SUBJECT : PHYSICS

SECTION-1 4. Two ions having masses in the ratio 1 : 1 and

charges 1 : 2 are projected into uniform magnetic
Attempt All 35 questions field perpendicular to the field with speeds in the
1. Two long parallel straight wires carry equal ratio 2 : 3. The ratio of the radii of circular paths
along which the two particles move is
currents in opposite directions. At a point
midway between the wires, the magnetic field (1) 4 : 3 (2) 2 : 3 (3) 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
they produce is: 5. A circular arc of wire length L and radius of
(1) zero curvature R carries a current i. Find the magnetic
field at the centre of curvature:
(2) non-zero and along a line connecting the
(1) μ0 Li (2) μ0 Li (3) μ0 Li (4) μ0 i
wires
2πR2 4πR2 4πR 2R2
(3) non-zero and parallel to the wires 6. A particle is acted upon by a force of constant
magnitude which is always perpendicular to the
(4) non-zero and perpendicular to the plane of velocity of the particle. The motion of the
the two wires particle takes place in a plane. it follows that –
2. An electron is moving in +x direction along x (1) its velocity is constant
axis. Find out direction of magnetic field at (a, (2) its acceleration is constant
0, 0) point. (3) its kinetic energy is constant
(1) +y direction (4) it moves in circular path
(2) +z direction 7. A rectangular loop carrying a current i is situated
near a long straight wire such that the wire is
(3) – y direction parallel to one of the sides of the loop and is in the
plane of the loop. If a steady current I is established
(4) No magnitude field in the wire as shown in the figure, the loop will
3. A beam of electrons moving along + y direction
entrers in a region of uniform electric and
magnetic fields. If the beam goes undeflected
through this region then field (B) and (E) are
directed respectively:
(1) – y axis and – z axis (1) Rotate about an axis parallel to the wire
(2) +z axis and – x axis (2) Move away from the wire
(3) + x axis and – x axis (3) Move towards the wire
(4) – x axis and – y axis (4) Remain stationary
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8. An infinitely long current carrying wire carries 12. A 10 eV electron is circulating in a plane at
current i.A particle of mass m and charge q is right angles to a uniform field at magnetic
projected with speed v parallel to the direction induction 10 – 4 Wb/m2 (=1.0 gauss). The orbital
of current at a distance r from it. Then, the radius of the electron is
radius of curvature at the point of projection is: (1) 12 cm (2) 16 cm
(1) 2rmv
(3) 11 cm (4) 18 cm
qμ0 i
(2) 2πrmv 13. A current of 10 A is established in a long wire
qμ0 i along positive z direction. The magnetic field B
(3) r at a point (1m, 0, 0) is
(4) cannot be determined (1) 1 µT along – y direction
9. An electron enters a magnetic field along (2) 2 µT along + y direction
perpendicular direction. Following quantity will (3) 1 µT along – x direction
remain constant
(4) 2 µT along + x direction
(1) momentum (2) kinetic energy
14. A current of 1 ampere is passed through a
(3) velocity (4) acceleration straight wire of length 2.0 metres. The magnetic
10. A wire of length 2 m is placed in uniform field at a point in air at a distance of 3 metres
magnetic field of 2 tesla. It makes 30° with the from cither end of wire and lying on the axis of
field. If 10 A current is flowing in the wire, then wire will be
force per unit length on wire is (1) μ0 (2) μ0
2π 4π
(1) 1 N (2) 0.5 N μ0
(3) (4) Zero
(3) 5 N (4) 10 N 8π

11. In a moving coil galvanometer of coil of N-turns 15. A circular coil carrying a certain current
of area A have a spring of stiffness k. If coil is produces a magnetic field B0 at its centre. The
deflected by some angle ϕ due to flow of I coil is now rewound so as to have 3 turns and the
current in uniform radial mangetic field, B then same current is passed through it. The new
magnetic field at the centre is -
(1) NAB (2) k
ϕ=( ) I ϕ=( ) I (1) B0
k BNA (2) 9B0
9
(3) ϕ=(
kA
I
(4) ϕ=(
BN
I
) ) (3) B0 (4) 3 B0
BN kA
9

