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ESE 2021 : PRELIMS EXAM

CLASSROOM TEST SERIES
BOOKLET SERIES
CIVIL
ENGINEERING
Test No. 22
Full Syllabus Test-6 : Paper-II

Duration: 3 hrs. Maximum Marks: 300

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2 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

Q.1 In a reinforced concrete section, the stress Q.5 Consider the following statements with
at extreme fibre in compression is 4.8 MPa. respect to characteristic features of yield
The depth of neutral axis in the section is lines:
96 mm and grade of concrete is M25. 1. Yield lines are straight lines.
Assuming linear elastic behaviour of the 2. Yield lines represent the axes of
concrete, the effective curvature of the rotation.
section (in per mm) is 3. Yield lines must end at a slab
(a) 2 × 10–6 (b) 4 × 10–6 boundary.
(c) 6 × 10 –6 (d) 8 × 10–6 4. Yield lines are formed under
Q.2 Under what circumstances, does eccentric concentrated loads, radiating inward
loading on a footing occur? from the point of application.
1. The column transmitting a moment in 5. A yield line between two slab
addition to the vertical load. segments must pass through the point
2. The column carrying a vertical load of intersection of the axes of rotation
offset with respect to the centroid of of the adjacent slab segments.
the footing. Which of the above statement(s) is/are
3. The column transmitting a lateral force correct?
located above the foundation level in (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
addition to the vertical load. (b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
Select the correct answer using the codes (c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
given below: (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Q.6 A rectangular column of size 400 mm ×
400 mm is loaded with Pu = 1200 kN, and
Q.3 The base shear in a shear wall building is Muz = 50 kNm. For using interaction curve
resisted by
of column, the non-dimensional form of
(a) the parallel walls only
load and moment will be (Assume M20
(b) the perpendicular walls only
grade of concrete)
(c) the horizontal diaphragms and all walls
(a) 0.436 and 0.039 respectively
(d) All walls
(b) 0.436 and 0.049 respectively
Q.4 A doubly reinforced rectangular concrete (c) 0.375 and 0.039 respectively
beam is having width 200 mm and (d) 0.375 and 0.049 respectively
effective depth of 415 mm. The effective
cover for both compression and tension Q.7 Consider the following statements with
steel is 35 mm. The grade of concrete and reference to requirements to be satisfied
steel used are M20 and Fe415 respectively. to safeguard against the development of
What will be the amount of compression diagonal tension cracks, the tension steel
reinforcement, if the beam section is should not be terminated unless,
subjected to ultimate moment of 150 kNm? 1. The shear at the cut-off point does not
(Assume that both tension and exceed two-thirds of the shear
compressive steel yield) resisting capacity of the section.
(a) 368 mm2 (b) 542 mm2 2. For 36 mm-φ and smaller bars, the
(c) 412 mm2 (d) 672 mm2 continuing bars provide at least twice

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 Civil Engineering | Test 22 3

the area required for flexure at the cut- Q.9 Consider the following statements with
off point and shear does not exceed respect to prestressed concrete:
two-third of the shear resisting 1. If finishes are to be applied to
capacity of the section. prestressed concrete members, the
3. The shear at the cut-off point does not total upward deflection should not
exceed three-fourth of the shear exceed span/250.
resisting capacity of the section. 2. Prestressing anchorage units using
4. For 36 mm-φ and smaller bars, the multiple wire cables exist in the
continuing bars provide atleast twice Freyssinet system.
the area required for flexure at the cut- 3. The criterion of limit state of cracking
off point and shear does not exceed for type-2 of prestressed concrete
three-fourth of the shear resisting members shall be tensile stresses are
capacity of the section. allowed but no visible cracking.
Which of the above requirements must be 4. Concordant cable profile is a cable
satisfied? profile that produces no support
(a) Either 1 or 2 reactions due to prestressing.
(b) Either 1 or 4 Which of the above statement(s) is/are
correct?
(c) Either 2 or 3
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) Either 3 or 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Q.8 The plan of a ground floor column in a (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
building is shown in figure. It is desired (d) 2 and 4 only
to reduce the longitudinal bar diameter
Q.10 The cross-section of a pretensioned
from 25 mm to 20 mm above the second
prestressed concrete beam is shown in
floor level. Assume M25 grade concrete
figure. The reinforcement is placed
and Fe415 steel with design bond stress
concentrically. If the stress in steel at
= 1.4 N/mm2 for plain bars. The splicing
transfer is 1600 MPa, then the final stress
of the bars should ideally be staggered
in concrete (in N/mm2) is [Take Es = 2.08 ×
with a minimum (centre-to-centre)
105 N/mm2, Ec = 3.20 × 104 N/mm2]
separation of

600 mm
400 mm
2
300 mm

500 mm

25φ(6 Nos.) below second floor

20φ(6 Nos.) above second floor 300 mm

(a) 652 mm (b) 768 mm (a) 7.4 (b) 3.9

(c) 952 mm (d) 1048 mm (c) 4.8 (d) 6.5

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4 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

Q.11 Due to a certain loading, a plate is

σy= 40 MPa
deformed into the dashed shape figure as
shown below. τxy= 30 3 MPa
E

σx= 100 MPa

σx= 100 MPa

y 3 mm

B D 2 mm θ
B
250 mm

σy= 40 MPa
⎛π ⎞
⎜⎝ − 0.012⎟⎠ rad
2
C
A x (a) 45°, 135°, 150 MPa, 20 MPa
300 mm (b) 30°, 120°, 150 MPa, 20 MPa
The average shear strain in the plate at A (c) 45°, 135°, 130 MPa, 10 MPa
relative to the x and y axes is 0.003 K (in (d) 30°, 120°, 130 MPa, 10 MPa
rad) then value of K is
Q.14 The shear force diagram of an overhanging
(a) 0.2 (b) 2
beam with simple supports at A and B, is
(c) 0.4 (d) 4
shown below:
Q.12 The expression for the elongation of a
conical bar of length ‘l’ and base diameter

1000 N
800 N
‘d’ under its own weight as shown in
C B
figure will be: (Take the density of the
800 N

A D E

1200 N
material as ρ and modulus of elasticity
as E)
SFD
d

The total downward load acting on the

beam is
(a) 1800 N (b) 2800 N
l (c) 3800 N (d) 4800 N

Q.15 A horizontal cantilever of uniform section

has an effective length of 2.5 m and carries
a load of 50 kN at the free end. If the 50 kN
ρgl 2 ρgl 2 load is replaced by two equal loads one at
(a) (b)
3E 6E the free end and other at 1.5 m from the
fixed end, such that the maximum
ρgl 2 ρgl 2
(c) (d) deflection, is same as in the first case then
2E 5E
the magnitude of the equal loads will be
Q.13 The state of stress at a point, for a body in (a) 24.9 kN (b) 34.9 kN
plane stress, is shown in figure below. If (c) 18.4 kN (d) 45.9 kN
BE represents the principal plane and the
Q.16 A failure theory postulated for metals in a
principal stresses σ1, σ2 then the values of
two dimensional stress plane is shown in
θ, σ1 and σ2 will respectively be:
figure below:

