ENGINEERING THERMODYNAMICS

1. The given figure shows the variation of force in an elementary system which undergoes a process
during which the plunger position changes from 0 to 3 m.

IF the internal energy of the system at the end of the process is 2.5 J higher, then the heat absorbed
during the process is

<img src="1.png" alt="1.png" title="1" width="302" height="215"/>

a) 15 J

b) 20 J

c) 25 J

d) 30 J

2. A frictionless piston-cylinder device contains a gas initially at 0.8 MPa and 0.015 m3. It expands quasi-
statically at constant temperature to a final volume of 0.030 m3. The work output (in kJ/kg) during this
process will be:

a) 8.32

b) 12

c) 554.67

d) 8320

3. Which one of the following correctly defined 1 K, as per the internationally accepted definition of
temperature scale?

a) 1/100th of the difference between normal boiling point and normal freezing point of water

b) 1/273.15th of the normal freezing point of water

c) 100 times the difference between the triple point of water and the normal freezing point of water

d) 1/273.15th of the triple point of water

4. When a system is taken from state ‘x’ to state ‘y’. 30 kJ of heat flows into the system and the system
does 10 kJ of work. When the system is returned from ‘y’ to ‘x’ along another path, work done on the
system is 8 kJ. What is the amount of heat liberated or absorbed?

a) 12 kJ of heat is liberated

b) 12 kJ of heat is absorbed

c) 28 kJ of heat is liberated

d) 28 kJ of heat is absorbed

5. In an adiabatic process, 5000J of work is performed on a system. The system

returns to its original state while 1000J of heat is added. The work done during

the non-adiabatic process is:

a) + 4000J

b) - 4000J

c) + 6000J

d) - 6000J

6. An engine working on Carnot cycle rejects 40% of absorbed heat from the source, while the sink
temperature is maintained at 27°C, then what is the source temperature?

a) 750°C

b) 477°C

c) 203°C

d) 67.5°C

7. Gibbs function is expressed as

a) u+pv-Ts

b) u+pv-Tds
c) u+pdv-Tds

d) u+pv-sdT

8. The Figure shown is the phase diagram (p-T diagram) for water. Identify the region in which water
exists as liquid

<img src="8.png" alt="8.png" title="8" width="302" height="302"/>

a) Region “X”

b) Region “Z”

c) Region “X and Z”

d) Region “Y”

9. The summation of internal energy (u) and flow energy (pv) is known as ……………..

a) enthalpy

b) entropy

c) heat capacity

d) total internal energy

10. The chart which is drawn with compressibility factor (Z) and reduced properties is called as
…………………..

a) Compressibility chart

b) Generalized compressibility chart

c) property chart

d) ideal gas chart

11. Increase in entropy of a system represents

a) Increase in available energy

b) Decreases in pressure

c) Degradation of energy

d) Increase in temperature

12. Gibbs free energy functions is a property comprising

a) pressure, volume, temperature

b) enthalpy, temperature, entropy

c) volume, enthalpy and entropy

d) temperature, pressure and enthalpy

13. The degree of freedom at triple point in unary diagram for water is

a) 0

b) 1

c) 2

d) 3

14. The exergy of an isolated system

a) Can never decreases

b) Can never increases

c) Always remains constant

d) Can’t be predictable

15. Which of the following are intensive properties

(i). Kinetic Energy (ii). Specific Enthalpy (iii). Pressure (iv). Entropy
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) i and iii

b) ii and iii

c) i, iii and iv

d) ii and iv

16. Work done in a free expansion process is:

a) Positive

b) Negative

c) Zero

d) Maximum

17. A gas contained in a cylinder is compressed, the work required for compression being 5000 kJ.
During the process, heat interaction of 2000 kJ causes the surroundings to the heated. The change in
internal energy of the gas during the process is

a) – 7000 kJ

b) – 3000 kJ

c) + 3000 kJ

d) + 7000 kJ

18. Two blocks which are at different states are brought into contact with each other and allowed to
reach a final state of thermal equilibrium. The final temperature attained is specified by the

a) Zeroth law of thermodynamics

b) First law of thermodynamics

c) Second law of thermodynamics

d) Third law of thermodynamics

19. An inventor states that his new engine rejects to the sink 40% of heat absorbed from the source
while the source and sink temperatures are 327ºC and 27ºC respectively. His engine is therefore
equivalent to

a) Joule engine

b) Stirling engine

c) Impossible engine

d) Carnot engine

20. An engine operates between temperature limits of 900 K and T2 and another between T2 and 400 K.
For both to be equally efficient, the value of T2 will be

a) 700 K

b) 600 K

c) 650 K

d) 750 K

21. A reversible heat engine rejects 50 percent of the heat supplied during a cycle of operation. If this
engine is reversed and operates as a heat pump, then what is its coefficient of performance

a) 1

b) 1.5

c) 2

d) 2.5

22. A Carnot engine operates between 327°C and 27°C. If the engine produces 300 kJ of work, what is
the entropy change during heat addition

a) 0 kJ/K

b) 0.5 kJ/K

c) 0.75 kJ/K
d) 1 kJ/K

23. For a reversible power cycle, the operating temperature limits are 800 K and 300 K. It takes 400 kJ of
heat. The unavailable work will be:

a) 250 kJ

b) 125 kJ

c) 200 kJ

d) 150 kJ

24. Which one of the following is the extensive property of a thermodynamic system?

a) Volume

b) Pressure

c) Temperature

d) Density

25. Consider the following:

(i) Temperature (ii) Viscosity (iii) Internal energy (iv) Entropy

Which of these are extensive properties?

a) i, ii, iii and iv

b) ii and iv only

c) ii and iii only

d) iii and iv only.

26. Heat and work are

a) intensive properties

b) extensive properties
c) point functions

d) path functions

27. An isolated thermodynamic system executes a process, choose the correct statement(s) form the
following

a) No heat is transferred

b) No work is done

c) No mass flows across the boundary of the system

d) all of the above

28. Measurement of temperature is based on which law of thermodynamics?

a) Zeroth law of thermodynamics

b) First law of thermodynamics

c) Second law of thermodynamics

d) Third law of thermodynamics

29. A new temperature scale (MECH) in °M is to be defined. The boiling and freezing on this scale are
400°M and 100°M respectively. What will be the reading on new scale corresponding to 60°C?

a) 120°M

b) 180°M

c) 220°M

d) 280°M

30. Thermodynamic work is the product of

a) Two intensive properties

b) Two extensive properties

c) An intensive property and change in an extensive property

d) An extensive property and change in an intensive property

31. Which one of the following sets of thermodynamic laws/relations is directly involved in determining
the final properties during an adiabatic mixing process?

a) The first and second laws of thermodynamics

b) The second law of thermodynamics and steady flow relations

c) Perfect gas relationship and steady flow relations

d) The first law of thermodynamics and perfect gas relationship

32. For a closed system, the difference between the heat added to the system and the work done by the
system is equal to the change in

a) Enthalpy

b) Entropy

c) Temperature

d) Internal energy

33. The cyclic integral of (δQ-δW) for a process is:

a) Positive

b) Negative

c) Zero

d) Unpredictable

34. A gas is compressed in a cylinder by a movable piston to a volume one-half of its original volume.
During the process, 300 kJ heat left the gas and the internal energy remained same. What is the work
done on the gas?

a) 100kNm
b) 150 kNm

c) 200 kNm

d) 300 kNm

35. For a simple closed system of constant composition, the difference between the net heat and work
interactions is identifiable as the change in

a) Enthalpy

b) Entropy

c) Flow energy

d) Internal energy

36. If the work done on a closed system is 20kJ/kg, and 40kJ/kg heat is rejected from the system, its
internal energy decreases by

a) 20kJ/kg

b) 60kJ/kg

c) -20kJ/kg

d) -60kJ/kg

37. For steady flow through an insulated horizontal constant diameter pipe, this property remains
constant

a) Enthalpy

b) Internal energy

c) Entropy

d) Volume

38. A reversible heat engine operating between hot and cold reservoirs delivers a work output of 54 kJ
while it rejects a heat of 66 kJ. The efficiency of this engine is:
a) 0.45

b) 0.66

c) 0.75

d) 0.82

39. If a heat engine gives an output of 3 kW when the input is 10,000 J/s, then the thermal efficiency of
the engine will be:

a) 20%

b) 30%

c) 70%

d) 76.7%

40. In a thermodynamic cycle consisting of four processes, the heat and work are as follows: Q: + 30, -
10, -20, + 5 W: + 3, 10, - 8, 0

The thermal efficiency of the cycle will be:

a) 0

b) 7.15 %

c) 14.33 %

d) 28.6 %

41. The heat transferred in a thermodynamic cycle of a system consisting of four processes is
successively 0, 8, 6 and -4 units. The net change in the internal energy of the system will be:

a) -8

b) 0

c) 8

d) 10
42. The fundamental unit of enthalpy is:

a) MLT-2

b) ML-2T-1

c) ML2T-2

d) ML3T-2

43. Heat transfer takes place according to

a) Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics

b) First Law of Thermodynamics

c) Second Law of Thermodynamics

d) Third Law of Thermodynamics

44. A Carnot engine rejects 30% of absorbed that to a sink at 30º C. The temperature of the heat source
is

a) 100º C

b) 433º C

c) 737º C

d) 1010º C

45. In a cyclic heat engine operating between a source temperature of 600°C and a sink temperature of
20°C, the least rate of heat rejection per kW net output of the engine is:

a) 0.460 kW

b) 0.505 kW

c) 0.588 kW

d) 0.650 kW
46. If a closed system is undergoing an irreversible process, the entropy of the system

a) Must increase

b) Always remains constant

c) Must decrease

d) Can increase, decrease or remain constant

47. Isentropic flow is

a) Irreversible adiabatic flow

b) Reversible adiabatic flow

c) Ideal fluid flow

d) Frictionless reversible flow

48. The specific heats of an ideal gas depend on its

a) Temperature

b) Pressure

c) Volume

d) Molecular weight and structure

49. A positive value to Joule-Thomson coefficient of a fluid means

a) Temperature drops during throttling

b) Temperature remains constant during throttling

c) Temperature rises during throttling

d) None of these

50. A gas having a negative Joule-Thompson coefficient (μ < 0), when throttled, will:
a) Become cooler

b) Become warmer

c) Remain at the same temperature

d) Either be cooler or warmer depending on the type of gas

51. All gases and vapours approach ideal gas behaviour at?

a) High pressure and high density

b) Low pressure and low density

c) High pressure and low density

d) Low pressure and high density

52. The Clausius-Clapeyron equation is given by

a) dp/dT = l / T(vf+vi)

b) dp/dT = l / T(vf-vi)

c) dT/dp = l / T(vf+vi)

d) dT/dp = l / T(vf-vi)

53. During phase transitions like vaporization, melting and sublimation

a) pressure and temperature remains constant

b) volume and entropy changes

c) both of the mentioned

d) none of the mentioned

54. The slope of sublimation curve is ____ the slope of the vaporization curve at triple point.

a) equal to
b) less than

c) greater than

d) none of the mentioned

55. Work done in a quasi-static process

a) depends on the path followed

b) independent of the path followed

c) depends only on the initial and final states

d) none of the mentioned

56. The value of a in van der Waal equation is _____________ /dependent on ___________

a) pressure

b) temperature

c) pressure and temperature

d) independent of pressure and temperature

57. A car engine with a power output of 50 kW has a thermal efficiency of 24 percent. Determine the
fuel consumption rate of this car if the fuel has a heating value of 44,000 kJ/kg

a) 0.00273 kg/s

b) 0.00373 kg/s

c) 0.00473 kg/s

d) 0.00573 kg/s

58. The Helmholtz function F is given by

a) U-TS
b) U+TS

c) -U-TS

d) -U+TS

59. Match the following:

i) Boiler A. reversible adiabatic expansion of steam

ii) turbine B. constant pressure heat heat addition

iii) Condenser C. reversible adiabatic compression

iv) pump D. constant pressure heat rejection

a) i-B ii-A iii-D iv-C

b) i-A ii-C iii-D iv-A

c) i-B ii-D iii-C iv-A

d) i-A ii-D iii-B iv-C

60. Rankine cycle efficiency of a good Steam Power Plant may be in the range of?

a) 15 to 20%

b) 35 to 45%

c) 70 to 80%

d) 90 to 95%

61. In a steam turbine power plant, the boiler feedwater temperature is marked as 30 deg C, ocean as
sink with temperature 20 deg C and desired thermal efficiency of the plant is 0.46. Find the temperature
of steam entering the turbine?

a) 500degC

b) 505.55degC

c) 507.62degC
d) 509.18degC

62. Flue gases _______ efficiency.

a) decreases

b) increases

c) does not effect

d) none of the mentioned

63. A cogeneration plant produces,

a) power

b) process heat

c) both power and process heat

d) none of the mentioned

64. The work done in irreversible adiabatic expansion by the turbine is called

a) external work

b) internal work

c) zero work

d) useful work

65. The Ericsson cycle consists of

a) two reversible isotherms and two reversible isobars

b) two reversible isotherms and two reversible adiabatics

c) two reversible isotherms and two reversible isochores

d) two reversible isobars and two reversible adiabatics

66. The efficiency of Stirling cycle is ____ the efficiency of Carnot cycle.

a) more than

b) less than

c) equal to

d) none of the mentioned

67. The Joule Thomson coefficient for an ideal gas is

a) 1

b) 0

c) -5

d) 10

68. The total entropy of a mixture of gases is the ____ of the partial entropies

a) average

b) weighted mean

c) sum

d) difference of the highest and the lowest

69. Vander Waal's constants 'a' and 'b' are related with.....respectively

a) Attractive force and bond energy of molecules

b) Volume and repulsive force of molecules

c) Shape and repulsive forces of molecules

d) Attractive force and volume of the molecules

70. The compressibility factor of a gas is defined as Z = PV/RT . The compressibility factor of ideal gas is

a) 0

b) Infinity

c) 1

d) -1

71. At constant pressure P the volume of a gas increases from V1 to V2 when ‘Q’ amount of heat is
removed from the system. What will happen to internal energy?

a) Remain the same if Q = P(V1 – V2)

b) Decrease by an amount P(V2 – V1) – Q

c) Decrease by an amount Q + P(V2 – V1)

d) Increase by some unknown amount

72. Isothermal process can be represented by which law?

a) Charle’s law

b) Boyle’s law

c) Gay-Lussac’s law

d) 2nd law of thermodynamics

73. Calculate the work done by the gas in an isothermal process from A to B. PA = 1Pa, VA = 3m3, PB =
3Pa.

a) 3.3J

b) 3J

c) -3.3J

d) -4.58J
74. If an engine takes 5J of heat energy from a reservoir and rejects 3J to the surroundings, what is its
efficiency?

a) 2/5

b) 3/5

c) 1/5

d) 0

75. The efficiency of a carnot engine is 50%. The temperature of the hot reservoir is kept constant. By
what amount should the temperature of the cold reservoir be decreased so that efficiency becomes
60%.

a) 1k

b) 2k

c) 30k

d) 83k

76. . An engine works between 2 reservoirs of temperature 500K and 300K. A company claims that this
engine of theirs takes 200J of energy from the hot reservoir and rejects 110J of energy.

Is this True or False

a) True

b) False

77. The enthalpy and internal energy are the function of temperature for

a) all gases

b) steam

c) water

d) ideal gas
78. What is the relationship between Kelvin-Planck’s and Clausius’ statements?

a) violation of one doesn’t violate the other

b) not connected to each other

c) virtually two parallel statements of the second law

d) none of the mentioned

79. The reversed heat engine takes heat from a ___ temperature body, then discharges it to a ___
temperature body and ___ an inward flow of the network

a) high, low, gives

b) low, high, gives

c) high, low, receives

d) low, high, receives

80. Which of the following statement is true?

a) for reversible adiabatic process, S=constant

b) for reversible isothermal heat transfer, Q=t(Sf-Si)

c) both of the mentioned

d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

----------Key----------

1. (b)

2. (b)
3. (d)

4. (c)

5. (c)

6. (b)

7. (a)

8. (d)

9. (a)

10. (b)

11. (c)

12. (b)

13. (b)

14. (b)

15. (b)

16. (c)

17. (c)

18. (a)

19. (c)

20. (b)

21. (c)

22. (d)

23. (d)

24. (a)

25. (d)

26. (d)

27. (d)
28. (a)

29. (d)

30. (c)

31. (a)

32. (d)

33. (c)

34. (d)

35. (d)

36. (c)

37. (a)

38. (a)

39. (b)

40. (c)

41. (b)

42. (c)

43. (c)

44. (c)

45. (b)

46. (d)

47. (b)

48. (a)

49. (a)

50. (b)

51. (b)

52. (b)
53. (c)

54. (c)

55. (a)

56. (d)

57. (c)

58. (a)

59. (a)

60. (b)

61. (d)

62. (b)

63. (c)

64. (b)

65. (a)

66. (b)

67. (b)

68. (c)

69. (d)

70. (c)

71. (c)

72. (b)

73. (c)

74. (a)

75. (a)

76. (b)

77. (d)
78. (c)

79. (d)

80. (c)

DESIGN OF MACHINE ELEMENTS

1. The basic series for preferred numbers are

a) R5, R10, R20, R40 and R80

b) R10, R20, R30, R40 and R50

c) R5, R10, R15, R20 and R25

d) none of the above

2. When the diameter of shaft is doubled, its torque transmitting capacity will increase by

a) 8 times

b) 2 times

c) 4 times

d) 16 times

3. Distortion energy theory of failure is applicable to

a) components made of plain carbon steel

b) components made of composites

c) components made of cast iron

d) components made of non-metals

4. Stress concentration occurs due to

a) blow holes
b) keyways and splines

c) machining scratches

d) any one of the above

5. The criterion of failure for machine parts subjected to fluctuating stresses is

a) ultimate tensile strength

b) yield strength

c) endurance limit

d) modulus of elasticity

6. A self-locking screw has

a) fine threads

b) coarse threads

c) two nuts

d) coefficient of friction more than tangent of lead angle

7. The designation M 36x2 means

a) metric fine threads of 36 mm outside diameter and 2 mm pitch

b) metric coarse threads of 36 mm outside diameter and 2 mm pitch

c) metric threads of 36 mm pitch diameter and 2 mm pitch

d) metric threads of 36 mm core diameter and 2 mm pitch

8. The distance between the centre of one rivet and the centre of adjacent rivet in the same row is
called

a) pitch

b) margin
c) transverse pitch

d) diagonal pitch

9. Which of the double-strap butt joint used in boiler shell has highest efficiency

a) single riveted

b) double riveted

c) triple riveted

d) quadruple riveted

10. When helical compression spring is cut into halves, the stiffness of the resulting spring will be

a) same

b) double

c) one-half

d) one-fourth

11. The design of thin cylindrical shells is based on

a) hoop stress

b) longitudinal stress

c) arithmetic mean of the hoop and the longitudinal stress

d) geometric mean of the hoop and longitudinal stress

12. The maximum deflection of a fixed beam carrying a central point load lies at

a) fixed ends

b) centre of beam

c) l/3 from fixed ends

d) none of these

13. The springs in brakes and clutches are used to

a) to apply forces

b) to measure forces

c) to store strain energy

d) to absorb shocks

14. A beam of uniform strength may be obtained by

a) keeping the width uniform and varying the depth

b) keeping the depth uniform and varying the width

c) varying the width and depth both

d) any one of the above

15. The deformation of the bar per unit length in the direction of the force is known as

a) linear strain

b) lateral strain

c) volumetric strain

d) shear strain

16. The pressure angle of a cam is the angle between the direction of the follower motion and a normal
to the

a) pitch circle

b) base circle

c) pitch curve
d) prime circle

17. A point in a body is subjected to plane state of stress in XY plane. If, σx= 140MPa, σy=

60 MPa and the major principal stress is 150 MPa, the magnitude of the in-plane shear stress

τxy (in MPa) is

a) 75

b) 30

c) 40

d) 70

18. When a bar of length L and diameter d is rigidly fixed at the upper end and hanging freely, then the
total elongation produced in the bar due to its own weight is (where w = Weight per unit volume of the
bar)

a) wL/2E

b) wLL/2E

c) wLLL/AE

d) None of these

19. The deformation of the bar per unit length in the direction of the force is known as

a) linear strain

b) lateral strain

c) volumetric strain

d) shear strain

20. Which of the following statement is correct?

a) The stress is the pressure per unit area.

b) The strain is expressed in mm.

c) Hook's law holds good upto the breaking point.

d) Stress is directly proportional to strain within proportional limit.

