1.

Irrigation can be defined as the science of

a) artificial application of water b) artificial application of water to crops

c) Conservation of rainwater for future use d) All of above
2. Irrigation is basically required in

a) Arid Region b) Semi Arid Region

c) Humid Region d) All of above

3. Irrigation Engineering mainly deals with supplying water for

a) Nourishment of crops b) Navigation

c) Industries d) All of above
4. With the increase in supplied irrigation water, the yield of crops

a) Increases continuously b) Decreases Continuously

c) Increases up to certain limit and then decreases d) Increases up to certain limit and becomes constant

5. Land or area that lack sufficient water for crop production without irrigation is

a) Arid Region b) Semi-Arid Region

c) Humid Region d) None of above
6. For irrigation purpose PH value of water should be

a) Between 3 & 6 b) Between 6 & 8.5

c) Between 8.5 & 11 d) More than 11
7. When was Chandra canal constructed

a) 1928 B.S. b) 1979 B.S.

c) 1985 B.S. d) 1994 B.S.

8. Which of following is other name of perennial irrigation?

a) Flood irrigation b) controlled irrigation

c) Flow irrigation d) Lift irrigation
9. Flow irrigation can be done from

a) Canal b) Well
c) Tube well d) both b & c
10. Which irrigation method is suitable on flat rolling land

a) Free flooding b) Border Strip

c) Check area flooding d) Furrow irrigation
11. Which irrigation method is suitable in permeable soil?

a) Free flooding b) Border Strip

c) Check area flooding d) sprinkler irrigation
12. Because of large stream discharge, Which irrigation method is suitable in permeable soil?

a) Free flooding b) Border Strip

c) Check area flooding d) sprinkler irrigation
13. Which irrigation method uses artificial rain to irrigate the field

a) Free flooding b) Border Strip

c) Drip irrigation d) sprinkler irrigation
14. Which irrigation method is suitable for orchard farming

a) Free flooding b) Border Strip

c) Basin flooding d) Furrow irrigation
15. In Which irrigation method only 20% to 50% area is wetted

a) Free flooding b) Border Strip

c) Basin flooding d) Furrow irrigation
16. Which irrigation method is suitable for standing crop in sandy field?

a) Sprinkler irrigation b) Drip irrigation

c) Basin flooding d) Furrow irrigation
17. Drip irrigation is suitable for

a) Uneven area b) Undulated area

c) Hilly areas d) all of above
18. Which irrigation method is suitable in water scarce area?

a) Sprinkler irrigation b) Drip irrigation

c) Basin flooding d) Furrow irrigation
19. Which irrigation method is suitable in water scarce area with pressure?

a) Sprinkler irrigation b) Drip irrigation

c) Basin flooding d) Furrow irrigation
20. Agricultural land of Nepal is around

a) 20% b) 28%
c) 38% d) 45%
21. Which irrigation method is suitable for cereal crops?

a) Sprinkler irrigation b) check area flooding

c) Basin flooding d) Furrow irrigation
22. Irrigation water having SAR value of 12 is

a) Low sodium water b) Medium sodium water

c) High sodium water d) Very high sodium water
23. The numerical value of base period is

a) less than crop period b) equal to crop period

c) more than crop period d) None of above
24. The ratio of total volume of water delivered to a crop to area on which it has been spread

a) Duty b) Delta
c) Kor period d) Critical depth
25. Optimum depth of Kor watering for wheat is

a) 10.5 cm b) 13.5 cm
c) 16.5 cm d) 19 cm
26. The duty is largest at

a) head of main canal b) branch canal

c) on the field d) same at all place
27. The relation between duty delta and base period in F.P.S system is

a) Δ = 8.64 B/D b) Δ = 864 B/D

c) Δ = 1.985 D/B d) Δ = 1.985 B/D
28. What is total depth of water for complete growth of plant called as

a) Duty b) Delta
c) Kor depth d) Kor period
29. Time period between two consecutive watering is called as
a) crop period b) base period
c) Kor period d) Rotation period
30. The duty at the end of canal minor where government control ceases is called as

a) Duty on field b) outlet duty

c) flow duty d) storage duty
31. Duty of water is less if

a) area irrigated is more b) water supply required is more

c) water supply required is less d) None of above
32. Kor watering is irrigation water supplied to crop

