Test ID: 776556

Amrita MBA Entrance Test (AMET)

Mock 4
Time: 150 Minutes Number of Questions: 100

Important Instructions

1. This paper contains 100 questions divided into 4 sections.

Section I: Quantitative Aptitude (25 questions)

Section II: Verbal Reasoning & Language Comprehension (25 questions)

Section III: Data Interpretation & Analysis (25 questions)

Section IV: General Knowledge on Indian & Global Scenarios (25 questions)

2. Each question has four choices of answers.

3. There is only one correct answer to each question.

4. You will be awarded 3 marks for each correct answer.

5. Each wrong answer will attract a penalty of one mark.

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 Quantitative Aptitude

1. A train, travelling at a speed of 36 km/hr, crosses two men A and B, who are standing on a road
parallel to the railway track, at 9:36:36 a.m. and at 9:36:41 a.m. respectively. What is the
distance (in metres) between A and B?
(a) 100 (b) 50 (c) 25 (d) 75

2. Ram and Shyam can do a piece of work in 20 and 60 days respectively. They started the work
together; after x days of the start, the amount of work left was 150% of the work done. Find the
value of x.
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8

3. Which of the following lines is perpendicular to the line 2x + 4y = 5?

(a) 2x – y = 17 (b) x + y = 1 (c) 4x + 2y = 5 (d) x – y = 9

4. The average weight of the students of a class having 25 students is 51 kg. If one of the students
weighing 75 kg leaves the class, then what will be the average weight of the remaining students
of the class?
(a) 51 kg (b) 50 kg (c) 48 kg (d) 50.5 kg

5. Sanjay purchased a table and a chair at Rs. 3,000. He sold the table at a profit of 20% and the
chair at a loss of 25%. If the selling price of both the articles put together is Rs.2,700, then what
is the ratio of the cost price of the table to that of the chair?
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 1 : 2 (d) 2 : 3

6. A number is chosen randomly from the given set of numbers: –3, –2, –1, 0, 1, 2 and 3. What is
the probability that the absolute value of the chosen number is less than 2?
5 3 3 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
7 7 5 3

7. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 20 and 25 minutes respectively. Both the pipes are opened
simultaneously. After 5 minutes, another pipe C, which can empty the tank in x minutes, is
opened, thereby the time to fill the tank increased by 15 minutes. What is the value of x?
(a) 12.23 (b) 15.64 (c) 18.46 (d) 13.67

8. Find the sum of unit digits of all the four-digit numbers that can be formed with the digits 3, 4, 5
and 6. (Repetition of digits are not allowed.)
(a) 108 (b) 96 (c) 84 (d) 120

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  2 2 2 
9. If a + b + c = 0, then find the value of log2  a  b  b  c  a  c  .
x x x 
(a) 0 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) None of these

10. Two friends – A and B – start at the same time from the same point on a circular track in
opposite directions. The ratio of the speed of A to that of B is 3 : 4. If they interchange their
speeds after they meet for the first time, then what is the ratio of the distance travelled by A to
that by B by the time they are diametrically opposite to each other for the second time?
(a) 3 : 4 (b) 10 : 11 (c) 11 : 10 (d) 4 : 3

11. Heena and Meena can do a piece of work in 12 and 15 days respectively. They started the work
together and were joined by Reena after 2 days. If the work was completed a day before the
scheduled date, then in how many days can Reena alone do the work?
(a) 20 (b) 28.22 (c) 24.44 (d) 15

12. The length of the side of a rhombus is 10 cm and the length of one of its diagonals is 12 cm.
What is the length (in cm) of the other diagonal?
(a) 15 (b) 20 (c) 16 (d) 12

13. A shopkeeper makes a profit of 20% on selling a radio for Rs. 840, whereas he makes a loss of
4% on selling another radio for Rs. 960. His total gain or loss percentage is
15 15 2
(a) 5 %loss (b) 5 %gain (c) 6 %gain (d) None of these
17 17 3

14. When N is divided by N1, the remainder is 23. When 3N is divided by N1, the remainder is 31.
What is the value of N1?
(a) 41 (b) 59 (c) 35 (d) 38

