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MM:720 Practice Test 37-OYM Time : 200 Min.

Topics Covered:
PHYSCS:
System of Paricles and Rotational Motion
CHEMISTRY:

Thermodynamics
Equilibrium
BOTANY:
Biological Classification
Morphology of Flowering Plants
zOOLOGY:
Excretory Products and their Elimination

PHYSICs

among the following.

rigid body can be hinged on any point on the y-axis.
A 4. Choose the incorrect statement
1. centte of
When the hinge is aty, the moment of ineria is given by Internal forces do not affect the mnotion of
+ (2) mass of a system
1=4y-8y 6
to z

The y coordinate of COM is (Assume axis is parallel (2) Centre of mass of a body lies towards heavier
side
axis) may outside of the
Centre of mass lie inside and
(1) 4 (3) materialof the body
of
(2) 3 Centreof mass of a body is independent
(4) distribution of mass
(3) 2
Angular momentum of the particle, when
a force is
(4) 1 5.
applied, is constant due to
uniform anqular
2. wheel initially at rest is rotated with
A

(1) Zero torque

acceleration. The wheel rotates through angle e1 in first
angle of 02 in next 10
10 seconds and through additional (2) Uniform force
(3) Uniform linear momentum
seconds. The ratio ()is
(4) Uniform torgue
(1)4:1 moment of ineria 6 x 104 ka m²
6. A rotating body with
(2)3:1 momentum of the
has a kinetic energy 12J. The angular
(3) 4:3 body is
(4) 16:1 (1) 0.61 kg m²/s
A car weighs 1800 ka. The
distance between its front and
3. m. Its centre of gravity is 1.05 m behind (2) 12 x 10 kg m²/s
back axles is 1.8 on
by the level ground
the front axle. The force exerted (3) 61 kg m²is
each front wheel is (g = 9.8 ms<)
(4) 0.12 kg m²is
(1) 735O N

(2) 3675 N
(3) 10290 N
(4) 5145 N

1
 Pratice Test 37.OYM

13. The moment of inerba of a uniform sol

7. If diagonals of a parallelogram are
(i-) and (i+ j). shown in the figure, is maximum about the axi
4

then area of the parallelogram will be

(1) 0.5 unit 2

(2) 1 unit 5
(3) 2 unit
(4) 4 unit
8 Angular momentum of the particle rotating under the
eftect ofa central force about thecentre is constant due to
(1) 1
(1) Constant non-zero torque
(2) 2
(2) Constant non-zero force
(3) Constant linear momentum (3) 3

(4) Zero torque (4) 4

14. A torque of 10 N m is applied to a wheel having inibal
9. fan acceleraing uniformly from rest, rotates through 5
A

radian during first second. Find the angle rotated during

next 2 seconds
angular momentum 2

momentum of wheel after 4 second?

kg m s.
What is angular

(1) 40 rad (1) 42 kg m²s-1

(2) 15 rad
(2) 32 kg ms
(3) 10 rad
(3) 4 kg m2s-1
(4) 25 rad
10. Asolid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius 50 cm rollss up an (4) 18 kg m²s-l
inclined plane of angle of inclination 30°. The centre of 15. Two point masses of 1 kg and 2 kg having positon
mass of the cylinder has speed 8 m/s. The distance
travelled by the cylinder on the inclined surface will be (g vectors ij =i-3jand F
=
ai +bjrespectively. The
mass of the system
= 10 m/s) (assume suficient fricion) value of (a and b) such that centre of
lies at origin, is
(1) 2.4 m
(2) 1.2 m
w(-2)
Previ
(3) 4.8 m
(4) 9.6 m
11. All the paricles of a system are situated at a distance
rDon'
o(2)
(in different direction) from the origin. The distance of
centre of mass of the system of particle may be G(4) (-)
(1) At the origin 16. The object at rest explodes into three parts with mass
(2) At a distance less than R
ratio 1:1. The parts with equal massesv. move
2: at right
VWhat is the
angles each other with equal speed
(3) Equal to R speed of the third part after explosion?
(4) Both (1) and (2) (1) v
v on a frictionless
12. A block of mass m slides with velocity (2) 2v
horizontal surface and another block of mass 3m is at
mass of system of two block
rest The velocity of centre of (3)
is
(4) 2/Zv
of radiusr
17. The radius of gyration of a uniform solid sphere
about a tangential axis is

(2)

(3)
(2)
r
(4)

2
 tice Test 37-0YM

18. A particle, held

a fixed point bya sting whose other
C. moves in a circle end is attached to
fricionless surface. If on a horizontal 23. A paricle moves with constant velocity parallel to y axis.
momentum of the the string is cut, Its angularmomentum with respect to origin.
particle about the the angular
pointC (1) Goes on increasing
(1) Changes direction
but not magnitude (2) Goes on decreasing
(2) Increases
(3) Remains constant
(3) Decreases
(4) First increasing then decreasing
(4) Does not change r,
a hollow sphere of radius
24. The radius of ayrationr. of of this axis from the
abouta certain axis is The distance
19. For a group of particles
of different masses, if all the
masses are placed at different centre of sphere is
trom origin, then distance of points at equal distance R r
will be
cente of mass from origin (1)

