ARITHMETIC SEQUENCE

1) 35, 32, 29, 26, ____

A. 21 B. 23 C. 19 D. -23
2. −3, −23, ____, −63, -83
A. 18 B. -18 C. 43 D. -43
3) −34, −64, −94, −124, ____
A. 164 B. 154 C. 174 D. -154
4) −30, −40, −50, −60, ____
A. -70 B. 90 C. 70 D. -90
5) −7, −9, −11, −13, ____
A. 12 B. -15 C. 19 D. 15
6) 9, 14, 19, 24, ____
A. 21 B. 23 C. 29 D. -23
7) 18, 14, 10, 6, ____
A. 4 B. 0 C. -4 D. -1/4
8) 1/2, 1/4, 1/8, 1/16, ____
A. 32 B. 1/64 C. 1/32 D. -1/64
9) 6, 18, 30, ____
A. 36 B. 42 C. -36 D. 38
10) 15, 6, -3, -12, -21, ____
A. 40 B. -30 C. 60 D. -30
11) -19, -11, -3, 5, ____, 21, 29
A. 23 B. 13 C. 33 D. 43
12) -26, -33, -40, -47, ____
A. 54 B. -64 C. -54 D. -74
13) 27, 9, 3, ____
A. 1 B. 0 C. 3 D. 1/3
14) 7, 14, 21, 28, ____
A. 42 B. 1/7 C. 56 D. 35
15) 8, 16, 32, 64, ____
A. -64 B. 128 C. 256 D. -128
16) -4, -1, 2, 5, ____, 11, 14, 17
A. 8 B. 16 C. -8 D. -6
17) 12, 16, 20, ____, 28, 32
A. 24 B. 28 C. 32 D. 36
18) 2/9, 5/9, 8/9, ____
A. 1 B. 11/9 C. 13/9 D. NONE

19) -4, -1, 2, 5, 8, ____, 14, 17

A. -15 B. 13 C. -11 D. 11
20) 10, 2, -6, -14, ____ -30, -38
A. 25 B. 22 C. -27 D. -22
21) -5, -11, ____, -23, -29
A. -17 B. 18 C. 17 D. 20
22) Given: a1= 28, d= 2, n=24, Find a24
A. 74 B. 94 C. 104 D. 64
23) Given: a1= 25, d= 4, n=32, Find a32
A. 294 B. 149 C. 194 D. NONE
24) Given: a1= 16, d= 8, n=5, Find a5
A. 48 B. 42 C. 45 D. NONE
25) Given: a1= 22, d= 9, n=2, Find a2
A. 31 B. 23 C. 41 D. NONE
26) Given: a1= 36, d= 7, n=7, Find a7
A. 58 B. 68 C. 78 D. NONE
27) Given: a1= 8, d= 1, n=6, Find a6
A. 71 B. 13 C. 29 D. NONE
28) Given: a1= 11, d= 4, n=1, Find a1
A. 11 B. 21 C. 31 D. NONE
29) Given: a1= 10, d= 12, n=5, Find a5
A. 88 B. 58 C. 68 D. NONE
30) Given: a1= 6, d= 17, n=3, Find a3
A. 20 B. 40 C. 60 D. NONE
MATHEMATICS (Algebra, Geometry, Statistics, Trigonometry)
3𝑎+2𝑏
1. Evaluate the expression when a= -3 and b= -4
2

1 17 17
a. − 2 b. − c. ½ d.
2 2

2. Simplify: 3 + 5 * 6 – 4.
a. 17 b. 29 c. 16 d. 30
3. Simplify: 6 – 2 * 2 + 25
a. 40 b.18 c. 34 d.12
3𝑥− 𝑦
4. Evaluate: if x= 2, y=8 and z=2.
6z−x

1 1 1 1
a. b. − c. − 5 d. 5
7 7
14−30
5. Simplify: 2 (−4)

11 11
a. –2 b. 2 c. d. −
2 2

6. Use the distributive property to simplify. -3 (x - 10)+ x

a. -4x + 30 b. -4x – 30 c. -2x + 30 d. -2x – 30

7. Simplify: 8y – 2 – 3 (y-4)

a. 11y -6 b. 5y-6 c. 5y-14 d. 5y + 10

36𝑎3 𝑏𝑐 2
8. Simplify: Write the fraction in lowest terms 24𝑎 𝑏 4 𝑐 2

3𝑏 2 2𝑏 3 3𝑎2 2𝑎2
a. 2𝑎3 b. 3𝑎2 c. 2𝑏3 d. 3𝑏3

9. Solve for x: 3 (x + 1) = -6
a. -2 b. -3 c. 1 d. 7/3
10. Add the polynomials: 2a + 3b + 5a + 7b
a. 7a – 4b b. 7a + 4b c. 3ab d. 7a – 10b
11. Subtract the polynomials. (9x2 – 4x + 11) – (-3x2 – 2x + 2)
a. 6x2 – 2x + 9 b. 6x2 – 2x + 13
c. 6x2 – 6x + 9 d. 6x2 – 6x + 13
12. (x + 2) (x2 - 2x + 4) = ______________
a. x3 + 8 b. x3 + 4x2 – 8x + 8 c. x3 - 4x2 + 8x + 8 d. x3 + 8x + 8
13. The difference of twice a number and six is four times the number. Find an equation to solve for the
number.
a. 2x – 6 = 4 b. 2x – 6 = 4x
c. 2x + 6 = 4x d. 2x – 6 = x + 4
14. Expand: ( 2x - 3)2
a. 4x2 – 9 b. 4x2 + 9
b. 2x2 -12x + 9 d. 4x2 – 12x + 9
15. Which of the following numbers is the smallest?
3 3 2
a. − 4 b. − 2 c. -1 d. − 3

16. Which of the following numbers is the largest?

a. | 5 – 2 | b. | 2 – 5 | c. | -2 – 5 | d. | 5 – 2 |+| 2 – 5 |
17. Solve: 3 ( x - 5) ≤ x – 8
7 2
a. x ≤ b. x ≤ c. x ≤ −1 d. x ≥ -1
2 7

18. A flower-bed is in the shape of a triangle with one side twice the length of the shortest side and the third
side 15 feet longer than the shortest side. If the perimeter is 100 feet and if x represents the length of the
shortest side, find an equation to solve for the lengths of the three sides.
a. x + 2x + x + 15 = 100 b. x + 15 = 2x
c. x + 15 + 2x = 100 d. x + 2x = x + 115
19. If John has $50 more money than Mary and you choose to represent John’s amount of money as X how
should you represent Mary’s amount of money in terms of X?
a. X + $50 b. X - $50 c. $50 – X d. $50·X
20. Multiply: 2x (3x2 – 5x – 3)
a. 6x3 – 5x2 - 6x b. 6x3 – 5x – 3
c. 6x3 – 10x2 – 3x d. 6x3 – 10x2 - 6x
14𝑚2 −28𝑚8 +7𝑚
21. Divide: 7𝑚

a. 2m – 28m8 + 7m b. 2m – 4m7 + 1
c. 2m - 4m7 d. 2m2 – 4m8 + m
22. Factor completely. 12x4 – 20x3 + 4x2. One factor is.
a. 4x4 b. 3x + 1 c. x – 1 d. 3x2 – 5x + 1
23. Factor completely. x2 – 12x + 36. One factor is.
a. 6x b. x – 6 c. x – 12 d. x + 3
24. Factor completely. 7x2 + 14x - 21. One factor is.
a. 7x b. x + 1 c. x – 3 d. x + 3
25. Factor completely. x2 – 3x – 10 = 0. One solution is:
a. x = 10 b. x = 1 c. x = –2 d. x = 2
26. Solve. 2x2 – 5x = 0, the solutions are ______.
5
a. x = 0 b. x = 0, x = 5 c. x = 0, x = –5 d. x = 0, x = 2
27. Solve the following system of equations for the y-value: x + 2y+7
2x + 2y = 13

1 13
a. y = 2 b. y = 6 c. y = 5 d. y = 4
5 2
28. − 3𝑎2 = __________
6𝑎
3 3 1 5𝑎 −4
a. 6𝑎2 b. 3𝑎 c. 6𝑎2 d. 6𝑎2
9𝑏 2 −3𝑏
29. = __________
3b

a. 9𝑏 2 − 1 b. 3 − b c. 1 − b d. 9b
30. The DoBee.Com Corporation has 5 more than three times as many female as male supervisors. If “x”
represents the number of male supervisors write an expression that would represent the total number of female
supervisors in terms of “x”.
a. x + 5 b. 3x + 5 c. 4x + 5 d. 9x
31. Charles needs enough fencing to enclose a rectangular garden with a perimeter of 140 feet. If the width of
his garden is to be 30 feet, write the equation that can be used to solve for the length of the garden.
a. x + 30 = 140 b. 2x + 30 = 140 c. 2x + 60 =
140 d. 140 – x = 60
𝑥 2 + 4𝑥 + 4
32. For what value(s) of x will each expression be undefined? 𝑥 2 + 𝑥−6

a. 6 b. -2 c. -2 and 3 d. 2 and -3
3𝑥 2 −12
33. Simplify & reduce: 9x+18
a. x−2 2 x+2 x−2
b. 3𝑥 − 3 c. d.
6 3 3

34. Given the equation –2x + 3y = 12, find the missing value in the ordered pair (–3,___).
a. –6 b. –2 c6 d. 2
𝑥2 9
35. Solve and simplify if possible: − x−3
x−3
𝑥 3
a. −3
−x b. -1 c. 3 + x d. 3 − x

36. How much water must be added to 25 liters of a 65% salt solution to reduce it to 25% solution?

a. 42 b. 38 c. 36 d. 40

Use the picture of ∆ABC to answers questions (37-40).