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 Civil Engineering | Test 22 5

100 kNm
80 kNm 80 kNm
σ2 (c)
σy P
Q 120 kNm

–σy 100 kNm

σ1 80 kNm
σy (d)
R
–σy
Q.18 A stepped steel shaft is subjected to
torques as shown below. The strain energy
stored in the shaft due to this loading will
be: (Take G = 75 GPa)
With reference to the information given
above, which of the following statements
B C D
is/are correct? A 40 mmφ
1. P represents maximum strain theory.
2. Q represents maximum distortion 900 Nm 200 Nm 300 Nm
energy theory.
0.5 m 0.5 m 0.5 m
3. R represents principal stress theory.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (a) 4.8 J (b) 5.9 J
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 6.7 J (d) 6.6 J

Q.17 Consider a beam 10 m long and loaded as Q.19 The slope at point C of the beam as shown
shown in figure below. in figure below will be: (EI = Constant)
P
25 kN 20 kN
A B
1m
A C D B D C
2m
L/2 L/4 L/4
6m 4m
5PL2 2 PL2
(a) (b)
The bending moment diagram of the beam 64EI 32EI
is: 3PL2 3PL2
(c) (d)
80 kNm 32EI 64EI
60 kNm 60 kNm
(a) Q.20 Consider the following statement(s):
1. The maximum shear stress in a beam
of circular cross-section is 50% more
100 kNm than the average shear stress.
80 kNm 2. When a beam of square section is used
60 kNm with a diagonal in vertical position, the
(b)
shear stress distribution across the
section of the beam will be maximum
at the neutral axis.
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6 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

3. In case of a rectangular beam subjected (a) 0.26 m/s (b) 0.36 m/s
to transverse shearing force, the ratio (c) 0.46 m/s (d) 0.56 m/s
of maximum shear stress to average
Q.24 Consider the following statements with
shear stress is 1.5.
respect to repeating variables in a
4. A symmetric I-section is subjected to dimensional analysis:
shear force, the shear force induced 1. It should be equal in number to that of
across the section is maximum at the the fundamental dimensions involved
bottom of flanges in web portion. in the problem variables.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are 2. It includes the dependent variable.
correct? 3. It has at least one variable containing
(a) 1 and 2 only all the fundamental dimension.
(b) 3 only 4. It should collectively contain all the
(c) 2 and 3 only fundamental dimensions.
(d) 3 and 4 only Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
Q.21 A steel column of diameter 60 mm and
(a) 1 and 2 only
hinged at both the ends is subjected to an
(b) 2 and 3 only
axial load. The minimum length of the (c) 1 and 4 only
column for which Euler’s formula is valid (d) 2 and 4 only
will be (Take E = 200 GPa and limit of
proportionality = 220 MPa) Q.25 An open rectangular tank of length, L = 10
(a) 1.9 m (b) 1.7 m m, height 4 m and width (perpendicular
(c) 1.4 m (d) 1.6 m to the plane of the figure below) 1 m is
initially half-filled with water. The tank
Q.22 A 300 mm × 125 mm I-beam is built in at suddenly accelerates along the horizontal
the ends of a span of 6 m and carries a direction. If water is not to spill out of the
uniformly distributed load of 24 kN/m tank, then what will be the acceleration of
throughout the span. What is the greatest tank?
bending stress in beam? [Ixx for the beam (a) 0.2 g (b) 0.4 g
section = 86.5 × 10 6 mm 4 and E = 200 (c) 0.6 g (d) 0.8 g
GN/m2] Q.26 Fluid flows steadily through a converging
(a) 125 N/mm2 nozzle of length ‘L’ as shown below. Flow
(b) 185 N/mm2 can be approximated as one-dimensional
(c) 145 N/mm2 such that the axial velocity varies linearly
(d) 175 N/mm2 from entrance to exit. The velocities at
Q.23 A central thin plate of area 3 m2 equidistant entrance and exit are V 0 and 4V 0
respectively.
from both the fixed plates 16 mm apart is
V0
being pulled with a force of 100 N. The y
velocity at which the central thin plate
4V0
moved when the viscosities of the two x
fluids are in the ratio of 1 : 4, will be: (Take
viscosity of the top fluid as 0.15 Ns/m2) L

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 Civil Engineering | Test 22 7

The expression of the acceleration of a 0.6 m. The head loss occurs due to
particle flowing through the nozzle is formation of jump will be
(a) 0.42 m (b) 0.38 m
2V02 ⎛ 3L ⎞
(a) a = ⎜1 + ⎟ (c) 0.22 m (d) 0.18 m
L ⎝ x ⎠
Q.30 Consider the following statements:
2V02 ⎛ 3x ⎞ 1. For subcritical flow in an open channel,
(b) a = ⎜1 + ⎟
L ⎝ L ⎠ the control section for gradually varied
3V02 3L ⎞ flow profile is at the downstream end.
⎛
(c) a = ⎜1 + ⎟ 2. Direct step method of computation for
L ⎝ x ⎠
gradually varied flow is applicable to
3V02 ⎛ 3x ⎞ both prismatic and non-prismatic
(d) a = ⎜1 + ⎟
L ⎝ L ⎠ channels.
3. It is most appropriate to say that
Q.27 A discharge of 1 cumec is flowing in a
uniform flow in an open-channel
rectangular channel one meter wide at a
occurs when there is a balance between
depth of 0.8 m. The bed slope of channel
gravity and inertial forces.
is (Assume g2/3 = 4.58)
Which of the above statements is/are
(a) Mild (b) Critical
correct?
(c) Steep (d) Adverse
(a) 1 only
Q.28 Consider the following statements: (b) 1 and 2 only
1. The flow between two parallel plates (c) 2 and 3 only
in which one is at rest and the other is (d) 1, 2 and 3
moving is called Hagen-Poissulle flow.
Q.31 A powerhouse is equipped with Pelton
2. In Hagen-Poiseulle flow of viscous
liquid, pair of forces i.e. pressure and type impulse turbine. Each turbine delivers
viscous force strike a balance. a power of 17 MW when working under a
3. For laminar flow through a circular head of 900 m and running at 600 rpm.
pipe, the ratio of kinetic energy Mean diameter of the wheel and diameter
correction factor and momentum of the jet will respectively be: (Assume that
correction factor will be 1.5. the overall efficiency is 85%, velocity
4. Prandtl’s mixing length at the wall of coefficient of the jet is 0.98 and speed ratio
a pipe is zero. is 0.46, g = 10 m/s2)
Which of the above statements is/are (a) 1.4 m, 0.24 m
correct? (b) 1.9 m, 0.15 m
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1.4 m, 0.15 m
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1.9 m, 0.24 m
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
Q.32 A lawn sprinkler with unequal arms as
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
shown in figure discharges water at 1 lit./s
Q.29 In a rectangular channel of 0.6 m width, a through its each opening of area 1 cm2. The
hydraulic jump occurs where the Froude rotational speed of the sprinkler in the
number is 3. The depth after the jump is absence of restraining torque will be

