Custom Practice Test - 18-Jan

Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Physics-Section-A 5. For a uniform rectangular sheet shown in the

figure, if IO and IO be moments of inertia
′

1. What is the maximum acceleration of a train about the axes perpendicular to the sheet and
that allows a box resting on its floor to remain passing through O (the centre of mass) and O′
stationary? (given that the coefficient of static (corner point), then:
friction between the box and the train's floor is
0.2, and the acceleration due to gravity is 10

ms-2)
1. zero
2. 1.0 ms-2
3. 2.0 ms-2
4. 4.0 ms-2

2. The angular speed of the wheel of a vehicle is

1. IO = IO ′

increased from 360 rpm to 1200 rpm in 14

2. IO < IO ′

seconds. Its angular acceleration will be:

2
3. IO > IO ′

1. 2π rad/s 4. can't say

2
2. 28π rad/s
2 6. When a projectile penetrates into a barrier,
3. 120π rad/s
2
its:
4. 1 rad/s Momentum is converted into kinetic energy
1.
and heat.
3. The angular momentum of a uniform solid Potential energy is converted into heat and
sphere of mass M , radius R rotating about a 2. kinetic energy.
diameter, with a surface speed v on its equator,
Momentum is converted into potential
is: 3.
energy and heat.
1 2
1. M Rv 2. M Rv 4. Kinetic energy is converted into heat.
2 3

2 2
3. M Rv 4. M Rv
5 7 7. A ball is spinning on a horizontal surface,
about the vertical axis passing through its
centre. Its angular velocity decreases from
4. If the potential energy of a gas molecule is 2π rad/s to π rad/s in 10 s. If the moment of
M N 2

U = − , M and N being positive inertia of the ball is 0.5 kg/m , the torque
r
6 12
r acting on the ball is:
constant, then the potential energy at π π
1. − 100 N-m 2. − 50 N-m
equilibrium must be: π π
1. zero 3. − 20 N-m 4. − 10 N-m
2
M
2.
4N
2
N
3.
4M
2
MN
4.
4

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 Custom Practice Test - 18-Jan
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

8. A uniform ladder of mass 10 kg is placed at 11. The 2 kg block (A) lies on a smooth
an angle against a frictionless vertical wall, as horizontal table and is connected by a light
shown in the figure, by applying a horizontal string passing over a smooth light pulley. The
force F at the bottom (B) of the ladder, string is connected to a second 2 kg block (B).
towards the wall. (Take g = 10 m/s2). The system is released from rest.
2
Take g = 10 m/s .

Assume that the ground is frictionless. The The tension in the connecting string is:
force F equals: 1. zero
1. 100√3 N 2. 50√3 N 2. 20 N
100 50 3. less than 20 N (non-zero)
3. N 4. N 4. greater than 20 N
√3 √3

12. Consider a system in which the work done

9. The toy car, after attaining a maximum
by external forces acting equals −10 Joules and
speed, skids to a stop on a rough section of the
the potential energy decreases by 30 Joules.
surface. Which of the following quantities must
Which of the following statements is true?
be measured in order to calculate the length of
this skid? There are definitely no "non-conservative"
1.
forces acting in this situation
I. The mass of the car
At least one of the forces in this situation is
The coefficient of kinetic friction between 2.
II. "conservative" in nature
the road and the wheels
Work done by the "internal" forces would be
III. The initial speed of the car 3.
−30 joules

Work done by the "internal" forces would be

Choose the correct option from the given ones: 4.
−40 joules
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II, and III

10. A solid cylindrical shaft of radius R and

mass M is rotating with angular speed ω. The
minimum time in which it can be brought to
rest by applying force F on it, is:
2F M ωR
1. M ωR
2. 2F

M ωR F
3. F
4. M ωR

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 Custom Practice Test - 18-Jan
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

