DELHI SUBORDINATE SERVICE SELECTION BOARD

DSSSB
PHARMACIST
Solved Papers
&
Practice Set
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A.K. Mahajan
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 CONTENT
SOLVED PAPERS
DSSSB PHARMACIST, 2021
Solved Paper (Exam Date : 18.11.2021)......................................................................................... 3-22
DSSSB PHARMACIST, 2019
Solved Paper (Exam Date : 04.11.2019)....................................................................................... 23-43
DSSSB PHARMACIST, 2019
Solved Paper (Exam Date : 01.11.2019)....................................................................................... 44-68
DSSSB PHARMACIST, 2017
Solved Paper .................................................................................................................................. 69-88
DSSSB PHARMACIST, 2015
Solved Paper (Exam Date : 26.04.2015)..................................................................................... 89-109

PRACTICE SET
Practice Set 1 .............................................................................................................................. 110-134
Practice Set 2 .............................................................................................................................. 135-158
Practice Set 3 .............................................................................................................................. 159-184
Practice Set 4 .............................................................................................................................. 185-209
Practice Set 5 .............................................................................................................................. 210-235
Practice Set 6 .............................................................................................................................. 236-263
Practice Set 7 .............................................................................................................................. 264-290
Practice Set 8 .............................................................................................................................. 291-317
Practice Set 9 .............................................................................................................................. 318-342
Practice Set 10 ............................................................................................................................ 343-368

Syllabus/Exam pattern
Section-A
General awareness
General intelligence & Reasoning Ability 20 marks each
(100 question = 100 marks)
Arithmetical & Numerical Ability
Hindi Language & Comprehension
English Language & Comprehension

Section-B
Post Specific Subject (Pharmacy) (100 question = 100 marks)
As per Diploma Pharmacy (PCI)

2
 DELHI SUBORDINATE SERVICES SELECTION
BOARD RECURITMENT
EXAM DATE-18-11-2021

4. Read the given statements and conclusions

General Ability carefully. Assuming that the information given
in the statements is true, even if it appears to be
1. Ramesh and Suresh are brothers. Anjali is wife at variance with commonly known facts, decide
of Ramesh. Ragini and Alok are children of which of the given conclusions logically
Vaishali, who is the wife of Suresh. How is follow(s) from the statements.
Ramesh related to Alok? Statements:
(a) Paternal Uncle (b) Maternal Uncle Some birds are lizards
(c) Cousin (d) Father-in-law Some lizards are peacocks
Conclusions:
Ans. (a) : On making blood-relation diagram :- I. Some birds are peacocks
II. Some peacocks are birds
(a) Only conclusion I folows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Both conclusions I and II follow
Hence, it is clear from above that Ramesh is paternal (d) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
uncle of Alok. Ans. (d) : On the making venn-diagram :- from given
statements -
2. Summaiya spends 60% of her monthly income
on household items, 30% of the remaining on
house rent and clothes, and saves 30% of the
remaining. If her monthly salary is `60,000,
then how much money does she save? Conclusion : (I) (×)
(II) (×)
(a) `25,200 (b) `12,000
Hence, it is clear from above that neither
(c) `8,000 (d) `5,040 conclusion I nor II is followed.
Ans. (d) : Given :- 5. Four words have been given, out of which three
Monthly salary of Summaiya = `60000 are alike in some manner and one is different.
60 Select the word that is different.
∴ Spend on household items ⇒ 60000 × = `36000 (a) Red (b) Green
100
(c) Pink (d) Blue
Remaining salary ⇒ 60000 – 36000 = `24000
Ans. (c) : According to given options, red, green and
30 blue are primary colours whereas. Pink is not primary
Spend on house rent and clothes = 24000× = `7200
100 colour. Hence, option (c) is odd one.
Remaining salary ⇒ 24000 – 7200 ⇒ 16800 6. There are zebras and parrots in a zoo. By
30 counting heads, they are a total of 90. The
∴ Required saving money ⇒16800 × ⇒ `5040 number of legs is 210. How many parrots are
100
there?
3. The number of chairs in each row of a seminar (a) 60 (b) 65
hall is equal to the total rows in the hall. After (c) 72 (d) 75
removing 121 chairs from the hall, there were Ans. (d) : Let the number of parrot be x
10,488 chairs left. How many rows of chairs ∴ Zebras (90–x)
were there in the hall? According to the question.
(a) 100 (b) 102 2x + 4 (90–x) = 210
(c) 103 (d) 104 2x + 360 – 4x = 210
Ans. (c) : Total number of chairs in the seminar hall = 2x = 150
10488 + 121 ⇒ 10609. x = 75
According to the question, Hence, number of parrots = 75
Required number of rows of chair in the hall 7. A total of 415 coins of `2 and `5 denominations
make a sum of `,550. The number of ` coins is:
= 10609 (a) 120 (b) 144
= 103 (c) 220 (d) 240
3 YCT
Ans. (d) : Let the number of `2 coins be x. 13. Select the option that can replace the question
∴ Number of ` 5 coins = (415–x) mark (?) in the following series.
According to the question. M, O, U, W, ?
2x + 5 (415–x) = 1550 (a) Z (b) B
2x + 2075 – 5x = 1550 (c) C (d) Y
3x = 2075 – 1550 Ans. (c) : The given letter series is as follows :-
3x = 525
x = 175
∴ Number of ` 5 coins = 415–175 = 240
8. Select the number set that is analogous to the
given set? Hence, ? = C
(21, 7, 126) 14. Read the below two Statements carefully and
(a) (42, 14, 294) (b) (33, 11, 196) identify which of the Conclusions are definitely
(c) (33, 11, 198) (d) (42, 16, 252) true.
Ans. (c) : Just as, (21, 7, 126) Statement:
126 + 21 147 (A) No Bed is a Room.
⇒ ⇒ 21 (B) All Lamp are Bed.
7 7 Conclusion:
Same as, from option (c)
I. No Lamp is a Room.
(33, 11, 198)
ll. All Lamps are not Rooms.
198 + 33 231
= = 21 lll. All Rooms are not Lamps.
11 11 lV. Some Lamps are Rooms.
Hence, option (c) is correct. (a) Only conclusion I follows
9. Find the missing letter in the following letter (b) Only conclusion II follows
series. (c) Neither conclusion III and conclusion II
K, I, G, E, C? follows
(a) B (b) A (d) Conclusion I, II & III follow
(c) Z (d) Y Ans. (d) : On making Venn-diagram :
Ans. (b) : The given letter series is as follows :-

Hence, ? = A
Conclusion : (I) ( ) (III) ( )
10. Which of the following words is different from (II) ( ) (IV) (×)
the rest in a certain manner?
Hence, option (d) is correct
(a) Cow (b) Goat
(c) Zebra (d) Horse 15. Read the Statement carefully and observe.
Ans. (c) : According to the given options, option (c) Statement:
zebra is different one because it is not pet animal while (A) All FLOWERS are LEAF.
other options, cow, horse and goat are pet animals. (B) All LEAF are ROOTS.
Hence, option (c) is different. Conclusion:
11. Power is to watt as Mass is to______. I. All ROOTS are FLOWERS.
(a) Balance (b) Weight II. All FLOWER are ROOTS.
(c) Kilogram (d) Item lll. Some ROOTS are FLOWERS
Ans. (c) : Just as, watt is SI unit of power. Same as, (a) Only conclusion I follows
Kilogram is SI unit of mass hence, option (c) is correct. (b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Neither conclusion I and conclusion II
12. Select the set in which the numbers are related
in the same way as the numbers of the follows
following set. (d) Both conclusions II and III follows
(a) (24, 4, 6) (b) (200, 5, 20) Ans. (d) : On making Venn diagram :
(c) (18, 3, 5) (d) (40, 20, 20)
Ans. (b) : Just as,

(16, 4, 2 ) ⇒ 2 × 4 × 2 ⇒ 16 (III × II × 2 = I)
I II III

Same as, from option (b), Conclusion : (I) (×)

( 200, 5, 20) ⇒ 20 × 5 × 2 = 200 (III × II ×2 = I)
I II III
(II) ( )
(III) ( )
Hence, option (b) is correct. Hence, option (d) both conclusions II and III follows.

4 YCT
16. Select the option that can replace question Ans. (a) : According to the question, figure (×) is embedded
mark (?) in the following series. in figure number 1. Hence option (a) is correct.
G, J, M, ? 20. Select the option that is correct for the
(a) Q (b) P bracketed terms with respect to their inclusion
(c) O (d) R in the given series.
Ans. (b) : The given letter series is as follow – 2 3 5  7  11 13 17  19 
, , , , , , , 
3 5 7  11  13 17 19  21 
(a) Both the bracketed terms are correct
(b) Both the bracketed terms are incorrect
Hence, ? = P (c) The first bracketed term is correct, and
second term is incorrect
17. Which of the following patterns can be folded (d) The first bracketed term is incorrect, and
to make the cube shown in question? second term is correct
Ans. (c) : Prime number series.

(a) (b) Hence, it is clear from above that the first bracket term
is correct and second term is incorrect.
Because here is given the sequence of prime number.

General Awareness
(c) (d)
21. Justice N.V. Ramana was on April 2021 sworn
in as the ______ Chief Justice of India (CJI).
Ans. (d) : According to the given question, option (a) 45th (b) 47th
figure (d) can be folded to make the given cube. (c) 48th (d) 50th
Hence, option (d) is correct. Ans. (c) : Justice NV Ramanna had taken oath as 48th
18. The sequence of folding a piece of paper and Chief Justice of India in April 2021. As on 1 May 2024,
the manner in which the folded paper has been The 50th CJI is Justice D.Y. Chandrachud.
cut is shown in the following figures. How 22. Who among the following was the first
would this paper look when unfolded? chairperson of the Lokpal?
(a) Shri Justice Ranjan Gogoi
(b) Shri Justice Pinaki Chandra Ghose
(c) Shri Justice Arun Mishra
(d) Shri Justice Vikram Nath
Ans. (b) : In March 2019, Shri Justice Pinaki Chandra
Ghosh was appointed as India's first Lokpal. Current
(a) (b) Chairperson of Lokpal (May 2024) is Justice A.M.
Khanwilkar. The term of office for Lokpal Chairman
and members is 5 years or till the age of 70 years.
President of India appoints lokpal based on
recommendation of selection committee.
(c) (d) 23. Who among the following launched the
POSHAN Abhiyaan that directs the attention
of the country towards the problem of
Ans. (c) : According to the question, on folding and malnutrition and address it in a mission-mode
cutting the given paper option figure (c) can be seen in 2018?
when we unfold it. (a) Shri Narendra Modi
Hence, option (c) is correct. (b) Smt. Smriti Irani
19. Select the figure (from 1, 2, 3 and 4) in which (c) Shri Ramesh Pokhriyal
the given (X) is embedded (rotation is NOT (d) Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman
allowed). Ans. (a) : POSHAN Abhiyan was launched by Prime
Minister Narendra Modi on 8th March 2017 with an
aim to achieve improvement in nutritional status of
adolescent girls, pregnant woman and lactating mothers
(a) 1 (b) 2 in a time bound manner by adopting a synergised and
(c) 3 (d) 4 result oriented approach.

5 YCT
24. Who among the following is the first Indian 29. A Tribal Health and Nutrition Portal has been
Prime Minister to preside over UNSC meeting? launched by the name of ______ by Ministry of
(a) Indira Gandhi (b) I.K Gujral Tribal Affairs in August 2020.
(c) Manmohan Singh (d) Narendra Modi (a) Swasthya (b) Alekh
Ans. (d) : PM Narendra Modi was the first Indian (c) Poshan (d) Takat
Prime Minister to Preside over the United Nations Ans. (a) : Swasthya : National Tribal Health App, a
security council meeting on August 9, 2021. The Tribal health and Nutrition Portal has been launched by
meeting was held through Video Conferencing. It was Ministry of Tribal affairs in August 2020. It aims to
eighth term of India as a non-permanent member of the facilitate the exchange of ideas, information and
UNSC. learning among stakeholders, leading to evidence based
and data driven decision making.
25. Uchhatar Avishkar Yojana (UAY) was
announced in ______, with a view to promoting 30. The Indian Air Force and the Air Force of
innovation of a higher order that directly which other country participated in the Ex
impacts the needs of the Industry and thereby Desert Knight-21 drill between January 20 to
improves the competitive edge of Indian 24 in 2021?
manufacturing. (a) USA (b) UK
(a) 2014 (b) 2015 (c) France (d) Serbia
(c) 2016 (d) 2017 Ans. (c) : Indian Air force (IAF) and French Air and
Ans. (b) : Ucchtar Avishkar Yojana, was announced by space force participated in a bilateral exercise. Ex-
Ministry of Human Resource Development in the IIT Desert knight-21 at airforce station jodhpur from 20 to
council meeting on October 6, 2015. The scheme was 24th january 2021.
applicable to the projects proposed by IIT's initially. It 31. In which year was the Defence Research and
objective was to promote innovation of a higher order Development Organization established?
that directly impacts the needs of the industry and (a) 1947 (b) 1952
thereby improving the competitive edge of Indian (c) 1956 (d) 1958
manufacturing. Ans. (d) : Defence Research and Development
26. Which Indian scientist introduced Sixth Sense organization was established in 1958. If functions under
– wearable gestural computing technology to ministry of defence, having headquarter in New Delhi.
the world in 2009? Currently (may 2024) Mr. Sameer Y. Kamat is its
(a) Pranav Mistry (b) Shinjini Kundu chairman.
(c) Dinesh Bharadia (d) Jagdish Chaturvedi 32. Which one of the following is an indigenously
Ans. (a) : Pranav Mistry introduced sixth sense- developed rocket launched from a Multi-Barrel
wearable gestural computing technology to the world in Rocket Launcher (MBRL)?
2009. Sixth sense is a 'wearable gestural' interface that (a) NAITIKA ROCKET (b) PINAKA ROCKET
augments the physical world around us with digital (c) PITARA ROCKET (d) SHAKTI ROCKET
information and its us use natural hand gestures to Ans. (b) : PINAKA rocket is an Indigenously
interact with that information. developed rocket launched from a Multi-Barrel Rocket
Launcher (MBRL). It has been developed by DRDO for
27. Who among the following has been honoured
the Indian army. The system has a maximum range of
with the Scientific and Engineering Academy
40 km for mark-1 and 60 km for mark-1 enchanced
Award at the Oscars Scientific and Technical
version.
Awards 2018 at Beverly Hills in Los Angeles,
California? 33. The ______ was India's first indigenously
(a) Shiva Ayyadurai developed ballistic missile produced by the
(b) Vikas Sathaye Integrated Guided Missile Development
(c) Anil Kakodkar Program (IGMDP).
(d) Subramaniam Ramadorai (a) Prithvi (b) Agni
(c) Akash (d) Vayu
Ans. (b) : Vikas Sathaye has been honoured with the
scientific and engineering Academy award at the Oscars Ans. (a) : The Prithvi was India's first indigenously
scientific and technical awards 2018 at beverly Hills, in developed ballistic missile produced by the integrated
guided missile development program (IGMDP). It a
Los Angeles, California.
tactical surface to surface short range missile, which is
28. Which district among the following had the deployed by India's range strategic forces command.
highest average literacy rate as per the Census 34. India's first indigenous ______ is, IAC-1.
2011? (a) Aircraft carrier (b) Rocket Launcher
(a) Champhai (b) Mahe (c) Missile Launcher (d) Nuclear Warhead
(c) Kottayam (d) Serchhip Ans. (a) : India's first indigenous Aircraft carrier is
Ans. (d) : Serchhip district, in the Indian state of IAC-1, INS vikrant was the first aircraft carrier to even
Mizoram had the highest average literacy rate as per the guace the arsenal of the Indian Navy. IAC stands for
census 2011. Indirect aircraft carrier.
6 YCT
35. As per Hindu Calendar ‘Hemant Ritu’ will fall Arithmetic Ability
in which period?
(a) January-March
41. While calculating the average marks of 40
(b) Mid July-September students of a class, marks of three students who
(c) Mid October-December actually scored 18 marks were noted as 28 by
(d) April-June mistake. After correcting the error, the average
Ans. (c) : As per Hindi calender, 'Hemant Ritu' falls in of marks will reduce by.
mid october-December. (a) 0.9 (b) 0.75
36. Which one of the following state is located in (c) 0.6 (d) 0.25
the Western Himalayas? Ans. (b) :
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Nagaland Let, Average marks of 40 students be x.
(c) Uttarakhand (d) Mizoram Total marks of 40 students = 40 x.
Ans. (c) : The state of uttarakhand is located in western According to the question,
himalayas. Its winter capital is dehradun and summer Actual marks scored by three students = 3 × 18 = 54
Mistake marks scored by three students = 28 × 3 = 84
capital is Bhararisain. The highcourt of the state is
Marks reduced = 40x + 84 – 54 – 40x = 30
located in Nainital. It was formed on 9 november 2000
after being bifurcated from uttar pradesh. 30
∴ Average marks reduced =
37. In which state will you find the rivers Lahen, 40
Lachung, Rangit and Rangpo? = 0.75
(a) Sikkim (b) Jharkhand 42. Find the single discount equivalent to series of
(c) Assam (d) Chhattisgarh discounts of 10%, 15% and 18%.
Ans. (a) : River Lahen, Lacheeng, Rangit and Rangpo (a) 62.73% (b) 43%
are found to be flowing in sikkim. The teesta River is (c) 37.27% (d) 14.33%
largest River of Sikkim. Ans. (c) : Given,
D1 = 10% D2 = 15% D3 = 18%
38. In which year was the first census of
Single equivalent discount % of 10% and 15%
independent India done?
(a) 1947 (b) 1949 DD
= D1 + D2 – 1 2
(c) 1951 (d) 1954 100
Ans. (c) : The first census of Independent India was 10 × 15
= 10 + 15 -
carried out in 1951. Total population of India after 100
enumeration in 1951 was 36.1 crore. R.A. Gopalaswami = 25 – 1.5 = 23.5%
was the commissioner of the census. Single equivalent discount % of 23.5 and 18%
39. As per ‘Household Social Consumption: 23.5 ×18
= 23.5 + 18 –
Education in India as part of the 75th round of 100
National Sample Survey – from July 2017 to = 41.5 – 4.23
June 2018’ ______ is the most literate state in = 37.27%
India. Hence, Single equivalent discount of 10%, 15% and
(a) Goa (b) Sikkim 18% is 37.25%
(c) Mizoram (d) Kerala 43. The marked price of an article is `5200. Two
Ans. (d) : As per household social consumption : successive discounts of 10% and 20% are
Education in India as part of the 75th round of national offered on it due to season end. At what price is
sample survey from july 2017 to june 2018, kerala was the article available to customers?
the most literate state in India. (a) `3690 (b) `3744
40. Where in India was the headquarters of The (c) `3750 (d) `3875
Theosophical Society established in India in the Ans. (b) : Given-
year 1882? Marked Price (Mp) = ` 5200
(a) Calcutta (b) Madras D1 = 10%
(c) Lucknow (d) Delhi D2 = 20%
Ans. (b) : In 1882, the headquarters of the Selling price (SP) = ?
Theosophical society was established in Adyan near  100 − D1   100 − D 2 
Madras in India. The Theosophical society was founded
∴ SP = MP  × 
 100   100 
by Madame Blavatsky and Col. olcott in 1875 in
 100 − 10   100 − 20 
newyork. Annie Besant was the second president of = 5200 ×  × 
Theosophical society of India.  100   100 

7 YCT
 90 80 = 83% – 79% = 4%
= 5200 × × ∵ 4% = 32
100 100
32
= ` 3744 ∴ 100% = ×100 = 800
Hence, at ` 3744 article is available to customers. 4
44. A shopkeeper offers a discount of 12% on a TV Hence, The maximum marks in examination = 800
and sells it for `61600. What is the marked 48. A shopkeeper sold an item for `56 at a profit
price (in Rs) of the TV? percent equal to the cost price. What is the cost
(a) 68500 (b) 69000 price?
(c) 70000 (d) 72500 (a) `38 (b) `40
Ans. (c) : (c) `38.5 (d) `42
Let the Marked Price (MP) of TV = `x Ans. (b) : Let the cost price of item = `x
Given- Selling Price (SP) of TV = `61600  x  x
2

Discount (D) = 12% ∵ profit = x ×  =

 100  100
SP ×100
∴ MP = ∴ Selling price = CP + Profit
(100 − D ) x2
61600 × 100 56 = x +
MP = 100
(100 − 12 ) 5600 = x2 + 100x
61600 × 100 x2 + 100x – 5600 = 0
= x2 + 140 – 40x – 5600 = 0
88 x (x + 140) – 40 (x + 140) = 0
= ` 70000 (x – 40) (x + 140) = 0
Hence, Marked Price of TV = ` 70000 x = 40
45. A and B scored 440 and 520 marks respectively Hence, cost price (cp) of an item = `40
in an examination. If A scores 55% marks, find
49. A shopkeeper sells two pen drives for `1140.
the percentage of marks scored by B.
(a) 65% (b) 64.5% The cost price of the first is equal to the selling
price of the second pen drive. If he sells the
(c) 64% (d) 62%
first pen drive at 10% loss and the second pen
Ans. (a) : Let the total mark be 100% drive at 20% gain, then what is his gain or loss
Mark scored by A = 440 percent? (Correct to one decimal place)
∵ 440 = 55% (a) 3.2% profit (b) 3.5% profit
55 (c) 3.6% profit (d) 3.5% loss
∴ 520 = × 520
440 Ans. (c) : Given that –
= 65% cp of Ist pendrives = SP of IInd pendrives
Hence, B scored = 65% Let the SP of first pendrive = `x
46. Anita scored 72% marks out of 600 marks in x × 100
an examination. She scored 42 marks more = 1140 − x
than shailja. Find the percentage of marks 90
scored by Shailja. 10x = 10260 – 9x
(a) 60% (b) 62.5% 19x = 10260
(c) 65% (d) 66% x = `540
Ans. (c) : According to the question – 100
cp of Ist pendrive = 540 × = `600
600 × 72 90
Marks scored by Anita = = 432
100 1140 − 540 600
cp of IInd pendrive = ×100 = ×100
Marks scored by shailja = 432 – 42 = 390 120 120
390 = 500
Required percentage = ×100 = 65% Total cp = 600 + 500 = ` 1100
600
Hence Shailja scored 65% marks in examination Profit = 1140 – 1100 = ` 40
47. Abhay scored 79% marks and Joseph scored 40
Profit % = × 100
83% marks in an examination. If difference in 1100
their marks is 32, then what are the maximum = 3.6%
marks of the examination? 50. Rahul calculates his profit on the cost price
(a) 750 (b) 800 whereas Sushil calculates it on the selling price.
(c) 850 (d) 900 They find that the difference in their profits is
Ans. (b) : According to the question, `80. The selling prices of both of them are the
Let the maximum marks in examination = 100% same and both of them get 20% profit. Find
Difference in % marks of Abhay and Joseph their selling price.
8 YCT
 (a) `2200 (b) `2250 3x 2 8y
(c) `2275 (d) `2400 = ⇒x=
4y 3 9
Ans. (d) : Let the selling price = `S
Total income of present year = `59136
Let the cost price of Rahul = `C1
4x + 5y = 59136
Let the cost price of Sushil = `C2
8y
S − C2 4 × + 5y = 59136
Profit of Sushil = 20% = ×100 9
S y = `6912
1 S − C2 5
⇒ = = C2 = S − Present income of A = 4x = 4 ×
8y
5 S S 9
4S 8
C2 = = 4 × × 6912
5 9
S−G = `24576
Profit of Rahul = 20% = ×100
C1 Hence, option (b) is correct answer.
C 5S 53. Ratio of acid and water in solution A is 2:3 and
= 1 = S – C1 ⇒ C1 = that in solution B is 4:5. In what ratio the two
5 6
solutions are mixed so that the new solution has
Difference = (S – C2) – (S – C1) = `80 acid and water in the ratio 3:4?
 4S   5S  (a) 5:8 (b) 1:2
=  S −  −  S −  = ` 80
 S   6  (c) 5:9 (d) 2:5
S S Ans. (c) : Given that,
= – = `80 Solution ‘A’ Solution ‘B’
5 6
6S − 5S
= = `80
30
S = ` 2400
Hence selling price will be `2400
51. A certain sum of money is divided among A, B
and C such that for each 100 rupees of A, B has
60 rupees and C has 25 rupees. If C's share is
`280, then find the sum of money.
(a) `2000 (b) `2050
(c) `2060 (d) `2072 Hence the two solution are mixed in ratio 5 : 9.
Ans. (d) : Given that 54. A and B can do a piece of work in 9 and 12
Ratio = 100 : 60 : 25 days respectively. How many days will they do?
= 20 : 12 : 5 ⇒ 20x : 12x : 5x (let) if they both work together?
According to the question, 1
C's share = 5x = 280 (a) 5 (b) 5
7
x = ` 56
A's share = 20x = 56 × 20 = ` 1120 1 3
(c) 5 (d) 5
B's share = 12x = 56 × 12 = 672 2 4
Sum of money = 280 + 672 + 1120 = `2072 Ans. (b) : According to question
Hence, sum of money is ` 2072
52. The ratio of income of A and B last year was
2:3 Ratios of their respective income of last
year and this year are 3:4 and 4:5 respectively.
If the sum of their present incomes is `59136, Total efficiency = (4 + 3) unit
then find the present income of A. 36 1
Total days = = 5 days
(a) `24000 (b) `24576 7 7
(c) `25000 (d) `25750
1
Ans. (b) : Let the ratio of the incomes of A and B last Hence, A and B together can do the work in 5 days .
year was = 2 : 3……(i) 7
The ratio of income of A the last year to the present 55. A, B and C are three pipes connected to a
year is = 3x : 4x ………..(ii) water tank. Pipes A and B together can fill the
The ratio of income of B the last year to the present tank in 12 hours. Pipes B and C together can
year is = 4y : 5y………..(iii) fill the tank in 15 hours. If pipes A and C
According to question– together can fill the tank in 20 hours, them in
3x : 4y = 2 : 3 how much time will pipe C alone fill the tank?
9 YCT
 (a) 55 hours 58. Two persons are walking in the same direction
(b) 58 hours 30 minutes at the speed of 3 km/h and 5 km/h respectively.
(c) 59 hours 45 minutes If a train moving in the same direction
(d) 60 hours overtakes them in 20 and 21 seconds
Ans. (d) : Given that, respectively, then find the length of the train
(in m).
1
(a) 220 (b) 220
2
Efficiency of (A + B + C) = 6 1
(c) 225 (d) 233
Efficiency of C = (A + B + C) – (A + B) 3
= 6 – 5 = 1 unit
Ans. (d) : Let the speed of train is x km/h and length is
60 L.
So, C can fill the tank = = 60hours
1 According to question,
So, option (d) is correct answer. 5 5
56. Two persons A and B undertake to do a piece (x–3) × 20 × = (x–5) × 21 ×
18 18
of work for `4900. A alone can do it in 8 days 20x – 60 = 21x – 105
while B alone can do it in 10 days. With the x = 45 km/h
assistance of another person C they finished Then length of train
the work in A days. What is the share of B?
5
(a) `1920 (b) `1950 = (45–3) × 20 ×
(c) `1960 (d) `1975 18
5
Ans. (c) : Given that, = 42 × 20 ×
18
700
= m.
3
1
= 233 m.
We know that wages is divided on the basis of 3
efficiency. So, option (d) is correct answer.
4 59. A boat covers 32 km upstream and 36 km
Share of B = × 4900
10 downstream in 7 hours, while it covers 48 km
= `1960 upstream and 24 km downstream in 8 hours.
So, option (c) is correct answer. Find the speed of the boat in still water (in
57. 9 men and 18 women can do a work in 6 days. km/h).
36 men and 12 women can do the same work in (a) 8 (b) 9.2
3 days. How many days are required for 15 (c) 10 (d) 10.5
men and 25 women to do the same work? Ans. (c) : Given that,
1 32 36
(a) 3 (b) 4 + = 7 --------- (i)
2 U D
1 48 24
(c) 4 (d) 5 and + = 8 ----- (ii)
3 U D
Ans. (b) : According to question – Here U = Upstream = U–V
(9 M + 18F) × 6 = (36 M + 12 F) × 3 D = Down stream = U + V
4 By (i) and (ii)
1M = F . U = 8 km/h
3
D = 12 km/h.
MDH M D H
We know that, 1 1 1 = 2 2 2 Speed of boat = U + D = (U–V) + (U + V)
W1 W2
= 2U = 20
 4   4  U = 10 Km/h
 36 × + 12  × 3 = 15 × + 25  D 2
 3   3  So, speed of boat is 10 km/h.
60 × 3 = 45 × D2 60. The value of (4.5 × 4.5 × 4.5 × 4.5) ÷ 225 ÷ 25 +
D2 = 4 days 53 is:
So, 15 men and 25 women can do this work in 4 (a) 128.0528 (b) 125.0729
days. (c) 124.0829 (d) 125.0739

10 YCT
Ans. (b) : Given that, Correct sentences –
(4.5 × 4.5 × 4.5 × 4.5) ÷ 225 ÷ 25 + 53 With good teaching, dyslexics can eventually learn to
read, but they often read more slowly than others.
410.0625
= + 125 65. Choose the correct meaning of the following
225 × 25 idiom from the options given below:
= 125.0729 Close fisted
So, option (b) is correct answer. (a) Miser (b) Spendthrift
(c) Generous (d) Powerful
General English Ans. (a) : The meaning of given Idiom, 'closefisted'
(unwilling to part with money) is expressed by option
61. Fill in the blank using the correct option. In (a) miser (A person who hates to spend money).
case no article is needed, select option No Meaning of other options are-
Article. Spendthrift - Spending money carelessly
I was born in ______ state of Uttarakhand in Generous- Happy to give more money than is usual as
north India. expected
(a) a (b) an 66. Choose the correct one word substitution of the
(c) the (d) No Article given sentence from the options given below:
Ans. (c) : In the blank provided, Article 'the' is A woman's handbag in earlier days was called
appropriate to be used. Definite article, 'the' is used with as ______.
any common noun when the meaning is specific. (a) Holdall (b) Reticule
Ex- The USA, The UK, The UAE. (c) Backpack (d) Wallet
Correct sentence – I was born in the state of Ans. (b) : The one word substitution for the given
Uttarakhand in north India. sentence A woman's handbag in earlier days was called
62. Fill in the blank using the correct option. In as option (b) reticule - (A women's small bag or purse).
case no article is needed, select option No Meaning of other option are –
Article. Holdall - A large bag that is used for carrying clothes
We dressed the little girl as ______ Indian Backpack- A large bag, often on a metal frame, that you
gypsy. carry on your back while travelling.
(a) a (b) an 67. Read the following sentence and identify the
(c) the (d) No Article part that has an error.
Ans. (b) : In the given blank option (b) article 'an will She spoke /so soft/ that we could / hardly hear
be used. Because with words starting with vowel article her.
'an' is used. (a) She spoke (b) So soft
Correct sentence – We dressed the little girl as an (c) That we could (d) Hardly hear her
Indian gypsy.
Ans. (b) : In the given sentence, option (b) so soft, need
63. Fill in the blank using the correct option. In to be replaced with softly (Adverb). Spoke is a verb and
case no article is needed, select option No softly is the adverb. Softly describes the action of the
Article. lady, how the lady spoke.
My folding umbrella couldn’t shield me from Correct sentence – She spoke so softly that we could
______ heavy downpour hardly hear her.
(a) a (b) an
68. Read the following sentence and identify the
(c) the (d) No Article
part that has an error.
Ans. (c) : option (c) definite article (the) is used to refer Anu said to her mother, / “Please don’t buy/
to specific things (The heavy downpour). the expensive bags, /buy the cheaper one’s.”
'The' is also used to say something about a noun (a) Anu said to her mother
(umbrella) here. (b) Please don’t buy
Correct sentence – (c) the expensive bags
My folding umbrella couldn't shield me from the heavy (d) buy the cheaper one’s
downpour
Ans. (d) : Error lies in part (d) of the sentence. Where
64. The following text contains four underlined
words or phrases. One is incorrect. Choose the in place of buy the cheaper one’s, the structure would
incorrect option. be, ‘buy the cheaper one’. Because phrase cheaper one
With good teaching, dyslexics can eventually is used when you wish to distinguish one item from
learn to read, but they often read more slowly another based on its cost.
then others. Correct sentence
(a) dyslexics (b) eventually Anu said to her mother, “Please don’t buy the expensive
(c) often (d) then bags, buy the cheaper one.
Ans. (d) : Among all underlined words or phrases, 69. Identify the segment in the sentence, which
option (d) then is incorrect. Because with 'more' contains the grammatical error.
structure ‘than’ is used in comparative sentences. I do not/ like to laugh/ above his/ silly jokes.

11 YCT
 (a) I do not (b) Like to laugh Schedule - A plan of things that must be done
(c) Above his (d) Silly jokes Time table - A schedule showing time
Ans. (c) : Part (c) of the sentence contains error. Here States - The position of someone or something.
preposition 'at' will be used instead of 'above'. Laugh at 74. Choose the correct ANTONYM of the given
is an example of fixed preposition. word.
Correct sentence – I do not like to laugh at his silly FOOLISH
jokes. (a) Wise (b) Absurd
70. Identify the segment in the sentence, which (c) Graceful (d) Simple
contains the grammatical error. Ans. (a) : The correct antonym of the given word
Although it was/ very cold outside / even we foolish- (silly, not sensible) would be option (a) wise -
went/ for a walk. (Having the knowledge to make good decisions)
(a) Although it was (b) Very cold outside Meaning possessed by other words in the given options-
(c) Even we went (d) For a walk Absurd - inappropriate
Ans. (c) : Part (c) even we went is erroneous. Here even Graceful - showing elegance
will be removed. Because it is an example of complex Simple- Easy to understand, do, use.
sentence, which consists of an independent clause "We
went for a walk" and dependent clause" Although it was 75. Select the word which is closest in meaning to
very cold outside. the word given below:
Correct sentence – Although it was very cold outside, Recondite
we went for a walk. (a) Conspicuous (b) Concealed
71. Select the meaning of the underlined idiom in (c) Palpable (d) Responsible
the given sentence. Ans. (b) : Option (b) concealed- (Not allowed to be
What the speaker said was all stuff and seen or known) will be closest in meaning to the given
nonsense. word Recondite - (Little known, Abstruse)
(a) Absurd (b) Effective Meaning of other options are-
(c) Relevant (d) Impressive Conspicuous- clearly visible
Ans. (a) : The meaning of given idiom, "stuff and Palpable - So intense as to seem almost tangible
nonsense'- (Utter foolishness) is expressed by option (a) Responsible - Having an obligation to do something
absurd - (wildly unreasonable/illogical). other options Question Numbers : (76 to 80)
contain different meaning. In the following passage some words have been
72. Fill in the blank with the most appropriate deleted. Fill in the blanks with the most
idiom. The meaning of the idiom is given in suitable option. Choose the most appropriate
brackets for guidance. option for each number.
The detective didn’t realize that he was ______ The government has plans to set up a mobile
(making a mistake) the wrong tree by falling phone manufacturing company in my town. It
prey to the wrong version of the story. will (1)______ as many as 2000 jobs across the
(a) Climbing down (b) Barking up country. The company (2)______ is due to start
(c) Barking down (d) Climbing up production early next year will (3)______
Ans. (b) : Option (b) barking up the wrong tree - (To employment to 1500 people in its factory.
follow the wrong course, committing mistake) would be Later, when the company begins operations in
the most appropriate idiom to be used in the given other (4)______ of the country, there will be
blank. As it provides exact grammatical sense to the more employment (5)______ for young people.
sentence. 76. Choose the most appropriate option to fill
Correct sentence – The detective did not realize that he blank no. 1.
was barking up the wrong tree by falling prey to the (a) Create (b) Make
wrong version of the story. (c) Start (d) Discover
73. Select the one-word substitute for the Ans. (a) : Option (a) create- (To cause something new
underlined group of words in the given
to exist) will be the most appropriate option for the
sentence.
blank No. 1. As the given sentence talks about 'Job
Today’s board meeting was going to be a long
creation' through establishment of mobile
one. I saw the secretary placing a long list of
manufacturing company. Other options give different
items to be discussed during the meeting on his
table. meaning.
(a) Agenda (b) Schedule 77. Choose the most appropriate option to fill
(c) Timetable (d) Status blank no. 2.
Ans. (a) : The correct one word substitution for the (a) Who (b) Which
underlined group of words 'list of items to be discussed' (c) What (d) Where
will be option (a) Agenda - (outline of things to be Ans. (b) : Option (b) 'which' will be appropriate for the
considered) blank No.-2. Because which (Pronoun is used to
Meaning of other options are- represent a specified antecedent (company).

12 YCT
78. Choose the most appropriate option to fill 84. JeÛeve keâer Âef° mes keâewve mee JeekeäÙe DeMegæ nw?
blank no. 3. (a) nj Skeâ kegâDeeB ceer"s peue keâe veneR neslee~
(a) Contribute (b) Serve
(c) Arrange (d) Provide (b) Deehekeâe oMe&ve ngDee~
Ans. (d) : Option (d) provide- (make available/give) is (c) Gvekesâ neW" Kegues~
the most appropriate option for the blank no. 3. Because (d) DeeBKe mes DeeBmet efvekeâues~
the given sentence talks about the prospect of giving Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW ‘Deehekeâe oMe&ve ngDee~’ JeÛeve keâer
employment to 1500 people.
Âef° mes DeMegæ nw~ Fmekeâe Megæ ™he Fme Øekeâej nesiee-
79. Choose the most appropriate option to fill
blank no. 4. Deehekesâ oMe&ve ngS~’OÙeeleJÙe nw efkeâ oMe&ve, DeeBmet, nesMe, nmlee#ej,
(a) Units (b) Parts ØeeCe Ùes meYeer efvelÙe yengJeÛeve Meyo nQ~
(c) Models (d) Divisions 85. efkeâme efJekeâuhe kesâ meYeer Meyo heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer nw?
Ans. (b) : Option (b) parts (one of the pieces, areas that (a) levegpe, hebef[le, Oeje (b) Deiece, ceerve, jcÙe
together with other forms the whole of something) will
(c) meeiej, Oeve, le® (d) leveÙe, megle, yesše
be the most appropriate option for the blank no. 4. As
the given sentence talks about opening/starting its Ans. (d) : efJekeâuhe (d) ceW efoÙes ieÙes Meyo leveÙe, megle, yesše meYeer
operation/factory in other areas of the country. Meyo heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer nQ~ Ùes meYeer heg$e kesâ heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Meyo nQ~
80. Choose the most appropriate option to fill 86. GòeejeÙeCe keâe efJeueesce Meyo nesiee-
blank no. 5.
(a) Courses (b) Moments (a) Gòejkeâe (b) peJeeye
(c) Opportunities (d) Connections (c) oef#eCeeÙeve (d) heef§ecekeâe
Ans. (c) : Option (c) opprotunities (A chance to do/get Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW ‘GòejeÙeCe’ keâe efJeueesce Meyo
something that you would like to do/get) will be the ‘oef#eCeeÙeve’ nesiee~ DevÙe efJekeâuhe Demebiele nQ~
most apposite option for the given blank.
Because the sentence discusses the chances of giving
87. efvecve ceW mes efkeâme cegneJejs keâe DeLe& ‘efJeJeskeâ Yeü° nesvee’
jobs to young people in the country. nw~
(a) DebOee yevevee (b) DebOee yeveevee
General Hindi (c) DebOee nesvee (d) DebOee efoKevee
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW ‘DebOee nesvee’ cegneJejs keâe DeLe&
81. mecyeesOeve keâejkeâ SkeâJeÛeve ‘ns osJeer’ keâe mener yengJeÛeve
‘efJeJeskeâ Yeü° nesvee’ nw~
nesiee-
JeekeäÙe ØeÙeesie- jeJeCe Deheves Denbkeâej ceW Flevee DebOee nes ieÙee efkeâ
(a) ns osefJeÙees (b) ns osefJeÙeeW
mJeÙeb YeieJeeve jece mes ogMceveer ues efueÙee~
(c) ns osefJeDees (d) ns osefJeDeeW
88. cenlJehetCe& keâLeve, keâneJele, mebefOe Deeefo keâes GodOe=le
Ans. (b) : mecyeesOeve keâejkeâ Skeâ JeÛeve ‘ns osJeer’ keâe mener yengJeÛeve
keâjves ceW efkeâme efJejece efÛeÜ keâe ØeÙeesie neslee nw?
™he nesiee- ns osefJeÙeeW~
(a) Fkeânje GæjCe efÛeÜ
Dele: efJekeâuhe (b) mener Gòej nesiee~
(b) ognje GæjCe efÛeÜ
82. ‘megjsMe ves Skeâ iepe keâheÌ[e Kejeroe~’ JeekeäÙe kesâ jsKeebefkeâle
(c) ØeMveJeeÛekeâ efÛeÜ
DebMe keâes efkeâme efJekeâuhe mes ØemLeeefhele efkeâÙee pee mekeâlee nw?
(d) efJemceÙeeefoyeesOekeâ efÛeÖ
(a) iepe lekeâ (b) iepe Yej
Ans. (b) : cenòJehetCe& keâLeve, keâneJele, mebefOe Deeefo keâes Gæ=le keâjves
(c) iepe Yeje (d) hetje iepe
ceW ognje GæjCe efÛeÖ keâe ØeÙeesie neslee nw~
Ans. (b) : ‘megjsMe ves Skeâ iepe keâheÌ[e Kejeroe~’ JeekeäÙe kesâ jsKeebefkeâle
DebMe keâes ‘iepeYej’ Meyo mes ØemLeeefhele efkeâÙee pee mekeâlee nw~ Dele: hetCe& GoenjCe- ‘‘keâyeerj JeeCeer kesâ ef[keäšsšj Les~’’ GheÙeg&òeâ GoenjCe ceW
JeekeäÙe Fme Øekeâej nesiee- efoÙee JeekeäÙe ‘npeejer Øemeeo efÉJesoer’ keâe keâLeve nw~
‘megjsMe ves iepeYej keâheÌ[e Kejeroe~’ 89. efvecveefueefKele ceW keâewve-mee JeekeäÙe efve§eÙeeLe&keâ Je=efòe keâe
83. efvecveefueefKele ceW mes keâewve mee JeekeäÙe ‘SkeâJeÛeve’ keâe nw? GoenjCe nw-
(a) nefj legcnejs ceecee nQ~ (a) jekesâMe efJeÅeeueÙe peelee nw~
(b) Øesce Deewj nefj legcnejs ceecee nQ~ (b) legce ÙeneR yew"s jnes~
(c) mketâue kesâ Deveskeâ oelee nw~ (c) Jen veoer heej keâj mekeâlee nw~
(d) meeOeg DeeS nQ~ (d) Ùegæ nesj ne nesiee~
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW ‘nefj legcnejs ceecee nQ~’ Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW ‘jekesâMe efJeÅeeueÙe peelee nw~’ Ùen
SkeâJeÛeve keâe JeekeäÙe nw~ SkeâJeÛeve MeyoeW keâes Deeoj Ùee mecceeve keâer JeekeäÙe efve§eÙeeLe&keâ Je=efòe keâe JeekeäÙe nw~ ‘ef›eâÙee kesâ efpeme ™he mes keâeÙe&
Øeke=âefle ceW yengJeÛeve kesâ ™he ceW ØeÙeesie neslee nw~ kesâ nesves Ùee ve nesves keâe DeLe& efveef§ele ™he mes Øekeâš nes, JeneB
GoenjCe- efhelee peer yeepeej ieÙes nQ~ efve§eÙeeLe&keâ Je=efòe neslee nw~’
13 YCT
90. efnboer ceW ef›eâÙeeDeeW kesâ kegâue efkeâleves DeLe& nesles nQ? Question Numbers : (96 to 100)
(a) leerve (b) Ûeej Ghejesòeâ ieÅeebMe keâe DeYÙeeme keâjs Deewj veerÛes efoS ieS
(c) heeBÛe (d) Ú: ØeMve kesâ Gòej os~
Ans. (*) : keâeÙe& keâe keâjvee Ùee nesvee ef›eâÙee keânueelee nw~ keâce& kesâ peerJeve keâe GösMÙe Skeâ jnmÙe nw~ Jen keâef"ve pe™j nw
DeeOeej hej ef›eâÙee oes Øekeâej keâer nesleer nw~ efHeâj Yeer Ssmee veneR nw efkeâ Gmes peevee ner ve pee mekesâ~
1. mekeâce&keâ ef›eâÙee 2. Dekeâce&keâ ef›eâÙee ueieeleej Fme hej meesÛeles jnves mes Fmekesâ YesoeW mes heoe& G"e
jÛevee kesâ DeeOeej hej ef›eâÙee kesâ heeBÛe Yeso nesles nQ- Yeer nw~ DeeOegefvekeâ Ùegie ceW DelÙeble met#ce leLee Jew%eeefvekeâ
1. meeceevÙe ef›eâÙee 2. mebÙegòeâ ef›eâÙee 3. veeceOeeleg ef›eâÙee Deekeâueve mes yeves GhekeâjCe meÛecegÛe efJeue#eCe nQ~
4. ØesjCeeLe&keâ ef›eâÙee 5. hetCe&keâeefuekeâ ef›eâÙee YeeweflekeâMeeŒe kesâ ØeÛegj DeeefJe<keâej nceW Gve efJeÕemeveerÙe
91. ‘efveÙeb$eCe jKevee’ DeLe& kesâ efueS meJee&efOekeâ GheÙegòeâ GheeÙeeW keâe mhe° DeeYeeme os jns nQ, efpeve mes peerJeve keâes
cegneJeje nw- GVele yeveeÙee pee mekeâlee nw~ uesefkeâve meejs GhekeâjCeeW,
(a) DebkegâMe jKevee (b) TBieueer hej veÛeevee jCeefveefleÙeeW leLee KeespeeW kesâ yeeJepeto Ssmee ueielee nw efkeâ
(c) ieeB" yeebOevee (d) šeBie DeÌ[evee nce DeYeer Yeer efveÙeefle kesâ neLe keâe efKeueewvee ner nQ~ nce
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW ‘DebkegâMe jKevee’ cegneJeje ‘efveÙeb$eCe Deheveer efveÙeefle leÙe veneR keâj heeles~ Øeke=âefle nce hej neJeer
jKevee’ DeLe& kesâ efueÙes meJee&efOekeâ GheÙegòeâ cegneJeje nw~ Dele: efJekeâuhe nw~ nce Gmekesâ Deeies DemeneÙe cenmetme keâjles nQ~ nceW Øeke=âefle
(a) mener nw~ kesâ ØeYeglJe mes cegefòeâ heeveer ner ÛeeefnS Deewj Gmes heeves kesâ
92. ‘DeJeOetle’ keâe meceeveeLeea Meyo keâewve mee nw? efueS nceW Skeâ uebyeer Ùee$ee leÙe keâjveer nesieer~
(a) peerJeveheefle (b) peveeo&ve 96. Fme ieÅeebMe keâe GheÙegòeâ Meer<e&keâ keäÙee nesiee?
(c) ve=he (d) cegefve (a) peerJeve keâer jCeveerefle (b) efveÙeefle keâe Kesue
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW ‘DeJeOetle’ keâe meceeveeLeea Meyo (c) peerJeve keâe jnmÙe (d) Øeke=âefle keâe ØeYeeJe
‘cegefve’ nw~
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes ieÅeebMe keâe GheÙegòeâ Meer<e&keâ ‘peerJeve keâe jnmÙe’
‘DeJeOetle’ kesâ DevÙe meceeveeLeea Meyo- cenelcee, meeOeg, efJejòeâ, mebvÙeemeer
nesiee~
Deeefo nQ~
97. ‘efveÙeefle kesâ neLe keâe efKeueewvee’-Fmekeâe keäÙee leelheÙe& nw?
93. DeejbYeÅeeslekeâ he#e keâe GoenjCe nw-
(a) YeeiÙe keâe Kesue
(a) YeerÌ[ yeÌ{leer pee jner nw
(b) nce heÌ{ Ûegkesâ nQ~ (b) Øeke=âefle kesâ Deeies DemeneÙe cenmetme keâjvee
(c) Deye Jen heÌ{ves ueiee nw~ (c) efveÙeefle kesâ neLe efyekeâ peevee
(d) Gme meceÙe jepesMe yengle jes jne Lee~ (d) Øeke=âefle keâes Dehevee oeme yeveevee
Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW ‘Deye Jen heÌ{ves ueiee nw~’ Ans. (b) : ‘efveÙeefle kesâ neLe keâe efKeueewvee’ mes leelheÙe& nw-Øeke=âefle kesâ
DeejbYeÅeeslekeâ he#e keâe GoenjCe nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ efJeJejCe Fme Deeies DemeneÙe cenmetme keâjvee~ Dele: efJekeâuhe (b) mener Gòej nw~
Øekeâej nQ- YeerÌ[ yeÌ{leer pee jner nw- efvelÙelee yeesOekeâ~ nce heÌ{ Ûegkesâ nQ- 98. DeeOegefvekeâ Ùegie ceW efJeue#eCe keäÙee nw?
meceeefhle yeesOekeâ~ (a) peerJeve kesâ jnmÙe keâes DevegYeJe keâjvee
94. ‘metÙe& hetJe& efoMee ceW Gefole neslee nw~’ JeekeäÙe ceW he#e nw- (b) DelÙeble met#ce Deewj Jew%eeefvekeâ Deekeâueve mes yeves GhekeâjCe
(a) efvelÙeleeÅeeslekeâ he#e (b) meelelÙeyeesOekeâ he#e (c) Øeke=âefle mes yeves GhekeâjCe
(c) DeejbYeÅeeslekeâ he#e (d) ØeieefleÅeeslekeâ he#e (d) DeJew%eeefvekeâ Deekeâueve mes Øemlegle GhekeâjCe
Ans. (a) : ‘metÙe& hetJe& efoMee ceW Gefole neslee nw~’ JeekeäÙe ceW Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes ieÅeebMe kesâ Devegmeej DelÙeble met#ce Deewj Jew%eeefvekeâ
‘efvelÙeleeÅeeslekeâ he#e’ nw~ efpeme JeekeäÙe ceW keâeÙe& kesâ efvelÙe ™he mes nesves Deebkeâueve mes yeves GhekeâjCe DeeOegefvekeâ Ùegie ceW meÛecegÛe efJeue#eCe nQ~
keâe yeesOe nes JeneB efvelÙeleeyeesOekeâ ef›eâÙee keâe he#e neslee nw~
99. keâewve-mee Meyo cegefkeäle keâe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer nw?
95. efvecveefueefKele ceW mes efkeâme JeekeäÙe ceW ef›eâÙee DeLeJee YeeJe
(a) Úgškeâeje (b) Deeyeeo
keâer ØeOeevelee keâe yeesOe nes jne nw-
(c) cegkegâue (d) Deevebo
(a) cegPemes yew"e veneR peelee~
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW ‘Úgškeâeje’ Meyo ‘cegefòeâ’ keâe
(b) jeOee ves he$e efueKee~
(c) meeÙebMe DeÛÚer hegmlekeWâ heÌ[lee nw~
heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer nw~
(d) ceQ keâece kesâ efueS keâYeer cevee veneR keâjlee~
cegefòeâ keâe DevÙe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Meyo nw- hejceOeece, efveJee&Ce, kewâJeuÙe,
meodieefle, DeheJeie& Deeefo~
Ans. (a) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW ‘cegPemes yew"e veneR peelee~’ JeekeäÙe ceW
ef›eâÙee DeLeJee YeeJe keâer ØeOeevelee keâe yeesOe nes jne nw~ 100. keâef"ve nesves kesâ yeeJepeto efkeâmes peevee pee mekeâlee nw?
efpeme JeekeäÙe ceW YeeJe keâer heÇOeevelee nesleer nw lees YeeJeJeeÛÙe keâe JeekeäÙe (a) DeeOegefvekeâ Ùegie kesâ efJeÛeejeW keâes
keânueelee nw~ (b) peerJeve kesâ jnmÙeceÙe GösMÙe keâes

14 YCT
 (c) YeeweflekeâMeeŒe kesâ DeeefJe<keâejeW keâes Ans. (b) : Most abundant plasma protein present in
(d) Øeke=âefle kesâ ØeYeglJe keâes body Albumin.
Albumin can be found in bloodstream, Interstitial space
Ans. (b) : GheÙeg&òeâ ieÅeebMe kesâ Devegmeej peerJeve kesâ jnmÙeceÙe GösMÙe
as well as other fluids albumin acts as carrier for many
keâes keâef"ve nesves kesâ yeeJepeto Yeer peevee pee mekeâlee nw~ Dele: efJekeâuhe circulating molecules.
(b) mener Gòej nw~ 7. Sinusoids are generally found in all of the
following except
Post Specific Subject-Related (a) Liver (b) Spleen
Questions (c) The brain (d) Bone morrow
Ans. (c) : Sinusoids are generally found in the bone
marrow, spleen and liver not found in the brain
Discipline– 1 sinusoids are specialized capillaries, where large spaces
1. One of the chemical constituents present in exist within the capillary wall to allow blood cells and
Van den in Bergh reagent A is proteins to be exchanged between the tissues and the
(a) Sulphanilic acid (b) Sulfanilamide blood.
(c) Sod. Chloride (d) Sod. thiosulphate 8. The type of aneurysm occurring mainly in the
Ans. (a) : Vanden Bergh Reagent A contain sulphanilic Arch of aorta is
acid. (a) Seculars (b) Dissecting
This is used measure bilirubin levels in blood. (c) Fusiform (d) Microaneurysm
2. The icterus-index is a measure that is used to Ans. (b) : Dissecting type of aneurysm occuring mainly
identify in the arch of aorta.
(a) Jaundice (b) Anaemia 9. The thermoregulatory centre in the brain is
(c) Diabetes (d) Gout located in
Ans. (a) : Icterus index measure of yellow colour of (a) The cerebellum
serum. (b) The medulla oblongata
This colour is normally due to presence of bilirubin. (c) The cerebrum
3. Which of the following is a plasma protein (d) The hypothalamus
derived chemical mediator of inflammation? Ans. (d) : Hypothalamus is found in Brain its main
(a) Globulin (b) Bradykinin function is homeostasis, temperature regulation, thirst &
(c) Cytokine (d) Serotonin Hunger center also in Hypothalamus.
Ans. (b) : Bradykinin is a Plasma Protein derived 10. The phase of the cell cycle during which the cell
chemical mediator of inflammation Bradykinin is a pro- may leave the cell cycle is
inflammatory mediator and also recognised as a neuro- (a) M (b) S
mediator and regulator of several vascular and renal (c) G0 (d) G1
functions.
Ans. (c) : G0 phase of the cycle in which cell may leave
4. The source of salmonella generated the cell cycle. This phase is also known as resting-
enterocolitis is phase, It represents the time when the cell is neither
(a) Shellfish (b) Water dividing nor preparing to divide.
(c) Cheese (d) Beef
11. The number of ATP yielded in the body from
Ans. (d) : The source of salmonella generated one molecule of the glucose as a result of
enterocolitis is beef electron transport chain is:
enterocolitis is a chronic relapsing and remitting, non
(a) 6 (b) 4
specific inflammatory disease of the colon.
(c) 2 (d) 32
5. The epithelium composed of a single layer of
flattened cell is termed as: Ans. (d) : The oxidative phosphorylation process, also
(a) Pavement epithelium known as electron transport chain.
(b) Ciliated epithelium The electron transport cycle generate 30-32 ATP
(c) Cuboidal epithelium molecules.
(d) Columnar epithelium 12. The RNA virus that cause cancer in human is
Ans. (a) : Pavement epithelium composed of a single (a) Hepatitis B virus
layer of flattened cells also known as simple squamous (b) Epstein Barr virus
epithelium present in alveoli of lungs, wall of (c) Human T cell leukaemia virus
Bowman's capsule. (d) Human papilloma virus
6. The most abundant plasma protein present in Ans. (c) : Human T cell leukaemia virus (HTLV) can
the body is cause cancer in human. HTLV types I and II are two
(a) Fibrinogen (b) Albumin closely related RNA viruses, that can be transmitted
(c) Globulin (d) Plasminogen through body fluids. The infact primary lymphocytes.

15 YCT
13. The alcohol contained in glycolipids is 20. Which of the following is a software program
(a) Sorbitol (b) Sphingosine that is program for doctors to enter patient
(c) Maltitol (d) Glycerol symptoms into the computer
Ans. (b) : Glycolipids are a type of complex lipids that (a) IPES (b) COPES
comprises sphingolipids or glycerol (an alcohol), fatty (c) COPE (d) SUMEX
acids, and carbohydrates. Ans. (d) : Sumex is a software Programme that is used
14. Catabolism of serine take place after getting for doctors to enter Patient symptoms into the
converted to: computer.
(a) Alanine (b) Tyrosine
(c) Proline (d) Cysteine Discipline– 2
Ans. (d) : 21. The number of Gram required for preparing 8
oz of 6% solution of mercuric chloride
is_____(35 g in 8 oz makes 1% solution)
(a) 320 grams (b) 210 grams
(c) 175 grams (d) 144 grams
Ans. (b) : 210 grams HgCl2 is required for preparing 8
oz of 6% solution.
15. Which of the following vitamin is essential in 22. Which of the following liquid preparation is
citric acid metabolism? applied externally to the skin and not in the
(a) Retinol (b) Thaimine cavities?
(c) Ascorbic acid (d) Cyanocobalamin (a) Ear Drops (b) Enemas
(c) Collodions (d) Douches
Ans. (b) : Vitamin B1 or thiamine is essential in citric
acid metabolism. Vitamin B1 (thiamine) is an important Ans. (c) : Ear drops - Ear
coenzyme for two reactions in the citric acid cycle douches - Vaginal cauity
(Kreb-cycle). Thiamine helps the body's cells change Enema - Rectum
carbohydrates into energy. Collodions are liquid preparations, used as a topical
16. The enzyme that is responsible for the (surface) or external protectives. Collodions contains
conversion of ATP to cyclic GMP is nitro cellulose pyroxylin in a mixture of ethanol and
ethyl ether.
(a) Phosphodiesterase (b) Lipoprotein lipase
(c) Adenylyl cyclase (d) Guanyl cyclase 23. The aromatic water used as carminative for
infants in gripe water is
Ans. (c) : Stimulation of adenylyl cyclase results in
(a) Chloroform water (b) Camphor water
formation of cylic AMP which is released from the
(c) Anise water (d) Dill water
membrance into the cell and acts with in the cell to
regulate wide variety of cellular processes. Ans. (d) : The gripe water contain dill water used as
carminative in infants. It contains oil of Dill herb and
Sodium hydrogen carbonate {NaHCO3}.
24. The strength of 1 in 400 is equivalent to
17. 8-bit word can address_____memory locations. (a) 0.1% (b) 0.04%
(a) 32 (b) 138
(c) 0.143% (d) 0.25%
(c) 8 (d) 256
1
Ans. (d) : 8-bit word can address 256 memory locations Ans. (d) : × 100 = 0.25%
because 8 bits can only have 256 different values. 400
18. A set of instructions is called : 25. The paediatric dose of {(surface area of child/
(a) an address (b) a code surface area of adult)×100} = % of adult dose
(c) a programme (d) a server was proposed by
(a) Young (b) Catzel
Ans. (c) : A computer programme is a set of
(c) Dilling (d) Fried
instructions (smallest unit of execution) that are used to
execute particular tasks to get particular results. Ans. (b) : Catzel proposed a formula for dose
calculation in paediatric
19. Basic ASCII Code is a standard coding system
surface area ofchild
that uses_____bits to code each character. = × 100 = % adult dose
(a) 3 (b) 7 surface area of Adult
(c) 9 (d) 5 26. Which of the following is an example of
Ans. (b) : The term ASCII stands for American external preparation of suspension containing
standard code for information interchange. The ASCII indiffusible solid
table has 128 characters with values from 0 to 127, thus (a) Phenobarbitone (b) Hydrocortisone
7 bits are sufficient to represent a character in ASCII. (c) Aspirin (d) Sulphadimidine
16 YCT
Ans. (b) : Hydrocortisone is a steroidal containing Quantitative epidemiology
Indiffusible solid suspension used externally. The goal of Quantitative epidemiology is to address a
Hydrocatisone is used for the treatment of severe medical, health or behavioural question using no as
allergic condition, dermatitis, allergic rhinitis, asthma evidence.
etc. 33. The communicable disease caused by RNA
27. In the Imperial weights system, 1/2 scruple paramyxovirus is
represents (a) Measles (b) Tuberculosis
(a) 10 grains (b) 40 grains (c) Chicken pox (d) Diphtheria
(c) 60 grains (d) 20 grains Ans. (a) : Measles is a contagious viral infection that
Ans. (a) : Imperial system can be serious for small children.
1 scruple = 20 gains It is caused by RNA paramyxovirus.
1 34. Sporangiospores are associate with
scruple = 10 grains
2 (a) Glomeromycetes (b) Ascomycetes
28. Which of the following is an example of (c) Basidiomycetes (d) Phycomycetes
ointment made by chemical reaction? Ans. (d) : Sporangiospores are asexual spores
(a) Iodine ointment associated with phycomycetes. sporangiospores are
(b) Ammoniated mercury ointment produced by the fungi of chytridio-mycetes and
(c) Calamine ointment zygomycetes groups as well as oomycetes.
(d) Salicyclic acid ointment
35. The schedule regarding standard of
Ans. (a) : Iodine ointment is an antiseptic used to disinfectant fluid is:
inhibit the growth of bacteria on living cell Iodine (a) Schedule P (b) Schedule J
ointment made by chemical reaction.
(c) Schedule O (d) Schedule R
29. The solvent contained in dimercaprol injection
Ans. (c) : Schedule O of drugs and pharmacy act
is
contains regulations and standard for the disinfectant
(a) Dimethyl form amide (b) Ethyl acetate
fluids.
(c) Benzyl benzoate (d) Alcohol
Schedule J – list of Incurable disease
Ans. (c) : Dimercaprol is given in heavy metal
Schedule R – Physical barriers as condoms
poisioning it contains - solvent - Benzyl benzoate.
Schedule P – Life period and storage of various drugs.
30. The synthetic fat base consisting of a mixture
of tri, di and mono glyceride of saturated fatty 36. The schedule corresponding to proforma for
acid are known as application for licence, issue and renewal of
(a) Witepsol (b) Massa estarinum licence, and for sending member and under the
(c) Massuppol (d) Wecobee drug and cosmetic act is
Ans. (b) : Massa estarinum is a fat base consist of a (a) Schedule D1 (b) Schedule A
mixture of di, tri and monoglycerides of fatty acid. It is (c) Schedule E1 (d) Schedule K
a white, almost odourless and tasteless solid. It is used Ans. (b) : Schedule A– Proforma for application for
as emulsifying base. licences, issue and renewal of licences.
31. In India, the national malaria eradication Schedule E1 = contains a list of toxic or poisonous
programme was launched in drugs with animal plant, and mineral origins that must
(a) 1972 (b) 1947 be consumed only under medical supervision.
(c) 1963 (d) 1958 37. Section 9 of the National list of essential
Ans. (d) : National antimalaria programme was medicines is specially about
launched in April 1953. But National Malaria (a) Antiparkinsonism medicines
Eradication programme launched in 1958. (b) Anti infective medicines
32. Cohort study is associated with which of the (c) Anti migraine medicines
following method of epidemiology? (d) Antineoplastic medicines
(a) Analytical epidemiology Ans. (a) : Section 9 of the National list of essential
(b) Experimental epidemiology medicine is contain antiparkinsonism medicines.
(c) Quantitative epidemiology 38. The subsequent penalty on the offence related
(d) Descriptive epidemiology to the manufacture, sale, distribution, stocking,
Ans. (a) : Analytical epidemiology focuses on exhibition, offering for sale or distribution of
understanding the determinants and origins of disease. spurious drug but not manufactured under the
In this kind of observation there major type of studies name of any other Drugs is
are used cross-sectional, case control and cohort study. (a) Imprisonment up to ten year or fine up to
Descriptive epidemiology 5,000 or both
Uses observational studies of the distribution of disease (b) Imprisonment for not less than 6 year to 10
in term of person place and time. year and fine of not less than 10000

17 YCT
 (c) Imprisonment for 2 to 4 year or fine of not 44. The minimum number of physician required in
less than 5000 or both the pharmacy and therapeutic committee is
(d) Imprisonment up to 10 year or fine up to (a) 2 (b) 3
20000 or both (c) 4 (d) 5
Ans. (b) : Imprisonment for not less than 6 years to 10 Ans. (b) : PTC (Pharmacy therapeutic committee) is the
years and fine not less than 10000 Rs back bone of the hospital pharmacy.
39. Which of the following is credited to the profit • PTC is the group of advisory people
and loss account? • PTC is composed of –
(a) Printing and stationary • Physician
(b) Carriage outward • Pharmacist
(c) Cash discount from creditors • Hospital Administration
(d) Advertisement • Nursing staff
Ans. (c) : Cash discount from creditors. Cash discount 45. The most emulsifying agent used in parenteral
is an expense for the seller and income for the buyer. It is
is therefore debited in the books of the seller and (a) Borax (b) Lecithin
credited in the books of buyer. (c) Gelatin (d) Methyl cellulose
40. Which of the following is a current asset? Ans. (b) : Lecithin is most common emulsitying agent
(a) Inventory (b) Quorum used in parentral preparation. Lecithin is a collective
(c) Debenture (d) Tender name for a group of lipids naturally found in foods like
Ans. (a) : Current assets - Includes egg yolks, liver and soyabeans. Lecithin can also be
taken as a diatory supplements.
cash and cash equivalents
Account Receivable 46. The term associated with the Rapid onset and
Prepaid expense progress of a disease is termed as
(a) Systemic (b) Chronic
Raw material
(c) Local (d) Acute
Inventory
Ans. (d) :
Discipline– 3 Beginning Acute condition Chronic Condition
Rapid Gradual up and
41. The accounting concept where income is down
measured by the amount charged for goods Cause usually one Many
sold or service rendered to customer is known
Duration Short Indefinite
as
Diagnosis Commonly often uncertain
(a) The matching concept
accurate
(b) The cost concept
47. The advice on a prescription 'hora somni'
(c) The Entity concept
means
(d) The revenue realization concept
(a) Early morning (b) Once a day
Ans. (d) : Revenues are realized when cash or claims to (c) In the evening (d) At bed time
cash (receivable) are received. The concept is that
Ans. (d) : Hora somni means at the hour of sleep or at
revenues are realizable when they are readily the time of bed.
convertible to cash or claim to cash. Once in a day means q.d (or Q.D) it stands for quaque
42. First in first out method is a method associated die.
with 48. Isoniazid phenytoin interaction resulting
(a) Codification of items toxicity is a result of
(b) Pricing of materials (a) Interaction associated with distribution
(c) Purchase procedure (b) Interaction associated with absorption
(d) Inventory control technique (c) Interaction associated with excretion
Ans. (b) : First in first out (FiFo) is an inventory (d) Interaction associated with Metabolism
method that assumes the first goods purchased are the Ans. (d) : Interaction associated with metabolism.
first goods sold. Isonizid inhibits the metabolism of several drugs, as
43. Which of the following is used as an isonizid can cause increased phemytrin and
antioxidant for aqueous injection carbamazapine serum concentration and toxicity.
(a) Thiourea (b) Thiocarbamise 49. The ratio of velocity of light in one medium to
(c) Thiosemicarb azide (d) Thiomersal the velocity in a second medium is known as
Ans. (a) : Thiourea is used as an antioxidant for (a) Molar Polarizability (b) Refractive index
aqueous injection.Thiourea is the antioxidant used for (c) Molar refractivity (d) Molar polarization
the purification of proteins obtained from phenol-rich Ans. (b) : Refractive index also known as refraction
plant tissues. index or index of refraction.
18 YCT
 Ans. (c) : Syphilis is caused by Treponema pallidum
Syphilis is sexually transmitted disease caused due to
Treponema pallidum.
56. Among the surface active agent, quaternary
ammonium chloride is categorized as
(a) Wetting agent
50. The law related to the study of gas solubility is (b) Emulsifying agent
known as (c) Cationic agent
(a) Faraday's law (b) Ohm's law (d) Anionic agent
(c) Henry's law (d) Nernst's law Ans. (c) : Cationic agents have a positive charge on
Ans. (c) : At constant temperature, the amount of a their hydrophilic end
given gas dissolved in a given type and volume of ex- Cetrymethylammonium bromide (quaternary
liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of ammonium surfactant)
that gas is equilibrium with that liquid. 57. The antimicrobial action of mercuric chloride
p = khxc is attributed to the inhibition of enzyme having
51. In Electrolytes, the sum of two transference ____ group.
numbers, t + & t- is equal to (a) Hydroxyl (b) Sulfhydryl
(a) 0 (b) 2 (c) Amide (d) Sulfone
(c) 1 (d) 3 Ans. (b) : The antimicrobial action of meruric chloride
Ans. (c) : Transferance number in electrolyte is attributed to the inhibition of enzyme having
chemistry is also known as ion transport number and it sulfhydryl group.
is the fraction of the total electric current carried in an 58. The vitamin used by clostridium tetani as a
electrolyte by a given ionic species. Growth stimulator is
The sum of the transport numbers (transferance) of all (a) Pyridoxine (b) Riboflavin
the ions (t+ and t–) is always unity. (c) Tocopherol (d) Niacin

∑t
Ans. (b) : Riboflavin used by clostridium tetani as a
∴ i =1 growth stimulator. Clostridium tetani is a soil bacteria,
i
which causes tetanus in humans. It is obligate anaerobic
52. Dimethyldodecylammonio propane sulfonate is gram positive bacillus.
example of a/an___ colloid 59. The principal product of corrosion in
(a) Anionic (b) Non-ionic dezincification is
(c) Cationic (d) Ampholytic (a) Arsenic (b) Copper
Ans. (d) : Dimethyldodecylammonio propane sulfonate (c) Antimony (d) Phosphorus
is an example of ampholytic colloids. Ans. (b) : The principal product of corrosion on
53. In coarse dispersion, the condition when no dezincification is copper.
clear supernatant is shown on standing is 60. Crystal crystallizer works on the principle of:
known as (a) Super saturation by salting out
(a) Phase equilibrium (b) Super saturation by cooling
(b) Donna membrane equilibrium (c) Super saturation by adiabatic
(c) Ionic equilibrium (d) Super saturation by evaporation of solvent
(d) Flocculation equilibrium Ans. (d) : A supersaturated liquid concentration in
Ans. (d) : The condition which no clear supernatant is evaporation chamber go down through tail pipe then is
shown on standing is known as flocculation supplied to bottom of crystallization tank.
equilibrium.
Discipline– 4
54. The measurement of equilibrium constant in
charge transfer complex was derived by 61. The IP Specification for nominal mesh
(a) Clausius (b) Debye aperture of 180 micrometer corresponds to
(c) Benesi (d) Nernst (a) Seive number 100 (b) Seive number 44
Ans. (c) : The measurement of equilibrium constant in (c) Seive number 60 (d) Seive number 85
charge transfer complexes was derived by - Benesi. Ans. (d) :
Benesi-Hildebrand method is a mathematical approach Grade of powder Sieve through which all
used in the determination of the equilibrium constant K. particles must pass
55. Which of the following diseases is caused by Coarse 10
Treponema pallidum moderately coarse 22
(a) Tetanus (b) Leptospirosis moderately fine 44
(c) Syphilis (d) Pinta Fine 85
19 YCT
62. The toxic gas obtained on decomposition of 69. The heavy chain corresponding to the
Teflon is immunoglobulin IgA is:
(a) Chlorotrifluoro ethylene (a) γ (b) β
(b) Perfluoroisobutene (c) α (d) µ
(c) Epoxy Propane Ans. (c) : IgA is produced by cells in mucous
(d) Polyprolene membranes.
Ans. (b) : Perfluoroisobutene is a toxic gas obtained • The main function of IgA is to prevent the
from decomposition of Teflon. attachment of virus and bacteria to epithelial cells.
63. The approximate moisture content of the hard • It is present in first milk of mother.
gelatin capsule in normal condition is 70. The antisense as drug used for the treatment of
(a) 13-16% (b) 3-6% cytomegalovirus infection with AIDS is
(c) 7-10% (d) 20-25% (a) Filgrastim (b) Kogenate
Ans. (a) : The approximate moisture content of a hard (c) Refludan (d) Fomivirsen
gelatin capsule in normal condition is 13 – 16%. Ans. (d) : Fomivirsen used for the treatment of
64. Which of the following is a example of cytomegalovirus in patients with AIDS.
inorganic two-phase systems gels? 71. Which of the following is categorized as having
(a) Tragacanth gel intermediate risk potential with reference to
(b) Aluminium hydroxide gel bioequivalence study
(c) Polyethylene gel (a) Phenytion (b) Ephedrine
(d) Carbopol gel (c) Quinidine (d) Griseofulvin
Ans. (b) : Aluminium hydroxide gel has many Ans. (d) : Griseofulvin is categorised as having
crystalline polymorphic phases such as intermediate risk potential with reference to
α Al2O3, β Al2O3, γ Al2O3 bioequivalence study.
65. Which of the following is an example of water 72. The pharmacokinetic parameters like
soluble and water miscible suppository base distribution and elimination together is called
(a) Suppocire base (a) Absorption (b) Excretion
(b) Glycerinated gelatin (c) Metabolism (d) Disposition
(c) Wecobee base Ans. (d) : Pharmacokinetic also known as drug
(d) Cocoa butter disposition
Ans. (b) : Glycerinated gelatin water soluble or water
miscible base are containing glycerinated gelatin, PEG
polyethylene gly(o).
• Glycerinated gelation is a useful suppository base.
66. Which of the following is used as tablet direct
compression excipient?
(a) Di Basic calcium phosphate
(b) Titanium dioxide 73. The blood protein to which vitamin B 12 bind
(c) Hydroxyl ethyl cellulose is
(d) Sodium chloride (a) α 2 globulin
Ans. (a) : Dibasic calcium phosphate is used as a tablet (b) α 2 acid glycoprotein
direct compression excipient. (c) α 1 acid glycoprotein
67. The T Lymphocytes involved in mediating the (d) α 1 globulin
development of T cells are Ans. (d) : α, 1 globulin
(a) Inducer T cell (b) Cytotoxic T cell
α, 1 globulin is a type of blood protein to bind vitamin
(c) Suppressor T cell (d) Helper T cell B12.
Ans. (a) : The T lymbhocytes involved in mediating the 74. The specialised cell known as astrocyte are
development of T-cell are Inducer T- cells present in which of the following biological
68. The most preferred production method of l- barriers in the body?
glutamic acid is through (a) Capillary endothelial barrier
(a) Chemical synthesis (b) Cell membrane barrier
(b) Extraction (c) Blood brain barrier
(c) Intermediate production (d) Blood cerebrospinal fluid barrier
(d) Fermentation Ans. (c) : Astrocytes are the cells are related to human
Ans. (d) : Fermentation is a biochemical process that central nervous system (CNS). They perform metabolic,
gets energy from carbohydrates and does not require neuroprotective tasks e.g. clearing excess
oxygen. neurotransmittery stabilizing and regulating the blood-
glucose → ethanol + CO2 + Energy brain barrier, and promoting synapse formation.
20 YCT
75. The reagent used in the assay of oxygen is Ans. (c) : Complexone III is also known as disodium
(a) Alkaline pyrogallol solution edetate.
(b) Neutral ferric chloride • Edetate binds with calcium and some heavy metal in
(c) Acetous perchloric acid the body.
(d) Neutral fomaldehyde
• It is used to treat calcium overload.
Ans. (a) : Alkaline pyrogallol solution used in the assay
of oxygen. 81. Which of the following is an example of azo
• Alkaline solutions of pyrogallol absorb oxygen indicator
efficiently and are used in determining the oxygen (a) Ferroin (b) Phenol red
content of gas mixtures. (c) Phenolphthalein (d) Methyl red
76. The permanent red colour obtained in the end Ans. (d) : Methyl red is an azoindicator. Ferroin is the
of The titration in volhard's method is due to complex of 1, 10-phenanthroline and Fe (II) used as
the formation of indicator of oxidation and also works as cotalyst for
(a) Ferric thiocyanate Belousov-Zhabotinsky reaction.
(b) Ammonium chromate 82. The pH of range of____ indicator is 6.8-6.4
(c) Silver chromate (a) Methyl red (b) Phenol red
(d) Ammonium thiocyanate (c) Bromocresol green (d) Methyl Orange
Ans. (a) : The permanent red colour obtained at the end Ans. (b) : Phenol red indicator is a weak organic acid,
of titration in volhard's method is due to the Formation
and therefore its pH ranges just below 7, i.e. in between
of ferric thiocyanate.
6.8 to 6.4. Bromo Cresol Greenn (BCG) is a dye of the
77. Which of the following is used for triphenylmethane family. It works as indicator in
standardization in redox titration?
growth medium for microrganisms.
(a) Calcium carbonate
(b) Ferrous Ammonium Sulphate 83. Which of the following is a dye that produced
(c) Sulphanilic acid result similar to Litmus Paper?
(d) Potassium hydrogen phthalate (a) Lawsone (b) Curcumin
Ans. (b) : Ferrous ammonium sulphate is used for (c) Morin (d) Azolitmin
standardization in Radox titration. Ans. (d) : Azolitmin is a dye that produces results
Potassium hydrogen phthalate is used as a primary similar to litmus paper. Azolitmin is an indicator having
standard for acid base titration. pH around 4.5 for red and 8.3 for blue. It is useable
Sulphanilic acid is used for measuring conjugated with most mineral, some organic acid (except hydroxy
bilirubin (direct bilirubin). acids) and some alkaloids.
78. In gravimetric analysis for the determination 84. The indicator used in non aqueous titration of
of ash value, the acid insoluble portion of acid barbiturates is
is determined by boiling with
(a) Thymol blue (b) Bromocresol green
(a) Ammonium hydroxide
(b) Acetic acid (c) Crystal violet (d) Phenolphthalein
(c) Dilute hydrochloric acid Ans. (a) : Thymol blue used in non-aqueous titration of
(d) Sodium chloride barbiturate.
Ans. (c) : In gravimetric analysis for the determination 85. The buffer present in water soluble ratio of a
of ash value, the acid insoluble portion of ash is contrast media is:
determined by boiling with dilute HCl. (a) Tartrate buffer (b) Acetate buffer
79. Which of the following drugs is assayed by (c) Citrate buffer (d) Sulphate buffer
complexometric titration as per pharmacopeial Ans. (c) : Citrate buffer Present in water soluble radio
standards? opaque contrast media.
(a) Calcium aminosalicylate
Radio opaque contrast media is high density
(b) Magnesium sulphate
pharmacologic agents used to visualize low contrast
(c) Zinc oxide
(d) Potassium Bromide tissues in the body.
Ans. (b) : Magnesium sulphate drugs is assayed by 86. The inorganic compound used as an emetic is
complexometric titrations as per pharmacopeia (a) Copper sulphate (b) Ferric chloride
standards. (c) Iodine (d) Sodium iodide
Discipline– 5 Ans. (a) : Copper sulphate is inorganic agent used in
80. Complexone III is otherwise known as stimulate the vomiting/emetic.
(a) Potassium permanganate 87. Nitrous oxide should be stored in metal
(b) Cupric iodide cylinder with temperature not exceeding
(c) Disodium edetate (a) 36 Cº (b) 26 Cº
(d) Ferric ferrocyanide (c) 45 Cº (d) 10 Cº
21 YCT
Ans. (a) : (a) Citral (b) Borneol
• Nitrous oxide should store in metal cylinders with (c) Gingerol (d) Cineole
36°C temperature. Ans. (c) : Gingerol is the main chemical constituent of
• When exceeding than 36°C then the chance of ginger due to presence of gingerol pungency of ginger
cumbustion. occurs.
88. The most abundant extracellular ions in the 95. Which of the following is an oleo-gum obtained
body is from the stem of Commiphora?
(a) K+ (b) Na+ (a) Asafetida (b) Myrrh
(c) Ng+ (d) Ca2+ (c) Ginger (d) Camphor
Ans. (b) : Myrrh is an oleo-gum resin obtained from the
Ans. (b) :
stem of Commiphora.
96. Which of the following is not an organoleptics
factor for the standardization of herbal drugs
(a) Odour (b) Colour
(c) Taste (d) Moisture content
Ans. (d) : Moisture content organoleptic refers to
evaluation by means of the organs of sense and includes
89. Clonidine structurally is an___ derivative the macroscopic appearance of the drug, its odour and
(a) Pyrazoline (b) Pyrimidine taste.
(c) Triazine (d) Imidazoline 97. Which of the following traditional medicine is
Ans. (d) : Clonidine structurally is an imidazoline semi solid dosage form?
derivative. It belongs to the class of medicines called (a) Vatika (b) Satva
anti hypertensive. It works alone or in combination with (c) Asava (d) Avaleha
other medications to treat high blood pressure. Ans. (d) : Asava – liquid dosage form
90. Which of the following cholesterol- lowering Vatika – Solid dosage form
agent is naphthalenyl ester derivative? Avaleha – Semisolid dosage form
(a) Lovastatin (b) Clofibrate 98. The prominent nutraceutical used for allergy
(c) Colestipol (d) Gemfibrozil relief is/are
(a) Green tea
Ans. (a) : Lovastatin is a Naphthalenyl ester derivative
(b) Momordica
lower the cholestrol level.
(c) Flax seeds
91. The antibiotic having mechanism of action (d) Ginko biloba
attributed to muco peptide synthesis inhibition
is Ans. (d) : Ginkgo biloba is a nutraceutical used in
allergy relief. Momordica is tropical vine of the family
(a) Chloramphenicol
cucurbitaceae. It has been traditionally used to treat
(b) Cycloserine
diabetes.
(c) Bacitracin
99. An unpleasant ammonical odour is generated
(d) Penicillin
in which of the following drug during storage
Ans. (c) : Bacitracin having mechanism of action due to humidity?
attributed to mucopeptide synthesis inhibition. (a) Saffron (b) Ergot
92. Dioscin is an example of (c) Cinnamon (d) Rhubarb
(a) Mucilage (b) Triterpenoid Ans. (b) : Ergot reacts with humidity and produces
(c) Alkaloidal resin (d) Steroid saponin unpleasant ammonical odour. Rhubarb is a useful
Ans. (d) : Dioscin is one of the most widely found medicinal plant. Its most of the parts i.e. roots, stem etc
steroid saponins in plants and it exhibits antitumor, are used to make medicines as for digestive disorder,
antiviral, antifungal, anti-inflammatory properties. constipation, diarrhea and heartburn etc.
93. Aleurone grains present in seed are a type of 100. Which of the following is the brilliant red dye
(a) Transport proteins obtained from insects?
(b) Storage proteins (a) Carajurin (b) Ocher
(c) Contractile protein (c) Cochineal (d) Indigo
(d) Defensive protein Ans. (c) :
Ans. (b) : aleurone layer is the outermost layer of the • Cochineal is brilliant red dye obtained from insects.
endosperm that storage the protein. • Ochre - colour is due to the iron oxide ochre is
94. The pungency of Ginger is due to the presence amineral is a mix of clay; iron oxide manganese
of which of the following formal August dioxide etc.
phenols • Indigo - is Natural obtained from indigofera tinctoria.
22 YCT
 DELHI SUBORDINATE SERVICES SELECTION
BOARD RECURITMENT
EXAM DATE-04-11-2019

Mental Ability Ans. (d) : Just as, Same as,

+1 +1
S →T S →T
+1 +1
1. In the following question, correct the equation T  →U T  →U
by interchanging two signs. +1 +1
24 + 6 ÷ 3 × 11 – 12 = 14 A  →B R  →S
+1 +1
(a) ÷ and + (b) ÷ and × G  →H A  →B
(c) – and × (d) – and + +1 +1
E  →F N  →O
Ans. (d) : 24 + 6 ÷ 3 × 11 – 12 = 14 +1
from option (d), G  →H
+1
24 – 6 ÷ 3 × 11 + 12 = 14 E  →F
24 – 2 × 11 + 12 = 14 +1
R  →S
24 – 22 + 12 = 14
36 – 22 = 14 Hence option (d) is correct.
14 = 14 5. There are five houses ABCDO in a row. A is
L.H.S. = R.H.S. right side of B and left side of C, O is the right
side of A, B is right of D. Which house is in the
2. If a square sheet of paper is folder two times
middle?
from the centre and cuts are made as shown in
the question figure how will it appear when it is (a) B (b) A
opened? (c) D (d) O
Ans. (b) : According to the question–

Hence, the house 'A' is in the middle.

6. Which one of the following figures represents
the relationship among Musical instrument,
guitar and Singer?
(a) (b)
(a)

(c) (d) (b)

Ans. (b) : According to the question, option (b) will be (c)

correct.
3. If 5 @ 6 = 1331 and 3 @ 4 = 343, then 4 @ 5 =
(a) 729 (b) 512 (d)
(c) 2197 (d) 1000
Ans. (a) : Just as,
Ans. (a) : According to the question–
5 @ 6 = 1331 and 3 @ 4 = 343
3 3
(5 + 6) = (11) 3 + 4 = (7)
= 1331 = 343
Same as,
4 @ 5 = 729
= 4 + 5 = (9)3
= 729 So, option 'a' is correct.
4. If 'STAGE' is coded as 'TUBHF', 7. The statements below are followed by two
'STRANGER' will be coded as _______. conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the
(a) TUBSOHFS (b) TUSOBHFS information in the statement is true, even if it
(c) TUBOFSHS (d) TUSBOHFS appears to be at variance with generally
23 YCT
 established facts, decide which conclusion(s) 11. Which one will replace the question mark (?)
logically and definitely follow (s) from the
information given in the statements.
Statements :
Some tents are houses.
All houses are buildings. (a) 61 (b) 44
Some buildings are huts. (c) 75 (d) 93
Conclusions : Ans. (a) : Just as, and
I. Some huts are houses (7)2 + (24)2 = (25)2 (20)2 + (99) 2 = (101)2
II. Some buildings are huts. 49 + 576 = 625 400 + 9801 = 10201
(a) Only conclusion I follows 625 = 625 10201 = 10201
(b) Either conclusion I or II follows Same as,
(c) Neither conclusion I nor II follows (11)2 + (60)2 = (?)2
(d) Only conclusion II flows 121 + 3600 = (?)2
Ans. (d) : According to the question- The venn diagram 3721 = (?)2
is– 3721 = ?
? = 61
12. Find the odd one out from the given
alternatives.
(a) August (b) June
(c) September (d) April
So, only conclusion II follows. Ans. (a) : In given question 'August' is odd because
8. In the following question, select the related August is month of 31 days.
number from the given alternatives. 13. Three position of a same dice are shown below.
649 : 361 :: 768 : ? Find which symbol will come opposite to the
(a) 441 (b) 283 arrow symbol?
(c) 336 (d) 416
Ans. (a) : Just as, Same as
649 : 361 768 : 441
6 + 4 + 9 = (19)2 7 + 6 + 8 = (21)2 (a) O (b) ♦
= 361 = 441
(c) ∆ (d) X
Hence (?) = 441
Ans. (c) : According to the question dice II & III taken–
9. Solve the alphanumeric series given below:
A2I, E4J, I8K, O16L, ?
(a) U32L (b) U32M
(c) U16N (d) U18N
Ans. (b) : Given Alphanumeric series is following. Hence option 'c' is correct.
14. 'If 'navy' is a called 'tree', 'tree' is called 'flag',
'flag' is called 'oil', 'oil' is called 'hair', 'hair' is
called 'yellow' and 'yellow' is called 'pink', then
what is colour of 'turmeric',
Hence (?) = U32M (a) White (b) Cannot be determined
Note : A, E, I, O, U are vowels. (c) Pink (d) Yellow
10. In the following question, select the related Ans. (c) : According to the question yellow is called
group of letters from the given alternatives. pink and we know the real colour of turmeric is yellow.
NUMBER : UNBMRE :: GHOST : ? So the colour of turmeric will be pink.
(a) HOGTS (b) HGOST 15. Choose the appropriate combination of signs to
(c) OGTST (d) HGSOT solve the following expression.
Ans. (d) : Just as, 16*8*1*8
(a) ÷ – = (b) = – ÷
(c) – ÷ = (d) ÷ = –
Ans. (c) : Given–
Same as, 16 * 8 * 1 * 8
form option (c)
16 – 8 ÷ 1 = 8
8=8
So (?) = HGSOT LHS = RHS

24 YCT
16. Find the missing figure in the series from the
given answer figures. (a) (b)
Question figures :

(c) (d)

Ans. (c) : According to the question option (c) will be

(a) (b) correct, because just as, first figure moves 90º
clockwise and find 2nd figure in the same way 3rd figure
moves 90º clockwise and find missing figure.
20. In the following question, select the odd letters
(c) (d) from the given alternatives.
(a) NHGE (b) JEDB
(c) TJIG (d) XLKI
Ans. (c) : In the given figure series the answer figure Ans. (a) : From options –
(c) will come at the place of question mark.
17. In the following question, select the missing
number from the given series.
7, 21, 42, 63, 84, ?
(a) 126 (b) 588
(c) 105 (d) 168
Ans. (c) : Series is given –
7 21 42 63 84 105 Hence, option (a) is odd letters.
↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓
General Awareness
7 × 1 7 × 3 7 × 6 7 × 9 7 × 12 7 × 15
Hence ? = 105 21. Where were the winter paralympics games
18. Players, father and mother can be represented 2018 held?
by:
(a) Sochi (b) Pyeongchang
(a) (c) Nagano (d) Vancouver
Ans. (b) : Winter Paralympics games 2018 here held in
Pyeongchang, south korea. Competitors (Nations)
participated in entire 15 discipline of the games.
(b)
India was represented by two athletes-Jagdish singh and
shiva keshavan.
22. In which state of India the 'Chitra-Vichitra'
(c) fair is held?
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Tripura
(c) Maharashtra (d) Gujarat
(d) Ans. (d) : 'Chitra-Vichitra' fair is held in Gujarat. It is the
biggest tribal festival in Gujrat. Every year the fair is
Ans. (c) : According to the question- celebrated in the month of march, fortnight after Holi, in
khed Brahma Taluka of Sabarkantha district. The main
temple is situated on a picturesque site called Triveni
sangam, the sacred confluence of the three rivers
sabarmati, Akul and Vyakul, amid the foothils of Aravalis.
Hence option (b) is correct. 23. Who made an aggressive argument that Hindi
19. In the given question, the first and second should be used as the Language of Constitution
figure of the question figures has certain making ?
(a) N.G. Ranga (b) Somnath Lahiri
relation between them and same relation exists
(c) B. Pocker Bahadur (d) R.V. Dhulekar
between the third figure and the missing figure.
Find the figure– Ans. (d) : An enthusiastic supporter of Hindi, R.V.
Dhulekar strongly advocated that Hindi in devanagari
script he used to frame the constitution and he was of
the view that People who do not know Hindustani
(Hindi) have no right to stay in India. He wanted the
Hindi to be recognised as official language of the India.
25 YCT
24. Which article of Indian constitution is about Ans. (d) : The middle layer in soil profile is known as
establishment and constitution of Supreme The B-horizon or subsoil. It contains less humus,
Court? soluble minerals and organic matter. It is a site of
(a) Article 134 (b) Article 112 deposition of certain minerals and metal, salts rush as
(c) Article 124 (d) Article 128 Iron oxide. This layer holds more water than the top soil
Ans. (c) : Article 124 deals with the establishment and and is lighter brown due to the presence of clay soil.
Constitution of supreme court. It states that there shall 30. What is the near point for a young adult with
be a supreme court of India consisting of a chief justice normal vision?
of India and until parliament by law prescribes a larger (a) 25 cm (b) 30 cm
number of not more than seven other Judges. (c) 10 cm (d) 15 cm
25. The intervention of the government whether to Ans. (a) : For a young adult with normal vision, the
expand demand or reduce it constitutes the near point is about 25 cm. A normal eye can see objects
________. clearly that are between 25 cm and infinity.
(a) Stabilization function 31. In which year the government of India passed
(b) Balanced budget Wildlife (Protection) Act?
(c) Redistribution function (a) 1961 (b) 1981
(d) Non-plan Revenue Expenditure (c) 1972 (d) 1998
Ans. (a) : The intervention of the government whether Ans. (c) : The government of india had passed wildlife
to expand demand or reduce it constitutes the (Protection) Act in September 1972. its objective was to
stablization function. The government Intervention in protect poaching or hunting of animals and conservation of
the economy to expand or reduce demand is called a plant species. It was a legal framework for protection of
stablization policy. flora and fauna and various other parts of wildlife.
26. In which of the following do Methanogens play 32. Shankara, one of the most influential
an important role? philosophers of India was born in which of the
(a) In sewage treatments following Indian State?
(b) Production of Biogas (a) West Bengal (b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) As Bio-control agents (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Kerala
(d) As Antibiotics Ans. (d) : Shankara or Adishankara was an indian
Ans. (b) : Methanogens are the bacteria found in cattle vedic scholar and teacher of Advaita vedanta. He was
dung and in anaerobic sladge during sewage treatment. believed to have taken birth in 8th century (AD) in
they grow an aerobically on celluloric material and kerala. He established four mathas has in the four
Produce a large amount of methane (Main constituent corners of India for upholding sanatan dharma, namely
of bio gas) along with Co2 and H2. Thus methanogens sringeri (karnatka), Jyotir math (Uttarakhand), Dwarka
are used in Biogas production. (Gujrat) and puri (odisha).
27. Where is the cheque number written on a bank 33. Yampuri is traditional puppet show of which of
cheque? the following Indian State?
(a) Top right (b) Top left (a) West Bengal (b) Bihar
(c) Bottom left (d) Bottom right (c) Karnataka (d) Rajasthan
Ans. (c) : Every cheque leaf has a six-digit cheque Ans. (b) : Yampuri is a traditional puppet show of
number written at the bottom left-hand side of the Bihar. It is a kind of traditional Rod puppet of Bihar.
cheque. The cheque number is used to find the status of These puppets are made of wood. These puppets are in
cheque. one complete piece. it does not have any joints.
28. The Law making process of the Indian 34. Khurram was son of which of the following
Constitution has been taken from the Mughal emperor?
constitution of which country ? (a) Humayun (b) Akbar
(a) Constitution of United States (c) Jahangir (d) Babar
(b) Constitution of Canada Ans. (c) : Khurram, also known as shahjahan was third
(c) Constitution of Ireland son of the mughal emperor Jahangir. Khurram became
(d) Constitution of British fifth mughal emperor from 1628 to 1658. His reign is
Ans. (d) : Law making process in the Indian known as golden age of mughal architecture.
constitution, has been taken from British constitution. 35. Who laid the foundation of Qutub Minar ?
Parliamentary government, Rule of law, legislative (a) Razia Sultan (b) Aramshah
procedure, single citizenship, cabinet system, (c) Qutub-ud-din Aibak (d) Genghis Khan
prerogative writs, Bicameralism etc have also been Ans. (c) : Qutub-ud-Din Aibak laid the foundation of
borrowed from constitution of Britain. Qutub-minar in AD 1199 for the use of Mu'azzin to
29. The middle layer in soil profile is known as___. give calls for prayer and raised the first story, to which
(a) A-horizon (b) Bedrock were added three more storeys by his successor and
(c) C-horizon (d) B-horizon son-in-law, shamshud-Din Iltutamish (AD 1211-36).
26 YCT
36. Which of the following terms describes the Ans. (d) : Assending order of given fraction–
shape of the Earth ? 1
(a) Trapezium (b) Geoid = 0.33
(c) Torus (d) Tall 3
Ans. (b) : ‘Geoid' term describes the shape of the earth. 4
Geoid shape is not perfectly spherical. The resulting 7 = 0.57
shape of the earth is due to the centrifugal force of its
2
rotation. The earth experiences the greatest centrifugal = 0.4
forces at the equator and least at the poles at the equator 5
and least at the poles, therefore it bulges out at the 1 2 4
equator giving the resultant oblate ellipsoid shape. Hence, < <
3 5 7
37. Who is the writer of the book 'Shades of 42. A basketball team played 120 matches in a year
Truth'? & won 62½% of the matches. Next year it wins
(a) Shashi Tharoor (b) Naseeruddin Shah some matches continuously. It wins % change
(c) Kapil Sibal (d) Ratan Tata to 90%. Find the number of matches team won
Ans. (c) : The book "shades of truth?" Has been written continuously.
(a) 320 (b) 750
by kapil Sibal.
(c) 330 (d) 350
38. Which of the following award is the highest Ans. (c) : According to the question–
honour of Asia ? 62.5% of 120
(a) Noble Prize
(b) Dada Saheb Phalke Award 62.5
× 120 = 75 matches
(c) Ramon Magsaysay Award 100
(d) International Gandhi Peace Prize Let the team won x matches continuously then,
Ans. (c) : The Ramon Magsaysay award is Asia's 75 + x 9  9
highest award. The foundation gives the prize to Asian 120 + x = 10 ∵ 90% = 
 10 
Individuals achieving excellence in their respective 750 + 10x = 1080 + 9x 
fields. The award carries a certificate A medallion, and 10x – 9x = 1080 – 750
a cash prize of USD 50,000.
x = 330
39. Who among the following is associated with
43. Study the table carefully to answer the
Shooting? question that follows.
(a) Mihir Sen Number of trees planted by two different
(b) Vikas Krishna Yadav NGO's in three different years in two different
(c) Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore states.
(d) Mahesh Bhupathi NGO P T
Ans. (c) : Rajyvardhan singh rathore is associated with Year State A State B State A State B
shooting. He is an Indian Rifle shooter who won his 2006 2160 540 720 470
country's first individual olympic silver medal in 2007 1350 880 740 820
Athens olympic games is 2004. 2008 1240 960 560 420
40. In which year Sati practice was banned? What was the respective ratio between the
(a) 1838 (b) 1779 number of trees planted by NGO-'P' in the year
(c) 1819 (d) 1829 2006 in state-A and the number of trees planted
Ans. (d) : Sati Practice was banned in 1829. Lord by NGO-T in the year 2008 in state-B?
William Bentinck, after becoming governer general of (a) 36 : 7 (b) 36 : 11
India Passed the law banning practice of sati throughout (c) 11 : 7 (d) 14 : 9
company's jurisdiction in british india. He made efforts Ans. (a) : According to the question–
to suppress many prevalent social evils like sati, NGO(P) : NGO(T)
polygamy, child marriage and female infanticide. State(A) 2006 : State (B) 2008
2160 : 420
Arithmetic Ability 36 : 7
44. Find the value of (93×53)2 ÷ (152 × 32)3
1 4 2 (a) 4 (b) 2
41. The fractions , and written in ascending
3 7 5 (c) 3 (d) 1
order given by : Ans. (d) : Here is given –

( )
2 4 1 4 1 2 2
(a) < < (b) < < 3
9 ×5
3
6
5 7 3 7 3 5 (45)
= =1
( )
3 6
1 4 2 1 2 4 2 2 (45)
(c) < < (d) < < 15 × 3
3 7 5 3 5 7
27 YCT
45. 7 kg of pulse costing ` 280 per kg is mixed with (a) 33.33 cm (b) 30 cm
9 kg of pulse costing ` 240 per kg. The average (c) 50 cm (d) 16.66 cm
price per kg of the mixed pulse is : Ans. (a) : Average displacement by 1 man = 8m3
(a) ` 267.50 (b) ` 258.50 by 150 men = (150 × 8)m3
(c) ` 267.20 (d) ` 257.50 Volume rising in swimming pool = Avg. displacement
Ans. (d) : Total cost of 7 kg pulse = 7 × 280 by 150 men
= `1960 l × b × h = 8 × 150 m
and cost of 9 kg pulse = 9 × 240 90 × 40 × h = 8 × 150 m
= `2160 2×15
h=
1960+ 2160 90
Then average price = 1
16 h = m or 33.33 cm
4120 3
= 49. A circular aluminium wire of radius 28 cm is
16 bent to form a square, find out the ratio of
= ` 257.5 areas of the square to that of the circle :
46. Study the following graph carefully to answer (a) 21 : 28 (b) 11 : 14
the question. Production (in thousands) by two (c) 20 : 21 (d) 14 : 15
company over the years. Ans. (b) : According to the question–
2πr = 4a
60 22
55
50 2× × r = 4a
50 7
45 45 45
40 40 40 40 11r = 7a
35 B
30 30 r 7
25 25 C =
a 11
20
Then the ration of area of square and circle
10 a2 : πr2
0 22
2009 2010 2011 2012 2013 2014 (11)2 : ×7×7
7
121 : 154
What is the respective ratio of total production 11 : 14
by B in the years 2012 and 2014 together to the 50. A Bus covered a distance of 780 km in 12
total production by C in those two years hours. What distance would a car cover in 11
together? hours travelling at a speed which is 7 kmph
(a) 6 : 7 (b) 5 : 7 more than that of the Bus?
(c) 14 : 15 (d) 7 : 8 (a) 650 km (b) 735 km
(c) 792 km (d) 782 km
Ans. (d) : According to the question–
B : C 780
Ans. (c) : The speed of Bus =
(25 + 45) : (40 + 40) 12
70 : 80 = 65 kmh
7:8 according to the question, when the speed of car is more
than 7 kmh than that of Bus then speed of car
47. A is five times of B. The percent that B is less
= 65 + 7 = 72 kmh
than A is –
Distance = Speed × time
1 Distance = 72 × 11
(a) 83 Percent (b) 75 Percent
3 = 792 km
(c) 80 Percent (d) 85 Percent 51. The price of wheat has increased by 60 percent.
Ans. (c) : In order to restore the original price, the new
price must be reduced by :
(a) 40 Percent (b) 45 Percent
1 1
(c) 33 Percent (d) 37 Percent
3 2
4 Ans. (d) : According to the question–
% That B is less than A = × 100
5 100×loss
= 80% % loss =
100 + loss
48. In a swimming pool measuring 90 m × 40 m, 100×60
150 men take a dip. If the average displacement =
of water by a man is 8 cubic meters, what will 100 + 60
be rise in water level? = 37.5%

28 YCT
52. A sum becomes ` 45,000 after two years and ` (a) ` 4800 (b) ` 5000
67,500 after four years at the same compound (c) ` 4500 (d) ` 5200
interest. The sum is : Ans. (b) : Let the cost price = 100%
(a) ` 32,500 (b) ` 33,000 According to the question –
(c) ` 45,000 (d) ` 30,000 20% – 16% = 200
Ans. (d) : According to the question– 200×100%
Let the sum is `x 100% = = ` 5000
4%
2 yrs 4 yrs
x → 45000 → 67500 56. While finding the average of 10 given numbers,
x 45000 a student by mistake wrote 62 in place of a
= number 26 and got his average 50. The correct
45000 67500
x = ` 30000 average of the given numbers is :
(a) 46.4 (b) 49.3
53. A cube whose edge is 20 cm long has circle on
(c) 49.1 (d) 48.5
each of its faces painted black. What is the total
area of the unpainted surface of the cube if the Ans. (a) : Average
circles are of the largest area possible?  Right value ∼ Wrong value 
(a) 480 sq.cm. (b) 531.33 sq.cm. = given average –  
(c) 514.28 sq.cm. (d) 457.14 sq.cm.  Total No 
Ans. (c) :  62 – 26 
= 50 –
 10 
 36 
= 50 –
 10 
A cube has 6 faces
= 50 – 3.6
total circle = 6 = 46.4
Radius of each circle = 10 cm
Required area = TSA cube – area of 6 black circle 57. If 2/3rd of A is 4/5th of B, then A : B = ?
2 2 (a) 6 : 5 (b) 7 : 8
= 6a – 6(πr )
(c) 10 : 9 (d) 12 : 11
22
= 6[20 × 20 – × 10× 10] Ans. (a) : According to the question–
7
314 2 4
= 6[400 – × 10 × 10] A× =B×
100 3 5
= 6[400 – 314] 5A = 6B
= 6 × 86 A 6
= 516 ≈ 514.28 cm3 =
B 5
54. Working 5 hours a day, A can complete a piece 3 10 5
of work in 8 days and working 6 hours a day, B 58. If P = 2 × 3 × 5;Q = 2 × 3 × 7 then HCF of P
can complete the same work in 10 days. and Q is :
Working 8 hours a day, they both can complete (a) 24 (b) 210
the work in : (c) 120 (d) 48
(a) 4.5 days (b) 5 days Ans. (a) : Given–
(c) 3 days (d) 4 days P = 23 × 310 × 5
Ans. (c) : According to the question– Q = 25 × 3 × 7
HCF of P & Q = 23 × 3
=8×3
= 24
Total work = efficiency × Day 59. A and B can do a piece of work in 10 days and
120 = 5 × Day 25 days, respectively. If A and B work together
120 for 4 days, how much work will be left?
Day =
5 1 11
Day = 24 days (a) (b)
2 25
Working both 8 hours they will complete the work in
22 14
24 (c) (d)
= = 3 days 75 25
8
55. An article was sold at 16 Percent gain. Had it Ans. (b) : According to the question–
been sold for ` 200 more, the gain would have 4 4
been 20 Percent. Then the cost price of the The four days work of 'A' & 'B' = 10 + 25
article is :
29 YCT
 63. Out of the given options which best expresses
2 4 10 + 4
= + = the meaning of the given proverb?
5 25 25 'Make hay while the sun shines'.
14 (a) If you have an opportunity, you need not
= worry for future.
25 (b) If you have an opportunity to do something,
14 11 do it before the opportunity expires.
then, left work = 1 – = (c) Finish all the agricultural work during day
25 25 time
60. My father distributed ` 280 in such a way that (d) It is only the lucky people who get good
each girl received ` 20 and each boy ` 10. If the opportunities
number of boys is less than 2 that of girls. The Ans. (b) : The meaning of the given proverb, make hay
number of girls is – while the sun shines- (Make the most of a favorable
(a) 15 (b) 10 situation while it lasts) is expressed by option (b) if you
(c) 8 (d) 7 have an opportunity to do something, do it before the
Ans. (b) : opportunity expires. Rest of the options give incoherent
meaning.
64. Read each part of the given sentence to find out
whether there is any grammatical error in it.
The error, if any will be in one part of the
sentence. The letter of that part is the answer.
If there is no error, the answer is 'D'.
(a) but there is no reply
Let the no. of Girls = x
(b) No error
and no of boys = (x – 2) (c) We thought they would have got home by
according to the question– five o'clock,
10(x– 2) + 20x = 280 (d) When we phoned.
10x – 20 + 20x = 280 Ans. (a) : The error is present in option (a) but there is
30x = 300 no reply. Here, but there was no reply will be
x = 10 appropriate to be used to make the sentence
Hence, the no of girls (x) = 10 grammatically correct.
Correct Sentence – We thought they would have got
General English home by five o’clock but there was no reply when we
phoned.
65. A sentence with an underlined word is given
61. Choose a word that can be replaced for the
below. Find the word which is most similar in
given sentence. meaning to the underlined word.
A place where government or public records I was hoping she might show a little
are kept. compassion.
(a) Archive (b) Arsenal (a) pity (b) need
(c) Cloak room (d) Dormitory (c) hatred (d) anger
Ans. (a) : The given sentence 'A place where Ans. (a) : The meaning of underlined word, Compassion-
government or public records are kept' can be replaced (Pity and concern for suffering of the others) is expressed
by option (a) Archive-(A collection of documents or by option (a) pity-(A feeling of sadness for somebody else
records). sufferings). Hence option (a) is correct.
Meaning of other options are- 66. In the given question, a part of the sentence is
Arsenal – A collection of weapons and military printed in bold. Choose the correct alternative.
equipments. Jesus Christ were said to have perform
Cloak room – A room where personal things are kept miracles like turning water into wine.
Dormitory – A large bedroom in a school (a) is said to have perform miracles
62. Out of the given four words only one is spelt (b) No improvement
correctly. Find the word that is correctly spelt. (c) was said to have perform miracles
(a) Admiration (b) Apriciation (d) was said to have performed miracles
(c) Acknoledge (d) Assential Ans. (d) : In the aforementioned sentence, 'were said to
Ans. (a) : Option (a) admiration - (Respect and warm have perform miracles', need to be replaced with 'was
approval) is correctly spelt. said to have performed miracles'. Because with singular
Correct spelling of other options are- subject, singular verb (was) is used and with have, third
Appreciation- Recognition of good qualities of form (v3) of the verb is used.
someone. Correct sentence
Essential - Absolutely necessary. Jesus Christ was said to have performed miracles like
Acknowledge- Accept the existence of something. turning water into wine.

30 YCT
67. In the given question, a part of the sentence is Ans. (a) : In the aforementioned blank, Preposition
printed in bold. Choose the correct alternative. given in option (a) Inspite of- (Notwithstanding,
He found barely anything to eat, did he? regardless of) will be appropriate to be used. Because In
(a) No Improvement (b) hasn't he? spite of, is used to show contrast.
(c) didn't he? (d) wasn't he? Correct sentence- The air was clear and fresh, in spite
Ans. (a) : No improvement is required. Because of all the traffic.
question tag of negative sentences is always positive. 73. Rearrange the following four sentences (P),
Hence sentence is correct. (Q), (R) and (S) in a proper sequence to form a
Correct sentence – He found barely anything to eat, meaningful paragraph and then choose the
did he? right choice of the sequence of letters which
68. In the following question, find out the correctly represents the correct arrangement.
spelt word. 1. A crow was dying of thirst when he saw a
(a) Bougainvillea (b) Bogainvilla pitcher. Hoping to find water, he flew to it with
(c) Bougainvilea (d) Bougainvilla delight.
Ans. (a) : The spelling given in option (a) P. And he knew that if he tipped the pitcher over, the
Bougainvillea is correct. water would spill out before He could drink it.
69. Out of the given four sentences, choose the one Q. He collected as many stones as he could carry
which is grammatically correct. and dropped them one by one with his beak
(a) He have forgave me for all my mistakes into the pitcher.
(b) He has forgave me for all my mistakes R. When he reached it, he discovered to his grief
(c) He have forgiven me for al my mistakes that it was only one-quarter full. The level of the
(d) He has forgiven me for all my mistakes water was so low that he could not possibly get at
Ans. (d) : Option (d) is grammatically correct. Because it. The spout was too narrow, and he too big.
with, hesheitname or singular subject, has + V3 S. He thought and thought. Finally, he had an
structure is used. idea.
Correct sentence- He has forgiven me for all my 6. With each stone, the level of the water rose
mistakes. higher and higher until it came within his
70. Out of the given four words one is spelt reach. Thus he saved his life.
incorrectly. Find the word that is incorrectly (a) PQRS (b) RPSQ
spelt. (c) SPQR (d) QPRS
(a) Colleague (b) Portuguese Ans. (b) : The correct sequence of the jumbled
(c) Pharaoh (d) Chauffeur sentences after arrangement is option (b) RPSQ.
Ans. (c) : Error lies in spelling of the word given in 74. Choose a word that can be replaced for the
option (c). Its correct spelling will be 'Pharaohs'- (God given sentence.
of Egypt). A room for keeping luggage at a railway
Meaning of other options are- station or in any public building.
Colleague- A person who works at the same place as (a) Cargo (b) Creche
you. (c) Dormitory (d) Cloakroom
Portuguese- People of Portugal.
Ans. (d) : The given sentence, A room for keeping
Chauffeur- A person whose job is to drive a car for
luggage at a railway station or in any Public building
somebody else.
can be replaced by option (d) Cloakroom- (A room in a
71. What is the meaning of the idiom 'Let the cat Public building where personal things can be left).
out of the bag'? Meaning of other options are-
(a) To share information that was previously
Cargo- Freight when conveyed via water or air.
concealed
(b) To keep a cat out instead of keeping it in a Crèche- A place where small childrens are looked after
cage while their parents working, shopping.
(c) To hide the information Dormitory- A building in a school where students live.
(d) To put a cover or lid on something 75. A sentence with an underlined word is given
Ans. (a) : The meaning of the given idiom, let the cat below. Find the word which is opposite to the
out of the bag-(Reveal the truth) is displayed by option underlined word from the given options.
(a) To share information that was previously concealed. The boy shows utter contempt for authority
Rest of the options give incoherent meaning. and is virtually uncontrollable.
72. Out of the given options, choose the most (a) respect (b) disrespect
appropriate one to fill in the blank. (c) imagination (d) dislike
The air was clear and fresh, _____ all the Ans. (a) : The antonym of underlined word of the
traffic. sentence, 'contempt' – (The feeling that somebody does
(a) Inspite of (b) even though not deserve respect) is option (a) Respect- (Have high
(c) because of (d) as if opinion of somebody).
31 YCT
Meaning of other options are- 78. Which word in the passage means, "The area
Disrespect- Lake of courtesy near or surrounding a particular place"?
Imagination- The ability to create mental images (a) Legal (b) Historic
Dislike- Feel distaste for (c) Elementary (d) Vicinity
Comprehension : Ans. (d) : According to the passage, option (d) vicinity
Read the passage carefully and choose the best means The area near or surrounding a particular place.
answer to each question. Meaning of other options are-
The Right of children to Free and Compulsory Legal- Allowed by law
Education Act came into force-from April 1, Historic- Famous in history
2010. This was a historic day for the people of Elementary- Basic, connected with first stage
India as from this day the right to education 79. Why April 1, 2010 was considered a historic
will be accorded the same legal status as the day for the people of India?
right to life as provided by Article 21A of the (a) Both because right of children to free and
Indian Constitution. Every child in the age compulsory education act came into force and
group of 6-14 years will be provided 8 years of because right to life as provided by article
elementary education in an age appropriate 21A was nullified.
classroom in the vicinity of his/her (b) Because right of children to free and
neighborhood. compulsory education act came into force.
Any cost that prevents a child from accessing (c) Because right to life as provided by Article
school will be borne by the State which shall 21A was not nullified.
have the responsibility of enrolling the child as (d) Because right to life as provided by article
well as ensuring attendance and completion of 21A was nullified.
8 years of schooling. No child shall be denied
Ans. (b) : According to the passage, April 1, 2010 was
admission for want of documents; no child
considered a historic day for India because Right of
shall be turned away if the admission cycle in
children to free and compulsory education Act came
the school is over and no child shall be asked to
into force on this day. Hence option (b) is correct.
take an admission test. Children with
disabilities will also be educated in the 80. As per the information contained in the
mainstream schools. The Prime Minister Shri passage, which statement is true?
Manmohan Singh has emphasized that it is (a) State shall have the responsibility of enrolling
important for the country that if we nurture the child as well as ensuring attendance and
our children and young people with the right completion of 8 years of schooling
education, India's future as a strong and (b) No child shall be denied admission for want
prosperous country is secure. of documents
76. As per the information contained in the (c) Any cost that prevents a child from accessing
passage, which statement is not true? school will be borne by the State
(a) Children with disabilities will not be educated (d) All are true
in the mainstream schools Ans. (d) : According to the passage information given
(b) All children will be required to take an in all options are correct. hence option (d) All are true
admission test in order to ensure admission to correct.
a good school.
(c) A child shall be turned away if the admission General Hindi
cycle in the school is over
(d) All are untrue
Ans. (d) : According to the information given in the
81. ueeskeâesefòeâ ‘[eÙeve Yeer ome Ie yeKMe osleer nw’ keâe DeLe& nw-
passage and A perusal of it reveals that statements (a) keâšg JeÛeve yejeyej Ùeeo jnles nQ~
given in all options are false. Hence option (d) All are (b) DehejeOeer keâYeer efkeâmeer keâes veneR ÚesÌ[lee
untrue is correct. (c) DevÙeeÙeer Yeer heÌ[esmeer mes efnue-efceuekeâj jnlee nw~
77. What is the aim of right to education? (d) YeueeF& keâjves kesâ efueS efkeâmeer mes keäÙee hetÚvee~
(a) To provide 8 years of elementary education to
every child in the age group of 6-14 years. Ans. (c) : ‘[eÙeve Yeer ome Iej yeKMe osleer nw’ ueeskeâesefkeäle keâe DeLe&
(b) To get all the children admitted in privates nw– ‘DevÙeeÙeer Yeer heÌ[esmeer mes efnue-efceue keâj jnlee nw~’
schools kegâÚ DevÙe ueeskeâesefkeäleÙeeB
(c) To provide 10 years of elementary education 1. DeOepeue ieiejer Úuekeâle peeÙe- Deuhe %eeve, Oeve Ùee yeue nesves
to every child in the age group of 6-12 years. hej Flejevee
(d) To get all the children admitted in
2. FËš keâe peJeeye helLej mes- og<š kesâ meeLe og<šlee keâjvee
government schools.
Ans. (a) : According to the passage the aim of right to 82. Megæ Jele&veer eeues Meyo keâe ÛeÙeve keâerefpeS-
education is to provide 8 years of elementary education (a) efJeYeeJeefj (b) meche&Ce
to every child in the age group of 6–14 years. (c) Deekeâ<eCe& (d) ØeewÅeesefiekeâer
32 YCT
Ans. (d) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘ØeewÅeesefiekeâer’ Megæ Jele&veer Jeeuee 2. F&o keâe ÛeeBo nesvee – yengle efove yeeo efoKeeF& osvee/ogue&Ye
Meyo nw efJeYeeJeefj, meche&Ce leLee Deekeâ<e&Ce DeMegæ Meyo nQ Fvekeâer Megæ nesvee
Jele&veer ›eâceMe: ‘efJeYeeJejer’, ‘mechetCe&’ leLee ‘Deekeâ<e&Ce’ nesieer~ 3. DeeOee leerlej DeeOee yešsj – yescesue Jemleg/keâeÙe&
83. ‘keâvee’ Meyo mes keâewve-mee Meyo ØesCeeLe&keâ ef›eâÙee yevesiee? 88. efoS ieS efekeâuheeW ceW mes yengeÛeve Meyo keâe ÛeÙeve
(a) keâjes (b) keâjJeevee keâerefpeS-
(c) keâjJeeÙee (d) keâjvee heÌ[siee- (a) Je<ee& (b) meesvee
Ans. (b) : ‘keâjvee’ Meyo mes ‘keâjJeevee’ ØejsCeeLe&keâ ef›eâÙee yevesiee~ (c) De#ele (d) pevelee
FmeceW ‘keâj’ cetue Oeeleg nw Deewj ‘keâjvee’ ØeLece ØejsCeeLe&keâ ef›eâÙee Deewj Ans. (c) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘De#ele’ Meyo keâe ØeÙeesie meowJe
‘keâjJeevee’ efÉleerÙe ØejsCeeLe&keâ ef›eâÙee nw~ efpeme ef›eâÙee kesâ JÙeehekeâlee ceW yengJeÛeve ceW ner neslee nw~ oece, DeeW", DeeBmet, ØeeCe, oMe&ve, ueesie
keâlee& hej efkeâmeer otmejs keâer ØesjCee peeveer peeleer nw, Gmes ‘ØesjCeeLe&keâ FlÙeeefo MeyoeW keâe ØeÙeesie meowJe yengJeÛeve ceW ner neslee nw~
ef›eâÙee’ keânles nQ~ 89. ‘Deesme’ keâe heÙee&ÙeeeÛeer Meyo nw-
84. efvecveefueefKele eekeäÙe ceW keâewve-mee eeÛÙe nw– (a) oes<e (b) Jemeve
‘YeeiÙeeeve keâe nue Yetle peeslelee nw~’ (c) leg<eej (d) DeOej
(a) keâce&JeeÛÙe (b) keâle&=JeeÛÙe Ans. (c) : efJekeâuhe ceW ‘Deesme’ keâe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Meyo ‘leg<eej’ nesiee~
(c) efceßeJeekeäÙe (d) YeeJeJeeÛÙe Meyevece, veernej, efveMeepeue, Meerle keâCe, keâesnje, heeuee FlÙeeefo~
Ans. (b) : ‘YeeiÙeJeeve keâe nue Yetle peeslelee nw~’ JeekeäÙe keâle=&JeeÛÙe keâe ‘Deesme’ kesâ DevÙe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Meyo nwb~
GoenjCe nw~ ef›eâÙee kesâ Gme ™heevlej keâes keâle=&JeeÛÙe keânles nQ, efpeme Meyo heÙee&ÙeeeÛeer
JeekeäÙe ceW keâlee& keâer ØeOeevelee keâe yeesOe neslee nw~ JeeÛÙe kesâ leerve Yeso oes<e DeJeiegCe, Ss<e, ot<eCe, yegjeF&, $egefš FlÙeeefo
nesles nQ~ Jemeve Jem$e, heš, Ûeerj, Decyej, heefjOeeve, ogkeâue,
1. keâle=&JeeÛÙe- JeekeäÙe ceW keâlee& keâer ØeOeevelee
heesMeekeâ, FlÙeeefo~
2. keâce&JeeÛÙe- JeekeäÙe ceW keâce& keâer ØeOeevelee
90. mebmke=âefle keâe efeMes<eCe keäÙee nw?
3. YeeJeJeeÛÙe- JeekeäÙe ceW YeeJe keâer ØeOeevelee
(a) meebmke=âeflekeâ (b) mebmke=âle
85. ‘‘mebÙeesie’’ Meyo keâe mebefOe efeÛÚso nw-
(c) meebmke=âefle (d) mebmke=âeflekeâ
(a) meb ± Ùeesie (b) meced ± Ùeesie
Ans. (a) : ‘mebmke=âefle’ keâe efJeMes<eCe ‘meebmke=âeflekeâ’ nesiee~ pees Meyo
(c) mecce ± Ùeesie (d) mece ± Ùeesie
‘efJeMes<Ùe’ keâer efJeMes<elee yeleeÙes GvnW efJeMes<eCe keânles nwb~
Ans. (b) : ‘mebÙeesie’ keâe meefvOe efJeÛÚso ‘meced ± Ùeesie’ nesiee~ Ùen
JÙebpeve mebefOe keâe GoenjCe nw~ peye ‘ced’ keâe cesue ‘keâ’ mes ‘ce’ lekeâ kesâ pewmes– efeMes<Ùe efeMes<eCe
efkeâmeer Yeer Jeie& kesâ JÙebpeve JeCe& mes neslee nw lees ‘ced’ Gmeer Jeie& kesâ Deefive – DeeivesÙe
hebÛecee#ej (DevegmJeej) ceW yeoue peelee nw~ Devegceeve – Devegceeefvele
pewmes- meced ± hetCe& = mebhetCe& Deheceeve – Deheceeefvele
hejced ± leg = hejbleg 91. eekeäÙe Øekeâe keâe ÛeÙeve keâerefpeS-
86. efoS ieS eekeäÙe kesâ efueS Skeâ Meyo keâe ÛeÙeve keâerefpeS- ‘peye lekeâ en Ie hengBÛee leye lekeâ Gmekesâ efhelee pee Ûegkesâ
‘‘Ssmes mLeeve he efveeeme keâvee peneB keâesF& helee ve hee mekesâ’’ Les~’
(a) De%eeleJeeme (b) De%e (a) efceße JeekeäÙe (b) mebÙegòeâ JeekeäÙe
(c) DeeÛeceve (d) keâyeÇmleeve (c) mejue JeekeäÙe (d) Dee%eeJeeÛekeâ JeekeäÙe
Ans. (a) : ‘Ssmes mLeeve hej efveJeeme keâjvee peneB keâesF& helee ve hee Ans. (a) : ‘peye lekeâ Jen Iej hengBÛee leye lekeâ Gmekesâ efhelee pee Ûegkesâ
mekesâ’ JeekeäÙe kesâ efueS Skeâ Meyo ‘De%eeleJeeme’ nesiee~ Les~’ efceße JeekeäÙe keâe GoenjCe nw~ efceße JeekeäÙe ceW Skeâ ØeOeeve
1. efpemes keâesF& YeÙe ve nes – efveYe&Ùe GheJeekeäÙe Deewj Skeâ Ùee Gmemes pÙeeoe Deeefßele GheJeekeäÙe nesles nwb~
2. pees lespenerve nes – efvemlespe Deeefßele GheJeekeäÙe, ØeOeeve GheJeekeäÙe hej efveYe&j nesles nQ~
3. DeebKees kesâ mece#e – ØelÙe#e 92. eekeäÙe kesâ Megæ ™he keâe ÛeÙeve keâerefpeS-
87. cegneee ‘ÛeeRšer kesâ he efvekeâuevee’ keâe DeLe& nw- (a) Deehe lees ceeve ieS hej legcneje YeeF& ve ceevee~
(a) Deejece keâer efpevoieer peervee (b) legce lees ceeve ieS hej legcneje YeeF& ve ceevee~
(b) efkeâmeer ceeueoej keâes heâmeeBvee (c) Deehekeâe YeeF& lees ceeve ieÙee hej legce lees veneR ceeves~
(c) ceewle kesâ ue#eCe efoKevee (d) ve lees legce ceeves Deewj ner ve Deehekeâe YeeF&~
(d) DelÙeble ßece keâe keâece keâjvee Ans. (b) : efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW ‘legce lees ceeve ieS hej legcneje YeeF&
Ans. (c) : ‘Ûeeršer kesâ hej efvekeâuevee’ cegneJejs keâe DeLe& ceewle keâe ue#eCe ve ceevee’ JeekeäÙe Megæ nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nwb~
efoKeevee/efJeveeMe efvekeâš nesvee’~ 93. ‘Øe%ee’ keâe efeueesce Meyo nw-
cegneee DeLe& (a) efveYe&Ùe (b) DeefJeJeskeâ
1. Ieer keâe oerhekeâ peueevee – Deevebo cebieue nesvee (c) DeØe%ee (d) DeYeso
33 YCT
Ans. (b) : ‘Øe%ee’ Meyo keâe efJeueesce ‘DeefJeJeskeâ’ nesiee~ Øe%ee keâe DeLe& 1956 kesâ Deesueeqchekeâ KesueeW ceW Yeele ves ÛeewLee mLeeve Øeehle
yegefæ/efJeJeskeâ neslee nw~ efkeâÙee~ Ùen YeeleerÙe šerce keâer meyemes yeÌ[er GheueeqyOe Leer~
Meyo efeueesce YeeleerÙe šerce ves 1962 kesâ SefMeÙeeF& KesueeW ceW oef#eCe
Yeso – DeYeso keâesefÙee keâes 2–1 mes nekeâ meCe& heokeâ peerlee~ 1964
efveYe&Ùe – meYeÙe/YeÙe SefMeÙeeF& keâhe ceW Yeele Gheefepeslee ne~ Ùen šgvee&ceWš YeeleerÙe
vetleve – hegjeleve šerce kesâ efueS Ùeeoiee meeefyele ngDee~ Fmekesâ yeeo YeeleerÙe
94. ‘‘ie=neiele’’ ceW keâewve-mee meceeme nw? šerce kesâ ØeoMe&ve ceW efieeeš Meg™ nes ieÙeer~ yengle mes
(a) efÉieg meceeme (b) ÉbÉ meceeme ØeefleÙeesefieleeDeeW ceW Demeheâue nves kesâ yeeo 1982 kesâ
(c) DeJÙeÙeerYeeJe meceeme (d) lelheg™<e meceeme SefMeÙeeF& KesueeW ceW keäeeš& heâeFveue lekeâ hengBÛeer, efpemekeâer
Ans. (d) : ‘ie=neiele’ lelheg™<e meceeme nw~ ‘ie=neiele’ keâe meceeme efJe«en
cespeyeeveer efouueer ves keâer Leer~ Fmekesâ yeeo YeeleerÙe šerce ves
20 e<eeX yeeo 1984 SSheâmeer SefMeÙeeF& keâhe kesâ efueS
‘ie=n keâes Deeiele’ nesiee~ Ùen keâce& lelheg®<e (keâes efJeYeefkeäle keâe ueeshe) keâe
GoenjCe nw~ peneB hej ØeLece heo ieewCe leLee Gòej heo ØeOeeve neslee nw, keäeeueerheâeF& efkeâÙee~
JeneB lelheg™<e meceeme neslee nw~ 96. GheÙeg&òeâ ieÅeebMe kesâ Devegmee 1954 kesâ SefMeÙeeF& Kesue, keâneB
95. efoS ieS efekeâuheeW ceW mes efkeâmeceW efeeced-efÛeÖeW keâe ieuele
DeeÙeesefpele efkeâÙes ieÙes Les, efpemeceW YeeleerÙe e°^erÙe hegâšyee@ue šerce
ves «eghe ÛeCe ceW otmee mLeeve Øeehle efkeâÙee Lee~
ØeÙeesie ngDee nw?
(a) Ûeerve (b) ceveeruee
(a) Jemleg, JÙeefòeâ, mLeeve, YeeJeeefo kesâ veece keâes ‘meb%ee’ keânles
(c) efouueer (d) osnjeotve
nQ~
Ans. (b) : ieÅeebMe kesâ Devegmeej 1954 kesâ SefMeÙeeF& Kesue ‘ceveeruee’ ceW
(b) Oeerjs-Oeerjs kegâÚ veneR efceuelee efmehe&â ceewle efceueleer nQ!!
DeeÙeesefpele efkeâÙee ieÙee Lee~ FmeceW YeejleerÙe je<š^erÙe hegâšyee@ue šerce ves
(c) efJe<eÙe:-Ûeej efoveeW keâer Úgóer nsleg~
«eghe ÛejCe ceW otmeje mLeeve Øeehle efkeâÙee~
(d) ‘veeÛe ve peeves DeeBieve šsÌ{e’~
97. GheÙeg&òeâ ieÅeebMe keâe GefÛele Meer<e&keâ nw-
Ans. (b) : efoS ieS efJekeâuheeW ceW mes efJekeâuhe (b) ‘Oeerjs-Oeerjs kegâÚ (a) YeejleerÙe je°^erÙe hegâšyee@ue šerce
veneR efceuelee efmehe&â ceewle efceueleer nw~’ efJejeced-efÛevneW keâer Âef<š mes ieuele (b) YeejleerÙe hegâšyee@ue keäueye
nw~ Fmekeâe Megæ ™he ‘Oeerjs-Oeerjs kegâÚ veneR efceuelee, efmehe&â ceewle efceueleer (c) YeejleerÙe je°^erÙe hegâšyee@ue šerce keâe uevove Deesuebefhekeâ
nw~’ nesiee~ (d) YeejleerÙe je°^erÙe ne@keâer šerce
efoÙes ieÙes ieÅeebMe keâe OÙeevehete&keâ DeOÙeÙeve keâ ØeMveeW keâe Ans. (a) : GheÙeg&keäle ieÅeebMe keâe GefÛele Meer<e&keâ ‘YeejleerÙe je<š^erÙe
Gòe oerefpeS- hegâšyee@ue šerce’ nesiee~
YeeleerÙe e°^erÙe hegâšyee@ue šerce DeefKeue YeeleerÙe hegâšyee@ue 98. GheÙeg&òeâ ieÅeebMe kesâ Devegmee DeefKeue YeeleerÙe hegâšyee@ue
cenemebIe kesâ Éee Meeefmele nw~ 1948 mes Ùen DeefKeue YeeleerÙe cenemebIe (SDeeF&SheâSheâ) keâye yeveeF& ieF& Leer?
hegâšyee@ue cenemebIe heâerheâe Éee mebyeæ nes ieÙeer~ 1948 mes (a) 1930 (b) 1948
YeeleerÙe hegâšyee@ue cenemebIe SefMeÙeeF& hegâšyee@ue mebIe kesâ (c) 1962 (d) 1937
mebmLeehekeâ meomÙeeW ceW nw~ YeeleerÙe šerce ves Deye lekeâ oes Ans. (d) : GheÙeg&keäle ieÅeebMe kesâ Devegmeej ‘DeefKeue YeejleerÙe hegâšyee@ue
SefMeÙeeF& KesueeW ceW meCe& leLee SSheâmeer SefMeÙeeF&-keâhe ceW cenemebIe’ (SDeeF&SheâSheâ) Je<e& 1937 ceW yeveeF& ieÙeer Leer~
Skeâ yee pele peerlee nw~ 99. efkeâme šgvee&ceWš ceW YeeleerÙe šerce keâes øeâebme mes 2-1 mes ne keâe
YeeleerÙe šerce ves 1930 ceW ner Dee@mš^sefueÙee, peeheeve, meecevee keâvee heÌ[e Lee?
ceuesefMeÙee, Fb[esvesefMeÙee Deew LeeF&ueQ[ keâe oewe Meg™ efkeâÙee (a) 1948 keâe uevove Deesueeqchekeâ
Lee~ peuo ner keâF& YeeleerÙe hegâšyee@ue keäueyeeW keâer meheâuelee (b) 1951 kesâ SefMeÙeeF& Kesue
kesâ yeeo, DeefKeue YeeleerÙe hegâšyee@ue cenemebIe (c) 1982 kesâ SefMeÙeeF& Deesueeqchekeâ
(SDeeF&SheâSheâ) 1937 ceW yeveeF& ieF&~ 1948 keâe uevove (d) 1956 kesâ Deesueeqchekeâ
Deesuebefhekeâ YeeleerÙe šerce kesâ efueS henuee yeÌ[e šgvee&ceWš Ans. (a) : GheÙe&gkeäle ieÅeebMe kesâ Devegmeej 1948 kesâ uevove Deesuebefhekeâ
Lee~ eneB he šerce øeâebme mes 2–1 mes ne keâe meecevee keâvee ceW YeejleerÙe šerce keâes øeâe@me mes 2-1 mes nej keâe meecevee keâjvee heÌ[e Lee~
heÌ[e~ 100. GheÙeg&òeâ ieÅeebMe kesâ Devegmee YeeleerÙe šerce ves 1962 kesâ
1951 mes 1962 keâer meceÙeeeefOe keâes YeeleerÙe hegâšyee@ue keâe SefMeÙeeF& KesueeW ceW efkeâme šerce keâes nekeâ meCe& heokeâ peerlee
meCe& Ùegie ceevee peelee nw~ mewÙÙeo Deyogue nerce kesâ Lee?
ØeefMe#eCe ceW YeeleerÙe šerce SefMeÙee keâer mee&ßes‰ šerce yeveer~ (a) peeheeve (b) Gòej keâesefjÙee
YeeleerÙe šerce ves 1951 kesâ SefMeÙeeF& KesueeW ceW meCe& peerlee, (c) oef#eCe keâesefjÙee (d) øeâebme
efpemekeâer cespeyeeveer Yeele ves ner keâer Leer~ 1954 kesâ SefMeÙeeF& Ans. (d) : GheÙeg&keäle ieÅeebMe kesâ Devegmeej YeejleerÙe hegâšyee@ue šerce ves
KesueeW, pees efkeâ ceveeruee ceW ngS Les, ceW Yeele ves «eghe ÛeCe ceW 1962 kesâ SefMeÙeeF& Kesue ceW oef#eCe keâesefjÙee keâes 2-1 mes njekeâj mJeCe&
otmee mLeeve Øeehle efkeâÙee~ heokeâ peerlee Lee~
34 YCT
 106. Inadequate intake of folic acid can lead to :
Post Specific Subject Related Questions (a) sickle cell anaemia
(b) aplastic anaemia
Discipline-1 (c) iron-deficiency anaemia
101. The metabolic disorder of tryptophan (d) megaloblastic anaemia
catabolism is called : Ans. (d) : Anemia is a blood disorder in which the
(a) Hartnup disease (b) hyperammonemia number of red blood cell is lower than usual.
(c) hypervalinemia (d) alkaptonuria Megaloblastic anaemia is character by.
st
Ans. (a) : Hartnup disease I discribed in the family of 107. Which of the following is a slow-acting
hartnup hena the name hartnup disease. It is an antacid?
autosomal recessive disorder. (a) Sodium bicarbonate
It occurs defect in the neutral amino acid transport (b) Calcium carbonate
which transport neutral amino acid tryptophan. (c) Magnesium oxide
102. Yttrium-90 in the form of colloidal suspensions (d) Aluminium hydroxide gel
of yttrium silicate is used in the treatment of : Ans. (d) : Aluminium hydroxide gel is a very effective
(a) thyroid carcinoma slow acting antacid.
(b) polycythaemia Al(OH)3 + 3 HCl → AlCl3 + 3H2O
(c) thyrotoxicosis It is a white viscous suspension, from which small
(d) arthritic conditions in joints amounts of clear liquid may seperate on setting.
Ans. (d) : In arthiritic patient accumulation of uric acid its pH between 5.5 -6.0.
in joints and synovial fluids get dry in joints and 108. The shape of a liquid mainly depends on :
therefore pain occurs in joint. Yttrium-90 is radioactive (a) Adhesive force
substance used in treatment of Rheumatoid arthritis, (b) Van der Waals force
osteoarthirits & also in cancer. (c) Surface tenstion
103. Presence of electrolyte decreases the solubility (d) Cohesive force
of a gas in water by : Ans. (c) : Surface tension is defined as the force acting
(a) common ion effect over the surface of liquid perpendicular to per unit
(b) solubility product principle length of the surface.
(c) complex formation It is due to the phenomenon of surface tension that the
(d) salting out drops of water tend to assume a spherical shape.
Ans. (d) : Most proteins are less soluble at high salt 109. Ceramidase deficiency can cause :
concentrations, an effect called salting out. (a) Fabry disease (b) Krabbe disease
The salt concentration at which a protein precipitates (c) Farber's disease (d) Gaucher's disease
differs from one protein to another, hence salting out
Ans. (c) : Farber's disease is caused by the deficiency of
can be used to fractionate proteins.
the enzyme called ceramidase. It is also known as
104. Which of the following is NOT an insecticide Farber's lipogranulomatosis is a one of a grup of rare
listed in the schedule of the insecticides Act, inherited metabolic disorders called lipid storage
1968? disease.
(a) Methyl bromide It is a very rare autosomal recessive caused by acid
(b) Copper sulphate ceramidase defeciency. Both parents need to carry and
(c) Benzene hexachloride pass on the defective gene for a child to have Farber's
(d) Diethylbarbituric acid disease.
Ans. (d) : Insecticide act passed in 1968 but effective in 110. Colchicine is used to treat :
Ist august 1971. This act regulate the import, (a) Gout (b) High blood pressure
manufacture, sale, transport distribution and use of (c) Diabetes (d) Arthritis
insecticides such as-methyl bromide, copper sulphate.
Ans. (a) : Gout is a form of arthritis characterised by
105. The most satisfactory indicator for non- severe pain, redness and tenderness in joint.
aqueous acid-base titration is :
Colchicine is obtained from plant colchicum
(a) alizarin yellow
autumnale used in the treatment of gout.
(b) m-Cresol purple
(c) p-Naphtholbenzein 111. Ringer's injection is a :
(d) sodium alizarin sulfonate (a) Compound sodium chloride injection
Ans. (c) : Titration performed in solvent medium which (b) Bacteriostatic sodium chloride injection
does not contain water. (c) Sodium chloride hypertonic injection
Substance is dissolved in a solvent and titrated using (d) Sodium chloride and dextrose injection
acid or base as titrant. Ans. (a) : Ringer's injection contain each 100 ml- 860
P. Naphtholbenzein is most satisfactory indicator for mg- NaCl 30 mg-KCl- 33 mg-CaCl2 dihydrate.
non-aqueous acid-base titration. It is used as electrolyte replenisher.
35 YCT
112. Co-enzyme A is derived from : 118. Which of the following is a sexually
(a) Pantothenic acid (b) Folic acid transmitted disease?
(c) Lipoic acid (d) Nicotinic acid (a) Gonorrhoea (b) Hansen's disease
Ans. (a) : Coenzyme-A is necessary for the metabolism (c) Tetanus (d) Trachoma
of carbohydrate amino acid, fatty acid and other Ans. (a) : Gonorrhea is sexually transmitted disease
biomolecules. caused by Neisseria gonorrhoea that can affect both
Coenzyme-A is naturally synthesized from pantothenate men and women mainly affects genitals, rectum and
or pentothenic acid (vitamin B5) throat.
113. The chemical agent which inhibits the 119. The bandage made of closed mesh non-
multiplication of bacteria is called a/an : absorbent gauze is called a :
(a) Crepe bandage
(a) bacteriostatic (b) antiseptic
(b) Common gauze roller bandage
(c) bactericide (d) germicide
(c) Woven elastic bandage
Ans. (a) : Bacteriostatic are those agent which inhibit (d) Muslin bandage
the growth of the bacteria. Ans. (d) : A muslin bandage is any gauze or cloth
Antiseptic – Apply on the living surface. material used for any of the purpose to support or to
Bacteriade – Kill the bacteria. hold or to immobilize the body part.
Germicide – Kill the germ. Bandaging is a technique of application of specific
114. Acholuric is a type of : roller bandages to different parls of body.
(a) toxic jaundice (b) haemolytic jaundice Is made of closed mesh non-absorbent gauze.
(c) amoebic dysentery (d) obstructive jaundice 120. Mixing of low-viscosity fluid of less than 10
Ans. (b) : This condition is associated with increased poise is an important mechanism for :
hemolysis of erythrocytes (e.g. in-compatible blood (a) Turbulent mixing
transfusion, malaria sickle cell anemia. (b) Laminar mixing
This results in the overproduction of bilirubin beyond (c) Molecular diffusion
the ability of the liver to conjugate and excrete. (d) Bulk transport
115. A radioisotope used for the investigation of Ans. (a) : Turbulent mixing is the result of turbulent
amino and protein metabolism is : flow (characterised by random fluctuation of the fluid
(a) Oxygen (17 O, 18O) velocity at any given point in the system).
(b) Sodium (22 Na, 24 Na) The mechanism of turbulent mixing is mixing of low
(c) Chromium (51 Cr) viscosity fluids less than 10 poise.
(d) Nitrogen (13 N, 15 N) Discipline-2
Ans. (d) : Radioactive isotope.
Radio (Radiation) and Isotope (Unstable Isotope). 121. 'To maintain and increase the supplies of bulk
The isotope which emit the radiation are called radio drugs and formulations' is one of the objectives
of the :
active isotopes decay with emission of radiation alpha
(a) Drug and Cosmetics Act, 1940
(α), beta (β) and gamma (γ) radiation. (b) Drug and Magic Remedies (Objectionable
For biological ivestigation – carbons hydrogen Advertisements) Act, 1954
For metabolic studes – alkali earth metal (c) Pharmaceutical Policy, 2002
For amino acid's protein (d) Drug (Price Control) Order, 1995
Investigation – (N13, N15) Ans. (d) : The Drug Price Control Order (DPCO), 1995
116. Which of the following software programs is is an order issuded by the government of India under
used for calculating peak plasma concentration section 3 of the essential commodities act, 1995 to
and peak plasma time? regulate the prices of dugs.
(a) MULTI (b) KINPAK The objective of DPCO.
(c) SAS (d) BMDP To regulate equal distribution of bulk drugs and
Ans. (b) : There are different approaches to marketing.
pharmacokinetic study using differential equation with It available at fair price.
the help of software. To fix matimum retail price of drug formulation.
KINPAK is software used to obtain AUC (area and 122. The formation of blood within the blood veins,
ercurne) Cmax (peak plasma concentration) tmax (peak primarily in the lower extremities, is called :
plasma time) (a) Myocardial infarction
117. Which computer software program is used for (b) Cardiomyopathy
observing drug reactions? (c) Atherosclerosis
(a) SQL (b) MEDIPHOR (d) Deep vein thrombosis
(c) MYSQL (d) NONLIN Ans. (d) : DVT– Deep vein thrombosis is the
Ans. (b) : MEDIPHOR– Monitoring Evaluation of development of a blood clot in a major deep vein in the
Drug Interaction by a pharmacy oriented reporting. leg, thigh, pelvis or abdomen.
It may also occur in less common 10 cations such as the
Thios system issues a warning when potentially
arms veins the portal meseutric ovarian or retinal veins.
interacting drugs are prescribed for a patient.
36 YCT
123. Most of the drug metabolism takes place in It consist of a circular metal pan placed angularly and
the : mounted at 40 degree rotate on its horizontal axis by
(a) Liver (b) Gall bladder motor.
(c) Stomach (d) Pancreas Coating solution are applied to the tablets by loading or
Ans. (a) : Drug metabolism is the metabolic alteration spraying the material on the rotating tablet bed.
of drug molecules. 129. Which of the following is a device used for the
This usually involves two types of biochemical reaction evaporation or concentration of thermolabile
that occur sequentially in two phases known as phase I substances?
and Phase II. (a) Vacuum pan
Phase I realtions usually invalues otidation, reduction, (b) Evaporating pan
hydralysis deamination and deal kylation reaction (c) Climbing film evaporator
mostly occurs in liver. (d) Lillie film evaporator
124. 'NONLIN' was introduced by: Ans. (a) : Vaccum pan is a circulation device of the
(a) Needleman and Wunsch cylindrical shape used for the evaporation or
(b) Metzler concentration of thermolabile substances and formed
(c) Ledley and Lusted during the mixing, dissolution, evaporation and
(d) Yukihiro Matsumoto concentration of mineral and organic acids.
Ans. (b) : Nonlin is software which allow to perform 130. Rauwolfia alkaloids are used :
statistical regression analysis to estimate the value of (a) To treat hypertension
parameter for linear function. (b) To treat uterine haemorrhage
Nonlin was introduced by Metzler. (c) As a local anesthetic
125. Which of the following are required for the (d) To treat emetic symptoms
supply of energy in protein synthesis? Ans. (a) : Rauwolfia is belongs to family solanaceal.
(a) AMP and GMP (b) ATP and GTP It have chemical constituat reserpine. Reserpine is used
(c) ATP and GMP (d) GTP and AMP as the treatment of hypertension.
Ans. (b) : A GTP malecule or any other nucleoside 131. The test used for the determination of
triphosphate is energetically equivalent to an ATP pyrogenic endotoxins is the
molecule in metabolism. (a) EICAR test (b) Blood culture test
The enzyme glucleoside diphosphokine transfor a (c) Sterility test (d) LAL test
phosphoryl group from GTP or any nucleoside Ans. (d) : LAL stands (Limulus Amebocyte lysate)–
triphosphate to ADP by the following reversible The LAL testing is also known as bacterial endotoxin
reaction. testing, is an in vitro assay used to detect the presence
GTP + ADP ⇌ GDP + ATP and concentration of bacterial endotoxin in drugs and
biological products. LAL test is a simple method for the
ATP is called as energy currency. detection of viable and non viable gram negative
126. Which of the following is a sulphur-containing bacteria.
amino acid? 132. The route of administration of ceftrixone is
(a) Arginine (b) Cysteine (a) Oral (b) Sublingual
(c) Proline (d) Asparagine (c) Suspension (d) Parenteral
Ans. (b): Methionine and cysteine are sulphur Ans. (d) : Parentral route means that route the drug
containing amino acids and methionine is essential given with the help of syringe in veins and muscles.
amino acid. Intravenous– in veins.
cysteine can be synthesised by transfer of sulphur group Intramuscular– in muscles
from methionine to hydroxyl group of serine. Ceftriaxone is cephalsprin antibiotic. It work by killing
Cysteine is non-essential in presence of methionine. bacteria or prevent growth and given parentrally.
127. The commonly used Latin abbreviation for 133. A type of electromagnetic radiation used in
'shake' is : Electron Spin resonance (ESR) spectroscopy is:
(a) p.o (b) ad. (a) Microwave (b) Ultraviolet radiation
(c) ft. (d) agit. (c) Infrared radiation (d) Radio wave
Ans. (d) : P.O means– By mouth Ans. (a) : The type of electromagnetic radiation used in
ad means– Right ear Electron Spin resonance (ESR) spectroscopy is
ft. means– Foot (ameause of length) microwave. It utilizes this kind of radiation to probe
agit means– Shake. species with unpaired electron such as radicals, radical
128. A popular technique of sugar coating is called : cations, and triplets in the presence of an externally
(a) Noneteric film coating applied static magnetic field.
(b) Press coating 134. Vapour pressure of benzene at 180°F is :
(c) Pan coating (a) 957 mmHg (b) 760 mm Hg
(d) Enteric coating (c) 811 mm Hg (d) 882 mm Hg
Ans. (c) : Pan coating is a popular accessory in most Ans. (c) : Vapour pressure of benzene at 180°F (82°C)
pharmaceutical industries. or at the 355K is 811 mmHg.

37 YCT
135. Drug induced malabsorption has been Ans. (b) : Diphenylthiocarbazone test is a specific or
observed after the administration of : limit test of lead based on the reaction of lead and
(a) Acetaminophen (b) Digoxin diphenyl thiocarbazone alkaline solution to form lead
(c) Cephalexin (d) Neomycin dithizonate complex which is violet in color. This
Ans. (d) : Neomycin administration in the body is reaction will only occur if the given sample contains
related to reduction in intestinal digestion as well as lead as an impurity even in trace amount.
absorption of carbohydrates, therefore increasing the
non absorbable carbohydrate in colon. Discipline-3
136. Biotin has a strong affinity for : 141. The process of grinding a substance to a very
(a) Alpha-keto acid fine powder is called :
(b) Isonicotinic acid hydrazide (a) Levigation (b) Maceration
(c) Glutamic acid (c) Sublimation (d) Trituration
(d) Avidin Ans. (d) : Levitation- levitation is the process of
Ans. (d) : Avidin is a glycoprotein that shows a high grinding an insoluble substance to a fine power, while
binding affinity for biotin. It is a kind of tetrameric wet
protein contains four indentical subunits Maceration- The process of extraction in which
(homotetramer) each of which can bind to biotin powderedsize reduced drug is soaked in sutaible solvent
(vitamin B7) with high degree of affinity. Sublimation- Sublimation is a process of conversion
137. The reagent used for the colorimetric assay for where a solid Substance directly transforms into its
ammonia is : gaseous phase without going though the liquid phase
(a) Grignard reagent Sublimation Vapour
Solid →
(b) Folin-Ciocalteu reagent
(c) Phenol-sodium hypochlorite reagent Trituratin- grinding of substance with the help of pestles
mortor
(d) Ferric chloride reagent
Ans. (c) : Alkaline phenol and hypochlorite react with 142. A commonly used integrity test for high
ammonia to form indophenol blue that is proportional to efficiency particulate air filter is the :
the ammonia concentration The blue colour formed is (a) Bubble point test
intensified with sodium thionitroprusside and measure (b) Bacterial challenge test
calorimetrically (c) Dioctyl phthalate test
138. Which of the following works on the principle (d) Diffusion test
of compression or nipping? Ans. (c) : HEPA-High efficiency particulate Air
(a) Tumbling mill (b) Hammer mill • This type of air filter can remove at least 99.977 of
(c) Roller mill (d) Fluid energy mill dust pollen mold bacteria and any airborric particulate
Ans. (c) : • dioctyl phthalate test will quickly identify in HEPA
Mill Principal filter and ventillation system.
1. Tumbling mill Impacts attrition 143. Which of the following organisations functions
2. Hammer mill Impact as a laboratory with respect to blood grouping
3. Roller mill Compression or Hipping reagents and diagnostic kits for human
immunodeficiency virus, hepatitis-B surface
4. Fluid energy mill Impact and attrition
antigens and hepatitis-C virus?
5. Ball mill Impact and attrition (a) National Institute of Bilogicals, Noida
6. cutter mill Cutting (b) Central Drug Testing Laboratory, Thane
139. Which of the following is a blend preservative (c) Centre for Advanced Research in Virology,
of an emulsion system? Vellore
(a) Propylparaben (d) National institute of Virology, Pune
(b) Mixture of methylparaben and propyl paraben Ans. (a) : National institute of Biologicals (NIB) had
(c) Methylparaben been set up in 1992 an apex autonomous institute under
(d) Sodium sorbate the administrative control of the Ministry of Health &
Ans. (b) : Preservative blends are the mixture or blends Family Welfare
of more than on preservative compound in order to in The mandate of the institute includes ensuring provision
habit the growth of micro-organism on cosmetic of quality biological drug ie. invitro. diagnostics
product vaccine and Biotherapeutics
• Mixture of methylparaben and propyl paraben is a 144. A dosage form that releases the drug at a
blend preservative of an emulsion constant rate and provides plasma
140. Diphenylthiocarbazone test is a specific test for concentrations that remain invariant with time
the determination of : is called :
(a) Arsenic (b) Lead (a) Prolonged-release (b) Controlled-release
(c) Sulphate (d) Chloride (c) Extended-release (d) Sustained release
38 YCT
Ans. (b) : Releasing drugs according to a predictable Ans. (a) : Caffeine- Purine alkaloid
and rational programed rate to achieve the optimal Papaverin- Morphine alkaloid
serum-drug concentration. Codiene- Is an alkaloid by methylation.
Sustained Release- It is the release of medication from 151. A clinical disorder caused due to protein-
a tablet or capsule so that you will get the medication energy malnutrition is :
benefits over a longer period of time. (a) Alkaptonuria (b) Phenylketonuria
145. The government endeavours to upgrade the (c) Kwashiorkor (d) Hypervalinemia
standards of pharmacy education and R & D Ans. (c) : alkaptonuria- also called black urine disease.
through which of the following institutions? It is a very rare inherited disorder due to defeciency of
(a) PCI (b) IIT homogentisic acidotidase.
(c) NIPER (d) AICTE Phenylketonuria- It is due to incases the level of
Ans. (c) : National Institute of pharmaceutical phenylalanine
Education and Research-are a group of national level Kwashiorkar- Kwashiorkor is caused by in adequate
institutes of pharmaceutical sciences or Pharmacy amount of proteins in the body.
School in India. 152. Which of the following is a
The government of India has declare the Nipers as mucopolysaccharide?
institute of national importance (a) Cellulose (b) D-glucuronic acid
146. If a drug is NOT labelled in the prescribed (c) Hyaluronic acid (d) Glycogen
manner, then it shall be deemed as a/an : Ans. (c) : Mucopolysaccharides are long chains of
(a) Adulterated drug (b) New drug sugar molecules that found throughout the body. often
(c) Misbranded drug (d) Spurious drug in mucus and in fluid around the joint.
Ans. (c) : Adulterated drug- If it consist in whole or in Example- Heparin, hyaluronic acid keratin, sulphate.
part of any filthy Putrid, or decomposed substance 153. A bacterium that is commonly used to deliver the
Misbranded drug- If its labelling is false or DNA for bacterial or viral antigens is called:
misleading in any particular. (a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Spurious drug- drug shall be deemed to spurious if it is (b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
manufactured under a name which belong to another drugs. (c) Salmonella typhimurium
147. Which of the following is a technique used for (d) Salmonella enteritidis
the specific identification of RNA molecules? Ans. (b) : Agrobacterium tumefacens is a soil
(a) Western blotting (b) Dot blotting bacterium, which is used to transfer a small segment of
(c) Northern blotting (d) Southern blotting DNA into plant genome by the process known as
Ans. (c) : Western flatting- Separates identify protein transformation.
Dot blotting- Protein Isolation 154. Which of the following drugs is used as an
Northern blotting- to detect specific RNA antianxiety agent?
Southern blotting- to detect Specific DNA molecules. (a) Temazepam (b) Flurazepam
148. Which of the following is an acute (c) Triazolam (d) Diazepam
communicable disease of the upper respiratory Ans. (d) : Antianxiety drugs that can relieve anxiety
tract? without interfering with mental or physical function.
(a) Chickenpox (b) Influenza Example- Diazepam, lorazepam, Alprazolam
(c) Common cold (d) Measles flurazepaum
Diutment- Semisolid dosage
Ans. (b) : Influenza is a comminicable viral disease that
Cream- semisolid dosage
affects the upper and lower respiratory tract, including
Paste- semisolid dosage
upper and lower respiratory passages. Infection can be
transmitted by sneezing and coughing via large particle 155. Mebendazole contains the :
droplets. (a) Imidazolidinone nucleus
(b) Quinoline nucleus
149. Which of the following is a method of (c) Isoquinoline nucleus
sterilisation of blood bags? (d) Imidazole nucleus
(a) Using gamma radiation and ethylene oxide
(b) Microwaving Ans. (d) : Mebendazole contains the imidazole nucleus.
Mebendazole is an antihelminthic inhibits the formation
(c) Using a hot air oven of microbes and causes glucose depletion in the worm.
(d) Autoclaving A single dose of mebendazole cures 95% of pinworm
Ans. (b) : Microwaving is a Process Which disinfects infections.
the waste by moist heat and steam generated by
microwave energy.
All liquids, solid including sharp Needles, blood bag
and surgical utensil are sterilise by microwaving.
150. Which of the following is a purine alkaloid?
(a) Caffeine (b) Papaverine
(c) Morphine (d) Codeine
39 YCT
156. Which of the following is NOT a semi-solid • The polarographic cell is H shaped vessel
dosage form? • The two tubes are connected through an agar-agar salt
(a) Ointment (b) Cream bridge and a sintered glass tube.
(c) Paste (d) Emulsion • The electrode used as dropping mercury electrode
Ans. (d) : Emulsion- liquid dose form 162. The goal of formulary system management is
Diutment- Semisolid dosage to :
Cream- semisolid dosage (a) Review all significant adverse drug reactions
Paste- semisolid dosage (b) Review the drug list for use in the hospital
157. Which of the following statements is listed as (c) Develop procedures for handling and control
an instruction for taking antacid tablets? of drugs brought into the hospital by patients
(a) Do not take on an empty stomach.
(d) Provide sound therapeutics
(b) Do not take with milk.
(c) Avoid alcoholic beverages. Ans. (d) : The goal of formulary system management is
(d) Chew; do not swallow. to.
Ans. (d) : From the result obtained it becomes evident • to evaluate and select medications for use in a
hospital.
that by ceiling rather than swallowing the antacid intact
• Provide safe, appropriate and effective prescription
tablet. a quicker and more effective relief is obtained so
antacid suggest for chewable not swallowing. therapy.
158. Which of the following toilet preparations is • Provide sound therapeutics.
used to make the eyelashes appear longer? 163. Allergenicity studies are performed by means
(a) Eyebrow pencil (b) Liquid eyeshadow of a/an :
(c) Mascara (d) Eye cream (a) Dermal toxicity study
Ans. (c) : Mascara is a type of cosmetic applied to the (b) In-vivo micronucleus assay
eyelashes it serves to thicken and define the eyelashes
(c) In-vitro cytogenetic assay
and may also colour. lengthen or curd them depending
upon the type (d) Guinea-pig maximisation test
Ans. (d) : The guinea pig maximization test is usually
• It is usually sold as a liquid. cosmetic in a tube and
applied with round brush called wand. performed with one moderately irritant induction dose
159. A substance deemed to be poisonous as of the allergen and gives a qualitative assessment-
categorised in the Poison Act, 1919, List B is hazard identification of the allergenicity of the
(a) Arsenic (b) Potassium cyanidechemical.
(c) Carbolic acid (d) Aconine • It was first proposed by B. magnusson and Albert
Ans. (c) : Poision Act passed in- 1919. kligman in 1969 and described in their 1970 book
• List of poisonous substances categories Allergic contact dermatitis in the guinea Pig.
• List A- Aconite, Arsenic 164. The conditions for the grant or renewal of a
• List B- Chloroform, carbolicacid 'repacking' licence is in :
• All oxides of mercury zinc chloride (a) Form 25-A (b) Form 28-A
160. Which of the following is an analytical reagent (c) Form 25-F (d) Form 25-B
used for the qualitative determination of Ans. (d) : Process of breaking u- anis drug from a bulk
ketoses? container into small packages and labeling with a view
(a) Molisch's reagent (b) Grignard reagent to their sale and distribution Repackaging of drug is
(c) Mayer's reagent (d) Seliwanoff's grouted of amgs other other than schedule cc, and X.
reagent • Licence is obtained from licensing authority (FDA) on
Ans. (d) : Seliwanoff's test is used in distinguishes application Prescribed form 24-B and license issued on
between aldose and ketose sugar form 25-B.
• This test relies on the principal that, when neated
ketoses are more rapidly dehydrated than aldoses. 165. Adiabatic evaporative cooling is used to create
supersaturation in a :
Discipline-4 (a) Krystal cooler crystallizer
(b) Vacuum crystallizer
161. The electrode used in polarographic analysis is (c) Swenson Walker crystallizer
a:
(d) Tank crystallizer
(a) Glass electrode
(b) Glass membrane electrode Ans. (b) : Vacuum crystallizer is a device that feeds a
(c) Standard hydrogen electrode heated saturated solution to a lagged, closed vessel that
(d) Dropping mercury electrode is kept under a vacuum.
Ans. (d) : The basic component of the experiment setup • The solution evaporates and cools adibatically
are the polarographic cell and the DME. resulting in crystallization.

40 YCT
166. Atmospheric pollutants from industrial Ans. (b) : FIFO- First in first out
processes can be analysed using : This is the most common method of determing stock
(a) Spectrofluorimetry valuation It make the assumption that the Ist stock
(b) UV-visible spectroscopy recieved will be the Ist that is sold.
(c) Nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy 172. Which of the following is a natural excipient
(d) Infrared absorption spectroscopy obtained from diatomaceous earth?
Ans. (d) : • Infrared spectroscopy is an important (a) Manna (b) Kieselguhr
analytical technique for determining the shucture of (c) Shellac (d) Asbestos
both inorganic or organic compounds. Ans. (b) : • Diatomaceous earth is a sand that comes
• It is also known as vibration spectroscopy. from the earth and is found in Nature.
• Infrared spectroscopy lies in the wavelength range • It is made up of algae diatoms' minuscule skeletons
0.7-400 µm there are two primary types of diatomaceous earth.
167. Fractional sterilisation is also known as : • Diatomaceous earth, on the other hand, is unique
(a) Autoclaving (b) Tyndallization because it contain silica in high
(c) Pasteurisation (d) Incineration • A type of silica known as Kieselguhr or diatomaceous
Ans. (b) : Fractional sterilization or tyndallisation is a earth.
method. used for media containing gelatin or sugar. 173. Chemical aspects of formulations generally
• Tyndallization is a process dating from the 19th centre around :
century for sterilizing substances, usually food named (a) Compatibility with the other formulation
after its inventor scientist to hn tyndall, that can be used ingredients
to kill net resistant endospores. (b) Chemical stability of the drug
168. A chromatographic technique which is (c) Polymorphism
particularly applicable to separate high (d) Chemical stability of the drug and
molecular weight species is called : compatibility with the other formulation
(a) Thin-layer chromatography ingredients
(b) Column chromatography Ans. (d) : Chemical aspects of formulations generally
(c) High-performance thin- centre around chemical stability of the drug and
layer chromatography compatibility with other formulation ingredient.
(d) Size-exclusion chromatography 174. Which of the following is NOT a complication
relating to an aneurysm?
Ans. (d) : Size exclusion chromatography (SEC) is a
(a) Pressure (b) Haemorrhage
technique where constituents of a mixture carried by a
mobile phase through a colum packed with porous (c) Calcification (d) Thrombosis
particles are seperated according to molecular size and Ans. (c) : An aneurysm as a localized abnormal, weak
in some molecular size and in some molecular weight spot on a blood vessel wall that causes an out ward
bulging, likened to a bubble or balloon.
169. 'Depilatories' are :
Aneurysms are a result of a weakened blood vessel wall
(a) Hair tonics (b) Hair removers
and may be result of heredity condition.
(c) Hair conditioners (d) Brilliantines
Aneurysm when respured can cause serious health
Ans. (b) : Depilatories are the preparation used for problems such as hemorrhagic stroke, brain damage,
degradation of the superfluous hair chemically without cama and may cuase death.
affecting the skin. 175. The only significant enzymopathy of Embden-
• Depilatory removes the hair at the Neck of the hair Meyerhof glycolytic pathway is :
follicle over razor shaver which ramous hair on a level (a) Carboxypeptidase (b) Elastase
with the surface of the epidermis. (c) Aminopeptidase (d) Pyruvate Kinase
170. Which of the following is a major feature of Ans. (d) : The Embden-Meyerhof Parnas (EMP)
spirochetes? pathway allows the metabolic use of glucose to generate
(a) Rigid and polar flagella ATP, NADH, and several biosynthetic precursors such
(b) Flexible and periplasmic flagella as 3-phosphoglycerate or pyruvate. Thus pyruvate
(c) Soft and non-motile kinase plays a key role in controlling the metabolic flex
(d) Rigid and lacking flagella and ATP production.
Ans. (b) : The spirochetes are unique among bacteria as 176. The Computer program used to determine the
they contain flexible and periplasmic flagella these are dosage requirements of a new patient
two sets of internal flagella that anchor within the inner belonging to a large group is called a/an :
membrane but reside primarily within the periplasmic (a) Periodic inventory control system
space. (b) Empirical program
171. Materials purchased are issued strictly in (c) Fixed program
chronological order. This practice is called the (d) Adaptive program
(a) HIFO method (b) FIFO method Ans. (b) : Empirical program used to determine the
(c) NIFO method (d) LIFO method dosage requirements of a patient
41 YCT
177. The triceps muscle is situated on the 184. Which of the following is NOT a brain stem?
(a) Upper medial aspect of the arm (a) Midbrain (b) Medulla oblongata
(b) Posterior aspect of the humerus (c) Pons varolii (d) Cerebrum of forebrain
(c) Anterior aspect of the upper arm Ans. (d) : Brain stem is composed of three section in
(d) Anterior thoracic wall descending order
Ans. (b) : Triceps muscles situated on posterior aspect • The midbrain
of humerus. Triceps is a large thick muscle on the • pons
dorsal part of the upper arm
• medulla oblongata
178. A mineral required for the synthesis of insulin It is responsible for many vital functions of life such as
in the pancreas is : breathing, consciousness, blood pressure, heart rate and
(a) Iodine (b) Iron
sleep. So all of the above cerebrum of forebrain is not a
(c) Zinc (d) Potassium
brain stem.
Ans. (c) : Pancreas is a mixed gland B cells of pancreas
secretes insulin. 185. Which of the following is an aryl acetic acid
Insulin is a protein chain or peptide hormone there are derivative?
51 amino acid in a insulin molecule. Lente (insulin (a) Salsalate (b) Ibuprofen
zinc) is a suspension of large zinc containing crystal. (c) Mefenamic acid (d) Aspirin
179. Guillain-Barre syndrome is also known as : Ans. (b) : • Salicylic acid derivative- Aspirin
(a) Acute post-infectious polyneuritis • Aryl acetic and derivative-Ibuprofen
(b) Bell's palsy • Anthracitic acid-derivative-mefenamic acid.
(c) meningomyelocele 186. Epstein-Barr virus is isolated from:
(d) meningocele (a) Patients recovering from shingles
Ans. (a) : Guillain-Barre syndrome is also known as (b) Burkitt's lymphoma
acute post- infectious polyneuritis (c) Throat swabs in humans
• This condition is may be triggered by an acute (d) Convalescent serum of patients
bacterial or viral infection, or a vaccine where a Ans. (b) : EBV Epstein-Barr virus can cause infectious
person's immune system attacks peripheral nerves.
mononucleosis also called mono, and other illnesses
180. A common reagent used in the chemical • EBV is isolated from Burkitts lymphoma.
ionisation method is :
(a) Ethanol (b) Methane 187. In differential leucocyte count, a high
(c) Methanol (d) Ethane lymphocyte number indicates:
Ans. (b) : Chemical ionization is a lower energy (a) Whooping cough
process than elechon ionization. (b) Severe infection
• The lower energy yields less or sometimes no (c) Granulocytic leukaemia
fragmentation and usually a simpler spectrum. (d) Bacterial infection
• Typical reagent gases commonly used in chemical Ans. (a) : Pertusis is also Known as whooping cough is
ionization are ammonia, methane and isobutene. a highly contagious bacterial disease mainly caused by
Brodetella pertusis.
Discipline-5 • It is characterized by severe coughing spells, which
181. A type of non-staining iodine preparation is : can sometime end in a whooping sound when the
(a) Povidone-iodine (b) Benzocaine person breathes in
(c) Gentian violet (d) Beta-methionine generally lymphocytes increases in case of whooping
Ans. (a) : Povidone-Iodine is an autiseptic agent that cough.
are apply on liking surface for inhibiting the growth of 188. Which of the following is an airborne disease?
microorganism. (a) Amoebiasis (b) Cholera
It is a type of non-staining iodine preparation. (c) Typhoid (d) Tuberculosis
182. Insulin preparations are usually administered Ans. (d) : The disease which is transmitted from one
(a) Intradermally (b) Intravenously person to the other, when pathogen travels though the
(c) Intramuscularly (d) Subcutaneously air, mainly via air doplets, is called airborne disease.
Ans. (d) : • Insulin is given in diabetes mellitus patient As– Anthrax, chicken pox, Tuberculosis etc.
In diabetes patient blood glucose level is high so insulin
given subcutaneously to normal blood glucose level. 189. Which of the following is an example of an
ampholytic synthetic surface active agent?
183. The maximal antibacterial activity exhibited by (a) Tween 80
sulphonamides is between the pKa values :
(a) 3.6 and 6.5 (b) 7.5 and 12.1 (b) Dodecylpyridinium chloride
(c) 4.1 and 6.4 (d) 6.6 and 7.4 (c) Sodium stearate
(d) N-dodecyl alanine
Ans. (d) : The sulfonamides are blood spectrum
antimicrobial agents that inhibit the growth of gram +ve Ans. (d) : Ampholytic surfactant have both acidic and
and gram-ve bacteria. alkaline properties. Ambholytic surfactant includes two
Sulphonamides are weak and there pka valve 6.6 and main group i.e. betaines and Real amphoteric surfactant
7.4 for maximum bacterial kill on this valve. based on fattyalkyl amidazolines

42 YCT
190. The color of the label used to denote the blood Ans. (c) : Casualty insurance-
group 'B' is : Type of insurance that indemnifies for losses resulting
(a) Pink (b) Yellow from accident, chance or negligence.
(c) Blue (d) White 196. The drug used to treat hyperlipoproteinemia
Ans. (a) : is:
Blood group Colour code (a) Clonidine hydrochloride
A yellow (b) Captopril
B Pink (c) Prazosin hydrochloride
O Blue (d) Clofibrate
AB White Ans. (d) : hyperlipoproteinemia
191. Which of the following is NOT an essential • Is one or more of the following cholesterol esters,
amino acid? phospholipids or triglycerides
(a) Valine (b) Lysine • described an increased concentration of the
(c) Leucine (d) Serine lipoprotein macromolecules that transport lipid in the
Ans. (d) : Essential amino acid- Can not be synthesise plasma Drug used in the treatment of
in human body Hyperlipidoprotemia
ex- Histidien, Esoleucine, lysine methionine • Atrovastation, Lovastativ clofibrate, Nicotinic acid
phenylalanine Threonine tryptophan 197. Which of the following is a factor that affects
Non- essential amino acid- Can syntnesise by the drug distribution?
human body cysteine, elutamic acid, proline serine (a) Drug stability
tyrosine (b) Disintegration time
192. The daily requirement of calcium for an adult (c) Plasma protein binding
is : (d) Dissolution time
(a) 0.5 to 1g (b) 5 to 7g
Ans. (c) : Drug distribution defined as the Reversible
(c) 0.15 to 0.30 mg (d) 15 mg
transfer of drug between blood to tissue.
Ans. (a) : Following Factor obtect the drug distribution plasma
Life stage Paily dose of calcium protein binding.
0-6 month 200 mg 198. The standards for disinfectant fluids are given
6-12 month 250 mg in :
8-18 month 1000-1300 mg (a) Schedule P (b) Schedule S
19-50 month 1000 mg (c) Schedule N (d) Schedule O
193. Which of the following is the hormone secreted Ans. (d) : Schedule P - life period of drugs
from the posterior pituitary? Schedule N- Minimum equipment required to running
(a) Prolactin plarmacy
(b) Thyrotropic hormone Schedule O- disinfectant fluid
(c) Vasopressin 199. Which of the following is a type of proliferative
(d) Adrenocorticotropic hormone disorder?
Ans. (c) : • Posterior pituitary hormone- (a) Eosinopenia (b) Lymphopenia
• VasopressinADH (c) Leukaemia (d) Neutropenia
• Oxytocin Ans. (c) : • Proliferative disorder mean increasing and
Anterior pituitary hormone growing of cell.
GH, ACTH FSH • In leukaemia no of WBC is increases it is type of
Prolaction blood cancer.
194. Aloe is employed as a/an : 200. The minimum manufacturing space required
(a) Astringent (b) Bitter tonic for table formulation for the Ayurvedic and
(c) Sedative (d) Purgative Siddha system of medicine is :
Ans. (d) : The purgative effect of Aloe latex has long (a) 150 sq. ft. (b) 400 sq.ft.
been recognized and has been used empirically to (c) 200 sq. ft. (d) 100 sq. ft.
relieve constipation.
Ans. (d) :
195. 'Injury to a person walking in front of a drug
store' is classified as what type of insurance Type of license Minimum space
coverage? Retail sale 10 × 10 ft
(a) Fire insurance Whole sale 10 × 15 ft
(b) Demolition insurance tablet formulation for 100 × sq ft
(c) Casualty insurance ayurvedic s siddha
(d) Indirect damage insurance system
43 YCT
 DELHI SUBORDINATE SERVICES SELECTION
BOARD RECURITMENT
EXAM DATE-01-11-2019

(b) 5 + 5 ÷ 5 × 3 = 10 ⇒ 8 ≠ 10 (×)
Mental Ability (c) 5 + 5 ÷ 5 × 3 × 10 ⇒ 6 ≠ 30 (×)
1. Choose correct figure which is similar as (d) 5 + 5 – 5 × 3 = 10 ⇒ –5 ≠ 10 (×)
question figure. So, option (a) is correct answer.
4. In which diagram represents air, water &
sand?

(a)

(b)

(a) (b)
(c)

(d)
(c) (d)
Ans. (d) : According to question,
Ans. (d) : According to question. In given two figures a There is no relation between air, water and sand.
small square is embedded in shapes and one end of Venn diagram.
these shapes is coloured.
So, by options, the figure in option (d) is similar to
question figures.
So, option (d) is correct answer. So, option (d) is correct answer.
2. In following question choose the correct 5. Find the figure which completes the pattern.
number which is placed at the place of ?

(a) 24 (b) 26
(c) 16 (d) 15
Ans. (d) : According to question. (a) (b)
Just as,
(13+5) – (6+4) = 18–10=8
and (7+16) – (9+6) = 23–15=8
Same as,
(21 + 13) – (10 + 9) = 34 – 19 = 15 (c) (d)
So, option (d) is correct answer.
3. In given equation for changing the symbol *
and balancing equation choose the correct Ans. (b) : According to question.
mathematical combination of symbol. For completing the figure pattern option (b) is right.
5*5*5*3*10 So, option (b) is correct answer.
(a) × + = × (b) + ÷ × = 6. If P is coded as '+', Q is coded as '×', R is
(c) + ÷ = × (d) + – × = coded as '–' and S is coded as '÷' then what is
Ans. (a) : According to the question, code of 26Q1R40S8P1R50
from options. (a) 28 (b) –30
(a) 5 × 5 + 5 = 3 × 10 ⇒ 30 = 30 ( ) (c) 26 (d) –28
44 YCT
Ans. (d) : According to question.
26 ×1 – 40 ÷ 8 + 1 – 50
= 26 – 5 + 1 – 50
= 27 – 55 So, option (b) is correct answer.
= – 28 11. Choose odd group from the given options.
So, option (d) is right answer. (a) LNMO (b) CRDT
7. Find the missing letter in given options: (c) EUFV (d) APBQ
FGH, ?, PQR, UVW Ans. (b) : According to question.
(a) HFJ (b) LMN
c) KLM (d) JK
Ans. (c) : According to question.

Hence ? = KLM So, option (b) is correct answer.

So, option (c) is correct answer. 12. Choose the pair which is similar to given pair
8. Read the instructions and answer the question
given below.
A, B, C, D, E, F and G sit around a circle faced
towards centre. not mandatory in this sequence
D is not second left to F but D is second right to
A. C is third right to A and C is second left to (i) (ii)
G. B is not closest neighbour of G. Who is sit
closest right to C.
(a) E (b) G (a)
(c) B (d) D
Ans. (a) : According to question, (i) (ii)
sitting arrangement is –

(b)

(i) (ii)

Clearly, from above E is immediate right to C.

So, option (a) is correct answer. (c)
9. Solved the series given below.
9, ?, 35, 69 (i) (ii)
(a) 17 (b) 15
(c) 16 (d) 18
Ans. (a) : According to question (d)

(i) (ii)
Ans. (b) : According to question by options option (b)
So, option (a) is correct answer. is the most suitable answer for the pair of figure given
10. If 'ROSE' is coded as '6821', 'CHAIR' is coded in question.
as '73456' and 'PREACH' is coded as '961473'
13. Choose odd from the given options.
What is the code of 'SEARCH'.
(a) 216473 (b) 214673 (a) Circle (b) Chakra
(c) 214763 (d) 246173 (c) Triangle (d) Ellipse
Ans. (b) : According to question. Ans. (c) : According to question
R = 6, O = 8, S = 2, E = 1 Circle, chakra and ellipse are types of circle and have
C = 7, H = 3, A = 4, I = 5 no side but triangle is not type of circle and have three
P=9 sides and three angles.
from above, So, option (c) is correct answer.

45 YCT
14. Choose the similar number/word/letter given in All mice are cars.
following question? All cars are tigers.
ABC:321:: EFG:? Some cats are mice.
(a) 765 (b) 456 Conclusion:
(c) 345 (d) 567 I. Some cats are tigers
Ans. (a) : According to question. II. All tigers are mice.
Just as, (a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Only III follows
(d) Both I and II follows
Same as, Ans. (a) : According to question,

Conclusion : By above Venn diagram

So, option (a) is correct answer. (i)
15. Which option should come after the given (ii) ×
figure 4, If sequence is to be continued? So, option (a) is correct answer.
18. In a certain code language 'MONKEY' is written
as 'XDJMNL' then in this language 'TIGER' is
written as?
(a) SHFDQ (b) QDHJS
(c) QDFHS (d) SDFHS
(a) (b) Ans. (c) : According to question
Just as,

(c) (d)

Ans. (d) : According to given sequence of figures,

arrow in circle rotates. 90°, 100°, 270° So in next figure
it will rotate 360° Same as,
So, option (d) is correct answer of the question.
16. Choose the odd number pair from the given
option in following question.
(a) 4572-298 (b) 1234-36
(c) 2632-85 (d) 4215-52
Ans. (b) : According to question,
from options, So, option (c) is correct answer.
(a) (4+5+7+2) – 2+9+8 19. How many triangles in given figures?
= (18 – 19) (Prime number)
(b) (1+2+3+4) – (3+6)
= (10–9) (No prime number)
(c) (2+6+3+2) – (8+5)
= (13–13) Prime number (a) 10 (b) 5
(d) (4+2+1+5) – (5+2) (c) 11 (d) 6
= (12–7) Prime number Ans. (a) : According to question.
In option (b), is no prime number. After counting the triangles we get
So, option (b) is correct answer. 10 numbers of triangles
17. There are two conclusions of level I and II in
statements given bellow. Consider it that
information is true, even though generally if
shows variance in given statements. Decide
which conclusion is reasonable and follow Thus,
surely. 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 10
Statement: So, option (a) is correct answer.
46 YCT
20. In the following question, select the related Ans. (a) : The committee on petitions consists of 10
number from the given alternatives. members. The chairman of the committee is appointed
735:396::276:? by chairman in (Rajyasabha) and the speaker (in
(a) 639 (b) 936 Loksabha). Its function is to examine every petition
(c) 932 (d) 636 referred to it and to report to the house on specific
Ans. (a) : Just as, complaints contained in the petition.
5. What is formed when a stream flowing from
high level enters gently sloping plains ?
peye GÛÛe mlej mes yenleer ngF& efieefjheo cebo {eue kesâ
cewoeveeW ceW ØeJesMe keâjleer nw leye keäÙee efveefce&le neslee nw?
same as from option a, (a) River altars/veoer JesefokeâeSb
(b) Water trough/peueieefle&keâe
(c) Alluvial cone/peueesÌ{ Mebkegâ
(d) A gorge/Skeâ ieespe&
So, option (a) is correct answer. Ans. (c) : Alluvial fans/cones are formed when water
currents flow from higher levels, break into foot slope
General Awareness plains of low gradient. Normally very coarse load is
carried by streams flowing over mountain slopes.
1. C.G. Borde is related to which of the following Alluvial fans/cones in humid areas show normally low
cones with a gentle slope from head to down.
sports ?
meer. peer. yees[x efvecveefueefKele ceW mes efkeâme Kesue mes mebyebefOele nw? 6. B.R. Ambedkar, who was the chairman of the
constitution drafting committee, belonged to
(a) Hockey/ne@keâer (b) Badminton/yew[efcebšve which of the following legislative councils ?
(c) Cricket/ef›eâkesâš (d) Football/hegâšyee@ue yeer.Deej. Debyes[keâj pees mebefJeOeeve Øee™heCe meefceefle kesâ
Ans. (c) : Chandu Borde a stalwarts of Indian cricket DeOÙe#e Les, Jes efvecve ceW efkeâme efJeOeeve heefj<eo mes Les?
between 1958 to 1970 was a middle order batsman and (a) Bombay/yeecyes
a handy leg spinner. His association with cricket helped (b) Madras/ceõeme
him to become chief selector of India twice.
(c) West Bengal/heef§ece yebieeue
2. In which state chhau dance is not performed?
(d) United Province/mebÙegòeâ Øeeble
efkeâme jepÙe ceW ÚT ve=lÙe veneR efkeâÙee peelee nw?
Ans. (a) : B.R. Ambedkar, the chairman of the drafting
(a) Bihar/efyenej committee of the constitution, had been a member from
(b) Odisha/GÌ[ermee the Bombay legislative council. Ambedkar was a
(c) Madhya Pradesh/ceOÙe ØeosMe nominated member of Bombay legislative council from
1926 to 1934.
(d) West Bengal/heef§ece yebieeue
7. When did the Air (Prevention and control of
Ans. (c) : Chhau dance is performed in Bihar, Odisha pollution) Act come into force in India ?
and West Bengal. It is a semi-classical Indian dance Yeejle ceW JeeÙeg (jeskeâLeece Deewj Øeot<eCe efveÙeb$eCe)
with martial, tribal and folk traditions. The dance is
usually performed in night. DeefOeefveÙece keâye ueeiet ngDee Lee?
(a) 1981 (b) 1980
3. Who is writer of the book Accidental Prime
(c) 1987 (d) 1978
Minister : Making and Unmaking of
Manmohan Singh ? Ans. (a) : The air (prevention and control of pollution)
Skeämeer[Wšue ØeeFce efceefvemšj: ceWefkebâie Sb[ Devecesefkebâie act of 1971, or the Air Act was a law passed by the
parliament of India to prevent and control the harmful
Dee@heâ ceveceesnve efmebn hegmlekeâ kesâ uesKekeâ keâewve nQ? effect of air pollution in India. This act was enacted on
(a) Sanjay Baru/mebpeÙe yee™ 29 March 1981 and amended in 1987.
(b) R.D. Pradhan/Deej.[er.ØeOeeve 8. Which ruler of India was defeated by Alexander?
(c) Jasvant Singh/pemeJeble efmebn efmekebâoj ves Yeejle kesâ efkeâme Meemekeâ keâes njeÙee Lee?
(d) Neel Mukharjee/veerue cegKepeea (a) Samudragupt/mecegõieghle
Ans. (a) : Sanjay Baru has authored/penned the book (b) Porus/heesjme
The Accidental Prime Minister : The making and (c) Kanishk/keâefve<keâ
unmaking of Manmohan Singh. (d) Ashok/DeMeeskeâ
4. How many member of the committee on Ans. (b) : In May of 326 B.C. Alexander the great had
petitions are there in India ? defeated the king Porus in the battle of Hydapses or
Yeejle ceW ÙeeefÛekeâeDeeW hej meefceefle kesâ efkeâleves meomÙe nQ? battle of Jhelum. It took place on the banks of the
(a) 10 (b) 11 Hydapses river in Punjab as a part of Alexanders Indian
(c) 16 (d) 15 campaign.

