SR NEET STAR SUPER CHAINA (SERIES-1) DATE: 10.01.

2025
Time: 3.00 Hrs NEET GRAND TEST-03 Max.Marks: 720

Important Instructions:
(a) Duration of the Exam is 3 Hours.
(b) The question paper consists of 180 questions, comprising of 45 questions in each subject.
(c) Each question carries four marks. One mark will be deducted for every incorrect response from
the total score. Maximum marks are 720.
PHYSICS
1. Two statements are given below. One is labelled Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled Reason (R).
Read the statements carefully and choose the option that correctly describes
statements A and R
Assertion (A): An electric dipole is in stable equilibrium when placed in a uniform
electric field with its dipole moment opposite to the field.
Reason (R): No torque acts on an electric dipole when its dipole moment is in a
direction opposite to the field
1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation for
assertion
2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion
3) Assertion is true but reason is false
4) Assertion is false but reason is true
2. Three capacitors C1, C2 and C3 are connected in a combination as shown
below

Identify the correct statement(s).

(i) The charge on capacitor C1 is greater than that on capacitor C2.
(ii) The charge on capacitor C1 is the same as that on capacitor C3.
(iii) The charge on capacitor C1 is 30  C
1) Only (i) is correct 2) Only (iii) is correct
3) Both (i) and (iii) are correct 4) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
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3. What happens to the terminal voltage of a cell with an internal resistor as
the current drawn from the cell increases?
1) The terminal voltage remains constant
2) The terminal voltage decreases linearly.
3) The terminal voltage increases linearly
4) The terminal voltage initially remains constant and then increases
4. Two statements are given below. One is labelled Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled Reason (R)
Read the statements carefully and choose the option that correctly describes
statements A and R
Assertion (A): All atoms have a net magnetic moment.
Reason (R): Every electron in an atom possesses an intrinsic magnetic moment.
1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation for
assertion
2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion
3) Assertion is true but reason is false
4) Assertion is false but reason is true
5. The graph below represents the variation of intensity of magnetisation (M)
with magnetic field strength (H) for substances P and Q

Which of the two substances is most likely to be attracted when taken near a
magnet?
1) Only P 2) Only Q
3) Both P and Q 4) Neither P nor Q
6. A very high frequency AC source of peak EMF 200 V is connected across a
circuit as shown in the figure. The components of the circuit are L= 1 mH,
C=1  F , R1=10 ohm, R2= 40 ohm, R3=30 ohm. What is the approximate value
of the peak current flowing through this circuit?

1) 0.A 2) 2.5A 3) 5A 4) 6.67A

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7. If the frequency of the source of e.m.f. in an AC circuit is n, the power varies
with a frequency
1) n 2) 2n 3) n/2 4) zero
8. The energy difference between the first two levels of hydrogen atom is
10.2 eV. What is the corresponding energy difference for a singly ionized
helium atom?
1) 10.2 eV 2) 20.4 eV 3) 40.8 eV 4) 81.6 eV
9. If the units of mass and velocity are increased by two times then the units of
momentum will be increased by
1) 400% 2) 200% 3) 300% 4) 100%

10. When a  -particle is emitted from a nucleus, the neutron-proton ratio
1) is decreased 2) is increased
3) remains the same 4) first 1 and 2
11. Mobility of electrons in a semiconductor is defined as the ratio of their drift
velocity to the applied electric field. If, for an n-type semiconductor, the
density of electrons is 1019m-3 and their mobility is 1.6 m2/(V.s) then the
resistivity of the semiconductor (since it is an n-type semiconductor
contribution of holes is ignored) is close to
1) 2 m 2) 0.4 m 3) 4 m 4) 0.2 m
12. The contrast in the fringes in any interference pattern depends on
1) Fringe width
2) Wavelength
3) Intensity ratio of the sources
4) Distance between the sources
13. A beam of light strikes a piece of glass at an angle of incidence of 600 and the
reflected beam is completely plane polarised. The refractive index of the
glass is
1) 1.5 2) 3 3) 2 4) (3/2)
14. A slit of size 0.15 cm is placed at 2.1 m from a screen. On illuminated it by a
light of wavelength 5  105 cm. The width of diffraction pattern will be
1) 70 mm 2) 0.14 mm 3) 1.4 cm 4) 0.14 cm
15. The electric field of a plane electromagnetic wave is given by

E  E x  y sin  kz  t 
0  
Its magnetic field will be given by
E
1) 0 x  y cos  kz   t 
 
c
E
2) 0  x  y sin  kz  t 
 
c
E
3) 0 x  y sin  kz   t 
 
c
E
4) 0 x  y sin  kz  t 
 
c

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16. A particle of mass m and charge q is released from rest in a uniform electric
field. If there is no other force on the particle, the dependence of its speed v
on the distance x travelled by it is correctly given by (graphs are schematic
and not drawn to scale)

1) 2)

3) 4)
17. A uniformly charged sphere of radius 2 cm has potential of 16000 V at
surface. The energy density near the surface of sphere will be
1) 64  105 J / m 3 2) 8  103 J / m 3 3) 32 J/m3 4) 2.83 J/m3
18. A rectangular loop carrying a current i is situated near a long straight wire
such that the wire is parallel to one of the sides of the loop and the plane of
the loop is same of the left wire. If a steady current I is established in the
wire as shown in the (fig) the loop will

1) Rotate about an axis parallel to the wire

2) Move away from the wire
3) Move towards the wire
4) Remain stationary
19. A long straight wire is placed along the axis of a circular ring of radius R. The
mutual inductance of this system is
R  R 
1) 0 2) 0 3) 0 4) 0
2 2 2
20. A prism having an apex angle of 40 and refractive index of 1.50 is located in
front of a vertical plane mirror as shown in the figure. A horizontal ray of
light is incident on the prism. The total angle through which the ray is
deviated is

1) 40 clockwise 2) 1780 clockwise 3) 20 clock wise 4) 80 clock wise

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21. Which one of the following spherical lenses does not exhibit dispersion? The
radii of curvature of the surface of the lenses are as given in the diagrams.