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8 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

(a) 3 m2 (b) 0.5 m2

ω 3
10 cm 40 cm (c) 0.15 m2 (d) 1 m2

Q.36 The weld defect which occurs due to the

1
2
presence of voids or gas pockets entrapped
in the weld while cooling is known as
(a) 195 rpm (b) 280 rpm
(a) Incomplete fusion
(c) 340 rpm (d) 420 rpm
(b) Incomplete penetration
Q.33 Consider the following statements: (c) Porosity
1. Governing of turbine means the (d) Cracks
discharge is kept constant under all
Q.37 For the column lacing, 18 mm thick lacing
conditions.
flat is to be provided. The maximum length
2. Governing of turbine means the speed
of lacing flat can be
is kept constant under all conditions.
3. A turbo-machine becomes more (a) 0.75 m (b) 0.80 m
susceptible to cavitation if pressure (c) 1 m (d) 1.5 m
falls below the vapour pressure. Q.38 A plate girder of span 15 m, is to be
4. Air vessel in a reciprocating pump is provided in a hall of restaurant. The
used to increase pump efficiency. superimposed load exclusive of self-
Which of the above statements is/are weight is 100 kN/m. The maximum value
correct?
of bending moment for which depth of
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
girder is designed is:
(b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 2812 kNm (b) 2953 kNm
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 305 kNm (d) 3200 kNm
(d) 1 and 4 only
Q.39 For the plastic analysis of a steel beam,
Q.34 Consider the following statements
which of the following assumptions is/are
regarding the properties of high strength
made?
friction grip bolts:
1. Shear deformations are neglected.
1. The fatigue strength is more
2. The stress-strain curve is parabolic.
2. Load is transferred by friction only
3. It provides a rigid joint 3. Plane section under bending remains
Which of the above statements is/are plane at all stages of bending.
correct? Which of the above assumptions is/are
(a) 1 and 2 only correct?
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of the above (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All of the above
Q.35 A slab base for a column has to carry an
axial factored load of 2700 kN. The area Q.40 Match List-I (End restraint) with List-II
of base plate required, if M30 concrete is (Effective length) and select the correct
used for the foundation is (Take answer using the codes given below the
Permissible bearing pressure as 0.6fck) lists:

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 Civil Engineering | Test 22 9

List-I 16 M P 12 M P
A. Effectively held in position at both ends (a) (b)
L L
but not restrained against rotation.
B. Effectively held in position at both ends 8MP 6 MP
(c) (d)
and restrained against rotation at one L L
end.
Q.43 A simply supported beam of depth 300 mm
C. Effectively held in position and
has 5 m effective span which is laterally
restrained against rotation at both
supported throughout. The thickness of the
ends.
web is 5.2 mm. Calculate the design shear
D. Effectively held in position and
capacity of the beam.
restrained against rotation at one end, (a) 205 kN (b) 340 kN
and at the other end restrained against (c) 225 kN (d) 354 kN
rotation but not held in position.
List-II Q.44 Consider the following statements
1. 1.20 L regarding filter materials used in filters:
2. 0.65 L 1. Sand used as filter media should not
3. 1.00 L loose more than 10% of its weight after
being placed in hydrochloric acid for
4. 0.80 L
24 hours.
Codes:
2. The value of uniformity coefficient for
A B C D
sand varies from 1.30 to 2.50
(a) 4 3 2 1
depending upon the type of filter.
(b) 3 4 2 1
3. The base material is sand and it
(c) 1 4 2 3
supports the gravel layer.
(d) 4 1 3 2
Which of the above statements is/are
Q.41 The actual length of a discontinuous angle incorrect?
strut is 4 m. Single angle is connected with (a) 1 and 3 only
more than one bolt or welded then calculate (b) 3 only
the effective length of compression (c) 2 and 3 only
member. (d) All of the above
(a) 4 m (b) 2.8 m Q.45 Chlorine usage in the treatment of 15000
(c) 3.6 m (d) 3.4 m cubic meter per day of water is 9 kg/day.
Q.42 A continuous beam with constant EI is The residual chlorine after 10 minutes
shown in the figure. Collapse load for this contact period is 0.20 mg/l. Calculate the
beam will be equal to chlorine demand of water.
(a) 0.6 mg/l (b) 0.4 mg/l
W W (c) 0.2 mg/l (d) Zero
MP MP Q.46 Consider the following statements
L L 2L L regarding forces acting on the pressure
2 2 3 3
conduits:

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10 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

1. Water hammer pressure is resisted by Q.50 Select the correct statement(s) regarding
using materials which are strong in the given network:
tension.
7 days 5 days
2. Longitudinal temperature stresses are 1 2 3

developed in pipes when they are laid 4 days 8 days

above ground and it is resisted by
providing expansion joints. 3 days
4 5
3. Flexural pipes are provided when pipes
are supported over trestles. 1. Event 2 is a dual role event.
Which of the above statements is/are 2. Event 3 consumes 5 days for
completion.
correct?
3. Time of completion of the network is
(a) 1 and 2 only
20 days.
(b) 1 and 3 only
4. There is no redundant dummy in the
(c) 2 and 3 only
network.
(d) All of the above
(a) 1 and 2 only
Q.47 A circular sedimentation tank fitted with (b) 1 and 3 only
standard mechanical sludge removal (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
equipment is required to handle (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
1.452 MLD of raw water. If the detention Q.51 The mean and standard deviation (in days)
period of the tank is 4 hours and the of each activity in the given network
diameter of tank is 7 m, then calculate the diagram is shown besides each activity.
depth of the tank. Calculate the range of project duration.
(a) 7.4 m (b) 3.2 m
2, 4
(c) 6.2 m (d) 10.6 m 2 5
5, 2 7, 2
7, 3 1, 2
Q.48 The non-carbonate hardness value 1 6
6, 2 9, 4
obtained from the analysis of a water
8, 4
example was found to be 100 mg/l. The 3 4

value of alkalinity is 50 mg/l. The total

(a) (14, 28) (b) (5, 41)
hardness and carbonate hardness are
(c) (8, 39) (d) (10, 31)
respectively:
(a) 50 mg/l and 150 mg/l Q.52 Arrange the following steps that are used
(b) 100 mg/l and 200 mg/l in the process of using CPM in project
(c) 150 mg/l and 50 mg/l planning phase:
(d) 200 mg/l and 100 mg/l 1. Activity specification.
2. Drawing network diagram.
Q.49 The sound pressure level for a source 3. Determine the sequence of activities.
producing noise with sound pressure of 4. Critical path diagram to show project
2 × 105 μ bar is progress.
(a) 80 dB (b) 100 dB 5. Estimates for each activity.
(c) 160 dB (d) 180 dB 6. Identify the critical path.