47 YCT
9. In India, who is the current chief economic 14. In which of the following oceans a swimmer
Advisor. can swim ?
Yeejle ceW Jele&ceeve cegKÙe DeeefLe&keâ meueenkeâej keâewve nw? efvecveefueefKele ceW mes efkeâme meeiej ceW Skeâ lewjekeâ lewj
(a) DejefJebo megyeÇceCÙeve (b) jIegjece jepeve mekeâlee nw?
(c) ke=â<Cecetefle& megyeÇceCÙeve (d) DejefJebo efJejceeveer (a) Caribbean Sea/kewâjsefyeÙeve meeiej
Ans. (c) : Krishnamurthy Subramanian is an Indian (b) Dead Sea/ce=le meeiej
economist who served as the 17th economic advisor to (c) Arab Sea/Dejye meeiej
the Government of India from 2018 to 2021. As on (d) Red Sea/ueeue meeiej
April 2024, India's 18th chief economic advisor is V.
Anantha Nageshwaran. Ans. (b) : A swimmer can swim in dead sea, because
increased salt content makes the dead sea dense. As the
10. Which of the following properties is called
persons body weight becomes lighter than the density of
malleability ?
salt water in the dead sea, resulting in increase in the
efvecveefueefKele ceW mes efkeâme iegCe keâe DeeIeeleJeOe&veerÙelee buoyancy of the swimmer.
keâne peelee nw? 15. Who was the writer of Badshahnama ?
(a) The property of converting metals into sheets yeeoMeen veecee kesâ uesKekeâ keâewve Les?
by hammering./OeelegDeeW keâe heerškeâj Meerš ceW (a) Abdul Hamid Lahori/Deyogue nceero ueenewjer
heefjJeefle&le keâjves keâe iegCe (b) Gulbadn Begam/iegueyeove yesiece
(b) Property of metal to conduct electricity./OeelegDeeW
(c) Abul Fazal/Deyeg heâpeue
ceW efyepeueer keâe mebÛeeueve keâjves keâe iegCe (d) Muhammd Kazim/cegncceo keâeefpece
(c) Property of metal to produce ringing
sound./OeelegDeeW keâe yepe OJeefve GlheVe keâjves keâe iegCe Ans. (a) : Badshahnama was written by Abdul Hamid
Lahori. It is the official history of Mughal emperor
(d) Property of metal being drawn and Shahjahan reign, where his life and activities during the
transformed into wires./OeelegDeeW keâe KeeRÛekeâj leejeW first twenty years of his reign have been discussed in
ceW heefjJeefle&le nes peeves Jeeuee iegCe detail.
Ans. (a) : Malleability is the property of the metal 16. Grand slam tournament is related to which of
associated with the ability to be hammered into a thin the following sports ?
sheet without breaking, example of Malleable metals «eQ[ muewce štvee&ceWš efvecveefueefKele ceW mes efkeâme Kesue mes
are gold, Iron, Aluminium and Silver. mebyebefOele nw?
11. For which of the following is the term
(a) Golf/ieesuheâ (b) Squash/mkeäJewMe
viticulture used?
(a) Breeding of fish in specially constructed (c) Tennis/ šs e f v eme (d) Chess/Melejbpe
tanks Ans. (c) : Grand slam Tournament is related with
(b) Cultivation of grapes Tennis.
(c) Commercial rearing of silk worms 17. Numismatics is ...............
(d) Cultivation of jute (a) The study or collection of currency
Ans. (b) : Cultivation of grapes- Viticulture (b) The study and practice of making maps
Commercial rearing of silk worms - Sericulture. (c) The branch of science concerned with fossil
animals and plants
12. Gulzar is ............
(d) The study of inscriptions
ieguepeej Skeâ ............ nw~
Ans. (a) : Numismatics is the study or collection of
(a) Dancer/vele&keâ (b) Lyricist/ieerlekeâej currency.
(c) Player/efKeueeÌ[er (d) Politician/jepeveerefle%e Option-b- Cartography
Ans. (b) : Gulzar is an Indian Urdu poet, lyricist, author Option-c- Palaentology
known for his works in Hindi cinema. He received Option-d- Epigraphy
academy award in 2008 for his song Jai ho' from 18. Which of the following monuments is in
slumdog millionaire movie. Himachal Pradesh ?
13. Kolayat fair is organised in which of the efvecveefueefKele ceW mes keâewve mee mceejkeâ efnceeÛeue ØeosMe ceW
following cities ? nw?
keâesueeÙele cesuee efvecveefueefKele ceW mes efkeâme Menj ceW (a) Mahabodhi Temple/ceneyeesefOe cebefoj
DeeÙeesefpele efkeâÙee peelee nw? (b) Humayun's Tomb/ngceeÙetB keâe cekeâyeje
(a) Khajuraho/Kepegjenes (b) Konark/keâesCeeke&â (c) 'Kee' math/keâer ce"
(c) Bikaner/yeerkeâevesj (d) Goa/ieesJee (d) 'Se' Cathedra/mes kewâLes[^ue
Ans. (c) : Kolayat fair is organized in Bikaner city of Ans. (c) : Kee or Kye monastery is a Tibetan buddhist
Rajasthan in the months of October and November on monastery situated in Lahaul and Spiti district of
Kartik Purnima. Himachal Pradesh.
48 YCT
19. Article 49 of the Indian Constitution is about d2 = 32 cm
which of the following ? Area of rhombus
YeejleerÙe mebefJeOeeve keâe DevegÛÚso 49 efvecveefueKele ceW mes = ½ × d1 × d2
efkeâmekesâ yeejs ceW nw? = ½ × 24 × 32
(a) Preservation of monuments and places and = 384 cm2
objects of national importance/je°^erÙe cenlJe kesâ Hence, option (b) is correct answer.
mceejkeâeW Deewj mLeeveeW Deewj JemlegDeeW keâe mejb#eCe 2.
1
Nitesh sells an article at a loss of 12 % .Had he
(b) Organization of agriculture and animal 2
husbandry/ke=âef<e Deewj heMegheeueve keâe mebie"ve sold if for ` 51.80 more, he would have earned
(c) Provision of free and compulsory education a profit of 6%. The cost price of the article is?
for children/yeÛÛeeW kesâ efueS cegheäle Deewj DeefveJeeÙe& (a) ` 400 (b) ` 380
efMe#ee keâe ØeeJeOeeve (c) ` 280 (d) ` 120
(d) Separation of the judiciary from the Ans. (c) : According to question,
executive/keâeÙe&heeefuekeâe mes vÙeeÙeheeefuekeâe keâes Deueie Difference between selling price of article = ` 51.80
keâjvee = (12.5% + 6%) of cost price
Ans. (a) : Article 49 of constitution of India, states (12.5% + 6%) of cost price = ` 51.80
"Protection of monuments and places and objects of ∴ 100% of cost price
national importance". Basically it contains provisions 51.80
= × 100
relating to the state's obligation to protect cultural 18.5
heritage. ∵ Cost price of article = ` 280
20. Which of the following is the central banking Hence, option (c) is correct answer.
institution of India ? 3. Which of the following is the smallest fraction:
efvecveefueefKele ceW mes keâewve Yeejle keâer keWâõerÙe yeQefkebâie mebmLee 3 9 1 20
nw? (a) (b) (c) (d)
8 43 4 81
(a) Reserve Bank of India/YeejleerÙe efjpeJe& yeQkeâ Ans. (b) : According to question,
(b) HDFC Bank/SÛe[erSheâmeer yeQkeâ 3 9
(c) State Bank of India/YeejleerÙe mšsš yeQkeâ = 0.375 = 0.2093
8 43
(d) IDBI Bank/DeeF&[eryeerDeeF& yeQkeâ 1 20
= 0.25 = 0.2469
Ans. (a) : Reserve Bank of India performs central 4 81
Banking function of India. RBI was setup on the Ascending order of fraction is
recommendations of Hilton-young commission on April 9 20 1 3
1, 1935 in accordance with the provisions of RBI Act, < < <
1934. 43 81 4 8
Hence, option (b) is correct answer.
Math 4. The sum of the present ages of A, B and C is 60
years. Six years ago their ages were in the ratio
1:2:3 respectively. What is the present age of
1. Find the area of rhombus, whose one side is C?
20cm and one diagonal is 24 cm. (a) 48 years (b) 36 years
(a) 386 cm2 (b) 384 cm2r (c) 27 years (d) 40 years
2
(c) 240 cm (d) 432 cm2 Ans. (c) : According to question,
Ans. (b) : According to question. A + B + C = 60 years
Diagonal, (d1) = 24 cm Let the age of A before 6 years = x
Side, (a) = 20 cm The age of B before 6 years = 2x
d1 = ? The age of C before 7 years = 3x
We know, ⇒ Before 6 years, the sum of
2 2 ages = 60 – (6+6+6)
 d1   d 2  2
  +  = a = 42 years
2  2  ⇒ Before 6 years, sum of ages = 42
d 
2
⇒ x + 2x + 3x = 42
144 +  2  = 400 x=7
 2 
Age of C before 6 years = 3x
d 22 =3×7
= 400–144
4 = 21 years
d 22 = 4 × 256 Present age of C = 21 + 6 = 27 years
d2 = 2 × 16 Hence, option (c) is correct answer.

49 YCT
5. Study the given table and answer the question 8. The speed of a man is 5km/hr in still water. He
that follows: travels some distance upstream and comes
Percentage distribution of students in different back to starting point. If the speed of the
faculties in five universities. current is 2km/hr, then find the average speed
Number of students in % Total of a man during the total journey?
University/ Scienc Commerce Arts number
Faculty e of 1 1
(a) 4 km/hr (b) 3 km/hr
students 5 6
P 25 35 40 18500 1 1
(c) 3 km/hr (d) 4 km/hr
Q 20 40 40 28000 5 6
R 30 15 55 36000 Ans. (a) : According to question.
S 35 15 50 32000 Speed of man against stream
Which University's Arts Faculty has the = 5 – 2 = 3 km/hr
minimum numbers of students? Speed of man with stream
(a) Q (b) S = 5 + 2 = 7 km/hr.
(c) R (d) P 2AB 2 × 7 × 3 1
Average speed = = = 4 km/h
Ans. (d) : According to question; A+B 7+3 5
Students in different university's Art faculty are 9. Find the average value of odd natural numbers
40 between 22 to 38?
P= × 18500 = 7400 Students.
100 (a) 29 (b) 30
40 (c) 32 (d) 31
Q= × 28000 = 11200 Students.
100 Ans. (b) : According to question
55 Odd natural numbers between 22 and 38
R= × 36000 = 19800 Students. = 23, 25, 27, 29, 31, 33, 35, 37
100
50 23 + 25 + 27 + 29 + 31 + 33 + 35 + 37
S= × 32000 = 16000 Students. Average =
100 8
Hence it is clear from above that University P 240
= = 30
has minimum students. 8
6. A man buys orange for `22. If he want to buy a a b c  7a - 4b + 3c 
dozen oranges his total expenditure will be 10. If = = =   , then P = ?
`240. Approximately what percentage of 3 4 7  P 
discount will he get on buying a dozen oranges. (a) 20 (b) 26
(a) 9.66% (b) 9.09% (c) 58 (d) 28
(c) 10% (d) 11.11% Ans. (b) : According to question
Ans. (b) : According to question a b c ( 7a − 4b + 3c )
Price of 1 orange = ` 22 Let = = = =K
3 4 7 P
Price of 12 orange (without discount) a = 3k, b = 4k, c = 7 k.
= 22 × 12
7 × 3k − 4 × 4k + 3 × 7k
= ` 264 ∵ =K
Price of 12 orange with discount P
= ` 240
⇒
( 42 − 16 ) K = P
Discount = 264 – 240 = ` 24 K
Discount % =
24
×100 = 9.09% ∴ P = 26
264 1
7. Find the value of (2.75)3– (2.00)3– (0.75)3 11. What will be the value of 0.98% of 57 % of
7
(a) 3 ×2.00×2.00×2.75
`20000.
(b) 3 × 2.75 × 0.75 × 2.75
(c) 4.5 × 2.75
(a) 7 (b) 5700
(d) 3 × 2.75 × 2.75 × 2.75
(c) 4900 (d) 112
Ans. (c) : According to question.
Ans. (d) : According to question,
(2.75)3 – (2.00)3 – (0.75)3
400 0.98
= (20.796875) – 8 – (0.421875) 20000 × ×
= 12.375 7 × 100 100
From option (c) → 4.5 × 2.75 = 12.375 = ` 112
Hence, option (c) is correct answer. So, option (d) is correct answer

50 YCT
12. A cone shaped vessel of radius 3 cm and height 15. A sum of amount becomes 7/6 times of itself in
h cm. It is completely filled with milk, If milk is 3 years what is rate annually.
poured into a cylindrical vessel whose radius is 5
P cm then at what height level will the milk be (a) 5 % (b) 2.5%
filled in it? 9
5
P2 3hp 2 (c) 6 % (d) 8%
(a) 2
cm (b) 2
cm 9
3hp a
Ans. (a) : According to question.
2
a h 3a 2 Let 'P be the principal amount.
(c) cm (d) cm
3p 2 hp 2 7
∵ Interest = P–P
Ans. (c) : According to question. 6
Volume of cone = Volume of cylinder P
=
1 6
× π × a ×a × h = π × P × P × H.
3 We know
a 2h PRT
H= cm S.I. =
3P 2 100
So, option (c) is correct answer. P P×r ×3
=
13. Read the graph attentively for giving answer of 6 100
question. 100 5
r= = 5 %
18 9
So, option (a) is correct answer.
16. If 36 peoples can trench a ditch of 200 meters
in 10 hours daily in 6 days, then in how many
days 10 peoples can trench the ditch of 100 m.
length. breadth of 4 m and 3 m height in 8
hours daily.
(a) 27 days (b) 15 days
(c) 60 days (d) 20 days
Ans. (a) : According to question,
We know that,
(a) 19 (b) 11 M1D1H1 M 2 D 2 H 2
(c) 21 (d) 9 =
W1 W2
Ans. (b) : According to question,
B sells book on Friday = 25 36 × 10 × 6 10 × D 2 × 8
=
Total (A + B) sells in a week = 220 200 × 3 × 2 100 × 4 × 3
220 = (12.5 + 15 + 10 + 15 + 22.5+22.5+ 36 × 6
22.5 + D2 = = 27 days
8
20 + 22.5+25+17.5+15) So, option (a) is correct answer
25
Percentage% = ×100
220 17. If A had worked alone he would have taken 63
= 11.36% ≈ 11% hours to do the task. What is B's share if A and
So, option (b) is correct answer. B work together on a task finishing it in 36
14. Mohsin has a shop of fruits. Where she has 400 hours and they get paid `4900 for it.
apples in a basket. She selled 100 apples to (a) 3600 (b) 3400
Arun and remaining to Vijay. How many
(c) 2100 (d) 2750
percent apple sold to Vijay?
(a) 65 % (b) 70% Ans. (c) : According to question.
(c) 75 % (d) 50%
Ans. (c) : According to question.
Mohsin sells apple to Vijay
= 400 – 100 = 300 apples. Efficiency of B = 7 – 4 = 3 unit
300 3
Percentage % = × 100 = 75% Amount received by B = ×4900 = `2100
400 7
So, option (c) is correct answer. So, option (c) is correct answer.

51 YCT
18. X starts a business with 21000 and after some Ans. (c) : In the aforementioned blank, option (c) could
time. Y joins him with capital of 36000. After not will be used. Because could not is used to refer
how many months, Y joins if the profit is impossible things in the past.
distributed in equal ratio at end of the year. Correct sentence – She is sad that she could not win
(a) 9 (b) 5 the sack race.
(c) 7 (d) 6 2. In the given question, a part of the sentence is
Ans. (b) : According to question. printed in bold. Below are given alternatives to
In the end of year profit the bold part as which may improve the
both x and y is same. sentence. Choose the correct alternative.
Let y invest his money for He have remembered submitting the essay, but
T- months. the teacher could not find it.
then (a) Remember submitting the essay
21000 × 12 = 36000 × T. (b) Remembered submitting the
T = 7 month. (c) Have been remembering to submit the essay
Y invest after months (d) No improvement
= 12–7 = 5 months Ans. (b) : In the given sentence, 'have remembered
So, option (b) is correct answer. submitting the essay' can be substituted by option (b)
19. 23456022 is divisible by which number in has remembered submitting the essay. Because with
following options. singular subjects, singular verb is used.
(a) 4 and 8 both (b) only 4 Correct sentence – He has remembered submitting the
(c) Only 8 (d) 3 essay, but the teacher could not find it.
Ans. (d) : According to question. 3. Choose the word which is most similar in
Last two digit is not divisible by 4, 50 it can not meaning to the given word.
be divisible by 4. Last three digit is not divisible by 8, APPETITE
50 it can not be divisible by 8. For divisiblity of 3 : (a) Fullness (b) Satisfaction
Sum of numbers = 2+3+4+5+6+0+2+2=24 (c) Sufficiency (d) Hunger
24 is divisible by 3. Ans. (d) : Option (d) Hunger - (The feeling caused by a
So, option (d) is correct answer. need to eat) is most similar in meaning to the given
20. A company made a cuboid of size 32×24×10 word, Appetite - (A strong desire for food). Other
2 options contain different meaning.
and its capacity is less by 14 % but height is
7 4. Out of the given four sentences, choose the one
same. If length and breadth have to increase which is grammatically incorrect.
equally then find percentage increase in area of (a) Information's about the country
base. (b) Before he started out
2 2 (c) He had collected all the
(a) 16 % (b) 15 % (d) He was going to visit
3 7
Ans. (a) : In the aforementioned sentence, information's
2
(c) 15% (d) 14 % about the country will be replaced by information about
7 the country. Because singular & plural form remains the
Ans. (a) : According to question. same for the word ‘information’.
Volume = 32 × 24 × 10 Correct sentence – Before he started out he had
Base = 72 × 24 = 768 collected all the information about the country he was
Decrease = 7 : 6 going to visit.
Let 6x = 32 × 24 × 10 5. A sentence with an underlined phrasal verb is
x = 32 × 4 × 10 given below. Out of the four options, choose
7x = 32 × 4 × 10 × 7 the one which can be substituted for the given
8960 − 7680 phrasal verb.
% increased = × 100 = 16.66%
7680 I'm not going to put up with their smoking any
So option (a) is correct answer. longer
(a) Tolerate (b) Encourage
General English
(c) Suggest (d) Exhibit
1. Out of the given options, choose the most
appropriate one to fill in the blank. Ans. (a) : The phrasal verb, to put up with - (To endure
She is sad that she ...........win the sack race. something) used in the sentence can be substituted by
(a) Could not have (b) Cannot have option (a) tolerate - (To bear something).
(c) Could not (d) Must have Rest of the options give different meaning –
52 YCT
Encourage – Give support Ans. (d) : The meaning of the idiomatic expression. At
Suggest – An idea put forward for consideration the crack of dawn (Very early morning) used in the
Exhibit – To display something publicly sentence is reflected by option (d) very early in the
Correct substituted sentence : I am not going to morning, when the sun rises. Rest of the options gives
tolerate their smoking any longer. incoherent meaning.
6. In the give question, a part of the sentence is 10. Find the word which can be replaced for the
printed in bold. Below are given alternative to given sentence.
the bold part as which may improve the A country controlled by a small group or
sentence. Choose the correct alternative. people.
He is seldom absent, isn't he? (a) Plutocracy (b) Oligarchy
(a) No improvement (b) Hasn't he? (c) Monarchy (d) Aristocracy
(c) Doesn't he? (d) Is he? Ans. (b) : The given sentence 'A country controlled by
Ans. (d) : In the given sentence, isn't he ? can be a small group of people' can be replaced by option (b)
replaced by option (d) is he ?. Because question tag of oligarchy - (A small group of people having control of a
negative sentences is usually positive. country).
Correct sentence – He is seldom absent, is he ? Other options contain following meaning –
7. In the following question, the parts of a Plutocracy - Government by the wealthy
sentence are jumbled up. Choose the right Monarchy - Rule by a king or queen
choice of the sequence of letters which Aristocracy - People of highest social class who have
represents the correct arrangement of the special titles.
sentence. 11. Find the word which can be replaced for the
P. The current form or forms of money is pulled given sentence.
from circulation and retired, often to be A cluster of houses in a village.
replaced with new notes or coins. (a) Hamlet (b) Barn
Q. It occurs whenever there is a change of (c) Brewery (d) Barracks
national currency
Ans. (a) : The given sentence 'A cluster of houses in a
R. Sometimes, a country completely replaces the
village can be replaced by option (a) hamlet (A small
old currency with new currency
settlement of houses).
S. Demonetization is the act of stripping a
Other options contain following meaning –
currency unit of its status as legal tender
(a) QPSR (b) PQRS Barn - A farm in which crops or animals are kept.
(c) SQPR (d) RQPS Brewery - A place where beer is made commercially.
Barracks - A large building used to house soldiers.
Ans. (c) : The correct sequence of the jumbled sentence
after being arranged is option (c) SQPR. 12. Find the correct spelling of the following word.
(a) Blasphemy (b) Blasphamy
8. Out of the given four sentences, choose the one
which is grammatically correct. (c) Blashphemy (d) Blashpemy
(a) She has been listening to music since two Ans. (a) : The spelling of option (a) blasphemy (The
hours offence of speaking sacrilegiously about god) is correct.
(b) She have been listening to music for two 13. Choose the word which is opposite in meaning
hours to the given word.
(c) She has been listening to music for two hours FATIGUED
(d) She has been listening to music from two (a) Energised (b) Tired
hours (c) Exhausted (d) Deprived
Ans. (c) : Use of 'for' denotes period of time (two Ans. (a) : The antonym of the given word, fatigued -
hours), so it indicates that the tense of the sentence is (extremely tired) is option (a) energised - (Give vitality
Present Perfect continuous. Hence option (c) is and enthusiasm to)
grammatically correct. Meaning of other options are -
Correct Sentence – She has been listening to music for Tired - feeling that you need to rest.
two hours. Exhausted - Very tired
9. A sentence with an underlined idiomatic Deprived - Lacking important things like food and
expression is given. What is the meaning of the water.
idiomatic expression 'at the crack of dawn' in
14. Out of the given four words only one is spelt
the sentence given below?
correctly. Find the word is correctly spelt.
It's a long drive, so we'll have to leave at the
(a) Government (b) Appearancie
crack of dawn if we want to get there on time.
(c) Arguament (d) Commitee
(a) Almost at midnight, when it's all dark
(b) When sun is overhead Ans. (a) : The spelling of option (a) Government is
(c) Very late in the evening correct.
(d) Very early in the morning, when the sun rises The correct spelling of other options are–

53 YCT
Appearance – The way that someone looks. Ans. (a) : According to the passage the aim or objective
Argument – An exchange of opposite views. of the "beti bachao beti Padhao" scheme is to strengthen
Committee – A group of people chosen to discuss or the position of girls in society, hence option (a) is
decide something. correct.
15. Out of the given four words one is spelt 18. As per the scheme who will be awarded with an
incorrectly. Find the word that is incorrectly amount of one crore?
spelt. (a) The village with the lowest Child sex ratio
(a) Existance (b) Beginning (b) The village with the highest child sex ratio
(c) Aggression (d) Assassination (c) The village that succeeds in maintaining the
Ans. (a) : Error lies in spelling of option (a) existance. balanced sex ratio
its correct spelling will be existence - (having objective (d) The village that succeeds in maintaining the
reality). meaning of other options are– unbalanced sex ratio
Beginning - To start Ans. (c) : According to the passage The village that
Aggression - Attack succeeds in maintaining the balanced sex ratio will be
Assassination - Murder of a famous people. awarded with an amount of one crore as per the scheme.
Hence option (c) is correct.
Comprehension:
Read the passage carefully and answer the 19. What is the purpose of keeping the strong
incentive or reward of one crore by
questions given below.
government?
This year 2015 has witnessed a complete change
I. It will prove to be a motivation for
in the lives of a lot of little girls and women. The
maintaining a balanced child sex ratio
project launched by Prime Minister Narendra
II. It will generate the consciousness among
Modi known as "beti bachao beti padhao" is
individuals regarding the respect for a girl or a
solely focused on the empowering of the girl
woman
child. This has been creating waves throughout
III. It will benefit government's vote bank
the nation. The scheme shall have a focused
(a) Only III (b) I, II, and III
intervention and multi section action within 100
(c) Only II (d) Only I
districts having low child sex ratio.
The village that can succeed in maintaining the Ans. (b) : All the options & respective statements in it
balanced sex ratio, shall be awarded an amount of shows the purpose of keeping the strong incentive.
1 crore. This strong incentive shall not only Hence option (b) I, II, III is correct.
enhance the motivation for maintaining a balanced 20. Which word in the passage means, "to give
child sex ratio, but at the same time, it will someone the authority or power to do
generate the consciousness among individuals something"?
regarding the respect for a girl or a woman. The (a) Empower (b) Incentive
government shall focus on the campaigns for (c) Solely (d) Initiative
sensitising the citizens of the nation for the issues Ans. (a) : Option (a) empower means 'to give someone
and concerns of women and girl child. The the authority or power to do something. Meaning of
process needs to begin early, thus the school other options.
curriculum needs to have a specific chapter on the Initiative - official action taken to solve a problem
subject of gender equality. Solely - Not involving anyone
16. What is the meaning of the phrase 'gender Incentive - Something that encourage you
equality'?
(a) None of the given options General Hindi
(b) The act of treating men as stronger beings
(c) The act of treating men as superior beings 1. ‘‘heeueve’’ keâe efJeueesce Meyo nw:
(d) The act of treating women and men equally (a) mebnej (b) ogue&Ye
Ans. (d) : The meaning of the phrase 'Gender equality' (c) efveheleve (d) DeJeveefle
is reflected well by option (d) The act of treating men Ans. (a) : ‘heeueve’ keâe efJeueesce Meyo ‘mebnej’ nesiee~ ‘ogue&Ye’ Meyo
and women equally. Rest of the options give different keâe efJeueesce ‘megueYe’ leLee ‘DeJeveefle’ Meyo keâe efJeueesce ‘GVeefle’ nesiee~
meaning.
2. ueeskeâesefòeâ ‘‘veeÛeves ueies lees IeBtIeš kewâmee’’ keâe DeLe& nw-
17. What is the aim or objective of the "beti
bachao beti padhao" scheme? (a) keâesF& keâceeS keâesF& KeeS
(a) To strengthen the position of girls in society (b) meYeer Keeves Jeeues nw keâece keâjves Jeeuee keâesF& veneR
(b) To weaken the position of girls in society (c) keâece ve Deeves hej yenevee {tBÌ{vee
(c) To confine girls and women only to the (d) peye keâesF& keâece keâjvee ner nw lees yegjeF& keâe efJeÛeej kewâmee
household
Ans. (d) : ‘veeÛeves ueies lees IetBIeš kewâmee’ ueeskeâesefòeâ keâe DeLe& ‘peye
(d) To strengthen the position of Government in
society keâesF& keâece keâjvee ner nw lees yegjeF& keâe efJeÛeej kewâmee’~
54 YCT
kegâÚ DevÙe ueeskeâesefòeâÙeeB SJeb Gvekesâ DeLe& – 9. cegneJeje ‘‘Mesj kesâ keâeve keâlejvee’’ keâe DeLe& nw-
1. Glej ieF& ueesF& lees keäÙee keâjsiee keâesF& : ceeve-mecceeve Ûeues (a) keâhešer nesvee
peeves kesâ yeeo efkeâmeer Yeer yeele keâe YeÙe veneR jnlee~ (b) DeÙeesiÙe nesves hej Yeer efkeâmeer keâeÙe& keâes keâj osvee
2. veeÛe ve DeeJes DeeBieve šsÌ{e : Dehevee oes<e otmejeW hej ceÌ{vee~ (c) yeneogjer keâe keâece keâjvee
3. efkeâme JeekeäÙe ceW Dekeâce&keâ ef›eâÙee nw? (d) Ûeefkeâle jn peevee
(a) meerlee ieeleer nw~ Ans. (c) : ‘Mesj kesâ keâeve keâlejvee’ cegneJejs keâe DeLe& ‘yeneogjer keâe
(b) keâepeue Keevee hekeâeleer nw~ keâece keâjvee’ neslee nw~ cegneJeje Skeâ Ssmee JeekeäÙe neslee nw, pees JeekeäÙe
(c) De™Ce heâue Keelee nw~ keâer jÛevee keâjves hej Dehevee Skeâ Deueie DeLe& Ùee efJeMes<e DeLe& Øekeâš
(d) DeeefolÙe yeepee yepeelee nw~
keâjlee nw~
pewmes- DeeBKe keâe leeje nesvee- DelÙeefOekeâ efØeÙe/yengle hÙeeje
Ans. (a) : ‘meerlee ieeleer nw~’ Dekeâce&keâ ef›eâÙee keâe GoenjCe nw~ efpeve
ef›eâÙeeDeeW kesâ meeLe keâce& veneR neslee nw leLee ef›eâÙeeDeeW kesâ JÙeeheej keâe 10. efvecveefueefKele ceW mes keâewve-mee JeekeäÙe keâle=&JeeÛÙe veneR nw?
heâue keâlee& hej heÌ[lee nw GvnW Dekeâce&keâ ef›eâÙee keânles nQ~ (a) meesvet he$e efueKelee nw~
(b) jeveer he$e efueKeleer nw~
4. osMepe Meyo keâe ÛeÙeve keâerefpeS-
(c) jece mes ieeÙee veneR peelee~
(a) yešve (b) efKeÛeÌ[er
(d) ueÌ[kesâ he$e efueKeles nw~
(c) iueeme (d) kebâheveer
Ans. (c) : efoS ieS efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘jece mes ieeÙee veneR peelee~’
Ans. (b) : efoS ieS efJekeâuheeW ceW ‘efKeÛeÌ[er’ osMepe Meyo nw~ Ssmes
keâle=&JeeÛÙe keâe GoenjCe veneR nw~ Ùen YeeJeJeeÛÙe keâe GoenjCe nw~
Meyo pees osMe keâer DevÙe Ùee #es$eerÙe Yee<ee mes efnvoer ceW meefcceefuele nesles JeekeäÙe ceW peye YeeJe keâer ØeOeevelee nes, lees JeneB YeeJeJeeÛÙe neslee nw~
nQ GvnW osMepe Meyo keânles nQ~ pewmes- Lewuee, heieÌ[er~ pewmes- efhelee peer mes keâece efkeâÙee veneR peelee~
5. JeekeäÙe kesâ Megæ ™he keâe ÛeÙeve keâerefpeS- JeeÛÙe ef›eâÙee keâe ™heevlejCe neslee nw~ efpememes Ùen helee Ûeuelee nw efkeâ
(a) Gmeves yeesuekeâj Deheveer yesšer yegueeÙeer~ JeekeäÙe ceW keâlee&, keâce& leLee YeeJe ceW mes efkeâmekeâer ØeOeevelee nw~ JeeÛÙe leerve
(b) Gmeves DeeJeepe keâes oskeâj Deheveer yesšer keâes yegueeÙee~ Øekeâej kesâ nesles nQ~
(c) Gmeves DeeJeepe oskeâj Deheveer yesšer keâes yegueeÙee~ 1. keâle=JeeÛÙe
(d) Gmekesâ DeeJeepe oskeâj Deheveer yesšer yegueeÙee~ 2. keâce& JeeÛÙe
Ans. (c) : ‘Gmeves DeeJeepe oskeâj Deheveer yesšer keâes yegueeÙee’ JeekeäÙe 3. YeeJe JeeÛÙe
Megæ nw, peyeefkeâ DevÙe efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nQ~ 11. efvecve ceW mes hegefuuebie Meyo keâe ÛeÙeve keâerefpeS-
6. efnvoer ceW meJe&veeceeW keâer mebKÙee efkeâleveer nw? (a) uelee (b) hesÌ[
(a) iÙeejn (b) yeejn (c) keâevlee (d) jesceve
(c) ome (d) lesjn Ans. (b) : uelee, keâevlee SJeb jesceve ‘Œeerefuebie’ Meyo nw, peyeefkeâ
Ans. (a) : efnvoer ceW meJe&veeceeW keâer mebKÙee 11 nw- ceQ, legce, Deehe, ‘hesÌ[’ hegefuuebie Meyo nw~ JÙeekeâjCe ceW efuebie keâe DeLe& nw MeyoeW kesâ Œeer
Ùen, Jen, pees, mees, keâesF&, kegâÚ, keâewve, keäÙee~ efpeve MeyoeW keâe ØeÙeesie Ùee heg®<e ™he keâer henÛeeve keâjvee~ efnvoer ceW oes efuebie nesles nQ-
meb%ee kesâ mLeeve hej efkeâÙee peelee nw, GvnW meJe&veece keânles nQ~ meJe&veece 1. hegefuuebie 2. Œeerefuebie
kesâ kegâue 6 Yeso nesles nQ~ 12. Megæ Meyo keâe ÛeÙeve keâerefpeS:
7. efvecve ceW mes leelkeâeefuekeâ Jele&ceeve keâeue keâe GoenjCe (a) heoefOekeâejer (b) heoeOeerkeâejer
keâewve-mee nw? (c) heoDeefOekeâejer (d) heoeefOekeâejer
(a) Jen pee Ûegkeâe nw~ (b) Jen peelee nw~ Ans. (d) : efoS ieS efJekeâuheeW ceW mes efJekeâuhe (d) ‘heoeefOekeâejer’ Megæ
(c) Jen pee jne nw~ (d) Jen peelee nesiee~ Meyo nw, peyeefkeâ DevÙe DeMegæ Meyo nQ~
Ans. (c) : ‘Jen pee jne nw’ leelkeâeefuekeâ Jele&ceeve keâeue keâe GoenjCe 13. efoS ieS JeekeäÙe kesâ efueS Skeâ Meyo keâe ÛeÙeve keâerefpeS:
nw~ ef›eâÙee kesâ efpeme ™he mes keâeÙe& kesâ nesles jnves keâe yeesOe neslee nw, Gmes ‘‘pees mejeW (leeueeye) ceW pevce ues’’
leelkeâeefuekeâ Jele&ceevekeâeue keânles nQ~ (a) keâeueefJeÅe (b) JeÛeveeleerle
pewmes- Jen keâe@uespe pee jne nw~ (c) efvejbkegâMe (d) mejefmepe
nce Kee jns nQ~ Ans. (d) : ‘pees mejeW (leeueeye) ceW pevce ueW’ JeekeäÙeebMe kesâ efueS Skeâ
8. ‘‘Ùecejepe’’ keâe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Meyo nw: Meyo ‘mejefmepe’ nesiee~
(a) melJej (b) Oece&jepe efvejbkegâMe- efpemekesâ efueS keâesF& DebkegâMe Ùee ØeefleyebOe ve nes~
(c) yeeÙeme (d) cevoe#e JeÛeveeleerle- pees JeÛeve mes hejs nes~
Ans. (b) : ‘Oece&jepe’ Ùecejepe keâe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Meyo nw~ Ùece, 14. Meyo ‘‘%eevesMe’’ ceW keâewve-meer mebefOe nw?
Devlekeâ, metÙe&heg$e, peerefJelesMe, ke=âleeble, oC[Oej, keâerveeMe Deeefo Ùecejepe (a) efJemeie& mebefOe (b) iegCe mebefOe
kesâ heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer nQ~ (c) ÙeCe mebefOe (d) DeÙeeefo mebefOe
55 YCT
Ans. (b) : ‘%eevesMe’ iegCe mebefOe keâe GoenjCe nw~ Fmekeâe mebefOe 16. mebeÛeer kesâ mletheeW ceW mes keâewve-mee mlethe meyemes yeÌ[e nw?
efJeÛÚso ‘%eeve’ ± ‘F&Me’ nesiee~ JeneB hej ‘De ± F& mes S’ yevee nw~ iegCe (a) mlethe mebKÙee -1 (b) mlethe mebKÙee -2
mebefOe ceW Ùeefo ‘De’ Ùee ‘Dee’ kesâ yeeo ‘F’ Ùee ‘F&’ ‘G’ Ùee ‘T’ Deewj (c) mlethe mebKÙee -4 (d) mlethe mebKÙee -3
‘$e+’ DeeS lees oesveeW efceuekeâj ›eâceMe: ‘S’, ‘Dees’ Deewj ‘Dejd’ nes peelee Ans. (b) : GheÙeg&òeâ ieÅeebMe kesâ DeeOeej hej meeBÛeer kesâ mletheeW ceW mlethe
nw~ mebKÙee- 2 meyemes yeÌ[e nw~
15. efvecve JeekeäÙeeW ceW mes efkeâme JeekeäÙe ceW ceW efJejeced efÛevneW keâe
17. meebÛeer keâe ceneve cegKÙe mlethe efkeâme jepee ves yeveJeeÙee
mener ØeÙeesie ngDee nw?
Lee?
(a) peer neB cewves yeej:yeej meeJeOeeve efkeâÙee Lee Gmes?
(a) heg<Ùeefce$e Megbie (b) DeMeeskeâ
(b) 2007 keâer yeeÌ{ ceW meJe&$e heeveer, ner, heeveer efoKeeF& heÌ[
jne Lee (c) Dekeâyej (d) yeerjyeue
(c) MeeyeeMe! Fmeer lejn meheâue nesles jnes~ Ans. (b) : GheÙeg&òeâ ieÅeebMe kesâ DeeOeej hej meeBÛeer keâe ceneve mlethe
(d) Deen, efkeâlevee keâef"ve meceÙe nw: DeMeeskeâ ves yeveJeeÙee Lee~
Ans. (c) : ‘MeeyeeMe! Fmeer lejn meheâue nesles jnes’ efJejeced efÛeÖeW keâer 18. Ghejesòeâ ieÅeebMe keâe GefÛele Meer<e&keâ keäÙee nw?
Âef° mes mener JeekeäÙe nw, DevÙe JeekeäÙe mener veneR nQ~ (a) yeewæ mceejkeâ (b) Yeerceyesškeâe keâer iegheâeS
Comprehension: (c) meebÛeer keâe meleghe (d) Megbie meceüeš keâer IešveeS
efoÙes ieÙes ieÅeebMe keâe OÙeevehetJe&keâ DeOÙeÙeve keâj ØeMveeW Ans. (c) : GheÙeg&òeâ ieÅeebMe keâe GefÛele Meer<e&keâ ‘meeBÛeer keâe mlethe nw~’
keâe Gòej oerefpeS: 19. Ghejesòeâ ieÅeebMe kesâ Devegmeej Yeerceyesškeâe keâer iegheâeS efkeâme
meebÛeer Yeejle kesâ ceOÙe ØeosMe jepÙe kesâ jeÙemesve efpeues, ceW efpeues ceW nw?
yesleJee veoer kesâ leš hej efmLele Skeâ Úesše mee ieebJe nw~ Ùen
(a) Yeesheeue (b) Oeej
Yeesheeue mes 46 efkeâ.ceer. hetJee&sòej ceW, leLee yesmeveiej Deewj
(c) jeÙemesve (d) meebÛeer
efJeefoMee mes 10 efkeâ.ceer. keâer otjer hej ceOÙe ØeosMe kesâ ceOÙe
Yeeie ceW efmLele nw~ Ùeneb keâF& yeewæ mceejkeâ nQ, pees leermejer Ans. (c) : GheÙeg&òeâ ieÅeebMe kesâ Devegmeej Yeerceyesškeâe keâer iegheâeSB
Meleeyoer F&.het. mes yeejnJeeR Meleeyoer kesâ yeerÛe kesâ keâeue kesâ ‘jeÙemesve’ efpeues ceW nw~
nQ~ meebÛeer jeÙemesve efpeues keâer Skeâ veiej hebÛeeÙele nw~ 20. Ghejesòeâ ieÅeebMe kesâ Devegmeej meebÛeer kesâ yeewæ mceejkeâ
jeÙemesve efpeues ceW Skeâ DevÙe efJeMeeuekeâeÙe mLeue, efkeâme Meleeyoer kesâ nw?
Yeerceyesškeâe Yeer nw~ efJeefoMee mes vepeoerkeâ nesves kesâ keâejCe (a) henueer Meleeyoer (b) leermejer Meleeyoer
ueesieeW ceW Ùen Yeüce neslee nw efkeâ Ùen efJeefoMee efpeuee ceW nw, (c) Dee"JeeR Meleeyoer (d) hee@ÛeJeer Meleeyoer
peyeefkeâ Ùen jeÙemesve efpeues ceW veneR nw~ ÙeneB Úesšs-yeÌ[s Ans. (b) : GheÙeg&òeâ ieÅeebMe kesâ Devegmeej meeBÛeer kesâ yeewæ mceejkeâ
DeveskeâeW mlethe nQ, efpeveces mlethe mebKÙee otmeje meyemes yeÌ[e leermejer Meleeyoer kesâ nQ~
nw~ ÛeejeW Deesj keâer nefjÙeeueer DeÆgle nw~ Fme mlethe keâes Iesjs
ngS keâF& leesjCe Yeer yeveW nQ~ mlethe mebKÙee Skeâ kesâ heeme keâF& SECTION-B
ueIeg mlethe Yeer nw, GvneR kesâ meceerhe Skeâ ieghle keâeueerve
hee<eeCe mlebYe Yeer nw~ Ùen Øesce, Meebefle, efJeÕeeme Deewj Post Specific Subject- Related Questions
meenme kesâ Øeleerkeâ nQ~ meebÛeer keâe ceneve cegKÙe mlethe,
cetuele: meceüeš DeMeeskeâ ceneve ves leermejer Meleeyoer, F&.het. ceW Discipline-1
yeveJeeÙee Lee~ Fmekesâ kesâvõ ceW Skeâ DeOe&ieesueekeâej FËš 1. Which of the following is NOT used as a
retardant in combination with carnauba wax in
efveefce&le {ebÛee Lee, efpemeceW YeieJeeve yegæ kesâ kegâÚ DeJeMes<e matrix tablets?
jKes Les~ Fmekesâ efMeKej hej mceejkeâ keâes efoÙes ieÙes TbÛes (a) Stearyl alcohol (b) Polyethylene glycol
mecceeve keâe Øeleerkeâ ™heer Skeâ Ú$e Lee~ (c) Stearic acid (d) Methyl cellulose
Fme mlethe ceW Skeâ mLeeve hej otmejer Meleeyoer F&.het. ceW Ans. (d) : Matrix tablets are the type of controlled drug
leesÌ[heâesÌ[ keâer ieF& Leer~ Ùen Iešvee Mebgie meceüeš heg<Ùeefce$e delivery systems, which release the drug in continuous
Mebgie kesâ GlLeeve mes peesÌ[keâj osKeer peeleer nw~ Ùen ceevee manner. Matrix tablets are classified as hydrophilic type
peelee nw efkeâ heg<Ùeefce$e ves Fme mlethe keâe OJebme efkeâÙee nesiee matrix, hydrophobic type matrix, Lipid type matrix,
Deewj yeeo ceW, Gvekesâ heg$e Deefiveefce$e ves Fmes hegveefve&efce&le biodegradable type matrix & mineral type matrix. Fatty
acids, fatty alcohols, waxes of natural and synthetic
keâjJeeÙee nesiee~ Mebgie JebMe kesâ Debeflece Je<ee&W ceW, mlethe kesâ origins etc. are used in hydrophobic, non swellable
cetue ™he keâe ueieYeie ogiegvee efJemleej hee<eeCe efMeueeDeeW mes matrices. Examples include stearic acid, lauryl, cetyl or
efkeâÙee ieÙee Lee~ Fmekesâ iegcyeo keâes Thej mes Ûeheše keâjkesâ, cetostearyl alcohol, carnauba wax etc.
Fmekesâ Thej leerve ÚleefjÙeeb, Skeâ kesâ Thej otmejer keâjkesâ • Carnauba wax in combination with stearyl alcohol or
yeveJeeÙeeR ieÙeeR LeeR~ Ùes ÚleefjÙeeb Skeâ Jeiee&keâej cegb[sj kesâ stearic acid or polyethylene glycol has been used as
Yeerlej yeveeR Leer~ retardant base for many sustained release formulation.

56 YCT
2. Which of the following formulations have Ans. (c) : The thyroid hormone is secreted by the
ingredients in a pressurised system? thyroid gland. The total body contains 20 mg of iodine
(a) Aerosols (b) Capsules of which 80% present in the thyroid gland.
(c) Tablets (d) Suppositories The trace element iodine is an essential constituent of
Ans. (a) : thyroid hormone, thyroxine (T4) and tri-iodothyronine
(T3). These are made from addition condensation
• Suppositories is a solid dosage from, which is products of the amino acid thyosine and are stored prior
generally consists of an active ingredient loaded into an to release in an iodine-containing protein called
inert base and has a certain shape for cavity thyroglobulin. T4 and T3 contain four and three atoms of
administration. Compared with oral dosage form, iodine per molecule, respectively.
suppositories have a higher bioavailability and faster • Trace elements such as iron, fluoride, iodine, copper,
onset. zinc, chromium, selenium, Mn and Mo are vital for
• The term aerosol is used to denote various systems maintaining health.
ranging from those of a colloidal nature to the systems 6. The buffer used in the limit test for iron
consisting of pressurized packages. Aerosols have been _______.
defined as colloidal systems consisting of very finely (a) Sodium acetate
sub-divided liquid or solid particles, dispersed in an (b) Sodium carbonate
surrounded by a gas. (c) Ammonia and ammonium chloride
3. The enzymes that are involved in the cleavage (d) Ammonium citrate
of C-C by atom elimination concept are called Ans. (d) : The purpose of limit testing is simply to
______. identify the contaminants present in a substance and to
(a) Lyases (b) Transferases compare them to the standard.
Limit test for Iron :- Limit test for iron is based on the
(c) Ligases (d) Isomerases
reaction of iron in ammonical solution in the presence
Ans. (a) : Enzymes are the biocatalyst. Most of the of citric acid with trioglycolic acid. By removing iron
enzymes have been classified into different group based from thioglycolic acid and reacting with ammonium
on the type of reactions they catalyze as : citrate, purple dye results are produced by forming
1. Transferases :- The enzymes catalyzing the transfer ferrous thioglycollate.
of a group, G (other than hydrogen) between a pair of
substrate S and S are known as transferases.
2. Lyases :- The enzymes that catalyzes the removal of
group from substrates by mechanism other than
hydrolysis leaving double bonds are known as Lyases.
3. Isomerases :- The enzymes that catalyzes inter-
conversion of optical, geometric or positional isomers Citric acid reacts with ammonia solution, giving
are known as isomerases. ammonium citrate, which act as a buffer. The citrate ion
4. Ligases :- The enzymes catalyzing, the linking also prevents the precipitation of iron by ammonia by
together of 2 compounds are known as ligases. Some forming a complex with it.
other are as Oxidoreductases/dehydrogenases, 7. Which one of the following is an isoquinoline
hydrolases. anti-tumour drug?
4. The main constituents of starch are ______in (a) Colchicine (b) Vinblastine
nature. (c) Emetine (d) Podophyllotoxin
(a) Lipids (b) Proteins Ans. (c) : Emetine, an amoebicidal drug, exerts potent
(c) Tannins (d) Sugars anticancer activity against various solid tumour,
Ans. (d) : Starch are made up of two types of however, the underlying molecular mechanism remains
unclear. In the present study, the effects of emetine
molecules :- Amylose and Amylopectin. It is polymeric
were investigated on various proteins involved in the
carbohydrate consisting glucose units joined by
Wnt/β-catenin signaling pathway, which has been linked
glycosidic bonds. Starch has many industrial to various human cancers.
applications like paper making, glue making etc.
8. ______is a cardiac glycoside containing crude
Starch is contained in many staple foods. The main belonging to the apocynaceae family.
constituents of starch are sugars in nature. (a) Digitalis (b) Adonis
• Amylose is water soluble and amylopectin is water (c) Strophanthus (d) Convallaria
insoluble. Ans. (c) : Cardiac glycosides are medicines that can
5. The trace element _______ is an essential help people with certain heart conditions. Cardiac
constituent of thyroid hormone. glycosides examples include, digoxin (cardoxin and
(a) Bromine (b) Chlorine Lanoxin), digitalis and digitoxin. They come from the
(c) Iodine (d) Fluorine digitalis (foxglove) plant, which is where they get their
57 YCT
names. Other cardiac glycoside drugs include oleandrin, Ans. (b) : A colloid is a heterogenous mixture in which
bufalin and ouabain. Digoxin is the most commonly one substance is dispersed as very fine particles in
prescribed cardiac glycoside. another substance called a dispersion medium.
• The chief chemical constituents of strophanthus are The colloid mill is used for various applications such as
cardiac glycosides. The amount of cardiac glycosides superfine grinding, homogenizing, emulsifying,
present in strophanthus is 8-10%. K-strophanthin is the dispersing and highly viscous products in
cardiac glycosides present in the strophanthus. It is the pharmaceutical, cosmetics suspensions & emulsion
mixture of three glycosides which are cymarin, K- industry. The basic principle used in the colloidal mill is
strophanthin, P and K-strophanthoside. known as rotor-stator which is placed in a cylindrical
• Strophanthus is a genus of flowering plants in the vessel.
family apocynaceae. 13. The source of Alexandrian senna is _______.
(a) Cassia auriculata (b) Cassia angustifolia
9. Which of the following laws is NOT related to
(c) Cassia obovata (d) Cassia acutifolia
size reduction?
(a) Fick's law (b) Kick's law Ans. (d) : Senna consists of the dried leaflets or fruit of
cassia senna. (cassia acutifolia) known in commerce as
(c) Bond's law (d) Rittinger's law
Alexandrian senna and of cassia angustifolia commonly
Ans. (a) : Size reduction :- It is a process in which, the known as Tinnevelly senna. The senna plants are small
particle size of a solid is made smaller. Mechanisms of shrubs of Leguminosae cultivated either in Somalia, the
size reduction are as cutting, compression, impact, Arabian peninsula and near the Nile river.
attrition. • The senna is produces purgative, catherine, laxative
It may not be well known, but there are three physical property.
laws that describe the energy required for size 14. Type B gelatin has an isoelectric point of
reduction. They are the kick's Law, Bond's Law, ______.
Rittinger's law. (a) pH 7.2 (b) pH 4.7
• Fick's law of diffusion tells that the diffusion process (c) pH 8.9 (d) pH 5.8
movement of molecules from higher concentration to Ans. (b) : Gelatin is a heterogeneous mixture of water-
lower concentration region. soluble proteins of high average molecular weights,
Rate = P × A × [(C1 – C2) ÷ T] present in collagen. Type A gelatin is derived from
10. Which of the following metals is used for the acid-cured tissue and Type B gelatin is derived from
treatment of lupus erythematosus? lime-cured tissue.
(a) Gold (b) Zinc Type A gelatin possesses an isoelectric point of 7 to 9
(c) Copper (d) Silver pH, while gelatin type B is characterized by an IP
ranging from 4.8 to 5.1 pH.
Ans. (a) : Gold has been used as a therapeutic agent to
Type A gelatin is manufactured from pork skin and
treat a wide variety of rheumatic diseases including type-B gelatin is manufactured from animal bones.
psoriatic arthritis, juvenile arthritis and discoid lupus
erythematosus. 15. Which of the following medicinal drugs is a
natural polyploid?
• Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a chronic (a) Eucalyptus (b) Valerian
inflammatory autoimmune disease of multifactorial (c) Cinnamon (d) Gentian
origin. Studies have shown that copper and zinc may
help maintain optimum function of the immune system Ans. (b) : Polyploidy is the heritable condition of
possessing more than two complete sets of
and metabolism, while toxic metals such as lead can
chromosomes. Polyploids are common among plants, as
increase systemic autoimmunity.
well as among certain groups of fish and amphibians.
11. Alkalotic agents are otherwise known as : Valerian is a perennial flowering plant native to Europe
(a) Laxatives and Asia. It has been used as a herb in traditional
(b) Saline cathartics medicine since at least the time of ancient Greece and
(c) Systemic antacids Rome.
(d) Nonsystemic antacids 16. In monophasic liquids, the salty taste is
Ans. (c) : Systemic antacids are antacids which get brought about by the use of :
systemically absorbed e.g. sodium carbonate is water (a) Anise (b) Maple
soluble and potent neutralizer, but it is not suitable for (c) Walnut (d) Berry
the treatment of peptic ulcer because of risk of ulcer Ans. (b) : Monophasic is the single-phase system of
perforation due to production of CO2 in the stomach. liquid dosage form, which contains two components i.e.
• Non systemic antacids are insoluble and poorly solute and solvent of the solution. It is one of the
absorbed systemically. simplest and most effective ways of medication as it
12. The colloid mill works on the principle of: quickly absorbs medicinal products.
(a) Impact (b) Homogenisation The four basic taste sensations are salty, bitter, sweet
(c) Compression (d) Cutting and sour.
58 YCT
 Taste Sensation Recommended flavour Discipline-2
Salty Butterscotch, maple, peach,
vanilla, apricot, mint 1. Acid test ratio is otherwise known as ______.
Bitter Walnut, mint combinations, (a) Liquidity ratio
anise, wild cherry, chocolate. (b) Networking capital ratio
Sweet Fruit and berry, vanilla (c) Current ratio
Sour Citrus flavours, liquorice, (d) Financial position ratio
raspberry. Ans. (a) : The acid-test ratio, also known as the quick
17. Polygalacturonic acid is otherwise known as : ratio, is a liquidity ratio that measures how sufficient a
(a) Calamine (b) Kaolin company's short-term assets are to cover its current
(c) Bentonite (d) Pectin liabilities.
Ans. (d) : Polygalacturonic acid, ((C6H8O6)n), also Acid-Test Ratio =
known as pectic acid or pectin, is a gelatinous acid that Cash &Cash Equivalents+Marketablesecurities+AccountsReceivable
exists in some fruits and vegetables. In land plants, Current Liabilities
polygalacturonic acids are major components of cell
wall polysaccharides. It may be formed by partial or The acid-test ratio formula can alternatively be rendered
complete hydrolysis of pectin esters. as follows :
Polygalacturonic acid may be used to identify, Current Assets – Inventories
differentiate and characterized plant cell wall degrading Acid − Test Ratio =
Current Liabilities
polygalacturonase (s) from fungi. Pectins are also used
as emulsifiers, thickeners and stabilizers. 2. ______ is also known as Pyridoxine.
• Bentonite also known as Montmorillonite clay after a (a) Vitamin B3 (b) Vitamin B6
region in France with a large deposit. (c) Vitamin B2 (d) Vitamin B1
18. Tamarind pulp does NOT contain ______acid.
Ans. (b) : Pyridoxine is a water soluble vitamin found
(a) Malic (b) Citric
naturally in many foods, as well as added to foods and
(c) Tartaric (d) Benzoic
supplements. Vitamin B6, also known as pyridoxine,
Ans. (d) : The scientific name of Tamarind is
helps : the body to use and store energy from protein
Tamarindus Indica. Tamarind belongs to the plantae
kingdom. and carbohydrates in food.
Tamarind contains tartaric acid, a weak acid that can The term vitamin B6 refers to six common forms,
remove the coat of copper carbonate. namely pyridoxine, pyridoxal, pyridoxamine and their
It pulp also contains malic, citric, succinic and quinic acid. phosphorylated forms.
• Tartaric acid has a stronger, sharper taste than citric 3. Vaccines containing only one strain of a species
acid. It is used as a functional food. are called _________vaccines.
19. Which of the following drugs acts on the (a) Mixed (b) Univalent
autonomic nervous system? (c) Simple (d) Polyvalent
(a) Strychnine (b) Reserpine
Ans. (b) : Vaccines are made of live or dead viruses or
(c) Camphor (d) Morphine
bacteria.
Ans. (b) : The CNS is made up of the brain and spinal
cord and the peripheral nervous system is made up of • A monovalent vaccine is designed to immunize
the somatic and the autonomic nervous systems. against a single antigen or single microorganism. It is
Autonomic drugs can either inhibit or enhance the also called univalent vaccine.
functions of the parasympathetic and sympathetic • A polyvalent or multivalent vaccine is designed to
nervous systems. This type of drug can be used to treat immunize against two or more strains of the same
a wide range of diseases, such as glaucoma, urinary, microorganism, or against two or more microorganisms.
asthma, gastrointestinal and cardiopulmonary disorders.
Reserpine is used to treat high blood pressure. It also used 4. The type of albuminuria that is associated with
to treat severe agitation in patients with mental disorders. It Addison’s disease is termed as _______
is in a class of medications called rauwolfia alkaloids. albuminuria.
20. Glatt coater is a type of _______ coating (a) Renal (b) Prerenal
system. (c) Postrenal (d) Functional
(a) Air suspension (b) Perforated pan Ans. (b) : Addison's disease, also called adrenal
(c) Conventional pan (d) Fluidised bed insufficiency, is an uncommon illness that occurs when
Ans. (b) : Glatt's pan coater incorporates a fully the body doesn't make enough of certain hormones.
perforated drum with a high open area providing • Postrenal proteinuria is due to protein that is deposited
maximum air flow & high efficiency heat transfer
resulting in shortened batch times. in the urine from any part of the urinary tract distal to
P series perforated pan for tablet coating is a flexible the Kidney.
and reliable machine providing high efficiency in the • Functional proteinuria can occur Transient
field of automatic coating equipment. subnephrotic proteinuria.

59 YCT
5. Which one among the following is NOT an androgens too. For example, testosterone. It is also a
informal work group type? steroid hormones.
(a) Permanent group • Mineralocorticoids (release from zona Glomerulosa).
(b) Merchandising group Its regulation is electrolyte and water. It is secreted by
(c) Economic intent group the outer most region of the adrenal cortex. Ex :-
(d) Psychological intent group Aldosterone.
Ans. (d) : An informal group is one that's not 10. Which of the following is an infectious viral
organizationally determined or influence and usually disease of the human alimentary canal that
formed by the members themselves in response to the affects the central nervous system?
need for social contact. (a) Cholera (b) Typhoid
An informal work group is a type of merchandising, (c) Poliomyelitis (d) Hepatitis
permanent and economic intent group.
Ans. (c) : Poliomyelitis (Polio) is a highly infectious
6. Which rule is utilised for estimating paediatric viral disease that largely affects children under 5 years
dose of medication for children, specifically of age and caused by the poliovirus. The virus spreads
from 1 to 2 years? from person to person and can infect a person's spinal
(a) Clark’s rule (b) Fried’s rule cord, causing paralysis. Paralytic poliomyelitis results
(c) Young’s rule (d) Cowling rule from the invasion of the CNS by circulating poliovirus
Ans. (d) : Young's rule :- (1 to 12 years) via the blood-brain barrier.
Ageof child in year 11. The disease condition of hypouricemia is
Dose for a child = × Adult dose
(Age of child in year + 12) associated with the deficiency of _________.
Fried's rule :- (Below 1 year) (a) Purine nucleoside phosphorylase
Ageof child in (month) (b) Xanthine oxidase
Dose for a child = × Adult dose (c) Glucose-6-phosphatase
150
Clark's rule :- (For all age) (d) Dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase
Wt.of child in Pound Ans. (b) : The disease condition of hypouricemia is
Dose for a child = × Adult dose associated with the deficiency of Xanthine oxidase.
150
Cowling rule :- Xanthine oxidase is an important enzyme catalyzing the
hydroxylation of hypoxanthine to xanthine and xanthine
Child 's agein year + 1
Child dose = × Adult dose to uric acid which is excreted by kidneys. Excessive
24 production and inadequate excretion of uric acid results
7. What type of epithelium is present in the in hyperuricemia.
conjunctiva of the human eye? 12. How many parietal bones are there in the
(a) Nonkeratinised stratified epithelium cranium?
(b) Transitional epithelium (a) Four (b) One
(c) Keratinised transitional epithelium (c) Two (d) Three
(d) Keratinised stratified epithelium
Ans. (c) : 8 bones are in the cranium are as follows–
Ans. (b) : The conjunctiva of the eye provides
protection and lubrication of the eye by the production • Pariental (2) • Temporal (1)
of mucus and tears. • Frontal (1) • Occipital (1)
Transitional epithelium is a stratified tissue made of • Ethmoid (1) • Sphenoid (1)
multiple cell layers, where the cells constituting the 13. Which of the following is an oncogenic virus?
tissue can change shape depending on the distention in (a) Poliomyelitis virus
the organ. (b) Human papilloma virus
8. Hydrochloric acid present in gastric juice is (c) Varicella zoster virus
secreted by _________. (d) Herpes simplex virus
(a) Parietal cells (b) Mucous cells
(c) Chief cells (d) G cells Ans. (b) : The seven known human oncogenic viruses
are EBV, HBV, HTLV-1, human papillomaviruses
Ans. (d) : Gastric HCl is secreted from the highly
(HPVs), hepatitis C virus (HCV), Kaposi Sarcoma-
specialized parietal cells located in the corpus of the
associated herpesvirus (KSHV; also known as human
stomach, generating a H+ concentration in the gastric
juice that is 3 million time greater than that in blood and herpesvirus-8 HHV-8) and merkel cell polyomavirus
tissue. (MCPyV).
9. What type of hormones are androgens? 14. Which one among the following can be
(a) Glucocorticoid (b) Sex hormone considered as home trade?
(c) Growth hormone (d) Mineralocorticoid (a) Foreign agent (b) Export trade
(c) Import merchant (d) Manufacturer
Ans. (b) : Androgens are reproductive and growth
hormones that are produced in male and female bodies. Ans. (d) : Domestic trade, also known as internal trade
Some people think androgens are male hormones but or home trade, is the exchange of domestic goods
the female body naturally produces small amounts of within the boundaries of a country.

60 YCT
• Import trade, export trade & entrepot trade is a type of (a) Renin
foreign trade. (b) Aldosterone
• A manufacturer is a person or company that produces (c) Atrial natriuretic peptide
finished goods from raw materials by using various tools, (d) Calcitonin
equipment and processes and then sells the goods to Ans. (b) : The reabsorption of filtered molecules, i.e.
retailer, wholesalers, consumers or to other manufacturers Na+, H+, K+ ions from the glomerular filtrate in the
for the production of more complex goods. tubules to the blood is called selective reabsorption.
15. What is another name for strabismus ? Aldosterone synthesis is primarily regulated by
(a) Short-sightedness (b) Far sightedness angiotensin II, K+ concentration and adrenocorticotropic
(c) Cataracts (d) Squint hormone. Elevated serum aldosterone levels increase
Ans. (d) : Strabismus (crossed eyes) is a condition in blood pressure largely in increasing Na+ reabsorption in
which one eye is turned in a direction that is different the Kidney through regulating transcription and activity of
from the other eye. the epithelial sodium channel.
A squint also called strabismus is a condition in which 19. Which one among the following is a type of co-
both eye do not look in same direction at the same time. operative bank?
It's particularly common in young children, but can (a) Primary credit society
occur at any age. (b) National small scale industrial corporation
16. Traffic flow analysis is a technique associated (c) Industrial credit investment corporation
with ________. (d) Exchange bank
(a) Manufacturing units Ans. (a) : Cooperative banks are founded by collecting
(b) Pharmacy stores funds through shares, accepting deposits and granting
(c) Marketing loans.
(d) Drug control departments PACS are village level cooperative credit societies that
Ans. (b) : There are two types of traffic flow analysis, serve or the last link in a three-tier cooperative credit
quantitative and qualitative. The first, quantitative structure headed by the state cooperative Banks at the
analysis, require more time and would be performed no state level.
more frequently than once each year. The second is 20. A ____________ is the end party in the
very simple to perform and can be done frequently, two pharmaceutical marketing channel.
or three times annually if desired. (a) physician (b) pharmacist
• A pharmacy is a shop or a department in a shop where (c) consumer (d) retailer
medicines are sold or given out. Ans. (b) : In pharma, 'channel' is often used broadly to
• Marketing is the process of getting people interested signify the routes to communicate with customers. A
in our company's product or service. more accurate definition includes the management of
• Manufacturing units find TPM implementation quite three key components i.e., The logistics to deliver
challenging. products and services to the customer; including the
channels through which the company sells and delivers
17. In which of the following condition is the
products.
Holger Nielsen method utilised?
(a) Asphyxia (b) Anorexia • Channels are the paths through which goods,
information and payment travel on their way from the
(c) Dysplasia (d) Hyperemia
producer (e.g. manufacturer) to ultimate consumer (e.g.
Ans. (a) : Holger Nielsen method is an outdated method patient).
for doing CPR. A second technique, called the Holger
Nielsen technique, described in the first edition of the Discipline-3
Boy Scout Handbook in the united states in 1911, 1. In instrumental analytical techniques, fused
described a form of artificial respiration where the silica is used as _________.
person was laid on their front, with their head to the (a) Radiation source (b) Detector
side and a process of lifting their arms and pressing on (c) Attenuator (d) Monochromator
their back. Ans. (c) : Fused silica and quartz are used in the
• Dysplasia :- A term used to describe the presence of manufacture of many optical parts, such as lenses,
abnormal cells within a tissue or organ. It is not cancer, mirrors, UV and IR transmitting optics and metrology
but it may sometimes become cancer. components- due to their ability to transmit light in the
• Anorexia :- It is an eating disorder and serious mental visible, UV and infrared range.
health condition. • Attenuators :- An attenuator is a TPN connected
• Asphyxia :- It is a condition of deficient supply of between source and load to provide desired attenuation
oxygen to the body which arises from abnormal of the signal.
breathing.
• Hyperemia is the increase of blood to our organs.
18. During selective reabsorption in the kidneys,
the increase in reabsorption of sodium is done
by _________.

61 YCT
2. The pharmacokinetic symbol ‘Cu’ represents database of samples and any meta data, results,
_______. workflows and instruments associated with them. A
(a) plasma drug concentration at given time ‘t’ LIMS helps in managing tests results, tracking
(b) concentration of an unbound drug in plasma inventory, generating test reports etc.
(c) plasma drug concentration immediately after 7. According to Food and Drug Administration
administration (FDA), in which phase of clinical cancer
(d) plasma drug concentration at steady state research are trials done on a limited number of
Ans. (b) : 'Cu' represents the "concentration of an patients to find out which types of cancer
unbound drug in plasma" in the pharmacokinetic. the treatment works for?
Some other pharmacokinetics symbols are given below– (a) Phase IV (b) Phase IV
C = Total plasma drug concentration at time t. (c) Phase II (d) Phase III
Cb = Whole blood drug concentration at time t. Ans. (a) : Clinical trials are a way to test new methods
of diagnosing, treating or preventing health conditions.
CL = Total plasma drug clearance.
Phase-IV clinical trials happen after the FDA has
3. The programme suite SYBYL is used for approved medication. This phase involves thousands of
_______. participants and can last for many years.
(a) diagnostic data Investigators use this phase to get more information
(b) pharmacokinetic study about the medication's long-term safety, effectiveness
(c) prescription writing and any other benefits.
(d) molecular modeling 8. Which of the following is an infrared radiation
Ans. (d) : SYBYL is a genal molecular modeling (IR) source?
programme that consists of a number of computational (a) Tungsten lamp (b) Deuterium lamp
chemistry modules to describe and predict molecular (c) Incandescent lamp (d) Hydrogen lamp
behaviour by Tripos, now a subsidiary of Certara, Inc. Ans. (c) : We experience infrared radiation every day in
The program suite SYBYL the basic module performs the form of heat because IR waves are thermal man-
the task of reading or sketching structures and initiating made source of IR radiation include heated metals,
minimisations. molten glass, incandescent bulbs, radiant heaters, home
electrical appliances, furnaces, welding arcs and plasma
4. The reduction in the release of which of the
torches.
following neurotransmitters is related to the
condition of dementia? 9. Which of the following computer software
(a) Anandamide (b) Acetyl choline packages was introduced first for
pharmacokinetic processes?
(c) Norepinephrine (d) Dopamine
(a) MICROID (b) NONLIN
Ans. (b) : Acetylcholine is another type of (c) ARGUS (d) DRUGID
neurotransmitter found in the parts of the brain, Ans. (b) : Nonlin computers software packages was
responsible for memory, thinking and processing introduced first for pharmacokinetic process. Non-linear
information. When lewy bodies build up in these areas, pharmacokinetics are dose dependent.
they lead to a deficiency in acetylcholine, causing In which when we increase the concentration of dose at
symptoms of dementia. some-time the rate of drug absorption (ADME) is
5. Sodium tetraphenyl borate titrations are also increases. After getting the saturation point. After
known as __________. increasing the dose/drug conc./multiple dose so the rate
(a) Non aqueous titration of drug absorption is zero and it is constant. It is follow
(b) Redox titration 1° and 0° order kinetic so it is called mixed PK.
(c) Indicator extraction titration
(d) Argentometric titration
Ans. (b) : Sodium tetraphenylborate is the organic
compound with the formula NaB (C6H5)4. It is a salt,
where in the an ion consists of four phenyl rings bonded
to boron.
• Redox titration is a laboratory method of determining 10. KINPAK, a programme meant for
the concentration of a given analyte by causing a redox standardised pharmacokinetic analysis, is NOT
reaction between the titrant and the analyte. used to obtain ____________.
(a) area under curve
6. LIMS is a data management system that (b) biliary concentration
supports management of ______________. (c) peak plasma concentration
(a) chromatographic data (d) peak plasma time
(b) organised text reports Ans. (b) : KINPAK is software used to obtain AUC,
(c) patient information Cmax (Peak plasma concentration), tmax (Peak plasma
(d) laboratory operations time). In this program, the kinetic parameters are
Ans. (b) : A laboratory information management calculated according to the geometric characteristics of
system is an application built around a centralized the plasma concentration-time curve.

62 YCT
• Biliary bile acid concentration is a simple and reliable Ans. (c) : Volhard process of assessing chlorine,
indicator for liver function after hepatobiliary resection bromine and iodine in the form of halides by
for biliary cancer surgery. precipitating them with excess silver nitrate and using a
11. Which one among the following is an example thiocyanate solution to titrate excess.
of aprotic solvent? In the volhard method a standard solution of
(a) Toluene (b) Sulphuric acid thiocyanate ion (SCN) is titrated against Ag+ using Fe3+
(c) Acetic acid (d) Water as the indicater. The titration of silver with ammonium
thiocyanate using ferric alum as an indicator is an
Ans. (a) : Solvents which are incapable of acting as a
example of a volhard titration in which a colored
proton donor are called aprotic solvents. They have no
substance is formed in the solution.
charge. Ex.– C6H6, CS2, CCl4, DMSO, DMF, Toluene,
Acetone etc. 17. In mass spectroscopy, the ions resulting from
• Polar aprotic solvents are the polar solvents that have the decomposition between source region and
hydrogen on them but they do not have O-H or N-H magnetic analyser are called __________.
bonds and therefore do not have hydrogen bonding in (a) Negative ions
them. Ex.- DMF, DMSO, crown ether etc. (b) Multiple charged ions
• Polar protic solvents : H2O, ROH, RCOOH, RNH2, (c) Rearrangement ions
Acetic acid, Sulphuric acid, Formic acid, HF, HCl, (d) Metastable ions
Methanol etc. Ans. (d) : A mass analyzer is the component of the
12. The salivary enzyme ________ converts starch mass spectrometer that takes ionized masses and
into sugars before food is swallowed. separates them based on charge to mass ratios and
(a) Gastrin (b) Pepsin outputs them to the detector where they are detected and
(c) Ptyalin (d) Trypsin later converted to a digital output. The ions resulting
from decomposition between the source region &
Ans. (c) : Ptyalin or salivary amylase is an enzyme magnetic analyzer are called as metastable ions.
which is present in the saliva. This saliva is mixed with
food during chewing and starch present in the food gets 18. Bar-coded medication administration (BCMA)
converted into a simple sugar called maltose by this helps pharmacists to dispense medicine in
compliance with the ‘Five Rights’ of
enzyme. Ptyalin enzymes are also known as α-amylase
medication administration. Which of the
enzymes.
following is NOT one of the five rights?
• The enzyme trypsin converts starch into maltose.
(a) Right time (b) Right medicine
• Ptyalin enzyme secreted in the mouth. (c) Right symptom (d) Right dose
13. A computer-based medical prescription that Ans. (c) : BCMA systemsreduce medication errors by
has been generated online is known as a/an electronically verifying the '5 rights' of medication
____ prescription. administration such as right dose, right drug, right time,
(a) manual (b) automated right route and right patient at the patient's bedside.
(c) electronic (d) over-the-counter
19. Which of the following is a commercial flow
Ans. (c) : Electronic prescription (E-Rx) is the sheeting programme?
computer-based electronic generation, transmission and (a) AMBER (b) CAM
filling of a medical prescription, taking the place or (c) PICLO (d) COPE
paper and faxed prescription. E-Rx allows a physician,
pharmacist, physician assistant or nurse practitioner to Ans. (d) :Cope is a commercial flow sheet programme
use digital prescription software to electronically cope flowcharts is a step by step process for practical
transmit a new prescription. use on handelling different aspects of ethics issues.
14. One of the following is NOT among four 'E's of 20. Which of the following indexes contains the list
health programme evaluation. of all formulary items within each therapeutic
category?
(a) Equity (b) Emergency
(a) Generic name brand index
(c) Efficiency (d) Efficacy
(b) Generic name synonym index
Ans. (c) : Efficiency is not involved in health (c) Economic index
programme evaluation. Programme evaluation is a
(d) Pharmacological index
systematic method for collecting, analyzing, and using
information to implement the policies and programmes Ans. (a) : In therapeutic category generic name brand
related to health. Aim of health programme evaluation index contains the list of all formulary items.
is to provide insight into how intervention have impact
on outcomes or not. Discipline-4
15. Which of the following is used as an indicator 1. ‘Mouse anti-alopecia factor’ is also known as
in the Volhard method of titration? _____.
(a) Phenol red (b) Starch mucilage (a) Niacin (b) Protogen
(c) Ferric alum (d) Crystal violet (c) Biotin (d) Inositol
63 YCT
Ans. (d) : Woolley1 described a syndrome produced in • Diffusion is the process of movement of molecules
mice on a synthetic diet containing thiamine, under a concentration gradient. It is an important
riboflavine, nicotinic acid, pyridoxin β-alanine, process occurring in all living beings. It helps in the
pantothenic acid and choline. Woolley2 identified this movement of substances in and out of the cells.
factor as inositol or phytin. Inositol is a carbocyclic 6. Which among the following is an amide
sugar that is abundant in the brain and other mammalian containing amino acid?
tissues; it mediates cell signal transduction in response (a) Cysteine (b) Serine
to a variety of hormones, neurotransmitters and growth (c) Leucine (d) Asparagine
factors and participates in osmoregulation. Ans. (d): Asparagine is an α-amino acid that is used in
2. Which one among the following is a the biosynthesis of proteins. It contains an α-amino
gravitationally induced movement in colloids? group, an α-carboxylic acid group and a side chain
(a) Osmosis (b) Diffusion carboxamide acid. It is non-essential in humans,
(c) Sedimentation (d) Brownian movement meaning the body can synthesize it.
Ans. (d) : Colloidal particles show the Tyndall effect as O
they scatter light.
• Colloidal particles show Brownian motion the H2N
colloidal particles show random movement in the OH
solution. As a result, the solution particles show random
or zig-zag motion of the colloidal particles in solution is O 0

NH2
called Brownian motion. It is a nitrogenous compound.
3. The bones in a baby's .......... ossify only after its 7. Which of the following amino acids is NOT
birth. involved in the biosynthesis of creatinine?
(a) Wrist (b) Clavicle (a) Arginine (b) Methionine
(c) Skull (d) Mandible (c) Isoleucine (d) Glycine
Ans. (a) : Wrist bone in a baby's ossify after birth Ans. (c) : Creatine synthesis requires three amino acids:
secondary ossification ocurs after birth. It forms the Glycine, arginine and methionine and three enzymes :
epiphyses of long bones and the extremities of irregular AGAT, MAT and GAMT.
and flat bones. • Creatine synthesis is required in adult animals to
4. Which of the following microorganisms is replace creatine that is spontaneously converted to
prokaryotic? creatinine and excreted in the urine.
(a) Protozoa (b) Bacteria 8. Hill-Baldes apparatus is used for the
(c) Algae (d) Fungi determination of:
Ans. (b) : Bacteria are an important group of micro- (a) Vapour pressure (b) Boiling point
organisms presents in the soil and they constitute (c) Freezing point (d) Osmotic pressure
approximately half of the total microbial biomass. Ans. (b) : Hill blades apparatus is used for the
Those bacteria which occur in soil are cocci (0.5 µm), determination of vapour pressure vapour pressure is a
bacilli (0.5-30 µm) and spiral forms. Some common soil measure of the tendency of a material to change into the
bacteria are the species of pseudomonas, Arthrobacter, gaseous or vapour state.
Achromobacter, Bacillus, Clostridium, Micrococcus, 9. The complement-fixation test, Wassermann
Flavobacterium, Mycobacterium and test is done for the diagnosis of _____________.
Chromobacterium.
(a) Tuberculosis (b) Hepatitis
Both autotrophic and heterotrophic bacteria occur in the
(c) Syphilis (d) Typhoid
soil.
Ans. (c) : The complement-fixation test (CFT) is a
5. Rhodophycophyta is also known as
classical laboratory diagnostic test, which is used for
_______algae.
determination of virus antibodies in patient sera or
(a) Brown (b) Golden
cerebrospinal fluid samples during an acute infection.
(c) Yellow-green (d) Red
The wasserman reaction is a diagnostic complement
Ans. (d) : Many algae occur on the surface of moist fixation test to detect antibodies to the syphilis causing
soils, where sufficient light is available. The growth of organism Treponema; a positive reaction indicates the
algae is beneficial for soil conservation and in presence of antibodies and therefore syphilis infection.
improving soil structure. In paddy fields, blue-green
algae play a significant role in nitrogen fixation. 10. Chloroxylenol is ________ type of disinfectant.
G.W. prescott classified algae into nine phyla such as (a) alkaline (b) alcoholic
chlorophyta (green algae), Euglenophyta, chrysophyta (c) acidic (d) phenolic
(yellow-green algae), Pyrrhophyta, phaeophyta, Ans. (c) : Chloroxylenol is an antimicrobial used to
Rhodophyta (red-algae), Cyanophyta (blue-green treat cuts, bites, stings, abrasions and used as an
algae), Cryptophyta, Chloromonadophyta. antiseptic hand cleaner. It is also known as para-chloro-
• The members of rhodophyceae are commonly called meta-xylenol.
red-algae because of the predominance of the red It is acidic type of disinfectant.
pigment, r-phycoerythrin in their body. It's molecular formula is C8H9ClO.

64 YCT
11. In fluid flow, for a streamline flow, the
–K = Ae – E A / RT
Reynold’s number should be approximately
______. where, K = Reaction rate,
(a) 5000 (b) 2000 A = Prefactor
(c) 4000 (d) 3000 EA = Activation Energy
R = Gas Constant
Ans. (b) : Mathematically Reynold's number is given
T = Absolute temperature
ρvD
by : R= 15. The theory stating “The deviations of
µ electrolyte solutions from ideal behaviour are
Where, R = Reynolds number due to the electrostatic effects of oppositely
ρ = the fluid density charged ions” was proposed by:
v = velocity (a) Gibbs-Helmholtz
D = Diameter of the pipe (b) HA Benesi and JH Hildebrand
µ = Viscosity of the fluid. (c) Meyer-Overton
If Reynold's number lies between 0 to 2000, then the (d) Debye-Huckel
flow of liquid is streamlined or laminar. If Reynold'sAns. (d) : Debye Huckel theory was proposed by peter
debye and Eric huckel to explain the departure of
number lies between 2000 to 3000, the flow of liquid is
unstable and changing from streamline to turbulent electrolytic solution form ideality, because the
flow. If Reynold's number is above 3000, the flow of electrolytic solution shows the deviation from ideal
liquid is turbulent. behaviour. Colligative properties of ideal solutions are
12. Group transfer agents in enzymes are known directly proportional to the concentration of solute, but
as _________. this does not happen in the case of real solution.
(a) Prosthetic groups (b) Metallozymes 16. Which of the following microorganisms
(c) Cofactors (d) Coenzymes multiplies by the process of budding rather
Ans. (d) : A coenzyme is a molecule of low molecular than fission?
mass that is a substrate for a significant number of (a) Virus (b) Fungi
enzymes and that transfers a chemical group, hydrogen (c) Mycoplasma (d) Rickettsia
or electron between these different enzymes. Ans. (c) : Budding is a type of asexual reproduction and
• A cofactor is a non-protein molecule that supports arelated to both multicellular and unicellular organisms.
In this process, a new organism develops from bud due
biochemical reaction. Ex– Vitamins, minerals and ATP etc.
to cell division in one particular area. Budding is found
13. Warfarin sodium is a _________made up of
in Bacteria, flatworms, yeast, corals and jellyfish.
water, isopropyl alcohol and sodium warfarin.
(a) Polymer (b) Channel lattice• Multiple fission is the process of asexual reproduction
in which instead of 2 daughter cells, many daughter
(c) Clathrate (d) Chelate
cells are produced from the parent cell.
Ans. (c) : Warfarin sodium is a low-dose
17. Determinate errors are also known as
pharmaceutical blood thinner that exists in two forms :
__________ errors.
the clathrate form and the amorphous form. In
commercially available warfarin sodium oral (a) constant (b) accidental
suspension, the active pharmaceutical ingredient (API) (c) natural (d) andom
is added in the amorphous state. Ans. (a) : Errors are classified in two types i.e.
• Warfarin is a medication used in the prophylaxis andsystematic error and Random (Indeterminate error)
treatment of venous thrombosis and thromboembolic errors.
events. It is the anticoagulant class of drugs. • Determinate errors also known as systematic errors
14. Which of the following chemicals is used in the are the errors which can be avoided or the extent or
gaseous method of sterilisation? error can be determined. These include : Operational
(a) Ethylene oxide (b) Formaldehyde and personal errors : These are the errors occurred
because of the analystic inattention. It is also known as
(c) Cresol (d) Phenol
constant error.
Ans. (a) : The most widely used gaseous sterilization
agent is ethylene oxide (C2H4O), which kills by • Random or (indeterminate) errors are caused by
alkylation of the nucleic acid within the micro- uncontrollable fluctuations in variables that affect
organism. The range of lethal concentration begins near experimental results.
300 mg/L and extends to approximately 1200 mg/L a 18. Which of the following materials has highest
higher levels have not been shown to result in thermal conductivity?
substantially shorter process times. (a) Copper (b) Steel
According to Arrhenius equation, (c) Diatomite (d) Stainless steel
65 YCT
Ans. (a) : Thermal conductivity (K) is the ability of a Discipline-5
medium to transfer or conduct heat. Greater is the value
1. ______emulsion s a soap emulsion for external
of thermal conductivity, greater is the ability of a
use.
medium to transfer heat.
(a) Ethyl cellulose (b) Lime cream
• Thermal conductivity (K) depends on the structure of
(c) Starch (d) Acacia
the material as well as on how closely atoms are packed
in the lattice. Ans. (b) : Emulsions for external use :- Semisolid
emulsions are termed creams and more fluid
Material Thermal conductivity (K) (w/mk)
preparations are either lotions or liniments (liniments
Diamond 2300 are intended for massage). Both w/o and o/w are
Silver 428 available for external use.
Copper 401 • Nascent method are soap type emulsions meant for
Steel 50.1 external use– alkali soap, NH4 + soap and lime cream
Gold 317 type.
Aluminium 237 2. As per the definition in the Narcotic Drugs and
Iron 79.5 Psychotropic Substances Act 1985, 'medicinal
Air 0.024 hemp' is also known as :
Diatomite 0.061-0.123 (a) Medicinal opium (b) Medicinal calotropis
(c) Medicinal poppy (d) Medicinal cannabis
19. In an ________ process, temperature is
constant throughout the process. Ans. (d) : The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic
(a) Isotonic substances Act, 1985 also know as the NDPS (Narcotic
(b) Isothermic Drugs and psychotropic substances) act, prohibits any
(c) Isochoric individual from engaging in any activity consisting of
(d) Isobaric production, storage and/or consumption of any narcotic
drug or psychotropic substance. Initially enacted in 1985,
Ans. (b) : An isothermal process is a thermodynamic
the act was amended three times in 1988, 2001 and 2014.
process in which the temperature of a system remains
• Cannabis sativa is commonly known as Hemp or
constant. The transfer of heat into or out of the system
Bhang plant. Medical cannabis, also called medical
happens so slowly that thermal equilibrium is
marijuana, herbal drug derived from plants of genus
maintained.
cannabis that is used as part of the treatment for a
∆T = 0 specific symptom or disease.
The change in the temperature remains zero in the
3. Under the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules of 1945,
process.
Schedule ______ gives standards for umbilical
• In an adiabatic process, the system is insulated from tapes.
the surroundings and heat absorbed or released is zero. (a) M II (b) M III (c) F II (d) F III
For an adiabatic process of an ideal gas,
Ans. (d) : Under the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules of
PVγ = constant
1945–
Cp • The standards for sterilised umbilical tapes shall be as
where, γ =
Cv laid down in schedule F (III).
20. Which of the following is a musculoskeletal • The standards for surgical dressing shall be such as
disorder? are laid down in schedule F (II).
(a) Myasthenia gravis • Schedule M to M3 contains good manufacturing
(b) Gout requirements for drugs. Schedule M, M1, M2, M3 are the
(c) Gullian-Barre syndrome parts of Drugs and Cosmetics Act.
(d) Anaphylaxis 4. In the sale price of bulk drugs, a post-tax
Ans. (b) : Musculoskeletal health refers to the return of _____ percentage on networth is
performance of the locomotor system comprising intact considered.
muscles, bones and adjacent connective tissues. Work- (a) 26 (b) 12 (c) 22 (d) 14
related musculoskeletals disorders (WMsDs) are a Ans. (d) : Government has right to fix the maximum
group of painful disorders of muscles, tendons and sale price of the drugs.
nerves. Carpal tunnel syndrome, thoracic etc. are While fixing the price govt. shall take into
examples. consideration following–
Musculoskeletal condition include long-term conditions (i) Post tax return of 14% on net worth.
such as Gout, back problems, osteoarthritis etc. (ii) Return of 22% on capital employed.
66 YCT
(iii) For new plant, a rate of return of 12% based on conjugation becoming hydrophilic and thus easily
long term marginal costing. excreted out of the body Examples : Warfarin,
(iv) In case of production is form basic stage, a post tax phenytoion, phenobarbtial etc.
return of 18% on net worth or 26% on capital • The presence of substituents on the aromatic ring also
employed. influence the process of hydroxylation.
5. Which of the following extractors is used for 9. Which of the following is a fatty base used in
continuous dispersed solids leaching? suppository bases?
(a) Soxhlet (b) Podbielniak (a) Gelatin (b) Macrogol
(c) Rotocel (d) Bonotto (c) Theobroma oil (d) Glycerol
Ans. (d) : Continuous dispersed-solids leaching is Ans. (c) : Fatty base, also known as oleaginous bases,
accomplished in gravity sedimentation tanks or in include synthetic triglyceride mixtures and theobroma
verticle plate-extractors. Exemplified by the Bonotto oil. Theobroma oil is used as a suppository base mainly
extractor, this consists of a column divided into because, in large measure, it accomplishes the
cylindrical compartments by equispaced horizontal requirements of an ideal base.
plates. Each plate has a radial opening staggered 180º Cocoa butter is fat obtained from the roasted seed of
from the openings of the plates immediately above and Theobroma cocoa. At room temperature it is a
below it and each is wiped by a rotating radial blade. yellowish, white solid having a faint, agreeable
• Liquid and solid flows are countercurrent. chocolate like odour. It melts at 30 to 35°C.
Suppository Bases :
• These extractors are used to extract oil from seeds and
1. Oleaginous bases
dry fruits.
(a) Cocoa butter/theobroma oil
6. Which of the following filters is used to filter (b) Emulsified cocoa butter.
slurries in pharmaceuticals?
(c) Hydrogenated oils.
(a) Filter leaf (b) Sweetland filter
2. Hydrophilic bases
(c) Rotary filter (d) Filter press
(a) Glycero - gelatin base.
Ans. (c) : Rotary Vaccum Drum filters process slurry (b) Soap-glycerin base.
and discharge cake in a continuous process. RVDFs can (c) Polyethylene glycol.
be used in wastewater treatment, sludge dewatering, 3. Emulsifying/Synthetic bases
chemical manufacturing, the pharmaceutical industry, (a) Witepsol
cosmetics, mineral mining and refining and the food (b) Massa estarinum
processing industry. (c) Massuppol.
7. ______is used as a natural thickening agent in 10. The label 'To be crushed before swallowing' is
suspensions. given for _____ tablets.
(a) Carbomer (a) Oxytocin (b) Potassium chloride
(b) Tragacanth (c) Glyceryl trinitrate (d) Vitamin D
(c) Methyl cellulose Ans. (d) : Vitamin D take by mouth. Take it as directed
(d) Colloidal silicon dioxide on the label at the same time every day. Chew it
Ans. (c) : Thickening agents are usually polymers of completely before swallowing. Do not swallow it whole.
high molecular weight substance and the most Take it with a meal or snack; for best results, take it with
commonly used are polyvinyl alcohol (PVA) which has foods that contains fat (i.e. milk, cheese, yogurt).
the trade name Liquifilm, hydroxy propyl methyl
11. In order to run a wholesale drug store, a
cellulose (HPMC) which has the trade name isotope, wholesaler must fulfill the norms of form
methyl cellulose 1% that is used as tear replacement in ........... of Drugs and Cosmetics Act 1940.
elderly patients and Liquifilm tears is an eye drops (a) 20C (b) 21A
containing only 1.4% of PVA and used to treat dryness (c) 20B (d) 18A
of the eye.
Ans. (d) : In order to run a wholesale drug store a
8. During metabolism, drugs having aromatic wholesaler must fulfill the norms of form 18 A of
moieties undergo aromatic hydroxylation Drugs and cosmetics Act 1940.
mainly at _____position. According to section 18 A any drug which is not of a
(a) Ortho (b) Para standard quality, or is misbranded adulterated or
(c) Ortho-para (d) Meta spurious should be not to distribute by any saler.
Ans. (c) : For mono-substituted benzene rings, 12. Which of the following ingredients make up a
oxidation occurs majorly at the para position with minor flexible collodion solution?
oxidation at Ortho position. These hydroxylated (a) Salicylic acid, colophony and castor oil
metabolites then further undergo glucuronide or sulfate (b) Pyroxylin, colophony and arachis oil
67 YCT
 (c) pyroxylin, colophony and castor oil 17. 'Penicillin V' is also known as :
(d) Salicylic acid pyroxylin and arachis oil (a) Benzathine penicillin
Ans. (a) : Collodion is a syrupy solution which contains (b) Benzyl penicillin
along with a mixture of ether and alcohol. It is (c) Phenoxy methyl penicillin
differentiated into two types flexible collodion and non- (d) Dimethoxy phenyl penicillin
flexible colloidion. Flexible collodion is used in Ans. (c) : 'Penicillin V' is also known as phenoxy
surgical dressings. It is a yellowish viscous solution methyl penicillin. It differs from PnG only in that it is
which is used to seal wounds. acid stable. Oral absorption is better, peak, blood level
Flexible collodion compositions are salicylic acid, is reached in 1 hour and plasma t½ is 30-60 min.
tannic acid, camphor, castor oil etc. The antibacterial spectrum of penicillin V is identical to
• Collodion is a solution of pyroxylin is a solution of PnG, but it is about 1/5 as active against Neisseria,
75% ether and 25% alcohol. other gram negative bacteria and anaerobes. It cannot be
13. Which of the following oral hypoglycemic depended upon for more serious infections and is used
agents is NOT a sulfonyl urea? only for streptococcal pharyngitis, sinusitis, otitis
(a) Glipizide (b) Phenformin media, prophylaxis of rheumatic fever, less serious
(c) Tolbutamide (d) Chlorpropamide pneumococcal infections and trench mouth.
Ans. (b) : Phenformin is a oral hypoglycemic. 18. Which of the following is a potent anti-estrogen
Sulfonylureas Drugs and their class– derivative?
First generation :- Acetohexamide, chlorpropamide, (a) Mestranol (b) Megestrol
Tolazamide, Tolbutamide (c) Tamoxifen (d) Triamcinolone
Second generation :- Glipizide, Gliclazide,
Ans. (c) : Tamoxifen is the most widely used drug in
Nateglinide, Glibenclamide/Gliburide, Glimepiride etc.
breast cancer treatment. Other antiestrogenic-active
14. Which is the heterocyclic moiety present in substances are anastrozole, reloxifene, clomiphene and
triamterene? cyclofenil. In sports, they can be used for the treatment
(a) Indole (b) Cinnoline of adverse effects of anabolic steroid abuse such as
(c) Naphtyridine (d) Pteridine gynecomastia and reduced testosterone production.
Ans. (d) : Triamterene is a pteridine derivative with • Antiestrogens can be defined as compounds that
potassium-sparing diuretic property. It blocks the prevent the stimulation of transcription by the ER.
sodium-potassium exchange pump (Na-K-ATPase) in
the luminal membrane of principle cells in the late 19. The injections inserted in the midline between
distal tubule, cortical collecting tubule and collecting the first and second cervical vertebrae are
duct in the Kidney. known as......injection.
Triamterene appears as odorless yellow powder or (a) Intracisternal (b) Hypodermic
crystalline solid. (c) Intrabursal (d) Peridural
Ans. (d) : The injection inserted in the midline between
15. Non-ionic surfactant vesicles are termed as
the first and second cervical vertebrae are known as
_____.
peridual or epidural injection.
(a) Liposomes (b) Transfersomes
(c) Ethosomes (d) Niosomes Mainly epidural injection preferred site is the space
outside of the sac of fluid around spinal cord.
Ans. (d) : Niosomes can be defined as microscopic
lamellar molecules formed by the mixture of 20. As per the drug control order of 1955, Which
cholesterol, nonionic surfactant (alkyl or dialkyl form provides information/permission for
polyglycerol ethers) and charge-inducing agent. fixation or revision of prices of a prescribed
Niosomes were developed as carriers of chemical drugs bulk drug?
for the treatment of various disease such as cancer, (a) Form-II (b) Form-III
diabetes, inflammation and so on. (c) Form-IV (d) Form-I
16. Which of the following is used as a naturally Ans. (c) : As per the drug control order of 1955,
occurring antispasmodic? Form-1 : Application for fixation/revision of price of
(a) Reserpine (b) Papaverine scheduled bulk drug.
(c) Quinidine (d) Ephedrine Form-2 : Information related with price of non-
Ans. (b) : Antispasmodic compounds are currently used scheduled bulk drug.
to reduce emotional, anxiety, musculoskeletal tension, Form-3 : Application for approval/revision of price of
and irritability. Some naturally occurring antispasmodic scheduled formulation.
are Thymoquinane carvacrol, Himachalol, Hyperlcin, Form-4 : Application for approval/revision of price of
Eugenol, Peprine, Papaverine, Nudol, Vitexin, scheduled formulation imported in finished form.
Galphimin A, Galphimin B, Galphimin C etc. Form-5 : Form of price list.

68 YCT
 DELHI SUBORDINATE SERVICES SELECTION
BOARD RECURITMENT
EXAM DATE-2017

SECTION-A 5. Which one of the following is not legal tender?

(a) Savings Bank Account
(b) Current Account
General Awareness
(c) Demand Deposit
(d) All the above
1. Consider the following about alluvial soils and
choose the right answer. Ans. (c) : Demand Deposits are not legal tender because
(a) Duars are the floodplains and foothills off the anyone can reject them. As a form of payment Demand
eastern Himalayas in North-East India around deposits can be converted into legal tender money on
Bhutan demand.
(b) Terai is a belt of marshy land at the foot of Legal Tender is a form of money that courts of law are
mountains at the foot of the Himalayas in required to recognize as satisfactory payment for any
North India monetary debt. Example- Saving bank account, current
(c) Both are wrong account, check, banknotes etc.
(d) Both are right 6. Guarantees i.e. liability, on coins are assured by
Ans. (d) : Considering the alluvial soils in India- Both (a) RBI
are right. Duars are the food plains and foothills of the (b) Supreme Court of India
eastern Himalayas in North-East India around Bhutan, (c) Finance Ministry
and Terai is a belt of marshy land at the foot of (d) President of India
mountains at the foot of the Himalayas in North India. Ans. (a) : Guarantees i.e liability on coins and for
2. Kofi Annan, the famous international circulation only assured by RBI in term of the RBI Act.
personality who was respected by every corner While coins are minted by the Government of India in
of the world, who passed away recently, he was terms of the coinage Act, 1906.
a former In India, coins are minted at the four Indian
(a) Chairman of WTO Government Mints at Mumbai, Alipore (Kolkata),
(b) Chairman of IMF Saifabad (Hydrabad) and NOIDA.
(c) Secretary General of UNO
7. Which one of the following is the right
(d) USA president
explanation for Fiscal Deficit?
Ans. (C) : Kofi Annan of Ghana, the famous (a) Difference between total expenditure and
international personality who was respected by every total receipts.
corner of the world, who passed away recently (in
(b) Difference between total expenditure and
2018), he was former Secretary General of UNO during
1997 to 2006. Antonio Guterres is currently the total receipts including borrowing.
Secretary General of UNO. (c) Difference between total expenditure and
total receipts excluding borrowing.
3. Black soils are predominantly found in India in
the region of (d) Difference between total expenditure and
(a) West Coast (b) East Coast total receipts excluding external borrowing
(c) Central India (d) Deccan Trap only
Ans. (D) : Black soils are predominantly found in India Ans. (c) : The right explanation for Fiscal Deficit is
in the region of Deccan Trap/Plateau and Malwa Difference between total expenditure and total receipts
plateau. In India, it is predominant in Maharashtra, excluding any type of borrowing. The Fiscal deficit is
Madhya Pradesh , Western Andhra Pradesh, South also known as budget deficit.
Tamil Nadu and North Karnataka. A fiscal deficit occurs when a government spends more
4. Irula tribes are associated with which one of than its income resources. According to interim budget
the following hill forest? assumptions 2024-25 the fiscal deficit is 5.1 percent,
(a) Kodachadri betta (b) Biligirirangana betta while during the financial year 2023-24 it was 5.8
(c) Annamudi (d) Nilgiri percent.
Ans. (d) : Irula tribes belong to PVTG group. People of 8. Which of the following Indian state in which
this tribe are associated with Nilgiri hill forest in Tamil the endangered animal Dancing deer or Sangai
Nadu and Kerala states. This tribe is a Dravidian ethnic is only found in the world?
group. They follow traditional Religion, Hinduism and (a) Assam (b) Nagaland
Christianity. (c) Manipur (d) Delhi
69 YCT
Ans. (c) : In India the endangered animal Dancing deer 14. The highest coffee producing state in India is
or Sangai is only founded in Manipur state. This is a (a) Kerala (b) Karnataka
unique and rare species found exclusively in Keibul (c) Assam (d) Meghalaya
Lamjao National park in Manipur has witnessed a Ans. (b) : Karnataka is the highest coffee producing
worrying decline in its population over the years. stake in India with the share of 71 of the whole
Sangai deer has been classified as endangered on production of country.
IUCN's Red List. This is the state animal of Manipur. Kerala is the second highest coffee producing state with
share of around 21%.
9. In the recently held ASIAD 2018, the position According to UNFAO report 2022 , Brazil is the highest
ranked by India in the total medal count is coffee producing country, while second and third are
(a) 6th (b) 7th Vietnam and Indonesia.
th
(c) 8 (d) 9th 15. Who among the following presides over the
Ans. (c) : In the tournament of ASIAD, 2018 to position joint session of Parliament in India?
ranked by India of 8th by winning 70 medals across 36 (a) President (b) Vice President
sport : 16 gold, 23 silver and 31 bronze. (c) Speaker (d) Prime minister
10. Who was first Indian to pass the Indian Civil Ans. (c) : According to provisions of the constitution of
Service (ICS) examination during British India? India, The Speaker of Lok Sabha presides over the join
(a) Subhash Chandra Bose session of the parliament of India. In the Speaker's
(b) Satyendranath Tagore absence, the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha presides. In
(c) R. C. Dutt the absence of Deputy Speaker, the Deputy Chairman of
(d) Satyendranath Banerjee Rajya Sabha Presides.
According to article 87 of the constitution, The President
Ans. (b) : Satyendranath Tagore was the first Indian to of India call a joint session of both house of Parliament-
pass the Indian Civil Service (ICS) exam in 1863. He 1. At the start of the first session after a general
was the elder brother of Guru Rabindranath Tagore. election.
Satyendranath Tagore was a member of Bramho Samaj. 2. To break a deadlock that occurs when both houses
11. Which of the following jagirdari, first to are unable to pass a bill.
become free and independent kingdom from 16. Who is the first Dalit or Scheduled Tribe (ST)
Mughal empire? woman Chief Minister of India ?
(a) Bengal (b) Hyderabad (a) Mamatha Banerjee (b) Mayawati
(c) Awadh (d) Maharashtra (c) Sheila Dikshit (d) Nandini Satpathy
Ans. (c) : The Awadh became the first jagirdari in 1724 Ans. (b) : Former Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh is the
under Soadat Khan Burhan UI Mulk, as free and first Dalit or Schedule Tribe (ST) woman Chief
independent Kingdom from Mughal Empire. He Minister of India. First time she became the Chief
established the Awadh Autonomous Kingdom from Minister in 1995 for four months term. Mayawati has
Mughal Empire. The capital of Awadh was Faizabad served as Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh three more
times, in 1997, 2002-03 and 2007-12.
and Lucknow.
Jagirdari system was introduced by the Delhi Sultanate 17. In the digital banking era, what does UPI
and Continued during the Mughal Empire. stands for.
(a) United Payment Interface
12. The famous OPIUM war in 1830 fought (b) Unified Payment Interface
between. (c) Union Payment Interface
(a) British India vs Mughal (d) Utility Payment Interface
(b) British vs China Ans. (b) : In the digital banking era, the UPI stands for
(c) British vs Afghan Unified Payments Interface. UPI is a mobile app that
(d) British vs USA allows users to transfer money between bank accounts
Ans. (b) : The famous OPIUM war in 1830 was fought in India. UPI is developed by the National Payment
between British and China. The Opium wars were a Corporation of India. NPCI was launched in April 2016.
series of conflicts between China and Western powers UPI is regulated by RBI and claims to be the most
secure platform cashless transaction.
in the Mid 19th century.
18. In the Indian Parliament, any Bill, that become
13. Which one of the following continents is calld Act when it gets signed or assented by.
as the 'Land of prairies'? (a) Law Minister of India
(a) Europe (b) Australia (b) President
(c) South America (d) North America (c) Prime Minister
Ans. (d) : North America continent is called as the (d) Speaker
Land of Prairies". Prairies are flat fertile grasslands in Ans. (b): The Indian Parliament is made up of the
North America with moderate temperatures and rainfall. President and two houses-Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha.
This zone usually covered in wheat and are dominated Therefore, In the Indian Parliament, any Bill that
by grasses that make it ideal for growing grains like becomes Act when it gets signed or assented by the
wheat, rye and oats. President of India.

70 YCT
19. Which of the following is not a Kharif crop in 24. Find out the missing terms in
India? b_b_bb_b_bbabbb_.
(a) Bajra (b) Barley (a) aaabb (b) abaaa
(c) Maize (d) Cotton (c) ababb (d) bbabb
Ans. (b) : Barley is not a Kharif crop in India. It is a Ans. (c) : According to the question
Rabi crop. Some other Rabi crops are wheat, gram, b a bb / bb a b / b bba / b b b b
potato etc. Rabi crops are sown in October-November In vacant place → (ababb)
and harvested in March-April. So, option (c) is correct in given options.
Bajra, Maize and Cotton are Kharif crops. These crops 25. If METHOD is written as LFSINE then
are sown in June–July and harvested in November- DEPOT can be written as.
December. (a) EFQPU (b) CFOPS
20. Panna tiger reserve is located in. (c) CDOPS (d) EDQPU
(a) Haryana (b) Orissa Ans. (b) : According to question,
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Bihar
Ans. (c) : Panna tiger reserve is located in Madhya
Pradesh. It is located in Vindhya Hill in northern
Madhya Pradesh, Ken River flows through the reserve.

General Intelligence & Reasoning Ability

21. Clock is to second as calendar is to So, option (b) is correct answer.
(a) Years (b) Months 26. Pointing to a photograph Suraj said, "His
(c) Days (d) Weeks daughter Subha is grand daughter of my
Ans. (c) : According to question just as 'second' is the mother". Whose photograph was it ?
smallest part of time in the clock same as 'days' is the (a) Suraj's brother (b) Suraj's son
smallest part of time in calender. (c) Suraj's uncle (d) Suraj
So option (c) is correct in give options. Ans. (a) : According to the question,
22. Choose the number which is similar to the
numbers
363, 489, 579.
(a) 562 (b) 471
(c) 382 (d) 281
Ans. (b) : According to the question.
Just as :
363 : 3 + 6 + 3 = 12 → 1 + 2 = 3 From the above family tree diagram, Shubha is either
489 : 4 + 8 + 9 = 21 → 2 + 1 = 3 Suraj's daughter or his brother's daughter.
579 : 5 + 7 + 9 = 21 → 2 + 1 = 3 So, option (a) is correct answer.
Same as, 27. Facing towards north, Gopal walks 20 meters,
471 : 4 + 7 + 1 = 12 → 1 + 2 = 3 he turns left and walks 40 meters, he again
So, option (b) is correct in the given options turns left and walks 20 meters, then he turns
right and walks 20 meters. How far is he from
23. Find the missing number in the sequence
his original positions?
5 10 26
, ,? (a) 30 m (b) 40 m
4 9 25 (c) 45 m (d) 60 m
17 19 Ans. (d) : According to the question,
(a) (b)
16 20
18 20
(c) (d)
17 21
Ans. (c) : According to the question
Just as

From above diagram

Same as from option, Distance between starting point and
end point = 40 + 20
= 60 m
So, option (c) is correct in given options. So, option (d) is correct answer.

71 YCT
28. English, French and Hindi can be represented 31. Which two months in a year have the same
by. calendar ?
(a) June, October (b) April, November
(a) (c) April, July (d) October, December
Ans. (c) : According to the question,
Two months will have same calender if the period
between them is divisible by 7.
(b) Now, by options.
Option (a) : June + July + August + September
= 30+31+31+30 = 122 (not divisible by 7)
Option (b) : April + May + June + July + August +
(c) September + October
= 30+31+30+31+31+30+31=213
(d) (not divisible by 7)
Option (c) : April + May + June = 30+31+30=91
Ans. (d) : According to question, English, French, & (divisible by 7)
Hindi can be represented by – Option (d) October + November = 31+30=61
(not divisible by 7)
So, option (c) is correct answer.
32. F14KB59#DR2#7MG%HVT38*
1 JA. which of the following is exactly in the
Because, All are three different languages.
middle between the fifth from the left and the
So, option (d) is correct answer.
ninth from the right?
29. In the given figure, the triangle represents (a) # (b) 2
girls, the square represents sports persons and
(c) 7 (d) R
the circle represents coaches, The portion in
the figure which represents girls who are sports Ans. (c) : According to the question,
person but not coaches is.

From above, 2 is exactly in the middle between fifth

from the left and ninth from the right.
(a) a (b) b
(c) c (d) d So, option (b) is correct answer.
Ans. (b) : According to the question 33. If → means +,← ← means –, ↑ means ÷ ↓ means ×
and  means =, then which of the following is
correct ?
(a) 2 ↓ 5 ← 6 → 2  6
(b) 5 → 7 ← 3 ↑ 2  4
(c) 3 ↓ 6 ↑ 2 → 3←  5
The girl who is sport person but not coach is 'b' (d) 7←3↑6↓14
So, option (b) is correct answer. Ans. (b) : According to the question,
30. Aruna ranks 12th in a class of 46. What will be From given options.
her rank from the last ? Option (a) : 2 × 5 – 6 + 2 = 6 ( )
(a) 33 (b) 34 Option (b) : 5 + 7 – 3 ÷ 2 = 4 (×)
(c) 35 (d) 37 Option (c) : 3 × 6 ÷ 2 + 3 – 6 = 5 (×)
Ans. (c) : According to the question Option (d) : 7 – 3 ÷ 6 × 1 = 4 (×)
Let Aruna's rank from last is 'x' So, option (a) is correct from given options.
Total no. of students in class is 46. 34. Five boys took part in a race. Ram finished
12 + x –1 = 46 before Mohan but behind Gopal. Akshay
x = 46 – 11 finished before Shailesh but behind Mohan.
x = 35 Who won the race?
by above, Aruna's rank from the last is 35th (a) Ram (b) Gopal
So, option (c) is correct answer. (c) Mohan (d) Akshay
72 YCT
Ans. (b) : According to the question, Conclusion :
(i) (×)
(ii) (×)
(iii) (×)
(iv) (×)
Clearly, from above none follows from given
conclusions.
So, option (d) is correct answer.
38. In a certain code, '526' means 'sky is blue, '24'
Clearly, from above diagram, Gopal won the race. means 'blue colour' and '436' means 'colour is
So, option (b) is correct answer. fun'. Which digit in that language means 'fun'?
35. Fill in the banks. (a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5
Ans. (b) : According to the question,

(a) 5 (b) 2
(c) 8 (d) 11
Ans. (b) : According to question,
Just as,
5 × 2 + 4 = 14
5 × 5 + 6 = 31 Clearly by above, code of fun is 3
Same as, So, option (b) is correct answer.
6 × 2 + 5 = 17
39. Complete the analogy.
? = 2 By comparison TALK : YFHG : : MIND :?
So, option (b) is correct answer. (a) RNJZ (b) RMNQ
36. There are 36 cows in a herd, 20 are white and (c) QMRH (d) QMHR
28 are brown, How many have both colours ? Ans. (a) : According to the question,
(a) 12 (b) 10
(c) 16 (d) 14
Ans. (a) : According to the question,
Let, total cows, n (A∪B) = 36
White cows, n (A) = 20
and Brown cow, n (B) = 28 So, option (a) is correct answer.
n (A∩B) = n (A) + n(B) – n (A∪B) 40. Choose the number different from the rest.
= 20 + 28 – 36 (a) 144 (b) 168
= 12 cows (c) 196 (d) 256
Clearly by above 12 cows have both the colours. Ans. (b) : According to the question,
So option (a) is correct. In given options, 144, 196 and 256 are perfect squares
37. Statements: but 168 is not perfect square
Some tables are TV's So, option (b) is correct answer.
Some TV's are radios.
Conclusion : Arithmetical and Numerical Ability
I. Some tables are radios.
II. Some radios are tables. 41. In a group of 65 people, 40 like Cricket, 10 like
III. All radios are TV's both Hockey and Cricket. How many like
IV. All TV's are tables Cricket only and not Hockey ?
Which of the following conclusion follows? (a) 40 (b) 35
(a) All follow (c) 30 (d) None of these
(b) Only IV follows Ans. (c) : According to the question,
(c) Only II and IV follows Cricket, n (c) = 40
(d) None follows Both, n (C∩ H) = 10
Ans. (d) : According to the question, n (cricket only not Hockey) = n(c) –n (C∩H)
= 40–10
= 30
So, option (c) is correct answer.

73 YCT
42. In the product of two numbers is 720 and their 46.
The present ages of two sisters are in the ratio 6
LCM is 120, then their HCF is. : 7. If 5 years ago their ages were in the ratio 5 :
(a) 24 (b) 6 6 find their present age ( in years).
(c) 8 (d) 10 (a) 36, 42 (b) 60, 70
Ans. (b) : According to the question, (c) 30, 35 (d) 24, 28
We know that
Ans. (c) : Let present ages of two sisters are 6x and 7x
First number × Second number = HCF × LCM
According to the question,
720 = HCF × 120
HCF = 6 6x − 5 5
=
So, option (b) is correct answer. 7x − 5 6
43. A and B together can do a piece of job in 24 36x – 30 = 35x – 25
1 x=5
days. B alone does its part in 12 days. How Their present ages are
3
long does A alone does the job ? 6x = 6 × 5 = 30 years
(a) 64 days (b) 48 days 7x = 7 × 5 = 35 years
(c) 36 days (d) 72 days So, option (c) is correct answer.
Ans. (d) : According to the question, 47. In how many years will a sum of money double
B alone does its 1/3 part in 12 days itself at 10% per annum simple interest ?
B alone total work = 12 × 3 = 36 days. (a) 6 years (b) 5 years
1 (c) 10 years (d) None of these
Work done by B in one day =
36 Ans. (c) : Let sum of money is P it doubles = 2P,
1 Interest = 2P – P = P
Work done by (A + B) in 1 day =
24 Then,
Work done by a alone in 1day PRT
S.I. =
1 1 3− 2 1 100
= − = =
24 36 72 72 P × 10 × T
A will do alone this work in 72 days P=
100
So, option (d) is correct answer.
–3
⇒ Time, T = 10 years
 36  2 So, option (c) is correct answer.
44. Value of   is
 25  48. If the average age of 10 students in a class is 11
125 216 years, the sum of their ages is ( in years).
(a) (b)
216 125 (a) 100 (b) 110
25 (c) 11 (d) None of these
(c) (d) None of these
36 Ans. (b) : According to the question,
Ans. (a) : According to the question, Average age of 10 students = 11 years
−
3 3
2×
3 ∴ Sum of their ages = 11 × 10 = 110
 36  2  25  2  5  2 125
  =  =  = So, option, (b) is correct answer.
 25   36   6  216 49. If the price of pair of shoes was decreased by
So, option (a) is correct answer. 20% to Rs. 410, then the original price of shoes
45. Two numbers are in the ratio 4 : 5 and if 24 is is
subtracted from each of them, the resulting (a) Rs. 500 (b) Rs. 450
numbers are in the ratio 2 : 3 then, the
(c) Rs. 512.50 (d) Rs. 500.50
numbers are
(a) 24, 30 (b) 48, 60 Ans. (a) : According to the question,
(c) 40, 50 (d) None of these  100 
Original price of pair of shoes is =   × 400
Ans. (b) : Let numbers are 4x and 5x  100 − 20 
According to the question, 100
4x − 24 2 = × 400 = ` 500
= 80
5x − 24 3 So, option (a) is correct answer.
12 x – 72 = 10x – 48
2x = 24 50. The cost of an article is Rs. 80. If the profit of
x = 12 Rs. 20 is made by selling the article, the profit
4x = 12 × 4 = 48 percentage is.
5x = 12 × 5 = 60 (a) 15 (b) 25
So, option (b) is correct answer. (c) 30 (d) None of these

74 YCT
Ans. (b) : According to the question, 54. Which among the following is not a rational
Profit number ?
Profit% = ×100 (a) 0 (b) –3
cost price
10 3
20 (c) (d)
= × 100 3 2
80
Ans. (d) : According to the question,
= 25%
From options.
So, option (b) is correct answer.
3
51. If a + b : a – b = 7 : 3, then a : b is In → 3 = 1.7320508 --------
(a) 2 : 5 (b) 5 : 2 2
(c) 7 : 3 (d) None of these It means 3 is an endless non-repeating number.
Ans. (b) : According to the question, So it cannot be rational number.
So, option (d) is correct answer.
a+b 7
= 55. Find the area of a quadrant of a circle whose
a−b 3 circumference is 22 cm.
3a + 3b = 7a – 7b 77
4a = 10b (a) 80sq. units (b) sq. units
8
a 10
= 75
b 4 (c) sq. units (d) None of these
4
a:b=5:2
Ans. (b) : According to the question,
So, option (b) is correct answer.
Circumference of circle 2πr
1 2πr = 22 cm
52. Two persons are walking at the rate of 6 km
2 7 1
1 r = 22× ×
and 5 km an hour start from the same point 22 2
2 7
the same direction. In how many hours the r = cm
2
distance between them will be 3.5 km ?
1
(a) 4 hrs. (b) 3.5 hrs. Area of quadrant of circle = πr 2
(c) 12 hrs. (d) 2 hrs. 4
1 22 7 7
Ans. (b) : According to the question, = × × ×
Their respective speed (for some direction) 4 7 2 2
= (6½ – 5½ ] = 1 km/h 77 2
= cm
3.5 8
Required time = = 3.5 hours
1 So, option (c) is correct answer.
So, option (b) is correct answer. 1 1
56. If X = , then X + =
53. If 10 men or 15 women or 20 children can do a 3– 2 X
piece of work in 30 days. How long will a man,
(a) 3 + 2 (b) 3 – 2
a woman and a child take to do the same work ?
1900 1800 24 – 6 2
(a) days (b) days (c) (d) None of these
13 13 7
(c) 175 days (d) None of these Ans. (c) : According to the question,
Ans. (b) : According to the question, 1 1 12 − 6 2
x+ = +3− 2 =
Let total work be W x 3− 2 3− 2
W W
Work done by 1 man in 1 day = = 12 − 6 2 3 + 2
10 × 30 300 = ×
3− 2 3+ 2
W W
Work done by 1 women in 1 day = = 24 − 6 2
15 × 30 450 =
Total work done by 1 man + 1 woman + 1 child 7
W W W 13W So option (c) is correct answer.
= + + =
300 450 600 1800 57. The minute hand of a clock advances at the
1800 rate of 7º per minute. How many minutes the
Time = days. clock gains in one hour ?
13 (a) 15 mins. (b) 8 mins
So, option (b) is correct answer. (c) 10 mins. (d) None of these
75 YCT
Ans. (c) : According to the question,
Minute hand advance at rate of
Test of Language : Hindi
7° degree per minute.
In one hour minute hand advance
61. vej ± Fvõ · ‘‘vejsvõ’’ keâewve-meer mebefOe nw?
= 60 × 7 = 420 degree. (a) efJemeie& mebefOe (b) iegCe mebefOe
∵ 360° = 60 mins (c) JÙebpeve mebefOe (d) ÙeCe mebefOe
1 degree = 1/6 minutes Ans. (b) : ‘vej ± Fvõ’ · ‘vejsvõ’ iegCe mebefOe keâe GoenjCe nw~ Ùeefo
420° =
420
= 70 minutes. ‘De’ Deewj ‘Dee’ kesâ yeeo ‘F’ Ùee ‘F&’ ‘G’ Ùee ‘T’ Deewj ‘$e+’ mJej
6 DeeS lees oesveeW kesâ efceueves mes ›eâceMe: ‘S’, ‘Dees’ Deewj ‘Dejd’ nes peelee
Advance = 70 – 60 = 10 minutes nw~
So, option (c) is correct answer.
pewmes- osJe ± Fbõ · osJesvõ (De ± F · S)
58. If 2x+y =22x–y = 8 n than respective values of x ieCe ± F&Me · ieCesMe (De ± F& · S)
and y are cene ± GlmeJe · ceneslmeJe (Dee ± G · Dees)
1 1
(a) ,1 (b) 1, 62. ieCe keâe heefle · ‘‘ieCeheefle’’ Ùen keâewve-mee meceeme nw?
2 2
(a) ÉvÉ meceeme (b) DeJÙeÙeerYeeJe meceeme
1 1
(c) , (d) None of these (c) yeng›eerefn meceeme (d) lelheg®<e meceeme
2 2
Ans. (b) : According to the question, Ans. (c) : ‘ieCeheefle’ · ‘ieCe keâe heefle’ ceW yeng›eerefn meceeme nw~
2x+y = 22x–y = 8 = 23/2 meceeme keâe Jen ™he efpemeceW oes heo (ØeLece heo leLee efÉleerÙe heo)
On comparing. efceuekeâj leermejs heo keâe efvecee&Ce keâjles nQ SJeb JeneB hej leermeje heo
x + y = 3/2 ØeOeeve neslee nw~ efpemes ‘yeng›eerefn meceeme’ keânles nQ~
2x –y = 3/2 pewmes- ieCeheefle- Jen pees ieCeeW kesâ heefle nw DeLee&led ieCesMe~
3x = 3 oMeeveve- oMe nw Deeveve efpemekesâ DeLee&led jeJeCe~
x=1 63. ‘Oeesyeer’ Meyo keâe Œeerefuebie ™he nw
and y = ½
(a) Oeesyeervee (b) Oeesefyeve
So, option (b) is correct answer.
(c) Oeesyeerves (d) Oeesyeerefve
59. The recurring decimal 2.777… can be
24 22 Ans. (b) : meb%ee kesâ efpeme ™he mes efkeâmeer JÙeefòeâ Ùee Jemleg kesâ heg®<e
(a) (b) Deewj Œeer peeefle nesves keâe yeesOe nes, Gmes efuebie keânles nQ~ ‘Oeesyeer’ keâe
9 9
26 25 Œeerefuebie ‘Oeesefyeve’ nesiee~
(c) (d) pewmes- cenesoÙe- cenesoÙee
9 9
Ans. (d) : According to the question, veslee- ves$eer
2.777 ---- = 2. 7 DeefYeveslee- DeefYeves$eer
27 − 2 25 64. ‘Jeerj’ Meyo keâe YeeJeJeeÛekeâ meb%ee keâe ™he nw
⇒ =
9 9 (a) Jeerjlee (b) Jeer®
So, option (d) is correct answer. (c) Jeerjeve (d) Jesjer
60. If A, B, C started a business by investing RS. 1, Ans. (a) : efkeâmeer YeeJe, iegCe oMee Deeefo keâe %eeve keâjeves Jeeues Meyo
26,000, Rs. 84,000 and Rs. 2,10,000. If at the
end of the year profit is Rs. 2,42,000 then the
YeeJeJeeÛekeâ meb%ee nesles nQ~ DeLe& keâer Âef° mes meb%ee heeBÛe Øekeâej kesâ nesles
share of person A is. nQ~ ‘Jeerj’ Meyo keâe YeeJeJeeÛekeâ meb%ee ‘Jeerjlee/JeerjlJe’ nesiee~
(a) Rs. 48,400 (b) Rs. 72,000 65. ‘‘uelee Gieleer nw’’ Ùen JeekeäÙe yengJeÛeve ceW
(c) Rs. 1,21,000 (d) Rs. 72, 600 (a) ueleer Gieles nQ~ (b) ueles Gieles nQ~
Ans. (d) : According to the question, (c) ueleeSB Gieleer nQ~ (d) ueles Gieleer nQ~
Ratio of invest = 3 : 2 : 5
Ans. (c) : ‘uelee Gieleer nw’ JeekeäÙe keâe yengJeÛeve ‘ueleeSB Gieleer nQ’
Profit = ` 242000
nesiee~ efJekeâejer MeyoeW kesâ efpeme ™he mes Gvekeâer mebKÙee (Skeâ Ùee Deveskeâ)
We know ratio of invest = ratio of profit
keâe yeesOe neslee nw, Gmes JeÛeve keânles nQ~ efnvoer ceW kesâJeue oes JeÛeve nesles
3x + 2x + 5x = 242000
x = ` 242000
nQ-
Share of A = 3x = ` 72600 1. SkeâJeÛeve- hegmlekeâ, uesefKekeâe~
So, option (d) is correct answer. 2. yengJeÛeve- hegmlekeWâ, uesefKekeâeSB~
76 YCT
66. jece ves ------- osKeer Ans. (d) :
(a) efÛe$e (b) yeÛÛes Meyo efJeueesce
(c) lemJeerj (d) IeesÌ[s 1. megmle Ûegmle
Ans. (c) : jece ves ------- osKeer~ ØeMve ceW efjòeâ mLeeve hej ‘lemJeerj’ 2. mLetue met#ce
Meyo GefÛele nesiee~ ‘lemJeerj’ Œeerefuebie Meyo nw~ 3. peefšue mejue
67. FveceW efJeMes<eCe Meyo nw- 4. Deeoeve Øeoeve
(a) jece (b) ueÌ[keâe 72. efvecveefueefKele cegneJejeW keâes DeLe& kesâ meeLe peesefÌ[Ùes~
(c) nw (d) DeÛÚe (De) (ye)
Ans. (d) : efoS ieS efJekeâuheeW ceW ‘DeÛÚe’ efJeMes<eCe Meyo nw~ meb%ee 1. keâjJešW yeouevee De. Demej nesvee
Ùee meJe&veece keâer efJeMes<elee yeleueeves Jeeues MeyoeW keâes efJeMes<eCe keânles nQ~ 2. keâesunt keâe yewue Dee. Oekeäkeâe Keevee
pewmes- jece DeÛÚe ueÌ[keâe nw~ JeekeäÙe ceW ‘DeÛÚe’ efJeMes<eCe SJeb ‘jece’ 3. nJee ueievee F. ueieeleej keâece ceW ueies jnvee
efJeMes<Ùe Meyo nw~ 4. "eskeâjs Keevee F&. yesÛewveer kesâ keâejCe ve mees heevee
68. FveceW mes Megæ JeekeäÙe nw (a) 1. F, 2. F&, 3. Dee, 4. De
(a) meerlee ves efkeâleeye heÌ{er~ (b) 1. F&, 2. F, 3. De, 4. Dee
(b) meerlee efkeâleeye heÌ{er~ (c) 1. Dee, 2. De, 3. F&, 4. F
(c) meerlee ves efkeâleeye heÌ{s~ (d) 1. De, 2. F&, 3. Dee, 4. F
(d) meerlee ves efkeâleeye heÌ{e nesieer~ Ans. (b) :
Ans. (a) : ‘meerlee ves efkeâleeye heÌ{er’ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw, peyeefkeâ efJekeâuhe cegneJeje DeLe&
ceW efoS ieS DevÙe JeekeäÙe DeMegæ nQ~ 1. keâjJešW yeouevee yesÛewveer kesâ keâejCe ve mees heevee
69. ‘‘jece Keevee KeeÙesiee’’ Fme JeekeäÙe keâe keâce&JeeÛÙe ™he nw 2. keâesunt keâe yewue ueieeleej keâece ceW ueies jnvee
(a) jece Keevee Keelee nw~
3. nJee ueievee Demej nesvee
(b) jece mes Keevee KeeÙee peeÙesiee~
4. "eskeâjs Keevee Oekeäkeâe Keevee
(c) jece ves Keevee KeeÙee~ 73. efvecveefueefKele MeyoeW keâes OJeefveÙeeW kesâ meeLe peesefÌ[Ùes~
(d) jece Keevee KeeÙesiee~ (De) (ye)
Ans. (b) : ‘jece Keevee KeeÙesiee’ JeekeäÙe keâe keâce&JeeÛÙe ™he ‘jece mes 1. ieeÙe De. efYeveefYeveeleer nQ
Keevee KeeÙee peeÙesiee’ nesiee~ Fme JeekeäÙe ceW ‘jece’ keâlee& nw Deewj ‘Keevee’ 2. ceeqkeäKeÙeeB Dee. jbYeeleer
keâce& nw~ ef›eâÙee keâe Jen ™he, peye JeekeäÙe ceW keâce& keâer ØeOeevelee keâe 3. ces{keâ F. ketâkeâleer nQ
yeesOe neslee nw lees Gmes keâce&JeeÛÙe keânles nQ~ 4. keâesÙeue F&. šje&lee nw
70. efvecveefueefKele ceW mes keâewve-mee Meyo ‘mehe&’ keâe (a) 1. Dee, 2. De, 3. F&, 4. F
heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer veneR nw? (b) 1. De, 2. F, 3. Dee, 4. F&
(a) efoveceefCe (b) Gjie (c) 1. F, 2. Dee, 3. De, 4. F&
(c) Yegpebie (d) heVeie (d) 1. F&, 2. F, 3. De, 4. Dee
Ans. (a) : Gjie, Yegpebie, heVebie Deeefo mehe& kesâ heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Meyo nQ~ Ans. (a) :
Mes<eveeie, Deefn, veeie, JÙeeue, heâCeerMe, meejbie ‘mehe&’, kesâ DevÙe peeveJej OJeefveÙeeB
heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Meyo nQ~ ‘efoveceefCe’ metÙe& keâe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer nw~ efovekeâj, 1. ieeÙe jbYeeleer nw
efoJeekeâj, jefJe, Yeeveg, Yeemkeâj, Deke&â, ceele&C[ Deeefo metÙe& kesâ DevÙe 2. ceeqkeäKeÙeeB efYeveefYeveeleer nQ
heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Meyo nQ~ 3. ces{keâ šje&lee nw
71. efvecveefueefKele MeyoeW keâes peesÌ[keâj efueefKeS~ 4. keâesÙeue ketâkeâleer nw
(De) (ye) 74. pees efkeâmeer kesâ Ghekeâej keâes Ùeeo keâjlee nes, Gmes -----
1. megmle De. met#ce keânles nQ~
2. mLetue Dee. mejue (a) ke=âleIve (b) ke=âle%e
3. peefšue F. Øeoeve (c) ke=â$eIve (d) Deuhe%e
4. Deeoeve F&. Ûegmle Ans. (b) : ‘pees efkeâmeer kesâ Ghekeâej keâes Ùeeo keâjlee nes’ Gmes ‘ke=âle%e’
(a) 1. Dee, 2. F&, 3. F, 4. De keânles nQ~
(b) 1. De, 2. F, 3. F&, 4. Dee ke=âleIve- efkeâS ieS GhekeâejeW keâes Yetue peevee~
(c) 1. F, 2. F&, 3. De, 4. Dee Deuhe%e- LeesÌ[e peeveves Jeeuee~
(d) 1. F&, 2. De, 3. Dee, 4. F meJe&%e- meye kegâÚ peeveves Jeeuee~
77 YCT
75. jece ves jeJeCe keâes yeeCe mes ceeje~ Fme JeekeäÙe ceW jsKeebefkeâle 3. JeŒeeW keâe F. kegbâpe
keâejkeâ ›eâceMe: Fme Øekeâej nQ- 4. TBšeW keâe F&. iegÛÚe
(a) keâce& keâejkeâ, keâlee& keâejkeâ, keâjCe keâejkeâ (a) 1. Dee, 2. De, 3. F&, 4. F
(b) keâjCe keâejkeâ, keâlee& keâejkeâ, keâce& keâejkeâ (b) 1. De, 2. F, 3. Dee, 4. F&
(c) keâlee& keâejkeâ, keâjCe keâejkeâ, keâce& keâejkeâ (c) 1. F, 2. Dee, 3. De, 4. F&
(d) keâlee& keâejkeâ, keâce& keâejkeâ, keâjCe keâejkeâ (d) 1. F&, 2. F, 3. De, 4. Dee
Ans. (d) : jece ves jeJeCe keâes yeeCe mes ceeje~ Fme JeekeäÙe ceW jsKeebefkeâle Ans. (d) :
keâejkeâ ›eâceMe: keâlee& keâejkeâ, keâce& keâejkeâ Deewj keâjCe keâejkeâ nw~ keâejkeâ De ye
Meyo efkeâmeer ef›eâÙee Ùee ef›eâÙeeheo kesâ meeLe pegÌ[keâj Gmekesâ keâeÙe& keâe 1. hetâueeW keâe iegÛÚe
efveoxMeve keâjlee nw~ efnvoer ceW ‘Dee"’ keâejkeâ nesles nQ~ 2. ueleeDeeW keâe kegbâpe
76. FveceW ØesjCeeLe&keâ ef›eâÙee nw- 3. JeŒeeW keâe ieªj
(a) keâšJeevee (b) keâšvee 4. TBšeW keâe keâeefheâuee
(c) ceejvee (d) Keevee
Ans. (a) : efpeve MeyoeW mes Ùen helee Ûeuelee nw efkeâ keâlee& mJeÙeb keâeÙe& ve Test of Language : English
keâjkesâ efkeâmeer DevÙe keâes keâeÙe& keâjves kesâ efueS Øesefjle keâj jne nw, GvnW Change the tense of the following sentences :
ØesjCeeLe&keâ ef›eâÙee keânles nQ~ 81. The boys are playing hockey. (change into
pewmes- keâšvee- keâšJeevee Present perfect).
Keevee- efKeueJeevee (a) The boys play hockey
(b) The boys are played hockey
yeesuevee- yeesueJeevee (c) The boys have played hockey
77. FveceW meeceevÙe Yetlekeâeue keâe JeekeäÙe nw- (d) The boy played hockey
(a) jece oewÌ[lee nw~ (b) jece oewÌ[siee~ Ans. (c) : The present perfect form of the given
(c) jece oewÌ[e (d) jece oewÌ[ jne nw~ sentence, The boys are playing hockey, will be option
Ans. (c) : ‘jece oewÌ[e’ meeceevÙe Yetlekeâeue keâe GoenjCe nw~ ef›eâÙee kesâ (c) The boys have played hockey. Has/Have + V3 form
is used to construct the sentences of present perfect
efpeme ™he mes meeOeejCele: keâece keâe yeerles ngS meceÙe ceW nesvee heeÙee Tense.
peeS, Gmes meeceevÙe Yetlekeâeue keânles nQ~ Correct Present Perfect form
pewmes- 1. Je<ee& ngF&~ The boys have played hockey.
2. ueÌ[kesâ DeeS~ 82. The college will open on 23rd June.
78. 54 keâes efnvoer ceW ------ keânles nQ~ (Change it into simple present)
(a) ÛeewJeve (b) ÛeJeeueerme (a) The college opens on 23rd June
(b) The college is opening on 23rd June
(c) ÛeeQme" (d) yeÙeeueerme
(c) The college has opened on 23rd June
Ans. (a) : ‘54’ keâes efnvoer ceW ‘ÛeewJeve’ keânles nQ~ (d) The college open on 23rd June
Debkeâ efnvoer Ans. (a) : The simple present form of the given
64 ÛeeQme" sentence, The college will open on 23rd June, will be
42 yeÙeeueerme option (a) The college opens on 23rd June.
44 ÛeJeeueerme S/es with verb is used to construct the sentences of
simple present tense.
79. ‘yesMekeâ’ Meyo ceW ‘yes’ keäÙee nw? Correct simple present form
(a) keâejkeâ (b) meceeme The college opens on 23rd June.
(c) ØelÙeÙe (d) Ghemeie& Use correct preposition and fill in the blanks :
Ans. (d) : ‘yesMekeâ’ Meyo ceW ‘yes’ Ghemeie& nw~ Ghemeie& Jes MeyoebMe 83. _________ his children, there were present his
nesles nQ, pees efkeâmeer Meyo kesâ henues peg[Ì keâj Gmekesâ DeLe& ceW yeoueeJe keâj nephews and nieces.
(a) Beside (b) Besides
osles nQ~
(c) Inspite (d) By
pewmes- Dee ± ÛejCe - DeeÛejCe
Ans. (b) : In the aforesaid blank option (b) besides (In
Deefle ± efjòeâ - Deefleefjòeâ addition to, apart from) will be appropriate to be used as
Deveg ± kegâue - Devegketâue preposition. Rest of the options give different meaning.
80. efvecveefueefKele ‘De’ Yeeie kesâ MeyoeW keâes ‘ye’ Yeeie kesâ Correct sentence –
MeyoeW kesâ meeLe peesefÌ[Ùes~ Besides his children, there were present his nephews
and nieces.
(De) (ye) 84. Suresh went there _____ my bike.
1. hetâueeW keâe De. ieªj (a) by (b) in
2. ueleeDeeW keâe Dee. keâeefheâuee (c) on (d) at
78 YCT
Ans. (c) : In the given blank, option (c) on will be used Ans. (b) : option (b) one of my relatives have settled
because ‘on’ is used with Motorcycle & Bike. down in Canada is grammatically wrong.
Correct sentence – Suresh went there on my bike. Because here singular verb (has) is appropriate to be
85. We stay _______ foot. used.
(a) on (b) by Correct sentence – One of my relatives has settled
(c) with (d) of down in Canada
Ans. (a) : option (a) on is apposite to be used in the Complete the sentences using correct options :
given blank. Because ‘on’ is used to denote actions 91. Not only had he many friends
involving body parts. (a) but several enemies too
Correct sentence – We stay on foot. (b) but also several enemies
Use the correct forms of verbs : (c) yet several enemies
86. I _____ here for the last two hours. (d) still several enemies
(a) am waiting (b) have been waiting Ans. (b) : Option (b) but also several enemies,
(c) was waiting (d) has been waiting completes the given sentence. Because, correct structure
Ans. (b) : The use of 'for the last two hours' (period of is not only ...... but also.
time) makes it clear that given sentence is in present Correct sentence – Not only had he many friends, but
perfect continuous tense. Hence option (b) have been also several enemies.
waiting, will be used in the given blank. 92. He is too weak
Correct sentence – I have been waiting here for the last (a) that he is not walking (b) he can't walk
two hours. (c) that he can't walk (d) that he couldn't walk
87. Basanti _____ cooking when the visitors came. Ans. (c) : option (c) that he can't walk, completes the
(a) have finished (b) finished given sentence.
(c) had finished (d) has finished Note : He is too weak to walk.
Ans. (c) : The structure of the given sentence will be- Transformation : He is so weak that he cannot walk.
had + V3 + when + V2 Correct sentence – He is too weak that he can't walk.
Past perfect Past simple Use correct question tag for the following :
Correct sentence – Basanti had finished cooking when 93. Let's take the next bus
the visitors came. (a) shall we? (b) do we?
88. They will come if you _______ (c) won't we? (d) can't we?
(a) will invite them (b) invite them Ans. (a) : The correct question tag for the given
(c) invites them (d) none of the above sentence will be 'shall we?. Because whether the
Ans. (b) : In the given sentence option (b) ‘invite them’ sentence is affirmative or negative, whenever 'let's is
will be used. Because in conditional sentences used in a sentence, question tag will always be 'shall
connected with ‘if’, in the first part of the sentence we? with interrogative fragment.
'Simple future' and in the second part of the sentence, Correct sentence – Let's take the next bus, shall we?
'simple present' is used. 94. He never goes out with his dog
Correct sentence – They will come if you invite them. (a) isn't it? (b) does he?
89. Select the sentence which is grammatically (c) doesn't he? (d) won't he?
wrong : Ans. (b) : The correct question tag for the given
(a) Neither you nor Ram, seems to be capable of sentence will be option (b) does he? Because question
doing this tag of negative sentence is positive.
(b) I shall call you when the dinner will be ready Correct sentence – He never goes out with his dog,
(c) I went to Mumbai recently does he ?
(d) I shall write to him Use correct expression to fill in the blanks :
Ans. (b) : Error lies in option (b) Because in conditional 95. His master _______ an explanation of his
sentences, for future events (dinner) simple present conduct
tense is used (Subordinate clause) and principal clause (a) called out (b) called up
remains in simple future. (c) called for (d) called down
Correct sentence – I shall call you when the dinner is Ans. (c) : Option (c) phrasal verb, ‘called for’ –
ready. (demanded or required) will be used in the given blank.
90. Select the sentence which is grammatically Phrasal verbs given in other options have following
wrong : meanings-
(a) Gulliver's Travels' is an interesting book. Called out – Summon someone to provide help/service.
(b) One of my relatives have settled down in Called up – order to join army
Canada Called down – invoke, prayer
(c) I shall have taken my bath by then Correct sentence – His master called for an
(d) It was raining when we went out explanation of his conduct.

79 YCT
96. The fire _______ a dense smoke. SECTION-B
(a) gave off (b) given out
(c) get out of (d) fallen through
Post Specific Subject- Related Questions
Ans. (a) : Option (a) phrasal verb, gave off (producing
heat or light) will be used in the given blank. meaning 101. Which of the following is an example of the
possessed by other options – chemical modification of an active
Given out – To stop working/to end pharmaceutical ingredient?
Get out of – Avoid a duty or responsibility (a) Converting crystalline API into amorphous
fallen through – to fail form
(b) Combining an API with citric acid to produce
Correct sentence – The fire gave off a dense smoke.
the citrate salt
Combine the sentences by making use of a participle : (c) Mixing a poorly API with water to produce a
97. The magician took pity on the mouse. suspension
He turned it into a cat. (d) Mixing a soluble API with water to produce a
(a) The magician took pity on the mouse and solution
turned it into a cat Ans. (b) : Combining an API with citric acid solution to
(b) Magician turned the mouse into a cat because produce citrate salt.
he took pity on it It is known that chemical modifications refesh to the
(c) Taking pity on the mouse, the magician process that involves changes in the general
turned it into a cat composition of drugs to produces another entity with
(d) None of the above different chemical properties.
Ans. (c) : Correct participle form 102. Rate of drug bioavailability is most rapid in :
(a) Solutions
Taking pity on the mouse, the magician turned it into a
(b) Tablets
cat.
(c) Hard gelatin capsules
98. The train was ready to leave the station. (d) Controlled release products
The people had taken their seats. Ans. (d) : Rate of drug bioavailability is most Rapid in
(a) The people having taken their seats, the train canpolled Release tablet.
was ready to leave the station • Bioavailability refers to the extend a substance or
(b) The train was ready to leave the station as the drug becomes completely available to its intended
people had taken their seats biological destination.
(c) The train was ready to leave the station as the 103. 'Noyes-Whitney Equation' is related to :
people had taken their seats (a) First order kinetics (b) Zero order kinetics
(d) None of the above (c) Dissolution (d) Pharmacodynamics
Ans. (a) : Correct participle form Ans. (c) : According to Noyes and whitney equation,
The people having taken their seats, the train was ready the rate of change in concentration of dissolved material
to leave the station. with time it directly proportinal to the concentration
difference between the two sides of diffusion layer.
Select the lettered pair that best expresses a
relationship similar to the one expressed in the d
i.e. c = k(cs-cb)
original pair : dt
99. PRIDE : LIONS Where de/dt- Dissolution rate of drug
(a) gaggle : geese (b) honour : thieves K = Rate constant
(c) snarl : wolves (d) arrogance : kings Cs = Concentration of solution at solid suface
Ans. (a) : option (a) Gaggle : Geese (Group of geese) Cb = Bulk of the solution
shows the same relationship like pride : Lions (Group of 104. Which type of base is required for anti-biotic
lions). Hence option (a) is correct. ointment?
(a) PEG base (b) Absorption base
100. ANNOTATE : TEXT
(c) Hydrocarbon base (d) None of the above
(a) enact : law
Ans. (c) : Hydrocarbon base is required for anti-biotic
(b) prescribe : medication
ointment. It this petroleum and minerals oils are
(c) caption : photograph standard ointment bases or petroleum and waxy fatty
(d) abridge : novel alcohal combinations.
Ans. (c) : option (c) caption : photograph (written 105. Drugs in suspension and semi-solid formulation
information about any picture) shows the same always degrade by :
relationship like annotate : Text (To comment/To add (a) Zero order kinetics (b) First order kinetics
explanation) Hence option (c) is correct. (c) Second order kinetics (d) Non-linear kinetics
80 YCT
Ans. (a) : Drugs in suspension and semisolid dosage 110. Which of the following is a Selective Estrogen
formulation always degraded by zero order kinetics Receptor Modulator (SERM)?
Reaction. Zero order reactions are those reaction in (a) Clomiphene (b) Letrozole
which the concentration of the reactance does not (c) Tamoxifen (d) All of the above
change over time and the concentration rates remain Ans. (c) : Tamoxifen and raloxifen are selective
constant. estrogen receptor modulators. that is also known as
SERM. Selective estrogen receptor modulators
–dA (SERMs) are now being as a treatment for breast cancer
Rate = = k(A) 0 = k
dT osteoporosis and post-menopausal symptoms, as these
106. Pacemaker of the heart is : drugs have features that can act as an estrogen agonist
and an antagonis, depending on the target tissue.
(a) A-V Node (b) SA Node
(c) Bundle of His (d) Purkinje node 111. What will happen if coffee is taken shortly after
cimetidine?
Ans. (b) : The sino atrial (SA) Node is the natural (a) Duration of effect of caffeine is reduced
pacemaker of the heart. It generates electrical impulses (b) Duration of effect of caffeine is prolonged
that cause the heart's chambers to contract, setting the (c) There is no change in duration of effect of
heart rate. caffeine
107. The cduleliac Ganglion is mainly : (d) Cannot be predicted
(a) Sympathetic Ans. (b) : Duration of effect of caffeine is prolonged if
(b) Parasympathetic coffec is taken shortly after cimetidine. Cimetidine is a
(c) Both sympathetic and parasympathetic mixed gastric acid reducer used in the short term treatment of
(d) Sensory and motor but not autonomic duodenal and gastric ulcers. Therefore. the drug
Ans. (a) : The celiac genglion is mainly associated with effectively manages gastric hypersecretion and is used
the sympathetic division. These are the two largest to manage reflux esophagitis disease and prevent stress
ganglia in the autonomic nervous system (ANS) and related gastric ulcers.
serve as an example of prevertebral ganglia. The celiac 112. Excretion of which drug will be increased if
ganglia possess the cell bodies of the postaganglionic urine is made more alkaline?
sympathetic neurons and thus provide efferent (a) Phenobarbital (b) Procaine
sympathetic input to get parenchyma via (c) Propranolol (d) All of the above
neurotransmeters such as acetylcholine in preganglianic Ans. (a) : Excxtion of Phenobarbital will be increased if
neurons and norepinephrine in postganglionic neurons. urine is made more alkaline. Phenobarbital is one of the
sedative hyprotic agent which belongs to the
108. Action of parasympathetic system on Iris barbiturates calss of drugs.
musculature is :
113. Which of the drug combinations are
(a) Contraction of Iris sphincter
synergistic?
(b) Dilatation of Iris sphincter (a) Penicillin – Aminoglycoside
(c) No action on Iris sphincter (b) Ciprofloxacin – Theophylline
(d) Effects cannot be predicted (c) Probenecid – Penicillin
Ans. (a) : Efferent parasympathetic preganglionic fibers (d) All of the above
travel on the oculomotor nerve and synapse with the Ans. (c) : Drug synergism can be expeced when drugs
cilliary ganglion which sends postganglionic axons to that act by different mechanism of action are mixed
directly innervate the iris sphincter muscles. The together. As probenecid inhibits platelet responses to
contraction of the iris sphincter muscles. The aggregating agente in vitro and has a synergistic
contraction of the iris sphincters muscles leads to inhibitory effect with penicellin G.
pupillory constriction (miosis). 114. Effect of taking warfarin along with aspirin
109. Carbon dioxide is converted to bicarbonate by may cause :
the enzyme : (a) Liver damage
(a) Carbonic hydrase (b) Kidney damage
(b) Bicarbonate synthase (c) Increased bleeding
(c) Carbonic Anhydrase (d) Congestive heart failure
(d) None of the above Ans. (c) : An increased risk of bleeding from drug
Ans. (c) : Carbonic anhydrose is found in the red blood intractions with warfarin may occur due to additive
cell. This enzyme catalyzes the reaction between carbon effects. Such as with asprin or antiplatelets agents, or
dioxide and water. When water combines with corbon due to changes in worfarin absorption of metabolism.
dioxide, cobonic acid is formed, which dissociates into 115. Which drug can decrease the effectiveness of
hydrogen and bicarbonate ions. In the lungs, this oral contraceptives?
process reverses, producing carbon dioxide that is (a) Phenobarbital (b) Tetracycline
exhaled. (c) Enalapril (d) Rifampicin
CO2 Carbonic
→ bicarbanate (Co3H2) Ans. (a) : When Phenobarbital is given with oral
Anhydrase contraceptive then the effectiveness of drug decreases.
81 YCT
116. Anti TB drug which can cause ototoxicity is : Ans. (b) : Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic rection
(a) Rifampicin (b) Streptomycin characterised by an acute onset of cordio vascular or
(c) Ethambutol (d) Pyrazinamide respirtory symptoms. Treatment of anaphylaxis is intro
Ans. (b) : Aminoglycoside drug streptomycin used in musculor adrenaline 10 microgram/kg.
tuberculosis treatment and cause ototoxicity. Effect on 124. All the following eye drops may cause a miosis,
users, which leads to hearing impairment. except :
117. Which of the following drugs is not used in the (a) Pilocarpine (b) Neostigmine
standard RNTCP regimen for MDR-TB? (c) Atropine (d) Timolol
(a) Rifampicin (b) Kanamycin Ans. (c) : Atropine is an Anticholinergic drug which
(c) Ofloxacin (d) Cycloserine dilate the pupil that cause mydriasis effect.
Ans. (a) : Rifampicin is not used in the standard of • Pilocarpine, Neostigmine Timolol are cholinergic
RNTCP regimen for MDR-TB because of its Tolerance. drug which contract the pupil that is miosis.
118. A malignant condition with abnormal increase 125. Greatest absorption of iron takes place in :
in Granulocyte W.B.C. in blood will be (a) Stomach (b) Duodenum
classified as : (c) Transverse colon (d) Descending colon
(a) Lymphoid leukemia (b) Myeloid leukemia Ans. (b) : Greatest absorption of iron takes place in
(c) Lymphoma (d) All of the above duodenum which is part of small intestine.
Ans. (b) : Leukocytosis refers to a high white blood cell 126. Safest non opioid analgesic for peptic ulcer is :
count, which can occur for a number of reasons. Rarely, (a) Paracetamol (b) Celecoxib
a high white blood cell count can be a symptoms of (c) Diclofenac sodium (d) Ibuprofen
certain blood cancers, such as acute myeloid leukemia
chronic myelogenous leukemia and chronic Ans. (a) : Paracetamol is non-opioid and safest drug in
lymphocytic leukemia. gastrointestinal tract, which not case ulceration.
119. Formalin contains .................... formaldehyde. 127. Allopurinol lowers the plasma concentration
(a) 27% (b) 54% of:
(c) 37% (d) None of the above (a) Hypoxanthine (b) Uric acid
(c) Xanthine (d) All of the above
Ans. (c) : Formalin is saturated 37% formaldehyde
solution dissolve in water. It is known that a 10% Ans. (b) : In gout the uric acid crystal are deposited in
formalin solution is equivalent to a 4% joint. Allopurinol is antigout drug which lower the uric
Poroformaldehyde solution. acid concentration in joint.
120. Silver sulfadiazine is used in management of 128. In which condition(s) is Codeine use :
burns because of as high activity against : (a) Anti diarrhoeal (b) Anti tussive
(a) Staphylococcus (b) Pseudomonas (c) Analgesic (d) All of the above
(c) Mycobacterium (d) Corynebacterium Ans. (d) : Codeine plays a role in the treatment of mild
Ans. (b) : Silver sulfadiazine is used in the managment to moderate pain. Its use in recognised in chronic pain
of burns because burns place the chances of growth of due to ongoing cancer and palliative care. However, the
pseudomonas bacteria is more. use of codeine to treat type of chronic pain remains
121. Atropine blocks which of the following controversial. So codeine use in anti diarrhoea, Anti
neurotransmitter? tussive and analgesic.
(a) Dopamine (b) Epinephrine 129. Which anti asthmatic is not a Bronchodilator?
(c) Nor epinephrine (d) Acetylcholine (a) Formoterol
Ans. (d) : Atropine blocks the Acetylcholine is (b) Theophylline
parasympatnomimetic drug Atropine is (c) Ipratropium bromide
parasympatholytic. (d) Sodium cromoglycate
122. Which is not a side effect associated with Ans. (d) : Sodium cromoglycate is not a bronchodilator
corticosteroid treatment? but other is anti asthmatic bronchometer like
(a) Hypoglycemia formoterol, theophyline, Ipratropium bromide.
(b) Skeletal muscle weakness 130. Which one is a centrally acting Skelton muscle
(c) Sodium retention relaxant?
(d) Lower resistance to infection (a) Carisoprodol (b) Dantrolene sodium
Ans. (a) : Hypoglycemia is a condition in which blood- (c) Quinine (d) Decamethonium
sugar level is low and it is not a side effect associated Ans. (a) : Carisoprodol is a centrally acting skeleton
with corticosteroid treatment. muscle relaxant that does not directly relaxe skeletal
123. Airway obstruction during anaphylaxis can be muscles. The muscle relaxation effects induced by
best treated by : carisoprodol in animal studies are associated with
(a) Salbutamol (b) Adrenaline altered interneuronal activity in the spinal cord and the
(c) Diphenhydramine (d) Noradrenaline descrending reticulor formation of the brain.
82 YCT
131. Which is not a parenteral iron preparation? Ans. (b) : Enteric coated tablet have special type of
(a) Iron-dextran (b) Iron-maltose coating done to the tablet to prole from acidity of
(c) Iron-carboxymaltose (d) Ferrous-sucrose stomach and usually disinitnegrate in small intestine.
Ans. (b) : Iron preparation are called as Haematimics 138. Which is potassium sparing diuretic?
they are two types orally and parenteral iron maltose (a) Mannitol (b) Acetazolamide
given as orally. (c) Triameterene (d) Chlorthalidone
132. Which of the following is not a proton pump Ans. (c) : Triameterene, Ailoride and the spirolactones
inhibitor? are potassium sparing diuretics which act on the distal
(a) Famotidine (b) Omeprazole part of the nephron, from the late distal tubule to the
(c) Pantoprazole (d) Lansoprazole collecting duct.
Ans. (a) : Famotidine– are H2 blockers 139. Which drug may be used for stimulating
Omeprazole, Pontoprazole, Lansoprazole are proton uterine contractions?
pump inhibitor. (a) Meprobamate (b) Ketoconazole
133. Action of which anti-biotic may be inhibited by (c) Metoprolol (d) Oxytocin
concurrent use of clindamycin? Ans. (d) : Oxytocin is the most widely used uterotonic
(a) Penicillin (b) Erythromycin drug. At low doses, it produces rhythmic uterine
(c) Ciprofloxacin (d) All of the above contractions that are indistinguishable in frequency,
Ans. (b) : Action of erythromycine antibiotic may be force and duration from those observed during
inhibited by concurrent use of clindamycin. spontaneous labour. However, at higher dosages, it
Clindamycin is also indicated in the treatment of serious causes sustained tetanic uterine contraction.
infections due to susceptible strain of streptococci, 140. Which of the following is a rapidly acting
pneumococci, and staphylococci. Is use should be anticoagulant?
reserved for pneumococci, and staphylococci. Its use (a) Phenindione (b) Vitamin K
should be reserved for penicelline-allergic patient or (c) Warfarin (d) Heparin
other patients for whome, in the judgement of the
Ans. (d) : anticoagulant are important drugs, used as the
physician, a penicellin is inappropriate.
primary intervention for the prevent and treatment of
134. Which vitamin contains cobalt? thrombosis. It is a rapidly acting anticoagulants.
(a) Vit. B1 (b) Vit. B2
141. Drying of soft shell capsule is done by :
(c) Vit. B6 (d) Vit. B12
(a) Truck drying (b) Fluid bed drying
Ans. (d) : Vitamin B12 contain cobalt, that is essential (c) Vacuum drying (d) Microwave drying
for the health of nerve tissue, brain fuction, and red
Ans. (c) : Drying of soft shell capsule is done in
blood cells. Source include meat, eggs, and some yeast
product. A deficiency can occur when levels of vitamin vaccum drying.
B12 becomes too low to meet the demands of the body, 142. Tablet coating defect is :
this can lead to a number of symptoms and can even (a) Orange peel effect (b) Sticking
progress to irreversible neurological issues if left (c) Bridging (d) All of the above
untreated. Ans. (d) : Tablet defect occurs on manufacturing of
135. Which drug is not used for treating acne? tablet.
(a) Monobenzone (b) Benzoyl peroxide There are following tablets defects occurs.
(c) Retinoic acid (d) Topical clindamycin 1. Picking 2. Orange peel
Ans. (a) : Monobenzone is not used for treating acne 3. Bridging of logo 4. Motting
because it used as a depigmenting agent inhibitting 5. Tablet erosion
melanin produced by polymerization of oxidation 143. Which of the following is a delayed release
products of tyrosine and dihyroxypheynyl compounds. system?
These works by permanently removing colour from (a) Sugar coated tablet
normal skin located around skin with vitiligo. (b) Orally disintegrating tablet
136. Which of the following tablets is designed to (c) Enteric coated tablet
exert local effect in throat? (d) All of the above
(a) Buccal tablets (b) Sublingual tablets Ans. (c) : Delayed drug release is commonly acheived
(c) Lozenges (d) Candies via enteric coating of dosage forms such as tablets,
Ans. (c) : Lozenges are commonly applied in the capsules and multiparticules. The main function of an
treatment of sore throat. They often contain drugs enteric coating is to protect the underlying dosage form
intended to exert their effect locally in the oral covity and drug substance enabling it to remain intact the
and throats. gastric environment and instand dissolve and undergo
137. Where will 'Enteric Coated tablets' release drug release in the small intestine.
their medication? 144. Lactose is used as :
(a) Oesophagus (b) Small intestines (a) Diluent (b) Glidant
(c) Stomach (d) Large intestines (c) Lubricant (d) Disintegrant
83 YCT
Ans. (a) : Lactose is used as diluent diluent are in active Ans. (a) : Greatest reabsorption of Na+ takes place in
substance to increase bulk and convert in compresible proximal convoluted tubule is in the form of sodium
form. bicorbonate and sodium chloride and about 70% of the
145. In sugar coating of tablets, seal coat is done : sodium reabsorption occurs here.
(a) To prevent moisture deposition 151. Neurotransmitter at neuro-muscular junction
(b) To round edges is :
(c) To smoothen the surface (a) Dopamine (b) Serotonin
(d) To prevent breakage (c) Acetylcholine (d) All of the above
Ans. (a) : In sugar coating tablets, seal coat is done to Ans. (c) : Acetylcholine (ACh) is the main
preventing the moisture content. neurotransmitter at the vertebrate neuromuscular
146. Which of the following is junction (NMJ), however since the discovery that
parasympathomimetic? motoneurons and presynaptic terminals at rodent
(a) Sphedrine (b) Cisapride endplates from the hindlimb muscles extensor digitorum
(c) Oxymetazoline (d) All of the above longus (EDL) and soleus are positive for flutamate
Ans. (b) : Cisapride is a parasymphatha, mimetic labelling.
agents. It is known that parasympathomimetics are a 152. Parasympathetic innervation of heart is
class of pharmacological agents that activate the through :
parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous (a) 3rd and 5th thoracic nerves
sysem (ANS). (b) Trigeminal nerve
147. Effect of dopamine on peripheral circulatory (c) Brachial nerve
system are : (d) Vagus nerve
(a) Decrease in heart rate and blood pressure Ans. (d) : The innervation of the heart refers to the
(b) Decrease in heart rate and increase in blood network at nerves that are responsible for the funtioning
pressure of the heart. The heart is innervated by sympathetic and
(c) Increase in heart rate and blood pressure parasympathetic fibers from the autonomic branch of
(d) No effect on peripheral circulation the peripheral nervous system. The network of nerves
Ans. (c) : Dopamine increases blood pressure and heart supplying the heart is called the cardiac plexus. It
rate as well as skin and subcutaneous blood flow in receives contribution from the right and left vagus
VLBW infants despite its supposed vasoconstrictive nerves as well as contribution from the sympathatic
action, indicating that it increase both perfusion trunc.
pressure and blood flow and is devoid of overwhelming 153. Stimulation of the sympathetic system will
peripheral vosoconstrictive effects. cause :
148. Salbutamol is mainly : (a) Bronchoconstriction
(a) Alpha 1 agonist (b) Beta 1 agonist (b) Bronchodilation
(c) Beta 2 agonist (d) All of the above (c) No effect on airways
Ans. (c) : Sulbutamol is an odrenergic receptor Beta 2 (d) Cannot be predicted
(β 2) agonists. It works by relaxing the muscles in the Ans. (b) : The sympathetic nervous system is
walls of the small airways in the lungs, helping to open responsible for bronchodilatian mediated through its
the airways and making breathing easier. beta-receptors. To evaluate this activity, beta adrenergic
149. For the calculation of the volume of blockers such as propanolol are used.
distribution (VD) one must take into account : 154. The central drugs laboratory is located in :
(a) Concentration of a substance in plasma (a) Delhi (b) Lucknow
(b) Concentration of substance in urine (c) Kolkata (d) None o the above
(c) Therapeutical width of drug action Ans. (c) : The central Drug's laboratory, Kolkata is the
(d) A daily dose of drug nation statutory laboratory of the Government of India
Ans. (a) : Volums of distribution (vd), represents the for quality control of Drug's and cosmetics and is
apparent volume into which the drug is distributed to established under the Indian Drugs of Cosmetics Act,
provide the same concentration as it currently is in 1940.
blood plasma. It is calculated by the amount of the drug 155. Which of the following schedules to the drugs
in the body devided by the plasma concentration. and cosmetics rules refer to reqirements for a
150. Greatest reabsorption of Na+ takes place in : pharmacy?
(a) Proximal convoluted tubule (a) Schedule O
(b) Ascending loop of Henle (b) Schedule N
(c) Distal tubule (c) Schedule M
(d) Collecting ducts (d) None of the above
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Ans. (b) : The drugs and cosmetics Rules, 1945 are the Ans. (a) : Losortan is a highly selective, competitive
rules which the government of India established through angiotensin-2 receptor blocker that decrease total
the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940. The Drugs and peripheral vasculor resistance and decrease the venous
Cosmetics Rules 1945, schedule N Refers to return.
requirement for a pharmacy. 162. Digoxin is mainly eliminated through :
156. How much lidocaine is present at a 1 : 1000, in (a) Intestinal elimination
30 ml solution? (b) Hepatic metabolism
(a) 3 gram (b) 300 mg (c) Tubular secretion
(c) 30 mg (d) 0.3 mg (d) Glomerular filtration
1 1000 Ans. (d) : Digoxin in a cardiotonic drug it ediminated
Ans. (b) : = × 30 = 30mg through glomerular filtration.
1000 1000
163. Which antihypertensive drug can have
157. Normal renal clearance in a nominal adult is : persistent dry cough as its side effect?
(a) 80 ml/min (b) 100 ml/min (a) Enalapril (b) Atenolol
(c) 120 ml/min (d) 160 ml/min (c) Diltiazem (d) Methyldopa
Ans. (c) : The best overall indicator of the glomerulor Ans. (a) : The Enalapril drug can have persistent dry
function is the glomerulor filtration rate (GFR). GFR is cough as its side effect. It is important to distinguish
the rate in milliliters per minute at which substances in enalapril-induced cough from cough resulting from
plasma are filtered through the glomerules, in other acture illness, reactive airway, disease, and congestive
words the clearance of a substance from the blood. The heart failure.
normal GFR for an adult male is 90 to 120 ml per
164. Na+ Cl– symport in the early distal convoluted
minute.
tubule of kidney is inhibited by :
158. Which is a folate antagonist used in cancer (a) Thiazides (b) Metolazone
treatment? (c) Xipamide (d) All of the above
(a) Methotrexate (b) Cyclosporine + –
Ans. (d) : Na Cl symport in the early distal
(c) Vincristine (d) Tamoxifen convoluted tabule of kidney is inhibited by thiazides,
Ans. (a) : The classic antifolate methotrexate (MTX) metolazone, xipamide. The early distal tubule reabsorbs
continues to be an important component of the a further 5% of the sodium and the late distal tubule and
chemothera peutic armametarium for a variety of cancer collecting duct fine tune reabsorption at the last little bit
including pediatric all, osteogenic sarcoma, lymphoma (around 3%) determining exactly how much sodium
and breast cancer. will be excreted.
159. Which is not a bacteriostatic antibiotic? 165. Action of which antibacterial drug can be
(a) Chloramphenicol (b) Ampicillin augmented by acidifying urine?
(c) Tetracycline (d) Sulfadiazine (a) Cotrlmoxazole (b) Gentamicin
Ans. (b) : Ampicilline is not a bateriostatic antibiotic. (c) Nitrofurantoin (d) Ciprofloxacin
The difination of bacteriostatic and 'bactriocidal' appear Ans. (a) : Co-trimoxazole is a combination of
to be straightforword. trimethoprim and suphamethosazole and is in a class of
bacterio static- that the agent prevent the growth of the medication called sulfonamides. It works by stopping
bacteria. the growth of bacteria. Antibiotics will not kill viruses
bactericidal-that it kills bacteria. that can cause colds, flu, or other viral infections. If is
160. Which is not a treatment for hypoglycemia? used to treat certain bacterial infection, such as
(a) Glucagon (b) Glucose pneumonia, bronchitis and infections of the urinary
(c) Fruit juice (d) Insulin tract, ears and intestine.
Ans. (d) : Hypoglycemia is a condition in which human 166. Astringents are compounds that :
blood sugar (Glucose) levels fall below the standard (a) Prevent contact of skin with surroundings
range. Glucose is human body's main energy source and (b) Soothe and soften skin
when they fall bellow 70 mg/dl, it is called low blood (c) Precipitate proteins
sugar. So all the given option insulin is not a treatment (d) Dissolve intercellular substance the horny
of hypoglycemia. skin layer
161. What is the major action of losartan? Ans. (c) : An Astringent is a compound that precipitate
(a) Selective AT1 receptor antagonist proteins in blood, Sweat and other body fluids to
(b) Selective AT2 receptor antagonist coagulate a property put to use in antipersipirants. Two
(c) Non-selective AT1 + AT2 receptor antagonist safe and effective astringents are the ionic compounds
(d) AT1 receptor agonist of aluminium with sulfate ion and with acetate ion.

85 YCT
167. Which drug is effective is psoriasis? (c) Absorb half of the introduced drug
(a) Ketoconazole (b) Tazarotene (d) Bind half of the introduced drug to plasma
(c) Thymol (d) Resorcinol proteins
Ans. (a) : The duration of action of a drug is known as
Ans. (b) : Psoriasis is a chronic inflommatory disease of
its half life. This is the period of time required for the
the skin characterized by clearly define, dry, rocnded
red patches with silvery scales on the surface. concentration or amount of drug in the body to be
168. Albendazole is effective for : reduced by one-half, we usually consider the half life of
(a) Roundworm (b) Hookworm a drug in relation to the amount of the drug in plasma.
(c) Fllaria 174. Muscarinic chollnoceptors are not found in ;
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d) : Albendazole is an Antihdmenthic drug. (a) Heart
Ex.– of helminthus (b) Skeletal muscle end plate
Roundworm (c) Respiratory system
Hookworm (d) Gastric glands
Filaria Ans. (b) : Muscarinic chollnocepters are not found in
169. Intolerance reaction with alcohol can occur in heart, respiratory system & Gastric glands but it is
patients taking : found in skeletal muscle. The skeletal muscle is
(a) Tetracycline (b) Cimetidine innervated by the peripheral skeletal muscle is
(c) Metronidazole innervated by the peripheral nerous system and not by
(d) All of the above
the autonomic nervous system. The skeletal muscle
Ans. (c) : Drinking alcohol while taking metronidazole
hence has a voluntary control of action.
is not recomended because the combination of
175. Bronchodliation produced by ipratropium
metronidazole and alcohal can cause a reaction in some
people symptoms may include flushing headaches, bromide is due to its action as :
nausea, vomiting and stomach cramps. (a) Muscarinic agonist
(b) Muscarinic antagonist
170. Drug of choice for radical curve of vivax
(c) Nicotinic agonist
malaria is :
(a) Quinine (b) Chloroquine (d) Nicotinic antagonist
(c) ACT (d) Primaquine Ans. (b) : Muscarinic antagonists also known as
antimuscarinic medications, are a class of drugs that
Ans. (d) : Plasmodium virax infections are an important
block the activatio of muscarinic receptors of the
contributor to the malaria burden world-wide. The
parasympathetic actions. Other indications of
world Health Organisation recommend a 14-day course
muscarinic receptor antagonist agents include use in the
at primatquine co. 25 mg/kg/day giving an adult dose of
treatment of parkinson disease, Nausea, motion sickness
15 mg/day to eradicate the liver stage of the parasite and
etc.
prevent relapse of the disease.
176. Which of the following inhibits beta-lactamase
171. In active transport ;
enzyme?
(a) Drug is transported by diffusion
(a) Sulbactum (b) Chloramphenicol
(b) The cell membrane forms vesicies to engulf
(c) Quinine (d) Primaquine
drug molecules
(c) There is no energy consumption Ans. (a) : Sulbactum, clavulanic acid and lactamase are
beta-lactamase inhibitors. Clavulanic acid is used in
(d) Transport is against concentration gradient
combination with amoxicillin and ticarcillin sulbactam
Ans. (d) : During active transport, substances move sodium is used in combination with ampicillin and
against the concentration gradient, form an area at low
tazobactam in combination with piperacillin.
concentration to an area of high concentration. This
177. Mannitol is classified as :
process is 'active' because it requires use of energy.
(a) Loop diuretic
172. Which route of drug administration is likely to
(b) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
lead to the first pass effect?
(c) Potassium sparing diuretic
(a) Oral (b) Intravenous
(d) Osmotic diuretic
(c) Intramuscular (d) Intradermal
Ans. (a) : Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that is
Ans. (a) : The First-pass metabolism or the first pass
metabolically inert in humans. It is FDA approved for
effect or presystemic metabolism is the phenamenoan,
the treatment of Increased intracranial pressure.
which occurs when ever the drug is administered orally.
Mannitol works primary by increasing plasma osmotic
Orally administered drugs are absorbed in the intestine
pressure, leading to brain dehydration and a decrease in
and enter portal circulation. This leads to first-pass
ICP with consequent improvement in cerebral
effect in the liver.
perfusion.
173. Half Life t1/2 of a drug is time required to : 178. Which of the following may be used as
(a) Change the amount of drug in plasma by half chelating agent to treat poisoning by heavy
during elimination metals such as lead or mercury?
(b) Metabolize half of the introduced drug into (a) Dimercaprol (b) Sodium phosphate
active metabolite (c) Bismuth subnitrate (d) None of the above
86 YCT
Ans. (a) : Dimercoprol (British antilewisite [BAL], or Ans. (c) : Cephalosporins passes a mechanism of action
2, 3-dimercapto-1-propanol) was the first chelator used identical to penicillins : Inhibition of bacterial cell wall
in encephalopathic individuals and is the drug of choice peptidoglycan synthesis by inhibition of penicilin-
for treatment of lead toxicity. Ex.- lead, mercury. sensitive enzyme (transpeptidases, carboxypeptidases)
179. Which class of drugs can be used for cleaning that are responsible for the final three-dimensional
the bowel before a surgery? structure of the rigid bacterial cell wall.
(a) Adorbents (b) Laxative 185. Vancomycin is a :
(c) Antiacids (d) H2 Agonists (a) Lincosamide (b) Aminoglycoside
Ans. (b) : Laxative/saline cathractics used to cleaning (c) Macrolide (d) Glycopeptide
the bowel before a surgery. Ans. (d) : Macrolids are a class of antibiotic derived
Laxatives are medicines that help resolve constipation from saccharopolyspora erythraea forigina called
or empty the bowel of fecal matter before procedures or streptomyces erythreus, a type of soil borne bacteria.
surgery involving the lower bowel.
Macrolides inhibit protein synthesis in bacteria by
180. Milnasipran is a : reversibly binding to the p site of the 50 s unit of the
(a) Tricyclic antidepressant ribosome.
(b) SSRI Macrolides mainly affect gram-positive cocci and
(c) SNRI intracellular pathogens such as mycoplasma dia
(d) None of the above chlamydia and legionella.
Ans. (c) : Milnacipran is a serotonin norepinephrine
186. β -adrenergic blocker that is primarily
reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) used in the clinical treatment
of fibromyalgia and a short-term treatment of major eliminated unchanged by renal excretion :
depressive disorder. (a) Propranolol (b) Metoprolol
(c) Esmolol (d) Atenolol
181. Which of the following does not decrease iron
absorption? Ans. (d) : Atenolol is a beta-blocker that affects the
(a) Ascorbic acid (b) Antacids Heart and circulation (blood flow through arteries and
(c) Tetracycline (d) Both (a) and (b) veins). Atenolol is used to treat angina (chest pain) and
Ans. (a) : Ascorbic acid increase the absorption of iron, hypertension (high blood pressure). Atenolol is also
tetracyline & Antaacid decrease the absorption of iron used to lower the risk of death after a heart attack.
phytic acid, sodium oxalate and sodium silicate Atenolol is β -adrenergic blocker that is primarily
decrease iron absorption, ascorbic acid has the ability to eliminated unchanged by renal excretion.
count eract their in hibitory effect. 187. High anticholinergic property is present in the
182. Pernicious anemia is caused due to deficiency following antihistamine :
of : (a) Diphenhydramine (b) Astemizole
(a) Iron (b) Copper (c) Cetrizine (d) Terfenadine
(c) Vitamin B1 (d) Vitamin B12 Ans. (a) : Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine drug
Ans. (d) : Pernicious anemia is a relatively rare which have high anticholinergic property.
autoimmune disorder that causes diminishment in Di phenhydramine, which is available as an over the
dietary vitamin B12 (cyanocobolamine) absorption, counter medication, is a first generation anti histamine.
resulting in B12 dificiency and subsequent, That is used in a variety of conditions to treat and
Megaloblastic anemia. It affects people of all ages prevent dystonias, insomnia, pruritis, urticaria, vertigo
worldwide particularly those over 60. and motion sickness. It also prossessess local anesthetic
183. Lovastatin is a : properties for those patients who have allergies to other,
(a) HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor more commonly used local anesthetics.
(b) Bile acid sequestrant 188. Patients taking a first generation H1
(c) Lipoporotein lipase activator antihistaminic should be advised to avoid :
(d) Sterol absorption inhibitor (a) Taking milk products
Ans. (a) : Lovastatin is a cholesterol-lowering agent (b) Driving motor vehicles
first isolated from a strain of aspergillus terreus. It is a (c) Hard physical exertion
lipid-lowering medication part of the statin drug class
(d) All of the above
used to treat and prevent coronary heart disease.
Lovastatin is metabolized into its active from beta- Ans. (b) : First generation antihistaminic drugs are
hydroxy acid in the stomach and functions to highly sedative drug they cause sedation hence avoid to
competitively inhibit 3-hydroxy-3 methylglutaryl- driving the most common side effect of first-generation
coenzyme A (HMG-CoA) reductase. antihistamines used to for this reason. They are
184. Bactericidal action of cephalosporins is due to : something used to help people who have trouble
(a) Inhibit protein synthesis by binding to sleeping (Insomnia).
bacterial ribosomes 189. Action for which dose of aspirin required is the
(b) Inhibit protein synthesis by binding to tRNA lowest is :
(c) Inhibit synthesis of bacterial cell wall (a) Analgesic
(d) Distort bacterial gene code (b) Anti-inflammatory
87 YCT
 (c) Anti platelet aggregation Ans. (b) : The human body uses carbohydrates in the
(d) Anti pyretic form of glucose. Glucose is stored in the liver and
Ans. (d) : Aspirin is a class of salicylates derivatives of muscles as glycogen. Glycogen is sythesised and stored
NSAIDS, they have analges anti inflammation property. mainly in the liver and the muscles.
Aspirin is one of the oldest most widely used drugs in 195. Alpha cells in islets of Langerhans produce :
the world. Taken for pain relief for over 2,000 years. (a) Glucagon (b) Insulin
The regular adult dosage is 650 mg taken every 4 hours (c) Secretin (d) Somatostatin
when needed to treat pain inflammation and fever Ans. (a) : Islets of langerhans in found in Insulin.
caused by a variety of aliments. Pancrease have 3 cells–
190. Which is not an adverse effect seen with non 1. α cells– Glucagen
Steroidal Anti Inflammatory Drugs (NSAID)?
2. β cells– Insulin
(a) Gastric irritation (b) Fluid retention
(c) Rashes (d) Sedation
3. γ cells– Somato statin
196. Which is the preferred penicillin for treatment
Ans. (d) : Non steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
of syphilis?
(NSAIDS) block the CO-enzymes and reduce
(a) Penicillin V
prostaglandins throughout the body. As a consequence
ongoing inflammation, pain and fever are reduced since (b) Benzathine penicillin G
the prostaglandins that protect the stomach and support (c) Cloxacillin
platelets and blood clotting also are reduced. NASAIDs (d) Ampicillin
can caused ulcer in the stomach and promote bleeding Ans. (b) : Benzathine penicillin-G are used in the
but not cuase sedation. treatment of syphillis.
191. Prescription drugs are given under which Penicillin is the only recommended therapy for
schedule of drugs and cosmetics rules? neurosyphilis, congenital syphilis, or syphilis during
(a) Schedule K (b) Schedule M pregnancy.
(c) Schedule H (d) Schedule B 197. Which anti TB drug does not cause liver
Ans. (c) : Prescription drug are those drug which are toxicity?
not sold by without prescription of registered medical (a) Ethambutol (b) Rifampicin
practitioner substances H or schedule X not be sold by (c) Pyrazinamide (d) Isoniazid
retail except on and in accordance with the prescription Ans. (a) : Anti tuberculosis medications states that
of a registered medical practitioncer. isoniazed, rifampin and pyrazinamide are major causes
192. A new schedule was recently introduced tin the of hepatotoxicity where as ethambutol rarely cuases
drugs and cosmetics rule for listing liver injury.
carbapenem class III and IV generation 198. Antifungal drug which is administrated only
antibiotics. Which one is it? through oral route is :
(a) Schedule X (b) Schedule P1 (a) Ketoconazole (b) Amphotericin B
(c) Schedule Z (d) Schedule H1 (c) Griseofulvin (d) Tolnaftate
Ans. (d) : A separate schedule H1 under the drugs and Ans. (c) : Griseofulvin is an antifungal antibiotic given
cosmetics rules, 1945 was introduced vide G.S.R. 588 against fungal infection orally antifungal drugs are
(E) dated (30.8.2013) containing carbapenem class and medications that are used to affect areas such as the skin
III & IV generation of antibiotics along with certain and nails.
habit forming and anti-TB drugs for stricter control over There are several types of antifungal drugs available to
these drugs. fight fungal infections.
193. Which type of cell is involved in antibody 199. Metronidazole can be used for :
formation? (a) Roundworm (b) Giardiasis
(a) Basophil (b) Monocyte (c) Kala-azar (d) Hookworm
(c) Plasma cell (d) Neutrophil Ans. (b) : Giardia is a microscopic parasite that cause
Ans. (c) : Plasma cells are differentiated b-lymphocyte the diarrheal illness known as giardiasis. Metronidazole
white blood cells capable of secreting immuno globulin is an antibiotic that is used to treat a wide variety of
or antibodies. infections. It works by stopping the growth of certain
These cells play a significant role in the adaptive bacteria and parasites.
immune responses, namely being the main cells 200. Characteristic toxicity of Enthambutol is :
responsible for humoral immunity. (a) Hepatitis (b) Rental damage
194. Carbohydrate is stored in human body mainly (c) Pancreatitis (d) Visual defects
as : Ans. (d) : Ethambutol (EMB) is one of the first line
(a) Glucose (b) Glycogen drugs used for treating tuberculosis. Vision loss due to
(c) Inulin (d) Starch optic nerve toxicity.
88 YCT
 DELHI SUBORDINATE SERVICES SELECTION
BOARD RECURITMENT
EXAM DATE-26-04-2015 Shift-I

SECTION-A Ans. (b) : Saka era in India, began from 78 A.D. when
the Kushan emperor Kanishka moved his capital from
General Awareness Mathura to Peshawar.
The Sakas were nomadic people who orginated in
Central Asia and were known for their horsemanship
1. Tipu Sultan died fighting the English forces and military prowess.
under Rudradaman-I was the most powerful ruler who ruled
(a) Lord Cornwallis (b) Lord Wellesly from 130 to 150 A.D.
(c) Lord Dalhousie (d) Lord Hastings 6. The ratio of pure gold in 18 carat gold is
Ans. (b) : Tipu Sultan died in fourth Anglo-Mysore (a) 60% (b) 75%
war, 1799 fighting against the English force under (c) 80% (d) 90%
leadership of Lord Wellesly. Ans. (b) : The ratio of pure gold in 18 carat gold is
Tipu was the Indian muslim ruler of the southern 75%. 18 carat gold is an alloy that contains 18 parts
kingdom of Mysore after his father Haidar Ali. Tipu pure gold and 6 parts other metals. This means 75%
Sultan commonly referred as 'Sher-e-Mysore' or 'Tiger pure gold and 25% other metals.
of Mysore'.
7. Major harmful gas emitted by automobile
2. The administration of English East India vehicles which causes air pollution is
Company in India came to an end in (a) Carbon monoxide (b) Methane
(a) 1857 (b) 1858 (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Ozone gas
(c) 1862 (d) 1892
Ans. (a) : Carbon monoxide (CO) is a major harmful
Ans. (b) : The administration of English East India gas emitted by automobile vehicles that causes air
Company in India came to an end in 1858. Following pollution. CO is a colorless, oderless and poisonous gas
the Indian Rebellion of 1857. The British Government that is produced when fossil fuels like gasoline and
Passed the Government of India Act of 1858. By the diesel are combusted.
act, the power of territories and revenues had been
8. A man with colour blindness will see red as
transferred to the British Crown, and the British
(a) Yellow (b) Blue
government assumed direct administration of India.
(c) Green (d) Voilet
3. From the evolutionary point of view, Which
Ans. (c) : A man with colour blindness will see red
one of the following is closer to man? colour as green.
(a) Dolphin (b) Flying fish There are two types of red-green colour blindness–
(c) Shark (d) Tortoise Protanomaly : This causes red colour to look green
Ans. (a) : From the evolutionary point of view, Dolphin due to malfunctioning red cones.
is closer to man. Human and dolphin are both Protanopia : This causes red to look green due to
mammals. Mammals share more common ancestry than nonfunctioning or missing red cones.
other animals. 9. Which of the following is not a foreign bank
4. Which one of the following metals is found in working in India?
"Plaster of Paris"? (a) HSBC (b) Barclays
(a) Calcium (b) Magnesium (c) Standard chartered (d) Yes Bank
(c) Potassium (d) Sodium Ans. (d) : 'Yes Bank' is not a foreign bank. This (Yes
Ans. (a) : 'Calcium' metal is found in 'Plaster of Paris' Bank) is an Indian private sector bank founded by Rana
in the form of calcium sulfate hemihydrate. Plaster of Kappor and Ashok Kappor in 2005.
Paris is also known as gypsum plaster. The chemical HSBC and Barclays are British universal bank.
1 Standard chartered is also a British international Bank.
formula for plaster of Paris is CaSO4. H2O.
2 10. Commercially, sodium bicarbonate is known as
It is used in building material, casting agents in (a) Washing soda (b) Baking Soda
hospitals to treat bone fractures etc. (c) Bleaching powder (d) Soda ash
5. From which year did saka era begin? Ans. (b) : Commercially, sodium bicarbonate is known
(a) 78. B.C. (b) 78 A.D. as baking soda. It is a white crystalline solid that is
(c) 177 A.D. (d) 278 A.D. often a fine powder with a slightly salty alkaline taste.
89 YCT
Chemical formula of sodium bicarbonate is NaHCO3. It 16. The names of the four sons of mahatma
is used in sour stomach relieve, heart burn and Gandhi are Harital, Manilal, Ramdas and
neutralizing excess stomach acid. (a) Arun (b) Tushar
11. The headquarters of Asian Development Bank (c) Rajmohan (d) Devdas
is located in Ans. (d) : The names of the four sons of Mahatma
(a) Jakarta (b) Singapore Gandhi are Harilal, Manilal, Ramdas and Devdas.
(c) Bangkok (d) Manila Mahatma Gandhi's wife name was Kasturba Gandhi.
His mother's name was Putlibai while father's name
Ans. (d) : The headquaters of Asian Development Bank Karamchand Gandhi.
(ADB) is located in Manila, Philippines. This regional 17. Expansion of PTI is
development bank was established on 19 December (a) Proper Trade Institution
1966. (b) Press Trust of India
The ADB admits the members of the UN Economic and (c) People's Trade Industry
Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (d) Personal Trust of India
(UNESCAP) and non-regional developed countries. In
Ans. (b) : Expansion of PTI or full form of PTI is Press
starting, ADB had 31 members that are 68 now, Trust of India. PTI is the largest news agency of India.
According to December 2020, Japan and USA hold the The headquarter of PTI is located in New Delhi.
largest proportion of share in ADB while India holds
18. How many letters of the English alphabet
6.317%. (capitals) appear same when looked at in a
12. Mr. Manohar Lal Khattar was sworn in as the mirror?
10th Chief Minister of (a) 9 (b) 10
(a) Maharashtra (b) Punjab (c) 11 (d) 12
(c) Haryana (d) Jammu and Kashmir Ans. (c) : There are 11 letters of the English alphabet
Ans. (c) : Mr. Manohar Lal Khattar was sworn in as the (Capitals) appear same when looked in a mirror. They
10th Chief Minister of Haryana state. He took oath on are– A, H, I, M, O, T, U, V, W, X and Y.
26 october, 2014 as BJP's first Chief Minister of 19. Which one of the following planets has largest
Haryana. number of satellites or moons?
Nayab Singh has taken oath for New CM of the state on efvecve ceW mes keâewvemes «en keâes DeefOekeâlece Ghe«en Ùee Ûevõ
13 march 2024 on the place of formar CM Manohar Lal nw?
Khattar. (a) Jupiter (b) Mars
13. Man Booker Prize 2014 is won by (c) Saturn (d) Venus
______author Mr. Richard Flanagan. Ans. (a) : In solar system, the Jupiter Planet has the
(a) Australian (b) British largest numbers of satellites or moons. It has 92
(c) Japanese (d) Indian satellites while saturn has 83 satellites. Mercury and
Ans. (a) : Man Booker Prize 2014 was won by Venus planets have no satellites. The Earth has only
Australian author Mr. Richard Flanagan. In 2023 this satellite that is moon. There are 8 planets in the solar
prize is given to the Irish author Paul Lynch for his system-Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn,
novel 'Prophet Song'. Uranus and Neptune.
14. In the Miss World 2014 contest held in London 20. Which of the following awards is given by
UNESCO to those who popularise use of
on 14-12-2014, Rolene Strauss of _____won the
science in life?
title "Miss World 2014".
(a) Booker Prize (b) Magsaysay Award
(a) Italy (b) South Africa
(c) Kalinga Award (d) kalidas Samman
(c) U.S.A. (d) Germany
Ans. (c) : The Kalinga Award is given by UNESCO to
Ans. (b) : In the Miss World 2014 contest held in those who popularise use of science in life. This was
London on 14.12.2014, Rolene strauss of South Africa created in 1952, following a donation from Biju Pathak,
won the title of "Miss World" 2014. Founder president of the Kalinga Foundation Trust in
The "71st Miss World" Title in 2023 is given to India.
Krystyna Pyszkova of Czech Republic.
15. The Vice President of India is elected by General Intelligence & Reasoning Ability
(a) Members of Lok Sabha
21. If X and Y are brothers, Z is the sister of X, P
(b) Members of Rajya Sabha is the brother of Q and Q is the daughter of Y,
(c) Members of both Houses of Parliament then how is X related to P?
(d) Member of all state legislature Ùeefo X Deewj Y oesveeW YeeF& nw, Z Ùen X keâer yenve nw, P
Ans. (c) : In the Constitution of India, the Article-63 Ùen Q keâe YeeF& nw Q Deewj Ùen Y keâer yesšer nw, lees X keâe
declare "There will be a vice president for India". While
Article 66(1) deals with the election of Vice-President P mes keäÙee veelee nw?
of India. He is elected by 'members of both Houses of (a) Brother/YeeF& (b) Brother-in-law/meeuee
Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha). (c) Aunt/ceewmeer (d) Uncle/ÛeeÛee
90 YCT
Ans. (d) : According to the question, ∴ 98 = 14 + (n – 1)7
7(n–1)= 84
n = 12 + 1 = 13
And Number which are divisible by 3 and 7 both
LCM of 3 and 7 = 21
Total numbers between 11 to 100 which are divisible by
both = 21, 42, 63, 84, (4)
Hence, it is clear from the above that X, is the uncle of Hence, Required number of term = 13 – 4 = 9
P. 25. Among 5 friends, Meena is taller than Neela
36 9 25 but as tall as Prema, Asha is taller than Sapna
but not as tall as taller than Sapna but not as
22. 49 26 64 8121 25 64 ? 144 tall as Neela In this group who is the shortest?
25 16 36 heeBÛe oesmleeW ceW ceervee, veeruee mes TBÛeer nw uesefkeâve Øescee
efpeleveer ner TBÛeer nw~ DeeMee, mehevee mes GBâÛeeer nw uesefkeâve
(a) 19 (b) 23 veeruee kesâ efpeleveer TBÛeer veneR nQ Gme mecetn ceW meyemes veešer
(c) 25 (d) 31 keâewve nw?
Ans. (d) : (a) Meena/ceervee (b) Neela/veeruee
Just as, And,
(c) Prema/Øescee (d) Sapna/mehevee
36 9
Ans. (d) : According to the question–
49 26 64 8121 25
25 16
⇓ ⇓
36 + 64 + 25 + 49 9 + 25 + 16 + 81
6 + 8 + 5 + 7 = 26 3 + 5 + 4 + 9 = 21
Same as,
25 Hence, it is clear from above that Sapna is the shortest
64 ? 144 in the group.
26. Let a number with three digits has for its
36
middle digit is the sum of the other two digits,
⇒ 25 + 144 + 36 + 64 = ? then this number is a multiple of
⇒ 5 + 12 + 6 + 8 = ? leerve DebkeâeW Jeeueer Skeâ mebKÙee keâe yeerÛe keâe Debkeâ yeekeâer
∴ ? = 31 oes DebkeâeW keâe Ùeesie nw~ Ùen mebKÙee Fmekeâer iegCepe nw–
23. 2, 3, 6, 11, 18, ? (a) 11 (b) 10
(a) 25 (b) 27 (c) 18 (d) 50
(c) 29 (d) 31 Ans. (a) : Let the number of three digits is x; y and z
Ans. (b) : The given number series is as follows : respectively.
Number = xyz
y=x+z
From option (a),
Divisibility rule 11– Difference between sum of digits
? = 18 + 9 of odd places and sum of digits of even places should
Hence ? = 27 be either zero or multiple of 11.
24. The number of terms between 11 and 100 We known.....y = x + z
which are divisible by 7 but not by 3 (x + z) – y = 0 or 11k
11 Deewj 100 kesâ yeerÛe 7 mes YeepÙe uesefkeâve 3 mes (x + z) – (x + z) = 0
DeYeepÙe efkeâleves heo nQ? Hence, this number is multiple of 11.
(a) 08 (b) 09 Direction (Qs. 27-30): Choose the one which
(c) 27 (d) 28 does not belong to the group of the other three.
Ans. (b) : According to the question,
Øe. 27 mes 30 kesâ efueS efveoxMe: yeekeâer leerve kesâ mecetn mes
Number divisible by 7 between 11 to 100 mecyevOe ve jKeves Jeeues keâe ÛeÙeve keâerefpeS
14, 21, 28, 35,.........98 27. (a) Uttarakhand/GòejeKeC[
∵ Numbers is in form of AP, (b) Meghalaya/cesIeeueÙe
a = 14, d = 7 Tn = 98 (c) Srinagar/ßeerveiej
∵ Tn = a + (n – 1)d (d) Jharkhand/PeejKeb[

91 YCT
Ans. (c) : In the given options, Srinagar is the city of 33. If '–' means '×', '×' means '–', '+' means '÷' and
UT Jammu and Kashmir. Whereas all other options are '÷' means '+'
the state of India. Hence, option (c) is different one.
16 × 6 – 2 ÷ 18+3=?
28. (a) 27 (b) 8
(c) 125 (d) 100
Ùeefo '–' celeueye '×' nw, '×' celeueye '–' nw, '+' keâe
celeueye '÷' nw Deewj '÷' keâe celeueye '+' nw, lees
Ans. (d) : From options– 16 × 6 – 2 ÷ 18+3=?
(a) 27 ⇒ 33 (a) 10 (b) 12
(b) 8 ⇒ 23 (c) 8 (d) 16
(c) 125 ⇒ 53 Ans. (a) : Given–
(d) 100 ⇒ (10)2 (odd one) 16 × 6 – 2 ÷ 18 + 3 = ?
Hence, option (d) is odd. –→×
29. (a) Discovery of India/ef[mkeâJeefj Dee@heâ Fbef[Ùee ×→–
(b) Indian Express/Fbef[Ùeve SkeämeØesme +→÷
(c) Times of India /šeF&cme Dee@heâ Fbef[Ùee ÷→+
(d) Deccan Herald/[skeäkeâve nsjeu[ On changing the signs,
Ans. (a) : In the given options, Discovery of India is the 16 – 6 × 2 + 18 ÷ 3 = ?
name of Book. Whereas all other options are the name =16 – 6 × 2 + 6
of Newspaper . Hence option (a) is odd one. = 16 – 12 + 6
30. (a) Eagle/ie™[ (b) Parrot/leeslee ? = 10
(c) Snake/meeBhe (d) Peacock/ceesj 34. 18* 2* 4*5 which alternative substitutes the
Ans. (c) : In the given options, Snake can not fly but stars?
other option can fly. 18* 2* 4*5 keâewve-mee efJekeâuhe leejeW keâer peien uesiee?
Hence, option (c) is different.
(a) +, –, × (b) –, =, ×
31. PBKT : QCLU :: MDAY :?
(a) QCBZ (b) NKAZ (c) ÷, =, + (d) ×, =, –
(c) DECZ (d) NEBZ Ans. (c) : Given–
Ans. (d) : Just as, Same as, 18 * 2 * 4 * 5
+1 +1 From option (c), [÷, =, +]
P  →Q M  →N
+1 +1 18 ÷ 2 = 4 + 5
B  →C D  →E 9=9
+1 +1 Hence, option (c) will replace the stars.
K  →L A  →B
+1 +1 35. Which of the following words cannot be
T  →U Y  →Z
formed using the letters of the word
Hence, ? = NEBZ STUMBLE?
32. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a circle facing STUMBLE Meyo kesâ De#ejeW mes efvecve ceW mes keâewve-mee
the centre. C is sitting diametrically opposite to D
who is the neighbour of A and F.E is sitting Meyo veneR yeveeÙee pee mekeâlee nw?
immediately to the right of C who is sitting to the (a) MULE (b) TUBE
right of B. Who is sitting second to the right of D? (c) MELT (d) ABLE
A, B, C, D, E Deewj F Skeâ Je=òe ceW Gmekesâ kesâvõ keâer Deesj Ans. (d) : From the given options, option (d), ABLE
DeefYecegKe yew"s nQ C JÙeemeerÙe efmLeefle ceW D kesâ ØeeflecegKe cannot be formed because in word STUMBLE letter A
yew"e nw pees A Deewj F keâe he[esmeer nw~ E, C kesâ legjvle is missing.
oeefnveer Deesj yew"e nw pees B kesâ oeefnveer Deesj yew"e nw~ D Directions (Qs. 36 and 37): S is shorter than K
kesâ oeefnveer Deesj otmejs mLeeve hej keâewve yew"e nw? but taller than R. M is the tallest. A is a little
(a) E (b) B shorter than K and a little taller than S.
(c) C (d) A Øe. 36 Deewj 37 kesâ efueS efveoxMe: S, K mes veeše ueskeâve
Ans. (b) : According to the question– R mes GBâÛee nw~ M meyemes TBÛee nw~ A, K mes LeesÌ[e veeše
nw Deewj S mes LeesÌ[e TBÛee nw~
36. Who is the shortest ?
meyemes Úesše keâewve nw?
(a) S (b) A
Hence, it is clear from the above that B is sitting second (c) K (d) R
right of D. Ans. (d) : According to the question,

92 YCT
 40. Pick the odd one out
efJe<ece keâes ÛegefveS
(a) 16 – 40 (b) 20 – 50
(c) 22 – 55 (d) 12 – 28
Ans. (d) : From the given options–
(a) 16 – 40 ⇒ 16 × 2.5 = 40
(b) 20 – 50 ⇒ 20 × 2.5 = 50
Hence, it is clear from the above that R is the shortest
among them. (c) 22 – 5.5 ⇒ 22 × 2.5 = 55
37. If they stand in order of their heights then who (d) 12 – 28 ⇒ 12 × 2.5 = 30 ≠ 28 (odd)
is in the middle? Hence, option (d) is correct.
Ùeefo FvnW Gvekeâer TBÛeeF& kesâ Devegmeej ›eâce ceW KeÌ[e efkeâÙee (iii) Arithmetical and Numerical ability
peelee nw, lees yeerÛe ceW keâewve nesiee?
41. 3 = 1.732 12 = ?
(a) A (b) M
(c) S (d) K (a) 6.928 (b) 3.464
Ans. (a) : According to the question from above (c) 4.524 (d) 5.732
diagram, if they stand in order of their height 'A' is in Ans. (b) : Given–
the middle.
3 = 1.732
38. A and B is a married couple, X and Y are
sisters. X is the sister of A. How is Y related to 12 = ?
B?
3× 4 = 2 3
A Deewj B efJeJeeefnle peesÌ[e nw~ X Deewj Y yenves nQ~ X Ùen
A keâer yenve nw~ Y mes B keâe keäÙee mebyebOe nw? = 2 × 1.732
= 3.464
(a) Brother-in-law/meeuee
(b) sister-in-law/YeeYeer/veveo 42. If log 2= 0.2614, log 3= 0.3521, log 6=?
(c) Mother-in-law/meeme Ùeefo log 2= 0.2614 nw, log 3= 0.3521nw, lees log 6=?
(d) None of these/FveceW mes keâesF& veneR (a) 0.0920 (b) 0.6135
Ans. (d) : According to the question– (c) 1.2614 (d) 1.3521
Ans. (b) : Given–
log 2 = 0.2614
log 3 = 0.3521
Hence, it is clear from the above that option (d) is
correct as the gender of A and B cannot be decided. log 6 = ?
39. Nitin starts from his house and walks 200 According to the question–
metres East and then goes North for 80 metres, ∵ log ab = log a + log b
then West for 40 metres and finally South for log 6 = log 2 + log 3
80 metres and stops there. How far is he from = 0.2614 + 0.3521
his house? = 0.6135
efveefleve Deheves Iej mes Meg™Deele keâjles ngS hetJe& efoMee ceW
200 ceeršj Ûeuelee nw~ Gmekesâ yeeo 80 ceer. Gòej efoMee ceW 43. (12 − 8 )10 = ?
2 2

Ûeuelee nw leye 40 ceer. heef§ece efoMee ceW Ûeuelee nw~ Deble ceW 20 × 2
Jen oef#eCe efoMee ceW 80 ceer. Ûeuelee nw Jen Deheves Iej mes (a) 20 (b) 2
efkeâleveer otj nw ? (c) 10 (d) 12
(a) 100 m/ 200 ceeršj (b) 150 m/150 ceeršj Ans. (a) : Given–
(c) 160 m/160 ceeršj (d) 80 m/80 ceeršj 2 2
(12 – 8 )10
Ans. (c) : According to the question–
20 × 2
(12+8)(12–8)×10
=
20×2
20×4×10
= = 20
20×2
44. ?% of 150 +250 =280
150 +250 keâe ?% =280
Required Distance = 200 – 40 = 160 m (a) 20 (b) 30
Hence, Nitin is 160 m far from his house. (c) 25 (d) 10
93 YCT
Ans. (a) : Given– Principal for 3rd and 4th year = 7800 + 1560 = `9360
?% of 150 + 250 = 280 9360 × 10 × 2
Let ? = x SI for last 2 years =
100
x = `1872
× 150 + 250 = 280
100 ∴ Total SI = 1560 + 1872 = `3432
150 48. How many diagonals can be drawn in regular
x× = 30 polygon with 9 sides?
100
x = 20 9 YegpeeDeeW kesâ Skeâ efveÙeefcele yengYegpe kesâ efkeâleves efJekeâCe&
45. Naveen has to leave office exactly after 20 KeeRÛes pee mekeâles nQ?
minutes to exactly catch a train which leaves (a) 27
station at 6:40 p.m. and it is 5:45 p.m. now. (b) 36
How much time does it take to travel from (c) 30
office to the station? (d) None of these/FmeceW mes keâesF& veneR
veJeerve keâes 6:40 p.m. keâer š^sve uesves kesâ efueS Gmekesâ Ans. (a) : We know that,
Dee@efheâme mes "erkeâ-"erkeâ 20 efceveš kesâ yeeo efvekeâuelee nw~ n(n – 3)
Deewj DeYeer 5:45 p.m. nes ieÙes nw~ Gmes Dee@efheâme mes Number of diagonal in regular polygon = 2
mšsMeve hengBÛeves kesâ efueS efkeâlevee meceÙe ueielee nw? Where n = number of sides
(a) 55 minutes/55efceveš (b) 1 hour/1IeCše 9(9 – 3)
(c) 35 minutes/35efceveš (d) 30 minutes/30efceveš ∴ Required number of diagonal =
2
Ans. (c) : According to the question–
9×6
Time to leave office = 5 : 45 + 0 : 20 = = 27
= 6 : 05 pm 2
Required time to reach station = 6 : 40 – 6 : 05 49. A bag contains 4 red and 3 blue balls. If two
= 35 minutes balls are drawn from this bag at random, what
46. By how much is 11% of 22.2 less than 10% of is the probability that they are of different
24.4 ? colour?
22.2 keâe 11% Ùen 22.2 kesâ 10% mes efkeâlevee keâce nw ? Skeâ Lewues ceW Ûeej ueeue jbie kesâ Deewj 3 veerues jbie kesâ ieWo nQ~
(a) 0.2 (b) 0.02 Ùeef o Lewues ceW mes oes ieWoeW keâes ÙeeÂefÛÚkeâ efvekeâeuee peelee nw,
(c) –0.002 (d) 0.00002 lees keä
Ù ee mebYeeJÙelee nw efkeâ Jes ieWo efYeVe jbie kesâ neWies?
Ans. (c) : According to the question– 2 4 3 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
10 11 7 7 7 7
= 24.4 × – 22.2 ×
100 100 Ans. (b) : Given–
Total number of balls = 4 red + 3 blue
= 2.44 – 2.442
= 7 balls
= – 0.002 According to the question–
47. Raju deposited ` 7,800 in fixed deposit which 4 3
will earn him 10% simple interest. After every C1 × C1
second year he will convert his interest Probability of required different colour =
7
earnings into deposits. How much will he get as C2
interest in the fourth year? 4×3
jepet ves meeJeefOe Keeles ceW ` 7,800 pecee efkeâÙes efpeme hej = 7×6
10% meeOeejCe yÙeepe efceuelee nw~ nj oes Je<e& kesâ yeeo 2
Jen yÙeepe mes heeF& ieF& jkeâce keâes meeJeefOe Keeles ceW pecee 4× 3×2 4
= =
keâjlee nw~ ÛeewLes Je<e& ceW Gmes yÙeepe kesâ ™he ceW efkeâleveer 7 × 6 7
jkeâce efceuesieer? 50. Naveen travels 6 km to the North. From there
(a) ` 1,038 (b) ` 780 4 km to the East. From then 3 km to the South.
(c) ` 3,432 (d) ` 936 How far is he now from his starting point?
Ans. (c) : Given– Principal (P) = `7800
veJeerve Gòej keâer Deesj 6 efkeâ.ceer. meheâj keâjlee nw~ JeneB mes
Rate of interest (R) = 10% Jen hetJe& keâer Deesj 4 efkeâ.ceer. peelee nw~ yeeo ceW Jen oef#eCe
According to the question– keâer Deesj 3efkeâ.ceer. peelee nw~ Deye Jen DeejbefYekeâ efyevog mes
7800 × 10 × 2 efkeâleveer otjer hej nw?
SI for first 2 years = (a) 3 km/3efkeâ.ceer. (b) 4 km /4efkeâ.ceer.
100
= `1560 (c) 5 km /5efkeâ.ceer. (d) 6 km /6efkeâ.ceer.