13. A force of 54.4 N is applied on the free end 16. A simple pendulum consists of a bob of
of a string wrapped around a solid cylinder of mass m attached to a suspension point O by
mass 15 kg and radius 10 cm. What is the means of a light string of length l. It is set
angular acceleration of the cylinder? oscillating, as shown in the figure. The tension
in the string, when the bob is at its lowest point,
is (i.e. at B):

1. mg
1. 94.10 rad/s2 mg
2.
2. 72.5 rad/s2 2

3. 14.50 rad/s2 3. less than mg

4. 94.50 rad/s2 4. greater than mg

14. What is the minimum velocity with which a 17. A ball thrown vertically upward rises to a
body of mass m must enter a vertical loop of maximum height of 8 m, then falls down and
radius R so that it can complete the loop? rebounds to a height of 2 m. After the next
1. √2gR rebound, it will rise to:
1. 1 m
2. √3gR 2. 0.5 m
3. √5gR 3. 0.25 m
4. 0.125 m
4. √gR
18. An elevator is moving upward with uniform
15. The force of kinetic friction (Fk ) and that of
acceleration a = 4 m/s2, as shown in the
static friction (Fs ) are related by: (μs : diagram. What would be the tension at the mid-
coefficient of static friction) point of the wire AB, which has a length of
1. Fk = μs Fs 2. Fk ≤ Fs 1 m and mass 2 kg?

3. Fk ≥ Fs 4. Fk = Fs

1. 50 N

2. 60 N

3. 80 N

4. 70 N

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 Custom Practice Test - 18-Jan
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

19. An energy of 484 J is spent in increasing 21. A block of mass m is placed atop another
the speed of a flywheel from 60 rpm to block of mass M , and the combination is at rest
360 rpm. The moment of inertia of the on a smooth horizontal table. A force F1 is
flywheel is: applied to m and another force F2 is applied to
1. 0.7 kg-m
2
2. 3.22 kg-m
2
M , the two acting horizontally and in opposite

directions. Consider the following statements

3. 30.8 kg-m
2
4. 0.07 kg-m
2

about the acceleration (acm ) of the centre of

mass of the system).
(take right as positive)
20. Two bodies of mass, 4 kg and 6 kg, are tied
to the ends of a massless string. The string
passes over a pulley, which is frictionless (see
figure). The acceleration of the system in terms
of acceleration due to gravity (g) is:
F1 − F2
acm = , if there is no friction
(A) m + M
acting between m and M
F1 − F2
acm = , if there is static friction
(B) m + M
between m and M
F1 − F2
(C) acm = , in all situations
m + M

Choose the most appropriate option from the

given ones:
1. only (A) is True.
g g
2. only (B) is True.
1. 2.
2 5 3. (C) is True.
g 4. (A) and (B) are True but (C) is False.
3. 4. g
10
22. Two stars of masses m and 2m at a distance
d rotate about their common centre of mass in

free space. The distance of the centre of mass

from the heavier mass is:
d 2d
1. 2.
3 3

4d 5d
3. 4.
3 3

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 Custom Practice Test - 18-Jan
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

23. Given below are two statements: 25. A 1500 kg automobile collides with a wall in
If the weight of the lift is equal a particular crash test. The automobile's initial
to the tension force in the cable, velocity is v1 = 15 m/s, and its final velocity in
Assertion (A):
then it moves with uniform the opposite direction is v2 = 2.6 m/s. If the
velocity. collision lasts for 0.15 s, then the average force
If the lift moves downward with exerted on the automobile is:
an acceleration, the contact
Reason (R): force between the boy’s feet and
the lift floor is more than the
weight of the boy.

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the

1.
correct explanation of (A).
1. 2.6 × 10 N
4

Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2. 2.25 × 10 N
4
2.
correct explanation of (A).
3. 1.76 × 10 N
5

3. (A) is True but (R) is False.