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16. Two wires are bent (shown as joint-circle) with 19. A proton and an alpha-particle enter a uniform
radius r = 0.5m (in xy plane). The upper half has magnetic field with the same velocity. The
resistance of 6 Ω and the lower half of 2 Ω . A period of rotation of the alpha-particle will be :-
current I = 1A is passed into circle as shown. (1) four times that of the proton
The magnetic field at centre is:
(2) two times that of the proton
(3) three times that of the proton
(4) same as that of the proton
(1) 0.5 π × 10 – 7 (2) π × 10 – 7 20. A particle of charge q and mass m is moving
along the x-axis with a velocity v and enters a
(3) 2 π × 10 – 7 (4) 4 π × 10 – 7
region of electric field E and magnetic field B as
17. Same current i is flowing in three infinitely long shown in figure below. For which figure the net
wires along positive x,y and z directions. The force on the charge may be zero :-
magnetic field at a point (0, 0, – a) would be
(1) (2)
(1) μ0 i ^ ^ (2) μ0 i ^ ^
(j − i ) (i + j )
2πa 2πa
(3) μ0 i ^ ^ (4) μ0 i ^ ^ ^
(i − j ) (i + j + k)
2πa 2πa
18. The figure below shows a current loop having (3) (4)
two circular arcs joined by two radial lines. The
magnetic field at O is

21. Rank the value of magnitude of ∮

→ . dℓ for the closed
B
paths shown in figure from the smallest to largest :-

(1) μ0 iθ (2) μ0 iθ
(b − a) (b − a)
2πab 4πab
(3) Zero (4) μ0 iθ
(b + a)
3πab (1) a, b, c, d (2) a, c, d, b
(3) a, d, c, b (4) a, c, b, d
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22. Radius of current carrying coil is ‘R’. Ratio of 26. A straight wire of diameter 0.5 mm carrying a
magnetic fields at the centre of the coil to that at current of 1A is replaced by another wire of 1
axial point, which is R 3 distance away from
√ mm diameter carrying the same current. The
the centre of the coil. strength of magnetic field far away is
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (1) Twice the earlier value
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 8 : 1 (2) Half of the carlier value
23. If the strength of the magnetic field produced (3) Quarter of its earlier value
10cm away from a infinitely long straight (4) Unchanged
conductor is 10 – 5 weber/m2 the value of the
current flowing in the conductor will be : 27. An electron having kinetic energy K is
moving in a circular path of radius R
(1) 5 ampere (2) 10 ampere perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field. If the
(3) 500 ampere (4) 1000 ampere kinetic energy is double and magnetic field
24. A charge having q/m equal to 108 C/kg and with tripled, the radius will become :-
velocity 3 × 105 m/s enters into a uniform (1) (2) (3) (4)
magnetic field B = 0.3 tesla at an angle 30° with
direction of field. Then radius will be :-
28. A current i is flowing in a straight conductor of
(1) 0.01 cm (2) 0.5 cm length L. The magnetic induction at a point on
(3) 1 cm (4) 2 cm 2L
its perpendicular axis at a distance from its
3
25. A long wire carrying a current of 2 A is laid centre will be :
along the x axis (current flows along positive x 3μ0 i 9μ0 i 9μ0 i
(1) 0 (2) (3) (4)
direction) and another wire carrying current of 4 20πL 20πL 8πL
A is laid along y axis(current flows along 29. The direction of magnetic force on the electron
positive y direction). The points at which as shown in the diagram is along :
magnetic field is zero are:
(1) (2, 1, 0) (2) (1, 2, 0)
(3) (6, 3, 1) (4) ( – 2, 4, 0)

(1) y-axis (2) – y axis

(3) z-axis (4) – z axis

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30. Two infinite length wires carries current 4 A and 34. A long wire is bent into the shape PQRST as
3 A and are placed along x and y axis shown in the following figure with QRS being a
respectively. Magnetic field at point P (0, 0, d) semicircle with centre O and radius r metre. A
m will be current of I ampere flows through it in the
(1) 5μ0 (2) 5μ0 direction P → Q → R → S → T. Then, the
πd 2πd magnetic induction at the point O of the figure in
(3) 3μ0 (4) 4μ0 vacuum is :-
πd πd
31. Due to 10 ampere of current flowing in a
circular coil of 10 cm radius, the magnetic field
produced at its centre is 3.14×10 – 3 weber/m2.
The number of turns in the coil will be :
(1) 5000 (2) 100 (3) 50 (4) 25
32. A particle of mass m and charge q enters a (1) 1 1 (2) 1 1
μ0 I [ + ] μ0 I [ − ]
magnetic field B perpendicularly with a velocity 2πr 4r 2πr 4r
v. The radius of the circular path described by it (3) μ0 I (4) μ0 I
will be : 4r πr
(1) Bq/mv (2) mq/Bv 35. The section AB in the following figure is a
quarter of a circle of radius r. The magnitude and
(3) mB/qv (4) mv/Bq
direction of magnetic induction at the center O
33. Magnetic field at point 'O' due to given current will be -
distribution. If 5A current is flowing in>this
system and the diameter of the loop is 10cm.