21. The relation between Young's modulus (E), shear modulus (C) and bulk modulus (K) is given by

a) 3KG/(6K+G)

b) 3KG/(3K+G)

c) 9KG/(3K+G)

d) 9KG/(6K+G)

22. Axial Deformation in the bar of length L,

a) PL/AE

b) PL/2AE

c) PL/4AE

d) PL/3AE

23. The volumetric strain is the ratio of the

a) original thickness to the change in thickness

b) change in thickness to the original thickness

c) original volume to the change in volume

d) change in volume to the original volume

24. A bolt is made to pass through a tube and both of them are tightly fitted with the help of washers
and nuts. If the nut is tightened, then

a) bolt and tube are under tension

b) bolt and tube are under compression

c) bolt is under compression and tube is under tension

d) bolt is Under tension and tube is under compression

25. A body is subjected to a tensile stress of 1200 MPa on one plane and another tensile stress of 600
MPa on a plane at right angles to the former. It is also subjected to a shear stress of 400 MPa on the
same planes. The minimum normal stress will be

a) 400 MPa

b) 500 MPa

c) 900 MPa

d) 1400 MPa

26. When one plate overlaps the other and the two plates are riveted together with two rows of rivets,
the joint is known as

a) single riveted lap joint

b) double riveted lap joint

c) double riveted single cover butt joint

d) double riveted double cover butt joint

27. A simply supported beam having a rectangular cross-section of depth d is subjected to a vertical

concentrated load P at the mid-span. The maximum shear stress in a section occurs at

a) d/2 from the top of the cross-section

b) d/3 from the top of the cross-section

c) 2d/3 from the top of the cross-section

d) Top of the cross-section

28. When a beam is subjected to a bending moment, the strain in a layer is __________ the distance
from the neutral axis.

a) equal to

directly proportional to

b) inversely proportional to

c) independent of

d) not related to

29. Calculate thickness of metal, if the pressure inside the water main is 0.6 N/mm2. The diameter of
water main is 600 mm. Take hoop stress = 25 N/mm2.

a) 7.20 mm

b) 9.45 mm

c) 10.58 mm

d) 12.24 mm

30. When a shaft is subjected to a twisting moment, every cross-section of the shaft will be under

a) tensile stress

b) compressive stress

c) shear stress

d) bending stress

31. A double strap butt joint with equal straps is

a) always in single shear

b) always in double shear

c) either in single shear or double shear

d) none of these

32. At the neutral axis of a beam

a) the layers are subjected to maximum bending stress

b) the layers are subjected to minimum bending stress

c) the layers are subjected to compression

d) the layers do not undergo any strain

33. Screws used for power transmission should have

a) Low efficiency

b) high efficiency

c) very fine threads

d) strong teeth

34. When bevel gears connect two shafts whose axes intersect at an angle greater than a right angle and
one of the bevel gears has a pitch angle of 90°, then they are known as

a) angular bevel gears

b) crown bevel gears

c) internal bevel gears

d) mitre gears

35. A screw is said to be over hauling screw, if its efficiency is

a) less than 50%

b) more than 50%

c) equal to 50%
d) none of these

36. The application of third type levers is found in

a) handle of a hand pump

b) hand wheel of a punching press

c) lever of a loaded safety valve

d) a pair of tongs

37. For unequal width of butt straps, the thickness of butt straps are

a) 0.75 t for wide strap on the inside and 0.625 t for narrow strap on the outside

b) 0.75 t for narrow strap on the inside and 0.625 t for wide strap on the outside

c) 0.75 t for both the straps on the inside and outside

d) 0.625 t for both the straps on the inside and outside

38. In second type of levers,

a) load is in between the fulcrum and effort

b) effort is in between the fulcrum and load

c) fulcrum is in between the load and effort

d) none of these

39. Soderberg relation is based on __________ of the material whereas all other failure relation for
dynamic loading are based on ultimate strength of the material.

a) elastic strength

b) yield strength

c) shear strength

d) Ultimate strength
40. In a flange coupling, the flanges are coupled together by means of

a) bolts and nuts

b) studs

c) headless taper bolts

d) none of these

41. A transmission shaft includes

a) counter shaft

b) line shaft

c) over head shaft

d) all of these

42. A locking device in which the bottom cylindrical portion is recessed to receive the tip of the locking
set screw, is called

a) castle nut

b) jam nut

c) ring nut

d) sawn nut

43. A column is known as a long column if the slenderness ratio is

a) 40

b) 70

c) 30

d) 80
44. A crankshaft is a __________ shaft.

a) transmission

b) machine

c) Regular

d) Straight

45. According to Indian standard specifications, 100 H6/g5 means that the

a) actual size is 100 mm

b) basic size is 100 mm

c) difference between the actual size and basic size is 100 mm

d) none of the above

46. A column is known as a long column if the slenderness ratio is

a) maximum size of column to minimum size of column

b) width of column to depth of column

c) effective length of column to least radius of gyration of the column

d) effective length of column to width of column

47. The ball bearings are provided with a cage

a) to reduce friction

b) to facilitate slipping of balls

c) to prevent the lubricant from flowing out

d) to maintain the balls at a fixed distance apart

48. When screw threads are to be used in a situation where power is being transmitted in one direction
only, then the screw threads suitable for this will be
a) square threads

b) acme threads

c) knuckle threads

d) buttress threads

49. In radial cams, the follower moves

a) in a direction perpendicular to the cam axis

b) in a direction parallel to the cam axis

c) in any direction irrespective of cam axis

d) along the cam axis

50. According to Unwin's formula, the relation between the diameter of rivet hole (d) and the thickness
of plate (t) is given by (where d and t are in mm)

a) d =√ t

b) d = 1.6 √t

c) d = 2 √t

d) d = 6 √t

51. In order to avoid tearing of the plate at an edge, the distance from the centre line of the rivet hole to
the nearest edge of the plate should be equal to (where d = Diameter of rivet hole)

a) d

b) 1.5 d

c) 2 d

d) 2.5 d
----------Key----------

1. (a)

2. (a)

3. (a)

4. (d)

5. (c)

6. (b)

7. (a)

8. (a)

9. (d)

10. (b)

11. (a)

12. (b)

13. (a)

14. (d)

15.

16. (c)

17. (b)

18. (b)

19. (a)

20.

21. (c)

22. (a)
23. (d)

24. (d)

25. (a)

26. (b)

27. (a)

28. (b)

29. (a)

30. (c)

31. (b)

32.

33. (b)

34. (b)

35. (b)

36. (d)

37. (a)

38.

39. (b)

40. (a)

41. (d)

42. (c)

43. (d)

44. (b)

45. (b)

46. (c)

47. (d)
48. (d)

49. (a)

50. (d)

51. (b)

ENGINEERING MECHANICS

1. If a rigid body travelling at constant velocity in space, which of the following statements are TRUE?

i. Net force acting on the rigid body is zero.

ii. Position vector changes with time.

iii. The rigid body will come to rest after some time.

a) both (i) and (iii)

b) both (ii) and (iii)

c) both (i) and (ii)

d) only (iii)

2. If rigid body at static equilibrium condition which of following statements are correct?

i) ∑▒F=0 and∑▒M≠0.

ii) ∑▒M=0 and ∑▒F≠0

iii) ∑▒M=0 and ∑▒F=0

a) Both (i) and (ii)

b) Both (ii) and (iii)

c) Both (i) and (iii)

d) Only (iii)

3. Weight of 120 kN is being supported by a tripod whose each leg is of the length of 13m. If the vertical
height of the point of attachment of the load is 12m, the force on the tripod leg would be

<img src="3.png" alt="3.png" title="3" width="302" height="215"/>

a) 37.67 kN

b) 40 kN

c) 43.3 kN

d) 46.6 kN

4. The figure shows a rigid body oscillating about the pivot A. If J is mass moment of inertia of the body
about the axis of rotation, its natural frequency for small oscillations is proportional to

<img src="4.png" alt="4.png" title="4" width="302" height="215"/>

a) J

b) (J)0.5

c) 1/J

d) 1 /(J)0.5

5. Bars AB and BC, each of negligible mass, support load P as shown in the figure. In this arrangement

<img src="5.png" alt="5.png" title="5" width="250" height="137"/>

a) Bar AB is subjected to bending but bar BC is not subjected to bending

b) Bar AB is not subjected to bending but bar BC is subjected to bending

c) Neither bar AB nor bar BC is subjected to bending

d) Both bars AB and BC are subjected to bending

6. A rod of length 1 m is sliding in a corner as shown in figure. At an instant when the rod makes an angle
of 60 degrees with the horizontal plane, the velocity of point A on the rod is 1m/s. The angular velocity
of the rod at this instant

<img src="6.png" alt="6.png" title="6" width="325" height="234"/>

a) 2 rad/s

b) 1.5 rad/s

c) 0.5 rad/s

d) 0.75 rad/s

7. If a system is in equilibrium and the position of the system depends upon many independent
variables, the principle of virtual work states that the partial derivatives of its total potential energy with
respect to each of the independent variable must be

a) -1.0

b) 0

c) 1.0

d) ∞

8. A truss of span 9 m is loaded as shown in the given figure. The number of two-force members carrying
zero force is

<img src="8.png" alt="8.png" title="8" width="425" height="234"/>

a) One

b) Two

c) Three

d) Four

9. The figure shows a pin-jointed plane truss loaded at the point M by hanging a mass of 100 kg. The
member LN of the truss is subjected to a load of
<img src="9.png" alt="9.png" title="9" width="225" height="234"/>

a) 0 N

b) 490 N in compression

c) 981 N in compression

d) 981 N in tension

10. A truss consists of horizontal members (AC, CD DB and EF) and vertical members (CE and DE) having
length I each. The members AE, DE and BF are inclined at 45° to the horizontal. For the uniformly
distributed load "P" per unit length on the member EF of the truss shown in figure given below, the
force in the member CD is

<img src="10.png" alt="10.png" title="10" width="325" height="234"/>

a) pl/2

b) pl

c) 0

d) 2pl/3

11. Strain energy is the

a) energy stored in a body when strained within elastic limits

b) energy stored in a body when strained upto the breaking of a specimen

c) maximum strain energy which can be stored in a body

d) proof resilience per unit volume of a material

12. Which of the following is termed as an action of pull or push of a body at rest or motion?

a) Torque

b) Momentum

c) Work

d) Force
13. Which of the following is the condition for the three-force theorem in mechanics?

a) The force system should be in equilibrium only

b) The force systems should be non-coplanar

c) The system should be co-planar, parallel

d) The force system should be in equilibrium, co-planar, concurrent, or parallel

14. The point of application where the total weight can be expected to be concentrated if the
gravitational force is dispersed across the volume of the body is called ______

a) The surface of the body

b) The centroid of the body

c) Center of gravity of the body

d) Moment of inertia

15. When there is no relative force between touching surfaces, which of the following force is
developed?

a) Static friction

b) Dry friction

c) Dynamic friction

d) Fluid friction

16. What is the relationship between each force, if three concurrent forces acting on a body according
to Lami’s theorem?

a) Directly proportional to the sine of the angle between the other two forces

b) Inversely proportional to the cosine of the angle between the other two forces

c) Directly proportional to the cosine of the angle between the other two forces

d) Inversely proportional to the sine of the angle between the other two forces
17. What is the the effect of a force upon a body according to the principle of transmissibility of forces?

a) Different at various locations along its line of action

b) The same at all points along its line of action

c) Minimum when acting at the body’s centre of gravity

d) Maximum when acting at the body’s centre of gravity

18. Which of the following conditions doesn’t affect the magnitude of the moment?

a) If the point of application of force is opposing the line of action

b) If the point of application of force is along the line of action

c) If the moment of centre is shifted along a line perpendicular to the line of action

d) If the resultant is maximal

19. Which element of the truss section is made to apply the method of sections in the free body
diagram?

a) The whole structure

b) Any section can be used

c) Joints

d) Truss

20. The change in the moment is equal to which of the following?

a) Rotational moment

b) Bending moment

c) Total weight

d) Area under the shear diagram

21. Over a block of weight W, the theory of friction is described. Which of the following describes the
surface on which of the following block is located?

a) Coloured red

b) Having density in negative

c) The motion of that block is always horizontal

d) Non-rigid

22. In the journal bearings calculations, the moment is the cross product of which of the following two
vectors?

a) Force and Radius scalars

b) Radius and Force scalars

c) Radius and Force vectors

d) Force and Radius vectors

23. If a car is moving forward, what is the direction of the moment of the moment caused by the
rotation of the tires?

a) It is heading inwards, i.e. the direction is towards inside of the car

b) It is heading outwards, i.e. the direction is towards outside of the car

c) It is heading forward, i.e. the direction is towards the forward direction of the motion of the car

d) It is heading backward, i.e. the direction is towards the back side of the motion of the car

24. Which of the following is correct in bending moment diagram w.r.t the moment (M) of the force (F)
acting on the body at a distance L from the axis of the rotation?

a) M=FLsinθ

b) M=FLcosθ

c) M=F.Lsinθ

d) M=FxLsinθ
25. If any force is applied in the direction of the positive x-axis, and there are three different points in
bending moment diagram on which the moment of this force is to be calculated. Then if these three
points are on the positive side of the y-axis with varying distance, then what will be the direction of the
moment caused by the force to the individual point?

a) Towards positive z-axis

b) Towards positive y-axis

c) Towards positive x-axis

d) Towards negative z-axis

26. If a force applied at any point in its line of action and is still creating the same moment about any
fixed point say P, then the force is said to be a sliding vector. What is the name of this property in a
bending moment diagram?

a) Associative property

b) Distributive property

c) Negative associative property

d) Principle transmissibility of the force

27. If a force applied at any point in its line of action and is still creating the same moment about any
fixed point say P, then the force in bending moment diagram is said to be______________

a) Couple

b) Sliding vector

c) Slider couple

d) Couple slider

28. The design of the beam requires the knowledge of the variation of the ____________

a) Internal shear force

b) Rolling forces
c) Rotational forces

d) External forces

29. The moment of inertia of a solid cone of mass ‘m’ and base radius ‘r’ about its vertical axis is

a) 3mr2/5

b) 3mr2/10

c) 2mr2/5

d) 4mr2/5

30. Moment of inertia of a rectangular section having width (b) and depth (d) about an axis passing
through its C.G. and parallel to the depth (d), is

a) db³/12

b) bd³/12

c) db³/36

d) bd³/36

31. From a circular plate of diameter 6 cm is cut out a circle whose diameter is a radius of the plate. Find
the e.g. of the remainder from the centre of circular plate

a) 0.5 cm

b) 1.0 cm

c) 1.5 cm

d) 2.5 cm

32. The velocity ratio of a differential wheel and axle with 'D' as the diameter of effort wheel and d1 and
d2 as the diameters of larger and smaller axles respectively, is

a) D/(d₁ + d₂)

b) D/(d₁ - d₂)
c) 2D/(d₁ + d₂)

d) 2D/(d₁ - d₂)

33. A trolley wire weighs 1.2 kg per meter length. The ends of the wire are attached to two poles 20
meters apart. If the horizontal tension is 1500 kg find the dip in the middle of the span

a) 2.5 cm

b) 3.0 cm

c) 4.0 cm

d) 5.0 cm

34. A particle moves along a straight line such that distance (x) traversed in 't' seconds is given by x = t² (t
- 4), the acceleration of the particle will be given by the equation

a) 6t² - 8t

b) 3t² + 2t

c) 6f - 8

d) 6f - 4

35. Which of the following is the locus of a point that moves in such a manner that its distance from a
fixed point is equal to its distance from a fixed line multiplied by a constant greater than one

a) Ellipse

b) Hyperbola

c) Parabola

d) Circle

36. During elastic impact, the relative velocity of the two bodies after impact is __________ the relative
velocity of the two bodies before impact.

a) Equal and opposite to

b) Equal to

c) Less than

d) Greater than

37. The maximum efficiency of a screw jack is

a) (1 - sinφ)/(1 + sinφ)

b) (1 + sinφ)/(1 - sinφ)

c) (1 - tanφ)/(1 + tanφ)

d) (1 + tanφ)/(1 - tanφ)

38. The moment of inertia of a rectangular section 3 cm wide and 4 cm deep about X-X axis is

a) 9 cm4

b) 12 cm4

c) 16 cm4

d) 20 cm4

39. The velocity ratio in case of an inclined plane inclined at angle 'θ' to the horizontal and weight being
pulled up the inclined plane by vertical effort is

a) sinθ

b) cosθ

c) tanθ

d) cosecθ

40. If five forces are acting on the single particle and having an angle of 72˚ between each and are
collinear, then:

a) The net force acting on the body is zero

b) The net force acting on the body is horizontal

c) The net force acting on the body is vertical

d) The net force acting on the body is at an angle of 45

41. In case of bridge the load is transferred when __________

a) Floor beams > stringers > joints

b) Stringers > floor beams > joints

c) Joints > floor beams > stringers

d) Stringers > joints > floor beams

42. Which of the following is correct?

a) To know the direction of the unknown force we take the assumption of it

b) The direction of the unknown force is known to us already

c) he direction of the unknown can’t be determined

d) The direction of the unknown is of no use, it is not founded

43. The transmission of the load on a certain type of a structure follow as from stringers to floor beams
and then joints. Determine the structure.

a) Truss

b) Beam

c) Pillar

d) Bridge

44. A truss is facing a two force member and both of them are in the opposite directions. And the truss
is in equilibrium. And both of them are getting away from each other.The forces are called?

a) Compressive forces
b) Tensile Forces

c) Parallel and collinear forces with same direction of heading

d) The rotational forces

45. Truss cannot be acted upon three force members. Because the truss in a single plane.

a) The first part of the statement is false and other part is true

b) The first part of the statement is false and other part is false too

c) The first part of the statement is true and other part is false

d) The first part of the statement is true and other part is true too

46. Frames and machines are two types of structural figures which are often composed of pin connected
___________ member.

a) Multi-couple

b) Multi-force

c) Multi-moment

d) Multi-valued

47. The forces obtained at the joints and the members of the machines are very important. They are
used for:

a) The designing the size of the members, connections done in the frames and machines

b) To determine the stress bearing capacity

c) To know the strain bearing capacity

d) They are not important

48. The method of joints helps us to find out the unknown force in the trusses joint. And the method of
section helps us to make the calculation of the direction of the zero members.

a) The first part of the statement is false and other part is true
b) The first part of the statement is false and other part is false too

c) The first part of the statement is true and other part is false

d) The first part of the statement is true and other part is true too

49. The determination of the truss’s support reaction is done first and then the section is isolated for the
method of the section.

a) The first step is right but the second one is wrong

b) The first step is right and the second one is right too

c) The first step is wrong and the second one is wrong too

d) The first step is wrong but the second one is right

50. The free body diagram of which part of the section of the truss is made to make use of the method
of sections?

a) Joints

b) Truss

c) The whole structure

d) Any section can be used

----------Key----------

1. (c)

2. (d)

3. (c)

4. (d)
5. (c)

6. (a)

7. (b)

8. (d)

9. (a)

10. (a)

11. (a)

12. (d)

13. (d)

14. (c)

15. (a)

16. (a)

17. (b)

18. (b)

19. (b)

20. (d)

21. (c)

22. (c)

23. (a)

24. (a)

25. (a)

26. (d)

