Mock Exam 6
Mock Exam 6
Berg AB, a Swedish company, had at the end of the last accounting period DTLs of SEK
30 million and DTAs of SEK 12 million. During the current period, the authorities
raised the tax rate from 30% to 35%. The impact on Berg's tax expense due to the
adjustment of existing DTAs and DTLs at the time of the change will:
Which of the following would most likely lead to a company having little pricing
power?
A member is hired to write a research report on a company that is paid for by the
company with a flat fee and fixed bonus if the firm's shares become more widely held.
The member is:
not in violation of the Standards as long as the fact that the research is issuer-
A)
funded is disclosed.
not in violation of the Standards as long as both the source of the funding and the
B)
nature of the compensation is disclosed.
in violation of the Standards even if both the funding source and the nature of the
C)
compensation are disclosed.
Question #4 of 180 Question ID: 1617056
A) Equity.
B) Long-term debt.
C) Short-term debt.
A) simulation.
B) scenario analysis.
C) sensitivity analysis.
One week after taking the Level II CFA exam, Mindy Hauser posts a message on a
popular Web site: "I do not believe CFA Institute tested the curriculum fairly. I was
ready to use the trick I learned for triangular arbitrage problems, and there weren't
any on the exam." Does Hauser's message violate the Standards related to conduct as
a CFA candidate?
A company's pretax cost of debt is 7% and its cost of equity is 9%. With a 20% tax rate
and a capital structure that has twice as much debt as equity, the company's
weighted-average cost of capital is closest to:
A) 6.7%.
B) 7.7%.
C) 7.9%.
A) foreign exporters.
B) domestic producers.
C) the domestic government.
A) The Standards require that records be retained for a minimum of seven years.
While members are responsible for retaining research notes and other supporting
B)
documents, record retention is generally the responsibility of the firm.
When a member changes employers, the member is responsible for transferring the
C)
records supporting his recommendations to his new employer.
Question #14 of 180 Question ID: 1617043
To estimate the standard error of the sample mean using jackknife resampling, an
analyst should remove how many of the observations from each sample?
A) One.
B) Two.
C) None.
After years of rapid economic growth, a country's central bank is concerned about
increasing inflation. Which of the following monetary policy actions is the central bank
most likely to take?
a decrease in net income in the next year and restatement of historical financial
A)
statements.
higher amortization expense in the next year but no restatement of historical
B)
financial statements.
a restatement of historical financial statements to reflect the change but no change
C)
in net income for the next year.
A) timing option.
B) fundamental option.
C) abandonment option.
solicited her former clients and told them that she would be using the same
strategy as Global in her stock selection at the new firm.
used the knowledge she acquired while at Global to select high CFROI stocks
that also fit other criteria correlated with subsequent outperformance.
used a copy of the screening program she wrote while at Global at her new firm.
The following set of data represents a sample from a normally distributed population
of prices of jeans at a large retailer: $28, $36, $32, $30, $34, $32. Which of the
following statements about this sample is least accurate?
For a long-term lease of significant value in which some of the risks or benefits of
ownership remain with the lessor, the lessee will report a right-to-use asset and a
lease liability in an equal amount on the balance sheet under:
A) IFRS only.
B) U.S. GAAP only.
C) both IFRS and U.S. GAAP.
The CFA Institute Standards of Professional Conduct are most likely to include:
The exchange rate yesterday between the U.S. dollar (USD) and Canadian dollar (CAD)
was 0.85 USD/CAD. Today, the exchange rate closed at 0.89 USD/CAD. The U.S. dollar
has:
A) appreciated by 4.7%.
B) depreciated by 4.7%.
C) depreciated by 4.5%.
Which of the following principles should an analyst most appropriately apply when
evaluating a project?
Alvin Mell, CFA, is an investment advisor whose clients include Jack Allen, a famous
professional athlete. Allen permits Mell to tell prospective clients that he is one of
Mell's clients. In a meeting with a new prospect, Mell truthfully states, "I was able to
earn a 15% return for Jack Allen last year." Mell has least likely violated the Standard
concerning:
A) performance presentation.
B) misrepresentation.
