101.

What type of reproduction does the 1) sperm

image depict? 2) ovule
3) pollen grain
4) spores

108. What is the most important event in sexual

reproduction?
1) Fusion of gametes
2) Secondary sexual organs
3) Temperature
4) Environmental factors
1) Vegetative propagation
2) Fragmentation 109. What is the disadvantage of parthenogenesis?
3) Budding 1) Wastage of germplasm
4) Binary fission 2) Retention of genotype
3) Lack of adaptability
102. Which plant is the “terror of Bengal”? 4) Variety in population
1) Cereus
2) Corpse plant 110. Label 1.
3) Water hyacinth
4) Cactus

103. How are male honey bees born?

1) Parthenogenesis
2) Fragmentation
3) Eggs
1) Edge
4) Spores
2) Filament
3) Stomium
104. What are non-motile fungal spores also known
4) Tapetum
as?
1) Gemmules
111. Which two layers of the anther wall contain large
2) Nodes
cells?
3) Conidia
1) Epidermis and Endothecium
4) Zoospores
2) Endothecium and Middle layers
3) Endothecium and Tapetum
105. What is phase when the organism is old enough
4) Epidermis and Tapetum
to reproduce known as?
1) Juvenile phase
112. ____ does not allow the raising of pure lines.
2) Vegetative phase
1) Self compatibility
3) Senescence
2) Interspecific incompatibility
4) Reproductive phase
3) Intraspecific incompatibility
4) Outbreeding
106. What are the male organs in a flowering plant
called?
113. _______ is the transfer of pollen grains
1) Carpels
from anther to the stigma of another
2) Petals
flower of the same plant.
3) Ovary
1) Geitonogamy
4) Stamen
2) Cleistogamy
107. Which structure in the plant carries the male
3) Autogamy
organ?
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4) Xenogamy 2) Cowper’s
3) Bulbourethral
114. What initiates the formation of 4) Seminal vesicles
endosperms?
1) Fertilization 122. The secretions of the accessory glands are rich in
2) Triple fusion ______
3) Fusion 1) magnesium
4) Double fusion 2) glucose
3) potassium
115. The growth of the pollen tube is 4) fructose
directed by ______
1) obturator
123. What is the process of conversion of spermatids
2) meristem
to sperms called?
3) parenchyma
1) Spermiation
4) schlerenchyma
2) Spermatogenesis
116. Generative fertilization is also called _____ 3) Spermiogenesis
1) apomixis 4) Meiosis
2) syngamy
3) vegetative fertilization 124. Which hypothalamic hormone is responsible for
4) senescence the onset of Spermatogenesis at puberty?
1) Gonadotrophin Releasing Hormone (GnRH)
117. The last cell of the suspensor (in dicots) is ______ 2) Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
1) hyperphysis 3) Luteinising Hormone (LH)
2) hypophysis 4) Testosterone
3) haustorium
4) antipodal 125. Identify the correct pair of hormone and its
target cells in the context of spermatogenesis.
118. The part of embryonal axis above the level of 1) Gonadotrophin: Leydig cells
cotyledons is called ____ 2) Luteinising Hormone: Sertoli cells
1) hypocotyl 3) Testosterone: Pituitary gland
2) haustorium 4) Follicle Stimulating Hormone: Sertoli cells
3) hypophysis
4) epicotyl 126. Egg is covered by a tough sheet of tissue that
protects it from desiccation and infection by
119. Testes descend permanently into their respective pathogens. But the same tissue also prevents sperm
scrotal sacs through the ______ nuclei from encountering the egg nuclei. However, a
1) inguinal canal part of sperm is known to release enzymes that digest
2) glomerulus this tough sheet. What part of sperm is it?
3) pudendal canal 1) Tail end
4) infraorbital canal 2) Mitochondria
3) Acrosome
120. Failure of the testes to descend into the scrotum 4) Sperm nuclei
is called _______
1) palatovaginal 127. Rakesh and Reshma have difficulty conceiving a
2) cryptorchidism baby. They consulted a sex therapist. Sperm count of
3) pudendal Rakesh was normal but the doctor observed that the
4) foramen motility of his sperm was less. What part of sperm do
121. Which gland produces a milky secretion with a you think has the issue?
pH 6.5? 1) Tail
1) Prostate 2) Nucleus
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3) Mitochondria 134. During a menstrual cycle, copulation on which of
4) Acrosome the following phases has the least probability of
fertilizing an egg?
128. What is the stage of the cell cycle at which 1) Menstrual phase
primary oocytes are arrested? 2) Onset of follicular phase
1) Prophase I 3) End of the follicular phase
2) Metaphase I 4) End of the luteal phase
3) Prophase II
4) Metaphase II 135. What triggers the completion of meiosis of
secondary oocyte?
129. Which of the following is the correct set of ploidy 1) Maturation of Graafian follicle
and cell type? 2) Entry of sperm into the egg cell
1) Primary oocyte: Diploid; Secondary oocyte: 3) Release of estrogen
Haploid; Ovum: Haploid 4) Coitus
2) Primary oocyte: Haploid; Secondary oocyte:
Haploid; Ovum: Haploid 136. What is the correct lineage of a zygote?
3) Oogonium: Diploid; Primary oocyte: Diploid; 1) Zygote -> Blastomere -> Morula -> Blastocyst
Secondary oocyte: Diploid 2) Zygote -> Blastula -> Morula -> Blastocyst
4) Oogonium: Diploid; Primary oocyte: Haploid; 3) Zygote -> Morula -> Blastomere -> Blastula
Secondary oocyte: Haploid 4) Zygote -> Blastocyst -> Blastula -> Blastomere