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 Civil Engineering | Test 22 11

(a) 1-2-3-5-4-6 (a) 500 m3 (b) 1000 m3

(b) 5-2-6-3-1-4 (c) 1500 m3 (d) 2000 m3
(c) 3-2-5-6-4-1
Q.56 Consider the following statements:
(d) 1-3-2-5-6-4
Resource levelling means
Q.53 The expected mean time of each activity 1. Economical utilization of resources.
(in days) is shown on the given PERT 2. Validating network depending upon
network diagram. The probability of resource constraints.
completion of the given project in 20 days 3. Gradual increase in resources.
is 90% and the variance for the project is 4. Complete revamping of resources to
1.80. Find the expected mean time for the suit the requirements.
activity 30-40. Which of the above statements is/are
[Given for 90% probability, Z = 1.28] correct?
5 9 P (a) 2 and 3 only
10 20 30 40
(b) 3 only
(a) 5.8 days (b) 3.7 days (c) 2 and 4 only
(c) 2.6 days (d) 4.9 days (d) 3 and 4 only
Q.54 Output of a bulldozer is Q.57 The reduction in project time normally
1. Increased if drawbar HP of the tractor results in
is increased for a given hauling (a) decreasing the direct cost and
distance.
increasing the indirect cost.
2. Decreased if drawbar HP of the tractor
(b) increasing the direct cost and
is increased for a given hauling
decreasing the indirect cost.
distance.
(c) increasing the direct cost and indirect
3. Increased if the hauling distance is
cost both.
increased for a given drawbar HP of
(d) decreasing the direct cost and indirect
the tractor.
cost both.
4. Decreased if the hauling distance is
increased for a given drawbar HP of Q.58 A contractor employs an average of 150
the tractor. men, 48 hrs per week for 20 weeks. There
Of these statements are 4 disabling injuries and a total of
(a) 1 and 3 are correct 60 days lost from work. Determine the
(b) 1 and 4 are correct injury index.
(c) 2 and 3 are correct (a) 7.62 × 10–3 (b) 9.24 × 10–3
(d) 2 and 4 are correct (c) 4.39 × 10–3 (d) 11.58 × 10–3

Q.55 If the excavation of earth is done manually Q.59 The peak ordinate of a 4h UH (Unit
then it costs Rs. 10 per m3. A machine can hydrograph) in a basin is 80 m 3/s. An
excavate at a fixed cost of Rs. 4000 plus a isolated storm of 4-hours duration in the
variable cost of Rs. 2 per m3. The quantity basin was recorded to have a total rainfall
of earth for which the cost of excavation of 7 cm. If it is assumed that the base flow
by machine will be equal to the cost of and the φ-index are 20 m3/s and 0.25 cm/h
manual excavation is respectively, then the peak of the flood

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12 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

discharge due to the storm could be occurrence of peak of inflow and outflow
estimated as hydrographs are t I and t O respectively,
(a) 580 m3/s (b) 360 m3/s then which of the following are correct?
(c) 480 m3/s (d) 500 m3/s (a) HI < HO and tI < tO
(b) HI < HO and tI > tO
Q.60 Consider the following statements with
(c) HI > HO and tI < tO
reference to Gumbel’s extreme value
(d) HI > HO and tI > tO
distribution:
1. Gumbel defined a flood as the largest Q.63 The available moisture holding capacity of
of the 365 daily flows. soil is 15 cm per meter depth of soil for a
2. Gumbel distribution plots as a straight crop with a root zone depth of 0.8 m and
line on a Gumbel paper. consumptive use of crop is 5 mm/day. The
Which of the above statements is/are frequency of irrigation for restraining the
incorrect? moisture depletion to 40% of available
(a) 1 only moisture is
(b) 2 only (a) 9 days (b) 15 days
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 14 days (d) 10 days
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.64 Consider the following statements
Q.61 Match List-I with List-II and select the regarding curves in channels:
correct answer using the codes given 1. A curve causes disturbance of flow and
below the lists: results in silting on the inside i.e. the
List-I convex side.
A. Anemometer 2. If the discharge is more, the curve
B. Rain simulator should have more radius.
C. Lysimeter Which of the above statements is/are
D. Hygrometer correct?
List-II (a) 1 only
1. Humidity (b) 2 only
2. Evapotranspiration (c) Both 1 and 2
3. Infiltration (d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Wind speed
Q.65 Consider a channel in a state of ‘Regime’
Codes:
then which of the following statements is/
A B C D
are correct?
(a) 3 4 2 1
1. The flow is such that silting and
(b) 3 4 1 2
scouring need not be considered
(c) 4 3 1 2
specially.
(d) 4 3 2 1
2. Such a state can be obtained in an
Q.62 An inflow hydrograph is routed through artificial channel by proper design.
a reservoir to produce an outflow 3. Channel is designed such that the silt
hydrograph. The peak flow of the outflow that has entered the channel at its head
hydrograph is HO and peak flow of the is kept in suspension at any point in
inflow hydrograph is H I . The time of the channel.