a) just prior to harvesting b) at the time of sowing

c) when crop has grown few cm and water is applied d) after crop harvesting
first time
33. The Kor depth for a crop is 14 cm and Kor period is 14 days. The outlet factor The will be

a) 637 ha/cumecs b) 864 ha/cumecs

c) 837 ha/cumecs d) 8.64 ha/cumecs
34. The first watering before sowing is called as

a) Kor watering b) paleo

c) Delta d) Duty
35. The crop requires maximum water during

a) first watering before sowing of crops b) last watering before harvesting

c) first watering when crop has grown few cm d) after crop harvesting
36. The maximum irrigation requirement of rice crop is exhibited by its

a) minimum delta value b) maximum duty value

c) minimum duty value d) none of above
37. Kharif crop is sown at

a) end of summer b) end of north-east monsoon

c) beginning of south-west monsoon d) beginning of winter
38. Crop ratio is generally taken as

a) 1:1 b) 1:2
c) 2:1 d) 1:4
39. Which crop improves nitrogen content of the soil

a) kharif crop b) Rabi crop

c) leguminous crop d) cash crop
40. The total area that can be irrigated from an irrigation scheme is

a) gross command area b) culturable command area

c) net command area d) none of above
41. Culturable command area includes

a) cultivable land b) Roads

c) forests d) all of above
42. The area on which crops ae grown in particular season is called as

a) gross command area b) culturable command area

c) Culturable cultivated area d) culturable uncultivated d area
43. What is called as percentage of CCA irrigated at a time in one crop season

a) gross command area b) Culturable command area

c) Culturable cultivated area d) Intensity of irrigaton
44. Crop water is proportional to

a) Evapotranspiration b) Seepage water

c) effective rainfall d) all of above
45. Consumptive use of crop is equal to

a) Evapotranspiration b) water used in plant metabolism

c) sum of evapotranspiration and water used in d) None of above
plant metabolism
46. The consumptive use of water for crop

a) is measured as volume of water per unit area b) is measured as depth of water on irrigated area
c) may be partly supplied by irrigation and partly by d) all of above
precipitation
47. The amount of water required to meet the evapotranspiration needs of crop is

a) consumptive use irrigation requirement b) Net irrigation requirement

c) Field irrigation requirement d) Gross irrigation requirement
48. The amount of water required to meet the evapotranspiration as well as other needs such as leaching
is called as
a) consumptive use irrigation requirement b) Net irrigation requirement
c) Field irrigation requirement d) Gross irrigation requirement
49. Which efficiency value can be less than equal to or greater than 100%

a) water conveyance b) water application

c) water storage d) water use
50. Water distribution efficiency is used to measure the

a) effectiveness of irrigation b) efficiency of irrigation

c) efficiency of crops d) none of above
51. In any year IOI for kharif and rabi are 28% and 35% respectively. Find IOI of that year

a) 70% b) 7%
c) 63% d) 73%
52. In any year 50% and 46% of CCA in kharif and Rabi season remained without water and rest got water.
The IOI of that year will be
a) 96% b) 126%
c) 104% d) 84%
53. Which of following type of water is not available for plant

a) Gravitational water b) Capillary water

c) Hygroscopic water d) both a and c
54. Super fluous water is also called as

a) Gravitational water b) Capillary water

c) Hygroscopic water d) none of above
55. Upto which point plant can extract water

a) Field capacity b) Saturation capacity

c) Optimum moisture content d) permanent wilting point
56. The depth of water required to bring soil moisture content of given soil upto ita field capacity is

a) Hygroscopic water b) Equivalent moisture

c) soil moisture deficiency d) None of above
57. Hygroscopic water can be removed by

a) Capillary action b) Leaching

c) Heating d) Ploughing
58. Loss of canal discharge occurs mainly due to

a) seepage and percolation b) seepage and absorption

c) Seepage and evaporation d) evaporation and percolation
59. In which of following there is continuous flow between canal and groundwater

a) absorption b) seepage
c) percolation d) evaporation
60. Percolation loss is less in case of

a) sandy soil b) silty soil

c) black cotton soil d) all of above
61. The amount of evaporation loss is
a) 1 to 2 percent of water entering into canal b) 2 to 3 percent of water entering into canal
c) 5 to 10 percent of water entering into canal d) 10 to 20 percent of water entering into canal
62. Which type of losses can be avoided by canal lining?