1) 2) 3) 4)
22. If the focal length of objective and eye lens are 1.2 cm and 3 cm respectively
and the object is put 1.25 cm away from the objective lens and the final
image is formed at infinity. The magnifying power of the microscope is
1) 150 2) 200 3) 250 4) 400
23. This questions has Statement I and Statement II. Of the four choices given
after the Statements, choose the one that best describes the two Statements.
Statement-I:- Higher the range, greater is the resistance of ammeter
Statement – II:- To increase the range of ammeter, additional shunt needs to be
used across it.
1) Statement –I is true, Statement –II is true, Statement – II is the correct
explanation of Statement-I
2) Statement –I is true, Statement –II is true, Statement – II is not the correct
explanation of Statement-I
3) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is false
4) Statement-I is false, Statement-II is true
24. Match quantities given in Column – I with their appropriate relations given
in Colum –II.
Column – I Column – II
A. Drift velocity I. m / ne 2 
B. Electrical resistivity II. ned
eE
C. Relaxation period III. 
m
D. Current density IV.  / J
A B C D
1) IV III I II
2) III IV I II
3) I III IV II
4) II IV III I
25. For what value of R in circuit, current through 4  resistance is zero

1) 2  2) 1  3) 3  4) 4 

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26. Match the following items given in Column I with items x-t graph in Column
II.
Column – I Column – II

A. Positive acceleration I.

B. Negative acceleration II.

C. Zero acceleration III.

A B C A B C
1) I II III 2) III I II
3) I III II 4) II I III
     
27. 
If A and B are two vectors, the value of A  B   
 A  B is
       
 
1) 2 B  A  
2) - 2 B  A 3) B  A 4) A  B
28. The friction force action on the block at time t=4 s will be

1) 50 N 2) 30 N 3) 25 N 4) None
29. In the given figure tension at the mid-point of string-2. If mass of string-1 is
6 kg and mass of string-2 is 4 kg

1) 70 N 2) 60 N 3) 80 N 4) 50 N
30. Raindrops are falling vertically with a velocity of 10m/s. To a cyclist moving
on a straight road the raindrops appear to be coming with a velocity of
20m/s. The velocity of cyclist is
1) 10 m/s 2) 10 3 m/s 3) 20 m/s 4) 20 3 m/s

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31. The level of liquid in the two arms of a U-tube is same in stationary state. If
U-tube is moved to the right with constant velocity the level of liquid

1) Will be higher in arm A as compared to B

2) Will be higher in arm B as compared to A
3) Will remain same in both the arms
4) None of the above
32. Two blocks of masses m1 and m2 are hanged from a ceiling using two
separate strings as shown in figure. If T1 and T2 are tensions in upper and
T
lower string respectively, 1 is
T2

m1 m2 m1 m2
1) 2) 3) 1+ 4) 1 +
m2 m1 m2 m1
33. Starting from rest, a body slides down a 450 inclined plane in twice the time
it takes to slide the same distance in the absence of friction. What is the
coefficient of friction between the body and the inclined plane?
1 1 3 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 2 4 2
34. A block of mass m attached to two unstreched springs of spring constant 'k'
each as shown. The block is displaced towards right through distance 'x' and
released the speed of block when it passed through original position will be

m 2k m 2k
1) x 2) x 3) x 4) x
2k m k m

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35. A body of mass 2 kg slides down a curved track which is quadrant of a circle
of radius 1 metre. All the surfaces are frictionless. If the body starts from
rest, its speed at the bottom of the track is

1) 4.43 m/sec 2) 2 m/sec 3) 0.5 m/sec 4) 19.6 m/sec

36. A pump motor is used to deliver water at a certain rate from a given pipe. To
obtain twice as much water from the same pipe in the same time, power of
the motor has to be increased to
1) 16 times 2) 4 times 3) 8 times 4) 2 times
37. A puck of mass m is moving in a circle at constant speed on a frictionless
table as shown in the figure. The puck is connected by a string to a
suspended bob, also of mass m, which is at rest below the table. Half of the
length of the string is above the table top and half below. What is the
magnitude of the centripetal acceleration of the moving puck? Let g be the
acceleration due to gravity

1) The magnitude of the centripetal acceleration of the moving puck is less than g.
2) The magnitude of the centripetal acceleration of the moving puck is equal to g.
3) The magnitude of the centripetal acceleration of the moving puck is greater than
g.
4) There is not enough information given to determine how the magnitude of the
centripetal acceleration of the moving puck compares to g
38. If linear density of a rod of length 3m varies as   3  x , then the position of
the centre of mass of the rod is
2 4
1) 1 m 2) m 3) m 4) None
3 3
39. A ball is dropped on a horizontal floor from a height h = 50 m. The ball
rebounds to a height of 32 m. The coefficient of restitution between the ball
and the floor is :
1) 0.6 2) 0.64 3) 0.8 4) 0.36

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40. Which of the following has the highest moment of inertia when each of them
has the same mass and the same radius?
1) A ring about any of its diameter
2) A disc about any of its diameter
3) A hollow sphere about any of its diameter
4) A solid sphere about any of its diameter
41. In an experiment with a beam balance on unknown mass m is balanced as
shown in fig. The value of the unknown mass m is :-

1) 12 Kg 2) 6 Kg 3) 8 Kg 4) 24 Kg
42. A particle is moving with uniform velocity  as given in the figure.
The angular momentum about O is given by

3m 8m 3m m

1) 2) 3) 4)
2 3 2 3
43. Which one of the following is the Young’s modulus (in N/m2) for the wire
having the stress-strain curve shown in the figure.