(1) (2)
(1) 2 × 10 – 5 T, ⊗ (2) 10 – 5T, ⊙
(3) μ0 i (4) μ0 i
⊗ ⊗
–5
(3) 10 T, ⊗ (4) 2 × 10 – 5 T, ⊙ 4r 8r

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 SECTION-2 39. An electron moving with velocity v along the
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate axis approaches a circular current carrying loop
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of as shown in the figure. The magnitude of
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts magnetic force on electron at this instant is-
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
questions will be considered for marking.
36. An electron having mass 'm' and kinetic energy
E enter in uniform magnetic field B (1) μ0 eviR2 X (2) μ eviR2 X
2 0
perpendicularly, then its frequency of uniform (X 2 + R2 )3/2 (X 2 + R2 )3/2
circular motion will be :- (3) μ0 eviR2 X
(4) 0
(1) eE 2πm 4π (X 2 + R2 )3/2
(2)
qV B eB 40. Figure shows a straight wire of length current i.
(3) eB (4) 2m The magnitude of magnetic field produced by
2πm eBE the current at point P is
37. A deutron and an α -particle with same
momentum enter perpendicular to uniform
magnetic field. Then ratio of radii of their
respective circular paths is
(1) √ 2:1 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 1
38. Current 'I' is flowing in a conductor shaped as
shown in the figure. The radius of the curved
part is r and the length of straight portion is very
large. The value of the magnetic field at the (1) √ 2μ0 i (2) √ 2μ0 i
centre O will be : πℓ 8πℓ
(3) μ0 i (4) μ0 i
4πℓ 2√2πℓ
41. A closely wound solenoid 80 cm long has
5 layers of windings of 400 turns each.
The diameter of the solenoid is 1.8 cm. If
(1) μ0 I π (2) μ0 I π the current carried is 8A, the magnetic field
( + 1) ( − 1)
4πr 2 4πr 2 near the centre of the solenoid is :-
(3) μ0 I 3π (4) μ0 I 3π (1) 0.08 T (2) 0.025 T
( + 1) ( − 1)
4πr 2 4πr 2
(3) 0.008 T (4) 0.25 T
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42. 45. Magnetic field at point 'P' for the following
current distribution : –

In the given diagram if current in wire is 3A and

external Magnetic field is 5T perpendicular to
plane of paper then force on wire AB is :
(1) 15N (2) 30 N (3) 10 N (4) 20 N
43. For the figure shown, the magnetic field at point
'O' will be :- (1) μ0 I (2) μ0 I
⊗ ⊗
8πa 4πa
(3) μ0 I (4) Zero
⊙
8πa
46. Two particles X and Y having equal charges,
after being accelerated through the same
potential difference, enter a region of uniform
magnetic field and describle circular paths of
(1) μ0 I R1 − R2 (2) μ0 I R1 + R2 radii R1 and R2 respectively. The ratio of masses
( ) ( )
8 R1 R2 8 R1 R2 of X and Y is :
(3) μ0 I
(
R1 R2
) (4) 0 (1) (R1/R2)1/2 (2) (R2 / R1)
8 R1 + R2
(3) (R1/R2)2 (4) (R1/R2)
44. Three long straight parallel wires, carrying
current, are arranged as shown in figure. The 47. The radii of two concentric coplanar coils having
force experienced by a 25 cm length of wire C same number of turns are 10 cm & 20 cm
is: respectively. Equal currents are passed through
them first in same direction & then in opposite
direction. In these two conditions the ratio of
resultant magnetic field at the centre will be :-
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 3 : 2 (4) 1 : 1
(1) 10 – 3 N (2) 2.5×10 – 3 N
(3) zero (4) 1.5×10 – 3N
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48. The magnitude of magnetic field at the center O 50. A long wire bent as shown in the figure carries
of the arc as shown in figure is current I. If the radius of the semicircular portion
is a, the magnetic induction at the centre O is

