aircraft decelerates on 270(C)

Paper 3

1. An aeroplane heading 030º (C) in the Southern Hemisphere, turns left onto 170º (C)
using a direct reading magnetic compass. The roll out of the turn should be initiated
on a compass heading off:
a) 145
b) 170
c) 195

2. The following figures appear on an aeroplane deviation card:

FOR MAGNETIC STEER COMPASS
045 038
090 092
The compass heading to steer to maintain a heading of 075º (M) is:
a) 072
b) 074
c) 076

3. During a compass swing the following reading were noted:

MAGNETIC HEADING COMPASS HEADING
000 358
089 092
178 182
269 268
After correction for coefficients B and C, the compass reading on the westerly
heading was:
a) 266
b) 270
c) 271
4. A compass is swung using the Relative bearing method. The magnetic bearing of a
distant object is 210(M).
COMPASS HEADING RELATIVE BEARING
359 208
090 121
179 032
272 301
Co-eff. A, B and C are:
a) A = - 0.5 B = + 2 C = + 2
b) A = + 0,5 B = + 1 C = - 2
c) A = - 0,5 B = + 1 C = + 2

5. Co-eff. A -2, Co-eff. B + 2 and Co-eff. C + 3. The headings on which zero deviation
occurs are:
a) 303,7º and 123,7º
b) 056,3º and 236,3º
c) 090,0º and 337,3º

6. A direct reading magnetic compass has coefficients A, B and C only. Deviations on

000º (C) is 0º. Deviation on 090º (C) is + 3. Co-efficient C is +2. The deviation on
180º (C) is:
a) - 2
b) - 4
c) 0

7. A direct reading magnetic compass is affected by co-efficients B and C only, which

together cause a maximum deviation of 7 degrees West on heading 247º (C). The
respective values of co-efficients B and C are:
a) B 6,44 and C 2,73.
b) B 2,73 and C 6,44.
c) B -3,20 and C - 3,80.

8. The following figures appear on an aeroplane deviation card:

FOR MAGNETIC STEER COMPASS
065 058
110 112
The compass heading to steer to maintain a heading of 095º (M) is:
a) 092
b) 094
c) 096

9. The deviations of a direct reading magnetic compass effected only by coefficients B

and C are, 3 E on 230 (C) and 4 W on 130 (C), therefore the deviation on heading
315 (C) is:
a) 7,5 W
b) 3,3 E
c) 7,5E
10. The magnetic system of a compass is suspended pendulously to counteract the effect
of component:
a) H
b) Z
c) P

11. Co-eff. B is negative and one third the value of Co-eff. C which is positive. The
headings on which zero deviation occur are:
a) 108,4 and 288,4
b) 18,4 and 198,4
c) 71,6 and 250,6

12. A direct reading magnetic compass is affected by coefficients B and C only, which
together cause a maximum deviation of 5 degrees West on heading 307 (C). The
respective values of coefficients B and C are:
a) B +4 and C -3
b) B +7 and C -6
c) B -3 and C -3

13. During a turn the remote indicator of a CL2 compass remains synchronised with the
actual heading because:
a) the horizontal gyro due to its rigidity drives the pointers keeping them aligned
with the heading;
b) error signals raised in the stators of the gyro unit data selsyn are repeated in
the stators of the master indicator;
c) the detector unit, signal selsyn stator and horizontal gyro, rotate with the
aircraft in the same direction at the same rate.

14. An aircraft at FL230, temperature -41º C, QNH 983 HPA, is at a true altitude of:
a) 21 050 feet
b) 22 200 feet
c) 23 013 feet

15. While climbing to FL250, the altimeter is set correctly. On descent the altimeter is not
set to QNH 1037,8 hPa. If the aerodrome elevation is 650 FT and the altimeter is
functioning properly, after landing the altimeter will indicate:
a) minus 88 FT
b) 738 FT
c) 1388 FT

16. The QFE at an aerodrome (elevation) 1790 feet is 962 hPa and the QNH 1022 hPa.
If the transition level is FL040 the physical level of the transition level above the
aerodrome is approximately:
a) 2464 feet
b) 2150 feet
c) 2280 feet.
17. The elevation of aerodrome A is 390 feet and aerodrome B 450 feet. The pilot of an
aeroplane at A, sets the altimeter to read aerodrome elevation and then flies to B
without resetting the altimeter. Aerodrome pressure at A on departure was 1004 hPa.
On landing at B the altimeter reads 630 feet, and assuming 1 hPa is 30 feet, the QNH
is approximately:
a) 1011 hPa
b) 1013 hPa
c) 1019 hPa.