1) 24 1011 2) 8.0 1011 3) 10 1011 4) 2.5 1011

44. A particle is moving along the x-axis under the influence of a force given by
F = - 5x + 15. At t = 0, the particle is located at x = 6 and is having zero
velocity. It takes 0.5 seconds to reach the origin (x = 0) for the first time.
The equation of motion of the particle can be represented by
1) x  3  3cos  t 2) x  3cos  t 3) x  3  3sin  t 4) x  3  3cos  2 t 
45. To decrease the volume of a gas by 5% at constant temperature, the pressure
should be
1) Decreased by 5.26% 2) Increased by 5.26%
3) Decreased by 11% 4) Increased by 11%
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 CHEMISTRY
46. Statement – I:- The number of electrons ejected from the metal surface is proportional to brightness
of light.
5
Statement – II:- The Balmer spectral line for H atom with lowest energy is located at RH cm 1 .
36
 RH  Rydberg constant 
1) Both statement – I and statement – II are correct
2) Both statement – I and statement – II are incorrect
3) Statement – I is correct and statement – II is incorrect
4) Statement – I is incorrect and statement – II is correct
47. Match the Column – I with Column – II
Column – I Column – II
(Anion) (Colour property)
2
I. MnO4 A. Orange
II. MnO4 B. Green
III. CrO42  C. Purple
IV. Cr2O72  D. Yellow
1) I  C; II  A; III  B; IV  D
2) I  B; II  C; III  D; IV  A
3) I  B; II  C; III  A; IV  D
4) I  A; II  C; III  D; IV  B
48. Match the Column – I with Column – II
Column – I Column – II
(Atomic number) (IUPAC official name)
I. 105 A. Meitnernium
II. 107 B. Flerovium
III. 114 C. Dubnium
IV. 109 D. Bohrium
1) I  A; II  B; III  D; IV  C
2) I  C; II  D; III  B; IV  A
3) I  D; II  A; III  C; IV  B
4) I  B; II  C; III  A; IV  D
49. Assertion(A): Aromatic primary amines cannot be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
Reason(R): Aryl halides do not undergo nucleophilic substitution with anion formed by phthalimide
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false but R is false

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50. Match the Column – I with Column – II
Column – I Column – II
(Molecule) (Dipole moment)
I. H 2O A. Zero D
II. NH 3 B. 1.07 D
III. HCl C. 1.85 D
IV. CH 4 D. 1.47 D
1) I  C; II  B; III  D; IV  A
2) I  B; II  C; III  A; IV  D
3) I  C; II  D; III  B; IV  A
4) I  A; II  B; III  D; IV  C
51. Which of the following has minimum boiling point?
1) n – pentane 2) Ethoxy ethane 3) Butan -1-ol 4) Butanal
52. Which of the following is Incorrect?
1) Benzene diazonium fluoro borate is water soluble and stable at room temperature
2) Benzene diazonium chloride is soluble in water
3) Benzene diazonium fluoroborate is insoluble in water
4) The yield in sandmeyer reaction is found to be better than Gattermann reaction
53.

In the above reaction ‘B’ is

1) 2) 3) 4)
54. Statement – I:- Standard enthalpy of formation of Br2 l  is zero.
Statement – II:- Standard Gibbs energy change is related to equilibrium constant by
G 0   RT log K .
1) Both statement – I and statement – II are correct
2) Both statement – I and statement – II are incorrect
3) Statement – I is correct and statement – II is incorrect
4) Statement – I is incorrect and statement – II is correct
55. Statement – I:- P-nitrophenol and ortho-nitrophenol can be separate by steam distillation
Statement – II:- Phenol treated with Br2 in CHCl3 at low temperature, salicylaldehyde is formed.
1) Both statement – I and statement – II are correct
2) Both statement – I and statement – II are incorrect
3) Statement – I is correct and statement – II is incorrect
4) Statement – I is incorrect and statement – II is correct

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56. Incorrect among the following is

Anhy AlCl3 / CuCl

1)  CO  HCl   Gatterman Koch reaction

CS2
2)  CrO2 Cl2  Etard reaction

H 2 , Pd  BaSO4
3)   Rosenmund reduction

Anhy . AlCl3 / CuCl

4)  CO  HCl   Gatterman reaction
Re d hot Fetube HNO3  H 2 SO4 Sn  HCl NaNO2
57. C 2 H 2   A   B  C 
HCl
D
D on coupling reaction with C produce
1) Orange dye 2) Yellow dye 3) Blue dye 4) Green dye
58. Statement – I:- PbO and PbO2 are amphoteric
Statement – II:- SnF4 and PbF4 are Ionic in nature
1) Both statement – I and statement – II are correct
2) Both statement – I and statement – II are incorrect
3) Statement – I is correct and statement – II is incorrect
4) Statement – I is incorrect and statement – II is correct
59. Assertion(A): In aqueous solution, Copper (I) compounds are unstable and undergo
disproportination, 2Cu   Cu 2  Cu .
Reason(R): Enthalpy of Hydration of  H Hyd
0
 of Cu 2  aq  is much more negative than Cu   aq  .
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false but R is false
60. Statement – I:- 35 volume percent solution of ethylene glycol is used in cars for cooling the engine.
Statement – II:- The solubility of a gas in a liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of
the gas present above the surface of liquid or solution at a constant temperature.
1) Both statement – I and statement – II are correct
2) Both statement – I and statement – II are incorrect
3) Statement – I is correct and statement – II is incorrect
4) Statement – I is incorrect and statement – II is correct
61. For the reaction
M x   MnO4  MO3  Mn 2  1/ 2  O2
If 1 mol of MnO4 oxidises 1.67 mol of M x  to MO3  , then the value of x in the reaction is
1) 5 2) 3 3) 2 4) 1
62. 10 g of CaCO3 contains
1) 10 moles of CaCO3 2) 0.1 g atom of Ca
3) 6 1023 atom of Ca 4) 1 mole atoms of carbon