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 Civil Engineering | Test 22 13

4. Velocity of flow should be such that 2. The fineness modulus varies between
there is no local silt erosion of channel 2 to 3.5 for fine aggregate for a good
bed. mix design.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only 3. Fineness modulus can be calculated as
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 sum of cumulative percentage passed
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only from sieve divided by 100.
(d) 1 and 4 only Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
Q.66 A new reservoir has a capacity of 12 Mm3
(b) 2 and 3 only
and its catchment area is 500 km2. The
(c) 1 and 3 only
annual sediment yield from this catchment
(d) All of the above
is 0.2 ha-m/km 2. The trap efficiency is
constant at 80%. The number of years it Q.70 Match List-I with List-II and select the
takes for the reservoir to lose 60% of its correct answer using the codes given
initial capacity is below the lists:
(a) 199 years (b) 19 years List-I
(c) 9 years (d) 99 years A. Grading of aggregate
B. Surface moisture of aggregate
Q.67 Which of the following are incorrect? C. Deleterious materials.
1. Silt ejectors are constructed at a List-II
location after the head regulator. 1. Affects mix proportion
2. Downstream sheet pile is more 2. Improves workability of concrete
effective in reducing uplift. 3. Interfere with hydration of cement
3. Cut-offs are provided on the upstream Codes:
base of hydraulic structures only. A B C
4. Launching apron protects downstream (a) 3 1 2
pile from the scour holes progressing (b) 2 1 3
in the upstream direction. (c) 1 2 3
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 3 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only Q.71 Consider the following statements:
(d) 1 and 4 only 1. Sea water reduces the strength of
concrete by about 10%-20%.
Q.68 A channel designed by Lacey’s theory has 2. Upto 5% of magnesium oxide imparts
a mean velocity of 2 m/s. The silt factor is excellent hydraulic properties to lime.
0.8. The hydraulic mean depth is 3. A gauged mortar is obtained by
(a) 5 m (b) 6.25 m adding sand and lime to cement.
(c) 1.25 m (d) 12.5 m 4. Bakelite plastic is obtained by
Q.69 Consider the following statements condensation polymerization.
regarding fineness modulus: Which of the above statements are correct?
1. The object of finding fineness modulus (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
is to grade the given aggregate for (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
required strength and workability of (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
concrete mix with minimum cement. (d) All of the above

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14 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

Q.72 Match List-I (Type of cement) with List-II Codes:

(Use) and select the correct answer using A B C D
the codes given below the lists: (a) 2 4 3 1
List-I (b) 3 4 1 2
A. Quick setting cement (c) 4 3 1 2
B. High alumina cement (d) 1 2 3 4
C. Low heat cement
Q.75 Calculate the number of cement bags
D. Extra rapid hardening cement
required to make wet concrete mix of 10 m3
List-II
volume, if concrete is made with a
1. Cold weather construction
proportion of 1 : 3 : 6.
2. Dam construction
(a) 96 (b) 18
3. Precasting
(c) 27 (d) 45
4. Concrete under running water
Codes: Q.76 Consider the following statements:
A B C D 1. If fly ash is used for making concrete,
(a) 1 2 3 4 then the carbon content should be as
(b) 4 3 2 1 low as possible in fly ash.
(c) 4 2 3 1 2. Surkhi is added to lime mortar to
(d) 1 3 2 4 impart hydraulicity.
3. Pozzolana which added in to fat lime
Q.73 The commercially successful fibres in fibre converts it into hydraulic lime.
reinforced concrete are of: 4. The blast furnace clay is used for mass
(a) glass (b) asbestos concreting.
(c) steel (d) carbon Which of the above statements are correct?
Q.74 Match List-I (Test for permanent (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
adjustment of theodolite) with List-II (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(Result of test) and select the correct (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
answer using the codes given below the (d) All of the above
lists: Q.77 Consider the following statements with
List-I respect to geosynthetics and select the
A. Plate level test incorrect statement:
B. Altitude bubble test (a) Geosynthetics does not contain
C. Spire test synthetic fabrics of PVC.
D. Collimation test (b) A geotextile can be used as filter
List-II medium.
1. Horizontal axis is made perpendicular (c) Geomembrances due to its low
to vertical axis. permeability can be used to control
2. Line of sight coincide with optical axis fluid migration in geotechnical
of telescope. structures.
3. To make vertical axis truly vertical. (d) Geogrids can be used in road
4. To ensure the vertical circle reads zero pavements or in improvement of
when telescope bubble is centered. bearing capacity.

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 Civil Engineering | Test 22 15

Q.78 Which of the following statement is 3. The IS classification of bricks is based

incorrect? on compressive strength only.
(a) Knots reduce tensile strength of wood 4. Mixing of fly ash in brick earth reduces
tangential to the grains. drying shrinkage and develop strength
(b) The age of tree can be predicted by on firing without bloating in fired
number of annual rings. product.
(c) Shear strength of timber depends on (a) 1 and 4 only
lignin with fibre. (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Seasoning of timber is required to (c) 1 and 3 only
remove sap from timber. (d) 2 and 4 only

Q.79 Which of the following component of Q.82 The compressive strength of concrete
portland cement is responsible for quick (a) decreases with increase in aggregate
setting? cement ratio
(a) CaO (b) Fe2O3 (b) increases with increase in degree of
(c) SiO2 (d) Al2O3 compaction
Q.80 Match List-I (Different tests) with List-II (c) decreases with increase in capillary
(Volume of mould) and select the correct porosity
answer using the codes given below the (d) All of the above
lists: Q.83 The example of glass matrix soap is
List-I (a) Cobalt oxide
A. Compression test (b) Nickel oxide
B. Flexure test (c) Cullets
C. Autoclave test of cement (d) Maganese dioxide
D. Compressive strength test of cement
List-II Q.84 In a theodolite, the circular main scale is
1. 352 cm3 divided into degrees and each degree is
2. 3375 cm3 divided into three parts. If theodolite is
3. 15750 cm3 to have a least count of 20″, then _____
4. 156.25 cm3 main scale divisions are divided into
Codes: ________ vernier scale divisions.
A B C D (a) 19, 20 (b) 29, 30
(a) 4 1 2 3 (c) 59, 60 (d) 49, 50
(b) 2 3 4 1
Q.85 To determine the sensitivity of bubble tube
(c) 1 4 3 2
the following observations were made on
(d) 2 1 4 3
a staff held at 100 m from level:
Q.81 Consider the following statements Reading at left end of bubble = 20
regarding brick and choose the correct Reading at right end = 10
statements: Staff reading = 1.800
1. Silica in brick prevents shrinkage. Reading at left end = 10
2. Efflorescence of brick is due to low Reading at right hand = 20
porosity of brick. Staff reading = 1.700.