130. The first round of meiosis of oogonium is 137. Saheli was developed by scientists at _______ in
completed in which follicle? India.
1) Graafian follicle 1) Indian Institute of Science
2) Primary follicle 2) Indian Institute of Technology
3) Secondary follicle 3) Central Drug Research Institute
4) Tertiary follicle 4) Acropolis

131. The onset of the menstrual cycle is characterized 138. Amniocentesis deals with patterns of ______ in
by a discharge of blood and tissue matter from the the amniotic fluid.
uterus. What is this discharge termed as? 1) fingers
1) Egg 2) DNA
2) Menarche 3) chromosomes
3) Menses 4) proteins
4) Ovulation
139. MMR stands for ________
132. Which of the following does not occur during the 1) maternal mortality rate
follicular phase? 2) mother’s mortality rate
1) Maturation of primary follicles to Graafian follicles 3) maternal menstruation rate
2) Peaking of estrogen 4) maternal mortality ratio
3) Peaking of progesterone
4) Regeneration of uterine endometrium 140. For country A, the population in 2000 was 1
billion. It has reached 2 billion in 2020. For country B,
133Which hormone elevates twice during a menstrual the population in 2000 was 160 million. It has reached
cycle? 800 million in 2020. Which country will have a larger
1) LH population by the end of 2030, assuming the
2) FSH population fold change is the same?
3) Estrogen 1) Country A will be more populous compared to
4) Progesterone Country B

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2) Country B will be more populous compared to (d) All of these
Country A
3) Both countries A and B will have the same 147. Which of the following correctly describes the
population measures that can be used to control over-population
4) Country A will be more populous compared to (a) Educating people about the advantages of a small
Country B family
(b) Raising the age of marriage
141. In the test tube baby program, what method is (c) Encouraging family planning programme
used for implantation of embryo from 1-8 cell stage? (d) All of these
1) Zygote intra fallopian transfer
2) Intra uterine transfer 148. Which of the following is not a characteristic of
3) Zygote inter fallopian transfer an ideal contraceptive ?
4) Inter uterine transfer (a) User-friendly
(b) Irreversible
142. A national level approach to build up a (c) Easily available
reproductively healthy society was taken up in our (d) Least side-effects
country in
(a) 1950s 149. Identify the correct statement from the
(b) 1960s following:
(c) 1980s a. High levels of estrogen triggers the ovulatory surge.
(d) 1990s b. Oogonial cells start to proliferate and give rise to
functional ova in regular cycles from puberty onwards.
143. From the sexually transmitted diseases c. Sperms released from seminiferous tubules are
mentioned below, identify the one which does not highly motile.
specifically affect the sex organs. d. Progesterone level is high during the post ovulatory
(a) Syphilis phase of menstrual cycle.
(b) AIDS
(c) Gonorrhea 150. Acrosomal reaction of the sperm occurs due to:
(d) Genital warts a. Its contact with zona pellucida of the ova
b. Reactions within the uterine environment of the
144. Amniocentesis is a technique used to female
(a) determine errors in amino acid metabolism in c. Reactions within the epididymal environment of the
embryo male
(b) pin point specific cardiac ailments in embryo d. Androgens produced in the uterus
(c) determine any hereditary genetic abnormality in
embryo 151.
(d) all of these.

145. Which of the following cannot be detected in a

developing foetus by amniocentesis ?
(a) Jaundice
(b) Down’s syndrome
(c) Cystic fibrosis
(d) Colourblindness

146. Which of the following is correct regarding the

consequences of lower population ?
(a) It increases the poverty of a country.
(b) It leads to shortage of food supply.
(c) It results in unemployment
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152. 155.

153.