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63. If the heat of dissolution of anhydrous CuSO4 and CuSO4 .5 H 2 O is -15.89 kcal and 2.80 kcal,
respectively, then the heat of hydration of CuSO4 to form CuSO4 .5 H 2 O is
1) -13.09 kcal 2) -18.69 kcal 3) +13.09 kcal 4) +18.69 kcal
64. What is the total numbers of orbitals and electrons for m  0 .If there are 30 protons in an atom?
1) 7 orbitals, 14 electrons 2) 6 orbitals, 12 electrons
3) 5 orbitals, 10 electrons 4) 3 orbitals, 6 electrons
65. 13.4 g of a sample of unstable hydrated salt Na2 SO4 . XH 2 O was found to contain 6.3 g of H 2O . The
number of molecules of water of crystallization in one mole of Na2 SO4 . XH 2 O is
1) 5 2) 7 3) 2 4) 10
66. Which amongst the following is incorrect statement?
1) The ionization enthalpy of elements are always positive.
2) Ionisation enthalpy for ‘X’ is less than that of X 
3) First ionization enthalpy of oxygen is smaller than that of nitrogen
4) First ionization enthalpy of beryllium is less than that of boron.
67. In which of the following ionization processes, the bond order has increases and the magnetic
behavior has changed?
1) C2  C2 2) NO  NO 3) O2  O2 4) N 2  N 2
68. Which amongst the following is incorrect statement?
A. Net reaction goes from left to right if Qc  K c .
B. Net reaction goes from right to left if Qc  K c .
C. Net reaction goes from left to right if Qc  K c .
D. Net reaction goes from right to left if Qc  K c .
1) A, B and C 2) C and D 3) A, C and D 4) B, C and D
69. In which of the following solvents is silver chloride most soluble?
1) 0.1 mol dm3 AgNO3 solution 2) 0.1 mol dm3 HCI solution
3) H 2O 4) Aqueous ammonia
70 Which of the following is used in making bullet – proof vest?
1) Aluminium wire 2) Boron fibre 3) Gallium 4) Thallium
71. In the following molecule how many carbon atoms arrange linearly:
CH 2  CH  C  C  CH 2  CH  CH 3
|
CH
3
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5
72. Arrange the following carbanions in order of their decreasing stability:
A. H 2C  CH  B. H  C  C  C. H 3C  CH 2 
1) A  B  C 2) B  A  C 3) C  B  A 4) C  A  B
73. In Dumas method 0.5g of an organic compound containing nitrogen gave 112 ml of nitrogen at
S.T.P. The percentage of nitrogen in the given compound is:
1) 28 2) 38 3) 18 4) 48
y x
74. Cis  isomer   2  butyne   Trans  isomer
x, y respectively are:
1) Na / NH 3 liq and Pd / BaSO4  H 2 2) Ni /1400 C and Pd / BaSO4  H 2
3) Ni /1400 C and Na / NH 3 liq 4) Pd , BaSO4  H 2 and Na / NH 3 aq 
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75. ‘x’ on ozonolysis gives a dial, while ‘y’ reacts with Baeyer’s reagent to give a diol. Then ‘x’ and ‘y’
respectively are
1) C2 H 2 & C6 H 6 2) C2 H 4 & C2 H 2 3) C2 H 2 & C2 H 4 4) C2 H 4 & C6 H 6
76. Arrange the following in decreasing order of their boiling points:
A. n – butane B. 2 – methylbutane
C. n – pentane D. 2, 2 – dimethylpropane
1) A  B  C  D 2) B  C  D  A 3) D  C  B  A 4) C  B  D  A
77. Two liquids X and Y form an ideal solution. The mixture has a vapour pressure of 400 mm at 300K
when mixed in the molar ratio of 1 : 1 and a vapour pressure of 350 mm when mixed in the molar
ratio of 1 : 2 at the same temperature. The vapour pressures of the two pure liquids X and Y
respectively are:
1) 250 mm, 550 mm 2) 350 mm, 450 mm 3) 350 mm, 700 mm 4) 550 mm, 250 mm
78. Mark the correct choice of electrolytes represented in the graph:

1) A  NH 4OH , B  NaCI 2) A  NH 4 OH , B  NH 4CI

3) A  CH 3COOH , B  CH 3COONa 4) A  KCI , B  NH 4 OH
79. Given standard electrode potentials
Fe   2e   Fe; E 0  0.440V
Fe   3e   Fe; E 0  0.036V
The standard electrode potential  E 0  for Fe  e  Fe is
1) – 0.476 V 2) – 0.404 V 3) + 0.404 V 4) + 0.771 V
80. The ratio t7/8 : t1/ 2 for the first order reaction is –
1) 3 2) 5 3) 2 4) 7
81. The trend in the hydrides from Bi to N is
1) Bond length increases 2) Bond length decreases
3) Acidic nature increases 4) Bond energy decreases
82. The type of bonds present in sulphuric anhydride is;
1) 3 and 3 p  d 2) 3 ,1 p  p and 2 p  d
3) 2 and 3p  d 4) 2 and 2 p  d
83. Find the correct statements.
A. Electron affinity of F is less than that of Cl
B. Number of lone pairs at central chlorine atom of ClF3 is 2
C. Iodine absorbs radiation of yellow colour and appear in violet colour.
Find the correct answer.
1) A, B only 2) B, C only 3) Only A, C 4) All are correct
84. Which of the following complexes is non – conducting?
1) CoCl3 .3 NH 3 2) CoCl3 .6 NH 3 3) CoCl3 .4 NH 3 4) CoCl3 .5 NH 3
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85. The IUPAC name of the complex:  Ag  H 2O  2   Ag  CN 2  is
1) Diaquasilver (I) Dicyanidoargentate (I)
2) Dicyanidosilver (II) Diaquaargentate (II)
3) Diaquasilver (II) Dicyanidoargentate (II)
4) Dicyanidosilver (I) Diaquaargentate (I)
86. In the given reaction, ‘Y’ is:

1) Hexane 2) Cyclohexane
2) Cyclohexyl cyclohexane 4) Cyclohexyl ether
87. In the following sequence of reaction,