a) evaporation b) seepage

c) erosion of canal bed d) discharge loss of canal

63. Most economical lined canal section is

a) triangular section with circular bottom for low b) trapezoidal section with rounded corner for high
discharge discharge
c) both a and b d) none of above
64. Due to lining, maintenance of canal

a) increases b) decreases
c) remains same d) any of above
65. Maximum permissible velocity of concrete lined canal is

a) 1 m/s b) 1.5 m/s

c) 2 m/s d) 3 m/s
66. If there is weed growth in canal then it

a) increases discharge b) decreases discharge

c) discharge remains same d) any of above
67. At balancing depth condition

a) depth of cutting is equal to depth of filling b) volume of cutting is equal to volume of filling
c) both a and b d) none of above
68. When G.L lies between bed level and FSL then the canal section is

a) fully in cutting b) fully in filling

c) partially cutting and partially filling d) none of above
69. Seepage loss is more when the canal is

a) fully in cutting b) fully in filling

c) partially cutting and partially filling d) none of above
70. Free board in canal is governed by

a) size of canal b) location of canal

c) discharge of canal d) all of above
71. A minimum of 90 cm free board is provided when the discharge in canal is

a) less than 30 cumecs b) between 30 and 60 cumecs

c) more than 60 cumecs d) more than 100 cumecs
72. Bed bars in canal are provided

a) to raise water level b) to measure discharge

c) to watch general behaviour of canal d) to control silting
73. A counter berm is a

a) horizontal benching provided at outer edge b) horizontal benching provided at inner edge
c) vertical benching provided at outer edge d) vertical benching provided at inner edge
74. Spoil bank is formed when

a) canal has steep bed slope b) volume of filling is more than cutting
c) volume of cutting is more than filling d) volume of cutting equal to volume of filling
75. In an irrigation canal berms are provided at

a) bed level b) bank level

c) full supply level d) ground level
76. Burrow pit is preferably located at

a) left side of canal b) right side of canal

c) both sides of canal d) centre half section of canal
77. Which of canal alignment is most desirable
a) ridge canal b) contour canal
c) side slope canal d) feeder canal
78. Which type of canal is most suitable in hilly areas

a) ridge canal b) contour canal

c) watershed canal d) side slope canal
79. Which type of canal requires cross drainage works

a) main canal b) navigation canal

c) watershed canal d) contour canal
80. In canal system, outlet for the water course can’t be provided at

a) main canal b) branch canal

c) major distributory d) minor distributory
81. Cross drainage works can be avoided in

a) ridge canal b) contour canal

c) side slope canal d) both a and c
82. Cross drainage works can be avoided in

a) ridge canal b) contour canal

c) side slope canal d) feeder canal
83. Canals taken off from ice fed rivers are

a) permanent canal b) perennial canal

c) non-perennial canal d) flood canal
84. Canals taken off from rivers with or without regulators are

a) permanent canal b) perennial canal

c) non-perennial canal d) flood canal
85. Single bank canal is other name of

a) ridge canal b) contour canal

c) side slope canal d) distributory canal
86. In gravity canal FSL is always

a) at ground level b) few cm above ground level

c) few cm below ground level d) 4 to 5 meter above ground level
87. The mean velocity for a channel of given depth which will keep the channel all year free from silting
and scouring is called as
a) optimum velocity b) sub critical velocity
c) super critical velocity d) critical velocity
88. An alluvial canal is designed on the basis of

a) manning’s theory b) lacey theory

c) kennedy theory d) both b and c

89. A lined alluvial canal is designed on the basis of

a) manning’s theory b) lacey theory

c) kennedy theory d) both b and c

90. According to kennedy theory, eddies formed from

a) bed only b) sides only

c) wetted perimeter d) none of above
91. If critical velocity is more than actual velocity then

a) silting occurs b) scouring occurs

c) no silting and no scouring d) both silting and scouring occurs
92. The term regime is used in which theory

a) manning’s b) chezy
c) Lacey d) kennedy
93. In lacey’s regime theory, flow velocity is proportional to