(1) μ0 i 1 1 (2) μ0 i 1 1
[ + ] [ − ]
R 12 2√3π R 12 2√3π
(3) μ0 i (4) μ0 i
[ 12 − 2√3π] (1) μ0 I (2) μ0 I √ 2
R πR π +4
4a 4πa
49. Three long, straight and parallel wires carrying μ0 I μ I μ0 I √ 2
(3) + 0
(4) (π − 4)
currents are arranged as shown in the figure. 4a 2πa 4πa
The wire C which carries a current of 5.0 amp is
so placed that it experiences no force. The
distance of wire C from wire D is then

(1) 9 cm (2) 7 cm
(3) 5 cm (4) 3 cm

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 SUBJECT : CHEMISTRY

SECTION-1 55. Calcination is most suitable for which ore?

Attempt All 35 questions (1) Fe2O3 (2) ZnS
51. Identify the INCORRECT statement? (3) ZnCO3 (4) CuFeS2
(1) Adsorption phenomena is used in 56. Malachite green is :
levigation. (1) CuCO3.Cu(OH)2 (2) Cu2S
(2) Vapour phase refining can be used for Ti, (3) CuFeS2 (4) Cu2O
Zr and B.
57. Which of the following is not a method of
(3) Slag has low melting point and is lighter concentration of ore?
than molten metal.
(1) Hydraulic washing
(4) Magnetic separation is used when either
one of ore or impurities is magnetic in (2) Leaching
nature. (3) Liquation
52. Which of the following reaction is a part of (4) Magnetic separation
Hall’s process :-
58. Which of the following sulphide ore is
(1) Al2O3 + 2NaOH → 2NaAlO2 + H2O concentrated by leaching?
(2) Fe2O3 + 2Al → 2Fe + Al2O3 (1) Red bauxite (2) Argentite
(3) AlN + 3H2O → Al(OH)3 + NH3 (3) Copper pyrite (4) Galena
(4) Al2O3.2H2O+2Na2CO3 → 59. During froth floatation process of sulphide ore,
2NaAlO2+CO2 +2H2O sodium ethyl xanthate act as a :-
53. Aluminium cannot used as a reducing agent in (1) Activator (2) Collector
the reduction of :
(3) Frothing agent (4) Depressant
(1) MgO (2) Mn2O3
(3) ZnO (4) Cr2O3
54. Carbon reduction method is not used in :-
(1) Extraction of Cu (2) Extraction of Pb
(3) Extraction of Sn (4) Extraction of Fe

