KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN

NEW DELHI

Shri. Sardar SinghChauhan

Deputy Commissioner, KVS RO Delhi

Shri. Ghanshyam Pandey Shri. Kailash Chand Meena Shri. Devender Kumar
"Assistant Commissioner Assistant Commissioner Assistant Commissioner

Dr Raj Kumar Sharma, Principal

PM Shri Kendriya Vidyalaya,
1
Andrews Ganj
New Delhi
 Ms. Ritu Sharma
Vice Principal
PM Shri KV Andrews Ganj

OVER ALL CO-ORDINATION: MS. RITU SHARMA

CONTENT CREATORS

S.No Teacher’s Name Kendriya Vidyalaya Chapter Assigned

1.Chemical Reactions and Equations

1 Ms.Sadhana Sharma KV Rajokari
2. Acids, Bases and Salts
13.Our Environment
3. Metals and Non Metals
2 Ms. Pranita Pant KV Sec 12 Dwaraka shift1 4. Carbon and its Compounds
12. Magnetic Effects of Electric
Current
5. Life Processes
3 Ms.Kavita Narula KV Sec12 Dwaraka shift2 6. Control and Coordination
7. How do Organism reproduce
8. Heredity
9. Light-Reflection and Refraction
4 Ms.Vinita Bhamra KV Pragati Vihar
10. The Human Eye and the colorful
world
11. Electricity
Sample Paper1
5 Mr. Rajiv Nain PM Shri KV Andrews Ganj
Shift1
Sample Paper2
6 Ms. Ranjana Tiwari PM Shri KV Andrews Ganj
Shift1
Sample Paper3
7 Ms Jyoti PM Shri KV Andrews Ganj
Shift1

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 INDEX
SL.NO Chapter No. CONTENT PAGE
NUMBER
1 -- CURRICULUM 1-4

2 1 CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND 5-9

EQUATIONS
3 2 ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS 9-15

4 3 METALS AND NON- METALS 15-25

5 4 CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS 25-35

6 5 LIFE PROCESSES 35-44

7 6 CONTROL AND COORDINATION 44-50

8 7 HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE 50-55

9 8 HEREDITY 55-61

10 9 LIGHT-Reflection and Refraction 61-71

11 10 HUMAN EYE AND THE COLOURFUL 71-78

WORLD
12 11 ELECTRICITY 78-88

13 12 MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT 88-95

14 13 OUR ENVIRONMENT 95-99

15 -- SAMPLE PAPERS 100-119

16 SOLUTIONS TO SAMPLE PAPERS 119-138

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 COURSE STRUCTURE
CLASS X
(Annual Examination)

Marks: 80

Unit Unit Marks

No.

I Chemical Substances-Nature and Behaviour 25

II World of Living 25
III Natural Phenomena 12

IV Effects of Current 13

V Natural Resources 05
Total 80

Internal assessment 20
Grand Total 100

Theme: Materials

Unit I: Chemical Substances - Nature and Behavior

Chemical reactions: Chemical equation, Balanced chemical equation, implications of a balanced chemical
equation, types of chemical reactions: combination, decomposition, displacement, double displacement,
precipitation, endothermic exothermic reactions, oxidation and reduction.
Acids, bases and salts: Their definitions in terms of furnishing of H+ and OH– ions, General properties,
examples and uses, neutralization, concept of pH scale (Definition relating to logarithm not required),
importance of pH in everyday life; preparation and uses of Sodium Hydroxide, Bleaching powder, Baking
soda, Washing soda and Plaster of Paris.

Metals and nonmetals: Properties of metals and non-metals; Reactivity series; Formation and properties
of ionic compounds; Basic metallurgical processes; Corrosion and its prevention.

Carbon compounds: Covalent bonding in carbon compounds. Versatile nature of carbon. Homologous
series. Nomenclature of carbon compounds containing functional groups (halogens, alcohol, ketones,
aldehydes, alkanes and alkynes), difference between saturated hydro carbons and unsaturated
hydrocarbons. Chemical properties of carbon compounds (combustion, oxidation, addition and
substitution reaction). Ethanol and Ethanoic acid (only properties and uses), soaps and detergents.

1
Theme: The World of the Living

Unit II: World of Living

Life processes: ‘Living Being’. Basic concept of nutrition, respiration, transport and excretion in plants
and animals.

Control and co-ordination in animals and plants: Tropic movements in plants; Introduction of plant
hormones; Control and co-ordination in animals: Nervous system; Voluntary, involuntary and reflex
action; Chemical co-ordination: animal hormones.

Reproduction: Reproduction in animals and plants (asexual and sexual) reproductive health - need and
methods of family planning. Safe sex vs HIV/AIDS. Child bearing and women’s health.

Heredity and Evolution: Heredity; Mendel’s contribution- Laws for inheritance of traits: Sex
determination: brief introduction: (topics excluded - evolution; evolution and classification and evolution
should not be equated with progress).

Theme: Natural Phenomena:

Unit III: Natural Phenomena

Reflection of light by curved surfaces; Images formed by spherical mirrors, centre of curvature, principal
axis, principal focus, focal length, mirror formula (Derivation not required),magnification.
Refraction; Laws of refraction, refractive index.

Refraction of light by spherical lens; Image formed by spherical lenses; Lens formula (Derivation not
required); Magnification. Power of a lens.
Functioning of a lens in human eye, defects of vision and their corrections, applications of spherical
mirrors and lenses.
Refraction of light through a prism, dispersion of light, scattering of light, applications in daily life
(excluding color of the sun at sunrise and sunset).

Theme: How Things Work

Unit IV: Effects of Current

Electric current, potential difference and electric current. Ohm’s law; Resistance, Resistivity, Factors on
which the resistance of a conductor depends. Series combination of resistors, parallel combination of
resistors and its applications in daily life. Heating effect of electric current and its applications in daily life.
Electric power, Interrelation between P, V, I and R.

Magnetic effects of current: Magnetic field, field lines, field due to a current carrying conductor, field due
to current carrying coil or solenoid; Force on current carrying conductor, Fleming’s Left Hand Rule, Direct
2
 current. Alternating current: frequency of AC. Advantage of AC over DC. Domestic electric circuits.

Theme: Natural Resources

Unit V: Natural Resources

Our environment: Eco-system, Environmental problems, Ozone depletion, waste production and their
solutions. Biodegradable and non-biodegradable substances.

Note for the Teachers:

1. The chapter Management of Natural Resources (NCERT Chapter 16) will not be assessed in the year-
end examination. However, learners may be assigned to read this chapter and encouraged to prepare a
brief write up to any concept of this chapter in their Portfolio. This may be for Internal Assessment and
credit may be given Periodic Assessment/Portfolio).

2. The NCERT text books present information in boxes across the book. These help students to get
conceptual clarity. However, the information in these boxes would not be assessed in the year-end
examination.
PRACTICALS

Practical should be conducted alongside the concepts taught in theory classes. LIST OF

EXPERIMENTS
1. A. Finding the pH of the following samples by using pH paper/universal indicator: Unit-I
(i) Dilute Hydrochloric Acid
(ii) Dilute NaOH solution
(iii) Dilute Ethanoic Acid solution
(iv) Lemon juice
(v) Water
(vi) Dilute Hydrogen Carbonate solution
B. Studying the properties of acids and bases (HCl & NaOH) on the basis of their reaction with:
Unit-I
a) Litmus solution (Blue/Red)
b) Zinc metal
c) Solid sodium carbonate
2. Performing and observing the following reactions and classifying them into: Unit-I
A. Combination reaction
B. Decomposition reaction
C. Displacement reaction
D. Double displacement reaction
(i) Action of water on quicklime

3
 (ii) Action of heat on ferrous sulphate crystals
(iii) Iron nails kept in copper sulphate solution
(iv) Reaction between sodium sulphate and barium chloride solutions

3. Observing the action of Zn, Fe, Cu and Al metals on the following salt solutions: Unit-I

i) ZnSO4(aq)
ii) FeSO4(aq)
iii) CuSO4(aq)
iv) Al2 (SO4)3(aq)

Arranging Zn, Fe, Cu and Al (metals) in the decreasing order of reactivity based on the above result.
4. Studying the dependence of potential difference (V) across a resistor on the current (I) passing
through it and determine its resistance. Also plotting a graph between V and I. Unit-IV
5. Determination of the equivalent resistance of two resistors when connected in series and parallel.
Unit-IV
6. Preparing a temporary mount of a leaf peel to show stomata. Unit- II

7. Experimentally show that carbon dioxide is given out during respiration. Unit-II

8. Study of the following properties of acetic acid (ethanoic acid): Unit- I

i) Odour

ii) solubility in water

iii) effect on litmus

iv) reaction with Sodium Hydrogen Carbonate

9. Study of the comparative cleaning capacity of a sample of soap in soft and hard water. Unit- I
10. Determination of the focal length of: Unit-III
i) Concave mirror
ii) Convex lens by obtaining the image of a distant object.

11. Tracing the path of a ray of light passing through a rectangular glass slab for different angles of
incidence. Measure the angle of incidence, angle of refraction, angle of emergence and interpret the
result. Unit - III
12. Studying (a) binary fission in Amoeba, and (b) budding in yeast and Hydra with the help of prepared
slides. Unit-II
13. Tracing the path of the rays of light through a glass prism. Unit-III

14. Identification of the different parts of an embryo of a dicot seed (Pea, gram or red kidney bean).

Unit-II
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 CHAPTER 1
CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS

Chemical Reaction: A chemical reaction is a process in which one or more substances, also called reactants,
are converted to one or more different substances, known as products.
Zinc granules+(dil) Sulphuric acidZinc sulphate+ Hydrogen gas
Chemical change is characterized by:
● Change in state ● Change in temperature.
● Change in colour ● Formation of precipitate
● Evolution of gas
Chemical Equations:
Chemical equations are symbolic representations of chemical reactions in which the reactants and the
products are expressed in terms of their respective chemical formulae.
Balanced Chemical Equations:
According to the law of conservation of mass “mass can neither be created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction”.
The total mass of the elements present in the products of a chemical reaction has to be equal to the total mass
of the elements present in the reactants. That is the number of atoms of each element on reactant side is equal
to that of the product side.
EXAMPLE : Let us try to balance the following chemical equation
Fe + H2O Fe3O4 + H2
Step I: To balance a chemical equation, first draw boxes around each formula. Do not change anything inside
the boxes while balancing the equation.
Fe + H2O Fe3O4 + H2
Step II: List the number of atoms of different elements present in the unbalanced equation.
Element Number of atoms in reactants (LHS) Number of atoms in products (RHS)
Fe 1 3
H 2 2
O 1 4
Step III:
Element Number of atoms in reactants (LHS) Number of atoms in products (RHS)
Fe 1x3 3
H 2x4 2x4
O 1x4 4
Balanced equation:
3Fe + 4 H2O → Fe3O4 + 4H2
As the number of atoms of each element is the same on both sides of the arrow is a balanced chemical equation.

TYPES OF CHEMICAL REACTIONS:

Combination Reaction: A reaction in which two or more reactants combine to form a single product.
CaO(s) + H2O (l) Ca (OH)2(aq) (highly exothermic)
(Quick lime)
Decomposition Reaction: A reaction in which a compound breaks down into two or more simpler substances.
Most decomposition reactions require an input of energy in the form of heat, light, or electricity.
1. Thermal decomposition (Thermolysis) When a reactant decomposes on heating.
2FeSO4(s) Heat Fe2O3(s) + SO2 (g) + SO3 (g)
(Greenish complex) (Brownish substance) (burning hair smell)
Heat
CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g)
5
 (Limestone) (Quick lime)
2. Photolytic decomposition (Photolysis) When a reactant decomposes in presence of sunlight.
Sunlight

2AgBr 2Ag(s) + Br2(g) (used in photography)

3. Electrolytic decomposition (Electrolysis) When the reactant decomposes by passing electric current
through it.
ElectrIcity
2H2O 2H2(g)+O2(g)
Simple Displacement Reaction: A chemical reaction in which a more reactive element displaces a less
reactive element from its aqueous salt solution.
● Fe(s) + CuSO4(aq) FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s) (Copper sulphate) (Iron sulphate)
● Zn(s) + CuSO4(aq) ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s) (Copper sulphate) (Zinc sulphate)
Double Displacement Reaction: A chemical reaction in which ions gets exchanged between two reactants
which form a new compound is called a double displacement reaction.
a. Na2SO4(aq) + BaCl2(aq) BaSO4(s) + 2NaCl(aq)
(Barium sulphate) white ppt
b. Pb(NO3)2+KI PbI2(s) + KNO3
(Lead Iodide)yellow ppt

EXOTHERMIC AND ENDOTHERMIC CHEMICAL REACTIONS:

EXOTHERMIC CHEMICAL REACTIONS: Reactions in which heat is released along with the formation of
products are called exothermic reactions. For examples:
CH4 (g) + O2 (g) CO2 (g) + 2H2O (g) + Heat
ENDOTHERMIC CHEMICAL REACTIONS: A reaction in which heat energy is absorbed.
NH4Cl (s) + H2O (l) + Heat ⟶ NH4Cl (aq)

OXIDATION: Oxidation refers (i) addition of oxygen (ii) removal of hydrogen (iii) loss of electrons
(iv) increase in oxidation state by a molecule, atom, or ion.
2Cu + O2 2CuO
REDUCTION: Reduction refers to (i)addition of hydrogen (ii) removal of oxygen (iii) gain of electrons
(iv) decrease in oxidation state by a molecule, atom, or ion.
CuO +H2 Cu+H2O
Oxidising agent: The substance that oxidises the other and reduced itself.
Reducing agent: The substance that reduces the other and oxidized itself.
Note: Always choose the species undergoing oxidation and reduction from reactants side only
REDOX REACTIONS: The reactions in which oxidation and reduction both take place simultaneously.
CuO+H2 Cu+H2O

Multiple Choice Questions

1.Identify x and y in the following reaction: Cu + xHNO3 Cu (NO3)2 + yNO2 + 2H2O
(a) 4 and 2 (b) 3 and 5 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 4 and 5
2. Which of the following can be decomposed by the action of sunlight?
(a) Potassium bromide (b) Silver bromide (c) Magnesium oxide (d) Sodium chloride
3. The carbonate of lead is a white solid. It decomposes when heated to form carbon dioxide and a yellow
solid oxide ‘X’. What is X?
(a) Zinc oxide (b) Lead oxide (c)Silver oxide (d) Magnesium oxide
4. Identify the endothermic process from the following?
(a) H2O(l) H2O(g) (b) CaO (s) + H2O (l)  Ca (OH)2 (aq)
(c) Combustion of methane (d) Addition of conc. HCl to water
5. MnO2 + 4HCl →MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2
Identify the substance oxidized in the above equation.
(a) MnCl2 (b) HCl (c) H2O (d) MnO2
2
 6. Magnesium ribbon is rubbed before burning because it has a coating of
(a) basic magnesium carbonate (b)basic magnesium oxide
(c) basic magnesium sulphide (d) basic magnesium chloride
7. In the double displacement reaction between aqueous potassium iodide and aqueous lead nitrate, a
yellow precipitate of lead iodide is formed. While performing the activity if lead nitrate is not available, which
of the following can be used in place of lead nitrate?
(a) Lead sulphate (insoluble) (b)Ammonium nitrate
(c) Lead acetate (d)Potassium sulphate
8. Electrolysis of water is a decomposition reaction. The mole ratio of hydrogen and oxygen gases liberated
during electrolysis of water is:
(a) 1: 1 (b) 1:2 (c) 4:1 (d) 2:1
9. A substance ‘X’ is used in white-washing and is obtained by heating limestone in the absence of air.
Identify ‘X’.
(a) CaOCl2 (b) Ca (OH)2 (c) CaO (d) CaCO3
Q10. You are given the following chemical reaction:
This reaction represents:
(a) Combination reaction as well as double displacement reaction
(b) Decomposition reaction as well as displacement reaction
(c) Double displacement reaction as well as redox reaction
(d) Redox reaction as well as displacement reaction

ANSWERS
Q1. (a) Q2. (b) Q3. (b) Q4. (a) Q5.(b)
Q6.(b) Q7. (c) Q8. (d) Q9. (c) Q10.(d)

ASSERTION – REASON QUESTIONS

These consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the
appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is False but R is true
1. Assertion: Silver bromide decomposition is used in black and white photography.
Reason: Light provides energy for this exothermic reaction.

2. Assertion: The colour of aqueous solution of copper sulphate turns colourless when a piece
of lead is added to it.
Reason: Lead is more reactive then copper, and hence displaces copper from its salt solution.

3.Assertion (A) : Calcium carbonate when heated gives calcium oxide and water.
Reason (R) : On heating calcium carbonate, decomposition reaction takes place.

4. Assertion (A) : In a reaction of copper with oxygen, copper serves as a reducing agent.
Reason (R) : The substance which gains oxygen in a chemical reaction acts as a reducing agent.

5.Assertion(A): A lead nitrate on thermal decomposition gives lead oxide, brown coloured nitrogen dioxide
and oxygen gas.
Reason(R): Lead nitrate reacts with potassium iodide to form yellow ppt of lead iodide and the reaction is
double displacement as well as precipitation reaction
ANSWERS
Q1(b) Q2(a) Q3(d) Q4(a) Q5(b)

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 SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS)
1. What happens chemically when quicklime is added to water filled in a bucket?
Ans. Quicklime reacts with water to form slaked lime and produces lot of heat and hissing sound.
CaO+ H2O---------Ca(OH)2+Heat
2. A shiny brown-coloured element ‘X’ on heating in the air becomes black. Name the element ‘X’& the black-
coloured compound formed. Write the chemical equation involved.
Ans. X- Copper, black compound- Copper Oxide
2Cu+O2----------------2CuO
3. A silver article generally turns black when kept in the open for a few days. The article, when
rubbed with toothpaste again, starts shining.
(a ) Why do silver articles turn black when kept in the open for a few days? Name the phenomenon
involved.
(b ) Name the black substance formed and give its chemical formula.
Ans.(a ) The silver article turns black when kept in the air because the silver article reacts with sulphur
compounds such as hydrogen sulphide (H2S) present in the air to form silver sulphide Ag2S. This
phenomenon is called corrosion. It is also known as tarnishing of silver.
(b ) The black substance is silver sulphide. Its chemical formula is Ag2S.
4. A solution of potassium chloride when mixed with silver nitrate solution, an insoluble white substance
is formed. Write the chemical reaction involved and also mention the type of the chemical reaction?
Ans. KCl (aq) + AgNO3 (aq) AgCl (s) + KNO3 (aq)
It is a double displacement reaction. It is also a precipitation reaction as AgCl is a white precipitate.
5. Why decomposition reactions are called the opposite of combination reactions? Write equations for
these reactions.
Ans. In decomposition reaction, a compound is broken down into simpler compounds or elements, e.g.
CuCO3 (s)CuO (s) + CO2 (g)
Combination reaction is a reaction in which two or more elements or compounds combine to form a new
compound, e.g. N2 (g) + H2 (g) 2NH3 (g)
Thus, decomposition and combination reactions are opposite to each other.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)

6. What is redox reaction? Identify the substance oxidized and the substance reduced in the following
reactions.
(i) 2PbO + C —–> 2Pb + CO2
(ii) MnO2 + 4HCl —–> MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2
Ans. Those reactions in which oxidation and reduction takes place simultaneously are called redox reactions.
(i) PbO is getting reduced and C is getting oxidized.
(ii)) MnO2 is getting reduced and HCl is getting oxidized.
7. Using a suitable chemical equation, justify that some chemical reactions are determined by:
(i) change in colour, (ii) change in temperature.
Ans. (i) Pb (NO3)2 (aq) + 2KI PbI2 + 2KNO3 (aq) Colourless to Yellow ppt.
(ii) CaO (s) + H2O (l) Ca (OH)2 + heat
8. Write balanced equations for the following mentioning the type of reaction involved.
(i) Aluminium + Bromine —–> Aluminium bromide
(ii) Calcium carbonate—–> Calcium oxide + Carbon dioxide
(iii) Silver chloride—–>Silver + Chlorine
Ans. (i) 2Al (s) + 3Br2 (g) 2AlBr3 (s)
(ii)CaCO3 (s) CaO + CO2
(iii)2AgCl (s) 2Ag (s) + Cl2 (g)
9.(i) Write two observations when lead nitrate is heated in a test tube.
(ii) Name the type of reaction.
(iii) Write a balanced chemical equation to represent the above reaction.
Ans. (i)Lead nitrate [Pb(NO3)2] is a white salt which on heating under flame forms a yellow precipitate of Lead
4
oxide (PbO).Brown fumes are liberated during the reaction indicating the formation of Nitrogen gas (NO 2)
(ii)thermal decomposition
(iii)2 Pb(NO3)2→ 2 PbO + 4NO2+ O2.
10. 2 g of silver chloride is taken in a china dish and the china dish is placed in sunlight for sometime.
What will be your observation in this case ? Write the chemical reaction involved in the form of a
balanced chemical equation. Identify the type of chemical reaction
Ans. The white silver chloride turns grey in sunlight. This is because silver chloride decomposes to form
silver and chlorine gas. Sunlight 2AgCl(s) →2Ag(s) + Cl2(g)
It is a photodecomposition reaction.

CASE STUDY BASE QUESTIONS (4MARKS)

Q.1 A solution of slaked lime produced by the reaction is used for white washing walls. Calcium hydroxide reacts
slowly with the carbon dioxide in air to form a thin layer of calcium carbonate on the walls. Calcium carbonate is
formed after two to three days of white washing and gives a shiny finish to the walls. It is interesting to note that
the chemical formula for marble is also CaCO3.
(a) Give the reaction for the formation of calcium carbonate with physical states.
Ans. Ca(OH)2(s) + CO2(g) → CaCO3(s)↓ + H2O(l)
(b) Write any one application of calcium carbonate other than white washing.
Ans. Calcium carbonate is also used in the production of antacids and can also be used to increase the levels
of calcium in body.
(c) Why calcium hydroxide is used for white washing?
Ans. Calcium hydroxide is used for whitewashing as it produces a shiny film on reaction with carbon dioxide and
act as hard coating for the walls.
OR
(c) Write the formulas of slaked lime and quick lime.
Ans. Slaked lime: Calcium hydroxide is called as slaked lime with a formula of: Ca(OH)2 ,whereas calcium oxide
is called as quick lime with a formula of : CaO

Q.2 Redox reactions are those reactions in which oxidation and reduction occur Simultaneously. A Redox
reaction is made up of two half reactions. In the first half reaction, oxidation takes place and in second half
reaction, reduction occurs. Oxidation is a process in which a substance loses electrons and in reduction, a
substance gains electron. The substance which gains electrons is reduced and acts as an oxidizing agent. On
the other hand, a substance which loses electrons is oxidized and acts as a reducing agent.
(a) What is a redox reaction?
Answer- A reaction in which both oxidation and reduction takes place simultaneously is termed as redox reaction.
(b) What is the function of oxidizing agent in redox reactions?
Ans. It helps in providing oxygen or removing hydrogen to the substance undergoing oxidation.
(c) Identify reducing agent and substance oxidized in the given reaction
2Hl+𝐻2O2⟶2𝐻2O+I2
Ans. Reducing agent- H2O2 Substance oxidised - H2O2
OR
(c) In the given reaction, identify the substance reduced and oxidising agent.
ZnO+CO⟶Zn+CO2
Ans. A-ZnO is reduced to Zn and Zn is oxidising agent

CHAPTER 2
ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS
Acids: Acids are the chemicalsubstances that release H+ ions in water. Example: Sulphuric acid
(H2SO4), Acetic Acid (CH3COOH), Nitric Acid (HNO3) etc.
Properties of Acids:
5
 ● Acids have sour taste.
● Turns blue litmus red.
● Acid solution conducts electricity.
● Release H+ ions in aqueous solution.
Types of Acids: Acids are divided into two types on the basis of their occurrence i.e., Natural acids and
Mineral acids.
(i) Natural Acids: Acids which are obtained from natural sources are called Natural Acids or Organic
Acids. Methanoic acid (HCOOH), Acetic acid (CH3COOH), Oxalic acid etc.
(ii) Mineral Acids: Acids that are prepared from minerals are known as Mineral Acids. Example;
Hydrochloric acid (HCl), Sulphuric acid (H2SO4), Nitric acid (HNO3), Carbonic acid (H2CO3) Phosphoric acid
(H3PO4) etc.

Chemical Properties of Acid:

(i) Reaction of acids with metal: Acids give hydrogen gas along with respective salt when they react with a
metal. Example: Zn (s) + 2HCl (aq) ZnCl2 (aq) + H2 (g)
Test for Hydrogen Gas: The gas evolved after reaction of acid with metal can be tested by bringing a lighted
candle near it. If the gas burns with a pop sound, then it confirms the evolution of hydrogen gas. Burning with
pop sound is the characteristic test for hydrogen gas.
(ii) Reaction of Acid with Metal Oxides: Metal oxides are basic in nature. Thus, when an acid reacts with a
metal oxide both neutralize each other. In this reaction, the respective salt and water are formed.
Examples: 2HCl (aq) + CaO (aq) CaCl2(aq) + H2O (l)
(iii) Reaction of acids with metal carbonate/metal Hydrogen carbonate: Acids give carbon dioxide gas and
respective salts along with water when they react with metal carbonates and Hydrogen carbonates.
Examples: Na2CO3 (aq) + 2HCl (aq) 2NaCl (aq) + CO2 (g) + H2O (l)
2NaHCO3 (aq) + H2SO4 (aq) Na2SO4 (aq) + CO2 (g) + H2O (l)

TYPES OF ACIDS:
Strong Acids: An acid which is completely ionized in water and produces (H+) is called Strong Acid.
Examples: Hydrochloric acid (HCl), Sulphuric acid (H2SO4), Nitric acid (HNO3)
Weak Acids: An acid which is partially ionized in water and thus produces a small amount of hydrogen ions
(H+) is called a Weak Acid.
Example: Acetic acid (CH3COOH), Carbonic acid (H2CO3)

Dilution of acid: Dilution of an acid is an exothermic process. We should add acid into water not water into
acid slowly with constant stirring.
Bases: Bases are the chemical substances that give hydroxide ions (OH–) in aqueous solution. Examples:
Sodium hydroxide (caustic soda) – NaOH, Calcium hydroxide – Ca(OH)2 Potassium hydroxide (caustic
potash) – (KOH)
Properties of Bases:
● Have a bitter taste. ● Conducts electricity in solution.
● Soapy to touch. ● Release OH– ions in aqueous Solution.
● Turns red litmus blue.
Types of bases: Bases can be divided in two types – Water soluble and Water-insoluble.
Water soluble bases are known as alkalis. For example NaOH, Mg (OH)2, Ca(OH)2
Chemical properties of bases:
1. Reaction of Base with Metals: When alkali (base) reacts with metal, it produces salt and hydrogen gas.
Example: Sodium hydroxide gives hydrogen gas and sodium zincate when reacts with zinc metal.
2NaOH (aq) + Zn (s) Na2ZnO2(aq) + H2 (g)
2. Reaction of Base with Oxides of Non-metals: When a base reacts with non-metal oxide (acidic in nature),
both neutralize each other resulting respective salt and water.
6
Example: 2NaOH (aq) + CO2 (g) Na2CO3(aq) + H2O (l)
3. Neutralisation Reaction: An acid neutralizes a base when they react with each other and respective salt
and water are formed.
Example: HCl (aq) + NaOH (aq) NaCl(aq) + H2O (l)

Salts: Salts are the ionic compounds which are produced after the neutralization reaction between acid and
base.
Acid + Base → Salt + Water
HCl (aq) + NaOH (aq) NaCl (aq) + H2O (l)
Example: Sodium chloride (NaCl), Sodium Sulphate (Na2SO4), Calcium chloride (CaCl2), Calcium sulphate
(CaSO4), Zinc chloride (ZnCl2) and Zinc sulphate (ZnSO4)
Types of Salts:
(i) Neutral Salts: Reaction between strong acid and strong base or reaction between weak acid and weak
base results into neutral salts. The pH value of such salts is equal to 7. examples: Sodium chloride, Sodium
sulphate, Potassium chloride, ammonium acetate etc.
(ii) Acidic Salts: Reaction between a strong acid and weak base results into acidic salts. The pH value of
acidic salt is lower than 7. For examples: Ammonium chloride, Ammonium sulphate etc.
(iii) Basic Salts: Reaction between a weak acid and strong base results in basic salt. eg; Sodium carbonate,
Sodium acetate, etc.

pH Scale: Scale to measure the strength of acid or base.

Strength of Acid and Base: Acids/ bases in which complete dissociation of hydrogen ion/ hydroxide ions takes
place are called Strong Acids/Strong Bases.

In mineral acid, such as hydrochloric acid, sulphuric acid, nitric acid, etc. hydrogen ion dissociates completely
and hence, they are considered as strong acids. Since in inorganic acids hydrogen ions do not dissociate
completely, so they are weak acids.
pH is equal to the logarithm to the base 10, inverse of hydrogen ion concentration.
pH = -log [H+] = log {1/[H+]}
Higher the hydronium ion concentration presents in the solution, lower is its pH value.
For water or neutral solutions: pH = 7 for acidic solutions: pH < 7, for basic solution: pH > 7
Importance of pH in everyday life:
(i) pH in our digestive system: Dilute HCl (Hydrochloric acid) helps in digestion of food (proteins) in our
stomach. Excess acid in stomach causes acidity (indigestion). Antacids like magnesium hydroxide [Mg (OH)2]
also known as milk of magnesia and sodium hydrogen carbonate (baking soda) are used to neutralize excess
acid.
(ii) Tooth decay caused by acids: The bacteria present in our mouth converts the sugar into acids. When the
pH of acid formed in the mouth falls below 5.5, tooth-decaying starts. The excess acid has to be removed by
cleaning the teeth with toothpaste which are alkaline in nature.
(iii) Soil pH and plant growth: Most of the plants have a healthy growth when the soil has a specific pH
(close to 7) range which should be neither alkaline nor highly acidic.
● If soil is acidic, quicklime or limestone is added to neutralize the soil.
● If soil is basic, manure is added to neutralize.

7
Some Important Chemical Compounds
1. Common Salt (Sodium Chloride): Sodium chloride (NaCl) is also known as Common or Table Salt. It is
formed after the reaction between sodium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid. It is a neutral salt. The pH value of
sodium chloride is about 7. Sodium chloride is used to enhance the taste of food. Sodium chloride is used in the
manufacturing of many chemicals.
HCl (aq) + NaOH (aq) NaCl (aq) + H2O (l)
2. Sodium Hydroxide (NaOH): Sodium hydroxide is a
strong base. It is also known as caustic soda. It is
obtained by the electrolytic decomposition of solution of
sodium chloride (brine). In this process, chlorine is
obtained at anode and hydrogen gas is obtained at
cathode as by products. This whole process is known
as Chlor – Alkali process.
2NaCl (aq) + 2H2O (l)  2NaOH (aq) + Cl2 (g) + H2 (g)
3. Bleaching Powder (CaOCl2): It is a solid and
yellowish white in colour. Bleaching powder can be easily identified by the strong smell of chlorine.
When calcium hydroxide (slaked lime) reacts with chlorine, it gives calcium oxychloride (bleaching powder) and
water is formed. Ca (OH)2 (aq) + Cl2 (aq) CaOCl2 (aq) + H2O (l)
Use of Bleaching Powder:
● Bleaching powder is used as disinfectant to clean water.
● Bleaching powder is used for bleaching of cotton in textile industry, bleaching of wood pulp in paper
industry.
● Bleaching powder is used as oxidizing agent in many industries, such as textiles industry, paper industry,
etc. and in manufacturing of chloroform.
4. Baking Soda (NaHCO3): The chemical name of baking soda is sodium hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO3) or
sodium bicarbonate.
Preparation: Baking soda is obtained by the reaction of brine with carbon dioxide and ammonia. This is
known as Solvay process.
NaCl + H2O + CO2 + NH3 NH4Cl + NaHCO3
Properties of Sodium Bicarbonate:
● Sodium bicarbonate is white crystalline solid.
● Sodium hydrogen carbonate is sparingly soluble in water.
● When baking soda is heated, it decomposes into sodium carbonate, carbon dioxide and water.
2NaHCO3 + heat → Na2CO3 + CO2 + H2O
Use of Baking Soda:
● Baking soda is used in making of baking powder, which is used in cooking as it produces carbon dioxide
which makes the batter soft and spongy.
● Baking soda is used as an antacid.
● It is used in soda-acid fire extinguisher.
● It is used for making baking powder which is a mixture of baking soda and a mild edible acid such as
tartaric acid
5. Washing Soda (Sodium Carbonate Decahydrate) Na2CO3.10H2O
Preparation: Sodium carbonate is manufactured by the thermal decomposition of sodium hydrogen carbonate
obtained by Solvay process. 2NaHCO3 + Heat → Na2CO3 + CO2 + H2O
NaHCO3 + 10H2O  NaHCO3.10H2O
The sodium carbonate obtained in this process is dry. It is called Soda ash or anhydrous sodium carbonate.
Washing soda is obtained by rehydration of anhydrous sodium carbonate.
8
 Na2CO3 + 10H2O → Na2CO3 .10H2O
Since there are 10 water molecules in washing soda, hence, it is known as Sodium Carbonate decahydrate.
Sodium carbonate is a crystalline solid and it is soluble in water when most of the carbonates are insoluble in
water.
Use of sodium carbonate:
● It is used in the cleaning of clothes.
● In removing the permanent hardness of water.
● It is used in soap, glass and paper industries.
6. Plaster of Paris: Calcium sulphate hemihydrate [CaSO4. ½ H2O]
373K
CaSO4.2H2O CaSO4. ½ H2O + 3/2H2O
Plaster of Paris

CaSO4.1/2H2O + 3/2H2O CaSO4.2H2O (Gypsum)

Water of crystallization: CaSO4.2H2O(gypsum), CaSO4.1/2H2O (POP), CuSO4.5H2O (blue vitriol),
Na2CO3.10H2O (washing soda), FeSO4.7H2O (green vitriol).
Multiple Choice Questions
1. An aqueous solution turns red litmus solution blue. Excess addition of which of the following solution would
reverse the change?
(a) Baking powder (b) Lime (c) Ammonium hydroxide solution (d)Hydrochloric acid
2. Bleaching powder gives smell of chlorine because it-
(a) contains excess of chlorine (b) gives chlorine on exposure to atmosphere
(c) is unstable (d) is a mixture of chlorine and slaked lime.
3. A solution turns red litmus blue, Its pH is likely to be
(a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 10
4. A solution reacts with crushed egg-shells to give a gas that turns lime-water milky. The solution contains
(a) NaCl (b) HCl (c) LiCl (d) KCl
5. Which of the following is the synthetic indicator?
(a) Methyl orange (b) Phenolphthalein (c) China rose (d) Both (a) and (b)
6. Which of the following acids is present in sour milk?
(a)Glycolic acid (b) Oxalic acid (c) Lactic acid (d) Citric acid
7. Which of the following statements is incorrect about bases?
(a)Bases are bitter in taste (b) They are soapy to touch
(c)They are corrosive in nature (d) All bases are alkalis.
8. Which of the following statements is correct about an aqueous solution of an acid and a base?
1. Higher the pH, stronger the acid.
2. Higher the pH, weaker the acid.
3. Lower the pH, stronger the base.
4. Lower the pH, weaker the base.
(a) 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
9. Baking powder is a mixture of
(a) Sodium carbonate and acetic acid (b) Sodium carbonate and tartaric acid
(c) Sodium hydrogen carbonate and tartaric acid (d) Sodium hydrogen carbonate and acetic acid.
10. Which of the following salts does not contain water of crystallization?
(a) Blue vitriol (b) Washing soda (c) Baking soda (d) Gypsum
ANSWERS
Q1. (d) Q2. (b) Q3. (d) Q4. (b) Q5. (d)
Q6. (c) Q7. (d) Q8. (a) Q9. (c) Q10. (c)

ASSERTION-REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

9
In the following questions, two statements are given: one labeled Assertion(A) and the other labeled
Reason(R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a)Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b)Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c)Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d)Assertion is false and Reason are true.
1.Assertion: Salts of strong acids and weak bases are basic in nature.
Reason: pH value of such salt is more than 7.