4. 3.9 × 10 N
3

4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

26. A uniform solid sphere lying on a smooth
horizontal surface is acted upon by a horizontal
24. A constant force F is applied to the string so force, which is impulsive and transmits to it a
that the 3 kg block does not move, but the 5 kg momentum mv, where m is the mass of the
block moves horizontally. The acceleration of sphere (see figure). The angular velocity of the
the 5 kg block is: (take g = 10 m/s2) sphere is:

v 2v
1. 2.
r r

3 v 5 v
1. 6 m/s2 3. 4.
2. 3 m/s2
2 r 2 r

3. 1.5 m/s2
4. 1.2 m/s2 27. A small block (A) of mass 1 kg moving with
a velocity of 5 m/s, strikes a stationary block
(B) of mass 4 kg resting on a smooth
horizontal plane. The blocks A, B stick together
after the collision.
The loss in kinetic energy of the blocks in the
collision is:
1. 10 J 2. 20 J
3. 12.5 J 4. 15 J

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 Custom Practice Test - 18-Jan
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

28. A ball is
released with a velocity 30. The velocity of the bullet becomes one third
(2^
ı + 2^
ȷ ) m/s on the rectangular pool table after it penetrates 4 cm in a wooden block.
from the point (3, 0) m. All the collisions of the Assume that bullet is facing constant resistance
ball are elastic. during its motion in the block. The bullet stops
completely after travelling at (4 + x) cm inside
the block. The value of x is:
1. 2.0
2. 1.0
3. 0.5
4. 1.5

31. Which, of the following, is definitely a

conservative force?
1. normal reaction
2. kinetic friction
After the 4 collision with the edges of the
th

3. electrostatic force between point charges

board, the location and velocity of the ball will
be: 4. impulsive force
1. (3, 0) m and (2^
ı + 2^
ȷ ) m/s

2. (0, 2) m and (2^

ı − 2^
ȷ ) m/s
32. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate
3. (1, 0) m and (2^
ı + 2^
ȷ ) m/s of 15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to
4. (2, 2) m and (−2^
ı − 2^
ȷ ) m/s
frictional force are 10% of the input energy.
How much power is generated by the turbine?
2
(g = 10) m/s

29. A uniform rod AB of mass 1 kg and length 1. 12.3 kW 2. 7.0 kW

3 m is suspended from one end (A), so that it 3. 10.2 kW 4. 8.1 kW
can freely rotate about it. It is given an impulse
of 6 N-s horizontally at its lowest end B.
33. A raindrop of mass 0.2 g is falling with a
uniform velocity of 25 cm s-1. Its weight will be:
(g = 10 ms-2)
1. zero
2. 0.02 N
3. 0.002 N
4. 0.2 N

The moment of inertia of the rod AB, about A,

is:
2
1. 9 kg-m
9 2
2. kg-m
4
3 2
3. kg-m
4
2
4. 3 kg-m

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 Custom Practice Test - 18-Jan
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Physics-Section-B
34. A block of mass m is suspended by means of
a string, which passes over a massless pulley
and is connected to a second block of mass, 2m, 36. If a compressed spring stores 1700 ergs of
sitting on a smooth horizontal table as shown. potential energy and has a spring constant of
The system is released. The acceleration of the 200 dyne/cm, by how much is it compressed?
blocks (acceleration due to gravity is g) is: 1. 2.9 cm
2. 4.1 cm
3. 8.5 cm
4. 17 cm

37. When a particle of mass m moves

uniformly, with a speed v, in a circle of radius
R,

1. no net force acts on the particle

2
mv

2. a centripetal force must be acting on

g 2g
1. 2. R
3 3
the particle
g
3. 4. g mv
2

3. a centrifugal force R must act on the

2

particle
35. Given below are two statements: 4. no force is acting on the particle
Work done by all forces,
conservative or non-
Assertion (A): conservative, equals the change 38. Given below are two statements:
in the total energy of the On a rainy day, it is difficult to
system. Assertion (A): drive a car or a bus at a high
According to Newton's laws of speed.
motion, the acceleration of any The value of the coefficient of
particle of the system is due to Reason (R): friction is lowered when the
Reason (R):
all forces acting on it; and surface is wetted.
therefore the work done on it
by these is the total work done. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
1.
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
1. 2.
correct explanation of (A). correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
2.
correct explanation of (A). 4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