15. A container contains 10 liters of water- milk solution, with water and milk in the ratio 2 : 3. X
liters of the solution is taken out and replaced with X + 2 liters of water. If the ratio of water to
milk in the resulting solution is 3 : 2, then find the value of X.
(a) 4 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) 2

16. In a group of certain men, 20% play tennis and 80% are aged 50 years or less. If 20% of the
men who are aged above 50 years play tennis, then what percentage of the men who play
tennis are aged 50 years or less?
(a) 15 (b) 20 (c) 80 (d) 70

17. x2 × y3 = 147, where x and y are positive real numbers. Find the minimum value of 6x + 7y.

(a) 35 (b) 70 (c) 5 7 (d) 49

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18. In the figure given below, AD is an altitude to side BC of triangle ABC and DFGH is a square. If
BG = 13 cm and EF : ED = 5 : 7, what is the area (in cm2) of square DFGH?

F G
E

B C
D H
(a) 49 (b) 25 (c) 64 (d) 81

2
19. A and B together can finish a cake in 6 minutes. If A eats at a rate which is 20% less than his
3
1
original rate and B at a rate which is 60% more than his original rate, they would take 6
4
minutes to finish the cake. The time taken (in minutes) by A alone to finish the cake is
(a) 10 (b) 6.67 (c) 15 (d) 12

20. In a race, A beats B and C by 16 m and 24 m respectively, and B beats C by 12 m. What is the
length (in m) of the track?
(a) 64 (b) 36 (c) 72 (d) 48

21. A man buys apples at the rate of 8 for Rs. 34 and sold them at the rate of 12 for Rs. 57. How
many apples should he sell to earn a profit of Rs. 45?
(a) 108 (b) 99 (c) 90 (d) 117

22. A seven-digit number 62684@# is a multiple of both 8 and 5. Which of the following can be the
value of @ and # respectively?
(a) 4, 0 (b) 2, 0 (c) 3, 0 (d) 6, 0

3
23. A solid cube, made of copper, of volume 45 cm is melted and recast into a square sheet of
thickness 2 mm. What is the length (in m) of the side of the sheet?
(a) 15 (b) 0.225 (c) 2.25 (d) 0.15

24. A man starts from his home for his office 20 minutes later than the usual time and travels at a
speed 25% more than his usual speed, thereby he reaches his office 15 minutes earlier. What
is the usual time (in minutes) taken by him to reach the office?
(a) 25 (b) 50 (c) 175 (d) 145

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25. In an innings of a cricket match, the runs scored by the highest scorer was 2/9th of the total
score of the innings and the runs scored by the second highest scorer was 2/9th of the total
score of the innings excluding the runs scored by the highest scorer. If the difference between
the runs scored by the highest scorer and the second highest scorer was 8, then find the total
score of the innings.
(a) 152 (b) 162 (c) 142 (d) 132

Verbal Reasoning & Language Comprehension

Directions for questions 26 to 29: Read the following passage and answer the questions that
follow.

When speaking here of Darwinism, I shall speak always of today’s theory—that is Darwin’s own
theory of natural selection supported by the Mendelian theory of heredity, by the theory of the
mutation and recombination of genes in a gene pool, and by the decoded genetic code. This is an
immensely impressive and powerful theory. The claim that it completely explains evolution is of
course a bold claim, and very far from being established. All scientific theories are conjectures, even
those that have successfully passed many severe and varied tests. The Mendelian underpinning of
modern Darwinism has been well tested, and so has the theory of evolution which says that all
terrestrial life has evolved from a few primitive unicellular organisms, possibly even from one single
organism.

He explained that the difficulty of testing had led some people to describe natural selection as
a tautology, and that he too had in the past described the theory as ‘almost tautological’, and had tried
to explain how the theory could be untestable (as is a tautology) and yet of great scientific interest.

My solution was that the doctrine of natural selection is the most successful metaphysical research
programme. It raises detailed problems in many fields, and it tells us what we would expect of an
acceptable solution of these problems. I still believe that natural selection works in this way as a
research programme. Nevertheless, I have changed my mind about the testability and logical status
of the theory of natural selection; and I am glad to have an opportunity to make a recantation.