27. (b)

28. (a)

29. (b)
30. (a)

31. (a)

32. (d)

33. (c)

34. (c)

35. (b)

36. (a)

37. (a)

38. (c)

39. (a)

40. (a)

41. (b)

42. (a)

43. (d)

44. (b)

45. (a)

46. (b)

47. (a)

48. (c)

49. (b)

50. (d)

ENGINEERING THERMODYNAMICS

1. The given figure shows the variation of force in an elementary system which undergoes a process
during which the plunger position changes from 0 to 3 m.
IF the internal energy of the system at the end of the process is 2.5 J higher, then the heat absorbed
during the process is

<img src="1.png" alt="1.png" title="1" width="302" height="215"/>

a) 15 J

b) 20 J

c) 25 J

d) 30 J

2. A frictionless piston-cylinder device contains a gas initially at 0.8 MPa and 0.015 m3. It expands quasi-
statically at constant temperature to a final volume of 0.030 m3. The work output (in kJ/kg) during this
process will be:

a) 8.32

b) 12

c) 554.67

d) 8320

3. Which one of the following correctly defined 1 K, as per the internationally accepted definition of
temperature scale?

a) 1/100th of the difference between normal boiling point and normal freezing point of water

b) 1/273.15th of the normal freezing point of water

c) 100 times the difference between the triple point of water and the normal freezing point of water

d) 1/273.15th of the triple point of water

4. When a system is taken from state ‘x’ to state ‘y’. 30 kJ of heat flows into the system and the system
does 10 kJ of work. When the system is returned from ‘y’ to ‘x’ along another path, work done on the
system is 8 kJ. What is the amount of heat liberated or absorbed?

a) 12 kJ of heat is liberated

b) 12 kJ of heat is absorbed
c) 28 kJ of heat is liberated

d) 28 kJ of heat is absorbed

5. In an adiabatic process, 5000J of work is performed on a system. The system

returns to its original state while 1000J of heat is added. The work done during

the non-adiabatic process is:

a) + 4000J

b) - 4000J

c) + 6000J

d) - 6000J

6. An engine working on Carnot cycle rejects 40% of absorbed heat from the source, while the sink
temperature is maintained at 27°C, then what is the source temperature?

a) 750°C

b) 477°C

c) 203°C

d) 67.5°C

7. Gibbs function is expressed as

a) u+pv-Ts

b) u+pv-Tds

c) u+pdv-Tds

d) u+pv-sdT
8. The Figure shown is the phase diagram (p-T diagram) for water. Identify the region in which water
exists as liquid

<img src="8.png" alt="8.png" title="8" width="302" height="302"/>

a) Region “X”

b) Region “Z”

c) Region “X and Z”

d) Region “Y”

9. The summation of internal energy (u) and flow energy (pv) is known as ……………..

a) enthalpy

b) entropy

c) heat capacity

d) total internal energy

10. The chart which is drawn with compressibility factor (Z) and reduced properties is called as
…………………..

a) Compressibility chart

b) Generalized compressibility chart

c) property chart

d) ideal gas chart

11. Increase in entropy of a system represents

a) Increase in available energy

b) Decreases in pressure

c) Degradation of energy
d) Increase in temperature

12. Gibbs free energy functions is a property comprising

a) pressure, volume, temperature

b) enthalpy, temperature, entropy

c) volume, enthalpy and entropy

d) temperature, pressure and enthalpy

13. The degree of freedom at triple point in unary diagram for water is

a) 0

b) 1

c) 2

d) 3

14. The exergy of an isolated system

a) Can never decreases

b) Can never increases

c) Always remains constant

d) Can’t be predictable

15. Which of the following are intensive properties

(i). Kinetic Energy (ii). Specific Enthalpy (iii). Pressure (iv). Entropy

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) i and iii

b) ii and iii
c) i, iii and iv

d) ii and iv

16. Work done in a free expansion process is:

a) Positive

b) Negative

c) Zero

d) Maximum

17. A gas contained in a cylinder is compressed, the work required for compression being 5000 kJ.
During the process, heat interaction of 2000 kJ causes the surroundings to the heated. The change in
internal energy of the gas during the process is

a) – 7000 kJ

b) – 3000 kJ

c) + 3000 kJ

d) + 7000 kJ

18. Two blocks which are at different states are brought into contact with each other and allowed to
reach a final state of thermal equilibrium. The final temperature attained is specified by the

a) Zeroth law of thermodynamics

b) First law of thermodynamics

c) Second law of thermodynamics

d) Third law of thermodynamics

19. An inventor states that his new engine rejects to the sink 40% of heat absorbed from the source
while the source and sink temperatures are 327ºC and 27ºC respectively. His engine is therefore
equivalent to
a) Joule engine

b) Stirling engine

c) Impossible engine

d) Carnot engine

20. An engine operates between temperature limits of 900 K and T2 and another between T2 and 400 K.
For both to be equally efficient, the value of T2 will be

a) 700 K

b) 600 K

c) 650 K

d) 750 K

21. A reversible heat engine rejects 50 percent of the heat supplied during a cycle of operation. If this
engine is reversed and operates as a heat pump, then what is its coefficient of performance

a) 1

b) 1.5

c) 2

d) 2.5

22. A Carnot engine operates between 327°C and 27°C. If the engine produces 300 kJ of work, what is
the entropy change during heat addition

a) 0 kJ/K

b) 0.5 kJ/K

c) 0.75 kJ/K

d) 1 kJ/K
23. For a reversible power cycle, the operating temperature limits are 800 K and 300 K. It takes 400 kJ of
heat. The unavailable work will be:

a) 250 kJ

b) 125 kJ

c) 200 kJ

d) 150 kJ

24. Which one of the following is the extensive property of a thermodynamic system?

a) Volume

b) Pressure

c) Temperature

d) Density

25. Consider the following:

(i) Temperature (ii) Viscosity (iii) Internal energy (iv) Entropy

Which of these are extensive properties?

a) i, ii, iii and iv

b) ii and iv only

c) ii and iii only

d) iii and iv only.

26. Heat and work are

a) intensive properties

b) extensive properties

c) point functions

d) path functions
27. An isolated thermodynamic system executes a process, choose the correct statement(s) form the
following

a) No heat is transferred

b) No work is done

c) No mass flows across the boundary of the system

d) all of the above

28. Measurement of temperature is based on which law of thermodynamics?

a) Zeroth law of thermodynamics

b) First law of thermodynamics

c) Second law of thermodynamics

d) Third law of thermodynamics

29. A new temperature scale (MECH) in °M is to be defined. The boiling and freezing on this scale are
400°M and 100°M respectively. What will be the reading on new scale corresponding to 60°C?

a) 120°M

b) 180°M

c) 220°M

d) 280°M

30. Thermodynamic work is the product of

a) Two intensive properties

b) Two extensive properties

c) An intensive property and change in an extensive property

d) An extensive property and change in an intensive property

31. Which one of the following sets of thermodynamic laws/relations is directly involved in determining
the final properties during an adiabatic mixing process?

a) The first and second laws of thermodynamics

b) The second law of thermodynamics and steady flow relations

c) Perfect gas relationship and steady flow relations

d) The first law of thermodynamics and perfect gas relationship

32. For a closed system, the difference between the heat added to the system and the work done by the
system is equal to the change in

a) Enthalpy

b) Entropy

c) Temperature

d) Internal energy

33. The cyclic integral of (δQ-δW) for a process is:

a) Positive

b) Negative

c) Zero

d) Unpredictable

34. A gas is compressed in a cylinder by a movable piston to a volume one-half of its original volume.
During the process, 300 kJ heat left the gas and the internal energy remained same. What is the work
done on the gas?

a) 100kNm

b) 150 kNm

c) 200 kNm
d) 300 kNm

35. For a simple closed system of constant composition, the difference between the net heat and work
interactions is identifiable as the change in

a) Enthalpy

b) Entropy

c) Flow energy

d) Internal energy

36. If the work done on a closed system is 20kJ/kg, and 40kJ/kg heat is rejected from the system, its
internal energy decreases by

a) 20kJ/kg

b) 60kJ/kg

c) -20kJ/kg

d) -60kJ/kg

37. For steady flow through an insulated horizontal constant diameter pipe, this property remains
constant

a) Enthalpy

b) Internal energy

c) Entropy

d) Volume

38. A reversible heat engine operating between hot and cold reservoirs delivers a work output of 54 kJ
while it rejects a heat of 66 kJ. The efficiency of this engine is:

a) 0.45

b) 0.66
c) 0.75

d) 0.82

39. If a heat engine gives an output of 3 kW when the input is 10,000 J/s, then the thermal efficiency of
the engine will be:

a) 20%

b) 30%

c) 70%

d) 76.7%

40. In a thermodynamic cycle consisting of four processes, the heat and work are as follows: Q: + 30, -
10, -20, + 5 W: + 3, 10, - 8, 0

The thermal efficiency of the cycle will be:

a) 0

b) 7.15 %

c) 14.33 %

d) 28.6 %

41. The heat transferred in a thermodynamic cycle of a system consisting of four processes is
successively 0, 8, 6 and -4 units. The net change in the internal energy of the system will be:

a) -8

b) 0

c) 8

d) 10

42. The fundamental unit of enthalpy is:

a) MLT-2
b) ML-2T-1

c) ML2T-2

d) ML3T-2

43. Heat transfer takes place according to

a) Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics

b) First Law of Thermodynamics

c) Second Law of Thermodynamics

d) Third Law of Thermodynamics

44. A Carnot engine rejects 30% of absorbed that to a sink at 30º C. The temperature of the heat source
is

a) 100º C

b) 433º C

c) 737º C

d) 1010º C

45. In a cyclic heat engine operating between a source temperature of 600°C and a sink temperature of
20°C, the least rate of heat rejection per kW net output of the engine is:

a) 0.460 kW

b) 0.505 kW

c) 0.588 kW

d) 0.650 kW

46. If a closed system is undergoing an irreversible process, the entropy of the system

a) Must increase
b) Always remains constant

c) Must decrease

d) Can increase, decrease or remain constant

47. Isentropic flow is

a) Irreversible adiabatic flow

b) Reversible adiabatic flow

c) Ideal fluid flow

d) Frictionless reversible flow

48. The specific heats of an ideal gas depend on its

a) Temperature

b) Pressure

c) Volume

d) Molecular weight and structure

49. A positive value to Joule-Thomson coefficient of a fluid means

a) Temperature drops during throttling

b) Temperature remains constant during throttling

c) Temperature rises during throttling

d) None of these

50. A gas having a negative Joule-Thompson coefficient (μ < 0), when throttled, will:

a) Become cooler

b) Become warmer
c) Remain at the same temperature

d) Either be cooler or warmer depending on the type of gas

51. All gases and vapours approach ideal gas behaviour at?

a) High pressure and high density

b) Low pressure and low density

c) High pressure and low density

d) Low pressure and high density

52. The Clausius-Clapeyron equation is given by

a) dp/dT = l / T(vf+vi)

b) dp/dT = l / T(vf-vi)

c) dT/dp = l / T(vf+vi)

d) dT/dp = l / T(vf-vi)

53. During phase transitions like vaporization, melting and sublimation

a) pressure and temperature remains constant

b) volume and entropy changes

c) both of the mentioned

d) none of the mentioned

54. The slope of sublimation curve is ____ the slope of the vaporization curve at triple point.

a) equal to

b) less than

c) greater than
d) none of the mentioned

55. Work done in a quasi-static process

a) depends on the path followed

b) independent of the path followed

c) depends only on the initial and final states

d) none of the mentioned

56. The value of a in van der Waal equation is _____________ /dependent on ___________

a) pressure

b) temperature

c) pressure and temperature

d) independent of pressure and temperature

57. A car engine with a power output of 50 kW has a thermal efficiency of 24 percent. Determine the
fuel consumption rate of this car if the fuel has a heating value of 44,000 kJ/kg

a) 0.00273 kg/s

b) 0.00373 kg/s

c) 0.00473 kg/s

d) 0.00573 kg/s

58. The Helmholtz function F is given by

a) U-TS

b) U+TS

c) -U-TS
d) -U+TS

59. Match the following:

i) Boiler A. reversible adiabatic expansion of steam

ii) turbine B. constant pressure heat heat addition

iii) Condenser C. reversible adiabatic compression

iv) pump D. constant pressure heat rejection

a) i-B ii-A iii-D iv-C

b) i-A ii-C iii-D iv-A

c) i-B ii-D iii-C iv-A

d) i-A ii-D iii-B iv-C

60. Rankine cycle efficiency of a good Steam Power Plant may be in the range of?

a) 15 to 20%

b) 35 to 45%

c) 70 to 80%

d) 90 to 95%

61. In a steam turbine power plant, the boiler feedwater temperature is marked as 30 deg C, ocean as
sink with temperature 20 deg C and desired thermal efficiency of the plant is 0.46. Find the temperature
of steam entering the turbine?

a) 500degC

b) 505.55degC

c) 507.62degC

d) 509.18degC
62. Flue gases _______ efficiency.

a) decreases

b) increases

c) does not effect

d) none of the mentioned

63. A cogeneration plant produces,

a) power

b) process heat

c) both power and process heat

d) none of the mentioned

64. The work done in irreversible adiabatic expansion by the turbine is called

a) external work

b) internal work

c) zero work

d) useful work

65. The Ericsson cycle consists of

a) two reversible isotherms and two reversible isobars

b) two reversible isotherms and two reversible adiabatics

c) two reversible isotherms and two reversible isochores

d) two reversible isobars and two reversible adiabatics

66. The efficiency of Stirling cycle is ____ the efficiency of Carnot cycle.
a) more than

b) less than

c) equal to

d) none of the mentioned

67. The Joule Thomson coefficient for an ideal gas is

a) 1

b) 0

c) -5

d) 10

68. The total entropy of a mixture of gases is the ____ of the partial entropies

a) average

b) weighted mean

c) sum

d) difference of the highest and the lowest

69. Vander Waal's constants 'a' and 'b' are related with.....respectively

a) Attractive force and bond energy of molecules

b) Volume and repulsive force of molecules

c) Shape and repulsive forces of molecules

d) Attractive force and volume of the molecules

70. The compressibility factor of a gas is defined as Z = PV/RT . The compressibility factor of ideal gas is

a) 0
b) Infinity

c) 1

d) -1

71. At constant pressure P the volume of a gas increases from V1 to V2 when ‘Q’ amount of heat is
removed from the system. What will happen to internal energy?

a) Remain the same if Q = P(V1 – V2)

b) Decrease by an amount P(V2 – V1) – Q

c) Decrease by an amount Q + P(V2 – V1)

d) Increase by some unknown amount

72. Isothermal process can be represented by which law?

a) Charle’s law

b) Boyle’s law

c) Gay-Lussac’s law

d) 2nd law of thermodynamics

73. Calculate the work done by the gas in an isothermal process from A to B. PA = 1Pa, VA = 3m3, PB =
3Pa.

a) 3.3J

b) 3J

c) -3.3J

d) -4.58J

74. If an engine takes 5J of heat energy from a reservoir and rejects 3J to the surroundings, what is its
efficiency?

a) 2/5
b) 3/5

c) 1/5

d) 0

75. The efficiency of a carnot engine is 50%. The temperature of the hot reservoir is kept constant. By
what amount should the temperature of the cold reservoir be decreased so that efficiency becomes
60%.

a) 1k

b) 2k

c) 30k

d) 83k

76. . An engine works between 2 reservoirs of temperature 500K and 300K. A company claims that this
engine of theirs takes 200J of energy from the hot reservoir and rejects 110J of energy.

Is this True or False

a) True

b) False

77. The enthalpy and internal energy are the function of temperature for

a) all gases

b) steam

c) water

d) ideal gas

78. What is the relationship between Kelvin-Planck’s and Clausius’ statements?

a) violation of one doesn’t violate the other

b) not connected to each other

c) virtually two parallel statements of the second law

d) none of the mentioned

79. The reversed heat engine takes heat from a ___ temperature body, then discharges it to a ___
temperature body and ___ an inward flow of the network

a) high, low, gives

b) low, high, gives

c) high, low, receives

d) low, high, receives

80. Which of the following statement is true?

a) for reversible adiabatic process, S=constant

b) for reversible isothermal heat transfer, Q=t(Sf-Si)

c) both of the mentioned

d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

----------Key----------

1. (b)

2. (b)

3. (d)

4. (c)

5. (c)
6. (b)

7. (a)

8. (d)

9. (a)

10. (b)

11. (c)

12. (b)

13. (b)

14. (b)

15. (b)

16. (c)

17. (c)

18. (a)

19. (c)

20. (b)

21. (c)

22. (d)

23. (d)

24. (a)

25. (d)

26. (d)

27. (d)

28. (a)

29. (d)

30. (c)
31. (a)

32. (d)

33. (c)

34. (d)

35. (d)

36. (c)

37. (a)

38. (a)

39. (b)

40. (c)

41. (b)

42. (c)

43. (c)

44. (c)

45. (b)

46. (d)

47. (b)

48. (a)

49. (a)

50. (b)

51. (b)

52. (b)

53. (c)

54. (c)

55. (a)
56. (d)

57. (c)

58. (a)

59. (a)

60. (b)

61. (d)

62. (b)

63. (c)

64. (b)

65. (a)

66. (b)

67. (b)

68. (c)

69. (d)

70. (c)

71. (c)

72. (b)

73. (c)

74. (a)

75. (a)

76. (b)

77. (d)

78. (c)

79. (d)

80. (c)
FLUID MECHANICS

1. The dynamic viscosity of a liquid is 1.2 × 10-4 Ns/m2, whereas, the density is 600 kg/m3. The
kinematic viscosity in m2/s is

a) 72 × 10-3

b) 20 × 10-8

c) 7.2 × 103

d) 70 × 106

2. If a cylindrical wooden pole, 20 cm in diameter, and 1 m in height is placed in a pool of water in a

vertical position (the gravity of wood is 0.6), then it will

a) Float in stable equilibrium

b) Float in unstable equilibrium

c) Float in neutral equilibrium

d) Start moving horizontally

3. An open tank contains water to depth of 2m and oil over it to a depth of 1m. If the specific gravity of
oil is 0.8, then the pressure intensity at the interface of the two fluid layers will be

a) 7848 N/m2

b) 8720 N/m2

c) 9747 N/m2

d) 9750 N/m2

4. Consider the following statements

For a body totally immersed in a fluid

I-The weight acts through the centre of gravity of the body

II-The up thrust acts through the centroid of the body

Of these statements

a) Both I and II are true

b) I is true but II is false

c) I is false but II is true

d) Neither I nor II is true

5. A simple Pitot tube can be used to measure which of the following quantities?

I-Static head

II-Datum head

III-Dynamic head

IV-Friction head

V-Total head

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

a) I, II and IV

b) I, III and V

c) II, III and IV

d) II, III and V

6. In a pipe flow, the heat lost due to friction is 6 m. If the power transmitted through the pipe has to be
maximum then the total head at the inlet of the pipe will have to be maintained at

a) 36 m

b) 30 m

c) 24 m

d) 18 m
7. Water coming out of the mouth of a tap and falling vertically in streamline flow forms a tapering
column, i.e., the area of cross-section of the liquid column decreases as it moves down. Which of the
following is the most accurate explanation for this

a) As the water moves down, its speed increases and hence its pressure decreases. It is then compressed
by the atmosphere

b) Falling water tries to reach a terminal velocity and hence reduces the area of cross-section to balance
upward and downward forces

c) The mass of water flowing past any cross-section must remain constant. Also, water is almost
incompressible. Hence, the rate of volume flow must remain constant. As this is equal to velocity × area,
the area decreases as velocity increases

d) The surface tension causes the exposed surface area of the liquid to decrease continuously