KCN H 3O LiAIH 4
CH 3  Br    A  
 B 
ether
 C . C is:
1) Acetone 2) Methane 3) Acetaldehyde 4) Ethyl alcohol
88. Mark the correct order of decreasing acid strength of the following compounds:

1) V  IV  II  I  III
2) II  IV  III  I  V
3) IV  V  III  II  I
4) V  IV  III  II  I
89. Correct statements are:
A. Fibrous proteins are generally insoluble in water
B. Insulin and albumins are examples of fibrous proteins
C. Globular proteins are usually soluble in water.
D. Keratin and Myosin are the examples of globular proteins.
1) A and C 2) B, C and D 3) A and D 4) B and C
90. Match List – I with List – II
List – I List – II
(Test / reagent) (Radical identified)
A. Lake test I. NO3
B. Nessler’s reagent II. Fe3
C. Potassium sulphocyanide III. Al 3
D. Brown ring test IV. NH 4
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) A  IV ; B  II ; C  III ; D  I
2) A  II ; B  IV ; C  III ; D  I
3) A  II ; B  III ; C  IV ; D  I
4) A  III ; B  IV ; C  II ; D  I

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 BOTANY
91. Match the following.
List -I List -II
A Cellulosic cell walls I Trypanosoma
B Heterocysts II Mycoplasma
C Sleeping sickness III Anabaena
D Moneran without cell wall IV Gonyaulax
V Entamoeba
Correct match is
1) A-IV, B-III, C-V, D-II
2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-V
92. Division of centromere occurs in
A) Anaphase of mitosis
B) Anaphase I of meiosis
C) Anaphase II of meiosis
D) Metaphase I & II of meiosis
1) A & B 2) A & C 3) A, B & C 4) A, B , C & D
93. The given figure represents vexillary aestivation. Select the suitable labels for P, S & R.

P S R
1) Keel wing standard
2) Standard keel wing
3) Wing keel standard
4) Standard wing keel
94. Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex is found in
1) Zygotene 2) Diakinesis
3) Diplotene 4) Pachytene
95. To which kingdom eukaryotic organisms with cellulose cell wall, tissues and autotrophic mode of
nutrition belong?
1) Monera, Protista, plantae 2) Protista, Plantae
3) Plantae 4) Animalia
96. The cells of endodermis are rich in starch grains and layer is called starch sheath.
This is found in
1) Dicot root 2) Monocot root
3) Monocot stem 4) Dicot stem
97. Study the following list of plants given below.
Marchantia, Salvia, Gracilaria, Lycopodium, Selaginella, Dryopteris,
Fucus, Ficus, Polysiphonia, Pteris, Cycas, Gnetum, Pinus
Number of first terrestrial plants to possess vascular tissues?
1) 8 2) 2 3) 4 4) 6

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98. Study the following characters
1)Parietal placentation
2) Monocarpellary ovary becomes bicarpellary ovary due to formation of false septum
3) Inferior ovary
4) unequal lengthed stamens with in a flower
5) Four sepals
6) Six stamens
7) Tetramerous flower
How many characters from the above list observed in the taxon “Brassica”
1) 4 2) 7 3) 5 4) 6
99. Find the wrong combination
A) Reserve material is stored in cytoplasm, bounded by membrane system & lie free in the
cytoplasm – Inclusion bodies
B) Core of cilia or flagella – Hub
C) ER, Golgi complex, Lysosomes & vacuoles – Endo membrane system
D) Formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids – Golgi apparatus
1) A & B 2) C & D 3) A & C 4) B & D
100. The ploidy of sexual spore in phycomycetes, Ascomycetes & Basidiomycetes
respectively
1) n, n & 2n 2) 2n, 2n & 2n 3) 2n, n & n 4) n, n & n
101. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II

A) Mitochondria i) Without membrane

B) Lysosomes ii) Single membrane
C) Ribosomes iii) Double membrane
D) Nucleus
A B C D
1) i ii iii iii
2) iii i i ii
3) iii ii i iii
4) ii iii i iii
102. Concanavalin A belongs to one of the following metabolites
1) Alkaloids 2) Terpenoides 3) Lectins 4) Essential oils
103. Syngenesious stamens and epicalyx found in respectively are.
1) Malvaceae and Asteraceae 2) Asteraceae and Malvaceae
3) Asteraceae and Poaceae 4) Poaceae and Asteraceae
104. Refer the given reaction
RuBP
RuBP  O2 oxygenase
 Phosphoglyceric acid  Phosphoglycolic acid
It is the first reaction of
1) C3 pathway 2) C4 pathway
3) Photo respiration ( C2 pathway) 4) Glycolysis
+
105. For NADPH + H formation
1) Only PS-I is required 2) Only PS-II is required
3) Both PS-I and PS-II are required 4) Only stroma is required

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106. The processes of microsporogenesis, megasporogenesis and embryogenesis occur respectively in
1) Anther, ovule, stigma 2) Anther, embryosac, ovule
3) Ovule, ovary, embryosac 4) Anther, ovule, embryosac
107. Which of the following hormone is used in root formation on stem cutting?
1) Kinetin 2) GA 3) ABA 4) IBA
108. Which of the following step(s) associated with ATP formation (substrate level
phosphorylation)?
1) Succinyl CoA  Succinic acid 2) 1,3 - BisPGA  3-PGA
3) PEP  Pyruvate 4) All of these
109. Enzymes catalyse the biochemical reactions by _______ the activation energy
1) Lowering 2) Increasing 3) Unaltering 4) Either (1) or (2)
110. Find the correct combination
A) Pinus – Monoecious sporophyte
B) Marchantia – Dioecious gametophyte
C) Selaginella – Dioecious gametophyte
D) Cycas – Dioecious sporophyte & Dioecious gametophyte
E) Papaya – Dioecious sporophyte & Dioecious gametophyte
1) A & B only 2) B, C, D only 3) A, D, E only 4) All are correct
111. The ratio between the number of metaphasic chromatids and anaphasic chromosomes in a mitocyte is
1) 1 : 2 2) 1 : 1 3) 2 : 1 4) 1 : 4
112. The stalk of ovule is
1) filament 2) petiole 3) funicle 4) pedicel
113. Choose the correct match
List -I List -II
A Multiple allelism I Tt x tt
B Back cross II Tt x TT
C Test cross III Human blood groups
D Crossing over IV Dihybrid cross
E Law of Independent assortment V Non-sister chromatids
vi Monohybrid cross
1) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-v, E-iv 2) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-v, E-iv
3) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv, E-v 4) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-v, E-vi
114. Mendel formulated the law of purity of gametes on the basis of
1) Monohybrid cross 2) Dihybrid cross
3) Test cross 4) Back cross
115. In the given transcription unit, identify the regions A & B respectively.