a) (Qf2)1/2 b) Q/f2

c) Qf2)1/6 d) Qf)1/2
94. When a channel is protected on the bed and sides with some protective materials and there is no
possibility of change of cross section area then the channel is said to be in
a) Initial Regime b) True Regime

c) Final Regime d) Permanent Regime

95. Lacey theory is not applicable to a channel in

a) Initial Regime b) True Regime

c) Final Regime d) both b and c
96. Manning’s rugosity coefficient for silty clay is

a) 0.0225 b) 0.025
c) 0.0275 d) 0.02
97. Manning’s rugosity coefficient for loamy soil is

a) 0.0225 b) 0.025
c) 0.0275 d) 0.02
98. The critical shear stress at which the incipient motion of sediment of size d takes place is proportional
to
a) d b) d2
c) d1/2 d) d3
99. The minimum size of stone that will remain at rest in a channel of longitudinal slope S and hydraulic
mean depth R, is given by

a) 4 RS b) 7 RS
c) 9 RS d)11 RS
100. Tractive force acts

a) same direction of flow b) opposite direction of flow

c) perpendicular to flow direction d) none of above
101. River on alluvial plains are

a) Aggrading type b) Degrading type

c) Meandering type d) all of above

102. Aggrading river is characterised by

a) loosing its bed b) building its bed

c) meandering d) low discharge
103. River training work is generally required when the river is

a) Aggrading type b) Degrading type

c) Meandering type d) stable type
104. Meandering of river generally occurs in

a) Rock stage b) Boulder Stage

c) Trough Stage d) Delta Stage

105. A degrading river is

a) Scouring river b) silting river

c) Meandering river d) any of above

106. The ratio of dominant discharge of a river to peak discharge for that river is

a) 3/16 b) 9/16
c) 13/16 d) 3/2
107. Tortuosity of a meandering river is

a) equal to 1 b) greater than 1

c) less than 1 d) any of above
108. Which type of river training work deals with flood control

a) training for depth b) low water training

c) training for discharge d) training for sediment
109. Which type of river training work helps in navigation

a) mean water training b) low water training

c) training for discharge d) training for sediment
110. In boulder stage of river, river passes from

a) Boulder stage to rocky stage b) rocky stage to boulder stage

c) trough stage to alluvial stage d) All of above
111. Which stage of river is ideal for dam construction

a) Rock stage b) Boulder Stage

c) Trough Stage d) Delta Stage
112. The repelling spurs

a) points U/S b) points D/S

c) perpendicular to bank d) any of above
113. Length of D/s of guide bank is

a) 0.15L b) 0.25L
c) 0.5L d) 0.75L
114. Maximum free board in guide bank is limited to

a) 1 m b) 1.25 m
c) 1.5 m d) 2 m
115. Groynes are generally built

a) perpendicular to bank b) inclined upstream upto 30 degree

c) inclined downstream upto 30 degree d) all of above
116. On upstream side the curvature of guide bank has a central angle of

a) 90 to 110 degree b) 110 to 120 degree

c) 120 to 140 degree d) 140 to 160 degree
117. Meandering increases length of river whereas cutoff

a) increases width of river b) increases length of river

c) decreases length of river d) length remains same
118. Spurs should be designed for

a) 10 year flood b) 25 year flood

c) 50 year flood d) 100 year flood
119. Guide banks are provided in the river to

a) increases depth of flow in river b) decreases velocity of flow in river

c) reduces peak flow d) channelizes the flow of a river
120. A groynes with curved head is called as

a) attracting spurs b) hockey spurs

c) deflecting spurs d) denehy spurs
121. The extra allowance for width of guide bank is

a) 10 % b) 20 %
c) 30 % d) 40 %
122. Most suitable location of canal headworks is

a) Rock stage b) Boulder stage

c) Trough stage d) Delta stage
123. In a barrage, crest level is kept

a) low with large gates b) high with large gates

c) high with low gates d) low with small gates
124. In a diversion headwork project, the canal head regulator is generally aligned

a) parallel to barrage axis b) perpendicular to divide wall

c) parallel to divide wall d) none of above
125. Structure which disposes heavy silt and part of flood discharge on downstream side of barrage
a) Divide wall b) under sluice
c) fish ladder d) silt excluder
126. The angle between head regulator and canal for smooth entry of water in canal is