8. A wooden block of volume 1000 cm3 is suspended from a spring balance. It weighs 12 N in air. It is
suspended in water such that half of the block is below the surface of water. The reading of the spring
balance is

a) 10 N

b) 9 N

c) 8 N

d) 7 N

9. The depth of centre of pressure (h) for a vertically immersed surface from the liquid surface is given
by (where IG = Moment of inertia of the immersed surface about horizontal axis through its centre of
gravity, A = Area of immersed surface, and x = Depth of centre of gravity of the immersed surface from
the liquid surface)

a) (IG/Ax̅) - x̅

b) (IG/x̅) - Ax̅

c) (Ax̅/IG) + x̅

d) (IG/Ax̅) + x
10. Steady flow occurs when

a) The direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical

b) The velocity of successive fluid particles, at any point, is the same at successive periods of time

c) The magnitude and direction of the velocity do not change from point to point in the fluid

d) The fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline patterns are identical in each
plane

11. The dimension of surface tension is:

a) ML-1

b) L2T-1

c) ML-1T

d) MT-2

12. For a Newtonian fluid

a) Shear stress is proportional to shear strain

b) Rate of shear stress is proportional to shear strain

c) Shear stress is proportional to rate of shear strain

d) Rate of shear stress is proportional to rate of shear strain

13. Decrease in temperature, in general, results in

a) An increase in viscosities of both gases and liquids

b) A decrease in the viscosities of both liquids and gases

c) An increase in the viscosity of liquids and a decrease in that of gases

d) A decrease in the viscosity of liquids and an increase in that of gases

14. Surface tension is due to

a) Viscous forces

b) Cohesion only

c) Adhesion only

d) difference in adhesive and cohesive forces

15. The capillary rise on depression in a small diameter tube is

a) Directly proportional to the specific weight of the fluid

b) Inversely proportional to the surface tension

c) Inversely proportional to the diameter

d) Directly proportional to the surface area

16. When a cylindrical vessel containing liquid is revolved about its vertical axis at a constant angular
velocity, the pressure

a) varies as the square of radial distance

b) increases linearly as its radial distance

c) increases as the square of radial distance

d) decreases as the square of radial distance

17. A large vessel contains oil and water. A body is submerged at the interface of oil and water such that
35 percent of its volume is in oil while the rest is in water. The density of the body is _______ kg/m³. The
specific gravity of oil is 0.8 and density of water is 1000 kg/m³. Acceleration due to gravity g=10 m/s².

a) 910

b) 930

c) 976

d) 1076

18. Streamlines, path lines and streak lines are virtually identical for
a) Uniform flow

b) flow of ideal fluids

c) Steady flow

d) Non uniform flow

19. For an incompressible flow field, V, which one of the following conditions must be satisfied?

a) ∇.V=0

b) ∇×V=0

c) (V .∇) V =0

d) (∂V)/∂t+(V .∇) V =0

20. A jet of water issues from a nozzle with a velocity 30 m/s and it impinges normally on a flat plate
moving away from it at 20 m/s. The cross-sectional area of the jet is 0.02 m², and the density of water
1000 kg/m³. The force developed on the plate is:

a) 1000 N

b) 100 N

c) 10 N

d) 2000 N

21. Maximum velocity of a one-dimensional incompressible fully developed viscous flow, between two
fixed parallel plates, is 9 ms-1. The mean velocity (in ms-1) of the flow is

a) 2

b) 3

c) 4

d) 6
22. Water flows through a 10 mm diameter and 20 m long smooth pipe at an average velocity of 0.1m/s.
The density and the viscosity of water are 997 kg/m³ and 800×10 N.s/m², respectively. Assuming fully-
developed flow, the pressure drop (in Pa) in the pipe is _______.

a) 436

b) 472

c) 512

d) 572

23. Oil flows through a 100 mm diameter horizontal cast iron pipe (friction factor, f = 0.02) of length 600
m. The volumetric flow rate is 0.01m³/s. The head loss (in m) due to friction is (assume g = 9.81 m/s²)

a) 12.2

b) 9.91

c) 18.2

d) 232.3

24. Kaplan turbine is

a) A high head mixed flow turbine

b) A low head axial flow turbine

c) An outward flow reaction turbine

d) An impulse inward flow turbine

25. Coefficient of contraction is the ratio of

a) actual velocity of jet at vena contracta to the theoretical velocity

b) loss of head in the orifice to the head of water available at the exit of the orifice

c) actual discharge through an orifice to the theoretical discharge

d) area of jet at vena contracta to the area of orifice

26. The center of pressure will coincide with the centroid, if plane surface is

a) kept in a non-viscous fluid

b) Immersed in gas

c) Horizontal

d) Immersed in water

27. A jet of water is pointed straight up into air. Neglecting all kinds of friction, to what height will the
water rise before falling back down if the velocity at jet outlet was 10 m/s. Assume g = 10 m/s2

a) 5 m

b) 10 m

c) 0.5 m

d) 6 m

28. An inclined manometer with limb at 30° to horizontal shows a column length of 70 mm above the
reservoir level is connected to pressure point. The specific weight of the fluid is 8.830 kN/m3. The
pressure at the point is

a) 500 N/m²

b) 309 N/m²

c) 330 N/m2

d) 150 N/m²

29. An object with specific gravity 5.0, weighs 100N in air. When it is fully immersed in water its weight
will be

a) 25 N

b) 75 N

c) 80 N

d) None
30. Surface tension _______

a) Acts in the plane of the interface normal to any line in the surface

b) Is also known as capillarity

c) Is a function of the curvature of the interface

d) Decreases with fall in temperature

31. In a static fluid ______

a) Resistance to shear stress is small

b) Fluid pressure is small

c) Linear deformation is small

d) Only normal stress can exist

32. Which of the following are examples of free vortex motion?

i. Motion of air in cyclone

ii. Motion of liquid at the bottom of wash basin

iii. Motion of liquid inside impeller of pump

iv. Motion of eddies in rivers and canals

a) i., ii., and iv.

b) i., ii., and iii.

c) i., iii., and iv.

d) All of the above

33. (I)Assertion: The flow of fluid is said to be steady if at any given point, the velocity of each passing
fluid particle remains constant.

(II) Reason: The path taken by a fluid particle under a steady flow is a streamline.
a) Both statements (I) and (II) are individually true, and statement (II) is the correct explanation of
statement (I)

b) Both statements are individually true, but statement (II) is NOT the correct explanation of statement
(I)

c) Statement (I) is true; but statement (II) is false

d) Statement (I) is false; but statement (II) is true

34. (I)Assertion: Positive pressure gradient helps in separating the boundary layer.

(II)Reason: At the point of boundary layer separation, the shear stress is zero.

a) Both statements (I) and (II) are individually true, and statement (II) is the correct explanation of
statement (I).

b) Both statements (I) and (II) are individually true, and statement (II) is NOT the correct explanation of
statement (I).

c) Statement (I) is true; but statement (II) is false

d) Statement (I) is false; but statement (II) is true

35. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding hydraulic turbines?

I. Kaplan turbines are used for low head and high discharge

II. Specific speed of the Kaplan turbine is more than the Francis turbine

III. Runner of Francis turbines has blades much less than Kaplan turbine

IV. Efficiency of the Francis turbine is higher than the Kaplan turbine

a) I, II only

b) I, II, IV only

c) I, III, IV only

d) II, III only

36. A pipe of diameter 200 mm carries water in turbulent flow. The velocity of water at the centre of the
pipe and 50 mm from the centre of the pipe are 3 m/s and 2 m/s, respectively. What is the shear stress
at the wall of the pipe?

a) 785 N/m2

b) 334 N/m2

c) 528 N/m2

d) 614 N/m2

37. The shear stress at a point in oil is 0.230 N/m2 and velocity gradient at this point is 0.20 s-1. If the
density of oil is 1240 kg/m3, kinematic viscosity of oil would be

a) 0.93 stokes

b) 92.7 cm2/s

c) 9.3 stokes

d) 0.093 stokes

38. Statement (I): Rate of maximum velocity of average velocity of viscous fluid between two parallel
plates is 1.5

Statement (II): Ratio of maximum viscosity to average velocity for flow of viscous fluid through a circular
pipe is 2.0

a) Both statements (I) and (II) are individually true, and statement (II) is the correct explanation of
statement (I)

b) Both statements (I) and (II) are individually true, and statement (II) is NOT the correct explanation of
statement (I)

c) Statement (I) is true; but statement (II) is false

d) Statement (I) is false; but statement (II) is true

39. A liquid compressed in a cylinder has a volume of 0.04 m2 at 50 N/cm2 and a volume of 0.039 m3 at
150 N/cm2. The bulk modulus of elasticity of liquid is

a) 400 N/cm2
b) 4000 N/cm2

c) 40000 N/m2

d) 40 N/cm2

40. The pressure at a point in a fluid will not be same in all directions when the fluid is _____

a) Moving

b) Viscous

c) Viscous and static

d) Viscous and moving

41. The velocity distribution for flow over a flat plate is given by u = (y-y2) in which u is velocity in metres
per second at a distance y metres above the plate. What is the shear stress value at y = 0.15 m? The
dynamic viscosity of fluid is 8.0 poise.

a) 12.4 N/m2

b) 1.24 N/m2

c) 0.56 N/m2

d) 5.6 N/m2

42. A hydrometer is used to determine

a) Relative humidity

b) Surface tension of liquids

c) Specific gravity of liquids

d) Viscosity of liquids

43. When a fluid is in motion, the pressure at a point is the same in all directions. Then the fluid is

a) Real fluid
b) Newtonian fluid

c) Ideal fluid

d) Non-Newtonian fluid

44. Specific weight of sea water is more than that of pure water because it contains ______

a) Dissolved air

b) Dissolved salt

c) Suspended matter

d) All of the above

45. A fluid is defined as one which

a) Cannot withstand shear

b) Can withstand shear

c) Deforms continuously when subjected to shear stress

d) Is solid like when there is no motion

46. The normal stress in a fluid will be constant in all directions at a point only if

a) It is incompressible

b) It has uniform viscosity

c) It has zero viscosity

d) It is at rest

47. A piece of metal of specific gravity 13.6 is placed in mercury of specific gravity 13.6, what fraction of
its volume is under mercury?

a) The metal piece will simply float over the mercury

b) The metal piece will be immersed in mercury by half

c) Whole of the metal piece will be immersed with its top surface just a level over mercury

d) The metal piece will sink to the bottom

48. If the surface of the liquid is convex, the

a) Cohesion pressure in negligible

b) Cohesion pressure is decreased

c) Cohesion pressure is increased

d) None of the above

49. Bernoulli’s equation cannot be applied when the flow is

a) rotational

b) turbulent

c) unsteady

d) all of the above

50. If the Reynolds number is less than 2000, the flow in a pipe is

a) Turbulent

b) Laminar

c) Transition

d) None of the above

----------Key----------
1. (b)

2. (b)

3. (a)

4. (a)

5. (b)

6. (d)

7. (c)

8. (d)

9. (d)

10. (b)

11. (d)

12. (c)

13. (c)

14. (b)

15. (b)

16. (a)

17. (b)

18. (c)

19. (a)

20. (d)

21. (d)

22. (c)

23. (a)

24. (b)

25. (d)
26. (c)

27. (a)

28. (b)

29. (c)

30. (a)

31. (d)

32. (a)

33. (b)

34. (c)

35. (a)

36. (b)

37. (c)

38. (b)

39. (b)

40. (d)

41. (c)

42. (c)

43. (c)

44. (d)

45. (c)

46. (d)

47. (c)

48. (c)

49. (d)

50. (b)
FUNDAMENTALS OF MANUFACTURING PROCESSES

1. The distortion in casting cannot be prevented by

a) Modification of casting design

b) Providing distortion allowance

c) Providing sufficient machining allowance to cover the distortion effect

d) Providing proper shrinkage allowance

2. Which of the following is true about riser?

i. It supplies molten metal to compensate for the solid state shrinkage of casting.

ii. Filling up of mold cavity can be visually checked from it.

iii. The casting solidifies directionally towards the riser

a) i & ii

b) i & iii

c) Only ii

d) i, ii & iii

3. Which of the following sand is applied directly next to the surface of the pattern?

a) Parting sand

b) Facing sand

c) Loam sand

d) Core sand

4. Shell molding is best described by which one of the following:

a) Casting operation in which the molten metal has been poured out after a thin shell has been solidified
in the mold

b) Casting process in which the mold is a thin shell of sand bonded by a thermosetting resin

c) Sand-casting operation in which the pattern is a shell rather than a solid form

d) Casting operation used to make artificial sea shells

5. Which of the following is not true for gas welding?

a) Heat effected zone and distortion are less as compare to arc welding

b) It is suitable for thin sheets

c) It is slower than arc welding

d) There are safety problems in storing and handling the gases

6. In resistance welding, two electrodes are made of

a) Aluminum

b) Copper

c) Iron

d) Bronze

7. In Gas metal arc welding (MIG) which of the following polarity is generally used

a) Direct current straight polarity (DCSP)

b) Direct current reverse polarity (DCRP)

c) Alternating Current high frequency (ACHF)

d) All of the above

8. During cold working the strength of the material increases due to

a) Annealing
b) Work hardening

c) Plastic deformation

d) None of the above

9. Spring back effect in sheet metal forming is

1. Elastic recovery of plastically deformed sheet after unloading

2. Caused by non-uniform deformation during forming

3. Causes distortion of part and loss of dimensional accuracy

4. Controlled by techniques such as over-bending and bottoming of the punch

a) 1, 3 and 4 are correct

b) Only 1 and 2 correct

c) Plastic deformation

d) None of the above

10. The process that increases the stiffness of the part, improves its appearance and eliminates sharp
edges is called as

a) Roll forming

b) Hemming

c) Dimpling

d) Flanging

11. What is the relationship between CAD/CAM?

a) Manufacturing and marketing

b) Science and engineering

c) Design and marketing

d) Design and manufacturing

12. For manufacturing of a certain amount of hole, maximum hole size was found to be 60.24 mm and
minimum hole size was found to be 59.98. What will be the Tolerance in mm?

a) 0.24

b) 0.15

c) 0.26

d) 0.17

13. Seam welding is a

a) Continuous spot welding process

b) Multi-spot welding process

c) Arc welding process

d) Process used for joining round bars

14. G02 and G91 in CNC programming refers to?

a) Circular interpolation in counter clockwise direction and incremental dimension

b) Circular interpolation in counter clockwise direction and absolute dimension

c) Circular interpolation in clockwise direction and incremental dimension

d) Circular interpolation in clockwise direction and absolute dimension

15. In gas welding process, the combustion takes place by mixing oxygen with,

a) Hydrogen

b) Fuel gas

c) CO

d) CO2
16. The purpose of using flux in soldering is to

a) Increase the fluidity of solder metal

b) Fill up the gaps left in a bad joint

c) Prevent oxide formation

d) Lower the melting temperature of solder

17. Cope in foundry practice refers to?

a) Bottom half of moulding box

b) Top half of moulding box

c) Middle portion of moulding box

d) Coating on the mould face

18. The main advantage of shell moulding is that

a) A metallic pattern can be used

b) The moulds are stronger

c) Thin sections can be easily obtained

d) Highly complex sections can be easily obtained

19. In casting, cores are used to,

a) Make internal cavities in casting

b) Strengthen the mould

c) Support loose pieces

d) Remove pattern easily

20. The purpose of sprue is to,

a) Feed the molten metal at a rate consistent with the rate of solidification

b) Act as a reservoir for molten metal

c) Help to compensate for shrinkage allowance

d) Feed metal from poring basing to gate

21. In which of the following operations in lather, the spindle speed will be minimum?

a) Knurling

b) Finishing

c) Taper turning

d) Thread cutting

22. If L be the length of to be turned, d its diameter, f the feed and N the spindle speed, then time to
complete the turning process will be,

a) L/dN

b) L/fN

c) nf/L

d) d/fN

23. Spark erosion machining can be used for the machining of

a) Electrically conductive material only

b) Electrically non-conductive materials only

c) Both conducting and non-conducting materials

d) Semiconductors

24. In which of the following operations in lather, the spindle speed will be minimum?
a) Knurling

b) Finishing

c) Taper turning

d) Thread cutting

25. Half nut in a lathe is used when

a) Positioning the workpiece

b) Correcting the level of the machine bed

c) Centring

d) Thread cutting

26. Spark erosion machining can be used for the machining of

a) Electrically conductive material only

b) Electrically non-conductive materials only

c) Both conducting and non-conducting materials

d) Semiconductors

27. Which of the following tools is most suitable for very hard and brittle material?

a) HSS

b) Cast-cobalt alloy

c) Carbides

d) None of the mentioned

28. Which of the following is not an additive manufacturing method?

a) Powder bed fusion

b) Direct energy deposition

c) Fused deposition modeling

d) EDM

29. In which of the following method, the cutter rotates opposite to that in which work is fed?

a) Up milling

b) Down milling

c) Climb milling

d) Peripheral milling

30. Hobbing is a process used to make which of the following components?

a) Sheet cover

b) Gear

c) Solar panels

d) Engine block

31. During the execution of a CNC part program block NO20 GO2 X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0 ; the type of tool
motion will be

a) Circular Interpolation – clockwise

b) Circular Interpolation − counter clockwise

c) Linear Interpolation

d) Rapid feed

32. The mechanism of material removal in EDM process is

a) Melting and Evaporation

b) Melting and Corrosion

c) Erosion and Cavitation

d) Cavitation and Evaporation

33. CNC machining centres do not include operations like ______

a) milling

b) boring

c) welding

d) tapping

34. In machining, shear angle is the angle made by the shear plane with

a) Tool axis

b) Direction of tool travel

c) Flank surface

d) Direction perpendicular to tool travel

35. Which type of motor is not used in axis or spindle drives of CNC machine tools?

a) DC servo motor

b) Stepper motor

c) Linear servo motor

d) Induction motor

36. In a gating system, the ratio 1: 2: 4 represents

a) Sprue base area: runner area: ingate area

b) Pouring basin area: ingate area: runner area

c) Sprue base area: ingate area: casting area

d) Runner area: ingate area: casting area

37. Which one of the following is a solid state joining process?

a) Gas tungsten arc welding

b) Resistance spot welding

c) Friction stir welding

d) Submerged arc welding

38. Ultrasonic machining

a) Cannot be used for non-conductive workpieces

b) Used to sharpen grinding wheels

c) Is a non-conventional machining method

d) Make use of ionic displacement for material removal

39. Angle between side cutting edge and axis of tool is known as:

a) Side rake angle

b) Side relief angle

c) Side cutting edge angle

d) Back rake angle

40. For large positive back rake angle, tool will be

a) Weaker

b) Stronger

c) Smoother

d) Harder
41. Crater wear occurs mainly on the

a) nose part, front relief face and side relief face of the cutting tool

b) face of the cutting tool at a short distance from the cutting edge only

c) cutting edge only

d) front face only

42. Calculate time taken to face a workpiece of 100 mm diameter. The cross feed is 0.2 mm/rev and
spindle speed is 200 r.p.m.

a) 10 min

b) 5 min

c) 2.5 min

d) 1.25 min

43. Which of the following is an example of fusion welding?

a) Atomic hydrogen welding

b) Flash welding

c) Seam welding

d) Spot welding

44. Using the Taylor Equation for tool life and letting n = 0.5 and C = 120, calculate the percentage
increase in tool life when the cutting speed is reduced by 50%.

a) 100%

b) 200%

c) 300%

d) 400%
45. Which of the following is not a part of carriage of the centre lathe?

a) Tool post

b) Apron

c) Compound rest

d) Gear box controls

46. What is the process, in which the metal is caused to flow through a restricted orifice to create an
extremely elongated strip of uniform and comparatively smaller cross-sectional area, called?

a) Rolling

b) Extrusion

c) Drawing

d) Spinning

47. Which characteristic of material is used in forging process?

a) characteristics of elasticity of material

b) characteristics of ductility of material

c) characteristics of plasticity of material

d) none of the above

48. Joint strength in brazing operation is

a) as high as in gas or arc welding

b) not as high as in gas or arc welding

c) higher than that of in gas or arc welding

d) unpredictable
49. What is used as joining medium in brazing operation?