C) preservation of confidentiality.
An analyst wants to test the hypothesis that the mean monthly returns are equal on
the stocks of two major oil companies, over the last 60 months, assuming that the
returns are approximately normal and that the variance of monthly returns is equal
for the two stocks. He would most appropriately calculate a test statistic using:
the difference between the mean monthly returns of the two stocks and the pooled
A)
variance of the returns on the two stocks.
the average of the differences between the monthly returns on the two stocks and
B)
the standard deviation of the differences.
the difference between the mean monthly returns of the two stocks and the
C)
individual variances of returns for the two stocks.
With respect to members and candidates who are involved in distributing shares in
oversubscribed initial public offerings (IPOs), the Code and Standards:
Samantha Sever, CFA, manages the pension fund for Polar Pipelines, Inc. Sever was
hired by the chief executive officer of Polar at the direction of Polar's board of
directors. Sever's client, to which she owes the duty of loyalty, is:
Compared to using the LIFO method, during periods of rising prices, a company that
uses the FIFO method will most likely have a higher:
For a portfolio manager to accept a bonus from a client, such as a free vacation, if her
performance is good in a future period, is:
a violation of the Standards if the bonus is from a client and not a third-party
A)
vendor.
B) a violation of the Standards unless the manager gets consent from her employer.
not a violation of the Standards as long as the manager informs her employer that
C)
she intends to accept the bonus.
An investor adds an actively traded AAA rated, 10-year corporate bond to her
investment portfolio. Which of the following components of the bond's yield is most
likely to be the largest?
A firm buys a new machine that has a 5-year life. This new machine will be used
heavily in the first two years of its service, and then its output is expected to decline
significantly each year thereafter. If management wants to maximize the firm's
reported net profit margin for the first year of the machine's life, the depreciation
method they are most likely to use is:
A) straight-line.
B) units of production.
C) double-declining balance.
Carolina Company has employee stock options outstanding for 100,000 shares that
will be exercisable by the option holders in two years. The exercise price is $40 per
share. The market price of Carolina shares was $42 on December 31 and averaged
$38 during the year. When calculating its diluted earnings per share, Carolina should
most likely:
A) not include the options because they are antidilutive.
B) not include the options because they cannot be exercised yet.
C) include the options because they are potentially dilutive securities.
A member's investment actions in managing a client account are least likely to have a
reasonable and adequate basis if they are based on:
Bill Jackson, CFA, has established his own investment management firm. Jackson uses
cost-benefit analysis to determine whether to vote proxies, and he informs his clients
and prospects of this policy. Is Jackson in compliance with the Code and Standards?
A) Yes.
B) No, because he must also disclose the details of his cost-benefit analysis.
No, because he has violated his duty of loyalty to clients by failing to vote some
C)
proxies.
For a finance lease, on the lessee's balance sheet, the right-of-use asset and the lease
liability have equal values:
Victor Baltz, CFA, manages the investment account of Martha Stallings, a widow who
lives off her investment accounts and is relatively risk averse. One of the securities in
her account has a beta of 1.5 and he has also sold call options on these shares. With
respect to these actions, Baltz has:
A) violated the Standards, both by buying the high-beta stock and by selling the calls.
violated the Standards by selling the options but not by purchasing the high-beta
B)
stock.
not necessarily violated the Standards because it is the risk of the entire portfolio
C)
that is relevant in judging suitability.
For a bond purchased by a company that intends to hold the bond to maturity,
unrealized gains and losses in the bond's value prior to maturity are most likely
recognized:
Taking a private company public in the United States and at the same time raising
capital for company growth would be best achieved through:
A) an IPO.
B) a SPAC.
C) a direct listing.
Joanna Burgess, CFA, sends all of her investor clients a report which highlights
industries the firm's research department believes will outperform over the next year.
She also includes her firm's recommended list, which contains only the names of the
20 domestic stocks on which the firm has a buy recommendation. With respect to
these actions, Burgess has:
HomeSpace Mowers
Based on this information, Jones should most likely conclude that Mowers:
A country's monetary authority believes the long-term rate of real GDP growth is 3%.