26. The claim that the theory of natural selection explains evolution is far from being established
because
(a) it is a tautology.
(b) it is a conclusion based on incomplete information.
(c) it is a metaphysical research program.
(d) it is supported by the Mendelian theory of heredity.

27. By recantation the author means

(a) revelation (b) repercussion (c) retraction (d) ramification

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28. If the author were to continue this passage, which of the following sentences would begin the
next paragraph?
(a) Thus, not all phenomena of evolution are explained by natural selection alone.
(b) Yet in every particular case, it is a challenging research program to show how far natural
selection can possibly be held responsible for the evolution.
(c) The theory of natural selection may be so formulated that it is far from tautological.
(d) In the debate, both sides and even courts in their decisions have frequently invoked
Popper’s criterion of falsifiability.

29. What is the author’s attitude towards the theory of natural selection?
(a) He questions its veracity (b) He questions its virtuosity
(c) He questions its vapidity (d) He questions its verifiability

Directions for question 30: In the question below, there are four statements P, Q, R and S that have
to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph between statements S1 and S6.

S1: Hord said there are no evidence-based standards for omega-3 intake and no way to tell who
might be at health risk.
P: This is necessary in order for us to know who is eating adequate amounts of these nutrients
and who may be deficient or eating too much.
Q: “As is all true with any nutrient, taking too much can have negative effects.”
R: “We’re not against using fish oil supplements appropriately, but there is a potential for risk,” he
said.
S: We need to establish clear biomarkers through clinical trials.
S2: “Until we establish valid biomarkers of omega-3 exposure, making good evidence-based dietary
recommendations across potential dietary exposure ranges will not be possible.”

(a) QSRP (b) RQSP (c) QPRS (d) SPQR

Directions for question 31: A number of sentences are given below, which when properly
sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Choose the most logical order of sentences from the choices
given to construct a coherent paragraph.

P: They sprout earlier, to the detriment of native species.

Q: After mild winters, the native species run a higher risk of developing their leaves too late.
R: In that case, more daylight reaches the forest floor, and that benefits lower-growing shrubs and
invasive tree species.
S: There may be consequences for the forest ecosystem.

(a) QRPS (b) QRSP (c) PRQS (d) SQRP

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Directions for question 32: Rearrange the following sentence fragments (P, Q, R and S) in order to
make a meaningful sentence.

P: of its host star, Kepler 78, the scientists

Q: is about 1.7 times as massive as Earth
R: by analyzing the movement
S: determined that the exoplanet

(a) RPSQ (b) RSQP (c) SQRP (d) SPQR

Directions for questions 33 and 34: Choose the correct option.

33. The type of tone in which an author expresses his disapproval of someone / something is
called…
(a) apathetic (b) sardonic (c) derisive (d) cynical

34. Hemophobia means

(a) Fear of blood (b) Fear of humans (c) Fear of hospitals (d) Fear of hair

Directions for questions 35 and 36: In the given paragraph, choose the correct synonymous word
for each italicized word.

India has good reasons to feel beholden to the Hasina government, though the diplomats are not
oblivious to the anti-incumbency she faces. But if Washington has a choice in Dhaka, how can it deny
India having a right to its own choice of a friend? The US feels a BNP-led government will serve its
strategic interests and may help it stop Chinese inroads into the country. For Delhi, the real worry is
Jamaat-e-Islami and Hefazat-e-Islam. Delhi has good reasons to fear such a dispensation as likely to
be inimical to its security.

35. (a) bothered (b) ignorant (c) attentive (d) interested

36. (a) routes (b) crossroads (c) incursions (d) imports

Directions for questions 37 and 38: In the questions below, the sentences have been given in
Active/Passive voice. From the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the given
sentence in Passive/Active voice.

37. The woman must have eaten ten chocolates.

(a) Ten chocolates must had been ate by the woman.
(b) Ten chocolates might have been eaten by the woman.
(c) Ten chocolates must have been eaten by the woman.
(d) Ten chocolates were eaten by the woman.