a) 700 b) 900
c) 1100 d) 1200
127. The main function of diversion headwork is

a) to remove silt b) to control flood

c) to store water d) to raise water level
128. As compared to crest of normal weir, crest of under sluice is kept at

a) higher level b) lower level

c) same level d) any of above
129. Silt ejector is provided at

a) river bed u/s of canal head regulator b) river bed d/s of canal head regulator
c) canal bed u/s of canal head regulator d) canal bed d/s of canal head regulator
130. The height of shutter over weir crest shall not exceed

a) 1 m b) 1.2 m
c) 1.5 m d) 2 m
131. Safety against piping for hydraulic structures can be ensured by providing

a) gravel filter at d/s end b) gravel filter at u/s end

c) sufficient creep length d) none of above
132. The loss of head per unit creep length is called as

a) coefficient of creep b) Bligh’s coefficient

c) Lane’s coefficient d) percolation coefficient
133. To allow a suitable factor of safety, the calculated floor thickness in bligh’s theory is generally
increased by
a) 20 % b) 33 %
c) 40 % d) 50 %
134. According to lane’s theory, weightage factor for vertical creep is

a) 1/3 b) 1
c) 1.5 d) 2
135. Bligh’s coefficient for fine sand is

a) 15 b) 12
c) 8 d) 9
136. Bligh’s safe hydraulic gradient for coarse grained soil is

a) 1/8 b) 1/12
c) 1/15 d) 1/6
137. In bligh’s creep theory it is assumed that percolation water creep

a) along the contact of the base profile of the apron b) in straight path under the floor
with the sub soil
c) In straight path under the foundation d) none of above
138. According to khosla theory, seepage water exerts a force at each point in the direction of flow and

a) parallel to streamlines b) tangential to streamlines

c) perpendicular to streamlines d) any of above
139. According to khosla’s theory, exit gradient can be taken as safe when factor of safety is

a) 3 to 4 b) 4 to 5
c) 5 to 7 d) 2 to 3
140. Khosla’s safe exit gradient for design of weirs will be lowest for the soil type

a) fine sand b) shingle and gravel

c) coarse sand d) any of above

141. Sizes of tunnels in silt excluder

a) 2 m wide and 3 m high b) 3 m wide and 2 m high

c) 3 m wide and 5 m high d) 5 m wide and 3 m high

142. In silt ejector velocity of flow in tunnel is around

a) 2 m/s b) 2.5 m/s

c) 3 m/s d) 4 m/s
143. In case of silt ejector, escape discharge may range from

a) 5 % to 10 % of canal discharge b) 10 % to 15 % of canal discharge

c) 15 % to 25 % of canal discharge d) 20 % to 30 % of canal discharge

144. The process of transfer of water from main canal to branches is called as

a) canal function b) canal regulation

c) canal distribution d) All of above
145. The flow of water in canal is controlled by

a) hydraulic jump b) canal falls

c) Regulators d) escape
146. The supply passing down the parent canal is controlled by

a) head regulator b) cross regulator

c) canal escape d) distributary head regulator
147. A cross regulator is provided on the main canal at

a) downstream of off taking canal b) upstream of off taking canal

c) head of water course d) at entrance of field
148. A canal fall is provided if

a) Designed bed slope exceeds ground slope b) ground slope exceeds designed bed slope
c) ground slope and slope nearly same d) any of above
149. Vertical drop is satisfactory for drop upto

a) 1 m b) 1.5 m
c) 2 m d) 3 m
150. Straight glacis drop is suitable for discharge upto

a) 15 m3/s b) 30 m3/s
c) 60 m3/s d) 90 m3/s
151. The fall using parabolic glacis is

a) vertical drop b) rapid fall

c) inglis fall d) montague type fall
152. Drop structure in canal is provided for

a) energy dissipation b) maintaining ground slope

c) creating high velocity d) all of above
153. Gibb’s module is a type of

a) non-modular outlet b) semi modular outlet

c) rigid modular outlet d) open flume outlet
154. Which structure is used to remove surplus water from canal
a) canal fall b) canal drop
c) canal regulator d) canal escape
155. Which canal structure is also called as safety valve of canal

a) canal fall b) canal escape

c) canal regulator d) Canal outlet
156. In sarda fall, rectangular crest is suitable for discharge upto