94 YCT
Ans. (c) : According to the question– 6+4+7+x+10
8=
5
40 = 27 + x
x = 13
54. If the surface area of a sphere is 616 cm2, find
its volume.
Ùeefo Skeâ Je=òe keâe he=‰erÙe #es$eheâue 616 cm2 nw, lees
Gmekeâe DeeÙeleve nw–
1
(a) 1500 cm3 (b) 1473 cm 3
3
1 1
(c) 1437 cm 3 (d) 1447 cm 3
2 2 3 3
Required shortest distance (AD) = 4 + 3
Ans. (c) : Given–
= 25 = 5km Surface area of a sphere = 616 cm2
51. If 24 men take 15 days to finish a work by 4πr2 = 616 cm2
working 5 hours a day, how many men are 22 2
necessary to finish the same work in 12 days by 4× × r = 616
working 6 hours a day? 7
Ùeefo 24 Deeoceer jespeevee 5 Iebšs keâece keâjles ngS Skeâ r 2 = 616×7
keâece 15 efoveeW ceW hetje keâjles nQ, lees jespeevee 6 Iebšs keâece 22×4
keâjles ngS 12 efoveeW ceW Jen keâece efkeâleves Deeoceer hetje r = 7 cm
4 3
keâjWies? ∴ Volume of sphere = πr
3
(a) 25 (b) 24
4 22 3
(c) 20 (d) 26 = × ×7
Ans. (a) : Given– 3 7
M1 = 24 M2 = ? 4312 1
= = 1437 cm3
D1 = 15 D2 = 12 3 3
H1 = 5 hours H2 = 6 55.
∵ M 1D 1H 1 = M 2D 2H 2
24 × 15 × 5 = M2 × 12 × 6 (a) 1 (b) 0
24 × 15 × 5 (c) x (d) x m + n + p
M2 = Ans. (a) : Given–
12 × 6
M2 = 25 Men
52. If 2a = 3b, 4b = 5c, a : c =?
Ùeefo 2a = 3b nw, 4b = 5c nw, lees a : c =?
(a) 3 : 4 (b) 3 : 5
m2 –mn + nm–n 2 + n 2 –np + np–p2 + p2 –mp + mp–m2
(c) 15 : 8 (d) 4 : 3 x =?
Ans. (c) : Given– x0 = ?
2a = 3b 4b = 5c ?=1
a 3 b 5 56. How much should a man invest in ` 50 shares
= = selling at `60 to obtain an annual income of
b 2 c 4
`900, if the dividend declared is 15%?
` 50 Debefkeâle cetuÙe Jeeuee MesÙej pees ` 60 hej efyekeâlee
nw, Ssmes MesÙejeW ceW efkeâlevee efveJesMe keâjvee nesiee efpeme hej
15% ueeYeebMe oj mes ` 900 keâer Jeeef<e&keâ Deeceoveer nes?
Hence, a : c = 15 : 8
(a) `7,000 (b) `7,500
53. If the mean of 6, 4, 7, x and 10 is 8, find x. (c) `7,100 (d) `7,200
Ùeefo 6, 4, 7, x Deewj 10 keâe ceeOÙe 8 nw, lees x keâe cetuÙe Ans. (d) : Given–
helee keâerefpeS– Face value of one share = `50
(a) 12 (b) 13 Market value of one share = `60
(c) 14 (d) 15 Dividend value = 15%
Ans. (b) : Given– 6, 4, 7, x and 10 Profit earned = `900
Sumof observation 50
Mean = ∴ Profit on one share = 15 × = `7.5
Number of observation 100

95 YCT
 7.5 37.5 Ans. (b) : Given–
∴ Profit percentage = × 100 = = 12.5% ∑ n = 36
60 3
(n + 1)n
According to the question, ∵ ∑n =
Profit 900 2
Number of share = = = 120 (n + 1)n
Profit on1share 7.5 ∴ 36 =
∴ Investment = Number of share × market value of 2
one shre n (n + 1) = 72
= 120 × 60 = `7200 n2 + n = 72
n2 + 9n – 8n – 72 = 0
57. If 2 sin θ = 3, cos θ = ?
n (n + 9) – 8 (n + 9) = 0
Ùeefo 2 sin θ = 3 nw, lees cos θ = ? (n + 9) (n – 8) = 0
1 n=8
(a) 2 (b) 2 5 1
2 60. Find the LCM of , ,
1 3 6 6
(c) 3 (d) 2 5 1
3 , , keâe Sue.meer.Sce. helee keâerefpeS
3 6 6
Ans. (b) : Given–
1 5
2sinθ = 3 (a) (b)
3 12
3  3
sinθ = ∵sin 60°=  2 10
2  2  (c) (d)
5 3
∴ θ = 60° Ans. (d) : Given,
1 2 5 1
∴ cosθ = cos 60° = ⇒ LCM of , , and
2 3 6 6
58. PA and PB are the tangents drawn to a circle LCM of 2,5,1
from an external point P. If PA= AB, find ⇒
HCF of 3, 6, 6
∠APB
10
yeenjer efyevog P mes Skeâ Je=òe hej PA Deewj PB Ùen oes ⇒
3
mheMe& jsKeeSB KeeRÛeer peeleer nQ~ Ùeefo PA = AB nw, lees
∠APB keâe helee ueieeFS Test of Language : Hindi
(a) 90º (b) 45º
(c) 60º (d) 30º efveoxMe: 61 mes 64 : meceeve DeLe& keâes osves Jeeues Meyo keâes
Ans. (c) : According to the question, Ûegvekeâj efueefKeS:
61. Ûebõcee
(a) ÛeeBoveer (b) MeefMe
(c) keâewcegoer (d) Ûebefõkeâe
Ans. (b) : ‘Ûebõcee’ keâe meceeveeLeea Meyo ‘MeefMe’ nesiee~ ‘Ûebõcee’ kesâ
DevÙe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Meyo nQ– ÛeeBo, efncekeâj, efJeYeekeâj, megOeekeâj,
efnceebMeg, jekesâMe, jekeâeheefle, meesce, ceÙebkeâ, jpeveerMe FlÙeeefo~
Meyo heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer
ÛeeBoveer pÙeeslmvee, keâewcegoer, Ûebefõkeâe, Ûebõkeâuee
We know that,
FlÙeeefo~
Tangent from the same point is equal.
∴ PA = PB = AB (Given) 62. leeueeye
So, ∆ABP is equilateral triangle and we know that each (a) leÌ[eie (b) DeekeâeMe
angle of an equilateral triangle is 60°. (c) heeveer (d) keâebleej
Hence, ∠APB = 60° Ans. (a) : ‘leeueeye’ keâe meceeveeLeea Meyo ‘leÌ[eie’ nesiee~ Fmekesâ DevÙe
59. If Σn = 36, find the value of heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Meyo heg<keâj, peueeMeÙe, mej, mejesJej, heesKej FlÙeeefo~
Ùeefo ∑ n = 36 nw lees n keâe ceeve helee keâerefpeS– Meyo heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer
heeveer peue, veerj, meefueue, Gokeâ, Decyeg,
(a) 9 (b) 8
(c) 6 (d) 10
DebYe, leesÙe FlÙeeefo~
96 YCT
DeekeâeMe ieieve, Debyej, veYe, JÙeesce, DeYeü, 69. Devegketâue
Deveble, heg<keâj FlÙeeefo~ (a) megketâue (b) Øeefleketâue
pebieue efJeefheve, keâeveve, Jeve, DejCÙe, (c) Deveevetketâue (d) Øeleerketâue
keâebleej, DešJeer FlÙeeefo~ Ans. (b) : ‘Devegketâue’ keâe efJeueesce Meyo ‘Øeefleketâue’ nesiee~
63. ceefoje Meyo efJeueesce
(a) cebefoj (b) ceÅe cetkeâ JeeÛeeue
(c) Jemeble (d) ogefveÙee hegjmkeâej oC[/eflejmkeâej
Ans. (b) : ‘ceefoje’ keâe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer ‘ceÅe’ nesiee~ Fmekesâ DevÙe Meg<keâ Deeõ&
heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Meyo megje, oe™, neuee, DeemeJe, Jee®Ceer FlÙeeefo nesiee~ efveoxMe : 70 Deewj 71: efJepeeleerÙe MeyoeW keâes Ûegvekeâj
$e+legjepe, $e+legheefle, ceOegceeme, kegâmegceekeâj FlÙeeefo ‘Jemeble’ kesâ leLee efueefKeS:
osJemLeeve, osJeie=n, F&Meie=n, efMeJeeueÙe, Gheemevee ie=n FlÙeeefo ‘cebefoj’ 70. (a) jece (b) ke=â<Ce
kesâ heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Meyo nw~ (c) ieesefJevo (d) keâesÙeue
64. neLeer
Ans. (d) : efoS ieS MeyoeW ceW ‘keâesÙeue’ efJepeeleerÙe Meyo nw, peyeefkeâ
(a) heeefCe (b) keâj
jece, ke=â<Ce Deewj ieesefJevo mepeeleerÙe Meyo nQ~
(c) nmleer (d) nmle
71. (a) iebiee (b) ke=â<Cee
Ans. (c) : nmleer, iepe, celebie, kegâcYeer, kegbâpej, iepesvõ FlÙeeefo
(c) vece&oe (d) kewâueeme
‘neLeer’ kesâ heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer nQ~ nmle, heeefCe, keâj FlÙeeefo ‘neLe’ kesâ
heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer nQ~ Ans. (d) : efoS ieS MeyoeW ceW ‘kewâueeme’ efJepeeleerÙe Meyo nw, peyeefkeâ
efveoxMe: 65 mes 69: Fvekesâ efJejesOeeLe&keâ heo Ûegvekeâj efueefKeS: ieb iee, ke=â<Cee Deewj vece&oe mepeeleerÙe Meyo nQ~ ‘kewâueeme’ heJe&le keâe veece
65. jeie
nw, peyeefkeâ DevÙe veefoÙeeW kesâ veece nQ~
(a) efvejeie (b) És<e 72. 1 1 keâes efnvoer ceW keânles nQ
2
(c) megjeie (d) hejeie (a) [sÌ{ (b) Skeâ Deewj DeeOee
Ans. (b) : ‘jeie’ Meyo efJeueesce ‘És<e’ neslee nw~ (c) heewves oes (d) {eF&
Meyo efJeueesce
Ans. (a) : 1 1 keâes efnvoer ceW ‘[sÌ{’ keânles nQ~
Deveg®he Øeefle®he 2
Devegjeie efJejeie Debkeâ efnvoer
pebiece mLeeJej 1
66. mJeeOeerve
2 Ì{eF&
2
(a) hejeOeerve (b) DeOeerve 3
(c) ogjeOeerve (d) hejOeerve 1 heewves oes
4
Ans. (a) : ‘mJeeOeerve’ keâe efJeueesce Meyo ‘hejeOeerve’ nesiee~ mJeeOeerve
keâe DeLe& pees efkeâmeer kesâ DeOeerve ve nes~ 1
2 meJee oes
Meyo efJeueesce 4
efveef<eæ efJeefnle 73. YeeF&-yenve ceW -------meceeme nw~
Deuhe%e yeng%e (a) efÉieg (b) ÉbÉ
67. meogheÙeesie (c) keâce&OeejÙe (d) yeng›eerefn
(a) ogjheÙeesie (b) og™heÙeesie Ans. (b) : ‘YeeF&-yenve’ ceW ÉbÉ meceeme nw~ ‘YeeF&-yenve’ meceeme heo
(c) DeheÙeesie (d) GheÙeesie keâe efJe«en ‘YeeF& Deewj yenve’ nesiee~ efpeme meeceeefmekeâ Meyo kesâ oesveeW heo
Ans. (b) : ‘meogheÙeesie’ keâe efJeueesce Meyo ‘og®heÙeesie’ nesiee~ kegâÚ ØeOeeve nesles nQ leLee efJe«en keâjves hej ‘Deewj’, ‘Ùee’, ‘SJeb’ ueielee nw,
DevÙe efJeueesce Meyo– ‘mehevve-efJehevve’, ‘Deuhe%e-yeng%e’, ‘efleefcej- JeneB ÉvÉ meceeme neslee nw~ pewmes– heehe-hegCÙe (heehe Deewj hegCÙe), iebiee-
Deeueeskeâ’ leLee ‘GlLeeve-heleve’~ Ùecegvee (iebiee Deewj Ùecegvee) FlÙeeefo~
68. Dehe&Ce 74. ‘oerJeej’ Meyo ceW ----cee$eeÙeW nQ~
(a) «enCe (b) Devehe&Ce (a) heeBÛe (b) leerve
(c) Deveehe&Ce (d) megheCe& (c) Ûeej (d) oes
Ans. (a) : ‘Dehe&Ce’ keâe efJeueesce Meyo ‘«enCe’ nesiee~ Ans. (a) : ‘oerJeej’ Meyo ceW ‘heeBÛe’ cee$eeÙeW nQ~ cee$ee kesâJeue mJej keâer
Meyo efJeueesce efieveer peeleer nw~ efyevee mJej kesâ keâesF& GÛÛeejCe veneR neslee~ mJej Ùeefo
vÙetve DeefOekeâ ueIeg nw lees cee$ee ‘ueIeg DeLee&le Skeâ’ Deewj Ùeefo oerIe& mJej nw lees cee$ee
Ghekeâej Dehekeâej ‘oerIe& DeLee&led oes’ nesiee~
Glkeâ<e& Dehekeâ<e& pewmes– oerJeej ceW 2 + 2 + 1 DeLee&led kegâue heeBÛe cee$ee~
97 YCT
75. ‘‘nJee ceW yeeles keâjvee’’ cegneJejs keâe DeLe& nw~ Test of Language : English
(a) Deejece keâjvee (b) Deejece ve uesvee
(c) les]pe oew[vee (d) nJee Keevee Directions (Qs. 81– 83): Read the passage and
Ans. (c) : ‘nJee ceW yeeles keâjvee’ cegneJejs keâe DeLe& ‘lespe oew[ Ì vee/yengle answer the question based on it.
lespe oewÌ[vee’ neslee nw~ When I saw that picture of a cottage on top of a
JeekeäÙe ØeÙeesie– yeeyee Yeejleer keâe Iees[Ì e nJee mes yeeles keâjlee Lee~ hill, I was extremely happy. I was young then
and thought that someday I will also have a
76. ‘Keevee’ Meyo keâe ØesjCeeLe&keâ ™he nw place like that to live in, Many years have
(a) efKeuevee (b) efKeueeve passed since and the dream-house is still far
(c) efKeueevee (d) Kesuevee away. In fact it has become rather dull and
Ans. (c) : ‘Keevee’ Meyo keâe ØeLece ØesjCeeLe&keâ ®he ‘efKeueevee’ SJeb faded in the memory. I never talked about it to
efÉleerÙe ØesjCeeLe&keâ ®he ‘efKeueJeevee’ nesiee~ efpeme ef›eâÙee mes Ùen helee anybody, because I was afraid people would
laugh at me. Creative writers should consider
Ûeuelee nw efkeâ keâesF& JÙeefkeäle efkeâmeer keâece keâes Kego ve keâjkesâ efkeâmeer Deewj
themselves lucky if they are able to get food,
mes keâjJee jne nw Ùee efkeâmeer Deewj keâes keâeÙe& keâjves kesâ efueS Øesefjle keâj clothes and some kind of shelter.
jne nw, Gmes ØesjCeeLe&keâ ef›eâÙee keânles nQ~ 81. The cottage became dull in the author's
pewmes– heÌ{vee - heÌ{evee - heÌ{Jeevee memory. The reason being that
77. FveceW mes Megæ JeekeäÙe nw (a) he was getting old
(a) yeÛÛee Deheveer efhelee mes ®heÙes ceeBielee nw~ (b) his sight had become weak
(b) yeÛÛee Deheves efhelee mes ®heÙes ceeBielee nw~ (c) he had started looking for a bigger house
(c) yeÛÛee Dehevee efhelee mes ®heÙes ceeBielee nw~ (d) he had realised that it was out of his reach
(d) yeÛÛee Deheves efhelee ®heÙes ceeBielee nw~ Ans. (d) : The author has had dull and faded memory of
the cottage, reason being that it was beyond his reach.
Ans. (b) : efoS ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘yeÛÛee Deheves efhelee mes ®heÙes The cottage was not affordable to him. Hence option (d)
ceeBielee nw~’ Megæ JeekeäÙe nw~ he had reaslised that it was out of his reach, is correct.
efveoxMe: 78,79,80: efvecveefueefKele ieÅeebMe keâes heÌ{keâj 82. The author was happy to see the picture of a
veerÛes efoÙes ØeMveeW keâe mener Gòej Ûegvekeâj efueefKeS: cottage on a hill-top because
Skeâ ieeBJe keâer meÌ[keâ kesâ yeerÛe ceW Skeâ helLej efieje ngDee Lee~ (a) it was a lovely sight
JeneB mes iegpejvesJeeues keâF& ueesie Gmemes "eskeâj Keekeâj Deeies yeÌ{ (b) It reminded him of his early childhood days
peeles Les~ ceiej Jen helLej keâes nševes keâe efJeÛeej efkeâmeer ves veneR (c) he has spent some time in such cottages in his
efkeâÙee~ Skeâ efove Skeâ yegefÌ{Ùee ves Gmes jemles mes nšeÙee~ Gme past life
yegefÌ{Ùee keâes Gme helLej kesâ veerÛes ieÌ[er Skeâ ie"jer efceueer efpeme ceW (d) he wished to own such a cottage
keâeheâer Oeve Lee~ meeLe ner GmeceW Skeâ efÛeóer Yeer Leer GmeceW efueKee Ans. (d) : The picture of a cottage on a hill-top made
Lee- cesnvele keâe heâue keâYeer JÙeLe& veneR neslee~ author happy because he thought that one day he will
78. ieeBJe kesâ me[keâ kesâ yeerÛe ----efieje ngDee Lee~ have a place like that to live in. Hence option (d) he
wished to own such a cottage, is correct.
(a) hetâue (b) nej
83. Why was the author not able to own a cottage?
(c) helLej (d) Iebše
(a) he had no money to be able to buy one
Ans. (c) : GheÙeg&keäle ieÅeebMe kesâ DeeOeej hej ‘ieeBJe kesâ meÌ[keâ kesâ yeerÛe (b) no such cottage was available
helLej efieje ngDee Lee’~ Dele: efjkeäle mLeeve hej ‘helLej’ Meyo GheÙegòeâ (c) Such cottages are seen only in pictures
nesiee~ (d) they are located too far away from towns
79. jemles ceW iegpejveJeeues ueesie ---peeles Les~ Ans. (a) : The reason behind author's inability to own a
(a) helLej keâes yeerÛe mes nšekeâj cottage is well expressed in option (a) he had no money
(b) helLej mes "eskeâj Keekeâj Deeies to be able to buy one. Because considering those writers
lucky who have availability of food, clothes and some
(c) helLej keâes osKekeâj
kind of shelter reflects that author did not have these
(d) helLej keâes ceejkeâj mentioned things. Hence option (a) is correct.
Ans. (b) : GheÙeg&keäle ieÅeebMe kesâ DeeOeej hej ‘jemles ceW iegpejves Jeeues Direction (Qs. 84 – 86): You are required to
ueesie helLej mes "eskeâj Keekeâj Deeies yeÌ{ peeles Les’~ rearrange the parts labelled P, Q, R and S to
80. yegefÌ{Ùee keâes helLej kesâ veerÛes ---efceueer~ produce the correct sentence. Choose the
(a) ieÌ[er Skeâ OeveJeeueer ie"jer (b) Skeâ meesves keâe nej correct sequence.
(c) Skeâ nerjs keâe nej (d) DeMeeefhe&âÙeeB 84. I have
P : any fragrance
Ans. (a) : GheÙeg&keäle ieÅeebMe kesâ DeeOeej hej ‘yegefÌ{Ùee keâes helLej kesâ Q : and more penetrating
veerÛes ieÌ[er Skeâ OeveJeeueer ie"jer efceueer~ Dele: mener Gòej efJekeâuhe R : never come across
(a) nesiee~ S : that is more beautiful
98 YCT
 (a) PQRS (b) SRQP Ans. (b) : The meaning of the given word Novice is
(c) RQPS (d) RPSQ expressed by option (b) beginner. Novice means a
Ans. (d) : The correct sequence of the sentence after person new to and inexperienced in a job or situation.
being arranged is option (d) RPSQ. Meaning of other options are
Lavish – Spending a large amount of money
85. P : come to have a look at the girl
Close – Near
Q : the party that had
Meagre – Too small in amount.
R : his oldest sister and a lawyer friend of
theirs 91. ACQUITTED
(a) sentenced (b) punished
S : consisted of the boy's parents
(c) freed (d) convicted
(a) QSPR (b) QPSR
(c) QRSP (d) QRPS Ans. (c) : Option (c) freed is nearest in meaning to the
given word 'Acquitted' – (Free someone from a criminal
Ans. (b) : The correct sequence of the sentence after charge by a verdict of not guilty).
being arranged is option (b) QPSR. Meaning of other options are–
86. P : the postman Sentenced – Punishment for a crime by court order
Q : brings letters Punished – To make somebody suffer for
R : relatives and friends wrongdoing.
S : from far off Convicted – Having been declared guilty of a
(a) PQRS (b) PQSR criminal offence by a verdict of a
(c) RSPQ (d) PRQS judge.
Ans. (b) : The correct sequence of the sentence after Direction (Qs. 92 and 93): Choose the word
being arranged is option (b) PQSR. which is most opposite in meaning to the given
word.
Direction : (Qs. 87–89): Identify the error if
92. BROAD
any in (A), (B), (C) part of the sentence. If there
(a) wide (b) stretched
is no error, your answer is (D).
(c) dirty (d) narrow
87. He ought not have (A)/done such a (B)/filthy
Ans. (d) : The opposite word of Broad - (Wide) is
thing(C)./ No error (D)
option (d) Narrow - (of small width).
Ans. (a) : Error lies in Part (a) of the sentence. Ought to Meaning of others words–
is semi-modal verb, which indicates a duty or Wide – Having a specified extent.
obligation. It is used to say what somebody should do. Stretched – To pull something so that it becomes
Correct sentence– He ought to not have done such a longer or wider.
filthy thing. Dirty – Marked with unclean substance.
88. He could succeed (A)/ in catching the ball (B)/ 93. PROMOTE
before it reaches the boundary line (C). / No (a) discourage (b) aid
error (D) (c) elevate (d) raise
Ans. (c) : Error is present in option (c). As the given Ans. (a) : The most opposite word for 'Promote' – (To
sentence is in past tense, instead of 'before it reaches', encourage someone or something), will be option (a)
'before it reached' should be used. discourage – (To stop somebody from doing something)
Correct sentence– He could succeed in catching the Meaning of other words are –
ball before it reached the boundary line. Elevate – To move someone/something to a higher
89. Never once (A)/ I have seen (B)/ such a place or position
beautiful sight (C)./ No error (D) Aid – Help, typically of a practical nature
Raise – Lift or move to a higher level
Ans. (a) : Error lies in part (A) of the sentence. Because
adverb, never is always placed before the main verb. Direction (Qs. 94 and 96): Fill in the blanks
with appropriate alternative.
(Here M.V. is seen) Never once means something that
94. An exhibition ______the new trends in lighting
has never happened.
was held in Bangalore.
Correct sentence (a) on (b) of
I have never once seen such a beautiful sight. (c) into (d) for
Direction (Qs. 90 and 91): Choose the word Ans. (a) : Option (a) 'on' will be the most apposite
which is nearest in meaning to the given word. preposition for being used in the provided blank as it
90. NOVICE gives appropriate meaning to the given sentence.
(a) lavish (b) beginner Correct sentence– An exhibition on the new trends in
(c) close (d) meagre lighting was held in Bangalore.

99 YCT
95. No doubt he has achieved much, but I cannot 102. Pharmacodynamics involves the study of
give him credit for all that he boasts_______ following
(a) for (b) of (a) Mechanisms of drug action
(c) to (d) with (b) Biotransformation of drugs in the organism
Ans. (b) : In the given blank option (b) 'of' will be used. (c) Distribution of drugs in the organism
Because boast is always followed by preposition 'of'. (d) Excretion of drug from the organism
Correct Sentence– No doubt he has achieved much, Ans. (a) : Pharmacodynamics is the study of the
but I cannot give him credit for all that he boasts of. biochemical and physiological effects of drugs and their
mode of action including the correlation of their action
96. Many areas of the city were ______ into and effect with their chemical structure.
darkness for several hours.
103. What does the term "bioavailability" mean ?
(a) spread (b) merged (a) Plasma protein binding degree of substance
(c) plunged (d) deep (b) Permeability through the brain - blood barrier
Ans. (c) : Option (c) Plunged – (To push something (c) Fraction of an unchanged drug reaching the
suddenly into something, fall suddenly), gives sense systemic circulation
and the meaning to given sentence. Rest of the options (d) amount of a substance in urine relative to the
contain following meaning. initial dose
Spread – Extension in surface area Ans. (c) : Bioavailability is defined as the fraction of an
Merged – Combine administered dose that reaches the systemic circulation .
Deep – A long way inside something. If we plot graphs of plasma concentration against time
Correct sentence– Many areas of the city were for the same drug administered intravenously and
Plunged into darkness for several hours. orally. The bioavailability of the oral drug is the ratio of
97. Past participle of "steal" is the area beneath the oral dose curve compared to that
beneath the intravenous dose curve. This is because by
(a) stole (b) stolen definition the bioavailability of a drug administered
(c) stolan (d) steel intravenously is 100 percent.
Ans. (a) : Past Participle of steal is option (a) stole. 104. What is the important characteristic of the
98. "He is speaking". intramuscular route of drug administration ?
The tense of the verb in the above sentence is (a) Only water solutions can be injected
(a) Present indefinite (b) present perfect (b) Oily solutions can be injected
(c) present continuous (d) past perfect (c) Opportunity of hypertonic solution injections
Ans. (c) : The sentence 'He is speaking' belongs to the (d) The action develops slower, than at oral
present continuous tense. administration
Ans. (b) : Intramuscular injection is instilling
99. Name of the kind of gender of "desk" is
medications into the depth of specifically selected
(a) Neuter gender (b) Masculine gender muscles. The bulky muscles have good vascularity and
(c) Feminine gender (d) Common gender therefore the injected drug quickly reaches the systemic
Ans. (a) : Desk is a non living thing. Hence Gender of circulation and there after into the specific region of
Desk is a Neuter Gender. action, by passing the first – pass metabolism.
100. Plural of "ox" is 105. Elimination rate constant (Kelim) is defined by
(a) oxes (b) ox the following parameter
(c) oxen (d) oxus (a) Rate of absorption
(b) Maximal concentration of a substance in
Ans. (c) : Plural of ox is option (c) oxen. plasma
(c) Highest single dose
SECTION-B
 1
(d) Hall life t 
Post Specific Subject- Related Questions  2
 1
101. What does "pharmacokinetics" include ? Ans. (d) : Half life  t  in the given situation to
(a) Pharmacological effects of drugs  2
(b) Unwanted effects of drugs elimination rate constant (Kelim) is defined by the half
(c) Chemical structure of a medicinal agent  1
(d) Distribution of drugs in the organism
life  t  parameter. The half-life of a drug is an
 2
Ans. (d) : Pharmacokinetics is currently defined as the estimate of the time it takes for the concentration or
study of the time course of drug absorption, amount in the body of that drug to be reduced by
distribution, metabolism and excretion. Clinical exactly one-half (50%). The symbol for half life is
pharmacokinetic is the application of pharmacokinetic  1
principles to the safe and effective therapeutic t  .
management of drugs in an individual patient.  2
100 YCT
106. "Affinity" is a measure of duration of anesthesia and is primariry useful for
(a) Drug's binding to plasma proteins surgical and obstetrical procedure lasting less than one
(b) Drug's binding to a receptor hour.
(c) Inhibiting potency of a drug 111. Which of the following local anesthetics is
(d) bioavailability of a drug called a universal anesthetic ?
Ans. (b) : Affinity is the strength of binding of a single (a) Procaine (b) Ropivacaine
molecule to its legand. It is typically measured and (c) Lidocaine (d) Etidocaine
reported by the equilibrium dissociation constant which
is used to evaluate and rank order strengths of Ans. (c) : Lidocaine local anesthetics is called a
bimolecular interactions. universal anesthetics. Lidocaine is a local anesthetic
107. What term is used to describe a more gradual agent commonly used for local and topical anesthesia
decrease in responsiveness to a drug, taken but it also has antiarrhythmic and analgesic uses and
days or weeks to develop ? can be used as an adjunct to tracheal intubation.
(a) Refractoriness (b) Cumulative effect 112. Indicate a reversible cholinesterase inhibitor
(c) Tolerance (d) Tachyphylaxis (a) Isoflurophate (b) Carbochol
(c) Physostigmine (d) Parathion
Ans. (c) : A person may develop tolerance to a drug Ans. (c) : Physostigmine is a highly toxic
when the durg is used repeatedly for instance, when parasympathomimetic alkaloid specifically a reversible
morphine or alcohol is used for a long time, larger and cholinesterase inhibitor. It occurs naturally in the
larger doses must be taken to produce the same effect calabar bean and the fruit of the Machineel tree.
usually, tolerance develops because metabolism of the 113. Parasympathomimentic drugs cause
durg speed up (often because the liver enzyme involved
(a) Bronchodilation (b) Mydriasis
in metabolizing drugs become more active) and because
(c) Bradycardia (d) Constipation
the number of sites (cell receptors) that the drug
attaches to or the strength of the bond (Affinity) b/w. Ans. (c) : Parasympathomimetic agents can exacerbate
The Receptor and drug decreases. symptoms of COPD, asthma and peptic ulcer disease in
Tolerance is not the same as dependence or susceptible individuals, caution is necessary when
addiction. prescribing these drugs to patients with cardiovascular
disease, as they can cause bradycardia and hypotension,
108. Characteristic unwanted reaction which isn't
which may compromise coronary blood flow.
related to a dose or to a pharmacodynamic
property of a drug is called 114. Which of the following direct- acting
(a) Idiosyncrasy (b) Hypersensitivity cholinomimetics has the shortest duration of
(c) Tolerance (d) Teratogenic action action ?
Ans. (b) : Hypersensitivity reactions are exaggerated or (a) Acetylcholine (b) Methacholine
inappropriate immunologic responses occurring in (c) Carbachol (d) Bethanechol
response to an antigen or allergen. Type I, II, and III Ans. (a) : Acetylcholine are the direct acting
hypersensitivity reactions are known as immediate cholinomimetics has the shortest duration of action.
hypersensitivity reactions because they occur within 24 Acetylcholine is an organic compound that functions in
hours of exposure to the antigen or allergen. the brain and body of many types of animals as a
109. Which one of the following groups is neurotransmitter. Its name is derived from its chemical
responsible for the duration of the local structure. It is an ester of acetic acid and choline. Parts
anesthetic action ? in the body that use are effected by acetylcholine are
(a) Intermediate chain (b) Lipophylic group referred to as cholinergic.
(c) Ionizable group (d) All of the above 115. Indicate the skeletal muscle relaxant, which is a
Ans. (a) : Local anesthetics vary in their duration of depolarizing agent
action due primarily to differences in their affinity for (a) Vencuronium (b) Scopolamine
protein. Like most drugs, local anesthetics reversibly (c) Succinylcholine (d) Hexamethonlum
bind to plasmas proteins while circulating in the Ans. (c) : The most well-known depolarizing
bloodstream. Local anesthetics are the most commonly neuromuscular blocking agent is succinylcholine. It is
used pharmaceuticals in dentistry. the only such drug used clinically and is considered by
110. Indicate the local anesthetic, which is used for many the drug of choice for emergency department RSI
spinal anesthesia although this is controversial.
(a) Tetracaine (b) Cocaine 116. Atropine is frequently used prior to
(c) Dibucaine (d) Bupivacaine administration of inhalant anesthetics to
Ans. (a) : Lidocaine, tetracaine and bupivacaine are the reduce
local anesthetic angents most commonly employed for (a) Muscle tone (b) Secretions
spinal anesthesia in the US Lidocaine provides a short (c) Nausea and vomiting (d) Appetite
101 YCT
Ans. (b) : Atropine injection is given before anesthesia Ans. (b) : Terbutaline is used to treat wheezing and
to reduce mucus secretions such as saliva. During shortness of breath from lungs problem. Controlling
anesthesia and surgery atropine is used to help the heart these symptoms can decreases time lost from work or
beat normal. school. Terbutaline belongs to a class of drugs know as
117. Which of the following drugs is useful in the bronchodilators. It works by relaxing the muscle around
treatment of Parkinson's disease ? the airways, so that they open up and you can breath
(a) Benztropine (b) Edrophonium more easily.
(c) Succinylcholine (d) Hexamethonium 122. Indicate the sympathomimetic agent , which is
Ans. (a) : Benztropine drug is useful in the treatment of combined with a local anesthetic to prolong the
Parkinson’s disease. Benztropine is used along with duration of infiltration nerve block
other medications to treat the symptoms of Parkinson’s (a) Epinephrine (b) Zylometazoline
disease and tremors caused by other medical problems (c) Isoproterenol (d) Dobutamine
or medications. Benztropine is in a class of medications Ans. (a) : Local anesthetics reversibly block nerve
called anticholinergics. It works by blocking a certain conduction near their site of administration, thereby
natural substance to help to decrease symptoms in producing temporary loss of sensation in a limited area.
people with Parkinson’s disease. Nerve impulse conduction is blocked by inhibition of
118. Which of the following agents is used as an sodium channels at the nerve ending and along the
inhalation drug in asthma axon.
(a) Atroplne (b) Ipratropium This causes a decrease in nerve cell membrane
(c) Lobeline (d) Homatropine permeability to sodium ions possibly by competing with
Ans. (b) : Ipratropium agents is used as an inhalation calcium- binding sites that control sodium permeability.
drug in asthma. This change in permeability results in decreased
Ipratropium inhaler is used to help control the depolarization and an increased excitability threshold
symptoms of lung diseases such as asthma, chronic that ultimately prevents the nerve action potential from
bronchitis and emphysema. forming.
It is also used to treat air flow blockage and prevent the 123. Indicate the agent of choice in the emergency
worsening of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. therapy of anaphylactic shock
Ipratropium belongs to the family of medicine known as (a) Methoxamine (b) Terbutaline
bronchodilators. (c) Norepinephrine (d) Epinephrine
119. Which is effective in the treatment of Ans. (d) : Epinephrine is the medication of choice for
mushroom poisoning ? the first–aid treatment of anaphylaxis. Through
(a) Pralidoxime (b) Pilocarpine vasoconstrictor effects, It prevents or decreases upper
(c) Neostigmine (d) Atropine airway mucosal edema, hypertension and shock. In
Ans. (d) : Atropine is effective in the treatment of addition, it has important bronchodilator effects and
mushroom poisoning. Most patient poisoning due to chronotropic effects.
mushrooms containing Muscarine can be treated 124. Indicate the adrenoreceptor antagonist drug ,
without medications. If patients exhibit excessive which is a rauwolfia alkaloid
bronchial secretions or other symptoms of cholinergic (a) Prazosin (b) Propranolol
excess that are of significant concern, Atropine may (c) Reserpine (d) Phentolamine
decrase these symptoms. Ans. (c) : Reserpine is an indole alkaloid extracted from
120. Indicate muscles, which are more resistant to rouwolfia serpentine roots. An Indian climbing shrub.
block and recover more rapidly Reserpine has FDA approval since 1955 and is one of
(a) Hand (b) Leg the first agents developed to treat hypertension in
(c) Neck (d) Diaphragm clinical practice.
125. Hypnotic drugs are used to treat
Ans. (d) : Diaphragm muscles are more resistant to (a) Psychosis
block and recover more rapidly. The diaphragm is the (b) Sleep disorders
most highly resistant muscle to NMBAs, as well as the (c) Narcolepsy
first to recover but the occurrence of its dysfunction has (d) Parkinsonian disorders
been emplected in postoperative respiratory failure, Ans. (b) : Hypnotics drugs are substances that increase
specially when mechanical ventilation is prolonged. sleepiness and may cause an individual to sleep or have
121. Which of the following cause bronchodilation a partial loss of consciousness. For this reason,
without significant cardiac stimulation ? hypnotics can be very useful to aid sleep in individuals
that have difficulty sleeping such as those that suffer
(a) Isoprenaline (b) Terbutaline
from insomnia.
(c) Xylometazoline (d) Methoxamine
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126. Which of the following hypnotics is preferred 131. Indicate the drug that induces Parkinsonian
in patients with limited hepatic function ? syndromes
(a) Zolpidem (b) Amobarbital (a) Chlorpromazine (b) Diazepam
(c) Flurozepam (d) pentobarbital (c) Triazolam (d) Carbamazepine
Ans. (a) : Zolpidem hypnotics is preferred in patients Ans. (a) : Parkinsonism as a side effect of
with limited hepatic function. Zolpidem is a fast-acting Chlorpromazine was first reported 3 years after its
medication, which usually begins to make you feel introduction. It was soon recognized that all typical
sleepy within an hour of taking it. It’s considered to be antipsychotics had the Potential to cause Parkinsonisms,
a short – acting hypnotic which means that while it may acute dystonia, and akathisia.
help patients to sleep longer. 132. Which of the following agents is an inhibitor of
127. Which of the following barbiturates is an ultra- aldehyde dehydrogenase ?
short-acting drug ? (a) Fomepizole (b) Ethanol
(a) Secobarbital (b) Amobarbital (c) Disulfiram (d) Naltrexone
(c) Thiopental (d) Phenobarbital Ans. (c) : Disulfiram is an aldehyde dehydrogenase
Ans. (c) : Thiopental barbiturates is an ultra –short – inhibitor that prevents acetaldehyde metabolism and
acting drug. Thiopental also known as increases circulating acetaldehyde levels to produce
sodiumthiopental, sodium pentothal is a rapid – onset symptoms of flushing, dizziness and vomiting if ethanol
short-acting barbiturate general anesthetic. It is the is consumed. This aversion therapy can decrease
thiobarbiturate analog of pentobarbital and analog of ethanol intake.
thiobarbital. Aldehyde dehydrogenase is a polymorphic
128. The most effective drug for stoping enzyme responsible for the oxidation of aldehydes to
generalized tonic-clonic, status epileticus in carboxylic acids which leave the liver and are
adults is metabolized by the body’s muscle and heart.
(a) Lamotrigine (b) Ethosuximide 133. The drug which decreases craving for alcohol
(c) Diazepam (d) Zonisamide or "high" pleasurable effect that comes with
Ans. (c): Diazepam is used to treat anxiety, renewed drinking is
alcohol withdrawal and seizures. It is also used to (a) Disulfiram (b) Amphetamine
relieve muscle spasms and to provide sedation before (c) Naltrexone (d) Diazepam
medical procedure. This medication works by calming Ans. (c) : Naltrexone drug seems to curb the euphoric
the brain and nerves Diazepam belongs to a class of and sedative effects of opiates in the brain. Alcohol is
drugs known as benzodiazepines. . known to activate some of the same receptors in the
129. The most dangerous effect of antiseizure drugs brain that opioids do and studies find that by tempering
after large overdoses is the pleasure from alcohol, naltrexon can help people
(a) Respiratory depression drink less.
(b) Gastrointestinal irritation 134. The combination of disulfiram and ethanol
(c) Alopecia leads to accumulation of
(d) Sedation (a) Formaldehyde (b) Acetate
Ans. (a) : Antiseizure drugs are the drug that are used (c) Formic acid (d) Acetaldehyde
to treat seizures. The seizure is when an electric current Ans. (d) : Acetaldehyde is an organic chemical
suddenly flashes in the brain and results in abnormal compound with the formula CH3CHO. It is a colourless
behavior feeling and even unconsciousness. Seizures liquid or gas, boiling near room temperature. It is one of
ultimately occur in epilepsy. Besides overdose of an
the most important aldehydes occurring widely in
anti seizure drug leads to adverse side effect. It is an
emerging problem for people with frequent medication. nature and being Produced on a large scale in industry.
Anti seizure drug after overdose leads to respiratory 135. Which of the following agents may be used as
depression. an antidote for ethylene glycol and methanol
130. Which of the following neurotransmitters is poisoning
involved in Parkinson's disease ? (a) Apomorphine (b) Fomepizol.
(a) Acetylcholine (b) Glutamate (c) Selegilin (d) amphetamine
(c) Dopamine (d) All of the above Ans. (b) : Fomepizol is used to treat ethylene glycol
Ans. (d) : Parkinson’s disease is a degenerative and methanol poisoning. It acts to inhibit the break
disorder. It affects the nerve cells in different parts of down of these toxins into their active toxic metabolites.
the brain. The important part of the brain which are Fomepizole is a competitive inhibitor of the enzyme
affected in this disease are substantial nigra and basal alcohol dehydrogenase found in the liver.
ganglia. 136. Narcotics analgesics should
Parkinson’s disease can’t be cured, but medication can (a) Relieve severe pain
help control the symptoms often dramatically. (b) Induce loss of sensation
Acetylcholine, Glutamine, dopamine neurotransmitters (c) Reduce anxiety and exert a calming effect
is involved in Parkinson’s disease. (d) Induce a stupor or somnolent state
103 YCT
Ans. (a) : Narcotic Analgesic are a class of medicine 142. Parkinsonian symptoms and tarditive
that are used to provide relief from moderate-to-severe dyskinesia are caused by blockade dopamine in
acute or chronic pain. (a) The nigrostriatal system
Narcotic analgesics are one of the most widely (b) The mesolimbic system
used analgesics for pain relief. (c) The mesofrontal system
Narcotics are also called opioid pain relievers. (d) The tuberoinfundibular system
They are only used for pain that is severe and is not Ans. (a) : Dopamine released from the nigrostriatal
helped by other types of painkillers.
Pathway modulates corticostriatal transmission in
137. Which of the following opioid analgesics is used medium spiny neurons expressing dopamine D1 or D2
in obstetric labor ? receptors, which leads to movement activation or
(a) Fentanyl (b) Pentazocine suppression.
(c) Meperidine (d) Buprenorphine Parkinson’s disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that
Ans. (c) : Intravenous meperidine and inhaled nitrous affects movement. It occurs due to low levels of
oxide have similar, limited intrapartum in multiparous dopamine in the area of the brain that facilitates
patients, pain relief during childbirth is an essential part movement.
of labor and delivery care.
Without sufficient dopamine the brain is unable to
138. Which of the following opioid analgesics is used transmit signals to correctly coordinate movement
in the treatment of acute pulmonary edema ?
(a) Morphine (b) Codeine 143. Which of the following antipsychotic drugs is
(c) Naloxone (d) Loperamide typical ?
(a) Clozapine (b) Quetiapine
Ans. (a) : Morphine has for a long time been used in
patients with acute pulmonary edema due to its (c) Haloperidol (d) Olanzapine
anticipated anxiolytic and vasodilatory properties, Ans. (c) : Haloperidol are the best known typical
however a discussion about the benefits and risks has antipsychotics. They continue to be usefull in the
been raised recently. treatment of severe psychosis and behavioral problems
139. Which of the following non-narcolic agents is when newer medications are ineffective.
salicylic acid derivatve ? Haloperidol is a first – generation (typical)
(a) Phenylbutazone (b) Ketamine antipsychotic that is a commonly used drug worldwide.
(c) Aspirin (d) Tramadol Haloperidol is used to manage positive symptoms of
Ans. (c) : Aspirin also called acetylsalicylic acid schizophrenia such as hallucination and delusion.
derivative of salicylic acid that is a mild non-narcotic 144. Lithium carbonate is useful in the treatment of
analgesic useful in the relief of headache and muscle (a) Petit mal seizures (b) Bipolar disorder
and joint aches. Aspirin is effective in reducing fever, (c) Neurosis (d) Trigeminal neuralgia
inflammation and swelling and thus has been used for Ans. (b) : Lithium carbonate is a prescription medicine
treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, rheumatic fever and used to treat the symptoms of bipolar disorder. Lithium
mild infection. In these instances aspirin generally acts
carbonate may be used alone or with other medications.
on the symptoms of disease and does not modify or
shorter the duration of a disease. Lithium carbonate belongs to a class of drugs
called bipolar disorder agents.
140. Indicate the non-narcotic analgesic, which
lacks an anti-inflammatory effect 145. Which of the following agents is related to
(a) Naloxone (b) Paracetamol tricycle antidepressants ?
(c) Metamizole (d) Ecospirin (a) Nefazodon (b) Amitriptyline
Ans. (b) : Paracetamol is also known as acetaminophen. (c) Fluoxetine (d) Isocarboxazid
It has analgesic and antipyretic activity. Paracetamol Ans. (b): Amitriptylin agents is related to tricyclic
does not posses anti inflammatory activity. Paracetamol antidepressants.
acts by inhibition of cyclo oxygenase medicated Amitriptylin is a tricyclic antidepressant Primarily used
production of prostaglandins. to treat major depressive disorder, a variety of pain
141. Neuroleptics are used to treat syndromes such as neuropathic Pain, fibromyalgia,
(a) Neurosis migraine and tension headaches.
(b) Psychosis 146. The therapeutic response to antidepressant
(c) Narcolepsy drugs is usually over a period of
(d) Parkinsonian disorders (a) 2-3 days (b) 2-3 weeks
Ans. (b) : Neuroleptic also known as antipsychotic (c) 24 hours (d) 2-3 month
medicine. Neuroleptic medications can reduce or relieve Ans. (b) : The therapeutic effect should be expected
symptoms of psychosis such as delusions and within period of 2-3 weeks of initiating therapy, if no
hallucinations. Formerly known as major tranquilizers beneficial effect is observed at 75 mg once daily or if
and neuroleptics, antipsychotic medications are the significant side effects are experienced, the drug should
main class of drugs used to treat people with be discountinued.
schizophrenia. They are also used to treat people with 147. "Crack" is a derivative of
psychosis that occurs in bipolar disorder, depression (a) Opium (b) LSD
and Alzheimer’s disease. (c) Cocaine (d) Cannabis
104 YCT
Ans. (c): Crack cocaine is the rock version of cocaine. Proton pumps are enzyme in the lining of human
A derivative of cocaine which is a powered stomach that help it make acid to digest food.
hydrochloride salt, crack is reated when Pure cocaine is Omeprazole prevents proton pumps working properly
processed into a solid using baking soda and water. It is which reduce that amount of acid the stomach makes.
then broken into chunks and smoked with a crack pipe. 153. Indicate the drug that cause metabolic alkalosis
The name “crack” refers to the cracking sound that (a) Sodium bicarbonate (b) Cimetidine
occurs when these are smoked. (c) Pepto-bismol (d) Carbenoxolone
Cocaine is a highly addictive stimulant drug that is Ans. (a): Metabolic alkalosis may be caused by
made from the dried leaves of the coca plant. consuming excessive amount of certain medications or
148. Which of the following agents is related to suppliments such as sodium bicarbonate.
hallucinogens ? Alkalosis occurs when our blood and body fluids
(a) Morphine (b) LSD contain an excess of bases alkali. Our bloods acid –
(c) Cocaine (d) Opium base balance is critical to our well-being. When the
Ans. (b) : Hallucinogens are a diverse group of drug balance is off, even by a small amount, it can make
that after a person’s awareness of their surrounding as sick.
well as their own thoughts and feelings. 154. The mechanism of stimulant purgatives is
LSD is mind- altering drug. It is thought LSD causes its (a) Increasing the volume of non absorbable solid
characterstic hallucinogenic effects via interaction with residue
the serotonin receptors in the brain. (b) Increasing motility and secretior
149. Which of the following agents is related to (c) Altering the consistency of the feces
cannabis ? (d) Increasing the water content
(a) Heroin (b) Ecstasy
Ans. (b) : They act is hyperosmolar agents, increasing
(c) Hashish (d) Crack
water content of stool and therefore making stool softer
Ans. (c) : Hashish is made from the resin of the and esier to pass, as well as increasing colonic
cannabis plant. It is dried and pressed into small blocks peristalsis, stimulant laxatives act on the intestinal
and smoked. mucosa, increasing water and electrolyte secretion.
It can also be added to food and eaten. The resin is rich They also stimulate peristaltic action.
in THC, The main mind altering ingredient found in the
cannabis Plant. 155. Indicate the drug which increases absorption of
Marijuana also comes from the cannabis plant. It is iron from intestine
made from dried flower and leaves of the plant. (a) Cyanocobalamin (b) Folic acid
Hashigh is a reddish-brown to black colored resinous (c) Ascorbic acid (d) Erythropoetin
material of the cannabis plant. Ans. (c): Ascorbic acid is the only dietary constituent
150. Indicate the anesthetic , which is used other than animal tissue that has been shown to promote
intravenously iron absorption. Iron absorption occurs predominantly
(a) Propofol (b) Halothane in the duodenum and upper jejunum, where ferrous iron
(c) Desflurane (d) Nitrous oxide can be transported into small intestine mucosal
epithelial cells.
Ans. (a): Propofol is an intravenous anesthetic used for
procedural sedation, during monitored anesthesia care 156. An adverse effect of oral iron therapy is
or as an induction agent for general anesthesia. It may (a) Anemia (b) Thrombocytopenia
be administered as a bolus or an infusion or some (c) Headache (d) Constipation
combination of the two. Ans. (d) The most common side effects are
151. Which of the following drugs is proteolysis gastrointestinal such as nausea vomiting, constipation
enzyme ? or diarrhea, flatulence, metallic taste, staining of the
(a) Potassium iodide (b) Deoxiribonuclease teeth, or epigastric distress. Patients may feel
(c) Carbocysteine (d) Acetylcysteine uncomfortable with the change, in stool caliber and
Ans. (b) : Proteolytic enzymes (Aslo termed peptiduses color to green or tarry black.
proteases, de-oxiribonuclease and proteinases) are 157. Pernicious anemia is developed due to
capable of hydrolyzing peptide bonds in proteins. They deficiency of
can be found in all living organism for virus to animals (a) Erythropoetin (b) Vitamin B12
and humans. (c) Iron (d) Vitamin B6
152. Indicate the drug belonging to proton pump Ans. (b) : Pernicious anemia involves autoimmune
inhibitors inflammation in the stomach and the inability to absorb
(a) Pirenzepine (b) Ranitidine vitamin B12 in the small intestine. While vitamin B12
(c) Omeprazole (d) Trimethaphan defficiency anemia may be caused by a lack of vitamin
Ans. (c) : Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor. It B12 in the diet.
works by decreasing the amount of acid produced by Pernicious anemia is caused by an inability to absorb
the stomach. vitamin B12 .

105 YCT
158. Pick out the drug belonging to anticoagulants 163. Which drug is used in treating
of direct action supraventricular tachycardia's ?
(a) Aspirin (b) Heparin (a) Digoxin (b) Dobutamine
(c) Dicumarol (d) Phenprocoumon (c) Amrinone (d) Dopamine
Ans. (b) : Heparin is in a class of medications called Ans. (a) : Amiodarone is the drug of choice. If digoxin
anticoagulants. It works by decreasing the clotting and propranolol in combination fails to reduce the rate
ability of the blood. below 150 bpm. Flecainide and propafenane can slow
Heparin is used to prevent blood clots from forming in the tachycardia rate where as verapamil causes an
people who have certain medical conditions or who are acceleration.
undergoing certain medical procedure that increase the 164. Duration of nitroglycerin action (sublingual) is
chance that clots will form. (a) 10-30 minutes (b) 6-8 hours
Heparin is also used in small amounts to Prevent blood (c) 3-5 minutes (d) 1.5-2 hours
clots from forming in catheters that are left in being Ans. (a) : Nitroglycerin sublingual tablet are used to
over a period of time. treat episode of angina (Chest pain) in people who have
159. Which of the following drugs belongs to coronary artery disease.
coumarone derivatives ? It is also used just before activities that may cause
(a) Clopidogrel (b) Enoxaparin cpisode of angina in order to prevent the angina from
(c) Dalteparin (d) Warfarin occurring.
Ans. (d) : Coumarin derivatives such as warfarin, Nitroglycerin is in a class of medications called
acenocoumarol and phenprocoumon are frequently vasodilators. It works by relaxing the blood vessels so
the heart does not need to work as hard and therefore
prescribed oral anticoagulants to treat and prevent
does not need as much oxygen.
thromboembolism.
Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant commonly used to 165. Which of the following antianginal agents is a
treat and prevent blood clots. calcium channel blocker ?
The main side effect of warfarin is bleeding. If we (a) Nitroglycerin (b) Dipyridamole
taking warfarin we may have trouble stoping the (c) Minoxidil (d) Nifedipine
bleeding from a cut of the hand or a nosebleed. Ans. (d) : The calcium channel blocking drugs
160. Which drug is a selective beta-1 agonist ? nifedipine, verapamil and diltiazem are an important
adjunct to treatment of typical excertional angina and
(a) Digoxin (b) Dobutamine
are the treatment of choice for angina due to coronary
(c) Amrinone (d) Dopamine artery spasm.
Ans. (b) : Dobutamine drug is a selective beta-1 166. This drug reduces blood pressure by acting on
agonist. Dobutamine is a medication used in the ICU to vasomotor centers in the CNS
manage low blood pressure. While the drug is safe its (a) Labetalol (b) Clonidine
use requires close monitoring as it has the potential to (c) Enalapril (d) Nifedipine
raise blood Pressure and cause arrhythmia.
Ans. (b) : In the anterior hypothalamus clonidine,
161. Drugs most commonly used in chronic heart acting as an alpha agonist excites a pathway that
failure are inhibits excitatory cardiovascular neurons. Thus the
(a) Cardiac glycosides effect of neurons from the nucleus tractus solitary in
(b) Diuretics inhibiting sympathetic outflow from the vasomotor
(c) Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors center is effectively increased.
(d) All the above 167. Pick out the drug–an alpha and beta
Ans. (d) : A Condition in which the heart has trouble adrenoreceptors blocker
pumping blood through the body. It may develop over a (a) Labetalol (b) Verapamil
long period of time. Chronic heart failure may be (c) Nifedipine (d) Metoprolol
caused by coronary artery disease, a heart attack, or Ans. (a) : Labetalol is used to treat high blood pressure.
high blood pressure. Labetalol is in a class of medications called alpha and
It usually occurs in people aged 65 years or beta blockers. It works by relaxing blood vessels and
older. slowing heart rate to improve blood flow and decrease
162. Which drug is a Class II antiarrhythmic drug ? blood pressure.
(a) Flecainide (b) Propranolol 168. Which drug is a directly acting vasodilator ?
(c) Lidocaine (d) Verapamil (a) Labetalol (b) Clonidine
Ans. (b) : Propranolol is a beta-blocker Beta blockers (c) Enalapril (d) Nifedipine
affect the heart and circulation (blood flow through Ans. (d) : Nifedipine reduces blood pressure
arteries and veins) propranolol is used to treat tremors. predominantly by reducing systemic vascular resistance
Angina (Chest pain), hypertension (high blood due to a direct vasodilating acting on the arterioles. This
pressure) Heart rhythm disorders, and other heart or peripheral vasodilation appears greater the more severe
circulatory condition. the hypertension.

106 YCT
169. Identify the diuretic agent which is having a (c) Triiodothyronine
potent and rapid effect (d) Thyroglobulin
(a) Furosemide (b) Spironolactone Ans. (c) : Triiodothyronine harmone is Produced by the
(c) Dichiothiazide (d) Indapamide thyroid gland. Triiodothyronine also known as T3 .
Ans. (a) : Furosemide is a loop diuretic medication Triiodothyronine is a thyroid hormone. It affects
used to treat fluid build-up due to heart failure, liver almost every growth and development, metabolism,
scarring or kidney disease. It had many trade names body temperature and heart rate.
including uremide, Lasix, Discoid and Furosemide.
175. Which of the following oral hypoglycaemic
Furosemide may also be used for the treatment of high
drugs stimulates both synthesis and release of
blood pressure.
insulin from beta islet cells?
170. Choose the positive inotropic drug of non- (a) Glibenclamide (b) Phenformin
glycoside structure (c) Butormine (d) Metformin
(a) Digitoxin (b) Digoxin
(c) Dobutamine (d) Strophanthin Ans. (a) : Glibenclamide also known as glyburide, is an
antidiabetic medication used to treat type 2 diabetes. It
Ans. (c) : Inotropes are a type of drug that can help
is recommended that it be taken together with diet and
patients with a number of heart problems. They can
help our heart muscles contract with more or less exercise. It may be used with other antidiabetic
power, depending on what’s needed. medication. It is not recommended for use by itself in
Positive inotropes can help with cardiogenic shock type 1 diabetes. It is taken by mouth.
and a slow heart rate. 176. Which of the following glucocorticoids is a
Negative inotropes can help with high blood long-acting drug ?
pressure and chest pain. (a) Prednisolon (b) Dexamethasone
171. The following Ergot derivative is used for (c) Triamcinolone (d) All of the above
treatment of acute migraine attack Ans. (b) : Dexamethasone is a glucocorticoid
(a) Paracetamol (b) Sumatriptan medication used to treat rheumatic problems, severe
(c) Ergotamine (d) Metoclopramide allergies,brain swelling, eye pain and along with
Ans. (c) : Ergotamine belongs to the group of medicine antibiotics in tuberculosis. In adrenocortical
known as ergot alkaloids. They are used to treat severe, insufficiency it may be used in combination with a
throbbing headaches, cluster headaches and acute mineralocorticoid medication such as fludrocortisone.
migraine attack. Ergotamine are not ordinary pain In preterm labor it may be used to improve outcomes in
relievers. the baby.
Ergotamine is a secondary metabolite and the 177. Which of histamine H1 antagonists is noted for
principle alkaloid produced by the ergot fungus. the serotonin-blocking effect ?
172. Select an endocrine drug which is a steroidal (a) Brompheniramine (b) Cyproheptadine
derivative (c) Suprastine (d) Dimedrol
(a) Gonadorelin (b) Insulin
Ans. (b) : Cyproheptadine is an H1 blocking
(c) Levothyroxine (d) Hydrocortisone
antihistamine, but it also has serotonin receptor
Ans. (d) : Hydrocortisone is a steroid (corticosteroid) blocking activity.
medicine. It works by calming down our body’s Specifically it acts to block 5-HT1A and 5-HT2A
immune response to reduce pain, itching and swelling.
receptors which are the receptors responsible for the
It can also be used as hormone replacement for people
symptoms of serotonin syndrome.
who do not have enough of the natural stress hormone
cortisol. 178. The indication for interferon alpha
administration is
173. Indications of vasopressin are following :
(a) Hepatitis C virus infection
(a) Diabetes mellitus
(b) Kaposi's sarcoma
(b) Hypertension
(c) Condyloma
(c) Pituitary diabetes insipidus
(d) All of the above
(d) Incompleted abortion
Ans. (c) : Pituitary diabetes insipidus are indication of Ans. (d) : Alpha interferon is a cytokine produced by
vasopressin.Vasopressin decreases water excretion by the innate immune system in response to environmental
the kidneys by increasing water reabsorption in the exposures including viral infections. Alpha interferon in
collecting ducts, hence its other name of antidiuretic various formulation has been developed as therapy. Of
hormone. Vasopressin also has a potent constricting several forms of cancer and viral infections, but its
effect on arterioles throughout the body. major use has been as Therapy of chronic hepatic C
174. Which of the following hormones is produced virus infection.
by the thyroid gland ? 179. Select a fat-soluble vitamin
(a) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (a) Ascorbic acid (b) Tocopherol
(b) Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (c) Tocopherol (d) Riboflavin
107 YCT
Ans. (b) : Vitamin E also known as tocopherol. (a) Allopurinol (b) Sulfinpyrazone
Vitamin E is a fat soluble vitamin. Vitamin E is a group (c) Colchicine (d) Indomethacin
of eight fat soluble compounds that include four Ans. (a) : Allopurinol is used to treat gout and also
tocopherols and four tocotrienols. Vitamin E deficiency used to Prevent increased uric acid levels in patients
which is rare and usually due to an underlying problem receiving cancer chemotherapy. These patients can have
with digestion dietary fat rather than from a diet low in increased uric acid levels due to release of uric acid
vitamin E can cause nerve Problems. Vitamin E also from the dying cancer cells. Allopurinol works by
known as beauty vitamin. reducing the amount of uric acid made by the body.
180. Dermatitis, diarrhea and dementia are Increased uric acid level can cause gout and kidney
characteristics of problems.
(a) Dry beriberi 185. Side effect of calcitonin is
(b) Pyridoxine deficiency (a) Hypercalcemia
(c) Scurvy (b) Metastatic calcifications
(d) Pellagra (c) Tetany
Ans. (d) : Pellagra is defined by the systemic disease (d) Gl toxicity
resulting from niacin deficiency and it is characterized Ans. (c) :Tetany is side effect of calcitonin.
by diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia and death which Tetany is a symptom that involves involuntary muscle
usually appear in this order. GI tract symptoms always contractions and overly stimulated Peripheral nerves.
Precede dermatitis or according to Rille Pellagra begins It’s caused by electrolyte imbalance, most often low
in the stomach. blood calcium levels.
181. Loosening of teeth, gingivitis and hemorrhage 186. Recommended fluoride daily allowance is
occur in the deficiency of (a) 1.5-4 mg (b) 600-900 g
(a) Vitamin K (b) Vitamin B1 (c) 25 g (d) 350-400 mg
(c) Vitamin B6 (d) Vitamin C
Ans. (d) : Vitamin C Also known as ascorbic acid. Ans. (a) :Recommended fluoride daily allowance is
Vitamin C is a water soluble vitamin found in citrus and 1.5-4g .
other fruits and vegetables.
Fluoride is commonly used in dentistry to strengthen
Vitamin C is needed for the growth and repair of tissue
enamel which is the outer layer of our teeth. Fluoride
in all parts of our body. Loosening of teeth, gingivitis
helps to Prevent cavities. It is also added to small
and hemorrhage occur in the deficiency of vitamin C.
amounts to public water supplies in the United states
182. Which of the following enzymes has fibrinolytic and many other countries.
activity ?
187. The drug acts in the distal convoluted tubule
(a) Pepsin (b) Urokinase
(a) Loop diuretics
(c) L-asparaginase (d) Lydaze
(b) Thiazide diuretics
Ans. (b) : Urokinase is an endogenous activator, which (c) Potassium - sparing diuretics
is produced by kidney cells and can be recovered from
(d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
urine. It directly activates plasminogen and is now
manufactured with use of recombinant DNA Ans. (b) : Thiazide diuretics are a type of diuretic. They
technology. Fibrinolytic enzyme are involved in the act directly on the kidneys and promote diuresis by
degradation of fibrin clots, by either catalyzing fibrin inhibiting the sodium/chloride contransporter located in
degradation process or by transforming the inactive the distal convulated tubule of a nephron. Thiazides
plasminogen, thus re- establishing the normal blood also work in other ways to lower blood pressure.
vascular structure. 188. The drug is usually given in combination with a
183. This drug both inhibits an enzyme and thiazide diuretic
indirectly enhances clearance of low density (a) Acetazolamide (Diamox)
lipoproteins (LDL) (b) Furosemide (Lasix)
(a) Cholestyramine (b) Lovastatin (c) Hydrochiorothiazide (Hydrodiuril)
(c) Nicotinic acid (d) probucol (d) Amiloride (Midamor)
Ans. (b) : Lovastatin is in a class of medications called Ans. (d) : Amiloride drug is used with other diuretics
HMG CoA reductase inhibitors. It works by slowing the (such as thiazide diuretics) to treat high blood pressure,
Production of cholesterol in the body to decrease the heart failure or extra fluid in the body (edema).
amount of cholesterol that may build up on the walls of Amiloride also helps to treat or prevent low blood
the arteries and block blood flow to the heart, brain and Potassium levels caused by the other diuretics.
other parts of the body. 189. Identify the drug belonging to antibiotics -
184. Which of the following drugs used in the tetracyclines
treatment of gout has as its primary effect the (a) Doxycycline (b) Streptomycin
reduction of uric acid synthesis ? (c) Clarithromycin (d) Amoxacillin
108 YCT
Ans. (a) : Doxycycline is a tetracycline antibiotic that 195. The drug used for malaria chemoprophylaxis
inhibits bacterial growth and is thought to have anti- and treatment
inflammatory effects. Doxycycline is used to treat many (a) Chloroquine (b) Quinidine
different bacterial infections including acne, urinary and (c) Quinine (d) Sulfonamides
respiratory tract infections, eye infection and syphilis. Ans. (a) : Chloroquine is used to prevent and treat
It can also be used prevent malaria and treat infections malaria. It is also used to treat liver infection caused by
caused by mites, tics or lice. protozoa.
190. Antibiotic inhibiting bacterial RNA synthesis is Chloroquine Phosphate is in a class of drugs called
(a) Erythromycin (b) Rifampin antimalarials and amoebicides. It works by killing the
(c) Chloramphenicol (d) Imipinem organisms that cause malaria and amoebiasis.
Ans. (b) : Rifampin is a Medication used in the Chloroquine also known as chloroquine phosphate.
management and treatment of various mycobacterial 196. Choose the drug used for amoebiasis treatment
and gram positive bacterial infection. It belongs to the (a) Nitrofurantoin (b) lodoquinol
antimicrobial class of drug. (c) Pyrazinamide (d) mefloquine
191. Choose the drug belonging to antibiotics - Ans. (b) : Iodoquinol belongs to the group of medicines
aminoglycosides called antiprotozoals. These medicines are used to treat
(a) Erythromtycin (b) Gentamycin infections caused by protozoa. Iodoquinol is used most
(c) Vancomycin (d) Polymyxin often in the treatment of an intestinal infection called
Ans. (b) : Gentamycin is an antibiotic used to treat amoebiasis.
several types of bacterial infections. This may include 197. The drug, inhibiting viral DNA synthesis
bone infections, endocarditis, pelvic inflammatory
(a) Interferon (b) saquinavir
disease, meningitis, pneumonia and sepsis among
(c) Amantadine (d) Acyclovir
others. It is not effective for gonorrhea or Chlamydia
infections. Ans. (d) :Acyclovir is in a class of antiviral medications
192. Which of the following drugs is used for called synthetic nucleoside analogues. It works by
candidiasis treatment ? stopping the spread of the herpes virus in the body.
(a) griseofulvin (b) Nitrofungin Acyclovir inhibits viral DNA synthesis.
(c) Myconazol (d) Streptomycin 198. The drug used for influenza A prevention
Ans. (c) : Myconazol is an antifungal medicine. It is (a) Acyclovir (b) Rimantadine
used to treat certain kinds of fungal or yeast infections (c) Saquinavir (d) Foscamet
of the skin. Ans. (b) : Rimantadine is used to prevent and treat
It works by stopping the growth of fungi that cause infection caused by influenza A virus. The mechanism
infection. Myconazol medicine also used to treat of action of these drugs involves inhibiting the
vaginal thrush and fungal infections in other parts of the uncoating of viral RNA in infected cells and thus
body. effectively preventing viral replication.
193. Mechanism of Streptomycin action is through 199. Choose the anticancer drug, a pyrimidine
inhibition of antagonist
(a) Cell wall synthesis (a) Fluorouracil (b) Mercaptopurine
(b) Protein synthesis (c) Thioguanine (d) Methotrexate
(c) RNA and DNA synthesis Ans. (a) : Fluorouracil is also known as FU or 5 FU and
(d) Cell membranes permeability is one of the most commonly used drug to treat cancer.
Ans. (b) :Streptomycin is an aminocyclitol glycoside It is most often used in combination with other cancer
antibiotic, which interferes with prokaryotic Protein drugs to treat many types of cancer including breast
synthesis by interacting with the ribosomal RNA. We cancer, head and neck cancers.
report here that streptomycin is also able to inhibit self 200. Enzyme drug used for acute leukemia
splicing of the group I intron of the thymidylate treatment
synthase gene of phage T4 . (a) Dihydrofolate reductase
194. The drug of choice for syphilis treatment is (b) Asparaginase
(a) Gentamycin (b) Penicillin (c) Aromatase
(c) Chloramphenicol (d) Doxycycline (d) DNA gyrase
Ans. (b) : Penicillin is the drug of choice in primary Ans. (a) : Dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR) is an
and secondary syphilis. enzyme that reduces dihydrofolic acid to tetrahydrofolic
Penicillin is an antibiotic. It is used to treat infections acid. DHFR is a target molecule of methotrexate. It
caused by bacteria. It does not work on viral infections inhibits DHFR's folate producing capacity and this in
Penicillin can be made from the fungus Penicillium turn stops DNA synthesis and therefore replication of
notatum or Penicillium chrysogenum. cancer cells reduced.
109 YCT
 PRACTICE SET - 1
10. Who predicted 'nuclear technology is going to
SECTION-A be very essential and not just in the power
sector but for other societal uses intended for
General Awareness betterment of life?
(a) JC Bose (b) Homi J Bhabha
1. Shogatsu is a newyear celebration in which of (c) Sir CV Raman (d) APJ Abdul Kalam
the following country? 11. Which of the following goals does NASA hope
(a) France (b) Japan to achieve by launching the Helio Swarm
(c) New Zealand (d) Brazil research mission?
2. Who among the following was selected for (a) Improving the understanding of the dynamics
'Guru Gopinath Desiya Natya Purashkaram, of the Sun
2019' by the State Government of Kerala for (b) Understanding the intense seasonal episodes
popularizing Sattriya – the Indian classical of Pluto
dance form of Assam? (c) Improving the understanding of MARS
(a) Tankeswar Hazarika Borbayan (d) Improving the understanding of Ionosphere
(b) Haricharan Bhuyan Borbayan 12. .......... is a well known constellation that can be
(c) Ramkrishna Talukdar seen in the evening. This constellation is also
(d) Indira P.P. Bora known as 'the Hunter'.
3. Where in India, would you find rock painting (a) Cassiopeia (b) Draco
dating back to the Stone Age? (c) Orion (d) Ursa Major
(a) Nalanda (b) Bhimbetka 13. Which multiplier theory states that the
(c) Elephanta (d) Bagh Caves economy will flourish the more the government
4. What is the correct chronological order of the spends?
rulers given below? (a) Earning Multiplier
(1) Taimur (2) Mahmud Ghazni (b) Keynesian Multiplier
(3) Genghis Khan (4) Muhammad Ghori (c) Investment Multiplier
(a) 2, 4, 1, 3 (b) 2, 3, 3, 1 (d) Fiscal Multiplier
(c) 2, 4, 3, 1 (d) 4, 2, 3, 1 14. Which of the following economic activities falls
under the primary sector?
5. Which battle was the decisive victory of the
(a) Mining (b) Education
British East India Company over the Nawab of
(c) Banking (d) Manufacturing
Bengal on 23 June 1757?
15. The commercial unit of electrical energy is
(a) Battle of Saragarhi (b) Battle of Buxar .........
(c) Battle of Plassey (d) Battle of Imphal (a) Watt (b) Calorie
6. Who among the following is the Supreme (c) Kilowatt hour (d) Joule
Commander of the Indian armed forces? 16. A 'light year' is a unit that is use to measure:
(a) President (b) Speaker of Lok Sabha (a) Time (b) Distance
(c) Prime Minister (d) Defence Minister (c) Motion (d) Speed
7. Under one of the provisions of Article 89 of the 17. Which of the following statements is not
Indian Constitution, who shall be the ex-officio correct with respect to substance?
Chairman of the Council of States ? (a) There is no attraction force between
(a) The Vice-President of India particles of matter.
(b) The president of India (b) Particles of matter move continuously in
(c) The Union Minister of Parliamentary Affairs fluid and air.
(d) The senior most member of the Council of States (c) Matter is made up of particles.
8. Which of the following is the feature of the (d) There is a inter molecular space between
Constitution of the United Kingdom? particles of matter.
(a) Single citizenship 18. The mixture can be ……… in nature?
(b) Fundamental duties (a) Homogeneous
(c) Concurrent list (b) Heterogeneous
(d) Directive principles of state policy (c) Both homogeneous and heterogeneous
9. Article _____ of the Constitution of India has a (d) Pure substance
provision that mandates the reservation of 19. Who introduced binomial nomenclature?
seats for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled (a) Claude Louis Berthollet
Tribes in the House of the People. (b) John Dalton
(a) 335 (b) 332 (c) Dmitri Mendeleev
(c) 330 (d) 46 (d) Carolus Linnaeus
110 YCT
20. Which cell organelle is known as the ‘suicide 29. heeJekeâ efkeâmekeâe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer nw?
bags of a cell’? (a) Deefive (b) metÙe&
(a) Lysosome (b) Nucleus
(c) Mitochondria (d) Centrosome (c) ØekeâeMe (d) JeeÙeg
30. ‘ØekeâeMe’ keâe efJeueesce nw-
Test of Language : Hindi (a) DebOesje (b) DeBefOeÙeeje
21. ØeÙegòeâ MeyoeW ceW mes keâewve-mee Meyo SkeâJeÛeve veneR nw? (c) lece (d) DebOekeâej
(a) melÙe (b) oMe&ve 31. JeCeeX kesâ mecegoeÙe keâes keäÙee keânles nQ?
(c) JÙeLee (d) Je<ee& (a) JeCe&ceeuee (b) meJe&veece
22. Yetlekeâeue kesâ ........... Yeso nesles nQ~ (c) De#ej (d) ef›eâÙee
(a) 4 (b) 2 32. efJejece-efÛendve keâer Âef° mes keâewve-mee JeekeäÙe DeMegæ nw?
(c) 8 (d) 6
23. FveceW mes keâewve-mee hegefuuebie Meyo Œeerefuebie Meyo ceW ØelÙeÙe (a) veneR keâue ceQ legcnejs Iej veneR Dee meketBâiee~
ueieeves mes yevee nw? (b) ceQ keäÙee keânlee?
(a) ceoe&vee (b) yegÌ{ehee (c) YesÌ[e (d) efJeOegj (c) cenkeâ, jeefieveer, MJeslee, Deeefo Yeer DeeF& nQ; Ùes meye Deye
ieevee ieeSBieer~
meceÙe keâe Deeoj keâjvee ner Gmekeâe meogheÙeesie keâjvee nw~ pees (d) Gmeves hetÚe, ‘legce keâneB Les’?
JÙeefòeâ meceÙe keâer mener keâercele peeve ueslee nw, Jener peerJeve ceW
33. efvecveefueefKele ceW mes keâewve–mee Meyo Megæ nw?
meheâuelee Øeehle keâj heelee nw~ Ùen Oeve mes Yeer DeefOekeâ cenlJehetCe&
(a) Debievee (b) Ûeebo
nw~ Oeve Keesves hej Jeeheme heeÙee pee mekeâlee nw hejvleg yeerlee ngDee
meceÙe veneR ueewšeÙee pee mekeâlee nw~ Úe$eeW kesâ peerJeve ceW Fmekeâe (c) DeebKe (d) DeBkeâ
DeefOekeâ cenòJe nw~ pees Úe$e Fme Gceü ceW meceÙe keâer keâõ keâjvee 34. efvecveefueefKele efJekeâuheeW ceW mes efkeâme efJekeâuhe ceW meYeer
meerKe peeles nQ, Jen YeefJe<Ùe ceW lejkeäkeâer keâer TBÛeeF&ÙeeW keâes Út uesles Meyo JÙeefkeäleJeeÛekeâ meb%eeSB nQ?
nQ~ ÛeeCekeäÙe, ieeBOeer peer, DeMeeskeâ Deeefo ves meceÙe keâe meogheÙeesie (a) jece, jeceÛeefjleceeveme, iebiee
keâj Deheves hewjeW kesâ efveMeeve ÚesÌ[ efoS~ peerJeve keâe ØelÙeskeâ #eCe (b) ke=â<Ce, keâeceeÙeveer, efce"eme
YeefJe<Ùe keâe efvecee&lee nw~ pees ueesie Fmekesâ cenòJe keâes veneR mecePe (c) ueKeveT, Deece, yegÌ{ehee
heeles, Jes kesâJeue neLe ceueles jn peeles nQ~ nce Ûeens efJeßeece keâj ueW (d) cecelee, Jekeâerue, hegmlekeâ
hejbleg meceÙe keâYeer efJeßeece veneR keâjlee~ meceÙe kesâ Øeefle mepeielee 35. pees meJe&veece Meyo Jeòeâe, ßeeslee DeLeJee efkeâmeer DevÙe
ceeveJe peerJeve kesâ efueS GheÙeesieer nw~ Dele: Úe$eeW keâes meceÙe keâer JÙeefòeâ kesâ efueS ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peelee nw Gmes keäÙee keânles nQ?
keâercele henÛeevekeâj Fmekeâe meeLe&keâ GheÙeesie keâjvee ÛeeefnS~ (a) mebyebOeJeeÛekeâ meJe&veece (b) heg®<eJeeÛekeâ meJe&veece
24. ‘meceÙe keâe meogheÙeesie’ keâe keäÙee DeLe& nw? (c) DeefveMÛeÙeJeeÛekeâ meJe&veece (d) efvepeJeeÛekeâ meJe&veece
(a) Gmekeâes mebYeeuekeâj jKevee (b) Gmes JÙeLe& ve keâjvee 36. ‘keâC"’ keâe efJeMes<eCe nesiee
(c) Gmekeâe Deveeoj keâjvee (d) Gmes JÙeLe& keâjvee (a) keâC"er (b) keâe"er
25. Úe$eeW kesâ efueS meceÙe keâe meogheÙeesie DeefOekeâ DeeJeMÙekeâ (c) keâC"keâ (d) keâC"dÙe
keäÙeeW nw? 37. efvecveefueefKele ceW mes efkeâme JeekeäÙe ceW mekeâce&keâ ef›eâÙee nw?
(a) pees Fmekeâer cenòee mecePeles nw Jen meheâue nesles nw~ (a) jece oew[ Ì e (b) ceQ ®keâ ieÙee
(b) meogheÙeesie keâjves mes meoe efJeheâue nesles nQ~ (c) Gmeves keâej yesÛe oer (d) efKeueewvee štš ieÙee
(c) keâYeer Yeer meheâue veneR nesles nQ~ 38. ‘ceQ JeneB neskeâj DeeÙee ntB~’– JeekeäÙe ceW DeJÙeÙe Meyo keâewve
(d) meoe heerÚs jnles nQ~ mee nw?
26. meceÙe Oeve mes DeefOekeâ cenlJehetCe& keäÙeeW nw? (a) ceQ (b) JeneB
(a) meceÙe Jeeheme efceue peeSiee hej Oeve veneR~
(c) neskeâj (d) nBt
(b) yengle cesnvele mes efceuelee nw~
39. efnvoer ceW ‘ves’ hejmeie& keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâme efmLeefle ceW efkeâÙee
(c) Oeve Jeeheme efceue peeSiee hej meceÙe veneR~
peelee nw?
(d) meceÙe veneR efceuelee~
27. efvecve ceW mes keâewve-mee efJekeâuhe mepeielee keâe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer (a) keâòee& kesâ meeLe meowJe
veneR nw? (b) Yetlekeâeue ceW mekeâce&keâ ef›eâÙee kesâ jnves hej keâòee& kesâ meeLe~
(a) Øeceeo (b) meleke&âlee (c) YeefJe<Ùekeâeue kesâ keâòee& kesâ meeLe
(c) nesefMeÙeejer (d) ÛeewkeâVeeheve (d) Jele&ceeve keâeue keâer ef›eâÙee Deewj keâòee& kesâ nesves hej~
28. Fme DevegÛÚso keâe meyemes GheÙegòeâ Meer<e&keâ yeleeSB~ 40. keâewve-mee Meyo leodYeJe nw?
(a) peerJeve Deewj meceÙe (b) Úe$e peerJeve Deewj meceÙe (a) Deemeje (b) Deóeefuekeâe
(c) Úe$e peerJeve (d) meceÙe keâe DevegheÙeesie (c) ke=âhee (d) Ûe›eâ

111 YCT
 Test of Language : English (a) has disturb (b) are disturbing
(c) is disturbed (d) disturbs
41. Select the most appropriate synonym of the 50. Identify the segment in the sentence, which
given word.
contains the grammatical error.
Absolve
(a) Condemn (b) Attack The author's new novel, which is about social
(c) Pardon (d) Accuse change, will launched soon.
42. Select the most appropriate antonym of the (a) The author’s new novel
given word. (b) will launched soon
AFFINITY (c) which is
(a) Aversion (b) Weakness (d) about social change
(c) Inclination (d) Attraction 51. Select the most appropriate option to substitue
43. Select the option that can be used as a one- the underlined segment in the given sentence. If
word substitute for the given group of words. there is no need to substitute it, select 'No
The branch of physics concerned with the substitution'.
properties of sound If he doesn't reach the station, in time, he
(a) Optics (b) Photonics would sure miss the train.
(c) Mechanics (d) Acoustics (a) would surely miss (b) No substitution
44. Select the most appropriate meaning of the
given idiom. (c) will sure missing (d) will surely miss
To add insult to injury 52. Select the most appropriate option to substitute
(a) to make fun of someone the underlined segment in the given sentence. If
(b) to work hard on making up there is no need to substitute it, select 'No
(c) to make something worse substitution'.
(d) to wound physically Neither the parents nor the child were happy
45. The following sentence has been divided into about the result.
parts. One of them may contain an error. Select (a) were happy with (b) was happy with
the part that contains the error from the given (c) No substitution (d) was happy for
options. If you don't find any error, mark 'No 53. Select the most appropriate option to substitute
error' as your answer. the underlined segment in the given sentence. If
A probe has been ordered/ by the incident/ that there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No
occurred at the celebrations.
substitution required’.
(a) A probe has been ordered
(b) that occurred at the celebrations Had I a rich person, I would share my wealth.
(c) by the incident (a) were I (b) No substitution required
(d) No error (c) I am (d) Had I been
46. The following sentence has been split into four 54. Select the most appropriate option to substitute
segments. Identify the segment which contains the underlined segment in the given sentence. If
a grammatical error. there is no need to substitute it, select 'No
Until I was/still a little weak, /I decided to walk substitution'.
home/from the metro station. You have locked the gate, isn't it?
(a) still a little weak (a) haven't you (b) did you
(b) I decided to walk home (c) No substitution (d) have you
(c) from the metro station 55. Selection the most appropriate option to
(d) Until I was substitute the underlined segment in the given
47. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the
sentence. If there is no need to substitute it,
blank :
select 'No substitution'.
The children's Series .......... recommended for
young readers. Clearing the entrance examination for
(a) have (b) is universities abroad was the biggest challenge of
(c) are (d) has my life.
48. Fill in the blank with the most appropriate (a) had been the big (b) is the bigger
word. (c) has been bigger (d) No substitution
Second-hand furniture __________ here at Comprehension:
reasonable prices. Read the given passage and answer the
(a) were selling (b) are sold questions that follow.
(c) is sold (d) has sold Plato is the earliest important educational thinker,
49. Fill in the blank with the most appropriate and education is an essential element in ‘The
word. Republic’ (his most important work on philosophy
This is one of the matters that ______ me the and political theory, written around 360B.C.). In
most. it, he advocates some rather extreme methods:
112 YCT
 removing children from their mothers' care and Arithmetical and Numerical ability
raising them as wards of the state, and
differentiating children suitable to the various 61. The population of a village increases at the rate
castes, the highest receiving the most education, of 10% per annum. If its population 2 years
so that they could act as guardians of the city and ago was 10,000, the present population is :
care for the less able. He believed that education (a) 12,100 (b) 12,400
should be holistic, including facts, skills, physical (c) 12,000 (d) 11,000
discipline, music and art. Plato believed that talent 62. Moris spent 25% of his income on food. He got
and intelligence is not distributed genetically and an increment of ` 1000, but he did not increase
thus is be found in children born to all classes, his expenditure on food stuffs. Therefore, his
although his proposed system of selective public expense of food decreased to 20%. What was
education for an educated minority of the his initial income?
population does not really follow a democratic (a) ` 6500 (b) ` 6000
model. Aristotle considered human nature, habit (c) ` 5000 (d) ` 4000
and reason to be equally important forces to be 63. 20% of the toys produced in a factory were
cultivated in education, the ultimate aim of which defective and 25% of the remaining were
should be to produce good and virtuous citizens. damaged. If 4800 toys were in good condition,
He proposed that teachers lead their students then what was the original number of toys
systematically, and that repetition be used as a key produced?
tool to develop good habits, unlike Socrates' (a) 9000 (b) 8000
emphasis on questioning his listeners to bring out (c) 6000 (d) 10000
their own ideas. He emphasized the balancing of 64. In an election, there were only two candidates.
the theoretical and practical aspects of subjects The winning candidate got 48% of the total
taught, among which he explicitly mentions votes. His opponent got 6800 votes which was
reading, writing, mathematics, music, physical 34% of the total votes. Some of the votes were
education, literature, history, and a wide range of invalid. The winning margin of the candidate
sciences, as well as play, which he also considered who won the election and the number of invalid
import Antonym votes respectively are:
56. Which of these methods is NOT advocated in (a) 3000 votes, 3600 votes
'The Republic'? (b) 2800 votes, 3600 votes
(a) Imparting similar education to all children (c) 3600 votes, 2800 votes
(b) Bringing up children under state guardianship (d) 3200 votes, 3600 votes
(c) Keeping children away from mothers 65. If 15% of x = 25% of y = 50% of z Then find
(d) Differentiating children based on castes the value of x : y : z.
57. Which of these statements is NOT true? (a) 3:5:10 (b) 10:6:3
(a) Socrates encouraged the listeners to come up (c) 10:5:3 (d) 3:2:1
with original ideas 66. In a box containing one rupee, 50 paise and 25
(b) Socrates considered music and physical paise coins in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3. The number of
education as important aspects of learning 50 paise coins was eighty. How much money
(c) The Republic was written around 360 A.D was there in the box.
(d) Plato's methods of education can be called (a) 100 (b) 105
'extreme'. (c) 108 (d) 110
58. Aristotle believed that virtuous citizens could 67. An item whose marked price is `80 is sold for
be produced by cultivating : `68. Find the rate of discount?
(a) habit and reason (a) 12% (b) 15%
(b) theoretical aspects of education (c) 16% (d) 18%
(c) art and music 68. Find the simple interest on ` 48750 at 16% per
(d) mathematics and science annum for 73 days of a non-leap year.
59. Children who are imparted highest education, (a) ` 1560 (b) ` 1500
would be responsible for : (c) ` 1600 (d) ` 1860
(a) teaching the illiterate 1
69. Balaji invested of his total investment at
(b) developing talent and skills 7
(c) inculcating good habits 1
4%, at 5% and the rest at 6% for 1 year. He
(d) guarding the city 2
60. What tool does Aristotle advocate to teachers received a total interest of `730. What was the
to develop good habits in students? total sum invested?
(a) Repetition (b) Questioning (a) `7,000 (b) `24,000
(c) Reading (d) Writing (c) `14,000 (d) `38,000
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70. Suresh borrows ` 80,000 at 24% per annum
simple interest and Ramesh borrows ` 91,000
at 20% per annum simple interest. In how
many years will their amounts of debts be
equal?
(a) 11 (b) 10
(c) 22 (d) 20
71. Calculate the amount on ` 37500 at 8% per
1
annum compounded half yearly for 1 years.
2
(a) `42,182.40 (b) `42,000 What is the approximate average of the total
(c) `42,120 (d) `42,812.40 expenditure in April, May, June, August,
72. Zaved borrowed `10000 for 2 years on September and October (in thousands)?
compound interest, compounded annually and (a) 16 (b) 39
paid `12544 at the end of 2 years. If he had (c) 26 (d) 84
borrowed the amount on simple interest, then 78. If the average age of 40 students of class Ist is
how much money he would have saved? 10 years and the average age of 30 students in
(a) `144 (b) `12,400 class IInd is 12 years. Find the average age of all
(c) `4,944 (d) `2,400 students (in years).
73. A sum of money becomes 8 times of itself in 3 (a) 11 (b) 10.54
years at compound interest compounded (c) 10.58 (d) 10.85
annually. The rate of interest is: 79. In a football tournament Real Madrid scored
(a) 8% (b) 100% 33 goals and 22 goals were scored against it.
(c) 5% (d) Data inadequate Find the average number of goals done by
74. Anmol can complete a piece of work in 25 days. scored player of the Real Madrid?
Together with Garima he can complete the (a) 1 (b) 2
same work in 15 days. While Anmol and (c) 3 (d) 0
Aseema working together can complete the 1 1 1 1
same work in 20 days. In how many days can 80. The sum of + + + .... + is:
2 6 12 n(n + 1)
Garima and Aseema working together
complete the same work? n +1 n(n + 1)
(a) (b)
(a) 30 (b) 29 n 2
300 250 n +1 n
(c) (d) (c) (d)
11 9 2n n +1
75. A can do 75% of the work in 30 days while B General Intelligence & Reasoning Ability
can do 50% of the same work in 18 days. If 81. Select the option in which the words share the
they work together. What fraction of the work same relationship as that shared by the given
will be done in 1 day? pair of words. Writer : Pen
(a) Swimmer : Float (b) Chef : Pan
7 1
(a) (b) (c) Dancer : Program (d) Tailor : Dress
120 19 82. Select the option that is related to the fifth
19 1 letter-cluster in the same way as the second
(c) (d) letter-cluster is related to the first letter-cluster
360 20
and the fourth letter-cluster is to the third
76. This table shows the number of males and
letter-cluster.
females in some groups. Which of the groups
HUDK : KWGM :: RBNF : UDQH :: LPQV: ?
listed has the highest ratio of females to males? (a) OSTY (b) NRSX
Group Name No. of Male No. of Female (c) NSSY (d) ORTX
C 950 414 83. Select the set in which the numbers are related
B 650 414 in the same way as are the numbers of the
M 700 410 following sets.
S 720 408 (NOTE: Operations should be performed on
R 740 405 the whole numbers, without breaking down the
(a) Group C (b) Group B numbers into its constituent digits. EXAMPLE:
(c) Group S (d) Group R 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/
subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be
77. The following graph shows the expenditure of a performed Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and
family over different months. Study the graph then performing mathematical operations on 1
and answer the question. and 3 is not allowed)
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 (11, 117, 2) 9 5 5
(9, 56, 5) 5 7 ?
(a) (12, 108, 6) (b) (13, 169, 2) 3 4 5
(c) (7, 46, 1) (d) (10, 98, 2) 135 140 150
84. What will be the next figure in the following (a) 6 (b) 4
series. (c) 10 (d) 8
Question figure: 91. Jitesh's brother-in-law Jagdish is also Suresh's
father-in-law. How could Suresh's wife be
realted to Jitesh ?
(a) Aunt (b) Sister-in-law
(c) Niece (d) Cousin
Answer figure : 92. C is the mother of K. K is the wife of H. R is the
brother of K. P is the father of R. How is C
related to P?
(a) Daughter (b) Wife
(c) Brother's wife (d) Sister
93. If P denotes '×', T denotes '–', M denotes '+'
and B denotes '÷ ÷', what will come in place of
(a) B (b) C
the question mark (?) in the following
(c) D (d) A
equation?
85. In a certain code language, if SIMPLE is coded
54 B 9 P 11 T 13 M 17 = ?
as 631549 and PLOUGH is coded as 547028
(a) 78 (b) 70
then SLEEP will be coded as?
(c) 74 (d) 73
(a) 46995 (b) 64995
(c) 64959 (d) 46959 94. If ‘<<’ represents ‘–’, ‘++’ represents ‘÷ ÷’, ‘>
>’
86. Four words have been given out of which three represents +’, ‘–’ represents ‘·’, ‘=
‘+ =’
are alike in some manner and one is different.
Select the odd one.
<’, ‘×
represents ‘< ×’ represents ‘>
>’ then which
(a) Flute (b) Violin statement is true ?
(c) Saxophone (d) Mouth Organ (a) 3 > 2 < 4 × 8 + 4 < 2
87. Out of the four figures listed in the options, one (b) 3 + 2 > 4 = 9 + 3 < 2
is different from the others in some manner. (c) 3 + 2 < 4 × 9 + 3 < 3
Select the odd one out. (d) 3 > 2 > 4 = 18 + 3 < 1
95. Select the Venn diagram that best represents
the relationship between Children, Women and
Teachers.
Figure A Figure B Figure C Figure D Figure E
(a) Figure A (b) Figure C
(c) Figure B (d) Figure E
88. Which of the following numbers will replace
the questions mark (?) in the given series?
17, 19, 21, 19, 25, 19,?
(a) 32 (b) 27
(c) 30 (d) 29
89. Select the option that would come next in the 96. Read the given statement(s) and conclusions
given series. carefully. Assuming that the information given
in the statements is true, even if it appears to be
at variance with commonly known facts, decide
which of the given conclusions logically
follow(s) from the statement(s).
Statements:
(a) (b) All pens are pencils.
No pencil is a cutter.
(c) (d) All cutters are rubbers.
90. Study the given pattern carefully and select the Conclusions:
number that can replace the question mark (?) 1. All rubbers are pencils.
in it. 2. No pen is a cutter.
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 (a) Only conclusion 2 follows
(b) Neither 1 nor 2 follows
(c) Only conclusion 1 follows
(d) Both conclusions 1 and 2 follow
97. Read the given statements and conclusion
carefully. Assuming that the information given
in the statements is true even if it appears to be (a) B (b) D
at variance with commonly known fact decide (c) A (d) C
which of the given conclusions logically follow
(s) from the statements. SECTION-B
Statements:
Some goods are beautiful. Post Specific Subject- Related Questions
Some beautiful are costly. 101. β -cells of Pancreatic islets secrete ________.
Conclusions (a) Insulin
I. Some goods are costly. (b) Pancreatic polypeptide
II. All costly are beautiful. (c) Somatostatin
(a) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II (d) Glucagon
follows. (e) Not attempted
(b) Only conclusion I follows. 102. Which among the following is a light receptor
(c) Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. protein synthesized by vitamin A for night
vision?
(d) Only conclusion II follows.
(a) Globulin (b) Lipoprotein
98. Statement: (c) Chromoprotein (d) Rhodopsin
Naina sees Sunita and appreciates her beauty 103. Erythropoietin is produced by
Conclusion: (a) Liver (b) Lungs
I. Sunita is more beautiful than Naina (c) Bone marrow (d) Kidney
II. Naina is impressed by Sunita's dressing 104. In healthy adult, glomerular filtration rate is
style. ____
(a) Both the conclusion follow (a) 125 ml/min (b) 80 ml/min
(b) Only conclusion II follows (c) 180 ml/min (d) 50 ml/min
(c) Only conclusion I follows 105. Tetanus is related to –
(d) Neither I nor II follows. 1. Skeletal muscle fibers.
99. Which answer figure is formed using the figure 2. Locking of jaw.
given in the question figure? 3. Food habits.
Problem figure : (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3
106. Phase four clinical trials are also called
(a) Human Pharmacology and safety
(b) Prepost-marketing surveillance
(c) Therapeutic confirmation
(d) Post-marketing surveillance
Answer figure : 107. Insulin is composed of total ............
(a) 30 amino acids (b) 51 amino acids
(c) 21 amino acids (d) 81 amino acids
108. Calcitonin is secreted by
(a) Adrenals (b) Thyroid
(c) Parathyroid (d) Thymus
109. The t1/2 of heparin is reduced in patients with
(a) B (b) A _____condition.
(c) C (d) D (a) Cirrhosis of the liver
100. The problem figure is embedded in one of the (b) Kidney malfunction
(c) Pulmonary embolism
four answer figures. Which of the four figures
(d) Gall bladder dip function
contains the problem figure?
110. Cardiac output is:
(a) Volume of blood ejected by the auride per
minute
(b) Volume of the blood ejected by the left
ventricle per beat
116 YCT
 (c) Volume of the blood ejected by the left 119. Match List I with List II
ventricle per minute List I List II
(d) Volume of blood ejected by the auricle per Classification of Bacteria Example
beat
A. Gram positive I. Clostridium tetani
111. In ABC analysis, the A items are:
(a) l0%-20% of items and 70%-80% of the spherical shaped
expenditures. nonmotile bacteria
(b) 1%-2% of items and 70%-80% of the B. Gram positive II. Bacillus anthracis
expenditures sporulating obligate
(c) 10%-20% of items and 90o/o-95% of the anaerobic bacteria
expenditures C. Gram positive rod III. Streptococcus sp..
(d) l%-2% of items and 90%-95% of the shaped nonsporulating
expenditures bacteria
112. The time interval between placing the order for D. Gram positive IV. Corynebacterium
purchase and receipt of items is called_______. sporulating rod shaped diphtheriae
(a) Buffer time (b) Lead time motile bacteria
(c) Reorder time (d) Waiting time V. E.coli
113. What is the dose for a 50 lb child if the average Choose the correct answer from the options
adult dose is 20 mg? given below:
(a) 6.2 (b) 6.6 (a) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - V
(c) 6.9 (d) 6.1
(b) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III
114. In a prescription, Rx is an abbreviation of the
(c) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II
Latin word 'Recipe', meaning __.
(a) To take (b) To provide (d) A - I, B - IV, C - II, D - III
(c) To receive (d) To observe 120. Which of the following is NOT a cause for the
115. The number of newly added monographs in drug undergoing nonlinear pharmacokinetics
Indian pharmacopoeia 2022 is: (a) Enzyme inhibition
(a) 92 (b) 74 (c) 63 (d) 103 (b) Enzyme induction
116. “Post cibum” means (c) Saturation of carrier molecules
(a) At bedtime (b) In morning (d) Saturation of plasma protein binding
(c) After meal (d) As needed 121. Which is an antiperspirant?
117. Match List I with List II (a) Trichlorocarbonilide
List I List II (b) Hexamethylene tetramine
A. When two dosage I. When their total (c) Petrolatum
forms have equal body clearance is (d) Aluminium chloral hydrate
tmax constant. 122. “hora somni” means
B. AUC values of the II. Absorption rate (a) With food (b) After meals
two analogs can be constants are equal (c) At morning (d) At bedtime
compared to 123. Liniments differ from lotions, as liniments do
measure relative not contain
bioavailability. (a) Turpentine (b) Alcohol
C. Urinary data is III. When fraction (c) Camphor (d) Simple salt like ZnSO4
valid to measure absorbed and 124. β -Propiolactone is used as
bioavailability. elimination rate is (a) Preservative (b) Suspending agent
constant. (c) Stabilizer (d) Sterilizing agent
D. Cmax is proportional IV. Excretion of drug 125. 20 grains is equal to
to the rate of and/ or metabolite (a) 1 scruple (b) 1 drachm
absorption. is related to the (c) 1 ounce (d) 1 pound
bioavailable dose. 126. What is the dose for 6 months old infant, of
Choose the correct answer from the options drug having dose of 300 mg?
given below: (a) 6 mg (b) 8 mg
(a) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III (c) 10 mg (d) 12 mg
(b) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV 127. The first edition of British Pharmacopoeia was
(c) A - I, B - IV, C - III, D -II published in which year?
(d) A -III, B -I, C -II, D -IV (a) 1854 (b) 1857
118. Hospital Formulary contains information on (c) 1864 (d) 1967
the following parameters except 128. Dry heating at 100°C for 1 hour causes
(a) Composition (a) Sterilization
(b) Indication (b) Kills vegetative bacteria and spores.
(c) Pricing (c) Kills vegetative bacteria or spore.
(d) Dosage and administration (d) Does not kill vegetative bacteria or spore.
117 YCT
129. All statements listed below are correct for 141. The first edition of Indian Pharmacopoeia was
positive mixture, except published in the year ________
(a) They are irreversible. (a) 1960 (b) 1948
(b) They require energy. (c) 1950 (d) 1955
(c) They are stable in nature. (e) Not attempted
(d) Formed through diffusion process. 142. Which indicator is used in Volhard's method?
130. Abbreviation of HEPA? (a) Eosin
(a) Higher Efficacious Particulate Air (b) Ferric ammonium sulphate
(b) High Effective Particulate Atmosphere (c) Crystal violet
(c) Highly Energetic Particles Availability (d) Methyl orange
(d) High Efficiency Particulate Air (e) Not attempted
131. Which of the following Tube is used to feed the 143. In which way to give or apply medicine, the
patient? toxicity is minimum
(a) B.G Set (b) Balloon Catheter (a) Rectal route (b) Sublingual route
(c) Ryle's Tube (d) Foley's catheter (c) Topical application (d) Oral route
132. Which of the following capsule number can 144. Capsule are available in the form of both
accomodate maximum medicament? ________ capsules and _________ capsules
(a) –1 (b) –0 (c) –3 (d) –5 (a) Hard gelatin; soft gelatin
133. Which of the statement is true for flocculated (b) Compressed; hard gelatin
suspension? (c) Phenyl, hygroscopic
(a) Particle exist as separate entities (d) Sugar coated; enteric coated
(b) Sediment is slowly formed 145. Film coating solution on tablets before drying
(c) Sediment is difficult to redisperse causes insufficient dissemination of _________
(d) Rate of Sedimentation is high (a) Cracking (b) Sticking
134. Which among the following is a better (c) Orange-peel effect (d) Roughness
thickening agent for suspension? 146. If the strength of the dilute solution is 1 in
(a) Acacia (b) Tragacanth 4000, then find its percentage.
(c) Starch (d) Lactose (a) 0.05% (b) 0.5%
135. Which of the following is commonly used as (c) 0.025% (d) 0.25%
abrasive in tooth paste? 147. What is the English meaning of Latin word
(a) Lactose (b) Calcium carbonate 'cibos'?
(a) Powder (b) Food
(c) Starch (d) Methyl cellulose
(c) Poultice (d) To be taken
136. The volume of eye drops administered from
commercial eye dropper bottles is coming in 148. In International organization for standardization
(ISO), standard pertaining to quality system
the range of
model for quality assurance in production,
(a) 25 to 56 micro liter
installation and servicing is given under
(b) 1 to 2 ml (a) ISO 9000 (b) ISO 9001
(c) 1 to 5 micro liter (c) ISO 9002 (d) ISO 9004
(d) 200 to 500 macro liter 149. Which of the Following used to relieve dental
137. Sealed ampoules containing a thermos-table hypersensitivity?
drug solution are commonly sterilized by. Or
(a) Hot air oven (b) Autoclave Which of the following is a desensitizing agent
(c) Microwave oven (d) UV Chamber used as a dental product ?
138. Which among the following tablets is used in (a) Calcium phosphate
Oral cavity? (b) Stannous fluoride
(a) Hypodermic tablets (b) Troches (c) Strontium chloride
(c) Film coated tablet (d) Dispensing tablet (d) Sodium fluoride
139. Drugs with which of the following half-lives are 150. Hydrogen peroxide is used as
the best candidates for oral sustained release (a) Protective (b) Haematinics
dosage formulation? (c) Acidifying agent (d) Antiseptic
(a) 12 - 16 hours (b) 10 - 12 hours 151. Calamine is
(c) 1 - 2 hours (d) 4 - 8 hours (a) Zinc acetate (b) Zinc Sulphate
(e) Not Attempted (c) Zinc carbonate (d) Zinc oxide
140. The absorption rate of a drug is most rapid 152. Which of the following is used as an antidote
when drug is formulated as ________. for Organophosphorus and carbamate
(a) Solution (b) Soft gelatin capsule pesticides poisoning?
(c) Hard gelatin capsule (d) Compressed tablet (a) Vesamicol (b) Neostigmine
(e) Not attempted (c) Atropine sulfate (d) Hemicholinium
118 YCT
153. Itai-itai disease is associated with_ ____ 165. General anaesthetics are_____ of the central
poisoning. nervous system.
(a) Cadmium (b) Mercury (a) Activators (b) Depressants
(c) Lead (d) Iron (c) Stimulators (d) Stabilisers
154. Zinc chloride is used as ______. 166. Match List I with List II
(a) Stabilizer (b) Emulsifying agent List I List II
(c) Preservative (d) Astringent (Poisoning) (Treatment)
155. Chemical formula of bleaching powder. 1. Warfarin P. Pralidoxime
(a) CaOCl2 (b) CaCO3 2. Carbon monoxide Q. Oxygen
(c) CaO (d) CaCO3 3. Cyanide R. Vitamin K
156. _______ gas is most widely used in "fire
4. Nitrites S. Dicobalt edatate
extinguishers"
(a) Oxygen (b) Nitric Oxide 5. Organophosphates T. Methylene blue
(c) Argon (d) Carbon dioxide Choose the correct answer from the options
157. An example of quenching vapour used in the given below : More text goes here.
Geiger Muller counter is (a) 1:R, 2:Q, 3: S, 4: T, 5: P
(a) Ar (b) He (b) 1:P, 2:Q, 3: T, 4: S, 5: R
(c) Cl (d) N (c) 1:Q, 2:S, 3:P, 4:R, 5: T
(d) 1:T, 2:Q, 3: R, 4:P, 5:S
158. Antimony potassium tartarate is _____ in taste
167. Which of the following clinical feature is not
(a) Sweet (b) Bitter
responsible for insulin resistance in type 2
(c) Acrid (d) Astringent diabetes?
159. Which of the following agents is NOT a (a) Increased LDL (b) Increased HDL
teratogen? (c) Reduced HDL
(a) Thalidomide (b) Tetracyciline (d) Increased triglycerides
(c) Streptomycin (d) Amphotericin B 168. Which of the following vitamin helps in blood
160. Which of the following effect is produced by clotting?
Saroglitazar ? (a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin C
(a) Decrease the glucose as well as lipid in (c) Vitamin D (d) Vitamin K
plasma 169. Osmotic potential of pure water is
(b) Lowering the LDL-CH in plasma (a) One
(c) Lowering the LDL in plasma (b) Zero
(d) Increasing the HDL is plasma (c) Less than zero
161. Which drug is an HIV protease inhibitor? (d) Between zero and one
(a) Delavirdine (b) Acyclovir 170. Chlorophyll is a naturally occurring chelate
(c) Nevirapine (d) Lopinavir compound in which central metal is
162. Which of the following drug is used in Herpes (a) Copper (b) Magnesium
infection ? (c) Iron (d) Calcium
(a) Idoxuridine (b) Zidovudine 171. Which of the following enzyme class is
(c) Amantadine (d) Efavirenz dependent on adenosine triphosphate?
163. Bitter metallic taste is characteristic of drug (a) Ligases (b) Transferases
(a) Tetracycline (b) Mepyramine (c) Hydrolases (d) Oxidoreductases
(c) Glibenclamide (d) Phenformin 172. The pH of 0.1 M NaOH solution is
164. Match List I with List II Match the following (a) 13 (b) 5
with their mechanism of action (c) 0.1 (d) 1
List I List II 173. What is the full form of CSSR?
Mechanism of action Drugs (a) Central sterile supply room
A. DPP4 inhibitors I. Metformin (b) Central sterile stationary room
B. K Channel blocker II. Pioglitazone (c) Central sterile surgical room
(d) Central sterile stone room
C. PPAR activator III. Glimepiride
174. The natural alkaloid used in the treatment of
D. AMP Activator IV. Teneligliptin gout is :
V. α glucosidase Or
inhibitors Which of the following is a seed drug ?
Choose the correct answer from the options (a) Cinchnine (b) Colchicine
given below : (c) Reserpine (d) Emetine
(a) A - II , B -V , C -III , D -IV 175. Which of the following can used as anti-
(b) A - II, B - III, C -IV , D -I dysenteric ?
(c) A -IV , B -III , C -II , D -I (a) Vinca (b) Digitalis
(d) A -IV, B - I, C -V , D -III (c) Arjuna (d) Catechu
119 YCT
176. In case of Rauwolfia, which part of the plant is 188. State pharmacy council should have
used as medicine? _______number of elected members
(a) Stem (b) Roots (a) Five (b) Six
(c) Leaves (d) Seeds (c) Seven (d) Nine
177. Ricinolec acid is obtained from _____. 189. State of being free from all living
(a) Tragacanth (b) Agar microorganisms is known as
(c) Papain (d) Castor (a) Asepsis (b) Sterile
178. What is caused by an overdose of morphine? (c) Contamination (d) Sepsis
(a) vestibular damage (b) respiratory failure 190. Bacterial cell walls are composed of
(c) myocardial damage (d) renal failure (a) Proteins (b) Sterols
179. Penicillin-G is (c) Polysaccharides (d) Peptidoglycan
(a) carboxypenicillin 191. Schick test is used to identify
(b) benzylpenicillin (a) Diptheria (b) Pertussis
(c) phenoxymethylpenicillin (c) Typhoid (d) Jaundice
(d) aminopenicillin 192. Bacterial exotoxins are
180. The chemical constituent of lemon oil is (a) Protein in nature
(a) Menthol (b) Limonene (b) Carbohydrate in nature
(c) Geraniol (d) Carvacrol (c) Lipids in nature
181. The pharmacy council of India is constituted (d) Lipo polysaccharides in nature
by the 193. BCG vaccine belongs to the class of
(a) Central government (a) Toxoids
(b) State government (b) Live bacterial vaccine
(c) Parliament (c) Killed bacterial vaccine
(d) Legislative assembly (d) Viral vaccine
182. Sale of drugs specified in ________should NOT 194. A deficiency in the activity of sphingomyelinase
be sold by retail. enzyme leads to:
(a) Schedule A and schedule R (a) Niemann - Pick disease
(b) Schedule FF and schedule V (b) Jacob's disease
(c) Schedule H and schedule X (c) Krabbe's disease
(d) Schedule W and schedule O (d) Gaucher's disease
183. The following schedule is dealing with 195. An increase in the size of an organ or a tissue
incurable diseases : that is not associated with cancer is termed as:
(a) Schedule A (b) Schedule F (a) Neoplasia (b) Hyperplasia
(c) Schedule J (d) Schedule T (c) Metaplasia (d) Displacia
184. India’s first Central Drug Laboratory was 196. Ideal temperature for the DPT vaccine storage
established at is________.
(a) Mumbai (b) Lucknow (a) 4 to 8°C (b) Room temperature
(c) Kolkata (d) Hyderabad (c) 0 to 20°C (d) Less than 0°C
185. Schedule N refers to 197. Which of the following alkaloids contain Indole
(a) Requirement of factory premises for nucleus?
manufacture of medical devices. (a) Vincristine (b) Morphine
(b) Pack size of drugs. (c) Ephedrine (d) Quinine
(c) Life period of drugs. 198. Aloe ferox is commercially known as
(d) List of minimum equipment for running of (a) Barbados aloe (b) Cape aloe
pharmacy. (c) Zangibar aloe (d) India aloe
186. Blood bank comes under ________ 199. Indian senna is adulterated with .............
(a) Schedule G (b) Schedule B (a) C.obovata (b) C.angustofolia
(c) Schedule D (d) Schedule F (c) C.auriculata (d) Arabian senna
(e) Not attempted 200. Which of the following is cholinergic Blocking
187. Outside India, pharmacy qualification agent?
approved is affiliated by _____ (a) Which of the following is Cholinergic
(a) University Grant Commission Blocking agents?
(b) Drugs consultative committee (b) Acetylcholine
(c) Pharmacy council of India (c) Atropine
(d) Drugs Technical Advisory Board (d) Pilocarpine
120 YCT
 SOLUTION : PRACTICE SET- 1
ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 21. (b) 41. (c) 61. (a) 81. (b) 101. (a) 121. (d) 141. (d) 161. (d) 181. (a)
2. (d) 22. (d) 42. (a) 62. (d) 82. (d) 102. (d) 122. (d) 142. (b) 162. (a) 182. (c)
3. (b) 23. (c) 43. (d) 63. (b) 83. (a) 103. (d) 123. (d) 143. (c) 163. (d) 183. (c)
4. (c) 24. (b) 44. (c) 64. (b) 84. (b) 104. (a) 124. (d) 144. (a) 164. (c) 184. (c)
5. (c) 25. (a) 45. (c) 65. (b) 85. (b) 105. (a) 125. (a) 145. (c) 165. (b) 185. (d)
6. (a) 26. (c) 46. (d) 66. (d) 86. (b) 106. (d) 126. (d) 146. (c) 166. (b) 186. (d)
7. (a) 27. (a) 47. (b) 67. (b) 87. (a) 107. (b) 127. (c) 147. (b) 167. (b) 187. (c)
8. (a) 28. (b) 48. (c) 68. (a) 88. (d) 108. (b) 128. (c) 148. (c) 168. (d) 188. (b)
9. (c) 29. (a) 49. (d) 69. (c) 89. (d) 109. (c) 129. (b) 149. (c) 169. (b) 189. (b)
10. (b) 30. (d) 50. (b) 70. (a) 90. (a) 110. (c) 130. (d) 150. (d) 170. (b) 190. (d)
11. (a) 31. (a) 51.(d) 71. (a) 91. (c) 111. (a) 131. (c) 151. (c) 171. (a) 191. (a)
12. (c) 32. (a) 52. (b) 72. (a) 92. (b) 112. (b) 132. (b) 152. (c) 172. (a) 192. (a)
13. (b) 33. (a) 53. (a) 73. (b) 93. (b) 113. (b) 133. (d) 153. (a) 173. (a) 193. (b)
14. (a) 34. (a) 54. (a) 74. (c) 94. (a) 114. (a) 134. (b) 154. (d) 174. (b) 194. (a)
15. (c) 35. (b) 55. (d) 75. (c) 95. (b) 115. (a) 135. (b) 155. (a) 175. (d) 195. (b)
16. (b) 36. (d) 56. (a) 76. (b) 96. (a) 116. (c) 136. (a) 156. (d) 176. (b) 196. (a)
17. (a) 37. (c) 57. (c) 77. (b) 97. (a) 117. (a) 137. (b) 157. (c) 177. (d) 197. (a)
18. (c) 38. (b) 58. (a) 78. (d) 98. (d) 118. (c) 138. (b) 158. (a) 178. (b) 198. (b)
19. (d) 39. (b) 59. (d) 79.(c) 99. (b) 119. (c) 139. (d) 159. (d) 179. (b) 199. (c)
20. (a) 40. (a) 60. (a) 80. (d) 100. (c) 120. (b) 140. (a) 160. (a) 180. (b) 200. (c)

SOLUTION
1. (b) 6. (a)
Shogatsu is a new year celebration in Japan. It is The President of India is the supreme commander of
celebrated from 1 January to 3 January. Indian armed forces Article 53(2). The headquarters of
2. (d) the Indian Armed Forces is located in New Delhi.
Indira P.P. Bora is a Sattriya dancer from Assam India. 7. (a)
She was selected for Guru Gopinath Desiya Natya Under one of the provisions of Article 89(1) of the
Purashkaram 2019 by the state Government of Kerala Indian Constitution, the Vice-President of India shall be
for popularizing Sattriya. the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States.
8. (a)
3. (b)
Feature of the Source
The Bhimbetka rock shelters is located in Raisen
Constitution Country
district between Hoshangabad and Bhopal in Madhya Single citizenship – United Kingdom
Pradesh. These caves were found by V.S. Wakankar in Fundamental Duties – USSR
1957. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site that consists Concurrent list – Australia
of seven hills and over 750 rock shelters which extends Directive principle of – Ireland
over 10 km. state policy
4. (c) 9. (c)
The correct chronological order of the rulers– Article 330 of the Constitution of India has provision
• Mahmud Ghazni – (998–1030 AD) that mandates the reservation of seats for the Scheduled
• Muhammad Ghori – (1173–1206 AD) Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the House of the People.
• Genghis khan – (1206–1227 AD) 10. (b)
• Taimur – (1370–1405 AD) The founder of Indian Nuclear Programme, Homi J.
Bhabha had envisaged that nuclear technology is going
5. (c)
to be very essential and not just in the power sector but
Battle of Plassey was fought between British East for the other societal uses intended for betterment of
India Company and Nawab of Bengal on 23 June 1757. life.
It is considered as one of the decisive victory over 11. (a)
Nawab of Bengal. The Nawab of Bengal, Siraj-ud- Helio Swarm mission is a constellation or swarm at
daula. It consolidated British dominance over Bengal. nine spacecraft. It will be launched to capture 1st multi
121 YCT
 scale in space measurements of fluctuations in magnetic 20. (a)
field as well as motions of solar wind called as Solar A Lysosome is a membrane - bound cell organelle that
wind turbulence. contains digestive enzymes, Lysosomes are involved
12. (c) with various cell processes. They break down excess or
Orion is a well known constellation that can be seen in worn-out cell parts. They may be used to destroy
the evening. This constellation is also known as the invading viruses and bacteria. If the cell is damaged
'Hunter or Mriga'. Orion constellation is located on the beyond repair, lysosomes can help it to self-destruct in a
celestial equator. It is the brightest and most beautiful of process called Programmed cell death, or apoptosis.
the winter constellation. Some of its stars including Lysosome is known as the 'suicide bags of a cell'.
Betelgeuse and Rigel are the brightest stars. 21. (b)
13. (b) efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW ‘oMe&ve’ Meyo SkeâJeÛeve veneR nw~ efJekeâuheeW kesâ
Kynesian Multiplier theory states that the economy will ™he ceW efoÙes ieÙes DevÙe Meyo SkeâJeÛeve nQ – melÙe, JÙeLee, Je<ee&~
flourish the more the government spends. This theory oMe&ve Meyo meowJe yengJeÛeve ceW ØeÙegòeâ neslee nw~
was propounded by British economist John Maynard
Keynes in 1936. The multiplier effect refers to the 22. (d)
theory that government spending intended to stimulate ef›eâÙee kesâ efpeme ™he mes, keâeÙe& keâer meceeefhle kesâ meceÙe keâe yeesOe neslee
the economy causes increase in private spending that nw, Gmes ‘Yetlekeâeue’ keânles nQ~ Yetlekeâeue kesâ 6 Yeso nQ–
further stimulates the economy. 1. meeceevÙe Yetle – ceQves KeeÙee~
14. (a) 2. Deemevve Yetle – Gmeves hetpee keâer nw~
The primary sector or primary industry involves raw
3. hetCe& Yetle – ceQ meesÙee Lee~
materials, the extraction and harvesting of natural
resources from the earth. Hence in the given options 4. DehetCe& Yetle – legce uesKe efueKe jns Les~
mining activities falls under the primary sector. 5. mebefoiOe Yetle – Gmeves Keevee Kee efueÙee nesiee~
15.(c) 6. nslegnslegceod Yetle – ceQ Deelee; let peelee~
The commercial unit of electrical energy is kilowatt 23. (c)
hour. ‘YesÌ[’ Meyo ceW ‘Dee’ ØelÙeÙe ueieekeâj hegefuuebie Meyo ‘Yes[Ì e’ yeveeÙee
One kilowatt hour
= 1000W × 1 hour
ieÙee nw~ kegâÚ m$eerefuebie meb%eeDeeW kesâ Deeies ‘Dee’ ØelÙeÙe pees[Ì keâj
= 1000 × 3600 hegefuuebie Meyo yeveeÙee peelee nw~ pewmes – YeQme –YeQmee
= 3.6 × 106Joule 24. (b)
16. (b) ‘meceÙe keâe meogheÙeesie ’ keâe DeLe& Gmes JÙeLe& ve keâjvee leLee Gmekeâe
Light year is a unit that used to measure distance. A meogheÙeesie keâjvee nw~
light-year is the distance that light travels in vacuum in 25. (a)
one year (365.25 days). The distance that light travels in pees Úe$e meceÙe keâer cenòee mecePeles nQ Jener meHeâue nesles nQ, keäÙeeWefkeâ
one year is about 9.4607 × 1012 kilometers.
17. (a) Úe$eeW kesâ peerJeve ceW meceÙe keâe DeefOekeâ cenlJe nw, pees Úe$e Fme Gceü ceW
The following statement is true with respect to meceÙe keâer keâõ keâjvee meerKe peeles nQ, Jen YeefJe<Ùe ceW lejkeäkeâer keâer
substance - TBÛeeFÙeeW keâes Út uesles nQ~
• The force of attraction presents between the 26. (c)
particles of the substance by which they are bonded meceÙe Oeve mes Yeer DeefOekeâ cenlJehetCe& nw, keäÙeeWefkeâ Oeve Keesves hej Jeeheme
to each other.
• The particles of matter move continuously in fluid
heeÙee pee mekeâlee nw, hejbleg yeerlee ngDee meceÙe veneR ueewšeÙee pee mekeâlee~
and air. 27. (a)
• Matter is made up of particles mepeielee keâe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Meyo meleke&âlee, nesefMeÙeejer, ÛeewkeâVeeheve nw,
• There is a inter molecular space between particles peyeefkeâ Øeceeo keâe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Meyo veMee, ceo, Gvceeo Deeefo nw~
of matter. 28. (b)
18. (c) efoS ieS ieÅeebMe keâe GheÙegòeâ Meer<e&keâ ‘Úe$e peerJeve Deewj meceÙe’ nw~
In nature, the mixture is both homogeneous and 29. (a)
heterogeneous. The mixture has a uniform composition heeJekeâ ‘Deefive’ keâe heÙeeÙe&JeeÛeer nw~ Skeâ ner Meyo kesâ Skeâ mes pÙeeoe
throughout the solution is called homogeneous mixture.
For example- mixture of salt in water and mixture of
DeLe& efvekeâues Gmes heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Meyo keânles nQ~ heeJekeâ kesâ DevÙe
sugar in water. While the mixture has a non-uniform GoenjCe– Deveue, Deeie, ke=âMeeveg, oJe, ngleeMeve, JewÕeevej Deeefo~
composition throughout the solution is called 30. (d)
heterogeneous mixture. Example- mixture of sand and ØekeâeMe keâe efJeueesce DebOekeâej nw~ lece keâe efJeueesce ‘Deeueeskeâ’ nw~
water DeBefOeÙeeje keâe efJeueesce GefpeÙeeje nw~
19. (d) 31. (a)
Carolus Linnaeus introduce and established the practice JeCeeX kesâ mecegoeÙe keâes ‘JeCe&ceeuee’ keânles nQ~ JeCe& Yee<ee keâer meyemes
of binomial nomenclature that is the denomination of
each kind of plant by two words, the genus name and the
Úesšer FkeâeF& nesleer nw~ Fmekesâ GÛÛeeefjle mJe™he keâes ‘OJeefve’ Yeer keâne
species name. peelee nw~
122 YCT
32. (a) 42. (a)
‘veneR’ kesâ yeeo DeuheefJejece efÛendve ueievee ÛeeefnS~ ÙeLee- veneR, keâue Affinity - (DeelceerÙelee), Antonym, Aversion - (És<e)~ DevÙe
ceQ legcnejs Iej veneR Dee meketBâiee~ Dele: efJejece efÛendve keâer Âef° mes efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& -
efJekeâuhe (a) ieuele nw~ Attraction - Deekeâ<e&Ce, Inclination - PegkeâeJe, Weakness -
33. (a) keâcepeesjer~
‘Debievee’ Meyo Jele&veer keâer Âef° mes Megæ nw~ Debievee keâe DeLe& ‘Œeer’ 43. (d)
neslee nw~ efoÙes ieÙes DeMegæ MeyoeW kesâ Megæ ™he efvecveefueefKele nQ– Ghejesòeâ group of words 'The branch of physics
DeMegæ ™he Megæ ™he concerned with the properties of sound' kesâ efueS GefÛele
Ûeebo ÛeeBo one word efJekeâuhe (d) Acoustics (OJeefve efJe%eeve) nesiee~ DevÙe
DeebKe DeeBKe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& -
DeBkeâ Debkeâ Mechanics - Ùeebef$ekeâer, Photonics - Heâesšesefvekeäme, Optics -
34. (a)
Jen meb%ee pees efkeâmeer Jemleg, JÙeefkeäle, mLeeve keâe yeesOe keâjeleer nw Gmes Øekeâeef Mekeâer
44. (c)
‘JÙeefkeäleJeeÛekeâ meb%ee’ keâne peelee nw~ jece, jeceÛeefjleceeveme, iebiee
JÙeefòeâJeeÛekeâ meb%eeÙeW nQ~ ke=â<Ce, keâeceeÙeveer JÙeefòeâJeeÛekeâ SJeb efce"eme Ghejesòeâ Idiom 'add insult to injury' (efmLeefle keâes yeolej yeveevee)
YeeJeJeeÛekeâ Fmeer lejn ueKeveT JÙeefòeâJeeÛekeâ, Deece peeefleJeeÛekeâ SJeb keâer GefÛele JÙeeKÙee efJekeâuhe (c) 'to make something worse' keâjlee
yegÌ{ehee YeeJeJeeÛekeâ "erkeâ Fmeer Øekeâej cecelee JÙeefòeâJeeÛekeâ, hegmlekeâ, nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuhe efYeVe DeLe& osles nw~
Jekeâerue peeefleJeeÛekeâ meb%ee nw~ 45. (c)
35. (b) Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe ceW by kesâ mLeeve hej 'for' preposition keâe ØeÙeesie
efpeve meJe&veece MeyoeW keâe ØeÙeesie Jeòeâe Éeje Kego kesâ efueS Ùee otmejeW kesâ nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ order kesâ meeLe efkeâmeer Ûeerpe (something) keâes oMee&ves
efueS efkeâÙee peelee nw, Gmes heg®<eJeeÛekeâ meJe&veece keânles nQ~ Fmekesâ leerve kesâ efueS 'for' keâe ØeÙeesie neslee nw~
Yeso nQ- Gòece heg®<e (ceQ, nce), ceOÙece heg®<e (let, legce, Deehe), ØeLece * Order for something.
heg®<e (Jen, Jes, Ùen, Ùes)~ peneB Gòece heg®<e Jeòeâe kesâ efueS SJeb ceOÙece * Order to somebody.
heg®<e ßeeslee kesâ efueS ØeÙegòeâ neslee nw, JeneR ØeLece heg®<e leermejs he#e kesâ Correct Sentence -
efueS ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peelee nw~ A probe has been ordered for the incident that occurred
36. (d) at the celebrations
‘keâC"’ keâe efJeMes<eCe ‘keâC"dÙe’ nesiee~ meb%ee Je meJe&veece keâer efJeMes<elee 46. (d)
yeleueeves Jeeues MeyoeW keâes efJeMes<eCe keânles nQ~ Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe ceW until I was kesâ mLeeve hej although I was keâe
37. (c) ØeÙeesie nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ until (peye lekeâ) Skeâ time denoting
`Gmeves keâej yesÛe oer' ceW mekeâce&keâ ef›eâÙee mhe„ nesleer nw~ DevÙe JeekeäÙe conjunction nw peyeefkeâ although (ÙeÅeefhe) contrast denoting
‘jece oewÌ[e’, ‘ceQ ®keâ ieÙee’, ‘efKeueewvee štš ieÙee’ Dekeâce&keâ ef›eâÙee conjunction nw pees efkeâ JeekeäÙe keâes GheÙegòeâ DeLe& oslee nw~
mecyevOeer JeekeäÙe nQ~ Correct Sentence -
38. (b) Although I was still a little weak I decided to walk
efoS ieS JeekeäÙe ceW ‘JeneB’ Meyo DeJÙeÙe nw~ ‘DeJÙeÙe’ Ssmes Meyo keâes home from the metro station.
keânles nQ, efpemekesâ ™he ceW efuebie, JeÛeve, heg™<e, keâejkeâ FlÙeeefo kesâ keâejCe 47. (b)
keâesF& efJekeâej GlheVe veneR neslee~ meeLe&keâ OJeefve kesâ ›eâceyeæ mecetn keâes Meyo Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe ceW subject 'The children's series singular nw,
keâne peelee nw Deewj peye FvneR MeyoeW keâes JeekeäÙe ceW ØeÙeesie keâjles nQ lees Dele: Fmekesâ yeeo Deeves Jeeueer helping verb/main verb Yeer
GvnW ‘heo’ keâne peelee nw~ singular nesieer~
39. (b) Correct sentence– The children's series is
efnvoer ceW ‘ves’ hejmeie& keâe ØeÙeesie ‘Yetlekeâeue ceW mekeâce&keâ ef›eâÙee kesâ recommended for young readers.
jnves hej keâòee& kesâ meeLe’ efkeâÙee peelee nw~ pewmes- 48. (c)
ceesnve ves hegmlekeâ efueKeer~ Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ efjòeâ mLeeve ceW is sold ØeÙegòeâ nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ
furniture Skeâ singular noun nw leLee Fmekesâ meeLe singular
jnerce ves Keevee KeeÙee~
verb ØeÙegòeâ nesleer nw~
jeIeJe ves ieerle ieeÙee~
Correct sentence- Second-hand furniture is sold here
40. (a)
at reasonable prices.
efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW ‘Deemeje’ Skeâ leodYeJe Meyo nQ Fmekeâe lelmece 49. (d)
‘DeeßeÙe’ neslee nw; peyeefkeâ Deóeefuekeâe, ke=âhee, Ûe›eâ lelmece Meyo nQ~ Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ efjòeâ mLeeve ceW disturbs keâe ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ nesiee
‘Deóeefuekeâe’ keâe leodYeJe ‘Dešejer’ leLee ‘Ûe›eâ’ keâe leodYeJe ‘Ûeekeâ’,
ke=âhee keâe leodYeJe ‘efkeâjhee’ neslee nw~ keäÙeeWefkeâ one of kesâ yeeo plural noun Deewj singular verb ØeÙegòeâ
41. (c) nesleer nw~ Note:-Present indefinite tense ceW verb ceW s/es
Absolve - (oes<ecegòeâ keâjvee), Synonym, Pardon - (#ecee peesÌ[keâj singular yeveeles nQ~
keâjvee)~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&- One of + Plural Noun + Singular Verb
Condemn - efvevoe keâjvee, Attack - Dee›eâceCe keâjvee, Accuse - Correct sentence- This is one of the matters that
Deejeshe ueieevee~ disturbs me the most.
123 YCT
50. (b) 57. (c)
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe ceW 'will launched' kesâ mLeeve hej 'will launch' According to the passage "The Republic was written
keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ future indefinite ceW (will + verb1) around 360 A.D" is not True.
keâe ØeÙeesie neslee nw~ Dele: efJekeâuhe (c) GheÙegòeâ Gòej nw~
58. (a)
Correct sentence- The author's new novel, which is
According to the passage 'habit and reason' could be
about social change, will launch soon. produced good and virtuous citizen. Hense option (a)
51.(d) will be correct answer.
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ jsKeebefkeâle Yeeie ceW 'would sure miss' kesâ mLeeve Dele: efJekeâuhe (a) GheÙegòeâ Gòej nw~
hej will surely miss keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ Ùen Skeâ 59. (d)
conditional sentence nw FmeceW if Jeeueer clause keâes Present According to the passage children who are imparted
indefinite ceW leLee otmejer clause keâes future indefinite ceW highest education would be responsible for "They
could act as gurdians of the city and care for the less
ØeÙegòeâ keâjles nw~ able". Hence option (d) will be correct answer.
Correct Sentence - 60. (a)
If he doesn't reach the station in time, he will surely According to the passage "repetition" a key tool to
miss the train. develop good habits in students. Hence option (a) will
52. (b) be correct answer.
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ jsKeebefkeâle Yeeie were happy about kesâ mLeeve hej 61. (a)
According to the question:-
was happy with GheÙegòeâ nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ peye neither ..... nor mes 2
oes subject pegÌ[s nes lees Deeves Jeeueer verb yeeo Jeeues subject (nor  10 
Present population of the village = 10000 ×  1 + 
kesâ meeLe) kesâ Devegmeej singular Je plural ØeÙegòeâ nesieer~ Ûetbefkeâ nor  100 
kesâ heeme Jeeuee subject 'The child' singular nw Dele: verb Yeer 11 11
= 10000× ×
singular (was) ØeÙegòeâ nesieer leLee happy with something 10 10
= 12100
ØeÙegòeâ neslee nw~ 62. (d)
Correct Sentence - Let the initial income = `y
Neither the parents nor the child was happy with the According to the question,
result.
25 20
53. (a) y× = ( y + 1000)
100 100
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ jsKeeefkebâle Yeeie had I kesâ mLeeve hej were I keâe 25y - 20 y = 20000
ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ JeekeäÙe ceW keâuhevee keâer ieF& nw, Dele: Ùen 5y = 20000
JeekeäÙe conditional sentence type-II nw, efpemekeâer mebjÛevee y = `4000
efvecveJele nw- 63. (b)
Let, number of toys in factory = x
If + were/V II from, would/could + V I from
20 x
were + subject, would/could+V I form No. of defective toys = x × =
100 5
Correct Sentence–  x  25
Were I a rich person, I would share my wealth. No. of damage toys =  x –  ×
 5  100
54. (a)
4x 1 x
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ jsKeebefkeâle Yeeie isn't it kesâ mLeeve hej haven't = × =
5 4 5
you GheÙegòeâ nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ question tag keâes verb keâe efveOee&jCe According to the question-
JeekeäÙe ceW ØeÙegòeâ verb (have) kesâ Devegmeej neslee nw~ x x
Note- Positive sentence keâe question tag negative neslee nw x –  +  = 4800
5 5
peyeefkeâ negative sentence keâe question tag positive neslee nw~ 2x
Correct Sentence - x– = 4800
5
You have locked the gate, haven't you. 3x
55. (d) = 4800
5
No substitution.
x = 8000
Note- Superlative Degree (biggest) kesâ henues the keâe ØeÙeesie
64. (b)
neslee nw~ Let number of total votes = 100
56. (a) Votes obtained by winner candidate = 48
According to the passage option (a) "Imparting similar Votes obtained by opponent = 34
education to all children" is not advocated in ''The Invalid votes = 100 - (48 + 34) = 18
Republic'' Votes received by the opponent = 6800
Dele: efJekeâuhe (a) GheÙegòeâ Gòej nw ~ 34 units = 6800

124 YCT
1unit = 200 69. (c)
Winning margin = 48 - 34 = 14 Let the total money is `x.
1unit = 200 According to the question,
14units = 2800
x/7 × 4×1 5x/14× 6×1 x/2×5×1
Winning votes = 2800 730 = + +
Invalid votes = 18×200 = 3600 100 100 100
65. (b) 8x + 30x + 35x
730 =
According to the question, 1400
15 25 50 730×1400 = 73x
x× = y× = z×
100 100 100 x = `14,000
3x = 5y =10z = k (Let) 70. (a)
3x = k Let time be T years, both debts amounts are equal.
k Given,
x= P1 = ` 80,000 P2 = ` 91,000
3
R1 = 24% R2 = 20%
Same as,
According to the question,
k
y= P × R1 × T P × R2 ×T
5 P1 + 1 = P2 + 2
100 100
k
z= 80000× 24× T 91000× 20× T
10 80000 + = 91000 +
k k k 100 100
x:y:z= : : 19200 T – 18200 T = 91000 – 80000
3 5 10 1000 T = 11000
10k : 6k : 3k T = 11 years
x:y:z=
30 71. (a)
x : y : z = 10 : 6 : 3 Given-
Principal (P) = ` 37500, r = 8% per annum = 4% Half
66. (d) yearly
Ratio of coins = x : 2x : 3x
1
According to the question, Time (t) = 1 Years = 3 Half yearly
2x = 80 2
t
x = 40  r 
Amount ( A ) = P 1 + 
∴ Total number of coins of one rupee, 50 paise and 25  100 
paise is 40, 80, 120 respectively. 3
 4 
40 40 × 3 = 37500  1 + 
Total Values (in Rs.) = 40 × 1 + × 2 +  100 
2 4
26 26 26
40 + 40 + 30 = ` 110 = 37500 × × × = `42182.40
67. (b) 25 25 25
Marked price = `80 72. (a)
Selling price = `68 According to the question –
2
Marked price - Selling price  r  12544
Rate of discount = ×100  1 +  =
Marked price  100  10000
80 − 68 1+
r
=
112
= ×100
80 100 100
12 r 12
= × 100 = 15% =
80 100 100
68. (a) r = 12%
According to the question, Compound interest = 12544 − 10000 = ` 2544
Principal (P) = ` 48750 10000 × 12 × 2
Rate (R) = 16% Annual Simple interest = = ` 2400
100
1
Time (t) = 73 days or years Saved money = 2544 − 2400
5 = ` 144
P×R ×T
S.I. = 73. (b)
100 Let principal = `P
48750×16×1 Time = 3 years
= = ` 1560
100×5 According to the question,
125 YCT
  R 
3 78. (d)
8P = P 1 +  Total age of 40 students = 10×40 = 400 years
 100  Total age of 30 students = 12 × 30 = 360 years
3
 R  400 + 360
( 2)
3
= 1 +  Average age of all students =
 100  70
 R  760
2 = 1 +  = = 10.85 years
 100  70
R 79.(c)
2 −1 = Real Madrid average number of goals scored by each
100 player
R = 100%
Number of goals of Real Madrid 33
74. (c) · = =3
From the question, number of players of football 11
80. (d)
1 1 1 1
+ + + .......+
2 6 12 n ( n + 1)
Efficiency of Garima = 20 – 12 = 8 1 1 1 1
= + + + ...... +
Efficiency of Aseema = 15 – 12 = 3 1× 2 2 × 3 3 × 4 n ( n + 1)
According to the question,
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
300 300 = − + − + − + ...... + −
Required Time = = Days. 1 2 2 3 3 4 n ( n + 1)
8+3 11
75. (c) 1 1
= −
According to the question, 1 ( n + 1)
A can do 75% of the work = 30 days
n +1 −1 n
A can do 100% of the work = 40 days = =
B can do 50% of the work = 18 days n +1 n +1
B can do 100 % of work = 36 days 81. (b)
1 1 Just as, Writer is related to Pen. Similarly, Chef is
One day's work of (A + B) = + related Pan.
40 36 82. (d)
9 + 10 Just as,
=
360
19
= unit
360
76. (b)
From the given options–
414 And,
(a) Ratio of female and male in Group C = = 0.43
950
414
(b) Ratio of female and male in Group B= = 0.64
650
408
(c) Ratio of female and male in Group S = = 0.57
720 Same as,
405
(d) Ratio of female and male in Group R= = 0.55
740
Hence, It is clear that the ratio of Group B is maximum.
77. (b)
April + May + June + August + September + October
Average = 83. (a)
6
Just as -
35 + 40 + 45 + 45 + 45 + 25 (11, 117, 2 ) ⇒ (11 + 2 ) × (11 − 2 )
=
6 = 13 × 9 = 117 (Mid Number)
235 and,
=
6 ( 9, 56, 5) ⇒ ( 9 + 5) × ( 9 − 5)
= 39.16 ≈ 39 (approx) = 14 × 4 = 56 (Mid Number)
126 YCT
From option (a), 92. (b)
Same as, According to the question,
(12, 108, 6 ) ⇒ (12 + 6 ) × (12 − 6 )
= 18 × 6 = 108 (Mid Number)
84. (b)
Just as, the next figure can be acquired by dividing the
square into 6 parts. Same as, the figure C can be
obtained by dividing the triangle into 6 parts. Hence, it clear from diagram that C is the wife of P.
85. (b) 93. (b)
Just as, and Similarly, Given,
S I MPLE PLOUG H SLEEP P→×,M→+
↓↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓↓↓ ↓↓ T → − ,B → ÷
54 B 9 P 11 T 13 M 17
63 1 549 547 0 2 8 64995 On putting the mathematical signs-
So, SLEEP will be written as 64995. = 54 ÷ 9 × 11 – 13 +17
86. (b) = 6 × 11 – 13 + 17
Flute, Saxophone and Mouth Organ all these are played = 83 – 13 = 70
by mouth whereas Violin is played by hand. Hence, ? = 70
87. (a) 94. (a)
In the given figures, option figure (A) is different from From option (a),
others as many circles are located inside the figure as 3>2<4×8+4<2
equal number of circles are located outside the figure. On changing the symbols,
Hence, option (a) is correct. =3+2–4>8÷4–2
88. (d) =5–4> 2–2
The given series is as follows :- =1>0
Hence option (a) is correct. So there is no need to check
other option.
95. (b)
The Venn diagram that best expresses the relationship
Hence, ? = 29 between Women, Children and Teachers.
89. (d)
Each subsequent figure in the given figure is rotating
900 clockwise. On the basis of which the next required
figure will be option (d).
90. (a) Hence, option (b) will be correct.
Just as, 96. (a)
In first Column, 9 × 5 × 3 = 135 According to the statement–
In second Column, 5 × 7 × 4 = 140
Same as,
In third Column, 5 × ? × 5 = 150
Conclusions–
? × 25 = 150
1.
?=6
2. 
91. (c) Hence, it is clear from figure that only conclusion 2
On drawing blood relation diagram according to the follows.
question, 97. (a)
The diagram is as follows-

It is clear from above diagram that Neither conclusion I

nor conclusion II follows.
98. (d)
Naina sees Sunita and appreciates her beauty. It does
not conclude that Sunita is more beautiful than Naina. It
may be that Naina is also beautiful as Sunita and it also
It is clear from the diagram that Suresh's wife will be does not conclude that Naina is impressed by Sunita's
Jitesh's niece and Jitesh will be Suresh's wife's maternal dressing style. So, neither conclusion I nor II follows
uncle. the statement.

127 YCT
99. (b) • Insulin is a hormone created by our pancreas, that
Answer figure A is formed from the given question controls the amount of glucose our blood stream.
figure. So option (b) is correct. • Inside the pancreas the hormone insulin is made in the
100. (c) beta (β) cells. β -cells are part of islets of Langerhans.
The given question image is embedded in the answer 108. (b)
image 'A' out of the answer images. Calcitonin is secreted by thyroid gland. Calcitonin is a
So, option (c) is correct. hormone that produce and release by the C cells in the
101. (a) thyroid gland.
The Pancreatic beta cells are Endocrine cells the Colcitonin is involved in helping to regulate levels of
synthesize, store and release insulin the anti- calcium and phosphate in the blood. Opposing the
hyperglycemic hormone that antagonizes glucagon, action of parathyroid hormone.
Growth hormone. glucocorticosteroids epinephrine and Adrenal gland :- The adrenal gland secretes hormones
other hyperglycemic hormones, to maintain circulating such as cortisol and aldosterone.
glucose concentrations within a narrow physiologic 109. (c)
range.Pancreatic polypeptide (PP) is an endogenous The t1/2 of heparin is reduced in patients with
peptide hormone secreted by the cells, also called PP pulmonary embolism condition. Immediate therapeutic
cells of the islets of langerhans of pancreas. Mostly anticoagulation is initiated for patients with suspected
postprandially. deep venous thrombosis or pulmonary embolism.
102. (d) Anticoagulation therapy with heparin reduces mortality
Vitamin A is a precursor of rhodopsin, the photo rates from 30% to less than 10%.
pigment found in rods within retina of our eye that helps Heparin works by activating antithrombin III to slow or
us to see at night. Without vitamin A, "night blindness' prevent the progression of DVT and to reduce the size
occurs. vitamin A is a fat soluble vitamin and found in and frequency of pulmonary embolism. Heparin does
many supplements and foods. not dissolve existing clot.
Rhodopsin also known as visual purple, is a protein 110. (c)
encoded by the RHO gene and a G-protein-coupled Cardiac output is volume of blood ejected by the left
receptor. ventricle per minute.
103. (d) Unit- litre (ml)/minute.
Erythropoietin (EPO) is a glycoprotein hormone, cardiac output (CO) = SV × HR
naturally produced by the peritubular cells of the (Stroke volume) ( Heart rate)

kidney, that stimulates red blood cells production. Renal 111. (a)
cortex peritubular cells produce most EPO in the human In ABC analysis, the A items are 10% - 20% of items
body. PO2 directly regulates EPO production. The lower and 70% - 80% of their expenditure. This means that a
the PO2. the greater the production of EPO. items comprise a relatively small number of items but
104. (a) have a relatively high consumption.
In a healthy person the GFR is about 125 ml/min, which 112. (b)
makes 180 liters per day. The time interval between placing the order for
105. (a) purchase and receipt of items is called lead time. It
Tetanus is related to skeletal muscle fiber and locking represents how long it takes for an order to be fulfilled
of jaw. from the time the order is placed until the estimated data
Tetanus is an infection caused by a bacterium called of receipt.
clostridium tetani. 113. (b)
When these bacteria enter the body, they produce a Dose calculation for a child if his weight in pounds (lb)
toxin that causes painful muscle contractions. is known, can be done by Clark's rule
Another name of tetanus is ''Lockjaw". It often causes a Body weight (lb)
Child's dose = × adult dose
person's neck and jaw muscles to lock, making it hard to 150
open the mouth or swallow. 50
= × 20
106. (d) 150
These trials look for effects that were not seen is earlier 1000
trials and may also study now well a new treatment =
150
works over a long period of time. Phase IV clinical = 6.6 mg
trials may include thousands of people. Also called 114. (a)
phase 4 clinical trial and post-marketing surveillance The symbol 'Rx' is related to the Latin word 'recipe'
trial. meaning 'to take'.
107. (b) It is generally the part of superscription (heading) of
There are 51 amino acids present in the insulin. prescription.
• Insulin is composed of two peptide chains referred to 115. (a)
as 'A' chain and 'B' chain. A and B chains are linked Indian pharmacopoeia 2022 {I, P - 2022} Contains a
together by two disulfide bonds. total of 92 new monographs, including 60 chemical 21
128 YCT
vitamins, minerals, amino acids, etc, 3 biotechnology 122. (d)
derived therapeutic products, 4- human derived Some partial list of prescription abbreviations are
therapeutic products, 4- human vaccines, 2 blood and given below-
blood related products, 2 herbs and herbal-related Abbreviation Latin Meaning
products, and seven phytopharmaceutical ingredients. aa ana of each
116. (c) ad ad up to
Post cibum is a Latin phrase, which means after meals. a.c. ante cibum before meals
117. (a) : Correct match for the list- I and list-II is as a.m. ante morning, before
follows - meridiem noon
List-I List-II b.i.d. bis in die twice daily
A. When two dosage forms Absorption rate h,hr hora hour
have equal tmax constants are equal
h.s. hora somni at bedtime
B. AUC values of the two When their total body
ID intradermal
analogs can be compared to clearance is constant.
measure relative bioavailability IM intramuscular
(with respect to
C. Urinary data is valid to Excretion of drug and injections)
measure bioavailability for metabolite is
IP intraperitoneal
related to the
Bioavailable dose. IV intravenous
D. Cmax is proportional the role When fraction P.C. post cibum after meals
of absorption absorbed and noct. nocte at night
elimination rate is q.h. quaque hora every hour
constant. 123. (d)
118. (c) Liniments differ from lotions, as liniments do not
The main aim and objectives of hospital formulary is to contain simple salt like ZnSO4.
provide information about the use of medicines, hence • Lotion:- The lotion is a low to medium viscosity
formulary in the hospital give detailed information topical preparation that should be applied to undamaged
about composition, indication and required dosage of skin, whereas liniment is a topical medical preparation
drugs and their administration. that should be rubbed into the skin with friction.
119. (c) • Liniments are commonly used to relieve pain and
Correct match of the given lists I and II are as stiffness caused by sore muscle, aches and strains or
follows:- arthritis. Lotions are applied to the skin surface with
bare hands, a brush, or a clean cloth, cotton wool or
List - I classification of List-II Example gauze.
Bacteria 124. (d)
Gram Positive spherical shaped Streptococcus β-Propiolactone seems to be superior sterilizing agents
nonmotile bacteria for biological because of its capacity to inactivate a
Gram positive sporulating Clostridium tetani wide varity of bacteria, fungus and viruses.
obligate anaerobic bacteria
Gram positive rod shaped Corynebacterium
nonsporulating bacteria diphtheriae
Gram positive sporulating rod Bacillus anthracis
shaped motile bacteria
120. (b) 125. (a)
Enzyme induction is not a cause for the drug 1
Grain, unit of weight equal to 0.065 gm or pound
undergoing nonlinear pharmacokinetics, Drug follows 7000
non-linear pharmacokinetics due to capacity limited or 1 scruple is equal to 20grains.
metabolism in which enzyme inhibition takes place Scruple– scruple, unit of weight in apothecaries system,
after certain time limit and carrion molecules get equal to 20 grains or one third dram & equivalent to
saturated. Saturation in plasma protein binding also 1.296 grams.
makes the drug to undergo nonlinear pharmacokinetics. • 20 grains is equal to 0.341047 drachm.
121. (d) • 20 grains is equal to 1 scruple.
The Active ingredients is Antiperspirants usually 126. (d)
include aluminium based compound that temporarily A quantity of medicine for cerebral to be taken at one
block sweat pores. Blocking sweat pores reduces the time called drug dose.
amount of perspiration that reaches in our skin. Drug dose formula for
Examples. • Odaban 1. Young's formula–
• Magicool Age in year
• Zeasorb Absorbent powder dose for child = × Adult dose
Age + 12
• Anhydrol forte.
129 YCT
 0.5 Hence, flocculated suspensions sediments more rapidly.
Dose for child = × 300 The sedimentation depends not only on the size of the
12.5
flocs but also on the porosity of flocs.
150.0 134. (b)
=
12.5 Tragacanth is better thickening agent for suspension.
1500 Tragacanth, a water soluble gum, has been used since
=
125 ancient times as an emulsifier, thickening agent and
= 12 mg suspending agent.
127. (c) Today it is used extensively in foods and dressings and
The first British pharmacopeia was published in 1864. It to thicken ice cream. Tragancanth has also been used as
was compiled by a committee that was composed of a demulcent (relieves irritation of the mucous
members of the council and was divided into three sub- membrane in the mouth by forming a protective film) in
committees working separately in London Edinburgh, cough and cold preparations and to manage diarrhea.
and Dublin.
It also has been shown to moderate blood sugar level,
• First official pharmacopeia of India appeared in 1868
but this has not been demonstrated consistently.
which was edited by Edward John Waring.
128. (c) 135. (b)
Dry heat at 100ºC for 60 minute (1 hour) kills Calcium carbonate is commonly used as abrasive in
vegetative bacteria which are susceptible to moist heat toothpaste.
at 600C in 30 minute. High content of organic some abrasive compound are also used in the tooth
substances protect spores and vegetative forms against paste, such as-
lethal action of heat. Aluminum hydroxide, Calcium hydrogen phosphate,
129. (b) Silica and hydroxy apatite, Sodium fluoride, Stannous
Positive mixture– positive mixtures are formed from fluoride and Sodium mono-phosphate have also been
materials such as gases or miscible liquid which mix
used.
spontaneously and irreversible by diffusion and tend to
approach a perfect mixture. 136. (a)
130. (d) The volume of eye drops administered from commercial
The term HEPA means "High- efficiency Particulate eye dropper bottles is coming in the range of 25 - 56
Air" sometimes called "High Efficiency particulate µL. Ophthalmic solution are available for multi-dose or
Arrestance " and what that's basically means- It's a single-dose administration in wide variety of glass and
special kind of filter that captures microscopic plastic dropper bottles which deliver drops with a
particles. volume between 25 and 70 µL from a
131. (c) biopharmaceutical and economic point of view,
A nasogastric (Ryle's) tube is a narrow- bore tube
passed into stomach via the nose. It is a used for short- however, small volumes of 5 to 15 µL should be
or medium-term nutritional support, and also for installed. In this review, the technical pharmaceutical
aspiration of stomach content. and therapeutic aspects of eye drop formation and
Eg:- for decompression of intestinal obstruction. It is a delivery are presented.
disposable polyvinyl chloride tube used for both 137. (b)
therapeutic and diagnostic purpose. It is also used for Sealed ampoules containing a thermo-stable drug
doing gastric lavage in cases of poisioning. solution are commonly sterilized by Autoclave.
132. (b) The autoclave is a equipment used to remove micro
Capsule number '0' can accommodate maximum organisms (virus, Bacteria, fungus etc.) and spores
medicament.
using high pressure and high temperature steam
'0' size capsule holds about 500 mg, because of the great
average dose size, it is one of the most common capsule sterilization.
sizes used in the pharmaceutical and beauty industry, Autoclave is a pressurized device designed to heat
the volume of the capsule is 0.68 ml and capsule size 0 aqueous solutions above their boiling point at normal
is 21.3 mm locked length. atmospheric pressure to achieve sterilization.
133. (d) 138. (b)
The statement is true for flocculated suspension is rate Troches tablets is used in oral cavity. Troches are
of sedimentation is high. flavored, medicated lozenges that easily dissolve in the
A flocculated suspension is a suspension in which mouth. Troches are placed in the mouth between the
particles of the suspension has undergo flocculation the gum and the cheek, (buccal) or under the tongue
process in which colloids in a suspension can be
obtained in an aggregated form. (Sublingual). The route of administration allows
In flocculated suspension, formed flocs (loose medication to enter the blood stream directly from
aggregates) will cause increase in sedimentation rate mouth E.g.- Clotrimazole Troches and nystatin rinse
due to increase in size of sedimenting particles. and pastilles, etc.
130 YCT
139. (d) • Soft gelatin capsules are used for administration of
Drug with 4-8 hours are the best candidates for oral liquid medications. They are used to enclose liquid
sustained release dosage formulation. medications- oils, suspension, semi solid, ophthalmic
140. (a) products. Ex- cyclosporine capsules.
The absorption rate of a drug in most rapid when drug is 145. (c)
formulated as solution. Film coating solution on tablets before drying causes
• A soft gelatin capsule is a type of capsule that is insufficient dissemination of orange- peel effect.
usually used to contain medicine in form of liquid or Orange peel is a certain kind of finish that may develop
powder and which dissolves more quickly than a hard on painted and cast surfaces.
gelatin capsule. 146. (c)
• A hard gelatin capsule is a type of capsule that is Given that strength of the dilute solution is 1 in 4000,
usually used to contain medicine in the form of dry 1
powder or very small pellets. ∴% = × 100
4000
141. (d) 1
The first edition of Indian Pharmacopoeia was =
published in the year 1955. 40
= 0.025%
142. (b)
In 1874 Volhard designed the method of estimation of Note- Commission has been accepted correct option (d).
silver ions (AgNO3) in dilute acid solutions by titrating 147. (b)
against a standard thiocynate solution in the presence of The most common word for "food" in Halian is "cibos",
ferric salt (Ferric ammonium sulphate) as indicator. which can be used in various contexts like ordering
It has been extended to estimate chloride, bromide and food at a restaurant or discussing food at a restaurant or
other several analysis. discussing food preferences.
Steps of Volhard's method: Other synonyms and related words include " alimnento"
• Analyte is treated with the measured excess of silver (formal and scientific), "vivanda" (old fashioned and
nitrate poetic) and "mangiare" (casual or slangy).
148. (c)
X – + Ag + → AgX + Ag + (excess)
ISO 9002 refers to company level certification
• The unreacted silver ions are titrated with a standard following a standard published by the international
solution of Thiocyanate ion,using Fe (III) as indicator organization for standardization (ISO). The ISO created
Ag + + SCN –  → AgSCN guidelines for quality assurance in installation,
• The first slight excess of thiocyanate ion gives Red production and service provision.
colour of FeSCN2+ 149. (c)
3+ Strontium chloride (SrCl2) is used to treat and prevent
Fe + SCN –  → FeSCN 2+ dental hypersensitivity. It is used for the treatment of
Indicator

143. (c) gum inflammation.

Topical medications differ from many other type of 150. (d)
drug because mishandling then can lead to certain Hydrogen peroxide is used as a disinfectant or antiseptic
complications in a patient or administrator of the drug. to prevent plaque and inflammation of the gums.
The purpose of using topical medicine is to deliver It is also used as a bleaching agent, source of power, in
medication directly onto areas of the skin that are the restoration of old paintings in which lead oxide is
irritated, inflamed, itching or infected. used as a white paint, antiseptic and germicide.
There are many classes of topical medications such as 151. (c)
creams, ointments, lotions, patches and aerosol sprays. Calamine is an ore of zinc. It is zinc carbonate with the
144. (a) chemical formula, ZnCO3. Calamine is a mild base.
Capsule are available in the form of both hard gelatin • Calamine also known as calamine lotion. It is used to
capsules and soft gelatin capsules. relieve the itching, pain, and discomfort of minor skin
Capsules are a solid dosage form in which the drug irritations, such as those caused by poison ivy, poison
substance is enclosed in a water soluble shell or an oak, and poision sumac.
envelope. • The molecular formula of calamine is Fe2O4Zn.
A capsule shell is made up of gelatin. Capsules are • Calamine has no virtues over zinc oxide, and many
available in two types: disadvantages.
1. Hard gelatin capsules 152. (c)
2. Soft gelatin capsules Organophosphates and carbamates are common
• Hard gelatin capsules are used for administration of insecticide ingredients that inhibit cholinesterase
solid medications. It consists of two parts i.e. body and activity causing acute muscarinic manifestations.
cap. Ex- omeprazole Atropine sulfate is used as an antidote for
131 YCT
organophosphate and carbamate poisoning. In this type 160. (a)
of poisoning actually atropine is given to relieve Saroglitazar is a medication, that is used to decrease the
bronchospasm and bronchorrhea while another antidote glucose as well as lipid level in the blood plasma. It is a
pralidoxime (2. PAM) is given after atropine to relieve dual action peroxisome proliferators- activated receptor
neuromuscular symptoms. (PPAR) inhibitor. It acts in a unique mechanism is
153. (a) which it reduces the synthesis of and secretion of
triglycerides (a lipid or a cholesterol in blood) as well as
Itai-itai disease is associated with cadmium poisoning.
the sugar level by improving the insulin sensitivity of
It is caused when humans get exposed to cadmium (CD) the body.
as a result of various activities of industrialisation Itai- 161. (d)
itai was first recognised in Japan in the 1960s. Lopinavir is a selective inhibitor of the HIV type-I
154. (d) protease. Generally the combination of lopinavir and
Zinc chloride is used as an astringent and a desensitizer ritonavir is used with other medications to treat human
for dentine. immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infections.
Zinc chloride has an antiseptic (Prevents the growth of 162. (a)
microorganisms), and astringent action (tightening of Idoxuridine is an anti Herpes virus antiviral drug. It is a
soft organic tissues ). It is used in the treatment of nucleoside analogue, a fodified form of deoxydridine ,
gingivitis , oral mucositis and mouth odour. ZnCl2 is a similar enough to be incorporated into viral DNA
medication used to treat zinc deficiencies and associated replication but the iodine atom added to the uracil
symptoms and also in total parenteral nutrition. component blocks base pairing. It is used only topically
due to cardiotoxicity.
155. (a)
163. (d)
Calcium oxychloride whose chemical formula is Phenformin is a class of drug used in the treatment of
CaOCl2. diabetes. Phenformin has the chemical formula
In common language it is called bleaching powder . C10H15N5 This drug now not in use as it is related to
Another name of it is chlorine of lime. In various more frequent occurrence of lactic acidosis and there
industries like wood pulp, textile, oil and soaps it is are other side effects of its as anorexia , metallic taste,
used as a bleaching agent. at lass, vomiting and diarrhoea etc.
156. (d) 164. (c)
Carbon dioxide (CO2) gas is most widely used in fire Correct match for the lists I and II is as follows:-
extinguishers. Fire is caused by the three elements i.e. List-I Mechanism of List-II Drugs
fuel, oxygen and heat. If one of the three elements is action
removed fire will stop. Carbondioxide (CO2) removes A. DPP4 inhibitors Teneligliptin
one element, i.e. oxygen. CO2 , being heavier than B. K. Channel blocker Glimepiride
oxygen, covers the fire like a blanket. Since the contact C. PPAR activator pioglitazone
of the fuel and oxygen is cut off, the fire is controlled. D. AMP Activator Metformin
So CO2 is used in fire extinguishers. 165. (b)
157. (c) General anaesthetics are depressants the central
Chlorine is most common quencher, though bromine is nervous system by enhancing inhibitory
occasionally used as well. Hallogen are most common neurotransmission and reducing excitatory
used with Neon, Argon, or Krypton & organic quencher neurotransmission.
with helium. 166. (b)
158. (a) Correct match for the lists given as I and II are as
Antimony potassium tartrate [K2 Sb2 (C4 H2 O6)2] follows:-
known as potassium antimonyl tartrate or tartar emetic. List-I List-II
It is sweet in taste but a toxic substance. It powder or Poisoning Treatment
granules used as a mordant for coloring textiles and 1. Warfarin vitamin k
leather. 2. Carban monoxide oxygen
159. (d) 3. Cyanide methylene blue
A teratogen is a substance that interferes with normal
4. Nitrites Dicobalt edetate
fetal development and causes congenital disabilities.
5. Organophosphate Pralidoxine
Drugs, alcohol, chemicals and toxic substances are
example of teratogens. Thalidomide is a potent 167. (b)
teratogen and tetracycline, streptomycin are also Increased HDL is not responsible for insulin resistance
teratogens. in type-2 diabetes High-density lipoprotein (HDL)
Animal studies of amphotericin B has not shown cholesterol is known as the good cholesterol because it
helps remove other forms. Higher levels of HDL
teratogenicity of this medicine but it's higher doses may
cholesterol are associated with a lower risk of heart
increase the cases of abortion
disease.
132 YCT
168. (d) 176. (b)
A vitamin is the organic molecule which is the essential In case of Rauwolfia, Roots of the plants is used as
micronutrient. medicine. Rauwolfia alkaloids are indicated in the
• Vitamin K is the fat soluble vitamin. Vitamin K helps treatment of hypertension. Rauwolfia is medicine plant
in blood clotting. It is found in various food items like in the milkweed family. The root of the plant in ground
spinach, Kale, broccoli, carrots etc. Its chemical name is into a powder or solid in tablets or capsule.
phylloquinone. 177.
• Vitamin A is a fat-soluble which is also known with Ricinoleic acid is a derivative of castor oil. It is an
unsaturated omega-9 fatty acid and a hydroxy acid. It is
the name of Retinol. It helps in improving eyesight and
a major component to the seed oil obtained from castor
night vision. plant (Ricinus communis).
• Vitamin B is a water - soluble vitamin that helps in 178. (b)
improving the immunity of the body. Respiratary failure is a serious condition that makes it
• Vitamin D is necessary for promoting bone growth. difficult to breath on your own . Respiratory failure
169. (b) develops when the lungs can get enough oxygen into
Osmotic potential is the potential of water molecule to the blood. We breath oxygen from the air into our lungs
move from a hypotonic solution to a hypertonic solution and we breathe out carbon dioxide which is a waste gas
across a semipermeable membrane. osmotic potential of made in the body's cells.
pure water is zero by convention. 179.
170. (b) Benzylpenicillin , also known as Penicillin-G or
Chlorophyll is a pigment present in all green plants and BENPEN and in military slang peanut Butter shot is an
a few other organisms. antibiotic used to treat a number of bacterial infections
• Chlorophyll is a naturally occurring compound in this includes Pneumonia strep throat syphilis
necrotizing enterocolitis diphtheria gas gangrene
which the central metal atom is magnesium. In
leptospirosis cellulitis and tetanus.
chlorophyll, the large organic molecule is a porphyrin.
180. (b)
• It is required for photosynthesis, which is the process
The lemon essential oil is composed of d- limonene γ-
by which light energy is converted into chemical
terpinine and β -pinene followed by four other
energy.
monoterpene hydrocarbon (Myrcene, Sabinene, α -
• Besides plants, chlorophyll is found in all pinene and p-cimene) and other compounds in five
photosynthetic organisms such as cyonobacteria. different classes (sesquiterpene Hydrocarbons, carbonyl
• The porphyrin contains for nitrogen atoms that form compounds, alcohol, esters.
bonds to magnesium in a square planar arrangement. 181. (a)
171. (a) The pharmacy council of India is constituted by the
Ligase is the class of enzyme that brings about the central government.
binding or joining of two molecules It is by definition in The Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) is a statutory the
biology the class of enzyme that catalyzes the binding ministry of Health and F.W. Government of India. It is
and joining of two macromolecules by forming new constituted under the pharmacy Act, 1948 to regulate
bonds like C-O, C-N, pharmacy education and practice of profession in the
172. (a) country.
The pH of 0.1 M NaOH solution is 13. NaOH is a 182. (c)
strong base. so this will produce 0.1 mol/L of ions in The Schedule H Drug and Schedule X drugs are the
solution this will produce pH of 13. Therefore the pH 'restrictive drugs which are covered under the Drugs
0.1 M NaOH solution is 13. and cosmetic Act and Rules. The list of schedule X
173. (a) drugs includes over 536 drugs. The schedule X drugs
includes Narcotic and Psychotropic drugs which curses
The sterile processing department (central sterile supply
delusion, hallucinations, Psychosis, sedation. and
room) as it is also known comprises that service within hypnosis .
the hospital in which medical/surgical supplies and
183. (c)
equipment both sterile and nonsterile, are cleaned The schedule J of the drugs and cosmetics rules 1945 of
prepared processed stored and issued for patient care. India contains a list of diseases and ailments which a
174. (b) drug may not claim to prevent or cure. Under rule 106
Colchicine is an natural alkaloid derived from two of the drugs and cosmetics Act 1940 a drug can not
plants of the liliaceae family, Colchicum autumnale and make claims to treat or prevent any of the diseases or
Gloriosa superba, that was first recommended for the reform the conditions listed.
treatment of gout in the six century. It remains widely in 184. (c)
use today for the treatment of acute gout. India's first Central Drug Laboratory was established at
175. (d) Kolkata.
Catechu is an herb. The leaves, shoots, and wood are It is established under the. Indian Drug and Cosmetic
used to make medicine. Catechu is used for diarrhea, Act 1940 and represents Nation's statutory laboratory
dysentery, swelling of the nose and throat etc. for Quality control of drugs and cosmetics.