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38. We are going to watch a documentary tonight.
(a) A documentary will be watched tonight.
(b) A documentary is going to be watched by us tonight.
(c) At night, we are going to watch a documentary.
(d) At night, we are going on to watch a documentary.

Directions for questions 39 and 40: Choose the grammatically correct option from the following.

39. (a) It is we children who are the incarnation of God.

(b) It is us children who are the incarnation of God.
(c) They are us children who are the incarnation of God.
(d) It is we children whom are the incarnation of God.

40. (a) Shilpy looks well in that suit. (b) Shilpy looks good in that suit.
(c) Well-looking Shilpy is in that suit. (d) That suit looks well on Shilpy.

Directions for questions 41 and 42: Choose the word that is the exact opposite of the given word.

41. Debacle
(a) Calamity (b) Debut (c) Smash (d) Blockbuster

42. Disavow
(a) Refute (b) Disallow (c) Concede (d) Refund

43. Mr. X: The upcoming elections in Delhi are going to bring up extremely interesting results.
Opinion polls indicate that while the present Chief Minister, Ms. Dhristi, is still the most popular
candidate for the most coveted position in the Delhi government, a new entrant in the political
scene, Mr.Akshay, is set to give the chief minister a strong run for the seat.

Mr. Y: I feel your analysis is incorrect. It is true that Mr. Akshay is a new candidate and seems
like a popular choice with the people. However, he has no experience in politics, let alone in
handling a complex and large constituency like Delhi.

What can be inferred from Mr. Y’s remark?

(a) The elections in Delhi are being contested by strong candidates and the polls are
expected to throw up some surprising results.
(b) Because of his lack of political experience, Mr. Akshay is not a strong candidate in a
constituency like Delhi.
(c) People are slated to vote for Ms. Dhristi as they are satisfied with the way she has been
running the government in Delhi.
(d) Opinion polls are usually incorrect and the popular choice may not always emerge as the
winner in the elections.

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44. UK immigration laws have recently been amended and have become a source of debate for
parliamentarians, immigrants and activists. Under rules that came into force a year ago, only a
British citizen, who could show that he/ she earns at least £18,600 a year, could sponsor his /
her non-European spouse’s visa. This amount rises to £22,400 for families with one child and a
further £2,400 for each further child. The result of this recent amendment is that thousands of
Britons have been unable to bring a non-EU spouse to the UK since July 2012, the time when
minimum earnings requirements were introduced.

Among the following given options, choose the one which best supports the new rules.
(a) Over a period of time, the regulations will be adjusted in light of the experiences and
learning that accrue from various cases.
(b) The new rules were designed to ease the burden of migration on the taxpayer.
(c) The government had promised to bring down net immigration into Britain and hence, the
recent reforms on family immigration.
(d) Evidence suggests that last year at least 47 per cent of the UK’s working population
would have failed to meet the minimum income level required to sponsor a non-European
Economic Area partner.

45. Ajay Patel has applied as an international student to the prestigious Peyward University in the
United States. As part of the admission guidelines, Ajay is advised to complete and submit his
application as soon as possible and specifically before June 30. This would ensure full and
timely consideration of his application. Until Ajay does so, his application would not be
transmitted to the Peyward Admissions Office. Failure to submit the application before the
submission deadline of June 30 would result in the application being sent to Clearing and not
being considered in the admissions process. Ajay also found out on student forums that, each
year, many candidate applications are rejected by Peyward due to non adherence to the
submission deadline.

Which of the following options can be inferred from the above situation?
(a) Ajay has a reasonably good chance of being accepted in Peyward if his application
adheres to the set guidelines.
(b) Peyward receives a large number of applications each year and can hence pick and
choose amongst the best candidates.
(c) Despite the admission guidelines set by Peyward University, there are many students
who are unable to adhere to the application deadline.
(d) Applications by candidates are considered only after they have passed through
acceptable standards of assessment.