(1) More than R (2) V12r

(2) Equal to R (3) V5r
(3) Atorigin
(4)
5
(4) LesSs than R moment of inertia of a
the correct option regarding
25. Selectmass.
20. A rigid body has translational as well as rotational motion. point
If a force couple is applied on the object then, which of
It changes if the mass is shifted
parallel to the axis of
the following quantities remains unchanged due to the (1)
the rotation
force couple? mass from the axis of
It depends on the distance of the
(1) Rotational kinetic energy (2)
rotation
(2) Translation kinetic energy It does not change, if the
mass is rotated with variable
(3) angular velocity about axis of rotation
(3) Total kinetic energy
(4) Angular momentum about centre of mass (4)Both (2) & (3)
26. A rod AB of mass M and length L is lying on a smoothA
21. Two disc have their moments of inertia about their horizontal surface. A paricle of mass m strikes
to end
diameter are in the ratio 3:1 and their diameters
are in perpendicular to
elastically with speed vo in a direction
the ratio 4:1. The ratio of their masses will be comes to rest, then the
AB. After collision if paricle
(1) 1:16 distance of point from B which is in
rest just after the
collision is
(2) 1:3
(3) 15:14 Do
(4) 3:16 (2)
22. Consider two blocks A and B of
masses 4 kg and 2 kg,
interconnected through pulley mass system as shown
a (3)
in the figure. The system is released
from rest. If the
light, smooth and ideal, then the
pulley and the string is (4)
eof acceleration of COM of the system will be
magnitude
27. A
uniform disc of mass m and radius R is rotaing withIf
angular velocity 'w' about its main geometrical axis.
another identical disc is placed genty over the previous
disc and they rotate together, then common angular
velocity of the discs will be
(1) w
(2) 2w

(1) Zero (3)

(2) (4)40
(3) g
(4) 4g
 Prtoe Test 37-0YM
, then the value ot
-

28. The centre of mass of a non-uniform

=
rod of length
whose mass per unit lengtt is K 3x ka/n,one
4
s
where x in
mm 32.
n-A.ö
m. The distance ofcentre of mass frorm its end which
is atorigin will be (1)(4' +-AD) 2
(1) m
(2) m
(2)
(4+- 4)
(3) m (3) (4' + D'- AB3)
(4) m
(4) (A' +B + AB/3)
mass 10 kg and 2 kg are moving
with
29. Two masses 'm' and '2m'. initially 100 m apart start 33. Two bodies of
moving towards each other trom rest. under their mutual 2i -75+ 3k and
gravitational attraction. The velocity of cente of mass velocities
velocity of their
after 3s will be -10i +35-3k m/s respectively. The
(1) 2 m/s
cenre of mass is
(2) 4 m/s (1)2i m/s
(3) 3 m/s (2) 2k m/s
(4) Zero
(3) (2j+24) mis
30. A particle of mass m is projected from
speed u at an angle of 45° to the ground with a
horizontal. The rate of
change of angular momentum of particle (92(i*j+i) m/s
of projection, when it is at its highest point about the point
of the trajectory
is 34. The instantaneous power of a body rotating with angular m is
(1) mu? velocity 30 rad/s, when an external torque of 10 N
applied on it in the direction of angular velocity, is
(2) mg (1) 3000 W
(3) +mu? (2) 300 W
(4) ng (3) 1500 W
(4) 150 W
31. A uniform rod of length L is free to rotate in a vertical
plane about a fixed smooth hinge (P) at one
end. The rod 35. Angular momentum of a body rotating about a fixed axis
is released from horizontal position as shown in the is equal to the product of
figure. When it has turned through angle 0, its angular (1) Mass and angular velocity
velocity w is
(2) Centripetal force and radius
(3) Linear velociy and angular velocity
(4) Moment of inertia and angular velocity
36. A body of mass m is moving in a horizontal circle with
constant angular velocity with the help of massless string
as shown in figure. Choose the correct statement
regarding angular momentum of body.
3g sin 8

3g
(2) / L sin A

(4) /9 L cos e

(1) It is constant about C but variable about O

(2) It is constant about O but variable about C
(3) It is constant about O and C
(4) It is variable about O and C

4
 aie Test 37-OYM

A Constant
torque of 100 N m
moment of is acing on a rigid body
ineria of 42. The angular velocity of a wheel rotaing with constant
through the cente. 20 kg
m

about an axis passing

Its angular velocity angular acceleration, changes from 2 radis to 6 rad/s in a
from rest will be after 4 s starting time interval of 314 S. The number of rotations made by
(1) 10 rad/s the wheel in this interval of time is
(1) 40
(2) 20 rad/s
(2) 20
(3) 40 rad/s
(3) 30
(4) Zero
(4) 10
38. The angular displacement a an axis, as shown, is..
= of particle w.r.t. time is given 43. Torque acting on rod about
by 32 4t + 3 (where t is 110 N
in second and e is in
m the particle is moving on a circular path of
e If
rar then att=1s )30
(1) Radial acceleration of particle 10
is m/s 1 m
(2) Radial acceleration is 2 m/s

(3) Radial acceleration is 4

m/s
(1) 5 N m
(4) Radial acceleration is 6 m/s
(2) 10 Nm
39. Two persons of masses 60 kg and 80 kg respectively, are (3) m
at the opposite ends of a boat. The length of the boat is 5/3N
4.0 m and weighs 100 kg. Both persons move towards (4) 10/3N m
each other and sit in the middle of the boat. ntre of
uniform linear mass distribuion
is
mass of the system shifts by (neglect water friction) 44. A meter stick with
Now a small block of mass tokg is
4
balanced at its centre. found be
(1) 0.25 m cm mark of scale. The stick is
put at 16 meter stick is
mass of
(2) 0.5 m balanced at 40 cm mark. The
(3) 0.75 m (1) 4.3 kg

(4) Zero (2) 5.6 kg

4x with a speed 10 m/s. kg
40. A particle is moving along liney=
If
the mass of the particle is 2 kg, then its angular Previ(3)(4) 7.0
9.6 kg
momentum about the point (1, 4) is a particle,
45. A body is in pure rotation. The linear speedvof
(1) 10 kg m²is For the distance
rr of
the paricle from the axis
are related as w=
of rotation
.Thus,
and
the angular velocity
(2) 20 kg ms
(1) «
w