B
37. In the figure, AB = ?

a. 2 b. 2√3 c. 4 d. 8 5
38. What is the ratio of sinB?

3 4 √34 C 3 A
o
a. b. c. 45 d. .
5 5 5

39. What is the ration for TanC?

3 5 4 √34
a. b. . c. . d.
4 3 3 5

40. Find the measure of angle B?

a. 90 b. 36.5 c. 30.9 d. 45

41. A circle has an area of 64 ft.2. What is the circumference of the circle?

a. 8 ft. b. 8𝜋 ft. c. 16𝜋 ft. d. 32𝜋 ft.

42. Which of the following is true of y = 2?
a. It is not a function. b. It has a range of 2.
c. It has no domain. d. It has a slope of 2.
43. The bases of a right triangle measure x – 3 and x + 4. If the hypotenuse of the triangle is 2x – 3, what is the
length of the hypotenuse?

a. 4 b. 5 c. 8 d. 13
Use the diagram below to answer questions 44–46. Angle C measures 60°. The diagram is not to scale.
A

B C
44. If the length of side AB is 9 cm, what is the length of side BC?

√3
a. 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠 b. 3 units c. 4.5 units d. 3√3 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠
3

45. If the hypotenuse of triangle ABC is 6x + 2 units long, what is the length of side AB?

a. √6𝑥 + 2 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠 b. 3x + 1 c. 12x + 4 units d. 12√3 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠

46. If the sum of sides BC and AC is 12 units, what is the length of side AB?

a. 3√3 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠 b. 4 units c. 4√3 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠 d. 8 units

47. Triangle DEC is inscribed in rectangle ABCD. If side AB = 30 units, side EC = 17 units, and side AE = side EB,
what is the area of triangle DEC?
A E B
D C

a. 60 square units b. 120 square units

c. 136 square units d. 240 square units
2
48. If the length of AB of square ABCD is x units, and the length of EF is 3 of AD, what is the size of the shaded
area? A B

D C
1 1
a. x2 - 2 x square units b. x2 - 3 x square units
2 2
c. x2 - 3 x square units d. 3 x2 square units

49. A rectangular solid measures 4 units by 5 units by 6 units. What is the surface area of the solid?
a. 60 square units b. 74 square units
c.110 square units d. 148 square units
50. The volume of a cube is x3 cubic units, and the surface area of the cube is x3 square units. What is the value
of x?
a. 1 unit b. 3 units c. 4 units d. 6 units

ENGLISH (VOCABULARY/SENTENCE COMPLETION)

1. To get the promotion she wanted, Priya ________ that it was best to go back to school to get her master’s
degree as soon as she could.
a. anticipated b. hindered c. augmented d. resolved
2. The car rental company considered the scratches on the driver’s door to be caused by a minor ________.
a. mishap b. coercion c. infiltration d. quirk
3. Being a direct relative of the deceased, her claim to the estate was ________.
a. optional b. vicious c. prominent d. legitimate
4. The hail ________ the cornfield until the entire crop was lost.
a. belittled b. pummelled c. rebuked d. commended
5. The two cats could be ________ only by the number of rings on their tails; otherwise, they were exactly
alike.
a. separated b. diversified c. disconnected d. differentiated
6. The Earth Day committee leader placed large garbage bins in the park to ________Saturday’s clean-up.
a. confound b. pacify c. integrate d. facilitate
7. Despite her ________ dress, she was a simple girl at heart.
a. sophisticated b. casual c. shoddy d. personable
8. Her rapport with everyone in the office ________ the kind of interpersonal skills that all of the employees
appreciated.
a. prevailed b. diverged c. exemplified d. delegated
9. The non-profit agency bought office supplies using a tax ________ number.
a. liability b. exempt c. information d. accountability
10. When you discuss the characters from The Catcher in the Rye, please be sure to give a ________
description of the narrator.
a. principled b. determined c. comprehensive d. massive
11. With great and admirable ________,the renowned orator spoke to the crowd gathered in the lecture hall.
a.toil b.ado c. finesse d. tedium
12. ________ elephants from the wild not only endangers the species but also upsets the balance of nature.
a. Contriving b. Poaching c. Provoking d. Hindering
13. ________,the skilled pediatric nurse fed the premature baby.
a . Carelessly b. Precariously c. Gingerly d. Wantonly
14. For the first assignment of the fall term, the students in Professor Norman’s English 101 class had to write
a/an ________ to summarize the short story they had read.
a. reconciliation b. acronym c. précis d. proclamation
15. The teacher put the crayons on the bottom shelf to make them ________ to the young children.
a. accessible b. receptive c. eloquent d. ambiguous
16. She pretended to be ________ about her upcoming performance, but secretly she was very excited.
a. agitated b. receptive c. candid d. blasé
17. My computer was state-of-the-art when I bought it three years ago, but now it is ________.
a. flammable b. desolate c. retroactive d. outmoded
18. We were tired when we reached the ________, but the spectacular view of the valley below was worth the
hike.
a. circumference b. summit c. fulcrum d. nadir
19. Visiting all the coffee shops in the city, they were on a/an ________ to find the perfect cup of coffee.
a. surge b. quest c. ultimatum d. cadence
20. The suit had a/an ________ odor, as if it had been stored in a trunk for a long time.
a. olfactory b. illicit c. musty d. decrepit
21. George developed an ________ plan to earn the extra money he needed to start his own business.
a. elitist b. irrational c. aloof d. ingenious
22. Since his workplace was so busy and noisy, he longed most of all for ________.
a. solitude b. ascension c. loneliness d. irreverence
23. We knew everything about the newest member of our group; she was very ________.
a. expressive b. brash c. reserved d. egotistical
24. I have always liked your positive attitude; it has ________ affected our working relationship.
a. adversely b. woefully c. candidly d. favorably
25. Rachel ________ a plan to become a millionaire by age thirty.
a. conformed b. devised c. curtailed d. condoned
26. Dog-sitting for Buddy is easy; he is a ________ and obedient pet.
a. delectable b. trite c. meddlesome d. docile
27. Wanting to make a good impression, he found himself in a ________ about the right tie to wear to the
business meeting.
a. prestige b. redundancy c. quandary d. deficit
28. The directions to the new school were ________, and I had no trouble finding it in time for class.
a. provident b. arduous c. explicit d. embodied
29. Since Jennifer needed an “A” in her economics class, she gave studying ________ over watching her
favourite television show.
a. precedence b. conformity c. perplexity d. contention
30. If your drinking water is not ________,it could cause serious health problems.
a. valid b. quenchable c. indignant d. potable

The ravages [of the storm] were terrible in America, Europe, and Asia. Towns were overthrown, forests uprooted,
coasts devastated by the mountains of water which were precipitated on them, vessels cast on the shore, whole districts
levelled by waterspouts, several thousand people crushed on land or drowned at sea; such were the traces of its (33)
________,left by this devastating tempest.

31. What is the meaning of the word overthrown in the context of this passage?
a. surrendered b. devastated c. capitulated d. yielded
32. What is the meaning of the word levelled as it is used in the passage?
a. razed b. marked c. spread d. raised
33. Which word, if inserted in the blank, makes the most sense in the context of the passage?
a. velocity b. fury c. reward d. benevolence
 One summer, while visiting in the little village among the Green Mountains where her ancestors had
dwelt for (34) ________,my Aunt Georgiana kindled the callow fancy of my uncle, Howard Carpenter, then an
idle, shiftless boy of twenty-one.

34. Which word, if inserted in the blank, makes the most sense in the context of the passage?
a. days b. seasons c. infinity d. generations
35. What is the meaning of the word shiftless as it is used in the passage?
a. amiable b. ruthless c. lazy d. carefree

Experts who study rhesus monkeys have determined that the species uses facial expressions to
communicate with each other and to enforce social order. For example, the fear grimace—although it looks
ferocious—is actually given by a (36) ________ monkey who is intimidated by a (37) ________ member of the
group.

36. What is the meaning of the word grimace as it is used in the passage?
a. smirk b. contortion c. howl d. simper
37. Which pair of words or phrases, if inserted into the blanks in sequence, makes the most sense in the writer’s
context?
a. calm ...aggressive b. dominant ...subordinate
c. confident ...fearless d. subordinate ...dominant

In space flight there are the obvious (38) ________ of meteors—debris and radiation. However,
astronauts must also deal with two vexing physiological foes—muscle atrophy and bone loss.
38. Which word, if inserted in the blank, makes the most sense in the context of the passage?
a. thrills b. ages c. hazards d. speed
39. The phrase vexing physiological foes as used in the paragraph refers to
a. physical deterioration. b. serious illness.
c. nervous disorder. d. contagious disease.
40. The word atrophy as used in the paragraph most nearly means
a. pain. b. wasting. c. aches. d. cramping.

Fill in the blank with the word that creates the most logical sentence.