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46. The mid-day meal scheme of the Indian government serves a regressive purpose. Instead of
encouraging parents to send their children to government schools to improve their standards of
living, the scheme results in low standards amongst the educational institutions. The scheme
assures schools of a higher student enrolment and hence schools pay little attention to other
factors, which eventually results in low standards of teaching and poor infrastructure.
Government schools must hence be encouraged to set their own standards and the mid-day
meal scheme should be discontinued.

Which of the following is an assumption that the argument most strongly depends on?
(a) The mid-day meal scheme has not been correctly implemented and the quality of
education has suffered because of corrupt government officials and middle men.
(b) The mid-day meal scheme was not intended to be the most important factor in assuring
quality education for all.
(c) In states where the mid-day meal scheme has been successfully running for over two
decades, there has been a parallel improvement in educational standards.
(d) Government schools are more interested in increasing student enrolments than in
improving their standards of teaching.

Directions for questions 47 and 48: Each question has a set of four sequentially ordered
statements. Each statement can be classified as one of the following:

- Facts, which deal with pieces of information that one has heard, seen or read, and which are
open to discovery or verification (the answer option indicates such a statement with an ‘F’).
- Inferences, which are conclusions drawn about the unknown, on the basis of the known (the
answer option indicates such a statement with an ‘I’).
- Judgments, which are opinions that imply approval or disapproval of persons, objects, situations
and occurrences in the past, the present or the future (the answer option indicates such a
statement with a ‘J’)

Select the answer option that best describes the set of four statements.

47. 1. The San Diego/Tijuana area is sometimes used by drug smugglers.

2. The tunnel, recently dug under the U.S.-Mexican border, is associated with the Sinaloa
drug cartel.
3. Last year, the Sinaloa drug cartel spent over 30 million dollars, trying to create a secret
underworld of passages.
4. Thousands of innocent people may fall prey to this dirty business.

(a) JFFF (b) FFFJ (c) JFIJ (d) FFIJ

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48. 1. Now, a single computer can access millions of others.
2. Computer manufacturers made Internet an option only in 1995.
3. Now, as more and more people share information and do work across it, the Net is
becoming a computer ‘platform’ itself.
4. The future of the Net and computer seems more entwined.

(a) FFIF (b) JFIJ (c) JFFJ (d) FFIJ

Directions for questions 49 and 50: Each of the following questions consists of a set of numbered
statements. Assume that each one of these statements is individually true. Each of the four given
choices consists of a subset of these statements. Choose that subset as your answer wherein the
statements are logically consistent among themselves.

49. A. If dogs bark, the electrician is called.

B. If dogs bark, the lights go out.
C. The electrician is called.
D. Unless the lights do not go out, the electrician is called.
E. I go to the movies.
F. The electrician is not called.
G. If I do not go to the movies, the dogs bark.
H. Dogs bark only if I go to the movies.

(a) H, F, D, C and A (b) C, D, H, B and E

(c) H, C, F, G and E (d) A, H, D, E and G

50. A. If gold is traded, then people will not buy silver.

B. People buy gold only when it is traded.
C. Silver is traded.
D. If silver prices rise, then silver will be traded.
E. Whenever people buy gold, silver is traded.
F. Unless people buy gold, silver prices will rise.
G. Gold is traded.
H. Silver is not traded.

(a) H, F, D, G and B (b) G, D, C, H and F

(c) E, H, F, G and B (d) G, F, D, C and B

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 Data Interpretation & Analysis

Directions for questions 51 to 54: Study the bar graph carefully and answer the questions.

The bar graph shows the birth rate of 7 states of a country.

40
36
35 32
30

Birth per thousand

30
25
25 22
20
20 18

15
10
5
0
tr a

u
a

m
Ha a

P
UP

ad
an
k

ra
at
as

il N
ry

izo
rn
ar

Ka

M
ah

Ta
M

States

51. Birth rate of how many states are atleast 25% more than that of UP?
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) More than 2

52. Birth rate of MP is what percent that of Tamil Nadu?

(a) 34.45 (b) 52.25 (c) 68.75 (d) 76.50

53. Birth rate of Karnataka is what times that of Haryana?

(a) 2 (b) 1.33 (c) 1.67 (d) 2.5

54. Approximate average birth rate of given 7 states is

(a) 26 (b) 28 (c) 32 (d) 34

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Directions for questions 55 to 58: The following pie-chart shows the different expenses – Royalty,
Paper, Binding, Printing and Advertisement – of a publisher on the production and sales of a book.
Assuming that total expense of the publisher is Rs.525.