(3) Zero
(2) W «r
(4) 5 kg m''s
41. TwO rings have their
moment of inertia in the ratio of 2:1 (3) w«2
of 4:1, The ratio of their
and their diameters in the ratio
r

(4) w is independent of
respective masses will be
(1) 1:4
(2) 4:1
(3) 6:1
(4) 1:8

5
 Practicce Test 37-OYM

CHEMISTRY

equilibrium Constant is independent o

A :The value of producte
of the reactants and
52.
46. If K1is the eguilibrium constant at temperature Ti and K2 initial concentationsconstant applicable only when
> Equilibrium is
isthe equilibrium constant at temperature T, and if T1 R: of the reactants and
products have attained
T and reacion is exothermic then concentration
state.
their equilibrium
(1) K2 = K1
Both ASsertion & Reason
are tue and the reason i

of the assertion
(2) K2 > K1 the correct explanation
reason ie
(3) K1 > K2 Reason are tue but the
Both Assertion &
(2) not the correct explanation of the assetion
(4) Can't be predicted
(3) Assertion is true
statement but Reason is false
47. A :Entropy of egg increases on boiling. are false statements
R:Generally randomness decreases on the conversion (4) Both Asserion and Reason
M
of liquid to solid. solution when equal volume of 0.01
53. The pH of resultingM CH3COOH are mixed (given pKa
(1)
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is NaOH and 0.1
= is
the correct explanation of the assertion (CH3COOH) = 4.74 and log3 0.477)
8oh Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion (1) 3.79
(3) Asserion is true statement (2) 6.5
but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and
Reason are false statements (3) 5.79
48. The pH of the solution obtained by mixing (4) 4.74
CH2COOH and 200 ml 0.1 M NaOH 250 ml, 0.2 M
is (Given: pka of 54. 1 mole of an ideal gas at 300 K and 10 atm is expanded
CH3COOH = 4.74, log 3 = 0.48) to 1.0 atn pressure isothermally and reversibly then work
(1) 5.22 involved is
(2) 4.92 (1) 5.74 kJ

(3) 4.56 (2) 5744 kJ

(4) 5.04 (3) 57.44 kJ

49, The enthalpy (4) 5.7 J
change for the reaction,
CH, (g) + 20;(g) CO(s) + 2H,O(2) is (Enthalpies of 55. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of
formation of CH4, CO2 and H20 are -74.8, 21g of aluminiumfrom 250 K to 350 K is (Specific heat of
-393.5, aluminium is 0.9 J (°c)- g-)
286.2 kJ Imolrespecively)
(1)-790.2 kJImol (1) 1590 J

(2)-891.1 kJ/mol (2) 2010 J

(3) -604.9 kJ/mol (3) 1890 J

(4) -820 kJ/mol (4) 2400 J

50. Internal energy change of a process is equal to 56. Find out the incorrect formula

(1) Isobaric work pH of salt of weak acid and strong base

(1)
(2) Adiabatic work
7+pK, + loge]
K
(3) Isothermal work (2) Keg
=atK
any temperature
(4) Allof these
No. of moles of acid or
51. At 298 K, a certain buffer solution contains equal (3)
Buffer capacity = base added per itre of buffer
Concentrations of HY and Y. pH of the buffer solution is
Change in pH
(Given that hydrolysis constant of Y is 10-9)
(4) Ku
(1) 4.31 ==10-Hat 298
K
K

(2) 5

(3) 8.2
(4) 9

6
 37-0YM
rice Test

In which a container
Caco is dissociated in closed
of
the given reactions, AH> AU?
57. 64. f 2 moles of
(1) Combustion of gaseous isopentane at of
Las
volume 10
25C CaCO, (s) Ca0(s) + CO;(&) of
(2) Hydrogenaion of gaseous isobutylene
Kp = 2 atm at 800°C. then
dearee of dissociaton
(3) Reduction of ZnO by coke
CacO3 is
(4) Formation of HI(g) from H2(g)
and l2(g) (1) 0.8
58. Equal volumes of three agueous solutions with pH values (2) 0.5
11, 12, 13 are mixed in (3) 0.113
vessel at 25°C. The OH ion
concentation in the mixture is (4) 0.022
x M aqueous soluion of which salt has highest pH?
(1)3.7 10-2 65. The
(2) 4.9 x M (1) NacI
1o-3
(2) NHCI
(3) 3.7 x 10-4 M
(3) PhoNa
(4) 2.1 x 10- M
(4) PhNH3CI
enthalpy of formation of carbon dioxide
are -90
59. Select the correct opion regarding boric acid 66. If standard molar gas respecively
gas, liquid water and ethane kcal
mo then
(1) Arrhenius acid mo and -20
kcal mor, -70 kcal
of combustion of
ethane willbe

(2) Tribasic acid standard molar enthalpy

(3) Bronsted acid (1) -214.2 kcal morl
(4) Lewis acid mo
(2)-303.7 kcal
K = 10 then
60. For a reaction B eaquilibrium constant
A

(3) -370 kcal mor!