a) Copper-zinc alloy

b) Nickel-silver alloy

c) Lead-tin alloy

d) All of the above

50. Calculate time taken to face a workpiece of 100 mm diameter. The cross feed is 0.2 mm/rev and
spindle speed is 200 r.p.m.

a) 10 min

b) 5 min

c) 2.5 min

d) 1.25 min

51. Which one among the following welding processes uses non-consumable electrode?

a) Gas metal arc welding

b) Submerged arc welding

c) Gas tungsten arc welding

d) Flux coated arc welding

52. Green sand mould indicates

a) Polymeric mould has been cured

b) Mould has been totally dried

c) Mould is green in colour

d) Mould contains moisture

53. Misrun is a casting defect which occurs due to

a) Very high pouring temperature of the metal

b) Insufficient fluidity of the molten metal

c) Absorption of gases by the liquid metal

d) Improper alignment of the mould flasks

54. The primary purpose of a sprue in a casting mould is to

a) Feed the casting at a rate consistent with the rate of solidification

b) Act as a reservoir for molten metal

c) Feed molten metal from the pouring basin to the gate

d) Help feed the casting until all solidification takes place

55. Cold working of steel is defined as working

a) At its recrystallisation temperature

b) Above its recrystallisation temperature

c) Below its recrystallisation temperature

d) At two thirds of the melting temperature of the meta

56. In hot chamber method of die casting

a) The melting pot is integral with die casting machine

b) The melting pot is separate from die casting machine

c) Melting pot location has nothing to do with such a classification

d) High temperature and low pressure alloys are used

57. Which of the following casting methods utilises wax pattern......

a) Shell moulding

b) Plaster moulding

c) Slush casting

d) Investment casting

58. Which of the following is not a casting process..

a) Shell moulding

b) Extrusion

c) Slush process

d) Investment casting

59. Which of the following processes is not the type of bulk forming process in the metalforming?

a) Bending

b) Forging

c) Extrusion

d) Rolling

60. The volume of metal that enters the rolling stand

a) should increase after rolling process

b) should decrease after rolling process

c) should remain same after rolling process

d) unpredictable
61. Submerged arc welding is..

a) A process which uses a mixture of iron oxide and granular aluminium

b) Accomplished by maintaining a hot molten metal pool between plates

c) A process in which arc is maintained under a blanket of flux

d) All of the above

62. The most commonly used flame in gas welding is...

a) Neutral

b) Oxidising

c) Carburising

d) All of the above

----------Key----------

1. (d)

2. (d)

3. (b)

4. (b)

5. (a)

6. (b)

7. (a)

8. (b)
9. (a) (b)

10. (b)

11. (d)

12. (c)

13. (a)

14. (c)

15. (b)

16. (c)

17. (a)

18. (c)

19. (a)

20. (d)

21. (d)

22. (b)

23. (a)

24. (d)

25. (d)

26. (a)

27. (c)

28. (d)

29. (a)

30. (b)

31. (a)

32. (a)

33. (c)
34. (b)

35. (b)

36. (a)

37. (c)

38. (c)

39. (c)

40. (a)

41. (b)

42. (d)

43. (a)

44. (c)

45. (d)

46. (b)

47. (c)

48. (b)

49. (a)

50. (d)

51. (c)

52. (d)

53. (b)

54. (c)

55. (c)

56. (a)

57. (d)

58. (b)
59. (a)

60. (c)

61. (c)

62. (a)

HEAT TRANSFER

1. Which of the following is a root cause of thermal contact resistance

a) Presence of air in gaps at interfaces

b) Oxidation at surfaces

c) Deformations such as bending

d) Presence of impurities in materials

2. Fin effectiveness is the ratio of:

a) Heat transfer with fin to heat transfer without fin

b) Heat transfer from actual fin to heat transfer from a fin with uniform temperature

c) Heat transfer from actual fin to heat transfer from an ideal fin

d) Heat transfer from the fin with natural convection to that with forced convection

3. Which of the following techniques is preferred to simulate 3-D heat transfer in a complex geometry?

a) Finite volume method

b) Finite difference method

c) Graphical method

d) Analytical method
4. Which of the following does not exist in the turbulent boundary layer?

a) Eddies

b) Laminar sub-layer

c) Wavy laminar zone

d) Buffer zone

5. Identify the FALSE statement among the following:

a) Entry length is higher in turbulent flow compared to laminar flow

b) Nusselt number is independent of fluid properties and velocity for fully developed laminar flow in
pipes

c) The flow over a flat plate becomes turbulent if Reynolds number exceeds 5 x 10(5)

d) Natural convection does not occur when the hot surface of a horizontal plate is facing down

6. Stefan-Boltzmann law is used to calculate:

a) Spectral emissive power of a black body

b) Total emissive power of a black body

c) Emissivity

d) Radiation intensity

7. Which is of the following is a cause of fouling of heat exchangers?

a) Manufacturing defects

b) Fluctuation in operating conditions

c) Erosion of pipes due to particles in the flow

d) Algal growth
8. _____ number used in mass transfer is analogous to Prandtl number in heat transfer:

a) Sherwood number

b) Stanton number

c) Lewis number

d) Schmidt number

9. In convection heat transfer from hot flue gases to water tube, even though flow may be turbulent, a
laminar flow region (boundary layer of film) exists close to the tube. The heat transfer through this film
takes place by

a) Convection

b) Radiation

c) Conduction

d) Both convection and conduction

e) None of the above.

10. Temperature of steam at around 540°C can be measured by

a) Thermometer

b) Radiation pyrometer

c) Thermistor

d) Thermocouple

e) Thermopile

11. A diffuse radiation surface has

a) Radiation intensity independent of angle

b) Emissive power independent of angle

c) Emissive power independent of wavelength

d) Radiation intensity independent of both angle and wavelength

12. Glass plate transmittivity and reflectivity are specified as 0.86 and 0.08 respectively, then the
absorptivity of the glass plate is

a) 1

b) 0.86

c) 0.08

d) 0.06

13. Biot number signifies

a) The ratio of heat conducted to heat convected

b) The ratio of heat convected to heat radiated

c) The ratio of external convection resistance to internal conduction resistance

d) The ratio of Internal conduction resistance to external convection resistance

14. What will be the geometric radius of heat transfer for a hollow sphere of inner & outer radii R1 and
R2 respectively?

a) (R1×R2)^0.5

b) R1/R2

c) R2-R1

d) ln(R2/R1)

15. A spacecraft floats in deep space with very high velocity. It will continuously lose heat by

a) Convection only

b) Convection & Radiation

c) Radiation only
d) Conduction & Convection

16. Ice is very close to a

a) Gary body

b) Black body

c) White body

d) Specular body

17. For a hemisphere, the solid angle is measured

a) in radian & its maximum value is π

b) in degree & its maximum value is 180°

c) in steradian & its maximum value is π

d) in steradian & its maximum value is 2π

18. For calculation of heat transfer by natural convection from a horizontal cylinder. What is the
characteristic length in Grashof number (Gr)?

a) diameter of the cylinder

b) length of the cylinder

c) circumference of the base of the cylinder

d) half the circumference of the base of the cylinder

19. Time constant of a thermocouple is

a) The time taken to attain 100 % of the initial temperature difference

b) is the minimum time taken to record a temperature reading

c) The time taken to attain 63.2 % of the initial temperature difference

d) The time taken to attain 50 % of the initial temperature difference

20. Match the List 1(Governing equation of Heat transfer) with List 2 (Specific case of heat transfer)
Select the correct answer using the code given below the list.

List 1 (Governing equation of Heat transfer) List 2 (Specific case of heat transfer)

r (d^2 T)/(dr^2 )+2 dT/dr=0 Pin fin 1-D case

(∂^2 T)/〖∂x〗^2 =1/α ∂T/∂t 1-D conduction in cylinder

(d^2 T)/(dr^2 )+1/r dT/dr=0 1-D conduction in sphere

(d^2 θ)/(dx^2 )-m^2 θ=0 Plane slab

a) I– 2 II - 4 III - 3 IV - 1

b) I – 3 II - 1 III - 2 IV - 4

c) I – 2 II - 1 III - 3 IV - 4

d) I – 3 II - 4 III - 2 IV - 1

21. For a hydrodynamically and thermally fully developed laminar flow through a circular pipe of
constant cross-section, the Nusselt number at constant wall heat flux (Nuq) and that at constant wall
temperature (NuT) are related as

a) Nuq ˃ NuT

b) Nuq ˂ NuT

c) Nuq = NuT

d) Nuq = (NuT)2

22. In order to achieve maximum heat dissipation, the fin should be designed in such a way that:

a) It should have maximum lateral surface at the root side of the fin

b) It should have maximum lateral surface towards the tip side of the fin

c) It should have maximum lateral surface near the centre of the fin

d) It should have minimum lateral surface near the centre of the fin
23. A small sphere of outer area 1.2 m2 is totally enclosed by a large cubical hall. The shape factor of hall
with respect to sphere is 0.008. What is the measure of the internal side of the cubical hall?

a) 4 m

b) 5 m

c) 6 m

d) 7 m

24. Two long parallel surfaces, each of emissivity 0.82 are maintained at different temperatures and
accordingly having radiation exchange between them. It is desired to reduce 83.33% of this radiant heat
transfer by inserting thin parallel shields of equal emissivity 0.82 on both sides. What would be the
number of shields?

a) 4

b) 5

c) 6

d) 7

25. The curve for unsteady state cooling or heating bodies is

a) parabolic curve asymptotic to time axis

b) exponential curve asymptotic to time axis

c) exponential curve asymptotic both to time and temperature axis

d) hyperbolic curve asymptotic both to time and temperature axis

26. A copper wire of radius 0.5 mm is insulated with a sheathing of thickness 1 mm having a thermal
conductivity of 0.5 W/mK. The outside surface convective heat transfer coefficient is 10 W/m2K. If the
thickness of insulation sheathing is raised by 10 mm, the electrical current carrying capacity of the wire
will

a) increase
b) remains same

c) decrease

d) depends upon the electrical conductivity of the wire

27. In spite of large heat transfer coefficients in boiling liquids, cavities are used advantageously when
the entire surface is exposed to

a) Nucleate boiling

b) Film boiling

c) Transition boiling

d) Pool boiling

28. In a heat exchanger, hot gases enter with a temperature of 162 °C and leave at 90 °C. The cold fluid
enters at 30 °C and leaves at 126 °C. The capacity ratio of the heat exchanger is

a) 0.65

b) 0.75

c) 0.85

d) 0.95

29. A composite hollow sphere with steady internal heating is made of 2 layers of materials of equal
thickness with thermal conductivities in the ratio of 1:2 for inner to outer layers. Ratio of inside to
outside diameter is 0.8. What is ratio of temperature drop across the inner and outer layers?

a) 0.4

b) 1.6

c) 2ln0.8

d) 2.5
30. For turbulent flow over a flat plate, the average value of Nusselt number is prescribed by the relation
Nu = 0.664 (Re)0.5 (Pr)0.33. Which of the following is a false statement? The average heat transfer
coefficient increases as

a) 1/5 power of plate length

b) 2/3 power of thermal conductivity

c) 1/3 power of specific heat

d) 1/2 power of a free stream velocity

31. For laminar flow over flat plate, the average value of Nusselt number Nu is prescribed by Nu = 0.664
Re0.5Pr0.33, Which of the following should be changed independently keeping other parameters same
to double the heat transfer coefficient?

a) Density should be increased 8 times

b) Specific heat to be increased 9 times

c) Plate length should be decreased 16 times

d) Dynamic viscosity should be decreased 64 times

32. Thermal boundary layer is the region where

a) inertia terms are of the same order of magnitude as convection terms

b) convection terms are of the same order of magnitude as dissipation terms

c) convection terms are of the same order of magnitude as conduction terms

d) dissipation is negligible.

33. Two infinitely long parallel plates widths of 12 cm and 5 cm are located at a distance 6 cm apart,
then determine the view factor from surface 1 to surface 2 using cross-string method.

a) 0.125

b) 0.250

c) 0.5
d) 1

34. Hot air at atmospheric pressure enters through an 8 m long rectangular duct of cross section 0.06 m
× 0.18 m, what is the estimated hydraulic diameter ratio between the mentioned rectangular duct to a
same length based square duct of each sides as 0.18 m

a) 0.5

b) 1

c) 4.5

d) 9

35. The thermal contact conductance at the interface of two 1 cm thick aluminium plates (thermal
conductivity, k = 237 W/mK) is measured to be 23700 W/m2K. Then the thickness of aluminium plates
(whose thermal resistance is equal to thermal resistance of the interface between the plates) estimated
as (in centimetre):

a) 0.01

b) 0.001

c) 1

d) 100

36. A metal rod of 2 cm diameter has a conductivity of 40 W/mK, which is to be insulated with an
insulating material of conductivity of 0.1 W/mK. If the convective heat transfer coefficient with the
ambient atmosphere is 5 W/m2K, the critical thickness of insulation will be

a) 0 cm

b) 1 cm

c) 2 cm

d) 0.02 cm

37. For film wise condensation on a vertical plane, the film thickness δ and heat transfer coefficient h
vary with distance x from the leading edge as
a) δ decreases, h increases

b) both δ and h increases

c) δ increases, h decreases

d) both δ and h decreases

38. The average Nusselt number in a laminar natural convection from a vertical wall at 286 °C with still
air at 30 °C is found to be 36. If the wall temperature becomes 46 °C, all other parameters remaining
same, the average Nusselt number will be

a) 9

b) 12

c) 18

d) 24

39. A sphere, a cube and a thin circular plate, all made of same material and having same mass are
initially heated to a temperature of 250 °C and then left in air at room temperature for cooling. Then
which one of the following is correct?

a) All will be cooled at same rate

b) circular plate will be cooled at lowest rate

c) Sphere will be cooled faster

d) Cube will be cooled faster than sphere but slower than circular plate

40. A 2 kW resistance heater wire whose thermal conductivity is k = 15 W/mK has a diameter of D = 4
mm and a length of L = 0.5 m, and used to boil water. If the outer surface temperature of the resistance
wire is 105 °C, Then the temperature at the centre of the wire as

a) 126 °C

b) 162 °C

c) 216 °C

d) 261°C
41. A large concrete slab 2 m thick has one-dimension temperature distribution:

T = 289- 19.5x + 10 x2 + 25 x3

Where T is the temperature and x are the distance from one face of wall. If the slab material has thermal
diffusivity of 2×10-3 m2/h, what is the rate of change of temperature at the other face of the wall?

a) 0.34 °C/h

b) 0.64 °C/h

c) 0.96°C/h

d) 1.28 °C/h

42. In a heat exchanger, hot gases enter with a temperature of 162 °C and leave at 90 °C. The cold fluid
enters at 30 °C and leaves at 126 °C. The capacity ratio of the heat exchanger is

a) 0.65

b) 0.75

c) 0.85

d) 0.95

43. Consider the following statements:

The Fourier law of heat conduction equation Q = -kA(dT/dx) presumes

(i) Steady state conditions (ii) Constant value of thermal conductivity

(iii) Uniform temperature at the wall surfaces (iv) 1-Dimensional heat flow

Of these above statements (select the correct option from the following)

a) i, ii and iii are correct

b) i, ii and iv are correct

c) ii, iii and iv are correct

d) i, iii and iv are correct

44. Critical point of water exists at

a) 22.09 bar and 374.14 ◦C

b) 220.9 bar and 374.14 ◦C

c) 2.209 Pa and 374.14 K

d) 22.09 bar and 374.14 K

45. The curve for unsteady state cooling or heating bodies is

a) parabolic curve asymptotic to time axis

b) exponential curve asymptotic to time axis

c) exponential curve asymptotic both to time and temperature axis

d) hyperbolic curve asymptotic both to time and temperature axis

46. Triple point of water exists at

a) 0.06117 bar and 0.1 ◦C

b) 0.6117 Pa and 0.01 ◦C

c) 0.006117 bar and 0.01 ◦C

d) 0.006117 Pa and 0.01 ◦C

47. In order to achieve maximum heat dissipation, the fin should be designed in such a way that:

a) It should have maximum lateral surface at the root side of the fin

b) It should have maximum lateral surface towards the tip side of the fin

c) It should have maximum lateral surface near the centre of the fin
d) It should have minimum lateral surface near the centre of the fin

48. The emissive power of a blackbody is P. If its absolute temperature is tripled, the emissive power
becomes,

a) 2P

b) 4P

c) 81P

d) 16P

49. Consider a closed cylinder having diameter and height equal. Let the circular faces be named 1 and
3. And the curved surface be named 2. The view factor F13 is 0.2. The view factor F12 in this case will be,

a) 0.17

b) 0.8

c) 0.79

d) 0.83

50. For the radiation between two infinite parallel planes of emissivity ℇ1 and ℇ2 respectively, which
one of the following is the expression for emissivity factor?

a) ℇ1 ℇ2

b) 1/"ℇ1" +1/"ℇ2"

c) 1/(1/"ℇ1" +1/"ℇ2" )

d) 1/(1/"ℇ1" +1/"ℇ2" -1)

----------Key----------
1. (a)

2. (a)

3. (a)

4. (c)

5. (a)

6. (b)

7. (d)

8. (d)

9. (c)

10. (d)

11. (a)

12. (d)

13. (d)

14. (a)

15. (c)

16. (b)

17. (d)

18. (a)

19. (c)

20. (d)

21. (a)

22. (a)

23. (b)

24. (b)

25. (b)
26. (a)

27. (b)

28. (b)

29. (d)

30. (a)

31. (d)

32. (b)

33. (b)

34. (a)

35. (c)

36. (b)

37. (c)

38. (c)

39. (d)

40. (a)

41. (b)

42. (b)

43. (d)

44. (b)

45. (b)

46. (c)

47. (a)

48. (c)

49. (b)

50. (d)
COMPUTER AIDED MACHINE DRAWING

1. This type of section is limited by a break line:

a) Removed section

b) Revolved section

c) Broken-out section

d) Half section

2. This means that a feature of a finished product contains the maximum amount of material permitted
by the toleranced dimensions for that feature:

a) Maximum material condition

b) Machined material condition

c) Maximum machined indication

d) Machine mark indication

3. This practice considers an individual part's dimensions and tolerances and that part's relation to its
related parts:

a) Applying allowances

b) Geometric dimensioning and tolerancing

c) Creating datum references

d) Angular dimensioning tolerances

4. This is used to indicate that a surface is to be machined:

a) Finish mark

b) Machining mark

c) Roughness indicator
d) Coordinate mark

5. Baseline dimensions are referenced from a common geometric feature known as a ________.

a) edge

b) corner

c) datum

d) point of reference

6. These weld symbols have no arrow-side or other-side significance:

a) Projection or seam weld

b) Back or backing weld

c) Surface or groove weld

d) Flash and upset weld

7. In an exploded assembly drawing it is customary for the drafter to use a ________ line to illustrate
how parts fit together.

a) phantom

b) hidden

c) dashed

d) center

8. In these drawings it is necessary to show cut surfaces and distinguish between adjacent parts:

a) Auxiliary drawings

b) Assembly sections

c) 3D assemblies

d) Parts lists
9. One critical issue drafters need to pay close attention to is the ________.

a) size of the sheet

b) designer's intent

c) scale factor

d) none of the above

10. These are used to attach parts to a cylinder so they won't turn on it:

a) Lugs and bearings

b) Keyseats and bearings

c) Knurls and keys

d) Keys and keyways/keyseats

----------Key----------

1. (c)

2. (a)

3. (b)

4. (a)

5. (c)

6. (d)

7. (a)

8. (b)
9. (b)

10. (d)