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 Custom Practice Test - 18-Jan
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

39. Given below are two statements: 42. Which graph best represents the
The centre-of-mass of a solid relationship between the magnitude of the
Assertion (A): upward acceleration of an elevator and the
body lies within the body.
The centre-of-mass of any two tension in the cable used to support and move
particles lies between them, on the elevator?
Reason (R):
the straight line segment joining
them.

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the 1. 2.

1.
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2.
correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
3. 4.

40. A block of mass 1.9 kg is at rest at the edge

of a table of height 1 m. A bullet of mass 0.1 kg
collides with the block and sticks to it. If the
velocity of the bullet is 20 m/s in the horizontal
direction just before the collision, then the 43. Given below are two statements:
kinetic energy just before the combined system The centre-of-mass of a system
strikes the floor is: of particles lying on a straight
Statement I:
2
(Take g = 10 m/s . Assume there is no line must lie between the two
rotational motion and loss of energy after the extreme particles.
collision is negligible.) The centre-of-mass of a system
1. 21 J of bodies moving with different
Statement II:
2. 23 J velocities, cannot be moving
3. 20 J with constant velocity.
4. 19 J
Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is
1.
correct.
41. A spring of stiffness k is compressed a Both Statement I and Statement II are
distance x, and a toy car is placed against it. If 2. correct.
the car has a mass m, which equation Both Statement I and Statement II are
represents the final speed of the car after the 3. incorrect.
spring is released to accelerate the car?
Statement I is correct and Statement II is
kx 2 4.
1. v = √
m
incorrect.
m
2. v = √ 2
kx

mx2
3. v = √
k

k
4. v = √
mx2

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 Custom Practice Test - 18-Jan
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

44. Two stones of masses m and 2m are 47. An observer, at origin, is observing a force
whirled in horizontal circles, the heavier one in acting on a body at (5, 4). If no angular
r
a radius 2 and the lighter one in a radius r. The acceleration is observed, then the force acting
tangential speed of lighter stone is n times that on the body can be:
of the value of heavier stone when they 1. 8^ ^
i + 10 j 2. 10^
i + 8j
^

experience the same centripetal forces. The

value of n is: 3. 8^ ^
i − 10 j 4. 10^
i − 8j
^

1. 3 2. 4

3. 1 4. 2
48. A massless string passes over a frictionless
pulley and carries two masses m1 and
m2 (m1 > m2 ) at its ends. If g is the
45. A block of mass m is released on the
inclined face of smooth wedge of equal mass acceleration due to gravity, then the thrust on
m, which lies on a smooth horizontal plane.
the pulley is:
The system is initially at rest. When the block
reaches the bottom of the wedge, and just
before it hits the plane, it has a horizontal
velocity component (w.r.t., ground) of v. The
velocity of the wedge is:

2m1 m2
1. ( m 1 −m2
)g

1. v 2. 2v 2m1 m2
2. ( m )g
v 1 +m2

3. 4. zero 4m1 m2
2 3. ( m 1 +m2
)g

4. zero
46. A spring is used to launch a toy car (mass
= m), on a smooth horizontal surface. Given
49. The angular speed of a flywheel moving
are the following quantities: with uniform angular acceleration changes
from 1200 rpm to 3120 rpm in 16 s. The
I. spring constant
angular acceleration in rad/s² is:
II. amount of spring compression 1. 104π
III. altitude of the surface 2. 2π
Which of the above three qualities are needed 3. 4π
to calculate the car's final speed? 4. 12π
1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II, and III