1) Rho factor and Sigma factor 2) Promoter and Terminator

3) Sigma factor and Rho factor 4) Terminator & Promoter
116. Ribozyme is
1) RNA polymenase 2) 23 srRNA
3) DNA polymerase 4) Peroxidase

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117. Study the following figures and identify the enzymes involved in steps A and B

1) Eco RI and DNA Ligase 2) Hind II and DNA Ligase

3) Eco RI and Hind II 4) Restriction endonuclease and exonuclease
118. During gel electrophoresis for separation of DNA fragment:
1) Smallest fragment will move to the farthest point towards cathode
2) Smallest fragment will move to the farthest point towards anode
3) Largest fragment will move to the farthest point towards cathode
4) Largest fragment will move to the farthest point towards anode
119. After electrophoresis, the separated DNA fragments can be visualised in ethidium bromide gel
exposed to UV light. These DNA fragments appear as what coloured bonds?
1) Bright orange 2) Blue 3) Silver 4) Green
120. Gene silencing process is
1) Biopiracy 2) Biopatent
3) RNAi (RNA interference) 4) Gene therapy
121. Bt toxin protein crystals present in bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis, do not kill the bacteria
themselves because
1) bacteria are resistant to the toxin
2) toxins occur as inactive protoxins in bacteria
3) toxins occur as active protoxins in bacteria
4) bacteria enclose toxins in a special sac
122. Statement(A): Cyclosporin A which is used as immunosuppressive agent in organ transplant
patients, is produced by bacterium, Trichoderma.
Statement (B): Statins produced by the yeast Monascus have been commercialised as blood
cholesterol lowering agents. It acts by non competitively inhibiting the enzyme responsible for
synthesis of cholesterol.
1) Both statements A and B are correct
2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
3) Statement A is correct and Statement B is incorrect
4) Statement A is incorrect and Statement B is correct
123. Assertion(A): Protein is a hetero polymer
Reason(R): Protein is a polymer of polysaccharides
1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
3) Assertion is true but reason is false
4) Both assertion and reason are false
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124. Two organisms are present in the same class but not in the same family. They may belong to same
1) genus 2) species 3) variety 4) order
125. Statement (A) : Pyriform gametes & laterally attached flagella are found in Laminaria.
Statement (B) : Non motile spores & motile gametes are found in Polysiphonia.
1) Both statements A and B are correct
2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
3) Statement A is correct and Statement B is incorrect
4) Statement A is incorrect and Statement B is correct
126. Incorrect one among the following.
1) Phloem parenchyma absent - most of the monocotyledons
2) Sieve tubes and companioncells absent - gymnosperms
3) Conjoint, Collateral, open VBs - Dicot stem
4) Bulliform cells –abaxial side of monocot leaf
127. Find the correct combination.
1) Unbranched stem-Pinus 2) Needle like leaves-Cycas
3) Dimorphic shoot-Ginkgo 4) Mycorrhiza -Cycas
128. Choose the correct matching

Column - I Column - II
A) Ray florets of sun flower 1) Pinnately compound leaf
B) Dianthus 2) Palmately compound leaf
C) Silk cotton 3) Epigynous flower
D) Neem 4) Free central placentation

1) A = 2, B = 3, C = 4, D = 1
2) A = 1, B = 2, C = 3, D = 4
3) A = 3, B = 4, C = 2, D = 1
4) A = 4, B = 1, C = 2, D = 3
129. Protonema and prothallus are found in plant groups respectively are
1) Algae and pteridophyta
2) Pteridophyta and gymnosperms
3) Bryophyta and pteridophyta
4) Algae and angiosperms
130. How many are the correct statements from the given below.
A) Ribosomes are composed of DNA and proteins.
B) Flagella are small structures which work like oars, causing the movement of either the cell or the
surrounding fluid.
C) Both the centrioles in a centromere lie perpendicular to each other.
D) The content of nucleolus is continuous with the rest of the nucleoplasm and it is not a membrane
bound structure.
1) Two 2) Three 3) Four 4) One
131. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?
1) Plum - Perigynous flower
2) Guava – Hypogynous flower
3) False fruit – Cashew nut
4) Alstonia- More than two leaves at each node