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60. Match the following ores with main element, 63. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
correct match is ? answer using the codes given below in the lists.
Ore Elements List-II
List-I
(Process/methods
(A) Malachite P Fe (Metals)
involved in extraction)
(B) Siderite Q Pb a Ni p Self reduction
(C) Cerrusite R Zn b Al q Liquation
(D) Pyrolusite S Cu c Cu r Vapour phase refining
(E) Wurtzite T Mn d Sn s Bayer's process
(1) A-S, B-Q, C-P, D-T, E-R
a b c d
(2) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-T, E-R
(1) r p q s
(3) A-Q, B-S, C-P, D-T, E-R (2) r s p q
(4) A-R, B-Q, C-P, D-T, E-S (3) p q s r
61. Which of the following undergoes self reduction (4) r q s p
process?
64. In the leaching of Ag2S with NaCN, a stream of
(1) Cu air is also passed through it because :-
(2) Hg (1) Reversible nature of reaction between Ag2S
(3) Pb and NaCN
(4) All of the above (2) To oxidise formed Na2S into Na2SO4 and
sulphur
62. The reduction of Cr2O3 by heating it with
aluminium is known as : (3) To make Ag2S insoluble
(1) Smelting (4) Both (1) and (2)
(2) Roasting 65. The process used to separate the impurity present
in metal is :-
(3) Calcination
(1) Concentration
(4) Aluminothermic process
(2) Calcination and roasting
(3) Reduction
(4) Refining
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66. In the cyanide process for extraction of gold and 69. When excess of electrolyte is added to a colloid it :-
silver from ores, the cyanide solution acts as a (1) Coagulates (2) Gets diluted
:-
(3) Does not change (4) Peptisation
(1) reducing agent to reduce the gold and silver
70. Which of the following is not an example of an
compounds present in the ores into the emulsifying agent ?
metallic states
(1) Proteins (2) Gums
(2) leaching agent to bring gold and silver into
(3) Soaps (4) Electrolytes
solution as cyanide complexes and thus
separate these metal from impurities 71. A catalyst in the finely divided form is most
effective because :-
(3) leaching agent to dissolve all other (1) less surface area is available
constituents of ores leaving gold and silver (2) more active sites are formed
as metals (3) more energy gets stored in the catalyst
(4) leaching agent to bring gangue completely (4) less active sites are formed
into solution 72. Which gas is adsorbed to maximum amount by
67. Fog is a colloidal system of – activated carbon?
(1) Gas in liquid (1) H2(g) (2) He(g) (3) SO2(g) (4) O2(g)
(2) Liquid in gas 73. Which is not correct matching of emulsions?
(3) Gas in gas (1) Milk : O/w
(4) Gas in solid (2) Cold cream : w/O
68. Which of the following statements regarding (3) Vanishing cream : O/w
adsorption is not correct?
(4) Smoke : w/O
(1) Extent of adsorption is independent of
temperature 74. Which of the following is correct for freundlich
adsorption isotherm ?
(2) Extent of adsorption of gases on charcoal
(1) x 1 1
increases with increase in pressure of the = KP n ; 0< <1
m n
gas (2) x 1 1
= KP n ; 0⩽ ⩽1
(3) Extent of chemisorption by a given mass of m n
adsorbent is limited (3) x 1 1
log = log P ; >1
m n n
(4) Extent of adsorption is dependent on the (4) x 1 1
log = log K + log P ; 0 ⩽ ⩽1
nature of adsorbent m n n

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75. Which of the following is incorrect for 81. The physical adsorption of gases on the solid
physisorption? surface is due to :-
(1) Physisorption is reversible (1) Vander walls forces
(2) Physisorption increases with increase in (2) Covalent bonding
temperature (3) Hydrogen bonding
(3) Physisorption has Low heat of adsorption (4) All of these
(4) Physisorption Increases with increase in 82. At high concentration of soap in water, soap
surface area behaves as ...............
76. The dispersed phase in liquid Aerosol is. (1) molecular colloid
(1) Solid (2) Liquid (2) associated colloid
(3) Gas (4) Smoke (3) macromolecular colloid
77. Which does not show tyndall effect ? (4) lyophilic colloid
(1) Emulsion (2) Blood
83. Ignition mixture of Goldschmidt / thermite
(3) Milk (4) Sugar solution process contains:
78. Which of the following characteristics is not (1) BaO2 and BaO
correct for physical adsorption :-
(2) BaO and Mg powder
(1) Adsorption is spontaneous at suitable
(3) BaO2 and Mg powder
conditions
(4) BaO2 and Al powder
(2) It is not specific in nature
84. Electrolytic reduction is used in the metallurgy
(3) It is reversible in nature
of which of these?
(4) Amount of adsorption increases with
(1) Halide ore (2) Native ores
increase in temperature
(3) Alkali metals (4) All oxide ore
79. Which of the following is an emulsifier :-
85. The process of refining of volatile metal is :-
(1) Oil (2) Milk (3) Soap (4) KCl
(1) Liquification process
80. The catalyst used in the hydrogenation of oils is :-
(2) Oxidation process
(1) Fe (2) Ni
(3) Distillation process
(3) Pt (4) V2O5
(4) Zone refining
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 SECTION-2 90. Identify the correct option regarding Froth
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate Floatation method ?
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of (1) Collectors - pine oil
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
(2) Froth stabilizer - aniline
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
questions will be considered for marking. (3) Mineral particles wet by oil

86. Which method of purification is represented by (4) All of the above

the following equations ? 91. Which of the following reaction represents
calcination process ?
Ti + 2I2 TiI4 Ti + 2I2 (1) 2PbS + 3O2 → 2PbO + 2SO2
(1) Cupellation (2) Poling (2) CaCO3.MgCO3(s) → CaO(s) + MgO(s) + 2CO2(g)
(3) Van arkel (4) Zone refining (3) ZnO+C−coke 1673K
,