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 Custom Practice Test - 18-Jan
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

50. A ball is projected vertically up with an 54. An acidic buffer cannot be formed by which
initial velocity. Which of the following graphs of the following combinations is:
represents the kinetic energy, KE of the ball? 1. HClO4 and NaClO4
(where t is the time and h is the height ) 2. CH3 COOH and CH3 COONa
3. H2 CO3 and Na2 CO3
4. H3 PO4 and Na3 PO4
1. 2.
55. For the spontaneity of freezing of water,
which condition must be imposed?
1. ΔH > T ΔS
2. ΔH < T ΔS
3. 4. 3. ΔH = T ΔS
4. Freezing of water is always non-spontaneous

56.
The heat absorbed during the
isothermal expansion of an
Chemistry-Section-A Assertion (A):
ideal gas against a vacuum is
zero.
51. The molar solubility of CaF2 (Ksp = 5. 3 ×
The volume occupied by the
10
−11
) in 0.1 M solution of NaF will be: Reason (R): molecules of an ideal gas is
5. 3 × 10
−11
mol zero.
1. −1
2. 5. 3 × 10−8 mol L
−1

L
−10 Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
3. 5. 3 × 10−9 −1
4.
5. 3 × 10 mol 1.
mol L −1 correct explanation of (A).
L
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2.
correct explanation of (A).
52. Aqueous solution of which of the following 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
compounds is the best conductor of electric 4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
current?
1. Acetic acid, C2 H4 O2
2. Hydrochloric acid, HCl 57. In a 0.5 litre capacity vessel, CO and Cl2 are
3. Ammonia, NH3 mixed to form COCl2. At equilibrium, it contains
4. Fructose, C6 H12 O6 0.2 mole of COCl2 and 0.1 mole each of CO and
Cl2. The equilibrium constant (Kc) for the
following reaction is:
53. The amount of water in litres that must be
CO + Cl2 ⇌ COCl2
added to 1 litre of an aqueous solution of HCl
with a pH of 1 to create an aqueous solution 1. 15 2. 5
with pH of 2, is: 3. 20 4. 10
1. 2.0 L
2. 9.0 L
3. 0.1 L 58. The Kp for the reaction 2NOCl (g) ⇄ 2NO (g)
4. 0.9 L + Cl2 (g) is 0.027 atm at 673 K. The Kc for the
reverse reaction will be:
1. 1500.8 mol L-1
2. 2044.08 (mol L-1)-1
3. 2565.7 (mol L-1)-1
4. 2040.81 mol L-1

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 Custom Practice Test - 18-Jan
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

59. The reaction, among the following, that is 64. The values of Ksp of CaCO3 and CaC2O4 are
anticipated to have the highest change in 4.7 × 10–9 and 1.3 × 10–9 respectively at 25°C. If
entropy (∆S) is: the mixture of these two is washed with water,
1. Ca(S) + ½ O2(g) → CaO(S)
what is the concentration of Ca2+ ions in the
2. C(S) + O2(g) → CO2 (g) water?
3. N2(g) + O2(g) → 2NO(g) 1. 5.831 × 10–5 M
4. CaCO3(S) → CaO(S) + CO2(g) 2. 6.856 × 10–5 M
3. 3.606 × 10–5 M
60. Which of the following options correctly
4. 7.746 × 10–5 M
represents the relationship between
Cp and CV for one mole of an ideal gas?
65. Among the following, the correct statement
1. CP = RCV 2. CV = RCP about a chemical equilibrium is :
3. CP + CV = R 4. CP − CV = R
Equilibrium constant is independent of
1.
temperature.
61. The species, among the following, that act as Equilibrium constant tells us how fast the
both Brönsted acid and base is/are: 2.
reaction reaches equilibrium.
1. H2 P O− 2 At equilibrium, the forward and the
2. H P O3
2−
backward reactions stop so that the
3.
2− concentrations of reactants and products are
3. H P O4
constant.
4. All of the above
The value of equilibrium constant is
4. independent of initial concentrations of the
62. The conjugate base of hydrazoic acid is:
reactants and products.
−
1. 2. N
3