is
the extent of reaction in the forward direcion
(1) 20% (4) -410 kcal morl
67. A: For exothermic
reacions, Hp > HR
(2) 40% > T.
reactions, Kega > Keq: if T2
R:For exothermic
(3) 75% are true and the reason is
Both Assertion & Reason assertion
(4) Almost 100% (2) of the
the correct explanation
61. Necessary condition
for a reaction to be spontaneous is Pre Both Assertion & Reason
are true but the reason is
(2) not the correct explanation of the assertion
(1) 4Ssystem > 0 For ment but Reason is false
(2) AG>0 (3) Assertion iS true state
are false statements
(3) 4Ssystem <0 (4) Both Assertion and Reason
U° =
+ B(s) 4C(g), if -10 kJ
(4)AG <0 68. For the reacion, 4A(g) of AG° at 298 Kwill be
energy of X is 57.3 kJ mol and the and AS° =-40 JKhen value
o2. The sublimation
enthalpy of vaporisation of
X is 41.8 kJ mo. The (1) 2.88 kJ

enthalpyof fusion of X is (in kJ mol-) (2) 1.92 kJ

(3) 3.84 kJ
(1) 10.2
(4) 0.72 kJ
(2) 99.1
is (Kw at 360 K is 3.6 x
69. pH of a neutral solution at 360
K
(3) 15.5
10-13)
(4) 41.4
M NHAOH is mixed with 25 mL of 0.1 (1) 7
63. When 50 mL of 0.1
M HCI, then pH of the resulting mixture is (pKh 4.74] (2) 7 + log2
(1) 4.74 (3) 7–log 6

(2) 9.26 (4) 7 +log 6

(3) 7

(4) 10

7
 Practice Test 37-OYM

70. What amount of Ag2COa

is dissolved in 250 mL of 75. Given below are two statements one is labelled
(Ksp = 8 × 10-1Z](Gram water? as
atomic mass of Ag is 108 g mol Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion A): Catalyst does not
( appear in the balanee
(1) 8.69 x
chemicalequaton.
10- a Reason (R): Catalyst alter the equilibrium composition
a reaction mixture.
(2) 1.25 x 10-4 a In the light of above two statements mark the correct
(3)2.5 x 10-4 g statement.

(4)6.2 x 10-4 a Both ASSertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(1)
he correct explanation of the assertion
71,
Standard entopy of A, B (2)
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
mor-l respectively. and C are 30, 60 and 100 JK not the correct explanation of the assertion
AHof the reaction For the reaction 2A + 5B (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
is 300 kJ then the temperature6C, If the
he reacion will become
spontaneous at which (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
(1) 1150 K is
(2) 1240 K 76. The number of species from the given set, which behaves
as Lewis acid, is
(3) 1000 K NH4", CaH2, B2H6, NH3, CCI4, AlCl3, CÔ2
(4) 1260 K
(1) 4
72. For equilibrium (2) 3
NH,COONH,(s) 2NH,(g)
pressure is 12 atm. +CO, (g), the (3) 5
What will be the valueequilibrium
temperature T kelvin? of Ko at (4) 2

(1) 77. Extensive property among the following

(RT)? is
(1) Volume
(2) 23
(RT) (2) Temperature
(3) PreSsure
(3) (RT) (4) Density
(4) 78. When 6 moles of He gas at 27°C
isothermal expansion from 30 L to undergoes reversible
60 L. then work done
willbe
73. Which among the following an
is extensive property?
(1) Temperature
(2) 4.5 kJ
(2) Pressure
(3)-10.4 kJ
(3) Density
(4) 10.3 kJ
(4) Entropy
79. Enthalpy of neutralisation of four
74. For the reaction, acids A, B, C and D with
AB+C Equilibrium concentrations
of A, B and C are 0.001 M, 0,15 M
NaOH are -10.5, -13.7, -
5.9 and -12.7 kcal eg
respectively. Out of A, B,C and D strongest
respectively. The AG° for reaction at 25°C and 0.05 M
is (log 7.5 =
acid is
(1) C
0.875)
(2) A
(1) -11.23 kJ mor-1
(3) D
(2) -34.61 kJ mo1 (4) B
(3) -4.99 kJ mol1 -
80. For the reaction Aa(s) 4A(g) if AU
=2 kcal and AS = 10
cal at 27°C then the
K

(4)-17.31 kJmol1 G
for the given reaction is (R =
2 cal moirK-j

(1) 1 kcal
(2) 1.4 kcal
(3) 5.6 kcal
(4) 7.4 kcal

8
 37-OYM
tice Test
. The solubility products of Cus, Ag2S and HaS are
Ax 1044 and 10- respectively.
10-31 87. Select the correct expression
If
Na2S is added (1) AG=-AG° + RT In K
soluion containing 0.1 M Cuzt, Agt and (2) AG= AG° -RT In K
the
Hat
each then
(3) AG= AG° + RT In O
(1) CuS will precipitate first
(4) AG° = RTIn K
as
(2) Ag2S will precipitate first
88. Given below
are two statements : one is labelled (R):
the other is labelled as Reason
(3) HgS will precipitate first Assertion (A) and energy a state funcion.
Assertion (A) :: Gibbs energyis depends on amount of
(4) All will precipitate simultaneously Reason (R) Gibbs
82. The equilibrium constant of the reaction can be altered
substance. statements, choose the correct
by In the light of the above
answer from the options given below:
(1) Adding reactants
are true and the reason is
(2) Adding products Both Assertion & Reason assertion.
of the
(1)
the correct explanation
are true but the reason is
(3) Increasing volume Both ASsertion & Reason of the assertion.
(4) Decreasing temperature
(2)
not the correct explanation
state ment but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is true statements.
83. The unit of equilibrium constant Kp for the reacion, Reason are false
CacO3(s) Cao(s) + CO2(9) is (4) Both Assertion and
x
FF in saturated solution
of CaF2 is
(1) atm o5 Ifconcentation of
CaF2 will be
then solubility product of
(2) atn2
(1) x3
(3) atm1
(2) 4x3
(4) atmn-2
= Ke is valid if (3)
84. In a chemical equilibrium, Kp
(4)
(1) Ang =0
solution when equal volumes=
(2) T=12.18 K 90. What is pH of the resuling M HCI are mixed? (l0g 3
of 0.01 M HSO4 and 0.1
(3) Ang z0, T> 12.18
K Previ
(4) Both (1) & (2)
85. Conjugate base of H3PO4 is
For
(1) H, P0;
(4) 1.22
(2) HPO?