−−−−−−→Zn+CO
87. Which is not an ore of Iron :
(4) Fe2O3 + CO → 2FeO + CO2
(1) Haematite (2) Limonite
92. Zone refining is not used for refining of :-
(3) Cassiterite (4) Magnetite
(1) Boron (2) Indium
88. Which process is used for concentration of
Bauxite :- (3) Gallium (4) Thallium

(1) Bayer’s process (2) Hall’s process 93. Catalytic reaction that depends upon the pore
structure of the catalyst and size of reactant and
(3) Poling (4) Both (1) & (2) product molecules is best known as :-
89. Carbon cannot be used in the reduction Al2 O3 (1) Homogeneous catalysis
because :-
(2) Heterogeneous catalysis
(1) Carbon cannot reduce Al2 O3
(3) Shape selective catalysis
(2) The enthalpy of formation of CO2 is more
than that of Al2 O3 (4) Enzyme catalysis

(3) Pure carbon is not easily available

(4) The enthalpy of formation of Al2 O3 is too
high

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94. Which is false for catalyst ? 97. An emulsifying agent is a substance which?
(1) A catalyst can initiate a reaction (1) Stabilizes the emulsion
(2) It does not alter the position of equilibrium (2) De-stabilizes the emulsion
in a reversible reaction (3) Coagulates the emulsion
(3) A catalyst remains unchanged in quantity (4) Break the interfacial film between
and composition at the end of reaction. suspended particles and medium
(4) Catalyst are sometimes very specific in 98. Heat evolved in chemisorption lies in the range
respect of a reaction (in kJ/mole) of
95. One of the most efficient way to coagulate a (1) 80 to 240 (2) 20 to 40
lyophilic sol is :-
(3) 40 to 80 (4) 20 to 100
(1) Addition of electrolyte
99. Which one of the following is known as gypsum
(2) Addition of alcohol and then addition of
salt?
small quantity of electrolyte
(1) 2CaSO4.H2O (2) CaSO4.2H2O
(3) Addition of electrolyte and then excessive
cooling (3) CaSO4.H2O (4) 2CaSO4.4H2O
(4) Mixing of two oppositively charged sol 100. The formula of fool's is
96. Lyophilic sols are more stable than lyophobic (1) ZnS (2) FeS2
sols because :- (3) PbS (4) CuFeS2
(1) The colloidal particles have positive charge
(2) The colloidal particles have negative
charge
(3) The colloidal particles are more solvated
(4) There is strong electrostatic repulsion
between the colloidal particles

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 SUBJECT : ZOOLOGY

SECTION-1 155. Which theory states that ‘All living organisms

Attempt All 35 questions that we see today were created as such’ ?
(1) Cosmic panspermia theory
151. The first non-cellular life could have originated
(2) Theory of special creation
about
(3) Theory of biogenesis
(1) 2 bya (2) 3 bya (4) Oparin-Haldane theory
(3) 1 bya (4) 4 bya 156. Most accurate and modern technique to
152. The first organisms that invaded land, were: determine the age of fossils is :-
(1) Coelacanth (2) Amphibians (1) Uranium lead method
(2) Radio carbon method
(3) Reptiles (4) Plants (3) Potassium argon method
153. When more than one adaptive radiation (4) Electron Spin Resonance method
appeared to have occured in an isolated 157. According to Oparin, the conditions on primitive
geographical area, one can call this earth were :
____________ :-
(1) High temperature, volcanic storms and
(1) Divergent evolution oxidizing atmosphere
(2) Natural selection (2) Low temperature, volcanic storms and
(3) Adaptive divergence reducing atmosphere
(4) Convergent evolution (3) High temperature, volcanic storms and
reducing atmosphere
154. According to theory of spontaneous generation:
(4) Low temperature, volcanic storms and
(1) Life has come on earth from outer space
oxidizing atmosphere
(2) Life was created by god 158. The theory of spontaneous generation stated that
(3) Life has come from organic molecules like (1) Life can arise from non-living things only
RNA, protein etc
(2) Life can arise from both living and non-
(4) Organisms can be originated from dead and living
decaying matter
(3) Life arose from living forms only
(4) Life arises spontaneously, neither from
living nor from the non-living
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159. How many of the following structures are an 163. In embryonic stage general characters appear
example of vestigeal structures in human ? firstly and specialized characters appear later.
Muscles of pinna, coccyx, pelvic girdle, caecum, This statement states :-
Third molar, splint bones, gill- slits, stapes (1) Biogenetic law
(1) Three (2) Four (3) Five (4) Six (2) Recapitulation theory
160. Oparin of Russia and Haldane of England (3) Baer's law
proposed that the first form of life could have
(4) Neolamarkism
come from pre-existing __A__ organic
molecules and that formation of life was 164. Fossils are mainly present in which type of rocks:-
preceded by __B__. (1) Igneous (2) Metamorphic
(1) A = Living, B = Chemical evolution (3) Sedimentary (4) Marble
(2) A = Non living, B = Organic evolution 165. The process of evolution is
(3) A = Non living, B = Chemical evolution (1) Continuous
(4) A = Living, B = Inorganic evolution (2) Discontinuous
161. Mark the incorrect statement about the first non- (3) Continuous in the past but discontinuous
cellular form of life ? presently
(1) Originated about 3 billion years back (4) Discontinuous in the past but continuous
presently
(2) It was a cluster of nucleoprotein surrounded
by lipid coat 166. First life have come from pre existing non-living
organic molecule is given in :-
(3) They would have been giant molecules and (1) Theory of special creation
the first living giant molecules was
probably a RNA (2) Theory of biogenesis