2.Assertion: On heating, colour of hydrated copper sulphate changes from blue to white.
Reason: Copper sulphate is a crystalline salt.

3. Assertion: Most of factory wastes are considered acidic in nature.

Reason: Usually, bases are added to all factory wastes before discharging into the water bodies

4.Assertion: If the pH inside the mouth decreases below 5.5, the decay of tooth enamel begins.
Reason: The bacteria present in mouth degrades the sugar and left-over food particles and produce bases
that remain in the mouth after eating.

5.Assertion: Sodium hydroxide reacts with zinc to produce hydrogen gas.

Reason: Acids reacts with active metals to produce hydrogen gas.

ANSWERS: 1-d, 2-a, 3-a, 4-c, 5-b

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [2 MARKS]

1. A student detected the pH of four unknown solution A, B, C and D as follows 11, 5, 7 and 2.
Predict the nature of the solutions.
Ans. A is basic, B is acidic, C is natural and D is strongly acidic.
2. How will you test for the gas which is liberated when hydrochloric acid reacts with an active metal?
Ans. Bring a burning matchstick near the gas. It burns with a ‘pop’ sound showing that it is hydrogen.
3. (a) Write the name given to bases that are highly soluble in water. Give an example.
(b)How is tooth decay related to pH? How can it be prevented?
(c ) Why does bee sting cause pain and irritation? Rubbing of baking soda on the sting area gives relief.
How?
Ans. (a) Alkali, e.g. NaOH (Sodium hydroxide).
(b) Lower the pH more will be tooth decay. Acid reacts with Ca3 (PO4)2 and cause tooth decay.
It can be prevented by brushing teeth after every meal.
(c) It is due to formic acid. Sodium hydrogen carbonates (Baking soda) neutralizes formic acid giving relief.
4. A white powder is added while baking breads and cakes to make them soft and fluffy. Write the name of the
powder. Name its main ingredients. Explain the function of each ingredient.
Write the chemical reaction taking place when the powder is heated during baking.
Ans. Baking powder. It consists of sodium hydrogen carbonates and tartaric acid. Sodium hydrogencarbonate
gives CO2 which makes cake soft and fluffy. Tartaric acid neutralizes the bitterness due to sodium carbonate
produced. 2NaHCO3 (s) Na2CO3 (s) + CO2 (g) + H2O (l)
5. A student dropped few pieces of marble in dilute hydrochloric acid, contained in a test-tube. The evolved gas
was then passed through lime water. What change would be observed in lime water? What will happen if excess
of gas is passed through lime water? With the help of balanced chemical equations for all the changes explain
the observations.
Ans. CaCO3 (s) + 2HCl (dilute) CaCl2 (s) + CO2 (g) + H2O (l)
Lime water turns milky due to liberation of CO2.
Ca (OH)2 (aq) + CO2 (g) CaCO3 (s) + H2O (l)
If excess of CO2 gas is passed through lime water, milkiness will disappear due to the formation of Ca(HCO3)2
(aq) which is soluble in water. CaCO3 (s) + CO2 (g) + H2O (l) Ca (HCO3)2 (aq)
10
6. 15 mL of water and 10 mL of Sulphuric acid are to be mixed in a beaker
(i)State the method that should be followed with reason.
(ii)What is this process called?
Ans. (i)The acid is to be added slowly in water to prevent the mixture to be splashed. The reaction is highly
exothermic; therefore, constant cooling should be done.
(ii)The process is called dilution.
7. Plaster of Paris should be stored in a moisture proof container. Explain why?
Ans. Plaster of Paris should be stored in moisture-proof container because moisture will convert
8. A white coloured powder is used by doctors for supporting fractured bones.
(a)Write chemical name and formula of the powder.
(b)When this white powder is mixed with water a hard solid mass is obtained. Write balanced chemical
equation for the change.
Ans. (a) Calcium sulphate hemihydrate (CaSO4 .1/2 H2O)
(b) CaSO4 .1/2 H2O + 3/2 H2O CaSO4. 2H2O
9.A metal compound ‘A’ reacts with dil. sulphuric acid to produce effervescence, The gas evolved extinguishes
a burning candle. If one of the compounds formed in the above reaction is calcium sulphate, then name the
compound ‘A’ and the gas evolved? Also, write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction that occurred.
Ans. ‘A’ is CaCO3 (calcium carbonate). The gas liberated is CO2 as it extinguishes a burning candle.
A Calcium sulphate formed CaCO3 + H2SO4 (dil)  CaSO4 + H2O + CO2
10. State reason for the following statements:
(a)Dry hydrogen chloride gas does not turn blue litmus red whereas dilute hydrochloric acid does.
(b)During summer season, a milk man usually adds a very small amount of baking soda to fresh milk.
Ans. (a) Dry HCl gas will not form ions but dil. HCl gives H+ and Cl–.
(b) Baking soda solution will not allow milk to change into lactic acid that makes milk taste sour.

CASE BASED QUESTIONS (4 MARKS)

1. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
Priyanka performed an experiment to understand that heat is produced when a few drops of concentrated
sulphuric acid is slowly added into a beaker containing water. For this, she took 10 ml water in a beaker and
added a few drops concentrated sulphuric acid to it. Then she swirled the beaker slowly. During the process, a
vigorous reaction takes place. It is an exothermic process.
(a) Why is it recommended that acid should be added to water and not water to the acid?
Ans. Dilution of concentrated acid is an exothermic process. If water is added to a concentrated acid, the heat
may splash out and cause burns.
(b) How will the concentration of hydrogen ions get affected by this process?
Ans. Concentration of H+ ions decreases.
(c) What is this process called? Define the process.
Ans. This process is called dilution. It is the process of mixing an acid or a base with water to decrease the
concentration of H+/OH- ions per unit volume.
OR
(c) If we have hydrochloric acid and acetic acid of equal concentration, which one will be a strong acid and
why?
Ans. Hydrochloric acid will be a strong acid as it produces more H+ ions.

CHAPTER 3
METALS AND NON-METALS
Metals: Elements that are electropositive in nature are called metals. It means metals lose electrons to form
positive ions, e.g. copper.
Physical Properties of Metals:
● Hardness: Most of the metals are hard, except alkali metals, such as sodium, potassium; lithium, etc. are
very soft metals. These can be cut by using a knife.
11
 ● Strength: Most of the metals are strong and have high tensile strength. Because of this, big structures are
made using metals, such as copper (Cu) and iron (Fe). (Except Sodium (Na) and potassium (K) which are
soft metals).
● State: Metals are solid at room temperature except for mercury (Hg).
● Sound: Metals produce ringing sound, so, metals are called Sonorous. Sound of metals is also known as
Metallic sound. This is the cause that metal wires are used in making musical instruments.
● Conduction: Metals are a good conductor of heat and electricity. This is the cause that electric wires are
made of metals like copper and aluminium.
● Malleability: Metals are malleable. This means metals can be beaten into a thin sheet. Because of this
property, iron is used in making big ships.
● Ductility: Metals are ductile. This means metals can be drawn into thin wire. Because of this property,
wire is made up of metals.
● Melting and Boiling Point: Metals have generally high melting and boiling points. (Except sodium and
potassium metals which have low melting and boiling point.)
● Density: Most of the metals have high density.
● Colour: Most of the metals are grey in colour. But gold and copper are exceptions.
Chemical Properties of Metals
1. Reaction with oxygen: Most of the metals form respective metal oxides when they react with oxygen.
Metal + Oxygen → Metal Oxide
● Reaction of Potassium with Oxygen: Potassium metal forms potassium oxide when it reacts with
oxygen. 4K + O2  2K2O
● Reaction of Sodium with Oxygen: Sodium metal forms sodium oxide when it reacts with oxygen.
4Na + O2  2Na2O
Lithium, potassium, sodium metals react vigorously with oxygen.
● Reaction of Copper metal with Oxygen: Copper does not react with oxygen at room temperature but
when burnt in air, it gives copper (II) oxide. 2Cu + O2  2CuO
Silver, gold and platinum do not combine with oxygen of air even at high temperature. They are the
least reactive metals.
2. Reaction of metals with water: Metals form respective hydroxide and hydrogen gas is liberated when they
react with water. Metal + Water Metal hydroxide + Hydrogen gas
Most of the metals do not react with water. However, Lithium, potassium, sodium react vigorously with water.
● Reaction of Sodium metal with Water: Sodium metal forms sodium hydroxide and liberates hydrogen
gas along with lot of heat when it reacts with water. 2Na + 2H2O  2NaOH + H2
● Reaction of Calcium metal with Water: Calcium forms calcium hydroxide along with hydrogen gas and
heat when it reacts with water. Ca + 2H2O  Ca (OH)2 + H2
● Reaction of Magnesium metal with Water: Magnesium metal reacts with water slowly and forms
magnesium hydroxide and hydrogen gas. Mg + 2H2O Mg (OH) 2 + H2
● Reaction of Aluminium metal with Water: Reaction of aluminium metal with cold water is too slow to
come into notice. But when steam is passed over aluminium metal, aluminium oxide and hydrogen gas
are produced. 2Al + 3H2O Al2O3 + 2H2
● Reaction of Zinc metal with Water: Zinc metal produces zinc oxide and hydrogen gas when steam is
passed over it. Zinc does not react with cold water. Zn +H2O  ZnO + H2
● Reaction of Iron with Water: Iron forms rust (iron oxide) when reacts with moisture present in the
atmosphere. Iron oxide and hydrogen gas are formed by passing of steam over iron metal.
2Fe + 3H2O  Fe2O3 + 3H2
12
 ● Both calcium (Ca) and magnesium (Mg) are heavier than water but still float over it: Both calcium
and magnesium float over water surface because hydrogen gas is evolved when these metals react with
water. It is in the form of bubbles which stick on the metal surface. Therefore, they float over it.
Ca + 2H2O Ca (OH)2 + H2
Other metals usually do not react with water or react very slowly. Lead, copper, silver and gold do not react with
steam.
Reaction of metals with dilute acid: Metals form respective salts on reaction with dilute acid.
Metal + dil. acid Metal salt + Hydrogen
● Reaction of Sodium metal with dilute hydrochloric acid: Sodium metal gives sodium chloride and
hydrogen gas when sodium reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid.
2Na + 2HCl 2NaCl + H2
● Reaction of Magnesium metal with dilute hydrochloric acid: Magnesium chloride and hydrogen gas
are formed when magnesium reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid.
Mg + 2HCl MgCl2 + H2
● Reaction of Zinc with dilute Sulphuric acid: Zinc sulphate and hydrogen gas are formed when zinc
reacts with dilute Sulphuric acid. This method is used in the laboratory to produce hydrogen gas.
Zn + H2SO4 ZnSO4 + H2
Hydrogen (H2) gas is not evolved when metal is treated with nitric acid (HNO3):
Nitric acid is strong oxidising agent and it oxidizes the hydrogen gas (H2) liberated into water (H2O) and itself
get reduced to some oxide of nitrogen like nitrous oxide N2O, nitric oxide (NO) and nitrogen dioxide (NO2).
Copper, gold, silver are known as noble metals. These do not react with water or dilute acids.
3. Reaction of metals with solution of other metal salts: Reaction of metals with the solution of other metal
salt is displacement reaction. In this reaction, more reactive metal displaces the less reactive metal from its salt.
Metal A + Salt of metal B Salt of metal A + Metal B
Examples:
Iron displaces copper from copper sulphate solution.
Fe + CuSO4 FeSO4 + Cu
Similarly, aluminium and zinc displace copper from the solution of copper sulphate.
2Al + 3CuSO4 Al2 (SO4)3 + 3Cu
Zn + CuSO4 ZnSO4 + Cu
In all the above examples, iron, aluminium and zinc are more reactive than copper. This is why they displace
copper from its salt solution.
When copper is dipped in the solution of silver nitrate, it displaces silver and forms copper nitrate.
Cu + 2AgNO3 Cu (NO3)2 + 2Ag
In the reaction, copper is more reactive than silver and hence, displaces silver from silver nitrate solution.
Silver metal does not react with copper sulphate solution because silver is less reactive than copper and not
able to displace copper from its salt solution.
Ag + CuSO4 No reaction
Metal Oxides: Metal oxides are basic in nature. The aqueous solution of metal oxides turns red litmus blue.
1. Reaction of Metal oxides with Water: Most of the metal oxides are insoluble in water. Sodium, Potassium
metal oxides are soluble in water. These give strong base when dissolved in water.
Na2O + H2O 2NaOH K2O + H2O 2KOH
2. Reaction of Zinc oxide and Aluminium oxide: Aluminium oxide and zinc oxide are insoluble in water.
Aluminium oxide and zinc oxide are amphoteric in nature because they shows both acidic and basic characters.
It reacts with base like acid and reacts with an acid like a base.
When zinc oxide reacts with sodium hydroxide, it behaves like an acid. In this reaction, sodium zincate and water
are formed. ZnO + 2NaOH Na2ZnO2 + H2O
Zinc oxide behaves like a base when reacts with acid. Zinc oxide gives zinc chloride and water on reaction with
hydrochloric acid. ZnO + 2HCl ZnCl2 + H2O
Similarly, Aluminium oxide gives sodium aluminate along with water when it reacts with sodium hydroxide.
13
 Al2O3 + 2NaOH 2NaAlO2 + H2O
Aluminium oxide gives aluminium chloride along with water when it reacts with hydrochloric acid.
Al2O3 + 6HCl 2AlCl3 + 3H2O

Reactivity Series of Metals: The order of intensity or reactivity of metal is known as Reactivity Series.
Reactivity of elements decreases on moving from top to bottom in the given reactivity series.

Non-Metals: Elements that are electronegative in nature are called non-metals. It means non- metals gain
electrons to form negative ions, e.g. iodine, oxygen, chlorine
Physical properties of non-metals
● Hardness: Non-metals are not hard rather they are generally soft. But diamond, an allotrope of carbon is
an exception; it is the hardest naturally occurring substance.
● State: Non-metals may be solid, liquid or gas.
● Luster: Non-metals have a dull appearance. Diamond and iodine are exceptions.
● Sonority: Non-metals are not sonorous, i.e., they do not produce a typical sound on being hit.
● Conduction: Non-metals are a bad conductor of heat and electricity. Graphite which is allotrope of carbon
is a good conductor of electricity and is an exception.
● Malleability and ductility: Non-metals are brittle.
● Melting and boiling point: Non-metals have generally low melting and boiling point, except diamond
● Density: Most of the non-metals have low density.
● Colour: Non-metals are in many colours.
Chemical properties of Non-metals:
1. Reaction of Non-metals with Oxygen: Non-metals form respective oxide when they react with oxygen.
Non-metal + Oxygen → Non-metallic oxide
● When carbon reacts with oxygen, carbon dioxide is formed along with the production of heat.
C + O2 CO2 + heat
● When carbon is burnt in an insufficient supply of air, it forms carbon monoxide. Carbon monoxide is a
toxic gas. 2C + O2  2CO + heat
● Sulphur gives sulphur dioxide when reacting with oxygen. Sulphur catches fire when exposed to air.
S + O2SO2
● When hydrogen reacts with oxygen it gives water. 2H2 + O2 2H2O
2. Reaction of Non-metal with Chlorine: Non-metal gives respective chloride when they react with chlorine
gas. Non-metal + Chlorine → Non-metal chloride

14
Hydrogen gives hydrogen chloride and phosphorous gives phosphorous trichloride on reacting with chlorine.
H2 + Cl2  2HCl P4 + 6Cl2  4PCl3
3. Reaction of Non-metals with Hydrogen: Non-metals reacts with hydrogen to form covalent hydrides.
Non-metal + Hydrogen Covalent Hydride
Sulphur combines with hydrogen to form a covalent hydride called as Hydrogen sulphide.
H2 + S  H2S
Nitrogen combines with hydrogen in presence of an iron catalyst to form covalent hydride ammonia.
Fe
N2 + 3H2 2NH3
Non-metals do not react with water (or steam) to evolve Hydrogen gas.
Non-metals do not react with dilute acids.
Non-metallic Oxide: Non-metallic oxides are acidic in nature. The solution of non-metal oxides turns blue
litmus red.
● Carbon dioxide gives carbonic acid when dissolved in water. CO2 + H2OH2CO3
● Sulphur dioxide gives sulphurous acid when dissolved in water. SO2 + H2O  H2SO3
Sulphur dioxide gives Sulphurtrioxide, which forms Sulphuric acid when reacts with water.
SO2 + 2O2  2SO3
SO3 + H2O  H2SO4
Difference between Metals and Non-metals:
Metals Non-metals
1. Metals generally occur as hard solid 1. Non-metals generally occur in all the three
substances. forms of matter- solid, liquid and gases.
2. Metals are malleable and ductile. 2. Non-metals are not malleable and ductile.
3. Metals produce ringing sound on striking 3. Non-metals do not show this sonorous
which is called their sonorous property. property.
4. Metals are good conductors of heat and 4. Non-metals are poor conductors of heat and
electricity. electricity with the exception of graphite which
is a good conductor of heat and electricity.
Ionic Compounds
Compounds which are composed of ions held together by electrostatic forces. Metals and non-metals react
with each other to form ionic compounds
Formation of ionic compound
● Metals lose electrons and form cations (+ve ions).
● Non-metals gain electrons and form anions (–ve ions).
● Oppositely charged ions attract each other and are held by strong electrostatic forces of attraction forming
ionic compounds.
Ionic Bonds: Ionic bonds are formed because of transfer of electrons from metal to non-metal. In this course,
metals get positive charge because of transfer of electrons and non-metal gets negative charge because of
acceptance of electrons. In other words, bond formed between positive and negative ion is called Ionic Bond or
electrovalent bond.
Some examples are given below:
Formation of Sodium Chloride (NaCl): In sodium chloride, sodium is a metal and chlorine is a non-metal.
Atomic number of sodium Na= 11 (2, 8, 1)
Atomic number of chlorine, Cl= 17 (2, 8, 7)

Formation of Calcium Chloride (CaCl2):

Atomic number of sodium Ca= 20 (2, 8, 8, 2)
Atomic number of chlorine, Cl= 17 (2, 8, 7)

15
Properties of Ionic Compounds:
Properties of ionic compounds are as follows.
1. Physical nature: Ionic compounds are solids and hard due to the strong attracting force between the
positive and negative ions. These compounds are generally brittle and break into pieces on applied
pressure.
2. Melting and boiling point: Ionic compounds have high melting and boiling points because only large
amount of energy can break the strong inter-ionic attraction.
3. Solubility: Ionic compounds are soluble in water but insoluble in organic solvents like kerosene, petrol, etc.
4. Conduction of Electricity: Conduction of electricity through a solution is possible when there is movement
of charged particles. Ionic compounds in the solid state do not conduct electricity because movement of
ions in the solid is not possible due to their rigid structure.
A solution of an ionic compound in water contains ions, which move to the opposite electrodes when electricity
is passed through the solution. Ionic compounds conduct electricity in the molten state as in the molten state the
electrostatic forces of attraction between the oppositely charged ions overcome due to the heat. Thus, the ions
move freely and conduct electricity.

OCCURRENCE OF METALS
Minerals: Naturally occurring elements or compounds in the earth crust.
Ores: Mineral from which metal can be profitably extracted is an ore.
Gangue: Naturally found mixed impurities like soil, sand, etc in ore is called gangue.
Metallurgy: The step-wise process of obtaining metal from its ore includes
● Enrichment of ore
● Obtaining metal from enriched ore.
● Refining of impure metal to obtain pure metal
1. EXTRACTING METALS LOW IN THE ACTIVITY SERIES:
By heating the ores in air at high temperature. Ores of metal mercury, copper etc.
(a) Mercury from cinnabar: Mercury sulphide + Oxygen + Heat → Mercury oxide + Sulphur dioxide
2HgS + 3O2 + Heat → 2HgO + 2SO2
2HgO + Heat → 2Hg + O2 Mercury oxide + Heat → Mercury + Oxygen
(b) Copper from copper sulphide: Copper sulphide +Oxygen + Heat → Copper oxide +Sulphur dioxide
Cu2S + 3O2 + Heat → 2Cu2O + 2SO2
Copper oxide + Copper sulphide + Heat → Copper + Sulphur
2Cu2O + Cu2S + Heat → 6Cu + SO2
2. EXTRACTING METALS IN THE MIDDLE OF ACTIVITY SERIES:
Step 1. Metals are easier to obtain from oxide ores; thus, sulphide and carbonate ores are converted into oxides.
(a) Metal ore heated strongly in excess of air (Roasting)
2ZnS + 3O2 + Heat → 2ZnO + 2SO2
Zinc sulphide + Oxygen + Heat → Zinc oxide + Sulphur dioxide
(b) Metal ore heated strongly in limited or no supply of air (Calcination)
ZnCO3 + Heat → ZnO + CO2
Zinc carbonate + heat → Zinc oxide + Carbon dioxide
Step 2. Reduction of Metal Oxide:
(a) USING COKE: Coke as a reducing agent. ZnO + C + Heat → Zn + CO
Zinc oxide + carbon + heat → zinc + carbon monoxide

16
 (b) USING DISPLACEMENT REACTION: highly reactive metal like Na, Ca and Al are used to displace metals
of lower reactivity from their compounds. MnO2 + 4Al + Heat → 3Mn + 2Al2O3+ heat
Manganese dioxide+Aluminium+heat → Manganese +Aluminium oxide + heat
Fe2O3+ 2Al + Heat → 2Fe + Al2O3+ heat
Iron oxide + Aluminium + heat → iron + Aluminium oxide + heat
Thermite reaction: The method of reduction of medium reactivity metal oxides by heating with aluminum
powder is called as thermite process because lot of heat is produced in the reaction. It is used to join railway
tracks. Example: Fe2O3+ 2Al + Heat → 2Fe + Al2O3+ heat
3. Extracting Metals at the Top of Activity Series: These metals have more affinity for oxygen than
carbon. They are obtained by electrolytic reduction. Example: Sodium is obtained by electrolysis of its molten
sodium chloride. Sodium chloride → sodium + chlorine [NaCl → Na + Cl2]
As electricity is passed through the solution, metal gets deposited at cathode and non-metal at anode.
At cathode: At anode:
Na + e → Na
+ –
2Cl– → Cl2 + 2e–

Refining of Metals: Impurities present in the obtained metal can be

removed by electrolytic refining.
Pure Copper is obtained using this method.
Following are present inside the electrolytic tank.
Anode: slab of impure copper
Cathode: slab of pure copper
Electrolytic Solution: aqueous solution of copper sulphate
with some dilute sulphuric acid
From anode copper ions are released in the solution and equivalent amount of copper from solution is
deposited at cathode.
Impurities containing silver and gold gets deposited at the bottom of anode as anode mud.

Corrosion
Corrosion is an electrochemical process in which redox reactions occur between the metal and water, oxygen
and sulphur dioxide, etc. It is a spontaneous and irreversible process in which the metal changes into chemical
compounds such as oxide, sulphide and hydroxides, etc.
Silver - it reacts with sulphur in air to form silver sulphide and articles become black. (Ag2S)
Copper - reacts with moist carbon dioxide in air and gains a green coat of copper carbonate. (CuCO3. Cu (OH)2)
Iron-acquires a coating of a brown flaky substance called rust. Both air and moisture are necessary for rusting of
iron. 4Fe + 3O2 → 2Fe2O3
2Fe2O3 + xH2O → Fe2O3.xH2O (rust)
Methods to prevent corrosion
(i) Electroplating: In this method, an electric current is used to create a thin layer of metal over another
metal. It is done to make cheaper metals more appealing as well as to protect them from corrosion.
(ii) Galvanization: In this method, iron is coated with a layer of zinc. The iron is dipped in the molten zinc.
The layer of zinc protects the iron from corrosion.
(iii) Painting and Greasing: In this method, a layer is created over the metal surface by painting or greasing.
This layer of paint or grease protects the metal from corrosion. Carbon fibre coating can be used for this
purpose.
(iv) Selection of Material: Select the materials that are not affected by corrosion. For example, stainless
steel and aluminium are resistant to corrosion.
17
 (v) Dry and clean: Keep the metal surface dry and clean.
Alloys: Homogenous mixture of metals with metals or non-metals.
● Steels is formed by adding small amount of carbon to iron making it hard and strong.
● Stainless steel is obtained by mixing iron with nickel and chromium. It is hard and doesn’t rust.
● Mercury is added to other metals to make amalgam.
● Brass: An alloy of copper and zinc.
● Bronze: An alloy of copper and tin.
[In brass and bronze, melting point and electrical conductivity is lower than that of pure metal.]
● Solder: An alloy of lead and tin has low melting point and is used for welding electrical wires.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 MARK)
1. Gold is used for making jewelry. What are the properties of gold that make it a suitable metal for
making jewelry?
(a) Ductility (b) Malleability (c) Lustrous (d) All of these
2. Aluminium is used for making cooking utensils. What properties of Aluminium are responsible for the
same?
1. Good thermal conductivity 2. Good electrical conductivity
3. Ductility 4. High melting point
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4
3. Which of the following oxide of iron would be obtained on prolonged reaction of iron with steam?
(a) FeO (b) Fe2O3 (c) Fe3O4 (d) Fe2O3 and Fe3O4
4. Observe the figure and identify the gas X and its identifying test:
(a) Sulphur dioxide – pungent smell
(b) hydrogen- burn with pop sound
(c) hydrogen- brisk effervescence
(d) hydrogen sulphide- rotten egg like smell
5. An element X loses electron which is gained by Y another element to
form a compound Z. which of the following property is not shown by Z?
(a) High melting point
(b) Get dissolved in organic solvent like kerosene.
(c) Conducts electricity in molten state.
(d) Occur as solid at room temperature.
6. During electrolytic refining of zinc, pure zinc gets
(a) deposited on cathode (b) deposited on anode
(c) deposited on cathode as well as anode (d) remains in the solution
7. Thermite reaction is used for repairing railway tracks because:
(a) It is a highly exothermic reaction (b) Elemental iron is produced
(c) Both a and b (d) None of (a) and (b)
Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting
the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
8. Assertion(A): Calcium floats on water.
Reason(R): Calcium reacts with cold water.
9. Assertion(A): Aluminium oxide and zinc oxide are acidic in nature
Reason(R): Amphoteric nature means that the substance has both acidic and basic character

18
10. Assertion(A): Hydrogen gas is not evolved when most metal reacts with nitric acid.
Reason(R): Nitric acid is a strong oxidising agent.
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (b)
6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (a)

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS)

1. Name the following:
(a) A metal, which is preserved in kerosene.
(b)A lustrous coloured non-metal.
(c) A metal, which can melt while kept on palm.
(d)A metal, which is a poor conductor of heat.
Ans. (a) Sodium/ Potassium (b) Iodine (c) Gallium (d) Lead

2. Show the formation of Magnesium chloride.

Ans.

3. Write two differences between calcination and roasting.

Ans.
Calcination Roasting
(i) It is carried out by heating ore in the (i) It is carried out by heating ore in
absence of air. the presence of air.
(ii) It converts carbonate ores into (ii) It converts sulphide ores into
oxides. oxides.
4. When a metal X is treated with cold water, it gives a basic compound Y with molecular formula XOH
(Molecular mass = 40) and liberates a gas Z which easily catches fire. Identify X, Y and Z and also write the
reaction involved.
Ans. X- Sodium Y- Sodium Hydroxide : 2Na + 2H2O → 2NaOH + H2Z- Hydrogen Gas

SHORT ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)

1. The reaction of metal X with Fe2O3 is highly exothermic and is used to join railway tracks.
(a) Identify the metal X.
(b) Write the chemical equation for the reaction.
(c) Name the process used to extract metal X from its ore.
Ans. (a) Al, Aluminium
(b) Fe2O3+Al→Al2O3+ Fe + heat
(c) Electrolysis of aluminium chloride
2. Give reasons for the following:
(a) Ionic compounds do not conduct electricity in solid form but conduct in molten state
(b) Thermite process is used for wielding of railway tracks.
(c) Western Maharashtra is more prone to rusting than western Rajasthan.

19
Ans. (a) In solid state the particles are not able to move due to compact arrangement but in liquid/molten state,
ions are free to move hence can conduct electricity
(b) It is highly exothermic reaction and produce iron in molten state which is used to wield railway tracks
(c) Moisture content is higher in Western Maharashtra as compared with Western Rajasthan. Hence rate of
rusting will be higher.
3. Sakshi was comparing the reactivity of different
metals for her science project. She added iron filings
in four test tubes A,B,C,D containing aqueous
solutions of ZnSO4, CuSO4, FeSO4 and Al2(SO4)3
respectively as shown in the figure –
(a) In which of the test tubes she will observe the
reaction to be most vigorous
(b) What is the reason for her observation?
(c) Write a well-balanced equation of the reaction in (b)
Ans. (a) Test tube B
(b) Copper is lower to Iron in the reactivity series so displacement reaction will be maximum
(c) Fe (s) + CuSO4 (aq,) —> FeSO4(aq.) + Cu(s)
4. A reddish-brown metal ‘X’, when heated in air, gives a black compound ‘Y’, which when heated in presence
of H₂ gas gives ‘X’ back. ‘X’ is refined by the process of electrolysis; this refined form of ‘X’ is used in electrical
wiring. Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’. Draw a well-labeled diagram to represent the process of refining ‘X’.
Ans. ‘X’ - Copper/ Cu and ‘Y’ - CuO
Diagram to represent the process of refining of copper: refer to diagram in explanation content.
5. (a) Carbon cannot be used to reduce metal oxides of sodium, magnesium, calcium, and aluminium to
respective metals”. Comment.
(b) These metals are obtained by electrolytic reduction of their molten chloride. Write the reactions that occur
at the anode and cathode during the electrolytic reduction of molten sodium chloride.
(c) Illustrate with the help of a chemical equation reduction of manganese dioxide with Aluminium powder.
Ans. (a) Carbon cannot reduce the oxides of sodium, magnesium, calcium, aluminium, etc., to the
respective metals. This is because these metals have more affinity for oxygen than carbon. (Metals, Na,
Mg, Ca and Al have more affinity towards oxygen than C)
(b) The reactions are
At cathode: Na++ e– → Na At anode: 2Cl– → Cl2 + 2e–
(c) 3MnO2 (s) + 4Al(s) → 3Mn(l) + 2Al2O3 (s) + Heat

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)

1. Observe the following setup and answer the following questions.
(a) What is the role of anhydrous calcium chloride?
(b) If instead of boiled distilled water, distilled water is used in the second
tube. Will the result be same? Support your answer.
(c) What is the role of layer of oil in the second tube?
(d) What conclusion we can draw from this experiment.
(e) Give 2 methods to prevent rusting of iron
Ans. (a) Anhydrous Calcium chloride absorbs the moisture from the air
present in tube third test tube and acts as a dehydrating agent
(b) No as normal distilled water has some amount of oxygen in it while in
boiled water no oxygen is present
(c) Oil prevent oxygen present in air from mixing with water
(d) Presence of both oxygen and moisture is required for rusting
(e) Galvanisation, Painting, Oiling, Alloying (any two)
2. Riya and Ayush were working in laboratory. Riya put a copper coin in silver nitrate solution and Ayush put a
silver coin in copper nitrate solution. Both were waiting for some time to get the result.

20
(a) Who will observe a colour change and why?
(b) Why no change was observed by another?
(c) What will be the change in colour of the coin and solution?
(d) Write a balanced chemical equation for this reaction.
(e) What name is given to such reactions?
Ans. (a) Riya will observe a colour change as copper is more reactive than silver
(b) Ayush will not observe any change as silver is less reactive than copper.
(c) Colour of solution will become blue and the coin will become greenish in colour
(d) Cu +AgNO3  CuNO3 + Ag
(e) Displacement reactions

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS (4 MARKS)

1. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follows.
Metals as we know are very useful in all the fields, industries in particular. Iron is used for construction, aluminum
and copper are used for cooking utensils, electrical wires, etc. some metals are constituents of useful alloys like
copper is used for making brass and bronze, iron is used for making steel, etc. Nonmetals are no less in any
way. Oxygen present in air essential for respiration as well as for combustion. Nonmetals form a large number
of compounds which are extremely useful like ammonia, Sulphuric acid nitric acid etc.
(a) Why are aluminum and copper used for making electric wire?
(b) Name the non-metal used in making steel.
(c) Name two alloys of copper.
OR
(c) What is alloy of mercury called? Give one example.
Ans. (a) Aluminum and copper used for making electric wire because they are ductile and good conductor of
electricity
(b) carbon
(c) brass and bronze
OR
(c) Amalgam, silver amalgam

2. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follows.
On the basis of reactivity of different metals with oxygen, water and acids as well as displacement reactions,
the metals have been arranged in the decreasing order of their reactivities. This arrangement is known as
activity series or reactivity series of metals. The basis of reactivity is the tendency of metals to lose electrons. If
a metal can lose electrons easily to form positive ions, it will react readily with other substances. Therefore, it
will be a reactive metal. On the other hand, if a meal loses electrons less rapidly to form a positive ion, it will
react slowly with other substances. Therefore, such a metal will be less reactive.
(a) Name a metal that reacts vigorously with oxygen?
(b) Arrange the given metals in correct increasing order of reactivity for Cu, Na, Mg , Al.
(c) Name two metals that react with very dilute HNO3 to evolve H2 gas.
OR
(c) Name two metal which is at the bottom of the reactivity series.
Ans. (a) sodium/ potassium
(b) Na>Mg>Al.Cu
(c) Mn and Mg
OR
(c) Au, Ag

CHAPTER 4
CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS
Carbon
● Atomic number of carbon is 6. Its electronic configuration is 2,4.
21
● Carbon cannot form an ionic bond.
● It could gain four electrons forming C4- anion. But it would be difficult for the nucleus with six protons to
hold on ten electrons.
● It could lose four electrons forming C4+ cations. But it requires a large amount of energy to remove four
electrons.
Covalent Bond: The chemical bond formed by the sharing of electrons between two atoms is called
covalent bond.
(i) Single covalent bond: A covalent bond formed by sharing of one pair of electrons between two atoms is
known as single covalent bond. For example, two hydrogen atoms share their electrons to form a molecule of
hydrogen, H2.
(ii) Double covalent bond: The covalent bond formed by sharing of two pairs of electrons between two atoms
is known as double covalent bond. For example, the two electrons contributed by each oxygen atom give rise
to two shared pairs of electrons. This is said to constitute a double bond between the two atoms.
The electron dot structure of O2 and its double bond.
(iii) Triple covalent bond: The covalent bond formed by the sharing of three pairs of electrons between two
atoms is known as triple covalent bond. In the case of a diatomic molecule of nitrogen, each nitrogen atom in a
molecule of nitrogen contributes three electrons giving rise to three shared pairs of electrons. This is said to
constitute a triple bond between the two atoms.

Single bond Double bond Triple bond

Covalent compounds exist as solids, liquids and gases.

● They are generally soluble in non-polar solvents like ether, benzene etc. and generally insoluble in polar
solvents like water.
● Molecules of covalent compounds are held together by relatively weaker forces as compared to ionic
compounds. Therefore, covalent compounds have relatively lower melting and boiling points.
● Covalent compounds are poor conductors of electricity because they contain neither the ions nor free
electrons necessary for conduction of electricity.