18. With QFE 1014 set at A (elevation 480 feet), an aircraft flies to B (QNH 1020) a
distance of 780 NM. In order to have minimum clearance of 1500 ft over a hill 490
metres above sea level, 234 NM from A, the altimeter must read:
a) 3108 ft
b) 3048 ft
c) 2718 ft

19. If an altimeter indicates 3500 FT with the actual QNH of 1004, 7 hPa set, the
approximate pressure altitude is:
a) 3745 FT
b) 3500 FT
c) 3255 FT

20. During a pre-flight check the following details were noted:

Airfield Elevation 4800 ft
Apron Elevation 4780 ft
Height of static vent above ground 25 ft
Altimeter reading (QFE) 35 ft
a) 30 ft under read
b) 05 ft under read
c) 30 ft over read.

21. When ambient temperature is warmer than standard at a particular altitude, the
altimeter will indicate:
a) higher than true altitude;
b) lower than true altitude;
c) the same as true altitude.

22. The value of the compressibility error of an Airspeed Indicator (ASI) will:
a) increase with increase in altitude and true airspeed;
b) decrease, with decrease in density and increase with an increase in IAS;
c) increase with increase in true airspeed and decrease with increase in altitude.

23. The reported QNH of a given station is the:

a) actual barometric pressure measured at the station;
b) actual barometric pressure measured at sea level;
c) station's barometric pressure corrected to mean sea level pressure.
24. Flying at FL 430 the OAT is -59º C. The deviation from Jet Standard Atmosphere is:
a) + 12
b) - 2,5
c) + 2,7

25. At a constant pressure altitude of 1 250 feet, a temperature drop from 29 C to 18 C

will cause the density altitude to:
a) decrease by 1 250 feet;
b) increase by 1 200 feet;
c) decrease by 1 870 feet.

26. If the static vent becomes blocked during a climb the machmeter will:
a) overread;
b) read correctly;
c) under read.

27. Ambient static pressure is fed to the ASI in flight to:

a) Cancel dynamic pressure in the pitot tube.
b) Subtract the static pressure from the dynamic pressure.
c) Cancel static pressure entering the instrument diaphragm through the pitot
tube.

28. The Principle and Operation of the Machmeter precludes the following errors:
a) Density, compressibility and pressure errors.
b) Position, density and barometric errors.
c) Temperature, compressibility and density errors.

29. At FL410 the temperature deviation from the Jet Standard Atmosphere is + 5º C.
The outside air temperature is:
a) -51,5º C
b) -62º C
c) -67º C

30. Mach No. is equal to:

a) P - S + S
b)P - S
S
c)P + S
S

Paper 4

1. An aircraft flying at a constant Flight Level reduces power which results in a reduction
of TAS by 112 kts and Mach No. by 0,19. At which Flight level is the aircraft flying?
a) FL 280
b) FL 220
c) FL 295
2. An aeroplane at Mach 0,78 has a true airspeed of 479 knots when flying in standard
atmosphere at flight level:
a) 185
b) 275
c) 200

3. An aircraft at FL310 is flying at an indicated Mach-number of 0,80 corrected OAT is -

30C. The rectified airspeed for these conditions is:
a) 282 knots
b) 298 knots
c) 269 knots

4. An aircraft maintains a constant TAS of 350 kts in the climb:

a) Local Speed of sound decreases and the RAS decreases.
b) Local Speed of sound decreases and the Mach No. decreases.
c) Local Speed of sound increases and the Mach No. increases.

5. Assuming that the speed of sound is 1203,8 kilometres per hour at 15º C and the
mean lapse rate 2 degrees/1000 feet, the speed of sound at a temperature of -56º C
is:
a) 564,2 knots
b) 583,4 knots
c) 574,2 knots

6. A TAS OF 470 KTS is obtained at Mach 0,82 when flying at FL400. To obtain the
same TAS at Mach 0,82 when flying at FL320 the temperature deviation required is:
a) + 6 C
b) - 7 C
c) - 16 C

7. If while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of static

pressure vented inside the aircraft, with the cabin pressure being lower than static,
the following variations in instrument indication would be expected:
a) the altimeter will read higher than normal, airspeed will not change and the
vertical-speed indicator will momentarily show a descent;
b) the altimeter will read higher than normal, airspeed greater than normal and
the vertical-speed indicator will momentarily show a climb;
c) the altimeter will read lower than normal, airspeed greater than normal and the
vertical-speed indicator will momentarily show a climb and then a descent.