133 YCT
185. (d) first administered to human being in 1921. BCG is the
Schedule N refers to list of minimum equipment for the only vaccine against tuberculosis.
efficient running of a pharmacy. Schedule N (Form 194. (a)
990) is used by an organization that files form 990 to A deficiency in the activity of sphingomyelinase
report going out of existence or disposing of more than enzyme lead to Niemann-Pick disease.
25% of its net assets through sale, exchange, or other Niemann Pick disease refers to a group of inherited
disposition. metabolic disorders in which abnormal amount of lipid
186. (d) (fatty materials such as waxes, oils and cholestrol) build
Whole human blood is included in the Indian up in the brain, spleen, liver, lungs and bone marrow.
195. (b)
Pharmacopoeia under Schedule C of the drugs and
An increase in the size of an organ or a tissue that is not
cosmetics rules. The requirement of blood banks is
associated with cancer is termed as hyperplasia.
given under schedule F of the said rule. Hyperplasia is the increase in the amount of tissue due
187 (c) to cell proliferation. It might lead to the enlargement of
Outside India pharmacy qualification approved is a certain organ.
affiliated by pharmacy council of India. It is a common response to a stimulus. The cell does not
The candidates securing 60% marks or above, in proliferate in the absence of the stimulus. The cells
aggregate in all subjects in a single, attempt at the undergoing hyperplasia are controlled by growth
Diploma in pharmacy (Part-I or Diploma in pharmacy hormones.
(Part II) examinations. 196. (a)
188. (b) Ideal temperature for the DPT vaccine storage is 4 to
State pharmacy council should have the following 8°C .
Refrigerators should maintain temperature between 2ºC
number of elected members-
and 8ºC (36ºF and 46ºF).
Six elected Pharmacists and one elected member from
197. (a)
medical council. Vincristine have a nonsymmetrical dimeric structure
189. (b) with two indole. type nuclei linked by carbon-corban
State of being free from all living microorganisms is bond. It has been authorised by FDA for it's clinical
known as sterile. usage for cancer treatment in 1963. Vincristine is a
• In microbiology sterilization can be defined as the vinca alkaloid antineoplastic agent used as tretment for
complete removal of all forms of microorganisms as various cancers including breast cancer, Hodkin's
that of viruses, bacteria, fungus and Spore forms. disease, Kaposi's sarcoma etc.
190. (d) 198. (b)
Aloe ferox, commonly known as the bitter aloe or cape
The bacterial cell walls consists of peptidoglycan, an
aloe is a commercially important plant species
essential protective barrier for bacterial cells that
characterized by its tail. Single stemmed tree-like shape
encapsulates the cytoplasmic membrane of both Gram- and spiny succulent leaves Aqueous leaf extract of aloe
positive and Gram-negative bacterial cells. ferox mill has been shown to exhibit anti-inflammatory
Peptidoglycan is a rigid, highlyconserved, complex and analgesic activities at the highest dose used (400
structure of polymeric carbohydrates and amino acids. mg/kg) in rats. Aloes are used for the treatment of
191. (a) constipation and suppressed menstruation.
Schick test is used to identify Diptheria. It was 199. (c)
developed by a Hungarian-origin American pediatrician ■ During recent months, a considerable quantity of
Bela Schick in 1913. Indian senna leaves adulterated with a foreign leaf
The scientific principle behind the Schick test is based has been offered for sale in this country.
on antibody-antigen reactions, and for this purpose an ■ This adulteration has ranged from 5 to 10 percent in
intradermal injection is used to put the bacteria under better quality leaves to upwards of 90 percent in
the patient's skin. some cheaper samples.
192. (a) ■ The adulterant has been identified, by comparison
Bacterial exotoxins are protein in nature, they can be with authentic specimens from the Herbarium of
single polypeptides or heteromeric protein complexes the Pharmaceutical Society of Great Britain, as the
that act on different parts of the cells. leaf of Cassia auriculata Linn., commonly known
Exotoxins are part of a defensive system of bacteria to as Palthe Senna.
avoid capture and killing by leucocytes. 200. (c)
Atropine is a cholinergic blocking agent. It binds to and
193. (b)
inhibits muscarinic acetylcholine receptors and thus
Bacillus calmette - Guerin (BCG) is the live attenuated totally blocking the effects of acetylcholine and other
vaccine form of mycobacterium bovis used to prevent choline esters. Atropine is used treat many conditions
tuberculosis and other mycobacterium infections. The and also used to reduce saliva and fluid in the
vaccine was develop by Calmette and Guerin and was respiratory tract during surgery.

134 YCT
 PRACTICE SET - 2
(c) Indian Institutes of Science Education and
SECTION-A Research (IISER)
(d) Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO)
General Awareness 12. The Brightest planet in the night sky
1. The Mohan Veena, a modified Hawaiian (a) Jupiter (b) Mercury
Guitar also known as Hindustani Slide Guitar (c) Saturn (d) Venus
was created and popularized by ______. 13. Who founded the Indian Statistical Institute
(a) Ram Narayan (b) Anoushka Shankar and is considered the Father of Modern
(c) Vishwa Mohan Bhatt (d) Asad Ali Khan Statistics in India?
2. Kalamkari painting was originated: (a) Debabrata Basu
(a) Himachal (b) Uttar Pradesh (b) Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis
(c) Madhya (d) Andhra (c) Raghu Raj Bahadur
3. Which of the following sites of Indus Valley (d) Anil Kumar Bhattacharya
Civilization is located in Punjab (India)? 14. The Gadgil formula which is named after social
(a) Kot Diji (b) Banawali scientist and the first critic of Indian planning
(c) Balu (d) Ropar was approved in ______ for determining the
allocation of central assistance for state plans
4. Which ruler of the Mamluk Sultanate was the
in India.
sultan of Delhi from 1236 to 1240?
(a) 1970 (b) 1967
(a) Aram Shah (b) Razia Sultana
(c) 1966 (d) 1969
(c) Ruknuddin Firoz (d) Nasiruddin Mahmud
15. Which instrument aids in the detection of the
5. In 1680, ________ son of Shivaji ascended the
heartbeat?
throne after his success in the war of succession
(a) Stethoscope (b) Thermometer
against his brother Rajaram.
(c) Spirometer (d) Sphygmomanometer
(a) Balaji (b) Shahu
16. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?
(c) Sambhaji (d) Baji Rao I
(a) Pressure (b) Displacement
6. When was independent India's first Union
(c) Force (d) Momentum
Budget presented in the Parliament?
17. In which of the following processes is the
(a) 1 October 1947 (b) 2 January 1948
pyruvate converted into ethanol and carbon
(c) 28 February 1948 (d) 26 November 1947
dioxide?
7. For Rajya Sabha membership, the President (a) Diffusion (b) Translocation
nominates _______ members on the basis of
(c) Fermentation (d) Transpiraton
their of excellence in literature, science, art and
social service and the rest are elected. 18. What is the need to balance chemical
equations?
(a) 11 (b) 12
(a) To indicate the ratio of volumes of reactants
(c) 10 (d) 13
and products in which these react
8. The feature of Quasi Federal Government
(b) To satisfy the law of conservation of mass
system in the Constitution of India is borrowed
(c) To satisfy the law of constant proportions
from the constitution of which country?
(a) The US (b) South Africa (d) To indicate the ratio of masses of reactants
and products in which these react
(c) The UK (d) Canada
19. Colourless plastids are called .............
9. The Annual Financial Statement, which is
(a) Leucoplast (b) Apicoplastids
presented as a part of budget, is covered under
which Article of the Constitution of India? (c) Chloroplastids (d) Chromoplastids
(a) Article 115 (b) Article 114 20. Which of the following forms the lining of
(c) Article 113 (d) Article 112 kidney tubules and ducts of salivary glands?
(a) Squamous epithelium
10. In which country's spacecraft did Rakesh
Sharma travel into space? (b) Glandular epithelium
(a) Germany (b) Soviet Union (c) Cuboidal epithelium
(c) UK (d) Japan (d) Columnar epithelium
11. _____ in Hyderabad is responsible for remote Test of Language : Hindi
sensing satellite data acquisition and processing, 21. efvee|JeYeefòeâkeâ ™he kesâ DeeOeej hej yengJeÛeve Meyo
data dissemination, aerial remote sensing and
decision support for disaster management. henÛeeefveS~
(a) National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC) (a) neefLeÙeeW (b) ueÌ[kesâ
(b) National Informatics Centre (NIC) (c) jeleeW (d) ueÌ[keâeW
135 YCT
22. efvecve ceW YeeJeJeeÛÙe nw : 34. mecegõieghle `Yeejle keâe vesheesefueÙeve' Lee~ ÙeneB vesheesefueÙeve
(a) ceesnve hegmlekeâ heÌ{lee nw~ (b) MÙeece he$e efueKelee nw~ efkeâme Øekeâej keâer meb%ee keâe GoenjCe nw?
(c) ceesnve mes yew"e veneR peelee~ (d) he$e efueKee peelee nw~ (a) JÙeeqkeäleJeeÛekeâ (b) peeefleJeeÛekeâ
23. œeerefuebie Meyo Deueie keâerefpeS : (c) YeeJeJeeÛekeâ (d) mecetnJeeÛekeâ
(a) ngueeme (b) njkeâle 35. efvecveefueefKele ceW mes keâewve efvepeJeeÛekeâ meJe&veece veneR nw?
(c) nceuee (d) nJeeuee (a) efvepe (b) nce
hetBpeerJeeo meceepe ceW uesKekeâ, hegmlekeâ Deewj hee"keâ kesâ yeerÛe (c) Deehe (d) Kego
yeepeej Dee ieÙee nw~ Fme yeepeej kesâ keâejCe uesKekeâ keâe hee"keâ mes 36. efvecveefueefKele ceW mes keâewve mee ‘hejmeie&’ keâòee& keâejkeâ ceW
meerOee mebyebOe veneR jn heelee~ FmeefueS ceekeäme& ves keâne nw efkeâ ØeÙegòeâ neslee nw?
hetBpeerJeeoer meceepe ceW keâuee, meeefnlÙe Ùee uesKekeâ kesâ efueS (a) ves (b) keâes
SefueÙevesMeve keâer mecemÙee meyemes yeÌ[er nw~ hegjeves meceepe ceW keâuee Je (c) mes (d) hej
keâueekeâej Deheves meceepe mes hetjer lejn pegÌ[s Les~ keâuee keâer jÛevee Deewj 37. ‘jece mees jne nw’–Fme JeekeäÙe ceW keâewve meer ef›eâÙee nw?
megj#ee oesveeW keâe oeefÙelJe meceepe keâe Lee~ yeeo ceW keâuee ojyeej ceW (a) Dekeâce&keâ (b) mekeâce&keâ
DeeÙeer, keâuee Deewj keâueekeâej keâe #es$e mebkegâefÛele ngDee~ keân mekeâles (c) ØesjCeeLe&keâ (d) efÉkeâce&keâ
nQ efkeâ FmeceW Gmekeâe Depeveyeerheve Ùee SefueÙevesMeve Deewj yeÌ{e~ 38. ‘legce Øeefleefove Kesueles nes’ GheÙeg&òeâ JeekeäÙe ceW ‘Øeefleefove’
24. hetBpeerJeeoer meceepe ceW uesKekeâ Deewj hee"keâ kesâ yeerÛe keäÙee keâewve mee ef›eâÙee-efJeMes<eCe nw?
Dee ieÙee nw? (a) iegCeJeeÛekeâ ef›eâÙee-efJeMes<eCe
(a) ojyeej (b) ØeÛeej (b) heefjceeCeJeeÛekeâ ef›eâÙee-efJeMes<eCe
(c) yeepeej (d) meceeÛeej
(c) keâeueJeeÛekeâ ef›eâÙee-efJeMes<eCe
25. hegjeves meceepe ceW keâuee keâer megj#ee keâe oeefÙelJe efkeâmekeâe Lee?
(d) mLeeveJeeÛekeâ ef›eâÙee-efJeMes<eCe
(a) keâueekeâej keâe (b) yeepeej keâe 39. ØeJeerCe kesâ YeeF& ves ØeLece hegjmkeâej Øeehle efkeâÙee~
(c) Meemekeâ keâe (d) meceepe keâe
GheÙeg&òeâ JeekeäÙe ceW keâce& nw-
26. keâuee #es$e keâe mebkegâÛeve keâe DeeMeÙe nw–
(a) ØeJeerCe (b) ØeLece
(a) keâuee keâe oeÙeje yeÌ{vee
(c) heeÙee (d) ØeLece hegjmkeâej
(b) keâuee keâe oeÙeje meerefcele nesvee
40. ‘Tve’ keâe lelmece ™he nw
(c) keâuee keâe GVeÙeve
(a) TvÙe (b) TCÙe&
(d) keâuee keâe ueeskeâefØeÙe nesvee
(c) TjCe (d) TCe&
27. ‘Depeveyeerheve’ keâe DeeMeÙe nw–
(a) Skeâekeâerheve (b) Deheveeheve Test of Language : English
(c) meecegoeefÙekeâlee (d) ueeskeâefØeÙelee 41. Select the most appropriate synonym of the
28. ieÅeebMe keâe meJee&efOekeâ GheÙegòeâ Meer<e&keâ nw– given word.
(a) keâuee ceW hetBpeerJeeo (b) hetBpeerJeeo meceepe ceW keâuee Bull-Headed
(c) ojyeejer meeefnlÙe (d) keâuee Deewj keâueekeâej (a) Headstrong (b) Clear-headed
29. efvecveefueefKele ceW mes keâewve-mee Meyo ‘lejkeäkeâer’ keâe heÙee&Ùe (c) Muddle-headed (d) Weak-minded
veneR nw? 42. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the
(a) efJekeâeme (b) Je=efæ given word.
BLUNT
(c) Dehekeâ<e& (d) GVeefle
(a) Dull (b) Sharp
30. ‘keâefLele’ Meyo keâe efJeueesce nw–
(c) Round (d) Pointless
(a) keâLÙe (b) DekeâLÙe 43. Select the option that can be used as a one-
(c) DekeâefLele (d) keâLeveerÙe word substitute for the given group of words.
31. JeCe& leeefuekeâe kesâ Devegmeej ÜmJe, oerIe& Deewj huegle keäÙee nQ? An arrangement of flowers that is usually given
(a) mJej (b) JÙebpeve as a present.
(c) cee$ee (d) efJemeie& (a) Boutique (b) Bracket
32. pees Ûeens, keâjes ...... yeme nceW lebie ve keâjes~’ - JeekeäÙe kesâ (c) Basket (d) Bouquet
44. Select the most appropriate meaning of the
yeerÛe ceW efjòeâ mLeeve ceW keâewve mee efJejece efÛendve DeeSiee?
given idiom.
(a) DeuheefJejece (b) Deæ&efJejece A bolt from the blue
(c) hetCe&efJejece (d) Ùeespekeâ efÛendve (a) something that happens suddenly
33. FveceW mes Jele&veer keâer Âef° mes Megæ nw – (b) a strange dream that wakes one up suddenly
(a) DevleOee&ve (b) <e‰dce (c) something that is hotly debated
(c) menŒe (d) Deveg<ebefiekeâ (d) something causing a head injury
136 YCT
45. The following sentence has been split into four 53. Select the most appropriate option to substitute
segments. Identify the segment that contains a the underlined segment in the given sentence. If
grammatical error. there is no need to substitute it, select No
The sports day events/ will be conducted/ from improvement.
3:30 pm and 5:30 pm/ on Saturday. He has been solving this sum for a couple of
(a) The sports day events hours but he did not solve it yet.
(b) from 3:30 pm and 5:30 pm (a) No improvement (b) has not solved it
(c) on Saturday (c) has not solve it (d) had not solved it
(d) will be conducted 54. Select the most appropriate option to improve
46. In the given sentence, identify the segment the underlined segment in the given sentence. If
which contains a grammatical error. there is no need to improve it, select 'No
If you rent a house near your office, it will save improvement'.
you time as well as also money. She is not ready for marriage, isn't it?
(a) If you rent a house (a) No improvement (b) is it
(b) as well as also money (c) isn't she (d) is she
(c) near your office 55. Select the option that will improve the
(d) it will save you time underlined part of the given sentences. In case
47. Select the most appropriate word to fill in the no improvement is needed select 'No
blank. improvement required'.
These apples _____ Rs. 100 per kg. Do you A need of an hour is to provide employment to
think they are expensive? the youth of the country.
(a) cost (b) is costing (a) The need in an
(c) has cost (d) costs (b) The need of an
48. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the (c) The need of the
blank. (d) No improvement required
I who_____ your friend and wellwisher, should Comprehension:
have been informed about your decision. Read the given passage and answer the
(a) are (b) is questions that follow.
(c) am (d) be Chanhudaro was a tiny settlement (less than 7
49. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the hectares) as compared to Mohenjodaro (125
blank. hectares), almost exclusively devoted to craft
Plenty of information about the flora and fauna production, including bead-making, shell-
of India _____ available in this book. cutting, metal-working, seal-making and
(a) are (b) is weight-making. The variety of materials used
(c) has (d) were to make beads is remarkable: stones like
50. In the sentence identify the segment which carnelian (of a beautiful red colour), jasper,
crystal, quartz and steatite; metals like copper,
contains the grammatical error.
bronze and gold; and shell, faience and
"I done a lot of work today," she said.
terracotta or burnt clay. Some beads were
(a) a lot of (b) she said
made of two or more stones, cemented
(c) I done (d) work today together, some of stone with gold caps. The
51. Select the most appropriate option to substitute shapes were numerous – disc shaped,
the underlined segment in the given sentence. If cylindrical, spherical, barrel-shaped,
there is no need to substitute it, select 'No segmented. Some were decorated by incising or
substitution required'. painting, and some had designs etched onto
Lavanya was happy to see that the tree they them. Techniques for making beads differed
had planted the previous year has grow quite according to the material. Steatite, a very soft
taller. stone, was easily worked. Some beads were
(a) No substitution required moulded out of a paste made with steatite
(b) had grown quite tall powder. This permitted making a variety of
(c) had grow quite taller shapes, unlike the geometrical forms made out
(d) had grown quite tallest of harder stones. How the steatite micro bead
52. Select the most appropriate option to improve was made remains a puzzle for archaeologists
the underlined segment in the given sentence. If studying ancient technology. Archaeologists’
there is no need to improve it, select 'No experiments have revealed that the red colour
improvement'. of carnelian was obtained by firing the
Many a person are unable of distinguish right yellowish raw material and beads at various
from wrong. stages ofproduction. Nodules were chipped into
(a) are capable of (b) No improvement rough shapes, and then finely flaked into the
(c) are unable to (d) is unable to final form. Grinding, polishing and finally
137 YCT
 drilling completed the process. Specialised 64. In an election, a candidate got 62% of the total
drills have been found at Chanhudaro, Lothal votes and won the election by 35640 votes.
and more recently at Dholavira. Nageshwar What is the total number of votes cast, if no
and Balakot, both settlements are near the vote is declared invalid?
coast. These were specialised centres for (a) 356400 (b) 57484
making shell objects –including bangles, ladles (c) 93790 (d) 148500
and inlay – which were taken to other
1 3 1
settlements. Similarly, it is likely that finished 65. If of A = of B = of C, then what is A :
products (such as beads) from Chanhudaro 3 4 6
and Lothal were taken to the large urban B:C?
centres such as Mohenjodaro and Harappa. (a) 9 : 18 : 4 (b) 4 : 9 : 18
56. Which is the final process in the production of (c) 9 : 4 : 18 (d) 18 : 9 : 4
beads? 66. In a bag of ` 10, ` 20 and ` 50 notes are kept
(a) Polishing (b) Grinding in the ratio of 1:3:5 if the total value of money
(c) Chipping (d) Drilling kept in the bag is ` 1920. What is the total
57. Which of these stones is very soft and easy to number of ` 20 notes?
mould? (a) 6 (b) 30
(a) Quartz (b) Steatite (c) 18 (d) 12
(c) Crystal (d) Jasper 67. A shop offers 30% discount on MRP of a
58. According to the text, which of these crafts was product. If the MRP of the product is `500,
not practised in Chanhudaro? what is the selling price?
(a) Paper making (b) Metal cutting (a) `500 (b) `250
(c) Weight making (d) Seal making (c) `300 (d) `350
59. Shell objects were mostly made at Nageshwar 68. The simple interest on `1280 at 5% p.a. for 3
and Balakot because : years is:
(a) specialised drills were found here (a) `195 (b) `180
(b) shells were transported here from Lothal (c) `192 (d) `480
(c) shells were readily available in these coastal
69. Kumar lent an amount to Arif at a simple
areas
interest rate of 10% p.a. for 3 years, and Arif
(d) the women loved to wear bangles made of
lent this amount to Naresh at a simple interest
shells
rate of 20% p.a. for 3 years. If the interest Arif
60. Which of these statements is NOT true?
received was `1,560 after 3 years, then what
(a) Harappa and Mohenjodaro were large urban
was the amount that Kumar had lent to Arif?
centres
(b) Chanhudaro was exclusively devoted to craft (a) `5,400 (b) `5,600
production (c) `6,200 (d) `5,200
(c) Beads were made in numerous shapes and 70. A sum of money amount to 3 time the original
sizes sum in 15 years. In how many years will the
(d) Camelian is a beautiful bluish stone original sum amount to 5 times of itself at the
same rate of simple interest.
Arithmetical and Numerical ability (a) 35 (b) 30
61. If the population of a village increased from (c) 25 (d) 20
1,75,000 to 2,62,500 in 5 years, then find the 71. The amount of a sum of ` 1500 becomes ` 1800
average percentage increase in the population in 2 years at simple interest. If the rate of
per year. interest is increased by 5%, what will be the
(a) 15% (b) 9% amount.
(c) 10% (d) 12% (a) `1500 (b) `1900
62. Manoj spends 33% of his income on food. He (c) ` 1950 (d) `2000
got an increment of ` 1000 in his income, but 72. The simple interest on a sum of amount for 2
he did not expand his expenditure on food. So, years at 10% per annum is `500. The
his expenditure on food reduced to 27%. What compound interest on the same sum at the
was his initial income? same rate for the same time is:
(a) `4,500 (b) `6,500 (a) ` 510 (b) ` 525
(c) `5,500 (d) `5,000 (c) ` 520 (d) ` 515
63. An investor invests 1/2 part of his money at 73. A sum of money amounts to `1600 in two years
5%, 1/4 part at 10% and the rest at 8%, after and `1700 in three years, at compounded
2 years his income is ` 2800 then find the total interest, compounded annually. What is the
amouont. rate of interest.
(a) `10000 (b) `15000 (a) 6.5% (b) 6.25%
(c) `20000 (d) `12000 (c) 6% (d) 7%
138 YCT
74. A and B together can do a piece of work in 30 General Intelligence & Reasoning Ability
days. Together with C they can complete the 81. Select the option that is related to the third
same work in 24 days. In how many days can C term in the same way as the second term is
alone complete the same work? related to the first term
(a) 96 (b) 150 Virus : Disease :: Exercise: ?
(c) 90 (d) 120 (a) Cycling (b) Walking
75. Brij alone can paint a wall in 7.2 days while (c) Health (d) Jogging
Madhu takes 10.8 days to do the same work. 82. Select the option that is related to the fifth
Working together how many days will they letter-cluster in the same way as the second
take to paint 5/6 part of the wall? letter-cluster is related to the first letter-cluster
(a) 4.2 (b) 3.6 and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the
(c) 3.9 (d) 4.8 third letter-cluster.
76. According to the given table, how many schools KSQ : OWU ::FIJ : JMN ::TPV : ?
won less than 15 gold medals in any of the two (a) ZSY (b) XRX
consecutive years? X = Schools, Y = Year. (c) XYZ (d) XTZ
83. Select the option that is related to the third
Y 2001 2002 2003 2004
term in the same way as the second term is
→ related to the first term and the sixth term is
X↓ related to the fifth term.
School A 20 13 16 11 20 : 30 :: 42 : ? :: 72 : 90
School B 15 18 14 25 (a) 55 (b) 51
School C 14 21 16 9 (c) 52 (d) 56
School D 19 8 14 21 84. Study the pattern given below and select the
figure that relates to the third figure in the
School E 5 12 16 17
same way as second figure related to first
Number of Gold Medals won by different figure.
schools in different years during Interschool Question figure:
competition.
(a) 3 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 4
77. The mean score of class A of 40 students in the
mathematics test of 30 marks is 23. The mean Answer Figure:
score of class B of 45 students in the same test
is 22. What is the ratio of the mean score of
both the classes to that of class A?
(a) 380 : 391 (b) 390 : 382
(c) 382 : 391 (d) 391 : 382
78. The average weight of 6 persons increases by 2 (a) C (b) D
kg when one of them whose weight is 72 kg is (c) B (d) A
replaced by a new man. The weight of the new 85. If TRACTOR = 14 and TROLLEY = 14, then
man is: SCOOTER = ?
(a) 84 kg (b) 104 kg (a) 24 (b) 14
(c) 94 kg (d) 74 kg (c) 28 (d) 30
79. The descending order of the fractions 86. Four equipment are listed, out of which three
2 1 1 3 are alike in some manner and one is different.
, , , is: Select the odd one.
3 6 5 7
(a) Dropper (b) Beaker
3 2 1 1 2 3 1 1 (c) Test tube (d) Compass
(a) , , , (b) , , ,
7 3 6 5 3 7 5 6 87. Among the four figures listed, three of them
3 1 1 2 1 1 3 2 follow a common rule and one does not. Select
(c) , , , (d) , , , the odd one.
7 6 5 3 6 5 7 3
1 1 1 1
80. Find the value of + + + .... +
1.4 4.7 7.10 47.50
49 47
(a) (b)
50 150
47 49 (a) A (b) B
(c) (d)
50 150 (c) C (d) D
139 YCT
88. Which of the following numbers will replace
the question mark (?) in the given series? (d)
(c)
4 12 76 292 804 ?
(a) 2000 (b) 1804
(c) 1000 (d) 2804 96. Read the given statements and conclusions
89. Select that answer figure which will come in carefully. Assuming that the information given
the place of '?' in question figure series in the statements is true, even if it appears to be
Question figure: at variance with commonly known facts, decide
which of the given conclusions logically
follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
All potatoes are tomatoes.
Answer figure All tomatoes are onions.
All onions are books.
Conclusions:
(I) Some books are potatoes.
(II) Some onions are tomatoes.
(a) A (b) C (a) Only conclusion I follows
(c) D (d) B (b) Neither conclusion I nor II follow
90. Select the number from among the given (c) Only conclusion II follows
options that can replace the question mark (?) (d) Both conclusions I and II follow
in the following pattern. 97. Statements:
Some animals are cuckoo.
Some animals sings.
Conclusions:
1. Some cuckoos sing.
2. No animals is cuckoo.
(a) 109 (b) 98 3. Some animals sing.
(c) 1110 (d) 90 (a) None of them follows
91. Puni is the daughter of Avani and Amit is the (b) Only conclusion 3 follows
son of Avani's brother. How is Amit's father (c) Only conclusion 2 follows
related to Puni? (d) Only conclusion 2 and 3 follow
(a) Father (b) Cousin 98. Statement:
(c) Brother (d) Maternal uncle One has to be very vigilant while driving.
92. If A is the wife of B, C is the father of B and D, Conclusion:
D is the brother of E and E is the only daughter I. Lazy people do not drive.
of M, then how is M related to A? II. We can avoid the accidents by being
vigilant.
(a) Father (b) Husband's mother
(a) Only conclusion I follows.
(c) Husband's sister (d) Maternal uncle
(b) Only conclusion II follows.
93. If 'W' means '×', 'X' means '–', 'Y' means '+' (c) Neither I nor II follows.
and 'Z' means '÷' then. (d) Both the conclusion follow.
28 Z 7 W 8 X 6 Y 4 = ? 99. Which answer figure is formed using the figure
(a) 30 (b) 38/2 given in the question figure?
(c) 32 (d) 34 Problem figure :
94. Which two numbers, from among the given
options, should be interchanged to make the
given equation correct?
21 ÷ 9 + 99 – 81 × 5 = 3
(a) 9 and 81 (b) 21 and 81
(c) 21 and 5 (d) 9 and 5 Answer figure :
95. Select the Venn diagram that best represents
the relationship between the given set of classes
Magazines, Movies, Books

(a) (b) (a) C (b) A

(c) B (d) D
140 YCT
100. The following figure is embedded in one of the 110. Plasma has water to the extent of
four answer figures. Which figure contains the (a) 60% (b) 70%
problem figure? (c) 80% (d) 90%
Question figure: 111. Which one of the following is not a function of
lymphatic system?
(a) Return tissue fluid to blood stream
(b) Transport of dietary protein
(c) Transport of fats
Answer figures:
(d) Protection of body from foreign material
112. The weakly acidic nature of warfarin is
attributed to the presence of.
(a) Methylene protons on substitution at 3rd
position
(a) A (b) B (b) Aromatic protons of coumarin ring
(c) D (d) C
(c) Proton of hydroxyl group at 4th position
(d) Proton on chiral carbon
SECTION-B 113. Hydrated proton is called_____.
(a) Water proton (b) Proton pump
Post Specific Subject- Related Questions (c) Hydronium ion (d) Roxonium ion
114. One milligram is equal to.............
101. During the embryonic development midbrain is (a) 0.0001 gram (b) 0.001 gram
developed from? (c) 0.1 gram (d) 0.01 gram
(a) Rhombencephalon (b) Mesencephalon 115. Indicate the example of Pneumatic dryers
(c) Procencephelon (d) Telencephelon (a) Spray dryer (b) Freez dryer
102. Smallest bone of the body is (c) Fluidized dryer (d) Drum dryer
(a) Malleus (b) Incus 116. Sterilization by Autoclave is an example for......
(c) Stapes (d) Femur (a) Dry heat Sterilization
103. The following organs are part of male (b) Gaseous Sterilization
reproductive system except;
(c) Radiation Sterilization
(a) Vas deferen (b) Urethra
(d) Moist Heat Sterilization
(c) Ureter (d) Testis
117. A material which is insoluble and inert and
104. Right-sided cardiac failure is called:
used in matrix tablet formulation is:-
(a) Congestive cardiac failure
(a) Polyethylene (b) Stearyl alcohol
(b) Left ventricular failure
(c) Polyethylene glycol (d) Triglycerides
(c) Chronic cardiac failure
(d) Acute cardiac failure 118. Isoelectric point of Type A gelatin is ________.
105. Which ion is essential for muscle contraction? (a) pH 7.0 (b) pH 4.7
(a) Na (b) K (c) pH 9.0 (d) pH 7.4
(c) Ca (d) Cl 119. The healing agent used in hand creams is
106. Ganglion refers to (a) Soft paraffin (b) Urea
(a) Collection of cell bodies of neurons in Central (c) Bees wax (d) Stearylacohol
Nervous System. 120. Which one of the following is the commonly
(b) Collection of numerous axons in Peripheral used bulking agent in the formulation of freeze
Nervous System. dried low dose products?
(c) Collection of cell bodies of neurons in (a) Sodium chloride (b) Mannitol
Peripheral Nervous System. (c) Starch (d) HPMC
(d) Collection of axons in Central Nervous 121. Bloom strength is used to check the quality of
System. (a) Lactose
107. There are ______ isolated operable irregular (b) Ampoules
bone in the vertebral column (c) Hardness of tables
(a) 20 (b) 15 (d) Gelatin
(c) 24 (d) 10 122. The integrity of seals in case of vials and bottles
108. Melatonin is secreted by is determined by some tests.
(a) Hypothalamus (b) Pineal gland [P]: Leaker's test
(c) Adrenal cortex (d) Melanocytes [Q]: Water hammer test
109. Active immunity may be gained by [R]: Spark tester probe
(a) Vaccines (b) Toxoids (a) P&Q (b) Q & R
(c) Natural infection (d) All of these (c) P &R (d) P, Q & R all
141 YCT
123. Which of the following shown high first pass 137. Valproic acid is used as an
metabolism? (a) Analgesic (b) Antiepileptic
(a) Propranolol (b) Phenobarbitone (c) Anti-inflammatory (d) Diuretic
(c) Phenylbutazone (d) Phenytoin 138. Clavulanic acid is given along with amoxycillin
124. Enteric coated tablets are designed to release to
medicament in: (a) Decrease excretion
(a) Stomach (b) Colon (b) Avoid first pass metabolism
(c) Small intestine (d) Large intestine (c) Prevent drug resistance
125. Partial or complete removal of top or bottom of (d) Enhance oral absorption
a tablet is known as: 139. Selenium Sulfide is used as
(a) Capping (b) Picking (a) Antimalarial (b) Antileprotic
(c) Sticking (d) Mottling (c) Antifungal (d) Antidandruff
126. Relative sweetness of sucrose, to saccharin. 140. When at least 51% shares of a business
(a) 1 : 100 (b) 1 : 200 organization are in the hands of governments,
(c) 1 : 500 (d) 1 : 400 it is called ________.
127. Pyrogens present in containers can be (a) Public corporation
destroyed by heating the containers at. (b) Government company
(a) 121ºC for 15 mins (b) 121ºC for 30 mins (c) Public company
(c) 210ºC for 1 h (d) 110ºC for 4 h (d) Departmental office
128. The version of GMP in India that describe 141. Water attack test is used to identify the
requirement of factory premises for alkalinity in _____
manufacture of cosmetics. (a) Plastic (b) Type-I glass
(a) Schedule M-I (b) Schedule- M-II (c) Type-II glass (d) Type III glass
(c) Schedul-III (d) Schedule-M (e) Not Attempted
129. Which of the following will result in very 142. The drug store should have adequate space for
closest value to the Glomerular Filtration Rate storage of drugs, with proper:
(GRF)? (a) Lighting and ventilation
(a) Creatinine Clearance (b) Lighting, ventilation, and temperature
(b) Insulin Clearance controls
(c) Albumin Clearance (c) Ventilation and temperature control
(d) Measure of Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) (d) Temperature controls
130. Drug of choice for exoerythrocytic stage of 143. According to Dual aspect concept
malaria is: (a) Assets=Capital – Liabilities
(a) Choroquine (b) Primaquine
(b) Assets = Capital + Liabilities
(c) Proguanil (d) Mefloquine
(c) Assets= Capital – 1/Liability
131. Which of the following is a polyene antifungal
(d) Assets = Capital + 1/Liability
antibiotic ?
(a) Amphotericin (b) Tolnaftate 144. FIFO stands for
(c) Undecylenic acid (d) Cephalothin (a) First in First Out (b) Free in First Out
(c) First in Figure Out (d) Free in Figure Out
132. Water attack test is used for the detection of
(a) Type II glass (b) Type I glass 145. Purchase order or supply order is also called as
(c) Type III glass (d) Type NP glass (a) Tenders (b) Contracts
133. Drug of choice for prophylaxis for manic (c) Purchasing (d) Credits
attacks is: 146. VED Analysis is applicable in the case of
(a) Lithium (b) Haloperidol (a) Raw material (b) Food items
(c) Clozapine (d) Carbamazepine (c) Finished goods (d) Spare parts
134. Which method is used for the Limit test for 147. According to Indian Pharmacopoeia, the
arsenic? storage condition : “Store in refrigerator”
(a) Gutzeit method (b) Oswald method means store between :
(c) Arrhenius method (a) 8 to 15 degrees (b) 15 to 25 degrees
(d) Karl-Fischer method (c) 25 to 30 degrees (d) 2 to 8 degrees
135. The agent used to prevent the dental carries is:- 148. B category items represent which of the
(a) Sodium fluoride (b) Strontium chloride following money value ?
(c) Zinc chloride (a) 70-75% (b) 15-20%
(d) Dicalcium phosphate (c) 5-10% (d) 60-70%
136. In Universal indicators, a pH of 7 is shown 149. Sterility testing of surgical suture material
with:- requires incubation for _____ period.
(a) Yellow color (b) Green color (a) 7 days (b) 14 days
(c) Blue color (d) Pink color (c) 28 days (d) 2 months
142 YCT
150. Name the Hospital, in which the first Hospital 161. Which of the following is a schedule X drug?
Formulary for a Government teaching Hospital (a) Thalidomide (b) Amoxycillin
in India is published in 1997? (c) Ketamine (d) Halothane
(a) CME Vellore 162. The Schedule in Drugs and Cosmetics Act that
(b) Govt. Medical College, Thiruvananthapuram deals with the requirements and clinical trials,
(c) Kasturba Medical College, Manipal, import and manufacture of new drugs is
Karnataka (a) Schedule 'O' (b) Schedule 'M'
(d) Govt. Medical College. Chennai (c) Schedule 'F' (d) Schedule 'Y'
151. Which one of the following is NOT a terms 163. Good laboratory practices and requirements of
associated with therapeutic drug-drug premises and equipment is specified in
(a) Schedule M (b) Schedule N
interaction?
(c) Schedule L-1 (d) Schedule M-1
(a) Synergism (b) Oxidation
164. As per the Drugs and Magic Remedies Act-
(c) Addition (d) Antogonism 1954, which of the diseases, disorder or
152. Antidote for nicotine poisoning is: condition cannot be claimed to be cured?
(a) Neostignmine (b) Atropine (a) Goiter (b) Gangrene
(c) Phentolamine (d) Trimethaplan (c) Glaucoma (d) All of the above
153. Which of the following organisms is used in 165. The number of registered pharmacists
alcoholic fermentation ? nominated by respective state government in a
(a) Pseudomonas (b) Aspergillus state council is
(c) Saccharomyces (d) Penicillium (a) 6 (b) 5
154. Which of the following amino sugar are present (c) 7 (d) 8
in the bacterial cell wall ? 166. Who is the secretary of the Pharmacy and
(a) N-acetylmuramic acid (b) Sialic acid Therapeutics Committee (PTC) ?
(c) Aminoglycoside (d) Azide (a) The Chief Physician
(b) The Chief Pharmacist
155. Which of the following is a morbidity
(c) The Hospital Administrator
indicator?
(d) The representative from nursing staff
(a) Child death rate (b) Life expectancy
167. As per the drugs and Cosmetic Act, 1940
(c) Case fatality rate (d) Incidence prescription drugs are included in:
156. Which of the following is NOT an ideal (a) Schedule C (b) Schedule H
characteristic of health indicators? (c) Schedule P (d) Schedule X
(a) Reliable (b) Specific 168. Kurchi is a/an:
(c) Resilient (d) Relevant (a) Saponin alkaloid
157. Teratogenicity refers to: (b) Isoquinoline alkaloid
(a) Ability to cause defects in the eyes (c) Indole alkaloid
(b) Ability to cause defects in the ears (d) Steroidal alkaloid
(c) Ability to cause defects in the bones 169. Senna belongs to the family of:
(d) Ability to cause defects in the foetus (a) Leguminosae (b) Burseraceae
158. Deficiency of which Vitamin cause lowering of (c) Rhamnaceae (d) Scrophulariaceae
Prothrombin level? 170. A naturally occurring sympatholytic is:
(a) Vitamin C (b) Vitamin D (a) Strychnine (b) Morphine
(c) Vitamin A (d) Vitamin K (c) Reserpine (d) Quinine
(e) Not attempted 171. Phylloquinone is another name of :
(a) Vitamin k (b) Vitamin E
159. Schedule II Standards are applicable for _____.
(c) Vitamin D (d) Vitamin A
(a) Ophthalmic preparations
172. The leaves of digitalis lanata have ______ times
(b) The list of allopathic poisons
greater activity than digitalis purpurea.
(c) The list of ayurvedic and unani poisons
(a) 3-5 (b) 3-6
(d) Surgical dressing
(c) 3-4 (d) 3-7
160. Keeping false accounts or making false
173. Most commonly used adsorbent in column
statement under Narcotic Drugs and chromatography is
Psychotropic Substance Act, 1985 is punishable (a) Activated magnesia (b) Activated charcoal
with (c) Fuller's earth (d) Silica gel
(a) Imprisonment with 1 year or fine or both 174. Device which produce a mist of the drug
(b) Imprisonment with 2 year or fine or both solution generated by pressurised air'
(c) Imprisonment with 3 year or fine or both (a) metered dose inhaler (b) spinhaler
(d) Imprisonment with 5 year or fine or both (c) jet nebulizer (d) rotahaler
143 YCT
175. Which of the following opioids is the best 188. Which of following is an essential amino acid?
choice for the treatment of diabetic (a) Phenylalanine (b) Tyrosine
neuropathy? (c) Alanine (d) Arginine
(a) Codeine (b) Morphine 189. Insulin is a polypeptide containing
(c) Tapentadol (d) Methadone (a) 21 amino acid (b) 31 amino acid
176. A bulk laxative from plant origin (c) 41 amino acid (d) 51 amino acid
(a) Ispaghula (b) Aloe gel 190. Which among the following is a phase II
(c) Castor oil (d) Sennosides reaction of drug metabolism?
177. Choose the most patent of all the synthetic (a) Oxidation (b) Conjugation
fentanyl opioid agonists? (c) Reduction (d) Hydrolysis
(a) Alfentanil (b) Remifentanil 191. “Positive adsorption” leads to decrease in
(c) Sufentanil (d) Fentanyl (a) Particle size (b) Surface tension
178. Atropine alkaloid is an / a (c) Velocity (d) Globule size
(a) Acid (b) Alcohol 192. Fat soluble vitamins are binding to
(c) Ester (d) Ketone (a) α2 - globulin (b) β1 - globulin
179. Type of sample required for analysing with gas (c) β2 - globulin (d) α1 - globulin
chromatography 193. Dioscin on hydrolysis gives
(a) thermally stable (a) Glucose and rhamnose
(b) volatile without decomposition (b) Glucose and xylose
(c) non volatile substances (c) Xylose and rhamnose
(d) non volatile acids (d) Glucose and galectose
180. ______have in common a perhydro-I, 2- 194. The enzymes that are involved in the cleavage
cyclopentano phenanthrene nucleus. of C-C by atom elimination concept are called
(a) Steroids (b) Alkaloids _____.
(c) Amino acids (d) Proteins (a) Lyases (b) Transferases
181. Volatile oil belongs to the category of (c) Ligases (d) Isomerases
(a) Steroids (b) Terpenes 195. The main constituents of starch are ______in
(c) Alkaloids (d) Fixed oils nature.
182. Rf values in paper chromatography are usually (a) Lipids (b) Proteins
(a) Below 1 (b) Above 2 (c) Tannins (d) Sugars
(c) 5 (d) Above 5 196. What is the diameter of Large Unilamellar
183. Indole Acetic Acid (IAA) is a _____ that occurs Vesicle?
naturally in plants (a) 100 to 400 nm (b) 600 to 800 nm
(a) Cytokinin (b) Gibberellin (c) 400 to 600 nm (d) 0 to 100 nm
(c) Growth Inhibitor (d) Auxin 197. Which of the following drugs is used for
184. Which is the precursor of tryptophan candidiasis treatment?
synthesis?
(a) Griseofulvin (b) Nitrofungin
(a) Anthranalic acid
(c) Myconazol (d) Streptomycin
(b) Phenyl pyruvic acid
198. Mechanism of Streptomycin action is through
(c) Hydroxy phenyl pyruvic acid
inhibition of
(d) Meconic acid
(a) Cell wall synthesis
185. Numerous trichomes, both covering and
(b) Protein synthesis
glandular are present in the powder of
(a) Senna leavers (b) Vinea leaves (c) RNA and DNA synthesis
(c) Digitalis leaves (d) Eucalyptus leaves (d) Cell membranes permeability
186. Molecules found in all plants and necessary for 199. Identify the drug belonging to antibiotics -
the life of the plants are called as tetracyclines
(a) All metabolites (a) Doxycycline
(b) Primary metabolite (b) Streptomycin
(c) Secondary metabolite (c) Clarithromycin
(d) Essential metabolites (d) Amoxacillin
187. Which of the following contributes the C4N 200. This drug both inhibits an enzyme and
building block as heterocyclic ring to Tropane indirectly enhances clearance of low density
alkaloids lipoproteins (LDL)
(a) L-Phenylalanine (b) L-Lysine (a) Cholestyramine (b) Lovastatin
(c) L-Leucine (d) L-Ornithine (c) Nicotinuc acid (d) probucol
144 YCT
 SOLUTION : PRACTICE SET- 2
ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 21. (b) 41. (a) 61. (c) 81. (c) 101. (b) 121. (d) 141. (c) 161. (c) 181. (b)
2. (d) 22. (c) 42. (b) 62. (a) 82. (d) 102. (c) 122. (d) 142. (b) 162. (d) 182. (a)
3. (d) 23. (b) 43. (d) 63. (c) 83. (d) 103. (c) 123. (a) 143. (b) 163. (c) 183. (d)
4. (b) 24. (c) 44. (a) 64. (d) 84. (c) 104. (a) 124. (c) 144. (a) 164. (d) 184. (a)
5. (c) 25. (d) 45. (b) 65. (c) 85. (b) 105. (c) 125. (a) 145. (b) 165. (b) 185. (c)
6. (d) 26. (b) 46. (b) 66. (c) 86. (d) 106. (c) 126. (c) 146. (d) 166. (b) 186. (b)
7. (b) 27. (a) 47. (a) 67. (d) 87. (d) 107. (c) 127. (c) 147. (d) 167. (b) 187. (d)
8. (d) 28. (a) 48. (c) 68. (c) 88. (b) 108. (b) 128. (b) 148. (b) 168. (d) 188. (a)
9. (d) 29. (c) 49. (b) 69. (d) 89. (b) 109. (d) 129. (b) 149. (b) 169. (a) 189. (d)
10. (b) 30. (c) 50. (c) 70. (b) 90. (a) 110. (d) 130. (b) 150. (b) 170. (c) 190. (b)
11. (a) 31. (a) 51. (b) 71. (c) 91. (d) 111. (b) 131. (a) 151. (b) 171. (a) 191. (b)
12. (d) 32. (b) 52. (d) 72. (b) 92. (b) 112. (c) 132. (a) 152. (d) 172. (c) 192. (a)
13. (b) 33. (a) 53. (b) 73. (b) 93. (a) 113. (c) 133. (a) 153. (c) 173. (d) 193. (a)
14. (d) 34. (b) 54. (d) 74. (d) 94. (b) 114. (b) 134. (a) 154. (a) 174. (c) 194. (a)
15. (a) 35. (b) 55. (c) 75. (b) 95. (a) 115. (a) 135. (a) 155. (d) 175. (c) 195. (d)
16. (a) 36. (a) 56. (d) 76. (c) 96. (d) 116. (d) 136. (b) 156. (c) 176. (a) 196. (a)
17. (c) 37. (a) 57. (b) 77. (c) 97. (b) 117. (a) 137. (b) 157. (d) 177. (c) 197. (c)
18. (b) 38. (c) 58. (a) 78. (a) 98. (b) 118. (c) 138. (c) 158. (d) 178. (c) 198. (b)
19. (a) 39. (d) 59. (c) 79. (b) 99. (b) 119. (a) 139. (d) 159. (d) 179. (b) 199. (a)
20. (c) 40. (d) 60. (d) 80. (d) 100. (b) 120. (b) 140. (b) 160. (d) 180. (a) 200. (b)

SOLUTION
1. (c) 7. (b)
The Mohan Veena, a modified Hawaiian Guitar also For Rajya Sabha membership, the President nominates
known as Hindustani slide guitar was created and 12 members on the basis of their excellence in literature,
popularized by Vishwa Mohan Bhatt. science, art and social service and the rest are elected.
Currently Rajya Sabha consists of 245 members.
2. (d)
8. (d)
Kalamkari painting originated in Andhra Pradesh, mainly Constitution of Canada. A Quasi-Federal system of
found in Machilipatnam region. governance is a federal system with a strong central
3. (d) government. This feature is borrowed from the
Indus Valley cites Location constitution of Canada. The distribution of powers in a
Kot Diji – Sindh (Pakistan) quasi-federal form of government is carried between the
Banawali – Haryana Central government and the State governments.
Balu – Haryana 9. (d)
Article-112 of Indian constitution deals with Annual
Ropar – Punjab
Financial statement, which is presented as a part of
4. (b) budget. This Article of constitution entails that the
Razia Sultan was the first Muslim female and also only President shall in respect of every financial year cause to
female emperor of Delhi Sultanate. She ruled Delhi for 4 be laid before both the houses of parliament, a statement
year from 1236 to 1240. She is related with Mamluk or of the Annual receipts expenditures in this part referred
Slave dynasty. to as the "Annual Financial Statement".
5. (c) 10. (b)
Shiva ji is considered as the founder and consolidator of Indian Air force pilot Rakesh Sharma in 1984 created
Maratha Empire. After the Shivaji's death in 1680, history by making journey to space, being the first Indian
to do so. Rakesh Sharma was the member of Soyuz T-11
Sambhaji, younger son of Shivaji ascended the throne
mission of USSR and was launched on 2nd April, 1984.
after the success in war of succession against his elder He spent nearly 8 days encircling the earth
brother Rajaram. 11. (a)
6. (d) Hyderabad-based NRSC is an autonomous body under
R.K. Shanmukham Chetty presented the first union the department of Space (DOS), known as the National
budget of independent India on 26th November, 1947. Remote Sensing Agency. This center is responsible for
145 YCT
acquisition and processing or remote sensing satellite 20. (c)
data, data distribution acrial remote sensing and decision Cuboidal epithelium forms the lining of kidney tubules
support for disaster management. and ducts of salivary glands.
12. (d) Cuboidal epithelium helps in absorption, secretion and
The brightest planet in the night sky is Venus which is excretion. They are single layered cells that are cuboid
also the brightest celestial object in the sky next to the shape.
Sun and the Moon seen by naked eye from earth surface. 21. (b)
Venus is similar to the Earth in size, mass and density efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW efveefJe&Yeefòeâkeâ (efJeYeefòeâ jefnle) ™he kesâ DeeOeej hej
and hence it is considered as Earth's twin. It is our yengJeÛeve Meyo ‘ueÌ[kesâ’ nesiee~
nearest planet in the solar system as well as it is known 22. (c)
as Morning Star and Evening Star. ‘ceesnve mes yew"e veneR peelee’ JeekeäÙe ceW ‘yew"e veneR peelee’ mes Skeâ YeeJe
13. (b) mhe° nes jne nw~ Fme JeekeäÙe ceW keâlee& Deewj keâce& keâer ØeOeevelee keâe yeesOe
Indian Statistical Institute is a higher education and veneR nes jne leLee ef›eâÙee YeeJe kesâ Devegmeej nw~ Dele: Ùen JeekeäÙe
research institute which is reorganized as institute of YeeJeJeeÛÙe keâe GoenjCe nw~ ‘ceesnve hegmlekeâ heÌ{lee nw’ leLee ‘MÙeece he$e
national importance by 1959 Act of the Indian efueKelee nw’ ceW keâle&=JeeÛÙe leLee ‘he$e efueKee peelee nw’ ceW keâce&JeeÛÙe nesiee~
parliament.
23. (b)
It was founded by PC Mahalanobis in Kolkata on 17th
December 1931.
‘njkeâle’ Meyo œeerefuebie Meyo nw~ JeekeäÙe ØeÙeesie osKeW– legcnejer njkeâle
14. (d)
DeÛÚer veneR ueieleer~ Mes<e meYeer hegefuuebie Meyo nQs~
The Gadgil formula is named after Dhananjay 24. (c)
Ramchandra Gadgil, a social scientist and the first critic GheÙeg&òeâ ieÅeebMe kesâ Devegmeej hetBpeerJeeoer meceepe ceW uesKekeâ Deewj hee"keâ kesâ
of Indian planning was approved in 1969 for determining yeerÛe ‘yeepeej’ Dee ieÙee nw~
the allocation of central assistance for state plans in 25. (d)
India. hegjeves meceepe ceW keâuee keâer megj#ee keâe oeefÙelJe ‘meceepe keâe’ Lee~
15. (a) 26. (b) keâuee #es$e kesâ mebkegâÛeve keâe DeeMeÙe ‘keâuee keâe oeÙeje meerefcele
The doctor feels your heartbeats with the help of an nesvee’ nw~
instrument called a stethoscope. A doctor uses the 27. (a)
stethoscope as a device to amplify the sound of the Depeveyeerheve keâe DeeMeÙe ‘Skeâekeâerheve’ nw~
Heart. It consist of a chest piece that carries a sensitive 28. (a)
diaphragm, two ear pieces and a tube joining the parts. ieÅeebMe keâe meJee&efOekeâ GheÙeg&òeâ Meer<e&keâ ‘keâuee ceW hetBpeerJeeo’ nw~
16. (a) 29. (c)
Pressure is a scalar quantity, because it has magnitude ‘Dehekeâ<e&’ lejkeäkeâer keâe heÙee&Ùe veneR nw, peyeefkeâ Je=efæ, efJekeâeme, GVeefle
but does not have direction, whereas force,
Deeefo lejkeäkeâer kesâ heÙee&Ùe nQ~
displacement and momentum all are vector quantities
30. (c)
because they have both direction and magnitude.
17. (c)
‘pees keâne ieÙee nw’ Gmes ‘keâefLele’ keâne peelee nw~ Dele: Fmekeâe efJeueesce
Fermentation is a metabolic process that produces Meyo DekeâefLele (pees ve keâne ieÙee nes) nesiee~ ‘pees keâne ve pee mekesâ’ Gmes
chemical changes in organic substrates through the DekeâLÙe leLee ‘pees keânves ÙeesiÙe nes’ Gmes keâLÙe/keâLeveerÙe keâne peelee nw~
action of engymes. Fermentation is anaerobic in 31. (a)
nature. ÜmJe, oerIe& Deewj huegle cee$ee kesâ DeeOeej hej ‘mJej kesâ Yeso’ nQ~
18. (b) 32. (b)
There is the need to balance a chemical equation to efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW efjòeâ mLeeve kesâ peien hej Deæ&efJejece efÛendve keâe
satisfy the law of conservation of mass. According to the ØeÙeesie nesiee~ Deæ&efJejece efÛendve keâe ØeÙeesie JeneB efkeâÙee peelee nw, peneB
law of conservation of mass, the mass of any substance hetCe& efJejece keâer Dehes#ee keâce osj Deewj DeuheefJejece keâer Dehes#ee DeefOekeâ
in a chemical reaction is neither created nor destroyed. osj lekeâ ®keâvee neslee nw~
This means that the total mass of the substances before pewmes- pees Ûeens, keâjes; yeme nceW lebie ve keâjes~
the reaction must be equal to the total mass of substance
33. (a)
obtained after the reaction.
Jele&veer keâer Âef° mes efJekeâuhe (a) ‘DevleOee&ve’ Megæ nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuhe
19. (a)
Leucoplastids are colourless plastids and mainly help in <e‰dce, menŒe SJeb Deveg<ebefiekeâ Jele&veer keâer Âef° mes $egefšhetCe& nQ, Fmekeâe
storage of food compounds like starch, proteins or fats. Megæ Meyo ›eâceMe: <e‰ced, menœe SJeb Deeveg<ebefiekeâ nesiee~
Such colourless plastids are present in underground 34. (b)
roots, stems. The chloroplast is a type of plastid which `mecegõieghle Yeejle keâe vesheesefueÙeve Lee', ÙeneB vesheesefueÙeve peeefleJeeÛekeâ meb%ee
produces from coloured pigment. The chloroplast is keâe GoenjCe nw~ peye keâesF& Meyo Deheves veece ¤he keâe lÙeeie keâj oW Deewj
involved in carrying out photosynthesis. It gives green otmejs keâe veece ¤he «enCe keâjs lees Jen ‘peeefleJeeÛekeâ meb%ee’ keânueeleer nw~
colour to leaves. pewmes - cenelcee ieeBOeer Deepe kesâ meceÙe ceW ke=â<Ce Les~
146 YCT
35. (b) 46. (b)
‘nce’ Meyo efvepeJeeÛekeâ meJe&veece ve neskeâj yeefukeâ Gòece heg®<eJeeÛekeâ Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe ceW as well as kesâ yeeo also keâe ØeÙeesie veneR nesiee
meJe&veece nw peyeefkeâ DevÙe efJekeâuhe (efvepe, Deehe Deewj Kego) efvepeJeeÛekeâ keäÙeeWefkeâ GheÙeg&òeâ JeekeäÙe ceW also keâe ØeÙeesie superfluous nw~
meJe&veece nQ~ Correct Sentence -
36. (a) If you rent a house near your office, it will save you time
keâòee& keâejkeâ ceW ‘ves’ hejmeie& ØeÙegòeâ neslee nw~ peyeefkeâ keâce& ceW ‘keâes’ leLee as well as money.
47. (a)
keâjCe ceW ‘mes’ Deewj DeefOekeâjCe ceW ‘hej’ ØeÙegòeâ neslee nw~ hejmeie&-
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ efjòeâ mLeeve ceW cost keâe ØeÙeesie nesieee~
JeekeäÙe, meb%ee Ùee meJe&veece kesâ keâejkeâerÙe mecyevOe keâes Øekeâš keâjves Jeeues
keäÙeeWefkeâ - These apples (plural noun) kesâ meeLe plural verb
efÛendve keâes hejmeie& keânles nQ~ pewmes- DeOÙeehekeâ ves yeeuekeâeW keâes hee"
ØeÙegòeâ nesieer~ Ûetbefkeâ JeekeäÙe Present indefinite tense ceW nw efpemeceW
heÌ{eÙee~
verb1 keâe ØeÙeesie neslee nw~
37. (a)
Correct sentence– These apples cost Rs. 100 per kg. Do
‘jece mees jne nw’ JeekeäÙe ceW Dekeâce&keâ ef›eâÙee nw~ efpeme ef›eâÙee keâe heâue you think they are expensive?
keâlee& hej ner heÌ[lee nw Jen ef›eâÙee Dekeâce&keâ keânueeleer nw~ Fme ef›eâÙee ceW 48. (c)
keâce& keâe DeYeeJe neslee nw~ Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ efjòeâ mLeeve ceW 'am' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ I kesâ
jece mees jne nw~ meeLe auxiliary verb 'am' ØeÙegòeâ nesleer nw~
keâlee& ef›eâÙee Correct sentence- I who am your friend and
38. (c) wellwisher, should have been informed about your
‘legce Øeefleefove Kesueles neW~’ JeekeäÙe ceW Øeefleefove ‘keâeueJeeÛekeâ ef›eâÙee decision.
efJeMes<eCe’ nw~ pees DeefJekeâejer Meyo efkeâmeer ef›eâÙee kesâ JÙeeheej keâe meceÙe 49. (b)
yeleueeles nQ, GvnW keâeueJeeÛekeâ ef›eâÙee efJeMes<eCe keânles nQ, pewmes-keâue, Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ efjòeâ mLeeve ceW is keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ JeekeäÙe keâe
hejmeeW, ØeeÙe:, Dekeämej, yeeo ceW, peye, leye, meoe, Øeefleefove Deeefo~ subject 'information' uncountable noun nw FmeefueS verb
39. (d) singular 'is' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~
GheÙeg&keäle JeekeäÙe ceW ‘ØeLece hegjmkeâej’ keâce& nw~ ef›eâÙee keâe ØeYeeJe efpeme hej Correct sentence- Plenty of information about the flora
and fauna of India is available in this book.
heÌ[s, Jen keâce& keânueelee nw~
50. (c)
40. (d)
‘Tve’ Skeâ leodYeJe Meyo nw efpemekeâe lelmece ‘TCe&’ neslee nw~ Dele: Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe ceW 'done' kesâ mLeeve hej 'did/have done' keâe ØeÙeesie
ØeMveiele efJekeâuhe (d) melÙe nw~ nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ reporting verb kesâ past tense ceW nesves hej
41. (a) reported speech Ùee lees past indefinite Ùee present perfect
Bull-Headed - (cepeyetle), Synonym, Headstrong - (keâ"esj)~ tense ceW nesiee~
DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& efYeVe nw~ Correct sentence :-
She said, "I did/have done a lot of work today"
Muddle-headed - yesJeketâHeâ, Weak-minded - vee mecePe,
51. (b)
Clear-headed - mecePeoej
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ jsKeebefkeâle Yeeie ceW 'has grow quite taller' kesâ
42. (b)
mLeeve hej 'had grown quite tall' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ JeekeäÙe ceW
Blunt - kegbâo/ceesše, Antonym, Sharp - lespe/vegkeâeruee nesvee~ DevÙe
was Deewj had kesâ ØeÙeesie mes mhe° nw efkeâ JeekeäÙe past tense ceW nw
efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& -
Dele: Ùen clause Yeer past tense ceW ØeÙegòeâ nesieer~
Dull - megmle, Round - ieesue, Pointless - efvejLe&keâ
Correct Sentence -
43. (d) Lavanya was happy to see that the tree they had planted
Ghejesòeâ Group of words, An arrangement of flowers that is the previous year has grown quite tall.
usually given as a present kesâ efueS efJekeâuhe Bouquet 52. (d)
(iegueomlee) GheÙegòeâ Meyo nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& efYeVe nw~ Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ jsKeebefkeâle Yeeie are unable of kesâ mLeeve hej is
Boutique - heejer, Bracket - keâes‰keâ, Basket - šeskeâjer unable to keâe ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ many a kesâ yeeo Jeeueer
44. (a) verb singular ØeÙegòeâ nesleer nw leLee unable kesâ meeLe preposition
Ghejesòeâ Idiom, 'bolt from the blue' (keâesF& Iešvee pees DeÛeevekeâ 'to' keâe ØeÙeesie neslee nw~
Deewj Deveehesef#ele nes) kesâ efueS efJekeâuhe (a) 'something that Correct Sentence - Many a person is unable to
happens suddenly' GheÙegòeâ JÙeeKÙee keâjlee nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuhe efYeVe distinguish right from wrong.
DeLe& osles nw~ 53. (b)
45. (b) Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ jsKeeefkebâle Yeeie did not solve it kesâ mLeeve hej has
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe ceW and kesâ mLeeve hej to keâe ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ nesiee~ not solved it keâe ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ nesiee, keäÙeeWefkeâ JeekeäÙe mes
keäÙeeWefkeâ from .......... kesâ meeLe to ....., structure keâe ØeÙeesie Jele&ceevekeâeue keâe yeesOe nes jne nw~ Dele: present perfect keâer H.v.
meceeÙeeJeefOe efoKeeves kesâ efueS neslee nw~ (has) keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~
Correct Sentence - Correct sentence -
The sports day events will be conducted from 3:30 pm He has been solving this sum for a couple of hours but
to 5:30 pm on Saturday. he has not solved it yet.

147 YCT
54. (d) 62. (a)
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ jsKeebefkeâle isn't it kesâ mLeeve hej is she GheÙegòeâ nesiee Let Manoj income = `x
keäÙeeWefkeâ question tag ceW Deiej sentence negative neslee nw lees 33 33x
Food expenditure = x × =
question tag positive neslee nw~ Deewj question tag keâe 100 100
pronoun JeekeäÙe kesâ subject kesâ Devegmeej ØeÙegòeâ neslee nw~ Manoj new income = x + 1000
Correct Sentence - She is not ready for marriage, is 27
she. Deduction in expenditure = ( x + 1000 ) ×
100
55. (c)
Previous expenditure = new expenditure
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ jsKeebefkeâle Yeeie ceW A need of an kesâ mLeeve hej
33x 27x + 27000
The need of the keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ peye sentence keâe =
construction, Noun + Preposition + Noun nes, lees first 100 100
33x = 27 x + 27000
noun kesâ henues the keâe ØeÙeesie neslee nw leLee JeekeäÙe ceW efveef§ele meceÙe
6x = 27000
keâer yeele nes jner nw FmeefueS Indefinite article 'an' kesâ mLeeve hej
x = 4500
definite article 'the' keâe ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ nesiee~
So, the initial income is `4500.
Note- JeekeäÙe keâes imphasize (peesj osves kesâ efueS) keâjves kesâ efueS
63. (c)
definite article 'the' keâe ØeÙeesie neslee nw pewmee efkeâ hour kesâ henues
Let the total amount of the investor is `x,
the keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~
x x x
Correct Sentence - Rest part = x −  +  =
The need of the hour is to provide employment to the 2 4 4
youth of the country. x x x
56. (d) ×5× 2 ×10 × 2 ×8× 2
According to the passae option (d) "Drillin" is the final ∴2 +4 +4 = 2800
100 100 100
process of beads DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& efYeVe nw~
x x x
Polishing - Ie<e&Ce + + = 2800
20 20 25
Grinding - efhemeeF&
5x + 5x + 4x
Chipping - leesÌ[vee = 2800
100
57. (b)
14x = 280000 ⇒ x = `20000
According to the passage option (b) "steatite" (meeyegve keâe
64. (d)
helLej) stone is very soft and easy to mould.
DevÙe efJekeâuhe GheÙegòeâ veneR nw~ Let the total votes = 100%
58. (a) According to the question,
According to the passae option (a) "Paper making" crafts Rest votes = 100% – 62% = 38%
was not practised in chanhudaro. % difference of both candidate = 62% – 38% = 24%
DevÙe efJekeâuhe efYeVe nw~ 24% = 35640
59. (c) 35640 × 100
100% = = 5940 × 25 = 148500
According to the passage shell objects were mostly made 24
at Nageshwar and Balakot shells were readily available 65. (c)
in these coastal areas. Hence option (c) will be correct Let,
answer.
1 3 1
60. (d) of A = of B = of C = K
According to the passage option (d) "Camelian is a 3 4 6
beautiful bluish stone" is not true. A 3B C
Passage kesâ efueÙes melÙe veneR Dele: Ùen GheÙegòeâ Gòej nw~ = = =K
3 4 6
61. (c) then, A = 3K
According to the question,
4
Population of village = 175000 B= K
After 5 years, the population of village = 262500 3
Increase in population = 262500 – 175000 C = 6K
= 87500 4
Average increase in population per year Hence, A : B : C = 3K : K : 6K
3
87500
= = 17500 = 9K : 4K : 18K
5 A : B : C = 9 : 4 : 18
17500 66.(c)
So, percentage increase = × 100
175000 Let number of notes of ` 10, Rs, 20, ` 50 = x, 3x, 5x
= 10% According to the question,
148 YCT
Total cost = 10 × x + 20 × 3x + 50 × 5x 71. (c)
= 1920 Given –
⇒ 320x = 1920 Principal = `1500
⇒x=6 Time · 2 Years
Total number of notes of `20 = 3x
Amount = `1800
= 3 × 6 = 18
67. (d) ∴ Interest = Amount – Principal
On giving 30³ discount = 1800 -1500 = `300
Formula-
100 − 30  MP(100 − d%) 
Selling price = 500 ×  SP =  P×R ×T
100  100  Simple interest ·
100
70
= 500 × = ` 350 1500 × R × 2
100 ⇒ 300 =
68. (c) 100
Given, ⇒ R = 10%
P = ` 1280 New rate after increasing interest rate by 5% = 10% +
R = 5% 5% = 15%
T = 3 years 1500 × 15 × 2
New simple interest = = ` 450
P×R ×T 100
Simple Interest =
100 New amount · Principal + New Interest
1280 × 5 × 3 = 1500 + 450
=
100 = `1950
= ` 192
69. (d) 72. (b)
Let the amount = `P Let principal amount = ` P
According to the question, Rate= 10% annually
P × 20 × 3 P × 10 × 3 Time · 2 years
− = 1560
100 100 According to the question,
60P – 30P = 1560 × 100 P × 10 × 2
500 =
30P = 156000 100
156000 P = `2500
P=
30
 10 
2

P = ` 5200 Compound interest = 2500 1 +  − 1
 100  
70. (b)
Let the Principal = ` P,  11 11 
= 2500  × − 1
T = 15 years, Amount = 3P 10 10 
SI = Amount – Principal 121 − 100 
= 2500 
· 3P – P = 2P  100 
According to the question,
21
P×R ×T = 2500 ×
SI = 100
100 = ` 525
P × R × 15 73. (b)
2P =
100 t
 r 
40 A = P × 1 + 
R= %  100 
3
According to the question,
P×R ×T
Again, SI =  r 
2

100 1600 = P  1 +  _______(i)

 100 
40 T
4P = P × × 3
3 100  r 
And 1700 = P  1 +  ________(ii)
T = 30 years  100 

149 YCT
From equation (i) ÷ equation (ii), School-E won less then 15 gold medals in 2001 and
2 2002.
 r 
P 1 +  Hence, two school are their which won less than 15 gold
= 
1600 100  medals in any of two consecutive years.
3
1700  r  77. (c)
P 1 + 
 100  The ratio of the mean score of both the classes to that of
class A.
16 1
= 40× 23 + 45× 22
17  r  Ratio = : 23
1 +  40 + 45
 100 
5 ( 8× 23 + 9× 22 )
16 100 = : 23
= 85
17 100 + r
=
(184 +198 ) : 23
1600 + 16r = 1700
17
16r = 100
= 382 : 23 × 17 = 382 : 391
r = 6.25%
78. (a)
74. (d)
Let the average weight = x
1 and the weight of new man = a
One day's work of (A + B) = days
30 According to the question,
1 6x + a – 72 = 6 (x + 2)
(A + B + C)'s 1 day work = days
24 6x + a – 72 = 6x + 12
According to the question, a = 84 kg.
1 1 1 79. (b)
= + Given,
24 30 C
2
1 1 = 0.666
1 day's work of C = − 3
24 30
1
5–4 = 0.166
= 6
120
1
1 = 0.200
= part 5
120
3
Hence, C alone can complete the work in 120 days. = 0.428
75. (b) 7
Let they take t days to paint the 5/6 part of the wall. The descending order = 0.666>0.428>0.200>0.166
According to the question, 2 3 1 1
> > >
t t 5 3 7 5 6
⇒ + =
7.2 10.8 6 2 3 1 1
⇒ , , ,
10t 10t 5 3 7 5 6
⇒ + =
72 108 6 80. (d)
30t + 20t 5 1 1 1 1
⇒ = + + + ....... +
216 6 1.4 4.7 7.10 47.50
50t 5 Given expression 1, 4, 7, ….47, and 4, 7, 10, …..50 are
⇒ = in arithmetic series whose difference is 3. In this case
216 6
5 × 216 sum of given term–
⇒t= 1  1 1 
6 × 50  − 
36 Difference  First term Last term 
⇒t=
10 1 1 1 
=  − 
t = 3.6 days 3  1 50 
1 49
76. (c) = ×
According to given table, 3 50
School-D won less than 15 gold medals in 2002 and 49
=
2003. 150
150 YCT
81. (c) 87. (d)
Just as, virus is cause of disease. Same as, exercise is In the given figures in options (a) (b), and (c) the
cause of health. number of sides in outer figure is one less than the
82. (d) number of sides in inner figure, while in option (d)
Just as, figure do not follow the common rule.
Hence, option (d) is odd one.
88. (b)
Given series is as follows-

and,

Hence, ? = 1804
89. (b)
According to the given information a combination will
Same as, be formed in the answer figure.

Hence, ? = XTZ Hence, the figure C will be replaced by ?

90. (a)
83. (d)
In the given figure, the numbers increasing in the
Just as, following manner.
20 : 30
↓ ↓
4×5 (4 + 1)× (5 + 1)
And,
72 : 90 Therefore ? · 109
↓ ↓ 91. (d)
8×9 (8 + 1)(9 + 1) As per question-
Similarly,
42 : 56
↓ ↓
6×7 (6 + 1)(7 + 1)
Hence, ? = 56 Hence, Amit's father is Maternal Uncle of Puni.
84. (c) 92. (b)
Just as, the second figure can be obtained by rotating According to the questions –
the first figure 90º anticlockwise similarly the answer
figure B can be obtained by rotating the third figure 90º
anticlockwise.
85. (b)
Just as,
Number of letter in TRACTOR = 7
TRACTOR = 7 × 2 = 14
And It is clear from diagram that M is mother of A husband.
Number of letters in TROLLEY = 7 93.(a)
TROLLEY = 7 × 2 = 14
Similarly, Given,
Number of letters in SCOOTER = 7 28 Z 7 W 8 X 6 Y 4 = ?
Hence, SCOOTER = 7 × 2 = 14 W → ×, X → –, Y → +, Z → ÷
86. (d) On changing the symbols,
The relation of Dropper, Beaker and Test tube are the = 28 ÷ 7 × 8 – 6 + 4
lab equipments used for handling liquids whereas =4×8–2
Compass is a direction indicator tool. = 32 – 2 = 30
Hence, option (d) is odd one. Hence, ? = 30
151 YCT
94.(b) these embryonic brain vesicles is called the
Given expression- "Prosencephalon" which is the embryonic precursor of
21 ÷ 9 + 99 − 81× 5 = 3 the forebrain, and the most posterior is the
According to the option (b), "rhombencephalon" which will become the hindbrain.
On interchanging 21 and 81 102. (c)
81 ÷ 9 + 99 − 21× 5 = 3 The human body consists of both long and short bones.
9 + 99 − 105 = 3 Longest bone is the thigh bone but the smallest and the
108 − 105 = 3 lightest bone in a human body is stapes or stirrup found
3=3 in our middle ear.
LHS = RHS • There are three bones in the middle ear-malleus, stapes
and incus.
95. (a)
103. (c)
As per question,
The ureters are tubular structures approximately 20–23
cm in adults that pass from the pelvis of each kidney
into the bladder. Form the renal pelvis they descend on
top of the psoas major muscle to reach the brim of the
pelvis.
Hence, option (a) is correct answer. 104. (a)
96.(d) Congestive heart failure is a long term Condition that
According to the statement– happens when your heart can't pump blood well enough
to give our body a normal supply blood and fluids
collect in our lungs and legs over time medications and
other treatments.
105. (c)
The essential muscle contraction is caused by calcium
ions. These calcium ions bind to the protein complex
Conclusion :– troponin in order to remove the masking of active site on
(i)  actin. This results in the exposure of the active- binding
(ii)  sites on the actin for myosin.
Hence, Both Conclusion I and II follows. 106. (c)
97. (b) Ganglion refers to collection of cell bodies of neurons in
On making the diagram as per the statement. peripheral Nervous system. A ganglion is a cluster of
nerve cells found in the P.N.S. The cells that are specific
to a ganglion are called ganglion cells. However the
term is some time used to describe retinal ganglion cells.
Sing Animal Cuckoo The main component of the ganglion a cell body called
the somata and associate dendritic structure.
Conclusion :- 107. (c)
i. → ( ) There are 24 isolated operable irregular bone in the
ii. → ( ) vertebral column. Vertebrae are the 33 individual bones
iii. → ( ) that inter lock with each other to form the spinal column.
Hence, Only conclusion 3 follows. The vertebrae are numbered and divided into regions-
cervical. Thoracic, lumber, sacrum and coccyx. Only the
98.(b)
top bones are moveable, the vertebrae of sacrum and
According to the given statement 'only conclusion II
coccyx are fused. The vertebrae in each region have
follows'.
unique features that help them perform their main
99. (b)
functions.
Answer figure A can be formed from the given question
108. (b)
figures. So, option (b) is correct.
Melatoninn is a hormone secreted by the enigmatic
100. (b) pineal gland in response to darkness, hence named as the
The question figure is embedded in answer figure 'B'. hormone of darkness.
So option (b) is correct. • The pineal gland, conarium or epiphysis cerebri, is a
101. (b) small endocrine gland in the brain of most vertebrates.
The middle vesicle is the "mesencephalon" which is the • Melatonin found in plants and animals. It is primarily
precursor of midbrain structures, the most anterior of known in animals as a hormone.
152 YCT
 117. (a)
A material which is insoluble and inert and used in
matrix tablet formulation is Polyethylene.
Two classes of Retardant material used to formulate
Matrix tablet-
Matrix Material
characteristics
1. Insoluble Inert Polyethylene, Polyvinyl
109. (d)
chloride, ethyl cellulose
Active immunity results when exposure to a disease
organism triggers the immune system to produce 2. Insoluble, erodible Carnauba wax, Stearic acid,
antibodies to that disease. Active immunity may be Polyethylene glycol
acquired by natural infection, vaccination or by applying 118. (c)
toxoids to the immune system. Isoelectric point of Type A (Pork skin) gelatin is in the
110 (d) region of pH 9, while it is about pH 4.7 for gelatin type
Solid part of blood is composed of red blood cells B (Bones).
(RBCs), white blood cells (WBCs) and platelets. The 119. (a)
fluid (or liquid) part of blood is known as plasma and is The healing agent used in hand creams is soft paraffin. It
a straw cloloured , viscous fluid and containing 90 to is an emollient known as skin lubricant, used to soothe,
92% of water and 6 to 8% proteins. smooth and hydrate the skin.
111. (b) 120. (b)
Lymphatic system is the part of are body 's immune Mannitol is the most commonly used bulking agent in
system, it helps in managing the fluid levels in the body, freeze-drying formulation design. It is useful because it
react to bacteria deals with cancer cells , lymphatic crystallizes during freezing and permits drying processes
system also absorbs some of the fats in our diet from the at higher product temperatures.
intestine but not proteins, therefore transport of dietary 121. (d)
protein is not the function of lymphatic system. Bloom value (or strength) indicates the gel strength of
112. (c) the gelatin. It is defined as the weight in grams
The weakly acidic nature of warfarin is attributed to the necessary to apply to the surface of gelatin gel, to
presence of proton of hydroxyl group at 4th Position. depress its surface.
113. (c) 122. (d)
Hydrated proton is called hydronium ion. H3O+ is The integrity of seals in case of vials and bottles is
hydronium ion, a hydrated proton: H+ + H2O → H3O+. It determined by all these tests named as - Leaker’s test,
is referred to as a hydrated proton because it is really a Water hammer test and spark tester probe.
water molecule with one extra proton. 123. (a)
114. (b) Propranolol shown high first pass metabolism. First pass
One milligram is equal to 0.001 gram. Gram is the metabolism may occur in the liver or in the gut. After a
important unit of measuring weight. Some important drug is swallowed, it is absorbed by the digestive system
units of measuring weight are– and enters the hepatic portal system.
1 gram = 1000 mg 124. (c)
1 decagram = 10 grams The main function of an enteric coating is to protect the
1 Hectogram = 10 decagram underlying dosage form and drug substance enabling it
1 kilogram = 10 hectogram to remain intact the gastric environment and instead
1 quintal = 100 kgs. dissolve and undergo drug release in the small intestine.
115. (a) 125. (a)
Pneumatic dryers are the systems in which the drying The term capping is used when either the top or bottom
particles are entrained and conveyed in a high velocity part of the tablet separates horizontally either partially
gas stream or spray. away from the main body or completely to form a cap
116. (d) when ejected from the pres or during the handling
Sterilization by autoclave is an example of moist heat process.
sterilization because steam is the autoclave's sterilization 126. (c)
• The basic principle of steam sterilization is Saccharin is a benzoic sulfimide that is about 500 times
accomplished in an autoclave, in it each item is sweeter than sucrose. Therefore relative sweetness of
exposed to direct steam contact at the required sucrose to saccharin is 1:500.
temperature and pressure for the specified time. 127. (c)
• Thus, there are four parameters of steam Pyrogens are the agent which are responsible for
sterilization - steam, pressure, temperature and increase in body temperature when injected into the
time. body.

153 YCT
• Most common pyrogens which are of significant in Arsenic present as arsenic acid in the sample is reduced
pharmaceutical industry are gram negative bacterial to arsenious acid by reducing agents like Potassium
endotoxion. iodide, stanous acid, Zinc, Hydrochloric acid etc.
• Depyrogenation means the elimination of all Arsenious acid is further reduced to arsine (gas) by
pyrogenic substance including bacterial endotoxion. hydrogen and reacts with HgCl2 paper to give yellow
• Containers may be rendered free pyrogens by stain.
adequate clear and by heating at 2100 for 3-4 hours. H3AsO4 + H2SnO2  → H3As O3 + H2SnO3
128. (b)
Schedule - M Good manufacturing particles and Arsenic acid Arsenious acid
requirements of factory premises. H3AsO3 + 3H2  → AsH3 + 3H2O
Schedule M-I requirements of factory premises plant Arsenious acid Arsine (gas)
equipment etc for the manufacturing of homeopathic 135. (a)
drugs. The agent used to prevent the dental carries is
Schedule M-II requirements of factory premises plant Sodium fluoride.
equipment etc for the manufacturing of cosmetlcs. Anticaries Actives-
Schedule III requirement of factory premises plant
equipment etc for the manufacturing of medical devices. • Fluoride ions reduce the incidence of carious lesion by
129. (b) reducing the acid solubility of tooth enamel.
Insulin clearance is an integral component of insulin Example - Sodium fluoride, Sodium monofluoro–
metabolism as it regulates the cellular response to the phosphate, Stannous fluoride.
hormone by decreasing insulin availability and mediates 136. (b)
certain aspects of insulin action. The liver is the primary In Universal indicators, a pH of 7 is shown with Green
site of insulin clearance. color.
130. (b) A Universal indicator is a pH indicator made of a
Primaquine- thiazolidinons block malaria transmission solution of several compounds that exhibit various
and development of the liver exoerythrocytic forms. smooth color changes over a wide range pH values to
131. (a) indicate the acidity or alkalinity of solution.
Polyene antifungal antibiotics is a amphotericin. The
PH range Description Colour
polyene antifungal agents include nystatin, amphotericin
B and pimaricin. <3 Strong acid Red
Nystatin and amphotericin B bind to the ergosterol in the 3–6 weak acid Orange or yellow
fungal cell membrane and form pores in the fungal cell 7 Neutral Green
membrane which allows leakage of the cell contents and
eventual cell death. Nystatin is considered a poor 8 – 11 weak alkali Blue
antifungal in activity. Amphotericin B has a broad > 11 Strong alkali Indigo or violet
spectrum of action, is fungicidal, and was the mainstay 137. (b)
for N treatment of systemic fungal infection prior to the
development of the echinocandins and broad spectrum Valproic acid is an anticonvulsant (or anti - epileptic)
azoles, called "ampho terrible" the drug was noted for medicine. It's not fully understood how this medicine
nephrotoxicity and fusion - related reactions. works for treating bipolar disorder. However valproic
132. (a) acid is thought to reduce or prevent manic episodes by
The water attack at 121 test can be used to qualify Type increasing the amount of chemical called gamma amino
II glass. Rinse throughly 3 or more containers selected at butyric acid (GABA) in the brain.
random, twice with high purity water. Type II glass is a 138. (c)
form of soda lime glass also called soda - lime silica Clavulanic acid is a beta - lactamase inhibitor that is
glass by far the most common kind produced frequently combined with amoxicillin or Ticar cillin to
industrially. fight antibiotic resistance by preventing their
133. (a) degradation by beta- lactamase enzymes, broadening
Lithium carbonate (lithobid) lithium is considered a their spectrum fo susceptible bacterial infections.
first-line agent for long-term prophylaxis in bipolar 139. (d)
illness, especially for classic bipolar disorder with
euphoric mania. It also can be used to treat acute mania, Selenim sulfide is an antifungal used to treat dandruff,
although it cannot be titrated up to on effective level as seborrheic dermatitis of the scalp and tineacapitis.
quickly as vulproate can. Selenium sulfide is an antifungal agent as well as a
134. (a) cytostatic agent, slowing the growth of
Gutzeit method is used for the Limit test for arsenic. hyperproliferative cells in seborrhea.
Limit test of Arsenic is based on the reaction of arsenic 140. (b)
gas with hydrogen ion to form yellow stain on mercuric Government company is a company or an organization
chloride paper in the presence of reducing agents like in which at least 51% of the paid up share capital is
Potassium Iodide (KI). helped by the central government or the state
It is also called as Gutzeit test and requires special government or partly by both central and state
apparatus. government.

154 YCT
141. (c) 151. (b)
Water attack test at 1210C can be used to qualify type II Oxidation is the term, given among the options, not
glass. Rinse thoroughly or more containers selected at associated with therapeutic drug-drug interaction.
random, twice with high purity water. • Drug-drug interactions occur when two or more drugs
142. (b) react with each other, and it has nothing to do with
The drug store should have adequate space for storage of oxidation.
drugs with proper lighting ventilation and temperature • Oxidation is a common mechanism takes place in drug
controls, or a general storage condition under which a metabolism in phase-1 in this phase drugs are made
substance or product is stored. Criteria for storage more polar (i.e more water soluble) by the addition of an
conditions may for example include temperature, oxygen atom.
humidity brightness atmospheric pressure and so on. 152. (d)
143. (b) Trimethaplan camsylate blocks transmission of impulses
According to dual aspect concept at both sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglia, and is
Assets = capital + Liabilities used exclusively for treatment of hypertensive
• The dual aspect concept states that since every emergencies.
transaction has a dual aspects, the accounting records 153. (c)
must reflect the same to show the accurate movement Alcoholic fermentation is also called ethanol
of funds fermentation. Alcoholic fermentation is a complex
144. (a) process.
FIFO stands for "First in First out" and is an inventory The saccharomyces is a species of yeast which is used in
accounting method used to track the cost of goods sold. the beer and wine making process. It is a genus of fungi.
This method assumes that the first items purchased (or
The members of this genus are considered very
produced) are the first items sold and that the cost of
important for food production. It is also called baker's
those items are the cost of goods sold
yeast. The saccharomyces cerevisiae is used in making
• This method is used to ensure that the costs associated wine, bread and been. Acetobacter Aceti is used in the
with inventory are accurately reflected in a company's production of vinegar.
financial statements.
• Clostridium butylicum is used in the synthesis of
FEFO → First expire First out
butyric acid.
LIFO → Last In First out.
• Penicillium notatum is used to produce the antibiotic
145. (b)
penicillin.
A Purchase order or supply order is a contracts between
154. (a)
the buyer and the seller and it gives specific information
like product or services to be delivered, delivery date, Bacterial cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan. or
and any other terms and conditions including the price. murein. It is a polymer that is made up of sugars and
amino acids.
146. (d)
VED stands for vital, Essential and desirable. The peptidoglycan layer in the bacterial cell wall is a
This analysis relates the classification of maintenance crystal lattice structure formed from linear chains of two
spare parts and denotes the essentiality of stocking alternating amino sugars, namely N-acetylgluco-samine
spares. The spares are split into three categories in order (NAG) and N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM).
of importance . 155. (d)
147. (d) Morbidity refers to having a disease or a symptom of
According to Indian pharmacopoeia the standard of disease, or it represents the state of disease or it
storage, condition for "store in refrigerator mean to represents the state of being unhealthy for a particular
store at the temperature in the range of 2 to 8º C. disease or situation. Incidence rate of occurring the
148. (b) disease is one of the indicator of morbidity. Actually the
A'B'C analysis is an approach for classifying inventory morbidity rate can refer to either the incidence rate, or
items based on the items consumption values. B the prevalence of a disease or medical condition.
category items represents the item of money value 15 to 156. (c)
20%. The items in category is have a moderate Health indicator is a variable susceptible to direct
contribution to quantity and inventory value. measurement, that reflects the state of health of the
149. (b) subjects in a community. characteristics of health
Sterility testing of surgical suture material requires indicators-
incubation period for at least 14 days at the specified  Valid
incubation temperature.  Reliable
150. (b)
 Sensitive
The first hospital formulary for a Government teaching
hospital in India was published in 1997 at Government  Specific
medical college and hospital, Trivandrum  Feasible
(Thiruvananthapuram).  Relevant
155 YCT
157. (d) 163. (c)
Teratogenicity refers to the ability to cause defects in the Schedule L-1 : Good Laboratory practices, Drugs and
foetus. This is an ability of a drugs to cause fetal cosmetics (Third Amendment) rules. 2008, Government
abnormalities or deformities. of India, schedule M : Good manufacturing Practices
158. (d) and requirements of premises, plant and equipment for
Vitamin K deficiency decreases levels of Prothrombin pharmaceutical products, Government of India.
and other vitamin K dependent coagulation factors 164. (d)
causing defective coagulation and potentially bleeding. As per the drugs and magic remedies Act- 1954.
Vitamin K deficiency is a worldwide cause of infant The diseases, disorder or condition cannot be claimed to
morbidity and mortality. be cured such as gangrene, Goiter Glaucoma, cancer,
• Vitamin C also known as L-ascorbic acid, is a water cataract, Tumors, Tuberculosis, Trachoma, Typhoid
soluble vitamin that is naturally present is some fever, Heart disease, Hydrocele paralysis etc.
food added to others and available as a dietary 165. (b)
supplement. Five members nominated by the state government. The
• A nutrient that body needs in small amounts of Executive committee of state pharmacy council (SPC)
function and stay healthy. Vitamin D helps the body comprises of members elected from amongst its
use calcium and phosphorus to make strong bones members. The SPC appoints a Registrar who shall be the
and teeth. secretary of the council and he she may also be the
159. (d) Treasurer.
Surgical dressing is a term applied to a wide range of 166. (b)
materials used for dressing wounds injured or diseased Pharmacy and Therapeutic Committee (P.T.C.) is a
tissues. Dressings may serve to Provide an environment policy forming and recommending body to the medical
for moist wound healing. Desiccation of a wound is a staff. secretary of the PTC is the chief pharmacist.
major factor in retarding wound healing and increasing 167. (b)
scarring . The drugs and cosmetics Act, 1940 and rules which the
160. (d) government of India established through the drugs and
68Y. Punishment of acquiring property in relation to cosmetics Act. 1940. These rules classify drugs under
which proceedings have been taken, under this chapter- given schedules and present guidelines for the storage
Any person who knowingly acquired, by any mode sale display and prescription of each schedule.
what's ever, any property in relation to which Schedule H is a class of prescription drugs is India
proceedings are pending under this chapter shall be appearing as appendix to the drugs and cosmetics rules
punishable with imprisonment for a term which may 1945 introduced in 1945. These are drugs which cannot
extend to five years and with fine which may extend to be purchased over the counter without the prescription
fifty thousand rupees. of qualified doctor.
Sec27. punishment for consumption of any narcotic drug 168. (d)
or psychotropic substance → Imprisonment with one Kurchi have alkaloidal constituents in bark vary from
year or fine are both (the extend to 20 thousand rupees.) 1.8% to 4.5% in concentration.
Sec58. Punishment for vexatious entry search, seizure or Conessine is the main steroidal alkaloid vary from 20%
arrest → punishable with imprisonment for a term which to 30% in concentration. It is useful in complaints of
may extend to two years or with fine or with both. diarrhoea, dysentery and bacterial infections causing
Sec26. Punishment for certain acts by license or his loose motion. It has the action to maintain the normal
servants → Punishable with imprisonment for a term which blood glucose levels. In irritable bowel syndrome,
may extend to three years or with fine or with both. Holarrhena, Antidysenterica gives good results. It also
helps to boost the immunity.
161. (c)
169. (a)
Ketamine is a schedule X drug.
Senna belongs to the family of leguminosae.
In 2006, ketamine hydrochloride was included in the list
of prescription drug contained in 'Schedule H' of the Cassia angustifolia (Senna) used as a laxative, is a plant
drugs & cosmetics Act, under which the drug could only from the fabaceae or leguminosae family.
be sold on the prescription of a registered practitioner 170. (c)
rules, 2006. In Nov. 2013, the food and drug Reserpine is a medication used in managing and treating
administration placed Ketamine under 'Schedule X' hypertension, which is a significant risk factor for
drugs - Amobarbital, Amphetamine, Barbital, Tramadol, cardiovascular disease.
Phenmetrazine etc. Reserpine functions as a sympatholytic agent and
162. (d) antihypertensive medication by acting as an adrenergic
Schedule Y:- Refers to requirements and guidelines to uptake inhibitor.
be followed in order to attain permission of: Importing 171. (a)
and manufacturing new drugs to market or to under take Phylloquinone also known as vitamin K. Vitamin K. is a
clinical trials in India. fat soluble vitamin.
156 YCT
Vitamin K plays a key role in helping the blood clot 180. (a)
preventing excessive bleeding. Unlike many other Steroids have in common a perhydro-l 2-cyclopentano
vitamins, vitamin K is not typically used as a dietary phenanthrene nucleus. The main feature of steroids is
supplement. the ring system of three cyclohexanes and one
172. (c) cyclopentane in a fused ring system. Steriods have an
The leaves of digitalis lanata have 3-4 times greater important role in growth, development, sexual
activity than digitalis purpurea, as it contains powerful differentiation and reproduction. Some examples
cardiac glycoside that may be used by patients with
are-androgens, oestrogens progestogens and
heart conditions. Digoxin is drug (also called digitalin)
glucocorticoids etc.
obtained from it.
173. (d) 181. (b)
Silica gel is the most commonly used adsorbent in Volatile oil belongs to the category of terpenes. The
column chromatography. Silica gel is a colloidal form of largest group of plant-released volatile organic
silicon dioxide (SiO2). It has other uses as to control compounds (VOCs) are terpenes, comprised of isoprene,
humidity in museum and library exhibitions and storage. monoterpenes and serquiterpenes plants interact with
174. (c) other organisms employing there volatile organic
Let nebulizers use compressed gas to make medicated compounds (VOCs).
mist. These nebulizers deliver this gas through a 182. (a)
pressurized stream of air, down a narrow tube or channel Rf value in paper chromatography is obtained by
and through an opening to create a jet. The movement of dividing the distance travelled by the component by the
the air creates a vacuum that pushes the liquid distance travelled by the solvent. Rf value in paper
medication out of the nebulizer. jet-compressed air turns
chromatography usually comes below 1.
the medicine into a mist.
175. (c) 183. (d)
Tapentadol is the best choice for the treatment of Auxin is the term derived from Greek word 'duxein'
diabetic neuropathy . which means to increase or grown. Therefore we say
• Codeine is used to treat mild to moderate pain and also Indole Acetic Acid (IAA) an auxin because it's common
to reduce coughing. function is to promote growth in plants i.e. it is a kind of
• Morphine is widely used off-label for almost any common plant hormone of the auxin class.
condition that causes pain. 184. (a)
• Methadone is a medication used to treat opioid use Anthranalic acid is biosynthesized from chorismic acid
disorder (OUD). Methadone is long -acting full opioid by the action of anthranilate synthase. In organisms
against, and a schedule II controlled medication. capable of tryptophan synthesis, anthranilate is a
176. (a) precursor to the amino acid tryptophan via the
Ispaghula seeds are used as an excellent demulcent and attachment of phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate to the
bulk laxative in chronic constipation. The laxative amine group. After then cyclization occurs to produce
activity of ispaghula mucilage is purely mechanical. It is indole. Anthranilic acid is called anthranilate.
also useful in dysentery, chronic diarrhoea, etc.
185. (c)
177. (c)
Digitalis has dorsiventral leaf strutting It has plenty of
Sufentanil is the most potent µ receptor agonist
available for human clinical use. It is 5 to 10 times more simple covering and glandular trichomes on both the
potent than fentanyl. It has an affinity for opioid surfaces. The covering trichomes are uniseriate , usually
receptors 30 times greater than that of fentanyl. three to four cells long, having collapsed cells acute
• Sufentanil is an opiod analgesic that is used as an apex and finely warty cuticle. Digitalis leaves contains
adjunct in anesthesia, in balanced anesthesia, and as a 0.2-0.45% of both primary and secondary glycosides.
primary anesthetic agent. The foxglove is a widely used herbal medicine with a
178. (c) recognized stimulatory effect upon the heart.
Atropine alkaloid is an ester i.e. a organic compound. It 186. (b)
is a natural alkaloid that is the prototypic anticholinergic A Primary metabolite is a kind of metabolite that is
agent found as a secondary metabolite in plants of the
directly involved in normal growth development and
solenaceae family. Atropine is a muscarinic antagonist,
used to treat poisoning by muscarinic agents, including reproduction. It is usually perform a physiological
organophosphates. function in the organism. A Primary metabolite is
179. (b) typically present in many organisms or cells. It is also
Type of sample required for analyzing with gas referred to as a central metabolite, which has an even
chromatography should be liquids or solids with volatile more restricted meaning (Present in any autonomously
nature, which have the tendency to dissolve easily growing cell or organism). Some common examples of
without decomposition or leaving solid sediments. primary metabolites include -lactic acid & amino acid.
157 YCT
187. (d) 1. Transferases:- The enzymes catalyzing the transfer
L-Ornithine is an optically active form of ornithine of a group, G (other than hydrogen) between a pair
having L-Configuration. It has a role as a of substrate S and S are known as transferases.
hepatoprotective agent, an algal metabolite and a mouse 2. Lyases:- The enzymes that catalyzes the removal of
metabolite. It is an amino acid produced in the urea group from substrates by mechanism other than
cycle by the splitting of urea from orginine. L-Ornithine hydrolysis leaving double bonds are known as
is also a precursor of citrulline and orginine. Lyases.
188. (A) 3. Isomerases:- The enzymes that catalyzes inter-
Essential amino acids are organic compounds composed conversion of optical, geometric or positional
mainly of nitrogen, carbon, hydrogen & oxygen, Amino isomers are known as isomerases.
acids needs to function in our body. We can get them 4. Ligases:- The enzymes catalyzing, the linking
from certain food sources . Only 9 amino acids are together of 2 compounds are known as ligases.
classified as essential - These are Histidine, Isoleucine, Some other are as Oxidoreductases/dehydrogenases,
Leucine, Lysine, Methionine, Phenylalanine, Threonine, hydrolases.
Tryptophan and valine. 195. (d)
Tyrosine, Alanine & Arginine are non-essential amino acids. Starch are made up of two types of molecules:-
189. (d) Amylose and Amylopectin. It is polymeric carbohydrate
Insulin is made up of two short polypeptide chain, A&B consisting glucose units joined by glycosidic bonds.
that are joined together by disulfide bridges. Human Starch has many industrial applications like paper
insulin is made up of 51 amino acids that are organized making, glue making etc.
into two polypeptide chains: A(21 amino acids) and B Starch is contained in many staple foods. The main
(30 amino acids). constituents of starch are sugars in nature.
190. (b) • Amylose is water soluble and amylopectin is water
Phase II reactions consist of adding hydrophilic group insoluble.
the original molecule a toxic intermediate or a nontoxic 196. (a)
metabolite formed in phase I that requires further The diameter of large unilamellar vesicle is 100 to
transformation to increase its polarity. These reaction 400nm. In cell biology, a vesicle is a structure enclosed
include conjugation, reactions glucuronidation by a lipid bilayer.
acetylation and sulfation. 197. (c)
191. (b) Myconazol is an antifungal medicine. It is used to treat
" Positive adsorption" leads to decrease in surface certain kinds of fungal or yeast infections of the skin.
tension It works by stopping the growth of fungi that cause
Positive adsorption: - In case of adsorption by solids infection. Myconazol medicine also used to treat
from the solutions, Mostly the solute is adsorbed on the vaginal thrush and fungal infections in other parts of the
surface of the solid adsorbent so that the concentration body.
of solute on the surface of the adsorbent is greater than 198. (b)
in the bulk. This is known as positive adsorption. Streptomycin is an aminocyclitol glycoside antibiotic,
192. (a) which interferes with prokaryotic protein synthesis by
Globulins are made in our liver by the immune system. interacting with the ribosomal RNA. We report here that
They play an important role in liver function, blood streptomycin is also able to inhibit self splicing of the
clotting and fighting infection. Globulins are divided group I intron of the thymidylate synthase gene of phage
into alpha-1, alpha-2, beta and gamma globulins. Fat T4 .
soluble vitamins (e.g vitamin D, vitamin K and A) are 199. (a)
binding to α-2 globulin. Doxycycline is a tetracycline antibiotic that inhibits
• Alpha and beta (α and β ) globins function as enzymes bacterial growth and is thought to have anti-
and proteins that transport compounds in the body. inflammatory effects. Doxycycline is used to treat many
• Gamma (γ) globulins act as antibody defence against different bacterial infections including acne, urinary and
antigen invasion. respiratory tract infections, eye infection and syphilis.
193. (a) It can also be used prevent malaria and treat infections
Dioscin on hydrolysis gives glucose and rhamnose. caused by mites, tics or lice.
• Dioscin, is a naturally obtained chemical compound 200. (b)
from medicinal plants. It shows lipid-lowering, anti- Lovastatin is in a class of medications called HMG CoA
cancer and hepatoprotective effects. reductase inhibitors. It works by slowing the Production
194. (a) of cholesterol in the body to decrease the amount of
Enzymes are the biocatalyst. Most of the enzymes have cholesterol that may build up on the walls of the arteries
been classified into different group based on the type of and block blood flow to the heart, brain and other parts
reactions they catalyze as: of the body.
158 YCT
 PRACTICE SET - 3
SECTION-A 11. GSLV stands for :
(a) Global Satellite Launch Vehicle
(b) Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle
General Awareness
(c) Global Stationary Launching Vehicle
1. 'Phulkari' is famous embroidery of which state (d) Geosynchronous Satellite Launching Vehicle
of India? 12. The Outermost region of the Sun is known as :
(a) Rajasthan (b) Punjab (a) Corona (b) Chromosphere
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Uttar Pradesh (c) Convection zone (d) Radiation field
2. _____is an exclusive martial dance form of 13. The banknotes of denomination of ______
Manipur that includes unique display of skill. introduced in the Mahatma Gandhi (New)
creativity and agility in which the performers Series post demonetisation (2016) have an
enact a mock fight sequence image of Mangalyaan representing India's first
(a) Thang Ta (b) Rangama interplanetary space mission.
(c) Chakyar Koothu (d) Singhi Chham (a) `200 (b) `50
3. Which Veda has the maximum number of (c) `2000 (d) ` 500
verses? 14. The first index number of wholesale prices
(a) Atharvaveda (b) Rigveda commenced in India for the week beginning
(c) Samveda (d) Yajurveda from ........... and the base week ending 19
4. Which among the following ruler built the city August 1939.
"Siri" for military deployment? (a) 1 January 1942 (b) 10 January 1942
(a) Mohammad Tuglak (c) 21 January 1942 (d) 11 January 1942
(b) Giyasuddin Tughlaq 15. Which of the following can do more work?
(c) Alauddin Khalji (a) A raised hammer
(d) Qutubuddin Aibak (b) A bullet fired by the gun
5. After the annexation of awadh in 1856, Nawab (c) A moving stone
Wajid Ali Shah was dethroned and exiled (d) A rotating wheel
to___. 16. 1 horsepower equals:
(a) Meerut (b) Calcutta (a) 746 J (b) 74.6 J/s
(c) Rangoon (d) Bombay (c) 746 W (d) 746 kW
6. Which state has the second highest number of 17. Who among the following scientists
seats in Lok Sabha? propounded the law of constant ratio?
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Maharashtra (a) Antoine Lavoisier (b) Joseph Proust
(c) West Bengal (d) Bihar (c) Robert Boyle (d) Jacques Charles
7. The Council of Ministers (Government of 18. Dalton's theory was based on which rule?
India) are headed by the _______. (a) Fixed ratio
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha (b) Vice president (b) Chemical combination
(c) President (d) Prime Minister (c) Conservation of momentum
8. The concept of judicial review in Constitution (d) Mass conservation
of India has been taken from the Constitution 19. Parenchyma tissue is the most common simple
of which country? Permanent tissue in plants. Why it is known as
(a) Australia Chlorenchyma and Aerenchyma in some
(b) United Kingdom plants?
(c) New Zealand (a) Chlorenchyma – Has air spaces (aquatic
(d) United states of America plants) and helps them to float
9. The Indian Constitution was the lengthiest Aerenchyma – provides mechanical support
Constitution at the time of its adoption which (b) Chlorenchyma – Has chlorophyll for
originally had ________ Articles. photosynthesis (leaves)
(a) 348 (b) 448 Aerenchyma – Has air spaces (aquatic plants)
(c) 444 (d) 395 and helps them to float
10. What is the full form of GEO? (c) Chlorenchyma – Supports the plant
(a) Geostructure Element Orbit (d) Aerenchyma – Has chlorophyll for
(b) Geostationary Earth Orbit photosynthesis (leaves)
(c) Geographical Earth Orbit Chlorenchyma – Has air spaces (aquatic
(d) Geography Earth Orbit plants) and helps them to float
159 YCT
20. In which of the following classes does 30. `Gkeäle' Meyo keâe efJeueesce nw –
temperature determine the sex in some species? (a) Devegkeäle (b) GheÙegkeäle
(a) Mammals (b) Amphibians (c) DevegheÙegkeäle (d) GheÙeg&keäle
(c) Aves (d) Reptiles
31. efnboer Yee<ee ceW ÜmJe mJejeW keâer mebKÙee efkeâleveer nw?
Test of Language : Hindi (a) iÙeejn (b) Ûeej
(c) meele (d) oes
21. efpeme JeekeäÙe ceW keâlee& keâer ØeOeevelee nesleer nw, efuebie, JeÛeve
ØeeÙe: keâlee& kesâ Devegmeej nesles nQ, Jes JeekeäÙe ............ 32. cegPes yeenj peevee nw
keânueeles nQ~ jsKeebefkeâle efÛendve keâes henÛeeefveS:
(a) hetCe&efJejece (b) ØeMveJeeÛekeâ efÛeåve
(a) keâce&JeeÛÙe (b) keâle=&JeeÛÙe
(c) Deuhe efJejece (d) ueeIeJe efÛeåve
(c) YeeJeJeeÛÙe (d) mejue JeekeäÙe
33. efvecve ceW mes mener Meyo ÛegveW~
22. ‘Jen Keelee nesiee’ Fme JeekeäÙe keâer ef›eâÙee efkeâme keâeue keâer
(a) DeeoMe& (b) Deeo&Me
nw?
(c) Deeojme (d) DeeoMee&
(a) mebefoiOe Jele&ceeve keâeue (b) mebYeeJÙe YeefJe<Ùe keâeue
34. peuesyeer ceW efce"eme DeefOekeâ nw~ jsKeebefkeâle Meyo keâe
(c) meeceevÙe YeefJe<Ùe keâeue (d) mebefoiOe Yetlekeâeue efJeMes<eCe yeleeFS~
23. efvecveefueefKele efJekeâuheeW ceW mes keâewve-mee JeÛeve keâe peesÌ[e (a) efce"eF& (b) ceer"eheve
mener veneR nw? (c) ceer"e (d) Ûeerveer
(a) meesvee-meesvee (b) Oesveg-OesvegSB 35. efvecveefueefKele ceW mes keâewve heg®<eJeeÛekeâ meJe&veece nw?
(c) Úe$e–Úe$eieCe (d) Deeše-Deešs (a) let (b) pees
F&<Ùee& keâe keâece peueevee nw; ceiej, meyemes henues Jen Gmeer keâes (c) keâesF& (d) keäÙee
peueeleer nw efpemekesâ ùoÙe ceW Gmekeâe pevce neslee nw~ Deehe Yeer Ssmes 36. ‘Ùen keâneveer jesÛekeâ nw~’ ‘Ùen’ efJeMes<eCe keâe keâewve-mee
yengle mes ueesieeW keâes peeveles neWies pees F&<Ùee& Deewj És<e keâer meekeâej Yeso nw?
cetefle& nQ, pees yejeyej Fme efheâ›eâ ceW ueies jnles nQ efkeâ keâneB megveves (a) mebkesâleJeeÛekeâ (b) efveefMÛele mebKÙeeJeeÛekeâ
Jeeues efceueW efkeâ Deheves efoue keâe iegyeej efvekeâeueves keâe ceewkeâe efceues~ (c) meeJe&veeefcekeâ (d) iegCeJeeÛekeâ
ßeeslee efceueles ner Gvekeâe «eeceesheâesve yepeves ueielee nw Deewj Jes yeÌ[s 37. efvecveefueefKele ØeMve ceW, Ûeej efJekeâuheeW ceW mes, Gme efJekeâuhe
ner nesefMeÙeejer kesâ meeLe Skeâ-Skeâ keâeC[ Fme {bie mes megveeles nQ, keâe ÛeÙeve keâjW pees ef›eâÙee kesâ Yeso Jeeuee mener efJekeâuhe nw~
ceeveeW efJeMJe keâuÙeeCe keâes ÚesÌ[keâj Gvekeâe Deewj keâesF& OÙesÙe veneR oerhee ves ieeÙe keâes Ûeeje efKeueeÙee~
(a) veeceOeeleg (b) efÉkeâce&keâ ef›eâÙee
nes~ ceiej, peje Gvekesâ Deheves Fefleneme keâes Yeer osefKeS Deewj
(c) ØesjCeeLe&keâ (d) ke=âoble
mecePeves keâer keâesefMeMe keâerefpeS efkeâ peyemes GvneWves Fme megkeâce& keâe
38. ‘meceeveeefOekeâjCe’ efkeâme DeJÙeÙe keâe Yeso nw?
DeejbYe efkeâÙee nw, leyemes Jes Deheves #es$e ceW Deeies yeÌ{s nQ Ùee heerÚs
(a) mecegÛÛeÙeyeesOekeâ (b) ef›eâÙee-efJeMes<eCe
nšs nQ~ Ùen Yeer efkeâ Deiej Jes efveboe keâjves ceW meceÙe Deewj Meefòeâ keâe (c) mebyebOeyeesOekeâ (d) efJemceÙeeefoyeesOekeâ
DeheJÙeÙe veneR keâjles lees Deepe Gvekeâe mLeeve keâneB neslee~ 39. ‘keâeveeW megveer yeele hej Ùekeâerve cele keâjes~’ jsKeebefkeâle heo
24. F&<Ùee& keâe keâece nw: keâe keâejkeâ yeleeFS~
(a) ™ueevee (b) nBmeevee (a) keâòee& (b) keâce&
(c) peueevee (d) veÛeevee (c) keâjCe (d) mebØeoeve
25. ieÅeebMe ceW ØeÙegòeâ ‘OÙesÙe’ keâe keäÙee DeLe& nw? 40. efnvoer Yee<ee ceW efvecveefueefKele ceW mes keâewve-mee Meyo øeWâÛe
(a) ue#Ùe (b) FÛÚe (c) DeeoMe& (d) cetuÙe Yee<ee mes efueÙee ieÙee nw?
26. ieÅeebMe ceW F&<Ùee&ueg JÙeefòeâÙeeW keâer: (a) iee[& (b) metškesâme
(a) ØeMebmee keâer ieF& nw~ (b) efKeuueer GÌ[eF& ieF& nw (c) keâejletme (d) Deueceejer
(c) mlegefle keâer ieF& nw (d) Gheemevee keâer ieF& nw~
Test of Language : English
27. ‘DeheJÙeÙe’ keâe keäÙee DeLe& neslee nw?
41. Select the most appropriate synonym of the
(a) KeÛe& (b) keâce KeÛe&
given word.
(c) DeefOekeâ KeÛe& (d) efheâpetue KeÛe& Challenge
28. ieÅeebMe keâe GheÙeg&òeâ Meer<e&keâ keäÙee nesiee? (a) Answer (b) Acceptance
(a) F&<Ùee& (b) efveboe (c) Objection (d) Peace
(c) F&<Ùee& mes ueeYe (d) DeheJÙeÙe 42. Select the most appropriate antonym of the
given word.
29. Gmekeâer efMekeâeÙele hetCe&leÙee mener Leer~
Clandestine
(a) ØeefleDe#ej (b) Øe#ej (a) Heavy (b) Honest
(c) De#ejMe: (d) ØeefleMeyo (c) Dressed (d) Opaque
160 YCT
43. Select the word which means the same as the 51. Select the most appropriate option to substitute
group of words given. the underlined segment in the given sentence. If
A person who draws or produces maps there is no need to substitute it, select 'No
(a) Chauffer (b) Cartographer substitution required'.
(c) Calligrapher (d) Choreographer Sometimes the family liking to play a game
44. Select the most appropriate meaning of the together after dinner.
given idiom (a) Sometimes the family likes
Cost an arm and a leg (b) Sometime the family likes
(a) Be worthy of the cost (c) No substitution required
(b) Be rather cheap (d) Sometimes the family are like
(c) Be extremely expensive 52. Select the alternative that will improve the
(d) Be easily available underlined part of the sentence in case there is
no improvement select “No improvement”.
45. Identify the segment in the given sentence
which contains the grammatical error. You have to wear this uniform whether you
likes it or not.
Employees were given incentives based at their
(a) whether you like it or not
performance.
(b) whether you are liking it or not
(a) based at
(c) No improvement
(b) given incentives
(d) Whether if you like it or not
(c) Employees were
53. Select the most appropriate option to substitute
(d) their performance
the underlined segment in the given sentence. If
46. The following sentence has been split into four there is no need to substitute it, select No
segments. Identify the segment which contains improvement.
a grammatical error. There was a long queue at the post office and
Notwithstanding we were / all busy that by the time I have reached the counter I was
weekend / we had to / cancel the outing. told the printer was not working.
(a) cancel the outing (a) I reached the counter
(b) we had to (b) No improvement
(c) Notwithstanding we were (c) I reach the counter
(d) all busy that weekend (d) I am reaching the counter
47. Select the most appropriate word to fill in the 54. Select the alternative that will improve the
blank. underlined part of the sentence in case there is
Necessary support to_____ the process of sale no improvement select “No improvement".
is being extended by the banks in the You have my mobile number, isn't it?
consortium. (a) don’t you (b) No improvement
(a) felicitate (b) complicate (c) do you (d) has you
(c) confuse (d) facilitate 55. Select the most appropriate option to substitute
48. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the the underlined segment in the given sentence. If
blank. no substitution is required, select 'No
The Prime Minister was____ a ceremonial substitution'.
welcome. The apple a day keeps the doctor away.
(a) initiated (b) extended (a) No substitution (b) The apples a day
(c) expected (d) invited (c) A apple a day (d) An apple a day
Comprehension:
49. Select the most appropriate word to fill in the
blank. Read the given passage and answer the
questions that follow.
The annual wholesale price index jumped to its
Her name was Sulekha, but since her childhood
highest level last month posing a fresh _____for
everyone had been calling her Bholi, the
policy makers to remain watchful on the price
simpleton. She was the fourth daughter of Ramlal.
front.
When she was ten months old, she had fallen off
(a) chain (b) check the cot on her head and perhaps it had damaged
(c) challenge (d) choice some part of her brain. That was why she
50. In the sentence identify the segment which remained a backward child and came to be known
contains the grammatical error. as Bholi, the simpleton. At birth, the child was
On the way he was bited on his toe by a very fair and pretty. But when she was two years
poisonous snake. old, she had an attack of small-pox. Only the eyes
(a) on the way (b) he was bited were saved, but the entire body was permanently
(c) on his toe (d) by a poisonous snake disfigured by deep black pockmarks. Little
161 YCT
 Sulekha could not speak till she was five as she 60. Sulekha came to be called Bholi because she
was a slow learner, and when at last she learnt to was:
speak, she stammered. The other children often (a) fair and pretty
made fun ofher and mimicked her. As a result, she (b) not very intelligent
talked very little. Ramlal had seven children — (c) healthy and strong
threesons and four daughters, and the youngest of (d) the youngest daughter
them was Bholi. It was a prosperous farmer’s
household and there was plenty to eat and drink. Arithmetical and Numerical ability
All the children except Bholi were healthy and 61. The population of Ludhiana city increases
strong. The sons had been sent to the city to study by 20% annually. If its present population
in schools and later in colleges. Of the daughters, is 8,47,000. What will be population in 2
Radha, the eldest, had already been married. The years?
second daughter Mangla’s marriage had also been (a) 12,14,682 (b) 12,10,681
settled, and when that was done, Ramlal would (c) 12,12,068 (d) 12,19,680
think of the third, Champa. They were good- 62. Veer spends 15% of his monthly income on the
looking, healthy girls, and it was not difficult to house rent and 60% of the rest on household
find bridegrooms for them. But Ramlal was expenditure. If he saves `2210, what is his
worried about Bholi. She had neither good looks monthly income ?
nor intelligence. From her very childhood Bholi (a) ` 6500 (b) ` 7500
was neglected at home. She was seven years old (c) ` 8000 (d) ` 7000
when Mangla was married. The same year a 63. A number, when 42 is subtracted from it,
primary school for girls was opened in their reduces to its 70%. What is two-fifth of that
village. The Tehsildarsahib came to perform its number?
opening ceremony. He said to Ramlal, “As a (a) 84 (b) 140
revenue official youare the representative of the (c) 100 (d) 56
government in the village and so you must set an 64. An amount of ` 1,470 is shared between Anant
example to the villagers. You must send your and Mohan in the ratio 3:4. What is the
daughters to school.” That night when Ramlal amount received by Mohan?
consulted his wife, she cried, “Are you crazy? If (a) ` 1,050 (b) ` 630
girls go to school, who will marry them?” But (c) ` 1,650 (d) ` 840
Ramlal had not the courage to disobey the 65. The ratio of Copper, Zinc and Nickel in
Tehsildar. At last his wife said, “I will tell you German Silver is 4:3:2. How many kilograms
what to do. Send Bholi to school. As it is, there is of Zinc should be added to this metal of 54 kg
little chance of her getting married, with her ugly so that the new ratio becomes 2:5:1.
face and lack of sense. Let the teachers at school (a) 50 (b) 48
worry about her.” (c) 36 (d) 42
56. 'Backward child' in the passage means : 66. If a : b = c : d = e : f = g : h = 1 : 3 then find out
(a) belonging to an underprivileged community the name of following
(b) physically challenged (pa + qc + re + sg) : (pb + qd + rf + sh)
(a) 1:3 (b) 1:2
(c) belonging to a poor family
(c) 1:5 (d) 1:4
(d) mentally challenged
67. In a factory, the sales center decided not only
57. Bholi's mother agreed to send her to school
to get rid of old stock but also to get variable
because : costs in the process. In this case, he sold each
(a) she wanted to wash her hands off Bholi set at a less price of `399. If the fixed cost is
(b) Bholi was neglected at home 24% of the total cost, then what was the less
(c) she wanted to educate Bholi cost price of each set?
(d) she cared for Bholi's well-being (a) ` 520 (b) ` 540
58. Why was Ramlal worried about Bholi? (c) ` 525 (d) ` 550
(a) It would be difficult to arrange her marriage 68. Find the simple interest on Rs. 2,000 at 8.25%
(b) She was too old to get married per annum for the period from 7 February
(c) It was difficult to comprehend her speech 2022 to 20 April 2022.
(d) She was not willing to get educated (a) Rs. 35 (b) Rs. 31
59. Which of these statements is NOT true about (c) Rs. 37 (d) Rs. 33
Bholi? 69. Simple interest on an amount 2 years is `400.
(a) She was a simpleton Had been 4% more than the simple interest
(b) She was neglected by her family would have been `400 more. What is the
(c) She was seven when her eldest sister got principle amount.
married (a) ` 4000 (b) ` 12000
(d) She was healthy and strong (c) ` 5000 (d) ` 10000
162 YCT
70. In how much time simple interest will be `400 (a) 13 : 111 (b) 46 : 287
on `4000 (principal) at 6% per annum. (c) 64 : 287 (d) 14 : 102
(a) 20 months (b) 22 months 77. In a class of 100 students, the mean marks
(c) 14 months (d) 18 months obtained in a certain subject is 25 and in
71. What will be the amount (in `) of annual another class of 50 students, the mean marks
payment that will discharge a debt of `1,025 obtained in the same subject is 70. The mean
due in 2 years at the rate of 5% compound marks obtained by the students of both the
interest per annum? classes taken together.
(a) ` 551.60 (b) ` 549.23 (a) 25 (b) 60
(c) ` 551.25 (d) ` 550.0 (c) 30 (d) 40
72. If the compound interest on a principal in 2 78. The mean of 11 numbers is 44. If the mean of
years at 5% per annum is `10 more than the the first 6 numbers is 39 and that of the last 6
simple interest on the same principal at the numbers is 48, then what is the 6th number?
same time. Find the principal. (a) 34 (b) 36
(a) `5,000 (b) `4,500 (c) 38 (d) 32
(c) `4,000 (d) `3,500 1 4 2
79. The fractions , , written in ascending
73. The amount lent at a fixed rate of compound 3 7 5
interest becomes `1460 in 2 years and `1606 in order are:
3 years Find the rate of interest. 1 4 2
(a) 11% (b) 12% (a) , , (b) All fractions are equal
(c) 10% (d) 8% 3 7 5
74. P, Q and R can do a place of work in 9 days, 18 1 2 4 4 1 2
(c) , , (d) , ,
days and 12 days, respectively. They start the 3 5 7 7 3 5
work, with P working on Day 1, Q working on 80. What fraction of a day equals to 7 minutes and
Day 2 and R working on Day 3, and then 12 second?
continuing with this cycle till the work got is 1 1
completed. How many days will be needed to (a) (b)
240 225
complete this work in this manner?
(a) 11 days (b) 15 days 1 1
(c) (d)
(c) 16 days (d) 12 days 200 300
75. A and B can do a job in 14 days and 18 days, General Intelligence & Reasoning Ability
respectively. A works alone for 6 days and
leaves. The number of days required by B to 81. Select the option that is related to the third
complete the remaining job is: term in the same way as the second term is
2 4 related to the first term.
(a) 10 (b) 10 Daman and Diu : Daman :: Andaman and
7 7
Nicobar : ?
3 5
(c) 10 (d) 10 (a) Nicobar (b) Indira Point
7 7 (c) Garacharma (d) Port Blair
76. The given table shows the number of students 82. Select the option that is related to the fifth
graduated from 4 different departments letter-cluster in the same way as the second
namely Mathematics, History, Urdu and letter-cluster is related to the first letter-cluster
English during 5 consecutive years. and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the
Name of the Years third letter-cluster.
Departments 2014 2015 2016 2017 2018 EYXJ : IGBR :: CRFQ : GZJY :: ZIQM : ?
Mathematics 250 150 275 255 310 (a) DNUR (b) ENVR
(c) DQUU (d) EQVU
History 80 60 55 85 75 83. Select the set in which the numbers are related
in the same way as are the numbers of the
following sets.
Urdu 58 64 50 60 55
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on
English 40 35 52 38 30 the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into its constituent. E.g. 13-
What is the ratio of the number of students Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting /
who graduated from Department of Urdu in multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed.
the year 2015 to the total number of students Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then
who graduated from Department of Urdu for performing mathematical operations on 1 and
all the years? 3 is not allowed
163 YCT
 (14, 60, 16) Answer figure:
(25, 80, 15)
(a) (15, 45, 30) (b) (19, 80, 21)
(c) (20, 30, 40) (d) (21, 120, 15
84. Select the option that is related to the figure C
in the same way as the figure B is related to
figure A. (a) C (b) D
(c) A (d) B
90. Study the given pattern carefully and select the
number that can replace the question mark (?)
in it

(a) 5 (b) 3 (a) 14 (b) 12

(c) 2 (d) 1 (c) 9 (d) 13
85. In a certain code language 'EXTRANET' is 91. Mohit has a son Rohit who is married to Gita.
written as 9#416394 and 'TECHNOLOGY' as Gita's husband's only brother Dev is the son of
492735850#. How will be the word Babita. Babita and Jamita are sisters and the
only children of their parents. How is Babita
'TOLERANCE' written in that code language.
related to Gita?
(a) 458913629 (b) 459813629 (a) Mother (b) Husband's sister
(c) 458916329 (d) 549816329 (c) Mother-in-law (d) Sister
86. Three of the four rivers given as options share 92. Among A, B, C, D, E, F and G, A is the mother
a certain relation while one is different. Select of B, B is C's sister's son. C is the only son of D,
the river which is different from the rest. D is the maternal grandmother of B and E is
(a) Godavari (b) Ganga the son-in-law of F. If F has only one daughter
(c) Indus (d) Brahmaputra and is the husband of D, then how is E related
87. Three of the following figures are alike in a to A.
certain way and one is different. Which one is (a) Mother's Brother (b) Sister's husband
different? (c) Son (d) Husband
93. If P means '÷', R means '×', Q means '+' And
S means '–' then 48 P 8 Q 6 R 9 S 31 = ?
(a) 60 (b) 29
(a) (b) (c) 31 (d) 54
94. Which of the following interchanges of signs
would make the given equation correct?
4 – 10 ÷ 8 + 3 × 2 = 6
(a) ÷, – (b) ÷, ×
(c) ×, – (d) ×, +
(c) (d) 95. Select the Venn diagram that best represents
the relationship between the following classes.
Music, Dance, Sound
88. Select the number from among the given
options that can replace the question mark (?)
(a) (b)
in the following series.
7, 23, ? 79, 119, 167
(a) 52 (b) 39
(c) 47 (d) 61
89. Find the next figure for given sequence (c) (d)
Question figure:
96. You are given three statements:
1. All blues are bears
2. All brides are bears
3. All brides are children
164 YCT
 Which of the following conclusions is/are true? SECTION-B
A. Some children are bears
B. Some blues are children Post Specific Subject- Related Questions
C. Some blues are brides
D. Some brides are not children 101. Gluconeogenesis is promoted by
(a) Only C (b) Only B (a) Glucocorticoids
(b) Insulin
(c) Only A (d) All
(c) Oral hypoglycemic agents
97. Statements:
(d) Food intake
Some ducks are bird.
102. Which of the following cells are called
Some Birds are cows.
scavenger cells?
Conclusions:
(a) Neutrophils (b) Natural killer cells
I. Some ducks are cow. (c) Macrophages (d) Mast cells
II. Some cows are ducks. 103. An integral membrane glycoprotein of the
(a) Only conclusion II is true human erythrocyte is:
(b) Both conclusion I and II appropriate (a) Chitin (b) Amylopectin
(c) Only conclusion I appropriate (c) Glycophorin (d) Glycogen
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II is appropriate
104. Diaphragm is a type of .............
98. Statement: (a) Smooth muscle (b) Bone cavity
Mr. X says that he gets good ideas in the (c) Artery (d) Skeletal muscle
morning. 105. Which of these is not a part of liver function
Conclusion: test?
1. Mr. X gets ideas only in the morning. (a) Prothrombin time (b) SGOT
2. Mr. X do not get ideas in the evening. (c) GGT
(a) Neither I nor II follows (d) Mean corpuscular volume
(b) Only II follows 106. Indicate the amount of gelling agent used in
(c) Either I or II follows after shave gel
(d) Only conclusion I follows (a) 10 to 15% (b) 2 to 5%
99. From the options given, select the rotated (c) 0 to 1% (d) 5 to 10%
version of the following image. 107. In case of suppositories base, SFI stands for:
Image : (a) Solidified Fatty acid Indices
(b) Solid Fluid Indices
(c) Solidified Fatty acid Incline
(d) Solid Fat Index
Options : 108. The term ESR stands for
(a) Extensive Sibilant Ronchi
(b) Extra-Sensory Receptors
(c) Equal Sinus Rhythm
(d) Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate
(a) D (b) B 109. Cardiac output is the product of heart rate and
(c) C (d) A (a) Respiratory rate
100. The given Problem Figure is embedded in one (b) Minute ventillation
of the given Answer Figures. Which is that (c) Stroke volume
Answer Figure ? (d) Peripheral resistance
110. Clark's formula of dose calculation is based on
________.
(a) Body weight (b) Body surface area
(c) Body mass index. (d) Age
111. Fluid thioglycolate media is used for the
Answer Figures: detection of:
(a) Aerobes
(b) Anaerobes
(c) Aerobes and anaerobes
(d) Aerobic bacteria and lower fungi
(a) B (b) D 112. Dose calculation based on body surface area is
(c) A (d) C depicted by ____ formula.
165 YCT
 (a) Bruntion's 123. Which of the following is the sole bearer of
(b) Crawford Terry Rourke's genetic information (normally)?
(c) Augsberger's (a) m-RNA (b) DNA
(d) Fried's (c) r-RNA (d) Chromatin
113. Which one of the following manufacturing 124. Hydrogen peroxide assay is performed by:
facility may not be required for oral solid (a) Diazotisation titration
dosage form? (b) Redox titration
(a) Material Handling (b) Chemical weighing (c) Neutralisation titration
(c) Blending (d) Aseptic filling (d) Nonaqeous titration
114. To household measurements, what is a
125. Centistoke is the CGS unit for the following
teaspoonful equal to?
property
(a) 2.5 ml (b) 10 ml
(a) Surface tension
(c) 5 ml (d) 15 ml
(b) Coefficient of viscosity
115. Sterilization by heating with a bactericide
(a) Can be used safely for intrathecal injections (c) Fluidity
(b) Not suitable for intravenous injection when (d) Kinematic viscosity
single dose exceeds 15 ml 126. Which of the following powder show the
(c) Is performed before the preparation is greatest degree of dustibility
transferred into the final container (a) Talcum powder (b) Lycopodium power
(d) Not suitable for eye drops (c) Fine charcoal (d) Potato Starch
116. Hemophilia A is caused due to the reduction in 127. A widely accepted detector electrode for pH
the quantity or activity of which of the measurementis
following clotting factors? (a) Platinum wire (b) Glass electrode
(a) Vitamin - K (c) Ag-AgClelectrode (d) Lanthanum fluoride
(b) Clotting factor - IV 128. Which of the following is a method used in the
(c) Clotting factor - VIII laboratory to determine the concentration of an
(d) Clotting factor-IX unknown solution?
117. The percentage change in quantity due to 1% (a) Decomposition (b) Solution
change in price is called (c) Angle of repose (d) Titration
(a) Inelasticity of demand 129. Following pairs represent antibiotic and its.
(b) Price elasticity of demand Identify the correct pair
(c) Income elasticity of demand (a) Griseofulvin : Bacteria
(d) Cross-price elasticity (b) Polyenes : Fungi
118. The intake of a minimum of 4 to 10 drugs at (c) Colistin : Fungi
the same time on a regular therapeutic basis is
(d) Macrolides : Actinomycetes
called:
130. Respiratory depression due to morphine
(a) Drugs overuse (b) Drug overdose
overdose can be reversed by
(c) Drug abuse (d) Polypharmacy
(a) Meperidine (b) Pyridoxine
119. The percentage change in quantity caused by a
1% change in price is known as: (c) Vitamin E (d) Naloxone
(a) Inelasticity of demand 131. The Penicillin which has an isoxazole ring in its
(b) Cross-price elasticity structure
(c) Income elasticity of demand (a) Ampicillin (b) Amoxycillin
(d) Price elasticity of demand (c) Carbenicillin (d) Cloxacillin
120. What is the use of Sodium citrate in Calamine 132. Light directed synthesis on silica wafers is a
Lotion B.P.? part of
(a) Deflocculating agent (b) Suspending agent (a) Bulk synthesis
(c) Soothening agent (d) Astringent (b) Combinatorial synthesis
121. Progestational phase of menstrual cycle is (c) Assymetric synthesis
antagonized by (d) Inorganic synthesis
(a) Progesterone (b) Oestrogen 133. Which among the following is not a calibration
(c) Luteinizing hormone (d) Prolactin parameter for UV visible spectrophotometer?
122. The heteroatoms present in phenothiazine are: A. Control of wavelength
(a) Oxygen and Nitrogen B. Control of absorbances
(b) Sulphur and Nitrogen C. Resolution
(c) Oxygen and sulphur D. Control of transmitted radiation
(d) Nitrogen and Nitrogen E. Spectral slit width
166 YCT
 Choose the correct answer from the options 144. Which of the following groups can form ionic
given below: interactions and also act as a hydrogen bond
(a) A, B and D only (b) A, B, C and E only acceptor
(c) A, B and C only (d) A and B only (a) Hydroxyl group (OH)
134. Match the Tablet Diluents with their properties: (b) Carboxylate group (RCOO)
List I List II (c) Aminononium group (RNH3+)
Tablet Diluents Properties (d) Ketone (C = O)
(A) Lactose (I) 2 to 4 percent of 145. Which of the following is delayed type of her
moisture sensitivity reaction
(a) Arthus reaction
(B) Mannitol (II) Maillard reaction
(b) Penicillin sensitivity
(C) Calcium phosphate (III) Negative heat of
(c) Tubercullin sensitivity
solution
(d) ABO incompatibity
(D) Specially dried starch (IV) Contraindicated 146. Which of the following statements are true?
for Tetracycline (a) The LAL test reagent is obtained from a
Choose the correct answer from the options horse shoe carb.
given below: (b) The LAL test is more sensitive than the
(a) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II) pyrogen test.
(b) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III) (c) The LAL test only detects endotoxins of
(c) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II) gram negatie bacteria.
(d) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I) (d) The LAL test can be used for
135. Purpose of Seal coating step of Sugar coating is radiopharmaceuticals.
(a) Gives smooth surface to the tablet Codes:
(b) Enhances weight of the tablet for coating (a) (a), (b) and (d) (b) (a), (b) and (c)
(c) Gives sweet taste to the Tablet (c) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (d) (a) and (b)
(d) Prevent moisture penetration into the tablet 147. Antifungal Antibiotic Amphotericin B is
136. Fluconazole is inhibitor of the following CYP obtained from:
enzymes EXCEPT : (a) Streptomyces pimprina
(a) CYP3A4 (b) CYP2D6 (b) Penicillum griseofulvin
(c) CYP2C9 (d) CYP2C19 (c) Streptomyces nodosus
(d) Both (1) and (3)
137. Long term use of thiazides can cause,
148. Drugs acting directly on the skeletal muscle:
(a) Hypermagnesemia (b) Hyperchloremia
(a) Succinyl choline (b) Tubocurarine
(c) Hyperkalemia (d) Hyperlipidemia
(c) Gallamine (d) Dantrolene
138. All of the following medications are used to
149. The drug used for malaria chemoprophylaxis
treat inflammatory bowel disease EXCEPT, and treatment
(a) Mesalamine (b) Cyclosporine (a) Chloroquine (b) Quinidine
(c) Metronidazole (d) Octreotide (c) Quinlne (d) Sulfonamides
139. The formula to calculate half life (t1/2) is, 150. Choose the drug used for amoebiasis treatment
(a) Vd × Cl / 0.693 (b) 0.693 × Vd / Cl (a) Nitrofurantoin (b) Lodoquinol
(c) 0.693 × Cl / Vd (d) 0.693 × Vd × Cl (c) Pyrazinamide (d) Mefloquine
140. Aminoglycoside approved for the treatment of 151. The antidote for opioid poisoning:
kala azar is, (a) Bal (b) Naloxone
(a) Amikacin (b) Kanamycin (c) Atropine (d) Physostigmine
(c) Paromomycin (d) Tobramycin 152. The TDM refers to:
141. Teratogenicity caused by thalidomide is which (a) Therapeutic Dose Management
type of ADR ? (b) Therapeutic Dose Monitoring
(a) Type B (b) Type F (c) Therapeutic Drug Monitoring
(c) Type D (d) Type E (d) Treatment Drug Monitoring
142. Which of the following is not a side effect of 153. Which of the following is a sod-glucose
clozapine ? cotransport-2 (SGLT-2) inhibitor?
(a) Seizure (b) Weight loss (a) Sitagliptin (b) Voglibose
(c) Sialosis (d) Agranulocytosis (c) Pioglitazone (d) Dapagliflozin
143. New drug application to obtain marketing 154. Ivermectin exerts its anthelmintic action
permission of the drug is undertaken in ? through:
(a) Phase I (b) Phase II (a) Activation of glycine gated c1- channel
(c) Phase III (d) Phase IV (b) Activation of glutamate gated ci- channel
167 YCT
 (c) Activation of nicotinic cholinergic receptors 166. Which among the following birth control pills
(d) Leakage of intracellular Ca+2 have low risk of thrombosis?
155. Which of the following statement is incorrect (a) Norgestrel (b) Norgestimate
about Atenolol (c) Drospirenone (d) Levonorgestrel
(a) It is selective beta blocker 167. What is the advantage of three dimensional
(b) It has no membrane stabilizing effects printed drugs ?
(c) It has short duration of action (a) Increase in ionization
(d) Central side effects are rare (b) Increase in solubility
156. Gynecomastia and menstrual irregularities are (c) Increase in tissue permeability
the side effects of (d) Decrease in clearance
(a) ketoconazole (b) Amphotericine B 168. The mechanisms of resistance to methotrexate
(c) Flucytosine (d) Miconazole include all except
157. Which one of the following is Anthranilic acid (a) Decreased concentrations of intracellular
derivative? dihydrofolate reductase.
(a) Ethacrynic Acid (b) Mehtyl dopa (b) Impaired transport of methotrexate into cells.
(c) Furosemide (d) Heparin (c) Production of altered forms of dihydrofolate
158. A polyene antibiotic reductase.
(a) Amphotericin B (b) Griseofulvin (d) Increased expression of a drug efflux
(c) Fusidic acid (d) Tobramycin transporter of the MRP class.
159. Co-trimoxazole is the combination of 169. Which of the following drugs does not act by
(a) Salphamethoxazole and Trimethoprim regulating gene expression ?
(b) Suplhamethiazole and Trimethoprim (a) Fluticasone (b) Pioglitazone
(c) Sulphadiazine and Trimethoprim (c) Tazaroten (d) Oxytocin
(d) Sulphamethoxazole and Triamterene 170. Which of the following can be administered
(e) Not attempted both orally and intravenously ?
160. Choose the drug used to treat tapeworm (a) Doxycycline (b) Minocycline
infections. (c) Tigecycline (d) Both (a) and (b)
(a) Ciprofloxacin (b) Niclosamide 171. All are prohibited by the World anti-doping
(c) Chloroquire (d) Metronidazole agency at all times except
(e) Not attempted
(a) β 2 agonists (b) Diuretics
161. Which of the following is not a
(c) Anabolic steroids (d) Cannabinoids
pharmacokinetic drug interaction?
(a) Altered drug excretion 172. As per the National Ethical Guidelines for
(b) Altered drug distribution Biomedical Research Involving Children,
voluntary informed consent for participation in
(c) Change in electrolytic balance
paediatric clinical trials can be waived if :
(d) Altered drug metabolism
(a) When the participant and the researcher do
162. Regarding pharmaceutical elixirs, which of the
following statement is true? not come into contact
(a) Preservatives are required in all elixir (b) When the trial is necessitated in emergency
formulations/ situations
(c) When the trial involves not more than
(b) Elixirs require addition of sweetening agents
minimal risk
(c) Elixirs generally contain < 10% alcohol
(d) All of the above
(d) Colors are required for all elixir formulations
163. Aspirin is converted into salicylic acid in your 173. Monoclonal antibody known to cause
body by which of the following reactions? cardiotoxicity is:
(a) Hydrolysis (b) Oxidation (a) Alemtuzumab (b) Pembrolizumab
(c) Reduction (d) Conjugation (c) Rituximab (d) Trastuzumab
164. Which of the following sulphur compound is 174. Vitamin B3 refers to
not as topical agent? (a) Biotin (b) Niacin
(a) Sulphenamide (c) Thiamine (d) Riboflavin
(b) Sublimed sulphur 175. Which vitamin should be administered along
(c) Precipitated sulphur with isoniazid to prevent peripheral
(d) Selenium sulphide neuropathy
165. Drugs used for rare diseases are known as (a) Niacin (b) Cyanocobalamin
(a) Orphan drugs (c) Pyridoxine (d) Folic acid
(b) Rare drugs 176. Identify carbonic anhydrase enzyme inhibitor:
(c) Over the counter drugs (a) Spironolactone (b) Hydrochlorthiazide
(d) Emergency drugs (c) Amiloride (d) Acetazolamide
168 YCT
177. Octreotide is not indicated in the treatment of 190. Ergotoxine test gives __________ colour
which one of the following condition? (a) Deep purple (b) Deep red
(a) Gall stones (c) Deep blue (d) Deep green
(b) Secretory diarrhea associated with carcinoid 191. Black pepper consists of the dried unripe fruits
tumors of
(c) Acromegaly (a) Pipe betle (b) Piper cubeba
(d) Gastrointestinal bleeding (c) Piper longum (d) Pipe nigrum
178. An amino acid considered as a lipotropic factor 192. Keller kiliani test is the identification test for
is: (a) Digitalis (b) Senna
(a) Methionine (b) Tryptophan (c) Metformin (d) Rifampicin
(c) Histidine (d) Serine 193. Which is not a component of the drug supply
179. Which of the following is sodium-glucose management at a health facility?
cotransporter-2 (SGLT-2) inhibitor? (a) Preparation of drugs store
(a) Dapagliflozin (b) Sitagliptin (b) Supply ordering
(c) Saroglitazar (d) Liraglutide (c) Receiving supplies
180. A mutation that produces termination codon is (d) Setting up pharmaceutical
(a) Mis-sense mutation 194. Which of the following is the primary source of
(b) Non-sense mutation medicine information?
(c) Neutral mutation (a) Text books
(d) Reverse mutation (b) Reviewing articles
181. Isomerism caused by the different (c) Scientific research
arrangements of atoms or groups in space is (d) Data base
called as ............. 195. As per the World Medical association, which of
(a) Tautomerism the following is called as the "Modern
(b) Structural isomerism Hippocratic Oath"?
(c) Stereo isomerism (a) Declaration of Geneva
(d) Metamerism (b) Declaration of Helsinki
182. The vitamin involved in the biosynthesis of (c) Declaration of Tokyo
collagen is: (d) Declaration of Taipei
(a) Tocopherol (b) ascorbic acid 196. Which of the following is NOT a book of
(c) Biotin (d) Pantothenic acid original entry ?
183. Indicate the chemical constituent of Vitamin D (a) Journal (b) Cash-book
(a) Biotin (b) Calciferol (c) Sales-book (d) Ledger
(c) Ascorbic acid (d) Tocopherol 197. A receipt given by a seller to buyer who has
184. Good manufacturing practices for Ayurvedic, returned goods, which can be offset against
Siddha and Unani medicines is specified in future purchases
(a) Schedule-S (b) Schedule-T (a) Credit note (b) Invoice
(c) Schedule-B (d) Schedule-U (c) Debit note (d) Bill
185. Identify pesticide from botanical sources 198. In ABC technique of inventory control,
(a) Pyrethrum (b) Nicotine materials categorized as "A" items are usually
(c) Rotenone (d) All of the above not more than ______ of total items, but
186. The scientist who isolated substance from consume about ______ of total budget.
opium by crystallization and named it (a) 10%, 70% (b) 70%, 10%
morphine ? (c) 30%, 70% (d) 70%, 30%
(a) Langley (b) Otto loewi 199. The register of pharmacists also known as the
(c) Frederich Serturner (d) James Black Central Register as per the Pharmacy Act-1948
187. Which of the following chemical constituent contains
group is related to medicinal effect of clove ? (a) Names of all persons for the time being
(a) Volatile oil (b) Resin entered in the register for a State
(c) Alkaloids (d) Tannins (b) Public document
188. Cinnamon is useful of percentage of ______ as (c) Confidential document
active chemical constituent. (d) Both A and B
(a) Alkaloids (b) Tannins 200. Manufacturer of cosmetics to conform to the
(c) Volatile oils (d) Glycosides latest Bureau of Indian Standards
189. Active constituent of Rhubarb requirements is specified in
(a) Rhein (b) Barbaloin (a) Schedule-A (b) Schedule-S
(c) Ellagic acid (d) Ferulic acid (c) Schedule-F (d) Schedule-T
169 YCT
 SOLUTION : PRACTICE SET- 3
ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 21. (b) 41. (c) 61. (d) 81. (d) 101. (a) 121. (b) 141. (c) 161. (c) 181. (c)
2. (a) 22. (a) 42. (b) 62. (a) 82. (c) 102. (c) 122. (b) 142. (b) 162. (b) 182. (b)
3. (b) 23. (d) 43. (b) 63. (d) 83.(b) 103. (c) 123. (b) 143. (c) 163. (a) 183. (b)
4. (c) 24. (c) 44. (c) 64. (d) 84. (d) 104.(d) 124. (b) 144. (d) 164. (a) 184. (b)
5. (b) 25. (a) 45. (a) 65. (d) 85.(c) 105.(d) 125. (d) 145. (c) 165. (a) 185. (b)
6. (b) 26. (b) 46. (c) 66. (a) 86. (a) 106.(c) 126. (b) 146. (c) 166. (d) 186. (c)
7. (d) 27. (d) 47. (d) 67. (c) 87. (b) 107.(d) 127. (c) 147. (c) 167. (d) 187. (a)
8. (d) 28. (a) 48. (b) 68. (d) 88. (c) 108.(d) 128. (d) 148. (d) 168. (a) 188. (c)
9. (d) 29. (c) 49. (c) 69. (c) 89. (c) 109. (c) 129. (d) 149. (a) 169. (d) 189. (a)
10. (b) 30. (a) 50. (b) 70. (a) 90. (d) 110. (a) 130. (d) 150. (b) 170. (d) 190. (c)
11. (b) 31. (b) 51. (a) 71. (c) 91. (c) 111. (c) 131. (d) 151. (b) 171. (d) 191. (d)
12. (a) 32. (a) 52. (a) 72. (c) 92. (d) 112. (b) 132. (b) 152. (c) 172. (d) 192. (a)
13. (c) 33. (a) 53. (a) 73. (c) 93. (b) 113. (d) 133. (d) 153. (d) 173. (d) 193. (b)
14. (b) 34. (c) 54. (a) 74. (d) 94. (c) 114. (c) 134. (b) 154. (b) 174. (b) 194. (d)
15. (b) 35. (a) 55. (d) 75. (a) 95. (c) 115. (b) 135. (d) 155. (c) 175. (c) 195. (a)
16. (c) 36. (c) 56. (d) 76. (c) 96. (c) 116. (c) 136. (b) 156. (a) 176. (d) 196. (d)
17. (b) 37. (b) 57. (a) 77. (d) 97. (d) 117. (b) 137. (d) 157. (c) 177. (a) 197. (a)
18. (b) 38. (a) 58. (a) 78. (c) 98. (a) 118. (d) 138. (d) 158. (a) 178. (a) 198. (a)
19. (b) 39. (c) 59. (d) 79. (c) 99. (a) 119. (d) 139. (b) 159. (a) 179. (a) 199. (d)
20. (d) 40. (c) 60. (b) 80. (c) 100. (a) 120. (a) 140. (c) 160. (b) 180. (b) 200. (d)

SOLUTION
1. (b) 6. (b)
Phulkari refers to the folk embroidery of the Punjab. Maharashra has the second highest number of seats in
Although, Phulkari means floral work. The designs the Lok Sabha (48).
include not only flowers but also cover motifs and State Number of members of
geometry. It is famous in Punjab and Jammu Kashmir. the Lok Sabha
2. (a) Uttar Pradesh 80
Thang Ta "the art of the sword and spear" is the Maharashtra 48
traditional martial art of Manipur. It integrates various
West Bengal 42
external weapons the sword, spear, dagger etc.
Bihar 40
Rangama is a dance of Nagaland. Chakyar Koothu is a
performance art from Kerala. Singhi is lion dance of 7. (d)
Sikkim. In this dance form the dancers perform in a lion The council of Ministers are headed by the Prime
costume that represents the snow lion. Minister of India. The Lok Sabha controls the council of
3. (b) Ministers.
Rigveda is regarded as one of the most earliest and 8. (d)
sacred text of Hinduism. The Rigveda is divided into The concept of Judicial Review in Article -13 of
ten parts (Books) which are known as 'Mandalas'. It is a Constitution of India has been taken from the
collection of around 10,600 verses (maximum in the Constitution of United States of America.
four Vedas) and 1,028 hymns. It is the oldest text in any Judicial review is the power of the courts of a country to
Indo-European language. It is the oldest and biggest examine the actions of the legislative, executive and
among all the four Vedas. administration and the court may declare them null and
4. (c) void if found violative of provisions of Part 3 of Indian
Siri city, in the city of New Delhi, was built during the constitution.
rule of Alauddin Khalji, the ruler of the Delhi Sultanate,
9. (d)
to defend the city from the onslaught of the Mongols.
Siri fort was built around 1303 AD. The Indian constitution was adopted by the constituent
5. (b) Assembly of India on November 26, 1949 and became
In 1856, Nawab Wajid Ali Shah was dethroned and effective on January 26, 1950. At the time of adoption,
exiled to Calcutta on the plea that the region was being there were 395 Articles and 8 Schedules. But at present
misgoverned. The Nawab was accused of being unable there are 448 articles (But 395 in order) and 12
to control the rebellious Chiefs and Talukdars. Schedules.
170 YCT
10. (b) 19. (b)
Geostationary Earth Orbit is the movement of man- Parenchyma is a type of simple permanent tissue that
made satellites in which the satellite moves in its orbit makes a major part of ground tissues in plants, where
above the Earth's equator. Communication satellites are other tissues like vascular tissues are embedded. It is
placed at a distance of about 35,786 km from the known as chlorenchyma due to having chlorophyll and
surface of the earth. aerenchyma due to having air spaces in some plants.
11. (b) 20. (d)
GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle) is Temperature dependent sex determination (TSD) is a
an expendable space launch vehicle designed developed type of environmental sex determination in which the
and operated by the Indian Space Research temperature experienced during embryonic/larval
Organisation (IRSO) to launch satellites and other space development determine the sex of the offspring. It is only
objects into Geosynchronous Orbit. It is a three-stage observed in reptiles and teleost fish.
vehicle with a lift-off mass of 420 tonnes. GSLV is a 21. (b)
three-stage rocket with the first stage using solid fuel, efpeme JeekeäÙe ceW keâlee& keâer ØeOeevelee nesleer nw leLee efuebie, JeÛeve ØeeÙe:
the second stage using liquid fuel and the third stage keâlee& kesâ Devegmeej nesles nQ, Jes JeekeäÙe ‘keâle&=JeeÛÙe’ keânueeles nQ; pewmes- 1.
using cryogenic fuel-gases stored in liquid form at
extremely low temperature that enhances the carrying
jece hegmlekeâ heÌ{lee nw~
capacity of the rocket. 2. ØeOeeveceb$eer efJeosMe oewjs hej ieÙes~
12. (a) Fve GoenjCeeW ceW ef›eâÙee keâlee& keâer ØeOeevelee keâes JÙekeäle keâj jne nw~
Corona is the outermost layer of the Sun. It experiences keâle&=JeeÛÙe mekeâce&keâ Deewj Dekeâce&keâ oesveeW ef›eâÙeeDeeW ceW neslee nw~
a very high temperature, about one million degree 22. (a)
celsius. It starts at about 2100 km above the ‘‘Jen Keelee nesiee’’ JeekeäÙe ceW mebefoiOe Jele&ceeve keâeue nesiee~ efpeme
photosphere. Corona isn't visible from the earth (except
during solar eclipse). Layers of the Sun are keâeue ceW ef›eâÙee mes keâeÙe& nesves Ùee keâjves ceW mebosn Øekeâš nes, Gmes
Photosphere, Chromosphere, Transition region, Corona. ‘mebefoiOe Jele&ceeve keâeue’ keânles nQ~
13.(c) 23. (d)
To celebrate India's mars mission, the `2000 notes carry efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘Deeše-Deešs’ JeÛeve peesÌ[e mener veneR nw~ Deeše
an image of the Mangalyaan on the reverse side. The õJÙeJeeÛekeâ meb%ee nw Deewj õJÙeJeeÛekeâ meb%eeSB meowJe SkeâJeÛeve ceW jnleer
New currency notes was printed by RBI after nQ, Fvekeâe yengJeÛeve veneR yeveeÙee pee mekeâlee nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe mener nw~
Demonetisation.
24. (c)
14. (b)
The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in India is published
GheÙeg&òeâ ieÅeebMe keâer ØeLece hebefòeâ kesâ Devegmeej ‘F&<Ùee& keâe keâece
by the Office of Economic Adviser, Ministry of ‘peueevee’ nw; ceiej, meyemes henues Jen Gmeer keâes peueeleer nw efpemekesâ
Commerce & Industry. Its base year is 2011-12. In ùoÙe ceW Gmekeâe pevce neslee nw~’
India, the first index number of wholesale prices 25. (a)
commenced for the work beginning from January 10, efoÙes ieÙes ieÅeKeC[ ceW ØeÙegòeâ ‘OÙesÙe’ Meyo keâe DeLe& ‘ue#Ùe’ nw pees
1942 and ending August 19, 1939. ieÅe keâer hebefòeâÙeeW Éeje mhe° neslee nw~ (ßeeslee efceueles ner ............
15. (b)
keâesF& OÙesÙe veneR neW~)
A bullet fired by gun has the maximum work.
16. (c) 26. (b)
S.I. unit of power is watt which is equivalent to efoÙes ieÙes ieÅeebMe ceW F&<Ùee&ueg JÙeefòeâ keâer ‘efKeuueer GÌ[eF& ieÙeer nw’
Joules/Second. In some cases (for motor vehicles etc.) uesKekeâ kesâ efJeMues<eCeevegmeej ieÅe keâe meej nw efkeâ efoceeie keâer
power is given in terms of Horsepower (hp) and one mekeâejelcekeâ Tpee& keâe ØeÙeesie meleled Gòece ØeÙeemeeW kesâ mevoYe& ceW nesvee
Horsepower is equal to 746 watts (W). ÛeeefnS; ve efkeâ F&<Ùee& kesâ JeMeerYetle neskeâj vekeâejelcekeâlee keâe YeC[ej yeve
17. (b) peeves ceW~ F&<Ùee& És<e kesâ YeeJe meJe&ØeLece Gmes ner Dehevee ue#Ùe yeveeles nQ
Joseph Proust formulated the 'constant ratio or fixed
efpemekesâ ceve ceW Ùes YeeJe GlheVe nesles nQ~
ratio law'. According to this law, each element of a
chemical compound is always found in a certain 27. (d)
proportion according to its mass, by whatever method ‘DeheJÙeÙe’ oes MeyoeW mes efceuekeâj yevee nw~ Ùen Meyo ‘Dehe’ Ghemeie&
the compound is obtained. Deewj ‘JÙeÙe’ Meyo kesâ mebÙeesie mes yevee nw, efpemekeâe DeLe& ‘efheâpetue KeÛe&’
18. (b) nw~ Dele: DeheJÙeÙe keâe mener DeLe& ‘efheâpetue KeÛe&’ nesiee~
Dalton's atomic theory is based on the law of chemical 28. (a)
combination. According to Dalton's atomic theory, "all efoÙes ieÙes ieÅeebMe keâe meJee&efOekeâ GheÙegòeâ Meer<e&keâ ‘F&<Ùee&’ nesvee ÛeeefnS
Matter, whether an element, a compound or a mixture,
is made up of microscopic particles called atoms."
keäÙeeWefkeâ efoÙes ieÙes ieÅeebMe ceW F&<Ùee& kesâ pevce, GlheVe oes<eeW leLee F&<Ùee& mes
According to Dalton's atomic theory, an atom is an ueesieeW keâer ceeveefmekeâlee efkeâme Øekeâej vekeâejelcekeâlee keâer Deesj yeÌ{ Ûeueleer
inseparable particle of matter. nw Deeefo keâe JeCe&ve efkeâÙee ieÙee nw~
171 YCT
29. (c) 39. (c)
‘De#ejMe:’ Meyo ‘hetCe&leÙee’ keâe meceeveeLeea Meyo nw~ Dele: ‘hetCe&leÙee’ GheÙeg&òeâ JeekeäÙe ceW efoÙes ieÙes jsKeebefkeâle heo keâe keâejkeâ ‘keâjCe keâejkeâ’
kesâ mLeeve hej ‘De#ejMe:’ Meyo keâe ØeÙeesie mener nw~ nesiee~ keâjCe keâejkeâ keâe efÛendve ‘mes’ nw, pees JeekeäÙe ceW ef›eâÙee kesâ
30. (a) mecyevOe keâe yeesOe keâjelee nw~ pewmes-‘keâeveessb megveer- keâeve mes megveer’ ÙeneB
Gkeäle keâe efJeueesce Devegkeäle neslee nw, peyeefkeâ GheÙegkeäle keâe efJeueesce keâjCe keâejkeâ keâe efÛendve ‘mes’ nw pees ef›eâÙee (megvevee) keâe mecyevOe keâeve
`DevegheÙegkeäle' neslee nw~ mes mLeeefhele keâj jne nw~
31. (b) 40. (c)
efnvoer Yee<ee ceW ÜmJe mJejeW keâer mebKÙee Ûeej nw~ mJeleb$e ™he mes yeesues efnvoer Yee<ee ceW øeWâÛe Yee<ee mes efueÙee ieÙee Meyo– ‘keâejletme’ nw~ øeWâÛe
peeves Jeeues JeCe& ‘mJej’ keânueeles nQ~ JÙeekeâjCe ceW hejchejeiele ™he mes Yee<ee mes efueÙes ieÙes DevÙe ØeÛeefuele Meyo–keâheäÙe&t, ketâheve, Deb«espe, øeâebme,
øeâebmeermeer Deeefo nQ~
mJejeW keâer mebKÙee 11 ceeveer ieF& nw~ mJejeW kesâ oes Yeso nesles nQ:-
41. (c)
ÜmJe mJej- Jen mJej efpevekeâes meyemes keâce meceÙe ceW GÛÛeefjle efkeâÙee Challenge - (Ûegveewleer), Synonym, Objection - (Deeheefòe)~
peelee nw, ÜmJe mJej keânueeles nQ; pewmes- De, F, G, $e+ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& -
oerIe& mJej- Jen mJej efpevekeâes yeesueves ceW ÜmJe mJejeW mes DeefOekeâ meceÙe Peace - Meebefle, Answer - Gòej, Acceptance - mJeerke=âefle~
ueielee nw; pewmes - Dee, F&, T, S, Ss, Dees, Deew~ 42. (b)
32. (a) Clandestine - (DeJewOe), Antonym, Honest - (F&ceeveoej)~
‘cegPes yeenj peevee nw ’ JeekeäÙe ceW jsKeebefkeâle efÛendve ‘hetCe&efJejece’ keâe DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& -
nw~ JeekeäÙe keâer meceeefhle hej hetCe&efJejece keâe efÛendve ØeÙegòeâ neslee nw~ Heavy - Yeejer, Opaque - DeheejoMeea, Dressed - keâheÌ[s henvevee~
33. (a) 43. (b)
ØeMveiele efJekeâuheeW ceW ‘DeeoMe&’ mener Meyo nw~ Mes<e Meyo DeMegæ Ghejesòeâ group of words, 'A person who draws or
produces maps' kesâ efueS efJekeâuhe (b) cartographer
nQ~
(ceeveefÛe$ekeâej) GheÙegòeâ Meyo nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& efYeVe nw-
34. (c)
ØeMveiele JeekeäÙe ‘peuesyeer ceW efce"eme DeefOekeâ nw’ ceW jsKeebefkeâle Meyo Chauffeur - ceesšj-Ûeeuekeâ, Choreographer - ve=lÙejÛeveekeâej,
Calligrapher - meguesKekeâ~
‘efce"eme’ YeeJeJeeÛekeâ meb%ee nw~ Fmekeâe efJeMes<eCe ‘ceer"e’ nesiee~
44. (c)
35. (a) Ghejesòeâ Idiom, 'cost an arm and a leg' (yengle cenbiee) kesâ efueS
‘let’ heg®<eJeeÛekeâ meJe&veece nw, peyeefkeâ ‘keâesF&’ DeefveMÛeÙe-JeeÛekeâ efJekeâuhe (a) 'Be extremely expensive' GheÙegòeâ JÙeeKÙee keâjlee
meJe&veece ‘keäÙee’ ØeMveJeeÛekeâ meJe&veece leLee ‘pees’ mecyevOeJeeÛekeâ meJe&veece nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& efYeVe nQ~
nw~ 45. (a)
36. (c) Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe ceW based at kesâ mLeeve hej Based on keâe ØeÙeesie
pees meJe&veece Meyo efJeMes<eCe keâer YeeBefle ØeÙegòeâ nesles nQ, GvnW meeJe&veeefcekeâ nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ based kesâ meeLe preposition 'on' keâe ØeÙeesie neslee nw~
efJeMes<eCe keânles nQ: pewmes – Ùen ueÌ[keâe nceejs ieeBJe keâe nw~ Ùen Correct Sentence -
keâneveer jesÛekeâ nw~ Employees were given incentives based on their
performance.
veesš- heg®<eJeeÛekeâ Deewj efvepeJeeÛekeâ meJe&veece (cew, let, Deehe) keâes
46. (c)
ÚesÌ[keâj DevÙe meJe&veece peye efkeâmeer meb%ee kesâ henues Deelee nw leye Jen Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe ceW Notwithstanding (kesâ yeeJepeto) kesâ mLeeve hej
meeJe&veeefcekeâ efJeMes<eCe keânueelee nw: pewmes- Ùen, Jen because of (kesâ keâejCe) keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ Ùen JeekeäÙe kesâ YeeJe
GoenjCe– Ùen keâneveer jesÛekeâ nw~ kesâ Devegmeej GheÙegòeâ DeLe& oslee nw~
37. (b) Note - Notwithstanding keâe ØeÙeesie yeeJepeto/Yeues ner kesâ sense
ØeMveiele JeekeäÙe ‘oerhee ves ieeÙe keâes Ûeeje efKeueeÙee’ ceW efÉkeâce&keâ ef›eâÙee ceW efkeâÙee peelee nw~
nw~ kegâÚ ef›eâÙeeSB oes keâce& Jeeueer nesleer nw~ ØeMveiele JeekeäÙe ceW oes keâce& Correct Sentence -
nw- ‘ieeÙe keâes’ Deewj ‘Ûeeje’~ Skeâ keâce& yengOee heoeLe& JeeÛekeâ ‘Ûeeje’ neslee Because of we were all busy that weekend we had to
nw Deewj Gmes cegKÙe keâce& keânles nQ, Deewj otmeje keâce& pees yengOee cancel the outing.
ØeeefCeJeeÛekeâ (ieeÙe keâes) neslee nw, ieewCe keâce& keânueelee nw~ 47. (d)
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ YeeJe kesâ Devegmeej efjòeâ mLeeve ceW fecilitate
38. (a)
(megefJeOeepevekeâ) yeveevee GheÙegòeâ nesiee~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& efYeVe nQ-
‘meceeveeefOekeâjCe’ mecegÛÛeÙe yeesOekeâ DeJÙeÙe keâe Yeso nw~ efpeve MeyoeW mes
Felicitate- DeefYevebove keâjvee
meceeve DeefOekeâej kesâ DebMeeW kesâ peg[Ì ves keâe helee Ûeuelee nw, GvnW
Complicate- cegefMkeâue/hesÛeeroe
meceeveeefOejCe mecegÛÛeÙeyeesOekeâ DeJÙeÙe keânles nQ~
Confuse- Yeüefcele
peneB hej efkeâvleg, Deewj, Ùee, DeLeJee, leLee, hejvleg, Je, uesefkeâve, Correct sentence- Necessary support to facilitate the
FmeefueS, Dele:, SJeb Deeles nQ JeneB hej meceeveeefOekeâjCe mecegÛÛeÙe process of sale is being extended by the banks in the
yeesOekeâ DeJÙeÙe neslee nw~ consortium.
172 YCT
48. (b) Correct Sentence -
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ YeeJe kesâ Devegmeej ‘‘Extended-Øemeeefjle efkeâÙee’’ There was a long queue at the post office and by the
GheÙegòeâ nw~ time I reached the counter I was told the printer was not
working.
DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&–
54. (a)
Initiated- DeejcYe keâjvee
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ jsKeebefkeâle Yeeie isn't it kesâ mLeeve hej don't you
Expected- Dehes#ee keâjvee
GheÙegòeâ nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ question tag JeekeäÙe kesâ helping verb Deewj
Invited- Deecebef$ele keâjvee subject Devegmeej ØeÙegòeâ neslee nw~ Deewj JeekeäÙe present
Correct Sentence- The Prime Minister was extended a
indefinite ceW nw efpemekeâer helping verb "do/does" nesleer nw~
ceremonial welcome.
49. (c) Correct Sentence - You have my mobile number,
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ YeeJe kesâ Devegmeej efjòeâ mLeeve ceW challenge don't you?
55. (d)
(Ûegveewleer osvee) keâe ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ nesiee~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ- Ghejesòeâ jsKeebefkeâle Yeeie The apple a day kesâ mLeeve hej An apple
check - peeBÛevee a day keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ indefinite noun mes henues efpemekeâe
choice - hemebo GÛÛeejCe mJej OJeefve nes Gmekesâ henues indefinite article 'an' keâe
chain - kewâo ØeÙeesie neslee nw~
Correct sentence- The annual wholesale price index
Note- Article, a/an kesâ ØeÙeesie keâe efveOee&jCe Gmekesâ yeeo Deeves Jeeues
jumped to its highest level last month posing a fresh
challenge for policy makers to remain watchfull on the Meyo kesâ GÛÛeejCe (mJej/JÙebpeve OJeefve) kesâ Devegmeej ›eâceMe: an/a
price front. neslee nw~
50. (b) Correct Sentence -
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe ceW he was bited kesâ mLeeve hej he was bitten keâe An apple a day keeps the doctor away.
ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ JeekeäÙe Passive Voice nw~ Passive 56. (d)
Voice ceW cegKÙe ef›eâÙee keâer third form keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peelee nw~ According to the passage Backward child means is
"mentally challenged" Hence option (d) will be correct
Dele: Bited kesâ mLeeve hej bitten keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ answer.
Bite − Bit − Bitten 57. (a)
object − was / were + verb3 + by + subject According to the passage Bholi's mother agreed to
send her to school because "She wanted to wash her
Correct sentence :- hands off Bholi." Hence option (a) will be correct
On the way he was bitten on his toe by a poisonous answer.
snake. 58. (a)
51. (a) According to the passages Ram lal worried about
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ jsKeebefkeâle Yeeie Sometimes the family liking Bholi because "It would be difficult to arrengge her
kesâ mLeeve hej Sometimes the family likes GheÙegòeâ nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ marriage". Hence option (a) will be correct answer.
the family singular subject nw FmeefueS verb Yeer Singular 59. (d)
ØeÙegòeâ nesieer~ According to the passage "She was healthy and
strong" is NOT true about Bholi.
Note- Verb ceW s/es peesÌ[keâj singular yeveeles nw~
Dele: efJekeâuhe GheÙegòeâ Gòej nw~
Correct Sentence -
Sometimes the family likes to play a game together 60. (b)
after dinner. According to the passage Sulekha came to be called
52. (a) Bholi because she was "not very intelligent." Hence
option (b) will be correct answer.
Ghejesòeâ jsKeebefkeâle Yeeie whether you likes it or not kesâ mLeeve
61. (d)
hej whether you like it or not GheÙegòeâ nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ you Present population · 8,47,000
(plural subject) kesâ yeeo plural verb ØeÙegòeâ nesleer nw~
According to the question,
Note- verb ceW s/es ueieekeâj singular yeveeles nQ~ 2
 20 
Correct Sentence–You have to wear this uniform Population of city after 2 years = 847000 1 + 
whether you like it or not.  100 
53. (a) 36
= 847000 ×
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ jsKeeefkebâle Yeeie I have reached the counter kesâ 25
mLeeve hej I reached the counter keâe ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ = 12,19,680
efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe keâe Principle clause, past tense ceW nw Dele: 62. (a)
Deeies Deeves Jeeues meYeer Subordinate clause, past tense ceW ner Let the monthly income of Veer = `x
nesiee~ Dele: verb2 (Past Indefinite) keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ According to the question,

173 YCT
 (100 − 15 ) of (100 − 60 ) of x = 2210 ∴
pa + qc + re + sg 1
=
100 100 pb + qd + rf + sh 3
85 40 (pa+qc+re+sg):(pb+qd+rf+sh)=1:3
x× × = 2210
100 100 67. (c)
2210 × 100 × 100
x= = `6500 (100 − Discount% )
85 × 40 Selling price · Marked price ×
100
63. (d)
Let the number · x According to the question,
According to the question, Selling price · ` 399
x – 42 = x × 70% Discount % · 24%
7 (100 − 24 )
x – 42 = x × 399 · Marked price ×
10 100
10x – 420 = 7x 399 × 100
3x = 420 Marked price =
x = 140 76
2
th
2 2 · 21 × 25 = ` 525
∴ part of this number = x × = 140 × 68. (d)
5 5 5
= 56 Given :-
64. (d) Principle amount (P) = Rs. 2000
Given, Amount Rate of interest = 8.25% per annum
time = 7 February 2022 to 20th April 2022
= 22 + 31 (Days of March) + 20
= 73 days
P×r× t
Anant Mohan ∴ Simple Interest =
100
3 : 4
2000 × 8.25 × 73
4 = = ` 33
Hence, Mohan's Share = × 1470 = ` 840 100 × 365
7
69. (c)
65. (d)
Copper : Zinc : Nickel · 4 : 3 : 2 Suppose principal amount · `P, Rate = r%
Let quantity is 4x, 3x and 2x kg respectively. According to the first condition
According to the question, P×r×2
400 = ...... (i)
4x + 3x + 2x = 54 100
9x = 54
According to the second condition -
x=6
P × (r + 4) × 2
∴ Copper · 4 × 6 = 24 kg 400 + 400 =
Zinc · 3 × 6 = 18 kg 100
Nickel · 2 × 6 = 12 kg P × (r + 4) × 2
800 = ..... (ii)
Let the new ratio will be 2:5:1 by adding y kg of Zinc 100
24 2 By equation (i) ÷ (ii)
∴ =
18 + y 5 1
=
r
120 = 36 +2y 2 r+4
84 = 2y r = 4%
y = 42 kg SI × 100 400 ×100
So adding zinc in new metal · 42 kg So, P= = = ` 5000
t×r 2× 4
66. (a)
70. (a)
Given :-
According to the question,
a c e g 1
= = = = P×R ×T
b d f h 3 Simple interest =
100
pa qc re sg 1 4000 × 6 × t
= = = = 400 =
pb qd rf sh 3 100
a c a+c 40000 10 10
∵ = =k⇒k= Time = = years = × 12 = 20 months
b d b+d 4000 × 6 6 6
174 YCT
71.(c) 74. (d)
Let the compound interest is x. According to the question,
According to the question,
x x
1025 = +
 5   5 
2

 1 +  1+
 100   100  3 day's work of P, Q and R = 4 + 2 + 3 = 9 unit Time
taken to complete 9 unit work = 3 days
x x Time taken to complete the whole work (36 unit)
1025 = +
 1   1 
2
3
1 +  1 +  = × 36
 20   20  9
2 = 12 days
20x  20 
1025 = +  x 75. (a)
21  21  According to the question :-
20 400
1025 = x+ x
21 441
820 work done by A in 6 days = 6 × 9 = 54 unit
1025 = x
441 Remaining work = 126 – 54 = 72 unit
1025 × 441 Time taken by B to do the remaining work
x=
820 72 2
= = 10 days
x = `551.25 7 7
72. (c) 76. (c)
Difference between compound interest and simple According to graph :-
interest for two years- No. of Urdu students in 2015 = 64
2
 r  Total Urdu students in all years = 58+64+50+60+55
= Principal   = 287
 100 
So, required ratio = 64 : 287
2  Difference = 10  77. (d)
 5   
10 = Principal    r = 5%  Total marks obtained by the class of 100 students
 100   n = 2 years  = 100×25 =2500
2 Total marks obtained by the class of 50 students = 50
 1  ×70 =3500
10 = Principal  
 20  Hence, joint average of obtained marks of students of
Principal = 10 × 4 00 = `4000 Total marks obtained
both classes =
73. (c) Total number of students
According to the question :-
2500 + 3500 6000
 R 
n
= = = 40
A = P 1 +  100 + 50 150
 100  78. (c)
Amount of 3 years 1606 From the question :-
=
Amount of 2 years 1460 Sum of observations
3
Mean =
Number of observations
P  1 +
R 

 100  = 1606 Sum of 11numbers
2 44 =

P 1 +
R  1460 11

 100  Sum of 11 numbers = 484
1606  R 
1 And, sum of last 6 numbers = 6×48 = 288
= 1 +  Sum of first 6 numbers = 6×39 = 234
1460  100 
Therefore, 6th number = (Sum of first 6 numbers + Sum
1
803  R  of last 6 numbers) – Sum of 11 numbers
= 1 + 
730  100  = 288 + 234 – 484
= 38
803 R
−1 = 79.(c)
730 100 According to the question :-
803 − 730 73 1
R= = × 100 = 10% = 0.33
730 730 3
175 YCT
 4 85.(c)
= 0.57
7 Just as,
2 EXTR ANET T ECH NOLOG Y
= 0.4
5 | | | | | | | | And | | | | | | | | | |
1 2 4 9#41 6 394 492 7 3 58 5 0 #
Hence ascending order = , ,
3 5 7 Similarly,
80. (c)
The number of hours in a day = 24 TOLERANCE → 458916329
= 24 × 60 × 60 sec 86. (a)
7 min 12 sec = (7 × 60 + 12) The Indus river, the Ganga river and the Brahmaputra
= (420 + 12) = 432 sec river originated from the Himalayan river systems.
432 1 Whereas Godavari River is the largest river in
The required fraction = = Peninsular India. Its source is in Triambakeshwar,
24 × 60 × 60 200
Nashik, Maharashtra, 80 km from Arabian Sea.
81. (d) 87. (b)
Just as, Daman is the Capital of Daman and Diu.
Similarly, the Capital of Andaman and Nicobar is Port In figure (b) all the ∆ signs are in the same direction,
Blair. while it is not in the other figures given in the options.
82. (c) Hence, the figure given in option (b) is different from
Just as, And, others.
88. (c)
The given series is as follows-

Same as,
Hence, option (c) is correct.
89. (c)
The second field contains both small circles inside the
first big circle. Similarly, in the fourth field, two small
∆ are replaced inside the big ∆. Hence, answer figure A
will be in the place of ?
Hence, ? = DQUU 90. (d)
83.(b) Just as, And,
Just as, and, (12 – 7) + ( 10 – 5) = 10 (11–8) + (16 – 4) = 15
(14, 60, 16) (25, 80, 15) 5 + 5 = 10 3 + 12 = 15
⇓ ⇓ 10 = 10 15 = 15
(14+16)×2⇒60 (25+15)×2=80 In the same way,
30×2⇒60 40×2=80 (9 – 6) + ( 15 – 5) = ?
Similarly, from option (b), 3 + 10 = ?
(19, 80, 21) 13 = ?
⇓ 91. (c)
(19 + 21)×2 ⇒80 According to the question,
40 × 2 = 80
80 = 80
(LHS = RHS)
84. (d)
As a line is decreasing when moving from the one
figure to another and a shaded circle is formed in the
middle keeping both the blank circles out of the shape,
In the same sequence, figure-1 will be obtained in Hence, it is clear that from above diagram that Babita is
replace of the question mark. the mother.in.law of Geeta.
176 YCT
92. (d) Conclusion:-
According to the question diagram is as follows:– I. ( )
II. ( )
Hence, neither conclusion I nor II is appropriate.
98. (a)
According to the given statement neither conclusion I
nor II follows.
99.(a)
Answer picture 'D' is acquired by rotating the question
picture clockwise. So, option (a) will be correct.
100. (a)
Hence, it is clear from blood relation diagram that 'E' is The given question figure is embedded in answer figure
the husband of 'A'. B. So, option (a) is correct.
93. (b) 101. (a)
Given, Glucocorticoids promote gluconeogenesis in liver,
48P 8Q6R9S31 = ? whereas in skeletal muscle and white adipose tissue
P → ÷, R → ×, Q → +, S → – they decrease glucose uptake and utilization by
On changing the symbols, antagonizing insulin response. Therefore, excess
= 48 ÷ 8 + 6 × 9 – 31 glucocorticoid exposure causes hyperglycemia and
= 6 + 54 – 31 = 29 insulin resistance
Hence, ? = 29 102. (c)
94. (c) Macrophages are largest corpuscles in the blood tissue -
Given expression, resident phagocytes and antigen presenting cells. They
4 – 10 ÷ 8 + 3 × 2 = 6 differentiate from circulating peripheral blood
On interchanging the signs according to the option (c), monocytes they perform important active and
4 × 10 ÷ 8 + 3 – 2 = 6 regulating functions in innate as well as adaptive
10 immunities
4× + 3 − 2 = 6 103. (c)
8
5 + 3 – 2= 6 The structures and functions of major human red cell
6=6 integral membrane proteins are summarized in this
Hence, option (c) is correct. review. The proteins that are discussed are the anion
95.(c) transporter (band 3), the sialic acid- rich glycophorins
From Venn diagram :- and the glucose transporter. The glycophorins comprise
three major proteins, glycophorin A, glycophorin B and
Glycophorin C.
104. (d)
Diaphragm is a type of skeletal muscle. The mammalian
Hence, option (c) is correct. diaphragm muscles is essential for respiration and thus
96. (c) is one of the most critical skeletal muscles in the human
On making Venn diagram, body.
Diaphragm is the thin dome-shaped muscle below the
lungs and heart that separates the chest from the
abdominal cavity.
105. (d)
Liver function test– Serum albumin, SGPT, SGOT,
GGT (Gammaglutamyl transferases)
Conclusion:-
106. (c)
A. ( )
B. ( ) The amount of gelling agent used in after shave gel
C. ( ) from 0 to 1% After shave gel is a product that is applied
Hence, It is clear from above Venn diagram that only to the skin After shaving is imposed on.
conclusion A follows. • Traditionally it is an alcohol-based liquid, but it can
97. (d) also be in a lotion, gel or paste.
On making Venn diagram :- 107. (d)
In case of suppositories base SFI stands for solid fat
Duck index.
Bird Solid fat index (SFI) is a measure of percentage of fat
Cow in crystalline (solid) phase to total fat (the remainder
being in liquid phase) across a temperature gradient.
177 YCT
 108. (d) Time: 30 minutes
■ ESR : Abbreviation for erythrocyte sedimentation Bactericides: Bactericide that is compatible with the
rate, a blood test that detects and monitors product container and closure.
inflammation in the body. Capsules, while sorbitol sorbitan solutions are the
■ It measures the rate at which red blood cells plasticizers of choice for soft gelatin capsules with PEG
(RBCs) in a test tube separate from blood serum fills because they do not migrate into as glycerin does
over time, becoming sediment in the bottom of the • Preservation of food with its humectants property but
test tube. not a preservative, which can inhibit the microbial
109. (c) : growth such as sodium benzoate and potassium sorbate.
■ Cardiac out put is the product of the heart rate 116. (c)
(HR), or the number of heart beats per minute (bpm), Hemophilia is a rare, inherited blood disorder that
and the stroke volume (SV), which is the volume of causes our blood to clot less, which results in an
blood pumped from the ventriale per beat, thus, co = increased risk of bleeding or bruising. Hemophilia
HR×SV. Values for cardiac output are usually denoted happens because our body doesn't make enough
as L/min. protein (Clotting factors) to help our blood form clots.
110. (a) Hemophilia are three types such as -
Clark's formula of dose calculation is based on body • Hemophilia A :- This is the most common type of
weight. This formula used to calculate the proper hemophilia. It happens when we don't have enough
dosage of medicine for children aged 2-17 based on the clotting factor 8 (factor VIII).
weight of the patient and the appropriate adult dose, i.e.
• Hemophilia B :- It happens when we don't have
 Weight  enough clotting factor -9 (factor IX).
Childs Dose = Adult Dose ×  
 150  • Hemophilia C :- Hemophilia C is also known as
Here weight is measured in pounds and 150 pounds (68 factor 11 (factor XI) deficiency. This hemophilia type
kg) represents average standard weight. is very rare.
111. (c) 117. (b)
Fluid thioglycolate media is used for the detection of Price elasticity of demand is a ratio of the percentage
both aerobes and anaerobes. In the fluid thioglycolate change in quantity demanded of a product to the
solution it has been found that aerobes grow at upper percentage change in price. Economists employ it to
surface as they requires oxygen and on the other hand understand how supply and demand change when a
anaerobes grow at the bottom of the solution because products price change.
they can grow without oxygen. 118. (d)
112. (b) Polypharmacy is an umbrella term to describe the
Dose calculation based on body surface area is depicted simultaneous use of multiple medicines by a patient for
by Crawford Terry Rourke's method. It provides their conditions. Most commonly it is defined as
simplification method of drug dosage calculation by regularly taking five or more medicines but definitions
application of the surface Area Principle. vary in where they draw the line for the minimum
113. (d) number of drugs.
Aseptic filling is related to the technique of packaging 119. (d)
of liquid pharmaceutical products, in this kind of filling The responsiveness of demand or supply to changes in
liquid medication is thermally sterilized and Therefore,, prices or incomes is measured by the elasticity of
it requires no refrigeration this kind of facility has demand or supply. Price elasticity of demand and
nothing to do in manufacturing for oral solid dosage supply.
form. Price elasticity of demand
114. (c) Percentage chaneg in quantity demanded
For cooking purposes and dosing of medicine, a =
Percentage change in Price
teaspoonful is defined as 5 ml (0.18 imp Floz; 0.17 US
Price elasticity of supply
Floz) and standard measuring spoons are used.
Percentage chaneg in quantity Supplied
115. (b) =
Sterilization by heating with a bactericide not suitable Percentage change in Price
for intravenous injection when single dose exceeds 15 If the percentage change in quantity demanded is
ml. This method may be used for sterilizing aqueous greater than the percentage change in price, demand is
preparations which are unstable at higher temperatures said to be price elastic, or very responsive to price
attained in the moist heat sterilization processes. The changes.
method has lower margin of safety and should be used If the percentage change in quantity demanded is less
only when moist heat sterilization is not applicable. than the percentage change in price, demand is said to
Temperature: 98 to 100ºc boiling water price in elastic or not very responsive to price changes.