−
66. Given below are two statements:
3. N
2
4. N
3−
Statement According to Lewis's concept, H2O
I: acts as an amphoteric substance.
H2O act as an acid on reaction with
63. At standard conditions, the change in Statement
NH3, while it acts as a base on
enthalpy for the following reaction is –109 kJ II:
−1 reaction with H2S.
mol

H2(g) + Br2(g) → 2 HBr(g) In light of the above statements choose the

correct answer from the options given below:
Given that the bond energy of H 2 and Br 2 is
Both Statement I and Statement II are
and 192 kJ mol , respectively, 1. correct.
−1 −1
435 kJ mol
−1
what is the bond energy (in kJ mol ) of HBr? Both Statement I and Statement II are
1. 368 2.
incorrect.
2. 736
Statement I is correct and Statement II is
3. 518 3.
incorrect.
4. 259
Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is
4.
correct.

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 Custom Practice Test - 18-Jan
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

67. At 60°C, dinitrogen tetroxide is 50 percent 72. The enthalpies of combustion of carbon and
dissociated. The standard free energy change at carbon monoxide are -393.5 and -283 kJ mol-1
this temperature will be: respectively. The enthalpy of the formation of
1. -863.8 kJmol-1 carbon monoxide per mole is:
2. -652.7 kJmol-1 1. 110.5 kJ
3. -763.8 kJmol-1 2. 676.5 kJ
3. -676.5 kJ
4. -789.9 kJmol-1
4. -110.5 kJ
68. The maximum work done in expanding 16 g
73. The value of the equilibrium constant for a
of oxygen at 300 K and occupying a volume of 5
particular reaction is 1.6 × 1012. When the
dm3 isothermally until the volume becomes 25
system is in equilibrium, it will include:
dm3 is: 1. All reactants
1. -2.01 x 103 J 2. Mostly reactants
2. 2.81 x 103 J 3. Mostly products
3. 2.01 x 10-3 J 4. Similar amounts of reactants and products
4. -2.01 x 10-6 J
74. The standard Gibbs energy change at 300 K
69. The standard enthalpy of vaporization for the reaction 2A ⇌ B + C is 2494.2 J. At a
o -1 given time, the composition of the reaction
Δvap H for water at 100 C is 40.66 kJ mol .
o
1 1
mixture is [A]= 2 , [B]= 2 and [C]= 2 . The
The internal energy of vaporization of water at
100 oC (in kJ mol-1) is: reaction proceeds in the:[assume R=8.314
-1
(Assume water vapour behaves like an ideal J/K/mol; e = 0.37]
gas.) 1. Forward direction because Q > KC
1. +37.56 2. Reverse direction because Q > KC
2. -43.76
3. +43.76 3. Forward direction because Q < KC
4. +40.66 4. Reverse direction because Q < KC

70. The strongest Bronsted base among the

following ions is: 75. At 1990 K and 1 atm pressure, there are an
1. CH3O- equal number of Cl2 molecules and Cl atoms in
2. (CH3)2CHO - the reaction mixture.
The value of KP for the reaction
3. C2H5O-
Cl2( g) ⇌ 2 Cl(g) under the above conditions is
4. (CH3)3CO-
x × 10–1. The value of x is:
71. Buffer solutions have constant acidity and 1. 4
alkalinity because: 2. 8
3. 5
4. 10
these give unionized acid or base on reaction
1.
with added acid or alkali.
76. Extensive properties, among the following,
acid and alkali in these solutions are are:
2.
shielded from attack by other ions
1. Boiling point 2. Molar entropy
3. they have large excess of H+ or OH- ions 3. pH 4. Internal energy
4. they have fixed value of pH