(3) PO

(4) All of these

reaction
86. For an exothermicAzB2
Az(g) + B2(g) (g)
Formation of AgB2 will be favoured
at
pressure
(1) High temperature and high
pressure
(2) High temperature and low
pressure
(3) Low temperature and low
(4) Low temperature and high
pressure
 Practia Test 37-oYM

BOTANY
are aSSOciated wi
many the following features
of
97. How
91. Rhizopus, commonly called bread mould pea? placentation
(1) Has aseptate mycelium (a) Basal
Non-endospermouS seed
(b)
(2) Does not produce zygospores (c) Leaf
tendrils
(d)
Monoadelphous stamens
(3) Produces edible fruiting bodies corolla
(e) Papilionaceous
(4) Is a sac fungus Actinomorphic flowers
()
92. Mark the correct option w.r.tgiven diagram. (1) Two
(2) Three
(B)
(3) Five
(4) Six and
-(A)
aestivation is found in petals of Cassia
98. Which type of
gulmohur?
(1) Valvate
(2) Twisted

(1)
A - Cells with chlorophyll a and b (3) Imbricate
B- Cells with nitrogenase activity
(4) Vexillary
A-Cells with nitrogenase activity are more abundant in warm
(< B- Cells with chlorophyll a 99. Members of which kingdom great diversity morphology
and humid areas and show in
(3) A-Cells with chlorophyll a and habitat?
B- Cells with nitrogenase enzyme (1) Monera
A-Cells perform CO2 and N2 fixation (2) Protista
(4 B- Cells peform N2 fixation
(3) Fungi
93. Three kingdom classification given by Haeckel placed
(4) Animalia
bacteria in kingdom Protista because
(1) They are photosynthetic
ForPr,100.A :R.H. Whittaker placed Chlamydomonas and Chlorella
inthe same kingdom along with Paramoecium and
(2) They have cell wall Amoeba.
(3) They are unicellular R:These are unicelled and eukaryotic organisms.
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(4) They are aquatic (1)
the correct explanation of the assertion
94. All of the following are not seen in prions, except Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(2)
(1) DNA not the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) RNA (3) Assertion is true state ment but Reason is false

(3) Protein (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
(4) Carbohydrate 101.Read the following statements and select the two of them
which are correct for the members of Basidiomycetes.
95. Coconut is different from mango fruit in a. Asexualreproduction takes place by zoospores.
(1) Having fibrous endocarp b. Sexual spores are produced exogenously.
c. Mycelia are branched and septate.
(2) Its edible part d. One of the member is extensively used in biochemical
(3) Having thin meso carp and genetic work.
(1) a and c
(4) Being a drupe
(2) b andd
96. Oxygenic photosynthesis is shown by
(3) b and c
(1) Chromatium
(4) a and d
(2) Chlamydomonas
(3) Chloroflexus
(4) Chloronema

10
 37-0
Tes
ey
and
o2Staminodes are 109.The most common shape in bacteria
is
may be
(1)Sterile stamens
(1) Spinlla, lagellated
(2) Fowers wnout stamens
(2) Bailli, motle
or non motle
(3) Howers having stamens only
on petals (3) Bacilli, moole always
(4) Stamen developed
(4) Cocci, motle
103.Select the common characters between solanaceae and
liliaceae families. 110.Select he incorrect statemen2
a. Placentaion in ovary
(1) Staminodes
are sterile stamens
roots
banyan vee are adveniious
b. Persistent calyx
c. Number of stamens (2) Prop roots in coleorrhiza
d. Superior ovary
(3) Radicle in maize
seed is endosed in
e. Endospermous seed in mango are fleshy and
Mesocarp and endocarp
(1) a, c&d (4) edible
fungi?
(2) a, d &e 111.WMhich of the following is
odd one w.r.t edible
(3) C, d &e (1) Morels
(4) a, b &e (2) Trufies
104A: Archaebacteria survive in extreme harsh environment (3) Yeast
R:Archaebacteria have different composition of cell wall (4) Toadstools
and cell membrane than other bacteria.
& Reason are true and the reaSon is 112,In maize seed,
(1 Boh Asserion scutellum
the correct explanation of he asserion (1) Cotyledon is called
reason is absent
(2) Boh
Asserion & Reason are true but the (2) Aleurone layer is
not the correct explanaion of he asserion with coleoptile
(3) Radicle is covered
(3) Asserion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Perisperm is found
Assertion and Reason are false statements angiospermic family does not deal
113.Floral fomula of an
(4) Both
105Antibiotics
eukaryoic
Can be obtained from prokaryoic and (1) Symmetry of fiower
(1) organisms