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16 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

Find sensitivity of bubble tube is: Calculate the correction required in latitude
(a) 20.62″ (b) 15.12″ of line AB as per Bowditch’s rule
(c) 11.28″ (d) 05.95″ (a) –70.89 m (b) 29.11 m
(c) –29.11 m (d) 70.89 m
Q.86 Consider the following statements:
1. In prismatic compass, readings are Q.90 Consider the following statements
taken from southern end. regarding aerial survey:
2. Alidade in plane table surveying is 1. Optical centre of camera through
used for orientation. which all rays of light pass is known
3. For bringing the bubble in centre in as perspective center.
dumpy level, foot screws are used 2. Point on the photograph at which
which results in raising or lowering of bisector of angle of tilt meets the
trivet of bring bubble in center. photographic plane is known as iso-
4. The vertical circle of a theodolite is center.
fixed with telescope, divided into 3. Point of intersection of optical axis of
2 quadrants and having zero mark at camera with photographic plane is
end of horizontal diameter. known as principal point.
Which of the above statements are 4. Height of aircraft above chosen datum
incorrect? is known as altitude.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only Which of the above statements are correct?
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) All of the above
Q.87 If bearing of line AB is N87°E and that of
Q.91 Consider List-I (Type of rock/stone) and
line BC is S65°E, then the external angle at
List-II (Type of rock classification) as given
B between the two lines is:
below:
(a) 68° (b) 152°
List-I
(c) 292° (d) 208°
A. Igneous
Q.88 Dip of horizon is the angle B. Sedimentary
(a) made by line of sight with original C. Metamorphic
(b) between the line of sight and level List-II
surface 1. Laterite
(c) between the line of sight and tangent 2. Serpentine
to level surface 3. Mooram
(d) made by the line of sight with plumb A B C
line. (a) 1 2 3
(b) 3 2 1
Q.89 Consider the following traverse:
(c) 2 3 1
Line Length (m) Bearing (d) 3 1 2
AB 100 45°
Q.92 Consider the following figure, which is an
BC 150 135°
extract from a contour map (scale
CA 90 225° = 1 : 50,000) of an area. An alignment of a
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 Civil Engineering | Test 22 17

road at a ruling gradient of 5% is to be (a) 34.25 m (b) 239.51 m

fixed from point O and beyond. What (c) 102.63 m (d) 136.88 m
should be radius of arc with O as the center
Q.95 On a two way traffic road, the speed of
to get the point of alignment of the next
overtaking vehicle and over taken vehicle
contour on the map?
are 80 kmph and 50 kmph respectively. The
average acceleration is a 0.81 m/s 2 .
Calculate the distance travelled by the
vehicle coming from the opposite lane
during the whole overtaking process.
(a) 156.29 m (b) 121.85 m
15 m 35 m 55 m 75 m (c) 197.71 m (d) 84.65 m

Q.96 The cycle time of an intersection is 60 sec,

(a) 0.8 m (b) 0.8 cm
green time is 26 sec and amber time is 3 sec.
(c) 0.08 cm (d) 0.008 m
If saturation headway is 2.4 sec per phase
Q.93 Consider the following statements and clearance lost time is 1 sec per phase,
regarding Tresaquet construction: then find the capacity of the lane (in
1. Tresaquet construction was the first veh/hr).
road construction happened on large (a) 550 (b) 750
scale in the world. (c) 650 (d) 850
2. No consideration was given to Q.97 In a Marshall sample, the bulk specific
subgrade moisture condition and gravity of mix and aggregates are 2.3 and
drainage of surface water. 2.628 respectively. The sample includes 4%
3. Shoulders having slope 5% is provided of bitumen (by total weight of mix) of
to drain the surface water to the side specific gravity 1.00. The theoretical
drain. maximum specific gravity of mix is 2.4. The
Which of the above statement is/are voids filled with bitumen in the Marshall
incorrect? sample is ___________.
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 69.96 % (b) 68.81%
(b) 3 only (c) 72.16% (d) 74.18%
(c) 1, 2, 3
Q.98 Find the equivalent radius of resisting
(d) 1 and 3 only
section of slab using the following
Q.94 Vehicle A is moving with a velocity 80 parameters:
kmph on a two lane road having positive Radius of contact area = 10 cm
gradient of 3% and braking efficiency is Depth of slab = 25 cm
80%. Vehicle B is coming from the opposite (a) 9.65 cm (b) 15.29 cm
direction having velocity 50 kmph and (c) 11.14 cm (d) 14.68 cm
braking efficiency 50%. Determine the Q.99 Pandrol clips cannot be used with
required non passing sight distance. (a) Wooden sleepers
Assume: Total reaction time for both (b) Concrete sleepers
vehicles as 2.5 sec and longitudinal friction (c) CST-9 sleepers
coefficient as 0.35. (d) Steel trough sleepers
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18 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

Q.100 A broad gauge branch line takes off as a is changed to 800 mm and slope is changed
contrary flexure from a main line. If super to 1 in 400 then the changed mean velocity
elevation required for branch line is 10 mm for half full flow is: (Take (0.25)2/3 = 0.4
and cant deficiency is 75 mm then the super and use Manning’s equation)
elevation to be actually provided on the (a) 3 m/s (b) 1.875 m/s
branch line will be (c) 3.75 m/s (d) 7.5 m/s
(a) –65 mm (b) +65 mm
Q.105 Consider the following statements and
(c) 85 mm (d) –85 mm
choose the correct ones.
Q.101 Switch angle is the angle between 1. Nutrient removal is carried out after
(a) the gauge face of the stock rail and secondary treatment.
tongue rail. 2. A primary sedimentation tank is not
(b) the outer face of the stock rail and required for extended aeration system.
tongue rail. 3. Presence of nitrite indicates
(c) the gauge face of the stock rail and unsatisfactory microbial activity.
outer face of the tongue rail. 4. The cross-section of a grit chamber is
(d) the outer face of the stock rail and the designed for a uniform velocity at all
gauge face of the tongue rail. flow rates.
Q.102 The capacity of a gate which is available (a) 1, 2 and 3
to all classes of aircraft as per details given (b) 1, 3 and 4
below is nearly (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Aircraft Average occpancy
Mix % Q.106 A secondary clarifier handles a flow of
Class time (min)
A 10 20 4800 m3/day from the aeration tank of an
activated-sludge system. The
B 40 30
concentration of solids in the flow from
C 50 60
the aeration tank is 3000 mg/l. The surface
(a) 0.01 aircraft per minute area of a designed clarifier for thickening
(b) 0.02 aircraft per minute the solids is 400 m2 then the solid flux is
(c) 0.03 aircraft per minute (in kg/m2/day):
(d) 0.04 aircraft per minute (a) 36 (b) 3600
(c) 3.6 (d) 360
Q.103 The difference in height between highest
high water and lowest low water is called Q.107 The average sewage flow from a city is
as: 1 m 3 /s. The average 5-day BOD is
(a) mean range 300 mg/l against a BOD5 of 86400 mg/day
(b) maximum range per capita at 25°C. The population
(c) maximum rise equivalent of the city will be
(d) mean rise (a) 300 (b) 300000
(c) 3000 (d) 30000
Q.104 A sewer has a diameter of 200 mm and
slope of 1 in 225. While running full it has Q.108 Consider the following with reference to
a mean velocity of 1 m/s. If the diameter different air pollutants and their effects:

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 Civil Engineering | Test 22 19

1. Volatile organic compounds are Which of these statements is/are incorrect?

responsible for the formation of (a) 1 only
photochemical smog. (b) 2 only
2. Isokinetic sampling of the flux gas in a (c) Both 1 and 2
chimney is done for suspended (d) Neither 1 nor 2
particulate matter.
Q.112 The load system as shown in the figure
3. Ground-level ozone is good for
moves from left to right on a girder of span
children’s growth.
20 m.
4. Leaf abscission refers to a downward
curvature of a leaf due to imbalanced 40 kN 10 kN 60 kN 30 kN
growth on the surface.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1, 4 (b) 2, 3, 4 2m 2m 4m
(c) 1, 2 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4
The maximum bending moment on the
Q.109 Fresh sludge has a moisture content of girder due to the load system is _________
98%. After sludge thickening, the moisture kNm.
content is reduced to 90%. The volume of (a) 550 (b) 865
sludge will decrease by (c) 890 (d) 927
(a) 20% (b) 40%
Q.113 Calculate the static indeterminacy of the
(c) 80% (d) 50%
framed structure shown below:
Q.110 Neglecting the axial deformation, the
kinematic indeterminacy of the rigid
jointed frame shown in the figure below
is

(a) 4 (b) 5
(a) 30 (b) 17 (c) 6 (d) 7
(c) 16 (d) 29 Q.114 Match List-I with List-II and select the
Q.111 Consider the following statements: correct answer using the codes the lists:
1. A statically indeterminate structure is List I
not economical from the material stand A. The shape of a cable suspended
point in comparison to a statically between two supports is defined by
determinate structure. B. The cable uniformly loaded along the
2. If ‘n’ redundants in a statically horizontal span takes the shape of
indeterminate structure of ‘n’ degree C. The cable uniformly loaded along its
of static indeterminacy are removed, length assumes the shape of
then the structure will become statically D. The girder in a suspension bridge
determinate but unstable. transmits to its supports

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20 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

List II due to load is shown below. If the fixing

1. A catenary moment at end B is 245.66 kNm, then the
2. A little load fixing moment at A is
3. A parabola
4. Applied loads 366.66 kNm
Codes: 345.29 kNm
A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 4 2 1 3 A C D B
2m 2m 2m
Q.115 For the rigid frame as shown in figure
below, what will be the force ‘P’ to move
the horizontal member by unit (a) 228.97 kNm
displacement? Assume modulus of (b) 219.25 kNm
elasticity as E. (c) 246.25 kNm
(d) 204.37 kNm
I=∞
P Q.118 Determine the moment reaction at the
I, l/2 I, l /2 fixed end?

10 kN
l/2 I=∞ l/2
3 kN/m
A C
B D
2l
2m 2.5 m 2.5 m

96 EI 192 EI (a) 20 kN (ACW)

(a) 3 (b)
l l3 (b) 20 kN (CW)
24 EI 48 EI (c) 10 kN (ACW)
(c) (d)
l2 l2 (d) 10 kN (CW)
Q.116 A bar AB of a pin jointed truss lying in the
x-y plane has the coordinates of A(0, 0) and Q.119 Determine the fundamental natural period
those of B(3 3, 3) in metres. Joints A and of vibration in seconds of a moment
B are displaced, the x and y components resisting steel frame building having
of displacement being (uA, vA) and (uB, vB) height 16 m and base dimension of 12 m.
as (1, 3) m and (2, 2 3) m respectively. (a) 0.48 sec (b) 0.72 sec
Determine the force induced in the bar. (c) 0.54 sec (d) 0.68 sec
AE
[Take as 200 kN/mm] Q.120 A sample of soil was tested in a laboratory
L
and it was found that void ratio of the soil
(a) 173 kN(T) (b) 173 kN(C)
sample is 1 and degree of saturation is 40%.
(c) 346 kN(T) (d) 346 kN(C)
The volume of air in 100 m3 of same soil is:
Q.117 For a fixed beam ABCD with fixed ends A (a) 30 m3 (b) 50 m3
and B, the free bending moment diagram (c) 24 m3 (d) 60 m3

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 Civil Engineering | Test 22 21

Q.121 A soil sample of volume 300 cc is saturated Q.125 What depth of coarse sand would be
and has water content of 45%. The soil is required above the soil layer of 2 m depth
dried upto its shrinkage limit i.e., 15% and to provide a factor of safety of 2 against
volume is reduced to 200 cc. The saturated piping failure, if soil layer is subjected to a
unit weight of soil at shrinkage limit is: seepage pressure of 2 m head of water?
(a) 1.92 g/cc (b) 2.08 g/cc [Take: Saturated unit weight of coarse sand
(c) 1.67 g/cc (d) 1.79 g/cc = 21 kN/m3; Saturated unit weight of soil
Q.122 A fine grained soil sample was tested in layer = 19 kN/m3; Unit weight of water
lab for test of its Atterberg’s limits and = 10 kN/m3]
results are as follows: (a) 2 m (b) 2.8 m
Liquid limit = 55% (c) 1.5 m (d) 1.81 m
Plastic limit = 30% Q.126 Consider the following statements
Shrinkage limit = 15% regarding soil compaction:
Silt content = 70% 1. Purpose of compaction is to decrease
The activity of soil is: the permeability of soil.
(a) 0.357 (b) 0.571 2. Smooth wheeled roller is useful in
(c) 1.344 (d) 0.833 compacting base course and paving
Q.123 Consider the following statements: mixture.
1. Dispersed structures are found to have 3. Deep dynamic compaction is generally
low compressibility and high not recommended for clayey soil with
permeability. high plasticity index.
2. Net charge present over octahedral unit 4. High plastic clay possesses higher
is +1. value of maximum dry density then for
3. Plasticity index is found to be minimum a poorly graded sand.
for kalonite mineral. Which of the above statements are correct?
4. Formation of capillary in soil layer is (a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
due to its cohesion. (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above
Which of above statements are incorrect?
Q.127 A 6 m clay layer is saturated upto the
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
ground level. Calculate settlement of clay
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
layer if water table lowered down by 2 m
Q.124 A soil bed consists of three horizontal due to pumping of the water. The
layers of equal thickness. The magnitude saturated and dry unit weight of clay are
of coefficient of permeability of both the 20 kN/m3 and 17 kN/m3 respectively. The
upper and lower layer is 2 × 10–4 mm/s coefficient of volume compressibility for
and for middle layer is 5 × 10–4 mm/s. What given clay is 0.5 × 10–3 m2/kN.
is the value of average permeability of soil [Take γω = 10 kN/m3]
bed in the horizontal direction? (a) 21 mm (b) 90 mm
(a) 5 × 10–4 mm/s (c) 42 mm (d) 132 mm
(b) 7 × 10–4 mm/s
(c) 3 × 10–4 mm/s Q.128 A sample of sand having friction angle of
(d) 12 × 10–4 mm/s 30° undergoes triaxial test with cell