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 Custom Practice Test - 18-Jan
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

77. The correct statement(s) among the 81. Among the following reactions, which
following is/are: reaction will exhibit the greatest positive
The equilibrium constant is independent entropy change:
(I)
of the initial concentration 1. 2NO(g) + O2 (g) → 2NO2 (g)
(II) K >1 implies a spontaneous reaction 2. 2HCl(aq) + Mg(s) → MgCl2 (aq) + H2 (g)
For homogeneous equilibrium, always 3. 2H2 O(g) + Br2 (g) + SO2 (g) → 2HBr(g) + H2 SO4
(III)
KP = KC − −
4. 2I (aq) + Cl2 (g) → I2 (s) + 2Cl (aq)
1. (I) only
2. (II) and (III) only
3. (I) and (II) only
4. (I), (II) and (III) 82. Which of the following equation represents
a reaction that provides the enthalpy of the
78. The solubility product of Pbl2 is 8.0 × 10–9 . formation of CH3Cl?
The solubility of lead iodide in 0.1 molar 1. C(s) + HCl(g) + H2 (g) ⟶ CH3 Cl(g)
solution of lead nitrate is x × 10–6 mol/L. The 2. C(s) + 3H(g) + Cl(g) ⟶ CH3 Cl(g)
value of x is: 3. C(s) + 3/2H2 (g) + 1/2Cl2 (g) ⟶ CH3 Cl(g)
(Rounded off to the nearest integer) 4. CH (g) + Cl (g) ⟶ CH Cl(g) + HCl(g)
4 2 3
[Given: √2 = 1.41 ]

1. 154
2. 423 83. For a particular reversible reaction at
3. 282 temperature T, ∆H and ∆S were found to be
4. 141 both +ve. If Te is the temperature at
equilibrium, the reaction would be
79. Given the Gibbs free energy change,
∘ spontaneous when:
ΔG = +63.3 kJ, for the following reaction,
+ 2−
1. T = Te
Ag2 CO3 (s) → 2Ag (aq) + CO (aq)
3 2. Te > T
Ksp of Ag2 CO3 (s) in water at 25º C is: 3. T > Te
(R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1) 4. Te is 5 times T
1. 3.2 × 10
26

2. 8.0 × 10
−12
84. Given the following reaction:
3. 2.9 × 10
−3
H2 (g) + Br2 (g) → 2 HBr(g)

4. 7.9 × 10
−2
Bond energy of H2 , Br2 and HBr is
−1 −1
435 kJ mol ,
192 kJ mol and
80. Which of the following pairs is incorrect? 368 kJ mol respectively. The enthalpy
−1

change for the above reaction will be:

A B 1.Δr H⊝ = −109 kJ mol
−1

1. Snowfall Exothermic process 2. Δr H⊝ = −262 kJ mol

−1

Expansion of an ideal −1
3. Δr H⊝ = +109 kJ mol
2. gas at constant ΔU = 0 −1

temperature 4. Δr H⊝ = −129 kJ mol

3. State of equilibrium ΔGT ,P = 0

Entropy change of a
Third law of
4. reaction at
thermodynamics
0 K is equal to zero

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85. For which of the following equations, 89. A certain reversible reaction comes to
ΔH > ΔE ? equilibrium with high concentration of
1. N2 (g) + 3H2 ( g) ⟶ 2NH3 (g) products and low concentration of reactants. Of
1
the following, which is the most likely value of
2. H2 (g) + O2 ( g) ⟶ H2 O(l)
2 the equilibrium constant for this reaction?
3. PCl5 (g) → PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) 1. Keq = –1 × 10−5 2. Keq = 1 × 10−5
3. Keq = 1 4. Keq = 1 × 10
5
4. H2 ( g) + I2 ( g) → 2HI(g)