8. Assume that an aeroplane at 17000 FT AMSL has a cabin pressure equal to an

altitude of 7000 FT. If the pitot static tubes break at a point within the cockpit, the
altimeter would read:
a) 10000 FT (7000 FT + 3000 FT) which is the allowance for pressure
differential;
b) 17000 FT;
c) The cabin pressure altitude, i.e. 7000 FT.
9. The Instantaneous Vertical Speed Indicator incorporates an accelerometer unit. The
pistons of the accelerometer unit are connected:
a) directly to the VSI needle to give an instantaneous deflection when a climb or
a descent is initiated;
b) directly to the capsule by a leaf spring which exerts or relieves pressure on the
capsule when a climb or a descent is initiated;
c) to the static pressure tube leading to the capsule and their movement creates
an immediate pressure change inside the capsule when a climb or descent is
initiated.

10. In the servo altimeter the servo motor drives the:

a) amplifier and the induction pick-off;
b) the counters and the cam;
c) the I-bar.

11. By changing from QNH to QNE on a servo assisted Altimeter:

a) The motor drives the "E" bar sensing an error, then amplified and fed to the
counter.
b) The anvil moves the worm gear, changing the air gaps between the "E" and "I"
bars.
c) The "I" bar moves, changing the air gaps between the "E" and "I" bars.

12. If the static pressure ports iced over while descending from altitude, the airspeed
indicator would read:
a) High
b) Low
c) Correctly.

13. The rigidity of a spinning wheel is directly proportional to:

a) the speed of rotation and directly proportional to the mass of the rotor;
b) the moment of inertia and inversely proportional to the speed of rotation;
c) the speed of rotation and inversely proportional to the moment of inertia.

14. After 4 hours 15 minutes the easterly axis point of a horizontal axis gyro set with its
axis in an east/west direction at 45 N will have:
a) drifted anti-clockwise through 45 degrees above the horizon;
b) have risen to a point 60 degrees above the horizon;
c) drifted clockwise and have risen above the horizon.

15. If a vacuum gauge indicates the pressure to be lower than the minimum limit, the airoperated
instruments that would be affected, are:
a) pressure altimeter;
b) heading indicator (DGI);
c) vertical-speed indicator.

16. Erection errors in an air driven Gyro Horizon Indicator are due to:
a) Loss of gyro rigidity due to the reduction in rotor speed at high altitudes.
b) The movement of the pendulous vanes during aircraft accelerations and
manoeuvres.
c) The displacement of the pendulous gyro casing during acceleration or a turn.
17. In an electrically driven artificial horizon, the axis wander about the pitch axis is
controlled by:
a) A mercury switch at right angles to the pitch axis inducing torque about the roll
axis.
b) A mercury switch parallel to the pitch axis inducing torque about the pitch axis.
c) A mercury switch at right angles to the roll axis inducing torque about the pitch
axis.

18. Errors in both pitch and bank indication on an attitude indicator are usually at a
maximum as the aircraft rolls out of a:
a) 90 degree turn;
b) 180 degree turn;
c) 270 degree turn.

19. During a stabilised climbing turn at a constant rate, the instruments which indicate the
correct pitch and bank are the:
a) vertical-speed indicator and turn-and-slip indicator;
b) altimeter and turn-and-slip indicator;
c) attitude indicator and turn-and-slip indicator.

20. The effect of decreasing rotor speed in the turn and slip indicator will cause:
a) the turn indicator to over-read and the slip indicator to under-read;
b) the turn indicator to under-indicate the angle of bank but will not effect the slip
indicator;
c) the turn indicator to under-read the rate of turn.

21. In the operation of the turn indicator, a rate gyro is used:

a) having freedom of movement in only one plane and is constructed to indicate
the angle of bank during a turn, using the principle of precession;
b) having freedom of movement in only two planes at 90 degrees to each other
and is constructed to measure rate of turn in the third plane, at right angles to
the other two.
c) having complete freedom of movement in two planes using the principle of
topple in the vertical plane to measure angular velocities in the yawing plane.