VERSATILE NATURE OF CARBON

The nature of the covalent bond enables carbon to form a large number of compounds. Factors noticed in the
case of carbon are –
(i) Catenation: Carbon has the unique ability to form bonds with other atoms of carbon, giving rise to
large molecules. The self-linking property of carbon atoms through covalent bonds to form long chains of carbon,
branched chains of carbon or even carbon atoms arranged in rings is called catenation.
(ii) Tendency to form multiple bonds: Due to small size of carbon atom and great strength of the carbon-
carbon bond, it can form multiple bonds (double or triple) with carbon, oxygen, sulphur and nitrogen atoms.
(iii)Tetravalency: Carbon has valency of four. It is capable of bonding with four other atoms of carbon or some
other heteroatoms with single covalent bond as well as double or triple bond.
(iv) Isomerism: Compounds having the same molecular formula but different structures are called Structural

22
isomers this phenomenon is called isomerism. Isomerism also leads to huge number of carbon compounds.
Two isomers of butane

Three Isomers of Pentane n-butane iso-butane

n-pentane iso pentane neo pentane

Hydrocarbons: Compounds of carbon and hydrogen are known as hydrocarbons.

1.Saturated Hydrocarbon (Alkanes): General formula is CnH2n+2. n = number of carbon atoms.
In this, the carbon atoms are connected by a single bond. For example; Methane (CH4), Ethane (C2H6) etc.
2. Unsaturated Hydrocarbons
(a) Alkenes: General formula is CnH2n, where n = number of carbon atoms. In this, the two carbon atoms
are connected by double bond. For example; Ethene (C2H4), Propene (C3H6) etc.
(b) Alkynes: General formula is CnH2n-2, where n = number of carbon atoms. In this, the two carbon atoms
are connected by triple bond. For example; Ethyne (C2H2), Propyne (C3H4) etc.
Electron Dot Structure of Hydrocarbons:

Methane Ethane

Ethene Ethyne
Functional Group: An atom or group of atoms present in a molecule which largely determines its chemical
properties are called Functional Group.
S. Hetero Class of Formula of Examples
No. atom compounds functional group
1 Cl/Br Halo- -Cl, -Br (substitutes Chloroethane (C2H5Cl)
(Chloro/Bromo) for hydrogen atom) Bromoethane (C2H5Br)
alkanes
2 Oxygen 1. Alcohol -OH Ethanol (C2H5OH)
3 2. Aldehyde -CHO Ethanal (CH3CHO)
4 3. Ketone >C = O Propanone (CH3COCH3)
5 4. Carboxylic acid -COOH Ethanoic acid

23
 (CH3COOH)
Homologous Series: Series of organic compounds having the same functional group and chemical
properties and successive members differ by a -CH2 unit or 14u are known as Homologous series.
● Members of given homologous series have the same functional group.
● All the members of homologous series show similar chemical properties.
● Melting point and boiling point of members increases with the increase in molecular mass.
Nomenclature of Carbon Compounds
S.No Class of compounds Prefix/Suffix Example Structure
.
1 Alkane Suffix - ane Propane CH3CH2CH3
2 Alkenes Suffix - ene Propene CH3CH = CH2
3 Alkynes Suffix - yne Propyne CH3C = CH
4 Halo alkane Prefix -Chloro, Chloropropane CH3CH2CH2Cl
- Bromo Bromopropane CH3CH2CH2Br
5 Alcohol Suffix - ol Propanol CH3CH2CH2OH
6 Aldehyde Suffix - al Propanal CH3CH2CHO
7 Ketone Suffix - one Propanone CH3COCH3
8 Carboxylic acid Suffix - oic Propanoic acid CH3CH2COOH
acid
Name and Formulae of hydrocarbons
No. of C Prefix Alkane Alkene Alkyne
-atoms CnH2n+2 CnH2n CnH2n-2
1 Meth Methane CH4 --- -- -- --
2 Eth Ethane C2H6 Ethene C2H4 Ethyne C2H2
3 Prop Propane C3H8 Propene C3H6 Propyne C3H4
4 But Butane C4H10 Butene C4H8 Butyne C4H6
5 Pent Pentane C5H12 Pentene C5H10 Pentyne C5H8

CHEMICAL PROPERTIES OF CARBON COMPOUNDS:

1. Combustion: Carbon, in all its allotropic forms, burns in oxygen to give carbon dioxide along with the
release of heat and light.
(i) C +O2 CO2 + heat and light
(ii) CH4 + 2O2 CO2 + 2H2O + heat and light
(iii) CH3CH2OH + 3O2 2CO2 + 3H2O + heat and light
Saturated hydrocarbons will generally give a clean flame while unsaturated hydrocarbons will give a yellow
flame with lots of black smoke. Limiting the supply of air results in incomplete combustion of even saturated
hydrocarbons giving a sooty flame.
2. Oxidation: Ethyl alcohol is converted to ethanoic acid upon
heating in the presence of alkaline potassium permanganate or
acidified potassium dichromate (oxidising agents).
3. Addition reaction: Unsaturated hydrocarbons add hydrogen in the
presence of catalyst such as palladium or nickel to give saturated hydrocarbons.
Ni/Pd

4. Substitution reaction: Saturated hydrocarbons are fairly unreactive and are inert in the presence of

24
most reagents. However, in the presence of sunlight, chlorine is added to methane in very fast reaction.
Chlorine can replace the hydrogen atoms one by one. It is called a substitution reaction.
CH4 + Cl2 CH3Cl + HCl (in the presence of sunlight)

SOME IMPORTANT CARBON COMPOUNDS - ETHANOL AND ETHANOIC ACID

1. Ethanol: Ethanol is a liquid at room temperature. Ethanol is commonly called alcohol and is the active
ingredient of all alcoholic drinks. Ethanol is also soluble in water.
Reactions of Ethanol:
(i) Reaction with sodium: When ethyl alcohol reacts with sodium, it leads to the evolution of hydrogen and the
other product is sodium ethoxide.

(ii) Dehydration: Heating ethanol at 443 K with excess concentrated Sulphuric acid
results in the dehydration of ethanol to give Ethene

The concentrated Sulphuric acid can be regarded as a dehydrating agent which removes water from ethanol.
Uses of ethanol: It is a good solvent; it is also used in medicines such as tincture iodine, cough syrups, and
many tonics. Consumption of small quantities of dilute ethanol causes drunkenness. However, intake of even a
small quantity of pure ethanol (called absolute alcohol) can be lethal. Also, long- term consumption of alcohol
leads to many health problems.
2. Ethanoic acid: Ethanoic acid is commonly called acetic acid and belongs to a group of acids called
carboxylic acids. Carboxylic acids are weak acids. The melting point of pure ethanoic acid is 290K and hence
it often freezes during winter in cold climates. This gave rise to its name glacial acetic acid.
Reactions of ethanoic acid:
(i) Esterification reaction: Esters are most commonly formed by reaction of an acid and an alcohol. Ethanoic
acid reacts with absolute ethanol in the presence of an acid catalyst to give an ester. Esters are sweet-
smelling substances. These are used in making perfumes and as flavouring agents.

On treating with sodium hydroxide, which is an alkali, the ester is converted back to alcohol and sodium salt of
carboxylic acid. This reaction is known as saponification because it is used in the preparation of soap. Soaps
are sodium or potassium salts of long chain carboxylic acid.

(ii) Reaction with a base: Like mineral acids, ethanoic acid reacts with a base such as sodium hydroxide to give
a salt (sodium ethanoate or commonly called sodium acetate) and water:
CH3COOH + NaOH CH3COONa + H2O
(iii) Reaction with carbonates and hydrogencarbonates: Ethanoic acid reacts with carbonates and
hydrogencarbonates to give rise to a salt, carbon dioxide and water. The salt produced is commonly called
25
sodium acetate. The evolved CO2 is also a test for carboxylic acid.
2CH3COOH + Na2CO3 → 2CH3COONa + H2O + CO2
CH3COOH + NaHCO3 → CH3COONa + H2O + CO2
Uses of ethanoic acid:
 Used to prepare esters. 5-8% solution of acetic acid in water is called vinegar and is used widely as
a preservative in pickles.

SOAPS AND DETERGENTS

Soap: Sodium or potassium salts of long chain fatty acids is called Soap. General formula: RCOO–Na+
Detergent: Ammonium and sulphonate salts of long chain fatty acids are called Detergent.
Hard and Soft Water: Water that does not produce lather with soap readily is called Hard water and which
produces lather with soap is called Soft Water.
Hardness of water is due to the presence of bicarbonates, chlorides and sulphate salt of calcium and
magnesium.
Soaps Detergents
(i) These are sodium or potassium salts of (i) These are ammonium and sulphonate
long chain fatty acids. salts of long chain fatty acids.
(ii) Ionic part of the soap is -COO–Na+ (ii) Ionic part of detergent is —OSO3-Na+.
(iii) Their efficiency decreases in hard (iii) Their efficiency is unaffected in hard
water water.
(iv)Soaps are biodegradable. (iv) Detergents are non-biodegradable.

Cleaning Action of soaps

A soap molecule is made up of two chemically distinct parts that interact
with water in different ways. It has one polar end with a short head
carboxylate group (−COONa) and one non-polar end with a long tail made
up of the hydrocarbon chain.
Hydrophilic and hydrophobic end: The polar end is hydrophilic (water-loving) in nature, and it is drawn to
water. The non-polar end is hydrophobic (hates water) in nature, and it is attracted to dirt or oil on the cloth but
not to water. As a result, the hydrophobic part of the soap molecule traps the dirt while the hydrophilic part
makes the entire molecule water-soluble.
When soap or detergent is dissolved in water, the molecules form clusters known as 'micelles'.
Formation of micelles: Long hydrocarbon chains of soap molecule bind to the oil
and dirt. As a result, the dirt is surrounded by the non-polar end of the soap
molecules. The micelles are water-soluble because of the charged carboxylate end of
the soap molecules. As a result, the soap washes away the dirt.
Detergents are generally sodium salts of sulphonic acids or ammonium salts with
chlorides or bromides ions, etc. Both have long hydrocarbon chain. The charged ends of
these compounds do not form insoluble precipitates with the calcium and magnesium
ions in hard water. Thus, they remain effective in hard water. Detergents are usually
used to make shampoos and products for cleaning clothes.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 MARK)
1. Soaps are formed by the saponification of
(a) Alcohols (b) simple ester (c) carboxylic acids (d) glycerides
2. Octane has the molecular formula of C8H18 , It has
(a) 26 covalent bonds (b) 25 covalent bonds

26
(c) 18 covalent bonds (d) 7 covalent bonds
3. C3H8 belongs to the homologous series of
(a) Alkynes (b) Alkenes (c) Alkanes (d) Cyclo alkanes
4. When ethanoic acid is treated with NaHCO3 the gas evolved is
(a) H2 (b) CO2 (c) CH4 (d) CO
5. Ethanol on complete oxidation gives
(a) acetic acid/ethanoic acid (b) CO2 and water (c) ethanal (d) acetone/ethanone
6. Addition reactions are undergone by
(a) saturated hydrocarbons (alkanes) (b) only alkenes
(c) only alkynes (d) both alkenes and alkynes
7. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Most organic compounds are ionic compounds.
(b) Ethane and ethene belong to the same homologous series.
(c) Propene contains three hydrogen atoms per molecule.
(d) Chloroethane contains two carbon atoms per molecule.
8.Vinegar is a solution of-
(a) 50 % – 60 % acetic acid in alcohol (b) 5 % – 8 % acetic acid in alcohol
(c) 5 % – 8 % acetic acid in water (d) 50 % – 60 % acetic acid in water
9. The heteroatoms present in CH3—CH2—O—CH2—CH2Cl are
(i) oxygen (ii) carbon (iii) hydrogen (iv) chlorine
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)
10. The blindness and death is caused by consuming adulterated liquor contains.
(a) CH3OH (b) CH3COOH (c) CH3COCH3 (d) CH3CHO
11. From which of the following substance pencil lead is formed?
(a) Charcoal (b) Wood (c) Lead (d) Graphite
12. While cooking, if the bottom of the vessel is getting blackened on the outside, it means that
(a) The food is not cooked completely. (b) The fuel is not burning completely.
(c) The fuel is wet (d) The fuel is burning completely.

Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting
the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
13. Assertion(A): Methane is a saturated hydrocarbon which is a major component of natural gas.
Reason(R): Methane belongs to alkene.
14. Assertion(A): Following are the members of a homologous series- CH3OH, CH3CH2OH, CH3CH2CH2OH
Reason (R): A series of compounds with the same functional group but differing by —CH2 unit is called
homologous series.
15. Assertion(A): Saturated hydrocarbons are chemically less reactive.
Reason (R): All the valencies of carbon atom are satisfied by single covalent bonds.
16. Assertion(A): Diamond and graphite do not have the same crystal structure.
Reason(R): Diamond is crystalline while graphite is amorphous.
Answers
1. (c) 2. (b) 3.(c) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (d)
7. (d) 8. (c) 9.(d) 10. (a) 11. (d) 12. (b)
13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (c)

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS)

1. Which organic compound is added to make ethanol unfit for drinking purposes? What is the name
of the mixture formed?
27
Ans: Methanol which is highly poisonous is added in small amount to ethanol in order to make it unfit for drinking
purposes. The mixture is called methylated spirit or denatured alcohol.
2. Give the names of the following functional groups:
(i) —OH (ii) —CHO (iii) —COOH (iv) — CO —
Ans. (i) Alcohol group (ii) Aldehyde group (iii) Carboxylic acid group (iv) Ketone group
3. A compound ‘X’ has molecular formula C4H10. It undergoes substitution reaction readily than addition reaction.
It burns with blue flame and is present in LPG. Identify ‘X’ and give the balanced equation for its substitution
reaction with Cl2 in the presence of sunlight.
Ans. X=Butane [CH3-CH2-CH2-CH3]
C4H10 + Cl2 CH3 Cl+ HCl
4. What are the properties of carbon which lead to huge number of carbon compounds?
Ans. (i) Self linking property called catenation
(ii) Carbon is tetravalent and can readily unite with atoms like hydrogen, oxygen etc by electron sharing.
5. Why does carbon forms covalent bond not ionic bond?
Ans. Carbon cannot form an ionic bond because
● It could gain four electrons forming C4- anion. But it would be difficult for the nucleus with six protons to
hold on to ten electrons.
● It could lose four electrons forming C4+ cations. But it requires a large amount of energy to remove four
electrons.

SHORT ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)

1. Give a chemical test to distinguish between:
(i) Ethane and Ethene
(ii) Ethanol and ethanoic acid
(iii) Soaps and detergents.
Ans: (i) Ethene decolorizes the yellow colour of bromine water while ethane does not.
(ii) Ethanoic acid gives a brisk effervescence with sodium hydrogen carbonate while ethanol does not.
(iii)Soaps form curdy white precipitate or scum with hard water while detergents do not form any precipitate.
2. Give reasons for the following observations:
(a) The element carbon forms a very large number of compounds.
(b) Air holes of a gas burner have to be adjusted when the heated vessels get blackened by the flame
(c) Use of synthetic detergents causes pollution of water.
Ans. (a) Carbon forms large number of compounds since carbon is small in size and can form stable covalent
bonds (Catenation) and it shows Tetravalency.
(b) Air holes of gas burner are made open (adjusted) so that air can pass through, which is needed for complete
combustion, so that heated vessels do not get blackened.
(c) Some synthetic detergents are non-biodegradable, therefore, cause pollution of water.
3. What is a homologous series? Which two of the following organic compounds belong to the same homologous
and name the series? C2H4, C2H6, C3H6O, C2H6O2, CH4O
Ans. Homologous series is a series of organic compounds which has same functional group and similar
chemical properties. Succesive member of this series differs by –CH2 - in its molecular formula and 14u in its
molecular mass.
CH4O (CH3OH) and C2H6O (C2H5OH) belong to same homologous series, alcohol.
4. What are esters? How are they prepared? List two uses of esters.
Ans. Esters are usually volatile liquids having pleasant smell (in fruity smell).
Preparation: When carboxylic acid reacts with an alcohol in the presence of a little concentrated sulphuric acid,
it gives a pleasant smelling ester.

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For example. When ethanoic acid is warmed with ethanol in the presence of a few drops of concentrated
sulphuric acid, a sweet smelling ester called ethyl ethanoate is formed.
Uses: Esters are used in making perfumes, artificial flavours and essences used in ice- creams, sweets and
cold drinks.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)

1. On dropping a small piece of sodium in a test tube containing carbon compound ‘X’ with molecular formula
C2H6O, a brisk effervescence is observed and a gas ‘Y’ is produced. On bringing a burning splinter at the mouth
of the test tube the gas evolved burns with a pop sound. Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’. Also write the chemical equation
for the reaction. Write the name and structure of the product formed, when you heat ‘X’ with excess cone,
sulphuric acid.
Ans.

2. An organic compound ‘A’ is widely used as a preservative in pickles and has a molecular formula ‘C’. This
compound reacts with ethanol to form a sweet smelling compound ‘B.
(a) Identify the compound ‘A’ and write molecular formula ‘C’.
(b) Write the chemical equation for its reaction with ethanol to form compound ‘B’.
(c) How can we get compound ‘A’ back from ‘B’.
Ans. (a) A= Ethanoic Acid, C= CH3COOH
(b) Esterification reaction: Refer to explanation content
(c) by acid hydrolysis

3. A compound ‘C’ (molecular formula, C2H4O2) reacts with Na-metal to form a compound ‘R’ and evolves a
gas which burns with a pop sound. Compound ‘C’ on treatment with an alcohol ‘A’ in presence of an acid forms
a sweet-smelling compound ‘S’ (molecular formula, C3H6O2). On addition of NaOH to ‘C’, it also gives ‘R’ and
water. ‘S’ on treatment with NaOH solution gives back ‘R’ and ‘A’.
Identify ‘C’, ‘R’, ‘A’, ‘S’ and write down the reactions involved.
Ans. C=Ethanoic acid (CH3COOH)
R= Sodium ethanoate (CH3COONa) or sodium salt of ethanoic acid
A=Methanol (CH3OH)
S=methyl ethanoate (CH3COOCH3) or ester
Reactions involved are
2CH3COOH +2Na 2CH3COONa+H2

Conc. H2SO4
CH3COOH +C2H5OH  CH3COOCH3 + H2O
CH3COOCH3+NaOH  CH3COONa + CH3OH.

29
4. Look at the given figure and answer the following questions:
(a) What change would you observe in the calcium
hydroxide solution taken in tube B?
(b) Write the reaction involved in test tubes A and B
respectively.
(c) If ethanol is given instead of ethanoic acid, would you
expect the same change?
(d) How can a solution of lime water be prepared in the
laboratory?
Ans. (a) It turns milky
(b)Test tube A: CH3COOH + Na2CO3CH3COONa +H2O
+CO2
Test tube B: Ca(OH)2 + CO2  CaCO3 + 2O
(c) If ethanol is given instead of ethanoic acid, no reaction will take place.
(d) The lime water is prepared by dissolving calcium oxide in water and decanting the supernatent liquid.

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS (4 MARKS)

1. A hydrocarbon is an organic chemical compound composed exclusively of hydrogen and carbon atoms.
Hydrocarbons are naturally-occurring compounds and form the basis of crude oil, natural gas, coal, and other
important energy sources. Organic Molecular
Hydrocarbons are highly combustible and produce carbon dioxide, water, compound Formula
and heat when they are burned. Therefore, hydrocarbons are highly
effective as a source of fuel. P C3H8
Study the table related to three hydrocarbons P, Q, R and answer the
questions that follow. Q C5H10
(a) Explain why P, Q and R are classified as hydrocarbons.
R C4H6
(b) Give the molecular formula of successive hydrocarbon of R.
(c) Which among P, Q and R is saturated hydrocarbon and why?
OR
(c) Write the general molecular formula for unsaturated hydrocarbons.
Ans. (a) as they contain only atoms of carbon and hydrogen.
(b) C5H8
(c) P, it has general molecular formula, CnH2n+2
OR
(c) Alkene: CnH2n
Alkyne: CnH2n-2
2. An organic compound ‘X’ is liquid at room temperature, is the active ingredient of all alcoholic drinks. In
addition, because it is a good solvent, it is also used in medicines such as tincture iodine, cough syrups, and
many tonics. It is also soluble in water in all proportions. Consumption of small quantities of it causes
drunkenness.
(a) Identify ‘X’. Write its chemical formula.
(b) Draw electron dot structure of it.
(c) Write the name and formula of the first and third member of the homologous series of the said
compound.
OR
(c) What is the role of concentrated Sulphuric acid when it is heated with compound ‘X’ at 443 K. Give the
reaction involved.
Ans. (a) X= ethanol, C2H5OH
(b) Electron dot structure

30
(c) Methanol, CH3OH
Propanol, C3H7OH
OR
(c) Sulphuric acid act like dehydrating agent that helps in removal of water molecule.

CHAPTER-5
LIFE PROCESSES
All the vital processes which are required by an organism to survive are called life processes.
Important life processes are Nutrition, Respiration, Transportation and Excretion.

NUTRITION
All the life processes require energy to carry out their functions, which is obtained from different foods.
There are two modes of nutrition, (i) autotrophic and (ii) heterotrophic.
AUTOTROPHIC MODE OF NUTRITION
It takes place in autotrophs. Green plants prepare food in the form of carbohydrates from carbon dioxide and
water in the presence of sunlight and chlorophyll. This process is known as photosynthesis. Examples of
autotrophs are green plants (producers) and some bacteria.
General reaction involved in process of photosynthesis is
Sunlight
6CO2 + 12H2O chlorophyll C6H12O6 + 6O2 + 6H2O

Major events occurring in photosynthesis are

(i) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll.
(ii) Conversion of light energy into chemical energy
(iii) Splitting of water molecules into hydrogen and oxygen.
(iv) Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates.

Chloroplasts -(containing chlorophyll), present in leaves are the main site of photosynthesis.
Stomata -Tiny pores present on the surface of leaves, through which gaseous exchange occurs for
photosynthesis. The opening and closing of stomatal pore is controlled by guard cells.

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HETEROTROPHIC MODE OF NUTRITION
These organisms are dependent on other organisms for their food. They
may be herbivores, carnivores, parasites or saprophytes.
• Saprotrophs- These organisms feed on dead and decaying matter
and breakdown the food outside their body before absorbing it. Eg. Fungi
and bacteria.
• Parasites-Some organisms depend for food or shelter or both on other
organisms. These are called parasites, i.e. Cuscuta, orchids, ticks, lice,
leeches and tapeworms.
• In Amoeba, holozoic nutrition takes place. Digestion occurs in the food
vacuole, formed by the engulfing of food by its pseudopodia. The
undigested food is moved to the surface of the cell and thrown out.

Steps of Holozic Nutrition-

Ingestion, Digestion, Absorption, Assimilation, Egestion

NUTRITION IN HUMAN BEINGS .

Note: Herbivores have longer small intestine for cellulose digestion

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RESPIRATION
Respiration is the process of breakdown of food to release energy. During this, the digested food materials are
broken down to release energy in the form of ATP. Depending on the availability of oxygen, respiration occurs
by two ways:
(i) Aerobic respiration: It occurs in presence of oxygen.
(ii) Anaerobic respiration: It occurs in absence of oxygen.

RESPIRATION IN PLANTS
• Plants respire through stomata, lenticels (present on stem) and through the process of diffusion in roots.
• In leaves, respiration takes place by diffusion of oxygen through stomata into the cells of the leaf from where
carbon dioxide is released into the atmosphere.
RESPIRATION IN AQUATIC ANIMALS
• The aquatic organisms (such as fishes etc.) utilise the oxygen dissolved in water for respiration. Rate of
respiration in aquatic organisms is more because the amount of dissolved oxygen is fairly low in water.
RESPIRATION IN HUMAN BEINGS
• In human beings, air is taken into the body through the
nostrils. From here, the air passes through the pharynx,
into the lungs. Rings of cartilage are present in the
trachea, which ensures that the air passage does not
collapse.
• Within the lungs, the bronchi divide into smaller and
smaller tubes which finally terminate in balloon-like
structures, called alveoli.
• The alveoli increase the surface area for the exchange
of gases due to the presence of an extensive network of
blood-vessels.
When we breathe in, we lift our ribs and flatten our
diaphragm and the chest cavity becomes larger.
Because of this, air is sucked into the lungs and fills
33
 the expanded alveoli.
• The blood brings carbon dioxide from the rest of the body for release into the alveoli, and the oxygen in the
alveolar air is taken up by blood in the alveolar blood vessels to be transported to all the cells in the body.
Haemoglobin, is the respiratory pigment in human beings. It is responsible for carrying oxygen from lungs to
tissues.

TRANSPORTATION
Transportation is a process in which substances absorbed (or made) in one part of the body of an organism
are carried to other parts of the body through the circulating fluids like blood and lymph.
TRANSPORTATION IN HUMAN BEINGS
Circulatory system consists of a fluid called blood, which is pumped by a muscular organ known as heart and a
system of blood vessels.
HEART
• The heart acts like a pump in our body and pushes out the blood into
the blood vessels.
• It is four chambered, (i.e., two upper atria and two lower ventricles).
• Oxygen-rich blood from lungs comes to upper chamber of the heart
through the pulmonary vein. Left atrium contracts and transfers blood
to the left ventricle.
• The left ventricle contracts and
blood is pumped to the body parts
through aorta.
• Deoxygenated blood enters in
right atrium through vena cava and when it contracts, it transfers blood to
the right ventricle.
• Right ventricle pumps blood to the lungs for oxygenation through
pulmonary artery.
• Ventricles have thicker walls than atria because they have to pump blood
into various organs.
There are three types of vessels involved in blood circulation; arteries, veins and capillaries
Arteries Veins
Have thick, muscular and elastic walls Have thin walls
Blood flows under high pressure Blood flows under low pressure
Carries blood from heart to other body parts Collects blood from other organs and
gets it back to heart
Valves absent Valves present
Capillaries- They are formed when artery divides into smaller tubes. The walls of capillaries are one cell thick.
Exchange of materials between blood and surrounding thick cells takes place across the thin walls of
capillaries.
Blood platelets- Blood cells which clot the blood at the site of injury thus prevent loss of blood.

Note: In human double circulation is present due to which there is complete separation of oxygenated and
deoxygenated blood. In this the blood passes through the heart twice during each cycle.
BLOOD PRESSURE
• The normal systolic pressure is about 120 mm of Hg and diastolic pressure is 80 mm of Hg.
LYMPH
• Lymph is a colourless tissue fluid involved in transportation.
It drains into lymphatic capillaries from the intercellular spaces, which join to form large lymph vessels that
finally open into larger veins. It also carries any digested and absorbed fat from intestine and drains excess
34
 fluid from extracellular space back into the blood.

TRANSPORTATION IN PLANTS
• Xylem transports water and minerals from the soil to the leaves, whereas phloem (vascular tissue) transports
products of photosynthesis from the leaves to the other parts of the plant.
• Transport of water occurs also due to transpirational pull.
• Translocation is the phenomenon of transport of sugars from the leaves to the other parts of the plant by the
help of phloem.
• Sucrose is transferred into phloem tissue by the help of energy (ATP).

EXCRETION
Excretion is the process by which an organism removes the harmful metabolic wastes from the body.
Unicellular organisms excrete waste by simple process like diffusion, whereas multicellular organisms use
specialised organs for the removal of waste products.
EXCRETION IN HUMAN BEINGS
• Humans have a pair of kidneys, a pair of ureters, a urinary bladder
and a urethra which constitutes the excretory system.
• Each kidney has thousands of tiny tubules called nephron i.e.,
filtration unit.
• The urine is formed to filter out waste products from the blood.
• The blood passes through the tubular part of nephron (where
important or useful substances such as glucose, amino acids, fats and
a major amount of water are selectively reabsorbed by the tubular
part) of the nephron.
• The collecting duct finally gathers all the materials that have not
returned to the blood.
• The urine formed in each kidney, enters a long tube, the ureter (which
connects the kidneys with the urinary bladder).
• Urine is stored in the urinary bladder before passing out through urethra (an opening by which
urine passes out).
• In case of kidney failure, an artificial kidney is used. It is a device to remove nitrogen waste
products from the blood through dialysis.

EXCRETION IN PLANTS
• They release gaseous wastes like carbon dioxide and oxygen through stomata and lenticels during respiration
and photosynthesis.

35
• Plants get rid of excess of water by the process of transpiration and can store waste substances in the form
of resins and gums.
• Falling of leaves also helps in the removal of waste products

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 MARKS)

1. Human heart shows double circulation. Choose the correct option that indicates the correct option
for marking (i) and (ii).
(a) (i)—Systematic circulation, (ii)—Pulmonary circulation
(b) (i)—Systematic circulation, (ii)—Systematic circulation
(c) (i)—Pulmonary circulation, (ii)—Systematic circulation
(d) (i)—Double circulation, (ii)—Single circulation
2. In which order do these events occur in human nutrition?
(a) Digestion, Ingestion, Absorption, Assimilation (b)Digestion, Ingestion, Assimilation, Absorption
(c)Ingestion, Digestion, Absorption, Assimilation (d)Ingestion Digestion, Assimilation, Absorption
3. The blood returning to the heart from lungs via pulmonary veins has more
(a) RBC per mL of blood (b) haemoglobin per mL of blood
(c) oxygen per mL of blood (d) nutrients per mL of blood
4. What happens to the inhaled air as it passes through the nasal cavity?
(a) Warmed to the body temperature (b) Moistened by mucus
(c) Filtered in the nasal cavity (d) All of the above
5. The figure given below shows human respiratory system with labels of its various parts
marked (i) to (iv). Identify the correct label with its function and/or
characteristics.
(a) (i) Nasal passage - Have presence of half rings to ensure that
passage does not collapse
(b) (ii) Pharynx - It is a common passage for air and food
(c) (iii) Bronchi - These are smaller tubes that leads to the alveoli
(d) (iv) Diaphragm -It is the site for gaseous exchange
6. Trypsin differs from pepsin in digestion of protein in
(a) acidic medium (b) alkaline medium (c) neutral medium (c) different pH range
7. In the alimentary canal various enzymes are secreted for
breakdown of food. Identify the option that indicates the correct
substrate for enzyme that is secreted in location (i), (ii) and (iii).
(a) i—Starch, ii—Proteins, iii—Lipids
(b) i—Proteins, ii—Proteins, iii—Lipids
(c) i—Starch, ii—Lipids, iii—Starch
(d) i—Starch, ii—Lipids, iii—Proteins
8. The rate of breathing is much faster in aquatic organisms than
those of terrestrial organisms because
(a) the availability of oxygen is fairly high in water
(b) the gills are better developed respiratory organs than lungs
(c) the availability of oxygen is fairly low in water
(d) they take in water through mouth
9. The opening and closing of the stomata pore depends upon
(a) Oxygen (b) Temperature (c) Water in guard cells (d) Concentration of CO2 in stomata
10. Trachea is surrounded by rings made of cartilage. How do they help in respiration?
(a) Filtering the air (b) Getting the air to room temperature
(c)Prevents air passage from collapsing (d) Making the air free of microbes
36
 Answers
1. c 2. c 3. c 4. d 5. b
6. b 7. a 8.c 9. d 10. c

ASSERTION -REASONING BASED QUESTIONS (1 MARK)

Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer
these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion : When exhaled air is passed through lime water, it turns milky
Reason: Air contains 78% nitrogen and 21% oxygen

2. Assertion : Veins have thin walls to collect blood from different organs.
Reason: Blood in veins are not under pressure

3. Assertion: All proteins in our food are digested in small intestine only.
Reason: The protein digesting enzyme, pepsin is present in gastric juice.

4. Assertion: In anaerobic respiration, one of the end products is alcohol

Reason: There is an incomplete breakdown of glucose

5. Assertion: Saliva in the mouth of humans contain salivary amylase.

Reason: Salivary amylase is responsible for digestion of starch.

6. Assertion: Kidneys perform a dual function in our body.

Reason: Selective reabsorption occurs in the glomerulus.
Answers
1. b 2. a 3. d 4. a 5. a 6. c

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS)

1. Write one function of each of the following enzymes.
(i) Pepsin (ii) Lipase
Ans: (i) Helps in digestion of proteins in stomach (ii) Helps in digestion of fats

2. Why is less energy required by plants as compared to animals? Explain.

Ans: Plants are stationary. Movements in a plant are usually very less hence a far less amount of energy is
required by plants. Animals, on the other hand, need to move from one place to another; in search of food. So,
the energy need of animals is pretty higher

3. State the reason why arteries have thick walls?

Ans: Blood flows under pressure in them so they have thick walls

4. How do the guard cells regulate opening and closing of stomatal pores?
Ans: The guard cells regulate the opening and closing of stomatal pores by the osmosis process. When water
flows into the guard cells, they swell up and causes the stomata to open. When the guard cells lose water, they
shrink and become flaccid thus closing the stomata.
5. What is the advantage of having four chambered heart?
Ans: Advantages of four chambered heart are that it enables complete separation of deoxygenated and
37
oxygenated blood within the heart and permits a highly effective supply of oxygenated blood to all the body
parts.
6. Give reason:
(i) Fine hair and mucus are present in the nasal passage.
(ii) Rings of cartilage are present in the throat.
Ans: (i)Fine hair trap dust particles and help in filtering of air.
(ii) Prevents the wind pipe from collapsing
7. How are fats digested in human?
Ans: Fats are present in the form of large globules due to which it is difficult for enzymes to act on them. Bile
juice breaks large globules into smaller size. Pancreas and small intestine secretes lipase enzyme which helps
in breaking down of emulsified fats.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)

1. Write the function of the following in the human alimentary canal.
(a) Saliva (b) HCl in Stomach (c) Bile juice
Ans: (i) Lubricates the food and helps in digestion of starch due to presence of amylase
(ii) Kills bacteria and makes medium acidic for activation of enzymes
(iii) Helps in emulsification of fats
2. Draw a well labelled diagram of stomata. List two functions of stomata.
Ans: Refer fig 5.3 NCERT book
3. Daw a well labelled diagram of Nephron.
Ans: Refer Fig 5.14 NCERT book
4. Write three events that occur during photosynthesis.
Ans: Major events occurring in photosynthesis
(i) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll.
(ii) Conversion of light energy into chemical energy
(iii) Splitting of water molecules into hydrogen and oxygen.
(iv) Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates.
5. (a) What do you mean by double circulation of blood?
(b) Why is it necessary?
Ans: (a) The heart receives deoxygenated blood from different parts of body, and it pumps this blood to the
lungs. The oxygenated blood from the lungs returns to the heart, which is pumped again into different parts of
the body by the heart. Thus, the blood passes twice through the heart making one complete round through the
body. This is called double circulation.
(b)The separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood allows a more efficient supply of oxygen to the body
cells. Blood is circulated to the body tissues through systemic circulation and to the lungs through pulmonary
circulation.
6. The pH of the mouth of a person is lower than 5.5. What changes will occur in his mouth? How can these
changes be controlled? Write any two measures.
Ans: Due to high pH decay of teeth can take place. We should rinse our mouth after every meal and brush our
teeth twice.
7. List in tubular form the differences between aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration.
AEROBIC RESPIRATION ANAEROBIC RESPIRATION
Takes place in the presence of oxygen Takes place in the absence of oxygen
Produces more energy Produces less energy
Takes place in the cytoplasm and Takes place in cytoplasm only
mitochondria
Complete breakdown of glucose Incomplete breakdown of glucose

38
 Occurs in higher organisms Occurs in lower organisms like yeast,
bacteria etc

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)

1.With the help of neat labelled diagram show how Amoeba captures its food? What is the mode of nutrition in
Amoeba?
Ans: As soon as Amoeba comes in contact with a food particle, it pushes out pseudopodia around it, engulfs
the same and forms a vacuole. Digestive juices are secreted in the food vacuole where digestion occurs. The
digested nutrients pass out into cytoplasm for assimilation. The food vacuole with indigestible material passes
to the surface and throws out the undigested matter fig 5.5 NCERT
2. Name three different glands associated with the digestive system in humans. Also name their secretion.
Ans: Three glands that help in digestion are
(i) Salivary Glands: Their secretion is called saliva. It digestive enzyme salivary amylase helps in digestion of
carbohydrates
(ii) Liver: Its secretion is called bile. Bile makes the medium alkali and causes emulsification of fats.
(iii)Pancreas: Its secretion is called pancreatic juice. It contains enzyme trypsin, pancreatic lipase and
pancreatic amylase. These enzymes help in digestion of fats, proteins and carbohydrates.
3. Give reason why transpiration an important process for plants.
Ans: Importance of transpiration
(i) Cooling: Evaporation of water from the aerial parts results in lowering of their temperature which will otherwise
rise due to exposure to sun.
(ii)Concentration of Mineral: Transpiration helps in increasing concentration of minerals present in rising
water.
(iii)Transport: It creates a pull that helps in transport of water and minerals.