Advertisment Royalty 48°

120°

Paper
72°

Printing 70° Binding 50°

55. The sum of the expenses of Royalty and Paper is same as that the sum of the
(a) Paper and Advertisement (b) Binding and Printing
(c) Paper and Binding (d) Binding and Royalty

56. The expense in Paper and Advertisement exceed the expense in Royalty, Binding and Printing
by
(a) Rs.0 (b) Rs.35 (c) Rs.105 (d) Rs.175

57. The expense of Rs.102 is in

(a) Printing (b) Binding (c) Royalty (d) Paper

58. The expense in Advertisement, Binding and Printing exceed the expense in Royalty and Paper
by
(a) 50% (b) 100% (c) 120% (d) 240%

Directions for questions 59 to 61: Study the following table and answer the questions.

The table below shows the sales volume of three types of batteries (in ‘000) manufactured by a
company named GENPEK Pvt. Ltd. during the period 2006-2012.

Year B1 B2 B3 Total sales

2006 50 80 60 190
2007 65 70 100 235
2008 95 60 75 230
2009 75 80 40 195
2010 55 75 120 250
2011 35 60 65 160
2012 60 85 90 235

59. What was the percentage increase in the sales of B1 in 2012 compared to that in 2006?
(a) 20 (b) 26 (c) 15 (d) 29

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60. In which year was the total sales volume of the three types of batteries put together the
maximum?
(a) 2009 (b) 2005 (c) 2006 (d) 2010

61. In which year did the total sales of three types of batteries put together witnessed the maximum
percentage increase over the previous year?
(a) 2012 (b) 2009 (c) 2007 (d) 2008

Directions for questions 62 to 64: Shown below is the bar diagram depicting the number of bicycles
sold by a shop in the period of 2005–06 to 2012–13.

4500
4200
4000
3600
Number of bicycles sold

3500
3100
3000 2800
2600 2600
2500 2200
2100
2000

1500

1000

500

0
2005- 2006- 2007- 2008- 2009- 2010- 2011- 2012-
06 07 08 09 10 11 12 13

Year

Study the above bar diagram and answer the questions.

62. Percentage change in the sales in the year 2011-12 with respect to year 2005-06 is
(a) 33.33% (b) 37.5% (c) 50% (d) 75%

63. Sales in the year 2012-13 is how much percent more than the average sales over the given
period?
(a) 22.58% (b) 20.69% (c) 32.44% (d) 24.13%

64. The ratio of the number of years in which sales were more than the average sales and the
number of years in which sales were less than the average sales is
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 5 : 3 (c) 1 : 1 (d) 3 : 5

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Directions for questions 65 to 67: The following pie-chart shows the proportion of people of
different religions in a city. Study the graph and answer questions.

Hindus
Zoroastrians 20°
20°

Bahais
80°

Christians
Muslims 150°
30°

Jews
60°

65. If the number of Christians in the city is 5,00,000, then the approximate sum of the number of
Hindus and Zoroastrians is
(a)133333 (b) 133568 (c) 133435 (d) 143567

66. What percentage of the Christians is the number of Bahais in the city?
2 2 1 1
(a) 59 % (b) 43 % (c) 53 % (d) 57 %
3 3 3 3

67. What is the total population of the city if the number of Jews is 1,00,000 more than that of the
Muslims?
(a) 16,00,000 (b) 12,00,000 (c) 24,00,000 (d) 18,00,000

Directions for questions 68 to 71: The graph shows the number of students appearing for the final
exam in the year 2015 and the number of students who pass their exam, from six colleges in Delhi.
Study the graph and answer the questions.
Appearing Passed

5000
4500
4300
4500
4100
4000
3500
3500 3800
2800
3000 3200 2800
2500 2500
2100
2000
2100
1500 1700
1000
500
0
U V W X Y Z