To achieve its target inflation rate of 2%, the central bank sets its policy rate at 4%.
Current monetary policy in this country is best described as:
A) neutral.
B) expansionary.
C) contractionary.
Laura Field, CFA, is a portfolio manager for Valley Investments. Valley owns a
significant position in Datatronics, a local company. Most portfolios managed by Valley
on behalf of its clients also include Datatronics stock. Field meets with a prospect and
discusses potential equities the firm might place in her portfolio, including
Datatronics. Field does not mention Valley's position in Datatronics. Field has:
A) not violated the Code and Standards.
B) violated the Code and Standards by not disclosing the firm’s position in Datatronics.
violated the Code and Standards only if Datatronics stock is placed in the prospect’s
C)
portfolio.
A) interest expense.
B) cost of goods sold.
C) depreciation expense.
A) interest rates are too high due to inappropriate money supply growth.
a fall in aggregate demand has reduced the expected profitability of capital
B)
investment.
C) fiscal deficits have resulted in a crowding-out effect.
Question #52 of 180 Question ID: 1617204
James Copley, CFA, a pension fund manager, receives discounted transactions costs
on his personal brokerage from a firm that executes trades for the pension fund.
Copley is most likely:
The least amount of detailed analysis of capital allocation projects is required for:
A) expansion projects.
B) replacement projects that will lead to cost reductions.
C) replacement projects that maintain the existing business.
Alan Powers, CFA, is a trader with Rogers Securities. His sister works for Potter Steel
and has told him that Potter's earnings, which will be released two days from now, are
significantly less than expectations. Powers receives a buy order for the firm's client
accounts for a block of Potter shares. According to the Code and Standards, Powers'
most appropriate action is to:
The Standard concerning diligence and reasonable basis requires members to:
include in a full research report all factors that can potentially have a negative effect
A)
on a recommended security.
exercise independence and thoroughness in making investment recommendations
B)
or in taking investment actions.
make a reasonable effort to ensure that investment performance is communicated
C)
fairly, accurately, and completely.
Devon Ltd. reports its inventory under the average cost method. During a period of
declining inventory costs, had Devon reported using the FIFO method, its
shareholders' equity and return on equity would most likely be:
Equity ROE
A) higher higher
B) lower lower
C) higher lower
Given the following joint probability function for the returns on two assets:
For the coming year, Petrie Ltd. forecasts total revenue of £2,500,000, total costs of
£4,000,000, and total fixed costs of £3,000,000. Petrie expects these same conditions
to persist for the foreseeable future. Based on these forecasts, Petrie should:
A) cease operations.
B) continue to operate in both the short run and the long run.
C) continue to operate in the short run but shut down in the long run.
XYZ pays out 50% of its earnings as dividends. Based on the data in the table, XYZ's
expected growth rate is closest to:
A) 9%.
B) 12%.
C) 18%.
Brian Crane has passed the Level I and Level II CFA exams on his first attempts and
has registered for the next Level III exam. Which of the following actions by Crane
would most likely violate the Code and Standards?
ensure that material nonpublic information is not disseminated beyond the firm’s
A)
investment banking, brokerage, and research departments.
encourage the firms involved to release the nonpublic information to the public and
B)
restrict client trades until they do.
restrict proprietary trading in the securities of companies about which the
C)
Investment Banking Department has access to material nonpublic information.
Question #66 of 180 Question ID: 1617093
Atlas Manufacturing has received an advance payment of €10 million from a customer
that is taxable on receipt. For accounting purposes, Atlas will recognize the revenue in
a future period when product is delivered to the customer. As a result of this
transaction Atlas should:
The spot exchange rate between the U.S. dollar (USD) and the Swiss franc (CHF) is 1.34
USD/CHF. The 1-year riskless interest rate in the United States is 3%, and the 1-year
interest rate in Switzerland is 5%. The arbitrage-free 1-year USD/CHF forward rate is
closest to:
A) 0.761 USD/CHF.
B) 1.315 USD/CHF.
C) 1.366 USD/CHF.
A) positive, the mode is less than the mean, which is less than the median.
B) positive, the mode is less than the median, which is less than the mean.