(4) These protobionts with no ability of self (3) Cosmic panspermia theory
replication (4) Oparin - Haldane theory
162. Fossil evidence of evolution is called: 167. Louis Pasteur’s experiment disproves the:
(1) anatomy (2) embryology (1) Big-bang theory
(3) palaeontology (4) biogeography (2) Theory of biogenesis
(3) Theory of abiogenesis
(4) Oparin-Haldane theory
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168. Heart of bird and heart of mammals are :- 171. Which one of the following is incorrect about the
(1) Homologous structures and represent characteristic of protobionts (coacervates and
convergent evolution microspheres) as envisaged in abiogenic origin
of life?
(2) Homologous structures and represent
divergent evolution (1) They were able to reproduce

(3) Analogous structures and represent (2) They could maintain an internal
convergent evolution environment
(4) Phylogenetic structures and represent (3) They were partially isolated from the
divergent evolution surroundings
169. In 1953 S. L. Miller created primitive earth (4) They could separate the combination of
conditions in the laboratory and gave molecule from the surroundings
experimental evidence for origin of first form of 172. Russian scientist who proposed the theory of
life from preexisting non-living organic origin of life was :
molecules. The primitive earth conditions (1) Oparin (2) Haldane
created include :
(3) Miller (4) Fox
(1) Low Temperature, volcanic storms,
atmosphere rich in oxygen 173. Peripatus is connecting link between :-
(2) Low temperature, volcanic storms, (1) Annelida & Mollusca
reducing atmosphere (2) Annelida & Arthopoda
(3) High temperature, volcanic storms, non- (3) Reptiles & Aves
reducing atmosphere
(4) Reptiles & Mammalia
(4) High temperature, volcanic storms,
174. Stellar distances are measured in :-
reducing atmosphere containing CH4, NH3
etc. (1) Kilometers (2) Meters
170. Life cannot originate now from inorganic (3) Nanometers (4) Light years
materials because of 175. Life originated in :-
(1) low atmospheric temperature (1) Land (2) Water
(2) high degree of pollution (3) Air (4) Air & Water
(3) high atmospheric oxygen
(4) absence of raw materials
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176. First inorganic and organic molecules formed on 180. Primitive atmosphere was reducing because :
earth were respectively :- (1) Hydrogen atoms were few
(1) Water and Ammonia (2) Hydrogen atoms were active and in greater
(2) Water and Methane number
(3) Ammonia and Hydrogen cyanide (3) Nitrogen atoms were more