156. Study the given statement and answer the

question. “During ‘P’ phase of the menstrual cycle, if
pregnancy doesn’t happen, the ‘Q’ withers and dies,
usually around day 22 in a 28-day cycle. The drop in
‘R’ levels causes the lining of the uterus to fall away.
This is known as ‘S’. Identify P, Q, R and S.
(a) P : Menstrual, Q: Graafian follicle, R: Estrogen,
S : Menarche
(b) P : Luteal, Q : Corpus luteum, R
: Progesterone S: Menstruation
(c) P : Ovulatory, Q : Endometrium, R : Follicle
stimulating hormone, S : Menopause
(d) P : Follicular, Q: Secondary oocyte,
R : Luteinizing hormone S :Menstruation

154. A” cells start division and enter in “B” stage of

meiotic division and get temporarily “C” at this stage,
called “D”. Identify A, B, C and D.
(a) A: Oogonia; B: Metaphase I; C: Arrested; D:
Primary oocyte.
(b) A: Oogonia; B: Anaphase I; C: Released; D:
Secondary oocyte.
(c) A: Oogonia; B: Prophase I; C: Arrested; D: Primary
oocyte.
(d) A: Oogonia; B: Telophase I; C: Released; D:
Secondary oocyte.

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157. 161. All of the following statements concerning
pregnancy are accurate EXCEPT
(a) the detection of human chorionic gonadotropin in
the urine forms the basis for pregnancy tests.
(b) the cyclic release of pituitary gonadotropins and
ovarian steroids is continued.
(c) the mammary gland tissue of the pregnant woman
is stimulated to develop by placental hormones.
(d) the corpus luteum of pregnancy maintains the
uterus until the placenta is well established.

162.

158. Which of these is not an important component of

initiation of parturition in humans ?
(a) Synthesis of prostaglandins
(b) Release of oxytocin
(c) Release of prolactin 163.
(d) Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio

159. Fertilization in humans is practically feasible only

if
(a) the sperms are transported into vagina just after
the release of ovum in fallopian tube
(b) the ovum and sperms are transported
simultaneously to ampullary isthmic junction of the
fallopian tube
(c) the ovum and sperms are transported
simultaneously to ampullary - isthmic junction of the
cervix
(d) the sperms are transported into cervix within 48
hrs of release of ovum in uterus
164. The vas deferens receives duct from the seminal
160. A twenty year old unmarried female who has vesicle and opens into urethra as
never conceived and whose age of attainment of (a) epididymis (b) ejaculatory duct
puberty was twelve years. Approxiamtely, how many (c) efferent ductule (d) ureter
ovulation would have occurred in the body till date :
(a) 48 – 60 (b) 96 – 100 165. Which of the following hormones is not secreted
(c) 192 – 200 (d) None by human placenta?
(a) hCG (b) Estrogens
(c) Progesterone (d) LH

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166. 170. Fill up the blanks in the following paragraph by
selecting the correct option.
A. ____(i)____ methods work on the principle of
avoiding chances of ovum and sperms meeting.
B. _____(ii)________ is one such method in which
couples avoid coitus from day 10-17 of the menstrual
cycle.
C. ______(iii)____ is another method in which the
male
partner withdraws his penis from the vagina just
before ejaculation so as to avoid insemination.
167.
D. __________ method is based on the fact that
ovulation and therefore the cycle do not occur during
the period of intense lactation following parturition.
(a) (i) Barrier, (ii) Coitus interrupts, (iii) Periodic
abstinence, (iv) Lactational amenorrhea
(b) (i) IUDs, (ii) Lactational amenorrhoea, (iii) Coitus
interrupts, (iv) Periodic abstinence
(c) (i) Natural, (ii) Periodic abstinence, (iii) Coitus
interrupts, (iv) Lactational amenorrhea
(d) (i) Surgical, (ii) Periodic abstinence, (iii) Coitus
interrupts, (iv) Lactational amenorrhea
168.
171.
Which of the following statements is/are correct
about ZIFT and GIFT as methods of helping
conception in cases of infertility? P) ZIFT can help
where the female is unable to form a viable ovum.
Q) ZIFT uses methods of in vitro fertilisation. R) GIFT
involves the injection of one's own ovum into the
body. S) GIFT uses in vivo fertilisation method.
A. only P
B. only P and R
C. only Q, R and S
D. all - P, Q, R and S

172.
Birth control tablets in females, popularly referred
to as pills, prevent pregnancy by __________.
A. delaying menstruation
B. inhibiting ovulation and implantation
C. suppressing sperm motility and fertility
169. The function of copper ions in copper releasing D. blocking the entry of sperms during
IUD's is coitus
(a) They inhibit gametogenesis
(b) They make uterus unsuitable for implantation
(c) They inhibit ovulation
(d) They suppress sperm motility and fertilising
capacity of sperms
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173.

174.

175.

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