C) negative, the mode is less than the median, which is less than the mean.
Marshall Hopkins reports data for the Alliance Equity Fund. He states in an
information sheet that "Alliance has produced a one-year return of 37%." This result
was based on Alliance's best year in the past five. He discloses this in a footnote at the
bottom of the information sheet. Hopkins' action is:
According to pecking order theory, managers are most likely to prefer financing a
project:
A) by issuing debt.
B) by issuing equity.
C) with internally generated capital.
In the base year, Spider's current ratio was 1.5. Spider's current ratio as of December
31, 20X7, is closest to:
A) 0.77.
B) 1.16.
C) 1.29.
A) follow her firm’s policies for obtaining client approval for this trade.
B) open an unmanaged account in which the client may execute this trade.
C) discuss with the client whether this trade indicates a need to update the IPS.
Fiscal policy multipliers suggest that if the government increases both spending and
taxes by the same amount, the overall effect on the economy is most likely:
Which of the following statements regarding compliance with the Code and Standards
is most accurate?
A member or candidate must only comply with local laws when the Code and
A)
Standards are more strict.
A member or candidate must comply with the strictest requirement among
B) regulatory rules, local laws, or the Code of Ethics and Standards of Professional
Conduct.
A member or candidate may trade on material nonpublic information if it is
C) permitted both in her country of residence and the country where she does
business.
Selected financial data for Mallard Company appear in the following table:
20X1 20X2
The increase in Mallard's return on equity in 20X2 can most likely be attributed to the
company's:
A) increased leverage.
B) increased operating margin.
C) decreased effective tax rate.
Economies and diseconomies of scale are most likely to determine the shape of the:
A portfolio's shortfall risk is most accurately described as the probability that the
portfolio's return over a given time period is less than:
Which of the following actions most likely violates the Standard concerning market
manipulation?
Entering an order to buy a large block of a thinly traded stock whenever its price
A)
falls below $10.
Waiting for a down day in the market to release a ratings downgrade to maximize its
B)
impact on a stock’s price.
Posting a company’s unexpectedly weak earnings report and negative comments to
C)
a popular Internet forum for investors.
Which of the following would most likely violate CFA Institute's rules regarding
members' personal integrity and behavior?
Relative to industry averages, Cintax, Inc.'s cash conversion cycle is high and its
inventory turnover is low. These conditions are most likely the case because Cintax
has relatively high:
Rose Worth, CFA, is analyzing the import/export firm Transocean Trading. A large
increase in tariffs has been proposed, which Worth believes would reduce
Transocean's earnings. Worth speaks with her Congressman, Jerome Horwitz, who
tells her that he is certain the tariff increase does not have enough support to become
law. Worth distributes a report that says, "Transocean's earnings next year will be
within management guidance because the tariff increase will not be enacted." Worth
has most likely violated the Standard related to:
A) 60%.
B) 63%.
C) 66%.
Which of the following covenants is most likely to appear in the indenture for a
company's bonds?
In an investment policy statement, the execution of the policy and permitted asset
types are typically specified in the:
A) appendices.
B) investment objectives.
C) investment guidelines.
An index of dividend-paying stocks has a value of 1,000. The risk-free interest rate is
4%. The no-arbitrage 1-year forward price of the index is:
A) equal to 1,000e0.04.
B) less than 1,000e0.04.
C) greater than 1,000e0.04.
Ralph Olney, CFA, is working on an investment policy statement for a client and has
identified risk tolerance as high, investment horizon as long, and liquidity need as low.
Based only on this information, Olney's client is least likely:
A) an endowment fund.
B) a life insurance company.
C) a defined benefit pension plan.
A) food manufacturer.
B) pharmaceutical company.
C) consumer lending company.
A) Year 1.
B) Year 2.
C) Year 3.
A) Travel services.
B) Consumer staples.
C) Industrial machinery.
An investor holds a 5-year, 3.0% fixed-coupon bond with semiannual payment, trading
at par value. The bond's annualized modified duration is 5.6 and annualized convexity
is 28. The investor expects interest rates to decline by 54 bps. The expected
percentage change in the price of the bond is closest to:
A) 2.98%.