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS (4 MARKS)

1. Blood pressure (BP) is the pressure of circulating blood
on the walls of blood vessels. Most of this pressure is due
to work done by the heart by pumping blood through the
circulatory system. Blood pressure is usually expressed in
terms of the systolic pressure over diastolic pressure and
is measured in millimetres of mercury (mm of Hg), above
the surrounding atmospheric pressure. Blood pressure is
influenced by cardiac output, total peripheral resistance
and arterial stiffness and varies depending on situation,
emotional state, activity and relative health/ disease state. Low blood pressure is known as hypotension and if
pressure that is consistently high is called hypertension.
(a) What is normal blood pressure range?
(b) Which device is used to measure blood pressure?
(c) Encircle Yes or No for each statement. Give reason for your choice.
(i) The upper reading of blood pressure is called diastolic. Yes/No
(ii) A fluctuation of 20 units means there is something wrong with the heart -Yes/No
OR
(c) Give any two consequences of hypertension.
Ans: (a) 120/80 mm Hg (b) Sphygmomanometer (c) (i) No, upper reading is systolic. (ii) Yes, blood pressure
is either low or high.
OR
(c) internal bleeding, brain hemorrhage.

39
 CHAPTER- 6
CONTROL AND COORDINATION
STIMULUS: Any change in the environment to which an organism responds and reacts is called stimulus. Control
& co-ordination in animals takes place by:
(a) Nervous system (b) Endocrine system

NEURON: It is the structural and functional unit of nervous system. It is made up of dendrites, cell body and
axon.
HOW NERVE IMPULSE TRAVELS IN BODY
Dendritic tips receive stimulus and an electrical impulse is generated in neurons.
● This impulse travels from the dendrite to the cell body and then along the axon to its end.
● At the axon ending some chemicals are released that cross the synapse and start a similar electrical
impulse in next neuron.
REFLEX ACTION: The quick and spontaneous action to external stimulus is called reflex action.
REFEX ARC: Path followed by nerve impulse during reflex action.

BRAIN: Centre of coordination of all activities

PARTS OF BRAIN:
Fore brain - Cerebrum – The largest part of the brain. It controls and coordinate all the voluntary functions and
is the thinking part of the brain .It is the seat of intelligence.
Mid brain- It connects fore brain and hind brain.
Hind Brain- Cerebellum- controls & coordinates voluntary actions (muscular movements) and maintains body
posture and equilibrium.
Pons- acts as a bridge between brain and spinal cord. It controls breathing.
Medulla- controls involuntary actions like blood pressure, salivation, vomiting etc.

SPINAL CORD: Bundle of nerves extending downwards from the medulla to the body. It controls all
the important functions of the body by transmitting information from sensory organs to brain.
PROTECTION OF BRAIN AND SPINAL CORD
Bony outer covering- skull protects the brain. Vertebral column protects the spinal cord.

HORMONES IN ANIMALS
Hormones are chemical messengers which are secreted by the ductless endocrine gland into the blood.

40
Hormones control the activity of certain cells and organs.
Endocrine gland Hormone Role
PITUITARY GLAND Growth hormone Regulate growth and development
ADRENAL GLAND Adrenaline Stress hormones (enable the body ready to deal
with the stressed condition), Increase heartbeat,
Increase breathing rate
THYROID GLAND Thyroxine Regulate carbohydrate, protein and fat
Metabolism
PANCREAS Insulin Regulate blood sugar level
TESTES Testosterone Changes associated with puberty in male
OVARY Oestrogen Changes associated with puberty in female

● GOITER- Iodine is necessary for the formation of thyroxin hormone. If Iodine is in low concentration
the thyroid gland swells and causes goiter.
● GIGANTISM and DWARFISM- Excess secretion of growth hormone from the pituitary gland
causes excess growth of the body (gigantism) and less secretion results in dwarfism.

COORDINATION IN PLANTS
TROPIC MOVEMENTS: The movement of plants in response to the stimulus.
It can be in the direction of stimulus (positive) or away from it (negative) are called tropic movements. They are
directional and growth related.
Ex. Phototropism (light), Geotropism (gravity), Chemotropism (chemicals)

NASTIC MOVEMENTS: The movements are non-directional responses to stimuli. The movement can be
due to changes in turgor. Example: thigmonasty by touch me not (Mimosa).

PLANT HORMONES (PHYTOHORMONES)

Growth and differentiation in plants depend on a few hormones called as plant growth regulators/ plant growth
hormones/ Phytohormones. These are organic substances that are synthesized in minute quantities in one part
of the plant body and transported to another part.
Phytohormones Growth promoter/ growth inhibitor Explanation
Auxin Growth promoter Stem elongation
Gibberellins Growth of stem
Cytokinin Cell division
Ethylene Growth inhibitor Fruit ripening
Abscisic acid Wilting of leaves
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AUXINS: It is present at the tip of stem and roots. It promote cell enlargement, cell differentiation and fruit
growth.

This diagram explains the bending of a plant stem or shoot towards light by the action of ‘auxin hormone’.

GIBBERELLINS: It promotes cell enlargement and cell differentiation. It also promotes fruit growth, elongation
of shoots and in breaking the dormancy in seeds and buds.
CYTOKININS: It promotes cells division in plants and breaks dormancy in seeds and buds. It also delay ageing
in leaves and promotes the opening of stomata.
ABSCISIC ACID: This hormone inhibits the growth of a plant. It promotes dormancy in seeds and buds. It
promotes closing of stomata, wilting and falling of leave and detachment of fruit and flower from the plant.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 MARK)

1. The parts A, B and C in the following diagram are:
(a) A- Motor Neuron, B- Relay neuron, C- Sensory neuron
(b) A- Sensory Neuron, B- Motor neuron, C- Relay neuron
(c) A-Relay Neuron, B- Motor neuron, C- Sensory neuron
(d) A- Motor Neuron, B- Sensory neuron, C- Relay neuron

2. Identify which of the following statements about thyroxin

is incorrect
(a) Thyroid gland requires iodine to synthesize thyroxin.
(b) Thyroxin is also called thyroid hormone.
(c) Iron is essential for the synthesis of thyroxin
(d) It regulates protein, carbohydrates and fat metabolism in the body

3. The movement of a plant part in response to the force of attraction exerted by the earth is called:
(a) Hydrotropism (b) Geotropism (c) Chemotropism (d) Phototropism

4. The parts (A, B & C ) of Hind brain are:

(a) A- Pons , B- Cerebellum, C- Medulla
(b) A- Cerebellum, B- Pons, C- Medulla
(c) A- Medulla, B- Pons, C- Cerebellum
(d) A- Pons, B- Medulla, C- Cerebellum

5. Priya is writing some statements, choose the correct statement and

help her:
(a)The hormones are poured directly into the blood and carried
throughout the body by blood circulatory system.
(b) The hormones have their effect at the sites different from the sites where they are made so they are called
42
chemical messengers.
(c) The hormones act on specific tissue or organ is called the target organs.
(d) All the above
6. The germination of pollen tube on stigma is an example of
(a) Phototropism (b) Hydrotropism (c) Geotropism (d) Chemotropism
ANSWERS
1. b 2.d 3.c 4.b 5.d 6.d

ASSERTION -REASONING BASED QUESTIONS (1 MARK)

Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions
selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion (A): Insulin regulates blood sugar level.
Reason (R): Insufficient secretion of insulin causes diabetes.

2. Assertion (A): The effect of auxin hormone on the growth of root is exactly opposite to that on a stem.
Reason (R): Auxin hormone increases the rate of growth in root and decreases the rate of growth in stem.

3. Assertion (A): Transmission of the nerve impulse across a synapse is accomplished by neurotransmitters.
Reason (R): Transmission of nerve impulse across a synapse is accomplished by electrical impulse.

4. Assertion (A): Failure of secretion of growth hormone from an early age causes dwarfism in the patient.
Reason (R): Adrenalin hormone is a stress related hormone.
ANSWERS
1. a 2. c 3. c 4. b

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS)

1. A person is advised by a doctor to take less sugar in his diet. Name the disease from which the man is
suffering. For the disease which hormone is responsible?
Ans: (a) Disease- Diabetes mellitus, Hormone – Insulin, Gland- Pancreas
2. Which glands secrets growth hormone? What will be the consequences of Deficiency and
Excess secretion of growth hormone?
Ans: Gland- Pituitary Gland, Excess secretion: Gigantism, Deficiency: Dwarfism
3. How does chemical coordination occur in plants?
Ans: In plants, chemical coordination occurs with the help of plant hormones. Auxin, Gibbrelins, Cytokinin,
Abscisic acid and ethylene are plant hormones. They help to coordinate growth, development and response to
the environment.
4. What events take place between the synapse of two neurons?
Ans: A synapse is a gap between two neurons. In the synapse, nerve impulses are conducted with the help of
chemicals called neurotransmitters. Thus an electrical impulse convert into chemical impulse at synapse.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)

1. Answer the following:
(a) Hormone responsible for the changes noticed in females at puberty?
(b) Deficiency of this hormone causes dwarfism
(c) Hormone due to which blood sugar level rises
(d) Mineral necessary for the synthesis of Thyroxin
(e) Hormone responsible for the changes noticed in males at puberty
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(f) Hormone required for metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins and fats.
Ans: (a) Oestrogen (b) Growth hormone (c) Insulin (d) Iodine (e) Testosterone (f) Thyroxine
2. Mention the type of tropic movement shown in the following diagram.

A B C
Ans: A- Hydrotropism, B- Geotropism, C- Thigmotropism

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)

1. (a) What are the common secondary sexual characters in boys and girls at puberty?
(b) Which hormone is responsible for these characters in boys and girls?
(c) Name the reproductive organs that secretes these hormones.
(d) What is Adam’s apple?
Ans: (a) Change in voice, Increase in height, growth of hair in pubic areas.
(b) Males- Testosterone, Females – Oestrogen/ Progesterone
(c) Males- Testis, Females- Ovaries
(d) The Adam's apple — is the cartilage that wraps around the front of your larynx — or voice box.
2. Write one example each of the following tropic movements:
(i) Positive phototropism (ii) Negative phototropism (iii) Positive geotropism (iv) Negative geotropism (v)
Chemotropism.
Ans: (i) Positive phototropism: shoots growing towards light.
(ii) Negative phototropism: roots growing away from light towards ground.
(iii) Positive geotropism: growth of roots towards earth due to the pull of the earth.
(iv)Negative geotropism: shoots growing away from the earth.
(v) Chemotropism: growth of pollen tubes towards the ovules.
3. List in tabular form three differences between nervous control and chemical control.
Nervous control Chemical control
(i) Information travels rapidly in a fraction
of second. Information travels slowly.
(ii) Information is sent as an electrical impulse Information is sent as a chemical messenger
along axon and as a chemical across called hormone, via blood stream.
synapse.
(iii) Information is directed to specific receptors Information is spread throughout the body by
which can be one or a few nerve fibres, gland cells blood from which the target cells or organs
or other neurons. pick it up.
(iv) Effect of message usually lasts for a very short Effect of message usually lasts longer.
while.

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 CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS ( 4 MARKS )
1. In a village, many children have complained about swollen necks every month. A villager, Hari Singh is
superstitious and he thinks that the village is cursed by a 'devil'. While Shyam, another villager, thinks it as a
disease which needs consultation with a doctor.
(a) Do you agree with Hari Singh?
(b) What can be the reason behind swollen necks of the young children in the
village?
(c) Name the endocrine glands involved and give its position.
OR
(c) Name the hormone secreted from the gland. Give its function.
Ans: (a) No, since the case of swollen neck is slowly spreading every month. It
seems more likely to be a disease and not any curse.
(b) The reason behind swollen necks of the young children in the village is due to deficiency of Iodine. This
condition is called Goitre which is due to swelling of Thyroid Gland.
(c) Thyroid gland, neck
OR
(c) Thyroxin, Regulates the Metabolism of carbohydrate, protein and fat.
CHAPTER – 7
HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE

REPRODUCTION It is the process of producing new individuals of the same kind.

Importance of Reproduction - It ensures continuity of species. It provides variations.
Importance of DNA copying and Variation in Reproduction- Deoxyribonucleic acid is the genetic material
that is present in the cells of all organisms carries genetic information from one generation to the other and this
helps in producing organisms of its own type. DNA copying is a must for inheriting the traits from parents.
Variations in DNA copying may give rise to new species. In nature, variations occur during reproduction.
There are mainly two types of reproduction - Asexual Reproduction and Sexual Reproduction
Asexual reproduction Sexual reproduction
In this single parent is involved. In this two parents are involved.(one male and one
female)
It does not involve fusion of gametes Fusion of gamete is involved.
There is no meiosis Meiosis occurs
No variation in offspring variation occur
ASEXUAL REPRODUCTION:
Fission-In this organism divide into two or more equal parts and each develop into identical individuals. Ex.
Amoeba, Plasmodium.
Regeneration- If an individual’s body is cut into several pieces, each of its parts regrows into a new individual.
Ex- Planaria

Fragmentation-Individual breaks into two or more fragments. Each fragment give rise to new organism. Ex.
Spirogyra

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Budding- In this new organism develops as a bud (outgrowth on the parent body). The new organisms
remains attached to the parent body till it gets matures. Ex- Hydra, Yeast

Spore formation - Spores are produced in sporangia and germinate to produce new individuals.
Ex. Rhizopus (bread mould)

VEGETATIVE PROPAGATION - Vegetative propagation is the production of new plants from the vegetative
parts of the plant like roots, stems and leaves. Vegetative propagation is of two types.
Natural Vegetative Propagation: The new plant can be produced by stem, roots or leaves, naturally.
By stem: Ginger, potato, sugarcane rose By root: Dahlia By leaves: Bryophyllum

Artificial Vegetative Propagation: New plant is formed

by vegetative parts by human beings commercially.
Methods are: cutting, layering, grafting
Grafting: the cut stems of two different plants are joined
together in such a way that the stems join and grow as a
single plant. The part that provides the root is called stock
and added piece is called scion.
Advantages of Vegetative Propagation
● It saves time.
● Plants produced by vegetative methods are identical to the parents.
● Plants, which do not produce viable seeds or have lost the ability to produce seeds, can be propagated
by this method.
SEXUAL REPRODUCTION: The production of new organism from two parents with the involvement of germ
cells (or gametes) is called sexual reproduction.
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants (Angiosperms)
Flower is the reproductive part of the plant. It has four main part
Sepal: Green leaf like structures which protects the bud.
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Petals: Colorful, attract insects for pollination.
Stamen: Male reproductive part which consists of anther and filament. Anther produces pollen, the male game
Carpel: Female reproductive part of a flower. It consists of ovary, stigma and style. Female gamete egg is
present in ovule.

▪ Pollination - The process of transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma of a flower. It takes place
by various agents like water, wind, insects, birds, bats, etc. It is of two types.
▪ Fertilization - The fusion of male and female gamete is fertilization. It occurs inside the ovary to form
zygote
▪ Embryo - Zygote divides several times to form an embryo within the ovule. On maturity, ovary develops
into fruit and ovule into seed.
▪ Germination - The growth of seed into seedling is germination.
Sexual Reproduction in Human Beings
Male reproductive system
 It consists of one pair of testes where sperm formation takes place and Sperm is delivered through the
vas deferens where secretions of the prostate gland and seminal vesicles add their secretions. These
secretions help in transportation and provide nutrition to sperm.
 Testes also secrete hormones like testosterone.
 Testosterone brings about changes in the appearance of boys at the time of puberty.
Female reproductive system
 It consists of mainly a pair of ovaries, a pair of fallopian tube (oviduct) and a uterus.
 On puberty the ovary starts producing eggs and releases one egg each month.
 Fertilization is a fusion of sperm and egg. It takes place in the fallopian tube. The fertilized egg is called
a zygote which develops into an embryo.
 Developing embryo is implanted in Uterus.
Secondary sexual characters: External features that distinguish a male from a female.
Secondary sexual characters in males: Secondary sexual characters in females
Growth of moustache and beard Breasts start developing
Growth of hair in pubic area, armpits and chest Mammary glands develop
Development of Adam’s apple Growth of hair in pubic area and armpits
Sweat glands and oil glands develop

47
 FEMALE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM MALE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM
Placenta - The embryo gets nutrition from the mother’s blood with the help of a special tissue called Placenta.
It provides a large surface area for glucose and oxygen to pass from the mother to the embryo. Similarly, the
wastes from developing embryo are removed to mother’s blood through placenta.
Gestation Period: The time period from fertilization up to the birth of the baby is called gestation period. In
humans, it is about nine months.
What happens if fertilization doesn’t take place: In the absence of fertilisation, the egg is expelled through
vagina along with the bleeding caused by the breaking of uterine wall. This is called menstruation.
Menstruation usually occurs 14 days after ovulation and lasts for 3-5 days. The first menstruation in a female’s
life is called menarche. After the age of 45- 55 years, the ovaries do not release any further egg, this stage is
called menopause.
What happens if fertilization take place: If the ovum gets fertilized by the sperm, a zygote is formed and an
embryo starts developing. Till the birth of the child, neither any egg is released from ovary nor does
menstruation take place.
Reproductive Health - Reproductive Health means a total well-being in all aspects of reproductive, i.e.,
physical, emotional and social behaviour.
Contraceptive Methods -
 To control population
 To avoid unplanned pregnancy
 To avoid transfer of sexually transmitted disease.
There are four methods of contraception.
a) Barrier methods - The physical devices that prevent conception by inhibiting the entry of sperms in
the female genital tract. Example: condoms, diaphragms etc. It prevents STDs.
b) Surgical methods - It include vasectomy (blocks vas deferens to prevent sperms from coming out) in
males and tubectomy (blocks fallopian tubes to prevent the entry of eggs in it) in females.
c) Chemical methods -oral and vaginal pills.
d) Intra uterine contraceptive device (IUCD)-Copper-T
STDs (Sexually transmitted diseases) - are Infections transmitted from an infected person to a healthy
person through sexual contact. Example- Gonorrhoea and Syphilis are caused by bacteria while HIV/AIDS
and genital Herpes are caused by virus.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS ( 1 MARK )

1. Reproduction of an organisms is essential in order to:
(a) keep the individual organism alive (c) maintain growth
(b) fulfil their energy requirement (d) continue the species generation after generation

2. Which among the following is not the function of testes at puberty?

(i) Formation of germ (iii) Development of placenta
48
(ii) Secretion of testosterone (iv) Secretion of estrogen
(a) i. and ii (b) ii and iii (c) ii and iv (d) iii and iv
3. The oviduct of a female is blocked by surgical method in a process called
(a) Vasectomy (b) Copper-T (c) Tubectomy (d) Diaphragm
4. Which process will likely be disturbed or not occur, if the labelled part is removed from
the flower?
(a) Formation of seed
(b) transport of pollens
(c) formation of pollen
(d) development of pollen tube
5. Which event will likely occur in the ovaries of females after attaining puberty?
(a) Fertilization (b) production of eggs
(c) growth and development of embryo (d) none of the above
6. Two organisms which reproduce by budding are:
(a) Rhizopus and Yeast
(b) Yeast and Hydra
(c) Rhizopus and Spirogyra
(d) Yeast and Spirogyra
7. Carefully study the diagram of flower with labels A to D. Select the option which is correct.

(a) A-Anther-Formation of ovules

(b) B-Stigma-Receives pollen grains
(c) C-Ovary-Contains pollens which develop into seeds
(d) D-Filament-Lifts anther to disperse pollen grains
ANSWERS
1. d 2.d 3.c 4.a 5.b 6.b 7.d

ASSERTION- REASONING TYPE QUESTIONS (1 MARK)

Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions
selecting the appropriate option given below:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion: In human male, testes are extra abdominal organs which are present inside scrotum.
Reason: Scrotum has a relatively lower temperature needed for the production and storage of sperms.
2. Assertion: The child sex ratio is declining at an alarming rate in some sections of our society.
Reason: Female foeticide is being carried out recklessly.
3. Assertion: Vasectomy is a surgical method of birth control.
Reason: It takes place in human females.
4. Assertion: Barrier method is the most preferred method to prevent STD’s.
Reason: Condoms help to prevent the contact of bodily fluids between male and female.
ANSWERS:
1. a 2. a 3. c 4. a

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 SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS)
1. Write one word for the following:
a) Release of ovum from ovary.
b) Onset of menstrual cycle in a female.
Ans: a) Ovulation b) Menarche
2. Why copper - T cannot protect a woman from sexually transmitted diseases?
Ans: No, because usage of copper-T cannot stop the contact of body fluids. Hence, it cannot protect her from
getting sexually transmitted diseases.
3. Pollination brings male gamete in close proximity to the female reproductive part. Justify the statement.
Ans: Pollination is the transfer of male gamete from anther to stigma. This brings male gamete near to the female
gamete for the purpose of fertilization.
4. Differentiate between pollen grains and ovule.
Ans: Pollen grains contain male gametes while ovule contains female gametes

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)

1 .What is the importance of DNA copying in reproduction?
Ans: DNA copying is essential for transferring genetic material from one generation to another. DNA copying is
a must for inheriting the traits from parents. Any variations in DNA copying will give rise to variations.
2. Answer the following.
(a) What happens to the zygote after fertilization in flowering plants?
(b) Identify the labelled parts A, B and C in the given figure.

Ans: (a) After fertilisation, the zygote divides several times to form an embryo
within the ovule.The ovary grows rapidly and ripens to form a fruit. Meanwhile,
the petals, sepals, stamens, style and stigma may shrivel and fall off.
(b) A – Plumule, B – Radicle, C – Cotyledon
3. Rajesh observed a patch of greenish black powdery mass on a stale piece of bread. (a) Name the
organism responsible for this and its specific mode of asexual reproduction. Name its vegetative and
reproductive part.
Ans: a. Rhizopus, spore formation
b. Hyphae and sporangia
4. Why is the variation beneficial to the species but not necessarily for the individual?
Ans: The variations are beneficial to the species than individuals because sometimes the climatic changes have
a drastic effect on the species, which makes their survival difficult. For examples, if the temperature of the water
body increases, then there might be certain species of microorganisms which might die. This may result in
disturbance in the environment. So, variation is beneficial to species and not for the individual
5. What could be the reasons for adopting contraceptive methods?
 Ans: Reasons for adopting contraceptive methods: To control population
 To avoid unplanned pregnancy
 To avoid transfer of sexually transmitted disease
6. How does the embryo get nourishment inside the mother’s body?
Ans: Inside the mother’s body embryo gets nourishment from the mother’s blood from a structure called
placenta, it contains villi. This structure provides a large surface area for glucose and oxygen to pass from the
mother to the embryo
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)
1. Describe the different methods of asexual reproduction seen in animals using neat labelled diagrams.
Ans: Description for the following: 1. Fission: binary and multiple fission 2. Regeneration
3. Budding (relevant diagrams)
50
2. List five advantages of vegetative propagation.
Ans:
 Vegetative propagation is a cost-effective.
 It is a quick and easy way to propagate.
 It takes much less time to grow a plant.
 Seedless plants can grow through this method
 Copy of parent plant
3. Draw a sectional view of human female reproductive system and label the part where
(a) Egg develops (b) Fertilisation takes place (c) Implantation of egg
Ans: Diagram of female reproductive system
(a) Egg develops in ovary. (b) Fertilisation takes place in fallopian tube. (c) The fertilised egg gets implanted in
uterus
4. What are the different methods of contraception?
Ans: The different methods of contraception are as follows:
Barrier method- In this method, condom, diaphragm, and cervical caps are used. They prevent the entry of the
sperm inside the female body during intercourse.
Chemical method- In this method, women uses pills to suppress the release of an ovum in the fallopian tube.
Contraceptive devices- IUCD Intrauterine contraceptive devices such as copper-T are placed in the uterus, and
it prevents the sperms from reaching the uterus.
Surgical method- In this method, vas deferens of the male and fallopian tube of the female is cut or tied by
surgery.
CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS (1 MARK)
1. Observe the given diagram and answer the following question.
(a) Why testes are called extra abdominal organ?
(b) Which of the part add its secretion into sperms to make semen?
(c) Which of the two products are excreted from part C?
OR
(c) Label the parts A, B, C, and D
Ans: (a) Sperms produce in testes require low temperature, thus they are
found in outside the abdomen.
(b) Seminal vesicles and prostate gland
(c) Urine and semen
OR
(c) Part A –Ureter B-Prostate gland C-Urethra D-Vas Deferens

CHAPTER – 8
HEREDITY
● The process of transmission of characters from parents to off spring is known as inheritance. This is the
basis of heredity.
● Genetics is the science that deals with heredity and variation.

● Variation: Small changes / modifications in a particular character that are visible between parents and Off
springs
● Gregor Johann Mendel is known as the father of genetics.
Heterozygous Two different alleles are present together. E.g.- Tt
Genotype It is the genetic makeup of an individual. E.g.- TT, tt, Tt
Phenotype It is an observable feature. E.g.- tall, dwarf
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 Monohybrid cross Cross to observe a single character. E.g.- height of the plant
Dihybrid cross Cross to observe two characters at the same time. E.g. colour and shape of
seed
Types of Variation-
1- Somatic variations: occur in vegetative cell and not inherited
Eg. Boring of ear pinna by Indian women, hair style etc.
2- Germinal variations: occur in special gamete forming cells only. Inherit in next generation
Eg. Human skin colour, shape of nose, etc.
Importance of variations
● Variation enables organisms to adjust and adapt better according to the changing conditions of the
environment (Survival advantage)
● Different kinds of variations in organisms lead to the development of new species.
MENDEL AND HIS CONTRIBUTION TO GENETICS G.J.
Mendel started his work on Pisum sativum (garden pea). He
is known as the Father of genetics.The reasons for choosing
garden pea for the experiment were-
● Short life cycle
● A large number of seeds produced
● Self-pollination
● Several contrasting characters can be found
● Mendel chose seven pairs of contrasting characters for his experiments.

MENDEL`S LAW OF INHERITANCE

Law of Dominance: When parents having pure
contrasting characters are crossed then only one
character expresses itself the F1 generation. This
character is the dominant character and the
character/ factor which cannot express itself is called
the recessive character.
Law of segregation: The phenomenon of separation
of the two alternating factors of one character, during
gamete formation so that one gamete receives only
one factor of a character is called as Law of
Segregation.
Law of Independent Assortment-
When two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid,
segregation of one pair of character is independent of
other pair of character.
Dihybrid cross. He cross breed pea plants bearing

52
round green seed (RRyy) with plants bearing wrinkled
and yellow seeds (rrYY).
In the F1 generation he obtained all round and yellow
seeds it means round and yellow traits of seeds are
dominant features while wrinkled and green are
recessive.
He self-crossed the plants of F1 and found that in F2
generation four different types of seeds round
yellow,round green, wrinkled yellow and wrinkled
green in the ratio of 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 are present.

HOW DO TRAITS GET EXPRESSED?

DNA is regulating authority of making proteins in the
cell.
Gene provides information for one particular protein.
E.g. the height of a plant depends upon the growth hormone which is controlled by the gene.
Both parents contribute equally to the DNA of next-generation during sexual reproduction.

SEX DETERMINATION IN HUMAN

The process of determining the sex of an individual, based on the composition of the genetic makeup is
called sex determination.
• Humans have 23 Pairs of Chromosome
• Out of 23 pairs, 22 pairs are Autosomes and one pair is called Sex Chromosome.
• Women have a perfect pair of sex chromosomes that is XX , also known as
homogametic.
• Men have an imperfect pair of sex chromosomes that is XY, also known as
heterogametic.
• During reproduction all children will inherit an X chromosome from their mother
• From father, it may receive either X or Y chromosome
• A child who inherits an X chromosome from her father will be a girl, and one
who inherits a Y chromosome from him will be a boy.
In some organism-environment also plays a crucial role in the determination of sex-
● In some Reptiles: The temperature at which a fertilized egg is
incubated governs the gender.
● Snails: A particular animal can change gender within one’s lifetime.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 MARK)

1. Exchange of genetic material takes place in
(a) Vegetative reproduction (b) Asexual reproduction (c) Sexual reproduction (d) budding
2. Which of the following characteristics of pea plant was not used by Mendel in his experiments?
(a) Seed shape
(b) Flower position
(c) Flower colour
(d) Pod length
3. The law of dominance states that
(a) A dominant trait always suppresses the recessive trait
(b) the recessive trait is always expressed
(c) the dominant trait is always suppressed
(d) the recessive trait dominates over dominant trait
53
 4. Independent inheritance of two separate traits, shape and colour of seeds in Mendel’s cross on pea plants
resulted in an observable ratio of:
(a) 3 : 1
(b) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(c) 1 : 1
(d) 9 : 4 : 2 : 1
5. Which of the following is controlled by the gene?

(i) (ii)

(a) Only (i)

(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i)and(ii)
(d) Sometimes (i) and sometimes (ii)
6. The sex of a child is determined by
(a) X- Chromosome in the zygote
(b) Y- chromosome in the zygote
(c) Sex is determined by chance
(d) None of the above
7. A couple has six daughters. What is the possibility of them having a girl next time?
(a) 10% (b) 50% (c) 90% (d) 100%
1.c 2. d 3. a 4.b 5. a 6. b 7. b
ASSERTION-REASONING BASED QUESTIONS (1 MARK)
Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(e) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(f) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(g) A is true but R is false.
(h) A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion (A): Variations are seen in offspring produced by sexual reproduction.
Reason (R): DNA molecule generated by replication is not identical to original DNA.

2. Assertion (A): The sex of a child is determined by the mother.

Reason (R): Humans have two types of sex chromosomes: XX and XY.

3. Assertion (A): In humans, male (or father) is responsible for sex of the baby which is born.
Reason (R): Y chromosomes are present in male gametes or sperms only.

4. Assertion (A): Accumulation of variation in a species increases the chances of its survival in changing
environment.

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 Reason (R): Accumulation of heat resistance in some bacteria ensure their survival even when
temperature in environment rises too much.

Answers
1. c 2. d 3. a 4. a

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS ( 2 MARKS )

1. Define variation in relation to a species. Why is variation beneficial in the species?
Ans: Variation refers to the differences in the characters or traits among the individuals of a species. Variations
are beneficial to the species because they enable the organisms to adapt themselves in changing environment.
2. What are genes? Where are the genes located?
Ans: Genes are part of DNA containing genetic information of the body.They are located in the chromosomes of
cells.
3. List two differences between dominant trait and recessive trait.
Ans: A dominant trait expresses itself in F1generation but a recessive trait is not expressed in F1 generation.
Percentage of progeny with recessive trait is always less in F2 generation as compared to dominant trait.
4. How does an asexually reproducing organism produce variation among its progeny? Explain giving an
example.
Ans: In asexually reproducing organisms variation occurs due to inaccuracies in DNA copying at the time of
nuclear division. For example, one bacterium divides, it will give rise to two bacteria. These daughter bacteria
would be similar in body design, but with subtle differences.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)
1. Define: a) allele b) gene c) variation
Ans: a) Allele: One of two or more possible forms of a gene that are found at the same loci on a homologous
pair of chromosomes.
b) Gene: A gene is the basic physical and functional unit of heredity. Genes are made up of DNA.
c) Variation: The differences in characters of parents and offspring are known as variations.
2. How is the sex of a newborn child determined in humans?
Ans: The sex of the individual is genetically determined i.e., genes inherited from parents decide whether the
newborn will be a boy or a girl. A newborn who inherits an 'X' chromosome from father will be a girl and one who
inherits a 'Y' chromosome will be a boy.
3. Sexual reproduction leads to variation. How?
Ans: Sexual reproduction involves the fusion of male and female gametes, which leads to the mixing of character
of parents and thus, causes more variations in characters.
4. How do Mendel’s experiments show that traits are inherited independently? Explain with an example.
Ans: Through his dihybrid crosses Mendel explained the independent existence of traits. Example: Mendel
crossed pure breeding tall plants having round seed with pure breeding short plants having wrinkled seeds. The
plants of F1 generation were all tall with round seeds, indicating that the traits of tallness and round seeds were
dominant. Self-breeding of F1 yielded 3 short and round seeded and one short and wrinkled seeded plant. Tall
wrinkled seeded and short round seeded plants are new combinations which can develop only when the traits
are inherited independently
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS ( 5 MARKS )
1. Why did Mendel choose Garden pea for his experiments (give three reasons)? How did he make sure
that the parent plants were true breeding?
Ans. Mendel chose pea plants for his experiments because of the following reasons:
(i) The flowers of this plant are bisexual.
(ii) They are self-pollinating, and thus, self and cross-pollination can easily be performed.
55
(iii) The different physical characteristics were easy to recognize and study.
To obtain true breeding plants he self-pollinated the pure plants for many generations to ensure that there
was no progeny which was not true to the particular trait.

2. In a cross between plants with purple flowers and plants

with white flowers, the FI had all purple flowers. When F1
generation was self-bred, the F2 generation gave rise to 1000
individuals, 750 of which had purple flowers. Make a cross and
answer.
(а) What are the genotypes of F2 individuals?
(b) What is the ratio of purple to white flower plants in F2
generation?
Ans.
(a) Genotypes of F2 progeny are : WW, Ww, ww
(b) Ratio between Purple:White flowers are : 3:1

3. Is it possible that a trait is inherited, but may not be

expressed? Justify this with the help of suitable
example. Also state the law which explains this.
Ans: Yes, it is possible that a trait is inherited but may
not be expressed.
For example when pure tall pea plants are crossed
with pure dwarf pea plants only tall pea plants are
obtained in F1 generation. On selfing tall plants of F1
both tall and dwarf plants are obtained in F2
generation in the ratio 3:1.

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS ( 4 MARKS )

1. The cross that includes the inheritance of two pairs of contrasting characters simultaneously is referred as
dihybrid cross. Mendel chose pure breeding plants for yellow(Y) and green(y) seeds and round(R) and
wrinkled(r) shape of seeds. He cross pollinated the plant having yellow round seeds with plant having green
wrinkled seeds. All the plants produced in F1 generation were having, yellow round seeds. The plants raised
from these seeds were self-pollinated, that resulted in production of plants having four phenotypically different
types of seeds.
(a) Out of 16 plants how many plants will exhibit both dominant phenotypes.
(b) How many types of gametes can be produced by YYrr?
(c) What will be the phenotype ratio in F2 generation? Also write the ratio of new combinations formed?
OR
(c) If total 800 plants were produced in F2 generation, how many plants were round -yellow and wrinkled -green?
Ans: (a) 9 plants (b) one type- Yr (c) (d) 9:3:3:1 , 1:1 OR (c) 450, 50

2. Female infanticide is a cruel practice to kill a girl child while it is still in the womb or just after her birth. Many
people ostracize a woman if she fails to bear a male child. People often blame the woman for this because of
ignorance. Many people put all the blame to the god. Let us try to understand how the gender of a child is
determined. In human beings, a somatic cell contains 23 pairs of chromosomes, i.e. 46 chromosomes. Out of
them, 22 pairs have similar chromosomes. These are called autosomes. The chromosomes in the 23 rd pair can
be different and are called heterosome. Chromosomes of the 23rd pair are also called sex chromosomes because
they determine if a zygote would develop into a male child or a girl child.
(a) What is the chance of birth of a female child?
(b) Can a mother be held responsible for the sex of the child?