MACHINING PROCESSES & METROLOGY

1. Relief angles on high speed steel tools usually vary from

a) 0 to 3º

b) 3 to 10º

c) 10 to 20º

d) 20 to 30º

2. In oblique cutting system, the maximum chip thickness

a) Occurs at the middle

b) May not occur at the middle

c) Depends upon the material of the tool

d) Depends upon the geometry of the tool

3. Which of the following statement is wrong?

a) The diamond is the hardest tool material and can run at cutting speeds about 50 times that of high
speed steel tool

b) The ceramic tools can be used at cutting speeds 40 times that of high speed steel tools

c) The cemented carbide tools can be used at cutting speeds 10 times that of high speed steel tools

d) The ceramic tools can withstand temperature up to 600°C only

4. A drill bit of 20 mm diameter rotating at 500 r.p.m. with a feed rate of 0.2 mm/revolution is used to
drill a through hole in a mild steel plate 20 mm thickness. The depth of cut in this drilling operation is

a) 0.2 mm
b) 10 mm

c) 20 mm

d) 100 mm

5. The cutting fluid mostly used for machining alloy steels is

a) Water

b) Soluble oil

c) Dry

d) Sulphurised mineral oil

6. The relation between tool life (T) and cutting speed (V) is VT^n = Constant. In this relation, the value
of n depends upon

a) Work material

b) Tool material

c) Working conditions

d) Type of chip produced

7. GO’ and ‘NO GO’ gauge is a type of

a) Plug gauge

b) Slip gauge

c) Ring gauge

d) Limit gauge

8. Bevel Protractor is used for ___________ measurement

a) Linear

b) Angular
c) Circular

d) Profile

9. Mechanism of material removal in Electron Beam Machining is due to

a) Mechanical erosion due to impact of high of energy electrons

b) Chemical etching by the high energy electron

c) Sputtering due to high energy electrons

d) Melting and vaporisation due to thermal effect of impingement of high energy electron

10. A grinding wheel of 150 mm diameter is rotating at 3000 rpm.The grinding speed is

a) 7.5π m/s

b) 15π m/s

c) 45π m/s

d) 450π m/s

11. If V is the volume of the metal in a casting and A is the surface area, the time of solidification will be
proportional to,

a) V, 1/A

b) V, 1/A^2

c) V^2, 1/A

d) V^2, 1/A^2

12. In which of the following operations in lather, the spindle speed will be minimum?

a) Knurling

b) Finishing

c) Taper turning
d) Thread cutting

13. In the machine tools, the cause of chatter is

a) Free vibrations

b) Forced vibrations

c) Self-excited vibrations

d) Positional Error

14. If L be the length of to be turned, d its diameter, f the feed and N the spindle speed, then time to
complete the turning process will be,

a) L/dN

b) L/fN

c) nf/L

d) d/fN

15. Half nut in a lathe is used when

a) Positioning the workpiece

b) Correcting the level of the machine bed

c) Centring

d) Thread cutting

16. Which of the following tools is most suitable for very hard and brittle material?

a) HSS

b) Cast-cobalt alloy

c) Carbides

d) None of the mentioned

17. If a percentage of cobalt in Tungsten carbide tool increases, then toughness of tool will

a) Increase

b) Decrease

c) Remains Constant

d) First increase then decrease

18. In cutting tool nomenclature, nose radius is indicated in the

a) Middle

b) End

c) Starting

d) Not indicated

19. Which of the following is not a tool signature system?

a) ORS

b) OAS

c) ASA

d) NRS

20. In which of the following method, the cutter rotates opposite to that in which work is fed?

a) Up milling

b) Down milling

c) Climb milling

d) Peripheral milling
21. Hobbing is a process used to make which of the following components?

a) Sheet cover

b) Gear

c) Solar panels

d) Engine block

22. Merchant circle analysis is used to-

a) Analyze the cutting forces in machining

b) Analyze the stresses in different planes

c) Calculate the minimum chip thickness ratio to avoid shape effects

d) Calculate the maximum surface roughness in milling

23. In machining, shear angle is the angle made by the shear plane with

a) Tool axis

b) Direction of tool travel

c) Flank surface

d) Direction perpendicular to tool travel

24. Which of the following process gives minimum MRR?

a) Milling

b) Turning

c) Grinding

d) Drilling

25. Angle between side cutting edge and axis of tool is known as:
a) Side rake angle

b) Side relief angle

c) Side cutting edge angle

d) Back rake angle

26. For large positive back rake angle, tool will be

a) Weaker

b) Stronger

c) Smoother

d) Harder

27. Which of the following will give large friction during chip flow?

a) Positive back rake angle tool

b) Negative back rake angle tool

c) Zero back rake angle tool

d) Small lip angle tool

28. Crater wear occurs mainly on the

a) nose part, front relief face and side relief face of the cutting tool

b) face of the cutting tool at a short distance from the cutting edge only

c) cutting edge only

d) front face only

29. Tool life is measured by the

a) number of pieces machined between tool sharpenings

b) time the tool is in contact with the job

c) volume of material removed between tool sharpenings

d) all of the mentioned

30. Using the Taylor Equation for tool life and letting n = 0.5 and C = 120, calculate the percentage
increase in tool life when the cutting speed is reduced by 50%.

a) 100%

b) 200%

c) 300%

d) 400%

31. Which of the following is not a part of carriage of the centre lathe?

a) Tool post

b) Apron

c) Compound rest

d) Gear box controls

32. Calculate time taken to face a workpiece of 100 mm diameter. The cross feed is 0.2 mm/rev and
spindle speed is 200 r.p.m.

a) 10 min

b) 5 min

c) 2.5 min

d) 1.25 min

33. The ratio of the cutting force to the cross-sectional area being cut is called:

a) specific cutting force

b) thrust force

c) frictional force

d) none of the mentioned

34. In the orthogonal cutting of metals _________

a) the cutting edge of the tool is perpendicular to the direction of tool travel

b) the cutting forces occur in one direction only

c) the cutting edge is wider than the depth of cut

d) all of the mentioned

35. Which of the following assumption is not valid for the merchant circle diagram?

a) Continuous Chips

b) Discontinuous chips

c) Cutting edge remains sharp

d) No built-up edge

36. Traversing of tool parallel to the axis of the job is termed as_____

a) cross feed

b) Discontinuous chips

c) Cutting edge remains sharp

d) No built-up edge

37. What is the necessary condition for turning?

a) the material of workpiece should be harder than the cutting tool

b) cutting tool should be harder than the material of the workpiece

c) the hardness of the cutting tool and material of piece should be the same

d) none of the mentioned

38. Which of the following parameters govern the value of the shear angle in continuous chip
formation?

a) true feed

b) chip thickness

c) the rake angle of the cutting tool

d) all of the mentioned

39. The degree of closeness of the measured value of a certain quantity with its true value is known as

a) Accuracy

b) Precision

c) Standard

d) Sensitivity

40. Error of measurement =

a) True value – Measured value

b) Precision – True value

c) Measured value – Precision

d) None of the above

41. The ability by which a measuring device can detect small differences in the quantity being measured
by it, is called its

a) Damping

b) Sensitivity
c) Accuracy

d) None of the above

42. To compare an unknown with a standard through a calibrated system is called

a) Direct comparison

b) Indirect comparison

c) both ‘a’ and ‘b’

d) None of the above

43. The following is a line standard of measurement

a) Measuring tape

b) Slip gauge

c) Micrometer

d) End bars

44. The principle of ‘Interchangeability’ is normally employed for

a) Mass production

b) Production of identical parts

c) Parts within the prescribed limits of sizes

d) All of the above

45. _____ is equal to the differences of the two limits of size of the part

a) Tolerance

b) Low limit

c) High limit
d) Design size

46. The amount by which the actual size of a shaft is less than the actual size of mating hole in an
assembly

a) Clearance

b) Interference

c) Allowance

d) None of the above

47. Which of the following error is caused by poor calibration of the instrument?

a) random error

b) gross error

c) systematic error

d) precision error

48. How systematic errors are eliminated?

a) frequent measurement

b) replacement of instrument

c) finding mean of reading

d) finding variance of reading

49. Which of the following is not among the methods of linear measurements?

a) direct measurements

b) measurements by optical means

c) indirect measurements

d) electromagnetic methods or edm

50. Which of the following option is incorrect about interchangeability?

a) increase output

b) increase cost of production

c) useful in mass production

d) assembly time increases

51. Cutting tool is much harder than the work piece. Yet the tool wears out during the tool-work
interaction, because

a) Extra hardness is imparted to workpiece due to coolant used

b) Extra hardness is imparted to workpiece due to severe rate of strain

c) Vibration in machine tool

d) Oxide layers on workpiece

52. Which of the following is a finishing operation?

a) Grinding

b) Shaping

c) Milling

d) Planing

53. End milling cutter is used for

a) Removing material from sides of workpiece

b) Machining complicated profiles

c) Machining internal and external surfaces

d) All of the above

54. Which of the following is a cutting tool matereial

a) Alumnium

b) Copper

c) High speed steel

d) Brass

55. Following operations can be done on a lathe

a) Turning

b) Milling

c) shaping

d) None of the above

56. Which of the following is a unconventional machining process

a) Electrochemical machining

b) Grinding

c) Milling

d) All of the above

57. Polishing is done on the workpiece

a) To improve the appearance of the workpiece

b) To remove scratches

c) To remove minor imperfections

d) All of the above

58. Which of the following is a self centering chuck?

a) Three jaw chuck

b) Four jaw chuck

c) Combination chuck

d) All of the above

59. Tool life is measured by the

a) Number of pieces machined between tool sharpenings

b) Time the tool is in contact with the job

c) Volume of material removed between tool sharpenings

d) All of the above

60. Surface grinding is done to produce

a) Tapered surface

Flat surface

b) Flat surface

c) Internal cylindrical holes

d) All of these

61. The process of removing metal by a cutter which is rotated in the same direction of travel of
workpiece, is called

a) Up milling

b) Down milling

c) Face milling
d) End milling

62. The grooving is an operation of

a) Beveling the extreme end of a workpiece

b) Embossing a diamond shaped pattern on the surface of a workpiece

c) Reducing the diameter of a workpiece over a very narrow surface

d) Enlarging the end of a hole cylindrically

63. In metal cutting operations, the shear angle is the angle made by the shear plane with the

a) Direction of the tool axis

b) Direction of tool travel

c) Perpendicular to the direction of the tool axis

d) Central plane of the workpiece

64. The chamfering is an essential operation after

a) Knurling

b) Rough turning

c) Boring

d) Thread cutting

65. When the tool moves parallel to the lathe axis, the movement is termed as

a) Cross feed

b) Angular feed

c) Longitudinal feed

d) Any one of these

----------Key----------

1. (d)

2. (b)

3. (d)

4. (c)

5. (d)

6. (b)

7. (d)

8. (b)

9. (d)

10. (a)

11. (d)

12. (d)

13. (c)

14. (b)

15. (d)

16. (c)

17. (a)

18. (b)

19. (b)

20. (a)
21. (b)

22. (a)

23. (b)

24. (c)

25. (c)

26. (a)

27. (b)

28. (b)

29. (d)

30. (c)

31. (d)

32. (d)

33. (a)

34. (a)

35. (b)

36. (b)

37. (b)

38. (d)

39. (a)

40. (a)

41. (b)

42. (b)

43. (a)

44. (d)

45. (a)
46. (a)

47. (c)

48. (b)

49. (c)

50. (d)

51. (b)

52. (a)

53. (d)

54. (c)

55. (a)

56. (a)

57. (d)

58. (a)

59. (d)

60. (b)

61. (b)

62. (c)

63. (b)

64. (d)

65. (c)

MATERIALS ENGINEERING AND TECHNOLOGY

1. Specify the sequence correctly

a) Grain growth, recrystallisation, stress relief

b) Stress relief, grain growth, recrystallisation

c) Stress relief, recrystallisation, grain growth

d) Grain growth, stress relief, recrystallisation

2. The lower critical point for all steels is

a) 600°C

b) 700°C

c) 723°C

d) 913°C

3. Nodular cast iron is produced by adding __________ to the molten cast iron.

a) nickel

b) chromium

c) copper

d) magnesium

4. Which of the following statement is true about brittle fracture?

a) High temperature and low strain rates favour brittle fracture

b) Low temperature favours brittle fracture

c) Brittle fracture is always preceded by noise

d) Cup and cone formation is characteristic for brittle materials

5. The type of space lattice found in alphatrue about brittle fracture-iron is

a) face centered cubic space lattice

b) body centered cubic space lattice

c) close packed hexagonal space lattice

d) none of these

6. The temperature required for full annealing in hyper-eutectoid steel is

a) 30° C to 50° C above upper critical temperature

b) 30° C to 50° C below upper critical temperature

c) 30° C to 50° C above lower critical temperature

d) 30° C to 50° C below lower critical temperature

7. Body centred cubic space lattice is found in

a) zinc, magnesinm, cobalt, cadmium, antimony and bismuth

b) gamma-iron, aluminium, copper, lead, silver and nickel

c) alpha-iron, tungsten, chromium and molybdenum

d) none of the above

8. Eutectoid reaction occurs at

a) 600°C

b) 723°C

c) 1147°C

d) 1493°C

9. In a hardening process, the hypo-eutectoid steel is

a) heated from 30° C to 50° C above the upper critical temperature and then cooled in still air

b) heated from 30° C to 50° C above the upper critical temperature and then cooled suddenly in a
suitable cooling medium

c) heated from 30° C to 50° C above the upper critical temperature and then cooled slowly in the furnace

d) heated below or close to the lower critical temperature and then cooled slowly
10. Which of the following is a case hardening process?

a) Carburising

b) Cyaniding

c) Nitriding

d) all of these

11. The important mechanical property of a material to be successfully rolled or forged is

a) Brittleness

b) Ductility

c) Machinability

d) Malleability

12. Spark erosion machining can be used for the machining of

a) Electrically conductive material only

b) Electrically non-conductive materials only

c) Both conducting and non-conducting materials

d) Semiconductors

13. If a percentage of cobalt in Tungsten carbide tool increases, then toughness of tool will

a) Increase

b) Decrease

c) Remains Constant

d) First increase then decrease

14. Which of the following tools is most suitable for very hard and brittle material?

a) HSS

b) Cast-cobalt alloy

c) Carbides

d) None of the mentioned

15. MRR is ECM depends on _____________

a) hardness of work material

b) atomic weight of work material

c) thermal conductivity of work material

d) ductility of work material

16. The mechanism of material removal in EDM process is

a) Melting and Evaporation

b) Melting and Corrosion

c) Erosion and Cavitation

d) Cavitation and Evaporation

17. Tool life is measured by the

a) number of pieces machined between tool sharpenings

b) time the tool is in contact with the job

c) volume of material removed between tool sharpenings

d) all of the mentioned

18. Which characteristic of material is used in forging process?

a) characteristics of elasticity of material

b) characteristics of ductility of material

c) characteristics of plasticity of material

d) none of the above

19. What is used as joining medium in brazing operation?

a) Copper-zinc alloy

b) Nickel-silver alloy

c) Lead-tin alloy

d) All of the above

20. For machining of plastic material which of the unconventional process can be used effectively?

a) Electro chemical machining

b) Electron beam machining

c) Laser beam machining

d) None of the mentioned

21. Which pattern material used for investment casting process?

a) Wax

b) Wood

c) Plastic

d) Metal

22. Which of the following will give maximum chip flow during machining?

a) Hard material
b) Ductile material

c) Brittle material

d) All of the mentioned

23. In machining metals, chips break due to __________ of work material.

a) toughness

b) ductility

c) elasticity

d) work hardening

24. In the ___________ process, one starts with a single block of solid material larger than the final size
of the desired object and material is removed until the desired shape is reached.

a) Subtractive process

b) Additive process

c) Formative process

d) All of the mentioned

25. An alloy of copper, tin and zinc is known as

a) brass

b) bronze

c) gun metal

d) muntz metal

26. The hardness of a grinding wheel is specified by

a) brinell hardness number

b) rockwell hardness number

c) vickers pyramid number

d) letter of alphabet

27. In order to grind soft material

a) a coarse-grained grinding wheel is used

b) a fine-grained grinding wheel is used

c) a medium-grained grinding wheel is used

d) any one of these

28. A dense structure of a grinding wheel is used for

a) hard materials

b) brittle materials

c) finishing cuts

d) all of these

29. Solder is essentially a

a) Tin-silver base

b) Tin lead base

c) Tin-bismuth base

d) Tin-bismuth base

30. In terms of which of the following properties, metals are better than ceramics?

a) Hardness

b) Ductility

c) Toughness
d) Yield Strength

31. Steels mainly contain iron and carbon. Under which of the following categories do they belong?

a) Metallic Solid

b) Polymer

c) Composites

d) Ceramics

32. Which of the following cannot be used as bio-materials?

a) Metals

b) Ceramics

c) Polymers

d) None of the mentioned

33. Co-ordination number of a crystalline solid is:

a) Number of particles in the unit cell

b) Number of nearest neighbours of a particle

c) Number of octahedral voids in a unit cell

d) Number of tetrahedral voids in a unit cell

34. Packing efficiency of a crystal structure is the ratio of:

a) Volume occupied by particles to the total volume of the unit cell

b) Volume occupied by particles to that by voids

c) Total volume of the unit cell to the volume occupied by particles

d) Volume occupied by voids to that by particles

35. Which of the following is a property of amorphous solids?

a) Sharp melting point

b) Isotropy

c) Long range order

d) Definite heat of fusion

36. Which of the following is not a property of metal glass?

a) Transparent

b) Poor thermal conductivity

c) High magnetic susceptibility

d) None of the mentioned

37. Number of particles in one unit cell of HCP lattice is:

a) 1

b) 2

c) 4

d) 6

38. Standard axial ratio for metallic HCP lattice is 2√( 2/3). It is the ratio of

a) Atomic radius to hexagon edge length

b) Hexagon height length to atomic radius

c) Atomic radius to hexagon height

d) None of the mentioned

39. Buckling in a column occurs in the material due to which of the following forces?

a) Compressive

b) Tensile

c) Shear

d) It doesn’t occur due to a force

40. Which of the following is not a factor affecting fracture?

a) Stress concentration

b) Temperature

c) Pressure

d) Speed of loading

41. Which of the following is false?

a) Notch is a sudden change in section of a material

b) Stress concentration is produced due to notches

c) Notches change the stress applied to the body

d) Smaller the tip of the notch, less the increase in stress

42. At what temperature is steel ductile?

a) -10 °C

b) -5 °C

c) -3 °C

d) 4 °C

43. Which of the following decreases transition temperature in steel?

a) Manganese

b) Phosphorous

c) Nitrogen

d) Carbon

44. What is the relation between fracture toughness and thickness?

a) Fracture toughness decreases with increase in thickness

b) Fracture toughness increases with increase in thickness

c) Fracture toughness does not depend on the thickness

d) Fracture toughness increase linearly with an increase in thickness

45. What is maximum solubility % of carbon and temperature range that α-ferrite exist?

a) 0.05% and 273°c to 910°c

b) 0.025% and 273°c to 910°c

c) 2.1% and 910°c to 1394°c

d) 0.05% and 910°c to 1124°c

46. What is maximum solubility % of carbon and temperature range that Austenite (Ɣ) exist?

a) 0.05% and 273°c to 910°c

b) 0.025% and 273°c to 910°c

c) 2.1% and 910°c to 1394°c

d) 0.09% and 1394°c to 1539°c

47. What is eutectoid temperature?

a) 727°c
b) 768°c

c) 1146°c

d) 1495°c

48. What is the value of eutectic temperature?

a) 727°c

b) 768°c

c) 1146°c

d) 1495°c

49. Compositions above 2.1% C is called as _______

a) Ledeburite

b) Ferrite

c) Hyper and Hypoeutectoid steel

d) Cast iron

50. Finer size pearlite is called _______

a) Troostite

b) Ledeburite

c) Ferrite

d) Sorbite

----------Key----------
1. (c)

2. (c)

3. (d)

4. (b)

5. (b)

6. (c)

7. (c)

8. (b)

9. (b)

10. (d)

11. (d)