22. The angle of tilt of the rate gyro in a turn indicator is due to:
a) the force in the horizontal plane generated by secondary precession balancing
the tilt caused by primary precession;
b) the tension of the control spring opposing the angular tilt of the gyro;
c) primary precession which is generated by an aeroplanes rate of turn.

23. To complete a 360º turn using the Turn Co-ordinator, takes 131 seconds. The rotor
speed is:
a) High
b) Low
c) Correct
24. On a descend to Cape Town on an IFR flight plan the QNH of 1008.2 hPa could not
be set because the knob had fallen off For the purposes of the approach and landing
the indicated height of the altimeter must be corrected for by:
a) adding 200 ft
b) subtracting 150 ft
c) adding 150 ft

25. The function or purpose of an accelerometer is to:

a) measure the force required to accelerate a mass overcoming its inertia;
b) determine the rate of change of motion of a given mass;
c) measure the velocity an displacement of a body along a straight line.

26. A RMI (Radio Magnetic Indicator) displays a warning flag which indicates a compass
failure. The radio bearing pointers:
a) are not to be used;
b) can be used to home to an NDB;
c) can be used to home to an NDB and a VOR station.

27. A Lewis Flush Bulb senses:

a) SAT
b) RAT
c) TAT

Chapter 1

Machmeter Questions
1.1 B
1.2 C
1.3 B
2. C
3. D
4. A
5. B
6. A
General Questions
1 B 17 C 33 C 49 A
2 A 18 B 34 B 50 A
3 B 19 C 35 C 51 C
4 C 20 A 36 C 52 C
5 A 21 C 37 C 53 B
6 C 22 B 38 C 54 B
7 C 23 A 39 C 55 A
8 B 24 B 40 C
9 A 25 C&A 41 B
10 C 26 A 42 B
11 C 27 B 43 C
12 B 28 A 44 B
13 B 29 B 45 A
14 B 30 A 46 C
15 A 31 B 47 A
16 C 32 B 48 A

Chapter 2
1 A 14 B
2 B 15 A
3 C 16 B
4 A 17 B
5 B 18 A
6 B 19 A
7 C 20 B
8 C 21 B
9 A 22 C
10 C 23 B
11 C 24 A
12 B 25 C
13 A 26 B

Chapter 5
1 181,270 19 A
2 B 20 B
3 B 21 A
4 A 22 A
5 A 23 C
6 B 24 A
7 C 25 C
8 C 26 C
9 B 27 B
10 B 28 C
11 B 29 B
12 A 30 C
13 A 31 A
14 C 32 C
15 C 33 B
16 C 34 C
17 B 35 B
18 C 36 A
37 A

PAPER 1
1 C 24 B
2 A 25 B
3 A 26 A
4 A 27 A
5 B 28 B
6 A 29 B
7 C 30 A
8 B 31 B
9 C 32 A
10 B 33 B
11 A 34 C
12 B 35 A
13 C 36 A
14 C 37 B
15 C 38 B
16 C 39 B
17 B 40 A
18 C 41 A
19 B 42 A
20 A 43 A
21 A 44 C
22 C 45 A
23 B 46 B

Paper 2
1 B 24 C
2 B 25 B
3 B 26 A
4 C 27 C
5 C 28 C
6 B 29 C
7 A 30 B
8 A 31 C
9 C 32 B
10 C 33 A
11 B 34 C
12 C 35 C
13 B 36 B
14 C 37 A
15 B 38 C
16 A 39 C
17 B 40 C
18 A 41 B
19 B 42 B
20 A 43 C
21 C 44 A
22 B 45 C
23 A 46 C

Paper 3
1 C 24 A
2 B 25 A
3 B 26 C
4 C 27 C
5 C 28 C
6 B 29 B
7 A 30 B
8B
9B
10 B
11 C
12 A
13 A
14 A
15 A
16 A
17 A
18 C
19 A
20 C
21 B
22 A
23 C

Paper 4
1 C 24 B
2 C 25 A
3 B 26 B
4 A 27 B
5C
6B
7B
8C
9C
10 B
11 B
12 A
13 A
14 C
15 B
16 B
17 A
18 B
19 C
20 C
21 B
22 C
23 A