56
 (c) Show sex determination process in human with help of diagram
OR
(c) Name the sex chromosomes found in males and females.
Ans: (a) 50 percent (b) No, father being heterogametic determines the sex of the child
(c) Refer to explanation content OR (c) In males- XY and in females- XX

CHAPTER -9
Light -Reflection and Refraction
REFLECTION: Bouncing back of light from a smooth and shiny surface.
Laws of reflection:
1) The incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal at the point of incidence, all lie in the same plane.
2) Angle of incidence is always equal to the angle if reflection i.e. ∠i = ∠r

Real image: When the rays of light, actually meet at a point, then the image formed by these rays is said to be
real. Real images can be obtained on a screen.
Virtual image: When the rays of light, appear to meet at a point, then the image formed by these rays is said
to be virtual. Virtual images can’t be obtained on a screen.
Spherical Mirror: If the reflecting surface is part of the hollow sphere then the mirror is a spherical mirror. The
spherical mirror is of two types:

Convex mirror: In this mirror reflecting surface is convex. It diverges the light so it is also called a diverging
mirror.
Concave mirror: In this mirror reflecting surface is concave. It converges the light so it is also called
converging mirror.
Some definitions related to Spherical Mirror:
a) Pole (Vertex): The central point of a mirror is called its pole.
b) Centre of curvature: The center of the sphere of which the mirror is a part is called the center of
curvature. It is denoted by C.
c) Radius of curvature: The radius of the sphere of which the mirror is a part is called the radius of
curvature. It is denoted by R.
d) Principal axis: The straight line passing through the pole and the center of curvature of the mirror is
called the principal axis.
e) Principal focus: It is a point on the principal axis at which the rays parallel to the principal axis meet
after reflection or seem to come from. For a concave mirror, the focus lies in front of the mirror and for a
convex mirror, it lies behind the mirror. In short, a concave mirror has a real focus while a convex mirror
has a virtual focus.
Focal plane: A plane, drawn perpendicular to the principal axis and passing through the principal focus.

57
Focal length: The distance between the pole and the focus is called the focal length. It is represented by f.
The focal length is half the radius of curvature.
f = R/2

Image formation by Concave mirror

Image formation by Convex mirror

Sign Conventions of Spherical Mirror

1. All the distances are measured from the pole of the mirror as the origin.
2. Distances measured in the direction of incident rays are taken as positive.
3. Distances measured opposite to the direction of incident rays are taken as negative.
4. Distances measured upward and perpendicular to the principal axis are taken as positive.
58
 5. Distances measured downward and perpendicular to the principal axis are taken as negative.

1 1 1
Mirror formula: 𝑓
= 𝑣
+ 𝑢
Where, f = focal length u = object distance v = image distance

Magnification by Spherical Mirror: This is the ratio of the height of the image to the height of the object.
ℎ 𝑣
M = ℎ𝑖 = - 𝑢
𝑜
Where, m = magnification hi = height of image ho = height of object

REFRACTION
Refraction of Light: The bending of light at the interface of two different optical media is called Refraction of
light. The speed of light is more in optically rare medium in comparison of optically denser medium.
Laws of refraction:
1) The incident ray, the refracted ray and the normal, all lie in the same plane at the point of incidence.
2) The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence to the sine of the angle of refraction is a constant.
𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑖
𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑟
= Constant(n)
This constant is called the refractive index of the second medium w.r.t first.

Refractive Index: If c is the speed of light in air and v is the speed of light in medium, then the refractive index
of the medium is given by-

● Refractive index of medium with respect to air or vacuum is called Absolute Refractive Index.
Refraction through a Rectangular Glass Slab:

When light ray pass through into a glass slab, then the emergent ray is parallel to the incident ray.
This perpendicular distance between the emergent ray and incident ray is called lateral displacement.

i = angle of incidence
r = angle of refraction
e = angle of emergence
Angle of incidence = Angle of emergence, i.e. ∠i = ∠e

Lens: The transparent refracting medium bounded by two surfaces in which at least one surface is curved is
called lens. Lenses are mainly two types: Convex lens and Concave lens.

59
Difference between Convex and Concave Lenses
Convex Lens Concave Lens
1.

2. It converges the light rays. It diverges the light rays.

3. A convex lens is thicker at the center and A concave lens is thicker at the edges and
thinner at the edges. thinner at the center.
4.Used for correction of long-sightedness. Used for correction of short-sightedness.
5.It is also called a positive lens due to It is also called a negative lens due to
positive focal length in nature. negative focal length in nature.
6.e.g. Human Eye, Camera, etc. e.g. Lights, Flashlights, etc.

Center of Curvature: The centers of the sphere, of which the lens is a part is called the center of curvature.
Radii of Curvature: The radii of spheres, of which lens is part is called radius of curvature.
OR
The distance between center of curvature and optical center of a lens is called Radii of Curvature
Principal Axis: The line joining the centers of curvature of two surfaces of lens is called principal axis.
Optical Center: The point on principal axis through which a light ray passes undeviated.
Principal Focus: The point on the principal axis at which all incident rays parallel to the principal axis
converge (or appear to diverge after refraction through the lens).
Refraction through a Lens:
a) An incident ray, parallel to the principal axis, after refraction passes through (or appears to come from),
second focus of the lens.
b) An incident ray, passing through the optical center of the lens, goes undeviated from the lens.
c) An incident ray, passing through the (first) principal focus of the lens, or directed toward it, becomes
parallel to the principal axis after refraction through lens.

Image formation by a convex lens

60
Image formation by a concave lens

Sign conventions:
1) All distances, object distance (u), image distance (v) and focal length (f) are measured from the optical
center.
2) The distances measured in the direction of incident ray are taken as positive and distances measured
against the direction of incident ray are taken as negative.
3) All distances (heights) of objects and images above principal axis are taken as positive and those
below the principal axis are taken as negative.

Lens formula:
1 1 1
= -
𝑓 𝑣 𝑢
Linear magnification: Liner magnification produced by a lens is defined as the ratio of the height of the image
(hi) to the height of the object (ho). It is represented by ‗m.
ℎ 𝑣
m =ℎ𝑖 = 𝑢
𝑜

● If the magnification of a lens is negative, then the image formed is inverted and real.
● If the magnification of a lens is positive, then the image formed is erect and virtual.
Power of a Lens: The ability of a lens to converge or diverge light rays is called power of the lens. It is defined
as the reciprocal of the focal length (in meter). Power is measured in dioptre.
1
P= 𝑓(𝑖𝑛 𝑚𝑒𝑡𝑒𝑟)
SI unit of power of lens in diopter (D)
For combination of lenses,
P = P1 + P2 + P3 + …..
P0= P1 + P2 + P3 + …..
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following can make a parallel beam of light when light from a point source is incident on it?
(a) Concave mirror as well as convex lens (b) Convex mirror as well as concave lens
(c) Two plane mirrors placed at 90° to each other (d) Concave mirror as well as concave lens

2. A 10 mm long awl pin is placed vertically in front of a concave mirror. A 5 mm long image of the awl pin is
formed at 30 cm in front of the mirror. The focal length of this mirror is
61
(a) – 30 cm (b) – 20 cm
(c) – 40 cm (d) – 60 cm

3. Under which of the following conditions a concave mirror can form an image larger than the actual object?
(a) When the object is kept at a distance equal to its radius of curvature
(b) When object is kept at a distance less than its focal length
(c) When object is placed between the focus and centre of curvature
(d) When object is kept at a distance greater than its radius of curvature

4. Figure 10.1 shows a ray of light as it travels from medium A to medium B. Refractive index of the medium B
relative to medium A is

(a) √3 / √2
(b) √2 / √3
(c) 1 / √2
(d) √2

5. A light ray enters from medium A to medium B as shown in Figure 10.2. The refractive index of medium B
relative to A will be

(a) greater than unity

(b) less than unity
(c) equal to unity
(d) zero

6. Beams of light are incident through the holes A and B and emerge out of box through the holes C and D
respectively as shown in the Figure 10.3. Which of the following could be inside the box?

(a) A rectangular glass slab

(b) A convex lens
(c) A concave lens
(d) A prism

Answers
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (a)

ASSERTION-REASONING
Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion(A) : Light travels faster in glass than in air.
Reason (R) : Glass is denser than air.

2. Assertion(A) : The height of an object is always considered positive.

Reason (R) : An object is always placed above the principal axis in this upward direction.

3. Assertion(A): Virtual images are always erect.

62
Reason (R) : Virtual images are formed by diverging lenses only.

4. Assertion(A): A person cannot see his erect and enlarged image in a concave mirror, unless, he is standing
beyond the center of curvature of the mirror.
Reason (R) : In a concave mirror, image formed is real provided the object is situated beyond its focus.

5. Assertion(A) : The emergent ray is parallel to the direction of the incident ray.
Reason (R) : The extent of bending of the ray of light at the opposite parallel faces (air- glass interface and
glass-air interface) of the rectangular glass slab is equal and opposite.

6. Assertion(A): The mirrors used in search lights are concave spherical.

Reason (R) : In concave spherical mirror the image formed is always virtual.
Answers
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (c)
4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (c)

VERY SHORT ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS

1. List four characteristics of the images formed by plane mirrors. (Delhi 2015, AI2011)
Ans: Characteristics of the image formed by a plane mirror are
1) image distance is same as that of object distance from mirror.
2) image formed is virtual and erect
3) image formed is of the same size as that of the object
4) image formed is laterally inverted (left appears right and right appears left).

2. What is the magnification of the images formed by plane mirrors and why? (Delhi 2015)
Ans: Magnification of images formed by plane mirrors is unity because for plane mirrors, the size of the image
formed is equal to that of the object.

3. If the image formed by a spherical mirror for all positions of the object placed in front of it is always erect and
diminished, what type of mirror is it? Draw a labelled ray diagram to support your answer. (2018)
Ans: If the image formed by a spherical mirror is always erect and diminished then it is convex mirror.

4. An object is placed at a distance of 30 cm in front of a convex mirror of focal length 15 cm. Write four
characteristics of the image formed by the mirror. (Delhi 2017)
Ans: Four characteristics of the image formed by the given convex mirror are:
a) Virtual c) Erect
b) Image is always formed behind the mirror between pole and focus. d) Diminished

5. Name the type of mirrors used in the design of solar furnaces. Explain how high temperature is achieved by
this device. (AI 2016)
Ans: Concave mirrors are used in the designing of solar furnaces. When a solar furnace is placed at the focus
of a large concave mirror, it focuses a parallel beam of light on the furnace. Therefore, a high temperature is
attained at the point after some time.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 marks)

1. AB and CD, two spherical mirrors, are parts of a hollow spherical ball with its center at O as shown in the
1
diagram. If arc AB = 2 of arc CD, what is the ratio of their focal lengths? State which of the two mirrors will
63
always form virtual image of an object placed in front of it and why? (Foreign 2016)

Ans: Focal length of a mirror is given by Focal length = Radius of curvature/2 Since both the mirrors have
same radius of curvature, therefore focal length of the two mirrors will be same, i.e.,
𝑓1 1
𝑓2
=1
Since virtual image is always formed by convex mirror. The mirror AB will always form virtual image.

2. List two possible ways in which a concave mirror can produce a magnified image of an object placed in front
of it. State the difference if any between these two images.
Ans: A concave mirror can produce a magnified image of an object when object is placed:
a) In between its pole and its focus
b) In between its focus and its center of curvature.
Difference, between these two images:
a. The image produced in first case will be virtual and erect.
b. The image produced in second case will be real and inverted.

3. The linear magnification produced by a spherical mirror is +1/3. Analysing this value state the (i) type of
mirror and (ii) the position of the object with respect to the pole of the mirror. Draw any diagram to justify your
answer. (AI 2014, Foreign 2014)
Ans: (i) Convex mirror
(ii) Between infinity and the pole of the mirror.

4. The linear magnification produced by a spherical mirror is -1/5. Analysing this value state the type of
spherical mirror and (ii) the position of the object with respect to the pole of the mirror. Draw ray diagram to
justify your answer. (Foreign 2014)
Ans: (i) Concave mirror
(ii) Object is placed beyond C.

5. A concave mirror is used for image formation for different positions of an object. What inferences can be
drawn about the following when an object is placed at a distance of 10 cm from the pole of a concave mirror of
focal length 15 cm? (i) Position of the image, (ii) Size of the image, (iii) Nature of the image, (iv)Draw a labelled
ray diagram to justify your inferences.
Ans: Given, f = -15 cm, u = -10 cm.. Thus the object is placed
● Between the principal focus and pole of the mirror.
● The position of the image will be behind the mirror.
● The size of the image will be highly enlarged.
● The nature of the image will be virtual and erect.

6. A student wants to project the image of a candle flame on a screen 48 cm in front of a mirror by keeping the
flame at a distance of 12 cm from its pole. Suggest the type of mirror he should use. Find the linear
magnification of the image produced. How far is the image from its object? Draw ray diagram to show the
image formation in this case.
Ans: Concave mirror
−𝑣 −(−48)
Linear magnification, m = 𝑢 = −12 = -4
The distance between the image and the object
= 48 – 12 = 36 cm
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7. A student wants to obtain an erect image of an object using a concave mirror of 12 cm focal length. What
should be the range of distance of the candle flame from the mirror? State the nature and size of the image he
is likely to observe. Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.
Ans: To obtain an erect image, the object is placed in between pole and the focus of the concave mirror. So
range of distance of the candle flame from the mirror is in between 12 cm.
Nature of the image = Virtual and erect.
Size of the image = Enlarged

8. The refractive indices of glass and water with respect to air are 3/2 and 4/3 respectively. If speed of light in
8
glass is 2 × 10 m/s, find the speed of light in water. (AI 2016)
Ans:

9. The absolute refractive indices of glass and water are 1.5 and 1.33 respectively. In which medium does light
travel faster? Calculate the ratio of speeds of light in the two media. (Delhi 2013 C)
Answer. Given: refractive index of glass, ng = 1.5 Refractive index of water, nw = 1.33
Since, refractive index of medium,

For glass ng = c / vg ……… (i)

For water nw = c / vw ……… (ii)
Since velocity of light in medium is inversely proportional to its refractive index, the light will travel faster in
optically rarer medium i.e., water.
Dividing (i) by (ii),
So, the ratio of vg and vw is 1.33 : 1.5.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 marks)

1. An object 4.0 cm in size, is placed 25.0 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 15.0 cm. At what
distance from the mirror should a screen be placed in order to obtain a sharp image? Find the size of the
image. Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image in this case. (2020)
Ans: Given, h = 4 cm,
u = -25 cm (concave mirror), f = -15 cm
Using mirror formula,

Thus, the image is real and inverted.

65
2. (a) A concave mirror of focal length 10 cm can produce a magnified real as well as virtual image of an object
placed in front of it. Draw ray diagrams to justify this statement, An object is placed perpendicular to the
principal axis of a convex mirror of focal length 10 cm. The distance of the object from the pole of the mirror is
10 cm. Find the position of the image formed.
Ans: A magnified real image is produced in a concave mirror when the object is placed between principal focus
and center of curvature.

A magnified virtual image is produced in a concave mirror when the object is placed between the pole and the
principle focus of the mirror.

Given, f = +10 cm (convex mirror) and u = -10 cm from mirror formula,

3. Define focal length of a spherical lens. A divergent lens has a focal length of 30 cm. At what distance should
an object of height 5 cm from the optical center of the lens be placed so that its image is formed 15 cm away
from the lens? Find the size of the image also. Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image in the
above situation. (AI 2016)
Ans: Distance between the optical centre and the focus of the lens is known as the focal length of the lens.
Given f = -30 cm, v = -15 cm, h = 5 cm
From the lens formula,

Object should be placed 30 cm from the optical centre.

ℎ′ 𝑣 𝑣
Also m = ℎ = 𝑢 ⇒ h’ = h(𝑢)
−15
or h’ = 5 × −30 = 2.5 cm
Size of image formed is 2.5 cm

4. Rishi went to a palmist to show his palm. The palmist used a special lens for this purpose.
a) State the nature of the lens and reason for its use.
b) Where should the palmist place/hold the lens so as to have a real and magnified image of an object?
c) If the focal length of this lens is 10 cm, the lens is held at a distance of 5 cm from the palm, use lens
formula to find the position and size of the image.
Ans: a) The lens used here is a convex lens and it is used as a magnifying glass because at close range, i.e.,
when the object is placed between optic center and principal focus it forms an enlarged, virtual and erect
image of the object.
b) When this lens is placed such that the object is between the 2F and the principal focus, the palmist obtain a
real and magnified image.
c) Given focal length, f = 10 cm and u = -5 cm According to lens formula,

66
Thus, the image will be formed at 10 cm on the same side of the palm and the size of the image will be
enlarged.

Case Study Based Questions (4 marks)

1. A lens is a piece of any transparent material bounded by two curved surfaces.
There are two types of lenses convex lens and concave lens.

Convex lens is made up of a transparent medium bounded by two spherical surfaces such that thicker at the
middle and thinner at the edges. Concave lens is also made up of a transparent medium such that thicker at
the edge and thinner at the middle. The mid-point of the lens is called optical centre.
A point on the principal axis, where the incident parallel rays meet or appears to come out after refraction is
called focus. A convex lens converges a parallel beam of light to other side whereas concave lens spreads out.
(i) Which type of lens would you prefer to use while reading small letters found in dictionary?
(ii) Where should an object be kept in front of convex lens in order to obtain an erect image.
(iii) A person is wearing spectacles of power -2.0D. Find its focal length and state the nature of lens.
Ans:
OR
(iii) The focal length of a diverging lens is 25cm. Name the lens and find its power.
Ans. (i) Convex lens
(ii) between F and O.
(iii) P=100/2=50cm, concave lens
OR
(iii) Concave lens, 4D
2. The refractive index of a medium with respect to vacuum is called the
absolute refractive index of the medium. It is given by, μ = sin i/sinr Medium Refractive Index
Absolute refractive indices of some of the materials A, B, C and D are
A 1.54
given in the following table:
B 1.33
(i) In which of the materials given in the above table, light travels
C 2.42
fastest?
D 1.65
Ans: B
(ii) The speed of light in air is 3x108 ms-1 and that in medium A is 2.5 x 10 ms-1. The refractive index of A will
be _____
Ans: 1.2
(iii) When light travels from air to glass,
(a) angle of incidence > angle of refraction (b) angle of incidence < angle of refraction
(c) angle of incidence = angle of refraction (d) Can't say
Ans: (a) angle of incidence > angle of refraction
(iv) The refractive index of P with respect to Qis 2. Find the refractive index of Q with respect to P.
Ans: 0.5

Chapter- 10
HUMAN EYE AND THE COLOURFUL WORLD
Human Eye
A human eye is an organ which receives the sensation of light. It is roughly 2.3 cm in diameter and is almost a

67
spherical ball filled with some fluid. It consists of the following
parts:
Sclera: A protective tough white layer called the sclera (white
part of the eye).
Cornea: The front transparent part of the sclera is called the
cornea. Light enters the eye through the cornea.
Pupil: A small opening in the iris is known as a pupil. Its size is
controlled by the help of the iris. It controls the amount of light
that enters the eye.
Iris: The iris imparts distinct colour of the eye. The iris also helps regulate or adjust exposure by adjusting the
iris.
Lens: Biconvex lens which becomes thinner to focus on distant objects and becomes thicker to focus on
nearby objects.
Retina: It is a photosensitive layer which act as screen for formation of real and inverted image. It consists of
numerous light sensitive rod and cone cells. It converts images formed by the lens into electrical impulses.
Cones: Cones are more sensitive to bright light.
Rods: Rods are more sensitive to dim lights.
Optic nerves: Nerve that carries electrical impulse from eyes to the brain.
Blind Spot: At the junction of the optic nerve and retina, there are no light sensitive cells called blind spot.

DEFECTS OF HUMAN EYE

1) Myopia (Near – Sightedness):- A person can see nearby objects clearly, but find it difficult to see far -off
objects. The image is formed near the eye lens; that is why this eye defect is called near - sightedness or
myopia. Myopia can be corrected with concave lens.
Causes of Myopia (Near – Sightedness):- It is caused due to:
a) Excessive curvature of the eye lens.
b) Elongation of the eye ball.

2) Hypermetropia (far – sightedness):- A person can see distant objects clearly but cannot see nearby
objects distinctly.
Causes of Hypermetropia (far – sightedness):- It is caused due to:
a) The focal length of the eye lens is too long.
b) Eyeball has become too short.

3) Presbyopia:- The eyes lose their power of accommodation with ageing. As people grow old, the gradual
weakening of the ciliary muscles and diminishing flexibility of the eye lens results in the hardening of the eye
lens, making it more difficult for the eye to focus on close objects.
The defect of far sightedness caused by the loss of elasticity of the eye lens is called presbyopia. Sometimes,
a person may have both far sightedness and short-sightedness. People suffering from presbyopia often require
bi-focal lenses that contain both concave and convex lenses.
Causes of Presbyopia:- It is caused due to:
a) Gradual weakening of the ciliary muscles.
68
 b) Decreasing flexibility of the eye lens.
Correction:- Presbyopia defect is corrected by using bi-focal lenses, which consist of both concave and
convex lenses .

Reflection of light through a triangular glass prism.

Angle of Prism: The angle between two lateral faces is called the angle of the prism.
Angle of Deviation: The angle between the incident ray and emergent ray.

Dispersion of white light by a glass prism: The phenomenon of splitting of white light into its seven
constituent colours when it passes through a glass prism is called dispersion of white light. The various colours
seen are Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange and Red. The sequence of colours remembers as
VIBGYOR. The band of seven colours is called the spectrum.
The violet light bends the most while the red bends the least.

Dispersion of white light by a prism

● For violet colour, the wavelength is minimum and for red colour wavelength is maximum,
i.e. frequency for violet colour is maximum and for red colour frequency is minimum.
Recombination of white light: Newton found that when an inverted prism is placed in the path of dispersed
light then after passing through the prism, they recombine to form white light.

Rainbow:

Formation of the rainbow: The water droplets act like a small prism.
The formation of a rainbow involves a series of physical phenomena
1) refraction,
2) dispersion and
3) internal reflection
Rainbow is always formed in a direction opposite to that of the sun, i.e. the sun is always behind the observer.
The red colour appears on top and violet at the bottom of the rainbow.
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Atmospheric Refraction: The refraction of light caused by the Earth’s atmosphere (having air layers of
varying optical densities) is called Atmospheric Refraction.

Appearance of Star Position/ Twinkling of Star: It is due to atmospheric refraction of star light.
Distant star act as a point source of light. When the starlight enters the Earth’s atmosphere, it undergoes
refraction continuously. Due to this, the apparent position of the star is different from actual position. The star

appears higher than its actual position.

When light from stars enter the earth’s atmosphere, it continuously goes from rarer to denser medium so
refraction of light takes place, which results in appearance of twinkling of star.

Scattering of light
Colour of the sky: The sky appears blue; this is because the size of the particles in the atmosphere is smaller
than the wavelength of visible light, so they scatter the light of a shorter wavelength (blue end of the spectrum).
The blue colour is scattered more and hence the sky appears blue.

Some applications of scattering of light in daily life are:

1) The sun appear red at sunrise and sunset.
2) The sky's blue colour.
3) The absence of an atmosphere causes the sky to be so dark.
4) Red light is used as a warning signal because, due to its longer wavelength, it is least scattered by
particles.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. A person cannot see distinctly objects kept beyond 2 m. This defect can be corrected by using a lens of
power
(a) + 0.5 D (b) – 0.5 D
(c) + 0.2 D (d) – 0.2 D

2. A student sitting on the last bench can read the letters written on the blackboard but is not able to read the
letters written in his text book. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) The near point of his eyes has receded away (b) The near point of his eyes has come closer to him
(c) The far point of his eyes has come closer to him (d) The far point of his eyes has receded away

3. A prism ABC (with BC as base) is placed in different

orientations. A narrow beam of white light is incident
on the prism as shown in fig. In which of the following
cases, after dispersion, the third colour from the top
corresponds to the colour of the sky?
(a) (i) (b) (ii)
70
(c) (iii) (d)(iv)
4. At noon the sun appears white as
(a) light is least scattered (b) all the colours of the white light are scattered away
(c) blue colour is scattered the most (d) red colour is scattered the most

5. Which of the following phenomena of light are involved in the formation of a rainbow?
(a) Reflection, refraction and dispersion (b) Refraction, dispersion and external reflection
(c) Refraction, dispersion and internal reflection (d) Dispersion, scattering and internal reflection

6. Twinkling of stars is due to atmospheric

(a) dispersion of light by water droplets (b) refraction of light by different layers of varying refractive indices
(c) scattering of light by dust particles (d) internal reflection of light by clouds

7. The clear sky appears blue because

(a) blue light gets absorbed in the atmosphere
(b) ultraviolet radiations are absorbed in the atmosphere
(c) violet and blue lights get scattered more than lights of all other colours by the atmosphere
(d) light of all other colours is scattered more than the violet and blue colour lights by the atmosphere

8. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the propagation of light of different colours of white
light in air?
(a) Red light moves slowest
(b) Blue light moves faster than green light
(c) All the colours of the white light move with the same speed
(d) Yellow light moves with the mean speed as that of the red and the violet light

9. The danger signals installed at the top of tall buildings are red in colour. These can be easily seen from a
distance because among all other colours, the red light
(a) is scattered the most by smoke or fog (b) is scattered the least by smoke or fog
(c) is absorbed the most by smoke or fog (d) moves fastest in air

10. Which of the following phenomena contributes significantly to the reddish appearance of the sun at sunrise
or sunset?
(a) Dispersion of light (b) Scattering of light
(c) Total internal reflection of light (d) Reflection of light from the earth

Answers
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (b)

ASSERTION – REASONING
Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion (A): The stars twinkle, while the planets do not.
Reason (R) : The stars are much bigger in size than the planets.

2. Assertion(A): The sky looks dark and black instead of blue in outer space.
Reason (R) : No atmosphere containing air in the outer space to scatter sunlight.

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3. Assertion (A) : Myopia is the defect of the eye in which only nearer objects are seen by the eye.
Reason (R) : The eye ball is elongated.

4. Assertion(A): A normal human eye can clearly see all the objects beyond certain minimum distance.
Reason (R) : The human eye has capacity of adjusting the focal length of eye lens.

Answers
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (a)

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [2 marks]

1. Define the term power of accommodation. Write the modification in the curvature of the eye lens which
enables us to see the nearby objects.
Ans: The ability of the eye lens to adjust its focal length is called the power of accommodation. When the ciliary
muscles contract, the lens becomes thick and its focal length decreases, thus enabling us to see nearby
objects.
2. List two causes of hypermetropia. Draw ray diagrams showing (i) a
hypermetropic eye and (ii) its correction using a suitable optical device.
Ans: Hypermetropia is caused due to following reasons:
1) Shortening of the eyeball
2) Focal length of the crystalline lens is too long.

3. Draw a labelled diagram to explain the formation of a rainbow in the sky.

Ans: Rainbow is formed due to the combined effect of dispersion, refraction, internal reflection and again
refraction of light. Refer text for diagram.

4. A person having a myopic eye used the concave lens of focal length 50cm. What is the power of the lens?
Ans: The formula for the power of lens is Power (P) = 1/f.
P = 1/50 = 0.02 dioptre.

5. A person may suffer from both myopia and hypermetropia defects.

(a) What is this condition called? (b) When does it happen?
Ans: (a) This condition is called presbyopia.
(b) It happens due to gradual weakening of ciliary muscles and diminishing flexibility of eye lens due to aging.

6. How are we able to see nearby and also the distant objects clearly?
Ans: Human eye is able to see nearby and distant objects clearly by changing the focal length of the eye lens
using its power of accommodation.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 marks)

1. What eye defect is myopia? Describe with a neat diagram how this defect of vision can be corrected by
using a suitable lens.
Ans: Myopia is also known as near-sightedness. A person with myopia can see nearby objects clearly but
cannot see distant objects distinctly. Myopia can be corrected by using a concave lens of appropriate focal
length.

72
2. Give reasons: Lights of red colour are used for danger signals.
Ans: Since the wavelength of red is maximum in the spectrum, its penetration power in the air is maximum and
so we can see red colour from farther distances. Thus, the danger signal uses red colour.

3. Why do stars twinkle? Explain.

Ans: The stars are very far away, they are point-sized sources of light. As the path of rays of light coming from
the star goes on varying due to atmospheric refraction, Also the atmosphere keeps moving so the stars
twinkle.

4. Explain, why the planets do not twinkle.

Ans: Planets do not emit light. The planets are much closer to the earth and are the extended source of light.
The light coming from various points of the planet due to atmospheric refraction get averaged out. So, no
twinkling of planets is seen.

5. A star appears slightly higher (above) than its actual position in the sky. Illustrate it with the help of a labelled
diagram. OR
A star appears slightly above its actual position in sky. Explain.
Ans: A star appears slightly above its actual position in the sky. Starlight undergoes refraction continuously and
changes refractive index, before it reaches the earth. Since the atmosphere bends starlight towards the normal,
the star appears slightly above its actual position.

6. What will be the colour of the sky when it is observed from a place in the absence of any atmosphere?
Ans: If the earth had no atmosphere there would not have been any scattering. Then, the sky would look dark.

7. Why is the colour of the clear sky blue?

Ans: When sunlight passes the atmosphere, the fine particles in the air scatter blue colour more strongly than
red. So, the sky appears blue.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 marks)

1. Explain in brief the reason for each of the following:
(a) Advanced sun-rise (b) Delayed sun-set (c) Twinkling of stars
Ans:(a& b): The Sun is visible to us about 2 minutes before the actual sunrise, and about 2 minutes after the
actual sunset because of atmospheric refraction. By actual sunrise, we mean the actual crossing of the horizon
by the Sun. Figure shows the actual and apparent positions of the Sun with respect to the horizon. The time
difference between actual sunset and the apparent sunset is about 2 minutes. The apparent flattening of the
Sun’s disc at sunrise and sunset is also due to the same phenomenon.
(c) Due to atmospheric refraction, position of star visible from sun, is slightly different from its actual position.
This apparent position of the star is not stationary, but keeps on changing with change in physical condition on
earths atmosphere. Since the stars are very distant, they are approximately point-sized sources of light. As the
path of rays of light coming from the star goes on varying slightly, the apparent position of the star fluctuates
and the amount of starlight entering the eye flickers the star sometimes appears brighter, and at some other
time, fainter, which is the twinkling effect.

2. (a) What is meant by the power of accommodation of an eye?

(b) A person with a myopic eye cannot see objects beyond 1.2 m directly. What should be the type of the
corrective lens used? What would be its power?
Ans: (a) The maximum variation in power of the lens so that the far-off and nearby objects are viewed clearly is
called power of accommodation.
(b) To correct, an object at infinity has to be brought as an image to 120 cm.

73
 CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS (4 marks)
1. When a ray of light incident on a prism it will split in seven colours that is called dispersion of light. A prism is
a transparent refracting body bounded by plane faces which are inclined to each other at a particular angle
called angle of prism.. When a ray of light passes through a prism, it suffers refraction twice and hence the ray
deviates through a certain angle from its original path. The angle between the incident ray and emergent ray is
called angle of deviation.
(i) Which colour has minimum angle of deviation?
Ans: Red
(ii) Why red colour is used as danger sign?
Ans. Red colour has longest wavelength so it scatter the least.
(iii) How will you use two identical prisms so that a narrow beam of white light incident on one prism emerges
out of the second prism as white light? Draw the diagram.
Ans,

OR
(iii) Explain diagramatically dispersion of light through prism.
Ans: refer diagram in explanation text

CHAPTER 11
ELECTRICITY
Charge: It is an inherent property of the body due to which the body feels attractive and repulsive forces.
There are two types of electric charges:
(i) Positive and (ii) Negative
● Like charges are repel each other.
● Unlike charges attract each other.
Conductors and insulators:
1) Those substances through which electricity can flow are called conductors. All the metals like silver,
copper, aluminium etc. are conductors.
2) Those substances through which electricity cannot flow are called insulators. Glass, ebonite, rubber,
most plastics, paper, dry wood, etc., are insulators.
Potential Difference: The amount of work done in moving unit positive charge from one point to another in an
electric field is known as potential difference.
74
 ● If a W joule of work has to be done to transfer Q coulombs of charge from one point to another point,
then the potential difference V between the two points is given by the formula:
𝑊𝑜𝑟𝑘 𝑑𝑜𝑛𝑒 𝑊
Potential difference = 𝑄𝑢𝑎𝑛𝑡𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝑜𝑓 𝑐ℎ𝑎𝑟𝑔𝑒 𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑠𝑓𝑒𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑑 = 𝑄

● Potential difference, The SI unit of potential difference is volt (V).

● 1 volt: One volt is defined as the potential difference between two points in a current carrying conductor
when 1 joule of work is done to move a charge of 1 coulomb from one point to another. Therefore,
1 𝑗𝑜𝑢𝑙𝑒
1 volt =
1 𝑐𝑜𝑢𝑙𝑜𝑚𝑏

● Voltmeter: The potential difference is measured by voltmeter. The voltmeter is connected in parallel
across the points where the potential difference is measured. A voltmeter has high resistance.
Electric Current: The electric current is the rate of flow of electric charges (called electrons) in a conductor.
𝐶ℎ𝑎𝑟𝑔𝑒 𝑄
Current = ==
𝑇𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑡

● If a charge of Q coulombs flows through a conductor in time t seconds, then the magnitude I of the
electric current flowing through it is given by
● The SI unit of electric current is ampere and it is denoted by the letter A. Electric current is a scalar
quantity.
● Ammeter: Current is measured by an instrument called ammeter. The ammeter is connected in series
with the circuit. It should have very low internal resistance.
● Voltaic Cell: It is a device which provide a continuous flow of electric current.

Ohm's Law: At constant temperature, the current flowing through a conductor is directly proportional to the
potential difference across its ends.
IαV
This can also-be written as:
VαI
V = IR
Where R is a constant called 'resistance' of the conductor.
Resistance of a Conductor: The property of a conductor due to which it opposes the flow of current through it
is called resistance.
● The resistance of a conductor is numerically equal to ratio of potential difference across its ends to the
current flowing through it. i.e.
𝑉
Resistance =Potential difference/Current R = 𝐼
● The SI unit of resistance is ohm, which is denoted by symbol Ω. 1 ohm: If V = 1 volt, I = I ampere, then
1 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡
R = 1 𝑎𝑚𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑒 = 1 ohm

● Thus, the resistance of a conductor is said to be 1 ohm if 1 ampere current flows through the conductor
when a potential difference of 1 volt is applied across it.
Factors affecting the Resistance of a Conductor: The resistance of the conductor depends:
1) on its length,
2) on its area of cross-section
3) on the nature of its material.
4) temperature.
Resistivity: It has been found by the experiments that:
1) The resistance of a given conductor is directly proportional to its length.
R α l ………(i)
2) The resistance of a given conductor is inversely proportional to its area of cross-section.
75
 R α1/A …….(ii)
By combining the equations (i) and (ii), R α l/A
R = 𝜌 (l/A)
Where 𝜌 is called specific resistance or resistivity of the conductor.
● When l = 1m, A = 1m2, we have 𝜌 = R
Thus, the resistivity of a conductor is the resistance of unit length and unit area of cross-section of the
conductor.
● The SI unit of resistivity is ohm metre (Ωm). Resistivity of an alloy a higher than that of a metal.
Combination of Resistance: The resistance can be combined in two ways:
a) In series
b) In parallel
Resistance in series:

● Resultant and resistance is always greater than individually resistance.