12. (a)

13. (a)

14. (c)

15. (b)

16. (a)

17. (d)

18. (c)

19. (a)

20. (c)

21. (a)

22. (b)

23. (d)

24. (a)
25. (c)

26. (d)

27. (a)

28. (d)

29. (b)

30. (b)

31. (a)

32. (d)

33. (b)

34. (a)

35. (b)

36. (a)

37. (d)

38. (d)

39. (a)

40. (c)

41. (d)

42. (d)

43. (a)

44. (a)

45. (b)

46. (c)

47. (a)

48. (c)

49. (d)
50. (d)

MECHANICS OF MACHINES

1. Consider the following pairs of parts:

a) Pairs of gear in mesh

b) Belt and pulley

c) Cylinder and piston

d) Cam and follower

Among these, the higher pairs are

a) 1 and 4

b) 2 and 4

c) 1,2 and 3

d) 1,2 and 4

2. In a four-link kinematic chain, the relation between the number of links (L) and number of pairs (j) is

a) L=2j+4

b) L=2j-4

c) L=4j+2

d) L=4j-2

3. In a four-bar linkage, S denotes the shortest link length, L is the longest link length, P and Q are the
length of other two links. At least one of the Three moving links will rotate by 360˚ if

a) S + L ≤ P + Q

b) S + L > P + Q

c) S + P ≤ L + Q
d) S + P > L + Q

4. What is the direction of the Coriolis component of acceleration in a slotted lever-crank mechanism?

a) Along the sliding velocity vector

b) Along the direction of the crank

c) Along a line rotated 90° from the sliding velocity vector in a direction opposite to the angular velocity
of the slotted lever

d) Along a line rotated 90° from the sliding velocity vector in a direction same as that of the angular
velocity of the slotted lever

5. Consider the following statements :

Coriolis component of acceleration depends on

1. Velocity of slider

2. Angular velocity of the link

3. Acceleration of slider

4. Angular acceleration of link

Of these statements

a) 1 and 2 are correct

b) 1 and 3 are correct

c) 2 and 4 are correct

d) 1 and 4 are correct

6. In a shaping operation, the average cutting speed is (Stroke length S, Number of strokes per minute N,
Quick return ratio R )

a) NSR

b) NSR/2
c) NS (1+R)

d) NS (1+R)/2

7. In a single slider four-bar linkage, when the slider is fixed, it forms a mechanism of

a) Hand pump

b) Reciprocating engine

c) Quick return

d) Oscillating cylinder

8. Which one of the following statements is correct?

In a petrol engine mechanism the velocity of the piston is maximum when the crank is

a) At the dead centers

b) At right angles to the line of stroke

c) Slightly less than 90˚ to line of stroke

d) Slightly above 90˚ to line of stroke

9. Scotch yoke mechanism is used to generate

a) sine functions

b) Square roots

c) Logarithms

d) Inversions

10. Which of the following is an open pair?

a) Journal bearing
b) Ball and socket joint

c) Leave screw and nut

d) None of the above

11. An open belt drive is used when

a) shafts are arranged parallel and rotate in the opposite directions

b) shafts are arranged parallel and rotate in the same directions

c) shafts are arranged at right angles and rotate in one definite direction

d) driven shaft is to be started or stopped whenever desired without interferring with the driving shaft

12. In a vibrating system, if the actual damping coefficient is 40 N/m/s and critical damping coefficient is
420 N/m/s, then logarithmic decrement is equal to

a) 0.2

b) 0.4

c) 0.6

d) 0.8

13. For high speed engines, the cam follower should move with

a) uniform velocity

b) uniform acceleration and retardation

c) simple harmonic motion

d) cycloidal motion

14. In a circular arc cam with roller follower, the acceleration in any position of the lift will depend only
upon

a) total lift, total angle of lift, minimum radius of cam and cam speed
b) radius of circular arc, cam speed, location of centre of circular arc and roller diameter

c) mass of cam follower linkage, spring stiffness and cam speed

d) total lift, centre of gravity of the cam and cam speed

15. When the relation between the controlling force (Fc) and radius of rotation (r) for a spring controlled
governor is Fc = ar + b, then the governor will be

a) stable

b) unstable

c) isochronous

d) none of these

16. The factor which affects the critical speed of a shaft is

a) diameter of disc

b) span of shaft

c) eccentricity

d) all of these

17. The partial balancing of reciprocating parts in locomotives produces

a) hammer blow

b) swaying couple

c) variation in tractive force along the line of stroke

d) all of the above

18. In a coupling rod of a locomotive, each of the four pairs is a __________ pair.

a) sliding

b) turning
c) rolling

d) screw

19. In railway axle boxes, the bearing used is

a) deep groove ball bearing

b) double row self-aligning ball bearing

c) double row spherical roller bearing

d) cylindrical roller bearing

20. When the two elements of a pair have a surface contact when relative motion takes place and the
surface of one element slides over the surface of the other, the pair formed is known as a

a) lower pair

b) higher pair

c) self-closed pair

d) force-closed pair

21. In under damped vibrating system, the amplitude of vibration

a) decreases linearly with time

b) increases linearly with time

c) decreases exponentially with time

d) increases exponentially with time

22. The dynamic friction is the friction experienced by a body, when the body

a) is in motion

b) is at rest

c) just begins to slide over the surface of the other body

d) none of the above

23. The dynamic friction is the friction experienced by a body, when the body

a) is in motion

b) is at rest

c) just begins to slide over the surface of the other body

d) none of these

24. The steering of a ship means

a) movement of a complete ship up and down in vertical plane about transverse axis

b) turning of a complete ship in a curve towards right or left, while it moves forward

c) rolling of a complete ship side-ways

d) none of these

25. The radial distance of a tooth from the pitch circle to the bottom of the tooth is called

a) dedendum

b) addendum

c) clearance

d) working depth

26. The radial distance of a tooth from the pitch circle to the top of the tooth is called

a) dedendum

b) addendum

c) clearance

d) working depth
27. When the crank is at the inner dead centre, in a reciprocating steam engine, then the velocity of the
piston will be

a) minimum

b) zero

c) maximum

d) none of these

28. The static friction

a) bears a constant ratio to the normal reaction between the two surfaces

b) is independent of the area of contact, between the two surfaces

c) always acts in a direction,

opposite to that in which the body tends to move

D.

d) all of the above

29. The pressure angle of a cam is the angle between the direction of the follower motion and a normal
to the

a) pitch circle

b) base circle

c) pitch curve

d) prime circle

30. In radial cams, the follower moves

a) in a direction perpendicular to the cam axis

b) in a direction parallel to the cam axis

c) in any direction irrespective of cam axis

d) along the cam axis

31. If the rotating mass of a rim type flywheel is distributed on another rim type flywheel whose mean
radius is half the mean radius of the former, then energy stored in the latter at the same speed will be

a) four times the first one

b) same as the first one

c) one fourth of the first one

d) one and a half times the first one

32. The Grubler's criterion for determining the degrees of freedom (n) of a mechanism having plane
motion is (where l = Number of links, and j = Number of binary joints)

a) n = (l - 1) - j

b) n = 2(l - 1) - 2j

c) n = 3(l - 1) - 2j

d) n = 4(l - 1) - 3j

33. In a Hartnell governor, if a spring of greater stiffness is used, then the governor will be

a) less sensitive

b) more sensitive

c) unaffected of sensitivity

d) isochronous

34. The included angle for the V-belt is usually

a) 10° to 20°

b) 20° to 30°
c) 30° to 40°

d) 60° to 80°

35.

An involute pinion and gear are in mesh. If both have the same size of addendum, then there will be an
interference between the

a) tip of the gear tooth and flank of pinion

b) tip of the pinion and flank of gear

c) flanks of both gear and pinion

d) tip of both gear and pinion

36. Which of the following is an inversion of a single slider crank chain?

a) Pendulum pump

b) Oscillating cylinder engine

c) Rotary internal combustion engine

d) all of these

37. In a radial cam, the follower moves

a) in a direction perpendicular to the cam axis

b) in a direction parallel to the cam axis

c) in any direction irrespective of the cam axis

d) along the cam axis

38. Which of the following is a turning pair?

a) Piston and cylinder of a reciprocating steam engine

b) Shaft with collars at both ends fitted into a circular hole

c) Lead screw of a lathe with nut

d) Ball and a socket joint

39. The two elements of a pair are said to form a higher pair, when they

a) have a surface contact when in motion

b) have a line or point contact when in motion

c) are kept in contact by the action of external forces, when in motion

d) permit relative motion

40. The two elements of a pair are said to form a lower pair, when they

a) have a surface contact when in motion

b) have a line or point contact when in motion

c) are kept in contact by the action of external forces, when in motion

d) permit relative motion

41. The maximum fluctuation of energy is the

a) difference between the maximum and minimum energies

b) sum of the maximum and minimum energies

c) variations of energy above and below the mean resisting torque line

d) ratio of the mean resisting torque to the workdone per cycle

42. The method of obtaining different mechanisms by fixing in turn different links in a kinematic chain, is
known as

a) structure

b) machine

c) inversion
d) compound mechanism

43. In a steam engine, the link constitutes a

a) piston, piston rod and crosshead

b) connecting rod with big and small end brasses, caps and bolts

c) crank pin, crankshaft and flywheel

d) all of the above

44. The secondary unbalanced force is maximum when the angle of inclination of the crank with the line
of stroke is

a) 0° and 90°

b) 180° and 360°

c) both (a) and (b)

d) none of these

45. In a kinematic chain, a quaternary joint is equivalent to

a) one binary joint

b) Two binary joint

c) Three binary joint

d) Four binary joint

46. In a kinematic chain, a ternary joint is equivalent to

a) One binary joint

b) Two binary joint

c) Three binary joint

d) Four binary joint

47. For dynamic balancing of a shaft

a) the net dynamic force acting on the shaft is equal to zero

b) the net couple due to the dynamic forces acting on the shaft is equal to zero

c) both (a) and (b)

d) none of the above

48. Which of the following is an example of a higher pair ?

a) Toothed gearing

b) Belt and rope drive

c) Ball and roller bearing

d) all of these

49. Which of the following property of the instantaneous centre is correct ?

a) A rigid link rotates instantaneously relative to another link at the instantaneous centre for the
configuration of the mechanism considered.

b) The two rigid links have no linear velocity relative to each other at the instantaneous centre.

c) The velocity of the instantaneous centre relative to any third rigid link is same whether the
instantaneous centre is regarded as a point on the first rigid link or on the second rigid link.

d) all of the above

50. Torsional vibrations are said to occur when the particles of a body moves

a) perpendicular to its axis

b) parallel to its axis

c) in a circle about its axis

d) none of these
----------Key----------

1. (a)

2. (b)

3. (a)

4. (d)

5. (a)

6. (c)

7. (a)

8. (a)

9. (a)

10. (c)

11. (b)

12. (c)

13. (d)

14. (a)

15. (b)

16. (d)

17. (d)

18. (b)

19. (c)

20. (a)
21. (c)

22. (a)

23. (a)

24. (b)

25. (a)

26. (b)

27. (b)

28. (d)

29. (c)

30.

31. (c)

32. (c)

33. (a)

34. (c)

35. (a)

36. (d)

37. (a)

38. (b)

39. (b)

40. (a)

41. (a)

42. (c)

43. (d)

44. (c)

45. (c)
46. (b)

47. (c)

48. (d)

49. (d)

50. (c)

STRENGTH OF MATERIALS

1. A bolt is made to pass through a tube and both of them are tightly fitted with the help of washers and
nuts. If the nut is tightened, then

a) Bolt and tube are under tension

b) Bolt and tube are under compression

c) Bolt is under compression and tube is under tension

d) Bolt is under tension and tube is under compression

2. A hollow shaft of same cross-section area as compared to a solid shaft transmit

a) Same torque

b) Less torque

c) More torque

d) Unpredictable

3. A composite bar made up of steel and copper bars of equal lengths are heated through 100°C. The
stresses developed shall be

a) Tensile in both the material

b) Tensile in steel and compressive in copper

c) Compressive in steel and tensile in copper

d) Compressive in both the materials

4. The bending stress in a beam is _________ section modulus.

a) Inversely proportional to two times

b) Directly proportional to

c) Inversely proportional to

d) None of these

5. The buckling load for a given material depends on

a) Slenderness ratio and area of cross-section

b) Poisson's ratio and modulus of elasticity

c) Slenderness ratio and modulus of elasticity

d) Slenderness ratio, area of cross-section and modulus of elasticity

6. A boiler shell 200 cm diameter and plate thickness 1.5 cm is subjected to internal pressure of 1.5
MN/m, and then the hoop stress will be

a) 30 MN/m²

b) 50 MN/m²

c) 100 MN/m²

d) 200 MN/m

7. A rod is enclosed centrally in a tube and the assembly is tightened by rigid washers. If the assembly is
subjected to a compressive load, then

a) rod is under compression

b) tube is under compression

c) both rod and tube are under compression

d) tube is under tension and rod is under compression

8. A beam of T-section is subjected to a shear force of F. The maximum shear force will occur at the

a) top of the section

b) bottom of the section

c) neutral axis of the section

d) junction of web and flange

9. A solid circular shaft of 60 mm diameter transmits a torque of 1600 N.m. The value of maximum shear
stress developed is

a) 37.72 MPa

b) 47.72 MPa

c) 57.72 MPa

d) 67.72 MPa

10. An axial residual compressive stress due to a manufacturing process is present on

the outer surface of a rotating shaft subjected to bending. Under a given bending

load, the fatigue life of the shaft in the presence of the residual compressive stress is

a) decreased

b) increased or decreased, depending on the external bending load

c) neither decreased nor increased

d) increased

11. Strain energy is the

a) energy stored in a body when strained within elastic limits

b) energy stored in a body when strained upto the breaking of a specimen

c) maximum strain energy which can be stored in a body

d) proof resilience per unit volume of a material

12. A vertical column has two moments of inertia (i.e. Ixx and Iyy ). The column will tend to buckle in the
direction of the

a) axis of load

b) perpendicular to the axis of load

c) maximum moment of inertia

d) minimum moment of inertia

13. The neutral axis of the cross-section a beam is that axis at which the bending stress is

a) zero

b) minimum

c) maximum

d) infinity

14. Euler's formula holds good only for

a) short columns

b) long columns

c) both short and long columns

d) weak columns

15. The object of caulking in a riveted joint is to make the joint

a) free from corrosion

b) stronger in tension
c) free from stresses

d) leak-proof

16. Compression members always tend to buckle in the direction of the

A.

B.

a) axis of load

b) perpendicular to the axis of load

c) minimum cross section

d) least radius of gyration

17. The maximum tangential stress in a thick cylindrical shell is always __________ the internal pressure
acting on the shell.

a) equal to

b) less than

c) greater than

d) Can't Say

18. A thin spherical shell of diameter (d) and thickness (t) is subjected to an internal pressure (p). The
stress in the shell material is

a) pd/t

b) pd/2t

c) pd/4t
d) pd/8t

19. Rivets are generally specified by

a) thickness of plates to be joined

b) overall length

c) shank diameter

d) diameter of head

20. Principle plane is a plane on which the shear stress is

a) zero

b) minimum

c) maximum

d) Not to predict

21. The swaying couple is maximum or minimum when the angle of inclination of the crank to the line of
stroke (θ) is equal to

a) 90° and 180°

b) 45° and 225°

c) 180° and 270°

d) 270° and 360

22. A rod is enclosed centrally in a tube and the assembly is tightened by rigid washers. If the assembly is
subjected to a compressive load, then
a) rod is under compression

b) tube is under compression

c) both rod and tube are under compression

d) tube is under tension and rod is under compression

23. A bar of length L metres extends by l mm under a tensile force of P. The strain produced in the bar is

a) l/L

b) 0.1 l/L

c) 0.01 l/L

d) 0.001 l/L

24. A bar of length L metres extends by l m under a tensile force of P N and the crossection area is A m2.
The stress produced in the bar is

a) P/L

b) P/A

c) I/L

d) A/P

25. A bar of length L metres extends by l m under a tensile force of P N and the crossection area is A m2.
The Modulus of Elasticity of the bar is

a) PL/AI

b) PA/LI

c) PI/AL

d) None of these

26. The shear force and bending moment are zero at the free end of a cantilever beam, if it carries a
a) point load at the free end

b) point load at the middle of its length

c) uniformly distributed load over the whole length

d) none of these

27. A thin cylindrical shell of diameter (d) and thickness (t) is subjected to an internal pressure (p). The
longitudinal stress in the shell material is

a) pd/t

b) pd/2t

c) pd/4t

d) pd/8t

28. A thin cylindrical shell of diameter (d) and thickness (t) is subjected to an internal pressure (p). The
hoop stress in the shell material is

a) pd/t

b) pd/2t

c) pd/4t

d) pd/8t

29. A thin cylinder (thickness, t and diameter, d) with closed ends is subjected to an internal

pressure, p .The ratio of hoop stress to longitudinal stress developed in the wall of the

cylinder is
a) 1:4

b) 1:2

c) 1:1

d) 2:1

30. A steel rod is fixed at one end and free at the other end. The coefficient of thermal expansion of the
steel is α, and modulus of elasticity is E. If the temperature of the rod is increased by ∆T then the stress
and strain developed in the rod are respectively

a) zero, α∆T

b) Eα∆T, α∆T

c) Eα∆T, zero

d) zero, zero

31. The frequency of damped vibrations with viscous damping is __________ the frequency of
undamped vibrations

a) more than

b) less than

c) same as

d) Can’t say

32. The effective lengths of the columns with ideal boundary conditions shown in Case-I,

Case-II, and Case-III are respectively

<img src="1.jpg" alt="1.jpg" title="1" width="1041" height="647"/>

a) L,4L,2L

b) L,2L,L/4

c) L,L,L

d) L,2L,L/2
33. At a point in a stressed body, sum of the normal stresses acting on perpendicular faces of

an arbitrarily oriented plane stress element is always

a) dependent on the angle of orientation of the element

b) constant and independent of angle of orientation of the element

c) one half of the sum of the principal stresses

d) zero

34. A shaft revolving at ω rad / s transmits torque (T) in N-m. The power developed is

a) T.ω watts

b) 2 π Tω watts

c) 2 π Tω/60 watts

d) 2 π Tω/3600 watts

35. The principal stresses on a plane stress element are shown in the figure. The maximum

shear stress (in MPa) is

<img src="2.jpg" alt="2.jpg" title="2" width="726" height="456"/>

a) 200

b) 100

c) 50

d) 0

36. A beam ABC is subjected to load P at its free end C as shown in the figure. The flexural

rigidity of the beam is EI .The vertical support reaction at point B is

<img src="3.jpg" alt="3.jpg" title="3" width="672" height="239"/>

a) 5P/4

b) 2P/5

c) 4P/5

d) 5P/2

37. The unit of modulus of elasticity is same as those of

a) stress, pressure and modulus of rigidity

b) stress, strain and pressure

c) stress, force and modulus of rigidity

d) strain, force and pressure

38. When a bar of length l, width b and thickness t is subjected to a pull of P, its

a) length, width and thickness increases

b) length, width and thickness decreases

c) length increases, width and thickness decreases

d) length decreases, width and thickness increases

39. A column with maximum equivalent length has

a) both ends hinged

b) both ends fixed

c) one end fixed and the other end hinged

d) one end fixed and the other end free

40. A column of length (l) with both ends fixed may be considered as equivalent to a column of length
__________ with both ends hinged

a) l/8

b) l/4

c) l/2

d) l

41. A column of length (l) with both ends fixed may be considered as equivalent to a column of length
__________ with both ends fixed

a) l/8

b) l/4

c) l/2

d) l

42. The product of the tangential force acting on the shaft and its distance from the axis of the shaft (i.e.
radius of shaft) is known as

a) bending moment

b) twisting moment

c) torsional rigidity

d) flexural rigidity

43. When a body is subjected to a direct tensile stress (σ) in one plane, the maximum shear stress is
__________ the maximum normal stress.

a) equal to

b) one-half
c) two-third

d) Twice

44. A simply supported beam 'A' of length l, breadth b and depth d carries a central load W. Another
beam 'B' of the same dimensions carries a central load equal to 2 W. The deflection of beam 'B' will be
__________ as that of beam 'A'.

a) one-fourth

b) four times

c) double

d) one-half

45. Which of the following statement is correct?

a) A continuous beam has only two supports at the ends.

b) A uniformly distributed load spreads uniformly over the whole length of a beam.

c) The bending moment is maximum where shear force is maximum.

d) The maximum bending moment of a simply supported beam of length l with a central point load W is
Wl/8.