41. ________Sarah drives to the cabin several times a year, she is often nervous about finding her way.
a. Besides b. Unless c. Nevertheless d. although
42. Lila wasn’t feeling well. _____________,she decided to stay home from work.
a. Therefore b. Meanwhile c. However d. Anyway
43. ______ he waited for the doctor to call him in, Sam sat in the waiting room and read the newspaper.
a. So that b. While
c. Even if d. Besides when
44. Ruby loves blueberry pie _________it is made with freshly picked blueberries.
a. whether b. because c. when d. as if
45. Mitchell loves listening to jazz and rhythm and blues. Greg, ____________, will only listen to country.
a. however b. then c. too d. therefore
46. __________our low annual fee,you will receive a 20% discount if you sign up this week.
a. Because b. While c. In spite of d. In addition to
47. The ticket said the show would start at 8:00, but the curtains didn’t go up _________ 8:30.
a. less than b. until c. about d. since
48. My neighbor is deathly afraid of dogs; ___________, I never let my Golden Retriever, Sandy, outside
without a leash.
a. moreover b. yet c. mainly d. consequently
49. The wedding quilt was designed as a sentimental way to make use of fabric taken ______________ blankets
and bedding that belonged to older couples in her family.
a. from b. with c. in d. at
50. Sandra Day O’Connor,the first woman to serve on the U.S.Supreme Court,________ appointed by President
Ronald Reagan in 1981.
a. she b. and c. but d. was
Fill in the blank with the correct pronoun.
51. That fine circus elephant now belongs to my sister and________.
a. I b. me c. mine d. myself
52. The person ________ made these delicious candied figs has my vote.
a. that b. whom c. who d. whose
53. If you don’t stop playing ________ video games, you will miss the bus.
a. that b. those c. them d. this
54. George and Michael left ________ backpacks at school.
a. his b. their c. there d. its
55. If you steal ________ artichoke from Petra’s garden, you’ll be sorry.
a. them b. those c. that d. these
56. We arranged the flowers and placed ________ in the center of the table.
a. it b. this c. them d. that
57. ________ met more than ten years ago at a mutual friend’s birthday party.
a. Her and I b. Her and me
c. She and me d. She and I
58. My parents approved of ________ taking guitar lessons.
a. my b. me c. I d. mine

59. I really like watching old shows. __________ are some of the best things on TV.
a. Those b. That c. This d. These
60. I searched all over, but couldn’t find my notes __________.
a. something b. somewhere c. anywhere d. none

READING COMPREHENSION
PASSAGE 1:
In the sixteenth century, an age of great marine and terrestrial exploration, Ferdinand Magellan led the first
expedition to sail around the world. As a young Portuguese noble, he served the king of Portugal, but he
became involved in the quagmire of political intrigue at court and lost the king's favor. After he was dismissed
from service to the king of Portugal, he offered to serve the future Emperor Charles V of Spain.

A papal decree of 1493 had assigned all land in the New World west of 50 degrees W longitude to Spain and all the land
east of that line to Portugal. Magellan offered to prove that the East Indies fell under Spanish authority. On September 20,
1519, Magellan set sail from Spain with five ships. More than a year later, one of these ships was exploring the
topography of South America in search of a water route across the continent. This ship sank, but the remaining four ships
searched along the southern peninsula of South America. Finally they found the passage they sought near a latitude of 50
degrees S. Magellan named this passage the Strait of All Saints, but today we know it as the Strait of Magellan.

One ship deserted while in this passage and returned to Spain, so fewer sailors were privileged to gaze at that first
panorama of the Pacific Ocean. Those who remained crossed the meridian we now call the International Date Line in the
early spring of 1521 after ninety-eight days on the Pacific Ocean. During those long days at sea, many of Magellan's men
died of starvation and disease.

Later Magellan became involved in an insular conflict in the Philippines and was killed in a tribal battle. Only one ship
and seventeen sailors under the command of the Basque navigator Elcano survived to complete the westward journey to
Spain and thus prove once and for all that the world is round, with no precipice at the edge.

61. The sixteenth century was an age of great exploration.

a. cosmic b. land c. mental d. common man
62. Magellan lost the favor of the king of Portugal when he became involved in a political .
a. entanglement b. discussion
c. negotiation d. problems
63. The Pope divided New World lands between Spain and Portugal according to their location on one side or
the other of an imaginary geographical line 50 degrees west of Greenwich that extends in a direction.
a. north and south b. crosswise
c. easterly d. south east
64. One of Magellan's ships explored the of South America for a passage across the continent.
a. coastline b. mountain range
 c. physical features d. islands
65. Four of the ships sought a passage along a southern .
a. coast b. inland
c. body of land with water on three sides d. border

66. The passage was found near 50 degrees S of .

a. Greenwich b. The equator c. Spain d. Portugal
67. In the spring of 1521, the ships crossed the now called the International Date Line.
a. imaginary circle passing through the poles
b. Imaginary line parallel to the equator
c. area
d. land mass

PASSAGE 2
Marie Curie was one of the most accomplished scientists in history. Together with her husband, Pierre, she
discovered radium, an element widely used for treating cancer, and studied uranium and other radioactive
substances. Pierre and Marie's amicable collaboration later helped to unlock the secrets of the atom.
Marie was born in 1867 in Warsaw, Poland, where her father was a professor of physics. At the early age,
she displayed a brilliant mind and a blithe personality. Her great exuberance for learning prompted her to
continue with her studies after high school. She became disgruntled, however, when she learned that the
university in Warsaw was closed to women. Determined to receive a higher education, she defiantly left Poland
and in 1891 entered the Sorbonne, a French university, where she earned her master's degree and doctorate in
physics.
Marie was fortunate to have studied at the Sorbonne with some of the greatest scientists of her day, one
of whom was Pierre Curie. Marie and Pierre were married in 1895 and spent many productive years working
together in the physics laboratory. A short time after they discovered radium, Pierre was killed by a horse-
drawn wagon in 1906. Marie was stunned by this horrible misfortune and endured heartbreaking anguish.
Despondently she recalled their close relationship and the joy that they had shared in scientific research. The
fact that she had two young daughters to raise by herself greatly increased her distress.

Curie's feeling of desolation finally began to fade when she was asked to succeed her husband as a
physics professor at the Sorbonne. She was the first woman to be given a professorship at the world-famous
university. In 1911 she received the Nobel Prize in chemistry for isolating radium. Although Marie Curie
eventually suffered a fatal illness from her long exposure to radium, she never became disillusioned about her
work. Regardless of the consequences, she had dedicated herself to science and to revealing the mysteries of
the physical world.

68. The Curies' collaboration helped to unlock the secrets of the atom.

a. friendly b. competitive c. courteous d. industrious

69. Marie had a bright mind and a personality.

a. strong b. light-hearted c. humorous d. strange
70. When she learned that she could not attend the university in Warsaw, she felt ___ .
 a. hopeless b. annoyed c. depressed d. worried
71. Marie by leaving Poland and traveling to France to enter the Sorbonne.
a. challenged authority b. showed intelligence
c. behaved d. was distressed

72. __________ she remembered their joy together.

a. Dejectedly b. Worried c. Tearfully d. Happily
73. Her began to fade when she returned to the Sorbonne to succeed her husband.

a. misfortune b. anger c. wretchedness d. disappointment

74. Even though she became fatally ill from working with radium, Marie Curie was never
a. troubled b. worried c. disappointed d. sorrowful

PASSAGE 3:
Mount Vesuvius, a volcano located between the ancient Italian cities of Pompeii and Herculaneum, has
received much attention because of its frequent and destructive eruptions. The most famous of these eruptions
occurred in A. D. 79. The volcano had been inactive for centuries. There was little warning of the coming
eruption, although one account unearthed by archaeologists says that a hard rain and a strong wind had
disturbed the celestial calm during the preceding night. Early the next morning, the volcano poured a huge river
of molten rock down upon Herculaneum, completely burying the city and filling in the harbour with coagulated
lava.

Meanwhile, on the other side of the mountain, cinders, stone and ash rained down on Pompeii. Sparks
from the burning ash ignited the combustible rooftops quickly. Large portions of the city were destroyed in
the conflagration. Fire, however, was not the only cause of destruction. Poisonous sulfuric gases saturated the
air. These heavy gases were not buoyant in the atmosphere and therefore sank toward the earth and suffocated
people.

Over the years, excavations of Pompeii and Herculaneum have revealed a great deal about the
behavior of the volcano. By analyzing data, much as a zoologist dissects a specimen animal, scientist have
concluded that the eruption changed large portions of the area's geography. For instance, it turned the Sarno
River from its course and raised the level of the beach along the Bay of Naples. Meteorologists studying these
events have also concluded that Vesuvius caused a huge tidal wave that affected the world's climate.

In addition to making these investigations, archaeologists have been able to study the skeletons of
victims by using distilled water to wash away the volcanic ash. By strengthening the brittle bones with acrylic
paint, scientists have been able to examine the skeletons and draw conclusions about the diet and habits of the
residents. Finally, the excavations at both Pompeii and Herculaneum have yielded many examples of classical
art, such as jewelry made of bronze, which is an alloy of copper and tin. The eruption of Mount Vesuvius and
its tragic consequences have provided us with a wealth of data about the effects that volcanoes can have on the
surrounding area. Today volcanologists can locate and predict eruptions, saving lives and preventing the
destruction of cities and cultures.

75. Herculaneum and its harbor were buried under _lava.

a. liquid b. solid c. flowing d. gas
76. The poisonous gases were not in the air.
 a. able to float b. visible c. able to evaporate d. invisible
77. Scientists analysed data about Vesuvius in the same way that a zoologist a specimen.
a. describes in detail b. studies by cutting apart
c. photographs d. chart
78. _____ have concluded that the volcanic eruption caused a tidal wave.
a. Scientist who study oceans
b. Scientist who study atmospheric conditions
c. Scientist who study ash
d. Scientist who study animal behavior

79. Scientist have used _______ water to wash away volcanic ash from the skeletons of victims.
a. bottled b. volcanic c. purified d. sea

PASSAGE 4
Conflict had existed between Spain and England since the 1570s. England wanted a share of the
wealth that Spain had been taking from the lands it had claimed in the Americas.