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132. Find true(T) or false(F) to the given statements
A) Epihydrophily is found in Vallisneria
B) Zygomorphic flower is found in Cassia
C) Ploidy of perisperm is diploid
D) Ploidy of scutellum is haploid
A B C D
1) T T F F
2) F T F T
3) T F T F
4) T T T F
133. If the sequence of bases in coding strand of DNA is 5’- ATTCGATG-3’ then the sequence of bases
in mRNA will be
1) 3’-TAAGCTAC-5’ 2) 3’-UAAGCUAC-5’
3) 3’-AUUCGAUG-5’ 4) 5’-AUUCGAUG-3’
134. Smut and rust fungi respectively are
1) Puccinia , Ustilago 2) Ustilago, Puccinia
3) Polyporus, Lycoperdon 4) Alternaria, Trichoderma
135. Assertion(A): Viruses did not find a place in classification.
Reason(R): Viruses are not considered truly ‘living’
1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
3) Assertion is true but reason is false
4) Both assertion and reason are false
ZOOLOGY
136. Statement – I: All vertebrates are tetrapods
Statement – II: All the members of tetrapoda are vertebrates
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(2) Statement I is true and Statement II is false.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is false and Statement II is true.
137. Select the correct option regarding the group and its character without any exception?
(1) Reptiles – Three chambered heart (2) Aves – Oviparous
(3) Pisces – Operculum (4) Amphibians – Limbs
138. Consider the following statements about cockroach:
A) Mesothoracic wings are opaque dark and leathery.
B) In males, the 7th sternum is boat shaped.
C) In both sexes, the 10th segment bears a pair of jointed structures called anal cerci.
D) Head is connected with thorax by a short extension of the mesothorax known as the neck.
In the above the correct statements are
(1) A and C only (2) B and D only
(3) A, B and D only (4) B, C and D only
139. Sense organs of frog, which are formed due to cellular aggregations around nerve endings are
(1) organs of vision and touch
(2) organs of taste and smell
(3) organs of smell and hearing
(4) organs of hearing and vision

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140. Which type of tissue correctly matches with its location?
Tissue Locations
1) Dense irregular connective tissue Tendons
2) Simple squamous epithelium Fallopian tubes
3) Areolar tissue Beneath the skin
4) Skeletal muscle tissue Walls of the heart
141. Identify the MISMATCHED combination from the following with respect to kidney.
(1) Hilum: Notch found towards inner convex surface
(2) Calyx: Projection of renal pelvis
(3) Column of Bertini: Extension of cortex into medulla
(4) Renal pyramid: A conical mass of medulla
142. Read the following statements
Statement-A: All locomotions are movements.
Statement-B: All movements are also locomotions.
(1) Both A and B are true
(2) Both A and B are false
(3) A is true but B is false
(4) A is false but B is true
143. Identify the INCORRECT statement from the following.
(1) Muscle fiber is the anatomical unit of muscle.
(2) Muscle fiber has many parallelly arranged myofibrils.
(3) Myofibril contains many serially arranged units called sarcomeres.
(4) Sarcomere has two complete I-bands and one complete A-band.
144. Which of the following is not the skeletal component of facial region?
(1) Zygomatic bone (2) Lacrimal bone
(3) Temporal bone (4) Nasal bone
145. Partial pressure of oxygen in the blood of pulmonary veins is equal to that of
(1) Pulmonary arteries (2) Systemic arteries
(3) Body tissues (4) Systemic veins
146. Select correct set of factors favorable for the dissociation of oxygen from oxy haemoglobin
a) Low pCO2 b) Low pO2
c) Low temperature d) Lesser H  concentration
e) Low P H
(1) a, c, d only (2) b and e only (3) b, d, e only (4) a and c only
147. Statement – I: Pre-synaptic and post-synaptic membranes are absent in electrical synapse
Statement – II: Pre-synaptic and post-synaptic membranes are separated by a synaptic cleft in
chemical synapse
(1) Both statement I and II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Both statement I and II are correct
(4) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct
148. Assertion (A): Synovial joints shows considerable movements
Reason (R): Synovial joints are characterized by the presence of fluid filled synovial cavity
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
(4) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
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149. Which of the following act is responsible for the depolarization of neuron?
(1) Influx of sodium (2) Efflux of potassium
(3) Efflux of sodium (4) Influx of potassium.
150. Read the following statements
Statement – I: Hormones are nutrient chemicals which act as intercellular messengers.
Statement – II: Invertebrates possess very simple endocrine systems with few hormones
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
151. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R:
Assertion A: Oxytocin acts on the smooth muscles of our body and stimulates their
contraction.
Reason R : Vasopressin acts on mammary gland for ejection of milk.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below.
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct but R is not correct
(4) A is not correct but R is correct
152. Atherosclerosis is caused by
(1) deposition of calcium, fat, cholesterol etc. in the walls of arteries
(2) high blood pressure in coronary arteries
(3) low blood pressure in coronary veins
(4) failure of kidneys due to calculi
153. Which of the following are not the effects of glucocorticoids?
(a) Stimulation of gluconeogenesis, lipolysis and proteolysis
(b) Influence metabolism, pigmentation and menstrual cycle
(c) Involve in maintaining the cardiovascular system
(d) Differentiation of T-lymphocytes
(e)Growth of mammary glands and formation of milk
(1) (a) and (e) only
(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (c) only
(4) (b), (d) and (e) only
154. Read the following statements.
Statement -I: The fluid obtained due to filtration of blood at arteriolar ends of capillaries is
called the interstitial fluid.
Statement- II: The fluid present in the lymphatic system is called the lymph.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is wrong, Statement II correct.
(4) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect.

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155. Cretinism in newborn is due to
(1) hypothyroidism during adulthood
(2) hypothyroidism during pregnancy of mother
(3) hyperthyroidism during adulthood
(4) hyperthyroidism during parturition
156. Conversion of secondary spermatocyte into spermatid takes place by
(1) multiplication phase (2) growth phase
(3) 1st meiotic division (4) 2nd meiotic division
157. Ampulla of mammary gland is found between
(1) mammary ducts and lactiferous duct
(2) lactiferous duct and surface of nipple
(3) mammary lobes and mammary ducts
(4) acini and mammary ducts
158. Read the following and choose the correct statements pertaining to fallopian tube
A. Infundibulum is funnel-shaped
B. Wider part of fallopian tube is ampulla
C. Isthmus is the last part of oviduct
D. Finger like projections of isthmus are fimbriae
(1) All except A (2) All except D
(3) All except B (4) All are correct
159. Which of the following STI is curable if detected early and treated properly?
(1) Genital herpes (2) Syphilis (3) HIV infection (4) Hepatitis – B
160. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R:
Assertion A: LNG – 20 is a hormone releasing IUD.
Reason R: Cu ions suppress motility and fertilizing capacity of sperms
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) A is not correct but R is correct
(4) A is correct but R is not correct
161. Choose incorrect match with reference to contraception.
(1) Vaults – Block entry of sperms into cervix
(2) IUD’s – Increase phagocytosis of sperms within uterus.
(3) Coitus interrupts – Couples avoid coitus during fertile period
(4) Contraceptive pills – Inhibit ovulation and implantation.
162. The information related to the discovery of the following promises to revolutionize the processes
of finding chromosomal locations for disease-associated sequences and tracing human history are
(1) PCR (2) SNPs (3) ELISA (4) RFLPs
163. Read the following statements pertaining to haemophilic mother
(a) She gives birth to normal and haemophilic sons
(b) All her daughters are carriers if her husband is non-haemophilic
(c) 50% of her daughters only get haemophilia when her husband is haemophilic
In the above, the correct statements are
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) (3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (b) only