46. The ratio of the largest load in a test to the original cross-sectional area of the test piece is called

a) elastic limit

b) yield stress

c) ultimate stress

d) breaking stress

47. The total strain energy stored in a body up to elastic limit is termed as

a) resilience
b) proof resilience

c) impact energy

d) modulus of resilience

48. In order to avoid sliding of masonry dam, the force of friction between the dam and soil should be at
least __________ the total water pressure per metre length.

a) equal to

b) 1.5 times

c) double

d) 2.5 times

49. In a beam subjected to pure bending, the intensity of stress in any fibre is __________ the distance
of the fibre from the neutral axis

a) equal to

b) less than

c) more than

d) directly proportional to

50. Two bars of different materials and same size are subjected to the same tensile force. If the bars
have unit elongation in the ratio of 2:5, then the ratio of modulus of elasticity of the two materials will
be

a) 2:5

b) 5:2

c) 4:3

d) 3:4
----------Key----------

1. (d)

2. (c)

3. (d)

4. (c)

5. (d)

6. (c)

7. (c)

8. (c)

9. (a)

10. (d)

11. (a)

12. (d)

13. (a)

14. (b)

15. (d)

16. (d)

17. (c)

18. (c)

19. (c)

20. (a)

21. (b)

22. (c)
23. (d)

24. (b)

25. (a)

26. (c)

27. (c)

28. (b)

29. (d)

30. (a)

31. (b)

32. (d)

33. (b)

34. (a)

35. (b)

36. (d)

37. (a)

38. (c)

39. (d)

40. (d)

41. (c)

42. (b)

43. (b)

44. (c)

45. (b)

46. (c)

47. (a)
48. (b)

49. (d)

50. (b)

1. Water level indicator _____

a) indicates the amount of steam in the boile

b) indicates the amount of water in the boiler

c) indicates the amount of water converted to steam

d) indicates the amount of steam left in the boiler

2. What is the purpose of guard glass in a glass-tube water level indicator?

a) It protects the attendant, if water starts leaking

b) It protects the water gauge, if steam pressure increases the design pressure

c) It protects the attendant, if boiler cracks

d) It protects the attendant, if the gauge glass breaks

3. Which of the following is NOT a fire tube boiler?

a) Cochran Boiler

b) Lancashire Boiler

c) Locomotive Boiler

d) Babcock and Wilcox Boiler

4. Which of the following is NOT a valid classification of boilers?

a) Forced circulation and natural circulation

b) High pressure and low pressure

c) Stationary and Portable

d) Single fired and Double fired

5. _____ is the platform in the furnace upon which fuel is burnt.

a) Shell

b) Grate

c) Setting

d) Heat exchanger

6. What is the chamber formed by the space above the grate and below boiler shell called, where
combustion takes place?

a) Grate surface

b) Mounting

c) Furnace

d) Setting

7. In boiler terminology, the volume of the shell occupied by water is termed as _____

a) water space

b) steam space

c) wet volume

d) wet space

8. The items that are added to increase the efficiency of boiler are called _____

a) mountings

b) accessories
c) setting

d) boiler essentials

9. According to boiler terminology, Formation of steam bubbles on the surface of water is called _____

a) foaming

b) scale

c) lagging

d) bubbling

10. The smallest section of a steam nozzle is called _____

a) maw

b) neck

c) throat

d) muzzle

11. The steam flow though nozzle is considered to be _____

a) adiabatic

b) isobaric

c) isothermal

d) isochoric

12. Steam at a temperature 200°C and pressure 4 bar enters a steam nozzles and is discharged at 1 bar
pressure. Determine the exit velocity of steam if the inlet velocity is negligible.

a) 500 m/s

b) 720 m/s

c) 580 m/s
d) 750 m/s

13. The maximum mass flow through a steam nozzle is independent of _____

a) Initial pressure

b) Initial density

c) Final pressure

d) Throat area

14. In case of accelerated flow, when the pressure decreases along the flow direction and Mach number
is less than one, it corresponds to _____

a) Convergent part of a nozzle

b) Divergent part of a nozzle

c) Throat of a nozzle

d) Convergent part of a diffuser

15. Which of the following statements regarding the Mach number is TRUE, when the fluid reaches the
throat of a nozzle?

a) It becomes unity

b) It is less than one

c) It is greater than one

d) Mach number is not defined at throat of a nozzle

16. A decelerated flow, having fluid velocity greater than the local sonic velocity corresponds to _____

a) Convergent part of a nozzle

b) Divergent part of a nozzle

c) Convergent part of a diffuser

d) Divergent part of a diffuser

17. Air enters a frictionless adiabatic horizontal nozzle at 12 bar and 167°C with inlet velocity 50 m/s and
leaves at 3 bar. Take adiabatic index equal to 1.4 and cp = 1.005 kJ/kg-K

a) 654.78 m/s

b) 321.75 m/s

c) 552.45 m/s

d) 456.87 m/s

18. According to the direction of steam flow, steam turbines are classified into _____

a) axial and radial

b) uniaxial and multi-axial

c) upstream and downstream

d) forward and backward

19. Turbines with separate rotor shafts for each cylinder placed parallel to each other are known as
_____

a) multi-rotor turbines

b) multiaxial turbines

c) single-cylinder turbines

d) multi-utility turbine

20. On the basis of method of governing, steam turbines are classified into turbines with _____

a) diffuser governing and nozzle governing

b) throttle governing and nozzle governing

c) impulse governing and reaction governing

d) throttle governing and diffuser governing

21. Which of the following is NOT a valid type of steam turbines, based on heat drop process?

a) Condensing turbines with generator

b) Back pressure turbines

c) Topping turbines

d) Supercritical turbines

22. Which of the following statement regarding condensing turbines with generators is TRUE?

a) Exhaust steam is supplied to intermediate stages

b) Steam is not extracted from intermediate stages

c) The latent heat of exhaust steam during condensation is utilized in feed water heating

d) Steam at a pressure less than atmospheric is directed to a condenser

23. Stationary turbines with variable speed cannot be used to drive _____

a) turbo-blowers

b) air-circulators

c) pumps

d) ships

24. Sub-atmospheric pressure is also called _____

a) Gauge pressure

b) Absolute pressure

c) Vacuum pressure

d) High altitude pressure

25. Discharging condensate to hot well improves plant efficiency because _____

a) condensate is not wasted

b) condensate cools down faster in the hot well

c) feed water for boiler is taken from the hot well

d) it increases the pressure in the hot well

26. Cooling water is sprayed into the exhaust steam in _____

a) steam condensers

b) surface condensers

c) jet condensers

d) jet condensers and high condensers

27. Which of the following statements are correct regarding reciprocating steam engines?

a) It is a form of heat engine

b) It converts heat energy to mechanical work

c) It has high thermal efficiency

d) It is used in locomotives, ships etc

28. According to the class of service, reciprocating steam engines are classified into _____

a) Stationary, Marine, Locomotive and Pumping

b) Stationary and Moving

c) Portable and Compound

d) Manual, Automatic and Centrifugal

29. According to the speed of rotation, reciprocating steam engines are classified into _____

a) Vertical, horizontal and inclined

b) Stationary, locomotive and marine

c) High speed, Medium speed and low speed

d) Slow, fast and very fast

30. The engine cylinder of a reciprocating steam engine is produced using casting operation. The casting
of the cylinder consists of two chamber, namely _____

a) Steam chamber and condensing chamber

b) Cylinder chamber and valve chamber

c) Top chamber and bottom chamber

d) back chamber and front chamber

----------Key----------

1. (b)

2. (d)

3. (d)

4. (d)

5. (b)

6. (c)

7. (a)

8. (b)

9. (a)
10. (c)

11. (a)

12. (b)

13. (c)

14. (a)

15. (a)

16. (c)

17. (c)

18. (a)

19. (b)

20. (b)

21. (d)

22. (d)

23. (d)

24. (c)

25. (c)

26. (c)

27. (c)

28. (a)

29. (c)

30. (b)

THERMAL ENGINEERING SYSTEMS

1. The compression ratio cannot be increased beyond certain limit, because it results to

a) auto-ignition of fuel
b) detonation

c) engine knocking

d) all of the above

2. What is the formula for compression (rk) ratio of the Otto cycle?

a) rk = Volume of cylinder at the beginning of compression / Volume of cylinder at the end of

compression

b) rk = Volume of cylinder at the end of compression / Volume of cylinder at the beginning of

compression

c) rk = Volume of cylinder at the end of compression / clearance volume

d) none of the above

3. If the temperature of intake air in internal combustion engine increases, then its efficiency will

a) Remain same

b) Decrease

c) Increase

d) None of these

4. The operation of forcing additional air under pressure in the engine cylinder is known as

a) Scavenging

b) Turbulence

c) Supercharging

d) Pre-ignition

5. Pour point of fuel oil is the

a) Minimum temperature to which oil is heated in order to give off inflammable vapours in sufficient
quantity to ignite momentarily when brought in contact with a flame
b) Temperature at which it solidifies or congeals

c) It catches fire without external aid

d) Indicated by 90% distillation temperature i.e., when 90% of sample oil has distilled off

6. Supercharging is the process of

a) Supplying the intake of an engine with air at a density greater than the density of the surrounding
atmosphere

b) Providing forced cooling air

c) Injecting excess fuel for raising more loads

d) Supplying compressed air to remove combustion products fully

7. The fuels in order of decreasing knock tendency for spark ignition engines are

a) Paraffin, Aromatic, Napthene

b) Paraffin, Napthene, Aromatic

c) Napthene, Aromatic, Paraffin

d) Napthene, Paraffin, Aromatic

8. In a four stage compressor, if the pressure at the first and third stage are 1 bar and 16 bar, then the
delivery pressure at the fourth stage will be

a) 256 bar

b) 1 bar

c) 16 bar

d) 64 bar

9. The index of expansion of dry saturated steam flowing through a nozzle is equal to 1.135 and then
what is the critical pressure ratio for this flowing steam in the nozzle?

a) 0.96
b) 0.58

c) 0.33

d) 0.15

10. Dry saturated steam at pressure of 700 kPa is expanded in a convergent-divergent nozzle to 100 kPa.
The mass of steam passing through the nozzle is 270 kg per hour. Assuming the flow to be frictionless
adiabatic, the throat diameter is

a) 0.966 cm

b) 0.166 cm

c) 0.566 cm

d) 0.266 cm

11. A cycle consisting of two reversible isothermal processes and two reversible isobaric processes is
known as

a) Atkinson cycle

b) Stirling cycle

c) Brayton cycle

d) Ericsson cycle

12. Which one of the following is NOT a necessary assumption for the air standard Otto cycle?

a) All processes are both internally as well as externally reversible.

b) Intake and exhaust processes are constant volume heat rejection processes.

c) The combustion process is a constant volume heat addition process.

d) The working fluid is an ideal gas with constant specific heats

13. A diesel engine is usually more efficient than a spark ignition engine because

a) diesel being a heavier hydrocarbon, releases more heat per kg than gasoline
b) The air standard efficiency of diesel cycle is higher than the Otto cycle, at a fixed compression ratio

c) The compression ratio of a diesel engine is higher than that of an SI engine

d) Self ignition temperature of diesel is higher than that of gasoline

14. Which gas power cycle consists of four processes during which work alone is transferred and heat
alone is transferred during the other two processes?

a) Atkinson cycle

b) Carnot cycle

c) Diesel cycle

d) Otto cycle

15. Brayton cycle with infinite inter-cooling and reheating stages would approximate a

a) Stirling cycle

b) Ericsson cycle

c) Otto cycle

d) Atkinson cycle

16. Knocking tendency in a S.I. engine reduces with increasing

a) Compression ratio

b) wall temperature

c) Supercharging

d) engine speed

17. Which of the following factors increase detonation in the SI engine?

i. Increased spark advance. ii. Increased speed.

iii. Increased air-fuel ratio beyond stoichiometric strength iv. Increased compression ratio.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) i and iii

b) ii and iv

c) i, ii and iv

d) i and iv

18. For minimizing knocking tendency is SI engine, where should the space plug be located?

a) Near inlet valve

b) Away from both the valves

c) Near exhaust valve

d) Midway between inlet and exhaust valves

19. Which of the following factors would increase the probability of knock in the CI engines?

i. long ignition delay of fuel

ii. High self-ignition temperature of fuel

iii. Low volatility of fuel

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) i, ii and iii

b) i and ii

c) i and iii

d) ii and iii

20. What is the flash point of a liquid fuel?

a) The temperature at which the fuel ignites spontaneously with a bang

b) The temperature at which the fuel emits vapours at a rate which produces an inflammable mixture
with air
c) The temperature at which the fuel ignites with a clearly

d) The temperature at which the fuel ignites without a spark

21. The two reference fuels used for cetane rating are

a) cetane and iso-octane

b) cetane and tetraethyl lead

c) cetane and n-heptane

d) cetane and α -methyl naphthalene

22. Surging basically implies

a) Unsteady, periodic and reversed flow.

b) Forward motion of air at a speed above sonic velocity.

c) The surging action due to the blast of air produced in a compressor.

d) Forward movement of aircraft.

23. Which one of the following types of compressors is mostly used for supercharging of I.C. engines?

a) Radial flow compressor

b) Axial flow compressor

c) Roots blower

d) Reciprocating compressor

24. Only rocket engines can be propelled to 'SPACE' because

a) They can generate very high thrust.

b) They have high propulsion efficiency.

c) These engines can work on several fuels.

d) They are not air-beating engines

25. The thrust of a jet propulsion power unit can be increased by

a) Injecting water into the compressor

b) Burning fuel after gas turbine

c) Injecting ammonia into the combustion chamber

d) all of the above

26. The method of determination of indicated power of multi-cylinder SI engine is by the use of

a) Morse test

b) Prony brake test

c) Motoring test

d) Heat balance test

27. Keeping other parameters constant brake power of a diesel engine can be increased by

a) decreasing the density of intake air

b) increasing the temperature of intake air

c) Increasing the pressure of intake air

d) decreasing the pressure of intake air.

28. Which one of the following quantities is assumed constant for an internal combustion engine while
estimating its friction power by extrapolation through Willan's line?

a) Brake thermal efficiency

b) Indicated thermal efficiency

c) Mechanical efficiency

d) Volumetric efficiency
29. Which of the following symptoms shows that the combustion is necessarily complete?

a) Presence of free carbon in exhaust

b) Presence of CO in exhaust

c) Presence of oxygen in exhaust

d) Presence of nitrogen in exhaust

30. The presence of nitrogen in the products of combustion ensures that:

a) Complete combustion of fuel takes place

b) Incomplete combustion of fuel occurs

c) Dry products of combustion are analysed

d) Air is used for the combustion

31. The efficiency of superheat Rankine cycle is higher than that of simple Rankine cycle because

a) The enthalpy of main steam is higher for superheat cycle

b) The mean temperature of heat addition is higher for superheat cycle

c) The temperature of steam in the condenser is high

d) The quality of stem in the condenser is low

32. In a Rankine cycle, regeneration results in higher efficiency because

a) Pressure inside the boiler increases

b) Heat is added before steam enters the low-pressure turbine

c) Average temperature of heat addition in the boiler increases

d) Total work delivered by the turbine increases

33. During which of following process does heat rejection take place in Carnot vapour cycle?

a) Constant volume

b) constant pressure

c) Constant temperature

d) constant entropy

34. The main advantage of a reheat Rankine cycle is

a) Reduced moisture content in L.P. side of turbine

b) Increase efficiency

c) Reduced load on condenser

d) Reduced load on pump

35. Blade erosion in steam turbines takes place

a) Due to high temperature steam

b) Due to droplets in steam

c) Due to high rotational speed

d) Due to high flow rate

36. A regenerative steam cycle renders

a) Increased work output per unit mass of steam

b) Decreased work output per unit mass of steam

c) Increased thermal efficiency

d) Decreased work output per unit mass of steam as well as increased thermal efficiency.

37. In an ideal steam power cycle with the same inlet pressure, the low dryness fraction of steam in the
last stage of expansion process can be avoided by
a) Providing regeneration

b) providing reheating

c) Reducing the superheat

d) lowering the condenser pressure

38. Which among the following is the boiler mounting?

a) Blow off cock

b) Feed pump

c) Economiser

d) Superheater

39. Which one of the following is the fire-tube boiler?

a) Babcock and Wilcox boiler

b) Locomotive boiler

c) Stirling boiler

d) Benson boiler

40. Why is compounding of steam turbines done?

a) To improve efficiency

b) To reduce the speed of rotor

c) To reduce exit losses

d) To increase the turbine output

41. Which one of the following is used to bring down the speed of an impulse steam turbine to practical
limits?

a) A centrifugal governor
b) Compounding of the turbine

c) A large flywheel

d) A gear box

42. The net result of pressure-velocity compounding of steam turbine is:

a) Less number of stages

b) Large turbine for a given pressure drop

c) Shorter turbine for a given pressure drop

d) Lower friction loss

43. Performance of mechanical draft cooling tower is superior to natural draft with

a) Increase in air wet bulb temperature

b) Decrease in air wet bulb temperature

c) Increase in dry bulb temperature

d) Increase in recirculation of air.

44. Ratio of enthalpy drop in moving blades to the total enthalpy drop in the fixed and moving blades is
called

a) Reheat factor

b) Blade efficiency

c) Degree of reaction

d) Internal efficiency

45. The presence of air in a condenser

a) Increases the pressure in the condenser and decrease the condensing coefficient

b) Decreases the pressure in the condenser but increase the condensing coefficient
c) Increases the pressure in the condenser as well as the condensing coefficient

d) Decreases the pressure in the condenser as well as the condensing coefficient

46. Cooling tower in a steam power station is a device for

a) Condensing the steam into water

b) Cooling the exhaust gases coming out of the boiler

c) Reducing the temperature of superheated steam

d) Reducing the temperature of cooling water used in condenser

47. In a pulverised-fuel-fired large power boiler, then heat transfer from the burning fuel to the walls of
the furnace is

a) By conduction only

b) By convection only

c) By conduction and convection

d) predominantly by radiation

48. Bomb calorimeter is used to determine the calorific value of

a) Solid fuel only

b) Gaseous fuels only

c) Solid as well as gaseous fuels

d) Solid as well as liquid fuels

49. Which one of the following gaseous fuels does not have different higher and lower calorific values?

a) Methane

b) Ethane

c) Carbon monoxide
d) Hydrogen

50. Induced draught fans of a large steam generator have

a) Backward curved blades

b) Forward curved blades

c) Straight or radial blades

d) Double curved blades

----------Key----------

1. (d)

2. (a)

3. (b)

4. (c)

5. (b)

6. (a)

7. (b)

8. (d)

9. (b)

10. (a)

11. (d)

12. (b)

13. (c)
14. (a)

15. (b)

16. (d)

17. (d)

18. (b)

19. (a)

20. (b)

21. (d)

22. (a)

23. (c)

24. (d)

25. (a)

26. (a)

27. (c)

28. (b)

29. (c)

30. (d)

31. (b)

32. (c)

33. (c)

34. (a)

35. (b)

36. (d)

37. (b)

38. (a)
39. (b)

40. (b)

41. (b)

42. (a)

43. (d)

44. (c)

45. (a)

46. (d)

47. (c)

48. (d)

49. (c)

50. (a)