Elizabeth I, Queen of England, encouraged her staunch admiral of the navy, Sir Francis Drake, to raid
Spanish ships and towns. Though these raids were on a small scale, Drake achieved dramatic success, adding
gold and silver to England's treasury and diminishing Spain's omnipotence.

Religious differences also caused conflict between the two countries. Whereas Spain was Roman
Catholic, most of England had become Protestant. King Philip II of Spain wanted to claim the throne and
make England a Catholic country again. To satisfy his ambition and also to retaliate against England's theft of
his gold and silver, King Philip began to build his fleet of warships, the Armada, in January 1586.

Philip intended his fleet to be indestructible. In addition to building new warships, he marshaled one
hundred and thirty sailing vessels of all types and recruited more than nineteen thousand robust soldiers and
eight thousand sailors. Although some of his ships lacked guns and others lacked ammunition, Philip was
convinced that his Armada could withstand any battle with England.

The martial Armada set sail from Lisbon, Portugal, on May 9,1588, but bad weather forced it back
to port. The voyage resumed on July 22 after the weather became more stable.

The Spanish fleet met the smaller, faster, and more maneuverable English ships in battle off the coast
of Plymouth, England, first on July 31 and again on August 2. The two battles left Spain vulnerable, having
lost several ships and with its ammunition depleted. On August 7, while the Armada lay at anchor on the
French side of the Strait of Dover, England sent eight burning ships into the midst of the Spanish fleet to set it
on fire. Blocked on one side, the Spanish ships could only drift away, their crews in panic and disorder.
Before the Armada could regroup, the English attacked again on August 8.

Although the Spaniards made a valiant effort to fight back, the fleet suffered extensive damage.
During the eight hours of battle, the Armada drifted perilously close to the rocky coastline. At the moment
when it seemed that the Spanish ships would be driven onto the English shore, the wind shifted, and the
Armada drifted out into the North Sea. The Spaniards recognized the superiority of the English fleet and
returned home, defeated.

80. Sir Francis Drake added wealth to the treasury and diminished Spain's .
 a. unlimited power b. unrestricted growth
c. territory d. treaties
81. Philip recruited many soldiers and sailors.
a. warlike b. strong c. accomplished d. timid
82. The Armada set sail on May 9, 1588.
a. complete b. warlike c. independent d. isolated
83. The two battles left the Spanish fleet .
a. open to change b. triumphant c. open to attack d. defeated
84. The Armada was on one side.
a. closed off b. damaged c. alone d. circled
PASSAGE 5:
The victory of the small Greek democracy of Athens over the mighty Persian empire in 490 B.C. is one of the
most famous events in history. Darius, king of the Persian empire, was furious because Athens had interceded for the
other Greek city-states in revolt against Persian domination. In anger the king sent an enormous army to defeat Athens. He
thought it would take drastic steps to pacify the rebellious part of the empire. Persia was ruled by one man.

In Athens, however, all citizens helped to rule. Ennobled by this participation, Athenians were prepared to die for
their city-state. Perhaps this was the secret of the remarkable victory at Marathon, which freed them from Persian rule.
On their way to Marathon, the Persians tried to fool some Greek city-states by claiming to have come in peace. The
frightened citizens of Delos refused to believe this. Not wanting to abet the conquest of Greece, they fled from their city
and did not return until the Persians had left. They were wise, for the Persians next conquered the city of Etria and
captured its people.
Tiny Athens stood alone against Persia. The Athenian people went to their sanctuaries. There they prayed for
deliverance. They asked their gods to expedite their victory. The Athenians refurbished their weapons and moved to the
plain of Marathon, where their little band would meet the Persians. At the last moment, soldiers from Plataea reinforced
the Athenian troops.

The Athenian army attacked, and Greek citizens fought bravely. The power of the mighty Persians was offset by
the love that the Athenians had for their city. Athenians defeated the Persians in archery and hand combat. Greek
soldiers seized Persian ships and burned them, and the Persians fled in terror. Herodotus, a famous historian, reports
that 6400 Persians died, compared with only 192 Athenians.

85. Athens had _____ the other Greek city-states against the Persians.

a. refused help to b. intervened on behalf of

c. wanted to fight d. given orders for all to fight

86. Darius took drastic steps to _____ the rebellious Athenians.

a. weaken b. destroy d. calm d. placate

87. Their participation _to the Athenians.

a. gave comfort b. gave honor c. gave strength d. gave fear

88. The people of Delos did not want to the conquest of Greece.
a. end b. encourage c. think about d. daydream about
89. The Athenians were by some soldiers who arrived from Plataea.
a. welcomed b. strengthened c. held d. captured
PASSAGE 6
The Trojan War is one of the most famous wars in history. It is well known for the ten-year duration, for the
heroism of a number of legendary characters, and for the Trojan horse. What may not be familiar, however, is the story
of how the war began. According to Greek myth, the strife between the Trojans and the Greeks started at the wedding of
Peleus, King of Thessaly, and Thetis, a sea nymph. All of the gods and goddesses had been invited to the wedding
celebration in Troy except Eris, goddesses of discord. She had been omitted from the guest list because her presence
always embroiled mortals and immortals alike in conflict.

To take revenge on those who had slighted her, Eris decided to cause a skirmish. Into the middle of the banquet
hall, she threw a golden apple marked “for the most beautiful.” All of the goddesses began to haggle over who should
possess it. The gods and goddesses reached a stalemate when the choice was narrowed to Hera, Athena, and Aphrodite.
Someone was needed to settle the controversy by picking a winner. The job eventually fell to Paris, son of King Priam of
Troy, who was said to be a good judge of beauty.

Paris did not have an easy job. Each goddess, eager to win the golden apple, tried aggressively to bribe him.

“I'll grant you vast kingdoms to rule, “ promised Hera. “Vast kingdoms are nothing in comparison with my gift,”
contradicted Athena. “Choose me and I'll see that you win victory and fame in war.” Aphrodite outdid her adversaries,
however. She won the golden apple by offering Helen, Zeus' daughter and the most beautiful mortal, to Paris. Paris,
anxious to claim Helen, set off for Sparta in Greece.
Although Paris learned that Helen was married, he accepted the hospitality of her husband, King Menelasu of
Sparta, anyway. Therefore, Menelaus was outraged for a number of reasons when Paris departed, taking Helen and much
of the king's wealth back to Troy. Menelaus collected his loyal forces and set sail for Troy to begin the war to reclaim
Helen.

90. Eris was known for both mortals and immortals.

a. scheming against b. involving in conflict

c. feeling hostile toward d. ignoring

91. Each goddess tried _ to bribe Paris.

a. boldly b. effectively c. secretly d. carefully

92. Athena Hera, promising Paris victory and fame in war.

a. denied the statement of b. defeated
c. agreed with d. restated the statement
PASSAGE 7:
One of the most intriguing stories of the Russian Revolution concerns the identity of Anastasia, the youngest
daughter of Czar Nicholas II. During his reign over Russia, the Czar had planned to revoke many of the harsh laws
established by previous czars. Some workers and peasants, however, clamored for more rapid social reform. In 1918 a
group of these people, known as Bolsheviks, overthrew the government. On July 17 or 18, they murdered the Czar and
what was thought to be his entire family.

Although witnesses vouched that all the members of the Czar's family had been executed, there were rumors
suggesting that Anastasia had survived. Over the years, a number of women claimed to be Grand Duchess Anastasia.
Perhaps the best –known claimant was Anastasia Tschaikovsky, who was also known as Anna Anderson.

In 1920, eighteen months after the Czar's execution, this terrified young woman was rescued from drowning in a
Berlin river. She spent two years in a hospital, where she attempted to reclaim her health and shattered mind. The doctors
and nurses thought that she resembled Anastasia and questioned heer about her background. She disclaimed any
connection with the Czar's family.

Eight years later, though, she claimed that she was Anastasia. She said that she had been rescued by two
Russian soldiers after the Czar and the rest of her family had been killed. Two brothers named Tschaikovsky had carried
her into Romania. She had married one of the brothers, who had taken her to Berlin and left her there, penniless and
without a vocation. Unable to invoke the aid of her mother's family in Germany, she had tried to drown herself.

During the next few years, scores of the Czar's relatives, ex-servants, and acquaintances interviewed her. Many
of these people said that her looks and mannerisms were evocative of the Anastasia that they had known. Her
grandmother and other relatives denied that she was the real Anastasia, however. Tried of being accused of fraud,
Anastasia immigrated to the United States in 1928 and took the name Anna Anderson. She still wished to prove that she
was Anastasia, though, and returned to Germany in 1933 to bring suit against her mother's family. There she declaimed
to the court, asserting that she was indeed Anastasia and deserved her inheritance.

In 1957, the court decided that it could neither confirm nor deny Anastasia's identity. Although we will probably
never know whether this woman was the Grand Duchess Anastasia, her search to establish her identity has been the
subject of numerous books, plays, and movies.