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164. Match the column I with column II, and choose the correct option.
Column – I Column – II
a) Homologous organs 1) Potato and sweet potato
b) Analogous organs 2) Tendril and thorn
c) Adaptive radiation 3) Fossils
d) Paleontological evidence 4) Australian marsupials
(1) a – 2, b – 1, c – 3, d – 4 (2) a – 2, b – 1, c – 4, d – 3
(3) a – 1, b – 2, c – 3, d – 4 (4) a – 1, b – 2, c – 4, d – 3
165. Assertion (A): Evolution is not a directed process in the sense of determinism.
Reason (R): It is a stochastic process based on chance events in nature and chance mutation in the
organisms.
(1) If both A and R are true, and the R is the correct explanation of the A
(2) If both A and R are true, and the R is not the correct explanation of the A
(3) If A is true, but R is false
(4) If both A & R are false
166. Select the correct match regarding the site of formation of different stages of Plasmodium vivax
(1) Gametes – Salivary glands of man (2) Gametocytes – Erythrocytes of man
(3) Gametocytes – Hepatocytes of man (4) Zygote – Erythrocytes of mosquito
167. Assertion (A): The probability of variations to be observed in non-coding DNA would be
higher.
Reason (R): Mutations in non-coding DNA may not have any immediate effect in an
individual's reproductive ability
(1) Both A and R are true, and the R is the correct explanation of the A
(2) Both A and R are true, and the R is not the correct explanation of the A
(3) A is true, but R is false
(4) Both A & R are false
168. Which of the following provide the sites for interaction of lymphocytes with the antigen?
(A) Peyer’s patches (B) Spleen
(C) Thymus gland (D) Lymph nodes
(E) Appendix
(1) B, C only (2) All except C (3) A, B, C only (4) B, D only
169. The drugs used to quickly reduce the symptoms of allergy are
(1) Antihistamine and Adrenaline (2) Histamine and Thyroxine
(3) Adrenaline and interferons (4) Histamine and bradykinin
170. Select the CORRECT option representing the advantages of recombinant therapeutics over
conventional therapeutics.
i. Recombinant therapeutics do not induce unwanted immunological responses.
ii. The recombinant DNA technological processes have made immense impact in the area of
health care by disabling mass production of safe and effective therapeutic drugs
(1) Only i is correct. (2) Only ii is correct.
(3) Both i and ii are correct. (4) Neither i nor ii is correct.
171. Identify which of the following statements are TRUE in case of population growth.
i.Mortality and immigration cause a decrease in the population of a species.
ii. Natality and emigration cause an increase in the population of a species.
iii. Population density will increase if (B+ I) is more than (D+E).
iv. Size of a population for any species is not a static parameter.
(1) i and iii (2) i and ii (3) ii and iv (4)iii and iv

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172. Which of the following conditions favors decomposition?
(1) High temperature, anaerobiosis, detritus rich in nitrogen and sugars.
(2) Low temperature, anaerobiosis, soil moisture, detritus rich in nitrogen and sugars.
(3) Warm temperature, aerobiosis, moist environment, detritus rich in nitrogen and sugars
(4) Warm temperature, aerobiosis, moist environment, detritus rich in lignin and chitin.
173. Assertion: Periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes is not required in patients
suffering from ADA deficiency.
Reason: Genetically engineered lymphocytes are immortal.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Only assertion is true and reason is wrong.
(4) Both assertion and reason are wrong.
174. Which of the following sentence is INCORRECT regarding humus?
(1) It is dark colored, amorphous substance.
(2) It is degraded by some microbes,
(3) It is highly resistant to microbial action and undergoes decomposition at an extremely fast
rate.
(4) It is colloidal in nature and serves as nutrient reservoir.
175. Assertion: Smoking causes oxygen deficiency in the body.
Reason: Smoking decreases CO content in blood and reduces the concentration of haem- bound
oxygen.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.
176. Which of the following statement is INCORRECT?
(1) A constant input of solar energy is the basic requirement for any ecosystem.
(2) Primary productivity depends on plant species and photosynthetic capacity of plants.
(3) The annual net primary productivity of land is approximately 115 billion tons
(4) Net primary productivity minus respiration losses is the Gross primary productivity.
177. Extinction of many species of native birds in tropical pacific islands is due to
(1) Coextinction (2) Over exploitation
(3) Colonization by humans (4) Alien species invasions
178. Loss of diversity in a region may lead to
(1) Increased resistance to environmental perturbations.
(2) Increased variability in certain ecosystem processes such as plant productivity.
(3) Increased resistance to invasion by alien species.
(4) Increased resilience to occasional disturbances.
179. Select the statements that is in support of narrowly utilitarian argument of biodiversity
conservation
(1) 20% of oxygen in earth’s atmosphere is contributed by Amazon Forest.
(2) Intrinsic value of each species in nature is to be realized
(3) Conservation of threatened species by ex-situ and in-situ methods
(4) Construction material, industrial products are obtained from nature.
180. Reduction in current rate of biodiversity loss was pledged by 190 countries to achieve by ___
(1) 1992 (2) 2002 (3) 2010 (4) 2004

* * All the Best * *

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