B) 3.02%.
C) 3.07%.
Which of the following would most likely increase a profitable company's return on
equity?
Hedge fund strategies such as convertible arbitrage fixed income and high yield fixed
income are most accurately described as:
A) event-driven.
B) opportunistic.
C) relative value.
A) 4%.
B) less than 4%.
C) more than 4%.
For a bond trading at a discount that has an effective duration of 8.5, the actual price
change per 1% change in its yield to maturity:
A fixed growth rate that accounts for expected inflation is most appropriate for
forecasting:
A) Catch-up clause.
B) Clawback provision.
C) Deal-by-deal waterfall.
Ed Smith has risk-return indifference curves that are steeper than those of Meg Jones.
Which of the following statements best describes the risk preferences of the investors
and risk-return characteristics of their optimal portfolios, assuming they have the
same market expectations?
Smith is more risk averse than Jones, and his optimal portfolio has less risk than
A)
Jones’s optimal portfolio.
Smith is less risk averse than Jones, and his optimal portfolio has a lower expected
B)
return than Jones’s optimal portfolio.
Smith is more risk averse than Jones, and his optimal portfolio has a greater
C)
expected return than Jones’s optimal portfolio.
To assess the sensitivity of the value of a derivative to the price of its underlying asset,
an analyst will focus on the derivative's:
A) vega.
B) delta.
C) gamma.
On Thursday, August 10, a company announces that it will pay dividends of $0.50 per
share on Wednesday, November 22. The holder-of-record date is Wednesday,
November 8. Equities in this market settle in two business days. Assuming no holidays
in any of the months, the last trading day on which investors can buy the company's
shares and receive this dividend is:
A) Monday, November 6.
B) Tuesday, November 7.
C) Monday, November 20.
Kantarow Inc. issued a 2% semiannual coupon bond four years ago. Currently, the
bond has one year remaining to maturity and is trading at a price of 99.73. Its
government benchmark bond, a one-year, 0.90% semiannual coupon bond, is trading
at a price of 100.12. The Kantarow bond's G-spread is closest to:
A) 75 bps.
B) 150 bps.
C) 228 bps.
An investor with a need to hedge interest rate risk and a high requirement for liquidity
should most appropriately hedge with:
A) swaps.
B) Futures
C) forwards.
A closed-end REIT with a finite life has undertaken the strategy of investing in
distressed properties and pursuing large-scale redevelopments. This real estate
strategy is best described as:
A) Core-plus.
B) Value-add.
C) Opportunistic.
In conducting an industry analysis for a firm, an analyst would most likely put a higher
valuation on a company, all other things equal, if the industry's:
An analyst estimates the prices that would result from changes in yield to maturity for
an option-free, 10-year coupon bond using the bond's modified duration. His price
estimates will be:
A) too low for a YTM increase and too high for a YTM decrease.
B) too high for a YTM increase and too low for a YTM decrease.
C) too low for both an increase and decrease in YTM.
A) long put position, a long T-bill position, and a short call position.
B) short put position, a long T-bill position, and a long call position.
C) long put position, a short T-bill position, and a short call position.
Average equity returns during the month of January are higher than returns in any
A)
other month.
Purchasing shares of an initial public offering when they first start trading produces
B)
positive risk-adjusted, long-term returns on average.
Shares of firms that have reported positive earnings surprises have had positive
C)
abnormal returns on average over the period after the earnings announcement.
An investor bought a stock on margin one year ago when its price was $50. The
margin requirement was 60%. The current price of the stock is $75. The interest rate
on the margin loan was 10%. Ignoring transactions costs, the investor's net return on
this transaction is closest to:
A) 76.67%.
B) 83.33%.
C) 115.00%.
An investor purchases a newly issued 15-year bond at a YTM of 8% when the bond's
Macaulay duration is 10 years. Shortly after purchase, the market yield on the bonds
increases to 9% and remains there until maturity. Assuming the bond does not
default, the investor can expect to earn an annual rate of return greater than 8%:
For an investment in a private capital partnership, management fees are most likely
calculated as a percentage of the:
Consider the following three stocks that constitute a stock market index.