93. Some Russian peasants and workers for social reform.

a. longed b. cried out c. begged d. hoped
94. Witnesses _____ that all members of the Czar's family had been executed.
a. gave assurance b. thought c. hoped d. convinced some
95. Tschaikovsky __________ any connection with the Czar's family.
a. denied b. stopped c. noted d. justified
96. She was unable to _the aid of her relative.
a. locate b. speak about c. call upon d. identify

97. In court she maintaining that she was Anastasia and deserved her inheritance.
a. finally appeared b. spoke forcefully c. testified d. gave evidence
PASSAGE 8:
King Louis XVI and Queen Marie Antoinette ruled France from 1774 to 1789, a time when the country
was fighting bankruptcy. The royal couple did not let France's insecure financial situation limit their
immoderate spending, however. Even though the minister of finance repeatedly warned the king and queen
against wasting money, they continued to spend great fortunes on their personal pleasure. This lavish spending
greatly enraged the people of France. They felt that the royal couple bought its luxurious lifestyle at the poor
people's expense.

Marie Antoinette, the beautiful but exceedingly impractical queen, seemed uncaring about her subjects;
misery. While French citizens begged for lower taxes, the queen embellished her palace with extravagant
works of art. She also surrounded herself with artists, writers, and musicians, who encouraged the queen to
spend money even more profusely.

While the queen's favorites glutted themselves on huge feasts at the royal table, many people in France
were starving. The French government taxed the citizens outrageously. These high taxes paid for the
entertainments the queen and her court so enjoyed. When the minister of finance tried to stop these royal
spendthrifts, the queen replaced him. The intense hatred that the people felt for Louis XVI and Marie
Antoinette kept building until it led to the French Revolution.
During this time of struggle and violence (1789-1799), thousands of aristocrats, as well as the king and
queen themselves, lost their lives at the guillotine. Perhaps if Louis XVI and Marie Antoinette had reined in
their extravagant spending, the events that rocked France would not have occurred.
98. The people surrounding the queen encouraged her to spend money .
a. wisely b. abundantly c. carefully d. foolishly

99. The minister of finance tried to curb these royal .

a. aristocrats b. money wasters c. enemies d. individuals
PASSAGE 9:
Many great inventions are greeted with ridicule and disbelief. The invention of the airplane was no
exception. Although many people who heard about the first powered flight on December 17,1903, were excited
and impressed, others reacted with peals of laughter. The idea of flying an aircraft was repulsive to some
people. Such people called Wilbur and Orville Wright, the inventors of the first flying machine, impulsive
fools. Negative reactions, however, did not stop the Wrights. Impelled by their desire to succeed, they
continued their experiments in aviation.

Orville and Wilbur Wright had always had a compelling interest in aeronautics and mechanics. As
young boys they earned money by making and selling kites and mechanical toys. Later, they designed a
newspaper-folding machine, built a printing press, and operated a bicycle-repair shop. In 1896, when they read
about the death of Otto Lilienthal, the brother's interest in flight grew into a compulsion.

Lilienthal, a pioneer in hang-gliding, had controlled his gliders by shifting his body in the desired
direction. This idea was repellent to the Wright brothers, however, and they searched for more efficient
methods to control the balance of airborne vehicles. In 1900 and 1901, the Wrights tested numerous gliders
and developed control techniques. The brothers' inability to obtain enough lift power for the gliders almost led
them to abandon their efforts.

After further study, the Wright brothers concluded that the published tables of air pressure on curved
surfaces must be wrong. They set up a wind tunnel and began a series of experiments with model wings.
Because of their efforts, the old tables were repealed in time and replaced by the first reliable figures for air
pressure on curved surfaces. This work, in turn, made it possible for them to design a machine that would fly.
In 1903 the Wrights built their first airplane, which cost less than one thousand dollars. They even designed
and built their own source of propulsion- a lightweight gasoline engine. When they started the engine on
December 17, the airplane pulsated wildly before taking off. The plane managed to stay aloft for twelve
seconds, however, and it flew one hundred twenty feet.
By 1905 the Wrights had perfected the first airplane that could turn, circle, and remain airborne for half
an hour at a time. Others had flown in balloons or in hang gliders, but the Wright brothers were the first to
build a full-size machine that could fly under its own power. As the contributors of one of the most outstanding
engineering achievements in history, the Wright brothers are accurately called the fathers of aviation.

100. The idea of flying an aircraft was ___ to some people.

a. boring b. distasteful c. exciting d. needless
101. People thought that the Wright brothers had _ .
a. acted without thinking b. been negatively influenced
 c. been too cautious d. had not given enough thought

102. The Wright's interest in flight grew into a .

a. financial empire b. plan
c. need to act d. foolish thought

103. Lilenthal's idea about controlling airborne vehicles was the Wrights.
a. proven wrong by b. opposite to the ideas of
c. disliked by d. accepted by

104. The old tables were __ and replaced by the first reliable figures for air pressure on curved surfaces.
a. destroyed b. canceled c. multiplied d. discarded
105. The Wrights designed and built their own source of .
a. force for moving forward b. force for turning around
c. turning d. force to going backward

SCIENCE
1. The movement of food through the intestines is known as:
a. peristalsis b. ileum translation
c. microvilli propulsion d. flexure propulsion
2. The enzyme maltase does the following
a. breaks down lactose to glucose b. turn glucose into maltose
c. breaks down maltose to glucose d. turns glucose into lactose
3. High levels of bilirubin in the blood stream can result in.
a. uric acid per exposure b. jaundice
c. bile salt production d. hepatic mutation
4. The symbol B on the periodic table stands for:
a. Beryllium b. Boron c. Barium d. Berkelium
5. The symbol Mn on the periodic table stands for:
a. Magnesium b. Molybdenum c. Manganese d. Margon
6. The symbol Ca on the periodic table stands for:
a. Calcium b. Carbon c. Cobalt d. Chlorine
7. The symbol Br on the periodic table stands for:
a. Beryllium b. Boron c. Barium d. Bromine
8. Vinegar is also known as:
a. Acetic acid b. Acetone acid c. Sulfuric acid d. Ascorbic acid
9. A Lewis acid is/an _____ pair acceptor.
a. Neutron b. Proton c. Electron d. Ion
10. _____ reactions produce heat.
a. Endothermic b. exothermic c. Hydrogen d. Buffered
11. Which of the following match the definition: The pressure (P) is inversely proportional to the volume (V) of
gas.
a. Archimedes’ principle b. Charles’ law
c. Boyle’s law d. Anderson’s principle
12. The combination of sodium and chlorine to form NaCL is considered a/an _____ bond.
a. Ionic b. Covalent c. hydrogen d. Metallic
13. Outer shell electrons are known as _____ electrons.
a. Hybrid b. Valence c. Vector d. Transitional
14. Forces can be indicated on graph paper by the use of _____.
a. Empirical rules b. Interaction coefficients
c. Variables d. Vectors
15. P1V1 =P2V2 represents:
a. Archimedes’ principle b. Charles’ law
c. Boyles’ law d. Anderson’s principle
16. Which of the following is not considered a primary color of light?
a. Green b. Blue c. Red d. Yellow
17. The unit of charge is called the _____.
a. Newton b. Coulomb c. Joule d. Watt
18. A/an _____ is a device specifically designed to measure current?
a. Ammeter b. Cyclotron c. Resistor d. Capacitor
19. The two bones found in the area between the knee and ankle in humans are known as:
a. Femur and Tibia b. Fibula and Tibia
c. Ulna and tibia d. Radius and Tibia

20. _____ is the current flow of one coulomb per second.

a. Ampere b. joule c. Watt d. kilowatt
21. The control Centre of the body is the __________.
a. Heart b. Lungs c. Brain d. Kidney
22. Which part of the body is connected with the sense of touch?
a. Nose b. Skin c. Ear d. Eyes
23. A Barometer is used to measure __________.
a. Wind direction b. Rainy water
c. Temperature d. Atmospheric pressure
24. Which of the following is the smallest bird of the world?
a. Hummingbird b. Robin c. Curlew d. Greenfinch
25. Which star is the nearest to sun?
a. Proxima centauri b. Sirius c. Alpha cantauri d. Spole star
26. Who build the telescope?
a. Galileo b. Isaac Newton c. Fleming d. Franklin
27. Henry ford invented the first __________.
a. Television b. Aeroplane c. Motor car d. Refrigerator
28. Jaundice is an infectious disease, which spread through ______.
a. Air b. Soil c. Water d. Clothes
29. The telephone was invented by?
a. JL Baird b. AG Bell c. Marconi d. Thomas Edision
30. Wright Brothers are inventor of the __________.
a. Balloon b. Bicycle c. Aeroplane d. Television
31. The most poisonous plant is ________.
a. Pitcher plan b. Dodder plant
c. Castor bean plant d. Mangrove plant
32. Scientist who study the weather are known as ______.
a. Seismologist b. Meteorologist
c. Astronomer d. anthropologist
33. Which of the following birds cannot fly?
a. Emu b. Rheas c. Ostrich d. All of these
34. Who developed the first vaccine?
a. A volta b. Louis Pasteur c. Galileo d. Edward Jenner
35. Who invented the sewing machine?
a. Elias Howe b. Murray Spangler
c.Thomas Martin d. Leslie Large
36. Who invented the fountain pen?
a. Lewis Waterman b. Lazlo Bir
c. C Clarcke d. John Walker
37. Which of the following is used in pencils?
a. Graphite b. silicon c. Charcoal d. Phosphorus
38. Which of the following metals forms an amalgam with other metals?
a. Tin b. Mercury c. Lead d. Zinc
39. The gas usually filled in the electric bulb is _____?
 a. Nitrogen b. Hydrogen c. Carbon Dioxide d. Oxygen
40. Which of the gas is not known as greenhouse gas?
a. Methane b. Nitrous Oxide c. Carbon d. Hydrogen
41. The hardest substance available on earth is _______?
a. Gold b. Iron c. Diamond d. Platinum
42. Tetraethyl lead is used as _________?
a. Pain killer b. fire Extinguisher
c. Mosquito repellent d. Petrol additive
43. Which of the following is used as a lubricant?
a. Graphite b. Silica c. Iron Oxide d. Diamond
44. For which of the following disciplines is Nobel Prize awarded?
a. Physics & Chemistry b. Physiology or Medicine
c. Literature, Peace & Econ. d. All of the above
45. Which among the following is a positively charged particle emitted by a radioactive element?
a. Beta ray b. Alpha Ray c. Cathode Ray d. Gamma Ray
46. Atoms are composed of _________.
a. Electrons & protons b. Electrons only
c. Protons only d. Electrons & Nuclei
47. Isotopes are separated by _______.
a. Crystalization b. Sublimation c. Distillation d. Filtration
48. Mesons are found in ______.
a. Laser beam b. X-rays c. Gamma ray d. Cosmic rays
49. Wood is the main raw materials for the manufacture of _________.
a. Paint b. Paper c. Ink d. Gun powder
50. Which of the following is a protein?
a. Natural rubber b. Starch c. Cellulose d. None
51. Using a compound microscope, you want to view a plant cell under a magnification of 100x. Given that
your eyepiece has magnification of 20x, which objective should you use to achieve your desired magnification?