● In series, the total potential difference, V = V1 + V2 + V3 …….(i)
● Applying Ohm’s law to the entire circuit V = IR ……(ii)
● Applying Ohm’s law to each resistance separately, we have
V1 = IR1; V2 = IR2; V3 = IR3 ….(iii)
From equations (i), (ii) and (iii), we have IR = IR1 + IR2 + IR3
R = R1 + R2 + R3

Resistance in parallel:

● Resultant resistance is less than the individual resistance.

● In parallel, the total current: I = I1 + I2 + I3 …….(i)
𝑉
● Applying Ohm’s law to the entire circuit I = 𝑅 ……(ii)
● Applying Ohm’s law to each resistance separately, we have
𝑉 𝑉 𝑉
I1 = 𝑅1; I2 = 𝑅2; I3 = 𝑅3….(iii)
𝑉 𝑉 𝑉 𝑉
From equations (i), (ii) and (iii), we have 𝑅 = 𝑅1 + 𝑅2+ 𝑅3

1 1 1
1/R= 𝑅1 +𝑅2 + 𝑅3
Electric Power: The rate at which work is done by an electric current is known as electric power.
𝑊 (𝑉 ×𝑄)
Power = Work done/Time P = 𝑡 = 𝑡 …..(i)
The work done by current I when it flows for time t under a potential difference V is given by:
W = V × I ×t joules [Because W = VQ and Q = It] Putting the value of W in equation (i),
we have
(𝑉 .𝐼. 𝑡)
P = 𝑡 = VI

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 P = I2R [Because V = IR]
𝑉
P = V2/R [Because I = 𝑅] The unit of electric power is watt. Power = V × I
1 watt = 1 volt × 1 ampere
Thus, if a potential difference of 1 volt causes a current of 1 ampere to flow through a wire, the electrical power
consumed is one watt.

Electrical Energy:
Electrical energy = Power × Time, E = P × t
● The electrical energy consumed by an electrical appliance depends upon power rating of the appliance,
time for which the appliance is used.
● The SI unit of electrical energy is joule.
● 1joule is the amount of electrical energy consumed when an appliance of 1 watt is used for 1 second.
Commercial unit of electrical energy: Kilowatt-hour (KWh)
1KWh=3.6 X 106 J

Heating Effect of Current: When an electric current is passed through a high resistance wire, it becomes very
hot and produces heat. This effect is called the heating effect of current.
● When an electric charge Q moves against a potential difference V, the amount of work done is given
by,
W= Q × V ……(i)
But, current, I = Q/t thus, Q = I ×t
From Ohm's law: V = I × R
Now, putting all these values in equation (i), we have Work done, W = I2 × R × t
● This work done is converted into heat energy for maintaining the flow of current I through the conductor
for t second.
● Heat produced, H = I2 × R × t joules.
Applications of Heating Effect of Current:
● In electrical heating appliances: All electrical heating appliances are based on heating effect of current.
For example, appliances, such as electric iron, water heaters and geysers, room heaters, toaster, hot
plates are fitted with heating coils made of high resistance wire such as nichrome wire.
● Electric filament bulb: The use of electric filament bulbs (ordinary electric bulbs) is also based on the
heating effect of current. Inside the glass shell of electric bulb there is a filament. This filament is made
from a very thin and high resistance tungsten wire. When current flows through this filament, it gets
heated up. Soon, it becomes white hot and starts emitting light.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. A cell, a resistor, a key and ammeter are arranged as shown in the circuit diagrams of fig. The current
recorded in the ammeter will be
(a) maximum in (i)
(b) maximum in (ii)
(c) maximum in (iii)
(d) the same in all the cases

2. In the following circuits (Fig) heat produced in the

resistor or combination of resistors connected to a 12
V battery will be
(a) same in all the cases
(b) minimum in case (i)
(c) maximum in case (ii)
77
(d) maximum in case (iii)

3. Electrical resistivity of a given metallic wire depends upon

(a) its length (b) its thickness
(c) its shape (d) nature of the material

4. A current of 1 A is drawn by a filament of an electric bulb. Number of electrons passing through a cross
section of the filament in 16 seconds would be roughly
(a) 1020 (b) 1016
18
(c) 10 (d) 1023

5. Identify the circuit (Figure) in which the electrical components have been properly connected.
(a) (i)
(b) (ii)
(c) (iii)
(d) (iv)

6. What is the maximum resistance which can be made using five resistors each of 1/5 Ω?
(a) 1/5 Ω (b) 10 Ω
(c) 5 Ω (d) 1 Ω

7. What is the minimum resistance which can be made using five resistors each of 1/5 Ω?
(a) 1/5 Ω (b) 1/25 Ω
(c) 1/10 Ω (d) 25 Ω

8. The proper representation of series combination of cells (Figure 12.4) obtaining maximum potential is
(a) (i)
(b) (ii)
(c) (iii)
(d) (iv)

9. Which of the following represents voltage?

10. A cylindrical conductor of length l and uniform area of cross section A has resistance R. Another conductor
of length 2l and resistance R of the same material has area of cross section
(a) A / 2 (b) 3A / 2
(c) 2A (d) 3A

Answers
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (c)

ASSERTION – RAESONING
Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
78
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion (A) : It is advantageous to transmit electric power at high voltage.
Reason (R) : High voltage implies high current.

2. Assertion (A) : Current is the rate of flow of charge.

Reason (R) : Electric current will not flow between two charged bodies when connected, if they are at same
potential.

3. Assertion (A) : Fuse wire must have high resistance and low melting point.
Reason (R) : Fuse is used for small current flow only.

4. Assertion (A) : Electron has a negative charge.

Reason (R) : Electrons move always from a region of higher potential to a region of lower potential.

5. Assertion (A) : The resistivity of a substance does not depend on the nature of the substance
and temperature.
Reason (R) : The resistivity of a substance is a characteristic property of the material.

Answers
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (d)

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Define one ampere. (1/5, Board Term 1,2015)
Ans: One ampere is constituted by the flow of one coulomb of charge per second.
1 A = 1 C s-1

2. Write relation between heat energy produced in a conductor when a potential difference V is applied across
its terminals and a current I flows through for ‘t’
Ans: Heat produced, H = VIt

3. How is an ammeter connected in a circuit to measure current flowing through it?

Ans: In series.

4. What happens to resistance of a conductor when its area of cross-section is increased?

Ans: Resistance decreases as R∝1/A

5. Write S.I. unit of resistivity.

Ans: Ohm-metre (Ωm).

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 marks)

1. State difference between the wire used in the element of an electric heater and in a fuse wire.
Ans: The wire used in the element of electric heater has a high resistivity and have a high melting point, i.e.
even at a high temperature element do not burn while fuse wire have a low melting point and high resistivity.

2. A V-I graph for a nichrome wire is given below. What do you infer from this graph? Draw a labelled circuit
diagram to obtain such a graph. (2020)
Ans: As graph is a straight line, so it is clear from the graph that V α I.
The shape of the graph obtained by plotting potential difference applied across conductor against the current
flowing v. It will be a straight line.

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According to ohm’s law,

V = IR or R = VI
𝑉
So, the slope of 𝐼
graph at any point represents the resistance of the given conductor.

3. Calculate the resistance of a metal wire of length 2m and area of cross section 1.55 × 106 m², if the
resistivity of the metal be 2.8 × 10-8 Ωm. (Board Term I, 2013)
Ans: For the given metal wire, length, l = 2 m
Area of cross-section, A = 1.55 × 10-6 m²
Resistivity of the metal, p = 2.8 × 10-8 Ω m
Since, resistance, R = ρl/A
So R = (2.8×10−8×21.55×10−6) Ω
= 5.61.55 × 10-2 Ω = 3.6 × 10-2Ω or R = 0.036Ω

4. Three resistors of 10 Ω, 15 Ω and 5 Ω are connected in parallel. Find their equivalent resistance. (Board
Term I, 2014)
Ans: Here, R1 = 10 Ω, R2 =15 Ω, R3 = 5 Ω.
In parallel combination, equivalent resistance is

5. List the advantages of connecting electrical devices in parallel with an electrical source instead of
connecting them is series. (Board Term I, 2013)
Ans: (a) When a number of electrical devices are connected in parallel, each device gets the same potential
difference as provided by the battery and it keeps on working even if other devices fail. This is not so in case
the devices are connected in series because when one device fails, the circuit is broken and all devices stop
working.
(b) Parallel circuit is helpful when each device has different resistance and requires different current for its
operation as in this case the current divides itself through different devices. This is not so in series circuit
where same current flows through all the devices, irrespective of their resistances.

6. Out of the two wires X and Y shown below, which one has greater resistance? Justify your answer.

Ans: Wire ‘Y’ has greater resistance as it has more length than wire ‘X’. It is because resistance of wire is
directly proportional to the length of wire.

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7. The charge possessed by an electron is 1.6 × 10-19 coulombs. Find the number of electrons that will flow
per second to constitute a current of 1 ampere.

LONG ANSWER TYPEQUESTIONS (5 marks)

1. Three resistors of 3 Ω each are connected to a battery of 3 V as shown in fig. Calculate the current drawn
from the battery. (Board Term I, 2017)

Ans: As given in circuit diagram, two 3 Ω resistors are connected in series to form R1;
so R1 = 3 Ω + 3 Ω =6Ω
And, R1 and R2 are in parallel combination, Hence, equivalent resistance of circuit (Req) given by

Req = 2 Ω
Using Ohm’s law, V = IR We get,
3V=I×2Ω
or I = 3/2 A = 1.5 A
Current drawn from the battery is 1.5 A.

2. Two devices of rating 44 W, 220 V and 11 W, 220 V are connected in series. The combination is connected
across 440V mains. The fuse of which of the two devices is likely to burn when the switch is ON? Justify

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3. (a) With the help of a suitable circuit diagram prove that the reciprocal of the equivalent resistance of a
group of resistances joined in parallel is equal to the sum of the reciprocals of the individual resistances.
(b) In an electric circuit two resistors of 12 Ω each are joined in parallel to a 6 V battery. Find the current drawn
from the battery. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
(a) Resistors in parallel : When resistors are connected in parallel.

(i) The potential difference across their ends is the same.

(ii) The sum of current through them is the current drawn from the source of energy or cell.
I = I1 + I1 + I3 or VRP=VR1+VR2+VR3
(iii) The equivalent resistance is given by,
1RP=1R1+1R2+1R3
Hence equivalent resistance in parallel combination is equal to the sum of reciprocals of the individual
resistances.

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS (4 marks)

1. We can see that, as the applied voltage is increased the current through the wire also increases. It means
that, the potential difference across the terminals of the wire is directly proportional to the electric current
passing through it at a given temperature.
Thus, V= IR
Where R is the proportionality constant called as resistance of the wire. Thus, we can say that the resistance of
the wire is inversely proportional to the electric current. As the resistance increases current through the wire
decreases. The resistance of the conductor is directly proportional to length of the conductor, inversely
proportional to the area of cross section of the conductor and also depends on the nature of the material from
which conductor is made. Thus R= qL/A, where q is the resistivity of the material of conductor. According
resistivity of the material they are classified as conductors, insulators and semiconductors. It is observed that
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the resistance and resistivity of the material varies with temperature. And hence there are vast applications of
these materials based on their resistivity.
The SI unit of resistance is ohm while the SI unit of electric current is ampere. The potential difference is
measured in volt. Conductors are the materials which are having less resistivity or more conductivity and
hence they are used for transmission of electricity. Alloys are having more resistivity than conductors and
hence they are used in electric heating devices. While insulators are bad conductors of electricity.
(i) What is SI unit of resistivity?
Ans: The SI unit of resistivity is ohm meter.

(ii) What is variable resistance?

Ans: The electric component which is used to regulate the electric current without changing voltage source is
called as variable resistance.

(iii) Why tungsten is used in electric bulbs?

Ans: Tungsten filament are used in electric bulbs because the resistivity of Tungsten is more and it’s melting
point is also high.
OR
(iii) Why fuse wires are made up of alloys?
Ans: Because they have moderate melting point and high resistivity,

2. When electric current flows through the circuit this electrical energy is used in two ways, some part is used
for doing work and remaining may be expended in the form of heat. We can see, in mixers after using it for
long time it become more hot, fans also become hot after continuous use. This type of effect of electric current
is called as heating effect of electric current. If I is the current flowing through the circuit then the amount of
heat dissipated in that resistor will be H = VIt
This effect was discovered by Joule, hence it is called as Joule’s law of heating.
Also, we can write, H = I2Rt
Thus, heat produced is directly proportional to the square of the electric current, directly proportional to the
resistance of the resistor and the time for which electric current flows through the circuit. This heating effect is
used in many applications. The heating effect is also used for producing light. In case of electric bulb, the
filament produces more heat energy which is emitted in the form of light. And hence filament are made from
tungsten which is having high melting point.
In case of electric circuit, this heating effect is used to protect the electric circuit from damage.
The rate of doing work or rate of consumption of energy is called as power. Here, the rate at which electric
energy dissipated or consumed in an electric circuit is called as electric power. And it is given by P= VI
The SI unit of electric power is watt.

(i) What is the SI unit of electric energy?

Ans: The SI unit of electric energy is watt hour. And the commercial unit of electric energy is kW h.

(ii) 1KW h = ?
Ans: 1kW h = 3.6*106 joule

(iii) How heating effect works to protect electric circuit?

Ans: In case of electric circuit fuse is connected in series with the circuit which protects the electric devices by
stopping the extra current flowing through them. When a large amount of current is flowing through the circuit
the temperature of the fuse wire increases and because of that fuse wire melts which breaks the circuit.
OR
(iii) If a bulb is working at a voltage of 200V and the current is 1A then what is the power of the bulb?
Ans: Given that,
V = 200V, I = 1A
Then, P = VI = 200*1 = 200 J/s = 200 W

83
 Chapter- 12
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT
Magnet: Magnet is substance that attracts objects made of iron, cobalt and nickel.
Uses of Magnets: Magnets are used in refrigerators, radio and stereo speakers, in toys.
Properties of Magnet
● A free suspended magnet always points towards the north and south direction.
● The pole of a magnet which points toward north direction is called north pole.
● The pole of a magnet which points toward south direction is called south pole.
● Like poles of magnets repel each other while unlike poles of magnets attract each other.

Magnetic field: The area around a magnet where a magnetic force is

experienced is called the magnetic field. It is a quantity that has both direction
and magnitude, (i.e., Vector quantity).
Magnetic field lines: The magnetic field is represented by magnetic field
lines.
The imaginary lines of magnetic field around a magnet are called field line or
field line of magnet. When iron fillings are allowed to settle around a bar magnet,
they get arranged in a pattern which mimics the magnetic field lines. Field line
of a magnet can also be detected using a compass.
Direction of field line: Outside the magnet, the direction of magnetic field line
is taken from North Pole to South Pole. Inside the magnet, the direction of magnetic field line is taken from South
Pole to North pole.
Strength of magnetic field: The closeness of field lines shows the relative strength of magnetic field, i.e. closer
lines show stronger magnetic field and vice – versa. Crowded field lines near the poles of magnet show more
strength.
Properties of magnetic field lines
● They do not intersect each other because at the point of intersection there will be two direction which is not
possible.
● They emerge from North pole and merge at the South pole (outside the magnet)
● Inside the bar magnet, the magnetic lines go from south pole to north pole.
● These lines form a uniform parallel pattern inside the bar magnet. parallel to each
other.

Magnetic field lines due to current a current carrying straight

conductor
● A current carrying straight conductor has magnetic field in the form of concentric
circular rings.
● The direction of magnetic field through a current carrying conductor depends upon the
direction of flow electric current.
● The direction of magnetic field, in relation to direction of electric current through a straight conductor can be
depicted by using the Right-Hand Thumb Rule. It is also known as Maxwell‘s Corkscrew Rule.
Right-Hand Thumb Rule: If a current carrying conductor is held by right hand, keeping the thumb straight and
if the direction of electric current is in the direction of thumb, then the direction of wrapping of other fingers will
show the direction of magnetic field.
Properties of magnetic field due to current carrying straight conductor
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● The magnitude of magnetic field increases with increase in electric current and decreases with decrease in
electric current.
● The magnitude of magnetic field produced by electric current decreases with increase in distance and vice –
versa. The size of concentric circles of magnetic field lines increases with distance from the conductor, which
shows that magnetic field decreases with distance.
● Magnetic field lines are always parallel to each other and no two field lines cross each other.

Magnetic field lines due to a current through a circular loop

In case of a circular current carrying conductor, the magnetic field lines would be in the form of concentric circles.
Since, magnetic field lines tend to remain closer when near to the conductor, so the magnetic field would be
stronger near the periphery of the loop.
On the other hand, the magnetic field lines would be distant from each other when we move towards the centre
of the current carrying loop.
Finally, at the centre, the arcs of big circles would appear as a straight line.
The direction of magnetic field is identified using Right Hand Thumb Rule.
Magnetic field strength: The strength of the magnetic field of the loop(coil) depends on:
(i) The radius of the coil: The strength of the magnetic field is inversely proportional to the radius of the coil.
If the radius increases, the magnetic strength at the centre decreases.
(ii) The number of turns in the coil: As the number of turns in the coil increase, the magnetic strength at the
centre increases, because the current in each circular turn is having the same direction, thus, the field due to
each turn adds up.
(iii) The strength of the current flowing in the coil: As the strength of the current increases, the strength of
the magnetic fields also increases.

Solenoid: Solenoid is the coil with many circular turns of insulated copper wire
wrapped closely in the shape of a cylinder.
Magnetic field due to a current in a Solenoid: A current carrying solenoid
produces similar pattern of magnetic field as a bar magnet. One end of solenoid
behaves as the north pole and another end behaves as the south pole.
The strength of magnetic field is proportional to the number of turns and magnitude
of current. By producing a strong magnetic field inside the solenoid, magnetic
materials can be magnetized.

Electromagnet: An electromagnet consists of a long coil of insulated copper wire wrapped on a soft iron.
Magnet formed by producing magnetic field inside a solenoid is called electromagnet.

Force on a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field

A current carrying conductor exerts a force when a magnet is placed near it.
Similarly, a magnet also exerts equal and opposite force on the current carrying conductor.
The direction of force over the conductor gets reversed with the change in direction of flow
of electric current. The magnitude of force is highest when the direction of current is at
right angles to the magnetic field.
Fleming’s Left-Hand Rule: The Fleming‘s Left Hand Rule states that if the left hand is
stretched in a way that the index finger, the middle finger and the thumb are in mutually
perpendicular directions, then the index finger and middle finger of a stretched left hand
show the direction of magnetic field and direction of electric current respectively and the thumb shows the
direction of motion or force acting on the conductor.
Many devices, such as electric motor, electric generator, loudspeaker, etc. work on
Fleming‘s Left Hand Rule.

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A.C – Alternate Current: Current in which direction is changed periodically is called Alternate Current. In
India, most of the power stations generate alternate current. The direction of current changes after every 1/100
second in India, i.e., the frequency of A.C in India is 50 Hz.
D.C – Direct Current: Current that flows in one direction only is called Direct current. Electrochemical cells
produce direct current.
Advantages of A.C over D.C. Disadvantages of AC
● Cost of generator of A.C is much less ● AC cannot be used for the
than that of D.C. electrolysis process or showing
● A.C can be easily converted to D.C. electromagnetism as it reverses its
polarity.
● AC can be transmitted over long
distances without much loss of energy. ● AC is more dangerous than DC.

Domestic Electric Circuits: We receive electric supply through mains supported through the poles or
cables. In our houses, we receive AC electric power of 220 V with a frequency of 50 Hz. The 3 wires are as
follows: Live wire – (Red insulated, Positive), Neutral wire – (Black insulated, Negative), Earth wire –
(Green insulated) for safety measure to ensure that any leakage of current to a metallic body does not
give any serious shock to a user.
For domestic circuits, parallel combination is used so that potential difference remains same, each and every
appliance have its own switch and can be operated individually. If one appliance does not work, others will not
be affected.
Short Circuit: Short-circuiting is caused by the touching of live wires and neutral wire and sudden a large current
flow. It happens due to damage of insulation in power lines or a fault in an electrical appliance.
Overloading of an Electric Circuit: The overheating of electrical wire in any circuit due to the flow of a large
current through it is called overloading of the electrical circuit.
A sudden large number of current flows through the wire, which causes overheating of wire and may cause fire
also.
Electric Fuse: It is a protective device used for protecting the circuit from short-circuiting and overloading. It is
a piece of thin wire of material having a low melting point and high resistance.
● Fuse is always connected to live wire.
● Fuse is always connected in series to the electric circuit.
● Fuse is always connected to the beginning of an electric circuit.
● Fuse works on the heating effect of current.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 MARK)
1. The most suitable material for making the core of an electromagnet is:
(a) soft iron (b) brass (c) Aluminium (d) Steel
2. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding magnetic field lines?
(a) The direction of magnetic field at a point is taken to be the direction in which the north pole of a magnetic
compass needle points.
(b) Magnetic field lines are closed curves
(c) If magnetic field lines are parallel and equidistant, they represent zero field strength
(d) Relative strength of magnetic field is shown by the degree of closeness of the field lines
3. Magnetic effect of current was discovered by
(a) Oersted (b) Faraday (c) Bohr (d) Ampere
4. Inside the magnet, the field lines move
(a) from north to south (b) from south to north
(c) away from south pole (d) away from north pole
5. An electron beam enters a magnetic field at right angles to it as shown in the Figure. The direction of force
86
acting on the electron beam will be:
(a) to the left
(b) to the right
(c) into the page
(d) out of the page
6. A plotting compass is placed near the south pole of a bar magnet. The pointer of
plotting compass will:
(a) point away from the south pole (b) point parallel to the south pole
(c) point towards the south pole (d) point at right angles to the south pole
7. A circular loop placed in a plane perpendicular to the plane of paper carries a current when the key is ON.
The current as seen from points A and B (in the plane of paper and on the axis
of the coil) is anti-clockwise and clockwise respectively. The magnetic field lines
point from B to A. The N-pole of the resultant magnet is on the face close to
(a) A
(b) B
(c) A if the current is small, and B if the current is large
(d) B if the current is small and A if the current is large
8. Which of the following determines the direction of magnetic field due to a
current carrying conductor?
(a) Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction (b) Fleming’s left-hand rule
(c) Lenz’s rule (d) Maxwell’s cork screw rule

Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting
the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
9. Assertion: A compass needle is placed near a current carrying wire. The deflection of the compass needle
decreases when the magnitude of the current in the wire is increased.
Reason: The strength of a magnetic field at a point near the conductor increases on increasing the current.
10. Assertion: Iron filings scattered around a straight current carrying conductor in a plane perpendicular to the
length of the conductor, arrange themselves in concentric circles.
Reason: Magnetic field has both magnitude and direction.
11. Assertion: One circuit with 15 A current rating is used for appliances such as geysers and air coolers.
Reason: Appliances with metallic body are connected to an earth wire with low resistance.
12. Assertion: On changing the direction of flow of current through a straight conductor, the direction of a magnetic field
around the conductor is reversed.
Reason: The direction of magnetic field around a conductor can be given in accordance with left hand thumb rule.
Answers
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (c)
7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (b) 11. (b) 12. (b)

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS)

1. List the properties of magnetic lines of force.
Ans. The properties of magnetic lines of force are as follows.
(a) Magnetic field lines emerge from the north pole.
(b) They merge at the south pole.
(c) The direction of field lines inside the magnet is from the south pole to the north pole.
(d) Magnetic lines do not intersect with each other.
2. Refer to the image below and state how the magnetic field pattern indicates regions where the magnetic field

87
is stronger outside the magnet? What happens to the magnetic field when the
current in the circuit is reversed?
Ans. The magnetic field strength is more in the region where the field lines are
crowded. This means the field strength is maximum near the poles and it reduces
as we go away from the poles.
The direction of the magnetic field is also reversed.

3. Identify the poles of the magnet in the given figure (1) and (2).

Ans.

4. (a) Draw magnetic field lines inside a bar magnet.

(b) What does the degree of closeness of magnetic field lines near the poles signify?
Ans. (a)
N S

(b) The degree of closeness of magnetic field lines near the poles signify that the field is stronger there, i.e. the
pole of another magnet when placed in the magnetic field experiences a greater force where the field lines are
crowded.

5. Justify the following statements:

(a) Two magnetic field lines never intersect each other.
(b) Magnetic field lines are closed curve.
Ans. (a) The direction of magnetic field at any point is obtained by drawing a tangent to the magnetic field line
at that point. In case, two magnetic field lines intersect each other, magnetic field will have two directions, which
is not possible.
(b) It is taken by convention that the field lines emerge from north pole and merge at the south pole. Inside the
magnet, the direction of field lines is from its south pole to its north pole. Thus, the magnetic field lines are closed
curves.

SHORT ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)

1. State one main difference between A.C and D.C. Why A.C is preferred over D.C for long range transmission
of electric power? Name one source each of D.C and A.C.
Ans. Difference between A.C. and D.C. The alternating current (A.C.) reverses its direction periodically whereas
the direct current (D.C.) always flows in one direction.
A.C. is preferred over D.C. because it can be transmitted over long distance without much loss of energy.
D.C. source: Battery
A.C. source: A.C. generator

2. What is meant by solenoid? How does a current carrying solenoid behave? Give its main use.
Ans. Solenoid: A coil of many circular turns of insulated copper wire wound on a cylindrical insulating body (i.e.,
cardboard etc.) such that its length is greater than its diameter is called solenoid.
When current is flowing through the solenoid, the magnetic field line pattern resembles exactly with those of a
bar magnet. The current carrying solenoid behave as a bar magnet.
Use of current carrying solenoid: It is used to form a temporary magnet called electromagnet as well as
permanent magnet.

3. Explain the need of earthing? Why it is important?

Ans. Earthing is the process of connecting electrical appliances to the earth. When there is large current or
88
leakage of current then it will go directly through earth wire and to the ground where metal is deep. So, earthing
protects us from severe electric shocks. Because of this in domestic electric circuit earthing is necessary.

4. (a) State the rule to determine the direction of the force experienced by a current-carrying straight conductor
placed in a magnetic field which is perpendicular to it.
(b) When will the magnitude of the displacement of the rod be the largest?
Ans. (a) Fleming's left-hand rule: Stretch the forefinger, middle finger and the thumb of your left hand such that
they are mutually perpendicular to each other. If the forefinger indicates the direction of magnetic field and the
middle finger indicates the direction of current, then the thumb will indicate the direction of motion of the
conductor or the force acting on the conductor.
(b) The displacement of the rod is largest when the direction of current is at right angles to the direction of the
magnetic field.

5. (a) Draw the pattern of the magnetic field lines around a current-carrying solenoid.
(b) Mention two precautions that should be taken to avoid the overloading of domestic electric circuits.
Ans. (a) Refer to the diagram in the explanation content.
(b) (Write any two points)
● Do not connect too many devices in the same socket.
● Do not connect faulty appliances in the socket.
● Multiple high power consumption devices should not be connected at the same time.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)

1. (a) Draw a schematic diagram of a common domestic circuit showing provision of Earth wire, Main fuse,
Electricity meter and Distribution box.
(b) Distinguish between short circuiting and overloading.
Ans. (a) Refer NCERT TEXT BOOK for diagram
(b) Overloading: The condition in which a high current flow through the circuit and at the same time too many
appliances are switched on then the total current drawn through the circuit may exceed its rated value.
Short circuiting: The condition when the live wire comes in direct contact with the neutral wire, due to which a
high current flow in the circuit.

2. Explain the role of fuse in series with any electrical appliance in an electric circuit. Why should a fuse with
defined rating for an electric circuit not be replaced by one with a larger rating?
Ans. Fuse is a safety device connected in series with live wire or with any electrical appliance in an electric
circuit. It stops the flow of unduly high electric current in the circuit by getting melted due to rise in temperature
as per Joule’s law of heating.
High rating fuse wire has the larger capacity. So, it will not stop the flow of any relatively high current. Therefore,
electrical devices cannot be protected from the possible damage.

3. A current carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field. Now answer the following.
(a) List the factors on which the magnitude of force experienced by conductor depends.
(b) When is the magnitude of this force maximum?
(c) State the rule which helps, in finding the direction of motion of conductor.
(d) If initially this force was acting from right to left, how will the direction of force change if:
(i) direction of magnetic field is reversed?
(ii) direction of current is reversed?
Ans. (a) When a current carrying wire is placed in a magnetic field, it experiences a magnetic force that depends
on
● current flowing in the conductor
● strength of magnetic field
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 ● position of the conductor (angle at which conductor is kept in a magnetic field)
(b) Force experienced by a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field is largest when the direction of
current is perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field.
(c) The rule used in finding the direction of motion of the conductor placed in a magnetic field is Flemings left
hand rule.
(d) (i) Direction of force will be reversed when direction of magnetic field is reversed, i.e., now force on conductor
will act from left to right.
(ii) Direction of force will be reversed, if the direction of current is reversed, i.e., the force on the conductor
will act from left to right.

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS (4 MARKS)

1. Read the paragraph and answer the following questions:
A magnet must exert an equal and opposite force on a current carrying conductor.
We know that current is due to the charge in motion. Thus, it is evident that a charge
moving in a magnetic field experiences a force, If the direction of motion is
perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field, the magnitude of force
experienced depends upon the charge, velocity, and strength of the magnetic field.
Fleming's left-hand rule gives the direction of the magnetic force.
(a) If a charged particle is moving along a magnetic field line, What will be the
magnetic force on the particle?
(b) An electron is travelling horizontally towards the east. A magnetic field in the vertically downward direction
will exert a force in which direction?
(c) State Fleming’s left hand rule.
OR
(c) Sate two condition when force experience by a current carrying conductor placed in the magnetic field will
be: (i) maximum (ii) minimum
Ans. (a) Zero
(b) south
(c) (For law refer to explanation text)
OR
(c) (i) when it is placed perpendicular to the magnetic field
(ii) when it is placed parallel to magnetic field.

2. Read the following and answer the following questions:

The domestic electric circuit consist of red insulated cover called as live wire, wire with black insulation called as
neutral wire and the wire with green insulation is called as Earth wire. We know that fuse is connected in series
with the circuit to prevent the damaging of electrical appliances and circuit from overloading. Overloading occurs
when live wire and the neutral wire comes in direct contact with each other. Because of which current through
the circuit increases suddenly. Also, overloading may occur because of connecting many appliances to a single
socket. The Earth wire which is green in colour is connected to a metal plate deep in the earth near the house.
This type of safety measure is used in appliances like electric press, toaster, table fan, refrigerator etc. The Earth
wire is gives low resistance conducting path for the electric current. In this way it protects us from severe electric
shock. All the appliances are connected in parallel circuit so that the potential difference across each appliance
will be same.
(a) Electric switch is connected to neutral wire or live wire?
(b) In our country what is the potential difference between live wire and neutral wire?
(c) What is overloading? How can we prevent it?
OR
(c) What is the main purpose of using fuse in electric circuit?
Ans. (a) Live wire
(b) 220V
(c) Overloading: (refer to explanation content)

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It can be prevented by not connecting too many appliances to one point or not by using heavy appliances at
once.
OR
(c) Fuse is a safety device used to protect electric appliances from damage. It has thin wire which melts and
breaks the circuit on high current and prevent the costly parts from damage.

CHAPTER- 13
OUR ENVRONMENT
ECOSYSTEM: An ecosystem is a system consisting of biotic and abiotic components that function together as
a unit.
● Biotic components- all the living beings like plant animal etc.
● Abiotic components-Physical factors like temperature, rainfall, wind, soil, air etc
● Natural ecosystem – forest, pond, lake
● Man-made (artificial ecosystem)- crop fields, garden, aquarium.

Producer: Autotrophs, perform photosynthesis e.g. green plants,

blue green algae
Consumer: consume the food produced either directly from
producer or indirectly by feeding on other consumers types of
consumers:-
i. Herbivores – deer
ii Carnivores – lion
iii Omnivores – cat
Decomposers: feed on dead and decaying products. E.g.
fungi, bacteria
Importance of Decomposers –
● Break down the complex organic substance into simple inorganic substances.
● Release minerals into the soil. Thus helps in maintaining the fertility of soil.
● Clean the environment
● Help in recycling the materials in the biosphere.
FOOD CHAIN
The sequence of living organisms in a ecosystem in which one organism consumes another
organism to transfer food energy, is called a food chain.
For example

TROPHIC LEVELS:
The various steps in the food chain at which the transfer of food (or energy) takes place
is called trophic levels.
The different trophic levels are – Producers (T1), Primary consumers (herbivores-T2),
Secondary consumers (primary carnivores -T3), Tertiary consumers (Secondary
carnivores-T-4)

Significance of Food Chains

● The food chain transfer energy from one trophic level to another.

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 ● Only 10 % of energy is transferred from one trophic level to another. Rest of energy is lost as heat,
into doing work, in digestion, growth, reproduction. It is called 10 % law.
● Help in study of food relationships and interactions among the various organisms in an ecosystem.
● Only 1% solar energy is used by plants.
FOOD WEB
It is network of inter-connected food chains in an ecosystem.
It forms a network of relationship between various species.
In a food web, one organism may occupy a position in more than one food
chain. More stable food chain / food web means more stable ecosystem.
FOOD PYRAMID
It is graphic representation of food chain.
It may be formed as, depicted as a pyramid having a broad base formed by
producers and tapering to a point formed by end consumers.

BIOMAGNIFICATION
Accumulation of toxic pollutants at successive higher trophic level is called bio magnification.

OZONE LAYER
● Ozone (O3) is a molecule formed by three atoms of oxygen.
● Ozone shields the surface of the earth from ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the Sun.
● UV radiation is highly damaging to organisms. It may cause even skin cancer in human beings.
● Ozone at the higher levels of the atmosphere is a product of UV radiation acting on oxygen (O2)
molecule.
● The higher energy UV radiations split apart some molecular oxygen (O2) into free oxygen (O) atoms.
These atoms then combine with the molecular oxygen to form ozone as shown—
UV

O+ O O3 (Ozone)
The major cause of depletion of ozone layer is chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) which are released from
refrigerators, air conditioners, aerosols etc.
BIODEGRADABLE AND NON BIODEGRADABLE WASTES
i- Biodegradable Wastes: These can be broken down by the biological processes.
E.g. Food waste, plant parts, animal wastes, agricultural residue, paper etc. Decomposers can
decompose these without harming ecosystem. Food waste, trees leaves, urine and fecal matter, sewage
agricultural residue, paper, wood, cloth, cow- dung etc.
ii- Non-biodegradable waste- these can’t be broken down by biological processes.
E.g. - Chemical pesticides, DDT, mercury, lead, plastics, polythene bags etc. These wastes are major
pollutants of the environment.
MAINTAINING THE GARBAGE, WE PRODUCE
● Change in attitudes toward using only biodegradable items.
● Proper disposal of wastes
● Follow Sewage treatment norms
● 3 ‗R’s principle- reduce, recycle, reuse

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Which one of the following in an artificial ecosystem?
(a) Pond (b) crop field (c)Lake (d) Forest
2. In the given food chain, suppose the amount of energy at fourth trophic level is 5kJ, what will be the energy
available at product level?
Grass Grasshopper Frog Snake  Hawk
(a) 5 kJ (b)50 kJ (c) 500 kJ (d) 5000 kJ
3. Accumulation of non-biodegradable pesticides in the food chain in increasing amount at each higher trophic
level is known as
(a) Eutrophication (b) Pollution (c) Biomagnification (d) Accumulation
4. What will happen if deer is missing in the food chain Grass  Deer Tiger
(a)The population of deer increases (b) The population of grass decreases
(c) Tiger will start eating grass
(d) The population of tiger decreases and population of grass increases.
Answers: 1. (b), 2.(d), 3.(c ),4.(d)
ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
For questions below, two statements are given:
One labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer (a), (b), (c) and
(d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
1. (A) : Zooplanktons feed on phyto-plankton.
(R) Phyto-plankton are the major producers of aquatic ecosystems

2. (A) : Number of top carnivore is very large.