a) 6 m3/s b) 14 m3/s
c) 20 m3/s d) 30 m3/s
157. The type of fall suitable for any discharge

a) vertical drop b) straight glacis with baffle wall

c) straight glacis without baffle wall d) all of above
158. Ogee curve is a

a) convex curve b) concave curve

c) combination of convex and concave curve d) circular curve
159. Inglis fall is also known as

a) baffle fall b) sarda fall

c) Montague fall d) rapid fall
160. The outlet through which the discharge depends upon the difference of head between distributary and
water course is known as
a) Non-modular outlet b) semi modular outlet
c) Modular outlet d) Rigid outlet
161. Which of the canal outlet maintains constant discharge

a) Non-modular outlet b) semi modular outlet

c) Modular outlet d) Rigid outlet
162. In glacis fall, the hydraulic jump will form at

a) horizontal floor b) sloping glacis

c) downstream of toe d) any of above
163. The energy dissipation n sarda fall is caused by

a) hydraulic jump b) frictional loss

c) water pool d) baffle wall
164. Which of the following is not a cross drainage structure

a) aqueduct b) syphon aqueduct

c) level crossing d) canal drain
165. A cross drainage work in which canal is provided over natural drainage is

a) super passage b) level crossing

c) canal syphon d) syphon aqueduct
166. Drain over canal is achieved by

a) super passage b) aqueduct

c) syphon aqueduct d) level crossing
167. The bed of canal is lowered in case of

a) level crossing b) canal syphon

c) syphon aqueduct d) inlet and outlet
168. In canal syphon the flow is

a) atmospheric pressure b) pipe flow

c) free flow d) negative pressure flow
169. If RL of canal bed is 201 m and HFL of drainage is 202 m, the cross drainage work adopted will be

a) Aqueduct b) Syphon Aqueduct

c) Super passage d) canal syphon
170. In syphon aqueduct, maximum uplift pressure on floor occurs when

a) canal is full b) canal is full and drainage is empty

c) canal is empty and drainage is full d) both canal and drainage are full
171. Water logging occurs when W.T is

a) Upto 2m below G.L b) Upto 3m below G.L

c) Upto 4m below G.L d) Upto rootzone
172. Which of the following is the remedial measure of water logging

a) By lowering FSL of canal b) Efficient drainage system

c) Quick disposal of rainwater d) Installation of lift irrigation system
173. Which of following factor do not contribute water logging

a) Inadequate drainage b) Excessive tapping of groundwater

 c) Frequent flooding d) Seepage from unlined canals
174. Alkaline soil is best reclaimed by

a) Leaching b) Addition of Gypsum to soil

c) Providing Good Drainage d) Addition of gypsum to soil and leaching
175. Salt present in water harmful for crop production is

a) Sodium Carbonate b) Potassium phosphate

c) Calcium carbonate d) None of above
176. Which of following is best method of reclamation of acidic soil ?

a) Leaching b) Good Drainage

c) Use of gypsum as soil amendment c) Use of Limestone as soil amendment
177. Which factors leads to water logging due to obstruction?

a) Inadequate drainage b) Flat topography

c) Impervious obstruction d) Over irrigation
178. Which factor depends on depression of terrain and causes water logging

a) Irregular topography b) Impervious obstruction

c) Over irrigation d) Excessive Rain
179. Which drain lowers down the ground water table

a) french drain b) shallow well

c) tile drain d) surface drain
180. Drainage coefficient of tile drainage is expressed as

a) cm of water depth removed from the drainage area b) cubic meter of water removed per second
per day
c) percentage applied water which is intercepted by d) None of above
this drain
181. How can tile drainage help to increase crop yield?

a) increases free gravity water b) increases volume of soil

c) decreases air circulation d) increases water table level
182. Which type of soil is benefitted by using tile drainage

a) Dry soil b) wet soil

c) perennial crops d) cash crops
183. The tile drains are laid in longitudinal slope of

a) 0.5 to 3 % b) 0.05 to 3 %
c) 0.25 to 5 % d) 0.025 to 5 %
184. Minimum size of tile drainage is

a) 10 to 15 cm b) 15 to 20 cm
c) 20 to 25 cm d) 25 to 30 cm