(2) Are most significantdiscoveries

of 19th century
Prvi (2) Cohesion and adhesion of
stamens

like colour (3) Placentation in ovary

Are used to treat deadly diseases parts
(3) blindness (4) Positionof ovary w.r.t. other floral
is incorrect about
(4) Means 'pro life' w.r.t pathogen 114.Which of the following statements
archaebacteria?
106.Dinofagellates differ from diatoms in (1) Cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan
(1) Presence of cell wall (2) Cell membrane contains branched chain
lipids
(2) Cell wall composition
(3) They have 70S ribosomes
(3) Having isokont flagella
(4)) They live in some of the most harsh habitats
(4) Mode of nutrition
forms two thin 115.Read the following and choose the correct ones
107.Group of organisms in which cell wall a. Root hairs are found in region of elongation.
overlapping shells are b. Pneumatophores help plants to get oxygen.
c. Fleshy cylindrical mo dified stem in Euphorbia carry out
(1) Responsible for bioluminescence
photosynthesis
(2) Chief producers of oce an d. Allleaflets are attached ata common point in pinnately
(3) Prokaryotes Compound leaf
(4) Heterotrophs (1) a and b

108.Leaf tendrils (2) a and c

(1) Are present in Australian Acacia (3) b and c
(2) Are modification for the purpose of defence (4) c and d
(3)) Are short lived structures
(4) Help the plant wuhile climbing

11
 Praæ Test 37-0M
cymose inhorescon
123-AII statements are correct for
u6.Diadelphous conditon of androecium is seen in excep
(1) Cirus in nower
(1) Main axis terminates
(2) Aea main Noral axS
(2) Unlimited growth of
(3) Chinarose flowers
(4) Solanum (3) Basipetally arranged
of iowers
U7.A petidish
wthich contains,
(4) Centritugal opening
R-ll stain of DiplococcUS
pneumoniae is inroduced with somne heat killed S-Il 124.Select the correct match.
STain bacteria of he same species. Afer wo hours, – earty blight of potato
peridish is likely to have this (1) Phytophthora Causes
(1) Only R-llstrain (2) Penicillium - Septate mycelium
– ascospores as sexualspores
(2) Onty S-llstain (3) Puccinia Produce
(3) Bon R-ll and S-IIl (4) Thichoderma- Sexual
reproduction by plasmogamy
stain
a laroe number of roots
(4)Neither R-Il nor S-Il| 125.Primary root is short lived and A as found
118.Select he odd one w.r.t symmetry of nower. originate from the base of stem constituting
in B
(1) Gulmohur B.
(2) Cassia the blanks with correct option for A and
All in

(3) Chilli
(1) A - Tap root system, B - Dicots
(2) A -Advenitious root system, B- Dicots
(4) Bean
(3) A - Fibrous root system, B- MonOcots
19.The aestivaion in which margin of one petal or sepal
overlaps the margin (4)) A - Fibrous root system, B -Dicots
of adjacent successive petal or
sepal, is 126.Mark the statement.
WTong
(1) Imbricate ( Yeast is a unicellular sac ungus that produces edible
(2) Valvate fruiting bodies
(3) Twisted (2) Organism causing sleeping sickness has flagella for
locomoion
(4) Vexillary
120.Select he
examples
mis-match w.r.t., modifications and their Provi (3) In Agaricus, karyogamy is delayed afer plasmogamy

(4) White spots

seen on mustard leaves are due to a
member of phycomycetes
(1) Phylloclade - Euphorbia
(2) Phyllodes - Australian Acacia Eor 127.0uter protein coat of viruses is called
(1) Envelope
(3) Pulvinus – Leguminous plants
(2) Capsid
(4) Reticulate venation - Banana
(3) Capsomere
121.The smallest bacteria (4) Glyco calyx
(1) Have cellulosic cell wall
128.Coconut fruit differs from mango as former
(2) Have photosynthetic pigments similar to green plants
(1) Is drupe and later one is berry
(3) Can survive without oxygen (2) Has edible mesocap
(4) Are sensitive to penicillin (3) Has hard and stony endocarp
122.Which of the following are autotrophs that do not use (4) Has edible endosperm
solar energy for synthesis of food?
129.Mark the odd one w.r.t feature for members of kingdom
(1) Rhizobium and Nitrosomonas protista.
(2) Nostoc and Anabaena
(1) Many possess cellulosic cell wall
(3) Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter (2) Have double membrane bound cell organelles
(4) Frankia and Nostoc (3) Reproduce asexually only
(4) May be photosynthetic, decomposer or parasitic

12
 37-0YM
tkce Test

Arrangement of veins and

veinlets in leaf lamina is
called 133.The root system in mustard is
(1) Venation (1) Prop root
(2) Phyllotaxy (2)) Tap root
(3) Aestivation (3) Advenitious root
(4) Placentation (4) Fibrous root
:
131A The pigments of euglenoids are 134.Seed coat is memnbranous and fused with fruit wall in
present in higher plants. identical to those
(1) Gram
R: Majority of euglenoids are fresh water organisms
found in stagnant water. (2) Maize
(3) Bean
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is
the correct explanation of the assertion. (4) Pea
are
(2 Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not 135.Group of bacteria used in biogas production
the correct explanation of the asserion.
(1) Eubacteria
(3) Assertion is true but reason is
false. (2) Parasites
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.
(3) Blue Green Algae
132.Read the following statements and select the correct (4) Methanogens
option.
Statement A: AIll protozoans are heterotrophs.
Statement B: Protozoans are believed to be primitive
relatives of animals.
(1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Only statement B is correct
MoicalliT-1EEFsuadsons
(3) Both statements are incorrect
(4) Both statements are correct only
Preiew
print,
paper.
Don't
For save
 Practice Test 37-OYM