(R) : They are not preyed upon the other.

3. (A) : Food chain is a straight chain of trophic levels.

(R ): A network of several food chains constitute a food web.

4. (A) : Green coloured bins are meant for dumping of biodegradable wastes.
(R) : The bins are fitted with decomposer kits.
Answers:1.(a), 2.(d), 3.(b), 4.(c )

Very Short Answer Type Questions

1-The flow of energy in the food chain is unidirectional. Why?
Ans: Energy flows from sun to plants (autotroph), plants to animals (consumer).
2- In a food chain, 10,000 joules of energy is available to the producer. How much energy will be available to
the secondary consumer to transfer it to the tertiary consumer?
Ans: 10 J
3- Producers always occupy the first trophic level in any food chain. Why?
Ans: Only producers have the ability to trap solar energy and manufacture organic food through the process of
photosynthesis.
4- Give any two ways in which biodegradable substance would affect the environment.
Ans: They keep the environment clean as they are easily decomposed.
They can easily go through the geochemical cycle with the help of decomposers.

Short Answer Type Questions

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6-What will happen if we kill all the organisms in one trophic level?
Ans: i- The organisms in specific trophic level will not be able to get the food
ii-It will cause a disturbance in food chain and therefore ecological imbalance will take place.
7- Why is a lake considered to be a natural ecosystem?
Ans: In Lake living organisms grow, reproduce and interact with other biotic and abiotic components.
In lake different components carry out all activities in nature by themselves without any human
interference; therefore it is referred to as a natural ecosystem.
8 - How can we help in reducing the problem of waste disposal? List two ways.
Ans: i-Separation of biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes
ii- Preparation of compost / vermicomposting from biodegradable waste iii-Recycling of waste
9- Which gas shields the surface of earth from harmful radiation of the sun. why these radiations are supposed
to be harmful for us?
Ans: Ozone gas
Harmful radiation of the sun like UV radiation may causes skin cancer, cataract, fall in immunity in infants,
decline in photosynthesis rate etc
10- In a certain study conducted on the occurrence of DDT along food chains in an ecosystem, the
concentration of DDT in grass was found to be 0-5 ppm. In sheep, it was 2 ppm and in man it was 10 ppm.
Name the phenomenon and define?
Ans: Bio-magnification
Bio-magnification is the increase in the level of a toxic substance with each successive rise in the trophic level
of a food chain.
Long Answer Type Questions
11- Why bacteria and fungi are called decomposers? List any two advantages of decomposers to the
environment.
Ans: Decomposers breakdown the complex organic substances into simple inorganic substances that go into
the soil and are used up once more by the plants.
Advantages:
i- Clean environment by decomposing dead bodies of plants/ animals
ii- Replenish nutrients (Inorganic substance) into soil
iii- Helps in Nutrient recycling
Q12- “Damage to the ozone layer is a cause of concern.” Justify the statement. Suggest any two steps to limit
the damage.
Cause of concern: Ozone layer present in the stratosphere has thinned out by about 8% over the equator and
more so over the Antarctica where a big ozone hole appears every year. This has increased the level of UV
radiations reaching the earth by 15-20%. These radiations are causing increased number of skin cancers,
cataracts and reduced immunity in human beings. There is increased number of blinding of animals, death of
young ones, reduced photosynthesis, higher number of mutations and damage to articles.
Steps to limit the damage:
i. Ban on productions and use of halons
ii. Ban on production and use of chlorofluorocarbons.

13- (a) Write two harmful effects of using plastic bags on the environment. Suggest alternatives to the usage of
plastic bags.
(b) List any two practices that can be followed to dispose of the waste produced in our homes.
Ans: (a) Harmful effects of using plastic bags: (any two)
i. These are non-biodegradable substances. They cannot be decomposed and therefore remains as
pollutants in nature for many years.
ii. The plastic bags choke drains and causes waterlogging.
iii. The plastic release harmful chemicals in soil. Jute bags and cloth bags are the alternatives to the
polyethene bags.
(b) Practices to dispose of the waste produced in our homes: (any two)
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 i. Separation of biodegradable and non- biodegradable wastes.
ii. The biodegradable waste can be converted to manure.
iii. Non-biodegradable waste should be disposed of at suitable places from where municipal authorities
can pick them up and dispose properly and scientifically
iv. Reuse the waste.

CASE STUDY QUESTION

1. Students in a school listened to the news in the morning assembly that the mountain of garbage in Delhi
suddenly exploded and various vehicles got buried under it. Several people were also injured and there was a
traffic jam all around. In the brain storming session, the teacher also discussed this issue and asked the students
to find out a solution to the problem of garbage. Finally, they arrive at two main points- one is self-management
of the garbage we produce and second is generate less garbage at individual level.
(a) Suggest two measures to manage the garbage we produce.
(b) As an individual what can be done to generate the least garbage? Give two points.
(c) Recycling is considered as a welcome practice to deal with the environmental problems. Justify the
statements with two arguments.
OR
(c) What are two negative effects of biodegradable waste?
Answers:
(a) Managing the garbage:
(i)Separation of garbage into biodegradable and non-biodegradable, recyclable and non-recyclable parts.
(ii)Handing over the recyclable waste to ragpickers and the rest are given to waste collectors for compost
formation, incineration and land filling.
(b) Generate least garbage:
(i) Use of cloth bags for shopping instead of polythene or plastic bags.
(ii) Reuse of glass and metallic containers instead of disposing them.
(c) Recycling is considered as a welcome practice to deal with the environmental problems due to the
following reasons:
▪ Process of recycling reduces the use of landfills.
▪ Recycling is cheaper and significantly cost savings.
OR
(c) Accumulation of biodegradable waste can create breeding place for microbes. It will give undesirable view
and foul smell.

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 KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGTHAN, DELHI REGION

Science (086)
Class X
Sample Paper- Set 1
Max. Marks: 80 Duration: 3 hours
General Instructions:
I. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.
II. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is
expected to attempt only one of these questions.
III. Section A consists of 20 objective type questions carrying 1 mark each.
IV. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions
should in the range of 30 to 50 words.
V. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these
questions should in the range of 50 to 80 words
VI. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answer to these questions
should be in the range of 80 to 120 words.
VII. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.

SECTION -A
Select and write one most appropriate option out of the four options given for each of the
questions 1-20
Q.1. The following reaction is an example of a
CH4 (g) + 2 O2 (g) ------------ CO2 (g) + 2 H2O(g)
i) Displacement reaction ii) combination reaction
iii) Redox reaction iv) Exothermic reaction
a) (i) and (iv) c) (i) and (iii)
b) (ii) and (iii) d) (iii) and (iv)

Q.2. A substance is said to be reduced if

a) it loses oxygen during a reaction. c) it gains both oxygen & hydrogen during a reaction.
b) it gains oxygen during a reaction. d) it loses both oxygen & hydrogen during a reaction.

Q.3. Sodium hydroxide is used for

a) degreasing metals c) paper making
b) making soaps and detergents d) all of these

Q.4. Select the metal which is most reactive

a) Sodium c) Calcium
b) Potassium d) Magnesium
Q.5. The chemical formula of gypsum is:
a) CuSO4.2H2O c) CaSO4.1/2H2O
b) CaSO4.H2O d) CaSO4.2H2O

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Q.6. A student took lead(II) nitrate solution in a test tube and added potassium iodide solution to it. He observed that an
insoluble substance has formed. The colour and molecular formula of the insoluble substance is:

(a) Grey, PbI4 (c) White, PbI2

(b) Yellow, PbI2 (d) Pink, PbI4

Q.7. C3H4 belongs to the homologous series of

(a) Alkynes (c) Alkanes
(b) Alkenes (d) Cyclo alkanes

Q.8.The major driving force for moving or transporting water upward in the xylem channel is
(a) Root pressure during the day and transpiration during night.
(b) Root pressure during night and transpiration during the day.
(c) Root pressure, both during the day and night.
(d) Transpiration, both during the day and night.
Q.9. Gustatory receptors detect
(a) smell (c) taste
(b) pressure (d) touch

Q.10. The pattern of the magnetic field produced inside a current carrying solenoid is

Q.11. Which of the following reproduces by multiple fission?

(a) Yeast (c) plasmodium
(b) paramecium (d) Leishmania

Q.12. In peas, a pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with a pure short plant (tt).
The ratio of pure tall plants to pure short plants in F2 generation will be:
(a) 1:2:1 (c) 1:3
(b) 3:1 (d) 1:1

Q.13. At the time of short circuit, the current in the circuit

(a) increases heavily (c) does not change
(b) reduces substantially (d) varies continuously

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Q.14. A zygote which has an X-chromosome inherited from the father will develop into
(a) a boy (c) either a boy or a girl
(b) a girl (d) X chromosome has no effect on the sex determination

Q.15. The lens system of human eye forms an image on a light sensitive screen, called as
(a) iris (c) ciliary muscle
(b) cornea (d) retina

Q.16. Which of the following constitute a food chain?

(a) grass, wheat and mango (c) goat, cow and elephant
(b) grass, goat and human (d) grass, fish and goat

Q.17 to 20 are Assertion – Reasoning based questions.

These consist of two statements- Assertion(A) and Reason(R). Answer these questions selecting the
appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Q.17. Assertion (A): hydrogen gas is not evolved when zinc reacts with nitric acid.
Reason (R): nitric acid oxidises the hydrogen gas to water and itself gets reduced.

Q.18. Assertion (A): The rate of breathing in aquatic organisms is much faster than in
terrestrial organisms.
Reason (R): the amount of oxygen dissolved in water is very high as compared to the
amount of oxygen dissolved in air.

Q.19. Assertion (A): The colour of the clear sky appears blue.
Reason (R): Blue colour is scattered the most by atmosphere.

Q.20. Assertion: Accumulation of harmful chemicals is the maximum in the organisms at the
highest trophic level of a food chain.
Reason(R): Harmful chemicals are sprayed on the crops to protect them from
diseases and pests.
SECTION- B
Q.21 to 26 are very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.
Q.21. Write the balanced chemical equation for the following reaction and write the name of the reaction
Barium Chloride + Aluminium Sulphate →→ Barium Sulphate + Aluminium Chloride

Q.22. Major amount of water is selectively reabsorbed by the tubular part of nephron in humans. What are the factors on
which the amount of water reabsorbed depends?

Q.23. Give an example of a plant part?

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(a) Which is positively hydrotropic as well as positively geotropic
(b) Which is positively phototropic but negatively geotropic.
OR
Name any two phytohormone and write one function of each.

Q.24. “The magnification produced by a lens is -1”. List any four pieces of information you obtain from this
statement.

Q.25. What can be the three different ways to connect three resistors each of resistance x Ω, so that each
combination always has a total resistance of 9 Ω. What should be the three possible values of x?
OR

If the radius and length of a current carrying conductor is halved, how does current through it change?
Q.26. Write two precautions that should be taken to avoid the overloading of domestic electric circuits.

SECTION- C
Q.27 to 33 are short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
Q.27. In the reaction CuO + H2+ Heat ---- Cu + H2 O
(a) Name the substance oxidised and the substance reduced.
(b) Name the oxidising agent.
(c) Name the reducing agent.

Q.28. A gas X reacts with lime water and forms a compound Y which is used as bleaching agent in the chemical
industry. Identify X and Y. Give the chemical equation of the reaction involved.

Q.29.Write down the steps involved in nutrition in amoeba and also give the type of nutrition?
OR
Name the atmospheric gas which is essential for photosynthesis?
Explain an activity to show the importance of that gas for photosynthesis?

Q.30. Explain what is reflex action and reflex arc with an example?

Q.31. The far point of a myopic person is 80 cm in ront of the eye. What is the nature and power of the lens required to
correct the problem?

Q.32. What is a solenoid and how does it behave like a magnet? How can you determine the North and South poles of a
current carrying solenoid with the help of a bar magnet?

Q.33. Write any three environment-friendly practices that we can adopt with regard to the problem of waste disposal.

SECTION- D
Q.no. 34 to 36 are Long Answer Questions carrying 5 carrying marks each.
Q.34. (a) What are saturated and unsaturated carbon compounds? Give an example of each . and differentiate
between them on the basis of combustion.
(b) Give the electron dot structure of ethane?
OR
An organic compound A on heating with conc. H2SO4 forms a compound B which on
addition of hydrogen in presence of Nickel forms a compound C. ‘C’ on combustion
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 forms CO2 and H2O. Identify the compounds A, B and C and write the equations for
the reactions involved.

Q.35. (a) Draw a well labelled diagram of longitudinal section of a bisexual flower.
(b) Write two advantages of vegetative propagation.
OR
Explain any three methods of contraception? How does reproduction help in providing
stability to populations of species?

For visually impaired

Write the function of the following with respect to the point given below
(i) Urethra in male reproductive system.
(ii) Long tail of sperms.
(iii) Inner lining of uterus is richly supplied with blood.
(iv) Pollen tube develops from the pollen grain which lands on stigma.
(v) Testes are located outside abdominal cavity in scrotum.
OR
Explain any three methods of contraception? How does reproduction help in providing stability to populations
of species?

Q.36. (a) What is Joule’s law of heating?

(b) List the factors on which resistance depends.
(c) Compute the heat generated while transferring 96000 coulomb of charge in one
hour through a potential difference of 50 V.
OR
Explain the following:
(a) why is the tungsten used almost exclusively for filament of electric lamps?
(b) why are the conductors of electric heating devices such as bread toasters and
electric irons made of an alloy rather than a pure metal?
(c) why is the series arrangement not used for domestic circuits?
(d) how does the resistance of a wire very with its area of cross section?
(e) why are copper and aluminium wires usually employed for electricity transmission?

SECTION -E
Q.no. 37 to 39 consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.
Q.37. study the given information and answer the questions that follow:

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(a) What is the formula of the colourless solution formed after the reaction?
(b) What should Reena have done to make the reaction faster?
(i).use a thicker zinc plate
(ii).use pieces of small zinc flakes
(iii).use a copper vessel for the reaction
(iv).use a solution of copper sulphate of higher concentration.
(c) No reaction takes place when a copper plate is immersed in an aqueous solution of zinc
sulphate. Explain why?
OR
What makes gold exist in free state in nature?
Q.38. Reproduction is a biological process by which new individual organisms are produced. Reproduction is a
fundamental feature of all life forms, each individual exists due to the process of reproduction. Reproduction is
the mechanism of species continuation. Mechanism and process of reproduction varies for different species in
this world.

(a) Name the specific reproductive part in Rhizopus responsible for reproduction.
(b) Name the organism which reproduces by budding.
(c) How is sexual reproduction more advantageous than asexual reproduction?
OR
How does binary fission differ from multiple fission?

Q.39. We know that lenses form different types of images when objects are Kept at varying positions. When a
ray is incident parallel to the principal axis, Then after refraction, it passes through the focus or appears to come
from The focus.When a ray goes through the optical centre of the lens, it passes Without any deviation. If the
objectis placed between the focus and optical Center of the convex lens, erect and magnified image is formed.
As the Object is brought closer to the convex lens from infinity to focus, the image Moves away from the convex
lens from focus to infinity. Also the sizeof the Image goes on increasing and the image is always real and
inverted.A Concave lens always gives a virtual, erect and diminished image irrespective Of the position of the
object.
(a) Where will be the location of image formed by a convex lens when the object is placed at infinity?
(b) When the object is placed at the focus of concave lens, where will be the position of image formed ?
(c)The power of a lens is +2 diopters. Identify the type of lens and also, find its focal length.
OR
What do you understand by power of a lens? what will be the power of a combination of
lenses of power +2 D and – 1.5 D?

101
 KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGTHAN, DELHI REGION
Science (086)
Class X
Sample Paper-2
Max. Marks: 80 Duration: 3 hours
General Instructions:
VIII. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.
IX. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is
expected to attempt only one of these questions.
X. Section A consists of 20 objective type questions carrying 1 mark each.
XI. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions
should in the range of 30 to 50 words.
XII. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these
questions should in the range of 50 to 80 words
XIII. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answer to these questions
should be in the range of 80 to 120 words.
XIV. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.

SECTION -A
Select and write the most appropriate option out of the four options given for each of the questions 1-
20.There is no negative mark for the incorrect response
Q.1 When zinc reacts with sulphuric acid, zinc sulphate and hydrogen gas are formed. The balanced
chemical equation for this reaction is:
a) Zn + H₂SO₄ → ZnSO₄ + H₂ b) Zn + H₂SO₄ → ZnSO₄ + 2H₂
c) Zn + 2H₂SO₄ → ZnSO₄ + H₂ d) 2Zn + H₂SO₄ → ZnSO₄ + H₂
Q.2 When an aqueous solution of sodium chloride is mixed with an aqueous solution of silver nitrate, a
white precipitate of silver chloride is formed. This reaction is an example of:
a) Combination reaction b) Decomposition reaction
c) Double displacement reaction d) Single displacement reaction
Q.3. Which of the following salts does not contain water of crystallisation?
(a) Blue vitriol (b) Baking soda
(c) Washing soda (d) Gypsum
Q.4 What happens when a solution of an acid is mixed with a solution of a base in a test tube?
(i) The temperature of the solution increases (ii) The temperature of the solution decreases
(iii) The temperature of the solution remains the same (iv) Salt formation takes place
(a) (i) only (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv)
Q.5 In the Chlor-alkali process, the byproduct gases are

(a) hydrogen only (b) hydrogen and oxygen gas

(c) hydrogen and chlorine gas (d) chlorine and nitrogen gas
Q.6 In the reaction 2KMnO₄ + 16HCl → 2MnCl₂ + 2KCl + 8H₂O + 5Cl₂, which species is the reducing
agent?
102
 a) KMnO₄ b) HCl
c) MnCl₂ d) Cl₂
Q.7 The below equation represents a chemical reaction where ethanol is oxidised using potassium
dichromate and sulphuric acid.

Which of the following option represents the product “X”?

(a) CH2O (b) CH3CH
(c) CH3H2O (d) CH3COOH
For visually impaired
Which of the following belongs to a homologous series of alkynes?
(a) C6H6 (b) C2H6
(c) C2H4 (d) C3H4
Q.8The image shows the transport of gases in the body through the heart and lungs.

Which of the following option shows the transport of oxygen to the cell correctly?
(a) Lungs →pulmonary vein →left atrium →left ventricle →aorta → body cells
(b) Lungs →pulmonary vein →right atrium →right ventricle → aorta → body cells
(c) Lungs →pulmonary artery →left atrium → left ventricle → vena cava → body cells
(d) Lungs →pulmonary artery →right atrium → right ventricle→ vena cava → body cells
For visually impaired
Oxygenated blood reaches heart by
(a) Pulmonary artery (b) Pulmonary vein
(c) Aorta (d) Vena cava

Q.9 Which of the following is responsible for the coordination of voluntary movement in humans?
(a) Cerebrum (b) Cerebellum

(c) Medulla oblongata (d) Hypothalamus

Q.10 Two pea plants one with round green seeds (RRyy) and another with wrinkled yellow (rrYY) seeds
produce F1 progeny that have round, yellow (RrYy) seeds. When F1 plants are selfed, the F2 progeny
will have new combination of characters.
(i) Round, yellow (ii) Round, green
(iii) Wrinkled, yellow (iv)Wrinkled, green
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iii)
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Q.11The process in which small portions of the oviducts of a woman are removed by surgical
operation, and the cut ends are ligated is

(a) copper T (b) tubectomy

(c) vasectomy (d) diaphragm

Q.12 What is the probability of a couple having a male child if they are both carriers of the x- linked
trait.

(a) 50 % (b) 56 %

(c) 47.43 % (d) It varies

Q13. Which diagram shows the correct magnetic field lines around a bar magnet?

(a) (a) and (c) (b) only (b)

(c) (b) and (d) (d) Only (c)

Q.14 Which of the following statements is true regarding the focal length of a convex lens?
a) It is always positive b) It is always negative

c) It can be either positive or negative d) It is always zero

Q.15 Which of the following phenomena of light are involved in the formation of a rainbow?

(a) Reflection, refraction and dispersion (b) Refraction, dispersion and total internal reflection

(c) Refraction, dispersion and internal reflection (d) Dispersion, scattering and total internal reflection

Q.16 The manufacturing of Chlorofluorocarbons free refrigerators is mandatory throughout the world.
How does this help prevent ozone depletion?
a) This will help convert oxygen molecules into ozone b) This will help convert the CFCs into ozone molecules

c) This will reduce the production of CFCs from oxygen molecules d) This will reduce the release of CFCs that
reacts with ozone molecules

Q.17 to 20 are Assertion – Reasoning based questions.

These consist of two statements- Assertion(A) and Reason(R). Answer these questions selecting the
appropriate option given below:
(e) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(f) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(g) A is true but R is false.
(h) A is false but R is true.
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Q.17 Assertion (A) : Baking powder is used in making cake instead of using only baking soda.
Reason (R) : Baking powder contains tartaric acid which reacts with sodium carbonate and
removes bitter taste.
Q.18 Assertion (A) : Aerobic respiration requires less energy as compared to anaerobic respiration.
Reason (R) : Mitochondria is the powerhouse of the cell.
Q.19 Assertion(A) : The phenomenon of scattering of light by the colloidal particles gives rise to Tyndall
effect.
Reason (R): The colour of the scattered light depends on the size of the scattering particles.
Q.20 Assertion(A) : Greater number of individuals are present in lower trophic levels
Reason (R): The flow of energy is unidirectional.

SECTION- B
Q.21 to 26 are very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.
Q.21 (a) What happens when iron nails are put into copper sulphate solution?
(b) Write a reaction with observation.
Q.22 (a) State the role played by the following in the process of digestion :
(i) Enzyme trypsin
(ii) Enzyme lipase-
(b) List two functions of finger-like projections present in the small intestine
Q.23 (a) Define geotropism.
(b) Draw a labelled diagram of a plant showing geotropic movement of its parts.
OR
Name the hormones secreted by the following endocrine glands and specify one function of each:
(a) Thyroid (b) Pituitary
Q.24 If the image formed by a spherical mirror for all positions of the object placed in front of it is always erect
and diminished , what type of mirror is it? Draw a labelled ray diagram to support your answer.
Q.25 Explain two disadvantages of series arrangement for a household circuit.
OR
V-I graph for a conductor is as shown in the figure

(a) What do you infer from this graph?

(b) State the law expressed here.
Q.26 Name and state rule used to determine the direction of magnetic field produced around a straight
conductor carrying current?

SECTION- C
Q.27 to 33 are short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
Q.27 Lead nitrate solution is added to a test tube containing potassium iodide solution.
(a) Write the name and colour of the compound precipitated.
(b) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction involved.
(c) Name the type of this reaction justifying your answer.

Q.28 You are given two solutions A and B. The pH of solution A is 6 and pH of
solution B is 8.
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(a) Which solution is acidic and which is basic?
(b) Which solution has more H+ ion concentration?
(c) Why is HCl a stronger acid than acetic acid?

29. Observe the experimental setup given below and answer the following questions.

(a) Identify the liquids labelled as A and B.

(b) Why is the leaf supposed to be first boiled in A and then in B?
(c) Can the leaf be boiled in B directly over the flame of the burner? Givereason.

For visually impaired

Write two different ways in which glucose is oxidised to provide energy in human body. Write the products
formed in each case.
OR
(a) What is peristaltic movement?
(b) ‘Stomata remain closed in desert plants during daytime’. How do they do photosynthesis?
Q.30 (a) Define reflex arc.
(b) Trace the sequence of events which occur in our body when a bright light is focussed on your eyes.
Q.31 A student has difficulty reading the blackboard while sitting in the last row. What could be the defect the
child is suffering from? Mention the causes of this defect . How can it be corrected?
Q.32 What are magnetic field lines? Justify the following statements
(a) Two magnetic field lines never intersect each other.
(b) Magnetic field lines are closed curves.
Q.33 (a) What is 10% law?
(b) Consider the following food chains-
Plants →→ mice →→ hawks
If energy available at the producer level in both the food chains is 100J. In which case will hawks get more energy
and how much?
SECTION- D
Q.no. 34 to 36 are Long Answer Questions carrying 5 carrying marks each.
Q.34 (a) What is meant by a saturated hydrocarbon?
(b Write the formula and draw the electron dot structure of carbon tetrachloride.
(c) Name the functional group present in
(i) CH3CH2OH
(ii) CH3COOH
OR
A compound is an active ingredient of all alcoholic drinks Write the chemical formula and name of the compound .
List its one uses. Write chemical equation and name of the product formed when this compound reacts with-

106
 (a) Sodium metal
(b) Hot concentrated sulphuric acid
Q.35 (a) Diagrammatically represent binary fission in amoeba.
(b) Mention the role of following organs in human male reproductive system
(i)Testis (ii) scortum (iii)Vas deferens. (iv)Prostrate gland
For visually impaired
(a)Describe any 3 methods of asexual reproduction
(b)List advantages of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction
OR
Define pollination Explain the different types of pollination, List two agents of pollination.How does suitable
pollination lead to fertilization?

Q.36 (a) A 6 Ω resistance wire is doubled by folding. What will be the new resistance of the wire.
(b) Three 2 Ω resistors A, B and C are connected in such a way that the total resistance of the combination is 3
Ω. Show the arrangement of the three resistors and justify your answer.
SECTION –E
Q. no. 37 to 39 consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-
parts.

Q.37 An industrial research lab is conducting a study to determine the most suitable materials for various
applications based on their physical and chemical properties. They are examining four materials:

Zinc: A metal known for its resistance to corrosion and its use in galvanizing iron to prevent rusting. It is also
used in making alloys such as brass.

Silver: A metal renowned for its high electrical conductivity and reflectivity. It is used in electrical contacts,
jewellery, and mirrors.

Carbon: A non-metal that can exist in different forms, including graphite and diamond. Graphite is used as a
lubricant and in pencils, while diamond is used in cutting tools due to its hardness.
Lead: A metal known for its density and malleability. It is used in batteries and radiation shielding but is also
highly toxic.
(a) Which material is best suited for preventing the rusting of iron in outdoor structures, and why?
(b)For manufacturing high-quality electrical contacts that require excellent conductivity, which material would
be most appropriate, and why?
(c) Which material would be most effective for use in cutting tools and why?*
*OR
What safety precautions should be taken when handling lead in industrial applications?
Q.38 A student studies the inheritance of a particular trait in pea plants, specifically flower colour. In this
experiment, the student observes two types of pea plants: those with purple flowers and those with white
flowers. According to Mendel's laws, purple flower colour is dominant over white flower colour. The student
crosses a pure-breeding purple-flowered plant with a pure-breeding white-flowered plant and then studies the
F1 generation.
(a) What will be the flower colour of all the plants in the F1 generation if a pure-breeding purple-flowered plant is
crossed with a pure-breeding white-flowered plant?
(b) In the F1 generation, what is the genotype of the purple-flowered plants?

(c) If the F1 generation plants are crossed among themselves, what will be the phenotypic and genotypic ratio
of purple to white flowers in the F2 generation?
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 OR
Which genetic principle explains why all the F1 generation plants have purple flowers? Explain

Q.39 Light is a form of energy which induces sensation of vision to our eyes. It becomes visible when it bounces
off on surfaces and hits our eyes. The phenomenon of bouncing back of light rays in the same medium on striking
a smooth surface is called reflection of light. If parallel beam of incident rays remains parallel even after reflection
and goes only in one direction is known as regular reflection. It takes place mostly in plane mirrors or highly
polished metal surfaces. The mirror outside the driver side of a vehicle is usually a spherical mirror and printed
on such a mirror is usually the warning "vehicles in this mirror are closer than they appear."

(a) Which type of mirror is used outside the driver's side of a vehicle?
(b) No matter how far you stand from a mirror, your image appears erect. Which type of mirror it can be?
(c) If an object is placed at 10 cm from a convex mirror of radius of curvature 60 cm, then find the position of
image.
OR

The focal length of mirror is 12 cm. Find the radius of curvature.

KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGTHAN, DELHI REGION

Science (086)
Class X
Sample Paper-3
Max. Marks: 80 Duration: 3 hours
General Instructions:
I. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.
II. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A
student is expected to attempt only one of these questions.
III. Section A consists of 20 objective type questions carrying 1 mark each.
IV. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these
questions should in the range of 30 to 50 words.
V. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these
questions should in the range of 50 to 80 words
VI. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answer to these
questions should be in the range of 80 to 120 words.
VII. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with
sub-parts.

SECTION -A
Select and write one most appropriate option out of the four options given for each of the
questions 1-20
Q.1 The following reaction is an example of a
NH3 (g) + 5 O2 (g) ------------� 4 NO (g) + 6 H2O(g)
i)Displacement reaction ii) combination reaction
iii) Redox reaction iv) Neutralization reaction
a) (i) and (iv)
b) (ii) and (iii)
108
c) (i) and (iii)
d) (iii) and (iv)

Q.2 Which of the following termed as reducing agent?

a) which gives oxygen
b) which removes oxygen
c) which removes hydrogen
d) all of the above

Q.3 Which of the following is the correct arrange-ment of the given metals in ascending order of their
reactivity?
Zinc, Iron, Magnesium, Sodium
(a) Zinc > Iron > Magnesium > Sodium
(b) Sodium > Magnesium > Iron > Zinc
(c) Sodium > Zinc > Magnesium > Iron
(d) Sodium > Magnesium > Zinc > Iron

Q.4 A sting from insect A has pH of 6.

Which of the following substances can be used to treat the sting?
a) Vinegar
b) Sodium hydroxide
c) Sodium hydrogen carbonate
d) Hydrochloric acid
Q.5 The chemical formula of plaster of Paris is:
a) CuSO4.2H2O
b) CaSO4.H2O
c) CaSO4.1/2H2O
d) CaSO4.2H2O

Q.6 A student took sodium sulphate solution in a test tube and added Barium Chloride solution to it. He
observed that an insoluble substance has formed. The colour and molecular formula of the insoluble substance
is:
(a) Grey, BaSO4
(b) Yellow, Ba(SO4)2
(c) White, BaSO4
(d) Pink, BaSO4

Q. 7 The image represents the structure of a few hydrocarbon compounds.

Which of these compounds can be classified as alkynes?

(a) only (A)
(b) only (B)
(c) both (A) and (D)
(d) both (B) and (C)

109
For visually impaired
C3H8 belongs to the homologous series of
Alkynes
Alkenes
Alkanes
Cyclo alkanes
Q.8 The image shows the excretory system in humans.

What is the importance of the labelled part in the excretory system?

(a) It produces urine.
(b) It filters waste from the blood.
(c) It stores the urine till urination.
(d) It carries urine from the kidney to the outside.
For visually impaired
Q.8.Name the tube which connects the kidneys to the urinary bladder.
(a) Urethra
(b) Nephron
(c) Tubule
(d) Ureter
Q.9 A microscopic gap between a pair of adjacent neurons over which nerve impulses pass is called
(a) neurotransmitter
(b) dendrites
(c) axon
(d) synapse
Q.10 The strength of magnetic field around a current carrying conductor is
(a) inversely proportional to the current but directly proportional to the square of the distance from
wire.
(b) directly proportional to the current and inversely proportional to the distance from wire.
(c) directly proportional to the distance and inversely proportional to the current
(d) directly proportional to the current but inversely proportional the square of the distance from wire.
Q.11 Which among the following diseases is NOT sexually transmitted?
(a) Syphilis
(b) Hepatitis
(c) HIV-AIDS
(d) Gonorrhoea

Q.12 If pea plants having round green seeds and wrinkled yellow seeds are
crossed, what phenotypic ratio will be obtained in F2 progeny plants.
(a) 1:2:1
(b) 3:1
(c) 9:3:3:1
(d) 9:3:3:5

110
Q.13 In order to reduce electricity consumption at home, what kind of appliance should one purchase?
(a) one which draws low power
(b) one which produces less heat
(c) one which operates at a higher voltage
(d) one which draws a high amount of current

Q.14 In humans, if gene B gives brown eyes and gene b gives blue eyes, what will be the colour of the eyes of
the person having combination (i) Bb (ii) BB:
(a) (i) Brown (ii) Brown
(b) (i) Blue (ii) Blue
(c) (i) Blue (ii) Brown
(d) (i) Brown (ii) Blue

Q.15 The danger signals installed at the top of tall buildings are red in colour. These can be easily seen from a
distance because, among all other colours, the red light:
(a) is scattered the most by smoke or fog
(b) is scattered the least by smoke or fog
(c) is absorbed the most by smoke or fog
(d) moves fastest in the air

Q.16 Our food grains such as wheat and rice, vegetables, and fruits, and even meat, contain varying amounts
of pesticide residues. This is due to:
(a) Eutrophication
(b) 10% law of energy transfer
(c)Biological magnification
(d) Ozone depletion

Q.17 to 20 are Assertion – Reasoning based questions.

These consist of two statements- Assertion(A) and Reason(R). Answer these questions
selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Q.17 Assertion (A): HCl gas does not change the colour of dry blue litmus paper.
Reason (R) : HCl gas gives hydronium ion with wet litmus paper.

Q.18 Assertion (A): The opening and closing of the pore is a function of the guard cells.
Reason (R): Stomatal pores facilitate the exchange of gases by diffusion.

Q.19 Assertion(A) : Danger signals are made of red colour.

Reason (R) : Velocity of red light in air is maximum, so signals are visible even in dark.

Q.20. Assertion: Biodegradable substances result in the formation of compost and natural
replenishment of nutrients in the soil.
Reason(R): It is due to breakdown of complex inorganic substances into simple
organic substances.
SECTION- B

111
Q.21 to 26 are very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.
Q.21 (a) Name the law followed for balancing a chemical equation.
(b) Balance the following chemical equation: Na + H2O → NaOH + H2

Q.22 Name the gland present in the wall of the stomach that release secretions for digestion of food.
Write the three types of secretion that are released by these glands.
Q.23 Give one example of a plant part.
(a) Which is positively hydrotropic as well as positively geotropic
(b) Which is positively phototropic but negatively geotropic.
OR

Name any two phytohormone and write one function of each.

Q.24 The magnification produced by a spherical mirror is -3”. List four information you obtain from this
statement about the mirror image.

Q.25 Show how you would connect three resistors each of resistance 6Ω, so that the combination has a
resistance of 9 Ω. Also justify your answer.
OR
If the radius of a current carrying conductor is halved, how does current through it change?
Q.26 A magnetic compass is placed near a current carrying straight conductor. State your
observation for the following cases and give reasons for the same in each case.
(a) Magnitude of electric current is increased.
(b) The compass is moved away from the conductor.
SECTION- C
Q.27 to 33 are short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
Q.27 In the reaction MnO2 +4HCl MnCl2 + 2H2O +Cl2
(a) Name the substance oxidised and the substance reduced.
(b) Name the oxidising agent.
(c) Name the reducing agent.
Q.28. A compound ‘X’ on electrolysis in an aqueous solution produces a strong base. ‘Y’ along with
two gases ‘A’ and ‘B’. ‘B’ is used in the manufacture of bleaching powder. Identify X, Y, A, and B. Write
chemical equations.

Q.29. Name the filtration unit in human excretory system. Draw it's well labelled diagram.
OR
In the experimental set up to establish that one of the atmospheric gases is essential for photosynthesis in
plants

112
(a) Name the atmospheric gas which is essential for photosynthesis.
(b) What is kept in watch glass in figure (a) and why ?
(c) State the difference between the plants in the pots a and b after a few days.