68. What is the difference between the passing percentage points of college Z and college V?
(a) 5.29 (b) 6.99 (c) 7.39 (d) 7.69

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69. What was the percentage of failure in all the colleges put together?
(a) 25% (b) 22.5% (c) 13% (d) 42.5%

70. The number of students appearing for the exam in college Y is what percentage of the total
number of students appearing for the exam in U, V and W put together?
(a) 23.08% (b) 32.98% (c) 17.53% (d) 41.75%

71. What is the ratio of the total number of students who passed and those who failed from all the
six colleges put together?
(a) 17 : 29 (b) 86 : 13 (c) 87 : 13 (d) 87 : 31

Directions for questions 72 to 74: The following bar graph shows the percentage of the number of
mobile handsets of three brands– Nokia, Samsung and Micromax– sold in a city during the period
2008 to 2011. Examine the bar graph and answer the questions.

80

70

60

50

40

30

20

10

0
2008 2009 2010 2011
Nokia Samsung Micromax

72. If the total number of mobile handsets sold in 2008 was 12 crores, then the total number of
handsets sold by two brands Nokia and Micromax in that year was
(a) 6,40,00,000 (b) 7,80,00,000 (c) 8,40,00,000 (d) 9,00,00,000

73. If the total number of mobile handsets sold in 2009 was 12 crores, then the number of handsets
sold by Samsung in that year was
(a) 4,20,00,000 (b) 2,80,00,000 (c) 3,60,00,000 (d) 4,40,00,000

74. Ratio of the number of mobile handsets sold by Nokia and Samsung in 2010 was
(a) 3 : 5 (b) 6 : 11 (c) 3 : 4 (d) 5 : 11

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75. The following line graph represents the maximum and minimum temperatures recorded every
day in a certain week. On which day was the difference between the maximum and minimum
temperatures maximum?

Maximum temperature
Minimum temperature
40

35

Temperature
30

25

20

15
Sun Mon Tue Wed Thr Fri Sat
Days

(a) Monday (b) Tuesday (c) Friday (d) Saturday

General Knowledge on Indian & Global Scenarios

76. The fastest supercomputer in India is____________.

(a) PARAM Siddhi AI (b) PARAM 8000
(c) PARAM 4000 (d) PARAM 1000

77. The largest exporter of rice in the world is__________.

(a) China (b) Pakistan
(c) India (d) Bangladesh

78. Who among the following is considered the architect of Modern India and the father of the
Bengal Renaissance?
(a) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar (b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(c) Dayanand Saraswati (d) Jyotirao Govindrao Phule

79. "Fat Man" is the codename for the type of nuclear bomb the United States detonated over the
Japanese city of Nagasaki on_____________.
(a) 9 August 1945 (b) 2 August 1940
(c) 4 August 1941 (d) 5 August 1942

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80. Who among the following won the Golden Boot award at Qatar 2022?
(a) Antoine Griezmann (b) Kylian Mbappe
(c) Lionel Messi (d) Cristiano Ronaldo

81. Match List-I with List-II and select the best option using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Date) List-II (Name of the Day)
I. March 8 A. International Women’s Day
II. April 22 B. World Earth Day
III. May 1 C. International Labour Day
IV. June 21 D. International Yoga Day

(a) (I)-(B), (II)-(A), (III)-(C), (IV)-(D) (b) (I)-(C), (II)-(D), (III)-(A), (IV)-(B)
(c) (I)-(D), (II)-(C), (III)-(B), (IV)-(A) (d) (I)-(A), (II)-(B), (III)-(C), (IV)-(D)

82. Sela Pass tunnel is being built by BRO, to provide all-weather connectivity to the China border
in ____________.
(a) Uttarakhand (b) Assam
(c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Bihar

83. Which of the following operations was announced by the Government of India for the liberation
of Goa?
(a) Operation Green (b) Operation Muskan
(c) Operation Goa libertation (d) Operation Vijay

84. As per the climate Transparency report 2022, which of the following countries contributes 25%
to global emissions?
(a) USA (b) India
(c) China (d) Japan