Z 10 11 20,000
Both a market value-weighted index and a price-weighted index are most sensitive
A)
to Stock X.
A market value-weighted index is most sensitive to Stock Z, and a price-weighted
B)
index is most sensitive to Stock X.
A market value-weighted index is most sensitive to Stock Z, and a price-weighted
C)
index is most sensitive to Stock Y.
An investor who chooses to invest her annual bonus in growth stocks, while investing
her savings from income in government bonds, is most likely exhibiting:
A) framing bias.
B) conservatism bias.
C) mental accounting bias.
Futures contracts are not forward commitments because the deposit of a margin
A)
account eliminates the obligation to cover losses incurred on the contract.
Credit default swaps are contingent claims because payment by the protection seller
B)
is dependent on a future credit event.
Call options that are purchased in the money are forward commitments because the
C)
seller is obligated to sell the asset upon exercise by the holder.
The category of alternative investments most likely to produce current income as well
as the potential for appreciation in value is:
A) timberland.
B) commodities.
C) infrastructure.
Scott Malooly recently purchased a $100,000 face value, semi-annual coupon bond
from a dealer that quoted a price of 105.19. He received an invoice for $107,390. The
most likely explanation is that the difference represents:
A) a capital loss.
B) a capital gain.
C) neither a capital gain nor capital loss.
The yield spread on a 5-year corporate bond is most likely to widen as a result of a(n):
The company's estimated leading P/E ratio and share value are closest to:
A) 7.41 $20.40
B) 7.41 $18.65
C) 6.78 $18.65
Over a recent period, an investment portfolio had a positive M-squared alpha but its
Jensen's alpha was negative. A portfolio manager should conclude that the portfolio:
When pricing European options with a binomial model, the expected payoff at
expiration is discounted at an interest rate that:
A) the issuer has the option to exchange them for equity shares.
B) the bondholder has the option to convert them to equity shares.
they will convert to equity shares if the issuing firm’s equity is less than the
C)
regulatory minimum.
Hal Peterson, CFA, is calculating an enterprise value for Shepherd Company. Peterson
should most appropriately sum the market values of the firm's outstanding debt and
equity:
A) without adjustment.
B) and subtract the value of its cash and short-term investments.
C) and subtract the value of its goodwill and other intangible assets.
A) The initial outflow needed for the investment tends to be relatively high.
Noncash depreciation and interest expense are not typically tax deductible to the
B)
investor.
C) Returns tend to be highly correlated with stock and bond investments.
For securities backed by residential mortgages, the structure that is most likely to
provide credit enhancement is:
A) sequential-pay tranches.
B) PAC and support tranches.
C) senior and subordinated tranches.
A technical analyst believes that fundamental analysis cannot be used to earn positive
risk-adjusted returns in the equities market but that technical analysis of price trends
and chart formations can be used to earn positive risk-adjusted returns. It is most
accurate to say the analyst believes markets are:
A portfolio manager has identified a set of asset classes that closely represents the
universe of securities that are permitted investments for an endowment fund. After
estimating the expected risk, returns, and correlations for these asset classes, the
manager identifies a portfolio that best meets the risk and return objectives identified
in the client's IPS. This portfolio reflects the manager's:
Other things equal, an increase in the cash flows from an underlying asset during the
life of a forward contract would result in a forward contract with a:
Under hedge accounting rules for derivatives, an interest rate swap may be classified
as:
Bill Guillen invests $10 million in a fund-of-funds that allocates 30% to hedge fund X,
30% to hedge fund Y, and 40% to hedge fund Z. The fund-of-funds has a fee structure
of 1 and 10, with the management fee calculated on the amount of the initial
investment and incentive fees calculated independently of management fees. Returns
after fees for the three hedge funds over the year are as follows: fund X = 14%, fund Y
= –8%, and fund Z = 22%. Guillen's return on his investment in the fund-of-funds is
closest to:
A) 8.5%.
B) 9.6%.
C) 10.6%.
A) a quote-driven market.
B) an order-driven market.
C) an over-the-counter market.
Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding the stages of venture
capital investment?