zoOLOGY
preferrea
kidney of a close relative is
136.Read the following statements and ch00se the 142.A :A funcional
transplantation. immupe
one incorrect during of rejection by the
the chances
R:It minimises
host. reason is
rRemoval of PCT and DCT has no effect on urine system of the
concentration Reason
&
are true and the
Both ASsertion assertion
(2) GFR in a healthy individual is nearly
125
ml/min. (1) the corre ct explanation of the reason is
(2) The value of cardiac output is almost & Reason
are true but the
equal to the total Both Assertion the assertion
amount of blood in an average
adult (2) not the correct explanationof
tAY AV-node can Reason is false
also generate action potentials similar to true statement but
SA a
node but at slower rate f3) Assertionis statements
Reason are false
137.The nitrogenous wastes are excreted mainly (4) Both Assertion and
as uric acid in fresh water fishes
143.lonocytes of the gill membrane
by allof the given animals except
the
(1) Pigeon uptake monovalent ions from
Passively
(2) Cockroach (1) surrounding water
(3) Lizards Acively uptake monovalent
ions from the surrounding
2) water
( Monkey
into the surrounding
138.In a nephron of human kidney, (3)
Passively eliminate divalent ions
the major calyces open
into a broad funnel-shaped structure water
called monovalent ions into the
Choose the option which fills the blank correcty. Actively eliminate
(4)
(1) Renal column surrounding water
(2) Renal capsule 144.Select the incorrect pair w.r.t. excretory organs tound in
organisms.
(3) Column of Bertini -
(1) Protonephridia Planaria
4YRenal pelvis -
(2) Green glands Prawn
139.Choose the incorrect statement.
(3) Nephridia - Earthworm
(1ANF inhibits the release of renin from JGA
cells -
Crustaceans
Osmoreceptors in the body are activated by changes
(2) in blood volume, body fluid 145.Select the incorrect match between organism and its
volume and ionic corresponding excretory structure.
Concentration
Conditional reabsorption of sodium ions occurs (1) Green glands Prawn, cray fish
(3) DcT in
(2) Flame cells Liver fuke, filarialworm
(4)
Counter current mechanisms helps in diluting
urine in animals the (3) Nephridia Earthworms, annelids
140.Presence of (4) Malpighian tubules Insects, cockroaches
glucose and ketone bodies in urine is
indicative of
(1) Renal calculi
(2) (2)
(2) Uremia
(3) (3)
3)Diabetes mellitus
(4) (4)
(4) Diabetes insipidus
146.Numerous DCT open into
141.The excretory material in many bony fishes, aquatic
amphibians and aquatic insects that is generally (1) Bowman's capsule
eliminated by diffusion across body surfaces or through -(2) Collecting duct
gill surfaces is?
(3) Proximal convoluted tubule
(1) Guanine
~(2) Ammonia
(4)Glomerulus
(3) Urea
(4) Uric acid

14
 J7-OYM
nt
prooduce concentrated urine,
TO vasopressin
Increases Nat reabsorption 153.Conditional reabsorption of NacI and water
in the thick part along wo
ascending limb of Henle of tubular secretion of K* and H* is observed in
Exets maximal effect (1) PCT
(2) through aldosterone on
absorption in proximal tubule Nat (2) Loop of Henle
fncreases the aquaporins (3) Bowman's capsule
A3) collecing duct cells in cell membranes
of (4) DCT
(4) Allof these
154.Blood in dialysing unit flows through channels or tubes
148.Which one isnot a bounded by
uricotelic animal?
(1) Pigeon (1) Cellophane membrane
(2) Frog (2) Anti-heparin infused membrane
(3) Lizard (3)-Plasma membrane
(4) Cockroach (4) Cellulose membrane
149.In the shelled eggs 155.Select the incorrect match w.r.t. excretory stucture
waste is removed in of birds and reptiles, the nitrogenous (1) Prawns – Green glands
the form of
(1) Amino acid (2) Pheretima – Protonephridia
(2) Guanine -(3) Periplaneta – Malpighian tubules
(3) Uric acid (4) Planaria - FIame cells

(4) Urea 156.Which of the following substances is completely

reabsorbed the nephron of a healthy adult person?
150.Which of the following is not a part
of renal tubule? (1) Ammonia
(1) PCT
(2) Urea
(2) DCT
(3) Urea
(3) Loop of Henle (4)-GIucose
(4) Glomerulus
157.Mark the incorrect statement
151.Match column | with column ll and choose the correct stretch receptors in wall of urinary bladder are
option. f
removed, then filling of bladder does not occur
Column Column Il
a. Gout () High levels of urea in blood (2) Dialysis involves selective diffusion of nitogenous
wastes from blood to dialysate
b. Uremia (Ü) Stone of oxalate salts
Immunosuppressants such as prednisolone and
C. Renalcalculi Inflammation ofjoints due to (3) cyclosporin are administered to prevent kidney
(ii) uric
acid depositions transplant rejecion
Inflammation of glomeruli of
d. Glomerulonephritis (iv) Tubular secretion in PCT and DCT helps to maintain
kidney (4)
ionic and acid base balance of body fuids
(v) High levels of urea in urine
158.In a healthy individual, the glomerular fltation rate (GFR)
-(1) a(iv), b(), c(i), d(i) is approximately mL/minute.
(2) a(ii), b(),ci), d(iv) Choose the option that correctly fills the blank.
-(3) a(iv), b(), ci), d() (1) 125

(4) a(i), b(), c(v), d(i) (2) 7.5

(3) 180
152.The part of renal tubule which is impermeable to water is
(1) Descending limb of loop of Henle (4) 145

(2) Ascending limb of loop of Henle 159.In humans, right kidney is located lower in the abdominal
cavity than the left one, because of more space being
(3) PCT
occupied by the
(4) Collecng duct (1) Spleen
(2) Liver