85. Sandeep Bakshi has been re-appointed as MD and CEO of which of the following banks?
(a) Axis Bank (b) ICICI Bank
(c) Bank of India (d) Central Bank of India

86. The smallpox vaccine is the first vaccine to be developed against a contagious disease. Who
among the following discovered it?
(a) Edward Jenner (b) Robert Koch
(c) Joseph Lister (d) Louis Pasteur

87. Who among the following has been appointed as the Vice President of Meta India?
(a) Arvind Subramanyam (b) Leena Nair
(c) Arvind Krishna (d) Sandhya Devanathan

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88. Which group has launched a plan named 'Global Shield' at the 27th UN Climate Change
Conference?
(a) G20 (b) NATO
(c) G7 (d) QUAD

89. President Droupadi Murmu has earlier served as a Governor of which of the following states?
(a) Odisha (b) Bihar
(c) Jharkhand (d) West Bengal

90. Severe Cyclonic Storm Asani was a strong tropical cyclone that made landfall in India in May
2022. Cyclone Asani was named by____________.
(a) Sri Lanka (b) Bangladesh
(c) Nepal (d) Bhutan

91. Voting in an Indian Presidential Election is through:

(a) A first-past-the-post system through a single transferable vote cast in a secret ballot
(b) A proportional representation system through a single transferable vote cast in a secret
ballot
(c) A proportional representation system through a single transferable vote cast in an open
ballot
(d) A first-past-the-post system through a single transferable vote cast in an open ballot

92. Match List-I with List-II and select the best option using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Tribe) List-II (States)
I. Hatti A. Himachal Pradesh
II. Kurivikkaran B. Tamil Nadu
III. Binjhia C. Chhattisgarh
IV. Kadu Kuruba D. Karnataka

(a) (I)-(B), (II)-(A), (III)-(C), (IV)-(D) (b) (I)-(C), (II)-(D), (III)-(A), (IV)-(B)
(c) (I)-(D), (II)-(C), (III)-(B), (IV)-(A) (d) (I)-(A), (II)-(B), (III)-(C), (IV)-(D)

93. Which has approved a deal that will provide a $3bn support package to cash-strapped Egypt
over almost four years in December 2022?
(a) International Monetary Fund (b) World Bank
(c) World Trade Organization (d) Asian Development Bank

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94. The bio-decomposer technology to avoid stubble burning around the Delhi NCR was developed
by:
(a) Monsanto (b) Cargill
(c) Biocon (d) ICAR, Pusa Campus

95. On the evening of 24 March 2020, the Government of India ordered a nationwide lockdown for
21 days, limiting movement of the entire population of India as a preventive measure against
the COVID-19 pandemic in India. It was imposed under the___________.
(a) Article 352 of the Indian Constitution (b) Article 356 of the Indian Constitution
(c) Disaster Management (DM) Act, 2005 (d) Article 360 of the Indian Constitution

96. This person was once named “the world’s youngest self-made female billionaire” by Forbes
magazine and is the founder of the company Theranos. What is the name of this person?
(a) Elizabeth Holmes (b) Eren Ozmen
(c) Fan Hongwei (d) Diane Hendricks

97. Goods and Services Tax (GST) came into effect from 1 July 2017 through the implementation
of the_____________.
(a) One Hundred and First Amendment of the Constitution of India
(b) One Hundred and Second Amendment of the Constitution of India
(c) One Hundred and Third Amendment of the Constitution of India
(d) One Hundred and Fourt Amendment of the Constitution of India

98. The Reserve Bank of India recently announced the launch of ‘Digital Rupee —Wholesale
Segment’, a form of which of the following?
(a) Digi Suvidha (b) Virtual Wallet
(c) Central Bank Digital Currency (d) Cyber Rupee

99. Which of the following books is not authored by Jawaharlal Nehru?

(a) The Discovery of India (b) India of My Dreams
(c) Letters from a Father to His Daughter (d) Glimpses of World History

100. The 2022 FIFA World Cup won by which of the following countries?
(a) France (b) Portugal
(c) Argentina (d) Croatia

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