For visually impaired

Write down the steps involved in nutrition in amoeba and also give the type of nutrition.
OR
Name the atmospheric gas which is essential for photosynthesis.
Explain an activity to show the importance of that gas for photosynthesis.

Q.30 Find the direction of magnetic field due to a current carrying circular coil held:
(i) vertically in North – South plane and an observer looking it from east sees the current to flow in
anticlockwise direction,
(ii) vertically in East – West plane and an observer looking it from south sees the current to flow in
anticlockwise direction,
(iii) horizontally and an observer looking at it from below sees current to flow in clockwise direction

Q.31 A certain person has minimum distance of distinct vision of 150 cm. He wishes to read at a distance of
25cm. What type of eye defect he is suffering from? Find the focal length of corrective lens.

Q.32 (a) Draw a neat diagram of a neuron and label (i) dendrite and (ii) axon.
(b) Which part of the human brain is:
(i) the main thinking part of the brain?
(ii) responsible for maintaining the posture and balance of the body?

Q.33 After the examinations Rakesh with his friends went on a picnic to a nearby park. All friends carried
cooked food packed in plastic bags or plastic cans. After eating the food some friends collected the leftover
food and plastic bags etc., and planned to dispose them off by burning. Rakesh immediately checked them and
suggested to segregate the leftover food and peels of fruits from the plastic materials and respectively dispose
them off separately in the green and red dustbins placed in the corner of the park.
(a) In your opinion, is burning plastic an eco-friendly method of waste disposal? Justify your
answer.
(b) Write two advantages of method suggested by Rakesh.

SECTION- D
Q.no. 34 to 36 are Long Answer Questions carrying 5 carrying marks each.
Q.34 (a) Define the term ‘structural isomers’.
(b) Draw two possible isomers of the compound with molecular formulae C4H10 and write their
names.
(c) Give the electron dot structure of ethene.
OR
An organic compound A on heating with conc. H2SO4 forms a compound B which on addition of
hydrogen in presence of Nickel forms a compound C. ‘C’ on combustion forms CO 2 and H2O. Identify
the compounds A, B and C and write the equations for the reactions involved.
Q.35 (a) Draw a sectional view of human female reproductive system and label the part where
(i) eggs develop
(ii) fertilisation takes place
113
 (iii)Fertilised eggs get implanted.
(b) Describe, in brief, the changes the uterus undergoes
(i) to receive the zygote
(ii) if zygote is not formed.
OR
List three techniques that have been developed to prevent pregnancy. Which one of these techniques is not
meant for males? How does the use of these techniques have direct impact on health and prosperity of a
family?
For visually impaired
Write the function of the following with respect to the point given below
(i) Urethra in male reproductive system.
(ii) Long tail of sperms.
(iii) Inner lining of uterus is richly supplied with blood.
(iv) Pollen tube develops from the pollen grain which lands on stigma.
(v) Testes are located outside abdominal cavity in scrotum.
OR
List three techniques that have been developed to prevent pregnancy. Which one of these techniques is not
meant for males? How does the use of these techniques have direct impact on health and prosperity of a
family?

Q.36 (a) State Ohm’s Law.

(b) Write the factors on which resistance depends.
(c) Which uses more energy a 200 watt Television set in 40 minutes or 1000 watt Toaster in 20 minutes.
OR
Define resistance of a conductor. State the factors on which resistance of a conductor depends. Name the
device which is often used to change the resistance without changing the voltage source in an electric circuit.
Calculate the resistance of 50 cm length of wire of cross sectional area 0.01 square mm and of resistivity 5 ×
10-8 Ω m.

SECTION -E
Q.no. 37 to 39 consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each
with sub-parts.

Q.37. The metals in the middle of the activity series such as iron, zinc, lead, copper, etc., are
moderately reactive. These are usually present as sulphides or carbonates in nature. It is easier to
obtain a metal from its oxide, as compared to its sulphides and carbonates. Therefore, prior to
reduction, the metal sulphides and carbonates must be converted into metal oxides. The sulphide
ores are converted into oxides by heating strongly in the presence of excess air. This process is
known as roasting. The carbonate ores are changed into oxides by heating strongly in limited air. This
process is known as calcination
(a) What are the process for the extraction of metals of low reactivity series?
(b) Give an equation showing Roasting process.
(c) What is the process of converting metal oxide to metal?
OR
(c) Name two other reducing agents which can be used to extract metal from metal oxide?

Q.38. You may get to hear news about female foeticide or female infanticide. It is a cruel practice to kill
a girl child while it is still in the womb or just after her birth. Many people ostracise a woman if she fails
to bear a male child. People often blame the woman for this because of ignorance. Many people put all
the blame to the god. Let us try to understand how the gender of a child is determined. In human beings,
114
a somatic cell contains 23 pairs of chromosomes, i.e., 46 chromosomes. Out of them, 22 pairs have
similar chromosomes. These are called autosomes. The chromosomes in the 23 rd pair can be different
and are called heterosomes. Chromosomes of the 23rd pair are also called sex chromosomes because
they determine if a zygote would develop into a male child or a girl child.
(a) What will be the sex of a child who inherits X chromosomes from father?
(b) Why sex chromosomes in male are called heterosomes?
(c) How sex of an unborn child can be determined with the help of sex chromosomes?
OR
(c ) Why is sex determination banned?

Q.39 Rajesh’s father Mr. Jayesh runs a cosmetics and perfumes shop in a crowded market place. Mr.
Jayesh usually complains at home that there is lot of ‘shop-lifting’ in his shop which was causing loss
to him. Rajesh used to hear such complaints of his father. One day Rajesh went to the market and
purchased one big mirror of a special kind. He then went to his father’s shop and fixed the mirror at
such a position as he could see a wider view of the shop. Mr. Jayesh found that after the installation of
the mirror, the shop-lifting reduced. He was very happy and thanked Rajesh for making this possible.
(a) What type of mirror was fixed by Rajesh in the shop?
(b) What will be the nature of image formed by such mirror due to which it helps in preventing shop-lifting?
(c) Can any other type of mirror serve the same purpose? Justify your answer.
OR
(c) One day Rajesh was going to his office in his car. While driving his car, he saw another car behind
him through his rear-view mirror as shown in the figure. He saw that the car coming from behind was
at a distance of 4.5 m. If the radius of curvature of the mirror used as a rear-view mirror in a moving car
was 2.0 m. calculate the position of the image of the car behind him.

MARKING SCHEME
Sample Paper – Set 1
CLASS- X
SCIENCE
SECTION –A(1 mark each)
1.d 2.a 3.d 4.b 5.a 6.b 7.a 8.b 9.c 10.a
11.c 12.d 13.a 14.b 15.d 16.b 17.a 18.c 19.a 20.b
SECTION-B
Q.21 3BaCl2(aq) + Al2(SO4)3(aq) → 3BaSO4(s) + 2AlCl3(aq) 1
It is a double displacement /precipitation reaction. 1
Q.22 1. amount of access water present in the body 1
2. amount of dissolved waste /salts to be excreted. 1
Q.23 (a) roots 1
(b) stem 1
OR
 Auxin: It promotes cell enlargement and cell 1
differentiation in plants.
 Gibberellins: It breaks the dormancy in seeds and buds. 1
 Cytokinin: It promotes cell division in plants.

115
  Abscisic acid: It promotes the closing of stomata.(any 2
of these or other correct response)
Q.24 *Since magnification is -ve, the image is real and inverted. ½×4
*Since the image is real and inverted, the lens is convex.
*Magnification of -1 indicates that the size of image is equal to
object. *Object is placed at 2 F1 and images formed at 2
F2.
Q.25 There are 3 possible combinations and, therefore, 3 possible 1+½+½
values of X: 1.Two 6Ω resistors are connected in
parallel.
Resistance=1/6+1/6
=3Ω
If 3rd resistor of 6Ω and 3Ω are connected in series, it
becomes 6Ω+3Ω=9Ω. So, X= 6 ohm
2. Three resistors of 3 ohm each may be connected in series,
giving a total of 9 ohm. So, here, X= 3 ohm OR
3. Three resistors of 27 ohm each may be connected in parallel,
giving a total of 9 ohm. Thus, X= 27 ohm
OR
If the radius of conductor is halved, the area of cross-section(A)
is reduced to (1/4) of its previous value. ½
Also, the length of the (L) becomes half(½ L)
Since, R ∝ length(L)/A, resistance will become 2 times. ½
From Ohm’s law, V = IR or I= V/R
So, for a given (constant) V, ½
current will reduce to half (½)of its previous value. ½

Q.26 *not connecting too many appliances to a single socket. 1

*not operating all the appliances at the same time, especially,if
the total load is beyond the permissible limit. 1
*taking all necessary precautions to prevent short circuiting.
*using a voltage stabilizer in case of fluctuations of voltage. (any
two)
SECTION -C
Q.27 (a) substance oxidized is hydrogen gas(H2) and the substance ½,½
reduced is copper oxide (CuO). 1
(b) CuO is oxidising agent. 1
(c) H2is the reducing agent.
Q.28 Ca(OH)2 + Cl2------- CaOCl2+ H2O 1

X→Cl2 (,chlorine gas) 1

Y→CaOCl2 (bleaching powder or calcium oxychloride) 1
Q.29 Amoeba takes in (ingests)food using temporary finger like 1½
extensions (pseudopodia) of the cell surface which fuse over the
food particle forming a food vacuole. Inside the food vacuole
complex substances are broken down into simpler ones
(digestion) which then diffuse into the cytoplasm ( assimilation).
The remaining undigested material is move to the surface of the 1½
cell and thrown out (egestion)
Correct diagram

116
 1
OR 1
(a) CO2 ( carbon dioxide) gas 1
(b)
 Insert a part of the leaf of a de-starched plant into a conical
flask containing potassium hydroxide.
 Potassium hydroxide solution absorbs the carbon dioxide
gas from the air present in the glass bottle. 2
 Leave the plant in sunlight.
 After few hours, perform a starch test to this and another leaf 1
of the same plant.

Observation-

 Leaf exposed to the atmosphere are bluish black. 1

 Leaf exposed to KOH does not change to blue-black colour
Result- Starch is present in the green part of the leaf.
Conclusion- Presence of starch proves that chlorophyll is necessary
for photosynthesis as it traps sunlight. 2
Q.30 Reflex action is an automatic, involuntary response to a stimulus 1
that occurs without conscious thought. It is regulated by spinal
cord and not by brain.This rapid response helps protect the body 1
1
from harm.
A reflex arc is the neural pathway that mediates a reflex action.
It typically involves the following components:
1. *Receptor*: Detects the stimulus (e.g., skin receptors sensing
heat).
2. *Sensory Neuron*: Transmits the sensory information to the
central nervous system (CNS).
3. *Integration Center/relay neuron*: Located in the CNS (spinal
cord ), processes the information.
4. *Motor Neuron*: Carries the command from the CNS to the
effector.
5. *Effector*: Produces the response (e.g., muscles or glands).
*Example*: Touching a hot object.
- *Receptor*: Nerve endings in your skin detect the heat.
- *Sensory Neuron*: Sends a signal to the spinal cord.
- *Integration Center*: The spinal cord processes the information
and sends a response.
- *Motor Neuron*: Transmits the response signal to the muscles
117
 in your arm.
- *Effector*: Your arm muscles contract, pulling your hand away
from the hot object.
This entire process happens so quickly that you often withdraw
your hand before you consciously feel the pain.

Q.31
½

Q.32 A coil of many circular turns of insulated copper wire wrapped 1½

closely in the shape of a cylinder is called a solenoid. The
pattern of magnetic field lines around and inside a current-
carrying solenoid is similar to that of a bar magnet. So, a
current-carrying solenoid behaves just like a bar magnet.

1½
We can find out the north pole and the South pole of a current-
carrying solenoid by bringing either north pole or South pole of a
bar magnet near its two ends/poles. It is based on the principle
that similar poles repel each other whereas opposite poles
attract each other. suppose we bring the north pole of a bar
magnet near one of the ends of the current-carrying solenoid
and it gets repelled then it indicates the South pole of the
solenoid.

Q. 33 *Stop burning waste material as it releases harmful/toxic gases 1

in the environment/ causes air pollution.
*Segregation of biodegradable waste from non- biodegradable
waste 1
*Using biodegradable waste for making manure/ compost.
* Stop/minimise the use of plastics and other non-biodegradable 1
and, especially, non- recyclable materials. For example, we can

118
 use cotton/paper/jute bags instead of bags made of plastic or
any other non-biodegradable and/or non- recyclable materials.(
any three, including any other correct response)

SECTION -D
Q.34 (a) *Carbon compounds having double or triple bonds between 1
the carbon atoms are known as unsaturated carbon compounds 1
e.g. alkenes and alkynes. A saturated carbon compound has all
the carbon atoms having only single bonds with other atoms,
e.g. alkanes. ½
*Unsaturated carbon compounds are more reactive than the
saturated carbon compounds.
* Saturated hydrocarbons will generally give a clean blue flame ½
while unsaturated carbon compounds will give a yellow flame
with lots of black smoke/soot.
(b)

OR
'A' on heating with concentrated H2SO4 will give B.
conc. H2SO4 1
C2H5OH ---------------------------- C2H4 + H2O
Therefore , 'A' is (ethanol) C2H5OH .The hydrocarbon 1

will be ethane (C2H6) . 1

Ni
1
CH2=CH2 + H2 ------------- CH3-CH3
1
'B' is ethene (C2H4)
2C2H6 + 7O2 →4CO2 + 6H2O
'C' is ethane.
Q.35 (a)See Figure 7.7 Pg. no.121(New book) 1½+ 1½

2
(b)*plants raised by vegetative propagation can bear
flowers and fruits earlier than those produced from seeds
* It is useful for the propagation of plants such as
banana,rose etc. which have lost the capacity to produce
seeds.

119
 *all the plants produced are genetically very similar to the
parent plant and having all their characteristics.(any two)
OR
Techniques/ methods to prevent pregnancy:

 Use of IUCDs( intra-uterine contraceptive devices) e.g.

loop and Copper-T: they are placed in the uterus to
prevent pregnancy.
 Use of physical/mechanical barrier method e.g. condoms
( for males)and diaphragms( for females): they prevent 3
the sperm from reaching the egg and, thus, prevent
pregnancy.
 Surgical methods: The vas deferens in the males
(vasectomy) or the fallopian tube in the females is
blocked surgically(tubectomy) to prevent transfer of
sperms or eggs which prevents fertilisation/pregnancy. (
or any other correct answer).

Reproduction is the process by which organisms

increase their populations. The rates of birth and death in
a given population will determine its size. If they are
nearly equal then the size of population will remain more
or less the same i.e. it will lead to stability of the
population. if the birth rate is more then the size of
population will go on increasing, and vice versa.
2

For visually impaired

(a)to allow passage of semen
(b)The tail moves with whip-like movements back and
forth to propel the sperm towards the egg.
(c) To receive the fertilizes egg and give nutrition to it.
(d)To pass the male gamete to female gamete
(e)Scrotum has lower temperature than the body to furnish
the production of sperms.
(1×5)

Q.36 (a) Joule’s Law of heating implies that the heat produced in 1
a resistor is (i) directly proportional to the square of
current for a given resistance, (ii) directly proportional to
resistance for a given current, and (iii) directly
proportional to the time for which the current flows
through the resistor. 2

120
 (b) The resistance of a conductor depends upon the nature
of its material (resistivity), length and cross-sectional
area of the conductor . It does also depend on other
physical factors like temperature etc.

(c)

½,½,1

OR
(a) because of the very high melting point of
Tungsten.
(b) because alloys do not oxidize or burn readily at
high temperature.
(c) if one of the components fails then the circuit is
broken and none of the components/appliances
works.( or any other correct answer)
(d) resistance of a wire is inversely proportional to its
area of cross section.
(e)because copper and Aluminium have low
resistivity or high electrical conductivity and
comparatively cheaper than silver.
SECTION -E
Q.37 (a) ZnSO4 1
(b) (ii) use pieces of small zinc flakes. 1

(c) because zinc is more reactive than copper and therefore 2

copper cannot displace zinc from its salt solution/ no reaction
takes place.
OR 2
gold lies at the bottom of the activity series of metals and is
amongst the least reactive metals. why does not combine with
any other element and is found in the Earth’s crust in the free
state.
Q.38 (a) Sporangium 1

121
 (b) Hydra or Yeast.

(c) sexual reproduction leads to more genetic diversity or 2

increase in variations, better survival rate/ chances for a
population/species, faster evolution and formation of new
species.( any two)

OR

organisms like bacteria and protozoa simply split into two equal
halves during cell division, giving rise to two new individuals. 2
This is binary fission. Some single-celled organisms such as the
malarial parasite, plasmodium, divides into many daughter cells
simultaneously and each daughter cell develops into a new
individual. This is multiple fission.
Q.39 (a) at F2 ( principal focus) 1

(b) at infinity 1

(c) It is a convex lens. Its focal length, f = 1/P = ½ m or 50 cm. 2

OR

The converging or diverging ability of a lens is expressed in

terms of its power. The Power of a lens is defined as the
reciprocal of its focal length (in metres). 2
the net power (P) of the combination of lenses = P1+ P2 = 2+(-
1.5) = 0.5 D

MARKING SCHEME
Sample Paper - 2
CLASS- X
SCIENCE
Question no 1 to 20 are MCQ carries one mark each.
1.a 2.c 3.b 4.d 5.c 6.b 7.d,d 8.a,b 9.a 10.b
11.b 12.a 13.d 14.a 15.b 16.d 17.a 18.d 19.b 20.b

SECTION -B
Q.21 (a)When an iron nail is dipped in CuSO4 solution iron can displace 1
copper from its solution.
(b)The iron nail gets coated with a brown layer of copper and the colour 1/2
of the blue copper sulphate solution changes to pale green.
Fe(s)+CuSO4⟶Cu(s)+FeSO4 1/2
Q.22 (a) In the process of digestion, (i) Enzyme trypsin: helps in the digestion ½
of protein. (ii) Enzyme lipase: helps in the digestion of lipid or fat. ½
(b)The increase the surface area for absorption of the digested food.
Helps in the transfer of the proteins to all cells and tissues by
absorbing the protein molecules.
122
 These villi contain many blood vessels that help in the absorption of ½
digested food and carry it to the bloodstream. Later, from the ½
bloodstream, the absorbed food is delivered to each cell of the body.
(Any two)

Q.23 (a) The movement of plant parts in response to the direction of gravity is 1
known as geotropism. The growth of roots is an example of geotropism
as it grows towards the direction of gravity.

(b)

OR 1
(a) Thyroid gland: The hormone secreted by the thyroid gland is
thyroxin. It regulates carbohydrate protein and fat metabolism in the
body so as to provide the best balance for growth.
(b) Pituitary gland secretes growth hormone. It regulates growth and 1
development of the body.
Q.24 If the image formed by a spherical mirror is always erect and diminished 1
then it is convex

Q.25 Disadvantages of series combination:- 2

If the circuit is broken, if one component in a series circuit fails, all of the
other components in the circuit will fail. –
The resistance of a series circuit increases as the number of
components increases.
OR
(a) inference V ∝ I 2
(b) This states that the current passing through a conductor is directly
proportional to the potential difference across its ends provided the
physical conditions like temperature density etc; remain unchanged.
This is Ohms law.
Q.26 Maxwell's Right-Hand Thumb Rule can be used to determine the 1
direction of magnetic field lines around a current-carrying conductor.
It states that, if the thumb of the right hand represents the direction of
the current flow, the rest of the curled fingers determine the direction of
the magnetic field around it. 1

SECTION -C
Q.27 (a) The precipitate formed is the compound Lead iodide of yellow colour. 1
(b) Pb(NO3)2(aq)+2KI(aq) →PbI2(s)↓ 2KNO3(aq) 1
(c)Precipitation is a reaction or double displacement reaction 1

123
Q.28 (a) A solution of pH value less than 7 is acidic in nature, while greater 1
than 7 indicates a basic solution.
(b) The solution with pH = 6 is acidic and has more hydrogen ion
concentration than the solution of pH = 8, which is basic. 1
(c) HCl acid ionises completely to H+ and Cl− ions. On the other hand, 1
acetic acid dissociates partially.
Q.29 (a) A- water; B- alcohol. 2
(b) Boiling in water is to soften the tissues. Boiling in alcohol is for the
chlorophyll to
be removed from the leaf.
(c) B being alcohol is highly flammable and so, would catch fire and burn 1
For visually impaired
The two ways in which glucose is oxidized to provide energy in diverse
organisms are listed below.
Aerobic respiration occurs in the presence of oxygen, respiration
occurs, and the products are carbon dioxide, energy, and water.
Anaerobic respiration It occurs in the absence of oxygen, respiration 3
occurs, and the products generated are lactic acid or ethanol and energy
.OR
(a) Peristalsis is a series of wave-like muscle contractions that move
food through the digestive tract.
(b) Such plants undergo CAM photosynthesis as they open up their
stomata during night and take in CO2.Stomata remains close during the
day time to prevent the loss of water by transpiration. They store the
CO2 in their cells until the sun comes out and they can carry on with 3
photosynthesis during the day time.
Q.30 Reflex arc: It is a shortest pathway for an impulse to travel from the
receptor organ via central nervous system to the effector. 1
Receptor —> Sensory neuron —> Brain —> Motor neuron —> Eye —> 2
Eye muscle contracts.

Q.31 The student is suffering from myopia or short-sightedness.

It is caused by:
i) Excessive curvature of the eye lens
ii) Elongation of the eyeball 1
The defect can be corrected by the use of concave (diverging) lens of an 1
appropriate power. 1
Q.32 (a) Imaginary continuous closed curves used to represent the magnetic 1
field in a region is known as magnetic field lines. It is directed from north
pole to south pole outside the magnet and south pole to north pole 1
inside the magnet.
1

(b)The direction of magnetic field (B) at any point is obtained by drawing

a tangent to the magnetic field line at that point. In case, two magnetic
field lines intersect each other at the point P as shown in figure,
magnetic field at P will have two directions, one drawn to each magnetic
field line at P, which is not possible.

124
 (c) It is taken by convention that the field lines emerges from north pole
and merge at the south pole. Inside the magnet, the direction of field
lines is from its south pole to its north pole. Thus, the magnetic field lines
are closed curves.
Q. 33 (a) According to the ten percent law, with every increasing trophic level 1
in a food chain, the amount of energy available is only 10% of the
previous trophic level..
(b) Hawk get more energy in food chain having three trophic levels. 2
Plants (100J) → mice (10J) → hawks (1J) Thus, Energy available to
hawk is 1J.

SECTION -D
Q.34 (a) A Saturated hydrocarbon is a hydrocarbon in which all the carbon- 1
carbon bonds are single bonds. (b) The formula of carbon tetrachloride
is CCl4.
Electron dot structure of Carbon tetrachloride: 2

2
(c) alcoholic group,
Carboxylic acid
OR
Active ingredient in alcoholic drinks:
Ethanol is an active ingredient that is used in alcoholic drinks.
Ethanol is alcohol with a chemical formula C2H5OH.
It is also named ethyl alcohol.
Use of ethanol:
Ethanol is used in nail paint removers, polishes, and in many cosmetic
items.
(a) Reaction of ethanol with sodium metal: 2
When sodium metal Na reacts with ethanol C2H5OH.
it produces sodium ethanoate C2H5ONa and hydrogen gasH2 is 1
liberated.
The chemical reaction can be depicted as: 1
Na(s)+ C2H5OH (l)→ C2H5ONa(aq)+H2(g)
(b) Reaction of ethanol with conc. sulphuric acid: 1
When ethanol C2H5OH reacts with hot concentrated sulphuric acid
H2SO4, it produces etheneC2H4 and water H2O.
The chemical reaction can be depicted as:
C2H5OH + H2SO4------C2H4+H2O

Q.35(a) Refer to fig 7.1 a Pg.no.115(Ncert Textbook new) 3

(b) 2
( i )Testis: to produce male gametes.
125
 (ii )Scrotum: to provide optimal temperature to testis for the formation of
sperm.
(iii) Vas deferens: to deliver the sperms to the urinary bladder.
(iv ) Prostrate glands: to secrete the fluid which provides nutrition and
medium for transport of sperms.
For visually impaired
(a) 1) Binary fission: Single parent cell doubles its DNA, then divides
into two cells. ...
2) Budding: Small growth on surface of parent breaks off, resulting in
the formation of two individuals. ...
3) Fragmentation: Organisms break into two or more fragments that
develop into a new individual.
(b) (i) Organisms produced by sexual reproduction have a greater
survival rate as compared to asexual reproduction as organisms have
variation which is adapted to various environments.
(ii)They are less likely to be affected by various diseases.

OR
Pollination: The transfer of pollen grain from the anther to the stigma of
the flower is called pollination.
Types of pollination:-
Self-pollination
Cross-Pollination
1.Self-Pollination:
This types of pollination occur when the pollen of one flower transfers to
the stigma of the same flower, or another flower of the same plant..
2. Cross-pollination :
This type of pollination occurs when the pollen of one flower transfers to
the stigma of another flower of different plants of the same species.
Agents of pollination:
Pollination is done either by biotic agents like insects, birds, and bats or
by abiotic agents like wind and water.
Pollination is the transfer of male gametes onto the female gametes,
while fertilization is the fusion of these two gametes.
Pollination leads to fertilization:
It is the process in which the nuclei of the female gamete and male
gamete unite together in the ovary of the flower to form a diploid zygote.
Q.36 (a) Suppose the length of 6Ω resistance wire is l, its area of cross- 1
section is A and its resistivity is ρ. Then:
R=ρ×l/A
or 6=ρ×l/A ...(1)
When the wire is folded, its length is halved, and its cross-sectional area
doubles. Therefore, the new cross-sectional area is 2A. Therefore, the 2
new resistance of the wire is 6/4 = 1.5 ohms.
(b)Equivalent resistance across A and B is = 2×2/2+2 = 1 Ohm
Equivalent resistance across A and C is = 1 + 2 = 3 Ohm

126
 SECTION -E
Q.37 (a) ZINC because it is used for galvanising iron and prevents rust.. 1
(b) silver due to its high electrical conductivity 2
(c) carbon in the form of diamond because of its exceptional hardness.
OR 2
Use proper ventilation to avoid lead dust and direct contact due to its
toxicity.
Q.38 (a) All plants will have purple flowers 1
(b) Pp
(c) 3:1 and 1:2:1 1
OR
Law of dominance
Mendel's law of dominance states that: “When parents with pure, 2
contrasting traits are crossed together, only one form of trait appears in 2
the next generation. The hybrid offsprings will exhibit only the dominant
trait in the phenotype.”
Q.39 (a) Convex mirror 1
(b) either plane or convex
(c) The position of the image. Solution, As the radius of curvature = 60 1
cm, the focal length (f) = 60/2 = 30 cm. Therefore the image is
located 7.5 cm behind the mirror. 2
OR
R = 2 × 12 = 24 c m. 2

MARKING SCHEME
Sample Paper –Set 3
CLASS- X
SCIENCE
SECTION –A (1 mark each)
1.c 2.b 3.d 4.c 5.c 6.c 7.c/c 8.c/ d 9.d 10.b
11.b 12.c 13.a 14.a 15.b 16.c 17.a 18.b 19.a 20.c
SECTION-B
Q.21 (a) The law of conservation of mass states that in a chemical reaction mass 1
is neither created nor destroyed.
(b) 2Na(s) + 2H2O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) + H2(g)
1
Q.22 Gastric Gland is present in the wall of the stomach that release secretions ½
for digestion of food.
The gastric glands produce gastric juice which contains three substances:

127
 ● Hydrochloric acid.
½
● Pepsin Enzyme. ½
● Mucus. ½
Q.23 (a) roots 1
(b) stem/ shoot 1
OR
1
● Auxin: It promotes cell enlargement and cell differentiation in plants.
● Gibberellins: It breaks the dormancy in seeds and buds. 1
● Cytokinin: It promotes cell division in plants.
● Abscisic acid: It promotes the closing of stomata.(any two)
Q.24 Negative sign of magnification indicates that the image is real and ½×4
inverted. Since the image is real and inverted, the mirror is concave
and magnification of -3 indicates that the image is magnified. Image
is formed in front of the mirror.

Q.25 Two 6Ω resistors are connected in parallel. 2

Resistance=1/6+1/6
=3Ω
If 3rd resistor of 6Ω and 3Ω are connected in series, it becomes 6Ω+3Ω=9Ω
OR
If the radius of conductor is halved, the area of cross-section reduced to
(1/4) of its previous value. 2
Since, R ∝ 1/A, resistance will become four times
From Ohm’s law, V = IR
For given V, I ∝ 1R
So, current will reduce to one-fourth of its previous value.

Q.26 (a) As the amount of magnetic field strength is directly proportional to the 1
amount of current, so the deflection of compass needle increases.
(b) Since magnetic field strength at a point is inversely proportional to the
distance from the wire. Hence deflection of compass decreases when it is
moved away from the conductor. 1

SECTION -C
Q.27 (a) HCL has been oxidized to Cl2 ½,½
(b) MnO2 1
(c) HCL is the reducing agent and MnO2 has been reduced to MnCl2 1
Q.28 1
2NaCl(aq) + H2O-------� 2NaOH(aq) + Cl2(g) + H2(g)
½
X→NaCl ½
Y→NaOH ½
A→H2 ½
B→Cl2
Q.29 Amoeba takes in (ingests)food using temporary finger like extensions 1½
(pseudopodia) of the cell surface which fuse over the food particle forming a food
vacuole. Inside the food vacuole complex substances are broken down into
128
 simpler ones (digestion) which then diffuse into the cytoplasm ( assimilation). The
remaining undigested material is move to the surface of the cell and thrown out
(egestion)
Correct diagram
1½

OR
(a) CO2 1
(b) KOH in order to deprive the plant of CO2. 1
(c) After a few days the plant in pot ‘a’ will turn yellow and may wither 1
due to absence of nourishment. The plant of pot ‘b’ will, however,
remain healthy and green
For visually impaired
(i) Ingestion: Amoeba ingests food along with a little amount of the
surrounding water. It does this using its pseudopodia and forms a food
vacuole. (ii) Digestion: The food in the food vacuole is digested by the 3
digestive enzymes that enter from the cytoplasm.
Type of nutrition- holozoic
OR
(a) CO2
(b) Insert a part of the leaf of a de-starched plant into a conical
flask containing potassium hydroxide.
● Potassium hydroxide solution absorbs the carbon dioxide gas from
the air present in the glass bottle.
● Leave the plant in sunlight.
● After few hours, perform a starch test to this and another leaf of the
same plant.

Observation-

● Leaf exposed to the atmosphere are bluish black.

● Leaf exposed to KOH does not change to blue-black colour
Result- Starch is present in the green part of the leaf.
Conclusion- Presence of starch proves that chlorophyll is necessary for
photosynthesis as it traps sunlight.
Q.30 According to right hand rule, the direction of magnetic field is 1
(i) west to east
(ii) north to south 1
1

129
 (iii) into the paper.

Q.31 u=-25 cm V=-l5O cm. 1

1/f= 1/v - 1/u 1
1/f=1/-150 – 1/(-25) 1
f=3Ocm.
f being +ve, lens used is convex lens.
Hypermetropia

Q.32 (a) Refer NCERT book for diagram. 2

(b) (i) Forebrain which includes cerebrum, olfactory lobes and
diencephalon, is the main thinking part of the brain. ½
(ii) Cerebellum, part of hindbrain is responsible for maintaining the ½
posture and balance of the body.

Q. 33 (a) No, Burning of waste material will release harmful gases in the 1
environment and result in pollution.
(b) Segregation of biodegradable waste will help in making manure and
plastic and other non-bio degradable materials can be recycled. Or any other 1+1
advantages.

SECTION -D
Q.34 (a) Molecules having same molecular formula but different structural 1
formula are known as isomers.
(b) C4H10 has 2 structural isomers.

(c)

OR
'A' on heating with concentrated H2SO4 will give B. 2
130
 conc. H2SO4
C2H5OH ----------------------------� C2H4 + H2O
Therefore , 'A' is (ethanol) C2H5OH .
Ni
CH2=CH2 + H2 -------------� CH3-CH3
'B' is ethene (C2H4)
2C2H6 + 7O2 →4CO2 + 6H2O
'C' is ethane.

1
1
Q.35 (a) 3

(b)The lining of a uterus gets thickened and enriched with blood

supply to promotes healthy growth. The uterus also increases its 2
secretion to allow easy movement of the zygote for implantation.
If the zygote is not formed the whole layer of the decidual cells sheds
off along with blood and mucus in the next menstrual cycle.
OR
Techniques to prevent pregnancy:

● Use of intra-uterine devices (e.g.: Lippes’s loop and Copper T)

● Use of condoms
● Surgical methods

The intra-uterine devices are not meant for males.

3
The use of these techniques will keep the mother in good health. With
131
 a small family size, parents will be able to provide quality resources to
the child such as food, clothes and education. This will improve the
overall mental and physical well-being of the family.
For visually impaired 2
(a) to allow passage of semen
(b) The tail moves with whip-like movements back and forth to propel the
sperm towards the egg.
(c) To receive the fertilized egg and give nutrition to it.
(d) To pass the male gamete to female gamete
(e) Scrotum has lower temperature than the body to furnish the
production of sperms.

1X5

Q.36 (a) Ohm’s Law states that the current flowing through a conductor is 1
directly proportional to the potential difference applied across its
ends, provided the temperature and other physical conditions remain
unchanged.
(b) The resistance of a conductor depends upon the resistivityor nature 2
of the material, length and cross-sectional area of the conductor . It
does also depend on other physical factors like temperature etc.
( c) Television
Power = 200 W
2
Time = 40 × 60 = 2400 s
Energy = Power × Time = 200 × 2400 = 480000J
Toaster
Power = 1000 W
Time = 20 × 60 = 1200s
Energy = Power × Time = 1000 × 1200 = 1200000J
Toaster uses more energy when compared to Television.

OR
Resistance is the property of a conductor to resist the flow of charges 1
through it.
Factors affecting resistance of a conductor:
(i) Resistance of a conductor depends upon the following factors:
2
(1) Length of the conductor R ∝ I
(ii) Area of the conductor R ∝ 1/A

(iii)We are given, length of wire, l = 50 cm = 50 × 10-2 m cross-

sectional area, A = 0.01 mm² 2
= 0.01 × 10-6 m²
and resistivity, ρ = 5 x 10-8 Ω m.

132
 As, resistance, R = ρl/A
∴ R = 2.5 Ω
SECTION -E
Q.37 (a) Oxides of these metals are reduced to metal by simply heating. 1
(b) 2ZnS + 3O2(g) + heat--------------� 2ZnO(s) + 2SO2(g) or any other 1
example.
2
(c) The metal oxides are reduced to corresponding metal by simply using
suitable reducing agents such as coke(carbon).
OR 2

Aluminium, Sodium and Calcium (any two)

Q.38 (a) girl 1

(b) 23rd pair of chromosomes have XY (different chromosomes in a pair). 1

(c) All children will inherit an X chromosome from their mother. Thus, the sex
of the children will be determined by the type of chromosome inherited from 2
their father.

A child who inherits Y chromosome will be a boy and who inherits X

chromosome will be a girl.

OR
2
To stop the foeticide and to check an alarming decline in the number of
girls born for every 1000 boys born in the country.
Q.39 (a) Convex mirror 1

(b) Diminished, Upright, virtual 1

(c) No, because convex mirror gives diminished image and covers a wider
2
rea but concave mirror will give the enlarged image covering a smaller area.
OR
Object distance, u = -4.5 m
Focal Length f = + 1 m
Use of Mirror formula 2
image distance, v = +0.81 m

133