a. 5x b. 20x c. 80x d. 100x

52. Plants produce their own food molecules through a process called photosynthesis. What do plants need for
photosynthesis to push through?
a. light b. light and water
c. light, water and carbon dioxide d. light, water carbon dioxide and oxygen
53. Energy within the oceans is distributed through which process?
 a. conduction b. convection c. radiation d. refraction
54. The earth is heated by the Sun by which process?
a. conduction b. convection c. radiation d. refraction
55. An object what looks like a tail is visible at the sky for days. What object is this?
a. Asteroids b. Comet c. Meteor d. Meteoroid
56. How much energy will be consumed by a 100 watt bulb in five minutes than a 50 watt bulb during the same
𝑒𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑔𝑦 𝑖𝑛 𝑗𝑜𝑢𝑙𝑒
period of time? (1 KJ = 1000 joules) ( formula: power in watts 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑖𝑛 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑜𝑑𝑠

a. 0 KJ b. 5 KJ c. 10 KJ d. 15 KJ

57. Two cars have the same weight and the same type of engine and tavel at the same speed. One is a boxy
minivan the other a low, sleek sports car. Which factor below best explains why the sports car gets better gas
mileage than the mini-van?

a. friction b. wind resistance c. acceleration d. all of the above

58. Which principle of mechanical motion is used in the design of a roller coaster?
a. momentum b. friction c. acceleration d. all of the above
59. Two balls of the same density, one large and one small, are rolled toward each other at the same time speed.
When they collide, what will happen to the smaller ball>
a. It will be propelled backwards in the opposite direction?
b. It will continue forward in the same direction
c. It will stop and stay at the point of impact
d. It will jump over the heavier ball
60. A seesaw works best when both people weigh the same. This demonstrate which principle of mechanical
motion?
a. relative velocity b. centrifugal force
c. acceleration d. equilibrium
61. A grandfather clock typically has a long pendulum that swings back and forth to keep time. Which
description below best describes the action of this pendulum?
a. periodic motion b. relative velocity
c. free-falling body d. all of the above
62. Which term below best describes the OPPOSITE of “an increased in speed”?
a. velocity b. friction c. deceleration d. rotation
63. When a load is applied to a structural beam, which of the following does the beam experience?
a. deflection b. stress c. strain d. rotation
64. When a cannon ball is fired at an upward angle from the surface of the earth, which of the following causes
it to come back to the surface of the earth?
a. friction b. centrifugal force c. gravity d. momentum
65. Which of the following best describes the location of the center of gravity of a steel bar that is four feet long
and is the same diameter along its length?
a. two feet from the left end of the bar b. three feet from the right end of the bar
c. on the right end of the bar d. on the left hand of the bar
66. Which of the following materials is the LEAST elastic?
a. silly putty b. wax c. rubber d. paper
67. Block A is twice as big as Block B. Block B is made of a material that is three times as dense as the material
in Block A. Which Block is heavier?
a. Block A b. Block B
c. both blocks weigh the same amount d. not enough information
68. A block of steel has a density of 0.29 pounds per cubic inch. If the block has dimensions of 1 inch by 1 inch
by 2 inches, what it is weight?
a. 0.29 b. 0.58 c. 2.0 pounds d. 4.0 pounds
69. What is the structural principle behind the use of snowshoe?
a. to spread the load out on the snow b. to increase the weight on the snow
c. to slowdown the person using them d. to prevent slippage in the snow
70. There are three beams that are 10 feet long each and al of them are the same size. One is made of wood,
another of steel, and the third of concrete. If identical loads are applied to these three beams, which of the
following will occur?
a. the concrete beam will deflect more than the other two.
b. the wood beam will deflect less than the steel beam.
c. the steel beam will deflect less than the wood beam.
d. the wood beam will deflect less than the concrete beam.
ANALOGY
1. _____: trail :: grain : grail
a.train b. path c. wheat d. holy
2. 4 : 6 :: ______ : 16
a. 2 b. 14 c. 8 d. 10
3. denim : cotton :: ______ : flax
a. sheep b. uniform c. sweater d. linen
4. nymph : ______ :: seraphim : angel
 a. maiden b. sinner c. candle d. priest
5. jibe : praise :: ______ : enlighten
a. jib b. delude c. worship d. wed
6. marshal : prisoner :: principal : ______
a. teacher b. president c. doctrine d. student

7. poetry : rhyme :: philosophy : ______

a. imagery b. music c. bi-law d. theory
8. mend : sewing :: edit : ______
a. darn b. repair c. manuscript d. makeshift
9. abet : ______ :: alone :: lone
a. bet b. loan c. wager d. single
10. 80 : 40 :: 2 : ______
a. 8 b. 4 c. 1 d. 20
11. piercing : ______ :: hushed : whisper
a. diamond b. watch c. siren d. ears
12. segregate : unify :: repair : ______
a. approach b. push c. damage d. outwit
13. principle : doctrine :: living : ______
a. will b. dead c. likelihood d. livelihood
14. alphabetical : ______ :: sequential : files
a. sort b. part c. list d. order
15. myopic : farsighted :: ______ : obscure
a. benevolent b. famous c. turgid d. wasted
16. tacit : implied :: ______ : inferior
a. shoddy b. taciturn c. forthright d. superior
17. implement : rule :: ______ : verdict
a. propose b. render c. divide d. teach
18. shallot : ______ :: scallop : mollusk
a. shark b. muscle c. dessert d. onion
19. rotation : earth :: ______ : top
a. planet b. spinning c. sun d. expanding
20. monarch : ______ :: king : cobra
a. queen b. butterfly c. royal d. venom
21. huckster : ______ :: gangster : crime
a. corn b. trucking c. policeman d. advertising
22. ______ : bedrock :: cement : foundation
a. mica b. water c. lava d. sand

23. cytology : ______ :: geology : rocks

a. cyclones b. psychology c. pharmacology d. cells
24. mouse : ______ :: flash : camera
a. rat b. computer c. cord d. dessert
25. Argentina : Brazil :: ______ : Iran
a. Canada b. Iraq c. Ireland d. Mexico
26. ______ : play :: sing : anthem
a. act b. scene c. theater d. field
27. cushion : sofa :: shelf : ______
a. ledge b. bookcase c. storage d. frame
28. scrub : wash :: sob : ______
a. cry b. water c. sad d. tease
29. moisten : ______ :: cool : freeze
a. water b. soak c. oven d. grow
30. stars : astronomy :: ______ : history
a. battles b. eclipse c. horse d. autumn
31. ______ : unity :: dearth : scarcity
a. belief b. death c. cohesion d. fear
32. rook : chess :: ______ : badminton
a. grass b. tennis c. shuttlecock d. swing
33. volume : ______ :: stanza : poem
a. measure b. pint c. encyclopedia d. kitchen
34. ______ : dolphin :: herd : cow
a. ocean b. pod c. porpoise d. leap
35. pharaoh : dynasty :: ______ : democracy
a. government b. election c. president d. Canada
36. ledger : accounts :: ______ : observations
a. pundit b. weather c. astrology d. diary
37. ______ : money :: urn : ashes
a. cash b. wealth c. purse d. inheritance
38. chatter : talk :: flutter : ______
a. dance b. wobble c. sing d. flap
39. ribbon : ______ :: icing : cake
a. present b. cut c. bow d. typewrite
40. kitten : ______ :: soldier : army
 a. cat b. litter c. puppy d. meow
41. cord : telephone :: ______ : television
a. watch b. screen c. program d. table
42. fern : plant :: ______ : fish
a. catch b. minnow c. animal d. sparrow
43. shark : ______ :: slug : land
a. seaweed b. ocean c. sky d. slide
44. hangar : airplane :: garage : ______
a. steak b. runway c. oil d. automobile
45. spoke : ______ :: word : sentence
a. speaker b. paragraph c. comma d. wheel
46. fleet : trucks :: ______ : teachers
a. apple b. student c. book d. faculty
47. ______ : poem :: fable : story
a. epic b. poet c. haiku d. rhyme
48. ______ : assistant :: administrator : teacher
a. office b. school c. executive d. campus
49. algebra : calculus :: ______ : surgery
a. anatomy b. knife c. doctor d. hospital
50. ______ : tennis :: drive : golf
a. net b. score c. racket d. serve