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22 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

pressure of 150 kPa. The compressive footing of size 3 m on same soil will be
strength of given sand will be: __________ kN. [Take FOS = 3]
(a) 450 kPa (b) 600 kPa (a) 400 (b) 1200
(c) 150 kPa (d) 300 kPa (c) 900 (d) 300

Q.129 Attractive forces between clay particles are Q.132 Consider the following statements
due to regarding pile foundation:
1. Attraction between positive edge and 1. The load carrying capacity of board
negative surface in edge to face particle cast in-situ piles is considerably less
association. than that of a driven pile.
2. Short range Van-der Wall’s. 2. Negative skin friction occurs when pile
3. Presence of cementing agent such as settles more than the surrounding soil.
iron oxide, aluminium oxide, carbonate Which of the above statements are correct?
etc. (a) 1 only
4. Organic matter present in soil (b) 2 only
Which of the above statements is/are (c) Both 1 and 2
correct? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 and 2 only Q.133 The meniscus and dispersing agent
(b) 2 and 3 only corrections to hydrometer reading are,
(c) 1 and 4 only respectively
(d) All of the above (a) Positive, Positive
Q.130 Consider the following statements (b) Negative, Negative
regarding consolidation and compaction of (c) Positive, Negative
soil: (d) Negative, Positive
1. Zero air voids density can never be Direction (Q.134 to Q.150): The following items
attained in practice. consists of two statements, one labelled as
2. The structure of compacted clay soil is Statement (I) and the other labelled as
dispersed on wet side of optimum. Statement (II). You have to examine these two
3. Primary consolidation counts for entire statements carefully and select your answers to
settlement in plastic soil. these items using the codes given below:
4. A soil undergoes a reduction in volume Codes:
when the total stress increases. (a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II)
Which of the above statements are correct? are true and Statement (II) is the
(a) 1 and 2 only correct explanation of Statement (I).
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II)
(c) 3 and 4 only are true but Statement (II) is not a
(d) 2 and 4 only correct explanation of Statement (I).
Q.131 A plate load test is carried out over sandy (c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II)
soil with a circular plate of 40 cm diameter. is false.
The plate load test yields at 10 kN/m2. The (d) Statement (I) is false but Statement
allowable load carrying capacity of square (II) is true.

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 Civil Engineering | Test 22 23

Q.134 Statement (I): The shear resistance of bent Q.139 Statement (I): For the two shafts connected
up bars cannot be fully relied upon, unless in parallel, torsional stiffness of each shaft
stirrups are also provided. is same.
Statement (II): The stirrups provide Statement (II): Torsional stiffness can be
adequate development of dowel action of defined as the torque required to produce
the longitudinal bars. unit rotation of the shaft.

Q.135 Statement (I): Slab supported on beams Q.140 Statement (I): For a given discharge in a
behaves same, when compared to slab horizontal frictionless channel, two depths
supported on walls. may have the same specific force. These
Statement (II): Deflection in the supporting two depths are known as conjugate depths.
beams become significant when they have Statement (II): Specific force is the sum of
relatively large span/depth ratios and their the pressure force and momentum flux per
end connections are relatively flexible. unit weight of the fluid at a section.

Q.136 Statement (I): Partial safety factor for Q.141 Statement (I): For measuring low
concrete is applicable at all stress levels discharge, a triangular notch gives more
whereas, the partial safety factor for steel accurate result than a rectangular notch.
is applicable only near the yield stress level. Statement (II): An error of 1% in
Statement (II): In the case of concrete, the measuring H will produce 1.5% error in
stress-strain curve, is indirectly affected by discharge over a triangular notch.
changes in the compressive strength of Q.142 Statement (I): Boundary layer is a thin
concrete however, this is not the case for fluid region close to the surface of a body
steel whose modulus of elasticity is where viscous forces are negligible.
independent of the variations in the yield Statement (II): A flat plate is kept in an
strength. infinite fluid medium. The fluid has a
uniform free-stream velocity parallel to the
Q.137 Statement (I): Fatigue can occur when the
plate. For the laminar boundary layer
material undergoes a large number of
formed on the plate, pressure gradient
cycles of loading.
along the plate remains unchanged.
Statement (II): To prevent fatigue, the
stress in the material must not exceed a Q.143 Statement (I): The yield of an open well is
specified elastic limit. limited to a certain value.
Statement (II): Open well can be excavated
Q.138 Statement (I): A long thin walled only to a limited depth.
cylindrical shell, closed at both the ends,
is subjected to an internal pressure. The Q.144 Statement (I): For a given depth of cut,
ratio of hoop stress to longitudinal stress the output of a power shovel can be
developed in the shell is 0.5. increased by decreasing the angle of swing.
Statement (II): The stresses in the Statement (II): If the angle of swing is
longitudinal and circumferential directions decreased, the cycle time will be decreased.
develop when a thin cylindrical shell is Q.145 Statement (I): Higher the total number of
subjected to internal force which tries to revolutions of cylinder in abrasion test,
burst the cylinder. lower will be the abrasion value.

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24 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

Statement (II): More number of Q.148 Statement (I): The BM due to any load at
revolutions increases the weight of all sections of an arch, is less than BM at
aggregate passing through 1.7 mm size all sections of a simple beam having the
sieve. same span of arch under the same load.
Statement (II): If a parabolic three hinged
Q.146 Statement (I): Depth and width required
arch, the bending moment at any section
at the entrance of a harbour are more than
due to dead load is zero.
those required in the channel.
Statement (II): The entrance of a harbour Q.149 Statement (I): Capillary action in soil
is usually more exposed to waves as results in development of contact pressure
compared to the harbour itself. on soil solid.
Statement (II): As the result of capillary
Q.147 Statement (I): The aeration conditions are
action, water rises up and remain in
achieved by the use of diffused or
suspension in capillary formed between soil
mechanical aeration in an activated sludge
solids.
process.
Statement (II): Diffusers are provided at Q.150 Statement (I): Due to application of shear
the surface of the aeration tank and strain by any reason, dense sand results
mechanical aerators are provided at the in increment of its volume.
bottom of tank. Statement (II): Before shear strain, in
dense sand, void ratio is less than the
critical void ratio.

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