178 YCT
120. (a) • Potato starch 27%
Sodium citrate plays the role of deflocculating agent in the • Fine charcoal 23%
calamine lotion B.P. Sodium citrate controls the pH of the • Finely powdered calomel has a relative dustibility of
lotion. It helps in the dispersion of solid s in the lotion. 0.7%.
Calamine lotion's main ingredient, bentonite is suspended 127. (c)
by sodium citrate. The AgCl (Silver chloride) electrode is most commonly
121. (b) used as a reference electrode in PH maters. Although
Progestational phase of menstrual cycle is antagonised some designs use the saturated calomel electrode.
by Oestrogen. The menstrual cycle is governed by an The silver chloride electrode is simple to manufactures
interaction between reproductive hormone (L.H,F.S.H, and provides high reproducibility.
oestradiol and progesterone) that result in growth of a Not:- Answer accepted by the commission is (b).
follicle, ovulation [release of egg from the ovary into 128. (d)
the fallopian tubes. A titration is a laboratory technique used to precisely
122 (b) : Phenothiazine is a heterocyclic containing measure molar concentration of an unknown solution
sulfur and Nitrogen heteroatom, which demonstrated using a known solution.
high application potential in medicine and 129. (d)
optoelectronics. It is the main building block of some Macrolides are a class of drugs used to manage and treat
antipsychotics, antiparasitic and antimicrobial drugs, various bacterial infections. Macrolides belong to the
and showed impressive results as antiviral and anitprion polyketide class of natural products. Some macrolides
drugs in the treatment of neurodegerative diseases, such have antibiotic or antifungal activity and are used as
as Alzheimer's disease and Parkinson disease and in pharmaceutical drugs.
cancer therapy. Actinonmycetes are well known as inexhaustible bourse
Due to strong electron donor character, phenothiazine for antibiotics most of the known antimicrobials today
promotes charge carrier mobility and luminescent were originally isolated from actinomycetes especially
properties. from the genus streptomyces.
123. (b) 130. (d)
DNA is the sole bearer of genetic information The only treatment currently available to reverse opioid
(normally). The role of mRNA is to carry protein respiratory depression is by naloxone infusion. The
information from the DNA in a cell's nucleus to the efficacy of naloxone depends on its own
cell's cytoplasm. pharmacological characteristics and on those (including
Within the ribosome the rRNA molecules direct the receptor kinetics) of the opioid that needs reversal.
catalytic steps of protein synthesis. → while taking meperidine, you should take to your
124. (b) doctor about having a rescue medication called
Redox titration is a laboratory method of determining naloxone readily available.
the concentration of a given analyze by causing a redox 131. (d)
reaction between the titrant and the analyte, These types Cloxacillin is a semisynthetic beta lactamase resistant
of titrations sometimes require the use of a penicillin antibiotic with antibacterial activity
potentiometer or a redox indicator. cloxacillin binds to and inactivates penicillin binding
125. (d) proteins (PBPS) located on the innermembrahe of the
The CGS unit for kinematic viscosity is stoke (st) and bacterial cell well thereby preventing the cross linkage
has been named after Irish mathematician and physician of peptidoglycans, which are critical components of the
Sir George Gabriel stokes. Sometimes the unit bacterial cell well. This leads to an interruption of the
centistokes (CST) is also used. bacterial cell wall and causes bacterial cell lysis
126. (b) molecular formula C19H18CiN3 O5.
Dustibility:- 132. (b)
Particle with a high density and a low internal porosity In a combinatorial synthesis, when using only single
tend to possess free-flowing properties. This can be starting material, It is possible to synthesize a large
offset by surface roughness, which leads to poor flow library of molecules using identical reaction
characteristics due to friction and cohesiveness. conditions that can be screened for their biological
• Free-flowing powerless are characterized by activity . Light directed synthesis on silica water is a
"fusibility'' a term meant to signify the opposite of part of combinational synthesis.
stickiness. 133. (d)
Control of transmitted radiation is not a calibration
• Lycopodium shows the greatest degree of dustibility, parameter for UV visible spectrophotometer. The
If it is arbitrarily assigned a dustibility of 100%. following five are calibration parameter of UV visible
• Talcum powder has value of 57% spectrophotometer are :-
179 YCT
 • Control of wavelength. ⇒0.693 is the logarithm of 2, and represents the
• Control of absorbance. exponential rate of elimination (assuming elimination
• Limit of stray light. by first order kinetics).
• Resolution Power 140. (c)
• Baseline Flatness. Paromomycin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic having low
mammalian cell toxicity, is one of the drugs currently of
134. (b)
used in the chemotherapy of cutaneous and visceral
Lactose → Maillard reaction leishmaniases is. Aminoglycoside approved for the
Mannitol → Contraindicated for treatment of kala azar is paromomycin.
Tetracycline 141. (c)
Calcium → 2 to 4 percent of moisture Adverse Drug Reactions (ADRs) :-
Phosphate "Any harmful or seriously unpleasent effects occuring
Specially dried → Negative heat of solution at doses intended for therapeutic effect and which
starch requires reduction of dose or withdrawal of drug & /or
135. (d) forecasts hazard from future administration."
Purpose of seal coating step of sugar coating is to ADRs are classified as below -
prevent moisture penetration into the tablet. The core • Type A : Augmented eg S/E
must be sealed & thoroughly dried so that it is free • Type B : Bizzare eg drug allergy, idiosyncracy.
from any moisture or residual solvents. Once the core
• Type C : Continuous : d/t long term use
is dry, a sealing coat is applied to protect the core
from absorbing any moisture. • Type D : Delayed : duration or critical time exposure
eg teratogenesis.
136. (b)
Fluconazole has a protein binding 11% - 12% but this • Type E : End of use eg acute adrenal insufficiency
can increase up to 23% in patients with chronic renal due to abrupt steroid cessation.
failure. Fluconazole is inhibitor CYP3A4, CYP2C9 and • The alidomide has antiangiogenic actions which has
CYP2C19, CYP enzymes, but not inhibition of been proposed to play a role in thalidomide
CYP2D6 CYP enzymes. teratogenesis.
137 (d) : Long term use of thiazides can cause 142. (b)
hyperlipidemia. Though clozapine is commonly associated with weight
Hyperlipidemia is a medical term for abnormally high gain, a small number of Patients lose weight its use.
levels of fats (lipids) in the blood, which include Other noted benefits include cognitive improvement A
cholesterol and triglycerides. case is Presented where significant weight loss and
138. (d) cognitive improvements followed clozapine use
• Mesalamine is a class of medications called anti- summary of previous review of the possible underlying
inflammatory agents. It works by stopping the body mechanism is discussed.
from producing a certain substance that may cause 143. (c)
inflammation. New drug application to obtain marketing permission of
the drug is undertaken in phase III trids compare a new
• Metronidazole and ciprofloxacin are the most
drug to the standard - of care drug These traits assess
commonly used antibiotics in persons with IBD.
the side effects of each drug and which drug works
• Cyclosporine, which blocks lymphocyte activation
better.
may benefit patients with severe ulcerative colitis
144. (d)
unresponsive to corticosteroids and biologic agents and
Ketone (C=O) can form ionic interactions and also act
who may otherwise require colectomy.
as a hydrogen bond acceptor.
So, mesalamine, cyclosporine and metronidazole are
• ketones and Aldehydes are simple compounds which
used to treat inflammatory bowel disease but octeotide
contain a carbonyl group - a carbon-oxygen double
is used to treat acromegaly (condition in which the body
bond. So, it can act as a hydrogen bond acceptor along
produces too much growth hormone, fee and facial
with forming ionic interactions.
features; joint pain, and other symptoms) in people who
have been treated successfully with octreotide injection. 145. (c)
Tuberculin sensitivity test is the delayed type of
139. (b)
sensitivity test.
Half life (t1/2) is the time required to reduce the
concentration of a drug by half. The formula for half- The reaction to intracutaneously injected tuberculin is
the classic example of a delayed (cellular)
life is (t 1 = 0.693 × Vd × Cl) volume of distribution
2 hypersensitivity reaction. T-cells Synthesised by prior
(vd) and clearance. (cl) are required to calculate this infection are recruited to the skin site where they
variable. release lymphokines.
180 YCT
146. (c) 154. (b)
The Limulus amebocyte lysate (LAL) test was Invermectin exerts its anthelmintic action through
commercially introduced in the 1970s. LAL is derived activation of glutamate gated Ci- channel. The standard
from the blood cells, or amebocytes of the horseshoe theory of its anthelmintic and insecticidal mode of
crab, Limulus polyphemus. It is a simple method for the action is that it is a selective positive allosteric
detection of viable and nonviable Gram-negative modulator of glutamate gated chloride channels found
bacteria. This test can be used for radiopharmaceuticals in nematodes and insects.
and is more sensitive than the pyrogen test and only 155. (c)
detects in endotoxins of gram. negative bacteria. Atenolol is a beta-blocker medicine used to treat high
147. (c) blood pressure (Hypertension) and irregular heart beats
Amphotericin B is a polyene antifungal, antibiotics (arrhythmia) . If we have high blood pressure, taking
produced by bacterium streptomyces nodosus, with atenolol help prevent future heart disease, heart attack
antifungal activity. and stroke. Atenolol works by slowing down your heart
This drug targets the membrane of fungal cell by rate, making it easier for our heart to pump blood
binding the ergosterol (principal sterol in cell around our body. It is also used in angina (chest pain),
membrane), increasing membrane permeability, migraine anxiety etc.
allowing leakage of intracellular content, and causing Atenolol is generally safe to take for a long time.
cell death. 156 (a) : Gynecomastia and menstrual irregularities are
148. (d) the side effect of ketoconazole.
Dantrolene is a direct action skeletal muscle relaxant Ketoconazole is an antifungal medicine. It's used to
blocking calcium release from intracellular storage in treat skin infections caused by a fungus (yeast). It can
the sarcoplamic reticulum. Muscle contraction is also treats different types of fungal infections, such as-
decreased without an effect on the action potential athlete's foot, jock itch, sweat rash etc.
pattern of the neuromuscular junction. Ketoconazole is available in a cream or shampoo.
149. (a) 157. (c)
Chloroquine is used to prevent and treat malaria. It is Furosemide is a loop diuretic which is an Anthranilic
also used to treat liver infection caused by protozoa. acid derivatives furosemide chemical name is 4-chloro -
Chloroquine Phosphate is in a class of drugs called N-furfuryl-5 sulfamoyl anthranilic acid.
antimalarials and amoebicides. It works by killing the
Furosemide is widely used to treat hypertension and
organisms that cause malaria and amoebiasis.
edema.
Chloroquine also known as chloroquine phosphate.
158. (a)
150 (b) : Iodoquinol belongs to the group of medicines
A polyene antibiotic is Amphotericin B.
called antiprotozoals. These medicines are used to treat
infections caused by protozoa. Iodoquinol is used most The other examples of polyene antibiotics are Nystatin
often in the treatment of an intestinal infection called and pimarich.
amoebiasis. The polyene antibiotics are the only group of antifungal
151. (b) antibiotics that directly target the plasma membrane via
Naloxone is a medication approved by the Food and a specific interaction with the main fungal sterol
Drug administration designed to rapidly reverse and ergosterol, often resulting in membrane
opioid overdose. permeabilization.
It is an opioid antagonist - meaning that it binds to The polyene antibiotics comprise a class of molecules
opioid receptors and can reverse and blocks the effects that are toxic to fungi but not to bacteria. They are
of other pioids, such as heroin, morphine and produced by the bacteria streptomycese.
oxycodone. 159. (a)
152. (c) A drug used in the treatment of infections caused by
The TDM refers to Therapeutic drug monitoring. It is bacteria and protozoa, it is a combination of two anti-
clinical practice of measuring specific drugs at infection drugs sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim.
designated intervals to maintain constant concentration 160. (b)
in a patient's bloodstream, in this way it can help in Niclosamide is widely used in the treatment of
optimizing individual dosage regimens. tapeworm infestation in doses of 2 g taken orally before
153. (d) breakfast, it is more effective than mebendazole and
Dapagliflozin is a sodium glucose contrasport-2 (SGLT- flubendazole and is the drug of choice for mass
2) inhibitor. SGLT-2 inhibitors are a class of medication chemotherapy it has also been used as a mollusciacide
that act in the proximal nephron to reduce glucose and in the control of schistosoma japonicum.
reabsorption. SGLT-2 inhibitors works by producing a 161. (c)
reduction in blood glucose without stimulation insulin Change in electrolytic balance is not Pharmacokinetic
release. drug interaction.
181 YCT
162. (b) 167. (b)
Regarding pharmaceutical elixirs are required addition 3D (three dimensional) printing of a drug has many
of sweeting agents. advantages as it can improve the solubility of the drug
The main components of elixir is glycol sorbitol and can achieve precise modify of the drug release.
glycerin, saccharin etc. 168. (a)
Elixirs are sweetened hydro-alcoholic (water & alcohol) The mechanism of resistance to methotrexate include,
liquids for oral use. impaired transport of methotrexate into cells,
• Preservatives are not needed is elixirs as the alcohol production of altered forms of dihydrofolate reductase,
content is sufficient to act as a preservative. and increased expression of a drug efflux transporter of
• Elixirs contain 4 - 40% of alcohol (C2H5OH). the MRP class.
163. (a) 169. (d)
Aspirin (Acetylsalicylic acid) is a nonsteroidal anti Growth hormones can make changes or regulate gene
inflammatory drug (NSAID). expression. Oxytocin is not a growth hormone, it is just
It is used to reduce pain, fever or inflammation and as a chemical messenger and acts on organs in the body
an antithrombotic. (including the breast an uterus). Oxytocin assist in
Molecular Formula :- C9H8O4 controlling key aspects of the reproductive system,
including childbirth and lactation and aspects of human
behavior.
170. (d)
Doxycycline and minocycline both are tetracycline
antibiotics commonly used in the treatment of acne and
some other skin disorders. These medications can be
⇒ Aspirin is converted into salicylic acid in our body administered both orally and intravenously.
by hydrolysis. 171. (d)
164. (a) At all times β 2 agonists, anabolic steroids and diuretics
Topical agent → Topical agents are the compound that prohibited by the world antidoping agency and
act locally with skin/mucous membrane mainly by cannabinoids have been prohibited in all sports during
physical or mechanical manner. competition only since 2004 when world anti-doping
Ex→→ Talc, H2O2, calamine, Alum etc. agency assumed its responsibility to make the list of
prohibited substances in sports competitions.
Sulphenamide is not used as topical agent
sulpphenamide are used to treat bacterial infections and 172. (d)
a few dermatological conditions. As per the national Ethical guidelines for biomedical
These drugs don't work for viral infections such as cold research involving children, voluntary informed consent
for participation in pediatric clinical trials can be
or flu.
waived if the trial involves not more than minimal risk
Note → topical agents does not absorbed directly into
and also when the trial is necessitated in emergency
the circulation.
situations as well as when the participant and the
∗ Sulphr Derivative → Selenium sulphide, sublimed researcher do not come into contact.
sulphur, precipitated sulphur are used as antimicrobial 173. (d)
agent. Trastuzumab is a type of targeted cancer drug called a
165. (a) monoclonal antibody. Trastuzumab is a targeted
Orphan Drugs → biological there by and used in the treatment of HER-2
An orphan drug is a drug for a rare disease or condition. positive breast cancer, and alternated HER 2- mediated
Some rare disease treatment have been orphaned or signaling in the heart due to trastuzumab is the cause of
discontinued because there was not enough financial cardiotoxicity and it culminates in decreased
incentive to continue development of these medicines. functionality of cardiac myocytes.
Ex→ Ibuprofen. 174. (b)
166. (d) Vitamin B3 (Niacin)– Water soluble vitamin formed
Levonorgestrel is a birth control pills have low risk of naturally in some foods added to foods and solid as
thrombosis. supplement. The most common form of niacin in food
It is used by women to prevent pregnancy after birth and supplement are nicotinic acid & nicotinamide. It
control failure or unprotected sex. helps keep nervous system digestive system and skin
• Drospirenone is used to prevent pregnancy. It works healthy. Niacin is often part of daily multivitamin.
by stopping a woman's egg from fully developing each Many foods are rich in niacin, especially animal product
month. like meat, fish & poultry, Banana, Mango avocado etc.
182 YCT
Niacin deficiency– 181. (c)
• Depression • Headache Isomerism, which is caused by the different
• Fatigue • Memory loss arrangements of atoms or groups in space is called as
• Hallucination stereo-isomerism.
• Isomerism is the phenomenon in which more than one
compounds have the same chemical formula but
different chemical-structures.
182. (b)
Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) plays a critical role in the
maintenance of a normal mature collagen network in
humans (anti-scurvy properties) by preventing the auto -
inactivation of lysyl and prolyl hydroxylase, two key
175. (c) enzymes in collagen bio synthesis.
Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine) supplementation during Ascorbic acid promotes the collagen biosynthesis.
isoniazid (INH) therapy is necessary in some patients 183. (b)
to prevent the development of peripheral neuropathy. In Chemical constituent of Vitamin D is Calciferol.
vivo pyridoxine is converted in to coenzymes which Vitamin D is fat soluble and it is produced by our body
play an essential role in the metabolism of protein, when our skin is exposed to sunlight.
carbohydrate, fatty acids, and several other substances, • Vitamin D is actually a group of vitamins i.e. D2 -
including brain amines. INH apparently competitively ergocalciferol, D3-cholecalciferol - and alfacalcidol.
inhibits the action of pyridoxine in these metabolic • Vitamin D helps our body in absorbing calcium and
functions. phosphorus.
176. (d) 184. (b)
Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrate inhibitor. That The Good manufacturing practices (GMP) are
means this drug works to cause an accumulation of prescribed as follows in part I and part II to ensure that
carbonic acid by preventing its breakdown, the result is Raw materials used in the manufacture of drugs our
lower blood pH (i.e. more acidic), given the increased authentic, of prescribed quality and are free from
carbonic acid, which has a reversible reaction into contamination.
bicarbonate and a hydrogen ion. The manufacturing process is has been prescribed to
177. (a) maintain the standards.
Octreotide therapy in acromegaly is associated with an 185. (d)
increased prevalence of gallstones. Therefore Octreotide Pyrethrum, Nicotine and Rotenone all are the pesticides
cannot be indicated for the treatment of gall stones. obtained from the botanical sources.
186. (c)
178. (a)
Frederich serturner, who was a german pharmacist,
• A lipotropic factor is defined as a substance which isolated substance from opium by crystallization and
prevents or removes an accumulation of excess fat in named it morphine. Morphine was discovered by
the liver. Freidrich Wilhelm Adam Serturner (1783-1841), an
• Methionine, an essential amino acid, is a major obscure, uneducated, 21-year- old pharmacist's assistant
lipotropic compound in humans. with little equipment but loads of curiosity. Serturner
• Lipotropic factors, such as methionine, choline and wondered about the medicinal properties of opium,
vitamin E are used to treat or prevent FLS and FLHS. which was widely used by 18th-century physicians.
Methionine and choline deficient diet results in FLS, 187. (a)
because it causes increased oleic acid absorption and Eugenol is present in concentration of 69.43% which is
decreased triacylglycerol secretion in the liver. the major volatile constituent of clove bud essential oil.
It has wide range of medicinal value such as antiseptic
179. (a)
and anesthetic analgesic, antioxidant, anti inflammatory
Dapagliflozin, a sodium - glucose co-transporter-2
and antimicrobial activities.
inhibitor (SGLT-2) is a new therapy for type-2 diabetes.
188. (c)
It is mode of action is to reduce glucose reabsorption in Cinnamon essential oil is a volatile hydrophobic, mildly
the epithelial cells of the proteimal renal tubule of the viscous liquid, usually yellowish in colour. It has a
kidney. Which resuts in decreased blood glucose and sweet, spicy, woody aroma. The volatile oil is typically
glycated haemoglobin levels. isolated by hydro distillation from bark or leaves of
180. (b) cinnamon tress.
A Non-sense mutation occurs in DNA when a sequence Essential oil is a concentrated hydrophobic liquid
change give rise to a stop codon rather than a codon containing volatile chemical compounds from plants.
specifying an amino acid. Essential oils are also known as volatile oil.
183 YCT
189. (a) 193. (b)
Active constituent of Rhubarb is Rhein. Rhein,also Setting up pharmaceutical companies is not a
known as cassic acid, is a substance in the component of the drug supply management at a health
anthraquinone group obtained from rhubarb. like all facility.
such substances Rhein is a cathartic. Rhein is 194. (d)
commonly found as glycoside such as Rheinb 8 - Data base is the Primary source of medicine
glucoside or glucorhein. information.
→ Barbaloin have variety of pharmacological activity Primary sources of drug information include
such as strong inhibitory off act on histamine release. unpublished studies original articles published in
190. (c) reputed peer-reviewed journals reporting original
Six alkaloids of ergot have previously been reposted research ideas or opinions.
in more or less pure form - These are Erogotoxine, 195. (a)
Ergotinine, Ergotamine, Erogotaminine, Ergoclauin, 'Declaration of Geneva' as per the world medical
Sensibamine. of these six , the first, third and sixth association, has been built upon the principles of the
are claimed to posses oxytocic activity. The second Hippocratic oath, and is known as its modern version.
and fourth possess little or no oxytocic activity. 196. (d)
Alkaloid Test Procedure Obseru The general ledger in not considered a book of original
ation entry, if it contain summarized entries posted to it from
Indole Van Indole • Blue one of the underlying accounting journals.
Alkaloid Urk's Alkaloid + colore Cash journal, General journal, purchase book sale book,
Eg → test P- (ergot) cash book of original entry refers to the accounting
journal in which business transactions are initially
Ergot, dimethylamin • Voilet
Rauwolfice obenzal- recorded.
to red
dehyde. 197. (a)
colour
A credit note is a commercial document issued by seller
(Rauwol
to a buyer credit note acts as source document for the
fia)
sales return journal-
Purine Murexi Purine Purple
In other words credit note is evidence of reduction has
alkaloid de test alkaloid + colour
returned goods, which can be offset against future
Eg→→ Tea, KClO3 and murexid
purchase.
coffee HCl heated to e
198. (a)
dryness, cammon
In ABC Technique of inventory control, materials
residue ium
categorized as" A items are usually not more than 10%
exposed to purpurat
of total items, but consume about 70% of total budget.
ammonia e. Color
199. (d)
vapor is lost on
The register of pharmacists also known as the central
addition
Register as per the pharmacy Act 1948 contains is
of fixed
Names of all persons of the time being entered the
alkali
register for a state. A person whose name is for the
191. (d) time being entered in the register of the state in which
Block pepper consists of the dried unripe fruits of he or she is for the time being residing or carrying on
pepper. his profession or business of pharmacy.
Piper nigrum (block pepper) is a flouring plant The Central Register shall be deemed to be a public
begoning to the popper family. It is cultivivated as a document within the meaning of Indian evidence Act
fruit dried and seasoning. It grows in the southern parts 1872 and may be proved by the production of a copy of
of India and other tropical regions. the Register as published in the Gazette of India.
192. (a) 200. (b)
Keller kiliani test is the identification test for digitalis. Schedule T contains various regulations and
Keller's reagent is the find different kinds of alkaloids requirements for manufacture of Ayurvedic Siddha and
via reactions which produced the products with the Unani products.
colors. The cohn defined the theory. Its use to identify → Schedule S lists various cosmetics and toiletries and
the principal components of digitalis so the reaction is directs the manufacturers of cosmetics to conform to the
known as Keller-killani reaction. latest Bureau of Indian standards requirements.
184 YCT
 PRACTICE SET - 4
SECTION-A 11. Sriharikota, one of the two space launch
stations in India is located in:
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Kerala
General Awareness (c) Karnataka (d) Tamil Nadu
1. Khandvi is a dish of which Indian state? 12. With reference to space science, which of the
(a) Karnataka (b) Gujarat following planets do NOT have even one moon?
(c) Odisha (d) Maharashtra (a) Venus and Mercury (b) Neptune and Mars
2. Books that contain the records of Christ's life (c) Uranus and Neptune (d) Jupiter and Saturn
are known as ___________. 13. The Securities and Exchange Board of India
(a) Gospels (b) Sermons functions to monitor and regulate the ––––––.
(c) Torahs (d) Psalms (a) Public health sector
3. Which of the following was the capital of (b) Foreign exchange only
Magadh for several years before it was shifted (c) Indian capital market operations
to Pataliputra? (d) Private sector industries
(a) Patna (b) Nalanda 14. In economics, what does 'Budget Surplus'
(c) Rajagriha (d) Gaya mean?
4. Sultan Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq decide to shift (a) When the revenue collected is negligible as
his capital from Delhi to. compared to the expenditure
(a) Devagiri (b) Agra (b) When the amount spent is equal to the
(c) Lahore (d) Hyderabad revenue collected
5. When was the Regulating Act passed by the (c) When the expenditure exceeds income
British Parliament to regulate the activities of (d) When the revenue collected exceeds the
the East India Company? required expenditure
(a) 1875 (b) 1773 15. Which energy of the wind does a windmill use?
(c) 1861 (d) 1793 (a) Thermal energy (b) Kinetic energy
6. The executive power of the State shall be vested (c) Heat energy (d) Hydro energy
in the Governor and shall be exercised by him 16. Which of the following quantity does not
either directly or through officers subordinates change even after changing place?
to him in accordance with which Article of the (a) Mass
Constitution of India?
(b) Force due to friction
(a) Article 154 (b) Article 144
(c) Weight
(c) Article 124 (d) Article 134
(d) Gravity
7. The Palace of Assembly is a legislative
17. Which of the following elements has the
assembly designed by noted architect Le
maximum number of atoms in their molecular
Corbusier and is located in ___.
form?
(a) Puducherry
(a) P (b) Ne
(b) Chandigarh
(c) S (d) Ar
(c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu
18. The mass of a molecule of oxygen is ………?
(d) Ladakh
(a) 2.3 × 10–23 gram (b) 3.3 ×10–23 gram
8. The Indian Constitution includes borrowed
features from how many countries? (c) 4.3 × 10 gram
–23
(d) 5.3 × 10–23 gram
(a) 06 (b) 13 19. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(c) 10 (d) 07 (a) For every protein, there is a specific RNA.
9. Under the provisions of which Article of the (b) For every protein, there is a specific gene.
Indian Constitution is the President (c) For very hormone, there is a specific
empowered to constitute a Finance chromosome.
Commission at the expiration of every fifth (d) For every hormone, there is a specific protein.
year or at such earlier time as the President 20. A man with blood group A, married to a
considers necessary? woman with blood group B, had a child with
(a) Article 282 (b) Article 280 group AB. What does this mean in terms of
(c) Article 283 (d) Article 281 genetics?
10. X-band synthetic aperture radar has been used (a) Gene for blood group A and gene for blood
in which satellite? group B are both dominant.
(a) CARTOSAT-2B (b) INSAT-4B (b) Gene for blood group B is dominant and gene
(c) RISAT-2B (d) GSAT-12 for blood group A is recessive.
185 YCT
 (c) Gene for blood group A and gene for blood 28. FveceW mes keâewve mee JÙeeJeneefjkeâ Meyo kesâ efueS heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer
group B are both recessive. Meyo veneR nw?
(d) Gene for blood group A is dominant and gene
for blood group B is recessive. (a) JÙeJenejMeerue (b) DeeoMe&Jeeoer
(c) JÙeJenej ceW ueeves kesâ ÙeesiÙe (d) JÙeJenej kegâMeue
Test of Language : Hindi 29. Deke&â kesâ efueS yescesue Meyo henÛeeefveS
21. efkeâme JeekeäÙe cesb SkeâJeÛeve keâe heÇÙeesie ngDee nw? (a) DeheâJeve (b) keâeÌ{e
(a) ueÌ[kesâ ueÌ[keâeW keâes ceej jns nQ~ (c) Deblej (d) metÙe&
(b) ueÌ[keâeW ves ueÌ[keâeW keâes ceeje~ 30. `DeeJejCe' Meyo keâe efJeueesce nw –
(c) ueÌ[kesâ ves ueÌ[kesâ keâes ceeje~ (a) DeveeJejCe (b) DeeÛejCe
(d) ueÌ[kesâ ueÌ[kesâ keâes ceej jns nQ~ (c) megJejCe (d) DeJe%ee
22. efvecveefueefKele ceW mes keâewve-mee keâle=&JeeÛÙe veneR oMee&lee nw 31. efvecveefueefKele ceW mes efkeâme mJej keâes mebÙegòeâ mJej ceevee
(a) efJeveÙe mes Ûeuee veneR peelee (b) jewMeveer heâue veneR yesÛeleer ieÙee nw?
(c) ceQ Deye keâece veneR keâjlee (d) jece keâheÌ[s efmeuelee nw (a) Dee (b) T
23. ‘cesjs ueÌ[kesâ ves cesjer Dee%ee keâe heeueve veneR efkeâÙee’ JeekeäÙe (c) F& (d) Ss
ceW ‘ueÌ[kesâ’ kesâ efJe<eÙe ceW keâewve–mee efJekeâuhe DeMegæ nw? 32. Skeâ JeekeäÙe ceW efJejece efÛendve keâe ieuele ØeÙeesie ngDee nw-
(a) hegefuuebie (b) keâòee& (a) Jen veneR peevelee efkeâ ceQ keäÙee keânvee Ûeenlee ntB~
(c) yengJeÛeve (d) SkeâJeÛeve
(b) Deeheves keäÙee keâne Lee, mees ceQves veneR megvee~
meenme keâer efpeboieer meyemes yeÌ[er efpeboieer nesleer nQ~ Ssmeer (c) Gòej ØeosMe keâer jepeOeeveer yeleeDees~
efpeboieer keâer meyemes yeÌ[er henÛeeve Ùen nw efkeâ Jen efyeukegâue efve[j,
(d) Jen Ssmee keäÙeeW keânlee Lee efkeâ nce JeneRb ve peeÙeWies~
efyeuekegâue yesKeewheâ nesleer nw~ meenmeer ceveg<Ùe keâer henueer henÛeeve nw
33. efvecve ceW mes DeMegæ Jele&veer Jeeuee Meyo nw–
efkeâ Jen Fme yeele keâer efÛeblee veneR keâjlee efkeâ leceeMee osKeves Jeeues
(a) GodIees<e (b) Skeâlee
ueesie Gmekesâ yeejs ceW keäÙee meesÛe jns nQ~ otmejeW keâer hejJeen efkeâS
(c) leelkeâeefuekeâ (d) Ghejeskeäle
yeiewj peerves Jeeuee Deeoceer ogefveÙee keâer Demeueer leekeâle neslee nw
Deewj ceveg<Ùelee keâes ØekeâeMe Yeer Ssmes ner Deeoceer mes efceuelee nw~ 34. ‘meefceefle’ Meyo efnvoer JÙeekeâjCe kesâ Devegmeej ‘meb%ee’ kesâ
meenmeer ceveg<Ùe Gve meheveeW ceW Yeer jme ueslee nw efpevekeâe keâesF& YesoeW keâer efkeâme ßesCeer ceW Deelee nw?
JÙeeJeneefjkeâ DeLe& veneR nw~ meenmeer ceveg<Ùe meheves GOeej veneR ueslee, (a) mecetnJeeÛekeâ meb%ee (b) JÙeefòeâJeeÛekeâ meb%ee
Jen Deheves efJeÛeejeW ceW jcee ngDee Deheveer ner efkeâleeye heÌ{lee nw~ Pegb[ (c) YeeJeJeeÛekeâ meb%ee (d) peeefleJeeÛekeâ meb%ee
ceW Ûeuevee Deewj Pebg[ ceW Ûejvee lees YeQme Deewj YesÌ[ keâe keâece nw~ 35. efvecveefueefKele ØeMve ceW, Ûeej efJekeâuheeW ceW mes, Gme efJekeâuhe
meenmeer ceveg<Ùe lees efmebn kesâ meceeve neslee nw pees Dekesâuee nesves hej keâe ÛeÙeve keâjW pees jsKeebefkeâle Meyo kesâ DeeOeej hej
Yeer ceive jnlee nw~ Devee&u[ yesvesš ves Skeâ peien efueKee ‘‘pees heg®<eJeeÛekeâ meJe&veece kesâ Yeso keâe mener efJekeâuhe nw~
Deeoceer GheÙegòeâ DeJemej efceueves hej Yeer meenme mes keâece ve ues Jen keâue cegPemes efceueves DeeSieer~
mekeâe, Jen keâYeer Yeer megKeer veneR nes mekeâlee’’~ meceÙe hej meenme ve (a) mebyebOeJeeÛekeâ meJe&veece (b) ceOÙece heg®<e
efoKeeves Jeeuee JÙeefòeâ Deheves Yeerlej Skeâ DeeJeepe megvelee nw pees (c) DevÙe heg®<eJeeÛekeâ (d) Gòece heg®<e
Gmes yejeyej keânleer nw, ‘‘legce meenme veneR’’ efoKee mekesâ, legce 36. ‘Skeâ ueÌ[keâe mketâue pee jne nw’, Fme JeekeäÙe ceW efJeMes<eCe
keâeÙej keâer lejn Yeeie KeÌ[s ngS~’ henÛeeefveS~
24. meenmeer ceveg<Ùe keäÙee GOeej veneR ueslee? (a) ›eâceJeeÛekeâ (b) mecegoeÙeJeeÛekeâ
(a) meheves (b) efJeÛeej (c) DeeJe=efòeJeeÛekeâ (d) ieCeveeJeeÛekeâ
(c) yegefæ (d) DeJemej 37. ‘ceeB ves efheleepeer mes meeceeve ceBieJeeÙee’ ÙeneB ef›eâÙee keâe
25. meenmeer ceveg<Ùe efkeâmekesâ meceeve nw? keâewve-mee ™he nw~
(a) YeQme (b) YesÌ[ (a) Dekeâce&keâ ef›eâÙee (b) Dee%eeLe&keâ ef›eâÙee
(c) efmebn (d) peeveJej (c) efÉkeâce&keâ ef›eâÙee (d) ØesjCeeLe&keâ
26. ogefveÙee keâer hejJeen efkeâS efyevee peerves Jeeues JÙeefòeâ mes 38. ‘nce oesveeW MeeefvlehetJe&keâ heÌ{les jnles nQ~’ Fme JeekeäÙe ceW
efkeâmekeâes ØekeâeMe efceuelee nw? ‘hetJe&keâ’ Meyo keâewve-mee mebyebOeyeesOekeâ nw?
(a) ogefveÙee keâes (b) meceepe keâes (a) meefJeYeefòeâkeâ (b) efveefJe&Yeefòeâkeâ
(c) ceveg<Ùelee keâes (d) Deece Deeoceer keâes (c) ceewefuekeâ (d) Ùeewefiekeâ
27. uesKekeâ ves kewâmes peerJeve keâes ceneve yeleeÙee nw? 39. Ùen leeues keâer Ûeeyeer nw~ jsKeebefkeâle ceW keâewve-mee keâejkeâ nw?
(a) efJeJeskeâMeerue peerJeve keâes (b) keâcepeesjer keâer (a) mecØeoeve keâejkeâ (b) Deheeove keâejkeâ
(c) mJeeJeuebyevehetCe& (d) efnccele keâer (c) keâjCe keâejkeâ (d) keâòee& keâejkeâ

186 YCT
40. Kesle keâe mener lelmece Meyo ÛegefveS – 49. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the
(a) Keefueneve (b) #es$e blank.
He had hardly gone a few kilometers ______
(c) Ús$e (d) FveceW mes keâesF& veneR
his car broke down.
Test of Language : English (a) when (b) where
(c) that (d) than
41. Select the most appropriate synonym of the 50. In the sentence identify the segment which
given word. contains the grammatical error.
Despicable Supriya asked Kiran that where had her
(a) Commendable (b) Laudable mother gone when the results of the contest
(c) Contemptible (d) Desirable were being declared.
42. Select the most appropriate antonym of the (a) that where had her mother gone
given word. (b) when the results of the contest
DEVIOUS (c) Supriya asked Kiran
(a) Deceitful (b) shrewd (d) were being declared
(c) straight (d) calculating 51. Select the most appropriate option to substitute
43. Select the option that can be used as a one- the underlined segment in the given sentence. If
word substitute for the given group of words. there is no need to substitute it, select 'No
To throw an event into confusion or disorder substitution'.
(a) Detonate (b) Disrupt Had you not interfering in my affairs, I would
(c) Explode (d) Erupt have been in the US now.
44. Select the most appropriate meaning of the (a) No substitution
given idiom.
(b) Had you not interfered
To drag one's feet
(c) Was you not interfere
(a) to walk unsteadily
(d) Have you not been interfering
(b) To walk with a limp
52. Select the alternative that will improve the
(c) To delay taking a decision
underlined part of the sentence. In case there is
(d) to pull someone's legs
no improvement select "No improvement".
45. The following sentence has been divided into
All students has a dream to study in a good
parts. One of them contains an error. Select the
part that contains the error from the given university.
options. (a) have dream (b) No improvement
Several prominent film stars/have appeared on (c) has dream (d) have a dream
television/on behalf of awareness/about hand 53. Select the most appropriate option to substitute
hygiene. the underlined segment in the given sentnce.
(a) on behalf of awareness If no substitution is required, select No
(b) about hand hygiene improvement.
(c) Several prominent film stars Scarcely had he gone out than a client came to
(d) have appeared on television meet him.
46. Identify the segment in the sentence which (a) he had gone out than
contains a grammatical error. (b) No improvement
You must be careful about what you say as you (c) he had go out when
meet her. (d) had he gone out when
(a) meet her 54. Select the alternative that will improve the
(b) as you underlined part of the sentence. In case there is
(c) about what you say no improvement select "No improvement".
(d) You must be careful "Let's go for a movie this weekend, shall we?"
47. Select the most appropriate word to fill in the (a) can't we? (b) No improvement
blank. (c) shan't we? (d) would we?
______ there were no buses, we had to take a 55. Select the most appropriate option to
taxi. substitution the underlined segment in the
(a) Even if (b) Hence given sentence. If no substitution is required,
(c) Since (d) Although select No improvement.
48. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the The big farmers with deepest tubewells still
blank. have water, but many others face a water crisis.
This is the reason _______ I don't attend (a) No improvement
parties. (b) in deep tubewells
(a) because (b) since (c) through deepest tubewells
(c) so (d) why (d) with deeper tubewells
187 YCT
Comprehension: 56. Which of these statements about Santiniketan
Read the given passage and answer the is NOT true?
questions that follow. (a) Santiniketan is located in the western most
Santiniketan embodies Rabindranath Tagore’s part of Bengal
vision of a place of learning that is unfettered by (b) Santiniketan grew into Visva Bharati
religious and regional barriers. Established in university
1863 with the aim of helping education go beyond (c) At Santiniketan, classes were held in the open
the confines of the classroom, Santiniketan grew air
(d) Santiniketan was set up by Rabindranath
into the Visva Bharati University in1921,
Tagore
attracting some of the most creative minds in the
57. What did Santiniketan initially serve as?
country.
(a) A spiritual centre (b) A summer house
He developed a curriculum that was a unique (c) A holiday resort (d) A classroom
blend of art, human values and cultural 58. What does the name Santiniketan mean?
interchange. Even today, in every step, in every (a) Abode of culture (b) Abode of learning
brick and in every tree at Santiniketan, one can (c) Abode of peace (d) Abode of love
still feel his presence, his passion, his dedication 59. The curriculum designed for Santiniketan was
and his pride in the institution. a blend of :
In 1862, Maharishi Debendranath Tagore, father (a) science and religion
of Rabindranath, was taking a boat ridethrough (b) human values art and culture
Birbhum, the westernmost corner of Bengal, when (c) westerm education and village practices
he came across a landscape that struck him as the (d) spiritual and religious exchange
perfect place for meditation. He bought the large 60. The work 'unfettered' in the text suggest :
tract of land and built a small house and planted (a) restricted by regional differences
some saplings around it. Debendranath Tagore (b) bound by religious beliefs
decided to call the place Santiniketan, or the (c) free from barriers
‘abode of peace’, because of the serenity it (d) outside the classroom
brought to his soul. In1863, he turned it into a
spiritual centre where people from all religions, Arithmetical and Numerical ability
castes and creeds came and participated in 61. 5% population of a town died because of
meditation. epidemic, and 8% of the remaining population
In the years that followed, Debendranath’s son panicked and left the town. If the present
Rabindranath went on to become one of the most population of the town is 88274, then find the
formidable literary forces India has ever produced. total population of the town at the beginning.
He wrote in all literary genres but he was first and (a) 1,21,600 (b) 1,01,000
foremost a poet. As one of the earliest educators (c) 99,800 (d) 84,500
to think in terms of the global village, he 62. If 35% of x = 40% of y, then x : y is _____ .
envisioned an education that was deeply rooted in (a) 8 : 9 (b) 7 : 8
one’s immediate surroundings but connected to (c) 9 : 8 (d) 8 : 7
the cultures of the wider world. 63. In a solution the quantity of common salt in
Located in the heart of nature, the school aimed to 320 gm water is 45 gm. Calculate the
combine education with a sense of obligation concentration % of the solution in context of
mass by mass percentage.
towards the larger civic community. Blending the
(a) 12.33% (b) 12.36%
best of western and traditional eastern systems of
(c) 10.36% (d) 12.43%
education, the curriculum revolved organically
64. Two numbers are in the ratio 3 : 2. If 8 and 6
around nature with classes being held in the open are subtracted from the first and the second
air. Tagore wanted his students to feel free despite number respectively, the ratio becomes 8 : 5.
being in the formal learning environment of a The numbers are :
school, because he himself had dropped out of (a) 32, 24 (b) 24, 16
school when he found himself unable to think and (c) 40, 30 (d) 3, 2
felt claustrophobic within the four walls of a 65. If the ratio of three positive number is 3:7:8
classroom. and the sum of their squares is 7808, Then find
Nature walks and excursions were a part of the the smallest number among them.
curriculum, special attention was paid to natural (a) 24 (b) 27
phenomena and students were encouraged to (c) 30 (d) 36
follow the life cycles of insects, birds and plants. 66. A single discount equivalent to successive
The rural paradise of Santiniketan, Tagore’s discounts of 10%, 15% and 20% is :
erstwhile home, has become a thriving centre of (a) 45% (b) 36.6%
art, education and internationalism over the years. (c) 40% (d) 38.8%
188 YCT
67. A shopkeeper allows a discount of 20% to his (a) 30 (b) 28
customers and still gains 25%. Find the (c) 20 (d) 24
marked price of an article whose cost price 76. According to the given table, what is the ratio
`600 for the shopkeeper? of total students who passed to total students
(a) `937.50 (b) `937 who failed considering all the three classes i.e.
(c) `930 (d) `1,000 10th, 11th and 12th and all the five given
68. What will be the amount of simple interest on subjects?
5 Class Subjects Pass % of No. of Failed
`75,000 at the rate of 2 % per annum for a
3 Students Students
period of 5 years? 10th Maths 65 105
(a) `13005 (b) `13000 10 th
Hindi 80 120
(c) `13750 (d) `13050 11th English 40 360
69. An investment of `16000 at 8% simple interest 12th Psychology 75 100
for 1 year and another investment at 18%
12th Biology 50 110
simple interest for the same period, together
fetch a return profit of 10% on the total (a) 265 : 159 (b) 275 : 139
investment. Find the total amount invested. (c) 173 : 138 (d) 369 : 141
(a) `22000 (b) `20000 77. The average of the marks of three students in
(c) `20500 (d) `18000 an examination to total 45 marks is 38. New
70. Manish deposited a certain sum of money at two students appeared in the examination.
5% rate of interest per annum, compounded What is the lowest marks that can be obtained
annually. At the end of 3 years, Manish by the new student who has scored less than the
received a total amount of `92,610. What was second new student, so that the total average of
the sum of money deposited by Manish? the marks of five students becomes 40?
(a) 41 (b) 42
(c) 40 (d) 43
(a) `82,610 (b) `80,000
78. After 12 innings, the average score per innings
(c) `80,530 (d) `79,460
of a batsman was 55. After 14 innings his
71. What is the compound interest on a sum of ` average score increased to 60. If the batsman
2 had scored 20 runs more in the 14th innings
19,500 invested for 1 years at 10% p.a.
5 than the previous innings, then how many runs
interest compounded annually? did he score in the 13th innings?
(a) ` 2,808 (b) ` 2,608 (a) 90 (b) 85
(c) ` 2,880 (d) ` 2,480 (c) 80 (d) 75
72. An amount at a fixed rate of simple interest 79. Select the option that gives the fractions
increases by 100% in 8 years What will be the 2 1 3 1 7 5
compound interest for 2 years on `8000 at the , , , , , in ascending order :
5 3 5 4 10 8
same rate of interest?
(a) `2050 (b) `2075 1 1 2 3 5 7 7 5 3 2 1 1
(a) , , , , , (b) , , , , ,
(c) `2125 (d) `2025 4 3 5 5 8 10 10 8 5 5 3 4
73. A loan of ` 305 was taken at a certain rate per 1 1 3 2 5 7 1 1 2 3 5 7
(c) , , , , , (d) , , , , ,
annum of compound interest, for 3 years After 4 3 5 5 8 10 3 4 5 5 8 10
three years the amount was ` 670, calculate the 25
rate of compound interest. 80. The sum of A fraction and its inverse is 2 .
(a) 30% (b) 35% 66
(c) 33% (d) 25% Find the greater number of the two:
74. Arjun alone can do a work in 12 days and 15 5
(a) 1 (b) 1
Bheem alone can do the same work in 15 days 22 6
with the help of Chetan, they together complete 20 5
that work in 5 days. How many days will (c) 1 (d) 1
Chetan alone take to do that work ? 33 11
(a) 20 days (b) 24 days General Intelligence & Reasoning Ability
(c) 15 days (d) 16 days
75. Rathin and Bratin together can do a work in 12 81. Select the option that is related to the third
days. They start working together but Rathin term in the same way as the second term is
has to leave the work 5 days before the end of related to the first term.
the work. As a result, it took a total of 15 days Music : Concert :: Acting :
to finish the work. If Bratin works alone, how (a) Song (b) Gymnastics
many days will it take to finish this work? (c) Dance (d) Theater
189 YCT
82. In the given letter-cluster pairs, the first letter- 16, 29, 46, 65, 88, ?
cluster is related to the second letter-cluster (a) 101 (b) 119
following a certain logic. Study the given pairs (c) 117 (d) 123
carefully, and from the given options, select the 89. Which answer figure will replace the question
pair that follows the same logic. mark?
BLG : DHM Question figure:
GMQ : IIW
(a) QDR : TZX (b) ULF : WGL
(c) CNH : EJN (d) YPJ : ATP
83. Select the set in which the numbers are related
in the same way as are the numbers of the
following sets. (NOTE: Operations should be Answer figure:
performed on the whole numbers, without
breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 - Operations on 13 such as
adding/ subtracting multiplying etc. to 13 can
be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations (a) D (b) C
on 1 and 3 is not allowed) (c) B (d) A
(10, 300, 10) 90. Study the given pattern carefully and select the
(11, 165, 5) number that can replace the question mark (?)
(a) (8, 20, 8) (b) (11, 188, 6) in it.
(c) (10, 400, 20) (d) (9, 243, 9) 35 35
84. Select the correct option.
33 42
49 31
? 56
(a) 33 (b) 29
(c) 45 (d) 47
91. Radha told Sita, "My mother's only brother's
son is your brother". How is Radha related to
(a) (b) Sita?
(a) Father's sister's daughter
(b) Sister
(c) Father's sister's
(c) (d) (d) Mother's brother's daughter
85. If AMERICA = 1734651, INDIA = 68961 then 92. O is the mother of A. B is the mother of C and
how is CANADA will be written as? E. C and D are the brothers and sons of A. G is
(a) 719181 (b) 518191 the daughter of E and cousin of F, F is the son
(c) 519581 (d) 715148 of D. How is B related to F?
86. Four words are given, out of which three are (a) Mother's Mother (b) Mother
related in same way and one is odd. Select the (c) Son's Son (d) Father's Mother
odd one. 93. If P means '×', A means '+', W means '÷ ÷' and
(a) Sadness (b) Angry Y means '–' then the value of
(c) Thought (d) Fear 13P3A11Y26P6W13A19 ?
87. (a) 50 (b) 38
(c) 57 (d) 43
94. What will come in the place of '?' in the
following equation, if '+' and '–' are
interchanged and also '×' and '÷ ÷' are
Identify that figure which is not related to this interchanged?
group. 17 – 3 ÷ 2 + 12 ×4 = ?
(a) A (b) B (a) 22 (b) 21
(c) C (d) D (c) 24 (d) 20
88. Select the number from among the given 95. Select the Venn diagram that best depicts the
options that can replace the question mark (?) relationship between the given classes.
in the following series. Parasites, Lice, Deer
190 YCT
 99. Select the option that depicts the following
transparent sheet (Problem Figure) when
folded at the dotted line shown.
Question Figure :

Answer Figure :

(a) B (b) C
(c) D (d) A
100. The given Problem Figure is embedded in one
96. Read the given statements and conclusions of the given Answer Figures. Which is that
carefully. Assuming that the information given Answer Figure?
in the statements is true, even if it appears to be Problem figure:
at variance with commonly known facts, decide
which of the given conclusions logically
follow(s) from the statements.
Statements: Answer figures:
1. All poems are stories.
2. All articles are poems.
Conclusions:
1. All articles are stories.
2. No story is an article. (a) A (b) B
(a) Both conclusions 1 and 2 follow (c) D (d) C
(b) Neither conclusion 1 nor 2 follows
(c) Only conclusion 1 follows SECTION-B
(d) Only conclusion 2 follows
97. Read the given statements and conclusions Post Specific Subject- Related Questions
carefully. Assuming that the information given
in the statements is true, even if it appears to be 101. The chronic inflammation of a delayed
at variance with commonly known facts, decide hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by:
which of the given conclusions logically (a) Glucagon (b) Bradykinin
follow(s) from the statements. (c) Lymphokines (d) Histamine
Statements : 102. In the presence of inflammation, ________ is/
(i) All beds are cots. are raised.
(ii) All sofas are beds (a) Fibrinogen (b) Platelets
Conclusions : (c) Ceruloplasmin (d) Ferritin
(i) All sofas are cots
103. Light rays entering the eye is controlled by
(ii) Some beds are sofas
(a) Pupil (b) Iris
(a) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
(b) Only conclusion I follows (c) Cornea (d) Lens
(c) Only conclusion II follows 104. Indicate muscles, which are more resistant to
(d) Both conclusions I and II follow block recover more rapidly
98. Statement: (a) Hand (b) Leg
The tourism spots should be given additional (c) Neck (d) Diaphragm
security 105. Function of Golgi apparatus is
Conclusions: (a) Synthesis of ribosomes
I. Terrorists always choose the place to (b) Synthesis of proteins
destruct the larger scale.
(c) Breakdown of toxic substance
II. Terrorist act cannot be stopped.
(a) Neither I nor II follows (d) Transport of proteins
(b) Both I and II follow 106. Lymphocytes accounts for what percent of
(c) Only conclusion II follows leucocytes in normal adults?
(d) Only conclusion I follows (a) 15 (b) 30 (c) 60 (d) 90

191 YCT
107. A transparent or translucent semisolid 119. Blooming a tablet coating defect characterized
preparation for external use is by:
(a) Paste (b) Cream (a) Coating becomes dull
(c) Lotion (d) Jellies (b) Detachment of the coating from the surface of
108. Fluid preparation applied to skin without a tablet
friction are (c) Pits occur on the surface of tablet
(a) Liniment (b) Lotion (d) Volcanic like craters appear exposing the
(c) Jellies (d) Creams tablet surface
109. IP 2014 incorporates 120. The role of talc used in tablet is
(a) 1550 monographs (b) 2050 monographs (a) Lubricant
(c) 2550 monographs (d) 3050 monographs (b) Disintegrant
110. The Drug Price Control Order is issued by the (c) Glidant
Central Government by deriving power form (d) Both lubricant and glidant
which rule 121. Which of the following has good polishing
(a) The Drug and Cosmetics Act, 1940 effect on teeth?
(b) The Drug and Cosmetics Rule, 1945 (a) Magnesium Chloride (b) Strontium Chloride
(c) Essential Commodities Act, 1955 (c) Stannous Fluoride (d) Zinc Chloride
(d) Narcotic Drug and Psychotropic substance (e) Not attempted
Act, 1985 122. Identify a drug which forms more potent
111. As per the Drugs and Cosmetics rule, schedule glucuronide conjugate metabolite as compared
P deals with to the parent drug.
(a) Pack size of drugs (a) Levodopa (b) Morphine
(b) Life period of drugs in month (c) Aspirin (d) Chloramphenicol
(c) Standards for cosmetics (e) Not attempted
(d) Standards for condoms and other mechanical 123. Which radioisotope is used to diagnore
contraceptives pernicious anemia?
112. The hardness range of tablets is usually (a) Iodine (131I) (b) Carbon (14C)
(a) 1-2 kg (b) 0.5- 1 kg 57
(c) Cobalt ( Co) (d) Gold (198Au)
(c) 3-7 kg (d) None of the above (e) Not attempted
113. Barrier creams are sued to protect the skin
124. The temperature dependence and the theory of
from
viscosity is expressed by the following
(a) Sunlight injury
(a) Stern-Volmer equation
(b) Microorganisms
(b) Arrhenius equation of chemical kinetics
(c) Viral infections
(c) Higuchi equation
(d) Industrial chemicals and UV rays
114. The particles which are deeply bonded, settle (d) Gibb's equation
rapidly, easily redispersible are known as 125. Which of the following agent binds to GABA
(a) Coaules (b) Defloccules receptor chloride channel complex ?
(c) Floccules (d) Sediments (a) Bupropion (b) Trazodone
115. _____ is the process of removing mechanically (c) Buspirone (d) Zolpidem
admixed water from a solid substance. 126. Which of the following is used in pulmonary
(a) Distillation (b) Desiccation function testing ?
(c) Freezing (d) Centrifugation (a) Nitric oxide (b) Helium
116. To destroy Pyrogens, temperature and time (c) Hydrogen Sulphide (d) Oxygen
required is- 127. What is the ideal range of Body Mass Index
(a) 160º C for 4.5 hrs (b) 165º C for 4.0 hrs (BMI) ?
(c) 170º C for 3.5 hrs (d) 175º C for 3 hrs (a) 18.5-25 (b) 20-30
117. Maillard reaction is : (c) 10.5-15.5 (d) 12.5-17.5
(a) Complexation of phenolic group with metal 128. Aluminum hydroxide gel is combined with
(b) Demerization between sulfhydryl group and Magnesium hydroxide gel in antacid
oxygen preparations to
(c) Reaction of amine group with lactose leading (a) ensure synergism
to browning and discoloration (b) counter the constipating effect of magnesium
(d) Interactin between alcohol and oxygen hydroxide
118. All the particles of coarse powder (IP (c) balance the purgative effect of magnesium
specification) must pass through___mesh size hydroxide
sieve. (d) improve the absorption of magnesium
(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 16 (d) 22 hydroxide
192 YCT
129. Salicylates are metabolised through 141. Which one of the followings is a tyrosine kinase
(a) Hydroxylation inhibitor indicated for a variety of
(b) Oxidation malignancies?
(c) Conjugation with glucuronic acid (a) Imatinib (b) Paclitaxel
(d) Reduction (c) Ezetimibe (d) Mitomycin
130. Which of the following drugs does not act by 142. Atypical antipsychotics differ from the typical
regulating gene expression ? antipsychotics in various ways that define them
(a) Fluticasone (b) Pioglitazone as atypical. Which one of the followings is NOT
(c) Tazaroten (d) Oxytocin a defining property of the atypical
antipsychotics?
131. Total dose of levonorgestrel for emergency
(a) Sustained hyperprolactinemia
contraception:
(b) Improved efficacy in treating the negative
(a) 0.75 mg single pill (b) 1.5 mg one pill
symptoms
(c) 1.5 mg two pills (d) 1 mg two pills (c) Lower risk for extrapyramidal side effects
132. Type II type of Amiodarone-Induced (EPSs)
Thyrotoxicosis occurs in patients with (d) Greater serotonin receptor blockade than
(a) Multionodular goitre dopamine blockade
(b) Graves' disease 143. Anticholinergic used as bronchodilator is
(c) Inflammatory thyroiditis (a) Pilocarpine (b) Ipratropium
(d) All of the above (c) Prazosin (d) Salbutamol
133. About Phase 0: microdosing study all are true 144. Mucolytes are
except: (a) Bromohexine (b) Carbocysteine
(a) Extremely low nonpharmacologically active (c) Acetyl cysteine (d) All of the above
doses of a drug are used 145. All except ............ are antibiotics obtained from
(b) Done in healthy volunteers fungi
(c) To obtain early human pharmacokinetics (a) Penicillin (b) Griseofulvin
(d) To determine safety of the drug (c) Cephalosporin (d) Bacitracin
134. N-AcetylCysteine(NAC) reduces the severity of 146. Sometime large dose of a drug is required to
hepatic necrosis in toxicity due to: elicit a response usually obtained by normal
(a) Acetaminophen (b) Isoniazid therapeutic dose. Such a phenomenon is
(c) Halothane (d) Methyldopa termed as
135. Cardiotoxicity is caused by which of the (a) Tachyphylaxis (b) Idiosyncracy
following: (c) Anaphylaxis (d) Tolerance
(a) Rofecoxib (b) Nicorandil 147. Diethyl carbamazine is the drug of choice in
(c) Metoprolol (d) Losartan case of _______.
136. Standards for surgical dressings are given in: (a) Malaria (b) Filaria
(a) Schedule F (II) (b) Schedule F (III) (c) Dengue (d) Leprosy
(c) Schedule H (d) Schedule FF 148. Ketone bodies is the term collectively called for.
137. Which of the following is an anti-thyroid drug? (a) Acetoacetate (b) 3-hydroxy butyrate
(a) Chlorpropamide (b) Levothyroxine (c) Acetone (d) Ketone
(c) Tolazamide (d) Methimazole Answer options:
(a) (a), (b) and (d) only (b) (b), (c) and (d) only
138. Which of the following is a quinolone-
(c) (a), (b) and (c) only (d) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
containing urinary tract anti-infective agent?
149. Which of the following statement/s about
(a) Ciprofloxacin (b) Cinoxacin
Tautomerism is are correct?
(c) Enoxacin (d) Nalidixic acid
(a) Shifting of carbon atom from one hydrogen to
139. Identify the metabolite of prontosil responsible an other to produce enantiomen is called
for its antibacterial activity. tautomerism.
(a) Sulphacetamide (b) Sugar with anomeric carbon undergoes
(b) Sulfanilamide tautomerism in acidic solution.
(c) p-Mmino benzoic acid (c) Sugar with anomeric carbon undergoes
(d) Probenecid tautomerism in alkaline solution
140. The central bicyclic ring in penicillin is named (d) Shifting of 'H' atom from one carbon to
as one of the followings. find the correct name. another to produce enediols is called
(a) 1-Thia-4-azabicyclo[3.2.1]heptane tautomerism.
(b) 4-Thia-1-azabicyclo[3.2.0]heptane Answer option:
(c) 4-Thia-1-azabicyclo[3.2] heptane (a) only (a) (b) only (b) and (d)
(d) 1-Thia-4-azabicyclo[1.2.3] heptanes (c) only (a) and (d) (d) only (c) and (d)
193 YCT
150. Cyclic AMP (CAMP) is an important second (a) Nitrogen (b) Argon
messenger in signal transduction pathway(s) (c) Hydrogen (d) Carbon dioxide
Which enzyme catalyzes the generation/ 161. Following are the carbon sources used in the
accumulation of CAMP after a receptor – fermentative production of L-glutamic acid,
ligand interaction except.
(a) Protein kinase A (a) n-paraffin (b) Acetic acid
(b) CAMP phosphodiesterase (c) Ethanol (d) Propylene glycol
(c) Guanylyl cyclase 162. In mass spectroscopy for chemical ionization
(d) Adenylate cyclase which reactant gas is most widely used?
151. A deficiency in the activity of sphingomyelinase (a) Argon (b) Neon
enzyme leads to: (c) Methane (d) Oxygen
(a) Niemann-Pick disease 163. In HPLC which detector is based upon bulk
(b) Jacob's disease property of elute?
(c) Krabbe's disease (a) Refractive index detectors
(d) Gaucher's disease (b) Diode array detectors
152. Glycolysis results in conversion of glucose to (c) Fluorescence detectors
(a) Fructose (b) Glyceraldehyde (d) PMT
(c) Pyruvate (d) Aceto acetate 164. Absorbent cotton dissolves completely with
153. The positively polarized carbon atom of a uniform swelling in
carbonyl group acts as ................ (a) 60% w/w sulphuric acid
(a) An electrophile and a lewis base (b) 90% formic acid
(b) A nucleophile and a lewis acid (c) Ammoniacal copper oxide
(c) A nucleophile and a lewis base (d) Ferrous ammonium sulphate
(d) An electrophile and a lewis acid 165. The type of tissue culture used for the
154. Which one of the following amino acid residues production of root-associated metabolites is
is specifically recognized by chymotrypsin known as
during peptide bond cleavage (a) Tissue culture
(a) Phe (b) Leu (b) Hairy root culture
(c) Val (d) Asp (c) Two phase system culture
155. Which Vitamin involved in the biosynthesis of (d) All of these
blood clotting factors? 166. The biotransformation reaction involved in
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B12 metabolism of methyl dopa is
(c) Vitamin K (d) Vitamin E (a) Acetylation (b) Sulphation
156. Colour Index indicate (c) N-oxidation (d) S-oxidation
(a) Relative amount of WBC present per cmm of 167. In IR spectrum, the functional group region is
blood. (a) 4000 cm–1 to 900 cm–1
(b) Relative amount of haemoglobin present in (b) 4000 cm–1 to 1400 cm–1
single RBC. (c) 1400 cm–1 to 900 cm–1
(c) Relative amount of haemoglobin present in (d) 4000 cm–1 to 660 cm–1
100 WBC. 168. An excipient Ludipress used for liquid Dosage
(d) Relative amount of RBC present per cmm of form is a coprocessed excipient of.
blood. (a) Lactose monohydrate + Kollideon 30+
157. Fever with body aches and low platelet count is kollidon CL
likely to be (b) Lactose monohydrate + Kollidon 30
(a) Dengue (b) Typhoid
(c) Dextrose monohydrate + Kollidon 30+
(c) TB (d) Pneumonia
Kollidon CL
158. In IR spectra, the absorption at 3300 cm–1 and
(d) Dextrose monohydrate + Kollidon 30
at 1020 cm–1 indicates the presence of
(a) NH group (b) Amide – C = O 169. In capsule making the Bloom strength of
gelatin is proportional to molecular weight of
(c) Aliphatic C – H (d) Hydroxyl group
the gelatin and is a measure of the.
159. In IR spectroscopy which region provides
information for molecular structure (a) Adhesive strength of gelatin with other
elucidation? polymer
(a) Near IR (b) Far IR (b) Adhesive strength of gelatin with dipping
(c) Middle IR (d) Very Near IR pins
160. In electron capture detector, ....... may be used (c) Cohessive strength of the cross-linking that
as a carrier gas for compounds of high electron occurs between gelatin molecules
affinity. (d) Cohesive strength of the solvent molecules

194 YCT
170. The dispersion of course material by shearing 178. Identify which statement among the following
in a narrow gap between a static cone and a is true in case of E2 and SN2:
rapidly rotating cone is caused by. (a) Secondary substitution undergoes slow
(a) Peptisation elimination and fast substitution
(b) Ultrasonic Irradiation (b) Primary substitution undergoes slow
(c) Electrical Dispersion elimination and fast substitution
(d) Colloid Mills (c) Tertiary substitution undergoes slow
171. Drug products that contain the same elimination and fast substitution
therapeutic moiety but as different salts, esters (d) Primary substitution does not undergo
or complexes are called as. elimination and substitution reactions
(a) Therapeutic alternatives 179. The major product formed in the above
(b) Therapeutic equivalents reaction is:
(c) Pharmaceutical alternative
(d) Pharmaceutical equivalents
172. Fraction of administered does (Which may be-
in form of an ester of salt) of active drug is
termed as.
(a) Intrinsic factor (b) Formulation factor
(c) Salt factor (d) Activity factor
173. Method of Study Drug Distribution pattern is.
(a) Nuclear magnetic resonance
(b) UV-visible spectrophotometry
(c) Mass spectrophotometry
(d) Flourimetry
174. When six suppositories containing 20 percent 180. The set of specific reagents used in the
of morphine hydrochloride in Theobroma oil above‐‐mentioned synthesis of m‐‐(n‐‐Butyl)
are to be prepared, which of the following toluene from n‐‐propyl m‐‐tolyl ketone is:
statement is correct?
(Given: Displacement value of morphine
hydrochloride is 1.5, weight 1g)
(a) The displacement value of morphine
hydrochloride is to be considered
(a) Zn(Hg), HCl
(b) The displacement value of morphine
hydrochloride is to be ignored (b) NaBH , CH OH
(c) The displacement value of Theobroma oil is (c) NH NH , NaOH
to be considered (d) SnCl , CH OH
(d) The displacement values of both morphine 181. Which one of the following is NOT a
hydrochloride and Theobroma oil are to be phospholipid?
considered. (a) Sphingomyelin
175. Burow's solution is (b) Lysolecithin
(a) Aluminium acetate solution strong (c) Cardiolipin
(b) Ammonium acetate solution strong (d) Galactosylceramide
(c) Calcium hydroxide solution strong 182. Phenol upon treatment with bromine in the
(d) Calcium phosphate solution strong presence of carbondisulphide at 0 °C yields:
176. The Acidic polymers of Ribitol /Glycerol (a) 4‐Bromophenol
phosphate present in Gram positive
(b) 2‐Bromophenol
microorganism are known as.
(a) Teichoic acids (b) Polysaccharides (c) 2, 4‐Dibromophenol
(c) Lysozymes (d) Peptidoglycans (d) 2, 4, 6‐Triibromophenol
177. Which is NOT the colligative property? 183. Insertion of a oxygen in a carbonyl compound
(A) Depression of freezing point to form an ester is known as:
(B) Elevation of boiling point (a) Baeyer Villiger oxidation
(C) Elevation of vapour pressure (b) Sharpless epoxidation
(D) Osmotic pressure (c) Prevost oxidation
Choose the correct one of the following: (d) Lossen rearrangement
(a) (A), (B) and (D) (b) (A) and (B) 184. The titration of a strong acid with a strong base
(c) (A) and (D) (d) (C) only is represented by plot _____ .
195 YCT
 192. Choose the wrong statement from the following
with regard to Amorphous solids.
(a) They tend to flow when subjected to
sufficient pressure
(b) They do not have definite melting point
(c) Usually they are anisotropic
(d) Considered as super cooled fluids
193. Molar heat capacity of a system is defined as.
(a) The amount of heat required to raise
temperature of one mole of the system by one
Kelvin
185. In the case of halogenation reaction of alkanes, (b) The amount of heat required to decrease
abstract of primary hydrogen yields a primary temperature of one mole of the system by one
radical, and abstract of secondary hydrogen kelvin
yields a secondary radical. (c) The amount of heat required to raise
temperature of one mole of the system by one
The above example is of: Fahrenheit
(a) High reactivity and low selectivity (d) The amount of heat required to decrease
(b) Low reactivity and high selectivity temperature of one mole of the system by one
(c) High reactivity and high selectivity Fahrenheit
(d) Low reactivity and low selectivity 194. In which one of following oxygen is not used?
186. Back-titration method is used for (a) Severe pulmonary damage
(a) Volatile substances (b) Carbon monoxide poisoning
(b) Insoluble substances
(c) In Rocket fuels
(c) Substances for which a quantitative reaction
proceeds rapidly only in the presence of (d) In soft drinks
excess of the reagent 195. Which of the following is the example of
(d) Substances that require heating with a "Invert Sugar"?
volumetric reagent during the determination, (a) Lactose (b) Sucrose
in which decomposition or loss of the (c) Lactulose (d) Sucralose
reactants would occur in the process Choose 196. Give an example of indiffusible solid.
the correct answer from the options given (a) Light Kaolin
below:
(b) Phenolphthalein
(a) A only (b) A and C
(c) Aromatic chalk powder
(c) A, B and D (d) A, B, C and D
187. When alkenes are epoxidised with optically (d) Light magnesium carbonate
active peracids, optically active epoxides are 197. Dofetilide is which class of anti-arrhythmic
formed. Under the same defined conditions, drug:
epoxidation of E-but-2-ene by (a) Class I (b) Class II
peroxycamphoric acid affords unequal yields of (c) Class Ib (d) Class III
enantiomeric epoxides. 198. Aqueous iodine solution is called
However, a similar epoxidation of Z-but-2-ene (a) Lugol's solution (b) Bendits solution
can only afford ________ .
(c) Fischer Solution (d) Marthins solution
(a) Z-epoxide (b) Meso epoxide
(c) E-epoxide (d) None of these 199. Simeco is combination antacid containing
188. Electrolytes concentration are expressed in (a) Co-precipitate of aluminum hydroxide and
(a) mol/L (b) mmol/L magnesium carbonate
(c) mEq/L (d) mg/L% (b) Combination of aluminum hydroxide and
189. Acidic buffer is combination of magnesium carbonate
(a) Strong acid and its salt strong conjugate base (c) Calcium carbonate with aluminium hydroxide
(b) Strong acid and its salt weak conjugate base gel, magnesium hydroxide and dimethicone
(c) Weak acid and its salt strong conjugate base (d) Aluminium hydroxide magnesium carbonate
(d) Weak acid and its salt weak conjugate base co-dried gel, magnesium hydroxide and
190. Antimony potassium tartarate is____ in taste. dimethicone
(a) Sweet (b) Bitter 200. Clomiphene is used to treat infertility because
(c) Acrid (d) Astringent it stimulates
191. Which ions are responsible for release of AcH (a) LH secretion
from neurons? (b) Follicular development
(a) Sodium (b) Calcium (c) Ovulation
(c) Potassium (d) Magnesium (d) Ulterus activity
196 YCT
 SOLUTION : PRACTICE SET- 4
ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 21. (c) 41. (c) 61. (b) 81. (d) 101.(d) 121. (c) 141. (a) 161.(d) 181.(d)
2. (a) 22. (a) 42. (c) 62. (d) 82. (c) 102.(b) 122.(b) 142. (a) 162. (a) 182. (a)
3. (c) 23. (c) 43. (b) 63. (a) 83. (d) 103. (a) 123. (c) 143.(b) 163. (a) 183. (a)
4. (a) 24. (a) 44. (c) 64. (b) 84. (a) 104.(d) 124.(b) 144.(d) 164. (a) 184. (a)
5. (b) 25. (c) 45. (a) 65. (a) 85. (b) 105.(d) 125.(d) 145.(d) 165. (c) 185.(b)
6. (a) 26. (c) 46. (b) 66. (d) 86. (c) 106.(b) 126.(b) 146.(d) 166.(b) 186.(d)
7. (b) 27. (d) 47. (c) 67. (a) 87. (d) 107. (d) 127. (a) 147.(b) 167.(b) 187.(b)
8. (c) 28. (b) 48. (d) 68. (c) 88. (c) 108.(b) 128. (c) 148. (c) 168. (a) 188. (c)
9. (b) 29. (c) 49. (a) 69. (b) 89. (a) 109. (c) 129.(b) 149.(d) 169. (c) 189. (c)
10. (c) 30. (a) 50. (a) 70. (b) 90. (b) 110. (c) 130.(d) 150.(d) 170.(d) 190. (a)
11. (a) 31. (d) 51. (b) 71. (a) 91. (a) 111.(b) 131.(b) 151. (a) 171. (c) 191.(b)
12. (a) 32. (c) 52. (d) 72. (c) 92. (d) 112. (c) 132. (c) 152. (c) 172. (c) 192.(b)
13. (c) 33. (d) 53. (d) 73. (a) 93. (c) 113.(d) 133. d) 153.(d) 173. (c) 193. (a)
14. (d) 34. (a) 54. (b) 74. (a) 94. (d) 114. (c) 134. (a) 154. (a) 174.(b) 194.(d)
15. (b) 35. (c) 55. (d) 75. (a) 95. (c) 115.(b) 135. (a) 155. (c) 175. (a) 195.(b)
16. (a) 36. (d) 56. (d) 76. (a) 96. (c) 116.(d) 136. (a) 156.(b) 176. (a) 196. (c)
17. (c) 37. (d) 57. (a) 77. (a) 97. (d) 117. (c) 137.(d) 157. (a) 177.(d) 197.(d)
18. (d) 38. (c) 58. (c) 78. (c) 98. (d) 118. (a) 138. (a) 158. (c) 178.(b) 198. (a)
19. (b) 39. (a) 59. (b) 79. (a) 99. (d) 119. (a) 139.(b) 159. (c) 179.(b) 199.(d)
20. (a) 40. (b) 60. (c) 80. (b) 100. (a) 120.(d) 140.(b) 160. (a) 180. (c) 200. (c)

SOLUTION
1. (b) power and authority of the East India company with
Khandvi is a dish of Gujarat. It is one of the much-loved respect to its Indian possessions.
Gujarat snack. It is also known as Patuli or Dahivadi 6. (a)
and made with gram flour. Some other traditional According to the Article 154 of the Constitution of
recipes of Gujarat are: Dhokla, Aam Shrikhand, Methi India, the executive power of the State shall be vested in
Ka Thepla, Dal Dhokli, Fafda, Upma, Dabeli, Khaman the Governor and shall be exercised by him either
Dhokla etc. directly or through officers subordinate to him in
2. (a) accordance with the constitution.
Books that contain the records of Christ's life are known 7. (b)
as Gospels. Le Corbusier, a renowned architect designed the Palace
This is the story of the life of lord Jesus Christ the of Assembly, a legislative assembly building in
Messiah, as recorded in the Holy Bible. Chandigarh. It is the part of capital complex.
3. (c) 8. (c)
Capital of Magadh, before Pataliputra was Rajagriha The Indian Constitution includes borrowed features
(Rajgir). from 10 countries. These countries are - Australia,
Ajatashatru's son had moved his capital from Rajgriha Canada, Ireland, Japan, Soviet Union (USSR/Russia),
to Pataliputra and this status was maintained during the UK, United States, Germany, South Africa, France.
reign of the Mauryas and the Guptas. 9. (b)
Ajatashatru was the son of Bimbisara and contemporary As per Article 280, Finance Commission shall consist of
of both Mahavira and Gautama Buddha. a chairman and four other members to be appointed by
4. (a) the President. As per the provisions contained in Article
Muhammad-bin-Tuglaq shifted his capital from Delhi 280 of the constitution, the President of India can
to Devagiri for security reasons. The name of Devagiri constitute the finance commission and give its
was changed to 'Daulatabad.' But after some time he recommendations on the distribution of taxes between the
shifted his capital back to Delhi. state governments and Union government and also
5. (b) amongst the states themselves.
The Regulating Act was passed by the British parliament 10. (c)
in 1773 to regulate the activities the territories of the East RISAT-2B is an indigenously developed Synthetic
India company majorly in Bengal. It was the first Aperture Radar (SAR) imaging satellite operating in X
parliamentary ratification and authorization defining the Band with 3.6 m radial rib antenna. It was launched by
197 YCT
 ISRO through PSLV C46 (Core Alone) on 22 May 20. (a)
2019 from First Launch Pad of SDSC (SHAR). The The blood group of the man is A, which means the
satellite has the capability to operate in different modes possible genotypes are 'IA IA' or 'IA i'. Likewise, the
including Very High Resolution RADAR imaging blood group of the woman is B, which means the
modes of 1m × 0.5m resolution and 0.5m × 0.3m possible genotypes are 'IB IB' or 'IB i'.
resolution. It is a radar imaging satellite, it can image Hence, A man with blood group A, married to a woman
during day / night / all weather conditions. The with blood group B, then the possible blood groups are
Satellite will be utilized for high resolution spot 'A', 'B', 'AB', and 'O' because gene for blood group 'A'
imaging of locations of interest. and gene for blood group B are both dominant.
11. (a) 21. (c)
Sriharikota is a space launched station and an island on ‘ueÌ[kesâ ves ueÌ[kesâ keâes ceeje’ JeekeäÙe ceW SkeâJeÛeve meb%ee keâe ØeÙeesie
the coastline of Andhra Pradesh. It lies in Satish ngDee nw peyeefkeâ DevÙe efJekeâuhe yengJeÛeve ceW nQ~
Dhawan Space Centre. Several Polar and orbital 22.(a)
satellites are launched from this station.
12. (a)
‘efJeveÙe mes Ûeuee veneR peelee’ YeeJe JeeÛÙe keâes oMee&lee nw, peyeefkeâ DevÙe
In our solar system, the planets Venus and Mercury do meYeer efJekeâuhe keâle&= JeeÛÙe kesâ GoenjCe nQ~
not have even one moon, while the rest 6 planets have 23. (c)
moon. At present, the planet Jupiter has the maximum ‘cesjs ueÌ[kesâ ves cesjer Dee%ee keâe heeueve veneR efkeâÙee’ JeekeäÙe ceW ueÌ[kesâ
number of moons followed by Saturn. Meyo keâlee& hegefuuebie SkeâJeÛeve ceW ØeÙegòeâ nw~ Dele: ‘yengJeÛeve’ Fme
13. (c) mecyevOe ceW DeMegæ keâLeve nw~
The Securities and Exchange Board (SEBI) of India 24. (a)
was constituted as a non-statutary body on April 12, efoÙes ieÙes ieÅeKeC[ kesâ Devegmeej meenmeer ceveg<Ùe ‘meheves’ GOeej veneR
1988 through a resolution of the Government of India.
It was established as a statutory body in the year 1992 ueslee nw~
and provisions of the SEBI Act, 1992 came into force 25. (c)
on January 30, 1992. It regulates the Indian capital meenmeer ceveg<Ùe ‘efmebn’ kesâ meceeve nw pees Dekesâuee nesves hej Yeer ceive
market operations. jnlee nw~
14. (d) 26. (c)
Budget surplus is defined as when the revenue ogefveÙee keâer hejJeen efkeâÙes efyevee peerves Jeeues JÙeefòeâ mes ceveg<Ùelee keâes
collected exceeds the required expenditure. On other
hand, Budget Deficit is defined as when expenditures ØekeâeMe efceuelee nw~
are greater than Revenues. 27. (d)
15. (b) uesKekeâ ves efncceleer ceveg<Ùe kesâ peerJeve keâes ceneve yeleeÙee nw~
Wind turbines convert the kinetic energy in the wind 28. (b)
into mechanical power. Wind energy describes the Øemlegle efJekeâuheeW ceW mes JÙeeJeneefjkeâ Meyo kesâ efueS ‘DeeoMe&Jeeoer’
process by which wind is used to generate electricity. In heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer veneR nw~
India 40,034 MW (10.2%) energy produced by wind
29. (c)
turbines.
16.(a) Deke&â kesâ efueS yescesue Meyo ‘Deblej’ nw~ DeHeâJeve, keâeÌ{e, metÙe& ‘Deke&â’
Mass is the amount of matter in the body which does kesâ cesue Meyo nw~
not depend on the value of g. Weight of a body is the 30. (a)
gravitational force on it. Thus, weight is dependent on DeeJejCe Meyo keâe efJeueesce nesiee - DeveeJejCe~ DeeÛejCe keâe DeLe& JÙeJenej
gravitational acceleration (g). mes nw~ megJejCe keâe DeLe& megvoj JeCe& Ùee megvoj ¤he mes nw, peyeefkeâ DeJe%ee
Hence, weight of a body will change from one place to keâe DeLe& nw - Dee%ee ve ceeveves Jeeuee~
another place because the value of g is different in 31. (d)
different places. As mass is independent of g, so it will
not change from place to place. ‘Ss’ mJej keâes mebÙegòeâ mJej ceevee peelee nw~ (mebÙegòeâ mJej ceW S, Ss,
17.(c) Dees Deewj Deew Deeles nw~) Fvekesâ mebÙegòeâ nesves keâe efJeJejCe Fme Øekeâej nw-
Sulphur (S) is the only element, which has the maximum De±F · S, De±S · Ss, De±G · Dees, De±Dees · Deew De, F, G,
number of atoms in its molecular form. Sulphus is found $e+ keâes cetue mJej ceevee peelee nw~
in the molecular form S8 i.e one molecule of sulphur 32. (c)
contains 8 atoms of sulphur
‘Gòej ØeosMe keâer jepeOeeveer yeleeDees JeekeäÙe’ ceW efJejece efÛendve keâe ieuele
18.(d)
ØeÙeesie ngDee nw~ JeekeäÙe Skeâ ØeMveJeeÛekeâ JeekeäÙe nw~ Dele: Megæ JeekeäÙe
The molecular weight of oxygen is 32.
‘Gòej ØeosMe keâer jepeOeeveer yeleeDees?’ nesiee~
But 1 mole of the molecule = 6.02 × 1023
33. (d)
Mass of one molecule of oxygen
efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeeOeej hej `Ghejeskeäle' DeMegæ Jele&veer Jeeuee
32
= = 5.3 × 10−23 gram Meyo nw~ Fmekeâe Megæ Jele&veer ™he `GheÙeg&keäle' nesiee~ Mes<e DevÙe
6.02 × 1023
19.(b)
efJekeâuhe Jele&veer keâer Âef„ mes Megæ nQ~
Proteins make up hormones and enzymes and formation 34. (a)
of any particular kind of protein is controlled by specific ‘meefceefle’ Meyo efnvoer JÙeekeâjCe kesâ Devegmeej ‘meb%ee’ kesâ Yeso keâer
gene, hence options (2) is correct statement. mecetnJeeÛekeâ meb%ee kesâ Devleie&le Deelee nw~ efoÙes ieÙes DevÙe Yeso Demebiele nQ~
198 YCT
35. (c) DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& efYeVe nw~
JeekeäÙe ‘Jen keâue cegPemes efceueves DeeÙesieer~’ ceW jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ‘Jen’ Detonate - efJemHeâesš/oeievee, Explode - efJemHeâesš nesvee, Erupt -
DevÙe heg®<eJeeÛekeâ meJe&veece keâe Åeeslekeâ nw~ ‘heg®<eJeeÛekeâ meJe&veece’ Hetâšvee/ØemHegâefšle nesvee~
heg®<e/Œeer kesâ veece kesâ yeoues Deeles nQ~ Fmekesâ leerve Yeso nQ:- 44. (c)
• Gòece heg®<e - ceQ, nce~ Ghejesòeâ Idiom 'drag one's feet' (efveCe&Ùe ceW osjer keâjvee) kesâ efueS
• ceOÙece heg®<e - let, legce, Deehe~ efJekeâuhe (c) To delay taking a decision GheÙegòeâ JÙeeKÙee keâjlee nw~
45. (a)
• DevÙe heg®<e - Jen, Jes, Ùen, Ùes~ Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe ceW on behalf of (keâer lejHeâ mes) kesâ mLeeve hej for
36. (d) (kesâ efueS) keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ YeeJe kesâ Devegmeej Ùen
‘Skeâ ueÌ[keâe mketâue pee jne nw~’ Fme JeekeäÙe ceW ieCeveeJeeÛekeâ GefÛele DeLe& oslee nw~
efJeMes<eCe ØeÙegòeâ ngDee nw~ ieCeveeJeeÛekeâ efJeMes<eCe mebKÙeelcekeâ Correct Sentence -
efJeMes<eCe keâe Skeâ Øekeâej nw~ Fmekesâ DevÙe GoenjCe – Skeâ, oes, Several prominent film stars have appeared on
leerve, Ûeej, heeBÛe Deeefo nQ~ television for awareness about hand hygiene.
37. (d) 46. (b)
‘ceeB ves efhelee peer mes meeceeve ceBieJeeÙee’ ÙeneB ØesjCeeLe&keâ ef›eâÙee keâe ™he Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ YeeJe kesâ Devegmeej Preposition 'as' kesâ mLeeve
ØeÙegòeâ nw~ peye keâlee& mJeÙeb ef›eâÙee keâe mecheeove ve keâjkesâ efkeâmeer DevÙe hej Adverb 'when' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ Fvekeâe ØeÙeesie
kesâ Éeje Gmes hetCe& keâjelee nw lees Ssmeer ef›eâÙee keâes ØesjCeeLe&keâ ef›eâÙee keânles efvecveefueefKele DeLe& ceW efkeâÙee peelee nw As - pewmee (During the
nQ~ ‘vee’ Je ‘Jeevee’ ØelÙeÙe keâe ØeÙeesie keâjkesâ Fme ef›eâÙee keâe efvecee&Ce time of being , the thing specified)
When – peye (Talking about a particular time or
efkeâÙee peelee nw~ pewmes–nšJeevee, hekeâJeevee, ceBieJeevee, peieevee, megueevee,
situation)
oyeJeevee, efueKeJeevee, heÌ{Jeevee Deeefo~ Correct sentence- You must be careful about what
38. (c) you say when you meet her.
GheÙeg&òeâ JeekeäÙe ceW ‘hetJe&keâ’ Meyo ‘ceewefuekeâ mebyebOeyeesOekeâ DeJÙeÙe’ nw~ 47. (c)
mebyebOeyeesOekeâ DeJÙeÙe Ssmes Meyo nw, pees efkeâmeer meb%ee kesâ yeeo Deekeâj Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ YeeJe kesâ Devegmeej since (Ûetbefkeâ/keäÙeeWefkeâ) keâe ØeÙeesie
Gme meb%ee keâe mebyebOe JeekeäÙe kesâ otmejs Meyo mes Øekeâš keâjles nQ~ JÙeglheefòe GheÙegòeâ nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuhe efYeVe DeLe& osles nQ~ Even if - Yeues ner,
kesâ DeeOeej hej mecyevOeyeesOekeâ kesâ oes Øekeâej nQ- Hence- Dele: Although - ÙeÅeefhe
1. ceewefuekeâ mebyebOeyeesOekeâ DeJÙeÙe – hetJe&keâ, efyevee, heÙe&vle, veeFË Deeefo~ Correct sentence- Since there were no buses, we had to
2. Ùeewefiekeâ mebyebOeyeesOekeâ DeJÙeÙe – Dehes#ee, leguÙe, meceeve, Ûeueles, take a taxi.
efueÙes Deeefo~ 48. (d)
39. (a) Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ efjòeâ mLeeve ceW Conjunction 'why' GheÙegòeâ
efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW kesâ Devegmeej meyemes mener Gòej mecØeoeve keâejkeâ nw~ nesiee~ ÙeneB 'why' Skeâ relative pronoun nw, efpemekeâe ØeÙeesie
Jemlegle: ÙeneB mebyebOe keâejkeâ nw hejvleg efJekeâuhe ve nesves kesâ keâejCe subordinating clause ceW keâejCe yeleeves kesâ efueS neslee nw~
mecØeoeve keâejkeâ ceeve efueÙee peelee nw~ G.Øe. hegefueme Yeleea yees[& Éeje Correct sentence- This is the reason why I don't
attend parties.
Fme ØeMve keâe Gòej mecØeoeve keâejkeâ keâes ceevee ieÙee nw~
49. (a)
40. (b)
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ efjòeâ mLeeve ceW 'when' GefÛele nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ
‘Kesle’ keâe mener lelmece Meyo ‘#es$e’ nw~ ‘lelmece’ (lele ± mece) Meyo
Hardly, scarcely Ùee Barely kesâ meeLe Pair conjunction,
keâe DeLe& nw - Gmekesâ meceeve DeLee&le mebmke=âle kesâ meceeve~ efnvoer ceW
'when' keâe ØeÙeesie neslee nw~ peyeefkeâ 'than' keâe ØeÙeesie No sooner
Deveskeâ Meyo mebmke=âle mes meerOes DeeS nQ Deewj Deepe Yeer Gmeer ™he ceW
kesâ meeLe neslee nw~
ØeÙeesie nes jns nQ~ Dele: mebmke=âle kesâ Ssmes Meyo efpemes nce pÙeeW keâe
Correct sentence- He had hardly gone a few
lÙeeW ØeÙeesie ceW ueeles nQ, lelmece Meyo keânueeles nQ~ pewmes- Deefive,
kilometers when his car broke down.
JeeÙeg, he$e, metÙe& Deeefo~ 50. (a)
41. (c) Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe ceW that where kesâ mLeeve hej where keâe ØeÙeesie
Despicable - (Ie=efCele), Synonym, Contemptible - GheÙegòeâ nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ wh-word kesâ henues efkeâmeer otmejs
(efIeveewvee)~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& - conjunction keâe ØeÙeesie veneR neslee nw~ Indirect speech ceW
Desirable - JeebÚveerÙe/Deekeâ<e&Ce, Commendable - mejenveerÙe, interrogative sentence kesâ "Wh word" keâes as a
Laudable - ØeMebmeveerÙe~ conjunction ØeÙegòeâ keâjles nw~ Dele: 'that' keâe ØeÙeesie
42. (c) superfluous nw~ leLee JeekeäÙe keâes assertive ceW heefjJeefle&le keâjWies~
Devious - (Ûeeueekeâ, kegâefšue), Antonym, Straight - (meerOee)~ Correct sentence :-
DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&- Supriya asked Kiran where her mother had gone when
Deceitful - OeesKesyeepe, Shrewd - Ûeeueekeâ, Calculating - heefjkeâueve~ the results of the contest were being declared.
43. (b) 51. (b)
Ghejesòeâ group of words, to throw an event confusion or Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ jsKeebefkeâle Yeeie Had you not interfering kesâ
disorder kesâ efueS efJekeâuhe Disrupt (ieÌ[yeÌ[ keâjvee/eflelej-efyelej mLeeve hej Had you not interfered GheÙegòeâ nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ Had
keâjvee) GheÙegòeâ Meyo nw~ kesâ yeeo VerbIII form ØeÙegòeâ nesleer nw~
199 YCT
Correct Sentence - 62. (d)
Had you not interfered in my affairs, I would have been Given:–
in the US now. 35% of x = 40% of y
52. (d) 35 40
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ jsKeebefkeâle Yeeie has a dream kesâ mLeeve hej ×x = ×y
100 100
have a dream ØeÙegòeâ nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ all students plural x 40
subject nw Fmekesâ Devegmeej plural verb 'have' ØeÙegòeâ nesiee~ =
y 35
Correct Sentence - All students have a dream to study
in a good university. Hence, x : y = 8 : 7
53. (d) 63. (a)
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ jsKeeefkebâle Yeeie Had he gone out than kesâ mLeeve hej Concentration % of the solution
Had he gone out when keâe ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ =
mass of salt
×100
Scarcely/Hardly kesâ meeLe When keâe ØeÙeesie neslee nw~ mass of solution
Correct Sentence– 45 4500
Scarcely had he gone out when a client came to meet = × 100 =
him. 320 + 45 365
54. (b) = 12.33%
No improvement 64. (b)
Note- Let keâe question tag “shall we” neslee nw~ Let the numbers be 3x and 2x respectively.
55. (d) According to the question-
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ jsKeeefkebâle Yeeie with deepest tubewells kesâ 3x − 8 8
=
mLeeve hej with deeper tubewells keâe ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ nesiee, 2x − 6 5
keäÙeeWefkeâ JeekeäÙe mes mhe° nw efkeâ JeekeäÙe legueveelcekeâ nw FmeefueS ÙeneB 15x–40=16x–48
deeper Tubewells (comparative degree) ner ØeÙegòeâ nesiee~ x=8
Correct Sentence– Hence the first number = 3×8 = 24
The big farmers with deeper tubewells still have water, And second number = 2×8 = 16
but many others face a water crisis. 65. (a)
56. (d) Let the numbers are 3x, 7x and 8x.
According to the passage option (d) "Santiniketan was According to the question,
set up by Rabindranath Tagore" is NOT ture.
( 3x ) + ( 7x ) + (8x ) = 7808
2 2 2
DevÙe efJekeâuhe Passage kesâ Devegmeej melÙe nw Dele: efJekeâuhe (d) ceW
efoÙee ieÙee keâLeve melÙe vener nw~ 9x 2 + 49x 2 + 64x 2 = 7808
57. (a) 122x 2 = 7808
According to the passage Santiniketan intially serve as
"A spiritual centre". Hence option (a) will be correct x 2 = 64
answer. x =8
58. (c)
According to the passage Santiniketan means Abode The smallest number = 3x = 3 × 8 = 24
of peace hence option (c) will be correct. 66. (d)
59. (b) We know that,
According to the passage The curriculum designed for Single equivalent discount of three successive discount
Santiniketan was a blend of "human values art and
of x, y and z = − ( x + y + z ) +
( xy + yz + zx ) − ( xyz )
culture". Hence option (b) will be correct answer. 100 10000
60. (c) Equivalent discount % = –
According to the passage the word "unfettered" in the
text suggest that 'free from barriers.' Hence option (c) − (10 + 15 + 20 ) +
(150 + 300 + 200 ) − (10 ×15 × 20 )
will be correct answer. 100 1000
61. (b) = –45 + 6.5 – 0.3
Let the population of the town is 100%. ⇒ – 38.8% (– sign denotes discount)
Rest population after epidemic = 95% Hence, 38.8% is correct.
Number of panicked people = 8% 67. (a)
95 × 92 Let the Marked price of article = `x
Rest people = = 87.40%
100 According to the question-
Given,
80 125
87.40% = 88274 x× = 600 ×
88274 × 100 100 100
100% = = 1, 01, 000 750 × 10
87.40 x= = 937.50
Hence, the total population in the beginning was 8
1,01,000 Hence, marked price (x) = `937.50
200 YCT
68. (c) 36
Principal amount (P) = ` 75000 = 19500 ×
250
5 11 = `2808
Rate (r) = 2 % = %
3 3 72. (c)
Time (t) = 5 years Let Principal = `P
P×R ×T Amount = `2P
SI =
100 Interest = 2P – P = P
75000 × 11 × 5 P×R ×T
SI = Simple interest =
100 × 3 100
SI = 250 × 55 P × R ×8
SI = ` 13750 P=
100
69. (b) 25
Suppose second investment = ` P R= %
2
From question– From question –
16000 × 8 × 1 P ×18 ×1 (16000 + P )10   Rate Time 
+ =
Compound interest = P   1 + − 1
100 
100 100 100
9P P   
1280 + = 1600 +
50 10 
= 8000  1 +
25 
2
 ( 81 − 64 )
9P P  − 1 = 8000 ×
320 = −  200   64
50 10
17
4P
= 320 = 8000 × = ` 2125
50 64
P = `4000 73.(a)
n
Total investment = 16000+P = 16000 + 4000 = `20000  r 
Amount ( A ) = P  1 + 
70. (b)  100 
Given :– Amount = `92610 Time · 3Years
Rate (r) = 5% Principal (P) = ? 3
Time (t) = 3 year  r 
670 = 305 1 + 
For compound interest,  100 
t
 R  670  r 
3
∵ Amount = P ×  1 +  = 1 +
 100  
305  100 
3
 5   r 
3
92610 = P ×  1 +  2.197 = 1 +
 100  
 100 
3
 21  1+
r
= 1.3
92610 = P ×  
 20  100
92610 × 20 × 20 × 20 r
P= = 0.3
21 × 21 × 21 100
P = ` 80000 r = 30% Annual
Hence, `80000 deposited by Manish. 74. (a)
71. (a) According to the question,
Given, 1
One day work of Arjun ·part
Principal (P) = `19500, 12
Rate (R) = 10%, 1
One day work of Bheem· part
2 15
Time (T) = 1
5 1
Let, one day work of Chetan · part
 x
10 × 2  
1
10  
C.I. = 19500  1 +  1 +  − 1 1 1 1
One day work of all three = + +
 100   100 × 5   12 15 x
 11 26  1 5+ 4 1
= 19500  × − 1 = +
10 25  5 60 x
 286 − 250  1 1 9
= −
= 19500  
 250  x 5 60

201 YCT
 12 − 9 1 79. (a)
= From question
60 x
2 1 3 1
1 3
= =
1 = 0.4 , = 0.33 , = 0.6 , = 0.25 ,
x 60 20 5 3 5 4
x = 20 7 5
= 0.7 , = 0.625
So time taken by Chetan to finish the work alone = 20 days 10 8
75. (a) Hence, ascending order of given fractions
Suppose Rathin finish the work in R days and Bratin in
1 1 2 3 5 7
B days. = , , , , ,
According to the question, 4 3 5 5 8 10
1 1 1 80. (b)
+ = .......(i) 1
R B 12 Let the fraction be x and its inverse be .
And x
10 15 According to the question,
+ = 1 ........(ii) 1 25
R B x + = 2 − − − − − (I)
From equation (i) × 10 – equation (ii) x 66
From option (b),
10 15 10
− = −1 5 11
B B 12 Putting the value x = 1 = in equation ( Ι ) ,
6 6
−5 −2
⇒ = 11 6 25
B 12 + =2
B = 30 days 6 11 66
121 + 36 25
76. (a) ⇒ =2
From given table, 66 66
: 157 25
Pass students Failed students ⇒ =2
66 66
195 105
25 25
480 120 ⇒2 =2
66 66
240 360 5
Hence greatest fraction (x) = 1
300 100 6
110 110 81. (d)
Just as, music is presented in a concert in the same way
1325 : 795 acting is presented in the theater.
Passed students : Failed students = 1325 : 795 = 265 :
159 82.(c)
77. (a) Just as, Similarly,
Sum of marks of all 5 students = 40 × 5 = 200
Sum of marks of first three students = 38 × 3 = 114
Sum of mark of remaining two new students · 200–
114 = 86 and,
Maximum marks in examination · 45
Hence, one of two new students can score a maximum
45 marks.
and second student can get minimum (86 – 45) = 41
marks Hence, option (c) is correct.
78. (c) 83. (d)
Average score of 12 innings · 55 Such as,
(10,300,10) → 10×10×3 = 300
∴ Total score = 55 × 12 = 660
and,
Average score of 14 innings · 60
(11,165,5) → 11×5×3= 165
∴ Total score = 14 × 60 = 840 Similarly, from option (d)-
Total score of 13th and 14th innings · 840 – 660 = 180 (9,243,9) → 9×9×3 =243
Let the score of 13th innings is x then score of 14th Hence, option (d) is correct answer.
inning · x + 20 84. (a)
According to the question- Just as, the mirror image of the first figure is the second
∴ x + 20 + x =180 figure. Same as, the mirror image of the third figure will
2x = 160 ⇒ x = 80 be option figure (a).
202 YCT
85. (b)
Just as,

and

Similarly,
CANADA → 518191
86. (c) Hence, it is clear from the above diagram that B is the
Sadness, Anger and Fear represents emotions whereas Mother of Father of F.
'Thought' is different from the other three. So, option (c) 93. (c)
is odd one. Given,
87. (d) 13 P 3A 11 Y 26 P6 W13A 19
Except figure - D, the remaining figure can be obtained On substituting the symbols,
by rotating clockwise or anti - clockwise. Hence, figure = 13 × 3 + 11 – 26 × 6 ÷ 13 + 19
- D is odd. = 39 + 11 – 12 + 19
88. (c) = 39 – 1 + 19 = 57
The given series is as follows- 94. (d)
Given,
17 – 3 ÷ 2 + 12 ×4
+↔–
Hence, ? = 117 ×↔÷
Note: Starting from 13, each subsequent number is On interchanging the symbols,
obtained by adding consecutive prime numbers. 17 + 3 × 2 − 12 ÷ 4
89. (a) 17 + 6 − 3
The triangle formed in the question picture is rotating = 20
900 clockwise. Hence the answer figure will be figure 95. (c)
D. According to the question the Venn diagram is as
90. (b) follows–
The diagonal relationship between the numbers in the
given pattern is as follows,
Just as, Similarly,

Lice comes under Parasite whereas Deer is a separate

organism. Hence, option (c) will be required answer.
96. (c)
On making Venn diagram,

So, in the place of question mark there will be number

29.
91. (a)
On making blood relation diagram according to the
question– Hence, it is clear from diagram that only conclusion 1
follows.
97. (d)
According to statement Venn diagram is as follow–

It is clear from the above diagram that Radha is the

daughter of Sita's father's sister.
92. (d)
According to the question, Hence, Both conclusions I and II follows.
203 YCT
98. (d) 108. (b)
According to the statement, only conclusion I follows. Lotion is a liquid or a fluid preparation, usually aqueous or
Because terrorists always choose a place to do mass sometimes alcoholic in nature and it has also some in
destruction. So, the places like tourist destinations soluble material in the form of suspension or emulsion. It
should be provided additional security. is intended for application to unbroken skin.
99. (d) 109. (c)
If the question figure is bended on the dotted line then Indian pharmacopoeia-2014 incorporates 2548
answer figure A will be acquired. So, option (d) is monographs of drugs out of which 577 are new
correct. monographs consisting of APTs excipients, dosage
100. (a) forms, antibiotic monographs, insulin products and
The given question picture is embedded in answer herbal products etc.
figure A. 110. (c)
The drug price control order (DPCO) is an order issued
by the central government of India under Sec. 3 of
essential commodities Act, 1955 to regulate the prices
of drugs and their formulations.
111. (b)
In order, (like- A, B, C, D, E, F, G) is fully embedded. As per the drugs and cosmetics rule, schedule p deals
So, option (a) is correct. with life period of drugs in month between date of
101. (d) manufacture and date of expiry which the labeled
Histamine - a chemical found in some of the body's potency period of the drug shall not exceed under the
cells caused many of the symptoms of allergic such as conditions of storage specified in column no. 4 of
runny nose are sneezing when a person is allergic to a schedule p. Column No. 1 defines the serial number of
particular substance such as a food or dust, the Immune dug listed, 2 the name of drug listed, 3 the period in
system mistakenly believes that usually harmless month expiry date of drug and 4 the conditions for
substance is act orally harmful to the body storage of drug listed.
Schedule includes antibiotics, vitamins, insulin
102. (b)
preparation, normal human plasma, sera toxins, other
Platelets are produce by very large cells in the bone toxins, anti-toxins, miscellaneous drugs.
marrow called megakaryocytes. They help form blood 112. (c)
clots to slow or stop bleeding and to help wounds heal Tablets may be characterized or described by number of
or having platelets that don't work as they should can specification. These include: shape, thickness, diameter,
cause problems. weight variation, hardness, friability and disintegration
103. (a) time and dissolution characteristics. Tablet hardness can
Light rays entering the eye is controlled by pupil, lets be defined as the force required to break a tablet in a
into our eyes as the muscles of our iris change its shape. diametric compression test.
The lens in our eye focuses light then goes to the back Normal tablet hardness ranges from 4-8 kg (1 kg = 10
of our eye and hits our retina. Newton).
104. (d) 113. (d)
The diaphragm is the most highly resistant muscle to Barrier creams are used to protect the skin from
NMBAs as well as the first to recover but the Industrial chemicals and UV rays.
occurrence of its dysfunction has been implicated in Barrier cream (BCs) represent devices aiming to
postoperative respiratory failure, especially when protect the skin from contact with exogenous hazardous
mechanical ventilation is prolonged. Therefore studying substances especially under working condition. By
diaphragmatic function in a preoperative context is preventing penetration and absorption of contaminants.
extremely important. BCs are designed to reduce the risk of developing both
105. (d) irritant and allergic contact dermatitis.
The cell organelle , which is known as golgi body or 114. (c)
golgi- apparatus, helps in transporting, modifying and The particles are deeply bonded, settle rapidly easily
packaging proteins and lipids into vesicles for delivery redispersible are known as floccules.
to the targeted destinations Golgi -body is membrane floccules and coagulation treatment chemicals are used
bound organelle of eukaryotic cell, in effluent wastewater water treatment processes for
106. (b) solids removal, water clarification lime softening
Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that develop sludge, thickening and solids dewatering.
in the bone marrow. A normal range of lymphocytes 115. (b)
percentage is 18-45% of total leucocytes in normal Desiccation is the process of removing mechanically
adults. admixed water from a solid substance.
107. (d) Desiccation is the state of extreme dryness or the
A transparent or translucent semisolid preparation used to process of extreme drying. A desiccant is a hygroscopic
treat skin is a jelly. Jellies are chiefly used on mucous (attracts and holds water) substance that induces or
membrane and skin for their antiseptic properties. These sustains such a state in its local vicinity in a moderately
jellies contain sufficient water. sealed container.

204 YCT
116. (d) helium dilution are widely used in pulmonary function
To destroy pyrogens, temperature and time required is test for the measurement of static long volumes
175ºC for 3 hours. 127. (a)
Pyrogens are substance that can produce a fever. The 18.5 to 25 is the ideal range of Body Mass Index (BMI)
most common pyrogens are endotoxins, which are Body Mass index is a measure of body fat based on
lipopolysaccharides produced by gram-negative bacteria height and weight that applies to adult men and women.
such as E. coli. The limulus amoebocyte lystae test is 128. (c)
used to detect endotoxins. Aluminum Hydroxide, magnesium hydroxide are
117. (c) antacids used together to relieve heartburn, acid
Maillard reaction is Reaction of amine group with indigestion, and upset stomach. Thus aluminum get in
lactose leading to browning and discoloration. The attached preparations to balance the purgative effect of
Miallard reaction, named after L.C. Maillard is also magnesium hydroxide.
known as a non-enzymatic browning. It is an extremely 129. (b)
complex Process and is the reaction between reducing Salicylates are a group of chemical derived from
sugars and proteins by the impact of heat. salicylic acid. Salicylates mediates the oxidative burst
118. (a) that leads to cell death in the hypersensitive response,
All the Particles of coarse powder (IP specification) and acts as a signal for the development of the systemic
must pass through 10 mesh size sieve. Mesh is the acquired resistance.
number of openings in one linear inch of any sieve or 130. (d)
screen. A 10 mesh sieve will have 10 openings & 400 Growth hormones can make changes or regulate gene
meshes she will have 400 openings in one linear inch. expression. Oxytocin is not a growth hormone, it is just
119. (a) a chemical messenger and acts on organs in the body
Blooming is defect where coating becomes dull (including the breast an uterus). Oxytocin assist in
immediately or after Prolonged storage at high controlling key aspects of the reproductive system,
temperatures. It is due to collecting on the surface of including childbirth and lactation and aspects of human
low molecular weight ingredients included in the behavior.
coating formulation. 131. (b)
120. (d) Levonorgestrel, is a first - line oral emergency
Magnesium silicate (MgSiO3) when hydrated is most contraceptive pill with approval - from world Health
commonly known as 'talc' organization (WHO) to pregnancy. It has to be used
within 72 hours after unprotected sexual intercourse.
Talc is commonly used in tablet formulations as a
132. (c)
lubricant and diluent, which helps to improve the flow
Type-II, type of Amiodarone - Induced Thyrotoxicosis
properties of the powder mixture and ensure that the occurs in patients with inflammatory thyroiditis.
tablets are easily swallowed.
133. (d)
Talc is also used as a glidant in capsule formulations to Phase 0 studies use only few small doses of a new drug
improve the flow of the powder in to the capsule. in few healthy people. It might test how the drug acts in
121. (c) the human body. This study also checks, whether the
Stannous Fluoride & advantage is its antimicrobial drug reaches the tumor, and how cancer cells in the
effect versus the bacteria which cause gum disease but human body respond to the drug and therefore it try to
note that any toothpaste will remove gum disease obtain early human pharmacokinetics.
bacteria mechanically through good brushing and 134. (a)
flossing. N-Acetylcysteine is the drug of choice of the treatment
122. (b) of an acetaminophen overdose. It is thought to provide
M6G is the most potent morphine metabolite and its cysteine for glutathione synthesis and possibly to form
analgesic activity is achieved through direct interaction an adduct directly with the toxic metabolic of
with opioid receptors. acetaminophen, N-acetyl-p benzoquinoneimine.
123. (c) 135. (a)
Tests for B - 12 deficiency in pernicious anemia or Cardiotoxicity is a term of any heart damage arising
malabsorption with radioisotopes of Cobalt (CO - 57, from cancer treatments. It is common in people who
CO - 58) have been upgraded in sensitivity and scope. have used specific chemotherapy or targeted therapy
124. (b) drugs. It may also develop in people who have had
The temperature dependence & the theory of viscosity radiation therapy to the chest.
is expressed by the Arrhenius equation of chemical Rofecoxib is a cox-2 selective non steroidal anti-
inflammatory drug. It was marketed by Merck Co to
kinetics. The equation that represents the variation of treat osteoarthritis rheumatoid arthritis, juvenile acute
viscosity coefficient (n) with temperature is as follows : pain conditions migraine and dysmenorrhea.
n = AeE/RT 136. (a)
125. (d) The drugs and cosmetics rule 1940 are the rules which
Zolpidem is a medication used to treat insomnia. It is a the government of India established through the drug
widely used hypnotic agent acting at the GABAA and cosmetics act 1940 there rules classify drugs under
receptor benzodiazepine site given schedule and present guidelines for the storage,
126. (b) sale, display and prescription of each schedule.
Helium gas is used in pulmonary function testing. ⇒ Schedule F (II) → This contains regulations and
Multiple breath helium dilution and single breath standards for surgical dressing.
205 YCT
137. (d) 147. (b)
Methimazole is an anti-thyroid drug. methimazole that Diethylcarbamazine citrate (DEC), which is both
occurs when the thyroid gland produces too much microfilaricidal and active against the adult worm, is the
thyroid hormone. It is also taken before thyroid surgery drug of choice for lymphatic filariasis. The late phase of
or radioactive iodine therapy. chronic disease is not affected by chemotherapy. The
138. (a) other name of diethyl carbamazine citrate is Hetrazan.
Ciprofloxacin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic which Filariasis is a infectious tropical disease caused by any
means that it's used to treat a number of bacterial one of several thread like parasitic round worms. The
infections such as uncomplicated urinary tract infection two species of worms most often associated with these
where other antibiotics are not suitable and complicated diseases are Wuchereria bancrofti and Brugia malayi.
UIIs, chest infections, skin and bone infections. 148. (c)
139. (b) Ketone bodies are formed as a result of the breakdown
Sulfanilamide is the metabolite of prontosil . Prontosil of fatty acids and certain ketogenic amino acids. The
was introduced in 1935 and it was the first of the formation of ketone bodies is called 3-beta-
sulfonamide antibiotics. It has a role as an antimicrobial hydroxybutyrate and acetone. At the time of starvation,
agent and an antibacterial drug. more ketone bodies are produced. The accumulation of
140. (b) ketone bodies may lead to ketoacidosis.
The basic structures of penicillin is a nucleus consisting Hence, option (a), (b), and (c) are correcrt.
of a thiazolidine this central ring or the nucleus in 149. (d)
penicillin is named as Tautomerism is the existence of two or more chemical
4-Thia-1- azabicyclo [3,2,0] heptanes compounds that are capable of facile interconversion, in
many cases merely exchanging a hydrogen atom
The corering structures, in penicillin particularly the β -
between to other atoms, to either of which if forms a
lactam ring are essential for antibacterial activity covalent bond. It is also known as desmotropism.
essential for antibacterial activity. • It is a two step process is an equeous solution of acid.
141. (a) •The keto - enol form is an example of tautomerism.
Imatinib is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor used to treat • The electron density from the alpha hydrogen and α-
certain types of leukemia and other cancers and disorder
carbon is donated to nearby C-C forming C=C as the
of the blood cells. proton is captured by the carbonyl oxygen.
142. (a)
• Shifting of 'H' atom from one carbon to another to
Atypical antipsychotics are the medications used in produce enediols is called tautomerism.
treating symptoms such as delusions hallucinations or
paranoia behavior related to same mental illnesses. • Sugar with anomeric carbon undergoes tautomerism
Sustained hyperprolactinemia is not the defining in alkaline solution.
property of the atypical antipsychotics • Keto - enol from:-
hyperprolactinemia is a condition in which these have
higher- than normal levels of prolactin, a hormone in
blood.
143. (b)
Anticholinergic agent such as ipratropium promide are
sometimes used in the treatment of chronic asthma.
They effect bronchodilation and have also been used in
combination with B2–agonists is the management of 150. (d)
chronic asthma. Cyclic AMP (CAMP) is an important second
144. (d) messenger in signal transduction pathway, adenylate
Mucolytics are drugs belonging to the class of cyclase catalyzes the generation/accumulation of
mucoactive agents. They exert their effect on the mucus CAMP after a receptor-ligand interaction.
layer lining the respiratory tract with the motive of 151. (a)
enhancing its clearance. Mucus is the first line of the Niemann - pick disease is a rare, inherited disease that
defense for the various epithelia inside our body against effects the body's ability to metabolize fat (cholesterol
harmful pathogens. and lipids) with in cells These cells malfunction and over
145. (d) time, die. Niemann - Pick disease can affect the brain,
Bacitracin application on an infection or wound that is nerves, liver, spleen, bone morrow and in severe cases,
caused by a viral or fungal infection may increase the lungs.
risk for the development of drug resistant bacteria. 152. (c)
Topical bacitracin use is recommended only for minor Glycolysis (from glycose, an older term for glucose, lysis
skin injuries and should not be used over larger areas of = degradation) is the metabolic pathway that converts
the body. glucose into pyruvate, and a hydrogen ion,
146. (d) 153. (d)
Sometime large dose of a drug is required to elicit a The positively polarized carbon atom of a carbonyl
response usually obtained by normal therapeutic dose. group acts as an electrophile and a lewis acid. The
Such a phenomenon is termed as tolerance. positively polarized carbon atom of the carbonyl group is
• Tolerance refers to the diminution of a drug's effect electron deficient in nature. Thus, it will react with
with repeated dosing. electron-rich species such as nucleophiles.
206 YCT
154. (a) 162. (a)
Chymotrypsin is a digestive proteolysis enzyme In chemical ionization, the ionization of the analyte is
produced by the pancreas that is used in the small achieved by interaction of it's molecules with ions of a
intestine to help digest proteins. Chymotrypsin cleaves reagent gas in the chamber or source. The chemical
peptide bonds that are on the C-terminal side of an amide
ionization process, is initiated with a reagent gas such as
linkage, which contains an aromatic (Tyr, Phe and Trp)
side chain. Chymotrypsin specifically cleaves peptides at methane, isobutane, or ammonia etc, which is ionized
the carbonyl side with those amino acids containing by electron impact.
phenyl rings (Phe). • Fast atom Bombardment (FAB) and SIMS both of
155. (c) these techniques involve sputtering a sample to generate
Vitamin K is involved in the biosynthesis of blood individualized ions. FAB utilizes a stream of inert gas
clotting factors. Vitamin K helps to make various atoms (argon or xenon) where as SIMS uses ions such
proteins that are needed for blood clotting and building as Cs+
of bones, prothrombin is a vitamin K- dependent protein
163. (a)
directly involved with blood clotting.
156. (b) The refractive index detector is a universal bulk
color Index indicate the relative amount of haemoglobin property, detector and is the original oldest LC detector.
present in single RBC. Average content of hemoglobin in Refractive Index detectors measures the difference in
one erythrocyte (RBC) is called color parameter of optical refractive index between mobile phase and the
blood. sample: no chromophore on the solute molecule is
Haemoglobin conten (g / L) × 3 required.
Colour Index = 164. (a)
First three numerals of RBC count
Absorbent cotton dissolves completely with uniform
157. (a)
The viral infection has dengue- like symptoms such as swelling in 60% w/w sulphuric acid.
high temperature and severe body ache. Absorbent cotton dissolves completely with uniform
■ Fever with thrombocytopenia is term used by swelling, distinction from acetate rayon, jute, wool and
doctors to refer to viral fever with low platelet condition. nylon.
158. (c) 165. (c)
In IR spectra, the absorption at 3300 cm–1 and at 1020 The type of tissue culture used for the production of
cm–1 indicates the presence of aliphatic C–H. Since root- associated metabolites is known as two- phase
most organic compound have C–H bonds, a useful rule system culture.
is that absorption in the 2850 -3000cm–1 is due to SP3
C–H stretching, where as, absorption above 3000 cm–1 • Tissue culture is a technique in which fragments of
is form SP2 C–H stretching or Sp C–H stretching if it plants are cultured and grown in a laboratory.
near 3300 cm–1 • Two-phase culture systems can be broadly
159. (c) categorized as liquid-liquid or liquid-solid.
The IR spectrum consists of near (4000-12800 cm–1), 166. (b)
mid (200-4000cm–1) and far (10-200cm–1) regions. The The biotransformation reaction involved in metabolism
mid-IR region is most commonly used for analysis of methyl dopa is sulphation.
purposes. Biotransformation is a specific term used for chemical
• The IR- region 700-1500 cm–1 is fingerprint region. transformation of xenobiotics in the body/living
• IR spectroscopy measures the vibrations of atoms, and organism.
based on this it is possible to determine the functional
groups. Acetylation– Amine & hydralazine conjugated with help
160. (a) of Acetyle Co-Anzyme. e.g.- Sulfonamide, Isoniazid,
The electron capture detector (ECD) is extremely dapsone, clonazepam.
sensitive for compounds that contain electronegative Sulfate conjugation– Phenolic compound and steroids
atoms and is selective for these. It is similar in design to are sulfated by sulfotranferase.
the β-ray detector, except that nitrogen or methane e.g.- Chloramphenicol, methyl dopa & sex steroids.
doped with argon is used as the carrier gas. These gases 167. (b)
have low excitation energies compared to argon and The functional group region runs from 4000 cm–1 to
only compounds that have high electron affinity are 1450 cm–1. The functional group region contains
ionized, by capturing electrons. relatively few peaks. These are typically associated with
161. (d)
the stretching vibrations of functional groups. The
A novel process for the microbial production of L-
glutamic acid on an industrial scale was successfully stretching vibrations of a functional group vary within a
established by using a glycerol auxotroph. The most narrow range.
suitable carbon source for producing L-glutamic acid 168. (a)
was n-paraffins (C13-C15). Ludipress is multifunction excipient that has been
The carbon sources used in the fermentative production specially developed for diarist compression. It obtained
of L-glutamic acid are n-paraffin, acetic acid, ethanol, by co-processing in combination with 3.5% of Kollidon
methanol, fumaric acid etc. 30 and 3.5% of Kollidon CL.
207 YCT
169. (c) 178. (b)
Bloom or gel strength is a measure of Cohessive strength SN2 reactions are nucleophilic substitution, while E2
of cross linking that occurs between gelatin molecule and reactions are eliminations in organic chemistry, it has
is proportional to the molecular weight of gelatin. been observed that primary substitution undergoes slow
170. (d) elimination and fast substitution.
Colloid mill a machine used in the disintegration of solid 179. (b)
particles or droplet size of a liquid present in suspension The major product formed in the given reaction
or emulsion colloid mill works on the rotor-stator
cycloaddition of benzene and furan is known as
principle. The size reduction is effected due to shearing
when the material is passed between the narrow gap of coumarone or Benzo (b) furan
milling surfaces of rotor and stator.
171. (c)
Drug products that contain the some therapeutic moiety
but as different salts, esters or complexes are called as 180. (c)
pharmaceutical alternative. The set of specific reagents used, are NH NH, NaOH in
pharmaceutical alternatives are drug products that the synthesis of m-(n-Butyl) toluene from n- propyl m-
contain the identical therapeutic moiety in the some toll ketone.
amount or dosage or as the some salt ester.
181. (d)
172. (c)
Fraction of administered does (Which may be in form of Phospholipids are a class of lipids whose molecule has a
ester of salt) of active drug is termed as salt factor. hydrophilic 'head' containing a phosphate group and two
173. (c) hydrophobic tails derived from fatty acids.
Method of study drug distribution pattern is mass Galactosylceramide is not a phospholipids. It is a type
spectrophotometry. position emission tomography (PET) of cerebroside consisting of a ceramide with a
and nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS) are galactose residue at the 1- hydroxyl moiety.
two techniques that allow the noninvasive monitoring of 182. (a)
drug distribution is living systems and dynamic Contrast Phenol [C6 H5 OH] upon treatment with bromine in the
enhanced magnetic resonance imaging provides no presence of corbondisulphide at 0ºC yields 4-
invasive physiological information relevant. Bromophenol.
174. (b)
6 suppositories 20% of morphine HCL. 6 Suppositories
Contain 1.2 gm of Morphine
Statement is correct the displacement value of morphine
hydrochloride is to be ignored.
175. (a)
Burow's solution is aluminium acetate solution strong.
Burow's solution (5% aluminum subacetate) is a liquid 183. (a)
made with water and aluminum acetate. This solution The Baeyer-villager oxidation is a type of reaction in
relieves the itching and stinging of irritated inflamed organic chemistry, that is used to form an ester from a
skin and stinging of irritated inflamed heaps stop the ketone or a lactones. Carbonyl compound
growth of bacteria and fungus. Burow's Solution is from a cyclic ketone using peroxides as the oxidant i.e
available without a prescription in many drug stores and Baeyer- villager reaction is the conversion of a ketone.
supermarkets. to an ester via the insertion of an oxygen atom next to
176. (a) the carbonyl.
Teichoic acid is present in large numbers in the cell wall 184. (a)
of gram-positive bacteria. They play fundamental roles Plot for the representation of titration of strong acid and
in bacterial physiology. strong base begins for acidic state and then turns basic
Regular are bacterial copolymers of glycerol phosphate {as Shown in the plot given in option (a)}, after the
or ribitol phosphate and carbohydrates linked via equivalence point (pH = 7)
phosphodiestar bonds.
177. (d)
Colligative property are those properties of solutions
that depend on the ratio of the no. of solute particles to
the no. of solvent particles in a solution and not on the
nature of the chemical species present.
→ Examples of colligative properties are :-
•Vapour pressure lowering of a solution.
185. (b)
• Bolling Point elevation. Generally high reactivity correlates with low selectivity
• Freezing point depression. and vice-versa, depending on the structure of substrate
• Osmotic pressure. and reaction conditions as in the core of halogenation
208 YCT
reaction of alkenes, abstract of primary hydrogen yields 195. (b)
a primary radical, and abstract of secondary hydrogen Sucrose is called on invert sugar because there is a
yields a secondary radical. change in the sign of rotation from dextro before
186. (d) hydrolysis to leavo after hydrolysis. Sucrose on
Back titration or indirect titration is commonly used hydrolysis gives equimolar mixture of D - (+) glucose
when the reaction is very slow, back titration method is and D - (-) fructose.
helpful for examining volatile analyte (e.g NH3) and for 196. (c)
examining insoluble salt (e.g Li2CO3). It is also used In diffusible solids :- Indiffusible solids are those
when substances for which a quantitative reaction solids which are not soluble in water and do not remain
proceeds rapidly only in the presence of excess of uniformly distributed in the vehicle for sufficiently long
reagent, etc. time. Therefore to suspend the drug, suspending agents
187. (b) are added. Example of indiffusible substances include
Epoxidising alkenes with optically active per acids, give Aspirin, Chalk, Phenobarbitone,
optically active epoxides and under the same defined Succinylsulphathiazole, Sulphadimidine (for oral use),
conditions, epoxidation of E-but-2 ene by and calamine, Zinc oxide, Precipitated sulphur,
peroxycamphoric acid affords unequal yields of Hydrocortisone, Triamcinolone acetonide (for external
enantiomeric epoxides, but in the case of a similar use).
epoxidation of z-but -2 ene the only afforded product is 197. (d)
meso epoxide. Dofetilide is a class III antiarrhythmic agent that blocks
188. (c) the delayed rectifier cardiac potassium channel and
Electrolytes are minerals in our blood and other body prolongs repolazation class III antiarrhythmic drugs act
fluids that carry an electric charge. Electrolyte by blocking repolarsing currents and there by prolong
concentrations are usually expressed in terms of the effective refractory period of the myocardium.
milliequivalents per liter (mEq/L). This is belived to facilitate termination of re-entry
189. (c) tachyarrhythmias. This class of drugs is developed for
Acidic buffer can be prepared by mixing weak acid and treatment of both supraventricular and ventricular
its salt with strong base. arrhythmias.
i.e. weak acid & salt with strong base (conjugate base) 198. (a)
eg– CH3COOH/CH3COONa Lugols iodine, also known as lugol's solution, first made
H2CO3/NaHCO3 in 1829 is a solution of iodine named after the French
H3PO4/NaH2PO4 physician J.G.A. Lugol. Lugol's iodine solution is often
190. (a) used as an antiseptic and disinfectant, a starch indicator,
Antimony Potassium Tartrate is a white water - soluble to replenish iodine deficiency, to protect the thyroid
,sweet and metalic - tasting for coloring textiles and gland from radioactive materials (e.g. "fallout") and for
leather and in medicine as an expectorant. emergency disinfection of drinking water .
191. (b) • It consists of 5% iodine (I2) and 10% KI in 85%
Ca++ (calcium ion) is responsible for release of distilled water with a total iodine content of 130 mg
neurotransmitters acetylcholine (Ach) from neurons /mL
from it's axon terminals by rupturing synaptical vesicle. • It is obtained from chemists and pharmacists who are
192. (b) licensed to prepare and dispense the solution.
The intermolecular forces in amorphous solids do not • Other names for Lugol's solution are IKI (Iodine
have a regular external structure and they do not have potassium - Iodide); Iodine strong solution (systemic);
sharp melting points. Aqueous Iodine solution BP.
An amorphous solid does not have a sharp melting but • Lugols was often used in the treatment of gout and
example glass on heating first softness and then melts was used as a first line treatment for hypothyroidism in
over temperature changed. adults.
193. (a) 199. (d)
Molar heat capacity of system is defined as the amount Someco is an antacid and antiflatulent drug having
of heat required to raise temperature of one mole of the combination of Aluminium hydroxide magnesium
system by one Kelvin. carbonate co-dried gel with magnesium hydroxide and
194. (d) dimethicone.
Oxygen is not used in soft drinks as it is unable to 200. (c)
readily mix in these types of drinks instead Carbon Clomiphene is used to induce ovulation in women who
dioxide (CO2 ) is used in soft drinks as it easily absorbs do not produce ova (eggs) but wish to become pregnant.
into liquid to form ting bubbles. The CO2 also serves as Clomiphene is in a class of medication called ovulatary
a protective measure that keeps the soft drink fresh and stimulant. It works similarly to develop in the ovaries be
prevents the growth of bacteria in it. released.
209 YCT
 PRACTICE SET - 5
(a) Second Schedule (b) First Schedule
SECTION-A (c) Third Schedule (d) Fourth Schedule
10. Name the first student satellite built by Indian
General Awareness high school student team and launched by
1. What is the name of the second text of NASA
Christianity which consists of two parts: the (a) Anusat (b) SRMsat
Old Testament which is essentially the Hebraw (c) Pratham (d) KalamSat
text of the time of Jesus; And the New 11. Which of the following satellites is India's first
Tastement their includes writings about Jesus dedicated multi-wavelength space observatory?
Christ and the early church? (a) AstroSat (b) IRS
(a) De doctrina Christina (c) JUGNU (d) INSAT
(b) Bible 12. The thick white and yellowish clouds of the
(c) Book of Psalms planet Venus is made up of which of the
(d) Knowing God Jesus following acids?
2. Utkala Dibasa, is celebrated on 1 April in the (a) Sulphuric acid (b) Nitric acid
Indian State of : (c) Hydrochloric acid (d) Acetic acid
(a) Odisha (b) Bihar 13. What is a per unit Tax (or Unit Tax)?
(c) Jharkhand (d) Chhattisgarh (a) A tax that the government imposes per unit
3. Out of the five constraints in life that the Jains sale of output.
need to follow, which of the following means (b) A tax that the factory imposes on total unit
non-acquisition? purchase on imports.
(a) Aparigraha (b) Brahmacharya (c) A tax that the factory imposes per unit sale of
(c) Asteya (d) Ahimsa output
4. ............ was the founder of the Lodi dynasty. (d) A tax that the government imposes per unit
(a) Ibrahim Lodi (b) Alauddin Lodi purchase on imports
(c) Bahlol Lodi (d) Sultan Ibrahim 14. Which of the following states has the highest
5. Annie Besant founded the Central Hindu population density in India as per Census
College at Banaras which she later handed over 2011?
to ––––––––. (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) West Bengal
(a) Madame HP Blavatsky (c) Bihar (d) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Swami Vivekananda 15. The rate of change of momentum of an object is
(c) Madan Mohan Malviya proportional to the applied unbalanced force in the
(d) Col. HS Olcott direction of the force. This rule is known as :
6. Which of the following institutions has the (a) Newton's First Law of Motion
power to issue a writ of 'Habeas Corpus' as per (b) Newton's Fourth Law of Motion
the Constitution of India? (c) Newton's Second Law of Motion
(a) The Supreme Court (d) Newton's Third Law of Motion
(b) The High Court 16. If an object of mass m is raised to height h
(c) The Supreme Court and the High Court from the ground, force is required for this
(d) Lower Courts action. The minimum force required to lift an
7. In India when a president is to be impeached object is the same as –––––––.
for violation of the Constitution, the charge is (a) Distance from the ground
preferred by ………. . (b) Weight of the object
(a) Only Lok Sabha (c) Force applied
(b) Either House of Parliament (d) Height of object
(c) Only Rajya Sabha 17. The symbol for which of the following element
(d) Union Council of Ministers consists of two letters?
8. Which country's constitution has been (a) Carbon (b) Iodine
considered by India for the 'Principles of (c) Iron (d) Fluorine
Liberty, Equality & Fraternity'? 18. Which element is neither metal nor non-metal?
(a) France (b) Ireland (a) Mg (b) P
(c) Britain (d) Australia (c) Al (d) Ge
9. Which of the following schedules of the Indian 19. Who suggested that the origin of life must be
Constitution describes the number of seats from simple inorganic substances?
represented in the Council of States from each (a) Stanley L miller (b) Charles Darwin
state and Union Territory? (c) JBS Haldane (d) Gregor Mendel
210 YCT
20. Who is called the father of taxonomy? 27. JevemheefleÙeeB peye meÌ[ves ueieleer nQ lees JeeleeJejCe keâes
(a) Eichler ................ efceueleer nw-
(b) Engler (a) pewefJekeâ Keeo (b) Dee@keämeerpeve
(c) Carl Linnaeus
(c) veeFš^espeve (d) keâeye&ve [eF&–Dee@keämeeF[
(d) Bentham and Hooker
28. heewOeeW Deewj ØeeefCeÙeeW keâe peerJeve Skeâ–otmejs kesâ DeefmlelJe kesâ
Test of Language : Hindi meceeve Dee peeSiee, peye nJee ceW uecyes meceÙe lekeâ .......
21. efvecveefueefKele ØeMve ceW, Ûeej efJekeâuheeW ceW mes efoS ieS (a) JevemheefleÙeeB keâeye&ve [eF&–Dee@keämeeF[ keâe efJeefveceÙe keâjleer jnW~
JeekeäÙe keâe mener keâeue Jeeuee efJekeâuhe henÛeeefveS~ (b) metÙe& keâe ØekeâeMe efceuelee jns~
Ùeefo ceQ meceÙe hej mšsMeve hengBÛelee lees cesjer ieeÌ[er ve Útšleer~ (c) keâeye&ve [eF&–Dee@keämeeF[ efceuevee yebo nes peeS~
(a) mebefoiOe Yetlekeâeue (b) nslegnslegceod Yetlekeâeue (d) keâeye&ve [eF&–Dee@keämeeF[ Deewj Dee@keämeerpeve keâe Devegheele
(c) meeceevÙe Jele&ceevekeâeue (d) DeemeVe Yetlekeâeue
meceeve jns~
22. efvecveefueefKele ceW mes ‘YeeJeJeeÛÙe’ keâe GoenjCe keâewve-mee nw?
29. efvecveefueefKele ceW mes keâewve mee ‘Glkebâef"le’ keâe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer
veneR nw?
(a) Deye Ûeuees~
(a) FÛÚgkeâ (b) ueeueeefÙele
(b) jefJe Deece Ûetmelee nw~
(c) Glmegkeâ (d) DeefYeuee<ee
(c) ceesefnveer he$e efueKeleer nw~
30. Glkeâ<e& keâe efJeueesce nw–
(d) Meeruee mes KeeÙee veneR peelee~
(a) Dehekeâ<e& (b) efvelkeâ<e&
23. hegeEuueie Meyo keâe ÛeÙeve keâerefpeS~
(c) DeOeeskeâ<e& (d) efve<keâ<e&
(a) cetKee& (b) efJeog<eer
31. efnboer mJejeW keâe JeieeakeâjCe peye peerYe kesâ Yeeie kesâ DeeOeej
(c) keâlee& (d) ÙeeefÛekeâe hej efkeâÙee peelee nw lees efvecveefueefKele ceW mes keâewve mee Yeso
nce MJeeme Éeje Dee@keämeerpeve «enCe keâjles Deewj keâeye&ve [eF&– Fmekesâ Debleie&le veneR DeeSiee?
Dee@keämeeF[ ÚesÌ[les nQ~ Ssmee ner DeefOekeâlej peeveJejeW, efÛeefÌ[ÙeeW, (a) De«e mJej (b) ceOÙe mJej
jWievesJeeues peblegDeeW, keâerÌ[s–cekeâesÌ[eW kesâ Éeje Yeer efkeâÙee peelee nw~ (c) he§e mJej (d) efJeJe=le mJej
otmejer Deesj meYeer Øekeâej keâer JevemheefleÙeeB keâeye&ve [eF&–Dee@keämeeF[ 32. efkeâme JeekeäÙe ceW efJejece efÛendve keâe GefÛele ØeÙeesie veneR nw?
«enCe keâjleer Deewj Dee@keämeerpeve ÚesÌ[leer nQ~ Ùeefo nJee ceW uebyes (a) ceQ ceveg<Ùe ceW ceeveJelee osKevee Ûeenleer ntB~ Gmes osJelee
meceÙe lekeâ Dee@keämeerpeve Deewj keâeye&ve [eF&–Dee@keämeeF[ keâe yeveeves keâer cesjer FÛÚe veneR~
Devegheele Skeâ pewmee jns leye Gmekeâe DeLe& nesiee efkeâ heewOeeW Deewj (b) Jen otj mes, yengle otj mes Dee jne nw~
ØeeefCeÙeeW keâe peerJeve Skeâ otmejs kesâ DeefmlelJe kesâ ceeceues ceW meceeve (c) megvees! megvees! Jen iee jner nw~
mlej hej Dee peeÙesiee~ uesefkeâve Ùeefo nce keâeye&ve [eF&–Dee@keämeeF[ (d) efØeÙe ceneMeÙe, ceQ Deehekeâe DeeYeejer ntB~
keâe Devegheele JeeleeJejCe ceW yeÌ{e oW leye Øeke=âefle kesâ Éeje ueeKeeW 33. efvecve ceW mes GefÛele Meyo keâe ÛeÙeve keâjW~
meeueeW mes yeveekeâj jKee ieÙee meblegueve yeoue peeÙesiee~ (a) GÅeesefiekeâ (b) DeesÅeesefiekeâ
JeeleeJejCe Deewj JevemheefleÙeeB keâeye&ve [eF&–Dee@keämeeF[ keâe (c) DeewÅeesieerkeâ (d) DeewÅeesefiekeâ
ueieeleej efJeefveceÙe keâjleer jnleer nQ~ JeeleeJejCe mes Jen JevemheefleÙeeW ceW 34. efvecveefueefKele ceW mes keâewve mee Meyo õJÙeJeeÛekeâ meb%ee nw?
peeleer nw~ peye JevemheefleÙeeB meÌ[ves ueieleer nQ leye GveceW mes keâeye&ve (a) KešeF& (b) efce"eF&
[eF&–Dee@keämeeF[ efvekeâuekeâj hegve: JeeleeJejCe ceW mecee peeleer nw~ (c) otOe (d) "C[
JevemheefleÙeeB Fme Øekeâej keâeye&ve [eF&–Dee@keämeeF[ yemeble Deewj «eer<ce 35. efvecveefueefKele ceW mes keäÙee Skeâ mecyevOeJeeÛekeâ meJe&veece
$e+leg ceW «enCe keâjleer nQ Deewj peye Jes meefo&ÙeeW ceW ve° nesves ueieleer nQ veneR nw?
leye Gmes ÚesÌ[leer nQ~ Fme Øekeâej JeeleeJejCe ceW ceewpeto keâeye&ve [eF&– (a) JeneB (b) Ùen
Dee@keämeeF[ keâer cee$ee ceW ceewmece oj ceewmece heâke&â neslee nw~ (c) pees (d) mees
24. ‘efJeefveceÙe’ keâe DeLe& nw– 36. efvecveefueefKele ceW mes efkeâme JeekeäÙe ceW heefjceeCeJeeÛekeâ
(a) Deevee–peevee (b) uesvee–hengBÛeevee ef›eâÙeeefJeMes<eCe nw?
(c) osvee–Kejerovee (d) uesvee–osvee (a) Fme yeej yeeefjMe ceW yengle Deesues heÌ[s~
25. nce meeBme kesâ meeLe– (b) Ùen ueÌ[keâer megvoj nw~
(a) keâeye&ve [eF&–Dee@keämeeF[ uesles Deewj Dee@keämeerpeve ÚesÌ[les nQ~ (c) cewoeve nje-Yeje nw~
(b) Dee@keämeerpeve ÚesÌ[les Deewj «enCe keâjles nQ~ (d) legce DeÛÚs efKeueeÌ[er nes~
(c) Dee@keämeerpeve uesles Deewj keâeye&ve [eF&–Dee@keämeeF[ ÚesÌ[les nQ~ 37. ‘Deye heÌ{keâj keäÙee nesiee’-Fme JeekeäÙe ceW keâewve-meer ef›eâÙee
(d) keâeye&ve [eF&–Dee@keämeeF[ uesles Deewj Úes[ Ì les nQ~ nw?
26. Dee@keämeerpeve «enCe keâjves ceW DeefOekeâebMe peerJeOeeefjÙeeW keâe (a) ØesjCeeLe&keâ ef›eâÙee (b) mebÙegkeäle ef›eâÙee
mJeYeeJe– (c) hetJe&keâeefuekeâ ef›eâÙee (d) efÉkeâce&keâ ef›eâÙee
(a) efJeefÛe$e Øekeâej keâe nw~ (b) ceeveJe mes efYeVe nw~ 38. ceveesYeeJeeW keâes Øekeâš keâjves Jeeues Jes DeefJekeâejer Meyo,
(c) ceeveJe kesâ efJehejerle nw~ (d) ceeveJe keâer lejn nw~ efpevekeâe JeekeäÙe mes keâesF& mecyebOe veneR jnlee, keânueeles nQ:
211 YCT
 (a) efJekeâuheyeesOekeâ DeJÙeÙe (b) mecegÛÛeÙeyeesOekeâ DeJÙeÙe (a) condemned (b) demeaned
(c) efJemceÙeeefoyeesOekeâ DeJÙeÙe (d) Devegyeæ yeesOekeâ DeJÙeÙe (c) humbled (d) proud
39. ‘Jen Iej mes yeenj ieÙee’- Fme JeekeäÙe ceW ‘mes’ keâewve-mee 49. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the
blank.
keâejkeâ nw? A ––––––– souvenir will be released on the
(a) keâòee& (b) keâce& occasion of the World Meet.
(c) keâjCe (d) Deheeoeve (a) voluminous (b) considerable
40. efvecveefueefKele MeyoeW ceW mes efJeosMeer Meyo keâes henÛeeefveS: (c) generous (d) bountiful
(a) iueeme (b) DeÛeue 50. Identify the segment in the sentence which
contains the grammatical error. If there is no
(c) Dee§eÙe& (d) Úelee
error, select 'No error'
Test of Language : English The letter was posting yesterday by my
brother.
41. Select the most appropriate synonym of the (a) by my brother
given word. (b) No error
EMERGE (c) was posting yesterday
(a) Aspire (b) Appear (d) The letter
(c) Admire (d) Acquire 51. Select the most appropriate option to substitute
42. Select the most appropriate antonym of the the underlined segment in the given sentence. If
given word. no substitution is required, select 'No
ENDORSE substitution'.
(a) Affirm (b) Renounce If you are not able to go out, did not worry.
(c) Support (d) Advocate (a) don't worried (b) worrying not
43. Select the option that can be used as a one- (c) do not worry (d) No substitution
word substitute for the given group of words. 52. Select the alternative that will improve the
A person who listens to someone's private underlined part of the sentence. In case there is
conversation without them knwoing. no improvement select "No improvement".
(a) Secret agent (b) Spy Many of my friends come to school by bus.
(c) Eavesdropper (d) Infiltrator (a) Much of my friends
44. Select the most appropriate meaning of the (b) Many who are friends
given idiom. (c) No improvement
Egg on
(d) Many of all my friends
(a) continue (b) agree
53. Selected the most appropriate option to
(c) encourage (d) quarrel
substitute the underlined segment in the given
45. The following sentence has been split into four
sentence.
segments. Identify the segment that contains a
If no substitution is required, select No
grammatical error.
improvement.
Won't you/please come/to help me/along this
heavy box ? When we went to the cinema yesterday, the
(a) to help me (b) won't you film had already start.
(c) please come (d) along this heavy box (a) the film had already started
(b) the film have already start
46. Identify the segment in the sentence which
contains a grammatical error. (c) No improvement
We must plan how can we cope with the (d) the film was already start
present situation. 54. Select the most appropriate option to substitute
(a) We must plan (b) present situation the underlined segment in the given sentence. If
(c) how can we (d) cope with the there is no need to substitute it, select 'No
47. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the substitution required'.
blank. She will have to go to another school when she
The government has hardened its ––––––– moves from here, has she?
against the agitators and imposed a curfew in (a) hasn’t she (b) No substitution required
the area. (c) will she (d) won't she
(a) bearing (b) manner 55. Select the most appropriate option to substitute
(c) orientation (d) stance the underlined segment in the given sentence. If
48. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the there is no need to substitute it, select 'No
blank. substitution'.
We are bewildered by the power which science Rahul thinks that this is quite the cheap
has suddenly placed in our laps, and we are ––– restaurant.
by the realisation of our unpreparedness to (a) so a cheap (b) so the cheap
deal with a crisis. (c) No substitution (d) quite a cheap
212 YCT
Comprehension: Arithmetical and Numerical ability
Read the passage and answer the questions
given below it. 61. The average marks obtained in mathematics by
The children were to be driven, as a special treat, the students of a class was 70. The average marks
to the sands at Jagborough. Nicholas was not to be obtained by the boys is 20% more than the
of the party; he was in disgrace. Only that average marks obtained by the girls. If the ratio
morning he had refused to eat his wholesome of the number of boys to that of girls is 3 : 2 then
bread-and-milk on the seemingly frivolous ground the average marks obtained by the girls is :
that there was a frog in it. Older and wiser and (a) 65 (b) 62.5
better people(his aunt), had told him that there (c) 63 (d) 63.5
could not possibly be a frog in his bread-and-milk 62. Two numbers A and B are less than a third
and that he was not to talk nonsense; he continued, number C by 15% and 32% respectively. By
nevertheless, to talk what seemed complete what percentage is number B less than number
nonsense, and described with much detail the A?
coloration and markings of the alleged frog. The (a) 20 (b) 80
dramatic part of the incident was that there really (c) 68 (d) 32
was a frog in Nicholas's basin of bread-and-milk; 63. The amount of glucose required to prepare 250
he had put it there himself, so he felt entitled to gm of a solution in which the glucose content is
know something about it. The sin of taking a frog 5% will be:
from the garden and putting it into a bowl of (a) 125 gm (b) 12.5 gm
wholesome bread-and-milk was enlarged on at (c) 50 gm (d) 25 gm
great length, but the fact that stood out clearest in 64. The ratio of the number of females to that of
the whole affair, as it presented itself to the mind male employees in a small company is 2 : 3 If
of Nicholas, was that the older, wiser, and better the number of male employees in the company
people had been proved to be profoundly in error is 90, then the total number of employees
working in the company is:
in matters about which they had expressed the
(a) 120 (b) 90
utmost assurance. "You said there couldn't
possibly be a frog in my bread-and-milk; there (c) 130 (d) 150
was a frog in my breadand- milk," he repeated, 65. The salaries of A and B are in the ratio 3 : 4.
with the insistence of a skilled tactician who does On increasing the salaries of both A and B by `
not intend to shift from favourable ground. 3000 each, the new ratio of their salaries
becomes 18 : 23. Find the salary of A after the
56. What was the aunt trying to tell Nicholas? increase.
(a) That he should play with his cousins (a) `12,000 (b) `23,000
(b) That he would be punished if he misbehaved (c) `21,000 (d) `18,000
(c) That he should have eaten the bread and milk 66. The difference between the selling price on a
(d) That he could choose to stay back if he discount of 32% and two successive discount of
wished 20% each on a certain bill is ` 25. Find the
57. What excuse did Nicholas give for not eating actual amount of the bill.
his bread and milk? (a) `200 (b) `625
(a) there was a frog in it (c) `576 (d) `425
(b) he did not like it 67. Two devices whose cost price are `15000 and
(c) there was no sugar in it `20000 respectively, discounts of 8% and 12%
(d) it was too cold to eat are allowed on them respectively. Find the total
58. What made Nicholas so sure about what he selling price?
said? (a) ` 30,200 (b) ` 28,600
(a) He noticed it jumping in (c) ` 31,400 (d) ` 31,800
(b) He saw someone putting it in 68. After 10 years the simple interest on a sum of
(c) His cousins had told him about it money will be `600. If the principal is
(d) He himself had put it in increased thrice after 5 years, what will be the
59. Why did Nicholas consider his aunt had been total interest after 10 years?
proved to be wrong? (a) `300 (b) `900
(a) She was forcing him to eat the bread and (c) `1200 (d) `600
milk. 5
69. On a certain sum, simple interest for years at
(b) She had said there was no frog in the bowl 2
(c) She never listened to him an annual rate of 12% is `50 less than the
(d) She always scolded him 7
interest on the same sum for years at an
60. The children were being taken on a special 2
treat to: annual rate of 10%. Find the sum.
(a) The circus (b) The zoo (a) ` 1,500 (b) ` 1,000
(c) A garden (d) The beach (c) ` 2,000 (d) ` 1,200
213 YCT
70. On what sum will the compound interest, at the more than the average marks without
1 including him.
rate of 12 % per annum for 2 years (a) 18 (b) 14
2
compounded annually, be `6,800? ? (c) 12 (d) 15
(a) `27,200 (b) `54,400 78. After 11 innings the average score per innings
(c) `27,260 (d) `25,600 of a batsman is 52. After 13th innings the
71. The compound interest paid when a sum of average increases to 54. If the batsman scored
16 more runs in the 13th innings than the
1
`20,000 is invested for 1 year 4 months at 7 % previous innings, then how many runs did he
2 score in the 12th innings?
compound interest per annum, compounded (a) 54 (b) 57
annually, is : (c) 56 (d) 55
(a) ` 2,171.25 (b) ` 2,037.50
109
(c) ` 2,185.75 (d) ` 2,210.40 79. Decimal expansion of is:
72. The simple interest of 8 years at 8% per 100
annum on a deposit is `16000.What will be the 0 9 9
(a) 1 + + (b) 10 +
compound interest of 2 years at the rate of one 10 100 100
fourth of this rate on the same amount. 9 0
(a) ` 1,020 (b) ` 980 (c) 1 + (d) 100 + 9 +
(c) ` 1,010 (d) ` 1,015 100 100
80. What is the difference between the biggest and
1
73. Namita alone completes 33 % of a work in 16 2 3 4 5
3 the smallest fraction among , , and ?
3 4 5 6
days and the remaining work is completed by
1 1
bobby alone. The whole work is completed in (a) (b)
total 28 days. In how many days Namita and 30 6
11 1 1
Bobby working together can complete th of (c) (d)
16 12 20
the original work ?
(a) 6 days (b) 9 days
General Intelligence & Reasoning Ability
(c) 12 days (d) 8 days 81. A saw is related to wood in the same way as a
74. A and B together can finish a piece of work in knife________ ?
10 days. B and C together can finish it in 15 (a) Vegetables (b) Steel
days. A and C together can finish it in 18 days. (c) Clother (d) Cutter
In how many days will A, B and C finish it 82. Select the option that is related to the first
together? letter-cluster in the same way as the second
(a) 7 days (b) 8 days letter-cluster is related to the first letter-cluster
(c) 9 days (d) 10 days and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the
75. A and B can complete a piece of work in 20 days. third letter-cluster.
B and C can complete it in 30 days. A is twice as EXA : HSH :: LWQ : ORX :: KNO : ?
good as C in completing the work. Find in how (a) NIV (b) MIW
many days will B alone complete it. (c) MIV (d) NHW
(a) 60 days (b) 50 days 83. Select the option in which the numbers are
(c) 55 days (d) 65 days related in the same way as the numbers are in
76. CO2 emissions in 3 years in the following the given set.
municipality has given. 4, 20, 28
Year CO2 emission from (a) 6, 24, 48 (b) 8, 32, 64
house (c) 2, 18, 24 (d) 12, 60, 84
2015 100 84.
2016 110
2017 150
What is the percentage increase in CO2
emission between 2016 and 2017? Select the correct figure appropriate for blank
(a) 63.63% (b) 36.36% space.
(c) 36.45% (d) 26.36%
77. A group of five students took an examination.
Another student joined the group after taking
the examination later by including his marks, A B C D
the average marks of the group increased by 2 (a) C (b) D
marks. This student has scored ----- marks (c) B (d) A
214 YCT
85. In a certain code language 'NATURE' is (a) Daughter (b) Mother's sister
written as 'QYWSUC' and 'REASON' is (c) Sister's Daughter (d) Mother
written as 'UCDQRL'. How will 'LOTION' be 93. If S means '+', L means '×',U means '÷ ÷' and K
written in that language? means'–', then the value of 21 S 1 U 7 L 15 U 6
(a) OMWGRL (b) OLWFRK L 14 K 55 ?
(c) NMVGQL (d) MNGVLQ (a) –50 (b) 26
86. Three of four options below are related in a (c) –29 (d) 29
certain way. Select the option that is different 94. What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the
from other. following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘− −’ are
(a) Mammals (b) Reptiles interchanged and also ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
(c) Aves (d) Ostrich interchanged?
87. Select that figure which is different from three 15 ÷ 27 × 3 + 36 − 12 = ?
other. (a) 110 (b) 95
(c) 111 (d) 105
95. Choose the most suitable Venn diagram for the
following words-
Horse, Monkey, Tiger

(a) (b)

88. Select the number from among the given

options that can replace the question mark (?) (c) (d)
in the following series.
3, 78, 9, 69, 15, 60, ?
(a) 19 (b) 23
(c) 22 (d) 21 96. Statements :
89. Which answer figure will come in the blank µ All biscuits are millets
space in question figure series from given µ All millets are grains
figures. Conclusions:
Question Figure: 1. All biscuits are grains
2. All grains are millets
(a) Only conclusion 2 follows
(b) Both conclusion are not follow
Answer Figure: (c) Only conclusion 1 follows.
(d) Both conclusion follow.
97. Three statements are given followed by three
conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming
the statements to be true, even if they seem to
(a) B (b) C be at variance with commonly known facts,
(c) D (d) A decide which of the conclusions logically
90. Study the given pattern carefully and select the follow(s) from the statements.
number from among the given options that can Statements:
replace the question mark (?) All doctors are surgeons.
Some nurses are surgeons.
Some nurses are students.
Conclusions:
I. Some doctors are students.
II. Some surgeons are doctors.
(a) 8 (b) 5 III. Some doctors are nurses.
(c) 9 (d) 7 (a) Only conclusions II and III follow
91. Pradeep says, “Vishal’s mother is the only (b) Only conclusions II follow
daughter of my mother”. How is Pradeep (c) Only conclusions I and II follow
related to Vishal? (d) Only conclusions I and III follow
(a) Father (b) Brother 98. Statement:
(c) Grandfather (d) Maternal uncle Speaking to the players, the coach said, "There
92. Q is the daughter of L whose only sister M is is an abundance in the high class talent of the
the daughter-in-law of O. The only son of O has club"
three daughters P, R and S. How is S related to L? Conclusion:
215 YCT
 I. Coach has the ability to test the players talent 103. Riboflavin, chemically is.
II. Coach is accepting the team's talent. (a) 6,7- dimethyl isoalloxazine
(a) Only conclusion II is logical. (b) 8,9- dimethyl isoalloxazine
(b) Only conclusion I is logical. (c) 6,7- diethyl isoalloxazine
(c) None of the conclusions is logical. (d) 8,9- diethyl isoalloxazine
(d) Both the conclusions are logical. 104. ____ is a primary standard for standardisation
99. Select the option that depicts the following of perchloric acid.
transparent sheet (Problem Figure) when (a) Potassium dichromate
folded at the dotted line shown. (b) Sodium oxalate
Problem figure: (c) Potassium hydrogen phthalate
(d) Sodium chloride
105. What is the colour of phenolphthalein at pH 11?
(a) Colorless (b) Yellow
Answer figures: (c) Blue (d) Pink
106. _____is use to prevent absorption of ingested
toxin.
Or
Which of the following agent is used to reduce the
gastrointestinal absorption of ingested poison?
(a) Charcoal
(a) B (b) C (b) Calcium disodium versenate
(c) A (d) D (c) Penicillamine
100. The following figure is embedded in one of the (d) Dimercaprol
four answer figures. Which figure contains the 107. Optically active mandelic acid can be
problem figure? synthesized from benzaldehyde in the presence
Question Figure: of the enzyme:
(a) Invertin (b) Myrosin
(c) Emulsion (d) Zymase
108. Given below are the two statements
Statement I: Glucose-6-phosphate can be
Answer Figures: formed from glucose, but not from glycogen.
Statement II: Glucose-1-phosphate may be
hydrolyzed to yield free glucose in liver.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
(a) D (b) B (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(c) C (d) A (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect
SECTION-B (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect
Post Specific Subject- Related Questions (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct
101. Following is the important sterol in faces
109. The above structure is of:
formed from cholesterol by bacteria in lower
intestine.
(a) 7- Dehydro cholesterol
(b) 7-α- Hydroxy cholesterol
(c) Coprostanol
(d) Lithocholic acid
102. The second law of thermodynamics states that'
whenever a spontaneous process takes place, it
is accompanied by an increase in the total
energy of the universe. The equation that (a) Norephedrine (b) Pseudoephedrine
satisfies the above law is. (c) Ephedrine (d) Norpseudoephedrine
(a) ∆Suniverse = Ssystem − ∆Ssurrounding 110. Insertion of a oxygen in a carbonyl compound
to form an ester is known as:
(b) ∆Suniverse = Ssurrounding − ∆Ssystem (a) Baeyer Villiger oxidation
(c) ∆Ssystem = Suniverse + ∆Ssurrounding (b) Sharpless epoxidation
(c) Prevost oxidation
(d) ∆Suniverse = Ssystem + ∆Ssurrounding
(d) Lossen rearrangement
216 YCT
111. ____________ is the study of how the body this process will not continue to activate whole
interacts with administered substances for the platelets in the body to form a massive ball of
entire duration of exposure. platelets because
(a) Biotransformation (b) Pharmacokinetics (a) The adjacent normal endothelial cells
(c) Pharmacodynamics (d) Bioactivation physiologically release ‘NO’ which is a
112. How many pharmacists are required for a 100 platelet inhibitor
bedded hospital? (b) There will be plasminogen activators in the
(a) 02 (b) 06 plasma
(c) 10 (d) 05 (c) There will be plasminogen activator inhibitors
113. Which of the following is not an action of in plasma
amphetamine ? (d) There will be a tissue plasminogen activator
(a) Potent CNS stimulation (tPA) which inhibits the platelets
(b) Decreasing systolic and diastolic BP 121. Which of the following statement is true for the
(c) Increased mental and physical activity periosteum of bone
(d) Reduces appetite (a) Protects the bone by assisting in fracture
repair
114. _____ is an example of high sedative.
(b) Has osteogenic cells which enable bone to
(a) Pheniramine (b) Cyproheptadine grow in thickness, but not in length
(c) Chlorpheniramine (d) Diphenhydramine (c) It is composed of an outer fibrous layer of
115. Which of the following is not a screening dense irregular connective tissue and an inner
method for antidiabetic agents? osteogenic layer that consists of cells
(a) Adrenaline-induced acute hyperglcaemia (d) All of these
(b) Bio-breeding rat 122. Which of the following is not a 17α α-alkylated
(c) Euglcaemic clamp technique androgen ?
(d) Tooth pulp stimulation (a) Oxandrolone
116. Which statements are not true about the grafts? (b) Testosterone enanthate
A. Isografts are grafts in which the donor and (c) Stanozolol
recipient is the same individual. (d) Fluoxymesterone
B. Autografts are grafts between the donor 123. The results of a meta-analysis are presented in a
and recipient of the same genotype. (a) Forest plot
C. Allografts are those in which the donor is (b) Receiver Operating characteristic Curve
of the same species but of a different (c) Box and whisker plot
genotype (d) Scatter plot
D. Xenografts are those in which the donor is 124. Tavaborole is indicated in the treatment of
of a different species from that of the (a) Onychomycosis (b) Dermatophytosis
recipient. (c) Candidiasis (d) None of the above
Choose the correct answer from the options 125. Which of the following drug does not cause
given below: renal toxicity ?
(a) A, B and D only (b) A and B (a) Cyclosporin (b) Tacrolimus
(c) B and C (d) C and D (c) Cisplatin (d) Febuxostat
117. Which of the following is a malignant type of 126. Which of the following is not Histone
tumor? Deacetylase inhibitor ?
(a) Lipoma (b) Adenoma (a) Omacetaxine (b) Panobinostat
(c) Melanoma (d) Osteoma (c) Romidepsin (d) Vorinostat
118. A patient with pheochromcytoma is 127. Thiazide diuretics do not produce ONE of the
undergoing surgery and has not been adverse effects:
administered with alpha receptor blocker. If he (a) Hyponatremia (b) Hypoglycemia
is administered with intravenous propranolol, (c) Hypokalemia (d) Hyperuricemia
then which of the following effects will be 128. Which of the following does not cause acute
evident? insulin resistance ?
(a) There will be a rise in the blood pressure (a) Infection (b) Trauma
(b) There will be a fall in the blood pressure (c) Surgery (d) Advanced age
(c) The blood pressure will remain unchanged 129. Sun protection factor (SPF) is an indicator of
(d) The patient may suffer severe (a) UVA protection (b) UVB protection
bronchoconstriction (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) or (b)
119. Nitric oxide synthase exists in __________ 130. Down regulation of receptors can occur as a
(a) Two isoforms (b) Three isoforms consequence of
(c) Four isoforms (d) Five isoforms (a) Continuous use of agonists
120. At the site of tissue injury, the activated (b) Continuous use of antagonists
platelet releases ADP and activates (c) Chronic use of CNS depressants
surrounding platelets to form plateletplug, but (d) Denervation
217 YCT
131. Which of the following is a nicotinic acid 143. Petitmal seizures are also known as
derivative ? (a) Tonic-clonic seizures (b) Absence seizures
(a) Metronidazole (b) Linezolid (c) Partial seizures (d) All of these
(c) Ethionamide (d) Furazolidone 144. An example of flocculating agent used in
32. Bromocriptine is useful in all except: suspensions is
(a) Endogenous depression (a) Sodium carboxymethyl cellulose
(b) Parkinsonism (b) Sodium alginate
(c) Prolactinoma (c) Sodium lauryl sulphate
(d) Type 2diabetes mellitus (d) Bentonite
133. The following are pairs of nuclear receptors 145. Hypophosphorus acid in ferrous iodide syrup
that induce a specific drug metabolism. Which act as
of them is incorrectly matched ? (a) Antioxidant (b) Suspending agent
(a) Aryl hydrocarbon receptor and Omeprazole (c) Hematinic (d) Preservative
(b) Pregnane X receptor and Rifampin 146. In paracetamol poisoning N acetyl cysteine act
(c) Farnesoid X receptor and Fibrates as a
(d) vitamin D receptor and Vitamin D (a) Coating agent of gastric mucosa
134. Which causes apparent volume of distribution (b) Urinary alkalaniser
of a drug to exceed total body fluid volume ? (c) Glutathione substitute
(a) High plasma protein binding (d) Urinary acidifier
(b) Slow elimination 147. Which of the following metal has no
(c) Poor lipid solubility therapeutic use?
(d) Sequestration is body tissues (a) Lead (b) Lithium
135. In which of the following year Narcotic Drugs (c) Iron (d) Platinum
and Psychotropic Substances Act was enacted 148. Orthotolidine test is used to determine______.
in India? (a) Nitrates in water
(a) 1965 (b) 1975 (b) Potassium in water
(c) 1980 (d) 1985 (c) Ammonia in water
136. Most important toxicity of "Acyclovir – (d) Free combined chlorine in water
antiviral drug" is -
149. pH indicator/dye present in Christensen's urea
(a) High grade fever
medium is _______.
(b) Decrease in Glomerular filtration rate
(a) Neutral red (b) Andrade's indicator
(c) Ceasing of urine
(c) Methyl red (d) Phenol red
(d) None of these
150. Which of the following statement/s about
137. Soxhelation is used for -
antibiotics is/ are incorrect?
(a) Packing (b) Crushing
(a) Oral activity can be conferred on
(c) Extraction (d) Drug delivery
cephalosporins by esterification of the 3-
138. Acyclovir is an example of - carboxylic acid group.
(a) Anti-viral (b) Anti- bacterial
(b) Acylureidopenicillins are stable under
(c) Anti-helmintic (d) Anti-cancer acidic conditions.
139. Which of the following drug has potential to (c) Aminoglycosides have a hightly substituted
prolong QTc interval? 1, 3 - diamino cyclohexane central ring.
(a) Dronedarone (b) Bedaquiline
(d) The enolized tricarbonyl methane system
(c) Delamanid (d) All of the above at C1 to C3 in the tetracycline structure
140. Which of the following is correct for principles need not be intact for good activity.
of clinical research? Answer options:
(a) Autonomy to risk/benefit assessments
(a) (c) only (b) (a) and (c) only
(b) Justice to Informed Consent
(c) (b) and (d) only (d) all of the above
(c) Nonmaleficence to risk/benefit assessments
151. Narcotic Drugs include:
(d) Beneficence to selection of subjects
(a) Coca leaf (b) Acetorphine
141. Lugol’s solution is used as
(c) Cannabis (d) Ketobemidone
(a) Source of iodine in iodine deficiency
Which of the above options are correct?
(b) Germicide
(a) (a) and (b) only
(c) Fungicide
(b) (c) and (d) only
(d) All of these
(c) All of the above
142. Lipophilicity of a drug can be measured by
means of its (d) None of the above
(a) Oil/water partition coefficient 152. In continuous fermentation, steady state is
(b) Dissociation constant achieved using principles of :
(c) Melting point (a) Thermostat (b) Levelstat
(d) Refractive index (c) pH stat (d) Chemostat

218 YCT
153. Bitters are therapeutically used as (a) Sulfa drugs (b) Quinine
(a) Antifungal agents (b) Antiamoebic agents (c) Nalidixic acid
(c) Antimalarial agents (d) Appetizing agents (d) Diphenhydramine
154. Dettol is used as 165. Which of the following is a psychotropic
(a) Antimicrobial (b) Disinfectant substance ?
(c) Antiseptic (d) Antibiotic (a) Mazindol (b) Methyprylon
155. Proflavine is used as (c) Pentazocine (d) All of the above
(a) Antiseptic (b) Vitamin 166. Haloperidol – A tranquilizer belong to which
(c) Expectorant (d) Analgesic class of drugs ?
156. The trachoma control programme in India was (a) Phenothiazine (b) Xanthenes
launched in which year? (c) Butyrophenone (d) Carbamates
(a) 1973 (b) 1968 167. Oral hypoglycemic agent which is a
(c) 1954 (d) 1963 Thiazolidinedione derivative is
157. Full form of LSD is______________. (a) Repaglinide (b) Glipizide
(a) Lysergic acid dimethylamide (c) Pioglitazone (d) Glimepiride
(b) Lysinic acid diester 168. Sublingually used organic nitrate is
(c) Lysergic acid diester (a) Nitroglycerine
(d) Lysergic acid diethylamide (b) Isosorbide dinitrate
158. Potassium arsenite solution was used in the (c) Isosorbide mononitrate
treatment of _______. (d) Both (a) and (b)
(a) Heart disease (b) Hormonal disorder 169. Parasympathomimetic drugs cause
(c) Leukemia (d) Antidiuretic agent (a) Bronchodilation (b) Mydriasis
159. The correct order for the basic features of a (c) Bradycardia (d) Constipation
mass spectrometer is 170. Indigotindisulphonate is used for
(a) Acceleration, deflection, detection, ionization
(a) Determination of blood volume
(b) Ionization, acceleration, deflection, detection
(b) Detection of amyloidosis
(c) Acceleration, ionization, deflection, detection
(c) Determination of kidney function
(d) Acceleration, deflection, ionization, detection
(d) Detection of Liver function
160. Method of inspections used to determine the
171. Select the drug approved for the treatment for
absorption rate constants. It assumes that
fibromyalgia and major depression
(P) Ka is at least five time grater activities
(a) Buspirani (b) Pregabalin
(Q) Absorption in complete (i.e. > 95%
(c) Gabapentin (d) Milnacipran
complete) at the time of peak concentration
(R) Both Absorption and elimination are first 172. The time period for which the plasma
order processes concentration of drug remains above minimum
(a) P and Q (b) Q and R therapeutic level is known as
(c) Q and R (d) P and R (a) Duration of action
161. Which of the following has narrow therapeutic (b) Law of diminishing returns
index? (c) Trapezoidal rule
(a) Dexamethasone (d) Termination of action
(b) Benzyl penicillin 173. It is a barbiturate sedatives.
(c) Digoxin (a) Glutethimide (b) Methyprylon
(d) Paracetamol (c) Quinazolone (d) Thiopental
162. Which of the following is likely to induce 174. Valdecoxib was withdrawn from market due to
remission in crohn's disease resistant to its _______.
conventional therapy? (a) Hepatotoxicity
(a) Sulfasalazine (b) Adalimumab (b) Cardiotoxicity
(c) Diphenoxylate (d) All of the above (c) Neurotoxicity
163. Which of the following is centrally acting (d) Nephrotoxicity
anorexiant drug? 175. Which of following is NOT anthelmintic drug?
(a) Fidaxomicin (b) Exemestane (a) Metronidazole (b) Mebendazole
(c) Fenfluramine (d) Everolimus (c) Tiabendazole (d) Albendazole
164. Red blood cell destruction can be triggered in 176. Which of the following anticholinesterase drug
individuals with Glucose-6-phosphate is used for diagnosis of myasthenia gravis ?
dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency by the (a) Physostigmine (b) Neostigmine
following drugs except : (c) pyridostigmine (d) Edrophonium
219 YCT
177. ______ is short acting neuromuscular blocking 190. Starting material for synthesis of sulphadiazine is
drugs with duration of action between 15-20 (a) 4-amino pyridine
minutes. (b) 4-amino pyrimidine
(a) Pancuronium (b) Atracurium (c) 2-amino pyridine
(c) Doxacurium (d) Rapacuronium (d) 2-amino pyrimidine
178. Identify the antidote for cholinesterase 191. “Hypo” is the synonym for
inhibitors (a) Hypophosphorus acid
(a) Neostigmine (b) Pyridostigmine (b) Sodium Bisulphite
(c) Physostigmine (d) Pralidoxime (c) Sodium Metabisulphite
179. Penicillin V is also known as (d) Sodium Thiosulphate
(a) Phenoxypropyl penicillin
192. The incorrect statement with respect to the
(b) Benzathine penicillin solubility property of calcium hydroxide is
(c) Benzyl penicillin
(a) It is freely soluble in water.
(d) Phenoxymethyl penicillin
(b) It is soluble in sugar solutions.
180. Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic drug
(c) It is insoluble in alcohol.
possessing :
(d) It is soluble in glycerol.
(a) Butyrophenone (b) Thioxanthinc
(c) Phenothiazine (d) Acridine 193. ________ is the example of Phosphoprotein.
(a) Cholesterol
181. Which one of the following is racemic
compound? (b) Hyaluronic acid
(a) Hyoscyamine (b) Atropine (c) Casein
(c) Hyoscine (d) Physostigmine (d) Hemoglobin
182. An aryl propionic acid derivative (e) Not attempted
(a) Mefenamic acid (b) Piroxicam 194. Cracks in lips is deficiency symptom of which
(c) Ibuprofen (d) Diclofenac vitamin?
183. Many mediators have been implicated in the (a) B1 (b) B2
asthmatic response. The clinical efficacy of (c) B3 (d) B4
pharmacologic intervention with inhibitors or 195. Coenzyme NAD is derivative of
antagonist of the mediators involves following (a) Niacin (b) Riboflavin
category- except (c) Thiamine (d) Adenine
(a) Platelet activating factors 196. Enzyme involved in ageing process is
(b) Anticholinergics (a) Catalase
(c) Antihistaminics (b) Superoxide
(d) Cytokine inhibitors (c) Metalloproteinase
184. A selective beta blocker (d) Telomerase
(a) Propranolol (b) Atenolol 197. Relative sweetness of sucrose, to saccharin is
(c) Timolol (d) Nadolol (a) 1:100 (b) 1:300
185. Which of the following is the simplest (c) 1:400 (d) 1:500
carbohydrate? 198. The metabolic function of Riboflavin involves
(a) Glyceraldehyde (b) Dihydroxyacetone the following
(c) Acetoacetate (d) Glucose (a) FMN and FAD
186. Chemical formula for talc is (b) NADP and NADPH
(a) 4MgO.4SiO2.H2O
(c) AMP and ATP
(b) 3MgO.3SiO2.H2O
(d) Retin and Retinine
(c) 4MgO.3SiO2.H2O
199. The unit for rate constant of first order
(d) 3MgO.4SiO2.H2O
reaction is:
187. Which sugar does not give a positive Benedict’s
(a) Time
test?
(b) Time–1
(a) Sucrose (b) Lactose
(c) Maltose (d) Glucose (c) Concentration × Time–1
188. Blood: Gas partition coefficient of halothane is: (d) Concentration–1×Time–1
(a) 16 (b) 2.4 200. Ipilimumab is approved for treatment of:
(c) 0.46 (d) 1.8 (a) Metastatic Melanoma
189. A monosaccharide is (b) Breast Cancer
(a) Lactose (b) Sucrose (c) Hepatocellular Carcinoma
(c) Ribose (d) Maltose (d) Non small cell lung cancer
220 YCT
 SOLUTION : PRACTICE SET- 5
ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 21. (b) 41. (b) 61. (b) 81. (a) 101. (c) 121. (d) 141. (d) 161. (c) 181. (b)
2. (a) 22. (d) 42. (b) 62. (a) 82. (a) 102. (d) 122. (b) 142. (a) 162. (b) 182. (c)
3. (a) 23. (c) 43. (c) 63. (b) 83. (d) 103. (a) 123. (a) 143. (b) 163. (c) 183. (a)
4. (c) 24. (d) 44. (c) 64. (d) 84. (d) 104. (c) 124. (a) 144. (c) 164. (d) 184. (b)
5. (c) 25. (c) 45. (d) 65. (d) 85. (a) 105. (d) 125. (d) 145. (a) 165. (d) 185. (a)
6. (c) 26. (d) 46. (c) 66. (b) 86. (d) 106. (a) 126. (a) 146. (c) 166. (c) 186. (d)
7. (b) 27. (d) 47. (d) 67. (c) 87. (c) 107. (c) 127. (b) 147. (a) 167. (c) 187. (a)
8. (a) 28. (d) 48. (c) 68. (c) 88. (d) 108. (b) 128. (d) 148. (d) 168. (b) 188. (b)
9. (d) 29. (d) 49. (a) 69. (b) 89. (a) 109. (c) 129. (b) 149. (d) 169. (c) 189. (c)
10. (d) 30. (a) 50. (c) 70. (d) 90. (a) 110. (a) 130. (a) 150. (c) 170. (a) 190. (d)
11. (a) 31. (d) 51. (c) 71. (b) 91. (d) 111. (b) 131. (c) 151. (c) 171. (d) 191. (d)
12. (a) 32.(d) 52. (c) 72. (c) 92. (c) 112. (d) 132. (a) 152. (d) 172. (a) 192. (a)
13. (a) 33. (d) 53. (a) 73. (b) 93. (c) 113. (b) 133. (c) 153. (d) 173. (d) 193. (c)
14. (c) 34. (c) 54. (d) 74. (c) 94. (c) 114. (d) 134. (d) 154. (c) 174. (b) 194. (b)
15. (c) 35. (b) 55. (d) 75. (a) 95. (c) 115. (d) 135. (d) 155. (a) 175. (a) 195. (a)
16. (b) 36. (a) 56. (b) 76. (b) 96. (c) 116. (b) 136. (b) 156. (d) 176. (d) 196. (d)
17. (c) 37. (c) 57. (a) 77.(c) 97. (b) 117. (c) 137. (c) 157. (d) 177. (d) 197. (d)
18. (d) 38. (c) 58. (d) 78. (b) 98. (d) 118. (a) 138. (a) 158. (c) 178. (d) 198. (a)
19. (c) 39. (d) 59. (b) 79. (a) 99. (b) 119. (b) 139. (d) 159. (b) 179. (d) 199. (b)
20. (c) 40. (a) 60. (d) 80. (b) 100. (c) 120. (a) 140. (c) 160. (a) 180. (c) 200. (a)

SOLUTION
1. (b) 5. (c)
Bible is the name of sacred text of Christianity which Annie Besant founded the Central Hindu College at
consists of two parts, the old testament which is Banaras which she later handed over to Madan Mohan
essentially the Hebraw text of time of Jesus and the new Malviya.
testament that includes writings about Jesus Christ and Annie Besant established the school in July 1898, with a
the early church. vision of educating Indian children based on Hindu
2. (a) philosophy.
Utkala Dibasa, is celebrated every year on 1st April in Pt. Madan Mohan Malviya met Annie Besant in April
the Indian state of Odisha in memory of the formation 1911 and formed an agreement to work together to
of the state as a separate state. On 1 april 1936 odisha establish a University in Varanasi.
formed as a new stats. 6. (c)
“Habeas Corpus” is a Latin term which literally means
3. (a)
“to have the body of”.
Aparigraha is the Jainism principle of non-
It is issued by Supreme Court (under Article-32) and
possessiveness that focuses on creating balance between
High Courts (under Article-226). This writ is a Bulwark
desires and needs and detachment from your own
of individual liberty against arbitrary detention. This
possessions. Out of the five constraints in life that the
writ can be issued against both public authorities as well
Jains need to follow, in which Aparigraha means non- as private individuals. It protects against unlawful and
acquisition. Satya, ahinsa, aparigrah, astey and indefinite imprisonment.
bramhcharya are 5 main principle of Jainism. 7. (b)
4. (c) When a President is to be impeached for violation of the
The Lodi (fifth and last) dynasty was an Afghan Constitution; the charge shall be preferred by either
dynasty that ruled the Delhi Sultanate from 1451 to House of Parliament. The impeachment charges are
1526 AD. Bahlol Lodi was the founder of the Lodi signed by 1/4 of the member of the house. A 14 days
dynasty. His common language was Persian and capital advance notice is given to the President of India. Both
was Delhi. On 21 April 1526, the First Battle of House of Parliament pass the impeachment charge with
Panipat, was fought between Babur and Ibrahim Lodi the 2/3 majority (with Separate investigation), and then
of Lodi dynasty, and Delhi Sultanate was annexed by the President is removed. This procedure is explained in
the Mughal ruler, Babur. Article 61.
221 YCT
8. (a) Bihar – 1106 /km2
The Principles of Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity of Uttar Pradesh – 829 /km2
the Indian Constitution have been considered from the West Bengal – 1028 /km2
Constitution of France. Madhya Pradesh – 236 /km2
Whereas, 15. (c)
• Directive Principles of State policy - Ireland Newton’s second law is a quantitative description of
• Fundamental Duties - Russia the changes that a force can produce on the motion of a
• Fundamental Rights - USA body. It states that the rate of change of the momentum
• Bicameralism - Britain of a body is equal to both magnitude and direction of
• Joint sitting of the two houses - Australia the force imposed on it. The momentum of a body is
9. (d) equal to the product of its mass and its velocity.
The Indian Constitution is divided into 25 parts and 12 Momentum, like velocity, is a vector quantity, having
schedules.
both magnitude and direction. Example: Pulling the
4th Schedule– It contains the provision in relation to
hands gradually in the direction of the ball while
the allocation of seats for states and
Union territories in the Rajya Sabha. catching helps in reducing the impact of force applied
5th Schedule – It contains the provision in relation to by the ball on the hands of the cricketer as the relative
the administration and control of velocity of the ball with respect to hands of the player is
scheduled areas as well as oscheduled decreased and hence reduces the momentum of the ball
tribes residing in any state other than gradually.
the states of Assam, Meghalaya, 16. (b)
Tripura and Mizoram. If an object of mass 'm' is raised to height h from the
10. (d) ground, force is required for this action. The minimum
KalamSat is a satellite named after the former President force required to lift an object is equal to the weight of
Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam. It was developed by a class 12 the object.
student Rifath Sharook of Tamil Nadu. This satellite is 17. (c)
lighter than smart phone with the weight of 64 gms and
Element Symbol
made of reinfored carbon fibre polymer, its role will be
to demonstrate the performance of 3D-printed carbon Carbon – C
fibre. US space agency NASA had launched this world's Iodine – I
smallest and lightest satellite in January 2017. Iron – Fe
11. (a) Fluorine – F
AstroSat is India's first multi-wavelength space Hence it is clear that the symbol of iron consists of two
observatory. This scientific satellite mission seek to letters.
understand the universe in more detail. It was launched 18. (d)
by ISRO in the year 2015 from Satish Dhawan Space Germanium (Ge) is a grayish-white element, has a
Center by PSLV C-30. It is India's first dedicated metallic luster but is brittle like glass. It is classified as a
astronomy mission which aims to- metalloid having the same crystal structure as diamond.
• Estimate the magnetic field of neutron stars, detecting Germanium is used to manufacture rectifiers, transistors
new short-lived bright X-ray sources in the sky. and weapons-sighting system etc. Ge’s atomic number
• Surveying a limited region of the universe in the is 32.
ultraviolet region.
19. (c)
12. (a)
JBS Haldane, A British scientist, suggested in 1929
The thick white and yellowish clouds of the planet
that life must have developed from the simple inorganic
Venus are made up of sulphuric acid. The atmosphere
of Venus is mainly made up of carbon dioxide. Two molecules which were present on earth soon after it was
planets in the solar system do not have a moon, they are formed.
Venus & Mercury. 20. (c)
13. (a) Carolus Linnaeus, the Swedish botanical taxonomist
The tax that government imposes per unit sales of was the first person to formulate and adhere to a
output is known as per unit tax. uniform system for defining and naming the world's
E.g. Tax on packets of cigarettes. plants and animals. Taxonomy is the study of naming,
14. (c) comparing and sorting organisms which involve all the
Density of population is defined as the number of plants, animals and microorganisms of the world.
persons per square km. The population density of India Carolus Linnaeus, who gave an organism classification,
in 2011 was 382 per square km. Bihar has the highest named as ‘father of taxonomy’. He categorized the
population density. organism on the basis of similarities and differences.
222 YCT
21. (b) efJeJe=le mJej Jes mJej nQ efpevekesâ GÛÛeejCe ceW cegKe Éej hetje Keguelee nw~
efoS ieS JeekeäÙe ‘Ùeefo ceQ meceÙe hej mšsMeve hengBÛelee lees cesjer ieeÌ[er veneR Útšleer’ pewmes- Dee~
ceW ‘nslegnslegceod Yetlekeâeue’ nw~ Ùeefo Yetlekeâeue ceW Skeâ ef›eâÙee kesâ nesves Ùee ve nesves cegKe Éej kesâ Kegueves kesâ DeeOeej hej mJej Ûeej Øekeâej kesâ nesles nQ–
hej otmejer ef›eâÙee keâe nesvee Ùee ve nesvee efveYe&j keâjlee nw, lees Jen nslegnslegceodd (1) efJeJe=le (2) DeOe& efJeJe=le (3) DeOe& mebJe=le (4) mebJe=le~
Yetlekeâeue ef›eâÙee keânueeleer nw~ nsleg keâe DeLe& nw-keâejCe~ 32. (d)
22. (d) ‘efØeÙe ceneMeÙe, ceQ Deehekeâe DeeYeejer ntB~’ FmeceW efØeÙe ceneMeÙe kesâ yeeo
‘Meeruee mes KeeÙee veneR peelee’ JeekeäÙe ceW YeeJeJeeÛÙe nw~ ef›eâÙee kesâ efpeme JemceÙeeefoyeesOekeâ (!) efÛendve keâe ØeÙeesie nesvee ÛeeefnS~
ef
™heeblejCe mes JeekeäÙe ceW ef›eâÙee DeLeJee YeeJe keâer ØeOeevelee keâe %eeve nes, 33. (d)
Gmes ‘YeeJeJeeÛÙe’ keânles nQ~ Ssmes JeekeäÙeeW ceW ef›eâÙee kesâ efuebie, JeÛeve Deewj efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW ‘DeewÅeesefiekeâ’ Jele&veer kesâ DeeOeej hej meJee&efOekeâ
heg™<e keâlee& leLee keâce& kesâ Devegmeej ve neskeâj YeeJe kesâ Devegmeej nesles nQ GheÙegòeâ Meyo nw~ Mes<e MeyoeW ceW Jele&veeriele DeMegefæÙeeB nQ~
leLee meowJe SkeâJeÛeve, hegequuebie Deewj DevÙe heg®<e ceW jnles nQ~ pewmes– 34. (c)
efpeme meb%ee mes veehe–leewue Jeeueer Jemleg keâe yeesOe nes, Gmes
ieceea kesâ keâejCe cegPemes Kesuee veneR peelee~
‘õJÙeJeeÛekeâ meb%ee’ keânles nQ~ pewmes– ueesne, meesvee, ÛeeBoer, otOe, heeveer,
YeeJeJeeÛÙe ceW meowJe Dekeâce&keâ ef›eâÙee nesleer nw~ lesue FlÙeeefo~ õJÙeJeeÛekeâ meb%eeSB meowJe SkeâJeÛeve ceW ØeÙegòeâ nesleer nQ~
23. (c) efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes otOe õJÙeJeeÛekeâ meb%ee nw~ Mes<e KešeF&,
efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW ‘keâlee&’ hegefuuebie Meyo nw~ Fmekeâe Œeerefuebie ™he efce"eF& Deewj "b[ YeeJeJeeÛekeâ meb%ee nQ~ KešeF&, efce"eF& keâe leelheÙe&
‘keâ$eea’ nesiee~ DevÙe Meyo cetKee&, efJeog<eer, ÙeeefÛekeâe Œeerefuebie Meyo nQ; ›eâceMe: Kešeme, efce"eme mes nw~
efpemeceW cetKee& keâe hegefuuebie ™he ‘cetKe&’ leLee efJeog<eer keâe hegefuuebie ™he 35. (b)
‘efJeÉeve’ nesiee~ ÙeeefÛekeâe keâe hegefuebie ÙeeÛekeâ neslee nw~ mebyebOeJeeÛekeâ meJe&veece- efpeme meJe&veece mes JeekeäÙe ceW efkeâmeer otmejs
24. (d) meJe&veece mes mebyebOe mLeeefhele efkeâÙee peeS Gmes mebyebOeJeeÛekeâ meJe&veece keânles
‘efJeefveceÙe’ keâe DeLe&– ‘uesvee–osvee’ neslee nw~ ‘efJeefveceÙe’ keâe DeLe& nQ~ pewmes- pees, mees~ GoenjCe- Jen keâewve nw pees jes jne nw~ Dele: efoÙes
‘Deoue–yeoue’ Yeer neslee nw~ DeeefLe&keâer ceW Ùen heeefjYeeef<ekeâ MeyoeJeueer ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW ‘Ùen’ mecyevOeJeeÛekeâ meJe&veece veneR nw~ Ùen efve§eÙeJeeÛekeâ
nw~ efpemekeâe DeLe& nw– meceeve ceewefõkeâ ceeve keâer JemlegDeeW keâer hejmhej meJe&veece nw~ Mes<e leerveeW efJekeâuhe mecyevOe JeeÛekeâ meJe&veece nQ~
Deouee–yeoueer~ 36. (a)
25. (c) Ssmes DeefJekeâejer Meyo pees nceW ef›eâÙee kesâ heefjceeCe Ùee Gmekeâer cee$ee Ùee
nce meeBme kesâ meeLe ‘Dee@keämeerpeve uesles nQ Deewj keâeye&ve [eF&–Dee@keämeeF[ mebKÙee kesâ yeejs ceW yeleeles nQ, Jes Meyo heefjceeCeJeeÛekeâ ef›eâÙee efJeMes<eCe
ÚesÌ[les nQ~’ Fmekesâ efJehejerle heewOes keâeye&ve [eF& Dee@keämeeF[ uesles nQ leLee keânueeles nQ pewmes-‘Fme yeej yeeefjMe ceW yengle Deesues heÌ[s’ JeekeäÙe ceW
Dee@keämeerpeve ÚesÌ[les nQ~ ‘yengle’ Meyo mes yeeefjMe nesves keâer cee$ee kesâ yeejs ceW %eele nes jne nw~
26. (d) Dele: Ùen heefjceeCe JeeÛekeâ efJeMes<eCe keânueelee nw~
Dee@keämeerpeve «enCe keâjves ceW DeefOekeâebMe peerJeOeeefjÙeeW keâe mJeYeeJe ‘ceeveJe 37. (c)
keâer lejn neslee nw~’ efpeme lejn ceeveJe Dee@keämeerpeve ueslee nw Deewj keâeye&ve ‘Deye heÌ{keâj keäÙee nesiee’ JeekeäÙe ceW hetJe&keâeefuekeâ ef›eâÙee nw~ peye keâlee&
[eF& Dee@keämeeF[ ÚesÌ[lee nw Jewmee ner DevÙe peerJeOeejer Yeer keâjles nQ~ Skeâ ef›eâÙee meceehle keâj otmejer ef›eâÙee ØeejcYe keâjlee nw leye henueer
27. (d) ef›eâÙee hetJe&keâeefuekeâ ef›eâÙee nesleer nw~ pewmes–Gmeves venekeâj Yeespeve efkeâÙee~
JevemheefleÙeeB peye meÌ[ves ueieleer nQ lees JeeleeJejCe keâes ‘keâeye&ve [eF&– FmeceW venekeâj hetJe&keâeefuekeâ ef›eâÙee nw; keäÙeeWefkeâ FmeceWs veneves keâer ef›eâÙee
Dee@keämeeF[’ efceueleer nw~ ieÅeebMe ceW keâne ieÙee nw efkeâ peye JevemheefleÙeeB keâer meceeefhle kesâ meeLe ner Yeespeve keâjves keâer ef›eâÙee keâe yeesOe neslee nw~
meÌ[ves ueieleer nQ lees GveceW mes keâeye&ve [eF&–Dee@keämeeF[ efvekeâuekeâj hegve: 38. (c)
efpeve DeJÙeÙeeW mes n<e&-Meeskeâ Deeefo kesâ YeeJe metefÛele neW, hej Gvekeâe
JeeleeJejCe ceW mecee peeleer nw~ mecyevOe JeekeäÙe Ùee Gmekesâ efkeâmeer efJeMes<e heo mes ve nes, GvnW
28. (d)
‘efJemceÙeeefoyeesOekeâ’ DeJÙeÙe keânles nQ~ pewmes-neÙe! Deye ceQ keäÙee keâ™B?
heewOeeW Deewj ØeeefCeÙeeW keâe peerJeve Skeâ–otmejs kesâ DeefmlelJe kesâ meceeve Dee Dejs! heerÚs nes peeDees, efiej peeDeesies~
peeSiee, peye nJee ceW uebyes meceÙe lekeâ ‘keâeye&ve [eF&–Dee@keämeeF[ Deewj 39. (d)
Dee@keämeerpeve keâe Devegheele meceeve jns~’ ‘Jen Iej mes yeenj ieÙee’ JeekeäÙe ceW Deheeoeve keâejkeâ nw, peneB
29. (d) DeueieeJe keâe YeeJe neslee nw JeneB Deheeoeve keâejkeâ neslee nw~ DeueieeJe
DeefYeuee<ee ‘Glkeâbef"le’ keâe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer veneR nw, peyeefkeâ FÛÚgkeâ, kesâ DeueeJee keâejCe, leguevee, efYeVelee, DeejcYe, meercee Deeefo ceW Yeers
ueeueeefÙele Je Glmegkeâ Meyo ‘Glkebâef"le’ kesâ heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Meyo nw~ Deheeoeve keâejkeâ neslee nw~
30. (a) 40. (a)
Glkeâ<e& keâe efJeueesce Dehekeâ<e& neslee nw~ Skeâ-otmejs kesâ efJehejerle Ùee Guše efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW ‘iueeme’ efJeosMeer Meyo nw, peyeefkeâ DeÛeue,
DeLe& osves Jeeues MeyoeW keâes efJeueesce Meyo keânles nQ~ Dee§eÙe& Deewj Úelee osMeer Meyo nQ~
31. (d) cenlJehetCe& efJeosMeer Meyo– Fefmlejer, keâceerpe, keâepet, ieceuee,
‘efJeJe=le mJej’ peerYe kesâ Yeeie kesâ DeeOeej hej efnvoer mJejeW kesâ Devleie&le veerueece, efhemleewue, cespe, lecyeeketâ, keQâÛeer, kegâueer, ®F&, Jekeâerue,
veneR Deelee nw~ efpe£e kesâ GlLeeefhele nesves Ùee Gmekeâer ef›eâÙeeMeeruelee kesâ Deeueheerve, Ûeeyeer FlÙeeefo~
DeeOeej hej mJej leerve Øekeâej kesâ nesles nQ~ cenlJehetCe& osMeer Meyo– lesvogDee, efÛeefÌ[Ùee, keâšje, DeCše, KeKeje,
(1) De«e mJej (2) ceOÙe mJej (3) heMÛe mJej~ "s", keâšesje, "gcejer, Ûemekeâ, heieÌ[er, efJeÙeevee, ueesše, [eWiee Deeefo~
223 YCT
41. (b) 49. (a)
Emerge - (Øekeâš nesvee), Synonym, Appear - (Øekeâš nesvee)~ Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ YeeJe kesâ Devegmeej efjòeâ mLeeve ceW voluminous
DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& - (yeÌ[e/efJeMeeue) keâe ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ nesiee~ DevÙe efJekeâuhe efYeVe DeLe&
Aspire-Deekeâeb#ee keâjvee, Acquire-DeefOe«enCe, Admire - ØeMebmee~ osles nQ~
42. (b) DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&-
'Endorse' - meceLe&ve, Antonym - Renounce (lÙeeievee)~ DevÙe Considerable - heÙee&hle, Generous - oÙeeueg, Bountiful -
efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ- ØeÛegj/Yejhetj
Affirm - ÂÌ{lee kesâ meeLe keânvee~ 50. (c)
Support - menÙeesie~ Ghejes òeâ JeekeäÙe ceW Posting kesâ mLeeve hej Posted keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~
Advocate - Jekeâerue/meceLe&keâ keäÙeeWefkeâ efoÙee ieÙee JeekeäÙe Passive voice ceW nw~ Dele: verb keâer
43. (c) third form 'posted' keâe ØeÙeesie GefÛele nw~
Ghejesòeâ Group of words, A person who listens to object + was / were + verb3 + by + subject
someone's private conversation without them knowing Correct sentence :-
kesâ efueS efJekeâuhe Eavesdropper (efÚhekeâj yeeles megveves Jeeuee) The letter was posted yesterday by my brother.
GheÙegòeâ JÙeeKÙee keâjlee nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& efYeVe nw~ 51. (c)
Secret agent - ieghleÛej, Spy - peemetme, Infiltrator - Iegmehewef"Ùee Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ jsKeebefkeâle Yeeie ceW did not worry kesâ mLeeve hej
44. (c) do not worry keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ ØeLece clause ceW
efoÙes ieÙes idiom/phrase 'Egg on' keâe DeLe& nw- 'encourage' are kesâ ØeÙeesie mes mhe° nw efkeâ JeekeäÙe present tense ceW nw~ Dele:
(Øeeslmeeefnle keâjvee)~ 'do not' keâe ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ nesiee~
DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ- Correct Sentence -
continue - ueieeleej, agree - mencele, quarrel - PeieÌ[euet If you are not able to go out, do not worry.
52. (c)
45. (d)
No improvement
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe ceW along this heavy box kesâ mLeeve hej for this 53. (a)
heavy box keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ ‘kesâ efueS’kesâ sense ceW 'for' Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ jsKeeefkebâle Yeeie The film had already start
preposition ØeÙegòeâ neslee nw~ kesâ mLeeve hej the film had already started keâe ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ
Correct Sentence - nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ Had kesâ meeLe VIII form keâe ØeÙeesie neslee nQ~
Won't you please come to help me for this heavy box.
Correct Sentence -
46. (c) When we went to the cinema yesterday, the film had
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe ceW how can we kesâ mLeeve hej how we can keâe already started.
ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ 'how' keâe ØeÙeesie Ùeneb as a conjuction ngDee 54. (d)
nw ve efkeâ as a question word. Dele: Fmekesâ yeeo Affermative Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ jsKeeefkebâle Yeeie has she kesâ mLeeve hej won't
Sentence ØeÙegòeâ nesiee~ she keâe ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ nesiee, keäÙeeWefkeâ positive sentence keâe
Correct sentence- We must plan how we can cope question tag negative leLee negative sentence keâe
with the present situation. question tag positive neslee nw~ will + sub. keâe question
47. (d) tag won't + sub. neslee nw~
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ YeeJe kesâ Devegmeej efjòeâ mLeeve ceW stance (mJe™he) Correct sentecne-
keâe ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ nesiee~ DevÙe efJekeâuhe efYeVe DeLe& osles nw~ She will have to go to another school when she moves
Bearing - menveMeeruelee, Manner - leewj-lejerkeâe, Orientation - from here, won't she?
GvcegKeerkeâjCe~ 55. (d)
Correct sentence- jsKeebefkeâle JeekeäÙeebMe ceW Indefinit noun ‘restaurant’ kesâ efueS
The government has hardened its stance against the definite article ‘the’ kesâ mLeeve hej indefinite article ‘a’ keâe
agitators and imposed a curfew in the area. ØeÙeesie GefÛele nw~
48. (c) Correct Sentence–
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ YeeJe kesâ Devegmeej efjòeâ mLeeve ceW humbled Rahul thinks that this is quite a cheap restaurant.
(efJeveceü) keâe ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ nesiee~ DevÙe efJekeâuhe efYeVe DeLe& osles nw~ 56. (b)
Condemned - efvevoe keâjvee, Demeaned - Deheceeefvele keâjvee, According to the passage the aunt trying to tell
Nicholas "That he would be punished if he
Proud - ieJe& keâjvee~ misbehaved." Hence option (b) will be correct answer.
Correct sentence- 57. (a)
We are bewildered by the power which science has According to the passage the excuse given be
suddenly placed in our laps, and we are humbled by the Nicholas for not eating his bread and milk os "there
realisation of our unpreparedness to deal with a crisis. was a frog in it" Hence option (a) will be correct.
224 YCT
58. (d) According to the question-
According to the passage Nicholas made so sure about 3x = 90 ⇒ x = 30
what he said that he himself had put it. Hence option ∴Total number of employees in company = (3x + 2x)
(d) will be corrrect answer. = 5 × 30 = 150
59. (b) 65. (d)
Accoding to the passage Nicholas consider his aunt Let the salaries of A and B are 3x and 4x respectively.
had been proved to be wrong because "She had said According to the question
there was no frog in the bowl." Hence option (b) will
3x + 3000 18
be correct answer. =
60. (d) 4x + 3000 23
According to the passage The children were being ⇒ 69x + 69000 = 72x + 54000
taken on a special treat to "The beach." Hence option ⇒ 3x = 15000
(d) will be correct answer. ⇒ x = 5000
61. (b) The salary of A after the increase = 5000 × 3 + 3000
Let the number of boys and girls be 3x and 2x = `18000
respectively. 66. (b)
Sum of total marks = 70 × 5x Let the actual amount of the bill = ` x
= 350x According to the question,
Let the average marks obtained by the girls = y  100 − 32   100 − 20   100 − 20 
x×  − x ×  = 25
Then the average marks obtained by the boys  100   100   100 
20y 68x 80 80
= y+ −x× × = 25
100 100 100 100
=
120y 68x − 64x
= 25 ⇒ 4x = 25 × 100
100 100
=
6y 25 × 100
⇒x= ⇒ x = ` 625
5 4
According to the question, 67. (c)
18xy Cost price of first device = `15000
= + 2xy = 350x
5 Discount = 8%
28y  Cost price × (100 - Discount ) 
= = 350
5 Selling price = 
 100 
28y = 350 × 5
350 × 5 15000 × (100 − 8 )
y= = 62.5 Selling price =
28 100
62. (a) 15000 × 92
= = 150×92
Let, C = 100 100
According to the question- Selling price of first device = `13, 800
Cost price of second device = `20, 000
A B C
Discount = 12%
85 68 100
20000 × (100 − 12 )
( 85 – 68 ) Selling price = = 200×88
Required % reduction = ×100 100
85 Selling price of second device = `17,600
17 ×100 Total selling price = 13,800+17,600 = `31,400
=
85 68. (c)
= 20% P = Principal, R = Rate, T = Time
63. (b) P×R ×T
Mass of the solution = 250 gm Simple interest =
100
Total quantity of glucose in the solution = 5%
Hence Simple Interest of 10 years.
So, the quantity of glucose in the solution in gram
P × R ×10
5 600 = ⇒ PR = 6000
= 250 × = 12.5 gm 100
100
64. (d) According to the question,
st nd
Let the number of female and male employees in Total simple interest = SI1 for I Five years + SI2 for II
company = 2x and 3x five years
225 YCT
 5 × P × R 5 × 3P × R 20 = 22037.5
= + = PR Hence, Compound Interest = 22037.5 – 20,000
100 100 100
= `2037.5
20
= 6000 × = 1200 (∵ PR = 6000) 72. (c)
100 Given,
Hence Total Simple interest = `1200 Rate = 8%, Time = 8 years, Simple interest = `16000
69. (b) P×R×T
Let Amount = ` P Simple interest =
100
∴ According to the question,
P × 10 × 7 P ×12 × 5 16000 × 100
− = 50 Principal = = ` 25000
100 × 2 100 × 2 8× 8
As per the question,
P × 35 P × 30
− = 50 1
100 100 r = of 8% = 2%
4
5P
= 50 2

Compound interest = 25000 1 +

2 
100  – 25000
P = ` 1000  100 
70. (d) 25000 × 51× 51
= − 25000 = 26010 – 25000= 1010
Let the principal is `x. 50 × 50
Given- So, Compound interest · `1010
1 25 73. (b)
Rate (r) = 12 % = %
2 2 100 1
16 day's work of Namita = % = part
Time (t) = 2 years 3 3
Compound interest (CI) = ` 6800 1/ 3 1
1 day's work of Namita = = part
∵ CI = A - P 16 48
 25 
2
 1 2
6800 = x  1 +  − 1 Remaining work = 1 − = part
 200   3 3
2
9 9  Bobby does part of work = 28 – 16 = 12 days
6800 = x  × − 1 3
8 8 
2/3 1
 81  1 day's work of Bobby = = part
6800 = x  − 1 12 18
 64 
Time taken by Namita and Bobby to complete the work
17x
6800 = 1
64 =
1 1
6800 × 64 +
x= 48 18
17
1 144
x = ` 25600 = = days
71. (b) 11/144 11
Given, Hence the time taken by Namita and Bobby to complete
1 11 144 11
Rate = 7 %, Time = 1 year 4 months part of work = ×
2 16 11 16
According to the question, = 9 days
t 74. (c)
Amount at the end of 1 year = P ×  1 +
r 
 According to the question,
 100  1
A+B= ……….. (i)
 15  10
⇒ 20,000 × 1 + 
 100 × 2  1
B+C = .............. (ii)
20000 × 43 15
⇒ = 21500
40 1
C+A = ………. (iii)
15 1 18
And, Interest for next four months = 21500 × ×
200 3 Adding equation (i), (ii) and (iii) ,
1 1 1 9 + 6 + 5 20
= 537.5 2 [ A + B + C] = + + = =
Total amount after 1 year 4 months = 21500 + 537.5 10 15 18 90 90
226 YCT
 Hence work done by A, B, and C in a day Let the newly included student be F
20 ⇒ A+ B+ C + D + E + F = 6 (x+2) = 6x + 12 ___ (ii)
= From equation (i) and (ii)
90 × 2
Hence, total time taken by A, B and C to complete the ⇒ 6x + 12 – 5x = F
work ⇒ F = x + 12
90 × 2 Hence, the marks of the newly included student is 12
= = 9 days more than the average marks.
20 78. (b)
75. (a) According to the question,
According to the question,
1 Total score after 11 innings · 52×11 · 572
One day work of A and B = part Total score after 13 innings · 54×13 · 702
20
1 Run in 12th and 13th innings = Score of 13th innings –
One day work of B and C = part Score of 11 innings · 702 – 572 · 130
30
Let- Let the Run in 12th innings · x
‘A’ completes the work in x days. ∴ Run in 13th innings · x+16
Then, C will do the work in 2x days. (∵ A is twice asthen, x + (x+16) = 130
good as C.) 2x = 130 –16
And ‘B’ completes the work in y days. 2x =114
Hence,
1 1 1
+ = -------(1) x = 57
x y 20 79. (a)
1 1 1 From the question,
And + =
2x y 30 109 100 0 9
Decimal expansion of = + +
1 1 1 100 100 10 100
= - - - - - - (2)
y 30 2x 0 9
= 1+ +
From equation (1) and (2), 10 100
1 1 1 1 Hence, option (a) is required answer.
+ − = 80. (b)
x 30 2x 20
1 1 1 1 From the question,
− = − 2 3 4 5
x 2x 20 30 , , ,
1 3−2 3 4 5 6
= For equaling denominator we have to multiply and
2x 60
x = 30 divide each fraction by LCM of 3, 4, 5 and 6 = 60.
By putting the value of x in equation (1), 2 60 3 60 4 60 5 60
⇒ × , × , × , ×
1 1 1 3 60 4 60 5 60 6 60
+ =
30 y 20 40 45 48 50
⇒ , , ,
1 1 1 60 60 60 60
= −
y 20 30 50 48 45 40
⇒ > > >
1 1 60 60 60 60
= 5 4 3 2
y 60 ∴ > > >
y = 60days 6 5 4 3
5
Hence, B alone will complete the work = 60 days. Hence, biggest fraction =
76. (b) 6
From graph, 2
Smallest fraction =
Increase in percentage of CO2 emission between 2016 3
and 2017
5 2 1
150 − 110 40 Required difference = – =
= × 100 = × 100 = 36.36% 6 3 6
110 110
77.(c) 81. (a)
Let the five students are A, B, C, D and E and their Just as, wood is cut with a saw, in the same way
average be x vegetables are cut with a knife.
According to the question, 82. (a)
⇒ A + B + C + D + E = 5x _____(i) Such as, Similarly,
227 YCT
 that line. Similarly the two squares overlap each other
and a line intersects them. Similarly both the squares
will be on both sides of that lines which is contained in
` figure B.
and, 90. (a)
From the question:-
Just as,
10 × 8 = 80 And, 9 × 7 = 63
Hence, ? = NIV 80 = 80 63 = 63
83. (d) Same as,
From the question, 8×6=4?
Just as, 48 = 4 ?
?=8
91. (d)
According to the question, blood relation diagram is
Similarly, follows as-

Hence, option ‘d’ is correct ans.