A) Angel investors are more likely to be individuals than venture capital funds.
B) Mezzanine-stage financing refers to debt with the option to convert to equity.
C) Later stage financing typically occurs as the company is preparing for its IPO.
An investor notes that the price for a futures contract on an asset is less than the
price for an otherwise identical forward contract on the asset. It is most likely that
interest rates are expected to be:
A) constant.
B) positively correlated with the price of the underlying asset.
C) negatively correlated with the price of the underlying asset.
Question #154 of 180 Question ID: 1617138
A bond that is trading at 101.3 has an effective duration of 16.4 and an effective
convexity of −168. An estimate of the percentage price decrease in this bond as a
result of a positive parallel shift in the yield curve of 30 basis points is closest to:
A) 4.9%.
B) 5.0%.
C) 5.1%.
A floating rate note with three years to maturity is valued at 101.34 percent of par. For
this bond it is most likely that the:
James Franklin, CFA, has high risk tolerance and seeks high returns. Based on capital
market theory, Franklin would most appropriately hold:
The primary difference between a fixed-for-floating interest rate swap and a series of
forward rate agreements (FRAs) that is otherwise equivalent to the swap is that each
FRA may have a different:
A) fixed rate.
B) value at initiation.
C) notional principal.
The waterfall structure that is most advantageous to the limited partners in a private
equity fund is:
A) Style index.
B) Sector index.
C) Multi-market index.
Which of the following statements is least accurate regarding the use of derivative
instruments?
The type of securities most likely to rely on active management of portfolio assets to
generate their promised cash flows is:
Assuming that asset prices are semistrong-form efficient, the portfolio manager:
An investor has a portfolio of 10 individual stocks. and the investor adds another 10
stocks with returns that are less than perfectly correlated with the returns on the
original portfolio. These additions are least likely to decrease the portfolio's:
A) total risk.
B) systematic risk.
C) unsystematic risk.
A decrease in the risk-free interest rate will have what effects on the values of a call
option and a put option?
A) Decrease Increase
B) Increase Increase
C) Increase Decrease
Koho Inc.'s 10-year senior unsecured bonds are currently rated Ba1 by Moody's. If
Moody's upgrades Koho's rating by notch, the bonds will:
Charlie
5 million $42.00 $35.70 $0.40
Corp.
The type of index for these three securities that will have the greatest price return is a:
A) price-weighted index.
B) market value-weighted index.
C) equal-weighted arithmetic index.
Alexa Fiedler has issued the following orders to her broker when GMB Corp. is trading
at 29 and RML Corp. is trading at 17:
GMB RML
A) Limit buy Limit sell
A) zero at initiation.
B) its par swap rate.
C) its value to the fixed-rate payer.
The process of selecting firm assets by considering their various risk characteristics
and how they combine to meet the firm's risk tolerance is most appropriately referred
to as risk:
A) budgeting.
B) governance.
C) management.
A) hypothetical bonds.
B) government bonds trading at par.
C) corporate bonds trading at or near face value.
Question #177 of 180 Question ID: 1617136
The price value of a basis point for a 7% coupon, semiannual pay, 10-year bond with a
$1,000 par value, currently trading at par, is closest to:
A) $0.71.
B) $1.42.
C) $67.10.
Marc Juneau, CFA, an equity analyst, is valuing Nova Games, Inc. He expects the
company to grow at 30% for three years. Beginning in year 4, the growth rate is
expected to reach 7% and stabilize. The required return for this type of company is
estimated at 13%. The dividend in year 1 will be $3.00. The value Juneau should
calculate for the stock of Nova Games is closest to:
A) $65.
B) $72.
C) $87.
For which of the following types of investment companies are shares least likely to
trade at their net asset value?
The most likely reason no incentive fee was paid for the year is that:
the fund has a hard hurdle rate of 5% and the incentive fee is calculated net of
A)
management fees.
the fund has a soft hurdle rate of 8% and the incentive fee is calculated independent
B)
of management fees.
the incentive fee is calculated using a high-water mark and the fund value has
C)
already increased by more than 20% in years 1 and 2 of trading.