(3) Stomach
(4) Pancreas

15
Praaioe Test 37-0YM

160.Select the set of ureotelic in

animals. 165-Conditional reabsorption of
Na and water takes place
(1) Bony ishes, aquaic
amphibians, aquatic insecs which part of nephron?
(2) Marine fishes, terrestrial
amphibians, mammals (1)PCT
3) Mammals,
land snails, inse cts (2)-DCT
(4)) Repales,
birds and mammals
(3) Henle's loop
161A:Kidneys help to regulate
R:Each kidney is connectedpHwith of blood in humans. (4) Collecting duct
hepaic portal vein. small intestine thrOugh the option with
166.In the below given flow order, choose
B and C w.r.t. regulation of
(1) Both Asserion & Reason are true correct identification of A,
the correct explanation of and the reason is kidney function.
he assertion
(2) Both Asserion & Reason are true but the reason [ Angiolensinogen
not he correct explanation is
of the asserion,
3)ASserion is true statement Fal in gkomerularoctvate,ARenin Angiotensin I
but Reason is false blood Now
(4) Both Assertion
and Reason are false statements
162.Read the following statements |Angiotersin
option. and choose the correct adivales adrensl
Statement A: Sweat produced Resorption of cortex to release
watery fluid Containing by Sweat glands is a C]Na' and
from DCT
watertB+
lacic acid etc. NaCI, small amounts
of urea,
Statement B : Sebaceous glands A B
substances like sterols, hydrocarbons eliminate certain 1)
JG cells
sebumn. and waxes through Aldosterone BP and volume
(1) Both (2) Osmoreceptors ADH I BP and volume
statements andBare incorrect
A

(2) (3): JG cells ANF t BP and volume

Statement A is correct but B is incorrect
(3) Statement A is 4)Osmoreceptors Aldosterone BP and volume
incorrect but B is correct
Y41 Both state (1) (1)
mentsAand Bare correct
163.In the given figure,which of (2) (2)
the following labelled
lined with brush bordered cuboidal epithelium? parts is (3) (3)
A (4)(4)
B
167.The epithelial cells of which part
of nephron are named
podocytes?
(1) Loop of Henle
(2) PCT
2it (3) Collecting duct
D -(4) Bowman's capsule
168.When damage to kidney causes accumulaion urea
(1) A blood, the condition is known as of in

(2) B (1)Uremia
(3) C (2) Polyuria
(4) D (3) Cystinuria
164.Some glands in human body serve as accessory (4) Hematuria
excretory organs. Which of the following is generally not
169.The opposition to ultrafiltration posed by plasma proteins
included in the above?
is called and its value is
(1) Pancreatic gland Select the option which fills both the blanks correctty.
(2) Sebaceous glands (1) Glomerular hydrostatic pressure, 55 mmHg
(3) Sweat glands (2) Capsular hydrostatic pressure, 15 mmHg
(4) Liver (3) Blood colloidal osmotic pressure,30 mmHg
(4) Capsular colloidal osmotic pressure, 55 mmHg

16
 e
Test 37-OYM

70.Read following statements carefully

opton with only incorrect state ments. and choose the 177.he cortex extends in between the medullary pyramids as
(a) Fltate formed by renal columns called
glomerular fltraton rate
each kidney per minute is called
(1) Hilum
(b) GFR in a healthy individual
is approximately 7.5 lites
per hour (2) Calyces
(c) A fall in GER can activate JG cells to
(d) AbOut 1% of glomerular release rennin (3) Columns of Bertini
filttate is secreted by renal
tubules and 99% is reabsorbed (4) Capsule
(1) (a) and (b) 178.Assertion (A) : Water is reabsorbed from the collecing
(2) (b) and (c) tubule into the medullary intersiium during concentraion
of urine.
Reason (R) : NaCl transported by
(3) (a). (b) and (c) the ascending limb of
Henle's loop to the medullary intersitium creates the
(4) (a). (c) and (d) concentration gradient.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct option
171.The peritubular capillaries of the kidneys directy branch
(1) both Assertion & Reason are true and the Reason is
from the If
the correct explanation of the Assertion, then mark (1)
(1) Afferent arteriole
If both
Asserion & Reason are true but the Reason is
(2) Efferent arteriole (2) not the correct explanation of the Assertion, then mark
(3) Renal artery (2)
If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false, then
(4) Renal vein (3
mark (3)
172.Substance not metabolised in human body and is used If both Assertion and Reason are false statements,
for assessing the glomerular filtation rate is (4) then mark (4)
(1) Glucose 179.Select mismatch among the following w.rt. disorders of
(2) Inulin excretory system.
(1) Uremia Increased accumulation of uric
(3) Urea acid in blood
(4) NaCI (2) Glomerulonephritis – Inflammation of glomeruli
173.Cortical extensions into the renal medulla are called (3) Renal calculi Insoluble mass of crystallized
salts within the kidney
(1) Minor calyces Accumulation of uric acid in
(4)Gout
(2) Major calyces
(1) (1)
aper joints

(3) Columns of Bertini

(4) Medullary pyramids (2) (2)

174.In which component of renal tubule, reabsorption of (3) (3)

substances occurs maximally? (4) (4)
(1) Loop of Henle 180.Amount of CO2 removed by our lungs per minute under
(2) Collecting duct normal conditions is
(3) DCT (1) 200 mL
(4) PCT (2) 300 mL

175.Amount of urea excreted out per day in a healthy adult (3) 100 mL
human is approximately (4) 500 mL
(1) 25-30 mg

(2) 25 - 30 gm
(3) 35- 50 mg
(4) 35 - 50 gm
176.The liquid which is collected in the cavity of the
Bowman's capsule is
(1) Concentated urine
(2) Plasma minus blood proteins
(3) Plasma plus formed elements
(4) Plasma minus all cloting factors only

17