84. (d)
In the given question figure, the shape which comes in
place of the question mark is contained in option (d). Hence, from above diagram it is clear that Pradeep is
85. (a) Vishal's maternal uncle.
Just as, 92. (c)
The blood relation diagram is as follows -

and,

Same as, It is clear from the blood relation diagram that S is the
sister's daughter of L.
93. (c)
S → +, L → ×, U → ÷, K → –
86. (d) Given,
Mammals, Reptiles and Aves are classes. Whereas 21 S 1 U 7 L 15 U 6 L 14 K 55 = ?
Ostrich is a species. On changing the symbols,
87. (c) = 21 + 1 ÷ 7 × 15 ÷ 6 × 14 – 55
Option figure (c) is different from the other figure
1 1
because all other figures are obtained by rotating the = 21 + × 15 × × 14 − 55
figure anticlockwise/clockwise. 7 6
88. (d) 5
= 21 + ×14 – 55
The given number series is as follows. 14
= 21 + 5 – 55
= –29
94.(c)
Given,
Hence, ? = 21 15 ÷ 27 × 3 + 36 − 12
89. (a) According to the question,
Two circles are overlapping each other and a line + ↔ −
intersects them and letter the circle is on both sides of × ↔ ÷ 
 
228 YCT
 On interchanging the signs, 103. (a)
15 × 27 ÷ 3 − 36 + 12 Riboflavin chemically is 6.7- dimethyl isoalloxazine.
135 − 36 + 12 104. (c)
147 – 36 Standardization of perchloric acid -acetic standard
= 111 solution with potassium hydrogen phthalate is also
95. (c) described this report in traduces the standardization
procedure that potassium hydrogen phthalate is
Horse, Monkey and Tiger are different animal
dissolved in acetic acid then it is titrated with perchloric
acid acetic acid standard solution.
105. (d)
The pink colour of phenolphthalein at pH 11 since
phenolphthalein starts changing color around pH 7.9
Hence, option (c) is correct this means that a solution with a pH of 11 which is very
96. (c) basic , will become a deeper pink than when the
On drawing the Venn diagram as per statement. solution was a pH of 8.
Grain
106. (a)
Charcoal is a lightweight black carbon residual by
strongly heating wood animal and plant in minimal
Millet oxygen to remove all water and volatile constituents. In
Biscuit the traditional version of this pyralsis process called
Conclusion – I. (✔) charcoal burning often by forming a charcoal kiln the
II. (✖) heat is supplied.
Hence, only conclusion 1 is follows. 107. (c)
97. (b) Optically active mandelic acid can be synthesized form
According to the statement Venn diagram is as follows, benzaldehyde in the enzyme emulsion.
Emulsion. is found in bitter almond, as a mixture of
enzymes (glycosidases).
108. (b)
Glucose -6- phosphate (G 6 P) can be formed both from
Conclusion – I. (✖) glucose and glycogen. From glucose G 6 P can be
formed by the enzyme Hexokinase by catalyzing the
II. (✔) reaction Glycogen can be converted to G 6 P
III. (✖) glycogenesis.
Hence, only conclusion II follow. 109. (c)
98. (d) Ephedrine is an alpha and beta adrenergic agonist, used
According to the given statement, conclusion I and II to treat asthma. It is a decongestant and bronchodilator.
both are logical. Chemical formula of ephedrine is C10 H15 NO and it's
99. (b) structure
By turning the given question figure on the dotted line
answer figure C is acquired. Hence, option (b) is
correct.
100. (c)
The given question figure is embedded in answer figure
(C). So, option (c) is correct.
101. (c) 110. (a)
All cholesterol arriving in the large intestine can be The Baeyer-villiger oxidation is a type of reaction in
metabolized by the colonic bacteria to coprostanol a non- organic chemistry, that is used to form an ester from a
absorbable sterol that excreted in the feces. ketone or a lactones. Carbonyl compound
from a cyclic ketone using peroxides as the oxidant i.e
102. (d)
Baeyer- villiger reaction is the conversion of a ketone.
The second law of thermodynamics.
to an ester via the insertion of an oxygen atom next to
The total entropy change of the universe /∆Suniv for the carbonyl.
any. 111. (b)
Spontaneous process is positive Pharmacokinetics (PK) is the study of when the body
+∆S univ interacts with administered substances for the entire
∆S univ = ∆S sys + ∆S surrounding duration of exposure This is closely related to distinctly
Where is ∆S sys and ∆S surr the entropy change of the different from pharmacodynamics which examines the
system and the surrounds, respectively drug's effect on the body more closely .
229 YCT
112. (d) 120. (a)
Bed strength No of pharmacists Required Nitric oxide (NO) is a potent vasodilator and inhibitor
UP to 50 beds 3 of platelet activation. Therefore at the site of tissue
UP to 100 beds 5 injury the process of continuation of platelet activation
UP to 200 beds 8 cannot prolong due to release of the nitric oxide (NO)
by the adjacent endothelial cells.
UP to 300 beds 10
121. (d)
UP to 500 beds 15
The periosteum is a complex structure composed of an
113. (b) outer fibrous layer that cover bones. It contains the
Amphetamines are the type of stimulant drugs, which blood vessels and nerves that provide nourishment and
make the messaging fast between our brain and body. It sensation to the bone all the statements (a),(b), and (c)
make us more alert and physically active. Amphetamine regarding periosteum of bone are true.
also activates the nervous system that functions to 122. (b)
accelerate heart rate and constricting blood vessels, that Testosterone enanthate is not a 17α-alkylated androgen,
results in increasing the blood pressure. it is a testosterone replacement that acts like the natural
114. (d) sex hormone. 17 α alkylated androgens features an
Diphenhydramine is an example of high sedative alkyl group, specifically a methyl or ethyl group at C17
Diphenhyramine is an antihistamine used to temporarily alpha (α) position. The most common types of 17 alpha
relieve symptoms due to hay fever upper respiratory alkylated androgens are methyl testosterone, oxandrolone
allergies or the common cold such as runny nose and oxymetholone and stanozolol.
sneezing. It works by blocking histamine in the body, is 123. (a)
substance that generates allergic symptoms A graphical display that shows the strength of the
115. (d) evidence in scientific studies is called forest plot. It is
An anitidiabetic agent is any substance used to prevent used in medicine to combine all the studies of a
or alleviate diabetes. Antidiabetics control blood treatment (in a meta analysis) to show whether the
glucose and are used to treat diabetes mellitus treatment is effective.
Antidiabetics stabilize blood glucose level in propel 124. (a)
with diabetes. an antidiabetic is any drug used to Tavaborole is an antifungal agent used to treat
prevent or alleviate diabetes . the best drugs to treat onychomycosis, a fungal infection of the nail, It is a
diabetes are jardiance. Insulin metformin Januvia etc. boron - based pharmaceutical approved for the
• Tooth pulp stimulation is not a antidiabetic agents for treatment of toenail onychomycosis caused by
screening method but Dental pulp tests are valuable dermatophyte Tricholphyton rubrum and
techniques used to establish the pulpal health status of mentagrophytes.
tooth in dentistry. The diagnostic information obtained 125. (d)
from pulpal testing is then use alongside a patient's is Febuxostat is a class of medications that are xanthine
history clinical and radiograghic findings to determine a oxidase inhibitors, it works by decreasing the amount of
uric acid that is made in the body. Febuxostat does not
diagnosis and prognosis of the tooth .
cause renal toxicity, this drug has been approved by
116. (b) USFDA in 2009 for gout treatment.
Graft, is taking away healthy skin, bone or other tissue 126. (a)
part from a place in body to replace for another broken At present some of the approved Histone De-Acetylase
or removed part of unhealthy area at another place in inhibitors (HDACs) are vorinostat, romidepsin,
body. Allografts are transplants within a species the panobinostat and belinostat. Omacetaxine is not HDAC
donor and the recipient are the same species. Isografts inhibitor, omacetaxine is the generic name for the
refers to tissue transplanted between genetically chemotherapy durg having trade name 'synribo'.
identical twins. 127. (b)
117. (c) Diuretics are the class of drugs that increases urine
Melanoma is a malignant type of skin cancer. flow. Thiazide is a diuretic and it act directly on the
melanoma occurs when the pigment producing cells that kidneys and promote diuresis (urine flow).
give color to the skin become cancerous. The side effects associate with thiazide diuretics are as
118. (a) follows-
There well be rise in blood pressure of the patient with Hypokalemia {decrease in potassium levels in the
pheochromocytoma on administering intravenous blood} Hyponatremia {decrease in sodium level in the
propranolol during surgery, without administering with blood}
alpha receptor blocker. Hypercalecemia {increase in calcium levels in the
119. (b) blood}
Nitric oxide synthase exists in three isoforms, Nitric Hyperglycemia { increase in sugar levels in the blood}
oxide (NO) is produced by a group of enzymes called etc.
nitric oxide synthases. These enzymes convert arginine Hypoglycemia (low level of blood sugar) is not caused
into citrulline, producing NO in the process. by thiazide diuretic.
230 YCT
128. (d) 137. (c)
Advanced age does not cause insulin resistance. As per Soxhelation is used for extraction. Soxhlet extraction is
the researches done about this topic, it has been found a modern technique in which we circulate the same
that age had no independent effect on insulin sensitivity. solvent through the extractor several times. It is a type
129. (b) of continuous extraction technique but we can call it a
SPF or sun protection factor, is a measure of how well a series of short maceration. Soxhlet extractor needs the
sunscreen will protect skin from UVB rays. The sun desired compound to be soluble in the solvent at a high
protection factor is defined as the ratio of the least temperature.
amount of ultraviolet energy required to produce a 138. (a)
minimal erythema on skin protected by sunscreen to the Acyclovir is an antiviral drug that is used to treat
amount of energy required to produce the same symptoms of shingles, chickenpox, cold sores and
erythema on unprotected skin. genital herpes which are all caused by herpes viruses. It
is also used to prevent having regular outbreaks of
130. (a)
genital herpes.
Down regulation (i.e decrease in number) of receptors
139. (d)
occurs due to repeated or long - term administration of
QT duration changes with heart rate as it is inversely
an agonist.
related to heart rate.
131. (c) Therefore corrected QT duration is called QTc. Anti
Ethionamide is a nicotinic acid derivative. Ethionamide tuberculosis drugs Bedaqailire, Delamanid and
is an antibiotic of nicotinamide class, used to treat antiarrhythmic drug dronedarone, all has the potential to
tuberculosis. It may inhibit the synthesis of mycolic prolong QTc interval.
acid, a saturated fatty acid found in the bacterial cell- 140. (c)
wall, thereby inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis. Nonmoleficence to risk/benefit assessments is correct
132. (a) principles of clinical research.
Bromocriptine is a medication currently used in the Ethical principles that is beneficence Nonmaleficense
treatment and management of type 2 diabetes mellitus. autonomy and justice are defined and explained.
It is an ergot alkaloid derivative in the dopamine D2 141. (d)
agonist class of drugs. It also treats Parkinson's disease Lugol's solution consist of 5% iodine (I2) and 10%
and prolactinoma. Potassium iodide (KI) in 85% distilled water with a
Endogenous depression (melancholia) is an atypical sub total iodine content of 130 mg/ml.
- class of major depressive disorder. It could be caused It is used as an antiseptic and disinfectants, a starch
by genetic and biological factors. Sertraline, a selective indicator, to replenish iodine deficiency, to protect the
serotonin reuptake inhibitor, is effective for it's thyroid gland from the radioactive materials and
treatment. disinfectant of drinking water.
133. (c) Lugol's was often used in the treatment of gout and was
Farnesoid X receptor (F x R) is a ligand activated used as a first line treatment for hypothyroidism in
transcription factor involved in the control of bile acid adult.
(BA) synthesis and enterohepatic circulation. Fibrates 142. (a)
are on the other hand are a type of cholesterol lowering Lipophilicity can be measured in high -throughput
medication. format using microtiter partitioning, high performance
134. (d) liquid chromatography or capillary electrophoresis -
Sequestration in body tissues causes apparent volume based methods . In depth methods for lipophilicity
distribution of a drug to exceed total body fluid volume. include octanol / butter equilibrium shake flask
135. (d) partitioning and PH metric titration. The oil/water
The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic substance Act partition coefficient of organic compounds is an
1985 commonly referred to as the NDPS Act, is an Act essential parameter for the determination of their
of the parliament of India that prohibits a person the behaviors in environments. Food drug delivery and
production/manufacturing/cultivation, pros- session, biomedical systems .
sale, purchasing, transport, storage and/or consumption 143. (b)
of any narcotic drug or psychotropic substance. Petitmal seizures are also known as absence seizures.
The bill was introduced Lok Sabha on 23 August, 1985. Absence seizures (minor epilepsy, petitmal) ÷
136. (b) Prevalent in children, lasts about 1/2 min. Momentary
Most important toxicity of acyclovir antiviral drug is loss of consciousness, patient apparently freezes and
decrease in glomerular filtration rate. stares in one direction no muscular component or little
Acyclovir is a medication used to manage and treat bilateral jerking . EEG shows characterstic 3 cycles
infections caused by the herpes simplex virus (HSV). per second spike and wave pattern.

231 YCT
144. (c) • Aminoglycosides are natural or semisynthetic
Flocculation agent ÷ These are substances added to antibiotics derived from actinomycetes. This include
cause controlled aggregation of the particles of the gentamicin, amikacin, tobramycin, streptomycin and
dispersed phase in a suspension. neomycin.
Examples of such agents include surfactants electrolytes 151. (c)
and hydrophilic polymers. For drug management and treatment two type of
Sodium lauryl sulphate is a wetting agent used in the medications can be useful and prescribe such as narcotic
formulation of suspensions to wet the hydrophobic drug medications and non-narcotic drugs. The 1961
with solvent. convention establishes strict controls on the cultivation
145. (a) of opium poppy, coca bush, cannabis plant and their
Hypophosphorous acid in Ferrous iodide syrup act as products, which is in the convention, are described as
antioxidant (Reducing agents). narcotic drugs. Control is exercised over 141 narcotic
It is present in ferrous Iodide syrup where it prevents drugs mainly natural products opium and its derivatives,
the formation of both Ferric ions and molecular iodine. morphing , codeine and heroin, but also synthetic drug,
→ The concentration ranges for Hypophosphorous acid such as methadone and pethidine, as well as cannabis
and its salts when used as antioxidants are never over and coca leaf.
1% and usually between 0.5 and 1%. • Ketobemidone is a synthetic opioid agonist and
Syrup of ferrous Iodide (USP) used for treatment of narcotic analgesic.
moderate to severe iron deficiency anemia.
• Acetorphine is a potent opioid analgesic, up to 8700
146. (c)
times stronger than morphine by weight.
In paracetamol poisoning N acetyl cysteine act as a
glutathione substitute. 152. (d)
N- acetyl cysteine (NAC) is an antidote for paracetamol When a continuous fermentation process is carried out,
poisoning. it is critical that the condition of steady state is reached.
NAC restore the pool of hepatic glutathione, which is The main process parameters that can be used for the
depleted by oxidative pathway for paracetamol in which chemostat technique are the dilution rate, the specific
the electrophilic metabolite is formed. growth rate and the yield of the product of on the
147. (a) substrate.
Lead has no therapeutic use. 153. (d)
• Lead also causes long-term harm in adults, including Bitters are therapeutically used as appetizing agents.
increased risk of high blood pressure and kidney Bitter act as appetizers-
damage. Gastrin is known to be very effective in increasing the
148. (d) appetite. It acts directly on appetite centre in the
Orhtotolidine test is used to determine free combined hypothalamus & indirectly through increased stomach
chlorine in water. motality . As we have seen earlier, bitters have also
Orthotolidine Test:- To this 0.1 ml of orthotolidine been used as key elements in aperitits or for increasing
solution is added. The color formed is observed after 5 appetite during convalescence. They can be very useful
minutes. The formation of yellow color normally indeed in treating anyone for whom aorexia is posing an
indicates the presence of chlorine (either combined or obstacle to recovery . Some times lack of appetite is the
free) in the water. The more yellow the color the greater body's own signal to prevent overstuffing. But this type
is the chlorine residual. of anorexia should be distinguished from other harmful
149. (d) types that reduce the strength of an individual.
Phenol Red is the pH indicator. Agar is solidifing agent. Administering bitters then comes in quite handy and
Urea Agar is a lightly buffered medium containing urea especially in case of anorexia nervosa where bitters area
and phenol red, a pH indicator. When organisms utilize a very helpful tool to counter tha problem.
urea, ammonia is formed which turns the medium 154. (c)
alkaline. Phenoal red changes the medium color from
Dettol is used as antiseptic.
pale-yellow to pink-red in an alkaline environment.
Chloroxylenol and alpha - terpineol are the main
• The cleavage of urea liberates ammonia, which is
constituents of Dettol. Chloroxylenol is present at about
indicated by a color change of the pH indicator, phenol
approximately of the total mixture . It is commonly used
red from yellow (pH 6.8) to red to pink red (pH 8.1)
an antiseptic as well as a disinfectant . Alpha - terpineol
150. (c)
is a terpene alcohol that is present in pine oil.
Antibiotics are strong medicines that treat bacterial
infections. Antibiotics are not effective against viruses It can be used for gentle antiseptic wound cleaning
because they can't kill viruses. Orally active disinfectant and antiseptic skin cleaning.
cephalosporins such as cefixime (CFIX), cefdinir 155. (a)
(CFDN) (1)2 and cefditoren pivoxil are of key clinical Proflavine is a topical antiseptic agent used in wound
importance for the treatment of bacterial infections. dressings to prevent infections.
232 YCT
156. (d) 164. (d)
The trachoma control programme in India was launched Diphenhydrimine is an antihistamine used to relieve
in the year 1963. Trachoma is a bacterial infection of symptoms of allergy hay fever and common cold. There
the eyes caused by bacterium chlamydia-trachomatis. It is no particular evidence that this drug induces red-
causes roughening and scarring of surface of the eyelids blood cell destruction in the individuals (G6PD)
and erosion of the corneal surface. It eventually leads to deficiency.
blindness. 165. (d)
157. (d) Psychotropic substances (or drugs) are those
Full form of LSD is Lysergic acid diethylamide. It is compounds that affects how the brain works and causes
psychedelic drug and effects typically sensory changes in mood, awareness, thoughts, feelings or
perception and intensified thoughts. behavior, of psychotropic nature.
158. (c) 166. (c)
Potassium arsenite solution was used in the treatment of Haloperidol is a tranquilizer and is used to treat
Leukemia. It was known as Fowler's solution. which psychotic disorders, Butyrophenone is an organic
contain 1% potassium arsenite (KAsO2). Thomas compound with the formula C6H5C(O)C3H7.
Fowler of England proposed the solution in 1786 as Haloperidol, is the most widely used classical
substitute for patent medicine. antipsychotic drug in this class. Butyrophenone is used
159. (b) to treat schizophrenic and other psychoses.
The correct order for the basic feature of a mass 167. (c)
spectrometer is  Pioglitazone sold under the brand name Act as among
Ionization, acceleration, deflection detection. other is a anti-diabetic medication used to treat type 2
Mass Spectrometry is an analytical tool useful for diabetes. It may be used with metformin with a
measuring the mass to charge ratio (m/z) of one or more sulfonylurea or insulin use is recommended together
molecules present in a sample. with exercise and diet. It is not recommended in type 1
160. (a) diabetes is taken by mouth.
Method of inspections used to determine the absorption 168. (b)
rate constant assumes that. Sublingually used organic nitrate is isosorbide denitrate.
• Ka is at least five time greater activities. Isosorbide dinitrate is well absorbed orally, but
• Absorption is complete (i.e >95% complete) at the undergoes extensive first pass metabolism by the liver
time of peak concentration . for this reason it is typically given sublingually.
161. (c) 169. (c)
Digoxin is a type of drug called a cardiac glycoside, Toxicity associated with parasym pathomimetic agents
Their function is to slow your heart rate down and is the result of cholinergic excess. Muscarinic effects of
inprove the filling of your ventricles (two of the cholinergic toxidcrome include diarrhea, Urination,
chambers of the heart) with blood- for people with atrial miosis, bronchospasm, bradycardia, emesis,
fibrillation where the heart beats irregularly a different lacrimation, Sweating . In case of overdosage of direct
volume of blood is pumped out each time. acting agents, parenteral administration of atropine, a
162. (b) muscarinic antagonist, is used to reverse symptoms via
There are several groups of drugs used to treat crohn's competitive inhibition.
disease some of these options are used to get our 170. (a)
symptoms under control, which is known as inducing Indigotindisulphonate is used for the determination of
remission. Medical therapy, also called maintaining blood volume, Sodium salt form of this compound
remission, is used to decrease the frequency of Crohn's behaves as a synthetic blue dye and can be used as an
flares. Biologic /Biosimilar the rapies are the latest acid-base indicator and pH tests.
class of therapy for people with crohn's disease who 171. (d)
have not responded well to conventional therapy. Milnacipran is used to treat fibromyalgia (a long -
Biologics are antibodies grown in the laboratory that lasting condition that may cause pain, muscle stiffness
stop certain proteins formation in the body, causing and tenderness, tirdness). Milnacipran is in a class of
inflammation. medications called selective serotonin and nor
Examples : Adalimumab, Certolizumab Pegol, epinephrine reuptake inhibitors
Natalizumab, vedolizumab, ustekinumab etc. 172. (a)
163. (c) Duration to action is the time period for which
Anorexic Agents Aminorix, fenfluramine and pharmacological or toxic response is produced by the
Dexfenfluramine inhibit potassium current in Rat drug. It usually corresponds to the duration for which
Pulmonary vascular smooth, Muscle and Cause the plasma concentration of drug remains above the
Pulmonary vaso constriction/ Circulation. MEC level.
233 YCT
 173. (d) • Phenothiazines may also be used for other conditions
Thiopental is a barbiturate, the structure of which is that as determined by your doctor.
of 2- thiobarbituric acid substitutes at C-5 ethyl and 181. (b)
sec-pentyl groups. It has rate as an anticonvulsant, a Atropine is a racemic mixture of
sedative, an environmental contaminant a xenobiotic, a l - hyoscyamine and d - hyoscyamine. It is widely used
drug allergen and related to a 2- thiobarbituric acid. It is to dilate the pupil.
a conjugate acid of a thiopental. • Its pharmacological effects are due to binding to
174. (b) muscarinic acetylcholine receptors.
Valdecoxib was withdrawn from market due to its 182. (c)
cardiotoxicity. Cardiotoxicity is heart damage that Ibuprofen is a widely used nonsteroidal anti-
arises from certain cancer treatments or drugs it can inflammatory drug which belongs to aryl-propionic acid
develop years after cancer treatment especially in adults derivatives.
who received cancer treatment during childhood. • It acts mainly as nonselective inhibitor of both
Hepatotoxity is an acute or chronic liver injury cyclooxygenase (cox) enzymes (cox – & cox – 2).
secondary to drugs or herbal compounds. 183. (a)
175. (a) • Platelet- activating factor, also known as PAF, PAF-
Metrionidazole is NOT anthelmintic drug Metronidazole, acether or AGEPC is a potent phospholipids mediator
sold under the brand name flagyl among others is an that was first described by its ability to cause platelet
antibiotic and antiprotozoal medication. It is used either aggregation and dilation of blood vessels.
alone or with other antibiotics to treat Pelvic One of the approach to the treatment of asthma includes
inflammatory disease endocarditis bacterial Vaginosis. It antagonism of released mediators includes leukotriene
is effective for dracunculiasis, giardiasis. antagonist, antihistamine, PAF antagonist, cytokine
176. (d) (Interleukin).
Edrophonium is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to • Histamine, protease enzymes, TNFa mediators are
diagnose and evaluate myasthenia gravis. A rapid-onset, released of mediators stores in granules but not used
short-acting cholinesterase inhibitor used in cardiac directly.
arrhythmias and in the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. 184. (b)
Physostigmine is a medication most commonly used to A selective beta bocker is atenolol.
manage glaucoma. • Atenolol is a second generation beta 1 - selective
177. (d) adrenergic antagonist that reduces heart rate and blood
Rapacuronium is short acting neuromuscular blocking pressure and decreases myocardial contractility.
drugs with duration of action between 15-20 minutes. 185. (a)
Pancuronium is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular Glyceraldehyde (glycerol) is a triode monosaccharide
blocking agent. It acts by competing for cholinergic with chemical formula C3H6O3. It is the simplest of all
realphtors at the motor end-plate. common aedoses. It is a sweet, colour less crystalline
Atracurium is a neuromuscular blocking agent widely solid that is an intermediate compound in carbohydrate
used in anesthesia. metabolism.
178. (d) 186. (d)
Pralildoxime is a cholinesterase reactivator used to treat Talc is a naturally found substance or a mineral or clay
organophosphate poisoning. organophosphates Bind to mineral. It is mined from the earth and composed of
the esteratic site of acetyl cholinesterase, which causes magnesium, silicon, oxygen and hydrogen, Talc is
chemically known as hydrous magnesium silicate [Mg3
reversible inactivation of the enzyme , pralidoxime. It
Si4 O10 (OH)2]. can also be expressed as 3MgO.4SiO2.
given within 24 hours after orgaophosphate exposure,
H 2O .
pralidoxime reactivates the enzyme cholinesterase.
187. (a)
179. (d)
Benedict's reagent gives brick- red precipitate when it
Penicillin V is also known as phenoxymethyl penicillin.
undergo reaction with reducing sugars, and this
It is an antibiotic. It kills bacteria by preventing them
represents with reducing sugars, and this represents
from forming the bacterial protective covering which is
positive Benedict's test. Sucrose is a type of non-reducing
needed for them to survive. sugar and it does not react with benedicts' reagent i.e
180. (c) sucrose is unable to give positive Benedict's test.
Phenothiazines are used to treat serious mental and 188. (b)
emotional disorders, including schizophrenia and other Halothane has a blood gas partition coefficient of 2.4
psychotic disorders. therefore desflurane is five times less soluble in blood
• Chlorpromazine is used also in the treatment of than halothane much less desflurane will be absorbed by
certain types of porphyria, and with other medicines in the blood and a state between alveolar gas and the blood
the treatment of tetanus. will be achieved quicker .
234 YCT
189. (c) group common examples of naturally occurring
Ribose is a monosaccharide's, connecting 5 - carbon phosphoproteins are milk protein casein and ovo-vitellin
atoms that, in its open chain form, has an aldehyde of egg yolk.
functional group at one end. 194. (b)
Cracks in lips is deficiency symptoms of vitamin B2.
• Vitamin B include thiamine, niacin, biotin, folic acid
and riboflavin. These are water soluble vitamin that
play a role in metabolism, provide energy and help our
body to fight from diseases.
• Since vitamin B also contribute to healthy skin a
deficiency can cause a varity of skin problems such as
acne, split, dryness and rashes, low level of Zinc and
Iron also lead to split lips, especially at the corner of the
mouth.
195. (a)
Coenzyme NAD is derivative of Niacin. Nicotinamide
190. (d) adenine dinucleotide (NAD) and nicotinamide Adenine
Starting material for synthesis of sulphadiazine is 2 - dinucleotide phosphate (NADP) are derivative of the B-
amino pyrimidine. Vitamin i.e., niacin. The act as coenzymes in hundreds
of redox-reaction. The coenzyme NAD is involved in
Synthesis:- oxidation-reduction reaction critical for glycolysis, fatty
acid oxidation, the T.C.A. cycle and complex I of the
mitochondria respiratory chain and also is a key
regulator of autophagy.
196. (d)
Enzyme involved in ageing process is Telomerase.
More than 35 years ago, telomerase activity was
discovered by Elizabeth H. Blackburn and Carol W.
Greider. Today, this enzyme is promising approach to
curing some age-related disease as well as cancer, but it
took time for telomerase to be in the spotlight. An
enzyme in cells that helps keep them alive by adding
DNA to telomeres.
uses → 197. (d)
• It is used as antibacterial agent. Saccharin is 500 times sweeter than sucrose, It is an
• It is used as antibacterial in urinary tract infection. artificial sweetener, which is diluted in water saccharin
• It is used as antibacterial in burn. is used to sweeten products such as drinks, candies,
cookies and medicines.
• It is used as antibacterial veterinary in faction. 198. (a)
• IUPAC Name:- Riboflavin, and more important its derivatives, flavin
4 amino N- pyrimidine 2yl benzene sulphonamide. mononucleotide (FMN) and flavin adenine dinucleotide
191. (d) (FAD) play a crucial role in essential cellular processes
including mitochondrial energy metabolism, stress
Sodium thiosulphate is also known as sodium
responses, vitamin and cofactor biogenesis.
hyposulphite. The chemical formula of sodium 199. (b)
thiosulphate is "Na2S2O3". The most important The unit of the rate constant of first order reaction is
application of sodium thiosulphate used as an antidote Second–1 (S–1) or simply time–1.
for cyanide poisoning. 200. (a)
192. (a) Ipilimumab is approved for the treatment of metastatic
Ca(OH)2 (calcium hydroxide) is quite soluble in acid melanoma because it is a late state condition when the
and glycerol, but it is slightly soluble only in water. It melanoma has so speared and cannot be removed by
surgery.
yields a solution that act as moderate base.
Ipilimumab is a fully human monoclonal antibody
193. (c) targeting CTL A-4 Preclinical and clinical studies have
Phosphoproteins are conjugate proteins post shown its activity in a number of different cancer types,
translationally modified by the attachment of phosphate including prostate cancer.
235 YCT
 PRACTICE SET - 6
11. Where was the First experimental satellite
SECTION-A telecommunication earth station set up in 1967
General Awareness in India
(a) Ahmedabad (b) Ahmadnagar
1. Who was the first Indian citizen to receive the (c) Aurangabad (d) Allahabad
Nobel Prize in literature?
12. The axis of the earth is inclined to the plane of
(a) Swami Vivekananda
ecliptic at an angle of:
(b) Sully Prudhomme
1 3
(c) Sarojini Naidu (a) 68 degrees (b) 73 degrees
(d) Rabindranath Tagore 2 4
2. Which is the highest civilian award presented 1 1
(c) 62 degrees (d) 66 degrees
by the Government of India? 2 2
(a) Padma Vibhushan (b) Bharat Ratna 13. In 2009-10, the poverty line was defined for
(c) Ashok Chakra (d) Padmashri rural areas as consumption worth `673 per
3. Gautama (Siddhartha) is believed to have person _______ and for urban areas it was
piously meditated at which place for six years `860.
before he went to Bodhgaya for the final (a) Monthly (b) half-yearly
realisation ? (c) quarterly (d) yearly
(a) Pragbodhi (b) Kapilavastu 14. In the Fixed Exchange Rate system, the ……….
(c) Rajgir (d) Itkhori fixes the exchange rates at a particular level.
4. Who founded the city of Agra ? (a) trade union
(a) Alam Shah (b) Sikandar Lodhi (b) market
(c) Bahlol Lodhi (d) Ibrahim Lodhi (c) government
5. 'A Nation in Making 'a book written by____. (d) businessperson
(a) Vallabhbhai Patel
15. What is the product of mass and velocity
(b) Surendranath Banerjee called?
(c) M.G. Ranade
(a) force (b) momentum
(d) G.K. Gokhale
(c) pressure (d) inversion
6. As of October 2020, who is the Vice President
16. Body A whose mass is 2 kg and body B whose
of India?
mass is 3 kg are moving towards each other at
(a) Ram Nath Kovind (b) Rajnath Singh
a velocity of 4 m / s and 2 m / s respectively, at
(c) M Venkaiah Naidu (d) Hamid Ansari
the time of collision the elastic impact will be –
7. _____ of the Constitution of India lays down
(a) forward towards B
the qualification for the membership of
Parliament. (b) in the direction of A
(a) Article 84 (b) Article 81 (c) perpendicular to the direction of motion of
(c) Article 83 (d) Article 82 both bodies
8. Which of the following is NOT a source of the (d) in the opposite direction
Indian Constitution? 17. Select the correct option for precipitation
(a) Constitution of Denmark reaction.
(b) Constitution of France (a) One reactant should be a carbon compound.
(c) Constitution of Ireland (b) All products are water soluble.
(d) Constitution of U.S.A. (c) It always occurs at 80ºC.
9. As on April 2022, the Indian Constitution (d) Solid mass separates out on mixing two clear
contains ______ Articles, with 12 Schedules. solutions.
(a) 448 (b) 484 18. Which of the following factors reduces the rate
(c) 378 (d) 336 of evaporation?
10. In which year did ISRO launch the Mars (a) Increase in temperature
Orbiter Mission? (b) Humidity
(a) 2012 (b) 2013 (c) Increase in surface area
(c) 2014 (d) 2015 (d) Increase in air pressure
236 YCT
19. What is the basic difference in food intake by ueeuemee JÙeefòeâ keâes peIevÙe mes peIevÙe keâeÙe& keâjves kesâ efueS
Amoeba and Paramecium? Gkeâmee jner nw~ Fme ueeuemee keâe ner heefjCeece nw efkeâ peien–
(a) Amoeba can take up food from entire cell peien nlÙee, uetš, DehenjCe Deewj Ûeesjer–[kewâleer keâer IešveeSB
surface Paramecium only through specific
spot yeÌ{ jner nQ~ Fme jesieer ceveesJe=efòe keâes yeoueves kesâ efueS nceW nj
(b) Amoeba takes up food through specific spot mlej hej ØeÙelve keâjves neWies~
while Paramecium can take up from 2 spots 24. Gme Meyo Ùegice keâes henÛeeefveS pees Mes<e mes efYeVe nes–
(c) Both of them can take up through the entire (a) vÙeeÙe – DevÙeeÙe
cell surface
(b) GefÛele – DevegefÛele
(d) Amoeba can take up through entire cell
surface and Paramecium through 4 spots on (c) Ûeesjer – [kewâleer
its cells surface (d) melÙe – DemelÙe
20. The organisms of Phylum …… are non- motile. 25. efkeâme oewÌ[ keâes Deblenerve ceevee ieÙee nw?
(a) Porifera (b) Coelenterata (a) Deheves–hejeS keâes Yeguee osves keâer
(c) Platyhelminthes (d) Nematoda
(b) Deeies yeÌ{ves keâer
Test of Language : Hindi (c) JeemleefJekeâ ue#Ùe heeves keâer
21. ‘ef[yyee’ efkeâme Meyo keâe SkeâJeÛeve nw? (d) efkeâmeer Yeer Øekeâej Oeve pees[
Ì ves keâer
(a) ef[yyes (b) ef[efyeÙeeB 26. ‘Oeve Gheepe&ve’ ceW mebefOe keâjves hej Meyo yevesiee–
(c) ef[yyee (d) ef[efyeÙee (a) Oeveesheepe&ve (b) Oevegheepe&ve
22. efvecveefueefKele ceW mes keâle=& JeeÛÙe keâe JeekeäÙe yeleeFS – (c) Oeveeshepe&ve (d) Oevethepe&ve
(a) leguemeeroeme ves jeceÛeefjleceeveme efueKeer~ 27. ‘Deepe hetje peerJeve–oMe&ve yeoue ieÙee nw~’
(b) jece Éeje jeJeCe keâes ceeje ieÙee~ Gòeâ keâLeve keâe DeeMeÙe nw –
(c) Deepe šnueves Ûeuee peeS~ (a) Deepe meceÙe yeoueves mes efoveÛeÙee& yeoue ieF& nw~
(d) Úe$eeW Éeje Hegâšyeeue Kesueer peeleer nw~ (b) Deepe peerJeve ceW heefjJele&ve Dee ieÙee nw~
23. ‘ueÌ[kesâ ves hegmlekeâ heÌ{er nw~’ JeekeäÙe keâe keâeue nw– (c) Deepe peerJeve kesâ Øeefle Âef°keâesCe ceW yeoueeJe Dee ieÙee nw~
(a) meeceevÙe Jele&ceeve (b) hetCe& Jele&ceeve (d) Deepe mechetCe& peerJeve yeoue ieÙee nw~
(c) mebefoiOe Jele&ceeve (d) mebYeeJÙe Jele&ceeve 28. ØeeÛeervekeâeue ceW peerJeve keâe JeemleefJekeâ ue#Ùe keäÙee ceevee
ieÙee Lee?
nceejs osMe ceW Skeâ Ssmee Yeer Ùegie Lee peye veweflekeâ Deewj (a) veweflekeâ Deewj DeeOÙeeeflcekeâ efJekeâeme
DeeOÙeeeflcekeâ efJekeâeme ner peerJeve keâe JeemleefJekeâ ue#Ùe ceevee (b) DeeOÙeeeflcekeâ Deewj meeceeefpekeâ efJekeâeme
peelee Lee~ Deefnbmee keâer YeeJevee meJeexheefj Leer~ Deepe hetje peerJeve–
(c) DeeefLe&keâ Deewj meeceeefpekeâ Øeieefle
oMe&ve ner yeoue ieÙee nw meJe&$e hewmes keâer neÙe–neÙe leLee Oeve keâe
(d) peerJeve–oMe&ve ceW heefjJele&ve
Gheepe&ve ner cegKÙe OÙesÙe nes ieÙee nw, Yeues ner Oeve–Gheepe&ve kesâ
29. efvecveebefkeâle MeyoeW ceW mes Skeâ Meyo ‘ceelee’ keâe
lejerkesâ ieuele ner keäÙeeW ve neW~ Fve meyekeâe Demej ceveg<Ùe kesâ
heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer veneR nw, Jen nw–
Øeefleefove kesâ peerJeve hej heÌ[ jne nw~ meceepe keâe JeeleeJejCe otef<ele
(a) Decye (b) Decyeg
nes ieÙee nw~ Fve meyekesâ keâejCe ceeveefmekeâ Deewj Meejerefjkeâ leveeJe–
(c) Decyee (d) peveveer
efKebÛeeJe Deewj JÙeeefOeÙeeB hewoe nes jner nQ~
30. keâewve JeCe& Dees‰dÙe veneR nw?
Deepe Deeoceer Oeve kesâ heerÚs DebOeeOegbOe oewÌ[ jne nw~ heeBÛe
(a) ce (b) ye
®heÙes efceueves hej ome, ome efceueves hej meew Deewj meew efceueves hej
(c) T (d) Dee
npeej keâer ueeuemee efueS Jen Fme DebOeer oewÌ[ ceW Meeefceue nw~ Fme
oewÌ[ keâe keâesF& Deble veneR~ Oeve keâer Fme oewÌ[ ceW meYeer 31. meeceeefmekeâ heoeW/hegve®òeâ/Ùegice MeyoeW kesâ ceOÙe ØeÙeesie
heeefjJeeefjkeâ Deewj ceeveJeerÙe mebyebOe heerÚs Útš ieS~ JÙeefòeâ melÙe- efkeâÙee peelee nw-
DemelÙe, GefÛele-DevegefÛele, vÙeeÙe–DevÙeeÙe Deewj Deheves–hejeS (a) Deuhe efJejece (b) DeOe& efJejece
kesâ Yeso–YeeJe keâes Yetue ieÙee~ Gmekesâ heeme Deheveer helveer Deewj (c) Ùeespekeâ efÛendve (d) GæjCe efÛendve
mebleeve kesâ efueS Yeer meceÙe veneR~ Oeve kesâ efueS heg$e keâe efhelee kesâ 32. efvecveefueefKele ceW mes efkeâme Meyo keâer Jele&veer DeMegæ nw?
meeLe, yesšer keâe ceeB kesâ meeLe Deewj heefle keâe helveer kesâ meeLe (a) pÙeeslmevee (b) ëe=bieej
PeieÌ[e nes jne nw~ YeeF&–YeeF& kesâ Ketve keâe hÙeemee nw~ Oeve keâer (c) GppJeue (d) DeOÙeelce

237 YCT
33. ‘ieeBOeer keâes je<š^efhelee keâne ieÙee nw~’ JeekeäÙe ceW meb%ee efkeâme (a) month (b) century
mes efkeâme ™he ceW heefjJeefle&le nes jner nw? (c) decade (d) fortnight
44. Select the most appropriate meaning of the
(a) peeefleJeeÛekeâ mes JÙeefòeâJeeÛekeâ
given idiom.
(b) JÙeefòeâJeeÛekeâ mes peeefleJeeÛekeâ
Feel at sea
(c) JÙeefòeâJeeÛekeâ mes YeeJeJeeÛekeâ (a) Feel angry
(d) YeeJeJeeÛekeâ mes peeefleJeeÛekeâ (b) Feel comfortable while travelling by water
34. ‘keâesF& Dee jne nw’- JeekeäÙe ceW ‘keâesF&’ efkeâme Øekeâej keâe (c) Feel seasick
meJe&veece nw? (d) Feel lost or confused
(a) DeefveMÛeÙeJeeÛekeâ (b) efveMÛeÙeJeeÛekeâ 45. Identify the segment in the sentence which
contains a grammatical error.
(c) mebyebOeJeeÛekeâ (d) efvepeJeeÛekeâ
I want you to complete this work by two days.
35. efJeMes<eCe efpeme meb%ee keâer efJeMes<elee yeleelee nw, Gmes keäÙee (a) this work (b) I want you
keânles nQ? (c) by two days (d) to complete
(a) mebKÙeeJeeÛekeâ efJeMes<eCe (b) iegCeJeeÛekeâ efJeMes<eCe 46. In the following, some part of the sentence may
(c) efJeMes<Ùe (d) meeJe&veeefcekeâ efJeMes<eCe have errors. Find out which part of the
36. keâewve-mee mebÙegòeâ ef›eâÙee keâe Yeso veneR nw? sentence has an error and select the
appropriate option. If a sentence is free from
(a) DeJekeâeMeyeesOekeâ (b) efve§eÙeyeesOekeâ
error, select No Error.
(c) efvelÙeleeyeesOekeâ (d) veeceyeesOekeâ
The postman travelled by the cycle, often
37. ‘Gmeves keâšesje Yej otOe efheÙee~’– JeekeäÙe ceW DeJÙeÙe Meyo wading through (1)/swamps of passed through
keâewve mee nw? jungles (2)/ in order to reach the villages (3)/
(a) keâšesje (b) otOe No error (4)
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) Yej (d) efheÙee
(c) 3 (d) 4
38. ceeB keâe ueÌ[keâe keâneB ieÙee? GösMÙe keâe efJemleej Yeso 47. Select the most appropriate word to fill in the
efueefKeS~ blank in the given sentence.
(a) efJeMes<eCe (b) meeJe&veeefcekeâ efJeMes<eCe Order was quickly ––––– in the area after the
(c) mebyebOe keâejkeâ (d) JeekeäÙeebMe scuffle between the two groups.
39. ‘mes’, kesâ Éeje’ efkeâme keâejkeâ keâe hejmeie& nw? (a) recovered (b) rebuilt
(c) repaired (d) restored
(a) Deheeoeve (b) keâjCe
48. Select the most appropriate word to fill in the
(c) mecØeoeve (d) DeefOekeâjCe blank in the given sentence.
40. efJeosMepe Meyo nw : When he came back home safe that night,
(a) ÛeMcee (b) petlee everybody ____ a sigh of relief.
(c) peerYe (d) JeeÙeg (a) Inhaled (b) exhaled
(c) heaved (d) raised
Test of Language : English 49. Select the most appropriate word to fill in the
blank in the given sentence.
41. Select the most appropriate synonym of the
given word. Our professor speaks English with a _____
Oriya accent.
Forbid
(a) Close (b) Prohibit (a) widespread (b) vague
(c) Adieu (d) Encourage (c) pronounced (d) remarkable
42. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the 50. Identify the segment which contains the
given word. grammatical error
FRIGID Pleasure cannot derive from giving pain to
(a) Chilly (b) Warm innocent people.
(c) Frosty (d) Salty (a) pleasure cannot derive
43. Select the most appropriate one word (b) pain to
substitution for the given words. (c) innocent people
a period of two weeks (d) from giving

238 YCT
51. Select the most appropriate option to substitute Comprehension:
the underlined segment in the given sentence. If Read the passage and answer the questions
no substitution is required, select 'No given below it
substitution'. Our civilization is more secure because it is much
What were the examples that the writer gave to more widely spread. Most of the previous
proved his point ? civilizations came to an end because uncivilized
peoples broke in and destroyed them. This was the
(a) No substitution
fate of Babylon, Assyria, India, China, Greece and
(b) given to prove his point Rome. Previous civilizations were specialized and
(c) gave to prove his point limited like an oasis in a surrounding desert of
(d) give for proving his point savagery. Eventually, the desert closed in and the
52. Select the alternative that will improve the oasis was no more. But to-day, it is the oasis
underlined part of the sentence. In case there is which is spreading over the desert. Practically no
no improvement select "No improvement". part of the world is untouched by it.
Success and failure in life depends on how well For the first time, the world has now a chance of
becoming a single whole, a unity. To-day, the
a person uses his time.
food we eat comes from all over the world. The
(a) depending upon
things in a grocer’s shop are from the ends of the
(b) dependent on earth. There are oranges from Brazil, grapes from
(c) No improvement Africa, rice from India, tea from china, sugar from
(d) depend on Columbia etc.
53. Select the most appropriate option to substitute To-day the world is beginning to look more like
the underlined segment in the given sentence. one enormous box. Therefore, there is little danger
If no substitution is required, select No upon our civilization from outside. The danger
comes only from within; it is a danger from
improvement.
among us.
I am think that tomorrow I will take leave and
To-day, the sharing-out of money – the sharing-
stay at home. out of food, clothing, houses and books, is still
(a) No improvement very unfair. In England alone, in sharing out of the
(b) I was thinking that the next day I will be National Income, we find that one half is divided
taking among every sixteen people and the seventeenth
(c) I think that tomorrow I will take person gets the other half. So while
(d) I have thought that tomorrow I am taking some few people live in luxury, many have not
even enough to eat and drink and wear. Again, in
54. Select the most appropriate option to substitute
England to-day, thousands of people live in
the underlined segment in the given sentence. If
dreadful surroundings. There are many families of
no substitution is required, select No five or six persons who live in a single room; in
improvement. this same room they are born and in this
He came late, wasn't it? same room they die, because, they are too poor to
(a) didn't he afford another room. Until everyone gets his
(b) did he proper share of necessary and delightful things,
(c) No improvement our civilization will not be perfect.
(d) isn't it 56. This’’ in the third sentence refers to:
55. Select the most appropriate option to substitute (a) Spread of civilizations
the underlined segment in the given sentence. If (b) Destruction of civilizations
there is no need to substitute it, select No (c) Increase in security
improvement. (d) Rise of education
Durga is now the Executive Vice-President of 57. What is one of the greatest disadvantages of the
the company with a responsibility to marketing present times?
for the entire northern zone. (a) We are at risk of attack from outsiders
(b) We have an internal threat from our own
(a) with the responsibility of marketing
kind.
(b) No improvement
(c) We need to bring things from other parts of
(c) with a responsibility by marketing the world.
(d) with responsibility from marketing (d) We cannot grow our own produce
239 YCT
58. Which important feature of modern life (a) 62% (b) 46.9%
troubles the writer most? (c) 49.6% (d) 50.4%
(a) There is inequality in the distribution of 67. After giving 20% discount on marked price,
things. Kishore earns a profit of 12%. How much is
(b) People do not care for their fellow beings. the marked price more than the cost price?
(c) Civilizations have become dependent. (a) 40% (b) 32%
(d) Older civilizations do not exist anymore. (c) 25% (d) 8%
59. What according to the writer was the desert 68. The interest earned on ` 3680 at 4% simple
that surrounded the oasis? interest per annum for 2.5 years will be.
(a) The poorer people (b) Some rich countries (a) `368 (b) `92
(c) Civilization (d) Savagery (c) `184 (d) `274
60. Which of the following statements is NOT true 69. A sum of `5,800 is invested at 6% per annum
according to the facts given in the passage. simple interest. How much will the sum become
(a) Goods are transported from far- off places. after 4 years ?
(b) Some ancient civilizations have been (a) 8,192 (b) 7,192
destroyed. (c) 6,192 (d) 9,192
(c) Most people share their money equally. 70. A sum of ` 2000 at 40% per annum
(d) Some people do not have adequate space to compounded annually. What is the interest for
live. the third year at compound interest.
Arithmetical and Numerical ability (a) `1500 (b) `1600
(c) `1568 (d) `1750
61. In an examination, 80% students passed in 71. If the interest is compounded half yearly basis,
Physics, 70% students passed in Chemistry find the compound interest on the sum of
while 15% students failed in both the subjects. `18500 at 40% per annum for 18 months.
If 325 students passed in both the subjects, find (a) ` 13468 (b) ` 16280
the total number of students who appeared in
(c) ` 16000 (d) ` 15469
the examination.
72. A certain sum of money earns an interest of
(a) 450 (b) 550
`2000 at a rate of 10% per annum simple
(c) 200 (d) 500
interest in 2 years. If the compound interest
62. 40% of the first number is 12 and 50% of the
accrues annually on this amount, what will be
second number is 24. The ratio of the first
the effective rate of interest?
number to the second number is:
(a) 10.25 (b) 10.50
(a) 8 : 5 (b) 4 : 5
(c) 10.75 (d) 10.15
(c) 5 : 8 (d) 1 : 2
73. A can do a piece of work in 15 day and B can
63. If 40% of (a – b) is equal to 20% of (a + b),
do the same work in 20 days. The time taken by
then b is what percentage of a?
them working together to do the same work is:
(a) 25% (b) 35%
(c) 100/3% (d) 28% 4 4
(a) 7 days (b) 10 days
64. If 25% of the first number is three times of 7 7
50% of the second number then what will be 4 4
(c) 8 days (d) 9 days
the ratio of the first number and the second 7 7
number? 74. P and Q can reap a field in 9 days, Q and R can
(a) 3 : 1 (b) 6 : 1 reap it in 12 days and P and R in 18 days. Find
(c) 2 : 3 (d) 1 : 6 how many days will they take to reap the field
65. Two numbers are in the ratio 3 : 2. If 8 is if all three work together?
subtracted from the first number and 6 is (a) 39 days (b) 4 days
subtracted from the second number, the ratio (c) 8 days (d) 19.5 days
becomes 5 : 4. The numbers are: 75. Kamal can complete a work in 14 days. Vimal
(a) 24, 16 (b) 3, 2 is 40% more efficient than Kamal. The number
(c) 2, 3 (d) 16, 24 of days Vimal will take to complete the same
66. Find the single percentage discount equivalent piece of work is:
to three successive discounts of 30%. 20% and (a) 14 days (b) 12 days
10% (c) 10 days (d) 15 days
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76. Expense on various items of a company are (a) 10 (b) 5
shown below (in lakhs). (c) 15 (d) 25
Year Salary Bonus Tax Interest 84. Which option will replace the question mark in
on debt following series.
year 1 200 10 70 20
year 2 200 10 70 22
year 3 450 10 120 20
What is the percentage of the total expenditure
of year 1 of the total expenditure of year 3.
(a) 100³ (b) 5³
(c) 0.5³ (d) 50³
77. The average test score of 18 boys in a class was
15, while the over all average of all the 25
students of the class was 16.12. What was the
average score of the girls? (a) A (b) B
(a) 18.5 (b) 19.5 (c) D (d) C
(c) 19 (d) 18.8 85. In a certain code language, 'BOY is written as
'ACNPXZ' and 'TOY' is written as 'SUNPXZ'.
78. The average of 45 results is 23. The average of
How will 'JOY' be written in the code
first 22 is 18 and last 22 is 21. What is the value
language?
of 23rd result?
(a) IKXZNP (b) IKNPXZ
(a) 172 (b) 190
(c) XZNPIK (d) ZXPNKI
(c) 177 (d) 187
86. Name of four birds are given below three of
79. Which of the following is terminating decimal?
which related in some way and one is different
1 1 Select the different.
(a) (b)
32 24 (a) Vulture (b) Penguin
1 1 (c) Emu (d) Ostrich
(c) (d)
96 48 87. Find the odd one out.
80. The difference between the fractions 5 minutes
of an hour and 20 seconds of an hour is:
16 28
(a) (b)
180 270
0.7 7 (a) C (b) A
(c) (d)
9 12 (c) B (d) D

General Intelligence & Reasoning Ability 88. Which of the following numbers will replace
the question mark (?) in the given series?
81. What is related to 'Furniture' in the same way 40, 66, 100, 142, ?
as 'Building' is related to 'Mason'? (a) 198 (b) 194
(a) Carpenter (b) Wood (c) 190 (d) 192
(c) Designer (d) Contractor 89. Select the appropriate figure for blank space
82. Select the option that is related to the fifth from given figures below.
letter-cluster in the same way as the second
letter-cluster is related to the first letter-cluster
and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the
third letter-cluster.
FAKE : GZLD :: CALL :DZMK :: PICK : ? Answer figure:
(a) QHBL (b) QHBJ
(c) QHDL (d) QHDJ
83. Choose the Correct answer from the given
options below based on the given numerical A B C D
similarity. (a) C (b) D
35 : 7 :: 125 : ? (c) B (d) A
241 YCT
90. Assuming that the numbers in each of the (c) Both conclusion are follow
following figures follow a similar pattern, select (d) No conclusion follows
the option that can replace the question mark 97. Statement :
(?) in figure C. All countries are districts.
Some village are not districts.
Conclusion :
1. All countries are village.
2. Some countries are village.
3. Some villages are not countries.
4. Some countries are not villages.
(a) 210 (b) 321
(a) No Conclusion follows
(c) 184 (d) 241
(b) Only 2 and 4 follows
91. Pointing towards a man, Vivek said, “His only
(c) Only 2 and 3 follows
brother is the father of my daughter’s father”.
(d) All the conclusion follows
From among the given options, how could the
man be related to Vivek? 98.
Statement:
(a) Father-in-law (b) Brother Sulphuric acid is acidic in nature.
(c) Uncle (d) Father Conclusions:
92. X introduces his friends as the sons of his only I. The pH value of Sulphuric acid is 7.5
son's wife. How is X related to Y? II. Sulphuric acid contains some phosphorus.
(a) Father (b) Son (a) Only conclusion II follows.
(c) Grandson (d) Grandfather (b) Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
93. If '+' means '–', '–' means '×', '×' means '÷' and (c) Both conclusions I and II follows.
'÷' means '+'. What will come in place of the (d) Only conclusion I follows.
question mark (?) in the following equation? 99.
Which of the options bears the closest
resemblance to the following figure?
44 ÷ 120 × 5 – 2 + 10 × 2 = ?
Question figure
(a) 84 (b) 85
(c) 87 (d) 86
94. Select the combination of mathematical signs
that when sequentially placed in the blanks of
the given equation will balance the equation. Answer figures
12_3_12_24
(a) ÷ + = (b) × = –
(c) × – = (d) × = ÷
95. Select the Venn diagram that best represents
the relationship between the given set of (a) A (b) D
classes. (c) C (d) B
Gold, Metal, Silver 100. How many triangles are there in the given
figure?

(a) 8 (b) 12
(c) 10 (d) 6
96. Statements: SECTION-B
• All mats are coir.
• All coir are jute. Post Specific Subject- Related Questions
Conclusions: 101. Laparoscopy is connected with
1. All jute are coir. (a) Radars
2. All mats are jute (b) Science of tissues
(a) Only conclusion 1 follows (c) Study of laser beams
(b) Only conclusion 2 follows (d) Gynaecological operation

242 YCT
102. Which amino acid has hydroxyl group in its 115. The mechanism of action of Ethacrynic acid as
side chain? loop diuretic is due to
(a) Glyeine (b) Serine (a) The presence of COOH group
(c) Valine (d) Leucine (b) The presence of aromatic ring
(e) Not attempted (c) The presence of α1β– unsaturated ketone
103. Heavy water is forming covalent bond with sulfhydryl groups
(a) Tritium oxide (b) Deuterium oxide (d) None of the above
(c) Rain water (d) Water at –4°C 116. GMP stands for ______
104. The basic for the relationship between the (a) Good manufacturing process
voltage generated by an electrochemical cell (b) Good manufacturing practice
and the relevant concentration at each
(c) Good marketing process
electrode is explained by
(d) General manufacturing practice
(a) Nitrogen Rule (b) Gibbs Equation
(c) Nernst Equation (d) Faradays Law 117. Aztreonam is a
(a) Monobactum
105. IUPAC name for the structure CH3 - CH2 -
CH2 - CH2 is (b) Carbapenem
(a) Pentyl (b) Propyl (c) Betalactamase inhibitor
(c) Butyl (d) Ethyl (d) None of the above
106. Which of the following is not a strongly 118. Saccharin is sweeter than sucrose by
activating ortho paradirectors? (a) 50 times (b) 100 times
(a) – NHR (b) – OH (c) 500 times (d) 1000 times
(c) – OCH3 (d) – NH2 119. Match the following drugs with alteration they
107. Which among the following is an amide produces in structural- functional of kidney
containing amino acid? (1) Aminoglycoside Antibiotics
(a) Cysteine (b) Serine (a) Glomerular abnormality
(c) Leucine (d) Asparagine (2) ACE inhibitors
108. The percentage of total calories obtained from (b) Tubular epithelial cell damage
carbohydrates should be between (3) Methotrexate
(a) 20 to 30% (b) 10 to 20% (c) Hemodynamic Medicated Kidney injury
(c) 50 to 60% (d) 5 to 10% (4) NSAIDs
109. ______ is also known as Pyridoxine. (d) Obstructure nephropathy
(a) Vitamin B3 (b) Vitamin B6 (a) 1 -B; 2-C;3-D; 4-A (b) 1 -A; 2-B;3-C; 4-D
(c) Vitamin B2 (d) Vitamin B1 (c) 1 -C; 2-D;3-A; 4-B (d) 1 -D; 2-A;3-B; 4-C
110. Heterocyclic compounds are 120. Naphazoline
(a) Open chain compounds (a) Is used for relief of nasal congestion
(b) Cyclic compounds (b) Exhibits peripheral beta-adrenoceptor
(c) Non cyclic compounds stimulant
(d) Alicyclic compounds (c) Is a pyrazolinederivative
111. Ethyltrimethyl methane is also known as (d) Chemically, is 1H Imidazole, 3,4 -dihydro-2-
(a) N-hexane (b) N-butane (3-naphthylmentyl) monoydrochloride
(c) Isopentane (d) Neohexane 121. All the dopaminergic agonists having affinity
112. What are the homologous groups on identical for D2 receptors are clinically used in following
sides called? conditions except
(a) Cis isomer (b) Dextro isomer (a) Obsessive -compulsive disorder
(c) Optical isomer (d) Trans isomer (b) Hyperperolactinemia
113. Long term use of which drug results in Vitamin (c) Acromegaly
b12 deficienacy: (d) Parkinsonism
(a) Metformin (b) Vildagliptin 122. A patient receiving warfarin develops
(c) Exetanide (d) Repaglinide rheumatoid arthritis. Which one following
114. Which of the following factors does not affect drugs would be contraindicated
enzyme activity? (a) Ibuprofen (b) Tolmetin
(a) Water activity (c) Aurothioglucose (d) Aspirin
(b) Product nature 123. Condensation product of Ethyl isopentyl ester
(c) Enzyme concentration of diethyl malonic acid with urea and sodium
(d) Substrate concentration ethoxide yields
243 YCT
 (a) Amylobarbitone (b) Phenobarbitone (c) R and S increase systolic blood pressure
(c) Pentobarbitone (d) Quinobarbitone (d) P and S increase systolic and diastolic blood
124. Amantadine is helpful is Parkinson's disease pressure
because 132. Increased serum levels of which one of the
(a) It liberates dopamine from nerve endings followings may be associated with decreased
(b) It decrease cholinergic activity risk of atherosclerosis
(c) It is metabolized into dopamine (a) VLDL (b) LDL
(d) It increase adrenergic activites (c) HDL (d) Total Cholesterol
125. An intermediate 3- chloroaniline 4,6- 133. Which one of the following statements is
disulphonamide on heating with formic acid FALSE for fluoroquinolones
yields a compound (a) These are highly effective by oral and
(a) 6 chloro 2H -1,2,4 benzothiadiazine 7 parental routes
sulphonamide (b) These are relatively more susceptible to
(b) 3 chloro-2H 1,2,4- benzothiadiazine 7 development of resistance
sulphonamide (c) These are effective against those bacteria that
(c) Used in treatment of urinary tract infections are resistant to β -lactam and aminoglycoside
(d) Used as antibacterial antibiotics
126. Methyl [5(propylthio) -1 H-benzoimidazol-2yl] (d) These are bactericidal with broad spectrum of
carbamate is Geneva name of which of the activity
following drug 134. Misoprostol has a cytoprotective action on
(a) Mebendazole (b) Albendazole gastrointestinal mucosa because of one of the
following actions. Identify that
(c) Thibendazole (d) Triclabendazole
(a) In enhances secretion of mucus and
127. In the following drug find out the Potassium
bicarbonate ion
Sparin Diuretics
(b) It neutralizes hydrochloric acid in stomach
(a) Milrinone (b) Thiazide
(c) It antagonizes nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory
(c) Spironolactone (d) Amilioride
drugs
128. Identify the diuretic agent which is having a (d) It is bactericial to H.pylori
potent and rapid effect
135. Atropine biosynthesis involves a pair of
(a) Furosemide (b) Spironolactone precursors. Identify the correct pair.
(c) Dichiothiazide (d) Indapamide (a) Ornithine and Phenylalanine
129. Which one of the following is a tyrosine kinase (b) Tyrosine and Tryptophan
inhibitor indicated for a variety of (c) Tryptophan and Dopamine
malignancies
(d) Tyrosine and Dopanine
(a) Imatinib (b) Paclitaxel
136. Given below are four statements in context of
(c) Ezetimibe (d) Mitomycin Hecogenin:
130. Followings are some opioid analgestics: [P]: It is a saponin
[P] : Morphine [Q] : Pethidine [Q]: It is useful for the semi-synthesis of
[R] : Pentazocine [S] : Fentanyl steroidal drugs
Choose the correct order of respiratory [R]: It is not a glycoalkaloid
depressant propensity of these agents. [S]: It is obtained from Dioscoreal tubers
(a) P>Q>R>S (b) Q>P>R>S Choose the correct combination of statements.
(c) R>P>Q>S (d) S>P>Q>R (a) P, Q and R are correct while S is incorrect
131. All of the given four drugs are (b) P, Q and S are correct while R is incorrect
sympathomimetics: (c) Q, R are correct while P, S are incorrect
[P] : Adrenaline (d) All are correct statements
[Q] : Isoprenaline 137. Naringin, obtained from orange peel, can be
[R] : Phenylephrine named as one of the followings. Identify the
[S] : Noradrenaline correct name.
Choose the correct Statement related to their (a) 5, 4'-Dihydroxy - 7 - rhamnoglucoside of
effects on blood pressure. flavanone
(a) P and Q increase systolic and diastolic blood (b) 5, 4'-Dihydroxy - 7 - glucoside of flavanone
pressure (c) 5,3',4'-Trihydroxy-7-rhamnoglucoside of
(b) Q and R increase systolic and diastolic blood flavone
pressure (d) 5, 3',4'-Trihydroxy-7-glucoside of flavones

244 YCT
138. Study the following statements: 149. What is the primary mechanism of action of
[P]: Lutein and zeaxanthin are flavonoids local anesthetics?
[Q]: Lutein and zeaxanthin are xanthophylls (a) Activation of ligand-gated potasium channels
[R]: Lutein and zeaxanthine are required to (b) Blockade of voltage-gated sodium channels
control age-related macular degeneration (c) Stimulation of voltage-gated N-type calcium
[S]: Lutein is a flavonoid while zeaxanthin is its channels
glycoside (d) Blockade of GABA-gated chloride channels
Choose the correct answer. 150. Which one of the following classes of drugs
(a) P is correct while Q, R and S are incorrect causes side effects like dryness of mouth,
(b) Q and R are correct while P and S are tachycardia, urinary retention, constipation,
incorrect blurring of vision, precipitation of glaucoma,
(c) Statement P is the only correct statement (a) Anti-adrenergic
(d) Statement S is the only correct statement (b) Anti-cholinergic
139. Which of the following is an inhibitor of DNA (c) Anti-serotonergic
replication? (d) Anti-dompaminergic
(a) Actinomycin (b) Rifampicin 151. Which one of the following drugs has positive
(c) Mitomycin (d) 6 mercaptopurine inotropic and negative chronotropic action?
140. Which of the following drug can cause (a) Dopamine (b) Epinephirne
hypoglycaemia unawareness? (c) Digoxin (d) Isoprenaline
(a) Pentamidine (b) Ranolazine 152. Which of the following is not used in the
(c) Nadolol (d) Thiazides treatment of pulmonary hypertension?
141. Which of the following drug can cause (a) Calcium channel blockers
pancreatitis? (b) Alpha blockers
(a) Saxagliptin (b) Dapagliflozin (c) Prostacyclin
(c) Metformin (d) Pioglitazone (d) Endothelin receptor antagonists
142. The average salinity of seawater is 153. An antiarrythmic agent which is also used a
(a) 3% (b) 3.5% calcium channel blocker is
(c) 2.5% (d) 2% (a) Verapamil (b) Quinidine
143. A middleman is the person who provides a link (c) Procainamide (d) Propranolol
between the: 154. Which drug has a property of rheological
(a) Customer and owner action rather than vasodilation to responsible
(b) Manufacturer and customer for improving passage of blood through micro
(c) Manufacturer and owner circulation?
(d) Workers and owner (a) Cilostazol (b) Xanthinol
144. Which of the following drugs has a high hepatic (c) Cyclandelate (d) Pentoxifylline
extraction ratio ? 155. A Non anticholinergic smooth muscle
(a) Morphine (b) Warfarin antispasmodic acts by inhibiting PDE-4
(c) Phenytoin (d) Diazepam receptor is.
145. Which of the following does not cause acute (a) Darifenacin (b) Flavoxate
insulin resistance ? (c) Solifenacin (d) Drotaverine
(a) Infection (b) Trauma 156. Choose the selective Noradrenaline (NA)
(c) Surgery (d) Advanced age reuptake inhibitor approved for' the only In
146. V1a selective antagonist is attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
(a) Relcovaptan (b) Tolvaptan (ADHD)
(c) Conivaptan (d) Nelivaptan (a) Bupropion " (b) Amineptine
147. Tavaborole is indicated in the treatment of (c) Trazodone (d) Atomoxetine
(a) Onychomycosis (b) Dermatophytosis 157. Ondansetron acts on
(c) Candidiasis (d) None of the above (a) 5HT3 receptor (b) H1 receptor
148. Which of the following is not Histone (c) D2 receptor (d) NK1 receptor
Deacetylase inhibitor ? 158. The antiulcer drug which has a thiazole ring is
(a) Omacetaxine (b) Panobinostat (a) Famotidine (b) Ranitidine
(c) Romidepsin (d) Vorinostat (c) Cimetidine (d) Dexrabeprazole

245 YCT
159. When Ke is constant and Ka is larger:- 167. One of these is criteria for purity of Psyllium:
(a) Cmax is more and tmax is longer (a) Adsorbent power
(b) Cmax is lesser and tmax is longer (b) Swelling factor
(c) Cmax is lesser and tmax is short (c) Colour development
(d) Cmax more and tmax is short (d) None of the above
160. An athlete presents with abdominal pain, 168. Number of asymmetric carbon atoms in
raised serum bilirubin (1.8 mg/dl) and altered glucose is
lipid profile. He gives history of abusing drugs (a) 1 (b) 2
to enhance performance. Which of the (c) 3 (d) 4
following drug is most likely responsible ? 169. What is C in the full form of CUDD system ?
(a) Stanozolol (b) Erythropoietin (a) Centralized (b) Cortical
(c) Flutamide (d) Ostarine (c) Cosmetics (d) Cardiac
161. Which of the following is always deemed to be 170. Which of the following drugs is NOT effective
'new drug' irrespective of the period since it against Pseudomonas ?
was first approved by central licensing (a) Uridopenicillin
authority? (b) Linezolid
(a) Fixed dose combination (c) Aminoglycosides
(b) Monoclonal antibody (d) Aztreonam
171. Which one of the following cannot be used to
(c) Orphan drug
treat cytotoxic drug induced vomiting ?
(d) Phytopharmaceutical drug
(a) Cyclizine
162. Penicillin ring system is derived from two of
(b) Ondansetron
the following amino acids :
(c) Dexamethasone
[P] : Alanine and methionine
(d) Metoclopramide
[Q] : Cysteine and valine 172. The diuretic that is natriuretic, chloruretic,
[R] : Glycine and cysteine saluretic and antikaliuretic, is
[S] : Methionine and leucine (a) Spiranolactone
Choose the correct pair. (b) Furosemide
(a) P (b) Q (c) Ethacrynic acid
(c) R (d) S (d) Acetazolamide
163. Which of the following drugs can cause 173. Mannitol is
lipodystrophy syndrome ? (a) Loop diuretic
(a) Didanosine (b) Stavudine (b) Potassium sparing diuretic
(c) Emtricitabine (d) Zalcitabine (c) Carbonic anhydrase diuretic
164. Which one of the following is a prokinetic agent ? (d) Osmotic diuretic
(a) Domperidone (b) Sucralfate 174. Identification test for Acetate is performed by
(c) Cyclizine (d) Hyoscine heating sample solution with equal quantity of
165. Tetracyclines are not administered with milk oxalic acid. Presence of acetate is detected by
because: (a) Red colour solution
(a) Toxicity is increase (b) White precipitate
(c) Brown fumes
(b) Activity is destroyed
(d) Characteristic odour
(c) Insoluble chelates is formed
175. MRNA is synthesised in the mucleus as:
(d) All of the above
(a) snoRNA (b) hnRNA
166. Which one of the following drugs is prescribed
(c) scRNA (d) tmRNA
for the treatment of Philadelphichromosome
176. What is fructose?
positive patients with chronic myeloid
(a) Polysaccharide (b) Monosaccharide
Leukemia?
(c) Polypeptide (d) Disaccharide
(a) Pentostatin
177. The extent of reproducibility of the result is
(b) Methotrexate
.............
(c) Imatinib (a) Accuracy (b) Range
(d) L-Asparaginase (c) Linearity (d) Precision
246 YCT
178. Simplest form of aldose is _____ 190. the effect of desmopressin on coagulation
(a) Glucose (b) Erythrose factors action is mediated through,
(c) Glyceraldehyde (d) Ribose (a) V1 receptors
179. Coenzyme NAD is derivative of (b) V2 receptors
(a) Niacin (b) Riboflavin (c) Volume receptors
(c) Thiamine (d) Adenine (d) Osmoreceptors
180. Alkalotic agents are otherwise known as : 191. Drug of choice for cytomegalovirus infection is,
(a) Laxatives (a) Acyclovir (b) Penciclovir
(b) Saline cathartics (c) Ganciclovir (d) Cidofovir
(c) Systemic antacids 192. Sulphonamide with minimum risk of
(d) Nonsystemic antacids crystalluria is,
181. Which of the following is an ayurvedic (a) Sulphamethoxazole (b) Sulphadiazine
preparation containing self-generated alcohol? (c) Sulfisoxazole (d) Sulfadoxine
(a) Ghrita (b) Lehya 193. Which one of the following drug is effective in
aspirin induced asthma ?
(c) Asava (d) Gutika
(a) Montelukast
182. In monophasic liquids, the salty taste is
(b) Theophylline
brought about by the use of :
(c) Sodium chromoglycate
(a) Anise (b) Maple
(d) Omalizumab
(c) Walnut (d) Berry
194. During the formulation of tablet the purpose of
183. The approved indication of Lurasidone
adding magnesium stearate as
(a) Depression (b) Mania (a) Lubricant (b) Binding agent
(c) Parkinsonism (d) Schizophrenia (c) Adsorbing agent
184. Diloxanide furoate is the drug used as (d) Disintegrating agent
(a) Antiepileptic (b) Antiviral 195. Which one of the following is most commonly
(c) Antifungal (d) Antiamoebic used as humectant in cream
185. Select the drug which exhibits dual alpha and (a) Butylated hydroxyl toluene
beta adrenergic receptor agonists activity. (b) White soft paraffin
(a) Terbutaline (b) Clonidine (c) Glycerin
(c) Metaproterenol (d) Dobutamine (d) Alum
196. Viscosity builders used in Ophthalmic
186. Out of the following drugs, which one is a
formulation
popular anti-gout drug?
(a) Carboxy methyl cellulose
(a) Opium (b) Gymnema (b) Iso Propyl Palmitate
(c) Gokhru (d) Colchicum (c) Peanut oil
187. All the following drugs are mucosal protective (d) Chlorobutanol
agents except 197. Metformin is
(a) Bismuth salts (b) Sucral fate (a) Sulfonyl urea
(c) Misoprostol (d) Pirenzepine (b) DPP4 inhibitor
188. Which one of the following glucose (c) Biguanide
transporters is the new drug target for the (d) Alpha glucosidase inhibitor
management of Type-2 diabetes mellitus? 198. Secobarbital belongs to
(a) Sodium glucose linked transporter mellitus? (a) Schedule J (b) Schedule A
(b) Glucose transporter-1(GLUTI) (c) Schedule X (d) Schedule G
(c) Sodium glucose linked transporter-1(SGLT1) 199. The primary mechanism of action of Local
(d) Glucose transporter-2 {GLUT2} Anaesthetic is the blockade of
189. A 55 years old man is under DOTS treatment (a) Potassium channel
for pulmonary tuberculosis for the last four (b) Calcium Channel
months. Now, he has developed symptoms of (c) Sodium Channel
peripheral neuritis. Which one of the following (d) All of the above
is the right addition to his therapy to manage 200. Which of the following is not an endogenous
peripheral neuritis? compound ?
(a) Cyanocobalamin (b) a-Lipoic acid (a) Dopamine (b) Endorphins
(c) Pyridoxine (d) Prednisolone (c) Noradrenaline (d) Desipramine
247 YCT
 SOLUTION : PRACTICE SET- 6
ANSWER KEY
1. (d) 21. (a) 41. (b) 61. (d) 81. (a) 101. (d) 121. (a) 141. (a) 161. (b) 181. (c)
2. (b) 22.(a) 42. (b) 62. (c) 82. (d) 102. (b) 122. (d) 142. (a) 162. (b) 182. (b)
3. (a) 23. (b) 43. (d) 63. (c) 83. (d) 103. (b) 123. (a) 143. (b) 163. (b) 183. (d)
4. (b) 24. (c) 44. (d) 64. (b) 84. (c) 104. (c) 124. (a) 144. (a) 164. (a) 184. (d)
5. (b) 25. (d) 45. (c) 65. (b) 85. (b) 105. (c) 125. (a) 145. (d) 165. (c) 185. (d)
6. (c) 26. (a) 46. (b) 66. (c) 86. (a) 106. (c) 126. (b) 146. (a) 166. (c) 186. (d)
7. (a) 27. (c) 47. (d) 67. (a) 87. (a) 107. (d) 127. (c) 147. (a) 167. (b) 187. (b)
8. (a) 28. (a) 48. (c) 68. (a) 88.(d) 108. (c) 128. (a) 148. (a) 168. (d) 188. (a)
9. (a) 29. (b) 49. (c) 69. (b) 89. (c) 109. (b) 129. (a) 149. (b) 169. (a) 189. (c)
10. (b) 30. (d) 50. (a) 70. (c) 90. (c) 110. (b) 130. (d) 150. (b) 170. (b) 190. (b)
11. (a) 31. (c) 51. (c) 71. (a) 91. (c) 111. (d) 131. (c) 151. (c) 171. (a) 191. (c)
12. (d) 32. (a) 52. (d) 72. (b) 92. (d) 112. (a) 132. (c) 152. (b) 172. (c) 192. (c)
13. (a) 33.(c) 53. (c) 73. (c) 93. (c) 113. (a) 133. (b) 153. (a) 173. (d) 193. (a)
14. (c) 34. (a) 54. (a) 74. (c) 94. (c) 114. (c) 134. (a) 154. (d) 174. (d) 194. (a)
15.(b) 35. (c) 55. (a) 75. (c) 95. (b) 115. (c) 135. (a) 155. (d) 175. (b) 195. (c)
16. (d) 36. (d) 56. (b) 76. (d) 96. (b) 116. (b) 136. (a) 156. (d) 176. (b) 196. (a)
17. (d) 37. (c) 57. (b) 77. (c) 97. (a) 117. (a) 137. (a) 157. (a) 177. (d) 197. (c)
18. (b) 38. (c) 58. (a) 78. (c) 98. (b) 118. (c) 138. (b) 158. (a) 178. (c) 198. (c)
19. (a) 39. (b) 59. (d) 79. (a) 99. (c) 119. (a) 139. (d) 159. (d) 179. (a) 199. (c)
20. (a) 40. (a) 60. (c) 80. (c) 100.(a) 120. (a) 140. (c) 160. (a) 180. (c) 200. (d)

SOLUTION
1. (d) he fell fighting to Mughal Emperor Babur in the First
st
Rabinadranath Tagore was the 1 Indian as well as the battle of Panipat fought in 1526 AD.
1st Asian to be awarded with Nobel Prize in literature in 5. (b)
1913 (in recognition of his work Gitanjali). Famous Books Writer
2. (b) A Nation in Making - Surendranath Banerjee
The Bharat Ratna is the highest civillian award of the Hind Swaraj - Mahatma Gandhi
republic of India. Instituted on Jan 2, 1954 it is India Divided - Rajendra Prasad
presented by the president of India. The first recipient Unhappy India - Lala Lajpat Rai
of the Bharat Ratna was first vice president of India, Dr. Bharat Vibhajan - Vallabh Bhai Patel
Sarvpalli Radhakrishnan. The Bharat Ratna of the year
Rise of the Maratha - M.G. Ranade
2024 has been conferred on Karpoori Thakur
Power
(Posthumously), Lal Krishna Advani, PV Narsimha
6. (c)
Rao, Chaudhari Charan Singh and MS Swaminathan.
As of October 2020, Vice President of India was M
3. (a) Venkaiah Naidu. Vice President is the 2nd most
Pragbodhi is the place where lord Buddha spent six important authoritative body after President. As per
year before attaining enlightenment. The place is Article 65 of the Indian Constitution, he is entitled to
evidence of Gautam Buddha's efforts toward the eternal take important decision in certain cases of contingency
truth. When he realized the truth, he became Buddha - due to resignation, removal, death, impeachment or the
the enlightened one. Historical developments have led disability of the President to discharge his/her functions.
to change of the name of mountain and now it is called The Vice President of India is the ex-officio chairman
Dhungeswara. of the Rajya Sabha (Article 64).
4. (b) 7. (a)
Sultan Sikandar Lodi, the Muslim ruler of the Delhi Article 84 of the Constitution of India lays down the
Sultanate, founded Agra in the year 1504 AD. After qualification for the membership of Parliament which
the Sultan’s death, the city passed on to his son, Sultan consists of the President, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya
Ibrahim Lodi. He ruled his Sultanate from Agra until Sabha.
248 YCT
8. (a) 17. (d)
Constitution of Denmark is not a source of Indian The precipitation reaction is used to separate solid mass
constitution. on mixing two clear solutions.
9. (a) 18. (b)
As on April 2022, Indian Constitution- Contains 448 Moisture reduces the rate of evaporation. The amount
Articles with 12 Schedules. of water vapour present in air is called moisture. The
amount of invisible water vapour present in the
10. (b)
atmosphere is called humidity. This humidity reaches
Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM) is a space probe mission
the atmosphere by various forms of evaporation from
launched from Satish Dhawan Space Centre, the earth. If the temperature of the atmosphere
Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh. It was launched by using aincreases, the process of evaporation is intensified.
Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) C 25 XL on 5 19. (a)
November 2013 by the Indian Space Resarch Amoeba and Paramecium are both unicellular
Organisation (ISRO). It is also known as Mangalyaan or organisms undergoing a similar method of digestion.
Mangal Mission. Mars orbiter Mission was India's first The only difference is Amoeba can take up food from
venture into the interplanetary mission and it made it the entire cell surface and Paramecium can take up food
the fourth space agency to achieve Mars orbit, after only through special spot.
Roscosmos, NASA and the Europan space Agency. 20. (a)
11. (a) The organisms of Phylum Porifera are non-motile. The
Space research activities in India started in 1960. word 'Porifera' is made up of two Greek words 'Poros'
meaning 'hole' and 'Ferre' meaning 'holding'. Therefore,
Experimental Satellite Communication Earth Station
Porifera means ‘organism holding holes’. The body
(ESCES) was commissioned in Ahmedabad in 1967,
surface is perforated by numerous pores, the Ostia,
which emerged as a training center for the Indian as
through which water enters the body and one or more
well as international scientists and engineers from India.
large openings, the oscula by which the water exits,that
12. (d) is why they are known as sponge. The sponges were
Angle made by Earth's rotation axis is of about 66.5 incorporated into animals by Robert Grant and named
degrees with the plane of its orbit around the Sun, or them 'Porifera'.
about 23.5 degrees from the perpendicular to the 21. (a)
ecliptic plane. ØeMveiele efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeeOeej hej ef[yyee Meyo ‘ef[yyes’ keâe SkeâJeÛeve
13. (a) nw~
About 30 per cent of people in India were below the 22.(a)
poverty line in 2009-10 that was based on the monthly efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW ‘leguemeeroeme ves jeceÛeefjleceeveme efueKeer’ keâle=& JeeÛÙe
per capita consumption expenditure (MPCE) of Rs 673 keâe GoenjCe nw, peyeefkeâ ‘jece Éeje jeJeCe keâes ceeje ieÙee’, ‘Úe$eeW Éeje
for rural areas and Rs 860 for urban areas. Hegâšyee@ue Kesueer peeleer nw’ keâce& JeeÛÙe kesâ GoenjCe nQ~ ‘Gmemes KeeÙee veneR
14. (c) ieÙee’ ceW YeeJe JeeÛÙe nw~
In a fixed exchange rate system, the government fixed 23. (b)
the exchange rates at a particular level. ‘ueÌ[kesâ ves hegmlekeâ heÌ{er nw~’ JeekeäÙe ceW hetCe& Jele&ceeve keâeue nw~ efpeme
15.(b) Jele&ceeve keâeue ceW ef›eâÙee kesâ nesves Ùee keâjves keâer hetCe&lee keâe yeesOe neslee
The product of mass and velocity of an object is called nw, Gmes ‘hetCe& Jele&ceeve keâeue’ keânles nQ~ pewmes– Gmeves Keevee KeeÙee nw~
the momentum of that object. i.e., efÛeªer Yespeer ieF& nw Deeefo~
Momentum = mass ×velocity 24. (c)
It is a vector quantity. Its SI unit is kg. m/sec. ‘Ûeesjer–[kewâleer’ Meyo–Ùegice Mes<e Meyo–ÙegiceeW mes efYeVe nw~ vÙeeÙe–
16. (d) DevÙeeÙe, GefÛele–DevegefÛele leLee melÙe–DemelÙe hejmhej efJeueesce DeLe&
Law of Conservation of Momentum– This law states Jeeues MeyoeW keâe Ùegice nw peyeefkeâ ‘Ûeesjer–[kewâleer’ meceeve DeLe& jKeves
that if a number of bodies are interacting with each
Jeeues Meyo nQ~
other (i.e., exerting forces on each other), their total
25. (d)
momentum remains conserved before and after the
‘efkeâmeer Yeer Øekeâej Oeve peesÌ[ves keâer’ oewÌ[ keâes Devlenerve ceevee ieÙee nw~
interaction, provided there is no external force acting on
them. FÛÚeDeeW keâe keâesF& Deble veneR neslee~ Skeâ kesâ hetjer nesves hej otmejer FÛÚe
Hence during the collision elastic impact will be in mJele: peeie=le nes peeleer nw Deewj peye yeele ueeueÛe keâer nes lees Ùen Deewj
opposite direction. Yeer Øeyeue FÛÚe nesleer nw pees keâYeer mebleg° veneR nesleer~
249 YCT
26. (a) 37. (c)
‘Oeve Gheepe&ve’ ceW mebefOe keâjves hej ‘Oeveesheepe&ve’ Meyo yevesiee~ FmeceW iegCe efoS ieS JeekeäÙe ceW ‘Yej’ Meyo DeJÙeÙe nw~
mebefOe nesieer~ Ùeefo De Ùee Dee kesâ yeeo F, F& DeeÙes lees oesveeW efceuekeâj ‘S’ DeJÙeÙe MeyoeW keâes DeefJekeâejer Meyo Yeer keâne peelee nw keäÙeeWefkeâ efuebie,
nes peeles nQ, ‘G, T’ DeeÙes lees oesveeW efceuekeâj ‘Dees’ nes peeles nQ~ Fmeer JeÛeve, heg®<e, keâejkeâ FlÙeeefo kesâ keâejCe Fvekesâ ™he ceW keâesF& efJekeâej
Øekeâej Ùeefo ‘$e+’ DeeÙes lees oesveeW efceuekeâj ‘Dejd’ nes peeles nQ~ kegâÚ GlheVe veneR neslee nw~
GoenjCe õ°JÙe nQ– cene ± F&Me · censMe, Ûevõ ± GoÙe · ÛevõesoÙe, 38. (c)
metÙe& ± GoÙe · metÙeexoÙe, osJe ± $e+ef<e · osJeef<e&~ ceeB keâe ueÌ[keâe keâneB ieÙee? JeekeäÙe ceW GösMÙe keâe efJemleej Yeso ‘mebyebOe
keâejkeâ’ nw~
27. (c)
‘Deepe hetje peerJeve–oMe&ve yeoue ieÙee nw~’ Gòeâ keâLeve keâe DeeMeÙe nw 39. (b)
‘mes’, ‘kesâ Éeje’ keâjCe keâejkeâ keâe hejmeie& nw~
‘Deepe peerJeve kesâ Øeefle Âef°keâesCe ceW yeoueeJe Dee ieÙee nw~’
keâejkeâ hejmeie&
28. (a)
keâòee& – ves
ØeeÛeervekeâeue ceW veweflekeâ Deewj DeeOÙeeeflcekeâ efJekeâeme peerJeve keâe JeemleefJekeâ
keâce& – keâes
ue#Ùe ceevee ieÙee Lee, hejvleg Deepe Oeveesheepe&ve ner cegKÙe OÙesÙe nes ieÙee
keâjCe – mes, kesâ Éeje
nw~
mebØeoeve – keâes, kesâ efueS
29. (b)
Deheeoeve – mes (DeueieeJe)
‘Decyeg’ ceelee keâe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer veneR nw Deefheleg ‘heeveer’ keâe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer nQ
mebyebOe – keâe, kesâ, keâer, je, js, jer
Decye, Decyee, peveveer, ceele=, Oee$eer Deeefo ceelee kesâ heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer nQ~
DeefOekeâjCe – ceW, hej
30. (d)
mebyeesOeve – nss!, Dejs!, Denes!
‘Dee’ JeCe& Dees‰dÙe veneR nw~ Ùen keâb"dÙe OJeefve nw~ G, T leLee he Jeie&
40. (a)
kesâ JeCe& Dees‰dÙe OJeefveÙeeB nQ~ GheÙeg&òeâ efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘ÛeMcee’ efJeosMepe Meyo nw~ Ùen heâejmeer Yee<ee
31. (c)
keâe Meyo nw~ Mes<e MeyoeW ceW mes petlee-osMepe Meyo, peerYe– leodYeJe Meyo,
meeceeefmekeâ heoeW/hegve®òeâ Deewj Ùegice MeyoeW kesâ ceOÙe ‘Ùeespekeâ efÛeåve’ efpemekeâe lelmeced ™he efpe£e leLee JeeÙeg lelmece Meyo nQ~
(–) keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peelee nw~ pewmes–peÙe-hejepeÙe, ueeYe-neefve, 41. (b)
ÛeeBo-mee Ûesnje, Oeve-oewuele, Gueše-hegueše Deeefo~ Forbid - cevee keâjvee, Synonym, Prohibit - efve<esOe keâjvee~ DevÙe
32. (a) efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&-
efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeeOeej hej ‘pÙeeslmevee’ Meyo keâer Jele&veer DeMegæ Encourage - Øeeslmeeefnle keâjvee, Close - yebo, Adieu - efJeoeF&~
nw~ Fmekeâer Megæ Jele&veer ‘pÙeeslmvee’ nesieer~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe ëe=bieej, 42. (b)
GppJeue, DeOÙeelce Jele&veer keâer Âef<š mes Megæ nQ~ Frigid - ("b[e), Antonym, Warm - (iejce)~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ
33.(c) DeLe& -
‘ieeBOeer keâes je°^efhelee keâne ieÙee nw~’ Fme JeekeäÙe ceW meb%ee JÙeefòeâJeeÛekeâ Salty - vecekeâerve, Chilly - meo&, Frosty - "b[e
mes YeeJeJeeÛekeâ ceW heefjJeefle&le ngF& nw~ 43. (d)
34. (a) Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe ceW group of words 'A period of two weeks' kesâ
‘keâesF& Dee jne nw’ JeekeäÙe ceWs ‘keâesF&’ Meyo DeefveMÛeÙeJeeÛekeâ meJe&veece efueS GheÙegòeâ one word efJekeâuhe (b) fortnight (heKeJeeÌ[e) nesiee~
nw~ pees Meyo DeefveefMÛele ØeeCeer, heoeLe& DeLeJee Jemleg kesâ yeoues ØeÙeesie DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& -
efkeâS peeles nQ, GvnW DeefveMÛeÙeJeeÛekeâ meJe&veece keânles nQ~ ÙeneB ‘keâesF&’ Century - Meleeyoer, Decade - oMekeâ, Month - ceen
44. (d)
Meyo efkeâmeer DeefveefMÛele JÙeefòeâ kesâ efueS ØeÙegòeâ nw~ Dele: Ùen
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe ceW Idiom, Feel at sea (Yeüefcele nesvee) kesâ efueS
DeefveMÛeÙeJeeÛekeâ meJe&veece nw~ ‘kegâÚ’ SJeb ‘keâesF&’ DeefveMÛeÙeJeeÛekeâ
efJekeâuhe (d) feel lost or confused GheÙegòeâ JÙeeKÙee keâjlee nw~
meJe&veece nQ~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& efYeVe nw~
35. (c)
45. (c)
efJeMes<eCe efpeme meb%ee keâer efJeMes<elee yeleelee nw Gmes efJeMes<Ùe keânles nQ~ Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe ceW 'by two days' kesâ mLeeve hej 'within two
pees Meyo meb%ee Ùee meJe&veece keâer efJeMes<elee yeleueelee nw Gmes efJeMes<eCe days' keâe ØeÙeesie keâjWies~
keânles nQ~ 'within two days' - Deepe mes oes efoveeW kesâ Devoj~
36. (d) 'by two days' - oes efove lekeâ~
veeceyeesOekeâ mebÙegòeâ ef›eâÙee keâe Yeso veneR nw~ DevÙe DeJekeâeMeyeesOekeâ, Correct sentence- I want you to complete this work
efve§eÙeyeesOekeâ, efvelÙeleeyeesOekeâ mebÙegòeâ ef›eâÙee kesâ Yeso nQ~ within two days.
250 YCT
46. (b) 52. (d)
Ghejesòeâ sentence ceW of kesâ mLeeve hej and keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ Ghejesòeâ jsKeebefkeâle Yeeie depends on kesâ mLeeve hej depend on
oes noun Ùee clause keâes peesÌ[ves kesâ efueS and keâe ØeÙeesie neslee nw~ GheÙegòeâ nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ success and failure oes Deueie-Deueie
Correct sentence- ÛeerpeW nQ pees efkeâ plural subject nw~ FmeefueS verb plural
The postman travelled by the cycle, often wading 'depend' ØeÙegòeâ nesiee~
through swamps and passed through jungles in order to
Correct Sentence - Success and failure in life depend
reach the villages.
on how well a person uses his time.
47. (d)
53. (c)
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ YeeJe kesâ Devegmeej efjòeâ mLeeve ceW restored -
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ jsKeeefkebâle Yeeie I am think that tomorrow
(yeneue) JeekeäÙe keâer GefÛele JÙeeKÙee keâjlee nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ
DeLe& nQ- kesâ mLeeve hej I think that tomorrow keâe ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ nesiee~
Rebuilt - hegve:efvecee&Ce efkeâÙee keäÙeeWefkeâ peye Conditional Sentence ceW yeeo Jeeueer Clause
Repaired - cejccele efkeâÙee~ (subordinate clause) future Indefinite ceW nes lees henueer
Correct sentence- Order was quickly restored in the Clause (Principal Clause), Present Indefinite ceW nesveer
area after the scuffle between the two groups. ÛeeefnÙes~ Dele: verbI keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee Deewj sub singular nesves hej
48. (c) verb kesâ Devle ceW s/es keâes peesÌ[ osles nQ~
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ efjòeâ mLeeve ceW heaved keâe ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ nesiee, Correct Sentence–
keäÙeeWefkeâ heaved a sigh of relief Skeâ phrase nw efpemekeâe DeLe& I think that tomorrow I will take leave and stay at
neslee nw- Ûewve/jenle keâer meebme uesvee~ Heave a sigh of relief– to home.
feel very happy suddenly because something 54. (a)
unpleasant has not happened or has ended.
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ jsKeeefkebâle Yeeie wasn't he kesâ mLeeve hej didn't
DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ-
he keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ efoÙee ieÙee JeekeäÙe Past Indefinite
Inhaled - meeBme uesvee
Tense keâe Affirmative Sentence nw~ Dele: Fmekeâe Question
exhaled - meeBme ÚesÌ[vee
tag Yeer Past Indefinite Tense keâe Negative Sentence form
raised - G"e ngDee
Correct sentence- When he came back home safe that ceW nesiee~
night, everybody heaved a sigh of relief. Correct Sentence -
49. (c) He came late, didn’t he?
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ efjòeâ mLeeve ceW pronounced (GÛÛeejCe) keâe 55. (a)
ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ nesiee~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ-Widespread– jsKeebefkeâle Yeeie ceW a keâer peien the Deewj to keâer peien of keâe ØeÙeesie
JÙeehekeâ, efJemle=le, Vague Demhe°, Remarkable– GuuesKeveerÙe~ nesiee~ ÙeneB hej ‘‘efJeheCeve keâer efpeccesoejer’’ kesâ DeLe& kesâ efueÙes
Correct sentence- Our professor speaks English with Responsibility of marketing keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ peye oesveeW
a pronounced Oriya accent. noun of mes peg[ Ì s ngÙes nes lees henues noun kesâ henues the keâe ØeÙeesie neslee
50. (a)
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ YeeJe kesâ Devegmeej sentence passive ceW nesvee nQ Deewj Possestion keâes efoKeeves kesâ efueS of keâe ØeÙeesie neslee ~ Dele:
ÛeeefnÙes~ lees JeekeäÙe ceW Derive keâer peien be derived keâe ØeÙeesie The responsibility of marketing GheÙegòeâ nw~
nesiee~ Model 'can' keâer passive voice mebjÛevee efvecveJeled nw- Correct Sentence–
Durga is now the Executive Vive-President of the
Subject + can + be + V 3 + other word company with the responsibility of marketing for the
Correct sentence :- entire northern zone.
Pleasure cannot be derived from giving pain to innocent 56. (b)
people. According to the passage 'This' in the third sentence
51. (c) refers to "Destruction of civilizations" Hence option
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ jsKeebefkeâle Yeeie gave to proved his point kesâ (b) will be correct answer.
mLeeve hej gave to prove his point keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ 57. (b)
infinitive ceW to + v1 keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peelee nw~ According to the passage the greatest disadvantages of
Correct Sentence - the present times is "We have an internal threat from
What were the examples that the writer gave to proved our own kind." Hence option (b) will be correct
his point. answer.
251 YCT
58. (a) a 3
=
According to the passage the important feature of b 1
modern life trouble the writer most "There is inequality 1
in the distribution of things." Hence option (a) will be Required percentage = × 100
3
correct answer. 100
59. (d) = %
3
According to the writer the desert that surrounding the
64. (b)
osis was "Savagery." Hence option (d) will be correct
Let the first number A and the second number B -
answer.
According to the question,
60. (c)
A × 25 B × 50
According to the passage "Most people share their = ×3
money equally." is NOT true. 100 100
Dele: efJekeâuhe (c) GheÙegòeâ Gòej nw~ A 6
=
B 1
61. (d)
Percentage of students passed in both subjects A : B = 6 :1
= (80+70) – (100–15) 65. (b)
= (150 – 85)% = 65% students Let the first number and second number are 3x and 2x
As per question, respectively.
65% of total students = 325 According to the question,
3x – 8 5
Hence, total number of students =
325
× 100 =
65 2x – 6 4
= 500 students 12x – 32 = 10x – 3 0
62. (c) 12x – 10x = –30 + 32
Let the first number = x 2x = 2
The second number = y x=1
According to the question, Hence the numbers 3x = 3×1 = 3
x × 40 2x = 2×1 = 2
= 12
100 66. (c)
12 × 100 Required equivalent successive discount
or x = = 30
40
% = 100 − 100 ×
(100 − 30 ) × (100 − 20 ) × (100 − 10 )
y × 50 100 100 100
= 24
100 70 80 90
= 100 − 100 × × ×
24 ×100 100 100 100
or y = = 48 = 100 – 50.4
50
Ratio of the first number (x) and second number (y) = 49.6%
67. (a)
x 30
⇒ = Let marked price is `100.
y 48
100 − 20
x 5 ∴ Selling price = 100 × = 80
= 100
y 8
100 100
Cost price of an article = 80 × = 80 ×
or x : y = 5 : 8 100 + 12 112
63. (c) 5 ×100 500
According to the question, = =
7 7
(a – b) of 40% = (a + b) of 20%
500 200
( a − b ) × 40 = ( a + b ) × 20 Marked price - Cost price = 100 − =
⇒ 7 7
100 100
200
⇒ 40a – 40b = 20a + 20b 200
⇒ 20a = 60b Required % = 7 ×100 = × 100 = 40%
500 500
⇒ a = 3b 7
252 YCT
68. (a) 72. (b)
Principal = ` 3680 Let principal = `x
Rate = 4% Then,
Time = 2.5 years 10
2000 = x × ×2
P×R ×T 3680 × 4 × 2.5 100
Simple interest · =
100 100 x = `10,000
3680 × 10.0  10 
2
= = ` 368 CI = 10000 1 +  − 10000
100  100 
69. (b)
 121 
Principal (P) = `5800 = 10000  − 1 = `2100
 100 
Rate (R) = 6%
So, now interest rate on `2100
Time (T) = 4 years
2100 × 100 21
5800 × 6 × 4 r= = = 10.5%
SI = 10000 × 2 2
100
73. (c)
= ` 1392
From the question,
total amount after 4 years = 5800 + 1392
1
= `7192 1 day's work of A = part
15
70. (c)
Principal = `2000 1
1 day's work of B = part
Rate = 40% 20
 40 
3
  1 1
1 day's work of (A + B) =  + 
Interest for three years = 2000 1 +  − 1  20 15 
 100  
7
3 =
part
7 60
= 2000 ×   − 2000
5 Hence the time taken by A and B together to do the
= 5488 − 2000 = 3488 60
2
same work = days
 40  7
Interest for two years = 2000 ×  1 +  − 2000
 100  4
= 8 days
= 3920 − 2000 = 1920 7
Interest for third year = 3488 − 1920 = `1568 74. (c)
71. (a)
P = ` 18500
R (Annual) = 40% units
Rate · r/2% = 20% Half yearly
Time (n) = 3 [18 months · 3 Half yearly]
n
 r  Work done by 2 (P + Q + R) in one day = (16+12+8)
CI = P  1 +  −P
 100  = 36 units
 40 
3 36
= 18500 1 + Work done by (P + Q + R) in one day = = 18 units
 − 18500 2
 200 
3
Time taken by (P + Q + R) to complete the work
6
= 18500   − 18500 144
5 = = 8 days
18
216 75. (c)
= 18500 × − 18500
125 Let, efficiency of Kamal = 100
= 31968 – 18500 = `13468 According to the question,
253 YCT
 5 20
= h – h
60 3600
5 2
= −
60 360
30 − 2
=
360
Hence, the time taken by Vimal to complete the same 28
piece of work = 10 days. =
360
76. (d) 7 0.7
From the given table- = = h
90 9
Total expenditure of year 1 · 200±10±70±20 · 300 81. (a)
lakh rupees Just as, Mason builds a Building. Similarly, Carpenter
Total expenditure of year 3 · 450±10±120±20· 600 makes a Furniture.
lakh rupees 82. (d)
300 Just as, and,
∴ Intended percentage = × 100 = 50% +1 +1
600 F → G C  →D
77. (c) −1 −1
A → Z A → Z
Number of girls · 25 – 18 = 7 +1 +1
K → L L  →M
Hence the average test score of a girls −1 −1
E → D L → K
25 × 16.12 − 18 × 15
= Sane as,
7 +1
P  →Q
403 − 270 133
= = = 19 −1
I → H
7 7 +1
C  →D
78. (c)
−1
Sum of 45 results = 45 × 23 = 1035 K → J
Sum of first 22 results = 22 × 18 = 396 83. (d)
Sum of last 22 results = 22 × 21 = 462 Just as, Same as,
value of 23rd results = 1035 – (396+462)
= 1035–858 = 177
79. (a)
From options,
1 ? = 25
= 0.03125 84. (c)
32
In the given question figure, the first figure is a mirror
1
= 0.416666667 image of second figure. Image of the third figure is
24 depicted in figure D.
1 Hence, option (c) is correct.
= 0.0104166667
96 85. (b)
1 Just as, And,
= 0.0208333333
48
A terminating decimal is usually defined as a decimal
number that contains a finite number of digits after the
decimal point. Similarly,
1
∴ option (a) = 0.03125
32
Hence, it is terminating decimal.
86. (a)
80. (c)
From question, Penguin  → In Antarctica
The fractions 5 minutes of an hour and 20 seconds of an Emu 
→ Switzerland/Australia
hour Ostrich 
→ Kalahare Desert
254 YCT
These three birds (Emu, Penguin, Ostrich) are unable to
fly whereas vulture can fly. So, vulture does not belong
to this group.
87. (a)
Except figure C, All in lower figure can be obtained by
rotating the top figure 180º. Hence, option (a) is correct.
88.(d)
The given series is as follows:– Hence, it is clear from above diagram that X is
grandfather of Y.
93. (c)
Given,
+→–
–→×
×→÷
? ⇒ 142 + 50 = 192 ÷→+
Hence, ? = 192 44 ÷ 120 × 5 – 2 + 10 × 2
89. (c) On changing the signs,
In the given figure, Just as a circle is formed in place of 44 + 120 ÷ 5 × 2 – 10 ÷ 2
a sphere and a circle in place of a square similarly after
44 + 24 × 2 – 5
changing the pictures of the ∆ (triangle) and the rings
44 + 48 – 5
the answer will be B.
92 – 5 = 87
90. (c)
94. (c)
From question,
On putting the signs from option (c),
(×, −, =)
12 − 8 = 4〉 20 × 4 = 80 12 × 3 – 12 = 24
12 + 8 = 20
36 – 12 = 24
24 = 24
95. (b)
16 − 7 = 9〉 23 × 9 = 207
16 + 7 = 23 Suitable Venn diagram of Gold, Metal and Silver.

25 − 21 = 4 〉 46 × 4 = 184
25 + 21 = 46 Gold and silver are metals. Hence, option (b) is correct
answer.
Hence, ? = 184. 96. (b)
91. (c) On drawing the Venn diagram as per statement.
Blood relation diagram is as follows:
Mat

Coir
Jute
Hence, Only conclusion 2 follows.
97. (a)
On making the diagram as per the statement.

It is clear from the blood relation diagram that the man

will be uncle of Vivek.
92. (d)
On drawing blood relation diagram according to the It is clear from the Venn-diagram that none of them
question, logically follows the statement.
255 YCT
98. (b) • It has four different isomers: t-butyl, n-butyl, s-butyl,
When the pH value of a solution is less than 7, it is and isobutyl.
acidic. When the pH value is greater than 7, it is basic. 106. (c)
Hence, neither conclusion I nor II follows to the given –OCH3 is not a strongly activating ortho para director
statement. because it has less electron donating tendency, while
99. (c) others in the options (i.e - NHR, –OH and –NH2) have
Answer figure C bears the closest resemblance to the strong electron donating tendency.
question figure. Hence, option (c) is correct. 107. (d)
100.(a) Asparagine is an -amino acid that is used in the
biosynthesis of proteins. It contains an -amino group,
an -carboxylic acid group and a side chain
carboxamide acid. It is non-essential in humans, meaning
the body can synthesize it.
No. of ∆ = AEC, CED, DEB, BEA, ADC, CBD, ABD,
O
BCA.
Therefore No. of ∆ are 8. H2N
101. (d) OH
Laparoscopy is a type of surgical procedure that allows
O NH2 0

a surgeon to access the inside of the abdomen (tummy)

and pelvis without having to make large incision in the It is a nitrogenous compound.
skin . A gynecological laparoscopy allows surgeon to 108. (c)
examine womb (uterus), Fallopian tube and ovaries. Percentage of total daily Calories, which should come
102. (b) from carbohydrates should in between 50 to 60%.
The hydroxyl side chains and the amino groups in • It should be known that nutritious carbs include whole
serine can form hydrogen bonds which makes serine a grains, fruits, vegetables, legumes, low-fat milk, nuts
hydrophilic molecule. and seeds.
103. (b) 109. (b)
Heavy water in a form of water that contains only Pyridoxine is a water soluble vitamin found naturally in
deuterium rather than common hydrogen chemical
many foods, as well as added to foods and supplements.
formula of deuterium is "D2O".
Vitamin B6, also known as pyridoxine, helps: the body
104. (c)
to use and store energy from protein and carbohydrates
Nernst Equation is the basic for the relationship
in food.
between the voltage generated by an electrochemical
cell and the relevant concentration at each electrode. The term vitamin B6 refers to six common forms,
• The Nernst Equation enables the determination of cell namely pyridoxine, pyridoxal, pyridoxamine and their
potential under non-standard conditions. phosphorylated forms.
• The Nernst equation for an electrode is written as: 110. (b)
Heterocyclic compounds are cyclic compounds.
 RT 
E cell = E 0cell −   ln Q Heterocyclie compound that has atom at least two
 nF  different elements as members of its ring.
Where, Eg:-
E0 = Cell potential under normal circumstances
Ecell = Cell potential of a cell.
T = Temperature.
R = Universal gas constant.
n = No. of electrons transferred during the reaction
Q = Reaction quotient.
F = Faraday constant. 111. (d)
105. (c)
In organic chemistry structure CH3-CH2-CH2-CH2 or
C4H9 in IUPAC referred as butyl or butyl-radical. It is a
four carbon alkyl radical or a substituent group.
• Butyl radical [–C4H9] is derived from either of two
isomers (n-butane or isobutane) of butane. Ethyltrimethyl methane is also known as Neohexane.

256 YCT
112. (a) 120. (a)
In the field of organic chemistry cis isomers contain Nephazoline is selective α2 agonist and used as nasal
functional groups on the same side of the carbon chain and ophthalmic congestion and exert vasoconstrictive
whereas the functional groups are on opposite sides in effect.
trans isomers, this type of isomerism can arise in both
• It is 2- alkylimidazolines 1 agonists and contain a one
organic and inorganic molecules.
- carbon bridge between C-2 of the imidazoline ring
113. (a)
Vitamin B12 also known as cobalamin, is a water and a phenyl ring.
soluble vitamin involved in metabolism. IUPAC Name
vitamin B12 is a water-soluble vitamin that is naturally
present some foods.
Decreased vitamin B12 levels are a known consequent of
long-term-treatment with metformin. The mechanism is
currently thought to be multifactorial, comprising
attuned intestinal motility, bacterial overgrowth and
reduced uptake of vitamin B12 within the small
intestine.
114. (c) 121. (a)
Enzyme concentration does not affect the enzyme Obsessive compulsive disorder:-
activity directly as substrate concentration determine it
Cause:- Dopaminergic over activity in the limbic
until the presence of the substrate in an excess amount.
Presence or absence of cofactors and inhibitors affects system is involved.
the enzyme activity Hence, the correct option is (c). Treatment:- Dopamine D2 receptor blocking action is
115. (c) required.
Ethacrynic acid belongs to a group of medicines called Hyperprolactinemia:- High level of prolactin is due to
loop diuretics, and the mechanism of action of blocking of dopaminergic blocking action.
Ethacrynic acid as loop diuretic is due to the presence of Treatment:- Dopaminergic agonists such as
α, β - unsaturated ketone forming covalent bond with bromocriptine, carbergolin will inhibit prolactin release.
sulfhydryl
Acromegaly:- Excessive release of growth hormone in
116. (b)
pituitary.
Good manufacturing practice (GMP) is a system for
ensuring that products are consistently produced and Although dopamine stimulates growth hormone in
controlled according to quality standards. 5 main release. In normal individuals, it inhibits growth
components of GMP are as products, people, processes , hormone release in up to 50% of acromegalies.
Procedures, premises. Treatment:- Two dopamine agonists such as
117. (a) cabergoline and bromo-criptine are effective.
Aztreonam is a monocyclic beta-lactam antibiotic Parkinsonism:- It is due to reduction of dopamine in
originally isolated from chromo bacterium violaceum. the striatum.
Aztreonam exhirium potent and specific.
122. (d)
118. (c)
Aspirin displaces warfarin from' binding on plasma
Saccharin brand names include sweet and low sweet
Twin sweet N low and Necta secta sweet. It is 200 to protein it causes the toxicity to patient.
100 to times sweeter than table sugar (sucrose) and it • On the other hand anti-platelet action of aspirin
does not contain any calories. increases the risk of bleeding on the patients who are
119. (a) taking anti-coagulants such as warfarin Hence it is
Drugs Produces in structural contraindicated.
functional of kidney 123. (a)
Aminoglycoside Tubular epithelial cell Amylobarbitone is the condensation product of ethyl
Antibiotics damage. isopentyl ester of diethyl malonic acid with urea &
ACE inhibitors Hemodynamic sodium ethoxide yields.
Medicated kidney injury • Amylobarbitone also called Amytal is C11H18N2O3. It
Methotrexate Obstructure nephropathy is used as a sedative for people who need to sleep or
NSAIDs Glomerular abnormality. calm down.
257 YCT
It is synthesized by reacting malonic acid derivatives kidney disease. It had many trade names including
with urea derivatives. uremide, Lasix, Discoid and Furosemide.
In particular, in order to make amo- barbital, 4- ethyl - Furosemide may also be used for the treatment of high
α- isoamylmalonic ester is reached with urea in the blood pressure.
presence of sodium ethoxide. 129. (a)
124. (a) Imatinib is in a class of medications called kinase
Amantadine promotes presynaptic synthesis and release inhibitors. It works by blocking the action of the
of dopamine in the brain and has anticholinergic. abnormal protein that signals cancer cells to multiply.
Property it is useful in parkinsonism. However an This helps stop the spread of cancer cells.
antagonistin action on NMDA Type of glutamate 130. (d)
receptors, through which the striatal dopaminergic
Opioids are a class of medication used in the
system exerts its influence is considered to be more
management and treatment of pain. This activity outline
important.
125. (a) the indications, actions, and contraindications for
opioids as a valuable agent in treating acute and chronic
pain.
• Morphine most commonly used in pain management
morphine provides significant relief to patients afflicted
with pain.
• Pethidine also known as meperidine and sold under
the brand name Demerol among other is a synthetic
opioid pain medication of the phenylpiperidine class.
• Pentazocine is used to relieve moderate to severe pain.
• Fentanyl also spelled fentanil, is a highly potent
synthetic piperidine opioid drug primarily used as an
• It is used in diuretics. analgesic.
126. (b) 131. (c)
Methyl [5 (propylthie)– 1 H–benzoimidazol-2-yl] Sympathomimetics drugs are stimulant compounds
carbamate is Geneva name of albendazole. which mimic the effects of endogenous agonists of the
sympathetic nervous system.
Examples of sympathomimetic effects include increase
in heart rate force of cardiac contraction and blood
pressure. Sympathomimetic drugs are used to treat
cardiac arrest and low blood pressure or even premature
labor, among other things.
132. (c)
A high level of HDL (good) cholesterol decreases the
♦ It is an FDA-approved medication for the treatment risk of atherosclerosis. Atherosclerosis a disease of the
of a variety of parasitic worm infections.
large arteries is the primary cause of heart discause and
127. (c)
stroke. In westernized societies it is the underlying
Examples of potassium-sparing diuretics include–
cause of about 50% of all deaths.
♦ Spironolactone ♦ Amiloride
133. (b)
♦ Eplerenone ♦ Triamterene
The fluoroquinolones are indicated for treatment of
♦ Potassium-sparing diuretics refers to drugs that
cause diuresis without causing potassium loss in the several bacterial infections including bacterial
urine. bronchitis pneumonias sinusitis urinary tract infections.
128. (a) Septicemia and intraabdominal infection, Joints and
Furosemide is a loop diuretic medication used to treat bone infections soft tissue and skin infection, typhoid
fluid build-up due to heart failure, liver scarring or fever, anthrax bacterial gastroenteritis.

258 YCT
134. (a) if you have sudden and severe stomach Pain chills
Topical prostaglandins and carbenoxolon have been constipation nausea vomiting fever or lightheadedness.
observed to increase mucus gel thickness. gastric 142. (b)
bicarbonate secretion is also through to be a function of the The average salinity of sea water is 3.5% or 35 parts per
thousand. In other words, for every 1 litre of sea water
surface epithelial cell. The magnitude of stimulated gastric
there is 35 grams of dissolved salts (Nacl).
bicarbonate secretion is 5 to 10% of maximal acid secretion
The salinity of the ocean water simply means the
for a given surface area of mucosa.
presence of dissolved salts in the seawater.
135. (a) 143. (b)
Atropine action usually increase heart rate, decrease Manufacturer makes the goods and sells them to the
motility and peristalsis, decrease salivary secretion. consumer directly with no intermediary such as a
Atropine saliva secretions. Antispasmodic drug to treat manufacturer to use with out an intermediary or
peptic ulcer increase heart rate with bradycardia, middleman . For example a farmer may sell some
ornithine and phenylalanine is the correct pair. product directly to customers.
136. (a) 144. (a)
Hecogenin (HG) is a steroid saponin isolated from The drugs that have high extraction ratio, the organ is
Agave sisalana. It is a selective inhibitor of human capable of removing all the drug presented to it,
UDP-glucurosy tranferases. Hecogenin has a broad independently of plasma binding. Morphine has high
spectrum of pharmacological activities, including Anti- hepatic extraction ratio. Large portion of morphine
inflammatory, antifungal and gastroprotective effects. It broken down in liver in its first pass metabolism and
is useful for the semi-synthesis of steroidal drugs. therefore only 40% to 50% of morphine reaches the
137. (a) central nervous system.
Naringin is the active component present in the extracts 145. (d)
of citrus fruits and grapes. The chemical formula of Advanced age does not cause insulin resistance. As per
naringin is naringenin 7- 0- neohesperidose. a the researches done about this topic, it has been found
flavonoid, Reports of its anticancerous and antioxidant that age had no independent effect on insulin sensitivity.
properties have been documented. It is widely used to 146. (a)
treat diseases like osteoarthritis and osteoporosis. Relcovaptan (SR 49059) is a non-peptide, orally active
Naringin botained from orange peel can be named vasopressin V1a receptor inhibitor. Its chemical formula
as-5,4- Dihydroxy - 7 - rhamnoglucoside of is- C25 H27 Cl2 N3 O7 S. This medication is used in the
138. (b) treatment of Raynaud's disease and dysmenorrhoea. In
Lutein and zeaxanthin are xanthophyll carotenoids Reynaud's disease smaller arteries that supply blood to
found particularly in dark green leaft vegetables and in the skin constrict excessively in response to cold,
egg yolks. limiting blood supply to the affected area.
They are widely distributed in tissues and are the 147. (a)
principal carotenoids in the eye lens and macular region Tavaborole is an antifungal agent used to treat
of the retina. onychomycosis, a fungal infection of the nail, It is a
Lutein and zeaxanthin are required to control age- boron - based pharmaceutical approved for the
related macular degeneration. treatment of toenail onychomycosis caused by
139. (d) dermatophyte Tricholphyton rubrum and
The anticancer drug 6- mercaptopurine (6-MP) inhibits mentagrophytes.
denovo Purine synthesis and acts as an antiproliferative 148. (a)
agent by interfering with protein D.N.A. and R.N.A. At present some of the approved Histone De-Acetylase
synthesis and Promoting apoptosis. inhibitors (HDACs) are vorinostat, romidepsin,
140. (c) panobinostat and belinostat. Omacetaxine is not HDAC
Hypoglycemia is a reported life- threatening ADR inhibitor, omacetaxine is the generic name for the
associated with nodolol especially in infants in whom chemotherapy durg having trade name 'synribo'.
this drug should be used with caution. 149. (b)
141. (a) Local anesthetics interact with cell membrane lipids to
Saxagliptin drug can cause pancreatitis. (Swelling and - change fluidity order and influences the electrostatic
inflammation of the Pancreas) may occur while you are potential across lipid bilayers and resulting in the
using this medicine check with your doctor right away blockade of voltage-gated sodium channels.
259 YCT
150. (b) 156. (d)
Anti-cholinergic are the drugs that block and inhibit the Atomoxetine treats attention- deficit hyperactivity
activity of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (Ach) at disorder (ADHD). It works by improving focus and
both central and peripheral nervous system synapses. reducing impulsive behavior. Atomoxetine comes in
This medication gives side effects like dryness of capsule form usually taken once or twice a day.
mouth, tachycardia, urinary retention, constipation, • Bupropion is an antidepressant medication that is now
blurring of vision, drowsiness etc. also used in smoking cessation.
151. (c) • Amineptene is a tricyclic antidepressant medicine
Digoxin is a medication used to manage and treat used in the treatment of all types of depression
heart’s failure. It is in the cardiac glycoside class of 157. (a)
drugs. Digoxin is one of the positive inotropic agent, Ondansetron, a potent and highly selective 5- HT3
which improves hemodynamics, Digoxin has a negative receptor antagonist, prevents emesis following
chronomotropic effect on the atrioventricular node. chemotherapy by antagonising the action of 5-
152. (b) hydroxytryptamine (5-HT) at 5- HT3 receptors on vagal
Calcium channel blockers are thought to act on the afferent neurons that innervate the gastrointestinal tract
and 5- HT3 receptors in the central vomiting system.
vascular smooth muscle to dilate the pulmonary
resistance vessels and lower the pulmonary artery 158. (a)
Famotidine is potent histamine H2 receptor antagonist
pressure
that differs structurally from its predecessors cimitidine
• Alpha - blockers are used to treat the symptoms of
and ranitidine in having a guanidine substituted thiazloe
many conditions, such as benign prostatic, hyperplasia,
ring. Rather than an imidazole or furan ring. Thiazole,
high blood pressure , and some blood circulation any of a class of organic compounds of the heterocyclic
problems. It does not used in the treatment of series characterized by a ring structure composed of
pulmonary hypertension. three carbon atoms, one nitrogen atom, and one sulfur
153. (a) atom
Verapamil is a class of medication called calcium- 159. (d)
channel blockers. It works by relaxing the blood During absorption phase , absorption rate constant (Ka)
vesseles so the heart dose not have to pump as hard. It is desired to be greater than elimination rate constant
also increases the supply of blood and oxygen to the (Ke). However, for drugs with fast elimination (Ke >
heart and slows electrical activity in the heart to control 0.69 hr-1) Ke can be much greater than Ka. Such
the heart rate. phenomenon is called flip-flop kinetic.
• Quinidine is a medication used in the management The relationship between Cmax and Tmax –
and treatment of specific arrhythmias and malaria. The time it takes for a drug to reach the
• Procainamide is a medication used to manage and maximum concentration (Cmax) after administration of a
treat ventricular arrhythmias, supraventricular drug that needs to be absorbed (eg. an oral drug.) Tmax is
arrhythmias, walf-parkinson - white syndrome etc. governed by the rate of drug absorption and the rate of
154. (d) drug elimination.
Pentoxifylline (PTX) is a synthetic demethylxanthine 160. (a)
Stanozolol is used by athletes as it helps in muscle
derivative that modulates the rheological properties of
production. It is an androgen and anabolic steroid (AAS).
blood and also has both anti-oxidant and anti-
Stanozolol sometimes may give abdominal pain, dark
inflammatory properties It is used to improve blood
colored urine due to raised serum bilirubin and a altered
flow in patients with circulation problems to reduce
lipid profile. It may cause also nausea or vomiting. This
aching, cramping and tiredness in the hands and feet.
steroid produce harmful effect upon liver.
155. (d)
161. (b)
Drotaverine is structurally related to papaverine, and is Monoclonal antibody is always deemed to be 'new drug'
a selective inhibitor of phosphodisterase-4 (PDE-4) and irrespective of the period since it was first approved by
has no anticholinergic effects. Drotaverine is used to central licensing authority.
alleviate gastrointestinal and genitourinary smooth • Monoclonal antibodies are proteins made in a
muscle spasms, such as cholecystitis and gallbladder laboratory meant to stimulate our immune system. It is
disorder. used in the diagnosis and treatment of many diseases,
• Darifenacin is used to treat an overactive bladder. including some types of cancer.
260 YCT
162. (b) of constituents like pectin, or hemicellulose,
Penicillin is the oldest and one of the most commonly mucilage). The taken up by the swelling of 1g of
used group of antibiotics at present. They are derived herbal material under specified conditions. Its
from the mold/fungi Penicillium. determination is based on the individual specified in
• The biosynthesis of Penicillin and Cephalosporin the test procedure for each individual herbal material
starts from the amino acid precursor L-α (either whole, cut or pulverized).
aminoadipic acid (AA), L-cysteine and L-valine 168. (d)
163. (b) Number of asymmetric carbon atoms in glucose is 4.
Stavudine can cause lipodystrophy syndrome. Stavudine • α-glucose and β -glucose are structurally identical
is used along with other medications to treat human except with the difference in the "configuration" of the
immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection. It works by anomeric carbon atom. So, they are also called as
anomers.
decreasing the amount of HIV in the blood.
• α-D glucose contains 5 asymmetric carbons.
Other kinds of drugs to treat HIV like stavudine,
• Structure of β -D glucose has four asymmetric carbon
zidovudine, and some of the older protease inhibitors,
atoms.
like indinavir. have been linked to lipodystrophy. The
longer you have taken them, the greater your risk seems
to be.
164. (a)
Prokinetic agents promote intestinal motility and are
used for severe constipation- predominant symptoms
associated with irritable bowel syndrome with
constipation (IBS-C) or chronic idiopathic constipation
(CIC).
Domperidone is an antiemetic and a prokinetic 169. (a)
medicine. It works by blocking the action of a chemical The full form of CUDD– Centralized unit dose drug
messenger in the brain which causes the feeling of distribution system.
nausea and vomiting. In CUDD, all in patient drugs are dispensed in unit
165. (c) Tetracyclines are not administered with milk doses and all the drugs are stored in central area of the
pharmacy and dispended at the time the dose is due to
because of the formation of insoluble chelates by its
be given to the patient.
reaction with the milk. Generally tetracycline should
170. (b)
be taken on an empty stomach at least 1 hr before or 2
Linezolid is not active against Acineto-bacter SPP,
hours after meals, snacks or milk, For better Escherichia coli, klebsiella pneumoniae, proteas
absorbability of tetracycline especially dairy products penneri, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and
such as milk, yogurt, cheese and ice-cream should be stenotrophomonas maltophilia.
avoided with this medicine. • Linezolid has modest activity against bacteroides
166. (c) fragilis, clostridium difficile, clostridium perfringens,
Imatinib is used for the treatment of prevotella SPP. etc.
philadelphichromosome positive patients with chronic • ureidopenicillin, aminoglycosides and aztreonam are
myeloid Leukemia. effective against pseudomonas.
• Methotrexate is a chemotherapy, agent and immune- 171. (a)
system suppressant. It is used to treat cancer, Cytotoxic drugs inhibit or prevent the function of cells.
autoimmune diseases, and ectopic pregnancies. Cytotoxic drugs are primarily used to treat cancer,
• Pentostatin is a type of chemotherapy drug. It is used frequently as part of a chemotherapy regimen.
Nausea and vomiting are the most common distressing
for treatment of hairy cell leukaemia and other types of
early toxic features of cytrotoxics.
leukemia.
• Ondansetron, dexamethasone, metoclopramide are
167. (b)
used to treat cytotoxic drug included vomiting but
Many herbal drugs are utilized due to swelling cyclizing cannot be used to treat cytotoxic drug
property (those are containing an appreciable amount included vomiting.
261 YCT
172. (c) 180. (c)
Ethacrynic acid belongs to a group of medicines called Systemic antacids are antacids which get systemically
loop diuretics or water pills. absorbed e.g. sodium carbonate is water soluble and
The diuretic that is natriuretic, chloruretic, saluretic and potent neutralizer, but it is not suitable for the treatment
antikaliuretic, is ethacrynic acid. of peptic ulcer because of risk of ulcer perforation due
• It is given to help treat fluid retention (edema) and to production of CO2 in the stomach.
swelling that is caused by congestive heart failure, • Non systemic antacids are insoluble and poorly
liver disease etc. absorbed systemically.
173. (d) 181. (c)
Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that is metabolically Ayurvedic preparations such as asava and arishta
inert in human and occurs naturally, as a sugar or sugar contains self -generated alcohol content.
alcohol, in fruits and vegetables. Mannitol elevates Asava and arishta are two herbal drinks that produce
blood plasma osmolarity, resulting in enhanced flow of ethanol during manufacturing. These drinks are made
water from tissues, including the brain and by soaking in herbs. This herbs can either be in powder
cerebrospinal fluid, in to in interstitial fluid & plasma. form or a decoction (often called kasaya). Then these
174. (d) herbs are mixed with sugar or Jaggery solution for some
Indentification test for acetate is performed by heating time until they dissolve completely.
sample solution with equal quantity of oxalic acid. 182. (b)
Presence of Acetate is detected by characteristics odour. Monophasic is the single-phase system of liquid dosage
Fruity odour confirm the presence of acetate ion. form, which contains two components i.e. solute and
175. (b) solvent of the solution. It is one of the simplest and
The hnRNA is the collective term for the unprocessed most effective ways of medication as it quickly absorbs
MRNA (pre-mRNA) molecules in the nucleus. It is medicinal products.
largly comprised of the pre-mRNA molecules that The four basic taste sensations are salty, bitter, sweet
require extensive processing to become mature mRNA and sour.
molecules. The hnRNA that is associated with Taste Sensation Recommended flavour
ribonucleoprotein (hnRNA).
Salty Butterscotch, maple, peach,
176. (b)
vanilla, apricot, mint
Fructose is a Type of sugar known as a monosaccharide,
Bitter Walnut, mint combinations,
or a "single" sugar, like glucose.
anise, wild cherry, chocolate.
177. (d)
The extent of reproducibility of the result is precision, Sweet Fruit and berry, vanilla
because precision is the degree to which repeated Sour Citrus flavours, liquorice,
measurements under the same conditions show the same raspberry.
results. 183. (d)
178. (d) Lunasidone is a medication used in the treatment of
Glyceraldehyde is the smallest aldose and schizophrenia and bipolar depression. It is in the
dihydroxyacetone the smallest ketose the convention benzisothizole class of medications. The activity
used to Name D-or L-carbohydrates is based on the describes the indications, action and a valuable agent in
orientation of the hydroxyl group on the highest- treating schizophrenia and bipolar dpression.
numbered asymmetric carbon. 184. (d)
179. (a) Diloxanide (as Diloxanide furoate) is an anti - protozoal
Coenzyme NAD is derivative of Niacin. Nicotinamide drug used in the treatment of Ent-amoeba histolytica
adenine dinucleotide (NAD) and nicotinamide Adenine and some other protozoal infections.
dinucleotide phosphate (NADP) are derivative of the B- 185. (d)
Vitamin i.e., niacin. The act as coenzymes in hundreds The drug which exhibits dual alpha and beta adrenetic
of redox-reaction. The coenzyme NAD is involved in receptor agonist activity is Dobutamine.
oxidation-reduction reaction critical for glycolysis, fatty Dobutamine is a medication that treats heart failure by
acid oxidation, the T.C.A. cycle and complex I of the strengthening our heart muscles. Heart failure happens
mitochondria respiratory chain and also is a key when our heart is not pumping very well.
regulator of autophagy. The brand name of dobutamine is Dobutrex.
262 YCT
186. (d) 194. (a)
Colchicine (colcrys, globerba, mitigare), anti- Magnesium stearate, a metallic salt boundary lubricant
inflammatory drug that effectively reduces goutpain. is probably the most commonly used lubricant for
Colchinine is used to prevent gout attacks (sudden, pharmaceutical tableting it is relatively inexpensive,
severe pain in one or more joints caused by abnormally provides high lubrication, has a high melting point, and
high levels of a substance called uric acid in the blood) is chemically stable
in adults. Colchicine (colcrys) is also used to relieve the • A material or substance that holds other materials
pain of gout attacks when they occur. together mechanically, chemically, or as adhesive, to
187. (d) form a cohesive whole.
Pirenzepine an M1 selective antagonist, is used in the 195. (c)
treatment of peptic ulcers, an it reduces gastric acid Most of the materials used as humactants are polyols:
secretion and reduces muscle spasm. It is in a class of
Glycerin, Glycols i.e. propylene glycol, Polyethylene
drugs know as muscarinic receptor antagonists.
glycols : H(O-CH2-CH2)m OH m =4+.
Pirenzepine is an anticholinergic drug so called M1 -
• Glycerin is one of the most popular humectants used
receptor blocker which apparently works selectively in the
because it produces the desired result fairly frequently
stomach, reducing the secretion of gastric acid.
and low in cost. A category of humectants caused nano-
188. (a)
Nowadays for the management of Type-2 diabetes lipid gels allow skin retain moisture, but also possess
mellitus, new drug target sodium glucose linked antifungal properties.
transporter- 2 (SAGLT-2) is in use . SGLT2 limit the 196. (a)
reabsorption of glucose from glomerular filtrate in the Viscosity builders used in ophthalmic formulation, is
kidneys, reducing blood glucose levels. carboxy methyl cellulose. Methylcellulose is used as a
189. (c) tablet and capsule disintegrant, a tablet binder, and as
Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6 ) is essential for the amino acid viscosity increasing agent, it exists as a free flowing
metabolism, that is why this vitamin assures the white powder and dissolves in cold water to yield a
metabolism of neurotransmitters. Therefore pyridoxine clear gel, it is used in the food, cosmetic and
is the right addition in the therapy to manage peripheral pharmaceutical industries.
neuritis. 197. (c)
190. (b) The only available biguanide medication is metformin.
Vasopressin receptor 2 (v2 Receptor) is a protein that Which is commonly used as a first line treatment for
acts as a receptor for vasopressin. V2 receptors belongs type of 2 diabetes the first option for type of 2 diabetics
to the subfamily of G-protein- coupled receptors. Its are unable to control their blood sugars through diet and
activity is mediated by the G5 type of G proteins, which exercise alone.
stimulate adenylate cyclase. 198. (c)
191. (c) Secobarbital belongs to the class of drugs that are under
The drug of choice for treatment of cytomegalovirus listed in schedule x of drugs and cosmetics act 1945
infection disease is intravenous ganciclovir, although which describes about habit forming narcotics drugs
valganciclovir may be used for nonsevere
and these drugs require prescription by a authorized
cytomegalovirus treatment in selected cases.
doctor, to purchase them.
192. (c)
199. (c)
Sulphonamide with minimum risk of crystalluria is
Local anesthetic drugs interfere with excitation an
sulfisoxazole and sulfadiazine. Sulfadiazine crystalluria
conduction by action. Potentials in the nervous system
appears in a volume- depleted state during
administration of higher doses of both oral and in- and in the heart by blocked of sodium channel.
travenous formulation. 200. (d)
193. (a) An endogenous substances are those that come from
Montelukast, a potent LTRA, blocked the airway within a living thing. Endogenous compounds are any
obstruction induced by lysine- aspirin inhalation in compounds occurring naturally in the body, which binds
aspirin - sensitive asthmatic patients . Pulmonary and activates that receptor.
function improved significantly, and both ss- agonist • Desipramine is a synthetic drug and is not an
use and frequency of nocturnal awakening decreased. endogenous compound. It is used to treat depression.

263 YCT
 PRACTICE SET - 7
11. Constituent Assembly drafted the Consitution
SECTION-A
for Independent India. It was set up Under.
General Awareness (a) The Government of India Act of 1909
(b) The Government of India Act of 1919
1. _____ is the first rapper to win Pulitzer Prize
(c) Indian Independence Act of 1947
for music.
(a) Joyner Lucas (b) Kendrick Lamar (d) Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946
(c) J. Cole (d) Eminem 12. Which of the following is also known as "red
2. Which is India's highest literary award? planet"?
(a) Jnanpith Award (a) Mercury (b) Venus
(b) Sahitya Academy Award (c) Earth (d) Mars
(c) Vyas Samman 13. The First Human Development Report was
(d) Kabir Samman published by the United Nations Development
3. A religion of India-Zoroastrian is mainly found Programme (UNDP) in the year___.
in which state? (a) 1990 (b) 1980
(a) Maharashtra (b) Haryana (c) 1945 (d) 1905
(c) Bihar (d) Kerala 14. When was Valmiki Ambedkar Awas Yojana
4. Which of the following minarets is memorial launched?
built by Muhammad Quli Qutub Shah in (a) December 2000
memory of plague abolition? (b) December 2003
(a) Alai Minar (b) Char Minar (c) December 2002
(c) Fateh Burj (d) Qutub Minar (d) December 2001
5. Begum Hazrat Mahal, the wife of the Nawab of 15. .......... is a physical quantity amount that can
_____led the uprising at Lucknow in May 1857.
never be negative.
(a) Agra (b) Fatehpur Sikri
(a) distance (b) force
(c) Awadh (d) Meerut
(c) acceleration (d) velocity
6. Which of the following statements about the
Rajya Sabha is correct? 16. The speed of a bus on a crowded road is an
(a) Half of the members retire every year. example of …….
(b) One-third of the members retire every second (a) uneven (b) uniform
year. (c) circular (d) linear
(c) One-fifth of the members retire every second 17. Which of the following reactions produces
year. water insoluble salts?
(d) One-third of the members retire every year. (a) Addition reaction
7. In 2014 ____ Lok Sabha elections were held. (b) Catalytic reaction
(a) 16th (b) 19th (c) Precipitation reaction
(c) 14th (d) 23rd (d) Displacement reaction
8. India's constitutional provision of 'Indirect 18. The first Fullerene to be identified was _____
election of Rajya Sabha members' was adopted (a) C-160 (b) C-60
from which country? (c) C-660 (d) C-600
(a) Germany (b) South Africa
(c) USA (d) England 19. Which of the following organisms can
reproduce by regeneration and budding?
9. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution
is the annual financial statement prepared ? (a) Yeast (b) Plasmodium
(a) Article 130 (b) Article 140 (c) Hydra (d) Planaria
(c) Article 101 (d) Article 112 20. Which of the following animals have very
10. When was the Indian National Committee for simple eyes, in fact the only eye spot that
Space Research formed? recognizes light?
(a) 1955 (b) 1966 (a) Tape worm (b) Planaria
(c) 1952 (d) 1962 (c) Round worm (d) Ascaris
264 YCT
 Test of Language : Hindi 29. ‘helLej’ keâe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer veneR nw–
21. efvecveefueefKele JeekeäÙeeW ceW YeeJeJeeÛÙe keâe GoenjCe keâewve- (a) heenve (b) Gheue

mee nw ? (c) hee<eeCe (d) Gjie

(a) Deye Ûeuee peeS (b) hee" heÌ{e

30. ‘Meerle’ keâe efJeueesce nesiee–
(c) heeveer heer uees (d) DeeDees osKeW (a) "C[e (b) ieerle
22. keâewve-mee Meyo Œeerefuebie nw? (c) ke=â<Ce (d) G<Ce
(a) veeruekebâ" (b) Kebpej 31. efvecveefueefKele ceW mes keâewve mes Meyo ceW Devegveeefmekeâlee nw?
(c) leerlej (d) keâesÙeue (a) mebYeeefJele (b) mebYeeJevee
23. YeefJe<Ùekeâeue kesâ ............ Yeso nesles nQ~ (c) mebYeJe (d) mebYeeuevee
(a) 5 (b) 4 32. efkeâmeer De#ej Ùee Meyo hej efJeMes<e yeue osves kesâ efueS efkeâme
(c) 2 (d) 3 efÛendve keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peelee nw?
efvecveefueefKele ieÅeebMe keâes heÌ{keâj ØeMve mebKÙee 24 mes 28 (a) Fkeânje GæjCe (b) ognje GæjCe
lekeâ keâe Gòej oW- efMe#ee ceveg<Ùe keâes ceefmle<keâ Deewj Mejerj keâe (c) efJeJejCe efÛendve (d) efJemcejCe
GefÛele leeuecesue keâjvee efmeKeeleer nw~ Ùeefo nceejer efMe#ee megmebmke=âle, 33. Yeiiet mes" lees yengle ner ot§eefj$e JÙeefòeâ nw~ jsKeebefkeâle keâer
meYÙe, meÛÛeefj$e SJeb DeÛÚs veeieefjkeâ veneR yevee mekeâleer lees Gmemes Megæ Jele&veer nw–
keäÙee ueeYe? meùoÙe, meÛÛee hejvleg DeveheÌ{ cepeotj Gme mveelekeâ (a) og§eefj$e (b) ogmÛeefj$e
mes keâneR DeÛÚe nw pees efveo&Ùe Deewj Ûeefj$enerve nw~ mebmeej kesâ meYeer (c) og<Ûeefjle= (d) og<Ûeefj$e
JewYeJe Deewj megKe–meeOeve Yeer ceveg<Ùe keâes leye lekeâ megKeer veneR 34. efvecveefueefKele JeekeäÙe ceW meb%ee kesâ ™he ceW keäÙee ØeÙeesie
yevee mekeâles peye lekeâ efkeâ ceveg<Ùe keâes Deeeflcekeâ %eeve ve nes~ nceejs efkeâÙee ieÙee nw?
kegâÚ DeefOekeâej Deewj keâòe&JÙe Yeer nQ~ efMeef#ele JÙeefòeâ keâes keâòe&JÙeeW ‘Jen FveceW mes Skeâ keâes peevelee nw~’
keâe Glevee ner OÙeeve jKevee ÛeeefnS efpelevee efkeâ DeefOekeâejeW keâe~
(a) nw (b) Jen
24. keâewve–mee Meyo Deved Ghemeie& mes veneR yevee nw?
(c) FveceW (d) Skeâ
(a) Deveghekeâej (b) Deveghece
35. pees keâjsiee mees Yejsiee~ jsKeebefkeâle Meyo keäÙee nw?
(c) DeveheÌ{ (d) DevegheÙeesieer
(a) ef›eâÙee efJeMes<eCe (b) mebkesâle JeeÛekeâ meJe&veece
25. ceveg<Ùe leYeer megKeer keâne pee mekeâlee nw, peye–
(c) mebyebOe JeeÛekeâ meJe&veece (d) iegCe JeeÛekeâ meJe&veece
(a) Gmes Deeeflcekeâ %eeve nes~
36. ‘vÙetvelece’ efJeMes<eCe keâer keâewve-meer DeJemLee nw?
(b) Jen efMeef#ele nes~
(a) cetueeJemLee (b) ØeLeceeJemLee
(c) Gmekesâ heeme megKe kesâ meeOeve neW~
(c) GòejeJemLee (d) GòeceeJemLee
(d) Gmes GòejoeefÙelJe efveYeevee Deelee nes~
37. cetue Dekeâce&keâ OeelegDeeW kesâ meeLe ØelÙeÙe peesÌ[keâj yeveeF& ieF&
26. ‘megKe–meeOeve’ keâe efJe«en Deewj meceeme nw–
ef›eâÙee-OeelegSB keäÙee keânueeleer nQ?
(a) megKe mes meOes pees meeOeve – keâce&OeejÙe
(a) mebÙegòeâ Oeeleg (b) efÉkeâce&keâ Oeeleg
(b) megKe Deewj meeOeve – ÉvÉ
(c) meeefOele mekeâce&keâ Oeeleg (d) mecemle Oeeleg
(c) megKeeW kesâ meeOeve – lelheg®<e
(d) megKeeW kesâ meeOeveeW keâe mecetn – efÉieg
38. efvecveefueefKele ceW mes DeJÙeÙe nw–
27. Jen DeefMeef#ele efMeef#ele JÙeefòeâ mes DeÛÚe nw, pees– (a) Jele&ceeve (b) veÙee
(a) ceefmle<keâ keâe mener GheÙeesie keâjlee nes~ (c) leLee (d) megvoj
(b) oÙeeueg Deewj meÛÛeefj$e nes~ 39. ef›eâÙee keâe DeeOeej metefÛele keâjves Jeeuee keâejkeâ nw :
(c) iebYeerj efÛebleve os~ (a) Deheeoeve keâejkeâ
(d) Deheves DeefOekeâej peevelee nes~ (b) mecyevOe keâejkeâ
28. DeÛÚer efMe#ee keâer efJeMes<elee veneR nw– (c) DeefOekeâjCe keâejkeâ
(a) Deeeflcekeâ %eeve osvee~ (d) mecØeoeve keâejkeâ
(b) meÛÛeefj$e veeieefjkeâ yeveevee~ 40. efvecve ceW keâewve mee Meyo leodYeJe nw?
(c) megmebmke=âle yeveevee~ (a) ÛetCe& (b) efÚõ
(d) DevegòejoeÙeer yeveevee~ (c) %eeve (d) Úle
265 YCT
 Test of Language : English (a) sense (b) kick
(c) start (d) humour
41. Select the most appropriate synonym of the
50. Identify the segment which contains the
given word.
grammatical error.
Generic
He asked from me if I was interested in a
(a) Definite (b) Specific
(c) Precise (d) Universal career in modelling.
42. Select the most appropriate antonym of the (a) from me if
given word. (b) in a career
Gradual (c) I was interested
(a) Abrupt (b) Regular (d) He asked
(c) Gentle (d) Slow 51. Select the option that will improve the
43. Select the word which means the same as the underlined part of the sentence. In case no
group of words given. improvement is needed, select 'No
A room or building with equipment for doing improvement required'.
physical exercise I wish I have come an hour sooner.
(a) dormitory (b) convent (a) has
(c) infirmary (d) gymnasium
(b) will
44. Select the most appropriate meaning of the
(c) had
given diom.
A good turn (d) No improvement required
(a) A lucky chance 52. Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.
(b) A great opportunity The Centre’s bid to dispel the pall of gloom
(c) A helpful act over the economy (have been helped) in recent
(d) A pleasant experience weeks by a rating.
45. Identify the segment in the sentence which (a) had been help
contains a grammatical error. (b) has been helped
This jewellery box is made from silver and is (c) have been helping
an antique piece.
(d) No improvement
(a) an antique piece
53. Select the most appropriate option to substitute
(b) This jewellery box
the underlined segment in the given sentence. If
(c) and is
no substitution is required, select No
(d) is made from silver
improvement.
46. Identify the segment in the sentence which
If you listen to the English news, it improve
contains the grammatical error.
your English.
Preeti is absent from the meeting due to she is
out of station. (a) it would improve
(a) Preeti is absent (b) due to she is (b) No improvement
(c) from the meeting (d) out of station (c) it improved
47. Select the most appropriate word to fill in the (d) it is improving
blank. 54 Select the most appropriate option to substitute
The speaker had not written his speech the underlined segment in the given sentence. If
properly and went on _____ one point only.
no substitution is required, select No
(a) Insisting (b) Decrying
improvement.
(c) Emphasising (d) Avoiding
We can't live without water, will we?
48. Select the most appropriate word to fill in the
blank. (a) won't we (b) can we
If you drink too much, it will ______ your (c) do we (d) No improvement
judgment. 55. Improve the bracketed part of the sentence
(a) Impel (b) Impede It implies an acceptance of (a principle) of free
(c) Impose (d) Improve movement of people from the block
49. Select the most appropriate word to fill in the (a) the principal
blank. (b) an principle
The great advantage of early rising is the good (c) the principle
______ is given us to our day. (d) No improvement
266 YCT
Comprehension: 58. "Where one bathed dangerously" . Why does
Read the passage and answer the questions the writer call the bathing dangerous?
given below it (a) they were punished later
No one can look back on his schooldays and say (b) there were snakes in the water
with truth that they were altogether unhappy. I (c) the boulders gave them bruises
have good memories of St Cyprian's, among a (d) the water was too deep
horde of bad ones. Sometimes on summer 59. What is the moral the boy draws from his
afternoons there were wonderful expeditions childhood experiences?
across the Downs to a village called Birling Gap,
(a) Things you enjoy doing are always
or to Beachy Head, where one bathed dangerously
unreachable
among the boulders and came home covered with
(b) Only do the things your masters tell you to.
cuts. And there were still more wonderful mid-
(c) Do not walk alone in the grounds.
summer evenings when, as a special treat, we
were not driven off to bed as usual but allowed to (d) Do not collect insects like caterpillars
wander about the grounds 60. Which of the following did the boys not do on
in the long twilight, ending up with a plunge into summer mornings?
the swimming bathe at about nine o'clock. There (a) Read in bed
was the joy of waking early on summer mornings (b) Sleep until late
and getting in an hour's undisturbed reading (Ian (c) play cricket
Hay, Thackeray, Kipling and H. G. Wells were the (d) Collect caterpillars
favourite authors of my boyhood) in the sunlit,
sleeping dormitory. There was also cricket, which
Arithmetical and Numerical ability
I was no good at but with which I conducted a sort 61. In an examination, a student scored 65%
of hopeless love affair up to the age of about marks but was 20 marks below the qualifying
eighteen. And there was the pleasure of keeping marks. Another student scored 80% marks and
caterpillars — the silky green and purple puss- scored 5% more marks than the qualifying
moth, the marks. Total marks of the examination are:
ghostly green poplar-hawk, the privet-hawk, large (a) 400 (b) 500
as one's third finger, specimens of which could be (c) 300 (d) 200
illicitly purchased for sixpence at a shop in the 62. The difference between 82% and 73% of the
town — and, when one could escape long enough same number is 72. What is 48% of the
from the master who was ‘taking the walk’, there number?
was the excitement of dredging the dew-ponds on (a) 418 (b) 384
the Downs for enormous newts with orange- 1440
coloured bellies. This business of being out for a (c) 360 (d)
31
walk, coming across something of fascinating
63. What percentage of a day is 3 h?
interest and then being dragged away from it by a
yell from the master, like a dog jerked onwards by 1 1
(a) 16 % (b) 10 %
the leash, is an important feature of school life, 2 2
and helps to build up the conviction, so strong in 1 1
(c) 14 % (d) 12 %
many children, that the things you most want to do 2 2
are always unattainable. 64. If a3 + b3 : a3 – b3 = 185 : 158 then a : b = ?
56. We can infer that the writer was a : (a) 5 : 4 (b) 2 : 3
(a) disobedient student (c) 10 : 2 (d) 7 : 3
(b) lonely child 65. Two quantities are in the ratio 3 : 5. If each
(c) mischievous boy quantity is decreased by 9 then the ratio
(d) studious boy becomes 5 : 9. Find the smaller quantity?
57. Why does the writer call cricket a hopeless love (a) 51 (b) 54
affair? (c) 52 (d) 53
(a) He was forced to give it up 66. If the marked price of an article is ` 2,850 and
(b) He did not play it at all the discount is 21% then find the selling price.
(c) He played it secretly (a) ` 2,521.50 (b) ` 2,259.50
(d) He tried hard to learn it (c) ` 2,215.50 (d) ` 2,251.50
267 YCT
67. Find the discount (in percentage) if a book
marked at `90 is sold for `76.
(a) 14.65% (b) 15.56%
(c) 13.45% (d) 14.75%
68. Find the total simple interest on ` 500 at 7%
per annum, on ` 700 at 10% per annum and on
`1000 at 4% per annum for 3 years.
(a) 435 (b) 500
(c) 700 (d) 1000
69. At what rate of simple interest will a sum of
money triples itself in 8 years?
(a) 30% (b) 20%
(c) 25% (d) 35%
70. A person borrowed a sum of money at 9%
simple interest and invested it at 10%
What is the average sales volume of Philips
compound interest for 3 years. After 3 years he
bulbs (in numbers) from all the shops for the
received profit of `1952. How much money did
year 2017?
he borrow?
(a) ` 30000 (b) ` 32000 (a) 83000 (b) 80000
(c) ` 33000 (d) ` 32543 (c) 81000 (d) 82000
71. Find the compound interest on `20000/- in 2 77. There are two sections, A and B of a class,
years at 8% per annum, if interest is consisting of 40 and 50 students, respectively. If
compounded yearly? the average weight of students in section A is 36
(a) `3,220.00 (b) `3109.78 kg and that of those section B is 45 kg, then the
average weight of the whole class is :
(c) `3328.00 (d) `3200.00
(a) 39 kg (b) 43 kg
72. If the difference between the compound
interest and the simple interest on a certain (c) 42 kg (d) 41 kg
sum of money of 8% p. a. for 2 years is `240 , 78. The given table shows the number of
then the sum of money is : passengers on an aircraft and their
(a) `37,000 (b) `38,500 corresponding weight (in kg), for a total of 40
(c) `38,000 (d) `37,500 passengers. Answer the question given below
73. Rama packs 36 boxes in 1 hr. Her sister needs 3 based on the table.
hr to pack the same number. How much time No.of 4 15 6 5 3 7
will they together take to pack these 36 boxes ? passengers
(a) 40 min (b) 38 min Weight 90 60 75 78 72 45
(c) 45 min (d) 42 min (in kg)
74. 12 men can build a wall in 24.5 days. How What is the average weight of all the 40
many men would be able to build five such passengers?
walls in 49 days ?
(a) 65.77 kg (b) 80.57 kg
(a) 40 (b) 30
(c) 75.77 kg (d) 72.57 kg
(c) 50 (d) 28
75. If Raju is thrice as good workman as Ravi and 79. The value of 0.16 + 0.15 - 0.13 is
takes 20 days less than him to complete a piece 23 17
of work, then find the time taken by Ravi to (a) (b)
63 90
complete the work:
34 19
(a) 20 days (b) 10 days (c) (d)
45 99
(c) 30 days (d) 40 days
80. Which of the following is correct?
76. Study the graph and answer the question that
follows. The following bar chart shows the sales 9 13 9 13
(a) ≤ (b) >
volume of Philips bulbs (in thousand) from five 16 24 16 24
different electric shops in a city during two 9 13 9 13
(c) = (d) <
years 2017 and 2018. 16 24 16 24
268 YCT
 General Intelligence & Reasoning Ability (a) D (b) B
(c) C (d) A
81. Lion is related to Roar, in the same way as 88. Select the number from among the given
Horse is related to___________. options that can replace the question mark (?)
(a) Hiss (b) Neigh in the following series.
(c) Bray (d) Hoot 154, 134, 116, ?, 86, 74, 64, 56
82. In the given letter-cluster pairs, the first letter- (a) 100 (b) 101
cluster is related to the second letter-cluster (c) 96 (d) 98
following a certain logic. Study the given pairs 89. Select the option that replace question mark (?)
carefully, and from the given options, select the
in following series.
pair that follows the same logic.
COWBOY : WOCYOB
TANGLE : NATELG
(a) FLOWER : OLFREW
(b) CROWDS : ORDWSC
(c) MANGLE : NMALEG
(d) PICKLE : CIPLKE
83. Which number would best complete the
relation given below ?
27 : 16 : : 125 : ?
(a) 30 (b) 32 (a) B (b) A
(c) 36 (d) 34 (c) D (d) C
84. 90. Which is best suited to be placed in place of
question mark in the figure?
5 3 2
8 ? 4
6 5 1
Select the correct figure from the given option
that is suitable for the above space- (a) 5 (b) 6
(c) 3 (d) 4
91. Aman and Varun are brothers. Eva is the
daughter of Diwa. Diwa is the sister of Fiza's
husband Varun.
A B C D How is Eva related to Aman ?
(a) D (b) C (a) Brother's daughter
(c) A (d) B (b) Brother's wife's sister
85. In a certain code language, BUTTER is written (c) Sister's daughter
as 2212020518. MINED is written as 1391454. (d) Daughter
How will OIL be written in that language?
(a) 17456 (b) 12345 92. A $ B means - A is the sister of B. A # B means,
(c) 15912 (d) 18632 A is the husband of B and A * B means A is the
daughter of B then P $ Q * R # S means?
86. Choose one from the group below that is not
(a) S is mother of P
the same as the others.
(b) S is sister of P
Lizard, Snake, Crocodiles, Reptiles
(c) S is sister-in-law of P
(a) Snake (b) Lizard
(d) S is grandmother of P
(c) Crocodiles (d) Reptiles
93. If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘–’ means ‘÷’, ‘×’ means ‘–’,
87. and ‘÷’ means ‘+’, what will come in place of
the question mark (?) in the following
equation?
4 × 5 + 3 ÷ 16 – 1 = ?
Select the figure that does not belong to the (a) 10 (b) 12
group. (c) 8 (d) 5

269 YCT
94. Select the correct set of symbols
21 9 13 7 · 195
(a) ², –, ´ (b) ±, ´, –
(c) ]±, –, ´ (d) ², ±, –
(a) A (b) C
95. Which of the following diagrams correctly
represents the relationship between the given (c) B (d) D
classes? 100. Find the number of triangles in the given
Bus, Engine, Piston figure.