(4) Ammonia and carbon dioxide (4) Oxygen atoms were more

177. Which of the following is common ancestor of 181. Select the correct sequence of events during
birds and crocodiles ? evolution :-
(i) Formation of non-structural protein
(1) Pelycosaurs (2) Pteranodon (ii) Formation of eobionts
(3) Thecodont (4) Therapsids (iii) Formation of cyanobacteria
178. Which of the following is related to the origin of (iv) Formation of coacervates
(v) Formation of eukaryotes
life on earth?
(1) i, ii, iii, iv, v (2) i, iv, ii, iii, v
(1) Panspermia
(3) i, iv, ii, v, iii (4) iv, i, ii, iii, v
(2) Theory of spontaneous generation
182. Hybrid breakdown is failure of
(3) Chemical evolution
(1) Hybrid zygote to develop into offspring
(4) All of these
(2) Hybrid adult to produce fertile off spring in
179. Consider the following four statements(a-d) and back cross
select the option which includes all the correct ones
only :- (3) Fusion of ova and sperm of two species
(a) Huge clusters of galaxies comprises the universe. (4) All of these
(b) Galaxies contain stars and clouds of gas and dust. 183. Among the following how many organisms are
(c) Considering the size of earth, universe is indeed a Marsuplals present in Australia :
speck. Tiger cat, Wombat, Lemur, Koala, Sugar glider,
(d) Earth was supposed to have been formed 4.5 Flying squirrel
billion years back. (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 1
(1) Statement b, c and d 184. Which of the following factors help in evolution but
(2) Statement a, c is not considered as the basic factor for evolution :
(3) Statement a, d and c (1) Isolation (2) Adaptation
(4) Statement a, b and d (3) Variation (4) Mutation
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185. Which of the following is favorite idea of 188. Which of the following is true about
astronomers Dinosaurus:-
(1) Special creation theory
(2) Cosmic panspermia
(3) Biogensis
(4) Abiogensis
SECTION-2
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts 189. Which one of the following is not true regarding
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted homologons organs :-
questions will be considered for marking. (1) Homologous organs are result of convergent
186. The wings of sparrow and wings of housefly evolution
are: (2) Homology indicates common ancestry
(1) an example of homologous structures and (3) Vertebrate brains are example of
represent convergent evolution homologous organs
(2) an example of analogous structures and (4) Study of homologous organs helps to
represent convergent evolution understand organic evolution
(3) an example of homologous structures and 190. Life appeared ________ years after the
represent divergent evolution formation of Earth.
(4) an example of analogous structures and (1) 1000 million (2) 100 million
represent divergent evolution
(3) 10 million (4) 500 million
187. Which of the following option represents
analogous structures ? 191. Aves and mammals evolved from : –
(1) Hands of human and flippers of whale (1) Reptiles (2) Amphibians
(2) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of (3) Dinosaur (4) Coelocanth
Cucurbita
(3) Edible parts of radish and carrot
(4) Gills of fishes and lungs of birds
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192. Embryologicol support for evolution is 197. The sequence of origin of life may be :
exemplified by (1) Inorganic materials → Organic materials
(1) Similarities in certain genes and proteins → Colloidal aggregate → Eobiont → Cell
of chimpanzees and humans (2) Organic materials → Inorganic materials
(2) Presence of gill slits in embryos of → Colloidal aggregate → Eobiont → Cell
vertebrates (3) Inorganic materials → Organic materials
(3) Similarity in the skull of baby chimpanzee → Eobiont → Cell → Colloidal aggregate
and that of adult human skull (4) Organic materials → Inorganic materials
(4) Darwin's finches in Galapagos islands → Eobiont → Cell → Colloidal aggregate
193. First oxygenic organisms to evolve on the earth 198. Which of the following appeared later when the
was earth cooled down to temperature below 100°C ?
(1) Saprotroph (2) Autotroph (1) Stratosphere (2) Lithosphere
(3) Heterotroph (4) Plants (3) Atmosphere (4) Hydrosphere
194. Who did an experiment to prove that "The 199. Which organic compounds have first evolved in
organic compounds were the basis of life"? the direction of origin of life on the earth?
(1) Darwin (1) Urea and amino acids
(2) Stanley Miller and Harold C. Urey (2) Urea and nitrogenous base
(3) Melvin (3) Proteins and nucleic acids
(4) Fox (4) Proteins and uric acid
195. Which period is known as the golden age of 200. Coacervates were :-
fishes ? (1) First sign of life
(1) Triassic (2) Jurassic (2) First sole living molecule
(3) Devonian (4) Permian (3) First inorganic compound
196. Earth was originated before :- (4) First living cell
(1) 4.5 billion years (2) 2.5 billion years
(3) 1.5 billion years (4) 2 billion years

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