SENTENCE ERROR

1. The strangely distorted, colorful pictures by Picasso has received much attention not only
A B C
from the critics, but also from the general public. No error.
D E
2. The Student Council came to verbal blows in disagreement over the choice of theme for the
A B C
winter dance that would be held the next month. No error.
D E
3. Everyone who plans to attend the senior retreat need to pack appropriate camping supplies.
A B C D
No error.
E

4. A classic such as Cinderella, or other similar fairy tales, becomes distorted from its original,
A B C
and sometimes less than positive, story when Disney rewrites the tale for public consumption.
D
No error.
E
5. Before I went to the Mall of America, I had laid down to take a nap, knowing that I would
A B
need a lot of energy to cover all the stores I wanted to, shopping for a prom dress. No error.
C D E

6. When you are training a new puppy, one of the first commands that you want her to learn is to
A B
lay down when you give the command, “down!” No error
C D E

7. It is questionable whether or not Shakespeare had wrote his own plays or not; many think
A B C
that Francis Bacon may have been the writer. No error.
D E

8. Franz, Lara’s long-lost brother, was wanting to be invited to the party, but he was,
A B C
unfortunately, not invited. No error.
D E

9. Carlos did not want to go to the Frost Daze Dance, nevertheless, his friends convinced him
A B C
to attend the once-in a-lifetime event, and he also knew his grandmamma wanted him to
D
socialize more. No error.
E

10. Although many children had swum often in the local swimming hole, the adults in the
A B
community was very concerned about the imminent dangers the location held for children
C
who ignored the local warnings. No error.
D E

11. Because of all the homework her had to do for her AP classes, as well as her extra- curricular
A B C
activities, she couldn’t hardly find time to sleep. No error.
D E

12. Whenever we went to the mall, my friends and I always visit The Gap, our favorite store.
A B C D
No error.
E

13. The Grapes of Wrath are one of my favorite books, but I preferred the original black-and-
A B C
white movie when I saw it a couple years ago. No error.
D E

14. I wrote my term paper on the legalization of growing marijuana because, after doing much
A
Research, I found that marijuana will have many benefits to society apart from its use as a
 B C D
drug. No error.
E

15. It’s impossible to know whose going on the fieldtrip to the Art Institute until the students
A B C
actually bring in their money. No error.
D E

16. I realize that I must prepare for the SAT Exam, so I will be accepted by the college of my
A B C D
choice. No error.
E

17. Ashar is a student who recognizes that theres a time to buckle down and study, and there’s
A B C D
time to have fun with her friends. No error.
E

18. Bravery, the trait mainly Harry shows, which plays a big role in his life, is the focus of
A B C
most of his multitudinous adventures. No error.
D E
19. Sam was so angry at his job situation that not one of his friends wanted to be near him; in
A B C
addition, Laura, who hated conflict, decided not to go out with him that evening. No error.
D E
20. Young readers associate to the character, Harry Potter, because they, whom this series
A B
actually targets, can relate to the hero in so many ways; he is basically kind, courageous,
C
honest, and altruistic towards others. No error.
D E
21. The principal of the high school, who was only in his second year, was dismayed by the
A B
number of students who had not past the basic standards exam because these results were
C
giving the school its negative reputation. No error.
D E

22. Walt Disney Studios have successfully been making movies for children and general audiences
A B C D
for many decades.No error.
E

23. Dr. Martini was accompanied with an intern who is specializing in orthopedic surgery at the
A B C
university medical school, which was featured in the news recently. No error.
D E

24. The master teacher was such a success in the classroom that he was always surrounded by
 A B C D
admiring students from the university. No error.
E

25. Since there wasn’t much chance of rain on the day planned for the picnic, Paula reserved the
A B C
picnic shelter just in case. No error.
D E

26. Yesterday was my friend’s birthday, so I decided to surprise her with a bouquet of early
A B
spring flowers that I planted and had nurtured in my own garden. No error.
C D E

27. The junior league on the field wondered about the grown up’s odd, noisy behavior during
A B
their critical championship game. No error.
C D E

28. Everyone was asked to bring his or her favorite dish to the pot luck dinner. No Error.
A B C D E
29. He said he could hear the children who were laughing in the park. No Error.
A B C D E
30. The dog will come home when he is tired and hungry. No Error.
A B C D E

SYNONYMS
1. Which word means the same as distinct?
a.satisfied b.imprecise c. uneasy d.separate
2. Which word means the same as flagrant?
a.secret b.worthless c. noble d.glaring
3. Which word means the same as flagrant?
a.secret b.worthless c. noble d.glaring
4. Which word means the same as proximity?
a.distance b.agreement c. nearness d.intelligence
5. Which word means the same as negligible?
a.insignificant b.delicate c. meaningful d.illegible
6. Which word means the same as vigilant?
a.nonchalant b.watchful c. righteous d.strenuous
7. Which word means the same as collaborate?
a.cooperate b.convince c. entice d.elaborate
8. tailor
 a.measure b.construct c. launder d.alter
9. yield
a.merge b.relinquish c. destroy d.hinder
10. eternal
a.timeless b.heavenly c. loving d.wealthy
11. intimate
a.frightening b.curious c. private d.characteristic
12. navigate
a.search b.decide c. steer d.assist
13. consider
a.promote b.require c. adjust d.ponder
14. arouse
a.inform b.abuse c. waken d.deceive
15. harass
a.trick b.confuse c. betray d.pester
16. philosophy
a.bias b.principles c. evidence d.process
17. custom
a.purpose b.habit c. buyer d.role
18. harbor
a.halter b.statement c. refuge d.garment
19. muse
a.tune b.ponder c. encourage d.read
20. fortified
a.reinforced b.distorted c. disputed d.developed
21. delegate
a.analyze b.respect c. criticize d.assign
22. accountable
a.applauded b.compensated c. responsible d.approached
23. vessel
a.container b.furniture c. garment d.branch
24. site
a.location b.formation c. speech d.vie
25. compensate
a.help b.challenge c. defeat d.pay
26. journal
a.trip b.receipt c. diary d.list
27. opportunity
 a.sensitivity b.arrogance c. chance d.reference
28. invent
a.insert b.discover c. apply d.allow
29. sphere
a.air b.spread c. globe d.enclosure
30. refine
a.condone b.provide c. change d.purify

ANTONYMS
31. Which word is the opposite of alert?
a.attentive b.inattentive c. careful d.trivial
32. Which word means the opposite of shameful?
a.honorable b.animated c. fickle d.modest
33. Which word means the opposite of vulnerable?
a.frantic b.feeble c. secure d.complicated
34. Which word means the opposite of distress?
a.comfort b.reward c. trouble d.compromise
35. Which word means the opposite of unity?
a.discord b.stimulation c. consent d.neglect
36. Which word means the opposite of clarify?
a.explain b.dismay c. obscure d.provide
37. Which word means the opposite of grant?
a.deny b.consume c. allocate d.provoke
38. Which word means the opposite of impartial?
a.complete b.prejudiced c. unbiased d.erudite
39. Which word is the opposite of delay?
a.slow b.hasten c. pause d.desist
40. Which word means the opposite of moderate?
a.original b.average c. final d.excessive
41. Which word means the opposite of reveal?
a.disclose b.achieve c. retreat d.conceal
42. Which word means the opposite of initial?
a.first b.crisis c. final d.right
43. Which word means the opposite of brittle?
a.flexible b.breakable c. grating d.thin
44. Which word means the opposite of capable?
a.unskilled b.absurd c. apt d.able
45. Which word means the opposite of stray?
a.remain b.inhabit c. wander d.incline
46. Which word means the opposite of craving?
a.desire b.repudiation c. motive d.revulsion
47. Which word means the opposite of forsake?
a.admit b.abandon c. submit d.cheris
48. Which word is the opposite of restrain?
a.control b.liberate c. maintain d.distract
49. Which word is the opposite of unruly?
a.controllable b.disorderly c. honest d.covered
50. Which word is the opposite of solidarity?
a.union b.disunity c. laxity d.rigidity
51. Which word is the opposite of retract?
a.assert b.withdraw c. impugn d.follow
52. Which word is the opposite of concise?
a.generous b.lengthy c. loose d.brief
53. Which word means the opposite of prohibit?
a.surrender b.permit c. involve d.embrace
54. Which word means the opposite of disclose?
a.succeed b.conceal c. restrain d.possess
55. Which word means the opposite of belittle?
a.arrange b.compliment c. criticize d.presume
56. Which word means the opposite of aimless?
a.inactive b.faithful c. purposeful d.impartial
57. Which word means the opposite of mandatory?
a.apparent b.equal c. optional d.required
58. Which word means the opposite of commence?
a.initiate b.adapt c. harass d.terminate
59. Which word means the opposite of conscientious?
a.careless b.apologetic c. diligent d.boisterous
60. Which word means the opposite of deficient?
a.necessary b.adequate c. flawed d.simple
61. Rational is most similar to
a.deliberate b.invalid c. prompt d.sound
62. Attribute is most similar to
a.quality b.penalty c. speech d.admission
63. Animated is most similar to
a.abbreviated b.civil c. secret d.lively.
64. Enhance is most dissimilar to
a.diminish. b.improve c. digress d.deprive
65. Manipulate is most similar to
a.simplify b.deplete c. nurture d.handle
66. Subjective is most dissimilar to
a.invective b.objectionable c. unbiased d.obedient
67. Enthusiastic is most similar to
a.adamant b.available c. cheerful d.eager
68. Adequate is most similar to
a.sufficient. b.mediocre. c. proficient. d.average.
69. Uniform is most dissimilar to
a.dissembling. b.diverse. c. bizarre. d.slovenly.
70. Affect is most similar to
a.accomplish. b.cause. c. sicken. d.influence.
71. Novel is most dissimilar to
a.dangerous. b.unsettled. c. suitable. d.old.
72. Continuous is most similar to
a.intermittent. b.adjacent. c. uninterrupted. d.contiguous.
73. Courtesy is most similar to
a.civility. b.congruity. c. conviviality. d.rudeness.
74. Disperse is most dissimilar to
a.gather. b.agree. c. praise. d.satisfy.
75. Domain is most similar to
a.entrance. b.rebellion. c. formation. d.territory.
76. Passive is most similar to
a.inactive. b.emotional. c. lively. d.woeful.
77. Liberate is most dissimilar to
a.conserve. b.restrain. c. attack. d.ruin.
78. Comply is most similar to
a.subdue. b.entertain. c. flatter. d.obey.
79. Optimum is most dissimilar to
a.mediocre. b.victorious. c. worst. d.rational.
80. Enlighten is most similar to
a.relocate. b.confuse. c. comply. d.teach.
Answer Key:

ARITHMETIC MATHEMATICS SENTENCE ERROR

1. B 11. B 21. A 1. B 11. A 21. B 31. C 41. C 1. B 11. D 21. C
2. D 12. C 22. A 2. B 12. A 22. D 32. D 42. B 2. E 12. A 22. A
3. D 13. A 23. B 3. C 13. B 23. B 33. D 43. D 3. D 13. A 23. A
4. A 14. D 24. A 4. A 14. D 24. D 34. D 44. D 4. C 14. C 24. E
5. B 15. B 25. A 5. B 15. B 25. C 35. C 45. C 5. A 15. B 25. E
6. C 16. A 26. C 6. C 16. C 26. D 36. A 46. C 6. C 16. E 26. D
7. A 17. A 27. B 7. D 17. A 27. A 37. C 47. B 7. B 17. B 27. B
8. C 18. B 28. A 8. C 18. A 28. D 38. A 48. D 8. A 18. A 28. E
9. B 19. D 29. B 9. B 19. B 29. B 39. C 49. D 9. E 19. C 29. E
10. D 20. D 30. B 10. A 20. D 30. B 40. B 50. D 10. C 20. A 30. E

ENGLISH SYSNONYM/ANTONYMS
1) D 21) D 41) D 61. B 81. B 101. A 1. D 21. D 41.D 61. D
2) A 22) A 42) A 62. A 82. B 102. C 2. D 22.C 42. C 62. A
3) D 23) A 43) B 63. A 83. C 103. C 3. C 23. A 43. A 63. D
4) B 24) D 44) C 64. C 84. A 104. B 4. C 24. A 44. A 64. A
5) D 25) B 45) A 65. C 85. B 105. A 5. A 25. D 45. A 65. D
6) D 26) D 46) D 66. B 86. C 6. B 26. C 46. D 66. C
7) A 27) C 47) B 67. A 87. B 7. A 27. C 47. D 67. D
8) C 28) C 48) D 68. A 88. B 8. D 28. B 48.B 68. A
9) B 29) A 49) A 69. B 89. B 9. B 29. C 49. A 69. B
10) C 30) D 50) D 70. B 90. B 10. A 30. D 50. B 70. D
11) C 31) B 51) B 71. A 91. A 11. C 31. B 51. A 71. D
12) B 32) A 52) C 72. A 92. A 12. C 32. A 52. B 72. C
13) C 33) B 53) B 73. C 93. B 13. D 33. C 53. B 73. A
14) C 34) D 54) B 74. C 94. A 14. C 34. A 54. B 74. A
15) A 35) C 55) C 75. B 95. A 15. D 35. A 55. B 75. D
16) D 36) B 56) C 76. A 96. C 16. B 36. C 56. C 76. A
17) D 37) D 57) D 77. B 97. B 17. B 37. A 57.C 77. B
18) B 38) C 58) A 78. B 98. B 18. C 38. B 58. D 78. D
19) B 39) A 59) A 79. C 99. B 19. B 39. B 59. A 79. C
20) C 40) B 60) C 80. A 100. B 20. A 40. D 60. B 80. D
 SCIENCE ANALOGY
1. A 11. C 21. C 31. C 41. C 51. A 61. A 1. A 11. C 21. D 31. C 41. B
2. C 12. A 22. B 32. B 42. D 52. C 62. C 2. B 12. C 22. A 32. C 42. B
3. B 13. B 23. D 33. D 43. A 53. B 63. D 3. D 13. D 23. D 33. C 43. B
4. B 14. D 24. A 34. D 44. D 54. C 64. C 4. A 14. C 24. B 34. B 44. D
5. C 15. C 25. A 35. A 45. B 55. B 65. A 5. B 15. B 25. B 35. C 45. D
6. A 16. D 26. A 36. A 46. D 56. D 66. D 6. D 16. A 26. A 36. D 46. D
7. D 17. B 27. C 37.A 47. C 57. B 67. B 7. D 17. B 27. B 37. C 47. C
8. A 18. A 28. C 38. B 48. D 58. D 68. B 8. C 18. D 28. A 38. D 48. C
9. C 19. B 29. B 39. A 49. B 59. A 69. A 9. A 19. B 29. B 39. A 49. A
10. B 20. A 30. C 40. D 50. A 60. D 70. C 10. C 20. B 30. A 40. B 50. D
 PMMA Entrance Exam
Reviewer

The Philippine Merchant Marine Academy (PMMA) is the premier maritime school in the
Philippines today. Aside from its reputation for producing the best Filipino seafarers,
studying in the PMMA is free since it is sponsored by the government. On top of that, you
are assured of 100% employment right after graduation. Interesting, isn’t it?

But enrolling in the PMMA is not as easy as enrolling in your typical maritime school.
Thousands of hopeful applicants are vying for the limited slots in the Academy, thus a strict
selection process is done to ensure the quality of its future cadets. The first stage of this
selection process is the PMMA Entrance Examinations (PMMAEE) where applicants undergo
an examination testing their language proficiency, verbal/logical aptitude and mathematical
and scientific capacity.

About the PMMAEE

The PMMA Entrance Examination is one of the steps to your future cadetship in the PMMA. It
is conducted by the Admissions Office every year usually on the last Saturday of September
at more than 30 testing centers nationwide.

PMMAEE Coverage and Reviewer

If you are about to take the upcoming PMMA Entrance Exam and looking for a free reviewer,
then you are on the right reviewer. Below are sample practice tests for prospective PMMA
cadets to take.

• English (Grammar, Vocabulary, Analogy, Reading Comprehension)

• Mathematics (Algebra, Geometry, Statistics, and Trigonometry)
• Science (General Science, Chemistry and Physics)
• Abstract Reasoning
APPLICATION PROCEDURES

Please be reminded that these practice exams are for educational purposes only. We do not
claim that the sample questions will appear in the actual examination.

• Interested applicant who wishes to take the Entrance Examination should apply in
person or through mail to the Admissions Office, PMMA Complex, San Narciso,
Zambales. Applicants by mail must fill-up the Application Form (requires Acrobat
Reader) and mail it to:

HEAD, ADMISSIONS OFFICE

Philippine Merchant Marine Academy
San Narciso, Zambales

• Only true and correct entries are accepted; any false information will be aground for
disqualification.
• Applicants must choose his/her preferred testing center from the list of Testing
Center.
• FILING OF APPLICATION. Applicants have two (2) options to file their application:
o Personal – right after the last entrance examination up to September (the
following year) at PMMA Zambales only
o Mail – right after the last entrance examination up to August 31 only (the
following year)
• FILING REQUIREMENTS:
o Three (3) copies of recent 2×2 colored pictures with name tag, front view;
white background;
o 2 self-addressed long white mailing envelopes with P40.00 worth of mailing
stamp per envelope for mailing of Test Permit and Examination Result.
o Certification from School Principal that applicant is currently enrolled as Grade
12, Photocopy of Senior High School Diploma or Form 138/Photocopy of
Diploma for College levels, Photocopy of Registration form and certificate of
grades true copy, for college graduate, transcript of records.
o Photocopy of PSA Birth Certificate. (Baptismal and Hospital Birth Certificate not
honored)

o Certificate of No Marriage (CENOMAR) to be submitted upon enrollment as

probationary midshipmen-women)

Note:

• Incomplete filing requirements will not be processed.

• Application forms are available at all testing centers nationwide or can be
downloaded from our website.
Important Reminders
Applicants must take note of the following:

• The examination usually on the last Saturday of September from 8:00 AM –

12:00 noon.
• To avoid any inconvenience, arrive one (1) hour before the examination proper at the
designated testing center.
• Bring the issued test permit (the applicant must show any valid I.D. in case he did
not receive his test permit).
• Bring any valid ID.
• Use only black ballpen during the examination.
• Calculators are not allowed.

Entrance Examination results will be published on the PMMA website (www.pmma.edu.ph)

two (2) months after the day of the examination. Individual test results will be mailed to the
examinees not later than the same month.

Conclusion
Passing the PMA entrance exam is not an easy task, but we can say that it can be done.
Through practice and preparation, you can hurdle this examination and later become a part
of the long blue line. Good luck!