(a) (b)

(a) 11 (b) 7
(c) (d)
(c) 9 (d) 13

96. Statements:
I. All picture are beautiful SECTION-B
II. All beautiful is fabulous.
Conclusions:
1. All picture are fabulous. Post Specific Subject- Related Questions
2. Some fabulous are beautiful. 101. As in the arms and legs, blood flows against
(a) Neither 1 and nor 2 follows gravity and is prevented from flowing back by
(b) Only conclusion 2 follows. (a) The extremely low pressure of venous blood
(c) Both conclusion 1 and 2 follow (b) Valves
(d) Only conclusion 1 follows (c) Movements in the surrounding muscles
97. Statement : (d) The narrowing down of the lumen of veins by
A. All leopards are lions. the contraction of the muscle layer
B. Some tigers are leopards. comprising
Conclusion : 102. The heart is covered by a membrane called
I. Some tigers are lions. (a) Epidermis (b) Dermis
II. No lion is a tiger. (c) Epicardium (d) Pericardium
(a) Neither conclusion I nor II follows 103. Indications of vasopressin are following
(b) Both conclusion follow (a) Diabetes mellitus
(c) Only conclusion II follows (b) Hypertension
(d) Only conclusion I follows
(c) Pituitary diabetes insipidus
98. Statement: A quote says, "The ballet birds live
(d) Incompleted abortion
together in the community". 104. An inherited metabolic disorder Alkaptonuria
Conclusion: is due to the lack of enzyme
I. People with same attitude, can stay
(a) Phenylalanine hydroxylase
together long time.
(b) Tyrosine hydroxylase
II. The chicks should be coloured using the
(c) Homogentisate oxidase
same colour.
(a) Both conclusion I and II follow. (d) Hydroxy phenylpyruvate hydroxylase
(b) Neither conclusion I nor II follows. 105. Which of the following does not belongs to the
(c) Only conclusion II follows. 5 - alpha series?
(d) Only conclusion I follows. (a) Androgens
99. Which pattern closely resembles following (b) Estrogens
pattern? (c) Progesterone
(d) Bile acids
106. Squeezing of WBCs through the pores of blood
capillaries is called as _______.
(a) Passive diffusion (b) Diapedesis
(c) Chemotaxis (d) Pinocytosis
270 YCT
107. Whole human blood is stored at_______. (a) 0.1 MHCI (b) Phosphate buffer
(a) –20°C (b) 8 – 10°C (c) Water (d) 0.1 MH2S04
(c) 2 – 8° C (d) 0°C 118. A retardant material that forms a hydrophilic
108. In 1885, which of the following matrix in the formulation of matrix tablets is
pharmacopoeias was made official in India? (a) H.P.M.C (b) C.A.P
(a) Indian pharmacopoeia (c) Polyethylene (d) Carnauba wax
(b) European pharmacopoeia 119. All are true about romiplostim except:
(c) United States pharmacopoeia (a) It is given subcutaneously
(d) British pharmacopoeia (b) It is approved for use in patients with Immune
109. The Latin term for eardrops is __________. thrombocytopenia
(a) Auristillae (b) Collyrium (c) It contains four copies of a small peptide
(c) Collutorium (d) Haustus (d) It is recombinant erythropoietin
110. What is the source of the Cargile membrane 120. If a capsule is numbered as 000 which means
suture? (a) It is the smallest sized capsule with a capacity
(a) Sheep (b) Ox of 100 mg
(c) Silkworm (d) Horse (b) It is for the inclusion of ophthalmic ointments
111. The supplement for India Pharmacopoeia in only
(c) The shape of the capsule is oval
2000 was introduced to include which of the
(d) It is the largest sized and for veterinary
following?
purpose only
(a) Liposomal products (b) Veterinary Products
121. All of the following statements about
(c) Herbal drugs (d) Vaccines
parenteral products are true EXCEPT
112. The standard test for catgut involving
(i) The drug product is easier to remove from
measurement by means of dial reading
vials than ampule.
micrometer is known as the test for ________.
(ii) Ampules are intended for multiple use
(a) Tensile strength (b) Sterility
(iii) Large volume parenterals are infusion
(c) Gauge (d) Contaminants solutions.
113 Observe prescription below and identify type of (a) Only (i) and (ii)
incompatibility (b) Only (ii) and (iii)
Rx (c) Only (i) and (iii)
Tetracycline chloride-250 mg (d) All of the above
Send 7 capsules 122. Following statements of unit dose system are
(a) Physical Incompatibility correct
(b) Chemical Incompatibility (i) Patient receives improved service round
(c) Therapeutic Incompatibility the clock and charged for only
(d) All of these administered doses
114. _____ are inert substance that can be combined (ii) Allowing nurses more time for direct
with drugs mixed to form granules patient care
(a) Coating material (b) Excipient (iii) Medication errors are decreased
(c) Edutcorating agent (d) Active ingredient (iv) Eliminates wastage of drugs and pilferage
115. Which of the following sterilization method is (a) Only (i), (iii) and (iv)
used (b) Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
(a) Dry heat sterilization (c) Only (ii) and (iii)
(b) Filtration sterilization (d) All of the above
(c) Radiation sterilization 123. In A, B, C analysis of inventory control, "A
(d) Moist heat sterilization class" items are about ________ of the total
116. In solid-solid mixing, _______is the large scale items in number and nearly ________ of the
continuous type of mixer annual consumption value of the items
(a) Sigma blender (b) Ribbon blender (a) 15% and 80% (b) 30% and 25%
(c) Zigzag blender (d) Twin shell blender (c) 50% and 10% (d) 70% and 3%
117. Unless otherwise stated in the individual 124. Which among the following is a butyrophenone
monograph of the pharmacopeia, in the derivative?
disintegration test for enteric coated tablets, (a) Prochlorperazine (b) Haloperidol
first the dissolution is carried out in (c) Fluphenazine (d) Oxypertine
271 YCT
125. Eye Ointment base should melt at 133. The procedure of removing ovaries is called:
(a) Near to body temperature (a) Salpingectomy (b) Oophorectomy
(b) Room temperature (c) Vasectomy (d) Colostomy
(c) Both A and B 134. BMR is dependent upon:
(d) None of these (a) Body weight
126. Hospital formulary consists of (b) Surface area
(a) List of hospital staff (c) Amount of adipose Tissue
(b) List of drugs present in the hospital (d) Amount of lean body mass
(c) List of equipments 135. Oxytocin is the hormone released from:
(d) List of patients Or
o
Oxytocin is secreted by-
127. The size of aqueous filled pores is ________ A .
(a) Anterior lobe of pituitary
(a) 1-3 (b) 11-18
(b) Pars intermedia
(c) 19-25 (d) 4-10
(c) Posterior lobe of pituitary
128. Match List I with List II:
(d) Infundibulum
List I List II
136. Whole human blood is a mixture of blood and
Equipment Model/Trade/Type
anticoagulant solution and contains not less
(A) Low shear mixer (I) Manestry Drycota
than:
(B) Rotary tablet (II) Chilsonator
(a) 8.7% w/v of haemoglobin
machine (Fitzpatrick)
(b) 2.3% w/v of haemo
(C) Capsule filling (III) Slated Double Cone
(c) 9.07% w/v of haemoglobin
machine Mixer
(d) 9.7% w/v of haemoglobin
(D) Compaction mill (IV) Prosolv (JRS
137. Colour vision is by:
Pharma)
(a) Rods (b) Cones
(V) PCF 1200 Model
(c) Occipial cortex (d) Bipolar cells
(Pharma Land)
138. Sphincter of oddi is present at exit of
Choose the correct answer from the options
(a) Oesophagus (b) Stomach
given below:
(c) Urinary bladder (d) Gall bladder
(a) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
(b) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV) 139. HLB value of tragacanth is:-
(a) 4.7 (b) 8.7
(c) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(V), (D)-(II)
(c) 13.2 (d) 14.3
(d) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
140. Choose selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
129. The β 1 and β 2 adrenergic receptor subtype used as antidepressant
agonist acting at atrioventricular node (a) Escitalopram (b) Doxepin
produces following responses (c) Venlafaxine (d) Duloxetin
(a) Increases contractility and conduction 141. Select the prostaglandin analogue used for
velocity glaucoma
(b) Increases automaticity and conduction (a) Latanoprost (b) Misoprostol
velocity (c) Gemeprost (d) Epoprostanol
(c) Increases contractility and automaticity 142. Select short acting drug is used in the diagnosis
(d) Increases conduction velocity and heart rate of myasthenia gravis
130. The length of Adult Trachea is : (a) Tacrine (b) Edrophonium
(a) 6 to 8 cm (b) 10 to 11 cm (c) Donepezil (d) Neostigmine
(c) 14 to 15 cm (d) 16 to 20 m 143. An ethylene diamine derivative used as
131. Which of the following is a female sex antitubercular drug
hormone? (a) Ethionamide (b) Pyrazinamide
(a) Stilbesterol (b) Testosterone (c) Isoniazid (d) Ethambutol
(c) Estrogen (d) Benzesterol 144. Which of the following releases renin?
132. The cardiovascular disease associated with the (a) Cells of Juxta-glomerular apparatus
disorder of heart rate or rhythm is called: (b) Cells of Juxta-medullary apparatus
(a) Arrhythmia (b) Myocardial infraction (c) Gastric glands of infants
(c) Angina pectoris (d) Ischemia (d) Crypts of Lieberkuhn
272 YCT
145. Identify the method of metabolism of 154. Why esomeprazole is consider as 'me-too'
salicylates in our body. drug?
(a) Hydroxylation (b) Reduction (a) Because it produces adverse effects identical
(c) Conjugation with glucuronic acid to an already known drug
(d) Oxidation (b) Because it is structurally related to a first-in-
146. Which is used in cheese manufacturing as a class compound belonging to the same
substitute of rennin? therapeutic class as the original compound
(a) Papain (b) Collagenase (c) Because it is comparable in dose, dosage
(c) Pepsin (d) Urokinase form, and intended use to an already known
147. The "F" value for a drug product is compared drug
to its (d) Because it is manufactured by the same
(a) elimination rate company as that of an already known drug
(b) absolute bioavailability 155. Two structurally different drugs providing
(c) dosing rate same clinical response under same
(d) clearance rate experimental conditions are said to be
(e) Not attempted (a) Chemically equivalent
148. ________ is selective 5-HT3 antagonist (b) Biologically equivalent
(a) Risperidone (b) Clozapine (c) Therapeutically equivalent
(c) Ondansetron (d) Ketanserin (d) Clinically bioequivalent
(e) Not attempted 156. Which among the following is false regarding
149. Which of the following drug follows zero order dependence?
kinetics for metabolism? (a) Tolerance is developed
(a) Valproic acid (b) Phenytoin (b) There is no withdrawal syndrome
(c) Cetirizine (d) Loratidine (c) There is complusion to take
(e) Not attempted (d) Body achieves adaptive stage to alcohol
150. The biological half-life of many drugs is often 157. What is the reason to prescribe carbidopa with
prolonged in newborn infants because of
levodopa to parkinsonism patients?
________.
(a) To increase peripheral metabolism of
(a) Incompletely developed enzyme systems
levodopa
(b) A higher degree of protein blinding
(b) To decrease peripheral metabolism of
(c) A lower degree of protein blinding
levodopa
(d) Complete absorption of drugs
(c) To increase metabolism of levodopa in brain
(e) Not Attempted
(d) None of these
151. Mefenamic acid is belonging to which chemical 158. Which of the following drugs is used in
class of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agent? treatement of glaucoma?
(a) Heteroary acid (b) Salicylates
(a) Pilocarpine (b) Acetylcholine
(c) Pyrazolidinediones (d) Anthranilic acid
(c) Neostigmine (d) Atropine
(e) Not attempted
159. Which of the following is an Autosomal
152. The dissolution rate of drugs from tablets may
Dominant disorder?
be increased by
(a) Polycystic Kidney disease
(a) Increasing the compression stress during table
(b) Alkaptonuria
eating
(c) Wilson disease
(b) Increasing the concentration of lubricant
(d) Thalassemia
(c) Increasing the concentration of disintegrate
(d) Film coating with ethyl-cellulose 160. The ability of the eye lens to adjust its focal
153. Paclitaxel, a potent anticancer drug, was length is called ...........
isolated from which natural source? (a) Magnification (b) Accommodation
(a) The Pacific Yew tree (c) Modulation (d) Focal length
(b) The Pacific Ocean 161. Impure blood (deoxygenated) carried by ...........
(c) Fungus (a) Pulmonary Artery (b) Pulmonary vein
(d) Bacteria (c) Aorta (d) CoronaryArtery

273 YCT
162. Which one of the following is the normal range 173. Match the following liver abnormalities with
of diastolic pressure? consequences:
(a) 110-145 mm Hg (b) 100 - 120 mm Hg (a) Steatosis (M) Raised hiliruhin level
(c) 40 - 55 mm Hg (d) 70 - 90 mm Hg (b) Cholestasis (N) Slight rise in serum
163. Enamel is a constituent of transaminase level
(a) Bones (b) Nail (c) Hair (d) Teeth (c) Hepatitis (O) Accumulation of fat
164. Estimation of serum creatinine is considered to droplets within liver cells
be a more reliable indicator for the evaluation (d) Fibrosis (P) lilevated liver function test
of ……. (LFT's)
(a) Lung function (b) Liver function (a) (a) - (N), (b) - (P), (c) - (M), (d) - (O)
(c) Kidney function (d) Gastric function (b) (a) - (O), (b) - (M), (c) - (P), (d) - (N)
165. Volume of blood that flows per unit time per (c) (a) - (N), (b) - (O), (c) - (P), (d) - (M)
unit volume of the tissue is: (d) (a) - (P), (b) - (O), (c) - (N), (d) - (M)
(a) Residence time (b) Elimination rate 174. An important site of fetal blood cell production
(c) Gastric emptying rate(d) Perfusion rate is:
166. What are sutures? (a) Pons (b) Spleen
(a) Cartilaginous joints (b) Non fibrous joints (c) Lymph (d) Thymus
(c) Synovial joints 175. Which of the following is a superficial vein of
(d) Fibrous joints of the skull the cardiovascular system?
167. Glucocorticoids have following effects- (a) Basilica vein (b) Axillary vein
EXCEPT: (c) Subclavian vein (d) Palmar vein
(a) Stimulation of immune responses 176. Which of the following parameter are
(b) Resistance to stress evaluated by comparing curves of serum
(c) Lipolysis concentration versus time?
(d) Protein breakdown and glucose formation (a) Peak concentration, biological half life and
168. What is anaplasia? elimination rate constant
(a) Morphological and functional (b) Biological half life, tmax and absorption rate
alterations/changes, that are different from constant
normal cells (c) Peak concentration, tmax and total area under
(b) Morphological and functional resemblance to the curve
normal cells (d) Adsorption rate constant, area under the curve
(c) Increase in size of cell and elimination rate constant
(d) Lack of growth of cells 177. The adipose tissue in newborns is called:
169. Thyrotoxicosis causes (a) Brown fat (b) Yellow fat
(a) Odema of the foot (b) Myxoedema (c) White fat (d) Black fat
(c) Cretinism (d) Nodular goitre 178. Which of the following is wrongly matched
170. An ischaemic nephrosis of a portion of the combination of anti-arrhythmic drugs and their
myocardium due to sudden occlusion'of a class?
branch of coronary artery is called as (a) Lidocaine - IB (b) Disopyramide - II
(a) Angina Pectoris (AP) (c) Diltiazem - IV (d) Amiodarone - III
(b) Cardiac Arrythmia (CA) 179. Prostaglandin analogous have therapeutic utility
(c) Congestive Cardiac Failure (CCF) in the following EXCEPT
(d) Myocardial infarction (M. I) (a) Impotence
171. The following are used as nerve gases except (b) Peripheral vascular disease
(a) Taliun (b) Dyflos (c) Palliative treatment of patent ductus
(c) Soman (d) Sarin arteriosus
172. Acetylcholine is not used commercially because (d) Pulmonary hypertension
(a) Long duration of action 180. "Wheal and Flare" reaction is characteristic
(b) Costly reaction associated with identification of:
(c) Rapidly destroyed in the body (a) Type-1 hypersensitivity reaction
(d) Crosses blood main barrier (b) Type-2 hypersensitivity reaction

274 YCT
 (c) Type-3 hypersensitivity reaction (c) Doxycycline
(d) Type-4 hypersensitivity reaction (d) Rifampicin
181. Substitution constant for meta benzoic acids is 191. An antimalarial drugs containing endoperoxide
denoted by structure is
(a) σm (b) pKa(H) (a) Quinine (b) Artemisinin
(c) ρm (d) pHm (c) Doxycycline (d) Cycloguanil
182. The wave length at which maximum absorption 192. Along with isoniazid, which vitamin is
of radiation takes place is known as prescribed for TB patients?
(a) β max (b) αmax (a) Riboflavin (b) Pyridoxine
(c) λmax (d) Amax (c) Niacin (d) Cyanocobalamin
183. Which of the following is a good choice to 193. The pharmacological action of Ipecac is
control tremors and rigidity of parkinsonism? (a) Stimulant (b) Emetic
(a) Tacrine (b) Donepezil (c) Sedative (d) Carminative
(c) Benztropine (d) Amantadine 194. Essential medicines are those medicines.
184. All is true about fondaparinx EXCEPT; (a) That are needed to treat emergency conditions
(a) Should not be used in patient with renal (b) That are needed to treat serious diseases
failure
(c) That satisfy priority health care needs of the
(b) Interacts with platelets and induce
population
thrombocytopenia
(d) That are recently introduced in the market
(c) Given once a day
(d) Approved for patients undergoing knee 195. In drug store, the expiry dated drug
surgery formulations are called _______
185. Differential manometer has advantage over (a) Scrap items (b) Surplus items
simple manometer (c) Obsolete items (d) Dormant Materials
(a) Handling is simple 196. Antihypertensive drug with a tetrazole ring is
(b) It can measure smaller pressure difference Or
(c) Viscosity can be determined along with The following in an example of
pressure difference antihypertensive agent-
(d) It is used when pressure difference is high (a) Clonidine (b) Captopril
186. The total number of possible stereoisomers for (c) Valsartan (d) Carbapenams
3-bromo-2-butanol are 197. Class III antiarrhythmic agents are _________.
(a) 2 (b) 4 (a) Na + Channel blockers
(c) 6 (d) 8 (b) K + Channel blockers
187. Which of the following intravenous anaesthetic (c) Na + Channel openers
agent in analogue of phencyclidine and produce (d) K + Channel openers
dissociative anaesthesia?
198. The germinal epithelium of ovary is
(a) Ketamine (b) Propofol
(a) Stratified columnar epithelium
(c) Thiopental (d) Etomidate
(b) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(e) Not Attempted
(c) Simple columnar epithelium
188. Except which of the following all the words is
used for describing pharmacokinetics? (d) Stratified cuboidal epithelium
(a) Distribution (b) Adsorption (e) Not attempted
(c) Metabolism (d) Absorption 199. Which of the following pairs of chemotherapeutic
189. with respect to paste formulation, which among agents is most commonlyused as maintenance in
the following statement is true? the treatment of Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia
(a) It contains low drug loadings (ALL)?
(b) It may not be applied to exuding wounds (a) Dauroribicin, Gemcitabine
(c) it is used as sun block formulation (b) Fludarabine Cyclophosphamide
(d) Pastes are cosmetically acceptable (c) Mereaptopurine, Methotrexate
190. The drugs which is given prophylatically to the (d) Vincristine, Imatinib
people living in an area with filariasis is 200. Calcitonin is secreted by
(a) Albendazole (a) Pituitary gland (b) Thyroid
(b) Diethylcarbamazine (c) Pancreas (d) Adrenal

275 YCT
 SOLUTION : PRACTICE SET- 7
ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 21. (a) 41. (d) 61.(d) 81. (b) 101. (b) 121. (c) 141. (a) 161. (a) 181. (a)
2. (a) 22. (d) 42. (a) 62. (b) 82. (a) 102.(d) 122.(d) 142.(b) 162.(d) 182. (c)
3. (a) 23. (d) 43. (d) 63. (d) 83. (c) 103. (c) 123. (a) 143.(d) 163.(d) 183. (c)
4. (b) 24. (c) 44. (c) 64.(d) 84. (a) 104. (c) 124.(b) 144. (a) 164. (c) 184.(b)
5. (c) 25. (a) 45. (d) 65. (b) 85. (c) 105. (c) 125. (a) 145. (c) 165.(d) 185.(b)
6. (b) 26. (c) 46. (b) 66. (d) 86. (d) 106.(b) 126.(b) 146. (c) 166.(d) 186.(b)
7. (a) 27. (b) 47. (c) 67. (b) 87. (b) 107. (c) 127.(d) 147.(b) 167. (a) 187. (a)
8. (b) 28. (d) 48. (b) 68. (a) 88. (a) 108.(d) 128. (c) 148. (c) 168. (a) 188.(b)
9. (d) 29. (d) 49. (c) 69. (c) 89. (b) 109. (a) 129.(b) 149.(b) 169.(d) 189. (c)
10. (d) 30. (d) 50. (a) 70. (b) 90. (d) 110.(b) 130.(b) 150. (a) 170.(d) 190.(b)
11. (d) 31. (d) 51. (c) 71. (c) 91. (c) 111.(b) 131. (c) 151.(d) 171.(b) 191.(b)
12. (d) 32. (a) 52. (b) 72. (d) 92. (a) 112. (c) 132. (a) 152. (c) 172. (c) 192.(b)
13. (a) 33. (a) 53. (a) 73. (c) 93. (d) 113.(d) 133.(b) 153. (a) 173.(b) 193.(b)
14. (d) 34. (d) 54. (b) 74. (b) 94. (d) 114.(b) 134.(b) 154.(b) 174.(b) 194. (c)
15 .(a) 35. (c) 55. (c) 75. (c) 95. (a) 115. (a) 135. (c) 155. (c) 175. (a) 195. (c)
16. (a) 36. (d) 56. (c) 76. (d) 96. (c) 116. (c) 136.(d) 156 (b) 176. (c) 196. (c)
17. (c) 37. (c) 57. (d) 77. (d) 97. (d) 117. (a) 137.(b) 157.(b) 177. (a) 197.(b)
18. (b) 38. (c) 58. (c) 78. (a) 98. (d) 118. (a) 138.(d) 158. (a) 178.(b) 198.(b)
19. (c) 39. (c) 59. (a) 79. (b) 99. (d) 119.(d) 139. (c) 159. (a) 179. (c) 199. (c)
20. (b) 40. (d) 60. (b) 80. (b) 100.(d) 120.(d) 140. (a) 160.(b) 180. (a) 200.(b)

SOLUTION
1. (b) 5. (c)
Rapper Kendrick Lamar won the Pulitzer Prize in Place Leader of Revolt
music. The Pulitzer Prize is a U.S. award for Delhi Bahadur Shah Jafar
achievements in newspaper and online journalism, Kanpur Nana Sahib
literature and musical composition. It was established in Lucknow/Awadh Begum Hazrat Mahal
1917 by provisions in the will of Joseph Pulitzer. Jhansi Rani Laxmi Bai
2. (a) Bihar Kunwar Singh
Jnanpith Award is India's highest literary award Allahabad Liaquat Ali
established in 1961. The first recipient of the award was Bareli Khan Bahadur khan
the Malayalam writer G. Sankara Kurup in 1965 for his
6. (b)
collection of poems. The most recent recipient of award
Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subject to
is Malayalam poet and essayist Nambootiri who was
dissolution. However, one third of the members retires
awarded for the year 2019 this was the 55th Jnanpith
every second year and is replaced by newly elected
Award.
members. Each member is elected for a term of six
3. (a)
years.
Zoroastrian (Parsi) religion has maximum population
The Rajya Shabha should consist of not more than '250'
residing in Maharashtra. The founder of this religion is
Zarathushtra. It is called Parsi in India. It is a religion members – '238' members representing the states and
practiced since ancient times in Iran. Union Territories and '12' members are nominated by
the President.
4. (b)
The Charminar (four minarets) was constructed in 1591 7.(a)
AD, is a monument and mosque located in Hyderabad, The 16th Lok Sabha election was held in 2014 in which
Telangana. It is an example of Indian - Islamic the Bharatiya Janata Party secured an absolute majority
Architecture. The fifth ruler of Qutub Shahi dynasty, by getting 282 seats out of 543 seats. Shri Narendra
Muhammad Quli Qutub Shah built Charminar after Modi was sworn in as the 15th Prime Minister of India
shifting his capital from Golkonda to the newly formed on 26 May, 2014.
city of Hyderabad. The Charminar was built to 8. (b)
commemorate the eradication of plague, that was India's constitutional provision of 'Indirect election of
prevalent at that time. Rajya Sabha members' was adopted from South African
276 YCT
 constitution. Indian constitution has borrowed most of 17. (c)
its provisions from the constitution of various other Precipitation is the process of transforming a dissolved
countries as well as from the Government of India Act, substance into an insoluble solid the solid formed is
1935. called the precipitate which is insoluble in water.
9. (d) 18. (b)
Article Provision The first fullerene to be identified was C-60. It was
130 – The seat of Supreme Court actually discovered in 1985 by Sir Harold W. Kroto,
140 – Ancillary Powers of Supreme Court Smolley and Robert F. Curl. They obtained a cage like
101 – Vacation of Seats (No Person shall be a molecules composed of 60 carbon atoms.
member of both Houses of Parliament) 19.(c)
112 – Annual Financial Statement. ■ Hydra usually remains attached to submerged
10. (d) vegetation or with any solid object in the water of
On 23 February, 1962 the Indian National Committee ponds, lakes and pits etc. It is also occasionally
for Space Research or INCOSPAR was established by motile. It is the animal of Phylum Cnidaria or
the Government of India. Homi J. Bhabha created the Coelenterata.
INCOSPAR with another brilliant scientist Vikram ■ Hydra appears tubular and flexible .The hypostome
Sarabhai as its Chairman. It was part of the Tata bears an aperture at its apex called mouth which
Institute of Fundamental Research (TIFR). opens into the gastro vascular cavity or enteron.The
11. (d) hypostome is encircled by a circlet of 6-10
Ans. (d): The draft of Constitution for independent tentacles.
India was prepared by the Constituent Assembly under ■ Tentacles help Hydra in locomotion and hunting.
the Cabinet Mission Plan 1946. The Cabinet Mission 20. (b)
reached Delhi on 24 March, 1946 AD. There were 3 Planaria is a member of phylum Platyhelminthes
members in this board-Pathick Lawrence (India (flatworm) of the fauna. This is grouped in class
Secretary), Trade Board chairman Stafford Cripps and Turbellaria. Planarians have ocelli (eyespots) that
Navy Chief A.V. Alexendar. Cabinet Mission rejected allows the presence and intensity of light to be
the Muslim League's demand for Pakistan. determined. These structures acts as photoreceptors.
12. (d) They move away from light.
Mars is the fourth planet after earth in order of distance 21. (a)
from the sun. It completes one revolution around the sun
in 687 days. It appears red due to iron oxide which is
efvecveefueefKele JeekeäÙeeW ceW mes ‘Deye Ûeuee peeS’ JeekeäÙe YeeJeJeeÛÙe keâe
present here that's why it is therefore also called red GoenjCe nw, keäÙeeWefkeâ Fme JeekeäÙe ceW ef›eâÙee keâer ØeOeevelee nw~
planet. The presence of atmosphere on the mars is 22. (d)
extremely rare and the rotation speed of Mars is similar ‘keâesÙeue’ Meyo Œeerefuebie nw peyeefkeâ veeruekebâ", Kebpej Deewj leerlej
to the rotation speed of the earth. hegefuuebie Meyo nQ~
13. (a)
23. (d)
In the year 1990, the first human development report
was published by United Nations Development
ef›eâÙee kesâ efpeme ™he mes, ef›eâÙee kesâ YeefJe<Ùe ceW nesves keâe yeesOe nes, Gmes
Programme (UNDP). The Human Development Report ‘YeefJe<Ùe keâeue’ keânles nQ~ Fmekesâ leerve Yeso nQ–
(HDR) is an annual Human Development Index that 1. meeceevÙe YeefJe<Ùekeâeue – jcesMe efJeÅeeueÙe peeÙesiee~
was launched by the economist of Pakistan Mahbub Ul 2. mebYeeJÙe YeefJe<Ùe keâeue – mebYeJe nw, keâue hejer#ee heefjCeece
Haq and Indian Nobel laureate Amartya Sen.
14. (d)
Ieesef<ele nes~
Valmiki Ambedkar Awas Yojana (VAMBAY) was 3. nslegnslegceod YeefJe<Ùekeâeue – ceeB Keevee yeveeÙes lees ceQ KeeTB~
launched in December 2001 to ameliorate the conditions 24. (c)
of the urban slum dwellers living below the poverty line efoÙes ieÙes MeyoeW ceW ‘DeveheÌ{’ Meyo ceW ‘Deved’ Ghemeie& ØeÙegòeâ veneR nw
without adequate shelter.
yeefukeâ FmeceW ‘Deve’ Ghemeie& ØeÙegòeâ nw~ OÙeeleJÙe nw efkeâ ØeMve ceW efpeme
15.(a)
Distance is a scalar quantity because it has only ‘Deved’ Ghemeie& keâer yeele keâer pee jner nw Gmekeâe ‘ved’ nuevled Ùegòeâ nw~
magintude and no direction. Distance covered is always Mes<e meYeer ceW ‘Deved’ Ghemeie& ØeÙegòeâ nw~
positive or zero. It can never be negative. Force, Deved ± Ghekeâej · Deveghekeâej
acceleration and velocity are vector quantities that can Deved ± Ghece · Deveghece
have positive, negative, and zero values.
16. (a)
Deved ± GheÙeesieer · DevegheÙeesieer~
A bus moving on a crowded road is an example of 25. (a)
uneven speed. In uneven speed, velocity changes with ieÅeebMe kesâ Devegmeej ceveg<Ùe leYeer megKeer keâne pee mekeâlee nw, peye ‘Gmes
time. Its value varies at different time points. Deeeflcekeâ %eeve nes~’
277 YCT
26. (c) cetueeJemLee GòejeJemLee GòeceeJemLee
‘megKe–meeOeve’ keâe efJe«en Deewj meceeme ›eâceMe: ‘megKe kesâ meeOeve’ Deewj vÙetve vÙetvelej vÙetvelece
lelheg®<e meceeme nw~ Ùen mecyevOe lelheg®<e meceeme keâe GoenjCe nw~ ueIeg ueIegllej ueIegòece
lelheg®<e meceeme kesâ Gòej heo ØeOeeve nesles nQ~ efvecve efvecvelej efvecvelece
27. (b) 37. (c)
Jen DeefMeef#ele efMeef#ele JÙeefòeâ mes DeÛÚe nw pees oÙeeueg Deewj meÛÛeefj$e ef›eâÙee kesâ cetue ™he keâes Oeeleg keânles nQ~ OeelegSB Dekeâce&keâ SJeb mekeâce&keâ
nes~ ieÅeebMe ceW mhe° keâLeve nw efkeâ– meùoÙe, meÛÛee hejvleg, DeveheÌ{ oes Øekeâej keâer nesleer nQ~ cetue Dekeâce&keâ OeelegDeeW ceW ØelÙeÙe pees[Ì keâj
cepeotj Gme mveelekeâ mes keâneR DeÛÚe nw pees efveo&Ùe Deewj Ûeefj$enerve nw~ mekeâce&keâ SJeb ØesjCeeLe&keâ OeelegSB yeveeÙeer peeleer nQ~ efJekeâuhe ceW meeefOele
28. (d) mekeâce&keâ Oeeleg efoÙee ieÙee nw~ Dele: Gòej kesâ ™he ceW Ùen efJekeâuhe
‘DevegòejoeÙeer yeveevee’ DeÛÚer efMe#ee keâer efJeMes<elee veneR nw yeefukeâ Ùen meJee&efOekeâ GheÙegòeâ nw~ Fmekesâ Deefleefjòeâ oes Ùee DeefOekeâ OeelegDeeW kesâ
efkeâmeer Yeer JÙeefòeâ keâe oes<e nw~ DeÛÚer efMe#ee keâer efJeMes<eleeSB nQ– Deeeflcekeâ mebÙeesie mes mebÙegòeâ OeelegSB yeveleer nQ~ pewmes – jesves ueiee, nBme Ûegkeâe,
%eeve osvee, meÛÛeefj$e veeieefjkeâ yeveevee leLee megmebmke=âle yeveevee~ hengBÛe ieÙee Deeefo~ efpeve OeelegDeeW kesâ mebheeove ceW oes keâceeX keâer
29. (d) DeeJeMÙekeâlee nesleer nes, efÉkeâce&keâ OeelegSB keânueeleer nQ~ pewmes – ‘ceQ
‘Gjie’ ‘mehe&’ keâe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Meyo nw Ùen ‘helLej’ keâe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer veneR ueÌ[kesâ keâes Jeso heÌ{elee ntB’~ Ùeneb ‘ueÌ[keâe’ SJeb ‘Jeso’ oes Deueie-
nw~ ‘mehe&’ kesâ DevÙe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Meyo–Deefn, veeie, Yegpebie, efJe<eOej, Deueie keâce& nQ~ Dele: ‘heÌ{elee ntB’ efÉkeâce&keâ Oeeleg ngF&~
JÙeeue, heVeie, meeBhe, meejbie Deeefo nw~ peyeefkeâ hee<eeCe, DeMce, Øemlej, 38. (c)
heenve Deeefo helLej kesâ heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer nQ~ efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW ‘leLee’ Meyo DeJÙeÙe nw~ efpeve MeyoeW kesâ ™he
30. (d) ceW efuebie, JeÛeve, keâejkeâ Deeefo kesâ keâejCe keâesF& heefjJele&ve Ùee efJekeâej ve
efoS ieS efJekeâuheeW ceW Meerle keâe efJeueesce G<Ce nw~ nes, lees GvnW DeJÙeÙe keânles nQ~
Meyo efJeueesce 39. (c)
Meerle G<Ce ef›eâÙee keâe DeeOeej metefÛele keâjves Jeeuee keâejkeâ ‘DeefOekeâjCe keâejkeâ’
ke=â<Ce Megkeäue keânueelee nw, peyeefkeâ peneB efkeâmeer Jemleg kesâ Deueie nesves keâe YeeJe Øekeâš
"b[e iece& nes Gmes Deheeoeve keâejkeâ leLee efpeme Meyo mes efkeâmeer kesâ meeLe mecyevOe
31. (d) Ùee ueieeJe Øeleerle nes JeneB mecyevOe keâejkeâ Deewj peneB keâesF& Jemleg efkeâmeer
efvecveefueefKele ceW mes ‘mebYeeuevee’ Meyo ceW Devegveeefmekeâlee nw~ ‘Devegveeefmekeâ’ keâes hetCe& ™he mes oeve oer peeleer nes JeneB hej mecØeoeve keâejkeâ neslee nw~
mJejeW keâer efJeMes<elee nw efkeâ Fvekesâ GÛÛeejCe ceW JeeÙeg veekeâ mes keâce, cegKe 40. (d)
mes DeefOekeâ efvekeâueleer nw~ efnvoer ceW Ùen efJeMes<elee Ûebõ efyevog kesâ ™he ceW ‘Úle’ Meyo leodYeJe nw~ efpemekeâe lelmece ‘#ele’ nw~ mebmke=âle MeyoeW mes
oMee&Ùeer peeleer nw~ Ûebõ efyevog ØeeÙe: leodYeJe ™heeW ceW ØeÙegòeâ efkeâÙee peelee efJeke=âle (heefjJeefle&le) neskeâj yeves Meyo leodYeJe keânueeles nQ, pewmes- Úle,
nw~ Gpeuee, keâhetj, Deeie .... FlÙeeefo~
32. (a) 41. (d)
efkeâmeer De#ej Ùee Meyo hej efJeMes<e yeue osves kesâ efueS Skeâue GæjCe Generic - JÙeehekeâ, Synonym Universal - meJe&JÙeehekeâ~ DevÙe
efÛendve keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peelee nw~ peneB efkeâmeer hegmlekeâ mes keâesF& JeekeäÙe ef JekeâuheeW kes â DeLe&
-
Ùee DeJelejCe pÙeeW keâe lÙeeW Gæ=le efkeâÙee peeS, JeneB oesnjs GæjCe Definite - efveef§ele, Specific - efJeefMe°, Precise - efJeefOehetJe&keâ
efÛendve keâe ØeÙeesie neslee nw Deewj peneB keâesF& efJeMes<e Meyo heo, JeekeäÙe 42. (a)
Keb[ FlÙeeefo Gæle efkeâS peeS, Jeneb Fkeânjs GæjCe ueieles nQ~ Gradual - ›eâefcekeâ, Antonym, Abrupt - efJe<ece/SkeâeSkeâ~ DevÙe
33. (a) ef JekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&-
ØeMveiele JeekeäÙe ceW jsKeebefkeâle Meyo ot§eefj$e keâe Megæ ™he ‘og§eefj$e’ nw~ Regular - efveÙeefcele, Gentle - meppeve, Slow - Oeerjs~
34. (d) 43. (d)
‘Jen FveceW mes Skeâ keâes peevelee nw~’ JeekeäÙe ceW ‘Skeâ’ meb%ee kesâ ™he ceW Ghejesòeâ group of words 'A room or building with
ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee ieÙee nw~ pewmes– Jen FveceW mes MÙeece keâes peevelee nw~ equipment for doing physical exercise' kesâ efueS one
35. (c) word gymnasium (JÙeeÙeeceMeeuee) GheÙegòeâ nesiee~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW
‘pees keâjsiee mees Yejsiee’ ceW mecyevOeJeeÛekeâ meJe&veece nw~ efpeme meJe&veece kesâ DeLe& efYeVe nwb-
Éeje efkeâmeer otmejs meJe&veece mes mecyevOe mLeeefhele nes peeS, Gmes dormitory - Úe$eeJeeme
mebyebOeJeeÛekeâ meJe&veece keânles nQ~ pewmes - pees, mees~ infirmary - ogye&uelee
36. (d) convent - ce"
vÙetvelece efJeMes<eCe keâer GòeceeJemLee nw- 44. (c)
GòeceeJemLee– FmeceW efJeMes<eCe Éeje efkeâmeer Jemleg keâes meyemes DeefOekeâ Ghejesòeâ Idiom, good turn (meneÙekeâ keâeÙe&) kesâ efueS efJekeâuhe (c)
iegCeJeeve Ùee oes<eer yeleeÙee peelee nw, pewmes- nceejs keâeuespe ceW vejsvõ A helpful act GheÙegòeâ JÙeeKÙee keâjlee nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&
meyemes DeÛÚe efKeueeÌ[er nw~ efYeVe nw~
278 YCT
45. (d) 51. (c)
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe ceW 'from' kesâ mLeeve hej 'of' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee, Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ jsKeebefkeâle Yeeie ceW have kesâ mLeeve hej had keâe ØeÙeesie
keäÙeeWefkeâ 'from' keâe ØeÙeesie jemeeÙeefvekeâ heefjJele&ve kesâ efueS Je 'of' keâe nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ I wish kesâ yeeo Past kesâ ‘yeerles ngS meceÙe mes heÚleeJee
ØeÙeesie Yeeweflekeâ heefjJele&ve kesâ efueS efkeâÙee peelee nw~ JeekeäÙe ceW Ûeeboer kesâ efoKeeves’ kesâ sense ceW had keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peelee nw~
yeekeäme keâes yeveeves keâer yeele nes jner nw~ Dele: 'of' keâe ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ Correct Sentence -
I wish I had come an hour sooner.
nesiee~ 52. (b)
Correct sentence- This jewellery box is made of silver
Ghejesòeâ Bracket part ceW have been helped kesâ mLeeve hej has
and is an antique piece.
been helped keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW ‘The
46. (b)
centre's bid’ Skeâ singular subject nw Dele: verb Yeer
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe ceW due to kesâ mLeeve hej because keâe ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ singular form (has been) ØeÙegòeâ nesieer~
nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ reason kesâ sense ceW 'because' (keäÙeeWefkeâ) Correct Sentence–
conjunction keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peelee nw~ The centre's bid to dispel the pall of gloom over the
Correct sentence : economy has been helped in recent weeks by a rating.
Preeti is absent from the meeting because she is out of 53. (a)
station. Ghejes òeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ jsKeeefkebâle Yeeie it improve kesâ mLeeve hej it
47. (c) would improve keâe ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ efoÙee ieÙee
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ efjòeâ mLeeve ceW 'Emphasising' (efkeâmeer hej JeekeäÙ e Past Conditional Sentence keâe nw Dele: efveÙece- If +
sub + v2, + S + would + v1
efJeMes<e yeue osvee) keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ- Correct Sentence -
Insisting - efkeâmeer yeele hej Dee«en keâjvee If you listen to the English news, It would improve
Decrying - efveboe keâjvee your English.
Avoiding - kegâÚ keâjves mes yeÛevee 54. (b)
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ jsKeeefkebâle Yeeie will we kesâ mLeeve hej can we
Correct sentence- The speaker had not written his
speech properly and went on emphasising one point
keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ keäÙeesefkeâ efoÙee ieÙee Question Tag keâe JeekeäÙe
only. Modal Auxiliory Verb hej DeeOeeefjle Negative Sentence keâe
48. (b) JeekeäÙe nw Dele: Fmekeâe Question Tag, Positive sentence nesiee~
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ efjòeâ mLeeve ceW 'impede' (yeeOee Ùee DeÌ[Ûeve Ûetbefkeâ JeekeäÙe keâer verb can nw lees question tag Yeer
[euevee/keâef"veeF& GheefmLele keâjvee) keâe ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ nesiee~ DevÙe (can+subject) nesiee~
Correct Sentence–
efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ- We can't live without water, can we?
Impel - kegâÚ keâjves kesâ efueS yeeOÙe Ùee Øesefjle keâjvee~ 55. (c)
Impose - Leeshevee, Deejesefhele keâjvee~ Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ jsKeeefkebâle Yeeie a principle kesâ mLeeve hej The
Improve - megOejvee Ùee megOeejvee principle nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ peye oes noun ‘of’ mes pegÌ[W nes lees henues
Correct sentence- If you drink too much, it will noun kesâ henues the keâe ØeÙeesie neslee nw~
impede your judgment. Correct Sentence–
It implies an acceptance of (the principal) of free
49. (c)
movement of people from the block
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ efjòeâ mLeeve ceW start - Meg®Deele (ØeejcYe nesvee) keâe 56. (c)
ØeÙeesie nesiee~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ- According to the passage we can infer that the writer
sense - YeeJevee was a "mischievous boy." Hence option (c) will be
correct answer.
kick - "eskeâj ceejvee
57. (d)
humour -heefjneme According to the passage the writter call cricket a
correct sentence- hopeless cove affair because "he tried hard to learn it."
The great advantage of early rising is the good start is Hence option (d) will be correct answer.
given us to our day. 58. (c)
50. (a) According to the passage the writter call the bathing
dengerous because "the boulders gave them bruise."
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe ceW 'asked from me' kesâ mLeeve hej 'asked me' keâe Hence option (c) will be correct answer.
ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ nesiee, keäÙeebsefkeâ indirect yeveeles meceÙe told, asked etc. kesâ 59. (a)
meeLe efyevee efkeâmeer Preposition kesâ meerOes object keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peelee According to the passage the 'moral' is "Things you
nw~ Dele: 'from' keâe ØeÙeesie veneR nesiee~ enjoy doing are always unreachable." Which the boy
Correct sentence :- drows from his children experiences. Hence option (a)
will be correct answer.
He asked me if I was interested in a career in modelling.
279 YCT
60. (b) 2x = 81 – 45 = 36
According to the passage the boys not "Sleep until x = 18
late" on summer mornings. Hence option (b) will be The smaller quantity = 3x = 3 × 18 = 54
correct answer. 66. (d)
61.(d) The marked price of an article = ` 2850
Let the total marks of examination = x Discount = 21%
According to the question, (100 − 21)
65 80 5 Hence the selling price = 2850 ×
x× + 20 = x × −x× 100
100 100 100
79
75x 65x = 2850 ×
− = 20 100
100 100
57 × 79
10x
= 20 =
100 2
x = 200 = ` 2251.50
Hence, total marks of exmination = 200 67. (b)
62. (b) 90 − 76
Let the number is x Discount % = × 100
90
82 73 14
∴ x× −x× = 72 = ×100
100 100 90
9x 140
= 72 = = 15.56%
100 9
x = 800 68. (a)
48 PRT
48% of number = 800 × = 384 S.I. =
100 100
63. (d) 500 × 7 × 3
S.I.(1) = = `105
Let x% of a day be equal to 3 hours. 100
According to the question- 700 × 10 × 3
x S.I.( 2) = = `210
24 × =3 100
100 1000 × 4 × 3
100 25 1 S.I.(3) = =`120
x= = = 12 % 100
8 2 2 ∴ S.I. = S.I.(1) + S.I.(2) + S.I.(3)
64.(d) = 105 + 210 + 120 = `435
From the question,
69. (c)
a 3 + b3 185 Let amount P become 3P in 8 years by 8% annual rate
=
a 3 − b3 158 then–
158 a + 158 b3 = 185 a3 – 185 b3
3
Simple Interest of 8 years = 3P – P = 2P
185 a3 – 158 a3 = 158 b3 + 185 b3 Principal amount × Rate × Time
27 a3 = 343 b3 So, Simple Interest =
100
a 3 343
= P × r ×8
b3 27 2P =
100
a 3 343
= 2 × 100
b 27 r= = 25%
8
a 7
= So, r = 25%
b 3
70. (b)
Hence, a : b = 7 : 3 Suppose borrowed amount = ` x
65. (b) Compound interest = Total Amount – Principal
Let the two quantities are 3x and 5x Profit = Compound interest – Simple interest
According to the question, As per the question,
3x − 9 5
=  10 
3
  x × 9 × 3
5x − 9 9 x  1 +  − 1 −   = 1952
27x – 81 = 25x – 45  100    100 
280 YCT
   11 
3
  x × 9 × 3 74. (b)
⇒ x    − 1 –   = 1952 Given,
  10    100  M1 = 12 , M2 = ?
 1331   x × 9 × 3  D1 = 24.5 , D2 = 49
⇒x −1 – = 1952
 1000   100  W1 = 1 wall W2 = 5 wall
Then,
 1331 − 1000   x × 9 × 3 
⇒x – = 1952 M1D1 M 2 D 2
 1000   100  =
W1 W2
 331  27x
⇒x – = 1952 12 × 24.5 M 2 × 49
 1000  100 =
1 5
x ( 331 – 270 ) M2 = 30 Men
⇒ = 1952
1000 75. (c)
x × 61  1 
⇒ = 1952 Time ∝ Efficiency 
1000  
⇒ x = 32 × 1000 = `32000 Raju Ravi
71. (c) Work Efficiency → 3 → 1
Principal = 20000, Rate = 8%, Time = 2 years Time → 1 → 3
t (3–1) units = 20
 r 
Compound amount = Principal 1 +  2 units = 20
 100 
2 1 unit = 10
 8  3 units = 30 days
= 20000 1 + 
 100  76. (d)
108 108 The average sales volume of philips bulbs from all the
= 20000 × ×
100 100  80 + 75 + 95 + 85 + 75 
shops ·   thousand
= 23328  5 
CI = A – P = 82 thousand
= 23328 – 20000 = 82000
= `3328 77. (d)
72. (d) According to the question,
The difference between C.I. and S.I., Total weight of section A = 40 × 36 = 1440 kg
PR 2 Total weight of section B = 50 × 45 = 2250 kg
D= (for two years) ∴ Average weight of whole class
1002
P ×8×8 Total weight of class
240 = =
100 × 100 Total number of students
P = `37500 1440 + 2250 3690
= = = 41
73. (c) ( 40 + 50 ) 90
∵ Rama packs 36 boxes in 60 minutes. 78. (a)
36 3 According to the question,
∴ 1 minute = =
60 5 The average weight of passengers
And her sister packs 36 boxes in 180 minutes 90 × 4 + 60 × 15 + 75 × 6 + 78 × 5 + 72 × 3 + 45 × 7
=
36 1 40
∴ 1 minute = =
180 5 360 + 900 + 450 + 390 + 216 + 315
=
3 1 40
∴ Boxes packed by them in 1 minute = +
5 5 2631
=
4 40
=
5 = 65.77 kg
36 79. (b)
∴ Time taken by them to pack 36 boxes =
4 0.16 + 0.15 - 0.13
5
36 × 5 16 − 1 15 − 1 13 − 1
= = 45 minutes = + −
4 90 90 90

281 YCT
 15 14 12 86. (d)
= + −
90 90 90 Snake, Lizard and Crocodile are related to reptiles.
15 + 14 − 12 Hence, in these four options reptiles are different.
= 87. (b)
90
After observing the above figures, it is found that the
17 shape of a curve is formed at each corner of the square
=
90 formed in figure A, figure C and figure D and in these
80. (b) three figures, the shape of the 'curve' of the square built
From options, on the two corners is built inside the square and outside
9 13 the square on the other two corners. Whereas the shape
(a) ≤ = 0.56 ≤ 0.54 (wrong) of the curve on the three corners of the square formed in
16 24
9 13 figure 'B' is inside the square and the rest is outside the
(b) > = 0.56 > 0.54 (right) square on the fourth one corner. Hence figure 'B' does
16 24 not belong to the given figure group.
9 13
(c) = = 0.56 = 0.54 (wrong) 88. (a)
16 24 The given series is as follows:-
9 13
(d) < = 0.56 < 0.54 (wrong)
16 24
81. (b)
Just as, 'Lion' is related to 'Roar', in the same way as ? = 116 - 16 ⇒100
'Horse' is related to 'Neigh'. Hence, ? = 100
82. (a) 89. (b)
Given, Rotating the first figure 180º (right or left) in the given
series we gets the second figure. Similarly by rotating the
third figure 180º (right or left) the next (Fourth) figure
will be obtained or the figure 'A' will come in place of ? .
and, Hence (b) is correct option.
90. (d)
From Question,
From row-I From row-II From row-III
Same as, 5 – 2 = 3 8 – 4 = ? 6–1=5
From option (a)- 3=3 ?=4 5=5
91. (c)
According to the question, on drawing blood relation
diagram,
Hence, option 'a' is correct.
83. (c)
Just as,
33 = 27 and 42 = 16
Same as,
53 = 125
and 62 = 36
So option (c) will be right answer.
84. (a) Hence, it is clear that Eva is the daughter of Aman's
Answer figure D will be used in the given series at the sister.
place of question mark. 92. (a)
85. (c) On drawing blood relation diagram according to the
Just as, And, given condition, P $ Q * R # S
2 21 20 20 5 18 13 9 14 5 4
↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑
B U T T E R M I N E D
Same as,
15 9 12
↑ ↑ ↑ It is clear from the above diagram that S is the mother
O I L of P.
282 YCT
93. (d) 100. (d)
The given equation is -
4 × 5 + 3 ÷ 16 – 1 = ?
+→× ×→−
−→÷ ÷→+
According to the question, on changing the signs-
4 – 5 × 3 + 16 ÷ 1 = ?
4 – 5 × 3 + 16 = ? Total number of triangles = ∆ABC, ∆ABF, ∆ACF,
4 – 15 + 16 = ? ∆ADG, ∆AEG, ∆ADE, ∆DFG, ∆EFG, ∆FDE, ∆AFE,
20 – 15 = ? ∆ADF, ∆BDF, ∆EFC = 13 triangles
?=5 101. (b)
94. (d) The heart is not strong enough by itself to get the blood
back up the veins in our legs and back to our heart. The
Given,
human body relies on a second system to finish that
21 9 13 7 · 195 task. This system involves small valves throughout the
From option (d), veins and muscle contractions from our skeletal muscles
21 × 9 + 13 – 7 = 195 when we walk and move about. The valves close when
189 + 13 – 7 = 195 blood start to flow in one direction so that blood in the
202 – 7 = 195 veins can only flow in the direction back to the heart.
195 = 195 (LHS = RHS) 102. (d)
95. (a) Heart is a muscular organ which is present behind & is
In the given words the piston inside the engine and the tilted slightly to the left side of the breastbone.
engine remains inside the bus. The heart is covered by a double- layered membrane
Bus
called as parietal pericardium while the inner layer is
called visceral pericardium. The Space between the two
Engine
layers is filled with pericardial fluid which reduces the
Piston friction while pumping to the heart.
Hence, option (a) is correct. 103. (c)
96. (c) Pituitary diabetes insipidus are indication of
On drawing the Venn diagram as per statement. vasopressin.Vasopressin decreases water excretion by
the kidneys, by increasing water reabsorption in the
Fabulous
Fablous
Beautiful
collecting ducts, hence its other name of antidiuretic
hormone. Vasopressin also has a potent constricting
Picture effect on arterioles throughout the body.
104. (c)
Alkaptonuria is caused by deficiency of an enzyme
Homogentisate oxidase.
Hence, Both conclusion I and II are follow.
→ The three major features of Alkaptonuria are the
97. (d) presence of dark urine, ochronosis, a buildup of dark
On making the diagram as per the statement. pigment in connective tissues.
105. (c)
Progesterone does not belong to the 5- alpha series.
5- alpha Reductase, also known as 3- oxo -α-steroid 4-
dehydrogenise are enzymes involved in steroid
metabolism. They participate in three metabolic
pathways-bile acid biosynthesis, androgen and estrogen
It is clear from the above diagram that only conclusion I metabolism.
follows. 106. (b)
98. (d) Squeezing of WBC & through the pores of blood
capillaries is called as diapedesis.
Only conclusion I follows to the given statement.
• Pinocytosis is a process by which the cell takes the
99. (d) fluids along with dissolved small molecules.
Pattern D closely resembles to given pattern. Hence, • Chemotaxis is the directed migration of a cell in
option (d) is correct. response to a chemical stimulus such as a growth factor.
283 YCT
107. (c) Based on flow properties:
Red cells and whole blood must always be stored at a 1. Free flowing solids:
temperature between +2ºC to +6ºC in a blood bank Ex:- V cone blend, double cone blender.
refrigerator. 2. Cohesive solids:
Whole human blood is stored at 2–8ºC approx. Ex:- Sigma blender, planetary blender.
108. (d) Based on scale of mixing:
In 1885 the British pharmacopoeia was made official in 1. Batch type (small scale):
India. Ex:- mortar and pestle, V cone blender, Double
109. (a) cone blender, Ribbon blender, sigma blender, planetary
The Latin term for eardrops is auristillae. It is a paddle, fluidized mixer.
medicine in the form of drops to treat bacteria and 2. Continuous type (Large scale):
fungus infection in the ear. E.g.- zigzag type, barrel type.
110. (b) 117. (a)
A Cargile membrane suture was prominently used in the First the dissolution is carried out in 01 m HCL, unless
beginning 20th century in abdominal surgery. It is made otherwise stated in the individual monograph of the
from the peritoneum of the Ox. pharmacopeia, in the disintegration test for enteric
111. (b) coated tablets.
The supplement for Indian pharmacopoeia in 2000 was 118. (a)
introduced to include the veterinary products. Hypromellose (hydroxy propyl methyl cellulose,
112. (c) HPMC) is the most commonly used polymer in
The standard test for catgut involving measurement by formulation of extended release (ER) hydrophilic matrix
means of dial reading micrometer is known as the test tablets.
for gauge. Gauge is measured by means of a dial 119. (d)
reading micrometer at several points along the strand Romiplostim belongs to a class of drugs called TPO
and after the gut has been conditioned above. (thrombopoietin) peptide mimetics. These drugs help
body to make more platelets. It is approved for use in
113. (d)
patients with immune thrombocytopenia and its
Incompatibility- "It is defined as when two or more
injection given to patients subcutaneously.
ingredients of a prescription are mixed together, the
120. (d)
undesired changes that may takes place in the physical,
If a capsule is numbered as 000 which means it is the
chemical or therapeutic properties of the medicament is
largest sized and for veterinary purpose only. A "000"
termed as incompatibility".
(triple zero) capsule is the largest size available in cases
Three classes of drug incompatibility is given below-
where capsule sizes are indicated with "0" names 000
• Physical incompatibility are the largest while 0 are smaller.
• Chemical incompatibility 121. (c)
• Therapeutic incompatibility Parenteral products are sterile preparation containing
114. (b) one or more active ingredients intended for
Excipient are inert substance that can be combined with administration by injection, infusion or implantation
drugs mixed to form granules, Lipid excipients are into the body.
commonly used in two granulation techniques to Parental products are based on volume and the state of
modify drug dissolution either as sustained-release, or product according to USP.
wetting agents wet granulation- where the solid lipid 1. Small volume parenterals (SVP) :- An injection
excipient is used in the powder blend or incorporated that is packed in containers labeled as containing 100
into the binder solution. ml or less.
115. (a) 2. Large volume parenterals (SVP) :- An injection
Dry heat sterilization is accomplished by the that is packed in containers labeled as containing 101
conduction of heat is absorbed by the outside surface of ml or more.
the device and is transferred through the entire devices • Ampoules are smaller and used to hold single- dose
till the target temperature is attained. Dry heat kills medicines, whereas vials tend to be larger, and the
microorganism by oxidizing molecules. product inside can be stored and reused.
116. (c) Ampoules should not sit open and should be used
In the manufacture of tablets or granules normally a immediately, then discarded appropriately.
number of additives are added. Therefore, mixing of 122. (d)
power becomes essential parts or the process. Mixing is "Those medications which are ordered packaged
considered as a critical factor, especially in case of handled, administered and charged in multiples of
potent drugs and low dose drugs where high amounts of single dose units containing a predetermined amount of
adjuvants are added. drugs or supply sufficient for one regular dose
Classification of equipment for solid mixing:- application or use".

284 YCT
Advantage of unit dose system- • The first scientific hospital formulary in India was
1. Patients receive improved pharmaceutical service 24 published in 1968 by the pharmacy department of
hours a day and are charged for only those doses, which CMC Vellore.
are administered to them. • The first HF for a Government teaching hospital in
2. All doses of medication required at the nursing India was published in 1997 at Govt. Medical college
station are prepared by the pharmacy thus allowing the Hospital Trivandrum.
nurse more time for direct patient care.
127. (d)
3. Medication errors are decreased. o
4. Eliminates credits. The size of aqueous filled pores is 4 to 10 A .
5. Reduces revenue losses. 128. (c)
6. Eliminates pilferage and drug waste Equipment Model / Trade / Type
7. Central location of drugs.
Low Shear mixer Slated Double Cone Mixer
8. Medications ready for administration.
9. Patient safety. Rotary tablet Manestry Drycota
123. (a) machine
The ABC analysis is a business term used to define an Capsule filling PCF 1200 Model (Pharma
inventory categorization technique often used in machine Land)
materials management. It is also known as selective Compaction mill Chilsonator (Fitzpatrick)
inventory control. 129. (b)
ABC analysis is similar to the pareto principle in that Beta 1 and beta 2 - adrenergic receptors are G- protein
the 'A' items will typically account for a large
- coupled receptors expressed throughout the body and
proportion of the overall value but a small percentage of
serve as receptors for the catecholamine's epinephrine
number of items.
and norepinephrine.
• 'A' items - 20% of the items accounts for 70% of the
annual consumption value of the items. • The β1 and β2 adrenergic receptor subtype agonist
• 'B' items - 30% of the items accounts for 25% of the acting at atrioventricular node produces increases
annual consumption value of the items. automaticity and conduction velocity.
• 'C' items - 50% of the items accounts for 5% of the 130. (b)
annual consumption value of the items. The length of adult trachea is 10-11 cm long
So, "A class" Inventory will typically contain items that fibrocartilaginous tube of the lower respiratory tract.
account for 80-85% of the total value or 5-10% of the The trachea extends between the larynx and thorax.
total items. 131. (c)
124. (b) The female sex hormone are estrogen & progesterone.
Haloperidal is another butyrophenone with antiemetic There are actually three major estrogen, known as
properties but without the FDA restrictions, this article estradiol, estrone and estriol. The substances work together
reviews the literature regarding haloperidol and to promote the healthy development of female sex
supports its used as a safe substitute for droperidol in characteristics during puberty and to ensure fertility.
the prevention and treatment of postoperative nausea 132. (a)
and vomiting. The cardiovascular disease associated with the disorder
• Prochlorperazine is an anti - sickness medicine. It can of heart rate of rhythm is called Arrhythmia.
help stop us feeding or being sick (Nausea or vomiting), A heart arrhythmia is a irregular heartbeat.
we can take prochlorperazine to treat. Heart rhythm problems (heart arrhythmias) occur when
125. (a) the electrical signals that coordinate the heart's beats
white petrolatum is a semisolid mixture of don't work properly.
hydrocarbons and is suitable for ophthalmic ointment
The faulty signaling caused the heart to beat to fast
preparation due to the following properties :
(tachycardia), too slow (bradycardia) or irregularly.
(1) Its melting point ranges from 36-60ºC and therefore,
the ointment viscosity will decrease following 133. (b)
application to the eye. Oophorectomy - An oophorectomy is a surgical
(2) It does not cause irritation of the human eye. procedure to remove one or both of woman's ovaries.
126. Woman's ovaries are almond shaped organs that sit on
(b) Hospital formulary is the continuously revised list each side of uterus in your pelvis. Woman's ovaries
of pharmaceutical medicines and dosage forms with contain eggs menstrual cycle.
its important information's which reflects the current When an oophorectomy involves removing both
views of medical staff and pharmacy and therapeutic ovaries, it's called bilateral oophorectomy. When the
committee which are considered to be most useful in removing only one ovary it's called unilateral
the patient care. oophorectomy.
285 YCT
134. (b) 140. (a)
BMR is depend upon surface area BMR is directly Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor :- A type of
proportional to the surface are of the subject. Larger the drug that is used to treat depression and some other
surface area greater will be the heat loss, and equally conditions. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors stop
higher will be the heat production (i.e. metabolic rate. ) or delay to body from reabsorbing a substance called
It is dependent on the subject's activity, lifestyle, type of serotonin , which leaves more if it available for the
physical exercise, gender, homonal balance and body to use. Raising serotonin levels can help regulate
previous nutritional status. mood, appetite, digestion, sleep and many other bodily
135. (c) functions. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
Oxytocin is the hormone released form infundibulum. The include drugs such as Citalopram, Escitalopram,
posterior lobe houses the axon terminals of hypothalamic fluoxetine, Paroxetine and Sertraline.
neurons. It stores and releases into the bloodstream two 141. (a)
hypothalamic hormones, oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone. Prostaglandin analogues are a new class of ocular
The anterior lobe is connected to the hypothalamus by hypertensive drugs that have been developed for the
vasculature in the infundibulum and produces and secretes treatment of open angle glaucoma. Two of these drugs,
six hormones. Latanoprost and Unoprostone are presently
136. (d) commercially available.
Blood is a lifesaving liquid organ. Whole blood is a 142. (b)
mixture of cellular elements, colloids and crystalloids. The Tensilon test uses the drug Tensilon
• Hemoglobin is the oxygen carrying protein that is (Endrophonium) to help our doctor diagnose
found within all RBCs. It picks up oxygen where it is myasthenia gravis. Tensilon prevents the breakdown of
abundant (the lungs) and drops off oxygen where it is the chemical acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that
needed around the body. It is also the pigment that give nerve cells release to stimulate our muscles.
RBCs their red color. Normally haemoglobin level in 143. (d)
men and women is between 14.0 gm/dL and 17.5 An ethylene diamine derivative used as antitubercular
gm/dL. A low haemoglobin count is generally defined drug is ethambutol. Ethambutol is a medication used in
as less than 13.2 gm/dL. the management & treatment Of tuberculosis . It is a
• Whole human blood is a mixture of blood and bacteriostatic drug that inhibits cell wall synthesis. This
anticoagulant solution and contains not less the 9.7% activity outlines the indications actions, and
w/v of haemoglobin. contraindication for ethambutol as a valuable agent in
137. (b) the treatment of tuberculosis.
Colour vision is by cones. Cones contain photo 144. (a)
pigments or Color detecting molecules. Thimans The just a glomerular cells are stimulated to secrete
typically have three types of photo pigments-red, green renin by three mechanism, all of which are activated in
and blue. Each type of cone is sensitive to different response to decreased extracellular fluid volume.
wavelengths of visible light, Macula densa cells stimulate Juxtaglomerular cells to
138. (d) release renin when they detect a drop in sodium
Sphincter of oddi is present at exit of gall bladder. The concentration in the tubular fluid.
duct of gall bladder [cystic duct] along with the hepatic 145. (c)
duct from the liver forms the common bile duct. the bile Metabolism of salicylates occurs through
duct and pancreatic duct open together into the glucuronidation and by conjugation to salcyluric acid.
duodenum as the common Hepato-pancreatic duct Liver metabolizes salicylates by first order elimination,
which is gurded by a sphinter called the sphincter of and the inactive metabolites are then excreted in the
oddi. urine.
139. (c) 146. (c)
HLB value of tragacanth is 13.2. Pepsin is used in cheese manufacturing as substitute of
HLB value - Hydrophilic - lipophilic balance (HLB) is rennin. The key & characteristics step in the
the balance of the size and strength of the hydrophilic manufacture of rennet coagulated cheeses is the
and lipophilic moieties of a surfactant molecule. The coagulation of milk through the limited proteolytic
HLB scale ranges from 0 to 20. action certain proteinases, called rennnets. Several
In the range of 3.5 to 6.0 surfactant are more suitable proteinases can coagulate milk but only a few are
for use in W/O emulsions. suitable for cheese production. This led to a search for
HLB = E/5 can be calculated with this equation. rennet substitute, four of which are commercially
Where E is percentage by weight of ethylene oxide. successful: bovine, pepsin and proteinases from the
HLB Value of fatty acid, esters of polyhydric alcohol fungi R. meihei, R. pusillus and C. parasitica.
such as Glyceryl monostearate, HLB = 20 [1-(S/A)] All successful rennet substitutes are aspartyl (acid)
Calculated with the equation. proteinases.
286 YCT
 147. (b) specificity of pharmacological action , adverse
Absolute bioavailability is the amount of drug from reactions.
formulation that reaches the systemic circulation Ex→ Ranitidine, paroxetine , diazepam etc.
relative to an intravenous (IV) dose is assumed to be Note- Stereoisomers are special types of me-too drugs.
100% bioavailable since you are injecting the drug Ex→ Escitalopram, esketamine, esomeprozole etc.
directly into the systemic circulation. 155. (c)
148. (c) The drugs are considered to be therapeutic equivalents
Ondansetron a patent and highly selective 5 - HT3 and thus suitable for substitution(generic equivalents) if,
receptor antagonist, prevents emesis chemotherapy by among other factors, they are both pharmaceutical
antagonising the action of 5-hydroxyptamine (5 - HT) at equivalents and bioequivalent. Therapeutic equivalence
5 HT3 receptors on different neurons that innervate the = Bioequivalence + pharmaceutical equivalence
gastrointestinal tract and 5-HT3 receptors in the central 156. (b)
nervous system. Alcohol dependence→ Alcoholism, or alcohol
149. (b) dependence, is a disease that includes for symptoms.
Phenytoin follows nonlinear (or zero order) kinetics at • Craving - A strong need or urge, to drink.
therapeutic concentrations, because the rate of • Loss of control - Not being able to stop drinking once
metabolism is close to the maximum capacity of the drinking has began
enzymes involved. • Physical dependence - Withdrawal symptoms, such
150. (a) as upset stomach, sweating shakiness and after stopping
The biological half-life of many drugs is often drinking.
prolonged in newborn infants because of incompletely • Tolerance- The need to drink greater amounts of
developed enzyme systems. alcohol to get "high"
151. (d) 157. (b)
Mefenamic acid belong to the anthranilic acid Levodopa is a remarkably effective medication for the
derivative class of NSAIDS fenamates like other treatment of parkinson's disease.
NSAIDs mafenamic acid is a cyclo-oxygenase (COX-1 The combination of levodopa and carbidopa is used to
and 2) inhibitor and blocks the production of treat the symptoms of parkinson's disease that may
intracellular prostaglandins that are important in pain develop after encephalitis or injury to the nervous
and inflammatary pathways. system caused by carbon monoxide poisoning carbidopa
152. (c) is drug that blocks conversion of levodopa to dopamine
The dissolution rate of drugs from tablets may be outside of CNS and thus inhibits unwanted side effects
increase by increasing the concentration of disintegrant. of levodopa on organs located outside of CNS during
The particle size is inversely related to the dissolution management of parkinson's disease.
rate when we reducing particle size, increases surface So to disease peripheral metabolism of levodopa to
and, consequently, a higher dissolution rate. prescribe carbidopa.
• Micronizing the drug particles increases the 158. (a)
dissolution rate and solubility. Pilocarpine is used in treatment of glaucoma.
Lubricants are added to tablet formulations It is a muscarinic alkaloid obtained from the leaves of
tropical American shrubs, from the genus pilocarpus.
(a) To prevent adhesion of Granules to the tooling anti-
adherent • Prostaglandins, like xalatan and Lumigan are the most
(b) To improve granule flow properties glidant. commonly used eye drops for glaucoma.
159. (a)
153. (a)
Autosomal dominant tubulointerstitial kidney disease
Paclitaxel, the most well- known natural source cancer
(ADT KD) is a group of inherited kidney disorders.
drug in the united states which is derived from the bark
This disease is characterized by progressive renal
of the pacific yew tree (Taxus brevifolia)
insufficiency, disorder's tubulointerstitial nephropathy,
∗ It is used in the treatment of breast, lung and ovarian and bland urinary sediment.
cancer, as well as kaposi sarcoma.
• Autosmal dominant disorder are those that result from
It is a type of chemotherapy. mutation in one copy of the gene.
154. (b) 160. (b)
Esomeprazole is considered as Me -too drug because it The ability of the eye lens to adjust its focal length is
is structurally related to a first- in - class compound, known as accommodation. Power of accommodation is
regarded as belonging to the same therapeutic purpose the ability of the eye lens to focus near and far objects
but which may differ in some respects, such as clearly on the retina by adjusting its focal length.

287 YCT
161. (a) 168. (a)
A pulmonary artery is an artery in the pulmonary Morphological and functional alterations changes that
circulation that carries deoxygenated blood from the are different from normal cells is anaplasia. Anaplasia
right side of the heart to the lungs. is a term used to describe cells that have lost the
Pulmonary vein - veins originating from lungs, and unique characterstics that define them as a certain
which carry freshly oxygenated blood to heart, are tissue type.
known as pulmonary veins. 169. (d)
Aorta - Aorta is the main artery that carries blood away Thyrotoxicosis causes nodular goiter. Toxic nodular
from our heart to the rest of our body. goiter involves an enlarged thyroid gland.
Coronary Arteries - Coronary arteries supply blood to Thyrotoxicosis is a condition in which you have too
the heart muscle. Like all other tissues in the body, the much thyroid hormone in your body.
heart muscle needs oxygen-rich blood to function.
• Myxoedema is a term generally used to denote severs
162. (d)
hypothyroidism.
The pressure of blood in our arteries, when our heart
rest between beats, is called diastolic blood pressure. In • Cretinism is a condition of severly stunted physical
the normal condition diastolic pressure measures around and mental growth due untreated congenital deficiency
80 mmHg. of thyroid hormones.
• Systolic blood pressure on the other hand is the 170. (d)
pressure, when heart contracts to pump blood in arteries An ischemic necrosis of a portion of the myocardium
during each time it beats. In the normal case it measure due to sudden occlusion of a branch of coronary artery
120 mmHg. is called as Myocardial infarction (MI). Heart attack,
• A person's blood pressure is said to be normal if also called a myocardial infarction, happens when a part
systolic is less than 120 mmHg and diastolic less than of the heart muscle does not get enough blood.
80 mmHg. Coronary artery disease is the main cause of heart
163. (d) attack.
Enamel is a constituent of teeth. Dental enamel is the 171. (b)
hardest substance in the human body. Soman and sarin are nerve gases designed for use in
Enamel forms an insulating barrier that protects the chemical warfare to induce nausea, vomiting,
tooth from physical, thermal and chemical attack from convulsions and death in humans.
the substances in the form of food and liquid etc. Dyflos does not used as nerve gases.
164. (c) Dyflos is a parasympathomimetic drug irreversible
The measure of serum creatinine may also be used to anticholinesterase and has been used in ophthalmology
estimate how quickly the kidneys filter blood.
as a miotic agent in treatment of chronic glaucoma.
Glomerular filtration rate (G.F.R) the GFR may provide
a more accurate reading on kidney function. 172. (c)
165. (d) Acetylcholine is not used commercially because rapidly
Volume of blood that flows per unit time per unit destroyed in the body.
volume of the tissue is perfusion rate. • Myasthenia gravis cause the immune system to block
Perfusion rate is defined as the volume of blood that or destroy acetylcholine receptors the muscles do not
flow per unit time volume of the tissue it is expressed receive the neurotransmitter and cannot function
in ml/min/ml of the tissue. normally, without acetylcholine muscles cannot
⇒ Highly per-fused organs- Lungs, kidneys, Liver, contract.
heart brain 173. (b)
⇒ Moderately per-fused organs - muscles and skin
⇒ Poorly per-fused organs - fat and bone. (a) Steatosis (O) Accumulation of fat droplets
166. (d) within liver cells
The bones of the skull joined together except for the (b) Cholestasis (M) Raised bilirubin level
mandible by a fibrous joint called a suture. The (c) Hepatitis (P) elevated liver function test
fibrous connective tissue found at a suture (to attach
(LFT's)
or sew) strongly unites the adjacent bones of the skull
and thus help protect and form the face. (d) Fibrosis (N) Slight rise in serum
167. (a) transaminase level
Functions of glucocorticoids :- 174. (b)
carbohydrate metabolism, protein metabolism, fat An important site of fetal blood cell production is
metabolism (lipolysis), resistance to stress, spleen.
immunosuppressive effect, Anti-inflammatory effects, In the fetus, blood cell production occurs in the yolk,
Anti-allergic actions etc. liver, spleen and eventually in bone marrow.
288 YCT
175. (a) 182. (c)
Superficial veins in the arms/upper extremities The wave length at which maximum absorption of
included- Digital meta carpel, Cephalic basilic and radiation takes place is denoted by λmax . (λmax) The
median veins. wavelength at which a substance has its strongest
176. (c) photon absorption (highest point along the spectrum's
Three important parameters useful in assessing the y-axis).
bioavailability of a drug from its formulation are– 183. (c)
1. Peak plasma concentration (Cmax)– The point at Benztropine is in a class of medications called
which, maximum concentration of drug in plasma. Unit anticholinergics. It works by blocking a certain natural
: µg/ml substance (acetylcholine) to help to decrease symptoms
2. Time of peak concentration (tmax)– The time for the in people with Parkinson's disease.
drug to reach peak concentration in plasma (after extra 184. (b)
vascular administration). unit - hrs Fondaparinux injection is a class of medications called
3. Area under curve (AUC)– It represents the total factor Xa inhibitors. It works by decreasing the clotting
integrated area under the plasma level-time profile and ability of the blood.
expresses the total amount of the drug that comes into 185. (b)
systemic circulation after its administration. units - A simple manometer comprises a glass tube having
µg/ml x hrs. one of its finishes associated with a point where the
177. (a) pressing factor is to be estimated and the opposite end
Brown adipose tissue or brown fat is one of two types stays open to air.
of fat that human and other mammales have. Its main • A differential manometer is a gadget that measures
function is to turn food into body heat. It is sometimes the distinction in pressure between two spots. its
called ''good'' fat. Human newborns and hibernating advantage over simple manometer is that it can
mammals have high levels of brown fat. The other type measure smaller pressure difference.
of fat is white or yellow fat. 186. (b)
The largest accumulations of brown fat envelope the The total no. of possible stereoisomer of 3-bromo-2-
kidneys' and adrenal glands and smaller amounts butanol are four in number these are as follows :-
surround the blood vessels of the mediastinum and
neck.
178. (b)
Disopyramide is an anti-arrhythmic medication used
in the treatment of ventricular tachycardia. It is a
Sodium. Channel blockers & therefore classified as a
class-1 anti-arrhythmic agent.
179. (c)
Prostaglandin analogue are a class of drug bind to a
prostaglandin receptor. It is used in treatment of
duodenal and gastric ulcers. Impotence, peripheral
vascular disease & pulmonary hypertension are utilities
thera-peutic in prostaglandin analogous.
180. (a)
Type - I allergic reaction called a wheal-&- flare 187. (a)
reaction, it includes swelling, produced by the release Ketamine is analogue of phencyclidine and produce
of serum in to the tissues (Wheal), & redness of the dissociative anesthesia ketamine is a phencyclidine
skin, resulting from the dilation of blood vessels (hallucinogen) derivative and an antagonist of the
(Flares). This reaction is characteristic reaction NMDA receptor. In anesthetic doses it produces a
associated with identification of Type-I trance-like state known as dissociative anaesthesia
hypersensitivity reaction. (Sedation, amnesid dissociation-analgesia).
181. (a) • Propofol is an intravenous anesthetic used for
The Hammett equation in organic chemistry describes procedural sedation, during monitored anesthesia
a linear Free-energy relationship relating reaction care, or as an induction agent for general anesthesia.
rates & equilibrium constant for many reactions 188. (b)
involving benzoic acid derivatives with meta & para- There are four main components of Pharmacokinetics
substituent. Substitution constant for meta- benzoic liberation absorption distribution, metabolism and
acid is denoted by σm. excoriation adsorption is not for pharmacokinetics.
289 YCT
189. (c) 194. (c)
Paste formulation is used as sun block formulations sun Essential medicines that satisfy priority health care
block sits on to pot our skin and blocks the sun rays by needs of the population. they are selected with due
reflecting them. regard to public health relevance, evidence on efficacy
In pharmacology, paste is a basic pharmaceutical form. and safety, and comparative cost-effectiveness.
190. (b) 195. (c)
In drug store, the expiry dated formulations are called
Diethylcarbamazine is given prophylactically to the
obsolete items. The expiry date usually means that you
people living in an area with filariasis.
should not take the medicine after the end of the month
DEC kills the microfilariae and some of the adult given for example, if the expiry date is August 2022,
worms. you should not take the medicine after 31 August 200.
∗ In order to use a combination of ivermectin and 196. (c)
albenndazole for the elimination of lymphatic filariasis. Antihypertensive drug with a tetrazole ring is valsartan.
∗ Rifampicinn also known as rifampin, is an ansamycin Some tetrazole- containing drugs such as losartan,
antibiotic used to treat several types of bacterial irbesartan, valsartan and candesartan have already been
infections, including TB, mycobacterium avium used for the treatment of hypetension in clinical
complex, leprosy and legionnaires disease. practice, demonstrating the potential of tetrazole
derivatives as putative antihypertensive drugs. TAK-
191. (b)
456, losartan and tazanoplast are some important
An antimalarial drug containing endoperoxide structure antifungal, antihistaminic and antihypertensive drugs
is Artemisinin. composed of tetrazoles. The chemical formula of
1, 2, 4, - Trioxane based and related endoperoxides. tetrazole is CH2N4.
Abbreviation: ART, artemisinin 1, 2, 4- Trioxanes have 197. (b)
been developed due to efforts damage at creating Class III antiarrhythmic agents are K + channel
peroxides with simple structure but sill sufficiently blockers. Class III antiarrhythmics are drugs that block
active against malaria parasites including resistant cardiac tissue K channels. Antiarrhythmic drugs are
strains. classified bellow- By miles Vaughan Williams.
Quinine is used alone or with other medications to treat Class I drugs : Sodium channel blockers
malaria. - Quinidine, Encainide, Lidocaine etc.
Class II drugs : B - blockers
• Cycloguanil is often used for malarial prophylaxis
- propranolol, acebutolol, esmolol etc.
alone or in combination with chloroquine
Class III drugs : Potassium channel blockers
• Doxycycline is used to treat many different bacterial - Bretylium, Amiodarone, sotalol etc.
infections such as acne, urinary treat infections & Class IV drugs: calcium channel blockers
doxycyline is a tetracycline antibiotic. - Verapamil, diltiazem etc.
192. (b) Others: adenosine, digoxin, magnesium sulfate etc.
Pyridoxine used to treat damage to the nerves 198. (b)
(peripheral neuritis) caused by isoniazid, a drug used to The ovarian surface epithelium, also called the germinal
treat TB. epithelium of waldeyer, or coelomic epithelium is a
Molecular Formula : C8H11NO3 layer of simple squamous to cuboidal epithelial cell
• Pyridoxine was discovered in 1934, isolated in 1938 covering the ovary.
and made first in 1939. 199. (c)
Structure - Mereaptopurine Methotrexate pairs of chemotherapeutic
agents is most commonly used as maintenance in the
treatment of Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL).
200. (b)
Calcitonin is secreted by thyroid. Calcitonin is a 32
amino acid hormone secreted by the C- cells of thyroid
gland.
Pituitary gland :- Its function including growth,
metabolism, reproduction, lactation, water and sodium
193. (b)
(salt) balance, labour and child birth.
The pharmacological action of ipecac is Emetic.
Pancrease :- Pancrease creates natural juices called
Any agent that produces nausea and vomiting is called pancreatic enzyme to beak down food. These Juice
Emetic agents Ex→ Apomorphine, I-dopa and travel through our pancrease.
bromocryptine etc. Ipecac is used in the emergency Adrenal gland :- Adrenal gland produce hormone that
treatment of certain of certain kinds of poisoning. It is help regulate our metabolism, immune system, blood
used to cause vomiting of the poision. pressure response stress and other essential function.
290 YCT
 PRACTICE SET - 8
11. Which one of the following is not a launch
SECTION-A
vehicle technology?
General Awareness (a) GSLV (b) MSLV
(c) ASLV (d) PSLV
1. The prestigious Oscar Award ceremony is held
12. How many galilean Moons are there which
every year in which of the following countries?
were discovered by Galileo on 13 January
(a) Russia (b) England
1610?
(c) India (d) America
(a) 2 (b) 3
2. Dada Saheb Phalke Award is related to which
field? (c) 4 (d) 5
(a) Literature (b) Cinema 13. Which of the following schemes of the
(c) Journalism (d) Volleyball Government of India aims to empower the
3. During the Mauryan reign which of the students belonging to minority communities
following provinces was considered as the gold and prepare them for competitive
mine hub in Karnataka? examinations?
(a) Suvarnagiri (b) Ujjayini (a) Nai Manzil
(c) Taxila (d) Tosali (b) Maulana Azad National Fellowship
4. Annamayya was a poet/singer from medieval (c) Nai Udaan
period. Which current Indian states does he (d) Naya Savera
belong to? 14. The risk coverage on accidental death in the
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Gujarat Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) West Bengal (PMSBY) is ............ (As of July 2022).
5. In which state did the Kisan Sabha movement (a) `10 lakh (b) `5 lakh
started? (c) `15 lakh (d) `2 lakh
(a) Gujarat (b) New Delhi 15. The trajectory (or path) of a projectile is
(c) Karnataka (d) Bihar ………….
6. Which Article of the Indian Constitution states
(a) straight line (b) parabola
that "The Council of Ministers shall be
(c) circle (d) hyperbola
collectively responsible to the House of the
People"? 16. A car starts from rest runs for 2 minutes with
(a) Article 80(4) (b) Article 75(2) an uniform acceleration of 1 ms-2 . Find the
(c) Article 75(1) (d) Article 75(3) speed obtained by car.
7. Which of the following forms a part of the (a) 120 ms–2 (b) 120 ms–1
1
State Executive as per the Constitution of (c) 120 ms (d) 120 ms2
India? 17. What is the process called when a substance's
(a) Attorney-General for India spontaneous movement from a high
(b) Vice President of India concentration to a low concentration takes
(c) Governor of State place?
(d) Prime Minister of India (a) Gaseous exchange
8. From which country has the Indian (b) Diffusion
constitution derived the provision of a Five- (c) Osmosis
Year Plan? (d) Circulation
(a) USA (b) Ireland 18. Which element has non-metallic properties ?
(c) South Africa (d) USSR (a) Cl (b) K
9. The Constitution of India has ……… parts and (c) Li (d) Na
……….. schedules.
19. Aves include:
(a) 12; 25 (b) 22; 10
(c) 10; 22 (d) 25' 12 (a) Bird (b) Aquatic
10. Chandrayaan – I, India's first mission to moon, (c) Mammals (d) Pisces
was launched successfully in: 20. ______ are used in vermicomposting.
(a) October 2008 (b) November 2011 (a) Earthworms (b) Roundworms
(c) November 2009 (d) October 2010 (c) Flatworms (d) Tapeworms
291 YCT
 Test of Language : Hindi 26. %eeve–efJe%eeve keâes yengle DeefOekeâ cenòJe osves kesâ keâejCe–
21. ‘yeebn’ keâe meeceevÙe yengJeÛeve nw ................ ~ (a) meceepe GVeefle keâj jne nw
(b) meceepe ceW efJeYeepeve nes jne nw
(a) yeeneW (b) yeepegDeeW
(c) JÙeefòeâ me=peve keâer jen hej nw
(c) yeeBn (d) yeebnW
22. efvecveefueefKele ceW hegeEuueie Meyo veneR nw– (d) JÙeefòeâ efJeOJebme keâer jen hej veneR nw
(a) jlve (b) ceesleer (c) vekeâue (d) yeÛeheve
27. efkeâMeesjeJemLee leeefke&âkeâlee keâer ØeOeevelee Deewj YeeJe kesâ
23. ‘jece Deece Keelee nw’ ceW JeeÛÙe keâe keâewve–mee ™he nw?
DeYeeJe ceW ................. keâe jemlee Dehevee jner nw~
(a) keâce&JeeÛÙe (b) YeeJeJeeÛÙe (a) heleve (b) %eeve
(c) GYeÙeJeeÛÙe (d) keâòe&=JeeÛÙe (c) Øeieefle (d) keâce&
DeeOegefvekeâ efMe#ee keâe veleerpee nceves osKe efueÙee~ nceves Gme efMe#ee 28. FveceW mes keâewve mee Meyo mecetn mes efYeVe nw?
keâe veleerpee Yeer osKe efueÙee, efpemeceW ‘efJekeâefmele efJe%eeve’ keâe (a) leeefke&âkeâ (b) mJeeYeeefJekeâ
meyemes cenòJehetCe& mLeeve nw, efpemekesâ keâejCe JÙeefòeâ keâes keâneR Yeer (c) meeefneflÙekeâ (d) DeefYeJÙeefòeâ
Ùee efkeâlevee Yeer efceueves kesâ yeeJepeto le=efhle veneR nesleer~ Fmekeâe 29. `JesMÙee' kesâ Ûeej heÙee&Ùe efoÙes ieÙes nQ~ FveceW $egefšhetCe& keâewve
keâejCe Ùener nw efkeâ efMe#ee kesâ mJeeYeeefJekeâ Deewj DeeJeMÙekeâ DebieeW mee nw?
keâes ÚesÌ[keâj nceves Ssmes efJe<eÙeeW hej DeefOekeâ OÙeeve efoÙee, pees (a) ieefCekeâe (b) Jeejebievee
ceveg<Ùe keâe Skeâlejheâe efJekeâeme keâjles nQ, efpevekesâ keâejCe JÙeefòeâlJe (c) kegâueše (d) jb[er
keâe yeÌ[s–mes–yeÌ[e Yeeie Dele=hle jn peelee nw~ yeeuÙeeJemLee ceW Yeer 30. ke=âef$ece keâe Øeeke=âeflekeâ mes Jener mecyevOe nw, pees GJe&je keâe
keâuee–efMe#ee keâes DeYeer lekeâ GefÛele mLeeve veneR efceuee nw~ peneB ........... mes nw~
efceuee Yeer nw, JeneB yeÛÛee iÙeejn–yeejn Je<e& keâe nesles ner Gmekesâ (a) Tmej (b) Demle
efMe#ee–›eâce ceW keâuee–ØeJe=efòeÙeeW keâes efvekeâeue efoÙee peelee nw~ (c) keâke&âMe (d) efveJe&lÙe&
Ssmee ner nye&š& jer[ ves keâne nw– 31. Dees"eW keâer Deeke=âefle kesâ DeeOeej hej efvecveefueefKele ceW mes
‘‘nceeje DevegYeJe nceW yeleelee nw efkeâ nj JÙeefòeâ iÙeejn meeue keâewve DeJe=òecegKeer mJej nw?
keâer Gceü kesâ yeeo, efkeâMeesj–DeJemLee Deewj Gmekesâ yeeo Yeer meejs (a) F (b) T
peerJeve–keâeue lekeâ efkeâmeer–ve–efkeâmeer keâuee ØeJe=efòe keâes Deheves (c) Dees (d) G
YeeJe–Øekeâšve keâe peefjÙee yeveeÙes jKe mekeâlee nw~ Deepe kesâ meYeer 32. ‘=’ efJejece efÛendve ØeÙegòeâ neslee nw-
efJe<eÙe–efpeve hej nce Deheveer Skeâcee$e ßeæe keâjles nQ, pewmes (a) efJeJejCe efÛeåve (b) leguÙeleemetÛekeâ
ieefCele, Yetieesue, Fefleneme, jmeeÙeveMeeŒe Deewj ÙeneB lekeâ efkeâ (c) ueeIeJe efÛeåve (d) mebÙeespekeâ efÛeåve
meeefnlÙe Yeer– efpeme lejn heÌ{eÙes peeles nQ, Gve meyekeâer yegefveÙeeo
33. Megæ Jele&veer Jeeuee Meyo nw –
leeefke&âkeâ nw~ Fve hej Skeâcee$e peesj osves kesâ keâejCe keâuee–
(a) Oeesefyeve (b) Oeesefyeveer
ØeJe=efòeÙeeB, pees YeeJevee–ØeOeeve nesleer nQ, hee"dÙe›eâce kesâ keâjerye–
(c) Oeesyeveer (d) Oeesyeerve
keâjerye efvekeâue peeleer nQ~ Ùes ØeJe=efòeÙeeB kesâJeue hee"dÙe›eâce mes ner
veneR efvekeâue peeleeR, yeefukeâ Fve leeefke&âkeâ efJe<eÙeeW keâes cenòJe osves 34. ‘jepÙeheeue’ ceW keâewve meer meb%ee nw?
kesâ keâejCe JÙeefòeâ kesâ efoceeie mes Yeer efyeukegâue efvekeâue peeleer nQ~ (a) JÙeefòeâJeeÛekeâ (b) peeefleJeeÛekeâ
efkeâMeesj– DeJemLee keâes Fme lejn ieuele jemles hej ues peeves keâe (c) YeeJeJeeÛekeâ (d) mecetnJeeÛekeâ
veleerpee YeÙeevekeâ nes jne nw~ meYÙelee jespe–ye–jespe yes{ye nesleer 35. ‘efkeâme-efkeâme mes PeieÌ[e keâjles efheâjesies?’ jsKeebefkeâle
pee jner nw~ JÙeefòeâ keâe ieuele efJekeâeme nes jne nw~ Gmekeâe ceeveme heo.......... nw~
DemJemLe nw, heefjJeej ogKeer nw~ meceepe ceW hetâš heÌ[er nw Deewj ogefveÙee (a) meb%ee (b) efJeMes<eCe
hej OJebme keâjves keâe pJej ÛeÌ{e nw~ Fve YeÙeevekeâ DeJemLeeDeeW keâes (c) meJe&veece (d) ØeefJeMes<eCe
nceeje %eeve–efJe%eeve meneje os jne nw~ Deepe keâer leeueerce Yeer Fmeer 36. ‘Deefive’ keâe efJeMes<eCe nesiee?
oewÌ[ ceW meeLe os jner nw~’’ (a) Deeefiekeâ (b) DeeivesÙe
24. DevegÛÚso kesâ DeeOeej hej nceW efkeâme hej meJee&efOekeâ OÙeeve (c) Deeefivekeâ (d) DeeiesÙe
osves keâer pe™jle nw? 37. keâce& kesâ DeeOeej hej ef›eâÙee kesâ efkeâleves Yeso nesles nQ?
(a) efJe%eeve hej (b) keâuee ØeJe=efòe hej (a) leerve (b) Ûeej
(c) efkeâMeesjeJemLee hej (d) yeeuÙeeJemLee hej (c) Ún (d) oes
25. DevegÛÚso kesâ Devegmeej ieefCele, Yetieesue, Fefleneme Deeefo 38. ‘ceeB megyen veeMlee yeveeleer nw~’ Fmecebs keâewve-mee ef›eâÙee
efJe<eÙe– efJeMes<eCe nw?
(a) leke&â ØeOeeve nQ (b) YeeJe ØeOeeve nQ (a) keâeueJeeÛekeâ (b) mLeeveJeeÛekeâ
(c) keâuee ØeOeeve nQ (d) yeesOe ØeOeeve nQ (c) heefjceeCeJeeÛekeâ (d) jerefleJeeÛekeâ
292 YCT
39. efvecveefueefKele JeekeäÙe keâes heefÌ{S leLee GmeceW keâejkeâ kesâ 48. Select the most appropriate word to fill in the
mener Yeso keâes henÛeeefveS : blank.
ns ØeYees! cesjer FÛÚe hetCe& keâjes~ I make friends ______ I go.
(a) moreover (b) wherever
(a) DeefOekeâjCe keâejkeâ (b) mebyebOe keâejkeâ
(c) however (d) whenever
(c) mebyeesOeve keâejkeâ (d) Deheeoeve keâejkeâ
49. Select the most appropriate word to fill in the
40. keâewve legkeâea Meyo veneR nw blank.
(a) yeeJeÛeea (b) yesiece They showed her the greatest.
(c) [sje (d) ojesiee (a) praise (b) tribute
(c) honour (d) respect
Test of Language : English
50. In the sentence identify the segment which
41. In the following question, out of the given four contains the grammatical error.
alternatives, select the one which best expresses Three more elevated roads have been propose
the meaning of the given word. in the new plan to unclog the traffic in Delhi.
Hound (a) in the new plan
(a) Critic (b) Migrate
(b) Three more elevated roads
(c) Beagle (d) Variable
42. Select the most appropriate antonym of the (c) to unclog the traffic in Delhi
given word. (d) have been propose
Harmony 51. Select the option that will improve the
(a) Friendship (b) Peace underlined part of the sentence. In case no
(c) Rapport (d) Hatred improvement is needed, select 'No
43. Select the option that can be used as a one- improvement'.
word substitute for the given group of words. The teacher advised the children to not went
A large building with an extensive floor area, near the lake.
typically for housing aircraft
(a) No improvement (b) not to go
(a) Barn (b) Hangar
(c) Shed (d) Airport (c) don't go (d) not to be going
44. Select the most appropriate meaning of the 52. Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.
given idiom. Without any exaggeration, the provision will
To have eggs on one's face ensure that legislators (keep a voice) in
(a) To be embarrassed because of one's action finalizing the terms and conditions of the
(b) To apply egg yolk on one's face for making it agreement.
look beautiful
(a) have a voice (b) head a voice
(c) To throw eggs on a speaker's face
(d) To buy eggs and break them (c) lost a voice (d) No improvement
45. Identify the segment in the sentence which 53. Select the most appropriate option to substitute
contains a grammatical error: the underlined segment in the given sentence. If
Poor people have run down of food supplies no substitution is required, select No
during the lockdown. improvement.
(a) Poor people have If you park your car here, the traffic police has
(b) during the lockdown fined you.
(c) food supplies (a) fine you (b) will fine you
(d) run down of
(c) fined you (d) No improvement
46. Identify the segment in the sentence which
contains a grammatical error. 54. Select the most appropriate option to substitute
Zoya won the first prize in the race unless she the underlined segment in the given sentence. If
stumbled and fell. no substitution is required, select No
(a) Zoya won the first improvement
(b) prize in the race You won't tell the secret, won't you?
(c) unless she (a) No improvement (b) would you
(d) stumbled and fell
(c) will you (d) isn't it
47. Select the most appropriate word to fill in the
blank. 55. Select the most appropriate option to substitute
They never ______ those who have done wrong. the underlined segment. If there is no need to
(a) condemn (b) outcast substitute it, select No improvement.
(c) blame (d) forgive Bulbul is honest girl but she is also very rude.
293 YCT
 (a) Bulbul is an honest girl 56. Which sentence tells us that Madame changed
(b) Bulbul is very honest girl her mind suddenly and decided to give
(c) No improvement accomodation to the writer?
(d) Bulbul is a honest girl (a) I was the only guest in the dining-room.
Comprehension: (b) people do not care to let their rooms for a
Read the passage and answer the questions very short time.
given below it.
(c) My large box is at the station
While I waited expectantly, Madame came in and
told me that there was no room at all for me in the (d) she reappeared immediately
hotel, not a bed, not a corner. She was extremely 57. How long does the narrator plan to stay in that
friendly and seemed to find a fund of secret place?
amusement in the fact; she looked at me as though (a) Two days (b) One week
expecting me to break into (c) Four days (d) A month
delighted laughter. “To-morrow,” she said, “there 58. Who looks after the private house?
may be. I am expecting a young gentleman who is
(a) The waiter (b) The porter
suddenly taken ill to move from number eleven.
He is at present at the chemist's perhaps you (c) Madame (d) An old servant
would care to see the room?” 59. Madame says impossible when the
“Not at all,” said I. “Neither shall I wish tomorrow narrator asks her ______.
to sleep in the bedroom of an indisposed young (a) to recommend another hotel
gentleman.” (b) for a porter to carry her bag
“But he will be gone,” cried Madame, opening her
(c) for space in the hotel from the next day
blue eyes wide and laughing with that French
cordiality so enchanting to English hearing. I was (d) for some supper
too tired and hungry to feel either appreciative or 60. Madame is probably ______
argumentative. “Perhaps you can recommend me (a) Nurse at the clinic
another hotel?” (b) A saleswoman at the shop
“Impossible!” She shook her head and turned up (c) Another guest like the narrator
her eyes, mentally counting over the blue bows (d) A Manager of the hotel
painted on the ceiling. “You see, it is the season in
Bruges, and people do not care to let their rooms Arithmetical and Numerical ability
for a very short time” not a glance at my little suit
case lying between us, but I looked at it gloomily, 61. Durba got 70% marks in an exam. He obtained
and it seemed to dwindle before my desperate 20 out of 25 marks in another exam. If his total
gaze become small enough to hold nothing but a score is 78% then what were the maximum
collapsible folding tooth-brush. marks of the first exam?
“My large box is at the station,” I said coldly, (a) 7.6 (b) 6.25
buttoning my gloves.
(c) 7.25 (d) 6
Madame started. “You have more luggage. Then
you intend to make a long stay in Bruges, 62. The cost of a washing machine is 40% less than
perhaps?” the cost of a TV. If the cost of the washing
“At least a fortnight perhaps a month.” I shrugged machine increases by 18% and that of the TV
my shoulders. decreases by 10%, then what is the change in
“One moment,” said Madame. “I shall see what I the total cost of 5 washing machines and 2
can do.” She disappeared, I am sure not further TVs?
than the other side of the door, for she reappeared (a) Decreases by 6.5%
immediately and old me I might have a room at (b) Decreases by 6.4%
her private house “just round the corner and kept
by an old servant who, although she has a wall (c) Increases by 6.5%
eye, has been in our family for fifteen years. The (d) Increases by 6.8%
porter will take you there, and you can have 63. By what percent does the curved surface area
supper before you go.” of a cylinder decrease, if the radius is increased
I was the only guest in the dining-room. A tired by 10% and the height is decreased by 40%?
waiter provided me with an omelet and a pot of (a) 51.8% (b) 24.3%
coffee, then leaned against a sideboard and (c) 20% (d) 34%
watched me while I ate, the limp table napkin over
64. If a : b = 32 : 35 and b:c = 21 : 32. Then a : c ?
his arm seeming to symbolise the very man.
“Are you ready, Madame?” asked the waiter. “It is (a) 1 : 1 (b) 5 : 7
I who carry your luggage.” (c) 3 : 5 (d) 5 : 3
294 YCT
65. The ratio of red balls and green balls in a bag 74. 8 men and 6 women can complete a piece of
is 4 : 9. If 7 more red balls are added to the work in 5 days while 6 men and 8 women can
bag, the new ratio of red and green balls will also complete the same work in 5 days. In how
becomes 5 : 6. How many green balls are there many days will 7 men and 7 women complete
in the bag ? the same work ?
(a) 9 (b) 18 (a) 3 days (b) 6 days
(c) 12 (d) 27 (c) 2 days (d) 5 days
66. If the selling price of an article is 3 times the 75. A alone can complete a work in 10 days and B
discount offered and if the percentage of the can complete it in 15 days. A and B undertake
discount is equal to the percentage profit, find the work for `4800. With the help of C, they
the ratio of the discount offered to the cost price. complete the work in 5 days. What amount is to
(a) 7 : 12 (b) 7 : 6 be paid to C?
(a) `800 (b) `600
(c) 5 : 12 (d) 7 : 11
(c) `1,200 (d) `700
67. What is the maximum percentage of discount
76. The following bar graph shows the quantity (in
that sheela can give to her customers on the
number of containers) and value (in Rupee
marked price 50 that she has neither profit nor
crores) of India's textile exports for 4 years.
loss on selling her goods, if she has already
Based on the graph answer the question given
marked her product by25% more than the cost below.
price?
quantity - value, India's textile export.
(a) 25 (b) 20
In which year the value per container was
(c) 30 (d) 40
minimum?
68. A sum of money, when invested at 14.5% p.a.
simple interest amounts to `13,464 after 6
years. What was the sum invested?
(a) `7,200 (b) `7,600
(c) `7,450 (d) `70,800
69. The rate at which a sum becomes 2 times of
itself in 10 years at simple interest is :
(a) 25% (b) 15%
(c) 20% (d) 10%
70. Calculate the principal if an amount of ` 441 is
received on compound interest at the rate of
5% per annum after 2 years
(a) `400 (b) `390
(c) `380 (d) `350
71. An amount of `100 was invested for two years
at the rate of 10% compound interest per
(a) 2nd year (b) 1st year
annum. If the rate of interest is increased to rd
(c) 3 year (d) 4th year
20% for the same period, how much extra
77. The average weight of P, Q and R is 58 kg. If
money will get the investor as interest.
the average weight of P and Q is 54 kg and that
(a) `23/- (b) `20/-
of Q and R is 48 kg, then the weight of Q is:
(c) `22/- (d) `24/- (a) 26 kg (b) 32 kg
72. On a certain sum of money the simple interest (c) 30 kg (d) 28 kg
for 2 years is ` 140 at 4% per annum. Find the 78. Based on the following table, what is the
difference between the compound interest and average number of screws manufactured in the
the simple interest on the same sum at the same unit in given 6 months?
rate and the same period. Months No. of screws manufactured
(a) ` 2.80 (b) ` 2.40 (In thousands)
(c) ` 3 (d) ` 1.80 January 200
73. A and B together can do a piece of work in 6 February 300
days and A alone can do the same work in 9 March 250
days. In how many days will B alone complete
April 250
the same work?
May 250
(a) 16 (b) 20
(c) 12 (d) 18 June 250

295 YCT
 (a) 300 (b) 200 87. Select the figure which does NOT belong to the
(c) 250 (d) 150 group :
p
79. Express 4.567 in the form of where p and
q
q are integeas and q ≠ 0
281 63 (a) C (b) D
(a) 4 (b) 4
495 110 (c) A (d) B
94 283 88. Which of the following numbers will replace
(c) 4 (d) 4 the question mark (?) in the given series?
165 495
80. Which of the following is true? 124, 129, 136, 145, 156, ?
29 53 29 43 (a) 168 (b) 165
(a) = (b) = (c) 172 (d) 169
6 12 6 12
89. Select the option figure which will complete the
29 43 29 43
(c) > (d) < series of question figures-
6 12 6 12 Question Figure:
General Intelligence & Reasoning Ability
81. Solar is related to sun in the same way lunar is
related to.
(a) Lunatic (b) Planet
(c) Moon (d) Star Answer Figure:
82. Select the option that is related to the fifth term A B C D
in the same way as the fourth term is related to
the third term and the second term is related to
the first term.
MOTHER : OMHTRE :: DAUGHTER :
ADGUTHRE :: SIBLINGS : ? (a) C (b) D
(a) BISNILSG (b) ISLBNISG (c) B (d) A
(c) SGNILBIS (d) LIBSSGNI 90. Which is best suited to be placed in place of
83. Which number would best complete the question mark in the figure.
relation given below ?
2 : 12 :: 3 : ?
(a) 32 (b) 40
(c) 36 (d) 38
84.
(a) 74 (b) 71
(c) 64 (d) 68
91. Pravina is maternal grandmother of Suresh.
How is Suresh’s Mother related to Pravina?
Which of the following figures fit correctly in (a) Sister (b) Cousin Sister
the above blanks from figures given below? (c) Daughter (d) Grandmother
92. In the following relationship chart, A→ →B
means A is the mother (or any other
relationship) of B. Now using the chart, select
the option that can replace the question mark
(a) A (b) D
(?) in it, if all the mentioned individuals, 1, 2, 3
(c) C (d) B
and 4 are males.
85. In a certain code language, 'ASSURED' is
written as 'TTBUEFS' and 'BENEFIT' is
written as 'OFCEUJG'. How will 'CABINET'
be written in that language?
(a) DBCIOFU (b) CBDIUFO
(c) CBDJUFO (d) CBDIUFU
86. Find the odd one with respect to Indian
parliament.
(a) Budget Session (b) Summer Session (a) Grandfather (b) Son
(c) Mansoon Session (d) Winter Session (c) Father (d) Uncle
296 YCT
93. If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷ ÷’, ‘÷
÷’ means ‘–’, (a) Only conclusion I logicals
and ‘–’ means ‘+’, then what will be the value (b) Both conclusion logical
of the given expression? (c) Only conclusion II logical
93 – 91 × 7 + 8 ÷ 3 (d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II logical
(a) 89 (b) 194 99. Select the answer figure which is embedded in
the given problem figure?
(c) 198 (d) 201
Question figure:
94. Select the correct set of symbols?
27 3 19 10 = 90
(a) ×, –, ÷ (b) +, ÷, –
(c) + , – , ÷ (d) ×, +, – Answer figures:
95. Which of the following diagrams correctly
represents the relationship between the given
words?
English, Chinese, French

(a)
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D
(b) 100. Find the number of the triangles in the given
figure.

(c)

(d)
(a) 8 (b) 5
96. Statements: (c) 6 (d) 10
• All vehicles are bats.
• All cows are bats.
Conclusions: SECTION-B
1. All vehicles are cows.
101. Which of the following is the most appropriate
2. All cows are vehicles. drug to kill cyst forming trophozoites?
(a) Both conclusion 1 and 2 follow (a) Nitazoxanide (b) Chloroquine
(b) Only conclusion 2 follows (c) Lodoquinol (d) Emetine
(c) Neither conclusion 1 nor 2 follows 102. Which of the following is available as drug
(d) Only conclusion 2 follows eluting stent?
(a) Daunorubicin (b) Paclitaxel
97. Statement :
(c) Doxorubicin (d) Vinblastin
• All injuries are wound. 103. What is the role of glycopyrrolate in
• Some wounds are physical preoperative phase?
(a) Reduce secretions
Conclusion :
(b) Anxiolytic action
1. Some wounds are injuries.
(c) Used as an induction agent
2. All wounds are physical. (d) Potentiates action of GA
(a) All conclusion follow 104. Obligation of the investigator and study team
(b) Only conclusion I follows members to safeguard the participant
(c) None conclusion follows information refers to;
(d) Only conclusion II follows (a) Privacy (b) Confidentiality
(c) Autonomy (d) Justice
98. Statement:
105. The definition of 'orphan drug' as per central
Y told his friend, "My children enjoy playing licensing authority is;
in our garden." (a) Drug intended to treat a condition affecting
Conlcusion les than 2 lakh persons in India
i. There is a garden in Y's house (b) Drug intended to treat a condition affecting
ii. Y has children less than 5 lakh persons in India
297 YCT
 (c) Drug intended to treat a condition affecting 116. Which of the following is a factor which
less than 7 lakh persons in India decreases false negativity ?
(d) Drug intended to treat a condition affecting (a) Large sample size (b) Large effect size
less than 10 lakh persons in India (c) High significance (d) All of the above
106. Which of the following is most appropriate for 117. Which of the following is Schedule II drug ?
gastroesophageal reflux disease treatment? (a) Thalidomide (b) Ketamine
(a) Proton pump inhibitors (c) Fentanyl (d) Phenobarbital
(b) Prokinetic drugs 118. Tapentadol acts on µ receptor as agonist.
(c) Antacid Additionally, it also ;
(d) Sodium alginate (a) Inhibits the uptake of noradrenaline
107. Which of the following drug can cause (b) Inhibits the uptake of serotonin
hypoglycaemia unawareness? (c) Antihistaminic
(a) Pentamidine (b) Ranolazine (d) Anticholinergic
(c) Nadolol (d) Thiazides 119. Which of the following is the drug of choice for
108. Which of the following drug is contraindicated trichomonas vaginitis?
in hypothyroid patients? (a) Metronidazole
(a) Lithium (b) Trientine (b) Erythromycin
(c) Dithium (d) Dapagliflozin (c) Clindamycin
109. Relatively higher dose of theophylline is (d) Rovamycin
required to attain therapeutic plasma 120. Which of the following second generation β 1 -
concentration in: selective blockers contains 1, 3, 5 - thiadiazole
(a) Cigarette smokers ring in its structure?
(b) Congestive heart failure patients (a) Sotalol (b) Timolol
(c) Those receiving erythromycin (c) Penbutolol (d) Pindolol
(d) Those receiving cimetidine 121. Gabriel ring closure method is employed for
110. Which one of the following neuromuscular the synthesis of:
blocking agents, is eliminated by Hofmann (a) 14-oxazine (b) Aziridine
degradation and hydrolysis by plasma
(c) Oxirane (d) Oxaziridine
esterases?
122. Inhibition of GABA transaminase enzyme is
(a) Doxacurium (b) Rocuronium
mainly done by
(c) Vecuronium (d) Atracurium
(a) Sodium valproate (b) Phenobarbitone
111. If the variance is 16 then standard deviation is:
(a) 4 (b) 32 (c) Phenytoin (d) Carbamazepine
(c) 256 (d) 8 123. As per US FDA, NDA's for new chemical
112. G-protein coupled receptors is not a target of entitles are classified as either:
which one of the following drugs? (a) 'P' for product review or 'S' for standard
(a) Monteleukast (b) Misoprostol review
(c) Atropine (d) Lidocaine (b) 'P' for priority review or 'S' for standard
113. All of the following may be used for review
detoxification therapy of chronic alcoholism (c) 'P' for product review or 'S' for safety review
except: (d) 'P' for priority review or 'S' for safety review
(a) Riluzole (b) Disulfiram 124. The co-administration of erythromycin with
(c) Naltrexone (d) Acamprosate cyclosporine:
114. Therapeutic uses of muscarinic receptor (a) Increase bioavailability, due to inhibition of
antagonists do not include : hepatic metabolism
(a) Treatment of COPD (b) Increase bioavailability, due to inhibition of
(b) Treatment of Parkinsonism microflora in intestine
(c) Treatment of postoperative urinary retention (c) Decrease bioavailability due to complex
(d) prevention of motion sickness formation
115. Which of the following statements is false about (d) Decrease bioavailability, due to induction of
Rifaximin ? hepatic metabolism
(a) It is a derivative of rifampin. 125. Numerous isomers of human liver P450 enzyme
(b) It is not activeagainst Gram-negative aerobes. have been identified, it is not worthy that _____
(c) Rifaximin inhibits bacterial protein synthesis alone is responsible for the metabolism of over
by binding to the beta subunit of DNA- 55% of the prescription drug metabolized by
dependent RNA polymerase. liver.
(d) When administered orally, systemic (a) CYP3A4 (b) CYPIA2
absorption is < 0.15%. (c) CYP1A11 (d) CYP2B6
298 YCT
126. Identify the false statement about (a) Nystatin (b) Niridazole
benzodiazepines from the following: (c) Nitrofurantoin (d) Nitric acid
(a) Benzodiazepines cause reduction of anxiety 137. Prostaglandin useful for the prevention of
(b) Benzodiazepines cause convulsions duodenal ulcer is
(c) Benzodiazepines produce muscle relaxation (a) Earloprost (b) Misoprostol
and loss of motor co-ordination (c) Dinoprost (d) Alprostadel
(d) Benzodiazepines are useful in insomnia 138. Pyrantel is a drug of choice to treat
127. In the presence of food, absorption of drugs (a) Ancyclostoma duodenale
such as ampicillin: (b) HIV
(a) Increases (c) Rabies
(b) First reduces and then increase (d) Polio'
(c) First increases and then reduces 139. Which of the following antiamythics decreases
(d) Reduces the action potential in Perkinje fibres?
128. Noncompetitive enzyme inhibitor is: (a) Quinidine (b) Flecainide
(a) Allopurinol (b) Carbidopa
(c) Lignocaine (d) Amiodarone
(c) Physostigmine (d) Acetazolamide
140. Toxin which induces massive release and
129. Captopril is an a/an:
depletion of acetylcholine is
(a) HMG CoA reductase inhibitor
(a) Botulinum toxin
(b) ACE inhibitor
(b) Tetrodotoxin
(c) MAO inhibitor
(c) Sanxitoxin
(d) α-glucosidase inhibitor
(d) Black widow spider toxin
130. When the anesthetics is injected in the
141. Point out the wrong statement regarding
subarachnoid space, it is termed as:
Varenicline.
(a) Surface anesthesia
(b) Infiltration anesthesia (a) It is a partial agonist at nicotinic receptors in
CNS
(c) Epidural anesthesia
(d) Spinal anesthesia (b) It produces more suicidal thought, nightmares
and mood changes
131. A drug that promotes diuresis by antagonising
the action of aldosterone is: (c) It is a complete antagonist at the neuronal
(a) Spironolactone (b) Furosemide nicotinic receptors
(c) Bumetanide (d) Acetazolamide (d) It produces less Euphoric effects
142. What is pharmacogenetics?
132. The programme suite SYBYL is used for
(a) Variability in drug response
_______.
(a) Diagnostic data (b) Peak drug response
(b) Pharmacokinetic study (c) Nullifural drug response
(c) Prescription writing (d) Lowdrug response
(d) Molecular modeling 143. Choose the antipsychotic drug which causes
retinal deposits (Browning of vision) a
133. The complement-fixation test, Wassermann
(a) Thioridazine (b) ChIorpromazine
test is done for the diagnosis of ______.
(c) Clozapine (d) Haloperidol
(a) Tuberculosis (b) Hepatitis
(c) Syphilis (d) Typhoid 144. Select a drug from the following which has
been used to produce a non specific
134. Aspirin should be used with caution in
'awakening' effect in hepatic coma
(a) Asthama (b) Head Ache
(a) Promethazine (b) Levodopa
(c) Fever (d) Tachycardia
135. A 50 year old woman, has been diagnosed with (c) Carbidopa (d) Amantadine
locally advanced breast cancer and 145. Choose the unique Atypical Antidepressant
recommended for chemotherapy she has five drug which blocks presynaptic a2 receptors but
years history of myocardial infarction and does not inhibit NA or 5-HT uptake
congestive heart failure. Which antineoplastic (a) Venlafaxine (b) Trazodone
drug should be best avoided (c) Mianserin (d) Duloxetine
(a) Anthracycline 146. Carbenicillin and Anti-platelet drug use
(b) Alkylating agent results'in
(c) Platinum compound (a) Platelet count 1
(d) Bisphosphonates (b) Increases risk of bleeding
136. The drug of choice for treating Guinea worm (c) Stops bleeding
infection (Dracunculus medinensis) is. (d) No effect
299 YCT
147. Factors affecting absorption are (c) Pyrimidine antagonist
(a) Aqueous solubility (d) Estrogen receptor antagonist
(b) Are of absorbing surface 162. The moderately effective osmotic diuretic is
(c) Vascularity (a) Furosemide (b) Mannitol
(d) All of the above (c) Bumetanide (d) Chlorthalidone
148. Sodium Pico sulfate is a 163. Methicillin is _______ penicillins.
(a) Stimulant laxative (b) Osmotic laxative
(a) An acid resistant
(c) Bulk laxative (d) Emollient laxative
149. Dapsone is used to treat (b) Penicillinase resistant
(a) Leprosy (b) Malaria (c) Broad Spectrum
(c) Typhoid (d) Cancer (d) A natural
150. Urea and Diethyl malonic ester are starting 164. This compound is a good sedative and exhibits
material for the synthesis of no hypnotic action
(a) Procaine (b) Barbitone (a) Thiopentone sodium (b) Pheno barbitol
(c) Chlorpheniramine (d) Paracetamol (c) Potassium bromide (d) Hexo barbirtal
151. The fourth generation cephalosporin is 165. Which of the following compounds is the
(a) Cefactor (b) Cefuroxime hormone?
(c) Cefoxitin (d) Cefepime (a) Noradrenaline (b) Ribolflavine
152. Pirenzepine produces its action by blocking (c) Morphine (d) Penicillin
which type of receptors
166. The basis for the antibacterial action of β -
(a) NM (b) NN
lactams is that these drugs become bound to
(c) M1 (d) M2
what portion of the cell wall?
153. The half life of Digoxin is
(a) 30 min (b) 4 hours (a) Penta glycine
(c) 40 hours (d) 7 days (b) Mycolic acid
154. Name the process by which the amount of (c) D-alanine-D-alanine cross linked
active drug in the body is reduced after (d) Transamidase (Trans peptidase)
absorption into the systemic circulation 167. Prazosin an antihypertensive agent is a
(a) First pass metabolism (b) Distribution (a) α blocker
(c) Metabolism (d) Elimination
(b) β blocker
155. All the following may be reasons for poor
bioavailability EXCEPT (c) calcium channel blocker
(a) High first pass metabolism (d) potassium channel activator
(b) Enterohepatic cycling 168. Class IB antiarrhythmic drug
(c) Poorly soluable drug (a) Disopyramide (b) Amiodarone
(d) Poor disintegration of the tablet (c) Lidocaine (d) Verapamil
156. Pure alpha two blocker is 169. Primaquine is a
(a) Prazosim (b) Indoramim (a) 2-Amino Quinoline (b) 4-Amino Quinoline
(c) Metaraminol (d) Yohimbine (c) 6-Amino Quinoline (d) 8-Amino Quinoline
157. Selective serotonin (5-HT) reuptake inhibitor is 170. Which of the following is not the manual
(a) Sulpiride (b) Fluoxetine method for artificial respiration ?
(c) Raboxetine (d) Pen fluridol (a) Schafer's method (b) Sylvester's method
158. When the action of other drug is facilitated or (c) Drinker's method
increased by the other drug, the phenomenon is
(d) Eve's rocking method
called
(a) Synergism (b) Antagonism 171. Drug of choice for the management of status
(c) Tolerance (d) Tachyphylaxis epileptics
159. The following drugs are thiomide group of (a) Ethosuximide (b) 50% glucose
antithyroid drugs EXCEPT (c) Diazepam (d) Sodium valproate
(a) Thiourea 172. A hand sanitizer or hand antiseptic is a based
(b) Propylthiouracil hand hygiene agent
(c) Carbimazole (a) Water (b) Mannitol
(d) Potassium perchlorate (c) Gas (d) Alcohol
160. The antimalarial drug which acts on the pre 173. Selective Cox-II inhibitor is
erythrocytic stage of P. vivax is (a) Piroxicam (b) Celecoxib
(a) Chloroquine (b) Primaquine (c) Asprin (d) Indomethacin
(c) Mefloquine (d) Quinine 174. An example for third generation
161. The anticancer drug 5-Fluorouracil (5-FV) is a cephalosporins
(a) Folate antagonist (a) Ceforoxime (b) Cepharadine
(b) Purine antagonist (c) Ceftibuten (d) Cefaclor
300 YCT
175. Secondary hyper uricemia due to cancer 187. What is chemical name of paracetamol?
chemotherapy is controlled by (a) N-acetyl o-aminophenol
(a) Probenecid (b) Allopurinol (b) N-acetyl m-aminophenol
(c) Colchicine (d) Sulfinpyrazine (c) N-acetyl p-aminophenol
176. Example for tricyclic antidepressants (d) N-acetyl salicylic acid
(a) Haloperiodol (b) Oxypertine 188. Diphenhydramine chemically belongs to _____
(c) Fluphenazine (d) Amitriptyline class?
177. Isoniazid, nicotinamide and nikethamide have (a) Alkylamine (b) Aminoalkyl ether
the following hetrocyclic ring in common (c) Ethylenediamine (d) Phenothiazine
(a) Pyrazine (b) Oxazole 189. Phenytoin chemically belongs to which class?
(c) Pyridine (d) Pyrazole (a) Barbiturate (b) Hydantoin
178. Secobarbital belongs to (c) Oxazolidinedione (d) Succinimide
(a) Schedule J (b) Schedule A 190. Which of the following is the side effect of
(c) Schedule X (d) Schedule G Methyldopa?
179. Optic neuritis is a chief adverse effect of (a) Hair loss
(a) Sulpha drugs (b) Pyrazinamide (b) Diuresis
(c) Rifampicin (d) Ethambutol (c) Weight loss
180. To obtain a more effective bronchodilation, the (d) Sedation and lethargy
drugs that are combined along with 191. Mifepristone terminate pregnancy up to
beta-adrenoceptor agonists are:- gestation age of
(a) Cholinergic antagonists (a) 11 weeks (b) 13 weeks
(b) Cholinergic agonists (c) 15 weeks (d) 7 weeks
(c) Beta-adrenoceptor antagonists 192. A drug that decrease the activity of another
(d) Alpha-adrenoceptor antagonists drug is called
181. Which of the following antipsychotic drugs, at (a) Agonist (b) Synergic
low doses, is combined with antidepressants in (c) Antagonist (d) Adverse reaction
treatmentresistant depression? 193. A liquid Oral preparation, taken as a single
(a) Chlorpromazine (b) Haloperidol dose, is called
(c) Risperidone (d) Fluphenazine (a) Draught (b) Elixir
182. When considering drug delivery to the brain (c) Linctus (d) Collodion
which of the following is false? is short 194. Choose the drug containing Indole alkaloid
(a) The cells in the blood vessels that supply the (a) Belladona (b) Vasaka
brain are tightly connected which restricts (c) Ergot (d) Opium
drug absorption 195. Touch, sight, hearing, taste and smell are
(b) Only relatively small lipophilic molecules controlled by the
readily, passively diffuse in to the brain (a) Cerebellum (b) Cerebrum
(c) Drugs with a low log P value show improved (c) Brain stem (d) Medulla oblongata
passive diffusion into the brain (P: oil / water 196. Which one of the following is a beta blocker?
partition coefficient) (a) Benazepril (b) Clonidine
(d) Polar molecules can be taken up into the brain (c) Atenolol (d) Amlodipine
through active transport 197. Which of the following cytotoxic drug used in
183. Out of the following drugs, which one is a chemotherapy is an antimetabolite ?
popular anti-gout drug? (a) Methotrexate (b) Mechlorethamine
(a) Opium (b) Gymnema (c) Ifosfamide (d) Cyclophosphamide
(c) Gokhru (d) Colchicum 198. What is the fatal dose of paraldehyde ?
184. Which of the following is a suitable antidote for (a) 25 to 50 ml (b) 5 to 10 ml
mercury poisoning? (c) 15 to 20 ml (d) 10 to 15 ml
(a) Atropine (b) Dimercaprol 199. For the management of Asthmatic cough,
(c) Naloxone (d) Nalorphine which of the following is a right treatment
185. Select the a-lactamase inhibitor. approach?
(a) Griseofulvin (b) Clavulanic acid (a) H2 Blocker
(c) Sulfamethoxazole (d) Tetracycline (b) Antibiotics
186. Which of the following side effect of ACE (c) Proton pump Inhibitor
inhibitors result from inhibition of bradykinin (d) Inhaled β 2 agonists
breakdown? 200. The middle protective covering layer of brain is
(a) Analgesia (b) Hyperglycaemia (a) Pia mater (b) Dura mater
(c) Productive cough (d) Dry cough (c) Arachnoid mater (d) Pons
301 YCT
 SOLUTION : PRACTICE SET- 8
ANSWER KEY
1. (d) 21. (d) 41. (c) 61. (b) 81. (c) 101. (c) 121. b) 141. (c) 161. (c) 181. (c)
2. (b) 22. (c) 42. (d) 62. (d) 82. (b) 102.(b) 122. (a) 142. (a) 162.(b) 182. (c)
3. (a) 23. (d) 43. (b) 63. (d) 83. (c) 103. (a) 123. b) 143. (a) 163.(b) 183.(d)
4. (a) 24. (b) 44. (a) 64. (c) 84. (a) 104. b) 124. (a) 144.(b) 164. (c) 184.(b)
5. (d) 25. (a) 45. (d) 65. (b) 85.(b) 105. b) 125. (a) 145. (c) 165. (a) 185.(b)
6. (d) 26. (b) 46. (c) 66. (c) 86. (b) 106. (a) 126.(b) 146.(b) 166. d) 186.(d)
7. (c) 27. (a) 47. (d) 67. (b) 87. (b) 107. (c) 127.(d) 147.(d) 167. (a) 187. (c)
8. (d) 28. (d) 48. (b) 68. (a) 88. (d) 108. (a) 128.(d) 148. (a) 168. (c) 188.(b)
9. (d) 29. (c) 49. (d) 69. (d) 89. (d) 109. (a) 129.(b) 149. (a) 169. d) 189.(b)
10. (a) 30. (a) 50. (d) 70. (a) 90. (b) 110. d) 130.(d) 150.(b) 170. (c) 190.(d)
11. (b) 31. (a) 51. (b) 71. (a) 91. (c) 111. (a) 131. (a) 151.(d) 171. (c) 191.(d)
12. (c) 32. (b) 52. (a) 72. (a) 92. (c) 112. d) 132.(d) 152. (c) 172.(d) 192. (c)
13. (d) 33. (a) 53. (b) 73. (d) 93. (b) 113. (a) 133. (c) 153. (c) 173.(b) 193. (a)
14. (d) 34. (b) 54. (c) 74. (a) 94. (d) 114. (c) 134. (a) 154.(d) 174. (c) 194. (c)
15.(b) 35. (c) 55. (a) 75. (a) 95. (a) 115. b) 135. (a) 155.(b) 175.(b) 195.(b)
16.(b) 36. (b) 56. (d) 76. (d) 96. (c) 116. d) 136. (a) 156.(d) 176.(d) 196. (c)
17. (b) 37. (d) 57. (d) 77. (c) 97. (b) 117. (c) 137.(b) 157.(b) 177. (c) 197. (a)
18.(a) 38. (a) 58. (d) 78. (c) 98. (b) 118. (a) 138. (a) 158. (a) 178. (c) 198. (a)
19. (a) 39. (c) 59. (a) 79. (a) 99. (b) 119. (a) 139. (c) 159.(d) 179.(d) 199.(d)
20. (a) 40. (c) 60. (d) 80.(c) 100. (d) 120.(b) 140.(d) 160.(b) 180. (a) 200. (c)

SOLUTION
1. (d) 6. (d)
The prestigious Oscar Awards ceremony is held As per Part V, Article 75(3) of the Indian Constitution
every year in USA. The first Academy Award or "The Council of ministers shall be collectively
Oscar Awards Presentation was held on May 16, responsible to the house of people (Lok Sabha). It
1929. means the existence of council of Ministers depends
2. (b) upon "till the Lok Sabha believes in it. According to
Dada Saheb Phalke is India's highest award in cinema. Constitution of India {75(d)}, the total number of
Presented first in 1969, the award was introduced by the ministers in the council of ministers must not exceed
government of India to commemorate Dada Saheb 15% of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha
Phalke's contribution to Indian Cinema. Phalke is (91st Amendment).
known as 'the father of Indian cinema' The first 7. (c)
recipient of the award was actress Devika Rani. The State Executive comprises of Governor and Council of
prestigious 53th Dada Saheb Phalke Award was Ministers with Chief Minister as its head.
honoured to Waheeda Rehman. 8. (d)
3. (a) In India the model of five year plan was taken from
During the Mauryan period, Suvarnagiri was known for USSR. Former Indian PM Pt. Nehru presented the first
gold mine hub in Karnataka. Five Year Plan in Indian Parliament in 1951.
4. (a) 9. (d)
Annamayya or Annamacharya was a 15th century The Indian Constitution is divided into 25 parts and 12
Hindu saint and the earliest known Indian musician to schedules. At the time of adoption of Indian constitution
compose songs called Sankirtanas in praise of the Lord (on November 26, 1949), it contained a preamble, 395
Venkateswra (Vishnu). He was born on 22 May 1408 in articles in 22 parts and 8 schedules. At present there are
Vijayanagar. 448 Articles and 12 schedules.
5. (d) 10. (a)
Kisan Sabha movement was started in Bihar in 1929, Chandrayaan-1 ,India’s first mission to the Moon was
under the leadership of Sahajanand Saraswati. This is launched on 22 October 2008 using the Polar Satellite
also known All India Kisan Sabha (AIKS). Launch Vehicle (PSLV-C11). It is significant that,

302 YCT
Chandrayaan –2 was launched on 22nd July, 2019 from 19. (a)
the Sriharikota spaceport by GSLV MK–III. All the birds come in the class Aves. Members of this
Chandrayan-3 was launched on 14 July, 2023 from the class exhibit one of the most beautiful and visually
Shriharikota spaceport by LVM3-M4. stunning features such as bright and contrasting colours,
11. (b) unique patterns and a wide variety of striking poses .
MSLV is not a launch vehicle technology. On other They have plumage of soft feathers on their skin. Birds
hand, PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle) and GSLV are warm-blooded animals. Their forelimbs are modified
(Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle) are the two into wings.
launchers (launch vehicles) which are used to carry 20. (a)
spacecraft to space. The Augmented Satellites Launch Vermicomposting is a natural process whereby
Vehicle (ASLV) was designed to augment the payload earthworms convert waste material with rigid structures
capacity upto 150 kg, thrice that of SLV-3 for low earth into compost.
orbit. Earthworms are used in vermicomposting.
12. (c) 21. (d)
Galileo had discovered four Moons revolving around efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW ‘yeebn’ keâe yengJeÛeve ‘yeebnW’ neslee nw~ yeeBn
the Jupiter in January 1610. These Moons are 'Io', Œeerefuebie Meyo nw~
'Europa', 'Ganymede' and ‘Callisto’. Ganymede is the 22. (c)
biggest among all the Moons of our solar system. All the jlve, yeÛeheve leLee ceesleer Meyo hegequuebie kesâ ¤he ceW ØeÙegkeäle nesles nQ
galilean Moons are spherical in shape.
peyeefkeâ `vekeâue' Meyo hegequuebie kesâ ¤he ceW ve ØeÙegkeäle neskeâj m$eereEueie kesâ
13. (d)
¤he ceW ØeÙegkeäle neslee nw~
Naya Savera scheme aims to empower the students
23. (d)
belonging to minority communities and prepare them for
competitive examinations, so that their participation in ‘jece Deece Keelee nw’ ceW ‘keâle=&JeeÛÙe’ nw~ JeekeäÙe ceW peye keâlee& keâer
government and private jobs improves. ØeOeevelee nes DeLee&led ef›eâÙee keâe efuebie, JeÛeve keâlee& kesâ Devegmeej nes lees
14. (d) Gmes keâle=&JeeÛÙe keânles nQ~
The risk coverage under the scheme (Pradhan Mantri 24. (b)
Suraksha Bima Yojana) is ` 2 Lakh for accident death. DevegÛÚso kesâ DeeOeej hej nceW keâuee ØeJe=efòe hej meJee&efOekeâ OÙeeve osves keâer
If the subscriber has an accident and experiences a pe™jle nw~ Jele&ceeve efMe#ee heæefle mes keâuee–ØeJe=efòeÙeeW keâes efvekeâeueves keâer
partial permanent disability, they will receive ` 1 Lakh. ØeJe=efòe ØeYeeJeer nes jner nw~ yeeuÙeeJemLee ceW Yeer keâuee–efMe#ee keâes DeYeer
This scheme was launched on 9th may 2015.
lekeâ GefÛele mLeeve veneR efceuee nw~
15.(b)
Projectile motion is the form of motion by which a 25. (a)
particle or object is projected at an angle from the DevegÛÚso kesâ Devegmeej ieefCele, Yetieesue, Fefleneme Deeefo efJe<eÙe ‘leke&â
horizontal near the surface of the Earth. The path of the ØeOeeve’ efJe<eÙe nQ~ Jele&ceeve meceÙe ceW meeefnlÙe Yeer efpeme lejn mes heÌ{eÙes
projectile motion is called the projectile curve. The peeles nQ, Gve meyekeâer yegefveÙeeo Yeer leeefke&âkeâ nw~
projectile path is 'parabolic'. 26. (b)
16.(b) %eeve–efJe%eeve keâes yengle cenòJe osves kesâ keâejCe ‘meceepe ceW efJeYeepeve nes
Here, u = 0 jne nw~’ meceepe ceW hetâš heÌ[ jner nw Deewj ogefveÙee hej OJebme keâjves keâe
a = 1 m/sec2 pJej ÛeÌ{ jne nw~
t = 2 minute = 60 × 2 = 120 sec 27. (a)
From first equation of motion efkeâMeesjeJemLee leeefke&âkeâlee keâer ØeOeevelee Deewj YeeJe kesâ DeYeeJe ceW heleve
v = u + at
keâe jemlee Dehevee jner nw~ keâuee keâesceue YeeJeveeDeeW keâe heefj<keâej keâjleer
v = 0 +1 × 120
nw lees leke&âMeeruelee efve‰gj ùoÙenervelee keâes pevce osleer nw Deewj keâesjer
= 120 ms–1
mJeeLe&hejlee keâer efmeefæ Ûeenleer nw~
17. (b)
When a substance's spontaneous movement from a 28. (d)
high concentration to a low concentration takes place. ‘DeefYeJÙeefòeâ’ Meyo efoÙes ieÙes Meyo–mecetn mes efYeVe nw, keäÙeeWefkeâ Mes<e
The process is called Diffusion. Meyo ‘Fkeâ’ ØelÙeÙe kesâ Ùeesie mes yeves nQ~ efJeJejCe Fme Øekeâej nw–
18.(a) Meyo cetue Meyo ØelÙeÙe
Chlorine has a non-metallic property with symbol, Cl,
leeefke&âkeâ leke&â Fkeâ
and atomic number 17. It is the second-lightest element
of the halogen and appears between flourine and mJeeYeeefJekeâ mJeYeeJe Fkeâ
bromine. meeefneflÙekeâ meeefnlÙe Fkeâ
303 YCT
29. (c) 38. (a)
`JesMÙee' kesâ heÙee&Ùe nQ–Jeejebievee, ieefCekeâe, jb[er, helegefjÙee, efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW keâeueJeeÛekeâ efJeMes<eCe nesiee, keäÙeeWefkeâ ÙeneB meceÙe
cebieuecegKeer, jecepeveer Deeefo, peyeefkeâ `kegâueše' `JesMÙee keâe heÙee&Ùe ve keâe yeesOe nes jne nw~ Deepe, keâue, legjble, heerÚs, henues, Deye, peye,
neskeâj JÙeefYeÛeeefjCeer keâe heÙee&Ùe nw~ Fmekesâ DevÙe heÙee&Ùe nQ–efÚveeue, leye, keâYeer-keâYeer keâeueJeeÛekeâ efJeMes<eCe kesâ Devleie&le Deeles nQ~
mJewefjCeer, hegbMÛeueer, Deeefo~ mLeeveJeeÛekeâ ceW mLeeve keâe yeesOe neslee nw~ pewmes- ÙeneB, JeneB, keâneB,
30. (a) peneB, ÙeneB mes, JeneB mes, FOej-GOej~
efpeme Øekeâej ke=âef$ece keâe efJeueesce Øeeke=âeflekeâ neslee nw Gmeer Øekeâej GJe&je keâe
efoMeeJeeÛekeâ ceW efoMee keâe yeesOe neslee nw~ pewmes- GOej, Thej, otj
efJeueesce Tmej neslee nw~ Dele: hetCe& JeekeäÙe nesiee– ‘ke=âef$ece keâe Øeeke=âeflekeâ
hejs, Deueie, oeefnves, yeeSB, Deej-heej~
mes Jener mecyevOe nw, pees GJe&je keâe Tmej mes nw~’
jerefleJeeÛekeâ pewmes– Øekeâej, efveMÛeÙe, keâejCe efveefMÛeÙe, DeefveMÛeÙe,
peyeefkeâ Demle keâe efJeueesce ‘GoÙe’ leLee keâke&âMe keâe efJeueesce ‘ceOegj’
neslee nw~ mJeer keâej, efve<esOe, DeJeOeejCee Deeefo~
31. (a) heefjceeCeJeeÛekeâ pewmes– DeefOekeâleeyeesOekeâ, vÙetveleeyeesOekeâ,
Dees"eW keâer Deeke=âefle kesâ DeeOeej hej mJejeW keâes oes YeeieeW ceW efJeYeeefpele heÙee&hleyeesOekeâ, legueveeJeeÛekeâ, ßesCeerJeeÛekeâ Deeefo~
efkeâÙee ieÙee nw– 39. (c)
(i) DeJe=òecegKeer–efpeve mJejeW kesâ GÛÛeejCe ceW DeeW" Je=òecegKeer Ùee ‘ns ØeYees! cesjer FÛÚe hetCe& keâjes~’ JeekeäÙe ceW mecyeesOeve keâejkeâ ØeÙegòeâ
ieesueekeâej veneR nesles nQ, ‘DeJe=lecegKeer mJej’ keânueeles nQ; pewmes– De, nw~ efkeâmeer keâes hegkeâejves Ùee yegueeves kesâ efueS Fme keâejkeâ keâe ØeÙeesie keâjles
Dee, F, F&, S Ss~ nQ leLee mecyeesOeve kesâ MeyoeW kesâ meeLe mecyeesOeve efÛendve (efJemceÙe yeesOekeâ
(ii) Je=òecegKeer–efpeve mJejeW kesâ GÛÛeejCe ceW DeeW" ieesueekeâej nesles nQ, efÛendve) keâe ØeÙeesie keâjles nQ~ Fmekesâ Deefleefjòeâ efJemceÙe yeesOekeâ efÛendve
Jes ‘Je=òecegKeer’ mJej keâns peeles nQ; pewmes– G, T, Dees, Deew, Dee@~ keâe ØeÙeesie KegMeer, n<e&, Ie=Cee, ogKe, keâ™Cee Deeefo Øekeâš keâjves kesâ
Dele: efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘F’ DeJe=òecegKeer mJej nw~ efueS Yeer efkeâÙee peelee nw~
32. (b) 40. (c)
‘=’ leguÙeleemetÛekeâ efJejece efÛendve nw~ MeyoeLe& DeLeJee ieefCele keâer legkeâea Meyo - yeeJeÛeea, yesiece, ojesiee, keâeueerve, keQâÛeer, kegâueer, kegâkeâea,
leguÙelee metefÛele keâjves kesâ efueÙes Fme efÛendve keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peelee nw; leueeMe, ÛesÛekeâ, Ûeeyegkeâ Deeefo~ efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW mes ‘[sje’ legkeâea
pewmes– efMeef#ele = heÌ{e-efueKee Ùee 3 ± 3 = 6 Meyo veneR nw Deefheleg Got& Meyo nw~
33. (a) 41. (c)
efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeeOeej hej Megæ Jele&veer Jeeuee Meyo `Oeesefyeve' Hound – (efMekeâejer keâglòee), Synonym, Beagle Úesše efMekeâejer
nw~ Dele: efJekeâuhe (a) mener nw~ keâglòee~
34. (b)
DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ -
‘jepÙeheeue’ peeefleJeeÛekeâ meb%ee Meyo nw~ efpeve meb%eeDeeW mes Skeâ ner
Critic – DeeueesÛekeâ~
Øekeâej keâer JemlegDeeW DeLeJee JÙeefòeâÙeeW keâe yeesOe nes, GvnW ‘peeefleJeeÛekeâ
meb%ee’ keânles nQ~ efJeefYeVe mebyebefOeÙeeW, JÙeJemeeÙeeW, heoeW Deewj keâeÙeeX keâe Migrate – heÇJeeme keâjvee~
veece peeefleJeeÛekeâ meb%ee nesleer nw~ pewmes- yenve, YeeF&, DeOÙeehekeâ, Variable – heefjJele&veMeerue~
ceb$eer, Ûeesj Deeefo~ 42. (d)
35. (c) Harmony - (meecebpemÙe), Antonym, Hatred - (Ie=Cee)~ DevÙe
efoÙes ieÙes JeekeäÙe ceW jsKeebefkeâle heo ‘efkeâme-efkeâme’ meJe&veece nw~ Ùen efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&-
ØeMveJeeÛekeâ meJe&veece kesâ Devleie&le Deelee nw~ ØeMveJeeÛekeâ meJe&veece Gmes Friendship - efce$elee, Peace - Meeefvle, Rapport -
keânles nQ, efpevekeâe ØeÙeesie ØeMve keâjves kesâ efueS efkeâÙee peelee nw, pewmes- mecyevOe/Ieefve‰lee~
keâewve, keäÙee FlÙeeefo~ 43. (b)
36. (b) GheÙeg&òeâ group of words, A large building with an
‘Deefive’ keâe efJeMes<eCe ‘DeeivesÙe’ nw~ Mes<e efJekeâuhe Demebiele nw~ extensive floor area, typically for housing aircraft kesâ efueS
37. (d) GheÙegòeâ one word efJekeâuhe (b) Hangar (efJeceeve Iej) nw~ DevÙe
keâce& kesâ DeeOeej hej ef›eâÙee kesâ oes Yeso nesles nQ~ henuee mekeâce&keâ, otmeje efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& efYeVe nw-
Dekeâce&keâ~ mekeâce&keâ ef›eâÙee Gmes keânles nQ, efpeve ef›eâÙeeDeeW kesâ ØeÙeesie ceW Barn - Keefueneve, Shed- ceesšjKeevee/Meeefuekeâe, Airport -
keâce& keâer DeeJeMÙekeâlee veneR nesleer nw GvnW Dekeâce&keâ ef›eâÙee keânles nQ leLee efJeceeveeßeÙe
efpeveceW keâce& keâer Dehes#ee jnleer nw~ GvnW mekeâce&keâ ef›eâÙee keânles nQ~ 44. (a)
GoenjCe– GheÙeg&òeâ Idiom 'have eggs on one's face (MeefceËoe nesvee) keâe
Dekeâce&keâ ef›eâÙee mekeâce&keâ ef›eâÙee GheÙegòeâ DeLe& efJekeâuhe (c) 'to be embarrassed because of one's
Jen Kesue jne nw~ Jen Hegâšyee@ue Kesue jne nw~ action' nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuhe efYeVe DeLe& osles nw~
304 YCT
45. (d) speech keâes yeoueves hej not keâe ØeÙeesie conjunction to kesâ henues
GheÙeg&òeâ JeekeäÙe ceW 'run down of' kesâ mLeeve hej 'run out of' keâe keâjles nw Deewj to kesâ yeeo v1 keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peelee nw~
ØeÙeesie nesiee~ Note- (to + vI) as a infintive keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peelee nw~
run down of - ceboe heÌ[vee Correct Sentence -
run out of - Kelce nesvee The teacher advised the children not to go near the lake.
Correct sentence - Poor people have run out of food 52. (a)
supplies during the lockdown. GheÙeg&òeâ JeekeäÙe ceW keep a voice kesâ mLeeve hej have a voice keâe
46. (c)
ØeÙeesie GefÛele nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ possession oMee&ves kesâ efueS have keâe
GheÙeg&òeâ JeekeäÙe ceW 'unless' kesâ mLeeve hej 'inspite of/despite keâe
ØeÙeesie neslee nw~ ‘that’ kesâ yeeo DeeÙee Subject 'legislators'
ØeÙeesie nesiee~ Fmekeâe DeLe& ‘‘Fmekesâ yeeJepeto efkeâ’’ neslee nw~ Dele: Ùen
plural form ceW nw Dele: auxiliary verb kesâ leewj hej plural verb
JeekeäÙe kesâ YeeJe kesâ Devegmeej GheÙegòeâ DeLe& oslee nw~
(have) keâe Fmlesceeue nesiee~
Correct sentence- Zoya won the first prize in the race
inspite of she stumbled and fell. Correct Sentence -
47. (d) Without any exaggeration the provision will ensure that
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ YeeJe kesâ Devegmeej efjòeâ mLeeve ceW forgive (#ecee legislators have a voice in finalizing the terms and
keâjvee) keâe ØeÙeesie GefÛele nesiee~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ- conditions of the agreement.
53. (b)
condemn - efvevoe keâjvee
outcast - efveJee&efmele GheÙeg&òeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ jsKeeefkebâle Yeeie Has fined you kesâ mLeeve hej
blame - oes<e ueieevee will fine you keâe ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ JeekeäÙe
Correct sentence- They never forgive those who have conditional sentence type-I ceW nw, efpemekeâer mebjÛevee efvecveJeled nw-
done wrong. If +Present Indefinite+ Future Indefinite
48. (b) Correct Sentence -
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ YeeJe kesâ Devegmeej efjòeâ mLeeve ceW wherever (peneB If you park your car here, the traffic police will fine
keâneR Yeer) keâe ØeÙeesie GefÛele nesiee~ you.
DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ- 54. (c)
moreover - Deefleefjòeâ GheÙeg&òeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ jsKeeefkebâle Yeeie won't you kesâ mLeeve hej will
however - leLeeefhe you keâe ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ nesiee~ Ûetbefkeâ JeekeäÙe ceW “won’t”
whenever - peye keâYeer (negative) ØeÙegòeâ ngDee nQ~ Dele: tag positive (will you) ØeÙegòeâ
Correct sentence- I make friends wherever I go nesiee~ Dele: Question tag positive (will you) ØeÙegòeâ nesiee~
49. (d)
Correct Sentence -
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ efjòeâ mLeeve ceW respect (mecceeve, Deeoj) keâe
You won't tell the secret, will you?
ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ nesiee~ DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ- praise-ØeMebmee, 55. (a)
tribute-ßeæebpeefue, honour-mecceeve keâjvee~
GheÙeg&òeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ jsKeeefkebâle Yeeie Bulbul is honest girl kesâ mLeeve
Correct sentence- They showed her the greatest
respect.
hej Bulbul is an honest girl keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ honest
50. (d) (vowel sound) kesâ henues article 'an' keâe ØeÙeesie neslee nw~ keäÙeeWefkeâ
GheÙeg&òeâ JeekeäÙe ceW have been propose kesâ mLeeve hej have been Fmekesâ yeeo Indefinite noun (girl) keâe ØeÙeesie ngDee nw~
proposed keâe ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ efoÙee ieÙee JeekeäÙe Correct sentence–
passive voice ceW nw~ Deewj Passive voice ceW cegKÙe ef›eâÙee ncesMee "Bulbul is an honest girl but she is also very rude.''
past participle DeLee&led third form ceW ØeÙegòeâ nesleer nw~ 56. (d)
According to the passage "she reappeared
object + has / have + been + verb3 + by + subject
immediately." tell us that Madame changed her mind
Correct sentence :- suddenly and decided to give accomodation to the
Three more elevated roads have been proposed in the writer.
new plan to unclog the traffic in Delhi. Dele: efJekeâuhe (d) GheÙegòeâ Gòej nw~
51. (b) 57. (d)
GheÙeg&òeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ jsKeebefkeâle Yeeie to not went kesâ mLeeve hej 'not to According to the passage the narrator plane to stay in
go' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ direct speech kesâ Reported part kesâ place "A month." Hence option (d) will be correct
imperative sentence ceW not keâe ØeÙeesie nesves hej indirect answer.
305 YCT
58. (d) From the equation (i) and (ii)
According to the passage "An old servant" Looks after a b 32 21
the private house. Hence option (d) will be correct × = ×
b c 35 32
answer. a 3
59. (a) =
c 5
According to the passage Madame says "impossible"
when the narrator asks her "to recommend another 65. (b)
hotel." Hence option (a) will be correct answer. Let the number of red balls in the bag = 4x
60. (d) and number of green balls = 9x
According to the passage Madame is probable "A Ratio on adding 7 more red balls in the bag is 5:6
manager of the hotel." Hence option (d) will be correct 4x + 7 5
∴ =
answer. 9x 6
61. (b) 24x + 42 = 45x
Let the maximum marks of the first exam be x.
And the obtained marks = y 21x = 42
According to the first condition, x=2
y 70 7x ∴ Number of green balls in the bag will be
= , y= = 9x = 9 × 2 = 18
x 100 10
According to the second condition, 66. (c)
y + 20 78 Let the discount offered on an article = 100
= Selling price (SP) = 300
x + 25 100
7x + 200 78 Marked price (MP) = 400
= 100
x + 25 10 Discount% = ×100
70x + 2000 = 78x + 1950 400
8x = 50 = 25%
x = 6.25 Hence profit% = 25%
Therefore, maximum marks = 6.25 100  SP × 100 
Cost price (CP) = 300 × = 240  CP =
62. (d) 125  100 + d% 
Let the cost price of TV = ` 100 ∴ Discount : Cost price = 100: 240
Then the cost price of washing machine = ` 60 = 5: 12
Total cost price of 5 washing machine and 2TV
67. (b)
= (5 × 60 + 2 × 100) = ` 500
Let the cost price = `100
90
Cost price of TV after conversion = 100 × = 9` 90 ∴ Marked price = `125
100 ∵ (neither profit, nor loss) In this case the discount
Cost price of washing machine after conversion given on selling price for selling goods is x%.
60 × 118
= == ` 70.8 According to the question,
100
Total cost price of 5 washing machine and 2TV's after 125 ×
(100 − x ) = 100
conversion = (5 × 70.8 + 90 × 2) = ` 534 100
Difference = 534 – 500 = ` 34 100 ×100
34
(100 − x ) =
125
Hence, increasing in percentage = ×100 = 6.8%
500 ⇒ 100 – x = 80
63. (d) ⇒ x = 100 – 80
Percentage change in the curved surface area of a ⇒ x = 20%
10 × 40 68. (a)
cylinder = +10 − 40 −
100 Given,
= – 30 – 4 Amount (A) = `13464
= – 34% Rate (R) = 14.5% p.a.
= 34% decreased
Time (T) = 6 years
64. (c)
Let the invested sum = ` p
a 32
= ......... (i) Now,
b 35
b 21  RT 
A = P  1+ 
= ........ (ii)  100 
c 32
306 YCT
  14.5 × 6  72. (a)
13464 = P  1 +  Given–
 100 
R = 4%
 87 
13464 = P  1 +  Time (T) = 2 Years
 100  Simple interest = `140
 187  P×R ×T
13464 = P   Simple interest =
 100  100
13464 × 100 P× 4× 2
P = 140 =
187 100
= `7200 7000
P= = `1750
69. (d) 4
Let principal · ` P As per the question –
T
· 10 years  R 
time (t) A = P 1 + 
Rate · r %  100 
2
Amount = Principal + SI  4 
A = 1750 1 + 
Pr t  100 
2P = P+
100 26 26
A = 1750 × ×
P × r ×10 25 25
2P–P = A = 1892.8
100
Interest = 1892.8 – 1750 = 142.8
Pr
P= Difference of interest = 142.8 – 140 = ` 2.80
10 73. (d)
r · 10% 1
Work done by A in one day = part
70. (a) 9
As per the question, 1
Work done by (A+B) in one day = part
Time 6
 Rate 
Amount = Principal  1 +  1 1
 100  Work done by B in one day = –
2
6 9
 5  3– 2
441 = Principal 1 +  =
 100  18
 21 
2 1
441= Principal   = part
18
 20 
Hence, B alone can complete the same work in 18 days.
441
441= Principal × 74. (a)
400 Let the working Efficiency of 1 man = x
441× 400 and the working Efficiency of 1 woman = y
Principal = = `400
441 According to the question,
71. (a) (8x + 6y) × 5 = (6x + 8y) × 5
According to the question, 40x + 30y = 30x + 40y
Extra interest = 40x – 30x = 40y – 30y
 2
  2
 10x = 10y
20  10 
100  1+  – 1 – 100 1+  – 1 x:y=1:1
 100    100   Hence the total work = (8x + 6y) × 5
6 6   11 11  = (8 × 1 + 6 × 1) × 5
= 100  × – 1 – 100  × – 1 = 70 unit
5 5   10 10  Let 7 men and 7 women do the work in D days,
 36 – 25   121 – 100  then (7x + 7y)D = 70
= 100   – 100  
 25   100  ( 7 × 1 + 7 × 1)D = 70
= 4 × 11 – 21 70
D=
= 44 – 21 14
= ` 23 D = 5 days
307 YCT
75. (a) 200 + 300 + 250 + 250 + 250 + 250
·
1 6
Work done by A in one day = part
10 1500
1 = = 250
Work done by B in one day = part 6
15 79. (a)
1 1 1
Work done by C in one day = −  +  4.567
5  10 15 
567 − 5
1  3+ 2  = 4+
= − 990

5  30  562
1 5 = 4+
= − 990
5 30 281
1 1 = 4+
= − 495
5 6 281
6−5 =4
= 495
30
80.(c)
1
= part From options–
30
29 53
1 1 1 (a) = ⇒ 4.83 = 4.41 (false)
Efficiency ratio = : : 6 12
10 15 30
29 43
= 3 : 2 :1 (b) = ⇒ 4.83 = 3.58 (false)
6 12
4800 × 1
Amount paid to C · = `800 29 43
6 (c) > ⇒ 4.83 > 3.58 (true)
76. (d) 6 12
340 29 43
Value per container in 1styear = = ` 0.85 (d) < ⇒ 4.83 < 3.58 (false)
400 6 12
270 Hence, option (c) is correct.
Value per container in 2nd year = = ` 0.96
280 81. (c)
280 The way Solar is related to Sun in the same way Lunar
Value per container in 3rd year = = ` 0.80 is related to Moon.
350
350 82. (b)
Value per container in 4th year = = ` 0.77 Such as,
450
Hence, it is clear that the value per container was
minimum in 4th year.
77. (c) and
Average weight of P, Q and R = 58 kg
Total weight of P, Q and R = 58×3=174 kg
P + Q + R = 174 kg ...(i)
Average weight of P and Q = 54 kg Similary
Total weight of P and Q = 54×2 = 108kg
P + Q = 108 kg ...(ii)
Average weight of Q and R = 48 kg Hence, ? = ISLBNISG
Total weight of Q and R= 48 × 2 = 96kg
83. (c)
Q + R = 96 kg ...(iii)
Just as,
From equation (ii) and (iii),
P + 2Q + R = 204kg ...(iv) 2 → (2)3 + (2)2 = 12
On subtracting equation (i) from equation (iv), Same as,
Hence, Q = 30 kg 3 → (3)3 + (3)2 = 36
78. (c) 84. (a)
sum of terms Just as, the first figure rotates 180º, the second figure is
Average =
number of terms obtained, similarly the third figure rotating 180º will
Average of the screw in given 6 months- give option figure A.

308 YCT
85.(b) 92. (c)
Just as, According to the question,

And,

Same as,
Hence, it is clear from above diagram that 4 is the father
of 3.
93. (b)
Given expression-
86. (b) 93 – 91 × 7 + 8 ÷ 3
Generally, there are three sessions of parliament every +→×
year.
×→÷
1. Budget session (February-May)
÷→−
2. Mansoon session (July-August)
3. Winter session (November-December) −→+
Hence, option (b) summer session is odd one. According to the question on changing the
87. (b) mathematical symbols-
In the given group, figure D is different from all other 93 + 91 ÷ 7 × 8 – 3 = 93 + 13 × 8 – 3
because except figure D all other figures are moving = 93 + 104 – 3
clockwise but figure D is moving anticlockwise. = 197 – 3 = 194
88. (d) 94. (d)
The given series is as follows– Given,
27 3 19 10 = 90
From option (d),
27 × 3 + 19–10 = 90
Hence, ? = 169
81 + 19 – 10 = 90
89. (d)
100 – 10 = 90
The given figure rotates in 90º Anti clockwise direction
in a certain order, thus, figure A will be found in place 90 = 90
of the question mark. Hence option (d) is correct answer.
90. (b) 95. (a)
Just as, All three words given are related to different
8 × 2 + 1 = 17 languages.
And, 17 × 2 + 1 = 35 English Chinese
Similarly,
35 × 2 + 1 = ?
70 + 1 = ?
Hence, ? = 71
91. (c) French
On drawing blood relation diagram according to the Hence, option (a) is correct.
question, 96. (c)
On drawing the Venn diagram as per statement.

Vehicle

Hence, the mother of Suresh is the daughter of Pravina. Hence, Neither conclusion 1 nor 2 follows.
309 YCT
97. (b) 105. (b)
On making the diagram as per the statement. The definition of 'orphan drug' as per central licensing
authority is drug intended to treat a condition affecting
less than 5 lakh persons in India.
• Orphan drug used to treat, prevent, or diagnose an
orphan disease.
• According to WHO, a rare disease is defined as
Conclusion (1)
debilitating lifelong disease or condition with a
(2) × prevalence of ≤1 Per one thousand population. Different
Hence, only conclusion 1 follows. countries have different definitions of rare disease
98. (b) according to suitability of their own requirements. In
In the given statement, Y told his friend, "My children fact, if we go by the words of Nationals Institutes of
enjoy playing in our garden" from this statement both Health (NTH), out of total American population, 30
conclusions are logical. million have one of the nearly 7000 diseases that are
99. (b) officially declared " rare".
According to Europe, orphan diseases are defined as
The given question figure is embedded in answer figure
those disease affecting less than/ in 2000 population,
B. So, option (b) is correct.
whereas in USA, rare disease is defined as disease
100. (d) Which affects less than 200000 people at a certain point
of time.
106. (a)
Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are the drug of choice for
treating gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) Their
Superiority to histamine. receptor antagonists (H2 RAs)
Triangles made from 1 digit =1, 2, 3, 4, 5 cisapride and sucralfate is reflux related to their potent
and prolonged suppression of gastric acid.
Triangles made from 3 digits = (1, 6, 3), (2, 6, 5)
107. (c)
(1, 6, 4), (5, 6, 3), (2, 6, 4)
Hypoglycemia is a reported life- threatening ADR
Hence, Total number of triangles = 5 + 5 = 10 associated with nadolol especially in infants in whom
101. (c) this drug should be used with caution.
Lodoquinol belongs to the group of medicines called 108. (a)
antiprotozoals, These medicines are used to treat Lithium, tricyclic antidepressants and selective
infections caused by Protozoa lodoquinol is used most serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSR/s) antiepileptics,
often in the treatment of an intestinal infection called rifampin, metformin and amiodarone. mainly affect
amebiasis. directly thyroid function.
102. (b) 109. (a)
The Stent is usually placed within the Peripheral or Relatively higher does of theophylline is required to
coronary artery by an interventional cardiologist or attain therapeutic plasma concentration in cigarette
smokers.
interventional radiologist during an angioplasty
110. (d)
Procedure An example of a drug eluting stent, this is the
Atracurium, a nondepolarizing muscle relaxant, is
Taxus Express paclitaxel Eluting coronary stent system
eliminated through several pathways, including
which releases paclitaxel. hofmann elimination and hydrolysis by plasma
103. (a) esterases. It should be noted that more than one half of
Glycopyrrolate, also known as glycopyrronium is an the clearance of atracurium occurs via pathways other
anticholinergic drug. Glycopyrrolate has been widely than Hofmann elimination and ester hydrolysis.
used as a preoperative medication to inhibit salivary 111. (a)
gland and respiratory secretions. Variance is a measure of dispersion that takes into
Reducing secretions is the role of glycopyrrolate in account the spread of all data points in a data set, and
preoperative phase. variance is related to standard deviation.Gien that,
104. (b) variance is 16 W.K.T
Obligation of the investigator and study team members deviation = variance
to safeguard the participant information refers to ∴ Standard deviation = 16
confidentiality. =4
310 YCT
112. (d) 121. (b)
Lidocaine is a local anesthetic used in a wide variety of Gabriel ring closure method is employed is employed
superficial and invasive procedures and it causes for the synthesis of aziridine.
temporary numbness in the skin and mucous 122. (a)
membranes. Lidocaine can selectively inhibit the Inhibition of GABA transaminase enzyme is mainly
expression of the P2 × 7 receptor in xenopus oocytes. done by sodium valproate.
113. (a) Sodium valproate is used to treat epilepsy and bipolar
Disulfiram, Naltrexone and acamprosate are the three disorder. its occasionally used to prevent migraine
medications approved by the U.S food and drug headaches.
administration (FDA) to treat alcohol use disorder or in Inhibition of GABA tramsaminase enzymes reduces the
the treatment of chronic alcoholism. Riluzole, is a degradation of GABA, leading to increased neuronal
benzothiazole class medicine, indicated for the GABA concentrations. Examples include- valproic acid,
treatment of patients with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis vigabatrin, phenylethylidene hydrazine (and drugs that
(ALS). metabolise to it, such as phenelzine), ethanolamine - O -
114. (c) sulfate (EOS) , and L - cycloserine.
Muscarinic receptor antagonists (MRAs) function by 123. (b)
competitively blocking the cholinergic response Classification by therapeutic potential
manifested by acetylcholine COPD {chronic obstructive P- priority review, Therapeutic Gain
pulmonary disease) therapy involves using muscarinic S- standard review
receptor antagonists treatment of parkinsonism, and FDA supplementary designators
prevention of motion sickness also involves there AA. - Drug used for AIDS or complication of that
receptors, but these receptors play no role in the disease.
treatment of postoperative urinary retention. E - Drug used for a life threatening or severely
115. (b) debilitating illness.
Refaximin is a semi-synthetic derivative of rifampin. 124. (a)
Rifaximin is bactericidal against wide range of enteric - The co-administration of erythromycin with
pathogens, including gram - positive, gram - negative, cyclosporine increase bioavailability due to inhibition of
aerobic and anaerobic bacteria rifaximin is a hepatic metabolism.
gastrointestinal selective antibiotic with broad range of Co-administration of a drug that can inhibit an enzyme
antimicrobial activity. selectively in the liver can contribute to increased
116. (d) bioavailability of another drugs.
A false negative error, or false negative, is a test result 125. (a)
which wrongly indicates that a condition does not hold. Numerous isomers of human liver P450 enzyme have
Large sample size, large effect size and high been identified it is not worthy that Cy P3 A4 alone is
significance are all that can decrease false negativity. responsible for the metabolism of over 55% of the
117. (c) prescription drug metabolized by liver
Examples of schedule II narcotics include 126. (b)
hydromorphone (Dilaudid), methadone (Dolophine) Benzodiazepines exhibit antioriolytic effect by inhibit
meperidine (demerol), Oxycodone (oxycontin, the activation of amygdala by binding at GABA-A
Percocet) fentanyl (sublimaze Duragesic) morphine, receptors in the amygdala thus it is useful to reduce
opium and codeine. antiety
118. (a) Benzodiazepines exhibit hypnotic effect promote sleep
Tapentadol (Nucynta, Palexia, and Tapal) is an oral by binding at GABA-A receptors in the ULPO causing
opioid analgesic in the benzenoid class with a dual sleepiness hence it is useful in insomnia and used to
mechanism of action that is similar to tramadol it is a H- control convulsions.
Opioid receptor agonist and also inhibits the reuptake of 127. (d)
norepinephrine. We may experience reduce absorption of ampicillin in
119. (a) the presence of food. The effectiveness of the
Oral metronidazole is the drug of choice for antibiotics may be reduced. Ampicillin should be
trichomoniasis single dose therapy with 2 g orally is as administered one hour before or two hour after meals.
effective as Prolonged therapy with 500 mg twice daily This will make it easier for our body to absorb the
for 7 day. medication. Penicillin V and amoxicillin are not
120. (b) affected by food and may be given without regard to
Timolol second generation β 1 - selective blocker meals. Co-administration of drugs with food generally
contains 1, 3, 5 thiadiazole ring in its structure. delays drug absorption.

311 YCT
128. (d) ⇒ Tachycardia : Tachycardia, also called
Acetazolamide acts as a non competitive inhibitor of Tachyrrhythmia is a heart rate that exceed the normal
carbonic anhydrase, of which there are several subtypes resting rate.
in human. Headache : A person or thing that occurs worry or
Acetazolamide causes an acidification of the difficulty .
intracellular and extracellular environments activating 135. (a)
acid-sensing ion channels, and these may account for Anthracycline remain an important class of drugs in the
the anti seizure effects of acetazolamide. treatment of cancer, but also remains a problematic
129. (b) chemotherapeutic agent given their cardio toxic effects.
Captopril is in a class of medication called angiotensin- so anthracycline should be avoided in breast cancer
converting enzyme (ACE) incivility. It decreased when she has five years history of myocardial infarction
certain chemical that tighten the blood vessels so blood and congestive heart failure.
flows more smoothly and the heart can pump blood 136. (a)
more efficiently. The drug of choice for treating Guinea worm infection
ACF also use for the treatment of hypertension. (Dracunculus medinensis) is Nystatin. Nystation is an
130. (d) antifungal that stops the growth of fungus.
Spinal anesthesia is a form of neuraxial regional 137. (b)
anesthesia involving the injection of a local anesthetic Misoprostol is a synthetic prostaglandin useful for the
or opioid into the subarachnoid space, generally through
prevention of duodenal ulcer.
a fine needle usually 1 cm long. It is safe and effective
form anesthesia usually performed by anesthesiologists • Dinoprost is used to prepare the cervix for the
that can be used as an alternative to general anesthesia induction of labor in pregnant women who are at or near
commonly in surgeries involving the lower extremities term.
and surgeries below the umbilicus. • Alprostadil is used in the management and treatment
131. (a) of erectile dysfunction in males and for temporary
Spironolactone is used to treat high blood pressure and potency of ductus arterious in new borns with
heart failure. Lowering high blood pressure helps congenital heart disease before surgical intervention
prevent strokes, heart attacks and kidney problems. It is 138. (a)
also use to treat swelling (edema) caused by certain Pyrantel is a drug of choice to treat ancyclostoma
conditions (such as heart failure, liver disease) by duodenal. It is an medication used to treat roundworm,
removing excess fluid and improving symptoms such as hookworm, pinworm and other worm infections.
breathing problems. This medication also used to treat 139. (c)
conditions in which the body is making too much of a Lidocaine depresses automaticity in cardiac purkinje
natural substance (aldosteron). fibers by decreasing the slope of slow diastolic
132. (d) depolarization lidocaine, also known as lignocaine and
SYBYL is a genal molecular modeling programme that is a local anesthetic of the amino amide type. It is also
consists of a number of computational chemistry used to treat ventricular tachycardia.
modules to describe and predict molecular behaviour by 140. (d)
Tripos, now a subsidiary of Certara, Inc. The An extract of the toxin glands of black widow spiders
programme suite SYBYL the basic module performs induces the release of acetylcholine (Ach) from the
the task of reading or sketching structures and initiating superior cervical ganglia of rats. The toxic alatrotoxin
minimisations. acts on the neuromuscular junction to cause depletion of
133. (c) acetylcholine at motor endings and catacholamines at
The complement-fixation test (CFT) is a classical the pastganglionic sympathetic synaptic sites followed
laboratory diagnostic test, which is silt used for by complete blockage of the neuromediator release.
determination of virus antibodies in patient sera or 141. (c)
cerebrospinal fluid samples during an acute infection. Varenicline, available by prescription only, is a
The wasserman reaction is a diagnostic complement nicotinic receptor partial agonist that selectively binds
fixation test to detect antibodies to the syphilis causing to α4 β 2 nicotinic cholinergic receptors in the brain. It is
organism Treponema; a positive reaction indicates the not a complete antagonist at the neuronal nicotinic
presence of antibodies and therefore syphilis infection. receptors.
134. (a) 142. (a)
Aspirin should be used with caution in Asthama. Pharmacogenetics involves variability in drug response
Aspirin contains salicilate, a compound found in plants due to genetic makeup. The activity of drug -
such as the willow tree and myrtle metabolizing enzymes after varies widely among
312 YCT
healthy people, making metabolism highly variable. 151. (d)
Variations in response to drug may be The fourth generation cephalosporin is cefepime.
pharmacodynamic, implying inter-individual Cefepime is a common antibiotic, it covers a broad
differences in the response of receptors in equal spectrum of gram positive and gram negative bacteria.
concentrations of drug. 152. (c)
143. (a) Pirenzepine produces its action by blocking M1 type of
Thioridazine causes retinal deposits (Browning of receptors.
vision). Retinopathy has been shown to be related to The M1 receptor is primarily found in cerebral cortex,
high dosages of antipsychotics mainly thioridazine. The gastric and salivary glands. M1 is also known as
frequency of occurrence of retinal effects seems to be muscarinic acetylcholine receptor or known as
proportional to the total amount of drug used over a cholinergic receptor muscarinic-1. It has crucial role in
long period of time. learning and memory processes.
144. (b): Levodopa used to produce a non specific
153. (c)
'awakening' effect in hepatic coma. The most common
The half life of digoxin is around 1.5 to 2 days (36-44
side effects of levodopa are nausea. sleepiness,
hours). It may prolonged in case of renal dysfunction.
dizziness and headache.
Digoxin is used to treat heart failure and also for the
145. (c)
treatment of irregular heartbeat.
The presynaptic inhibition of the release of
154. (d)
acetylcholine, mediated by presynaptic α2 receptors
blocked by mianserin, mianserin dose not inhibit The process by which the amount of active drug in the
neuronal 5- HT reuptake and in the brain is only weakly body is reduced after absorption into the systemic
active in blocking noradrenaline uptake. circulation is known as elimination. Drug elimination is
146. (b) the sum of processes of removing an administered drug
Carbenicillin and antiplatelet drug results in increasing risk from the body.
of bleeding. Bleeding is frequent complication both in 155. (b)
patients treated with oral anti coagulation and in patients Low bioavailability is most common with oral dosage
with antiplatelet, in which major bleeding occurs. Clinical forms of poorly water-soluble, slowly absorbed drugs.
trials have shown that antiplatelet agents are effective in Insufficient time for absorption in the gastrointestinal
the prevention of thrombosis in arterial diseases and (GI) tract is a common cause of low bioavailability.
increase bleeding time. ∗ Enterohepatic circulation refers to the circulation of
147. (d) biliary acids, bilirubin, drugs or other substances form
The absorption rate is determined by the concentration the liver to the bile, followed by entry into the small
gradient, lipid solubility, and affecting area of intestine, absorption by the enterocyte and transport
absorptive surface, vascularity etc. More the back to the liver.
vascularity, more is the rate and extent of absorption 156. (d)
and vice versa: Area of absorption surface affects oral Alpha-2 blockers (or a2 blockers are a subset of the
as well as other routes. Most of the drugs are given alpha blocker class of drugs and are antagonists to the
orally because of the large area of absorptive surface, so α-2 adrenergic receptor. They are mainly used in
that greater absorption occurs. research having found limited clinical application in
148. (a) Human medicine Alpha-2 blockers increase
Sodium Pico sulfate is a stimulant laxative. It works by noradrenaline release.
increasing the movement of intestines, there by
Selective alpha-2 blockers include the medications
facilitating the passage of stool.
yohimbine and has been used to treat male sexual
149. (a)
dysfunction.
Dapsone is used to treat Leprosy. It also helps in the
control of dermatitis. Dapsone is in a class of 157. (b)
medications called sulfone antibiotics. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the
150. (b) most commonly prescribed antidepressants. They can
Urea and Diethyl malonic ester are the starting material ease symptoms of moderate to severe depression are
for the synthesis of Barbitone. Barbiturates or barbitone relatively safe and typically cause fewer side effects
are basically a closed chain uric compounds, where sage and typical cause fewer side effects than other
nucleus is malonylurea is combination of urea and types of antidepressants do.
malonic acid. Barbiturates are used as sedatives, Fluoxetine is used to treat depression, obsessive
hypnotics and as anesthetics, and anticonvulsant. compulsive disorder.

313 YCT
158. (a) 164. (c)
Pharmacodynamic drug interactions (DDIs) occurs Potassium bromide is a halide salt most commonly used
when the pharmacological effect of one drug is altered as an add on anticonvulsant drug to Phenobarbital when
by that of another drug in a combination regimen. DDIs the latter is ineffective or not as effective as desired. it
often are classified as synergistic, additive, or also may permit you to decrease the dose level of the
antagonistic in nature, albeit these terms are frequently Phenobarbital . Potassium bromide may also be used
misused. initially as the anticonvulsant drug.
* When the combined effect is greater than that 165. (a)
predicted by their individual potencies the combination Noradrenaline is a hormone that is produced naturally
is said to be synergistic. by the body. It is given by injection to treat life-
threatening drops in blood pressure. Noradrenaline
159. (d)
produces wide ranging effects on many areas of the
Thioamides are the most common anti-thyroid drugs
body and is after referred to as a fight or flight'
which act by inhibiting the enzyme thyroid peroxidase,
chemical, as it is responsible for the body's reaction to
thus, reducing the synthesis of TH in the thyroid; stressful situations.
* Potassium perchlorate is an in organic salt with the 166. (d)
chemical formula KClO4. It is a strong oxidizer with the β-Lactam antibiotics are bactericidal agents that
lowest solubility of the alkali metal perchlorates. interrupt bacterial cell-wall formation as a result of
potassium is most commonly used in flares and covalent binding proteins (PBPs), enzymes that are
automobile airbags. involved in the terminal steps of peptidoyl can crosslink
160. (b) kind in both gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria,
Primaquine, as viewed by many clinicians, has its only transamidase also known as amino transferases. are a
role in regard to its activity against P. Vivax infection. group of enzymes that mediate the transfer of an amino
Primaquine has been found to be active against the early acid and a keto acid.
liver stages of both P. Primaquine is a medication used 167. (a)
to treat and prevent malaria and to treat pheumocystis Prazosin is used alone or in combination with other
pneumonia. Specifically it is used for malaria due to medications to treat high blood prsssure. Prazosin is in a
plasmodium vivax and plasmodium ovale along with class of medications called alpha - blockers. It works by
other medications. relaxing the blood vessels so that blood can flow more
161. (c) easily through the body.
Pyrimidine antagonists belong to the group of 168. (c)
antimetabolite anticancer drugs and show structural Class IB antiarrhythmic drug lidocaine. Lidocaine is an
resemblance with naturally occurring nucleotides. Their aneshetic. It causes loss of feeling in the skin and
action is accomplished through incorporation as false surrounding tissues. It is used to prevent and to treat
pain from some procedures. This medicine is also used
precursor in DNA or RNA or through inhibition of
of treat minor burns ropes and insect bites.
proteins involved in nucleotide metabolism. The
169. (d)
pyrimidine antagonists act to block the synthesis of
Primaquine is a 8- Amino quinoline is another class of
pyrimidine containing nucleotides (C and T in DNA, C
quinoline - based antimalarial drug that contains three
And U in RNA).
members, primaquine, to tafenoquine and pamaquine
162. (b) which are used in the treatment of malaria . They may
The prototypical osmotic diuretic is mannitol. Mannitol be used to eradicate malarial hypnozoites from the liver
lowers the intra cranial pressure through two effects in and have been used for malarial prophylaxis. Malaria is
the brain. The first rheological effect, reduces blood caused by plasmodium vivax .
viscosity. and promotes plasma expansion and cerebral 170. (c)
oxygen delivery. Mannitol is a type of sugar alcohol Artificial respiration can be mainly classified into two
used as a sweetener and medication. categories, i.e, manual and mechanical. Manual
163. (b) methods of artificial respiration include Schaffer's
Methicillin was the first semisynthetic penicillinase method, sylvester's method, Holger- Neilson method &
resistant Penicillin. It has been withdrawn from the mouth to mouth respiration method. Mechanical method
market in the united states because of the high incidence are two types, i.e. Drinker's method and ventilation
of interstitial nephritis associated with its use. method.
Methicillin - resistant staphylococcus aureus is an Drinker's method is not a manual method for artificial
increasing problem all over the world. respiration.

314 YCT
Drinker's method- In drinker method air is which describes about habit forming narcotics drugs
withdrawn mechanically to produce vaccum creates '- and these drugs require prescription by a authorized
ve' pressure expands chest and lead to decrease doctor, to purchase them.
intrapulmonary pressure, and air flows into lungs. Then 179. (d)
elastic coil of chest & lungs leads passive exhalation. Optic neuritic is a chief adverse effect Ethambutol.
171. (c) Ethambutol a medication used in the management and
Drug of choice for the Diazepam management of status treatment of tuberculosis. It is a bacteriostatic drug that
epilepticus. inhibits cell wall synthesis. This activity outlines the
The first - line treatment for early status epilepticus indications, actions, and contraindication for ethambutol
mainly comprises the administration of as a valuable agent in the treatment of tuberculosis.
Benzodiazepines the most friquently used of which 180. (a)
include diazepam, lorazepam , and midazolam. Cholinergic antagonists are the drugs that are combined
172. (d) along with beta-adrenoceptor agonist to obtain a more
A hand sanitizer or hand antiseptic is a based hand effective bronchodilation.
hygiene agent is alcohol, The Centers for Disease • Cholinergic antagonists is a general term for agents
Control and Prevention recommends formulations that binds to cholinoceptors (muscarinic or nicotinic) &
containing 80% (percent volume/volume) ethanol or Prevent the effects of acetylcholine (ACH) and other
75% isopropyl alcohol; however, genrally speaking, cholinergic agonists.
sanitizers containing 60 to 95% alcohol are acceptable. • The most clinically usefull of these agents are
173. (b) selective blockers of muscarinic receptors.
Selective Cox-2 inhibitors currently used in the clinic 181. (c)
are the sulphonamides celecoxib and valdecoxib Risperidone is a antipsychotic drug at low doses, is
(parecoxib is a prodrug of valdecoxib) as well as the combined with antidepressants in treatment resistant
methylsulphones rofecoxib and etoricoxib. Furthermore, depression.
the phenylacetic acid derivative lumiracoxib has gained • Risperidone helps with symptoms of same mental
permission recently to be marketed in Europe. health conditions such as-schizophrenia.(where we may
174. (c) see, hear or feel things that are not there or we believe
Ceftibuten is an example for third generation things that are not true or we feel unusually suspicious
cephaleosporins. It is used as an orally administered or have muddled thoughts).
antibiotic. Ceftibuten is used to treat certain infections • Helps in aggressive or agitated behavior in children
caused by bacteria such as bronchitis and infections of or young people with learning disabilities.
the ears, throat and tonsils. 182. (c)
175. (b) Drug delivery to the brain is the process of passing
The secondary hyper uricemia due to cancer therapeutically active molecules across the Blood Brain
chemotherapy is controlled by allopurinol. It is a Barrier for the purpose of treating brain maladies. This
medicine known as xanthine oxidase inhibitor and is a complex process that must take in to account the
works by reducing the production of uric acid in the complex anatomy of the brain as well as the restrictions
body. imposed by the special junctions, of the blood Brain
It should be known that high levels of uric acid may Barrier (BBB).
cause gout attacks or kidney stones. The BBB is a highly selective permeability barrier that
176. (d) separates the circulating blood from the brain extra-
Amitriptyline is a medication used as tricycle cellular fluid (BECF) in the central nervous system
antidepressant. It helps to enhance serotonin level in the (CNS). BBB is a unique membranous barrier that
brain. It works in improving our mood and also can tightly segregates the brain from the circulating blood.
change the way as how the nerves in our body receive The BBB acts very effectively to protect the brain from
pain signals. the many common bacterial infections.
177. (c) 183. (d)
Pyridine is a benzene like compound, but heterocyclic Colchicine (colcrys, globerba, mitigare), anti-
{C5N5N} in structure and its ring is a basic component inflannatory drug that effectively reduces goutpain.
of several important natural products as that of nicotine Colchicine is used to prevent gout attacks (sudden,
and nucleic acid. severe pain in one or more joints caused by abnormally
178. (c) high levels of a substance called uric acid in the blood)
Secobarbital belongs to the class of drugs that are under in adults. Colchicine (colcrys) is also used to relieve the
listed in schedule x of drugs and cosmetics act 1945 pain of gout attacks when they occur.
315 YCT
184. (b) the body, which is a substance that causes allergic
Dimercaprol is the drug of choice for the treatment of symptoms.
acute inorganic mercury toxicity. It is the preffered
chelator for mercury salt.
• Dimercaprol is in the chelating class of drugs. This
activity outlines & contraindication for dimercaprol as a
valuable agent in treating Arsenic Mercury, Gold &
Lead toxicity.

189. (b)
185. (b)
Phenytoin is classified as a hydantoin derivatives and
β – lactamase inhibitor are drug that are co-
despite its narrow therapeutic index it is one of the
administered with beta-lactam antimicrobials to prevent
most commonly used anticonvulsants.
antimicrobial resistance by inhibiting serine beta-
190. (d)
lactamases, which are enzymes that inactivate the beta-
lactam ring, which is a common chemical structure to • Methyldopa is used to treat high blood pressure.
all beta-lactam antimicrobials. Lowering your blood pressure will help reduce your risk
of having a stroke or heart attack.
• Clavulanic acid is a potent inhibitor of many beta -
lactamases, including those found in E-Coli, Klebsiella, • The more common side effects that can occur with–
acrogens, Proteus mirabilis, & staphylococcus aureus. Methyldopa include–
186. (d) ♦ Sedation and lethargy
ACE inhibitors block the breakdown of Bradykinin, ♦ headache
causing levels of this protein to rise & blood vessels to ♦ weakness
widen (Vasodilatation). Increased bradykinin levels are ♦ lightheadedness
also responsible for ACE inhibitor treatment's most ♦ nausea or vomiting
common side effect caused is a dry cough. ♦ swelling of your hands or feet
• ACE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of a natural ♦ weight gain
chemical in the body called bradykinin. Increased ♦ drowsiness
levels of bradykinin, which can cause swelling may
♦ lack of energy
contribute to the development of angioedema.
♦ dizziness
187. (c)
♦ fainting
The chemical name of paracetamol is N-acetyl p-
aminophenol. Acetaminophen, also known as 191. (d)
paracetamol is commonly used for its analgesic and • Mifepristone, also know as RU-486, is a medication
antipyretic effects. typically used in combination with misoprostol to bring
about an abortion during pregnancy.
• This combination is 97% effective during the first 50
to 63 days of pregnancy. It is also effective in the
second trimester of pregnancy.
192. (c)
• Antagonist–A receptor antagonist is a type of
receptor ligand or drug that blocks or dampens a
biological response by binding to and blocking a
receptor rather than activating it like an agonist.
• They are sometimes called blockers; examples include
alpha blockers, beta blockers, and calcium channel
188. (b) blockers.
Diphenhydramine chemically belongs to Aminoalkyl 193. (a)
ether class. Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine used ■ Draughts :– These are liquid oral preparations of
to temporarily relieve symptoms due to hay fever, upper which only one or two rather large doses of the order
respiratory allergies, or the common cold, such as runny of 50 ml are prescribed.
nose and sneezing. It works by blocking histamine in
■ Each dose is issued in a separate container.

316 YCT
■ Ipecacuanha Emetic Drought, Paediatric, is ■ Brainstem : Brainstem acts as a relay center
exceptional; the normal dose is 10 or 15 ml and connecting the cerebrum and cerebellum to the
therefore a multiple dose volume is prescribed. spinal cord.
■ Collodions :– Collodions are fluid preparations for ■ It performs many automatic functions such as
external use. They are applied with a brush or rod. breathing, heart rate, body temperature, wake and
■ The vehicle is volatile and evaporates on sleep cycles, digestion, sneezing, coughing,
application to the skin, leaving a flexible, protective vomiting and swallowing.
film covering the site. 196. (c)
■ The volatile solvents are ether and alcohol, the film ■ Beta blockers, also known as beta-adrenergic
producing ingredient is pyroxylin (nitrocellulose) blocking agents, are medications that reduce your
and the substance giving the flexibility is castor oil. blood pressure. Beta blockers work by blocking the
■ Elixirs :– Elixirs are clear, liquid, oral preparations effects of the hormone epinephrine, also known as
of potent or nauseous drugs. adrenaline. Beta blockers cause your heart to beat
■ They are pleasantly flavored and usually more slowly and with less force, which lowers blood
attractively coloured. pressure.
■ In general, they are more stable than mixtures but Beta-blockers include :
some require preparation immediately before issue ■ Acebutolol ■ Atenolol ■ Betaxolol
to the patient, by adding a solvent to dry granules. ■ Bisoprolol ■ Carteolol ■ Carvedilol
■ Linctuses :– Linctuses are viscous, liquid, oral ■ Labetalol ■ Metoprolol ■ Nadolol
preparations that are usually prescribed for relief of ■ Nebivolol ■ Penbutolol ■ Pindolol
cough. ■ Propranolol ■ Sotalol ■ Timolol
■ They are simple solutions or admixtures containing 197. (a)
a high proportion of syrup and sometimes glycerin Methotrexate is an anti-cancer or cytotoxic drug. This
which as well as giving a sweet taste, have a medication is classified as an antimetabolite.
demulcent effect on the mucous membranes of the Methotrexate is used for the treatment in case of acute
throat. lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) and Osteosarcoma etc.
■ The dose is small (5 ml) and to ensure prolonged 198. (a)
action, should be sipped slowly and swallowed Paraldehyde is a colorless liquid and as medicine it
neat. works as a sedative and hypnotic drug and also used in
194. (c) chemistry for to form organic chemicals. total dose of
■ Current medical uses of ergot alkaloids include paraldehyde ranges from 25 ml to 50 ml paraldehyde
ergotamine for migraine headaches, ergometrine to not widely in use because of its toxicity due to its
induce uterine contractions, and bromocriptine (synthetid) breakdown products acetaldehyde and acetic acid
for hyperprolactinemia-associated dysfunctions, formed by its decomposition.
acromegaly, and Parkinson's disease. 199. (d)
■ The ergot alkaloids are indole compounds that are Beta-2 (β 2) agonist is an inhaled type of medicine. A
biosynthetically derived from L-tryptophan and bronchodilator used in the treatment of asthma Most
represent the largest group of nitrogenous fungal commonly known β 2 - agonists are solbutamol
metabolites found in nature. Over 80 different ergot (albuterol), clenbuterol, and solmeterol.
alkaloids have been isolated, mainly from various 200. (c)
Claviceps species (over 70 alkaloids), but also from The middle protective covering layer of brain is
other fungi and from higher plants. Arachnoid mater. There present three meninges layers
195. (b) that constitute the outer layer, the dura mater, a thin
■ Brain :– The brain is composed of the cerebrum, middle layer called the Arachnoid and the inner most
cerebellum, and brainstem layer called the pia mater.
■ Cerebrum : Cerebrum is the largest part of the Dura mater give a protective shield for the brain and
brain and is composed of right and left the spinal cord helps prevent the C.N.S. from
hemispheres. gostling by fastening it to the skull.
■ It performs higher functions like interpreting touch, Arachnoid mater is defined as a middle meninges
vision and hearing, as well as speech, reasoning, layer that connect the dura mater & pia, mater.
emotions, learning, and fine control of movement. The pia mater is composed of a rich supply of blood
■ Cerebellum : Cerebellum is located under the vessels to provide the Nervous tissue with nutrient. Pia
cerebrum. Its function is to coordinate muscle mater usually cover the spinal cord and is made up of two
movements, maintain posture, and balance. layers.
317 YCT
 PRACTICE SET - 9
10. Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre is located at:
SECTION-A (a) Hyderabad (b) Mumbai
General Awareness (c) Bengaluru (d) Thiruvananthapuram
11. Which of the following is an 'Earth
1. Shanti swarup Bhatnagar Annual Award is Observation Satellite'?
given for outstanding achievement in which (a) INS-1A (b) SARAL
field. (c) Youthsat (d) APPLE
(a) Indian classical music 12. Planet Pluto was discovered by:
(b) Literature (a) John Adams (b) Johann Galle
(c) Science and Technology (c) William Hershel (d) Clyde Tombaugh
(d) Tribal art style 13. What is the full form of MGNREGA, an act
2. Who is the winner of the 'Man Booker Prize that provide guaranteed wage employment to
2016 for a book titled 'The sellout'? adult volunteers to do unskilled manual work
(a) David Jale (b) Paul Beatty for a minimum of 100 days?
(c) J.M. Koitji (d) Madeleine Thien (a) Mahatma Gandhi National Regional
3. Which native Indian dynasty issued their own Employment Act
coins with portraits of their rulers on them? (b) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural
(a) The Peshwa Dynasty Employment Guarantee Act
(b) The Rashtrakuta Dynasty (c) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural
(c) The Satavahana Dynasty Employment Guarantee Grants Act
(d) The Pandya Dynasty (d) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employees
4. Babur, the first Mughal emperor (1526-1530), Grants Act
succeeded to the throne of Ferghana in 1494 14. The Valmiki Ambedkar Awas Yojana is aimed
when he was only ……….. old. at providing:
(a) Infrastructure for all the citizens
(a) 9 years (b) 11 years
(b) Financial assistance to slum dwellers living
(c) 12 years (d) 7 years
below poverty line
5. In year ____ Britishers signed the peace
(c) Foodgrains to slum dwellers living below
agreement with Odisha's Khonds?
poverty line
(a) 1848 (b) 1858
(d) Housing and toilet facilities to slum dwellers
(c) 1878 (d) 1868 living below poverty line
6. Who has the executive authority to advise the 15. A car stops on applying brakes mainly due to
State Government on legal matters and to .......................force.
perform other duties of legal character? (a) gravity (b) centripetal
(a) Comptroller and Auditor General (c) friction (d) centrifugal
(b) Advocate-General 16. The pendulum acts like a harmonic oscillator,
(c) Solicitor General so it is used in -
(d) Attorney General (a) Grandfather's watch
7. Which Article of the Indian Constitution is (b) Wrist watch
related with the oath or affirmation by judges (c) Sundial
of high courts? (d) Sand Clock (Avarglass)
(a) 256 (b) 219 17. Select the correct increasing order of atomic
(c) 187 (d) 231 radii.
8. From which Constitution has the Fundamental (a) B < Be < Rb < Li (b) Li < B < Be < Rb
Rights in the Indian Constitution drawn ? (c) B < Be < Li < Rb (d) Li < Be < B < Rb
(a) United States (b) Switzerland 18. What is the maximum number of electrons that
(c) Britain (d) Soviet Union M shell can contain?
9. In which year Article 21-A has been included (a) 8 (b) 2
through the 86th Amendment of the (c) 18 (d) 32
Constitution of India, under which the 19. What is the third stage (after larva) in the
provision of free and compulsory education for lifecycle of a butterfly called?
all children between the age of 6 to 14 years is (a) Egg (b) Nymph
considered as a fundamental right? (c) Caterpillar (d) Pupa
(a) 2002 (b) 2008 20. In animals such as snails, individuals can
(c) 2010 (d) 2004 change their sex What does this signify?
318 YCT
 (a) Sex is determined by genes. 27. ‘yeÛÛeeW keâes Ùen Útš oer peeveer ÛeeefnS efkeâ Jes Deheveer ®efÛe
(b) Sex is not genetically determined Je #ecelee kesâ Devegmeej efkeâmeer efJe<eÙe keâer efJemle=le
(c) Sex is determined by temperature
peevekeâejer Øeehle keâj mekeWâ~’ Ùen efmLeefle–
(d) Sex may be determined by any of
environmental factor. (a) mejenveerÙe nw~ (b) efveboveerÙe nw~
(c) DemebYeJe nw~ (d) DeJÙeeJeneefjkeâ nw~
Test of Language : Hindi 28. ‘yes’ Ghemeie& keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâme Meyo ceW veneR efkeâÙee pee
21. ‘Deece KeeÙee peelee nw~’ ceW keâewve-mee JeeÛÙe nw– mekeâlee?
(a) keâle&= JeeÛÙe (b) keâce& JeeÛÙe (a) yeme (b) Deoye
(c) YeeJe JeeÛÙe (d) ef›eâÙee JeeÛÙe (c) F&ceeve (d) ef]heâpetue
22. efoS efJekeâuheeW ceW mes œeerefuebie Meyo keâewve-mee nw? 29. `DeuebkesâMe' heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Meyo nw -
(a) keâeÙee (b) Ûetune (a) yeeoue keâe (b) keâuheJe=#e keâe
(c) hegoervee (d) Yeücej (c) kegâyesj keâe (d) Ûeheuee keâe
23. ‘efueefKele Yee<ee ceW nce Deheves efJeÛeej efueKekeâj Øekeâš 30. efve<keâueg<e keâe efJeueesce Meyo nw-
keâjles nQ~’’ JeekeäÙe keâe keâeue henÛeeefveS~ (a) kegâKÙeele (b) ke=âleIve
(a) meeceevÙe Yetlekeâeue (b) meeceevÙe Jele&ceevekeâeue
(c) keâueg<e (d) keâ[gJee
(c) hetCe& Jele&ceevekeâeue (d) mebYeeJÙe YeefJe<Ùekeâeue
31. Yee<ee-efJe%eeve keâer Âef° mes ‘T’ efkeâme Øekeâej keâe mJej nw?
hee"dÙe›eâce keâes keâ#ee›eâce mes yengle keâÌ[eF& kesâ meeLe yeeBOe osves
(a) he§e efJeJe=le (b) De«e mebJe=le
kesâ heefjCeecemJe™he yeÛÛes keâe efJekeâeme Skeâ DeveJejle Øeef›eâÙee veneR
(c) De«e efJeJe=le (d) he§e mebJe=le
yeve heelee, Deefheleg ke=âef$ece Keb[eW ceW yeBš peelee nw~ Skeâ efmLej
32. ‘meekesâle’ Skeâ cenekeâeJÙe nw~ - ceW efkeâve oes efJejece –
hee"dÙe›eâce yeÛÛes keâer JÙeefòeâiele ®efÛeÙeeW Deewj #eceleeDeeW kesâ efJekeâeme
ceW menÙeesie ve oskeâj Skeâ cepeyetjer yeve peelee nw, efpemes yeÛÛee Deewj efÛendveeW keâe ØeÙeesie ngDee nw?
Gmekeâe DeOÙeehekeâ oesveeW yesyeme neskeâj mJeerkeâej keâjles nQ~ Ùeefo Skeâ (a) hetCe& efJejece Deewj Deæ& efJejece
yeÛÛee efkeâmeer efJe<eÙe ceW Deheves menheeef"ÙeeW mes DeefOekeâ efoueÛemheer (b) hetCe& efJejece Deewj efveoxMekeâ efÛendve
jKelee nw, lees hee"dÙe›eâce keâer yeoewuele Gmes hetjs Skeâ Je<e& Ùee Fmemes (c) hetCe& efJejece Deewj keâes‰keâ efÛendve
Yeer DeefOekeâ Øeleer#ee keâjveer nesleer nw, peye Jen Gme efJe<eÙe ceW kegâÚ (d) hetCe& efJejece Deewj GæjCe efÛendve
DeefOekeâ efJemle=le peevekeâejer DeOÙeehekeâ Deewj veF& hegmlekeâ mes Øeehle keâj 33. efvecveefueefKele ceW mes DeMegæ Jele&veer Jeeuee Meyo nw–
mekesâiee~ ßeer DejefJebo Deeßece kesâ efMe#ee kesâvõ ceW, peneB hee"dÙe›eâce (a) keâewletnue (b) DeveefOekeâej
hetJe&efveOee&efjle Deewj efmLej veneR jnlee, yeÛÛeeW keâes Deheveer JÙeefòeâiele (c) efvejhes#e (d) heewjeCeerkeâ
®efÛe Deewj meeceLÙe& kesâ Devegmeej efkeâmeer efJe<eÙe keâer peevekeâejer keâer 34. efvecveefueefKele ceW mes keâewve mee Meyo mecetnJeeÛekeâ meb%ee
Øeieefle peejer jKeves keâer Útš jnleer nw~ meeceevÙe mketâueeW ceW, peneB Ùen veneR nw?
Útš veneR oer peeleer~ neslee ØeeÙe: Ùen nw efkeâ veF& keâ#ee ceW Deeves hej (a) meYee (b) keâ#ee
Gmes Jener efJe<eÙe efyeuekegâue veÙee Deewj DeheefjefÛele ueielee nw, efpemekesâ (c) YeerÌ[ (d) oewÌ[
yeejs ceW keâeheâer–kegâÚ Jen efheÚueer keâ#ee ceW peeve Ûegkeâe Lee~ 35. ‘meeLe’ Meyo keâe efvecveefueefKele ceW mes efkeâme ™he ceW ØeÙeesie
efJeMes<eleewj hej Ssmee leye neslee nw, peye hee"dÙe›eâce hee"dÙe-hegmlekeâeW veneR efkeâÙee pee mekeâlee nw?
keâe heÙee&Ùe nes, pewmee Yeejle ceW nw~ (a) ef›eâÙee-efJeMes<eCe (b) meJe&veece
24. hee"dÙe›eâce keâe efvecee&Ce keâjles meceÙe yeÛÛeeW keâer (c) mecegÛÛeÙeyeesOekeâ (d) mecyevOeyeesOekeâ
............... keâe OÙeeve jKee peevee ÛeeefnS~ 36. ‘‘Ûeerveer, ceõemeer, efyenejer’’ Deeefo Meyo keâewve-mee
(a) #eceleeDeeW Deewj DeeefLe&keâ he=‰Yetefce efJeMes<eCe nQ?
(b) #eceleeDeeW Deewj heeefjJeeefjkeâ mlej (a) DeekeâejyeesOekeâ (b) DeJemLee yeesOekeâ
(c) #eceleeDeeW Deewj ®efÛeÙeeW (c) mLeeve yeesOekeâ (d) efoMee yeesOekeâ
(d) ®efÛeÙeeW Deewj DeeefLe&keâ he=‰Yetefce 37. ‘yeeuekeâ Fme hegmlekeâeueÙe ceW heÌ{ jne nw~’ JeekeäÙe
25. Ùen mebYeJe nw efkeâ Deueie–Deueie yeÛÛes Deueie–Deueie ceW........... ef›eâÙee nw~
efJe<eÙeeW ceW ............. jKeles neW~ (a) mebÙegòeâ (b) meneÙekeâ
(a) meceeve ®efÛeÙeeB (b) meceeve #eceleeSB (c) Dekeâce&keâ (d) mekeâce&keâ
(c) efYeVe ®efÛeÙeeB (d) efYeVe hetJee&«en 38. pees Meyo JeekeäÙeebMeeW, JeekeäÙe leLee MeyoeW keâes peesÌ[les nQ,
26. hee"dÙe›eâce keâes hee"dÙehegmlekeâeW keâe heÙee&Ùe .......... GvnW keäÙee keânles nQ?
(a) nesvee ÛeeefnS (b) veneR nesvee ÛeeefnS (a) JÙeefOekeâjCe (b) mecyebefOekeâjCe
(c) keâne pee mekeâlee nw (d) ceevee peelee nw (c) meceeveeefOekeâjCe (d) mecegÛÛÙeyeesOekeâ

319 YCT
39. keâejkeâ kesâ Yeso nQ - 49. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the
(a) heeBÛe (b) Ú: blank.
Researchers say that about 33% of people with
(c) meele (d) Dee"
diabetes may _______ a skin disorder in their
40. osMepe Meyo ÚeBefšS : lifetime.
(a) leejerKe (b) ef[efyeÙee (a) have been (b) has been
(c) metjpe (d) pevece (c) have (d) has
50. Identify the segment in the sentence which
Test of Language : English contains a grammatical error. If there is no
41. Select the most appropriate synonym of the error, then select the option 'No error'.
given word. Sh! Someone listens to our conversation.
ISOLATED (a) No error
(a) Open (b) Mingling (b) listens to
(c) Secluded (d) Included (c) Sh! Someone
42. Select the most appropriate antonym of the (d) our conversation
given word. 51. Select the most appropriate option to substitute
Infirm the underlined segment in the given sentence. If
(a) Feeble (b) Frail no substitution is required, select 'No
(c) Strong (d) Weak substitution required'.
43. Select the word which means the same as the Hears to the news tonight at 9 pm. as there will
group of words given. be an important announcement about the
That which is incapable of being read or budget.
understood (a) Hear to
(a) Indelible (b) Illegible (b) Listened to
(c) Illegal (d) Intelligible (c) No substitution required
44. Select the most appropriate meaning of the (d) Listen to
given idiom: 52. Select the most appropriate option to substitute
In the nick of time the underlined segment in the given sentence. If
(a) The beginning of a month there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No
(b) A special occasion substitution required’
(c) At the last possible moment Have either of you been to the planetarium
(d) A long delay before?
45. Identify the segment in the sentence, which (a) No substitution required
contains the grammatical error. (b) Have everyone
We reserved tickets for a journey on train for (c) Has either
the next morning for my sisters and me. (d) Has both
(a) for a journey on train 53. Select the most appropriate option to substitute
(b) for my sisters and me the underlined segment in the given sentence. If
(c) for the next morning no substitution is required, select No
(d) We reserved tickets improvement.
46. Identify the segment in the sentence which If you join this job now, it proves to be good in
contains a grammatical error. the long run.
Miss Marple is neither a good singer or the (a) No improvement
good stage artist. (b) it has proved to be good
(a) stage artist (b) Miss Marple is (c) it proves good
(c) neither a good singer (d) or the good (d) it will prove to be good
47. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the 54. Select the most appropriate option to substitute
blank. the underlined segment in the given sentence. If
The earth _______ round the sun and not the no substitution is required, select No
vice-versa. improvement.
(a) revolving (b) revolves They didn't see you, is it?
(c) revolve (d) has revolve (a) no improvement (b) did they
48. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the (c) wasn't it (d) have they
blank. 55. Select the most appropriate option to substitute
A toddler's brain ______ pretty much fully the underlined segment in the given sentence. If
developed by the age of three. there is no need to substitute it, select No
(a) was (b) are improvement.
(c) were (d) is Shakiba is a smallest of the two girls.
320 YCT
 (a) the smaller (b) the small 59. The writer uses the expression literally
(c) more small (d) No improvement because___
Comprehension: (a) it has been an idiom for desiring something
Read the passage and answer the questions unlikely
given below it. (b) no one can ever go to the moon
In 18th-century Germany, Baron Munchausen (c) it is wrong to build up stories
regales his friends, over drinks, with stories of his (d) people only dream of doing it
many adventures. These include his supposed 60. How many fictional books written about
travel to the moon. Long before Neil Armstrong travelling to the moon are referred to here?
and Edwin Aldrin stepped out of Apollo 11 onto (a) Seven (b) Six
the surface of the moon 50 years ago, on July 20, (c) Eight (d) Five
1969, the aspiration to travel to this shiny orb in Arithmetical and Numerical ability
the sky has fired human imagination. A Flight To
The Moon by George Fowler, From The Earth To 61. Tanvi saves ` 5,000 from the salary every
The Moon – and its month after spending 80% of her monthly
sequel, Around The Moon – by Jules Verne, The salary. Tanvi's salary is :
First Men In The Moon by HG Wells, Prelude To (a) ` 25,000 (b) ` 30,000
Space by Arthur C Clarke… are only a few of the (c) ` 35,000 (d) ` 20,000
many fictionalised accounts that have, for 62. If a number is increased by 20% and then it is
centuries, reflected this aspiration. In the 1954 decreased by 10%. Its net increase or decrease
Explorers On The Moon, iconic comic book is:
character, Tintin, reaches the moon. While some (a) 8% increase (b) 10% decrease
writers imagined the moon’s surface to be barren (c) 10 % increase (d) 8% decrease
and uninhabited, others have written about it being 63. If the length and breadth of a rectangular plot
populated with lunar beings. Even when Apollo of land are increased by 10% and 8%
11 mission was being planned and worked on, in respectively then what will be the percentage
increase or decrease in its area ?
1963, Apollo At Go by Jeff Sutton, presented a
realistic fictionalised portrayal of the upcoming (a) 16.8% decreage (b) 18.8% decreage
landing. (c) 16.8% increase (d) 18.8% increase
64. The average of salaries of husband and wife is
The successful landing of Apollo 11 and Neil
`65,000 and ratio of their salaries is 15:11
Armstrong and Buzz Aldrin’s walk on the moon, respectively. How much is the salary of the
opened up another exciting possibility – could the wife?
common man or non-space-scientist reach for the (a) ` 32,500 (b) ` 75,000
moon? Literally? What had hitherto been in the (c) ` 27,500 (d) ` 55,000
realm of speculation was now a reality and we 65. If 12, x, 48 are in ratio, then find the value of x.
weren’t satisfied with just second-hand (a) 24 (b) 21
information any more. Between 1969 and 1972, (c) 36 (d) 16
the US sent six successful manned missions to the 66. A dealer marks his goods 20% above the cost
moon, and with each victory, the lunar destination price. Then he allows a discount in it makes a
seemed a little closer within the reach of the profit of 8%. find the rate of discount offered
common man. by the dealer?
56. When did the US send first successful manned (a) 12% (b) 4%
trip to the moon? (c) 10% (d) 6%
(a) 1972 (b) 1963 67. Ram Naresh buys a bag, whose marked price is
`400, he buys it for `160 after two consecutive
(c) 1969 (d) 1954 discounts. If the second discount is 20%, find
57. Who was the first person to speak of travel to the first discount?
the moon? (a) 40% (b) 30%
(a) Munchausen (b) Armstrong (c) 50% (d) 80%
(c) Sutton (d) Branson 68. A sum of money was invested at simple interest
58. Which of the following statements is not true at r% per annum for 3 years. Had the rate of
according to the passage? interest been (r + 2)%, it would have fetched
(a) Man’s walk on the moon inspired scientists to ` 84 more. Find the sum invested.
plan more expeditions. (a) ` 1,200 (b) ` 1,600
(c) ` 1,400 (d) ` 1,500
(b) All the writers wrote about the moon being
69. Anil lent ` 7200 to Dubey for 3 years and `8400
inhabited by weird creatures. to Raghav for 4 years on simple interest at the
(c) Someday the common man could make a trip same rate of interest and received ` 4968 in
to the moon. total from them as interest. Find the rate of
(d) Man has always been attracted to the moon. interest per year.
321 YCT
 (a) 8% (b) 10% 78. The average of three numbers is 8. The average
(c) 12% (d) 9% of first two numbers is 6 and the average of last
70. If the rate of interest is 20% per annum and two numbers is 9. Find the three numbers.
interest is compounded half yearly, then in 3/2 (a) 4, 9, 9 (b) 4, 8, 12
years a sum of `4000 will amount to: (c) 5, 7, 12 (d) 6, 6, 12
(a) `5,234 (b) `5,224 79. The value of 0.56 + 0.43 + 0.89 is
(c) `5,324 (d) `5,334
(a) 1.98 (b) 1.87
71. What will be the compound interest of `172000
for 3 years, at the rate of 8% (rounded off to (c) 1.89 (d) 1.88
the nearest `) per annum. 80. The numerator of a fraction is less than its
(a) `44,670 (b) `11,667 denominator by 2. If we subtract 2 from the
(c) `41,280 (d) `46,470 numerator and add 2 to the denominator, then
the new fraction is 1/3 what is the original
72. Find the difference between compound interest fraction?
and simple interest of `400 for 2 years at an
(a) 5/7 (b) 5/9
interest rate of 5%.
(c) 1/3 (d) 3/7
(a) `10 (b) `4 (c) `3 (d) `1
73. Himanshu is twice as capable as Ankit as a General Intelligence & Reasoning Ability
wood cutter and together they finish a work in
16 days. In how many days will Ankit alone 81. Shoes is related to Slipper in the same way
complete the same work? Coat is related to.
(a) 32 (b) 48 (a) Shirt (b) Pen
(c) 64 (d) 40 (c) Socks (d) Tie
74. 10 men can complete a task in 18 days. After 6 82. Select the option that is related to the third
days, 5 more men join. In how many days the term in the same way as the second term is
remaining work will be completed? related to the first term :
(a) 8 (b) 10 DFHJ : EHKN :: OQSU : ?
(c) 12 (d) 6 (a) PSVY (b) PQUY
75. P can do 2/5 part of a work in 10 days. If P and (c) PRVY (d) PRVX
Q can do 1/3 part of the same work in 5 days, 83. Which number would best complete the
find the ratio of their efficiency. relation given below?
(a) 3 : 4 (b) 4 : 3 120: 168 : : 288 : ?
(c) 3 : 2 (d) 2 : 3 (a) 359 (b) 362
76. The graph given below shows the sales of books (c) 358 (d) 360
(in thousands) from four branches of ABC 84. Find the next picture for given sequence from
Publishing House during two consecutive years. answer pictures:
What is the ratio of total sales of branch P2 for Question figure:
that of P4 for both years?

140 125 120

120 105 Answer figure:
100 85 90
75 80
80 70 2010
60 2011
40
20 (a) D (b) A
0 (c) B (d) C
P1 P2 P3 P4 85. In a certain code language, 'HOTEL' is coded
as 'DQPGH' and 'BANKS' is coded as
'XCJMO'. How will 'LOGIC' be coded in that
(a) 61 : 71 (b) 16 : 17 language?
(c) 71 : 61 (d) 17 : 16 (a) PMKGG (b) PQKKG
77. The mean weight of six kids is 17.5 kg. If the (c) HQCKY (d) HMCGY
individual weights of 5 of those kids are 14, 19, 86. Four letter clusters have been given, out of
23, 21 and 13 kg, respectively, find the weight which three are alike in some manner and one
of the sixth kid. is different. Select the odd one.
(a) 17 kg (b) 15 kg (a) ACBD (b) IKJL
(c) 16 kg (d) 18 kg (c) EGFH (d) MNPO
322 YCT
87. Identify odd one out.

(a) (b)

(a) C (b) D
(c) A (d) B
88. Identify the number that does not belong to the (c) (d)
following series. 96. Statements:
7, 14, 56, 448, 2688, 26880
All tables are filters.
(a) 26880 (b) 2688
All filters are grinders.
(c) 56 (d) 448
89. Select the option which can replace the Conclusions:
question mark in the given figure: 1. Some tables are not grinders.
2. Some grinders are tables.
(a) Both conclusion 1 and 2 follow
(b) Only conclusion 1 follows
(c) Only conclusion 2 follows
(d) Either conclusion 1 or 2 follows
97. Statement :
No paper is a book.
(a) B (b) A All books are bag.
(c) D (d) C Conclusion :
90. Study the given pattern carefully and select the I. No bag is paper.
letter that can replace the question mark (?) in it II. Some bags are paper.
(a) Both 1 and 2 follow
(b) Either 1 or 2 follows
(c) Neither 1 nor 2 follows
(d) Only 1 follows
98. Statement:
(a) P (b) Q All planned individuals take time to relax.
(c) M (d) O Ramesh takes time to rest in spite of his busiest
91. Kerthana introduced a person as the son of works.
only daughter of her uncle's father. How is
Conclusion:
person related to Kerthana?
(a) Brother (b) Brother-in-law I. Ramesh is a planned person.
(c) Aunt (d) Son II. Ramesh is an industrious person.
92. E said to F, "you are the father in law of my (a) Only conclusion II follows.
son's wife. How is F related to E? (b) Either conclusion I or II follows.
(a) F is father of E (c) Only conclusion I follows.
(b) F is husband of E (d) Both conclusion I and II follows.
(c) F is brother-in-law of E 99. Select the figure that can replace the question
(d) F is the wife of E mark (?) in the following series.
93. If ‘×’ means ‘–’, ‘÷’ means ‘+’, ‘+’ means ‘÷’
and ‘–’ means ‘×’ then 19 ÷ 63 + 21 × 2 – 3 = ?
(a) 19 (b) 16
(c) 8 (d) 9
94. Select the correct set of symbols?
84 12 5 6 = 41 (a) (b)
(a) ×, – , ÷ (b) +, ÷, –
(c) +, –, ÷ (d) ÷, ×, +
95. Which of the following diagrams correctly
represents the relationship between the given
classes? (c) (d)
A. Electron B. Proton
C. Atom
323 YCT
100. How many triangles are there in the following 111. Select the correct name for cranial nerve -X
figure? (a) Olfactory (b) Optic
(c) Facial (d) Vagus
112. The life span of WBC is approximately
(a) Less than 10 days
(b) Between 10 to 20 days
(c) Between 20 to 30 days
(a) 16 (b) 17 (d) Between 30 to 45 days
(c) 18 (d) 11 113. Red cell count is carried out by ______
(a) Electrogram
(b) Sphygmomanometer
SECTION-B (c) Haemoglobinometer
(d) Haemocytometer
101. Partial pressure of carbon dioxide in alveoli is 114. Urea formation occurs in
_______. (a) Heart (b) Liver
(a) 160 mm Hg (b) 105 mm Hg (c) Spleen (d) Kidney
(c) 40 mm Hg (d) 45 mm Hg 115. Bile is formed in
(a) Gall bladder (b) Liver
102. Which of the following antigens are present on
(c) Spleen (d) Blood
the RBC in the person having blood group O?
116. Mitochondria are sites of
(a) Antigen-A (b) Antigen-B (a) Oxidative phosphorylation
(c) Both (d) None (b) Photolysis
103. White matter is external and grey matter is (c) Phosphorylation
internal in (d) Starch synthesis
(a) Cerebrum (b) Cerebellum 117. Which is not a true for Insulin?
(c) Medulla oblongata (d) Both (b) and (c) (a) It is a amphoteric protein
104. The formation of plaque inside the coronary (b) It is soluble in water
artery due to deposition of the lipid content is (c) It is inactivated by digestive enzymes
known as (d) It combines with zinc to lose activity
(a) Thrombosis 118. Heart rate of 160-180 refers to
(b) Embolism (a) Atrial flutter (b) Atrial fibrillation
(c) Atherosclerosis (c) Adam syndrome (d) Ectopic activity
(d) Myocardial infarction 119. Following equipment is not used for mixing of
105. Which of the following antigens are present on solids
the RBC in the person having blood group O? (a) Tumbler mixer
(a) Antigen-A (b) Antigen-B (b) Double cone blender
(c) Both (d) None (c) Air mixer
(d) Paddle mixer
106. Oogenesis is an example of
120. Meta filter has following advantages except
(a) Mitosis (b) Meiosis (a) It provides large surface area for filtration.
(c) Specialisation of cell (d) DNA replication (b) It has considerable strength and with stand
107. Which of the following cranial nerve is known high pressure.
as facial nerve? (c) Corrosive liquids can be filtered.
(a) Cranial nerve V (b) Cranial nerve VI (d) Cake can be easily removed.
(c) Cranial nerve VII (d) Cranial nerve VIII 121. Indicate muscles, which are more resistant to
108. As per GMP permitted limit of soluble content block recover more arapidly
in water for injection is (a) Hand (b) Leg
(a) 0.1 ppm (b) 1 ppm (c) Neck (d) Diaphragm
(c) 10 ppm (d) 0.01 ppm 122. Active immunity may be gained by
109. Which test microorganism is used for most (a) Vaccines (b) Toxoids
heat sterilization technique? (c) Natural infection (d) All of these
(a) Bacillus Subtillis 123. Life span of W.B.C. in human is
(b) Bacillus thermophiles (a) 7 days (b) 50 days
(c) Bacillus thuringiensis (c) 100 days (d) None of these
(d) Bacillus popilliae 124. Which of the following lack blood Supply?
110. What is Humectant? (a) Bone (b) Connective tissue
(a) Used to prevent drying of cream (c) Cartilage (d) None of these
(b) Reduce particle density 125. Plasma has water to the extent of
(c) Used to improve humidity (a) 60% (b) 70%
(d) Reduce particle size (c) 80% (d) 90%
324 YCT
126. Nissl granules occur in 140. The most common method used for
(a) Bone cells (b) Mast cells sterilization of vaccines among is
(c) Nerve cells (d) Chondrocytes (a) Dry heat (160ºC)
127. Loss of muscle tone occurs in _____ stage. (b) Moist heat (121ºC)
(a) Stage I (b) Stage II (c) Radiation
(c) Stage III (d) Stage IV (d) Both Dry and Moist heat
128. Angiology refers to 141. Adipose tissue in newborn baby is called
(a) Skeletal system (a) Black fat (b) White fat
(b) Articular system (c) Brown (d) Yellow fat
(c) Integumentary system 142. An integral membrane glycoprotein of the
(d) Circulatory system human erythrocyte is
129. Two solutions with the same osmolarity are (a) Amylopectin (b) Glycophorin
(a) Isotonic (b) Hypertonic (c) Chitin (d) Glycogen
(c) Hypotonic (d) None of these 143. Glucocorticoids are involved in
130. Which is an antiperspirant? (a) Potassium metabolism
(a) Trichlorocarbonilide (b) Fluid balance
(b) Hexamethylene tetramine (c) Sodium metabolism
(c) Petrolatum (d) Fat metabolism
(d) Aluminium chloral hydrate 144. Which of the following hormones inhibits the
131. Axis is a bone of secretion of insulin, glucagon and growth
(a) Skull (b) Forearm hormone?
(c) Leg (d) Spinal cord (a) Thyroxin (b) Somatostatin
132. In stomach, the stimulatin vegal, that increases (c) Serotonin (d) Melatonin
the gastric acid, due to
145. Which of the following is a plasma kinin?
(a) H2 Receptor (b) M3 Receptor
(a) Rennin (b) Kallidin
(c) 5HT Receptor (d) α Receptor
(c) Serotonin (d) Histamine
133. The transformation of the larvae into an adult
146. A condition clinical obesity is a condition in
through drastic changes is called ..........
which the range of BMI is.
(a) Budding (b) Reverse osmosis
(a) 30–40 kg/m2 (b) 25–30 kg/m2
(c) Menopause (d) Metamorphosis 2
(c) 45–50 kg/m (d) 40–45 kg/m2
134. Incretion Analogs belongs to _____ group
(a) Dipeptidyl peptidase 4 inhibitors 147. Hydrochloric acid present in gastric juice is
(b) Glucagon like peptide – 1 secreted by _________.
(a) Parietal cells (b) Mucous cells
(c) α- Glucosidase inhibitors
(c) Chief cells (d) G cells
(d) Amylin Analogs
135. Somatostatin is a growth hormone releasing 148. What type of hormones are androgens?
inhibiting hormone present in the (a) Glucocorticoid (b) Sex hormone
(a) GI tract (b) Heart (c) Growth hormone (d) Mineralocorticoid
(c) Kidneys (d) Muscles 149. Violin gut is obtained from intestine of
136. The reason for the action of heparin in cleaning (a) Horse (b) Cat
the turbid plasma is (c) Sheep (d) Camel
(a) Releases bradikinin 150. An excipient Ludipress used for liquid Dosage
(b) Releases lipoprotein lipase form is a coprocessed excipient of
(c) Releases histamine (a) PticInsi. Dextrose monohydrate + Kollidon
(d) Release hexokinase 30
(b) Lactose monohydrate + Kollidon 30
137. The t1/2 of heparin is reduced in patients with
(c) Lactose monohydrate + Kollidon 30 +
_____condition.
Kollidon CL
(a) Cirrhosis of the liver
(d) Dextrose monohydrate + Kollidon 30 +
(b) Kidney malfunction
Kollidon CL
(c) Pulmonary embolism
151. Goitre is caused due to deficiency of
(d) Gall bladder dip function
(a) Chloride (b) Iodine
138. Phenyl ethyl alcohol (0.25 - 0.50% u/v) is
(c) Calcium (d) Sodium
ophthalmic products as
(a) Antioxidant (b) Buffering agent 152. In living cell, ________ is just like the brain of
(c) Preservative (d) Viscosity modifier body.
139. Sealed ampoules containing a thermos-table (a) Nucleus
drug solution are commonly sterilized by. (b) Lysosomes
(a) Hot air oven (b) Autoclave (c) Endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Microwave oven (d) UV Chamber (d) Mitochondria

325 YCT
153. Hyponatremia is a condition in which (c) Rapidly destroyed in the body
(a) Low potassium level in blood (d) Crosses blood main barrier
(b) Low sodium level in blood 167. Example for tyrosine kinase receptor is
(c) Low calcium level in blood (a) Insulin receptor
(d) Low iodine level in blood (b) GABAA receptor
154. Diaphragm is a type of ............. (c) Acetylcholine receptor
(a) Smooth muscle (b) Bone cavity (d) Steroid receptor
(c) Artery (d) Skeletal muscle 168. The capacity of a drug to cause, foetal
155. ............ is the longest and strongest bone of the abnormality is known as
body. (a) Carcinogenicity (b) Teratogenicity
(a) Femur (b) Fibula (c) Mutagenicity (d) Photosensitivity
(c) Radius (d) Hmerus 169. To determine the granule density ____ is used.
156. What is the fluid part of the blood known as (a) Pycnometer (b) Chilsonator
(a) RBC (b) Plasma (c) Barometer (d) Diosna mixer
(c) WBC (d) Platelets 170. Subscription of prescription are included in
157. The special muscles tissues myocardium is ___________
found only in the (a) The number of doses to be delivered
(a) Heart (b) Lungs (b) List of material
(c) Stomach (d) Brain (c) Instructions for taking medicine
158. Carbomers may be included in a topical (d) Quantity of material
product as ________ 171. During each cycle of blood circulation in
(a) Thickening agents (b) Preservatives mammals, blood flows through the
(c) Sweeteners (d) Wetting agents heart_______.
(e) Not attempted (a) Only once (b) Thrice
159. The '0' size capsules can fill the volume of
(c) Four times (d) Twice
_______
(a) 0.15 ml (b) 0.75 ml 172. Which connective tissue is found between the
(c) 2.95 ml (d) 1.36 ml skin and the muscles?
(e) Not attempted (a) Adipose (b) Plasma
160. The first edition of Indian Pharmacopoeia was (c) Cartilage (d) Areolar
published in the year ________ 173. Name the cell organelle which is associated
(a) 1960 (b) 1948 with the eliminatiti of old and worn out cells.
tion
(c) 1950 (d) 1955 (a) Golgi apparatus (b) Nucleus
(e) Not attempted (c) Mitochondria (d) Lysosomes
161. Thyrotoxicosis causes 174. Echinoderms get its name from ______.
(a) Odema of tha foot (b) Myxoedema (a) The presence of spines on the body
(c) Cretinism (d) Nodular goitre (b) The presence of ossicles on the body
162. Infertility in men is induced by (c) The presence of tube feet
(a) Vitamin C (b) Gossypol (d) The presence of water vascular system
(c) Estrogen (d) Antibiotics 175. Lachrymal glands produces?
163. Gluconeogenesis is promoted by (a) Tear (b) Wax
(a) Glucocorticoids (c) Sweat (d) Sebum
(b) Insulin 176. The cardiovascular disease associated with the
(c) Oral hypoglycemic agents disorder of heart rate or rhythm is called:
(d) Food intake (a) Arrhythmia
164. An ischaemic necrosis of a portion of the (b) Myocardial infraction
myocardium due to sudden occlusion'of a
(c) Angina pectoris
branch of coronary artery is called as
(d) Ischemia
(a) Angina Pectoris (AP)
(b) Cardiac Arrythmia (CA) 177. Which of the following is an antidiuretic
(c) Congestive Cardiac Failure (CCF) hormone?
(d) Myocardial infarction (M. I) (a) Oxytocin
165. The following are used as nerve gases except (b) Follicle stimulating hormone
(a) Taliun. (b) Dyflos (c) Vasopressin
(c) Soman (d) Sarin (d) Luteinizing hormone
166. Acetylcholine is not used commercially because 178. The powerhouse of the cell is:
(a) Long duration of action (a) Golgi bodies (b) Mitochondria
(b) Costly (c) Ribosomes (d) Nucleus

326 YCT
179. Erythroblastosis foetalis arises due to the 190. An enzyme that works in an acidic medium is
incompatibility in the: (a) Pepsin (b) Trypsin
(a) Lymph (b) Blood (c) Ptyalin (d) Maltose
(c) Synovial fluid (d) Bile 191. The increase in concentration of second
180. Which of the following antidiabetic drug is messengers (cAMP, cGMP, Ca2+ etc.) leads to :
Sulfonyl urea derivative ? (a) Inhibition of intracellular protein kinases and
(a) Metformin (b) Glibenclamide protein phosphorylation
(c) Pioglitazone (d) Linagliptin (b) Protein kinases activation and protein
181. Which of the following is not a vestigial organ phosphorylation
(a) Centriole (b) Molar tooth (c) blocking of interaction between a receptor
(c) Appendix (d) Diaphragm and an effector
182. Which of the following bone articulations (d) Antagonism with endogenous legands
forms the gliding joint? 192. Which hormone works antagonistically to
(a) Humenis and radius parathormone ....................
(b) Carpals (a) Triiodothyronine (b) Insulin
(c) Hip girdle and femur (c) Estrogen (d) Calcitonin
(d) Skull & neck vertebrae 193. Living cells are negatively charged inside
183. Pancreas secretes hormones which help in primarily because of .................
(a) Blood clotting (a) ATP, organic acids, and other negative
(b) Production of antibodies molecules that cannot escape
(c) Growth of body (b) Removal of sodium ions, which are positively
(d) Keeping sugar balance in body charged, by the Na+/K pump
184. S.A. node of mammalian heart is known as (c) Extrusion of Ca2+ ion, which is much more
(a) Auto regulator (b) Pace-maker concentrated outside a cell than inside
(c) Time controller (d) Beat regulator (d) Cell membranes that are more permeable to
185. Consider the following statements regarding potassium than sodium
blood pressure: 194. Which aerosol particles will be deposited in
1. It is the pressure exerted by the blood on the alveoli
walls of any vessel. (a) >20 µm (b) <0.6 µm
2. It decreases in the arteries as the distance
(c) 2 and 6 µm (d) 1-2 µm
from the heart increases
195. Prostaglandin used in the treatment of
3. It is lower in the capillaries than in the
postpartum hemorrhage is ..............
arteries.
(a) Carboprost (b) Latanoprost
4. It is usually lower in women than in men.
(c) Bimatotprost (d) Travoprost
Of these, the correct ones are
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 196. Who is regarded the father of surgery in
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 ancient India?
(a) Sushrutha (b) Charaka
186. The hormone responsible for the secretion of
milk in mothers, is? (c) Vasavadatta (d) Dhanvantari
(a) ACTH 197. How many bones are there in the normal adult
(b) Leutinizing hormone human body?
(c) Adrenalin (a) 201 (b) 204
(d) Lactogenic hormone (c) 206 (d) 210
187. Bile Juice is secreted by 198. Normal WBC count range in the blood is
(a) Pancreas (b) Liver (a) 1.5 lakh to 4 lakh/cu.ml
(c) Spleen (d) Gall bladder (b) 4000 - 10000/cu.ml
188. Veins differ from arteries in having (c) 4.5 million to 5.5 million cu.ml
(a) Thinner walls (d) 100 - 400/cu.ml
(b) Strong walls 199. Hydroxyapatite is found in-
(c) Narrower lumen (a) Bone (b) Cartilage
(d) Valves to control direction of flow (c) Enamel (d) Ligament
189. What is the main function of insulin in the 200. The nasogastric tube used for enteral feeding is
human body? called
(a) To maintain blood pressure (a) Steven's tube
(b) To help in digestion of food (b) Sengstakenblackmore tube
(c) To control the level of sugar in the body (c) Ryle's tube
(d) To check the level of Iodine in the body (d) Foley's tube
327 YCT
 SOLUTION : PRACTICE SET- 9
ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 21. (b) 41. (c) 61. (a) 81. (a) 101. (c) 121. (d) 141. (c) 161. (d) 181. (d)
2. (b) 22. (a) 42. (c) 62. (a) 82. (a) 102. (d) 122. (d) 142. (b) 162. (b) 182. (b)
3. (c) 23. (b) 43. (b) 63. (d) 83. (d) 103. (c) 123. (d) 143. (d) 163. (a) 183. (d)
4. (b) 24. (c) 44. (c) 64. (d) 84. (b) 104. (c) 124. (c) 144. (b) 164. (d) 184. (b)
5. (a) 25. (c) 45. (a) 65. (a) 85. (c) 105. (d) 125. (d) 145. (b) 165. (b) 185. (d)
6. (b) 26. (b) 46. (d) 66. (c) 86. (d) 106. (b) 126. (c) 146. (a) 166. (c) 186. (d)
7. (b) 27. (a) 47. (b) 67. (c) 87. (a) 107. (c) 127. (c) 147. (a) 167. (a) 187. (b)
8. (a) 28. (d) 48. (d) 68. (c) 88. (d) 108. (c) 128. (d) 148. (b) 168. (b) 188. (d)
9. (a) 29. (c) 49. (c) 69. (d) 89. (c) 109. (c) 129. (a) 149. (c) 169. (a) 189. (c)
10. (d) 30. (c) 50. (b) 70. (c) 90. (c) 110. (a) 130. (d) 150. (c) 170. (a) 190. (a)
11. (b) 31. (d) 51. (d) 71. (a) 91. (a) 111. (d) 131. (d) 151. (b) 171. (d) 191. (b)
12. (d) 32. (d) 52. (c) 72. (d) 92. (b) 112. (b) 132. (b) 152. (a) 172. (d) 192. (d)
13. (b) 33. (d) 53. (d) 73.(b) 93. (b) 113. (d) 133. (d) 153. (b) 173. (d) 193. (a)
14. (d) 34. (d) 54. (b) 74. (a) 94. (d) 114. (b) 134. (b) 154. (d) 174. (a) 194. (d)
15.(c) 35. (b) 55. (a) 75. (c) 95. (b) 115. (b) 135. (a) 155. (a) 175. (a) 195. (a)
16. (a) 36. (c) 56. (c) 76. (b) 96. (c) 116. (a) 136. (b) 156. (b) 176. (a) 196. (a)
17.(c) 37. (d) 57. (a) 77. (b) 97. (c) 117. (d) 137. (c) 157. (a) 177. (c) 197. (c)
18. (c) 38. (d) 58. (b) 78. (d) 98. (d) 118. (d) 138. (c) 158. (a) 178. (b) 198. (b)
19. (d) 39.(d) 59. (a) 79. (c) 99. (a) 119. (d) 139. (b) 159. (b) 179. (b) 199. (c)
20. (b) 40. (b) 60. (a) 80. (a) 100. (b) 120. (a) 140. (c) 160. (d) 180. (b) 200. (c)

SOLUTION
1. (c) main issue was the attempt by the government to end
Shanti Swarup Bhatanagar Award for science and human sacrifice (mariah) and introduction of new
technology (SSB) is a science award in India given taxes by the British. After that British signed the peace
annually by the Council of Scientific and Industrial agreement with Odisha's Khond in 1848. This
research (CSIR) for notable and outstanding research. It movement was ended in 1857.
was first awarded in 1957. 6. (b)
2. (b) Advocate-General has the executive authority to advise
Paul Beatty is an American author and an associate the State Government on legal matters and to perform
professor. In 2016, he won the national book critics other duties of legal character. Article 165 of Indian
circles award and Man Booker Prize for his novel 'The Constitution is related to the office of Advocate General
sellout'. He is the 1st American honored with Man of State. He is the highest law officer of the state. The
Booker. constitution does not fix term of Advocate General in
3. (c) India. He remains in the office during the pleasure of
The Satavahanas issued coins with portraits of their the Governor.
rulers on them. Satavahana's were also the one to issue 7. (b)
lead coins. Other than this they also issued silver, The Judges of High Courts are appointed by President
copper, bronze coins. This dynasty was founded by with the Consultation of Chief Justice of India and
Simuka, with its capital Pratishthana. Governor of the concerned state. Article 219 of Indian
4. (b) Constitution specifically provides that every person who
Babur, born Zahir-ud-din Mohammad was the founder is appointed to be a Judge of High Court shall before he
of the Mughal empire in the Indian subcontinent. Babur enters upon his office, make and subscribe before the
succeeded to the throne of Ferghana when he was 11 Governor of the concerned State or some person
year old. Ferghana was the region ruled by Babur before appointed in that behalf by him, an oath or affirmation.
he invaded India. 8. (a)
5. (a) In Part –III, Article 12-35 of the Indian Constitution
In 1846 AD Odisha's Khonds people started a deals with the Fundamental Rights. These rights are
movement under the leadership of Chakra Bisoi. The taken from America's Constitution.
328 YCT
9. (a) When released the restoring force acting on the
86th Amendment Act of 2002 via Article 21A (Part III) pendulum's mass causes it to oscillate about equilibrium
seeks to make free and compulsory education a position, swinging back and front. This phenomenon is
Fundamental Right for all children in the age group 6- called simple harmonic motion.
14 years. The 86th CAA added the same provision in 17.(c)
Fundamental duty as 11th Fundamental duty and in In the periodic table the atomic radii in a period
DPSP's substitutes Article 45 as well. decreases from left to right and increases from top to
10. (d) bottom. Hence the correct order is as follows.
Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) is located at B<Be<Li<Rb.
Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala. It is a major research 18. (c)
space centre of ISRO focusing on rocket and space The rule is as follows.
vehicles for India's satellite programme. The number of electrons in K, L, M, N are as follows.
11. (b) The number of electrons in an orbit is equal to 2n2.
An Earth Observation Satellite or Earth remote sensing where n = K, L, M, N or 1 2 3 4
satellite is a satellite used or designed for earth The given shell M means n = 3 , therefore maximum
observation from orbit, including spy satellite and number of electrons in M shell is 2 × 32 = 18
similar ones intended for non-military uses such as 19. (d)
environmental monitoring, meteorology, cartography Metamorphosis of butterfly is complete metamorphosis
and others. Bhaskar I (1979), Rohini (RSD-1) (1981),
because of distinctive four stages.
SARAL (2013) and ScatSat-1 (2016) are few Earth
Lifecycle of a butterfly have four stages respectively.
Observation Satellite.
(i) Egg stage (ii) Larva stage (iii) Pupa stage
12. (d)
(iv) Adult stage.
Pluto was the first Kuiper Belt object to be discovered
20. (b)
and is the largest known dwarf planet or Plutoid. It was
discovered in 1930 by Clyde Tombaugh and was In animals such as snails, individuals can change their
classified for 75 year as the ninth planet of the solar sex. It signifies that sex is not genetically determined.
system. It is second largest dwarf planet after Eris. After 21. (b)
the discovery of 'Eris' in 2005, Pluto was demoted ‘Deece KeeÙee peelee nw~’ JeekeäÙe ceW ‘Deece’ keâce& nw leLee Fmekesâ Devegmeej
August 24, 2006 from a planet to dwarf planet status by ef›eâÙee ‘KeeÙee peelee’ keâe ØeÙeesie ngDee nw~ Dele: Ùen JeekeäÙe keâce&JeeÛÙe
International Astronomical Union's (IAU) definition. keâe GoenjCe nw~
At present the total number of planets in the solar 22. (a)
system is eight.
efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW keâeÙee Meyo m$eerefuebie nw~ Mes<e meYeer Meyo
13. (b)
Ûetune, hegoervee leLee Yeücej hegefuuebie Meyo nQ~
MGNREGA stands for Mahatma Gandhi National
Rural Employment Guarantee Act. Its aim is to provide 23. (b)
unskilled manual work for a minimum of 100 days. ‘‘efueefKele Yee<ee ceW nce Deheves efJeÛeej efueKekeâj Øekeâš keâjles nQ’’ Fme
14. (d) JeekeäÙe ceW meeceevÙe Jele&ceeve keâeue nw~
Valmiki Ambedkar Awas Yojana (VAMBAY) was 24. (c)
launched by the Prime Minister on December 2, 2001, hee"dÙe›eâce keâe efvecee&Ce keâjles meceÙe yeÛÛeeW keâer #eceleeDeeW Deewj ®efÛeÙeeW
with a view to ameliorate the conditions of the urban keâe OÙeeve jKevee ÛeeefnS~ ieÅeebMe keâe cetueYetle YeeJe Ùener nw efkeâ Skeâ
slum dwellers living below poverty line by providing yeBOee–yeBOeeÙee hee"dÙe yeeuekeâ kesâ mJeeYeeefJekeâ efJekeâeme kesâ efueS keâleF&
them with dwelling units and the facility of community
GheÙeesieer veneR nes mekeâlee~
toilets.
15.(c) 25. (c)
A car stops mainly due to frictional force when Ùen mebYeJe nw efkeâ Deueie–Deueie yeÛÛes Deueie–Deueie efJe<eÙeeW ceW efYeVe
applying the breaks. Frictional force refers to the force ®efÛeÙeeB jKeles neW~ yeÛÛeeW keâer Fme ØeJe=efòe keâe OÙeeve jKeles ngS ner
generated by two surface that contacts and slide against hee"dÙe›eâce keâe efveOee&jCe keâjvee ÛeeefnS~
each other. The direction of the force of friction is 26. (b)
always opposite to the direction of motion of the object. hee"dÙe›eâce keâes hee"dÙe-hegmlekeâeW keâe heÙee&Ùe veneR nesvee ÛeeefnS~ hee"dÙe›eâce
16. (a) keâes efoveÛeÙee& mes peesÌ[e peevee ÛeeefnS~ Ùen efmeæeble efkeâleeyeer %eeve keâer
The pendulum acts like a harmonic oscillator, so it is
Gme efJejemele kesâ efJehejerle nw efpemekesâ ØeYeeJeJeMe nceejer JÙeJemLee Deepe
used in grandfather's watch. A pendulum is a weight
suspended from a pivot so that is can swing freely. lekeâ efJeÅeeueÙe Deewj Iej kesâ yeerÛe Deblejeue yeveeS ngS nQ~
329 YCT
27. (a) 37. (d)
‘yeÛÛeeW keâes Ùen Útš oer peeveer ÛeeefnS efkeâ Jes Deheveer ®efÛe Je #ecelee ‘yeeuekeâ Fme hegmlekeâeueÙe ceW heÌ{ jne nw~’ JeekeäÙe ceW mekeâce&keâ ef›eâÙee
kesâ Devegmeej efkeâmeer efJe<eÙe keâer efJemle=le peevekeâejer Øeehle keâj mekeWâ~ Ùen nw~ Jes ef›eâÙee efpevekeâes keâjves kesâ efueS keâce& keâer DeeJeMÙekeâlee nesleer nw
efmLeefle mejenveerÙe nw~ Ùeefo peien, meceÙe Deewj Deepeeoer oer peeS lees (DeLee&led Fve ef›eâÙeeDeeW keâe Demej meerOee keâce& hej heÌ[lee nw), mekeâce&keâ
yeÛÛes yeÌ[eW Éeje meeQheer ieF& metÛevee–meece«eer mes pegÌ[keâj Deewj petPekeâj ef›eâÙee keânueeleer nQ~ pewmes–jece heâue Keelee nw, Debefkeâle šer.Jeer. osKe jne
veÙes %eeve keâe me=peve keâjles nQ~ nw~ ‘heÌ{vee’ ef›eâÙee keâe mecheeove efyevee keâce& (hegmlekeâ, he$eeefo) kesâ
28. (d) mecYeJe veneR nw~ Dele: ‘heÌ{vee’ meke&âcekeâ ef›eâÙee nw~
‘yes’ Ghemeie& keâe ØeÙeesie ‘ef]heâpetue’ Meyo ceW veneR efkeâÙee pee mekeâlee~ Mes<e 38. (d)
MeyoeW ceW ‘yes’ Ghemeie& ueieekeâj efvecve Øekeâej mes veÙes MeyoeW keâe efvecee&Ce pees Meyo JeekeäÙeebMeeW, JeekeäÙe leLee MeyoeW keâes peesÌ[les nQ mecegÛÛeÙeyeesOekeâ
efkeâÙee pee mekeâlee nw– DeJÙeÙe keânueeles nQ~ kegâÚ ØecegKe mecegÛÛeÙeyeesOekeâ DeJÙeÙe nQ– Deewj,
Meyo veÙes efveefce&le Meyo Jejvee, efkeâvleg, hejvleg, SJeb, leLee, DevÙeLee Deeefo~
yeme – yesyeme GoenjCe– 1. jece ves Keevee KeeÙee Deewj mees ieÙee~
Deoye – yesDeoye 2. ßegefle Deewj iegbpeve heÌ{ jns nQ~
F&ceeve – yesFceeve peyeefkeâ JÙeefOekeâjCe, meceeveeefOekeâjCe, mecegÛÛeÙeyeesOekeâ DeJÙeÙe kesâ Yeso
29. (c) nQ~
`DeuebkesâMe' kegâyesj Meyo keâe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Meyo nw~ `yeeoue' kesâ 39.(d)
heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer cesIe, veerjo, peueo, Ieve Deeefo nQ~ Ûeheuee keâe efJeÅegle, efkeâmeer JeekeäÙe, cegneJeje Ùee JeekeäÙeebMe ceW meb%ee Ùee meJe&veece keâe JeekeäÙe
efyepeueer, oeefceveer Deeefo nQ~ kesâ DevÙe heoeW (efJeMes<ele: ef›eâÙee) kesâ meeLe pees mecyevOe neslee nw, Gmes
30. (c) keâejkeâ keânles nQ~ efnvoer ceW keâejkeâeW keâer mebKÙee Dee" ceeveer ieÙeer nw–
‘efve<keâueg<e’ keâe efJeueesce Meyo keâueg<e nesiee~ ‘kegâKÙeele’ keâe efJeueesce keâòee&, keâce&, keâjCe, mecØeoeve, Deheeoeve, mecyevOe, DeefOekeâjCe leLee
Meyo ‘efJeKÙeele’, ‘ke=âleIve’ keâe efJeueesce Meyo ‘ke=âle%e’, leLee ‘ceer"e’ keâe mecyeesOeve~
efJeueesce Meyo ‘-keâÌ[Jee’ nw~ 40. (b)
31. (d) Glheefòe/œeesle/Fefleneme kesâ DeeOeej hej Meyo Ûeej Øekeâej kesâ nesles nQ:-
Yee<ee efJe%eeve keâer Âef° mes ‘G’ leLee ‘T’ ‘he§e mebJe=le’ mJej nQ~ efpeve
1. lelmece – mebmke=âle mes efueÙes ieÙes Meyo - Deefive, JeeÙeg, metÙe&
mJejeW kesâ GÛÛeejCe ceW peerYe keâe he§e Yeeie keâeÙe& keâjlee nw, GvnW ‘he§e
2. leodYeJe – mebmke=âle mes efueÙes ieÙes Meyo keâe efJeòeâ Meyo - Deeie,
mJej’ keâne peelee nw, pewmes – Dee, G, T, Dees, Deew, Dee@~ ‘mebJe=le’
Gve mJejeW keâes keâne peelee nw, efpeve mJejeW kesâ GÛÛeejCe ceW cegKe-Éej nJee, metjpe
ueieYeie yebo jnlee nw, pewmes – F, F&, G, T ~ 3. osMepe – Jes Meyo efpevekeâer Glheefòe keâe helee ve nes - ef[efyeÙee,
32. (d) ueesše, "s"
‘meekesâle’ Skeâ cenekeâeJÙe nw~ ceW ‘hetCe& efJejece Deewj GæjCe efÛendve’ 4. efJeosMeer– efJeosMeer Yee<eeDeeW mes efueÙes ieÙes Meyo - Deheâmej,
veecekeâ oes efJejece efÛendveeW keâe ØeÙeesie ngDee nw~ Depeye, ojesiee
33. (d) 41. (c)
‘heewjeCeerkeâ’ Meyo Jele&veer keâer Âef° mes DeMegæ nw~ Fmekeâe Megæ Jele&veer Isolated - (Dekesâuee), Synonym, Secluded - (Skeâeble/Dekesâuee)~
‘heewjeefCekeâ’ nw~ DevÙe Meyo keâewletnue, DeveefOekeâej, efvejhes#e Jele&veer keâer DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& -
Âef° mes Megæ Meyo nw~ Included - Meeefceue, Mingling - Ieguevee efceuevee, Open -
34. (d) Keesuevee~
efpeme meb%ee mes Jemleg DeLeJee JÙeefòeâ kesâ mecetn keâe yeesOe nes Gmes 42. (c)
‘mecetnJeeÛekeâ meb%ee’ keânles nw~ pewmes- meYee, keâ#ee, YeerÌ[ mecetnJeeÛekeâ Infirm - (keâcepeesj), Antonym, Strong - (cepeyetle)~ DevÙe
meb%ee kesâ GoenjCe nQ~ ‘oewÌ[’ mecetnJeeÛekeâ meb%ee veneR nw, Ùen
efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&-
YeeJeJeeÛekeâ meb%ee nw~
Feeble - keâcepeesj, Frail - Deveweflekeâ, Yebiegj, Weak - keâcepeesj,
35. (b)
‘meeLe’ Meyo keâe ØeÙeesie meJe&veece kesâ ™he ceW veneR efkeâÙee pee mekeâlee nw ogye&ue
keäÙeesbefkeâ meJe&veece Meyo meowJe meb%ee kesâ yeoues ØeÙegòeâ nesles nQ~ 43. (b)
36. (c)
Ghejesòeâ group of words 'That which is incapable of being
‘‘Ûeerveer, ceõemeer, efyenejer’’ Meyo ceW mLeeve yeesOekeâ efJeMes<eCe nw~ read or understood' kesâ efueS GefÛele one word efJekeâuhe (b)
mLeeve keâe yeesOe keâjeves Jeeues JÙeefòeâJeeÛekeâ meb%ee ceW ØelÙeÙe Deeefo kesâ Illegible (Dehe"veerÙe) nesiee~
ØeÙeesie mes pees efJeMes<eCe heo yeveles nw GvnW mLeeve yeesOekeâ efJeMes<eCe DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe&-
keânles nQ~ Intelligible - megiece, Indelible - Deefceš, Illegal - DeJewOe~
330 YCT
44. (c) subject + is / am / are + verb1 + ing + object + other words
Ghejesòeâ idiom, 'In the nick of time' (Deefvlece meceÙe hej) kesâ Note—Listen kesâ yeeo ØeeÙe: preposition 'to' keâe ØeÙeesie keâjles
efueS efJekeâuhe (c) At the last possible moment GheÙegòeâ
nQ~
JÙeeKÙee keâjlee nw~ DevÙe efJekeâuhe kesâ DeLe& efYeVe nw~
Correct sentence :-
45. (a)
Sh! someone is listening to our conversation
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe ceW preposition 'on' kesâ mLeeve hej 'by' keâe ØeÙeesie 51. (d)
nesiee~ Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ jsKeebefkeâle Yeeie Hears to kesâ mLeeve hej Listen to
On train journey - š^sve hej Ùee$ee~ keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ Listen to keâe ØeÙeesie (OÙeeve osvee Deewj
by train journey - š^sve kesâ Éeje/mes keâer ieF& Ùee$ee~ megvevee) kesâ sense ceW ngDee nw pees efkeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ YeeJe kesâ Devegmeej
Correct sentence - We reserved by tickets for a GefÛele DeLe& oslee nw~ peyeefkeâ 'hear' keâe ØeÙeesie kesâJeue ‘megveves’ kesâ efueS
journey by train for the next morning for my sisters efkeâÙee peelee nw~
and me.
Correct Sentence -
46. (d)
Listen to the news tonight at 9pm. as there will be an
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe ceW or the good kesâ mLeeve hej nor the good keâe
important announcement about the budget.
ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ neither keâe co-relative 52. (c)
conjunction 'nor' neslee nw~
Ghejesòeâ sentence kesâ underlined phrase 'have either' kesâ
Neither..............Nor mLeeve hej 'has either' keâe ØeÙeesie GefÛele nw~ 'Either' means
Either................Or 'one' or the other of two things neslee nw~ efpememes Fmekeâes
Correct sentence :- singular ceevee peelee nw~ Dele: Verb keâe ØeÙeesie Singular
Miss Marple is neither a good singer nor the good number ceW nesiee~
stage artist. Correct Sentence– Has either of you been to the
47. (b) planetarium before?
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ efjòeâ mLeeve ceW revolves (IetCe&ve) keâe ØeÙeesie 53. (d)
GheÙegòeâ nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ universal truth Jeeues JeekeäÙeeW keâes present Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ jsKeeefkebâle Yeeie It proves to be good keâs mLeeve
indefinite tense ceW jKeles nQ Deewj FmeceW verb kesâ Deble ceW s/es hej It will prove to be good keâe heÇÙeesie GheÙegkeäle nesiee~ keäÙeesbefkeâ
keâe ØeÙeesie keâjkesâ singular yeveeles nQ~ JeekeäÙe conditional sentence type-I ceW nw, efpemekeâer mebjÛevee
Correct sentence- The earth revolves round the sun efvecveJeled nw–
and not the vice-versa.
If +Present Indefinite+ Future Indefinite
48. (d)
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ efjòeâ mLeeve hej 'is' keâe ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ nesiee~ Correct Sentence–
keäÙeeWefkeâ JeekeäÙe ceW universal truth keâer yeele keâer pee jner nw~ leLee If you join this job now, it will prove to be good in the
long run.
Fmekeâe subject (a toddler's brain) singular nw~ Dele:
54. (b)
singular verb (is) keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ jsKeeefkebâle Yeeie 'is it' kesâ mLeeve hej did they keâe
Note- General Sense keâes efoKeeves kesâ efueS JeekeäÙe keâes present
ØeÙeesie nesiee~ Ûetbefkeâ JeekeäÙe SJeb Question Tag Skeâ ner Tense ceW
tense ceW ØeÙegòeâ keâjles nQ~
nesles nw~ Deiej JeekeäÙe Positive nes lees 'Question Tag'
Correct sentence- A toddler's brain is pretty much
Negative neslee nw Deewj JeekeäÙe Negative nes lees Question Tag
fully developed by the age of three.
49. (c) Positive neslee nw~
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ efjòeâ mLeeve ceW 'have' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ Correct Sentence–
modal verb 'may' kesâ yeeo have keâe ØeÙeesie neslee nw~ They didn't see you, did they?
55. (a)
Correct sentence- Researchers say that about 33% of
people with diabetes may have a skin disorder in their Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ jsKeeefkebâle Yeeie 'a smallest' kesâ mLeeve hej
lifetime. ''The smaller'' keâe ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ nw~ keäÙeeWefkeâ Ùeefo
50. (b) Comparative degree kesâ yeeo of the two keâe ØeÙeesie nes lees
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe ceW 'listens to' kesâ mLeeve hej 'is listening to' keâe Comparative degree kesâ henues 'The' keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peelee nw~
ØeÙeesie GefÛele nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ JeekeäÙe continuous sense os jne nw~ Correct sentence–
Dele: present continuous tense keâe structure ØeÙegòeâ nesiee~ ‘Shakiba is the smaller of the two girls.’
331 YCT
56. (c) 64. (d)
According to the passage "in 1969" US send first Let the salary of husband = 15x
successful manned trip to the moon. Hence option (c) and the salary of wife = 11x
will be correct answer. According to the question,
57. (a) 15x + 11x
= 65,000
According to the passage "Munchausen" was the first 2
person to speak to travel to the moon. Hence option (a) 26x = 65000 × 2
will be correct answer. 65000 × 2
x=
58. (b) 26
According to the passage "All the writers wrote about x = 5,000
the moon being inhabited by weird creatures." is NOT Hence, the salary of wife = 11x = 11 × 5000
true. = `55,000
Hence, option (b) will be correct answer. 65. (a)
59. (a) According to the question :-
According to the passage the writer uses the ∵ 12, x and 48 are in consecutive ratio
expression 'literally' because "It has been an idiom for ∴ 12 : x : : x : 48
desiring something unlikely". Hence option (a) will be 12 x
⇒ =
correct answer. x 48
60. (a) x2 = 12 × 48
According to the passage "seven" fictional books x2 = 2 × 2 ×3× 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3
written about travelling to the moon are referred to x = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 = 24
here. Hence option (a) will be correct answer. 66. (c)
61. (a) MP 100 + P
Let the monthly salary of Tanvi be 100%. =
CP 100 − D
Expenses of Tanvi's monthly salary = 80% 120 100 + 8
=
Saving of Tanvi's monthly salary = 100 – 80 = 20% 100 100 − D
According to the question, 6 108
=
20% = ` 5000 5 100 − D
1% = 250 600 – 6D = 540
100% = ` 250,00 6 D = 60
62. (a) D = 10%
Let the number = 100 67. (c)
On increasing by 20% the number = 120 Let the first discount = D1%
Again on decreasing by 10% the number According to the question,
(100 − 10)  100 − D1  100 − D 2 
=120× = 108 400 ×    = 160
100  100  100 
So, the percentage increase in the number  100 − D1   100 − 20 
⇒ 400  ×  = 160
108 − 100  100   100 
= × 100
100 160 × 100 × 100
= 8% increase ⇒ (100 − D1 ) =
400 × 80
63. (d) ⇒ (100–D1) = 50
According to the question :- D1 = 100–50 = 50%
 xy  Hence, the first discount = 50%
x + y+ % 68. (c)
 100 
Given,
 10 × 8 
Increase % =  10 + 8 +  Rate = r% Time (t) = 3 years
 100  If rate is (r+2)% then interest fetched `84 more
= 18 +
80 P×R ×T
Simple Interest =
100 100
= 18.8% increase According to the question,

332 YCT
 P × (r + 2) × 3 P × r × 3 72. (d)
− = 84
100 100 When difference between simple interest and
compound interest in two years,
3P
(r + 2 − r) = 84  R 
2
100 Difference = Principal  
6P = 8400  100 
P = 1400 R = 5%, P = `400
2
Hence, Sum invested = ` 1400  5  400
Difference = 400   = = `1
69. (d)  100  20 × 20
Let Rate of Interest is R% per annum 73.(b)
According to the question, Let Ankit complete the work in 2x days and Himanshu
7200 × 3 × R 8400 × 4 × R in x days.
+ = 4968 According to the question,
100 100
1 1 1
⇒ 216R + 336R = 4968 + =
⇒ 552R = 4968 x 2x 16
2 +1 1
⇒ R = 9% =
2x 16
70. (c)
2x = 48
R = 20% yearly = 10% half yearly
x = 24
3
T= × 2 = 3 half yearly Hence, time taken by Ankit to complete the work (2x) =
2 24 × 2 = 48 days
P = 4000 74. (a)
According to the question :- As per the question,
 R 
T
From M1D1 = M2D2 (Where M→ man, D→day)
A = P 1 + 
 100  10×18 = 10×6+(10+5)×D2
3 180 = 60 + 15D2
 10  15D2 = 180–60 = 120
= 4000 1 + 
 100  D2 = 8 days
11 11 11 75. (c)
= 4000 × × × 10 days work of P = 2/5 part
10 10 10
5
= `5324 Then P will complete the work · 10 × · 25 days
2
71. (a)
From the question-
Given-
Principal (P) = `172000, (P + Q)5 P × 25  M1 D1 M 2 D 2 
= ∵ = 
1 1  W1 W2 
Rate = 8³ annually
3
Time (n)=3 Years
15P + 15Q = 25 P
 r 
n
 r 
n
 15 Q = 10P
C.I = P 1 +  − P = P  1 +  − 1
 100   100   P 15
=
Q 10
 8 
3

= 172000 1 +  − 1 P 3
 100   =
Q 2
 27 3  Ratio of efficiency = 3 : 2
= 172000   − 1 76. (b)
 25  
From the given graph,
19683  Total sales of branch P2 for both the years = 85 + 75 =
= 172000  − 1
15625  160
Total sales of branch P4 for both the years = 80 + 90 =
19683 − 15625
= 172000 × 170
15625 Required ratio = 160 : 170
= 11.008 × 4058 = 44,670 = 16 : 17
333 YCT
77. (b) Same as,
Let the weight of 6th child is x kg. O Q S U
14 + 19 + 23 + 21 + 13 + x +1 ↓ +2 ↓ +3 ↓ +4 ↓
∴ 17.5 =
6 P S V Y
105.0 = 90 + x
Hence, ? = PSVY
x = 15
83. (d)
Hence weight of 6th child · 15 kg
Just as, Same as,
78. (d)
Let the three numbers are a, b and c respectively.
According to the question,
a+b+c 84. (b)
=8
3 Answer figure A would be appropriate in place of
a + b + c = 24 ------(i) question mark.
a+b 85. (c)
=6 Just as,
2
a + b = 12 ------(ii)
b+c
and, =9
2
b + c = 18 ------(iii) And,
From equation (i) , (ii) and (iii)
a = 6, b = 6 and c = 12
Therefore, three numbers are 6, 6 and 12 respectively.
79. (c) Similarly,
0.56 + 0.43 + 0.89
56 43 89
= + +
99 99 99
188 89
= = 1+ = 1.89 86. (d)
99 99
From the options –
80. (a)
Let numerator = x–2
denominator = x
According to the question,
(x − 2) − 2 1
=
x+2 3
x−4 1
=
x+2 3
3(x – 4) = (x + 2)
3x –12 = x+2 Hence, it is clear that option 'd' is different among all.
2x = 14 87. (a)
x = 7 The figure 'C' is contradictory with other figure because
this figure is rotating anti clockwise while others are
x−2 7−2 5
Original fraction = = = rotating clockwise.
x 7 7
88. (d)
81. (a)
The given series is as follows–
The way 'Shoes' is related to 'Slipper' in the same way
'Coat' is related to 'Shirt'.
82. (a)
Just as,
D F H J
+1 ↓ +2 ↓ +3 ↓ +4 ↓
E H K N Then 336 will be on the place of 448.

334 YCT
89. (c) 96. (c)
All the shape in the question figure are made up of 4 On drawing the Venn diagram as per statement.
lines, So figure D will be the correct answer.
90. (c)
According to the question,

Conclusion :-
i. ( )
ii. ( )
Hence, ? = M Hence, Only conclusion 2 follows.
91. (a) 97. (c)
On drawing blood relation diagram according to the On drawing the Venn diagram as per statement.
question,
Bag

Paper Book

Conclusion :-
Hence, the person is brother of Kerthana. i. ( )
92. (b) ii. ( )
On drawing the diagram according to the question. It is clear from the Venn-diagram that neither I nor II
∆ → Man conclusion follows.
98. (d)
Ο→ Women
Both conclusion follows the statement logically.
99. (a)
The number of signs inside the figure is 1 less than the
number of side in the figure. Hence, option figure (a) is
correct answer.
100. (b)
According to the figure-
Hence, it is clear from the above diagram that F is
husband of E.
93. (b)
Given,
19 ÷ 63 + 21 × 2 – 3 = ?
On changing the symbols,
Number of triangles made of one-digit · 8
= 19 + 63 ÷ 21 – 2 × 3
= 19 + 3 – 6 Number of triangles made of two-digit (2, 3) (4, 10)
= 22 – 6 = 16 (4,5) = 3
94. (d) Number of triangles made of three-digit (4, 10, 1) (5, 9,
Given, 7) (2, 3, 10 ) (6, 9, 8) (5, 9, 8) = 5
84 12 5 6 = 41 Number of triangles made of six-digit (5, 4, 7, 9, 10, 1)
From option (d), =1
84 ÷ 12 × 5 + 6 = 41 Total number of triangles = 8 + 3+5+1
7 × 5 + 6 = 41 = 17
41 = 41 101. (c)
95. (b) Partial pressure is the amount of pressure that each gas
Electron and Proton both are part of Atom. in a mixture exerts. Gas will flow from one area with
Atom greater partial pressure to another with lower partial
pressure.
The partial pressure of carbon dioxide (CO2) at alveoli
(the site of diffusion) is 40 mmHg.
Electron Proton • The partial pressure of oxygen (O2) at alveoli is 40 to
Hence, option (b) is correct. 45 mmHg.
335 YCT
 102. (d) • Water for Injection is a solvent used in the production
A Blood group is a classification of blood based on the of prarenteral and other preparations where products
presence and absence of antibodies and inherited endotoxin content must be controlled, and in other
antigenic substances on the surface of red blood cells. pharmaceutical applications WFI is sterile, non
These antigen may be proteins, carbohydrates, pyrogenic, distailled water for the preparation of
glycoproteins or glycolipids, depending on the blood products for parenteral use. The WFI monograph also
group system. Blood group O has no antigens but both allows it to be packed in bulk for commercial use.
anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the plasma. Blood group 109. (c)
AB has both A and B antigens, but no antibodies. Sterilization - It is the removal of all forms of
103. (c) microorganisms from the surface of an object. It
The medulla oblongata consists of both cells and fibres, includes both vegetative and spore forms
which are similarly to those in the spinal cord, the cells • Sterilization is classified into two types - physical and
or grey matter being on the inside and the fibres of
chemical sterilization -
white matter on the outside. It lies at the base of the
• Physical sterilization includes heat sterilization it is
skull just in front o the foramen magnum and links the
pons and spinal cord. done by two methods Moist heat sterilization & Dry
heat sterilization, Filtration, Irradiation (Non-ionizing
104.(c)
radiation & Ionizing radiation), sound waves vibration,
Atherosclerosis is thickening or hardening of the arteries
Fractional sterilization.
caused by a buildup of plaque in the inner lining of an
artery. Risk factors may include high cholesterol and • Chemical sterilization are two types gaseous and
triglyceride levels, high blood pressure smoking, liquid.
diabetes, obesity, physical activity and eating saturated • Moist Heat sterilization is one of the best methods of
fats. sterilization. It is done with the help of an instrument
105.(d) called an autoclave. An autoclave works on the
A Blood group is a classification of blood based on the principle of producing steam under pressure. Thus moist
presence and absence of antibodies and inherited heat sterilization is also known as stem sterilization.
antigenic substances on the surface of red blood cells. • Some micro-organisms resistant to moist heat
These antigen may be proteins, carbohydrates, sterilization
glycoproteins or glycolipids, depending on the blood • Bacillus subtilis variety 5230.
group system. Blood group O has no antigens but both • Bacillus stearothermophilus.
anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the plasma. Blood group • Clostridium sporogenes.
AB has both A and B antigens, but no antibodies.
Note - The commission has accepted option (c) only
106. (b) correct answer to this question.
Oogenesis is an example of meiosis. Meiosis produces 110. (a)
sex cells or gametes, Oogenesis is a process which
A humectants is a common moisturizing agent found in
creates female gametes called ovum. Meiosis is a type
lotions, shampoos and other beauty products used for our
of cell division in sexually reproducing organisms that
hair and skin. These are also used in many products
reduces the number of chromosomes in gametes.
including food, cosmetics, medicines and pesticides. It
107.(c)
comes in three main forms natural or unchanged,
Facial nerve is the 7th cranial nerve and carries nerve
naturally derived, and synthetic.
fibers that control facial movement and expression.
• All humectants bind with water but some of them have
The facial nerve also carries nerves that are involved in
an additional role. Some humectants first break down
taste to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue and producing
tears. the dead skin cells clogging up our skin's surface.
108.(c) 111. (d)
As per GMP permitted limit of soluble content in water There are 12 cranial nerves in our body, each having a
particular function.
for injection is 10 ppm.
• Cranial nerve 3 is the oculomotor nerve which helps
• Water is the most common aqueous vehicle used in
pharmaceuticals. There are several types of water are the movements of muscles of eyes.
used in the preparation of drug product such as Non- • The vagus nerve verifiably referred to as the
potable water, portable water, purified water for pneumogastric nerve. It is the longest cranial nerve. It is
injection, sterile water for injection, Bacterio static the 10th cranial nerve and interfaces with the lungs,
WFI, sterile water for inhalation , etc. heart, and stomach related lot.
336 YCT
112. (b) 119. (d)
White blood cells , also called leukocytes or leucocytes, Paddle type mixer is used for mixing powder with liquid
are the cells of the immune system that are involved in substances homogenously.
protecting the body against both infectious disease and • Equipment is used for mixing of powders
foreign invaders. 1. Tumbler mixer
• The life span of the WBC is between 10 to 20 days. It 2. Double cone mixer
is mainly responsible for the protection of the body from 3. Air mixer
diseases. 4. Agitated powder mixer
• The life span of the RBCs is 20–120 days. • Equipment used for mixing of liquids
• The life span of the blood platelets is 3–5 days. 1. Turbine mixer
2. Paddle mixer
Note According to commission right answer is option
3. Propeller mixer
(c).
120. (a)
113. (d)
A meta filter is simply a row of metal rings arranged on a
Red cell refers to red blood cells also known as grooved rod. These rings are typically constructed of
erythrocytes which carries oxygen to the body from the stainless steel. This type of filter cannot provide large
lungs. A healthy person has 5–5.5 million RBCs per mm3 surface area for filtration because the diameter range of
of blood which have lifespan of 120 days. the rings attached in it is just 15 to 22 mm.
• Haemocytometer is a device that is used for counting 121. (d)
red blood cells, it contains different grids and has The diaphragm is the most highly resistant muscle to
specific area and volume to count the number of RBCs NMBAs as well as the first to recover but the occurrence
in a particular volume of blood. of its dysfunction has been implicated in postoperative
• Haemoglobinometer is a device used for measuring the respiratory failure, especially when mechanical
hemoglobin concentration of the blood. ventilation is prolonged. Therefore studying
• A sphygmomanometer is an instrument used to diaphragmatic function in a preoperative context is
determine blood pressure. extremely important.
114. (b) 122. (d)
Urea is formed in are body during nitrogen metabolism Active immunity results when exposure to a disease
the hepatic cells in the liver. Urea is an excretory product organism triggers the immune system to produce
and it enters into the blood, after it's formation in the antibodies to that disease. Active immunity may be
liver, when blood reaches the kidney, which filters it out acquired by natural infection, vaccination or by applying
from the blood and hence excretes urea out through the toxoids to the immune system.
urine. 123. (d)
115. (b) White blood cells (WBCs) protect the body from
Bile is an aqueous liquid solution produced in the liver. It infections and foreign particles WBCs are irregular and
consists mainly bile salts, conjugated bilirubin with some colorless cells with a nucleus, their life span is very short
electrolytes and water. and ranges from few hours to maximum 20 days only.
116.(a) Oxidative phosphorylation is the final step 124. (c)
incellular respiration, it occurs in the mitochondria. It is Cartilage is a strong flexible connective tissue that
the principal purpose of oxygen respiration and the protects our joints and bones. It is a firm tissue but is
principal use of breathed in oxygen is to generate energy soften and much more flexible than bone. Cartilage lacks
in the body. blood supply as it has no blood vessels nerves, of
117.(d) lymphatics.
Insulin is a small protein consisting 51 amino acids in 125. (d)
it's molecule. It works as a hormone and produced in the Solid part of blood is composed of red blood cells
pancreas and added to the blood after meals when sugar (RBCs), white blood cells (WBCs) and platelets. The
levels are high it controls the sugar level in blood by fluid (or liquid) part of blood is known as plasma and is a
allowing cells to absorb glucose. Insulin do not combine straw cloloured , viscous fluid and containing 90 to 92%
with zinc instead in the presence of zinc improves the of water and 6 to 8% proteins.
peripheral insulin senstivity. 126. (c)
118. (d) Nissl's granules are the large granular body found in
Irregular and fast rate of heartbeat (ranging 160-180) is neurons (or- nerve cells). These granules are rough
termed as ectopic activity and it happens when our heart endoplasmic reticulum (RER) with rosettes of free
contracts (beats) too soon. rebosomes and are the sites of protein synthesis.
337 YCT
127. (c) 135. (a)
Loss of muscle tone occurs in stage - III . Muscle tone is The gastrointestinal (GI) tract, also called the digestive
the amount of tension (or resistance to movement) in tract of the alimentary canal, is the system of organs
muscles. Our muscle tone help us to hold our bodies within multicellular animals that takes in food, digests it
upright when we are sitting and standing. to extract energy and nutrients and example the
128. (d) remaining waste.
Angiology deals with circulatory system of our body. It 136. (b)
is the branch of science which deals with the study of Heparin activates lipoprotein lipase and hepatic lipase
blood vessels, under this branch of medical science enhances plasma lipolytic activity and elevates plasma
diagnosis and treatment of diseases associated with the levels of free fatty acids. Lipoproteins lipase catalyses
circulatory system and the lymphatic system. the hydrolysis of the triacylglycerol component of
129. (a) circulating chylomicrons and very low density
Two solution with the same osmolarity are isotonic. lipoproteins. Heparin is used to prevent blood clots.
An isotonic solution is one that has the same as molarity, 137. (c)
or solute concentration, as another solution,. The t1/2 of heparin is reduced in patients with
Hypertonic solution - A hypertonic solution is any pulmonary embolism condition. Immediate therapeutic
external solution that has a high solute concentration and anticoagulation is initiated for patients with suspected
low water concentration compared to body fluids. deep venous thrombosis or pulmonary embolism.
• Hypotonic solution is any external solution that has a Anticoagulation therapy with heparin reduces mortality
low solute concentration and high water concentration rates form 30% to less than 10%.
compared to body fluids. Heparin works by activating antitherombin 111 to slow
130. (d) or prevent the progression of DVT and to reduce the size
The Active ingredients is Antiperspirants usually include and frequency of pulmonary embolism. Heparin does
aluminium based compound that temporarily block sweat not dissolve existing clot.
pores. Blocking sweat pores reduces the amount of 138. (c)
perspiration that reaches in our skin. Phenyl ethyl alcohol is used as an antimicrobial,
Examples. • Odaban preservative in nasal, ophthalmic and otic formulations at
• Magicool 0.25-0.50% v/v concentration in combination with other
• Zeasorb Absorbent powder preservatives. We offer product complying with IP,
• Anhydrol forte. USP.2-phenyl ethanol is a primacy alcohol that is ethanol
substituted by a phenyl group at position 2. It has a role
131. (d) as a fragrance, a saccharomyces cerevisiae metabolite, a
Axis is a bone of spinal cord . plant metabolite an aspergillus metabolite and a plant
The spinal cord is a long tube - like band of tissue . growth retardant.
Skull - The skull is made up of cranial bones and facial 139. (b)
bones. Sealed ampoules containing a thermo-stable drug
132. (b) solution are commonly sterilized by Autoclave.
M3 receptors that turn on acid secretion. Stimulation of The autoclave is a equipment used to remove micro
the vagus excites postganglionic parasympathetic organisms (virus, Bacteria, fungus etc.) and spores using
neurons in the stomach, which then release acetylcholine high pressure and high temperature steam sterilization.
on to parietal cells to stimulate acid secretion . Autoclave is a pressurized device designed to heat
133. (d) aqueous solutions above their boiling point at normal
The transformation of the larva into an adult through atmospheric pressure to achieve sterilization.
drastic changes is called Metamorphosis 140. (c)
The most common method used for sterilization of
Metamorphosis Change of physical form , structure or
vaccines among is radiation method. Sterilization by
substance. In frog butterfly metamorphosis occurs.
ionizing radiation, primarily by cobalt- 60 gamma rays or
Budding It is an asexual mode of producing new electron accelerators is a low temperature sterilization
organisms. In this process a new organism is developed method that has been used for a number of medical
from a small part of the parents body. products (e.g.- tissue for trans-plantation,
134. (b) pharmaceuticals medical devices.
Incretion analogs belongs to glucagon like peptide -1 This method has been used to develop a variety of
group. Glucagon like peptide -1 (GL P-1) is an incretin vaccine type, because it can eradicate chemical
secretory molecule. GLP-1 receptor agonist are widely contaminants and penetrate pathogens to destroy nucleic
used in the treatment of type 2 diabetes. acids without damaging the pathogen surface antigen.
338 YCT
141. (c) the outer most region of the adrenal cortex. Ex -
Brown fat also called brown adipose tissue help maintain Aldosterone.
body temperature when get too cold. It's the same fat that 149. (c)
bears use to stay warm when they hibernate. Babies are Violin gut is also called as catgut, tough cord made from
born with a lot of brown fat behind their shoulder blades. the intestines of certain animals, particularly sheep, and
Newborns can't shiver which is one of the ways the body used for surgical ligatures and sutures. Also used for the
creates heat. strings of violins and related instruments and for the
142. (b) strings of tennis rackets and archery bows.
A glycophorin is a sialoglycoprotein of the membrane of 150. (c)
a red blood cell. It is a membrance-spanning protein and Ludipress polymer is supplied as white, free-flowing
carries sugar molecules. It is heavily glycosylated (60%) granules that are tasteless. It is a mixture of lactose
glycophorins are rich in silica acid, which gives the
monohydrate (93%), kollidon 30 (3.5%) and kollidon CL
blood cells a very hydrophilic-charged coat. This enables
(3.5%).
them to circulate without adhering to other cells or vessel
walls. glycophorin plays an important role in the Benefits - A three in -one system comprising filter,
invasion of red blood cells, by malaria parasites, which binder and disintegrant with very low hygroscopicity
involves several ligends binding to RBC receptors. and excellent flowability we simply add our active
143. (d) intergradient, a lubricant and compress our tablets.
Glucocorticoids are involved in fat metabolism. 151. (b)
Glucocorticoids regulate are also expressed in adipose Iodine deficiency is the most common cause of goiter.
tissue and liver and glucocorticoids may be important in The body needs iodine to produce thyroid hormone. If
both the acute and chronic regulation of fatty acid we do not have enough iodine in our diet, the thyroid
trafficking and metabolism and in influencing adipose gets larger to try and capture all the iodine it can, so it
tissue differentiation and function. can make the right amount of thyroid hormone.
144. (b) 152. (a)
In our pancreas, somatostatin prevents (Inhibits) the In living cell, nucleus is just like the brain of body.
release of pancreatic hormones, including insulin, A nucleus is a double membrened organelle that
glucagon and gastrin, and pancreatic enzymes that aid contains the genetic material and other instructions
indigestion.
required for the cellular processes. It is exclussively
Somatostatin stops the release of hormones our pituitary
found in eukaryotic cells and is also one of the largest
your gland makes, including growth hormones.
organells. By housing the cell's genome the nucleus
145. (b)
serves both as the repository of generic information and
The examples of plasmakinins include bradykinin and
as the cell's control center.
kallidin. They may have a role in inflammation and
exocrine gland secretion. Kinins cause vasodilatation of DNA replication, transcription and RNA processing all
most vessels but vasoconstriction of the pulmonary bed, tak place within the nucleus, with only the final state of
and they also alter vascular permeability. gene expression (translation) localized to the cytoplasm.
146. (a) 153. (b)
BMI Weight status Hyponatremia means that the Sodium level in the blood
Below 18.5 → Underweight is below than normal. Our body needs Sodium for fluid
18.5- 24.9 → Normal balance, blood pressure control as well as the nerves and
25.0-29.9 → Overweight muscles. The normal blood Sodium level is 135 to 145
30.0 and higher → Obesity milliequivalents / liter (mEg/L). Hyponatremia occurs
when our blood Sodium lever goes below 135 mEg/L.
147. (a)
Gastric HCl is secreted from the highly specialized When the Sodium level in our blood is too low extra
parietal cells located in the corpus of the stomach, water goes into our cells and makes them swell. This
generating a H+ concentration in the gastric juice that is 3 swelling can be dangerous especially in the brain, since
million time greater than that in blood and tissue. the brain cannot expand past the skull.
148. (b) 154.(d)
Androgens are reproductive and growth hormones that Diaphragm is a type of skeletal muscle. The mammalian
are produced in male and female bodies. Some people diaphragm muscles is essential for respiration and thus is
think androgens are male hormones but the female body one of the most critical skeletal muscles in the human
naturally produces small amounts of androgens too. For body.
example, testosterone. It is also a steroid hormones. Diaphragm is the thin dome-shaped muscle below the
• Mineralocorticoids (release from zona Glomerulosa). lungs and heart that separates the chest from the
Its regulation is electrolyte and water. It is secreted by abdominal.
339 YCT
155. (a) called a myocardial infarction, happens when a part of
The femur is the longest and strongest bone in the human the heart muscle does not get enough blood.
body. It is located in our thigh. All of the body's weight Coronary artery disease is the main cause of heart attack.
is supported by the femurs during many activities' such 165. (b)
as running, jumping, walking and standing. Soman and sarin are nerve gases designed for use in
156. (b) chemical warfare to induce nausea, vomiting,
• Your blood is made up of liquid and solids. convulsions and death in humans.
• The liquid part, called plasma, is made of water, Dyflos does nor used as nerve gases.
salts, and protein. Over half of your blood is plasma Dyflos is a parasympathomimetic drug irreversible
• The solid part of your blood contains red blood cells, anticholinesterase and has been used in ophthalmology
white blood cells, and platelets. as a miotic agent in treatment of chronic glaucoma.
157. (a) 166. (c)
Cardiac muscle, also called myocardium, in vertebrates, Acetylcholine is not used commercially because rapidly
one of three major muscle types found only in the heart. destroyed in the body.
158. (a) • Myasthenia gravis cause the immune system to block
Carbomer is primarily a thickening agent that makes the or destroy acetylcholine receptors. The, the muscles do
products more viscous and maintains their texture, flow, not receive the neurotransmitter and cannot function
and consistency. It is used in numerous products such as normally, without acetylcholine muscles cannot contract
lotion shampoos, lipsticks, nail polishes etc. 167. (a)
159. (b) Insulin receptor is a kind of tyrosine kinase receptor.
The '0' size capsules can fill the volume of 0.68 ml. Tyrosine kinase is a cell surface receptor. In it the
So '0' size capsule can fill the volume of 0.75 ml approx. binding of an agonistic ligand triggers
160. (d) autophosphorylation of tyrosine residues.
The first edition of Indian Pharmacopoeia was published 168. (b)
in the year 1955. The capacity of a drug to cause, foetal abnormality is
161. (d) known as teratogenicity.
Thyrotoxicosis causes nodular goiter. Toxic nodular 169. (a)
goiter involves an enlarged thyroid gland. Thyrotoxicosis Pycnometer can also be used to determine the density of
is a condition in which you have too much thyroid a homogeneous solid object that does not dissolve in
hormone in your body. working liquid it is necessary to measure the weight of
• Myxoedema is a term generally used to denote severs the pycnometer together with the inserted object. Then
hypothyroidism. liquid is added and the solid weight from the total
• Cretinism is a condition of severly stunted physical measured weight is determined.
and mental growth due untreated congenital deficiency 170. (a)
of thyroid hormones. Subscription of prescription are included in the number
162. (b) of doses to be delivered.
Infertility in men is induced by gossypol. Gossypol is 171. (d)
non-steroidal and does not affect hormone levels, but Blood comes in to the right atrium from the body, moves
does inhibit sperm production and motility in male into the right ventricle and is pushed into the pulmonary
animals and humans. artries in the lungs. After picking up oxygen, the blood
It acts as a contraceptive by inhibiting enzyme systems travels back to the heart through the pulmonary veins
that effect energy metabolism in sperm and into the left atrium, to the left ventricle and out to the
spermatogenic cells. body's tissues through the aorta.
163. (a) 172. (d)
Glucocorticoids promote gluconeogenesis in liver, Areolar connective tissue joins the skin and muscles as it
whereas in skeletal muscle and white adipose tissue they is dense and irregular in nature.
decrease glucose uptake and utilization by antagonizing It has a gel like matrix made of cells and fibres.
insulin response. Therefore, excess glucocotricoid 173. (d)
exposure causes hyperglycemia and insulin resistance "Lysosomes are sphere-shaped sacs filled with hydrolytic
164. (d) enzymes that have the capability to break down many
An ischemic necrosis of a portion of the myocardium due types of biomolecules".
to sudden occlusion of a branch of coronary artery is Lysosomes are an important cell organelle found within
called as Myocardial infection (MI). Heart attack, also eukaryotic cells. Due to their peculiar
340 YCT
function, they are also known as the "suicide bags" of Rh- positive blood and conceives a fetus with Rh-
the cell. positive blood, some times resulting in hemolysis.
The term Lysosome was coined by De Duve. 180. (b)
Lysosome function as the digestive system of the cell, Glibenclaminde is an oral hypoglycemic drug that
serving both to degrade material taken up from outside stimulates the pancreatic beta cells to secrete insulin and
of cell and digest absolute components of the cell itself. is often used to treat diabetes, That stimulates the
174. (a) production of insulin by pancreatic β cells.
Echinoderms get its name from the presence of spines on 181. (d)
the body. Vestigial organs are those organs which are present in
An Echinoderm is any member of the phylum reduced form and do not perform any function in the
Echinodermata. The adult are recognisable by their body but correspond to the fully developed functional
radial symmetry , and include starfish, brittle stars, sea organs of related animals . Few examples of vestigial
urchins, sand dollars and sea cucumbers, as well as the organs in human are pinna at the ear, wisdom teeth, the
sea lilies or "stone lilies". vermiform appendix and the tailbone. Eyelids are not
175. (a) vestigial organs as they cover and protect the eyes.
Lachrymal glands produces tears. 182. (b)
The primary function of this gland is secreting the A Gliding joint, also known as a plane joint as planar
aqueous portion of the tear film, thereby maintaining the joint is a common type of synovial joint formed between
ocular surface. It is parimarily located in the anterior, bones that meet at flat or nearly flat articular surfaces.
superotemporal orbit within the lacrimal fossa of the Gliding joints allow the bones to gliding part one another
frontal bone. in any direction along the plane of the Joint - up and
Stimulation of cornea and conjunctiva activates a reflex down, left and right, and diagonally. A gliding joint is
pathway that triggers an increase in tear production from present between joints of carpals (wrist bones) other
the lacrimal gland. example of a gliding joint are intermetacarpal joints,
176. (a) Spine, etc.
The cardiovascular disease associated with the disorder 183. (d)
of heart rate of rhythm is called Arrhythmia. The pancreas is an endocrine and exocrine gland. An
A heart arrhythmia is a irregular heartbeat. exocrine gland is an organ that makes and releases
Heart rhythm problems (heart arrhythmias) occur when chemical into duct rather than into the blood stream like
the electrical signals that coordinate the heart's beats endocrine gland. As an endocrine gland the main
don't work properly. function of the pancreas is to make hormones that control
The faulty signaling caused the heart to beat to fast blood sugar levels. Keeping blood sugar levels stable is
(tachycardia), too slow (bradycardia) or irregularly. important to provide a constant energy supply to the
177. (c) body.
An antidiuretic hormone is vasopressin. 184. (b)
Antidiuretic hormone or vasopressin is made by a part of The Primary pacemaker in the mammalian heart is located
the brain called the hypothalamus and is secreted into in the SA node in the dorsal wall of the right atrium. At the
the blood by the Pituitary gland. Junction with the superior vena cava. The Pacemaker cells
Antidiuretic hormone helps to control blood pressure by in the S.A. nodes are automatic and the intercellular
acting on the kidney and the blood vessels. Its most conduction velocity is slow.
important role is to conserve the fluid volume of our It is also called the primary pacemaker of the heart
body by reducing the amount of water passed out in the because, S.A. nodes generate electrical impulses faster
urine. than another part of the conduction system (100 times
178. (b) per minute).
The powerhouse of the cell is mitochondria. 185. (d)
Mitochondria are known as the powerhouse of cells. It is Blood pressure is the pressure exerted on the blood
because the mitochondria is the site of cellular Vessels when blood circulatory through them during
respiration where energy in the form of ATP (Adenosine pumping of the heart. During the contraction of blood
triphosphate) is generated as a result of oxidation of food vessels. The pressure applied by blood is termed as
constituents. This energy is required for various chemical systolic blood pressure and during relaxation; the
activities needed for life. pressure applied is termed as diastolic blood pressure.
179.(b) Erythroblastosis foetalis arises due to the The standard blood pressure is measured as 120/80
incompatibility in the blood. mmHg as systolic by diastolic respectively. Blood
Erythroblastosis foetalis classically results from Rho (D) pressure plays an important role in maintaining the
incompatibility, which may develop when a woman proper working of the heart, brain, kidney, and other
with Rh- negative blood is impregnated by a man with important organs.
341 YCT
186. (d) molecules with negative charge as proteins and others
Prolactin is a hormone named originally after its function that do not move across the membranes, there is also
to promote milk production (lactation) in mammals in electrical gradient (a difference of charge, across the
response to the suckling of young after birth. Prolactin protoplasm)
also known as lactotropin is a protein best known for its 194. (d)
role in enabling mammals to produce milk. It is Alveoli are the tiny air sacs found at the end of the
influential in over 300 separate processes in various bronchioles (tiny branches' of air tubes in lungs). Small
vertebrates, including humans. particles (< 2 µm) deposit mainly the alveolar region.
187. (b) Modern aerosol delivery systems generally delivery
Bile juice is secreted by liver . Bile juice is a fluid that is poly-dispersed aerosols with majority of particles in the
made and released by the liver and stored in the range 1-5µm in diameter.
gallbladder. Bile juice helps the digestion. It breaks
195. (a)
down fats into fatty acids, which can be taken into the
Carboprost is a synthetic prostaglandin, used in the
body by the digestive tract.
treatment of postpartum hemorrhage. It binds the
188. (d)
prostaglandin E2 receptor, causing myometrial
Arteries carry blood away from the heart, and veins
contractions and causing the induction of labor or the
carry blood toward the heart .
expulsion of the placenta. Prostaglandins occur
With the exception of pulmonary blood vessels, arteries
carry oxygenated blood and veins carry deoxygenated naturally in the body and act at several sites in the body
blood. including the womb.
Arteries have thick walls with muscle tissue. 196. (a)
Veins have thinner walls and use valves to keep your The sushruth samhita is among the most important
blood flowing. ancient medical treatises and is one of the fundamental
189. (c) texts of the medical treatises and is one the fundamental
Insulin is hormone produced by the pancreas that has a texts of the medical tradition in India along with the
number of important functions in the human body , Charak samhita, Sushruta is the father of surgery.
particularly in the control of blood glucose levels and 197. (c)
preventing hyperglycemia. ■ It is composed of around 270(305) bones at birth –
The most important role of insulin in the human body is this total decreases to around 206 bones by adulthood
its interaction with glucose to allow the cells of the body after some bones get fused together.
to use glucose as energy.
■ The bone mass in the skeleton reaches maximum
190. (a) density around age 21.
Pepsin is a stomach enzyme that serves to digest
■ The human skeleton can be divided into the axial
proteins found in ingested food gastric, chief cells
secrete pepsin as an inactive zymogen called skeleton and the appendicular skeleton.
pepsinogen. 198. (b)
Parietal cells within the stomach lining secrete The normal range is usually between 4,000-11,000 per
hydrochloric acid that lowers the PH of stomach. microliter of blood.
At low pH (1.5 to 2) activates pepsin. 199. (c)
191. (b) ■ Enamel is the hardest substance in the human body
The increase in concentration of second messengers and contains the highest percentage of minerals, 96%,
{cAMP, cGMP, Ca2+ etc} leads to Protein kinases with water and organic material composing the rest.
activation and protein phosporylation. Second
■ The primary mineral is hydroxyapatite, which is a
messengers are molecules inside cells, that acts to
crystalline calcium phosphate.
transmit signals from a receptor to a target.
192. (d) 200. (c)
Calcitonin is a hormone made in the thyroid gland by ■ Ryle's tube :– A nasogastric tube is a narrow-bore
cells called 'c' cells. Calcitonin, also renamed as tube passed into the stomach via the nose.
thyrocalcitonin (TCT), is an antagonist of parathyroid ■ It is used for short - or medium-term nutritional
hormone (PTH) {or Parathormone}. PTH helps to support, and also for aspiration of stomach contents eg.,
stimulate Ca2+ concentration through demineralization. for decompression of intestinal obstruction.
193. (a) Foley's tube :– A Foley catheter is used to treat urine
Living cells are negatively charged inside primarily problem.
because of ATP, organic acids, and other negative A foley catheteris athin sterile tube in serted into the
molecules that cannot escape. Cells contain large bladder to drain urine.
342 YCT
 PRACTICE SET - 10
11. After the Mars Mission, which inter-planetary
SECTION-A mission is India eyeing at?
General Awareness (a) The Sun (b) Saturn
(c) Mercury (d) Venus
1. Ramon Magsaysay Award winner Anshu gupta 12. The time period between full Moon to another
is associated with which of the following NGO? full Moon is:
(a) Prayatna (b) Akshaya Patra (a) 29 days (b) slightly longer than 29 days
(c) Goonj (d) Udaan (c) 30 days (d) 28 days
2. Where is the headquarters of World Health 13. With which organization NITI Aayog started
Organization (WHO)? three years partnership with signing
(a) South Africa (b) France Memorandum of Understanding on Sustainable
(c) America (d) Switzerland Development Goal?
(a) QCI (b) CII
3. Which dynasty did Harshavardhana belong to?
(c) ASSOCHAM (d) FICCI
(a) Pushyabhuti dynasty
14. In July 2022, the Ministry of Women and Child
(b) Chalukya dynasty Development implemented a scheme called
(c) Maurya dynasty (d) Gupta dynasty ........ - formerly known as Child Protection
4. Who built the Shahi (Royal) road to strengthen Services (CPS) Scheme since 2009-10–for the
and consolidate his empire from the Indus welfare and rehabilitation of children.
Valley to the Sonar Valley in Bengal, and it was (a) Mission Vatsalya (b) Mission Mamta
renamed the GT road during the British (c) Mission Bachpan (d) Mission Matriv
period. 15. The Law of Gravitation was given by_____.
(a) Aurangazeb (b) Sher Shah Suri (a) Galileo Galilei (b) Isaac Newton
(c) Bahadur Shah Zafar (d) Alam Shah (c) Albert Einstein (d) Charles Darwin
5. When did Sir William Jones found Asiatic 16. Free fall possible only in -
Society? (a) atmosphere (b) air
(a) 1854 (b) 1782 (c) sea (d) vacuum
(c) 1793 (d) 1784 17. Which of the following is the most
6. What is the minimum age to become the Chief electronegative element?
Minister of any state of India? (a) Cl (b) S
(a) 25 years (b) 28 years (c) Al (d) Mg
(c) 24 years (d) 21 years 18. The difference in molecular mass between two
consecutive homologous series members will
7. By whom the Legislative Redundancy of state
be:
assembly and parliament examine?
(a) 12 (b) 08
(a) Economic Review (b) Supreme Court
(c) 14 (d) 16
(c) Judicial Review (d) State Council
19. Which group of animals are exclusively free-
8. Which part of the Indian Constitution is living marine animals?
inspired by the constitution of Germany ? (a) Arthropoda (b) Echinodermata
(a) Amendment of the Constitution (c) Mollusca (d) Nematoda
(b) Federal System 20. Which of the following is not a characteristic
(c) Suspension of fundamental rights during feature of vertebrates?
Emergency (a) Notocord (b) Radial symmetry
(d) single citizenship (c) Endoskeleton (d) Bilateral symmetry
9. Which article of the Constitution of India
covers 'Right to Life'? Test of Language : Hindi
(a) Article 20 (b) Article 34 21. keâewve-mee JeekeäÙe DeemeVe Yetle keâeue ceW nw?
(c) Article 32 (d) Article 21
(a) let Deelee lees ceQ peelee~ (b) ceesnve DeeÙee, meerlee ieÙeer
10. Which Indian satellite gathers data for
oceanographic, coastal and atmospheric (c) Jen DeeÙee Lee~ (d) ceQves Deece KeeÙee nw~
application? 22. FveceW mes keâewve hegefuuebie veneR nw?
(a) GSAT-4 (b) INSAT-4D (a) yeÛeheve (b) JeeÙeg
(c) IRS-P4 (d) INSAT-3B (c) mecegõ (d) keâcyeue
343 YCT
23. efvecve ceW YeeJe JeeÛÙe keâe GoenjCe nw– 28. ‘heâmš& nQ[ mecePe’ mes leelheÙe& nw–
I. Gmemes yew"e veneR peelee~ (a) %eeveJeeve JÙeefòeâÙeeW mes peevekeâejer uesvee~
II. jece mes KeeÙee veneR peelee~ (b) otmejeW kesâ DevegYeJe mes mecePe yeveevee~
III. jece he$e efueKelee nw~ (c) mJeÙeb kesâ DevegYeJe mes mecePe yeveevee
(d) mJeÙeb kesâ hetJe&%eeve, hetJee&«eneW mes mecePe yeveevee~
IV. meerlee hegmlekeâ heÌ{leer nw~
29. ‘meesvee’ keâe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Meyo nw–
(a) I, II SJeb IV (b) I SJeb II
(a) Deke&â (b) Jeke&â
(c) I, II SJeb III (d) I, II, III SJeb IV
(c) ceeefCekeäÙe (d) keâvekeâ
Deepe peye Yeer keâesF& ieeBJe keâe veece ueslee nw lees Skeâ Deueie ner ÚefJe 30. ‘meghle’ keâe efJe®æeLeea Meyo yeleeFS~
GYejleer nw~ Jen ÚefJe keânleer nw efkeâ JeneB iejeryeer nw~ JeneB DeefMe#ee (a) heewjmlÙe (b) Ieeuekeâ
Deewj De%eeve nw~ JeneB DebOe–efJeMJeeme nw~ ieboieer nw~ yeerceejer nw~ nceW (c) peeie=le (d) iejceer
efJeÛeej keâjvee nw efkeâ meÛe keäÙee nw? keäÙee nceejs ieeBJe Ssmes ner Les pewmes 31. Devle:mLe Deewj Gâ<ce JeCe& efkeâleves nQ –
Deepe nQ? Deepe pees ieeBJeeW keâer ogo&Mee ngF& nw Gmekesâ efueS efpeccesoej (a) 6 (b) 8
keâewve nw? Fve meJeeueeW keâer heÌ[leeue keâjles ngS nceW veF& mecePe yeveeveer (c) 9 (d) 7
nw leLee ieeBJeeW kesâ mener mJe™he keâer henÛeeve keâjveer nw~ Jewmes Ùen Kegoe 32. (?) Fme efJejece efÛendve keâe veece nw–
keâe Meg›eâ nw efkeâ ieeBJeeW hej keâF& lejn kesâ Dee›eâecekeâ og<ØeYeeJeeW kesâ (a) hetCe&efJejece (b) ØeMveJeeÛekeâ
yeeJepeto Gvekeâe cetue mJe™he veneR yeouee nw~ pees otjmLe ieeBJe nQ– (c) Deuhe efJejece (d) Ùeespekeâ
Menj kesâ heÌ[esme mes otj Gvekeâer efvepelee lees Keemeer yeÛeer ngF& nw~ Ssmes 33. Megæ Jele&veer Jeeuee Meyo ÚeBefšS–
(a) heefj#ee (b) cegcet<e&g
efmLeefle ceW nceeje oeefÙelJe, Skeâ efMeef#ele meceepe keâe oeefÙelJe keäÙee
(c) cetceg<e&t (d) hejerKee
yevelee nw? nceW efJeÛeej keâjvee nw~ ceiej Ssmee keâesF& Yeer efJeÛeej ieeBJeeW
34. efvecve ceW meb%ee Meyo nw –
keâes DeeBKeeW mes osKes efyevee, mJeÙeb osKe keâj mecePes efyevee veneR efkeâÙee (a) nje (b) heleuee
pee mekeâlee~ lees nceW Deheveer heâmš& nQ[ mecePe yeveeves kesâ efueS ieeBJe (c) meYee (d) ienje
Ûeuevee nw~ 35. efvecveefueefKele ceW meJe&veece nw–
Deheves cetue mJe™he ceW ieeBJe Skeâ JesOeMeeuee nw~ Skeâ (a) Ùen (b) meYee
efJeÅeeMeeuee nw~ ieeBJe JesOeMeeuee Ùee ØeÙeesieMeeuee FmeefueS nw efkeâ (c) ceveg<Ùe (d) efnceeueÙe
%eeve keâes jespe JeneB keâce& keâer keâmeewšer hej keâmee peelee nw~ 36. `Jen veewkeâj veneR DeeÙee~' JeekeäÙe ceW `Jen' keâewve-mee efJeMes<eCe nw?
DeepeceeÙee peelee nw~ pees %eeve keâce& keâer keâmeewšer hej Keje ve Glejs (a) meeJe&veeefcekeâ efJeMes<eCe (b) iegCeJeeÛekeâ efJeMes<eCe
lees Gmes Keeefjpe keâj efoÙee peelee nw~ nj %eeve kesâ nesves keâer Mele& (c) mebKÙeeJeeÛekeâ efJeMes<eCe (d) heefjceeCeyeesOekeâ efJeMes<eCe
Ùen nw efkeâ me=peve Deewj Glheeove keâer Meeve hej lejeMee peeS~ 37. ‘ceerje peesj mes nBmeer’’ Ùen JeekeäÙe efkeâme ef›eâÙee keâe
24. %eeve kesâ nesves keâer DeefveJeeÙe& Mele& nw– mecegefÛele GoenjCe nw?
(a) me=peve Deewj Oeve (b) me=peve Deewj Glheeove (a) Dekeâce&keâ (b) ØesjCeeLe&keâ
(c) efÉkeâce&keâ (d) mekeâce&keâ
(c) Oeve Deewj Glheeove (d) Glheeove Deewj pÙeesefle
25. DevegÛÚso kesâ DeeOeej hej keâne pee mekeâlee nw efkeâ–
38. ‘Gvekesâ efyevee legce kegâÚ veneR nes~’ – JeekeäÙe ceW
mebyebOeyeesOekeâ Meyo keâewve mee nw?
(a) ieeBJe ceW vekeâejelcekeâ heefjJele&ve Yeer ngS nQ~
(a) Gvekesâ (b) efyevee
(b) ieeBJe ceW mecemle heefjJele&ve mekeâejelcekeâ nQ~
(c) legce (d) kegâÚ
(c) ieeBJe ceW yeerceejer Deewj De%eeve ner nw~
39. meYeer efÛeefªÙeeB [ekeâ mes Yespeer ieFË~ FmeceW keâòee& nw :
(d) ieeBJe ceW ueesie DeefMeef#ele Deewj De%eeveer nQ~
(a) [ekeâ (b) Yespeer ieF&
26. ieeBJe keâes "erkeâ mes mecePeves kesâ efueS pe™jer nw–
(c) meYeer (d) efÛeefóÙeeB
(a) ieeBJe kesâ efkeâmmes megvevee~
40. efvecve ceW keâewve-mee Meyo leodYeJe nw?
(b) ieeBJe keâes šer.Jeer. hej osKevee~ (a) peue (b) veive
(c) ieeBJe kesâ yeejs ceW heÌ{vee~ (c) leerve (d) YeÇcej
(d) mJeÙeb ieeBJe ceW peevee~
27. ieeBJe keâes ØeÙeesieMeeuee keäÙeeW keâne ieÙee nw?
Test of Language : English
(a) %eeve keâes peevekeâejer keâer keâmeewšer hej keâmee peelee nw~ 41. Select the most appropriate synonym of the
given word.
(b) %eeve keâes keâce& keâer keâmeewšer hej keâmee peelee nw~
JUST
(c) %eeve keâes efvejblej yeÌ{eÙee peelee jnlee nw~ (a) fair (b) favouring
(d) %eeveJeeve JÙeefòeâ %eeve keâe ØeÙeesie keâjles nQ~ (c) courtly (d) partial
344 YCT
42. Select the most appropriate antonym of the 51. Select the most appropriate option to improve
given word. the underlined segment in the given sentence. If
JEOPARDIZE there is no need to improve it, select 'No
(a) threaten (b) imperil improvement'.
(c) protect (d) hazard I have been working with children before, so I
43. Select the most appropriate one-word know that to expect.
substitution for the given group of words. (a) am working (b) have worked
To cross streets on foot carelessly (c) work (d) No improvement
(a) stroll (b) wander 52. Select the most appropriate option to substitute
(c) jaywalk (d) catwalk the underlined segment in the given sentence. If
44. Select the most appropriate meaning of the no substitution is required, select No
underlined idiom in the given sentence. improvement.
Any jumped the gun and announced their Knowing the particular things that motivate
plans at the dinner table. each person help you add power to their
(a) ate quickly motivation.
(b) started shooting
(a) No improvement
(c) acted hastily
(b) helps you add power
(d) shouted loudly
(c) help you to add power
45. Identify the segment in the sentence, which
contains the grammatical error. (d) help you adding power
The Principal was extremely angry on the boys 53. Select the most appropriate option to substitute
who threw the pieces of chalk at the teacher. the underlined segment in the given sentence. If
(a) at the teacher no substitution is required, select No
(b) extremely angry on the boys improvement.
(c) who threw the pieces of chalk If I have money, I purchase this house.
(d) The Principal was (a) I purchased (b) I will purchase
46. In the sentence identify the segment which (c) No improvement (d) I have purchased
contains the grammatical error. 54. Select the most appropriate option to substitute
We had to decline several orders in case that the underlined segment in the given sentence. If
the production was held up due to labour there is no need to substitute it, select 'No
strike. substitution'.
(a) in case that The tree was uprooted by the storm last
(b) due to labour strike evening, isn't it?
(c) the production was held up (a) didn't it (b) wasn't it
(d) we had to decline (c) was it (d) No substitution
47. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the 55. Select the option that will improve the
blank. underlined segment in the given sentence. In
He is a descendant –––– the Mughal royalty. case no improvement is needed, select 'No
(a) for (b) of improvement'
(c) in (d) to What a palace home!
48. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the (a) pushy (b) palatial
blank. (c) palatable (d) No improvement
I congratulated him –––– his promotion. Comprehension :
(a) because of (b) to
Read the following passage and answer the
(c) due of (d) on
questions.
49. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the
Trade fairs are among the most memorable events
blank.
that take place periodically with the purpose of
The origin of ice-cream dates back –––– nearly
promoting sales, launching new products, bringing
half-a-century.
(a) to (b) at together manufacturers of a particular line of
(c) from (d) into products and educating the public. They are held
at all levels –international, national, state and
50. Identify the segment in the sentence which
contains the grammatical error. district. The most prominent among them are the
Seema was sprinkled the cashews over the pie India International Trade Fair, World Book Fair,
to garnish it. Information Technology fair, Electronic Trade and
(a) over the pie Technology Fair, Textile Fair, Auto Expo, state
(b) seema was sprinkled level book fairs, district level exhibitions etc.
(c) the cashews India Trade Promotion Organization (ITPO),
(d) to garnish it which was incorporated in 1992 by the merger of
345 YCT
 Trade Development Authority (TDA) with the Arithmetical and Numerical ability
Trade Fair Authority of India (TFAI), has been
playing a commendable role in this respect. 61. Last year, Ranjan's monthly salary was Rs.
It can be said without a doubt that sales promotion 34,500 and this year his monthly salary is Rs.
is the most important purpose of these fairs. 38,640. What is the percentage increase in
Bringing together the largest possible number of Ranjan's monthly salary in this year over his
manufacturers, suppliers, existing and potential monthly salary last year?
buyers under the same roof helps to promote the (a) 15% (b) 12%
products in an effective way. All these people (c) 20% (d) 13%
come together on a single platform for a fixed 62. The salary of labour has been increased by 25%.
period of time. This offers a unique opportunity to The new salary should be decreased by which %
manufacturers and suppliers to display their best so that the initial salary remains the same?
products and services and the buyers get a chance (a) 12% (b) 15%
to see a wide range of products and services. (c) 20% (d) 10%
Conferences, seminars, live product 63. Each side of a square is increased by 50% Find
demonstrations and presentations are regular
the percentage increase in its area.
features of these fairs and exhibitions. Besides
these, colourful cultural programmes are also (a) 150% (b) 25%
important features of such fairs. These fairs give a (c) 125% (d) 50%
good opportunity to the artists to showcase their 64. A sum of `4,800 is divided between A, B and C
skills and talent at such specially organized such that the ratio of the share of A to the
programmes. combined share of B and C is 3 : 5 and C receives
56. ITPO stands for : 5/7 of what A and B together receive. The
(a) Indian Trade and Promotion Order difference (in `) of A's share and B's share is :
(b) India Trade Promotion Organisation (a) 900 (b) 800
(c) India Trade Promotion Authority (c) 1,000 (d) 850
(d) India Traders and Products and Organisation 65. Which of the following should be added to each
57. What are some of the regular features of such of the four numbers 4, 8, 12, 22 to make then
trade fairs? proportional?
(a) Programmes for launching new products and 4 3 8 5
showcasing skills and talent (a) (b) (c) (d)
3 4 3 6
(b) Conferences, seminars, live product 66. A shopkeeper offers a discount of 10% every 4
demonstrations and meetings
months. If a person buys an item under this
(c) Programmes for launching new products and
scheme in December for `25515, then what was
bringing together manufacturers
the initial price of that item in January?
(d) Conferences, seminars, live product
demonstrations and presentations (a) ` 45000 (b) ` 35000
58. How is the trade fair an effective way of (c) ` 36000 (d) ` 40000
promoting products? 67. A shopkeeper buys a stereo system of marked
(a) It brings together the maximum number of `2000 at successive discount of 10% and 15%
manufacturers, suppliers and buyers in a respectively. He spent `70 on the packaging
single place and sold it for `2000. Find the percentage
(b) It brings together the maximum number of profit of the shopkeeper.
buyers to a single place (a) Not profit (b) 25³
(c) It is conducted by The Trade Fair Authority (c) 30³ (d) 35³
of India
68. A sum of money was invested at a certain rate
(d) It has seminars, conferences and film shows
of simple interest per annum for a period of 4
on the various products
years. Had the rate of simple interest per annum
59. Under the same roof means:
been 2% more, the sum invested would have
(a) In an open area (b) In a big building
earned a total of `640 more as interest in these 4
(c) at one place (d) at different places
years. What was the sum (in `) invested?
60. What is the main purpose of organizing trade
fairs? (a) 8,000 (b) 9,000
(a) Informing people about the activities of (c) 7,500 (d) 9,500
traders 69. The loan of `2400 is cleared with an amount of
(b) Launching international products `3264 at the end of the loan period, the period
(c) Bringing the manufacturers and suppliers in years and the rate of interest being
together numerically equal. What is the rate of simple
(d) Sales promotion interest?

346 YCT
 (a) 6% (b) 18% What is the ratio of the production of company
(c) 5% (d) 10% Z in 2017 to that of company Y in 2014 ?
70. If the rate of interest 20% per annum and (a) 7 : 6 (b) 6 : 7
interest is compounded half yearly then in 1 (c) 9 : 7 (d) 7 : 9
years a sum of ` 16000 will amount to : 77. In a class of 10 students, the average age was
(a) ` 19,480 (b) ` 19,720 16 years. When two students dropped the class
(c) ` 19,360 (d) ` 19,200 then the average age of the remaining students
71. The interest received on a fixed amount at a was 16.25 years. What was the total age of the
rate of 10% in a year is `400. Compound dropout students?
interest for the same amount at the same rate (a) 32 years (b) 30 years
and for the same period if the interest is (c) 34 years (d) 28 years
compounded half yearly will be– 78. Three numbers are given in which the second
(a) ` 400 (b) ` 210 number is thrice the first, and twice the third
(c) ` 410 (d) ` 200 number. If the average of three numbers is 66.
72. A sum is invested at compounded interest Then find the first number?
payable annually. The interest in two (a) 36 (b) 54
successive years was `225 and `236.25. (c) 108 (d) 72
(a) 4% (b) 5.5% 79. Correct expression of 1.4 27 = ? (Bar sign
(c) 4.5% (d) 5% indicates to recurring decimal)
73. P takes 50% more time than Q. If they work 1427 157
(a) (b)
together, the work will be done in 18 days. In 1000 110
how many days will Q alone complete the 1427 157
work? (c) (d)
10000 111
(a) 30 days (b) 22 days
80. Three friends arranged a party. Tanveer paid
(c) 24 days (d) 25 days 2/3 as much as Yusuf paid. Yusuf paid 1/2 as
74. A man and a woman can complete a work in 8 much as Sachin paid. The fraction of the total
and 12 days respectively. How many women expenditure by Yusuf was.
must assist 2 men to complete the work in 2 7 5
days? (a) (b)
(a) 3 (b) 2 11 11
(c) 4 (d) 5 3 2
(c) (d)
75. Together Rahul and Raghav can pluck 260 11 11
flowers in 1 hour. Their flower plucking General Intelligence & Reasoning Ability
efficiency are in the ratio of 8:5 Find the
number of flowers to be plucked by Raghav. 81. Select the option that is related to the 'Paisa' in
(a) 100 (b) 130 the same way as the 'centimetre' is related to
(c) 78 (d) 80 the metre.
76. Observe the given bar graph and answer the (a) Capital (b) Wealth
question. (c) Rupee (d) Coin
The bar graph shows the production of arm 82. Select the option that is related to the third
chairs by three companies X, Y and Z for the letter-cluster in the same way as the second
years 2013 to 2018. letter-cluster is related to the first letter-
cluster.
ACEG : PRTV :: SUWY : ?
(a) HFDB (b) GIKM
(c) HJLN (d) HKLM
83. Which number would best complete the
relation given below?
12 : 46 :: 18 : ?
(a) 72 (b) 76
(c) 70 (d) 74
84. Select the option that is related to the third
figure on the same basis as the second figure is
related to the first figure?

347 YCT
 91. Pointing towards a picture, Neel says that he is
the son of only daughter of my sister's father.
Whom is he pointing to?
(a) Niece (b) Nephew
(c) Friend (d) Cousin
92. If X has two sisters Y and Z, and W's mother is
the sister of Y's father, then how is W related
85. In a certain code language, 'TONE' is written to Z?
as 'VPMC' and 'FIRE' is written as 'HJQC'. (a) Father (b) Niece
How will 'CITY' be written in that language? (c) Mother (d) Cousin
(a) EGRX (b) EIUZ 93. If mathematical symbol '÷' means '×', '+'
(c) EHPU (d) EJSW means '–', '×' means '+' and '–' means '÷' then
86. Four word are given below three of which 24 + 48 – 12 × 4 ÷ 2 = ?
related in some way and one is different select (a) 6 (b) – 6
the different word. (c) 16 (d) 28
(a) MNO (b) GIK 94. Select the correct set of symbols?
(c) ACE (d) UWY 72 8 5 4 · 49
87. Identify different figure from the following. (a) ², –, ± (b) ±, ´, –,
(c) ±, –, ´ (d) ´, ², ±
95. Choose the most suitable Venn diagram for the
following words?
TV, Camera, Train
(a) b (b) a
(c) d (d) c
88. Select the number that can replace the question
mark (?) in the following series. (a) (b)
2, 10, 30, 68, ?, 222
(a) 130 (b) 103
(c) 120 (d) 110
89. Which answer figure will come in the place of
'?' in following question figure series- (c) (d)
Question Figure:
96. Statements:
I. All cakes are sweets
II. All sweets are baked.
Conclusions:
1. All cakes are baked.
Answer figure: 2. Some baked are sweets.
(a) Neither conclusion 1 nor 2 follows
(b) Only conclusion 1 follows
(c) Only conclusion 2 follows
(d) Both conclusion 1 and 2 follow
97. Statement :
(a) D (b) A All cables are chairs. No chair is pen.
(c) C (d) B Conclusion :
90. Study the given pattern carefully and select the 1. No cable is pen.
letter that can replace the question mark (?) in 2. All chairs are cables.
it. (a) Only conclusion II follows
(b) Either 1 or 2 follows
(c) Both conclusion follows
(d) Only conclusion I follows
98. Statement:
Boss says to his daily wage workers, 'Late
toilers will not be given extra time to complete
(a) X (b) U their work for the day.'
(c) A (d) W Conclusion:
348 YCT
 I. Daily wage workers are expected to 107. Which compound of sulphur is used in
complete the work allotted by day end. shampoos for anti-dandruff qualities.
II. Who coming late on duty to whom boss is (a) Selenium sulphide
addressing. (b) Sulphur
(a) Only conclusion II follows. (c) Yellow mercuric oxide
(b) Only conclusion I follows. (d) Titanium dioxide
(c) Both conclusion follows. 108. Calamine is
(d) No conclusion follows. (a) Zinc acetate (b) Zinc Sulphate
99. Select the answer figure which is embedded in (c) Zinc carbonate (d) Zinc oxide
the given problem figure? 109. Which of the following is used as an antidote
Question Figure: for Organophosphorus and carbamate
pesticides poisoning?
(a) Vesamicol (b) Neostigmine
(c) Atropine sulfate (d) Hemicholinium
110. Which of the following is a vesicular drug
Answer Figures: delivery system?
(a) Implant (b) Liposomes
(c) Iontophoresis (d) Collodion
111. In the working of cyclone separator, the
suspension of solid in gas is introduced through
(a) Central opening at top of cylinder
(a) A (b) C
(b) Tangential opening at the cylinder
(c) B (d) D
(c) Conical end opening at the base
100. How many triangles are there in the following (d) All of these
figure? 112. The evaporating pan is heated with
(a) Steam
(b) Liquefied petroleum gas
(c) Electric heaters
(a) 8 (b) 16 (d) Chemical combustion
(c) 12 (d) 20 113. Weight variations in tablet processing is caused
by all of the following except __________.
(a) Non uniform granule size distribution
SECTION-B (b) Poor flow of granules
(c) Higher speed of turret
101. Gelatin is used as (d) Presence of excessive fines
(a) Sweetener (b) Encapsulating agent 114. Which of the following test is not official in as
(c) Antifungal agent (d) Stabilizer per Indian Pharmacopoeia?
(a) Uniformity of container content
102. A digestive enzyme functional only in infants is
(b) Uniformity of weight
(a) Lactose (b) Gastric lipase
(c) Content of active ingredient
(c) Intestinal lipase (d) Chymotrypsin (d) Friability
103. ________ is an important inventory control 115. A transparent or translucent semisolid
technique that is useful in determining how preparation for external use is
much to order. (a) Paste (b) Cream
(a) ABC (b) VED (c) Lotion (d) Jellies
(c) VEN (d) EOQ 116. In cyclonic separator the mixture is passed
104. Which of the following is considered the heart through
of the patient counselling session? (a) Tangential inlet in the cylinder
(a) Preparing for the session (b) Central inlet at the top of cylinder
(b) Opening of the session (c) Bottom inlet at the conical base of cylinder
(c) Counselling content (d) All of these
(d) Closing of the session 117. A medicinal agent which promotes the
105. Aqueous iodine solution is called secretion of bile is _____.
(a) Lugol's solution (b) Bendits solution (a) Hydrogogue (b) Sialogogue
(c) Fischer Solution (d) Marthins solution (c) Emmenagogue (d) Cholagogue
106. Hydrogen peroxide is used as 118. At acidic pH, the amino acid is
(a) Protective (b) Haematinics (a) In anionic form (b) In cationic form
(c) Acidifying agent (d) Antiseptic (c) In zwitter ion form (d) In salt form
349 YCT
119. In which one of following oxygen is not used ?
128. Cottrell’s method is used for the measurement
(a) Severe pulmonary damage of:
(b) Carbon monoxide poisoning (a) Depression of freezing‐point
(c) In Rocket fuels (b) Elevation of boiling‐point
(d) In soft drinks (c) Lowering of vapour pressure
120. Body of nitrous oxide cylinder is painted (d) Osmotic pressure
(a) Black (b) Blue 129. Match the statements in List I with their
(c) Grey (d) White correct answers in List II, respectively, in
121. The method in which the drug is suspended in respect to modified 1st law of thermodynamics,
the oily vehicle and rubbed into the skin is and
called List I List II
(a) Facilitated diffusion (b) IontophoresisA. Constant heat (q = 0) I. Isothermal
(c) Intrathecal (d) Inunction B. Reversible process at constant II. Isometric
122. All listed below are the measures to correct temperature (dT = 0)
physical incompatibility, except C. Constant volume (dV = 0) III. Adiabatic
(a) Changing order of mixing. D. Constant pressure (dP = 0) IV. Isobar
(b) Changing form of ingredient. Choose the correct answer from the options
(c) Changing one of the reacting ingredients. given below:
(d) Addition of suspending agent. (a) A ‐ II, B ‐ I, C ‐ III, D ‐ IV
123. “hora somni” means (b) A ‐ I, B ‐ III, C ‐ II, D ‐ IV
(a) With food (b) After meals (c) A ‐ III, B ‐ I, C ‐ II, D ‐ IV
(c) At morning (d) At bedtime (d) A ‐ IV, B ‐ I, C ‐ II, D ‐ III
124. Liniments differ from lotions, as liniments do
130. Heme is ________ .
not contain (a) Iron containing tetrapyrrole
(a) Turpentine (b) Iron containing polypeptide
(b) Alcohol (c) Copper or magnesium containing tetrapyrrole
(c) Camphor (d) Iron containing imidazole
(d) Simple salt like ZnSO4 131. Which among the following tablets is used in
125. Which statement is not correct for flocculated Oral cavity?
suspensions? (a) Hypodermic tablets (b) Troches
(a) Chances of cake formation are less. (c) Film coated tablet (d) Dispensing tablet
(b) Particles settle slowly. 132. The polymer used for enteric coating of tablets
(c) Particles form a network. is
(d) It is easy to disperse. (a) Ethyl cellulose
126. Why latin language is used in prescription? (b) Polyethylene glycol
(a) For precise communication. (c) Hydroxy propylcellulose
(b) Patient may not read prescription easily. (d) Polyvinyl Acetate phthalate
(c) Widely understood language in medical 133. Which test is performed to assess the ability of
professionals. the tablet to withstand abrasion in packaging.
(d) All of these handling and transportation?
127. Match the symbols in the List I with the terms (a) Hardness test (b) Friability test
used in the List II of conductance (c) Disintegration test (d) Dissolution test
measurements, and 134. Hypodermic needle sizes are expressed by
List I List II gauge numbers. The gauge number refers to
Symbols Terms the ________.
(a) Length of the needle
A. Ω −1 I. Specific conductance
(b) Bevel size
B. Λ II. Electrical conductance (c) External diameter of the cannula
C. k III. Specific resistance (d) Internal diameter of the cannula
D. ρ IV. Equivalent conductance (e) Not attempted
135. All except which of the following are
Choose the correct answer from the options compounds capable of acting as antimicrobial
given below: agents through an oxidizing mechanism?
(a) A ‐ III, B ‐ I, C ‐ IV, D ‐ II (a) Ammonium chloride
(b) A ‐ II, B ‐ IV, C ‐ I, D ‐ III (b) Hydrogen peroxide
(c) A ‐ IV, B ‐ II, C ‐ III, D ‐ I (c) Potassium permanganate
(d) A ‐ I, B ‐ III, C ‐ II, D ‐ IV (d) Iodine
350 YCT
136. Which of the following is a method used in the (a) A and B only (b) B and C only
laboratory to determine the concentration of an (c) C and D only (d) D and A only
unknown solution? 144. In the process of sugar coating, to prevent
(a) Decomposition (b) Solution moisture penetration into the tablet core, which
(c) Angle of repose (d) Titration one of the following step is performed?
137. Buffer resistant reaction is maximum when ___ (a) Seal Coating (b) Subcoating
(a) The concentration of base is more than acid. (c) Syrup Coating (d) Polishing
(b) The concentration of acid is more than base. 145. The first and most widely used disintegrant in
(c) Concentration of acid is increases slowly. tablet formulation is?
(d) Concentration of acid is equal to base. (a) Glidants (b) Lactose
(c) Magnesium stearate (d) Starch
138. pH of phosphate buffer is between _____
146. The Drug Price Control Oder is issued by the
(a) 8.0 – 10.0 (b) 4.2 – 5.8
Central Government by deriving power form
(c) 2.2 – 4.0 (d) 5.8 – 8.0
which rule
139. According to Bronsted-Lowry concept, an acid (a) The Drug and Cosmetics Act, 1940
is a substance that ______ (b) The Drug and Cosmetics Rule, 1945
(a) Literates electron pair (c) Essential Commodities Act, 1955
(b) Liberates proton (d) Narcotic Drug and Psychotropic substance
(c) Accept proton Act, 1985
(d) Accept electron pair 147. The antiseptic which is an acridine derivative
140. _____ is procedure of hypohalite type antiseptic (a) Cetrimide (b) Proflavine
reaction (c) Chloroxylenol (d) Hexachlorophene
(a) Halogenations 148. Co-trimoxazole contains sulphamethoxazole
(b) Protein precipitation and trimethoprim in the ratio
(c) Stalling (a) 51 (b) 15
(d) Oxidation (c) 55 (d) 110
141. Pyrogens present in containers can be 149. The heterocyclic system present in isoniazid
destroyed by heating the containers at (a) Pyrazole (b) Pyrrole
(a) 121° C for 15 mins (b) 121° C for 30 mins (c) Pyridine (d) Pyrazine
(c) 210° C for 4 h (d) 210° C for 1 h 150. Examples of liquid Antiperspirants
142. Capsule making the Bloom strength of gelatin (a) Zinc stearate
is proportional to molecular weight of the (b) Talc
gelatin (c) Spermaceti
(a) Cohesive strength of the solvent molecules (d) Aluminium chlorohydrate
(b) Cohesive strength of the cross linking that 151. In which of the following dosage forms surface
occurs between gelatin molecules active agents are used in their formulations?
(c) Adhesive strength of gelatin with dipping (a) Dusting powder (b) Bulk powder
pins (c) Ointment (d) Creams
(d) Adhesive strength of gelatin with other 152. The dissolution rate of drug, from tablet may
polymer be increased by ________
143. Stability index, determined for evaluating the (a) Film-coating the table with ethylcellulose
stability of oil–water viscous emulsions, based (b) Increasing the compression pressure during
on electric conductivity changes during non- tablef ting
destructive short heating–cooling–heating (c) Increasing the concentration of lubricant
cycles, (d) Increasing the concentration of disintegrant
A. is defined as ∆/h, where h is the change in 153. Which of the following statement is true for the
the conductivity between 35°C and 45°C rate of creaming of pharmaceutical emulsions?
and ∆ is the conductivity interval within the (a) The rate of creaming is decreased by
two heating curves at 35°C centrifugation
B. indicates the relative change in enthalpy (b) The rate of creaming is increased as the
between two cycles diameter of the internal phase is increased
C. is defined as 2∆/h, where h is the change in (c) The rate of creaming is increased as the
the conductivity between 35°C and 45°C viscosity of the continuous phase is increased
and ∆ is the conductivity interval within the (d) The rate of creaming is not affected by the
two heating curves at 35°C concentration and type of surfactant used
D. indicates the relative change in conductivity 154. The term cytoplasm was coined by
between two cycles Choose the correct (a) Sachs (b) Strasburger
answer from the options given below (c) Hanstein (d) Flemming
351 YCT
155. Liquefied phenol has _______ % of phenol by (a) Order of degradation will after at higher
weight in water. temperature
(a) 20 (b) 40 (b) Equal moisture concentrations will be
(c) 60 (d) 80 mentioned at different temperatures
156. Which does not have hypnotic activity ? (c) Less relative humidity and oxygen solubility
(a) Methohexitone (b) Diazepam at higher temperature
(c) Paraldehyde (d) Barbituric acid (d) Same degradation mechanisms may
157. Which is an example of water soluble base ? predominate at different temperatures
(a) Coconut oil (b) Pertolatum 169. Lakes of Dyes available commercially contain
(c) Wool fat (d) PEG maximum up to _______ of pure dye.
158. Strong solution of alum is used as (a) 15% (b) 10%
(a) Reflex emetic (b) Styptic (c) 25% (d) 50%
(c) Cavity liner (d) Desensitizer 170. Type II glass containers are
159. Mannitol and Sodium chloride injection is used (a) Suitable for alkaline solutions
as Electrolyte replenisher cum _____ (b) Most inert glasses and shows high hydrolytic
(a) Sterile Vehicle (b) Irrigation resistance
(c) Suitable for most acidic and neutral aqueous
(c) Nutrient (d) Diuretic
preparations
160. Roentgen is the
(d) Suitable for non-aqueous preparations
(a) Unit of radioactivity
171. The appropriate pH range for ophthalmic
(b) Unit of absorbed dose
preparations is
(c) Unit of measuring ionizing radiation (a) 8.5 – 10.5 (b) 6.5 – 8.5
(d) Unit of exposure (c) 4.5 – 6.5 (d) 2.5 – 3.5
161. Muscle relation is completed in which phase of 172. The process that eliminates many or all
general anesthesia? pathogenic micro-organisms, except bacterial
(a) Phase-I (b) Phase-II spores, on inanimate objects is known as
(c) Phase-III (d) Phase-IV (a) Sterilization (b) Cleaning
162. To household measurements, what is a (c) Disinfection (d) Tyndallization
teaspoonful equal to? 173. The time taken between placing of an order
(a) 2.5 ml (b) 10 ml and receipt of items is known as
(c) 5 ml (d) 15 ml (a) Lag time (b) Carrying time
163. _____ treatment is used for solubility of (c) Lead time (d) Delivery time
gelatin– 174. Which of the following criteria should be taken
(a) Formalin (b) Thermal into consideration for entry or deletion of
(c) Water (d) Alcohol drugs in Hospital formulary?
164. An adult has ________ number teeth's of (a) The manufacturer of drug should have the
incisors in total. license under Drug and Cosmetic Rules.
(a) 2 (b) 4 (b) The drug must be recognized by
(c) 6 (d) 8 Pharmacopoeia.
165. Latin word for food is _________ (c) The drug should not have secret composition.
(a) Denture (b) Congius (d) All of the above
(c) Dexter (d) Cibus 175. Which of the following glass container has high
166. Which one of the following is not a function of hydrolytic resistance and a high thermal shock
Liver? resistance?
(a) Storage site for vitamins (a) Type I Glass (b) Type II Glass
(c) Type III Glass (d) All of the above
(b) Site for metabolism of proteins
176. Choose the incorrect statements about HEPA
(c) Secretion of glucagon
filter :
(d) Detoxification of various drugs. (a) It is useful for the preparation of parenteral
167. Dimethyl sulfoxide acts as penetration product.
enhancer for topical formulations by (b) It has the efficiency of removing 100% of
(a) Increasing solubility particles of 0.3 mcm or larger.
(b) Denaturing proteins (c) It is generally described as high-efficiency
(c) Increasing transepidermal loss particulate air filter.
(d) Altering solvent nature of membrane (d) None of the above
168. Following statement is more accurate with 177. Lyophilisation is the another name of
respect to limitations of Arrhenius relationship (a) Tricturation (b) Freeze drying
for stability prediction : (c) Kneading (d) Sedimentation
352 YCT
178. Hair removed by chemical method is known as 191. Deglutition is a term related to:
(a) Epilation (b) Depilation (a) Chewing (b) Churing
(c) Electrolysis (d) Conditioning (c) Biting (d) Swallowing
179. BCS class III drugs possess 192. The percentage change in quantity due to 1%
(a) High solubility high permeability change in price is called
(b) High solubility low permeability (a) Inelasticity of demand
(c) Low solubility high permeability (b) Price elasticity of demand
(c) Income elasticity of demand
(d) Low solubility low permeability
(d) Cross-price elasticity
180. Which of following benzodiazepine is used as 193. Acid fastness in acid-fast staining is due to the
both anxiolytic and anti-depressant? abundance of:
(a) Alprazolam (b) Diazepam (a) Squalene
(c) Midazolam (d) Chlordiazepoxide (b) Mycolic acid
181. How much is equivalent to one teaspoonful? (c) Peptidoglycan
(a) 4.00 ml. (b) 8.00 ml. (d) Ergosterol
(c) 15.00 ml. (d) 3.20 ml. 194. The study of arthropods of medicinal
182. Posology is study of - importance is termed as:
(a) Herbs (b) Dose of drug (a) Medical ornithonym
(c) Side effect of drug (d) Psoriaris (b) Medical entomology
183. Monsanto apparatus is used for testing of (c) Medical herpetology
________ of tablets. (d) Medical herbology
(a) Hardness (b) Dissolution 195. Schedule S refers to:
(c) Friability (d) Uniformity (a) The standards for cosmetics
184. Which of the following tissue will be affected by (b) The standards biological and special products
(c) The standards for disinfectant fluids
administration of Iodine?
(d) The standards for patents and proprietary
(a) Adipose (b) Bones
medicines
(c) Retina (d) Thyroid
196. The intake of a minimum of 4 to 10 drugs at
185. ________ is the process of removing the same time on a regular therapeutic basis is
mechanically admixed water from a solid called:
substance. (a) Drugs overuse
(a) Distillation (b) Desiccation (b) Drug overdose
(c) Freezing (d) Centrifugation (c) Drug abuse
186. What is the pore size of HEPA filter? (d) Polypharmacy
(a) 0.5 micron (b) 0.3 micron 197. The committee formed in hospital setting that
(c) 0.6 micron (d) 0.8 micron is responsible for overall pharmaceutical care
187. Candle filers are made of – is termed by WHO as:
(a) Unglazed Porcelain (a) PTC (b) DIF
(b) Cellulose (c) DTC (d) DIC
(c) Carboxy methyle cellulose 198. The pharmaceutical Price Regulation Scheme
(d) Asbestos is exercised to have:
188. Which of the following sieve is having smallest (a) Direct control over branded price
mesh aperture size? (b) Indirect control over generic price
(a) Sieve number 4 (c) Indirect control over branded price
(b) Sieve number 6 (d) Direct control over generic price
199. The limit test for arsenic is standardized test by
(c) Sieve number 8
using special type of apparatus. The basic
(d) Sieve number 10
principle of this test is a modification of the
189. Ammonium carbonate acts respiratory
(a) Sulphur test
stimulant by
(b) Gutzeit test
(a) Binding to receptors on lungs. (c) Lead test
(b) Binding to receptor on intercoastal muscles (d) Heavy metals test
(c) Irritating lungs. 200. In Kjeldahl’s method, sample containing
(d) Through CNS. Nitrogen is digests with
190. Antimony potassium tartarate is ______ in (a) Fuming HNO3
taste. (b) Conc.NaoH
(a) Sweet (b) Bitter (c) Strong ammonia solution
(c) Acrid (d) Astringent (d) Conc.H2SO4
353 YCT
 SOLUTION : PRACTICE SET- 10
ANSWER KEY

1. (c) 21. (d) 41. (a) 61. (b) 81. (c) 101.(b) 121. (d) 141. (c) 161. (c) 181. (a)
2. (d) 22. (b) 42. (c) 62. (c) 82. (c) 102. (b) 122. (c) 142. (b) 162. (c) 182. (b)
3. (a) 23. (b) 43. (c) 63. (c) 83. (c) 103. (a) 123. (d) 143. (d) 163. (a) 183. (a)
4. (b) 24. (b) 44. (c) 64. (b) 84. (c) 104. (c) 124. (d) 144. (a) 164. (d) 184. (d)
5. (d) 25. (a) 45. (b) 65. (a) 85.(d) 105. (a) 125. (b) 145. (d) 165. (d) 185. (b)
6. (a) 26. (d) 46. (a) 66. (b) 86. (a) 106. (d) 126. (d) 146. (c) 166. (c) 186. (b)
7. (c) 27. (b) 47. (b) 67. (b) 87. (c) 107. (a) 127. (b) 147. (b) 167. (b) 187. (a)
8. (c) 28. (c) 48. (d) 68. (a) 88. (a) 108. (c) 128. (b) 148. (a) 168. (c) 188. (d)
9. (d) 29. (d) 49. (a) 69. (a) 89. (b) 109. (c) 129. (c) 149. (c) 169. (d) 189. (c)
10. (c) 30. (c) 50. (b) 70. (c) 90. (d) 110. (b) 130. (a) 150. (d) 170. (c) 190. (a)
11. (d) 31. (b) 51. (b) 71. (c) 91. (b) 111. (b) 131. (b) 151. (d) 171. (b) 191. (d)
12. (b) 32. (b) 52. (b) 72. (d) 92.(d) 112. (a) 132. (d) 152. (d) 172. (c) 192. (b)
13. (b) 33. (b) 53. (b) 73. (a) 93. (d) 113. (c) 133. (b) 153. (b) 173. (c) 193. (b)
14. (a) 34. (c) 54. (b) 74. (a) 94. (d) 114. (d) 134. (c) 154. (b) 174. (d) 194. (b)
15. (b) 35. (a) 55. (b) 75. (a) 95.(c) 115. (d) 135. (a) 155. (d) 175. (a) 195. (a)
16.(d) 36. (a) 56. (b) 76. (b) 96. (d) 116. (a) 136. (d) 156. (d) 176. (b) 196. (d)
17. (a) 37. (a) 57. (d) 77. (b) 97. (d) 117. (d) 137. (d) 157. (d) 177. (b) 197. (c)
18. (c) 38. (b) 58. (a) 78. (a) 98. (b) 118. (b) 138. (d) 158. (b) 178. (b) 198. (c)
19. (b) 39. (d) 59. (c) 79. (b) 99. (c) 119. (d) 139. (b) 159. (d) 179. (b) 199. (b)
20. (b) 40. (c) 60. (d) 80. (c) 100.(b) 120. (b) 140. (a) 160. (d) 180. (d) 200. (d)

SOLUTION
1. (c) 6. (a)
Goonj was founded in 1999 by Anshu gupta, for his Minimum age to become the CM is 25 years.
work with goonj, he was awarded the Ramon Posts Minimum Age
Magsaysay Award in 2015. 1. President, Vice President, Governor - 35 years
2. (d) 2. Rajya Sabha Member - 30 years
WHO (World Health Organization) headquarters is 3. Chief Minister, Member of Lok Sabha - 25 years
situated in, Geneva, (Switzerland). This institute was 7. (c)
established on 7 April 1948. The objective of this The Legislative Redundancy of state assembly and
organization is to increase the level of health of world's parliament is examined by Judicial Review. Judicial
people. Review provides power to the court of a country to
3. (a) examine the actions of the legislative, executive, and
Harshavardhana (606-647 CE) was born in 590 AD to administrative whether such action are consistent with
king Prabhakar Vardhana of Thanesar. He belonged to Constitution. Judicial Review is borrowed from the USA.
Pushyabhuti dynasty also called Vardhana dynasty. 8. (c)
4. (b) Suspension of Fundamental Rights during emergency
Sher Shah Suri constructed the Shahi (Royal) road to of Indian constitution is inspired by the Constitution of
strengthen and consolidate his empire from the Indus Germany. The emergency provisions are contained in
valley to the Sonar valley in Bengal. This road was Part XVIII of the Constitution of India, from Article
renamed as Grand Trunk (GT) road during British 352 to 360. These provisions enable the central
period connecting Calcutta and Peshawar. government to meet any abnormal situation effectively.
5. (d) 9. (d)
Asiatic Society of Bengal, a scholarly society, founded 'Right to life' is included in Article-21 of Part III of the
on January 15, 1784 by Sir William Jones, a British Indian constitution. According to Article-21 of the
lawyer. The objective of the society was to promote Indian constitution, No person shall be deprived of his
oriental culture and education. It's headquarters is in life or personal liberty except according to procedure
Kolkata. The society was included in the list of Heritage established by law from time to time many rights have
Sites of national importance, since 1984. been included under Article 21 (By the Hon'ble Courts).
354 YCT
 After interpretation, some rights under Article 21 are So, Cl is the most electronegative element in the given
Court explained article 21. It includes many rights. Like options.
Right to health and human dignity, decent, privacy, 18. (c)
livelihood, shelter, education, free legal aid, against Let there is a homologous series of alkane i.e. CH4,
inhumane treatment, travel abroad, emergency medical C2H6, C3H8,....... There we see that CH2 is the difference
aid, reputation, employment, sleep, electricity etc. in molecular structure. Now molecular mass of CH2 is
10. (c) 12 + 2 = 14
IRS-P4 OceanSat is the first Indian satellite Therefore difference in molecular mass between
manufactured to gather data for oceanographic consequtive homologous series members is 14.
application. Besides, it also collects data for coastal and 19. (b)
atmospheric application. It was launched on 26th May,
Phylum echinodermata animals are exclusively free
1999 by PSLV-C2 from SHAR kendra, Sriharikota,
living marine animal.The Echinoderms are found in sea-
Andhra Pradesh.
depths as well as in the intertidal zones. They have a
11. (d) star-like appearance and are spherical or elongated.
India is eyeing to launch Shukrayaan-I, Venus Mission Phylum Arthropoda, mollusca and nematoda organisms
in 2024. It will be India's first Mission to Venus. belong to freshwater or marine both aquatic habitat.
12. (b) 20. (b)
Everynight the size of Moon varies. The night when The notochord, endoskeleton and bilateral symmetry
complete Moon is visible is called a full Moon. After etc. are characteristic features of vertebrates.
this night the size of Moon continuously gets reduced. Vertebrates are the animals that possess a vertebral
At 15th night from full Moon, the Moon disappears and column or notochord at any point in their lives. Radial
this is known as new Moon. The duration between two symmetry is found in the class Ecinodermata in which
full Moons is of 29. 53 days. It is called a synodic the body of an organism could be divided into two
month. equal halves by cutting through any place passing
13. (b) through the central axis. Animals belonging to phylum
On 8th August 2018, NITI Aayog has signatured a Echinodermata can be equally divided by cutting
Memorandum of Understanding with (CII) through specific radii.
Confederation of Indian Industry on sustainable 21. (d)
development goals. The present Confederation of Indian ‘ceQves Deece KeeÙee nw’ JeekeäÙe DeemeVe Yetlekeâeue ceW nw~ Fme keâeue ceW
Industry (CII) become in 1991, after been renamed from ef›eâÙee kesâ JÙeeheej keâer meceeefhle keâer efvekeâšlee mhe<š nesleer nw~ DevÙe
CEI.
efJekeâuheeW ceW ‘ceesnve DeeÙee, meerlee ieÙeer,’ meeceevÙe Yetlekeâeue, ‘Jen DeeÙee
14. (a)
Lee’ hetCe& Yetlekeâeue leLee ‘let Deelee lees ceQ peelee’ nslegnslegceod Yetlekeâeue kesâ
In July 2022, the Ministry of Women and Child
Development implemented a scheme called Mission JeekeäÙe nQ~
Vatsalya formerly known as Child Protection Services 22. (b)
(CPS) Scheme since 2009-10 for the welfare and JeeÙeg Œeerefuebie Meyo nw~ Mes<e meYeer hegefuuebie nQ~
rehabilitation of children. 23. (b)
15. (b) ‘Gmemes yew"e veneR peelee’ SJeb ‘jece mes KeeÙee veneR peelee’ Ùes oesveeW
The universal law of gravitation was given by Sir Issac JeekeäÙe YeeJeJeeÛÙe kesâ GoenjCe nQ~ ef›eâÙee keâe Jen ™heeblej efpememes
Newton. According to this law, the attractive force keâlee&, keâce& Ùee YeeJe keâer ØeOeevelee Øekeâš nesleer nw, ‘JeeÛÙe’ keânueelee nw~
between any two objects in the universe is directly
proportional to the product of their masses and inversely
YeeJeJeeÛÙe ceW ‘ef›eâÙee’ YeeJe kesâ Deveg™he nesleer nw, FmeceW meowJe Dekeâce&keâ
proportional to the square of distance between them. ef›eâÙee keâe ØeÙeesie neslee nw~ YeeJeJeeÛÙe keâer ef›eâÙee meowJe SkeâJeÛeve ceW
nesleer nw~
Gm1m 2
⇒ F= 24. (b)
r2
‘me=peve Deewj Glheeove’ %eeve kesâ nesves keâer DeefveJeeÙe& Mele& nw~ ÚtBÚe %eeve
Where G is the universal gravitational constant and its pees keâce& keâer keâmeewšer hej Keje ve Glejs, pees meceepe Deewj ceeveJelee keâes
value is 6.67×10–11 Nm2/kg2
kegâÚ ve os mekesâ, efvejLe&keâ neslee nw~
16.(d)
25. (a)
Any object falls freely in a vacuum because there is no
effect of friction on the object. DevegÛÚso kesâ DeeOeej hej keâne pee mekeâlee nw efkeâ ieeBJe ceW vekeâejelcekeâ
17. (a) heefjJele&ve Yeer ngS nQ~ ieÅeebMe ceW mhe° keâne ieÙee nw efkeâ ieeBJe Deheves
As we move from left to right atomic radius of cetuemJe™he ceW Skeâ JesOeMeeuee nw, peneB %eeve keâes keâce& keâer keâmeewšer hej
elements decreases, effective nuclear charge increases keâmee peelee nw~ hejvleg Deepe ieeBJe iejeryeer, DeefMe#ee, De%eeve,
hence electronegativity increase. DebOeefJeMJeeme, yeerceejer kesâ efueS peevee peelee nw~
355 YCT
26. (d) 37. (a)
ieeBJe keâes "erkeâ mes mecePeves kesâ efueS mJeÙeb ieeBJe ceW peevee pe™jer nw~ ‘ceerje peesj mes nBmeer’ Ùen JeekeäÙe Dekeâce&keâ ef›eâÙee keâe mecegefÛele GoenjCe
ieÅeebMe ceW keâne ieÙee nw efkeâ Ssmee keâesF& Yeer efJeÛeej ieeBJeeW keâes DeeBKeeW mes nw~ Ssmeer ef›eâÙeeSB efpemekeâe ØeYeeJe keâlee& hej heÌ[s leLee Gmekesâ mecheeove
osKes efyevee, mJeÙeb osKe keâj mecePes efyevee veneR efkeâÙee pee mekeâlee~ nsleg keâce& keâer DeeJeMÙekeâlee ve nes, Dekeâce&keâ ef›eâÙeeSB keânueeleer nQ~ ÙeneB
27. (b) ‘nBmeves’ keâe ØeYeeJe kesâJeue ceerje (keâlee&) hej heÌ[ jne nw; Dele: ÙeneB
efpeme Øekeâej ØeÙeesieMeeuee ceW efmeæebleeW keâes ØeÙeesie Éeje efmeæ efkeâÙee Dekeâce&keâ ef›eâÙee nw~
peelee nw, Gmeer Øekeâej ieeBJe ceW %eeve keâes keâce& keâer keâmeewšer hej keâmee peelee 38. (b)
nw~ Ùener keâejCe nw efkeâ ieeBJe keâes ØeÙeesieMeeuee keâne ieÙee nw~ ‘Gvekesâ efyevee legce kegâÚ veneR nes’ JeekeäÙe ceW ‘efyevee’ cetue mecyevOeyeesOekeâ
28. (c) Meyo nw~
‘heâmš& nQ[ mecePe’ mes leelheÙe& nw– mJeÙeb kesâ DevegYeJe mes mecePe yeveevee~ 39. (d)
DevegYeJe Éeje Øeehle %eeve efmLej neslee nw Deewj Jen nceejer mecePe ceW Je=efæ ‘meYeer efÛeefªÙeeB [ekeâ mes Yespeer ieFË~’ Fme JeekeäÙe ceW
keâjlee nw~
[ekeâ – keâjCe keâejkeâ, Yespeer ieF&- ef›eâÙee, meYeer-efJeMes<eCe leLee efÛeefªÙeeB
29. (d)
‘meesvee’ keâe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer Meyo ‘keâvekeâ’ nw~ Fmekesâ DevÙe heÙee&Ùe nQ– – keâòee& (œeerefuebie Meyo) nQ~
40. (c)
mJeCe&, megJeCe&, nsce, neškeâ, kebâÛeve Deeefo~ Deke&â keâe heÙee&ÙeJeeÛeer–
metÙe&, jefJe, Yeeveg, efovekeâj, efoJeekeâj, Yeemkeâj Deeefo nw~ `leerve' Meyo leodYeJe nw~ Fmekeâe lelmece ¤he `$eerefCe' neslee nw~ Mes<e
30. (c) meYeer lelmece Meyo nw~ peue, veive SJeb YeÇcej keâe leodYeJe ›eâceMe:
‘meghle’ keâe efJe®æeLeea peeie=le nw~ ‘"b[er’ keâe efJeueesce ‘iejceer’ nw~ heeveer, vebiee leLee YeeQje neslee nw~
31. (b) 41. (a)
Devle:mLe Je T<ce JeCeeX keâer kegâue mebKÙee 8 nw~ efnvoer JeCe&ceeuee ceW Just– (vÙeeÙeesefÛele/vÙeeÙemebiele), Synonym - 'fair' (efve<he#e)~
kegâue 52 OJeefveÙeeB nQ, efpeveceW mes 4 Devle:mLe JÙebpeve leLee 4 T<ce DevÙe MeyoeW kesâ DeLe& nQ–
JÙebpeve nQ~ Ùe, j, ue, Je JeCe& Devle:mLe JÙebpeve leLee Me, <e, me, n Favouring – he#e uesvee
T<ce JÙebpeve keânueeles nQ~ Courtly – meYÙe, megMeerue
32. (b) Partial – DeebefMekeâ
(?) Ùen ‘ØeMveJeeÛekeâ efÛendve’ nw~ ØeMveJeeÛekeâ efÛendve keâe ØeÙeesie 42. (c)
ØeMveJeeÛekeâ JeekeäÙeeW kesâ Devle ceW efkeâÙee peelee nw~ Fmekesâ Deefleefjòeâ ‘peneB Jeopardize- (Kelejs ceW [euevee), antonym - Protect (j#ee
efmLeefle efveef§ele ve nes’ leLee ‘JÙebiÙeesefòeâÙeeW’ ceW Yeer Fmekeâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee keâjvee)~ DevÙe MeyoeW kesâ DeLe& nQ-
peelee nw, efkeâvleg kegâÚ heefjefmLeefleÙeeW ceW Ùen ØeÙegòeâ veneR neslee nw; pewmes– Threaten- Oecekeâer osvee
1. Ssmes JeekeäÙe efpeveceW ØeMve Dee%ee kesâ ™he ceW neW, JeneB Fmekeâe ØeÙeesie
Imperil- peesefKece ceW [euevee
venerb neslee; GoenjCe- Yeejle keâer jepeOeeveer yeleeDees~
Hazard- Keleje, peesefKece
2. efpeve JeekeäÙeeW ceW ØeMveJeeÛekeâ Meyo mecyevOeJeeÛekeâ MeyoeW keâer YeeBefle
43. (c)
ØeÙegòeâ nesles nQ, GveceW ØeMveJeeÛekeâ efJejece efÛendve ØeÙegòeâ veneR neslee
efoÙes ieÙes group of words 'To cross streets on foot
nw; GoenjCe– Jen veneR peevelee efkeâ ceQ keäÙee Ûeenlee nBt~
carelessly' kesâ efueS Skeâ Meyo 'jaywalk' (jemlee heej keâjves ceW
33. (b)
ueehejJeener keâjvee) nesiee~
‘cegcet<eg&’ Megæ Jele&veer Jeeuee Meyo nw, peyeefkeâ DevÙe efJekeâuhe heefj#ee,
DevÙe efJekeâuheeW kesâ DeLe& nQ- stroll - šnuevee, wander - YeüceCe
hejerKee DeMegæ Meyo nQ efpevekeâe Megæ ™he nesiee– ‘hejer#ee’~
34. (c)
keâjvee, catwalk - meBkeâje heLe
efoÙes ieÙes MeyoeW ceW ‘meYee’ Meyo mecetnJeeÛekeâ meb%ee nw, peyeefkeâ DevÙe 44. (c)
Meyo ‘nje’, ‘heleuee’ leLee ‘ienje’ efJeMes<eCe nQ~ mecetnJeeÛekeâ meb%ee kesâ efoÙes ieÙes idiom/phrase 'Jumped the gun' keâe DeLe& nw-
DevÙe ØecegKe GoenjCe– mesvee, hegefueme, heefjJeej, meefceefle, Jeie&, 'acted hastily' (MeerIeÇlee mes keâeÙe& keâjvee)~ DevÙe efJekeâuhe efYeVe
keâce&Ûeejer Deeefo nQ~ DeLe& osles nQ~
35. (a) 45. (b)
efoÙes ieÙes efJekeâuheeW ceW ‘Ùen’ meJe&veece nw, peyeefkeâ meYee, ceveg<Ùe leLee Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe ceW 'angry on' kesâ mLeeve hej 'angry at' keâe ØeÙeesie
efnceeueÙe meb%ee nQ~ ‘meYee’ mecetnJeeÛekeâ, ‘ceveg<Ùe’ peeefleJeeÛekeâ SJeb nesiee~
‘efnceeueÙe’ JÙeefòeâJeeÛekeâ meb%ee nw~ keäÙeeWefkeâ angry keâe ØeÙeesie efvecve ™he mes neslee nw~
36. (a) angry on something/material.
ØeMveiele JeekeäÙe ceW ‘Jen’ meeJe&veeefcekeâ efJeMes<eCe nw~ meb%ee kesâ yeoues pees angry at somebody/someone.
Meyo Deelee nw, Gmes meJe&veece keânles nQ~ peye Ùener efJeMes<eCe kesâ meceeve Correct sentence- The Principal was extremely angry
ØeÙegòeâ neW, leye meeJe&veeefcekeâ efJeMes<eCe keânueeles nQ~ pewmes- Jen, Jes, at the boys who threw the pieces of chalk at the
ceQ, legce Deeefo~ teacher.
356 YCT
46. (a) 53. (b)
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe ceW 'In case that' kesâ mLeeve hej conjunction Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ jsKeeefkebâle Yeeie ceW I Purchase keâs mLeeve hej I
'because' keâe ØeÙeesie GefÛele nw~ keäÙeeWefkeâ Conjunction 'because' will purchase keâe heÇÙeesie GheÙegkeäle nesiee~
keâe ØeÙeesie keâejCe oMee&ves (reason) kesâ efueS efkeâÙee peelee nw~ pees efkeâ Note-
JeekeäÙe kesâ efueÙes GheÙegòeâ DeLe& oslee nw~ (i) If + Present Tense - will + verb1
Correct sentence - (ii) If + Past Tense - would + verb1
We had to decline several orders because the production (iii) If + Past Perfect - would have + VIII
was held up due to labour strike.
47. (b) Correct Sentence -
If I have money, I will purchase this house.
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe ceW efjòeâ mLeeve ceW Preposition 'of' keâe ØeÙeesie
54. (b)
GheÙegòeâ nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ descendant kesâ meeLe preposition of keâe Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ jsKeeefkebâle Yeeie 'isn't it' kesâ mLeeve hej wasn't it
ØeÙeesie keâjles nQ~ keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ Positive Sentence keâe Question tag
Correct sentence- He is a descendant of the Mughal ncesMee Negative neslee nw~ Deewj meceeve tense keâer verb ØeÙegòeâ nesleer
royalty.
nw~ Ûetbefkeâ JeekeäÙe keâer verb (was) nw~ Dele: tag Yeer was mes yevesiee~
48. (d)
Correct Sentence–
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ efjòeâ mLeeve ceW on (preposition) keâe ØeÙeesie The tree was uprooted by the storm last evening, wasn't
GheÙegòeâ nesiee, keäÙeeWefkeâ congratulated kesâ meeLe 'on' preposition it?
ØeÙegòeâ neslee nw~ 55. (b)
Correct sentence- I congratulated him on his Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ jsKeebefkeâle Yeeie ceW palace kesâ mLeeve hej
promotion. Adjective 'Palatial' (DeeueerMeeve) keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ Ùen
49. (a) JeekeäÙe kesâ YeeJe kesâ Devegmeej GefÛele DeLe& oslee nw~
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe kesâ efjòeâ mLeeve ceW 'to' keâe ØeÙeesie nesiee, keäÙeeWefkeâ Correct Sentence–What a palatial home!
'date back to' phrase neslee nw efpemekeâe DeLe& nw– 'to have 56. (b)
originated at an earlier time'. According to the passage ITPO stands for "India
Correct sentence- The origin of ice-cream dates back Trade Promotion Organisation." Hence option (b) will
to nearly half-a-century. be correct answer.
50. (b) 57. (d)
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe ceW was sprinkled (passive) ve neskeâj According to the passage "Conferences, seminars, live
product demonstrations and presentations" are the
sprinkled (active) keâe ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ nesiee~ keäÙeeWefkeâ efoÙee ieÙee
regular of such trade fairs. Hence option (d) will be
JeekeäÙe, past indefinite kesâ Active voice ceW nw, Dele: ÙeneB hej correct answer.
past indefinite keâe structure ØeÙegòeâ nesiee~ 58. (a)
subject + verb 2 + object + other words According to the passage the trade fair an effective
way of promoting products is "It brings together the
Correct sentence :- maximum number of manufacturers, suppliers and
Seema sprinkled the cashews over the pie to garnish it. buyers in a single place." Hence option (a) will be
51. (b) correct answer.
Ghejesòeâ jsKeebefkeâle JeekeäÙe have been working kesâ mLeeve hej 59. (c)
have worked keâe ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ nesiee keäÙeeWefkeâ JeekeäÙe ceW before According to the passage 'Under the same roof' is an
idiom which means "at one place." Hence option (c)
kesâ ØeÙeesie mes mhe° nw efkeâ keâeÙe& kesâ hetCe& nesves keâe YeeJe nw Dele: JeekeäÙe will be correct answer.
present perfect tense ceW nesiee~ FmeefueS have GheÙegòeâ nesiee~ 60. (d)
Correct Sentence - I have worked with children According to the passage the main purpose of
before, so I know that to expect. organizing trade fair is "sales promotion." Hence
52. (b) option (d) will be correct answer.
Ghejesòeâ JeekeäÙe ceW help you add power kesâ mLeeve hej helps 61. (b)
you add power keâe ØeÙeesie GheÙegòeâ nesiee, keäÙeeWefkeâ 'Each' keâe According to the question-
ØeÙeesie subject keâer lejn ØeÙegòeâ nesves hej Fmes singular ceevee peelee Last year, Ranjans monthly salary = `34,500
This year his monthly salary = `38640
nw~ Dele: Fmekesâ meeLe singular verb keâe ØeÙeesie efkeâÙee peelee nw~
4140
Correct sentence– Knowing the particular things that Salary increase (In percentage) = × 100
motivate each person helps you add power to their 34500
motivation. = 12%
357 YCT
62. (c) 6k = 8
From formula, 8 4
k= =
x 6 3
Decrease % = ×100
100 + x 4
25 So k = should be added to each number.
So, % decrease in the salary = ×100 3
100 + 25 66. (b)
25 Let the initial price of an item = `x
= × 100
125 According to the question,
100 90 90 90
= = 20% ⇒ x× × × = 25515
5 100 100 100
63. (c)
x × 729
By given data:– ⇒ = 25515
1000
Increase in side of square = 50%
25515 × 1000

Percentage increase in area of square =  a + b +
ab  ⇒ x=
% 729
 100 
∴ Percentage increase in area of square ⇒ x= 35 × 1000
 50 × 50  x = ` 35000
=  50 + 50 +  % = 100 + 25 = 125% 67. (b)
 100 
Cost price of stereo system for shopkeeper
64. (b)
A : (B+C) = 3 : 5 2000 × (100 − 10 )  100 − 15 
= × 
4800 × 3 100  100 
A= =`1800
8 90 85
= 2000 × ×
4800 × 5 100 100
B+C = =` 3000
8 = `1530
B + C = 3000 ........ (i) Total expense = 1530 + 70 = 1600
5 Profit = 2000–1600 = 400
C = ( A + B) ×
7 Profit ×100 400×100
Profit % = = = 25%
7C = 5 (A+B) Cost price 1600
7C – 5B = 5A 68. (a)
7C – 5B = 5 × 1800 Let the invested sum = ` P
7C – 5B = 9000 ........ (ii) According to the question,
Multiplying equation (i) by 7 and substracting equation
P × 4 × ( R + 2) P × 4 × R
(ii) − = 640
100 100
7C + 7B = 21000
4P
7C – 5B = 9000 ⇒ [ R + 2 − R ] = 640
– + – 100
12B = 12000 8P
B = 1000
⇒ = 640
100
The difference of A's share and B's share
640 ×100
= `1800 – `1000 ⇒ P=
8
= `800
P = ` 8000
65. (a)
69. (a)
Let the number be added is k.
Then, Given– Rate (R) = Time (t)
4 + k : 8 + k : : 12 + k : 22 + k P×R ×T
simple interest =
4 + k 12 + k 100
=
8 + k 22 + k 2400 × R × R
( 3264 − 2400 ) =
88 + 4k + 22k + k2 = 96 + 12k + 8 k + k2 100
88 + 26k = 96 + 20 k 864 = 24 × R 2

358 YCT
 864 Compound Interest annually = `11.25
R2 =
24  Rate  t 
R2 = 36 ∴ C.I. = P 1 +  − 1
R = 6%  100  
70. (c)  R 
1
  ∵ Rate = R 
11.25 = 225 1 +  − 1  
Given,
 100   Time = 1year 
20
R= = 10% (half yearly) R
2 11.25 = 225 ×
100
t = 1 year = 2 (half year)
P = ` 16000 R = 5%
According to question, 73. (a)
t Let the time taken by Q · x days
 R 
A = P 1 +  Then time taken by P · 1.5x days
 100 
2
One day work of (P + Q)
 10 
= 16000 1 +  1
+
1
=
1
 100  x 1.5x 18
2
 11  1.5 + 1 1
= 16000   =
 10  1.5x 18
= 160 × 121 2.5 1
=
= ` 19,360 1.5x 18
71. (c)
18 × 2.5
Let principal· ` P, Rate · 10%, t = 1 Year x= = 30
1.5
As per the question, So Q alone will complete that work in 30 days.
P×r× t 74. (a)
400 =
100 ∵ One day work of one man = 1/8
P ×10 × 1 One day work of one woman= 1/12
400 =
100 ⇒M:W=3:2 ⇒ 2M=3W ...(i)
P = ` 4000 Let x woman need with two males
R = 10%, t = 2 (Half yearly) According to the question,
2

· P  1 +
r  1W × 12 = (3W + xW) × 2 {∵ 2M = 3W}
Amount 
 2 × 100  ⇒ 12W = 6W + 2xW
2 ⇒ 6 + 2x = 12
 r 
⇒ P 1 +  ⇒ 2x = 6
 2 × 100 
⇒x=3
2
 10  75. (a)
⇒ 4000 1 + 
 200  Efficiency ratio of Rahul and Raghav · 8:5
2 Number of flowers plucked by Raghav
 21 
⇒ 4000   5
 20  = 260 × = 100
13
21 21
⇒ 4000 × × 76. (b)
20 20
Production of arm chairs by company Z in year 2017 =
⇒ ` 4410 30 lakh
Compound interest · Amount – Principal Production of arm chiars by company Y in year 2014 =
Compound interest · 4410 – 4000 = `410 35 lakh
72. (d) Thus, the ratio of the production of arm chairs of
From question, company Z in the year 2017 to that of company Y in the
30 6
Difference between two compound interest year 2014 = =
= 236.25 – 225 35 7
= `11.25 Hence, required ratio · 6 : 7
359 YCT
77. (b) Similarly,
Total average age of 10 students
= 16 × 10 = 160 years
Total average age of remaining 8 students = 8 × 16.25
= 130 years
Total age of dropout students = 160–130 = 30 years Hence, ? = HJLN
78. (a) 83. (c)
Let the second number = x Just as,
x 12 × 4 – 2 = 46
∴ First number =
3 Same as,
x 18 × 4 – 2 = 70
Third number =
2 Hence, ? = 70
∴ From question, 84. (c)
Just as, a triangle is formed inside the quadrilateral in the
x x first figure, whereas a quadrilateral is formed inside the
+x+
3 2 = 66 triangle in the second figure. Similarly, a hexagon is
3 formed inside the pentagon in the third figure, then in the
2x + 6x + 3x next figure there will be a pentagon inside the hexagon.
⇒ = 66 Hence, option (c) is correct.
6×3
85.(d)
11x
⇒ = 66 Just as, And,
18
⇒ x = 6 × 18 = 108
 x  108
∴ First number =   = = 36
3 3 Similarly,
79. (b)
1.427 = 1 + 427
427 − 4
= 1+
990 Hence CITY will be written as 'EJSW'.
423 47 157 86. (a)
= 1+ = 1+ = From the given options,
990 110 110
80. (c) (a) M  +1
→ N +1→O
Tanveer Yusuf Sachin +2→ I 
+2→ K
(b) G 
2 : 3 :
+2→ C 
(c) A  +2→ E
1 : 2
2 : 3 : 6 +2→ W 
(d) U  +2→ Y
3 3
∴Total expenditure by Yusuf = = Hence, option (a) is different.
( 2 + 3 + 6 ) 11
87. (c)
81. (c) The shapes a, b, c are divided into four equal parts
Just as, 100 cm makes 1 meter, in the same way 100 whereas the two figures are made on top of each other
paise makes 1 rupee. in shape d. So that the shape d is different. Hence,
Hence, option (c) will be correct answer. option ‘c’ is correct.
88. (a)
82. (c)
The given series are as follows:-
Just as,

Hence, 130 will replace (?).

360 YCT
89. (b) 95.(c)
Just as the inner figure in the first figure is outside of According to Venn diagram,
the second figures same as the third figure inside will be TV, Camera and Train are different from one another.
outside the fourth figure. Hence, the figure A will come
in place of question mark. Hence, option (b) is correct.
90. (d)
The given pattern is as follows :-
Hence, option (c) is correct.
96. (d)
On drawing the Venn diagram as per statement.
Hence, ? = W
91. (b)
On drawing blood relation diagram according to the
question,

Hence, Both conclusion 1 and 2 are follow.

97. (d)
According to the question.

Hence, the boy in the picture is Neel's nephew.

92.(d)
On drawing blood relation diagram according to the Therefore only conclusion I follows.
question,
98. (b)
Only conclusion I follows the statement logically.
99. (c)
Answer figure B is included in question figure. So,
option (c) is correct.
100. (b)
Hence, Z is Cousin of W.
93. (d)
Given,
24 + 48 – 12 × 4 ÷ 2 = ? Triangle made from 1 digit = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 = 8
On changing the symbols, Triangle made from 2 digits = (1,2) (3,4) (5,6) (7,8) = 4
= 24 – 48 ÷ 12 + 4 × 2 Triangle made from 4 digits = (3,4,5,6) (8,7,6,5)
= 24 – 4 + 8 (2,1,8,7) (1,2,3,4) = 4
= 28 Hence, Total no. of triangles in the figure = 8 + 4 + 4
94. (d) = 16
Given, 101. (b)
72 8 5 4 · 49 Gelatin is a protein made from animal collagen, usually
From option (d), from cows and pigs. It's commonly used to make
capsules, cosmetics, ointments and foods. It is
72÷8×5+4 = 49
commonly utilized as a gelling agent.
72
× 5 + 4 = 49 • It was selected as encapsulating material because
8 being commonly used as a food ingredient it possesses
9×5+4 = 49 unique gelation properties and is commercially
49 = 49 (LHS = RHS) available at a low cost.
361 YCT
 102. (b) • The molecular formula of calamine is Fe2O4Zn.
A digestive enzyme functional only in infants in gastric • Calamine has no virtues over zinc oxide, and many
lipase. Intragastric lipolysis is probably of major disadvantages.
importance in the newborn and especially in the 109. (c)
premature infants. Gastric lipase is essential for infant Organophosphates and carbamates are common
fat digestion. insecticide ingredients that inhibit cholinesterase activity
103. (a) causing acute muscarinic manifestations. Atropine
ABC is an important inventory control technique that is sulfate is used as an antidote for organophosphate and
useful in determining how much to order. It classifies the carbamate poisoning. In this type of poisoning actually
inventory items based on the items consumption values. atropine is given to relieve bronchospasm and
104. bronchorrhea while another antidote pralidoxime (2.
(c) Heart of the patient counselling session is the PAM) is given after atropine to relieve neuromuscular
counselling content. During this step it has been symptoms.
explained to the patient by a pharmacist about his or her 110. (b)
medications and treatment regimens. Vesicular drug delivery is important tool for targeted
105. (a) delivery of drugs , as it has the ability of localize the
Lugols iodine, also known as lugol's solution, first made activity of drugs.
in 1829 is a solution of iodine named after the French There are various types of vesicular drug delivery
physician J.G.A. Lugol. Lugol's iodine solution is often system like liposome, niosome and transferosome etc.
used as an antiseptic and disinfectant, a starch indicator, 111. (b)
to replenish iodine deficiency, to protect the thyroid In a cyclonic separator suspension of solid in gas
gland from radioactive materials (e.g. "fallout") and for (mixture) is introduced through the cylindrical chamber
emergency disinfection of drinking water . tangentially at one or more points and leaves through a
• It consists of 5% iodine (I2) and 10% KI in 85% central opening.
distilled water with a total iodine content of 130 mg /mL 112. (a)
• It is obtained from chemists and pharmacists who are The evaporating pan is heated with steam. The steam
licensed to prepare and dispense the solution. jacketed kettle or evaporating pan is an evaporator that
• Other names for Lugol's solution are IKI (Iodine can be used for the bulk evaporation of water from
potassium - Iodide); Iodine strong solution (systemic); aqueous liquids.
113. (c)
Aqueous Iodine solution BP.
Weight variations in tablet processing is caused by non
• Lugols was often used in the treatment of gout and was uniform granule size distribution, poor flow of granules
used as a first line treatment for hypothyroidism in etc. but high speed of turret is not the factor to effect the
adults. weight variation in tablets.
106. (d) 114. (d)
Hydrogen peroxide is used as a disinfectant or antiseptic Friability test in not an official test as per Indian
to prevent plaque and inflammation of the gums. pharmacopoeia. Friability is the ability of the grains to
It is also used as a bleaching agent, source of power, in break down into smaller pieces under duress or contact,
the restoration of old paintings in which lead oxide is especially by rubbing.
used as a white paint, antiseptic and germicide. 115. (d)
107. (a) A transparent or translucent semisolid preparation used
Selenium sulphide (SeS2) is used for treating dandruff. It to treat skin is a jelly. Jellies are chiefly used on mucous
membrane and skin for their antiseptic properties. These
is an anti-infective agent, relieves itching, flaking of the
jellies contain sufficient water.
scalp and removes the dry, scaly particles that are
116. (a)
commonly known as dandruff. Selenium sulfide is also
Cyclonic separator (or dust collectors) are a type of
used to treat tinea vesicular, a fungal infection of the inertial separator. In this equipment the dust and particle
slain. laden air or gas (mixture) enters the cylindrical chamber
108. (c) tangentially at one or more points and leaves through a
Calamine is an ore of zinc. It is zinc carbonate with the central opening.
chemical formula, ZnCO3. Calamine is a mild base. 117. (d)
• Calamine also known as calamine lotion. It is used to Any substance or a drug that is used to induce the flow
relieve the itching, pain, and discomfort of minor skin of bile from the gall bladder into duodenum is called
irritations, such as those caused by poison ivy, poison cholagogue. the leaves of the globe artichoke being used
oak, and poision sumac. chiefly as a cholagogue.
362 YCT
118. (b) IV intravenous
At acidic pH (low pH) amino acid acts as a base and P.C. post cibum after meals
remains in cationic form.
noct. nocte at night
119. (d)
q.h. quaque hora every hour
Medically oxygen is used to care for the patients with
heart failure, asthma, during surgery etc and also when a 124. (d)
Liniments differ from lotions, as liniments do not
person suffers from carbon monoxide poisoning. Oxygen
contain simple salt like ZnSO4.
is not used in soft drinks, instead CO2 (carbon dioxide) is
• Lotion:- The lotion is a low to medium viscosity
used in these drinks.
topical preparation that should be applied to undamaged
120. (b) skin, whereas liniment is a topical medical preparation
Nitrous oxide commonly known as laughing gas and its that should be rubbed into the skin with friction.
chemical formula is N2O Nitrous oxide is stored in blue • Liniments are commonly used to relieve pain and
steel cylinders as a colorless liquid under 745 psi stiffness caused by sore muscle, aches and strains or
pressure. arthritis. Lotions are applied to the skin surface with
121. (d) bare hands, a brush, or a clean cloth, cotton wool or
The method in which the drug is suspended in the oily gauze.
vehicle and rubbed into the skin is called inunction. 125. (b)
122.(c) Particles settle slowly is not correct for flocculated
Incompatibility:- It is defined as when two or more suspensions. Flocculation is a process, where the small
ingredients of a prescription are mixed together, the particle in suspension are caused to a aggregate, giving
undesired changes that may takes place in the physical, large cluster that are much more easily separated than
the original particles.
chemical or therapeutic properties of medication is
• Flocculation is a process that is widely used in
termed as incompatibility.
Industrial application such a biotechnology, mineral
• Three classes of drug incompatibility;
processing , water & waste treatment etc.
1. Physical in compatibility
126. (d)
2. Chemical compatibility Latin terms in the names of indications for treatment are
3. Therapeutic compatibility widely used in the modern clinical settings all over the
• Physical incompatibilities can be corrected by one or world. This is due to the fact that these terms are
more methods viz. transnational, stable, and internationally understood.
1. Order of mixing Latin language is used in prescription;
2. Alteration of solvent • For precise communication.
3. Changes in the form of in gradients • Patient may not read prescription easily.
4. Alteration of volume • Widely understood language in medical professionals.
5. Accurate choice of emulgent and suspending agent ⇒ 127. (b)
Addition. (A) Ω-1–––––– Electrical conductance
123. (d) (B) Λ –––––––Equivalent conductance
Some partial list of prescription abbreviations are (C) k –––––––– Specific conductance
given below- (D) ρ ––––––––– Specific resistance
Abbreviation Latin Meaning 128. (b)
aa ana of each Cottrell's method and Land Berger's method are used for
measuring the elevation of the boiling point.
ad ad up to
129. (c)
a.c. ante cibum before meals Correct match for the statements in
a.m. ante morning, before list -1 with answers of list -II and as follows-
meridiem noon List-I List-II
b.i.d. bis in die twice daily A. Constant heat (q=0 Adiabatic
h,hr hora hour B. Reversible process at Isothermal
h.s. hora somni at bedtime constant temperature (d
ID intradermal T=0)
IM intramuscular C. Constant volume (d Isometric
(with respect to V=0)
injections) D. Constant pressure d Isobar
IP intraperitoneal p=0

363 YCT
130. (a) 138. (d)
Hemes are red colored, iron containing porphyrins pH of phosphate buffer is between 5.8 – 8.0.
which belong to the class of tetrapyrroles. Phosphate buffer– Phosphate buffer is highly water
131. (b) soluble and has a high buffering capacity, but will
Troches tablets is used in oral cavity. Troches are inhibit enzymatic activity and precipitates in ethanol.
flavored, medicated lozenges that easily dissolve in the Gomori buffers, the most commonly used phosphate
mouth. Troches are placed in the mouth between the gum buffers, consist of a mixture of monobasic dihydrogen
and the cheek, (buccal) or under the tongue (Sublingual). phoshpate & disbasic monohydrogen phosphate.
The route of administration allows medication to enter 139. (b)
the blood stream directly from mouth E.g.- Clotrimazole According to Bronsted - Lowry theory acid is substance
Troches and nystatin rinse and pastilles, etc. which donates an H+ ion or a proton and forms its
132. (d)
conjugate base.
Polyvinyl acetate phthalate (PVAP) is a commonly used
140. (a)
polymer phthalate in the formulation of pharmaceuticals,
such as the enteric coating of tablets or capsules. Halogenation is procedure of hypohalite
It is a vinyl acetate polymer that is partially hydrolyzed (XO–) type antiseptic reaction.
and then esterifies with phthalic acid. ♦ Iodine is used as an antiseptic in the form of an
133. (b) alcoholic solution which is known as tincture of iodine.
Friability test is performed of asses to ability of the tablet ♦ Protein precipitation is widely used in downstream
to with stand abrasion in packaging, handling and processing of biological products in order to concentrate
transportation. proteins and purify them from various contaminants.
Friability is when a tablet has the tendency to chip, 141. (c)
crumble or break during transportation. Pyrogens are fever-inducing substance usually derived
This can happen when the tablet is being handled, from microorganisms [endotoxins or lipopdysaccharide
packaged or transported and may mean the patient
(LPS)] and when present systemically in sufficient
receives an incorrect dose.
quantity can lead to severe signs of inflammation shock
Friability test formula-
etc.
W1 – W2 A typical procedure for dehydrogenation of glassware
Friability (%) = × 100
W1 and equipment is maintaining a dry heat temperature of
Where, W1 = Weight of tablet (Before tumbling), 2100C for 4h.
W2 = Weight of tablet (After tumbling) 142. (b)
Limit - Friability (%) = Not more than 1.0% Bloom or gel strength It is a measure of cohesive
134. (c) strength of cross-linkage that occurs between molecules
Hypodermic needle sizes are expressed by gauge and is proportional to the molecular weight of the
numbers. The gauge number refers to the external gelatin.
diameter of the cannula. 143. (d)
135. (a) Stability index, determined for evaluating the stability of
Ammonium chloride are compounds capable of acting as oil-water viscous emulsions, based on electric
antimicrobial agents through an oxidizing mechanism. conductivity changes during non- destructive short
• The oxidizing activity of hydrogen peroxide results heating -cooling -heating cycles- is defined as ∆/h, where
from the presence of the extra oxygen atom compared h is the change in the conductivity between 35ºC and
with the structure of water. 45ºC and ∆ is the conductivity interval within the two
136. (d) heating curves at 35ºC, it indicates the relative change in
A titration is a laboratory technique used to precisely conductivity between two cycles.
measure molar concentration of an unknown solution 144. (a)
using a known solution. In the process of sugar coating, to prevent moisture
137. (d) penetration into tablet core, seal coating is performed. It
Buffer resistant reaction is a maximum when is done when the core of tablet get dry seal coating
concentration of acid is equal to base. protects the tablet as the core of the tablet is usually
[Conjugate Base] weak and has high propensity for disintegration.
pH = pka + log 145. (d)
[Acid]
Native starch is classical disintegrant and remain the
pH = pka + log 1 popular disintegrant used in many conventional tablets
pH = pka and capsules of generic and branded drug products.
364 YCT
Maize and potato starches are the most commonly used Where, dc/dt = dissolution rate of the drug.
as starch for the purpose. k = dissolution rate constant.
The most commonly used glidant is colloidal silica (It is Cs = Concentration of drug in stagnant layer
also known as colloidal silicon dioxide), which can be Cb = Concentration of drug in bulk of the solution at
used in concentrations as low as 0.2 w/w% e.g.- time t.
magnesium stearate, magnesium carbonate and fumed • Disintegrating agent added before & after the
silica. granulation affects the dissolution rate.
146. (c) • The dissolution rate of drug from tablet may be
The drug price control order (DPCO) is an order issued increased by increasing the concentration of
by the central government of India under Sec. 3 of disintegrant.
essential commodities Act, 1955 to regulate the prices of 153. (b)
drugs and their formulations. In pharmaceutical emulsions the rate of creaming is
147. (b) increased as the diameter of the internal phase is
The antiseptic which is an acridine derivative proflavine, increased.
proflavine also called proflavin and diaminoacridine is 154. (b)
an acriflavine derivative a disinfeatant bacteriostatic Term cytoplasm refers to the living substance or
against many gram positive bacteria. Proflavine is an protoplast found within a cell, including the Nucleus,
acriflavine derivative. Eduard strans burger created the word cytoplasm.
148. (a) → The cytoplasm is the gel- like fluid inside the cell. It
is the medium for chemical reaction. It provides a plate
These two antibiotics were selected due to their frequent
form upon which other organelles can operate within the
use in association co-trimoxazole in a 51 ratio (SMX
cell.
TMP) for medication, purposes, generating a unique
155. (d)
opportunity to globally a evaluate the validity of this
ratio based on concentration values. Liquefied phenol has 80% of phenol by weight in water.
• Phenol is an antibacterial drug which comes in
149. (c)
different forms. The main types are 80% aqueous
The heterocyclic system present in isoniazid is pyridine.
(liquefied) phenol used topically in podiatry for removal
Pyridine is a heterocyclic compound which is a
of ingrown toenails.
colourless to yellow liquid with a chemical formula
Liquefied phenol is a solution of phenol containing
C5H5N. It is basic heterocyclic organic compound. It is
∼10% water.
also known as Azine
→ Pyrazole is an organic compound with the formula
C3H3N2H.
150. (d)
Aluminum chlorohydrate is one of the most common
active ingredients in commercial commonly used in
156. (d)
deodorants and antiperspirants is Al2 Cl (OH)5
Barbituric acid not have hypnotic activity. Hypnotics
151.(d)
include prescription and over the counter medication that
Surface active agents are molecules with the capacity to
promote sleep. These drug are used to treat insomnia and
absorb to solid surfaces and fluid interfaces a property
other sleeping disorder, and the over the counter version
that allows them to act as multifunctional ingredients
are often used to help people with colds or other
wetting and dispersion agents emulsifiers. Foaming and condition fall a sleep hypnotics include drug classes like
anti foaming agents, lubricant set creams forms surface benzodiazepines, non-benzodiazepine receptor agonist,
active agents are used in their formulations. melatonin receptor agonist etc.
152.(d) • Methohexitone, Diazepam & paraldehyde have
Rate of dissolution is the amount of drug substance that hypnotic activity.
goes into solution per unit time under standardized
157. (d)
conditions of liquid or solid interface, temperature &
Example of water soluble base is P.E.G. , Alkalis are
solvent composition. The rate of dissolution is given by
water soluble bases. They completely dissociate into
Noyes and Whitney:
hydroxide ions in aqueous medium. Not all bases
dc dissolve in water. Which is dissolve in water are called
= K ( Cs – C b )
dt Alkalis.

365 YCT
Example of Alkalis are . the Gelatin resorcin-formalin (GRF) glue is widely
• Sodium hydroxide [NaOH] utilized in the surgical procedure of dissecting
• Potassium hydroxide [KOH]. aneurysms.
158.(b) 164. (d)
Alum (potash alum) is also known as potassium An Adult has 8 number teeth's of incisor in total. Human
Aluminium sulphate K2SO4.Al2(SO4)3.24H2O teeth function to mechanically break down items of food
by cutting & crushing the food material.
Method of preparation–
Add concentrated solution of potassium sulphate of hot • Human have four types of Teeth -
solution of Aluminium sulphate • Incisors
↓ • Canines
concentrated the solution • Premolars
↓ • Molars
cool, crystals of Alum obtained 2123
• Human dental formula =
2123
Uses
• Powerful astringent. 165. (d)
• Used as "styptic"/ styptic pencil to stop bleeding. Latin word for food is cibus.
• Also have mild bactericidal property. Latin term Abbreviation Meaning
159. (d)
Cibus cib.; C. food
Mannitol– A naturally occurring alcohol found in fruits
Congius cong.; C. gallon
and vegetables and used as an "osmotic diuretic''. ''NaCl
injection" is used to replenish lost water and salt in dexter d. right
human body due to certain condition (e.g.– hyponatremia oculus o. eye
or low salt syndrome). 166. (c)
160. (d) Secretion of glucagon is not a function of Liver.
Roentgen is a unit of exposure.
Function of Liver →
The international unit of exposure dose for x-rays or
gamma rays. • Bile production and excretion
Roentgens are named after professor Wilhelm Konrad • Excretion of bilirubin, cholesterol hormone and drugs.
Roentgen, the man who discovered x-rays in 1895. • Metabolism of fats, protein and carbohydrates.
It is denoted by symbol R. • Enzyme Activation
161. • Storage of glycogen, vitamins and minerals
Stage of general anesthesia:- Before they had machines •Synthesis of plasma proteins, such as albumin and
to track our vital signs during general anesthesia, doctor clotting factor.
come up with a monitoring system to keep patients safe. 167. (b)
They divided the system into four stage - Diethyl sulfoxide is an organometallic compound with
• Stage 1. Induction the formula (C4H10OS) So that dissolves both polar and
• Stage 2. Excitement or delirium non polar compounds and is miscible in a wide range of
• Stage 3. surgical Anesthesia organic solvers as well as water. DMSO is perhaps the
best currently known penetration enhancer for medical
• Stage 4. Over dose.
purposes with the ability to dissociate healthy joints and
State : 3. Surgical anesthesia:- At this stage surgery can skin elasticity or stretchiness into fibrils.
takes place our eyes stop moving muscle completely
168.(c)
relax, and we may stop breathing without the help of
Limitations of Arrhenius relationship for prediction of
machines. The anesthesiogist will keep we at this stage
stability of products:-
until the procedures is over.
• At higher temperature evaporation of solvent takes
162.(c)
For cooking purposes and dosing of medicine, a place and thus changes in concentration.
teaspoonful is defined as 5 ml (0.18 imp Floz; 0.17 US • At higher temperature change in solubility and
Floz) and standard measuring spoons are used. humidity (decrease) which cannot be correlated with
163. (a) room temperature.
Treatment is used for solubility of gelatin is formalin • For disperse systems at higher temperature viscosity
when gelatin is treated with formalin then it gives rise to decreases which can change physical characteristics
366 YCT
resulting potentially large errors in prediction of 174.(d)
stability. Through a hospital formulary system physicians and
• Different degradation mechanisms may predominate at pharmacists, evaluate and select mediations for uses in a
different temperature thus making stability prediction hospital. All the given options of the question are
difficult. included for the criteria fallowed in this purpose.
• There are the two types of approved color additives: 175. (a)
dyes and lakes. Type I glass has high hydrolytic resistance and high
169. (d) thermal shock resistance.
It is borosilicate glass with good chemical resistance, It
• Lakes are basically a pigment which has been
is used for pharmaceuticals requiring the least reactive
manufactured from a dye by precipitating a soluble dye
containers.
with a metallic salt. The resulting pigment is called a
176.(b)
lake pigment. Lakes are water insoluble, and are found in
HEPA ( High efficiency particle Arresting) filter is used
products containing fats and oils.
to remove the harmful particulate matter or particles,
• Dyes are water-soluble and usually come in the form including dust, spores, mold and other irritating allergens
of powders, granules, or liquids. from the air.
• Lakes are produced in specific concentrations of dye. Theoretically HEPA can remove about 99.97% of dust,
• Thus, Red 40 Aluminum lake is available in low dye pollen, mold or bacteria and any airborne particles of
(generally 15-17% pure dye) and high dye (36-72% pure size 0.3 µm.
dye). 177.(b)
170. (c) Freeze drying, is also known as lyophilization. It is a low
Type II glass containers are suitable for most acidic and temperature dehydration process that involves freezing
neutral aqueous preparation. Type II glass contains are the product and lowering pressure and removing the ice
made from commercial soda lime glass that has been de by sublilmation.
alkalized to obtain a great improvement in chemical 178. (b)
resistance this is done by treating the interior surfaces at Hair removed by chemical method is known as
a high temperature to eat away the alkali or near the glass depilation. It is the deliberate removal of body hair or
surfaces. head hair by using chemical substance e.g. hair removing
171.(b) cream etc.
Ophthalmic proportions are specialized dosage forms 179. (b)
used for the treatment of eye diseases and are applied to BCS class III drug possess. High solubility low
eternal surface of the eye. The optimum pH of these permeability. BCS class III drug substances are
preparations equals that of tear fluid of the age and considered to be more susceptible to the effects of
ranges in pH around 7.4. So, the appropriate pH range excipiered highly permeable and may have site specific
for ophthalmic preparation is 6.5 to 8.5. absorption.
172.(c) 180. (d)
Disinfection is the process used to eliminate many or all Benzodiazepine most commonly used to treat anxiety
pathogenic micro-organisms, except bacterial spores disorders are chlordiazepoxid benzodiazepines is used as
unpon the non-biological surfaces. both anxiolytic and anti depressant.
173.(c) 181.(a)
Lead Time- It is the time taken between the placing of 4.00 ml. is equivalent to one teaspoonful.
order and receipt of drug to the department. The longer A teaspoon is an item of cutlery. It is used as a too for
the lead time the larger is the safety stock, resulting in measuring volume.
excess of investment in inventories. 182. (b)
It is two types such as internal lead time & external lead Posology is study of dose of drug. Posology is a branch
time of medical science which deals with the dose and
quantity of drugs which can be administered to a patient
to get the desired pharmacological action.
183. (a)
Monsanto apparatus is used for testing of hardness of
tablets. Monsanto apparatus is a fairly handy instrument
for taking quick reading for the hardness of tablets. It is
made of brass turned parts heavily chrome plated, the
∴ Lead time = order time + delivery time + receiving time scale is 0 to 20 kg and the index mark and division is in 1
kg reading.
367 YCT
 184.(d) 194. (b)
Iodine is used by the thyroid gland in our throat to make Medical entomology is a branch of entomology which
thyroid hormones. These hormones control our metabolic deals with the study of insects (Arthopods) that harm
rate (The rate at which our body uses energy when it is humans or domestic animals and livestock by
resting). They also help our brain and body grow and
transmitting disease or acting as reservoir hosts.
develop.
185. (b) 195. (a)
Desiccation is the process of removing mechanically Schedule S refers to the standards for cosmetics.
admixed water from a solid substance. Schedule S Lists various cosmetics and toiletries and
Desiccation is the state of extreme dryness or the directs the manufactures of cosmetics to confirm to the
process of extreme drying. A desiccant is a hygroscopic latest bureau of Indian standards requirements.
(attracts and holds water) substance that induces or 196. (d)
sustains such a state in its local vicinity in a moderately
Polypharmacy is an umbrella term to describe the
sealed container.
186.(b) simultaneous use of multiple medicines by a patient for
The pore size of HEPA filter is 0.3 micron. HEPA filter their conditions. Most commonly it is defined as
is an acronym for high efficiency particulate air (filter). regularly taking five or more medicines but definitions
This type of air filter can theoretically remove at least vary in where they draw the line for the minimum
99.97% of dust pollen, mold, bacteria and any airborne number of drugs.
particles with a size of 0.3 microns. 197. (c)
187. (a)
A medical committee sometimes called the drug and
Candle filters are made of unglazed porcelain.
In candle type filter candles made of porcelain are used therapeutics committee, pharmacy, or the medicine and
to filter water. Candle type fillers also known as ceramic therapeutics committee is responsible for approving
candle filters as their candles are made up of ceramic or policies and procedures and monitoring practices to
porcelain. promote safe and effective medicine use.
188. (d) 198.(c)
Sieve number 10 is having smallest mesh aperture size. The pharmaceutical price regulation scheme is exercised
The sieve number denotes the number of holes present
to have indirect control over branded price.
in the sieve mesh.
189.(c) The purpose of the scheme is to achieve a balance
Ammonium carbonate acts respiratory stimulant. It is a between reasonable prices for the NHS and a fair return
salt with a the chemical formula (NH4)2CO3, Since it for the pharmaceutical industry.
easily changes to gaseous ammonia and carbon dioxide National pharmaceutical pricing authority (NPPA) to
upon heating . It acts as expectorant and pharmaceutical monitor the availability of drugs, identify shortage, if
aid. any, and to take remedial steps. To collect/market data
190.(a) on production, export and import, market share of
Antimony Potassium Tartrate is a white water - soluble Individual companies, profitability of companies etc. for
,sweet and metalic - tasting for coloring textiles and
bulk drugs and formulations.
leather and in medicine as an expectorant.
191.(d) 199. (b)
The process of swallowing also known as deglutition, Limit test for arsenic is based on the reaction of arsenic
involves the movement of substances from the mouth gas with hydrogen ions to form a yellow stain on
(oral cavity) to the stomach via the pharynx and mercuric chloride paper in presence of reducing agents
esophagus. like potassium iodide. It is also called as Gutzeit test and
192.(b)
requires special apparatus.
Price elasticity of demand is a ratio of the percentage
change in quantity demanded of a product to the 200. (d)
percentage change in price. Economists employ it to In Kjeldahl's process nitrogen essentially transforms into
understand how supply and demand change when a ammonium sulfate by digestion with sulphuric acid.
products price change. • The Kjeldahl method or Kjeldahl digestion in
193.(b)
analytical chemistry is a method for the quantitative
Acid fast stains are used to differentiate acid fast
organisms such mycobacteria. Acid fast bacteria will be determination of nitrogen contained in organic
red, while non acid fast bacteria will stain blue/green substances plus the nitrogen contained in the inorganic
with the counter stain with the kinyoun stain compounds ammonia and ammonium.
368 YCT

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