Chemistry-Section-B 90.
86. The nature of an aqueous solution of There is no effect on equilibrium
NaHCO₃ is: Assertion constant if inert gas is added to the
1. Acidic (A): reaction
2. Alkaline A(g) + B(g) ⇌ C(g)
3. Slightly alkaline
Reason Equilibrium constant changes only
4. Slightly acidic
(R): with temperature.
87. Given below are two statements:
In light of the above statements choose answer
Statement Thermodynamic properties are
from the options given below:
I: macroscopic in nature.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
When a gas expands into a 1.
Statement correct explanation of (A).
vacuum, the work done by it is
II: Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
zero. 2.
correct explanation of (A).
Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is 3. (A) is True but (R) is False
1. 4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
correct.
Both Statement I and Statement II are
2.
correct.
91. An invalid equation among the following is:
Both Statement I and Statement II are
3. 1. ΔH = ΣHproducts − ΣHreactants
incorrect.
2. ΔH = ΔU + P ΔV
Statement I is correct and Statement II is
4. 3.
incorrect. o o o
ΔH = ΔH − ΔH
(reaction) (products bonds) (reactant bonds)

4. ΔH = ΔU + ΔnRT

88. For the reaction,

N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) ⇌ 2N H3 (g) , on adding inert 92. The correct expression for the following
gas at constant volume, equilibrium: reaction is:
3
Fe2N(s) + 2 H2(g) ⇋ 2Fe(s) + NH3(g)
1. shifts in the forward reaction 1. Kc = Kp (RT)
2. shifts in backward reaction 2. Kc = Kp (RT)
−3/2

3. remains unaffected −1/2

3. Kc = Kp (RT)
Initially in the forward direction and then in
4. 4. Kc = Kp (RT)
1/2
the backward direction

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93. For a chemical reaction, 98. Given the reaction:

CO(g) + 3H2 ( g) ⇌ CH4 ( g) + H2 O(g) A + B → C + D − q cal. is found to have a
At equilibrium, the following factor influence positive entropy change. The reaction will be:
the quantity of product formed: 1. Possible at high temperature.
1. Temperature 2. Possible only at low temperatures.
2. Pressure 3. Not possible at any temperature.
3. Temperature and pressure
4. Possible at any temperature.
4. Temperature, pressure and catalyst

94. The conjugate base of H2 P O− is:

4
99. Match the following reactions in Column-I
1. P O3−
4 to the correct enthalpy associated with them
2. P2 O5 given in Column-II:
3. H3 P O4 Column-I Column-II
4. H P O2−
4
A. I.
15 ∘
C6 H6 (l) + O2 → 6CO2 (g) + 3H2 O(l) Δlattice H
2
95. The ionization constant of ammonia is 1.77
II.
× 10–5. The pH of a 0.05M of ammonia solution B. N aCl(s) → N a (g) + Cl (g)
+ −
∘
Δhyd H
is 11. The ionization constant of the conjugate
acid of ammonia is: C. AB(s) → A+ (aq) + B− (aq) III. Δc H ∘
1. 2.44 × 10–9 D. A+ (g) + B− (g) → A+ (aq) + B− (aq)
IV.
∘
2. 6.14 × 10 –12 Δsol H

3. 1.24 × 10–14
Choose the correct option from the following:
4. 5.64 × 10–10
1. A - (III); B - (I); C - (IV); D - (II)
2. A - (III); B - (I); C - (II); D - (IV)
96. Given below are two statements: one is
3. A - (II); B - (I); C - (IV); D - (III)
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
4. A - (III); B - (II); C - (I); D - (IV)
labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion Pressure is an intensive 100. The reaction of cyanamide, NH2CN(s)
(A): property.
with oxygen was run in a bomb calorimeter
Volume is an extensive
Reason (R): and ΔU was found to be –742.24 kJ mol–1.
property.
The magnitude of ΔH298 (KJ) for the reaction
In the light of the above statements choose the 3

correct answer from the options given below: NH2CN(s) + 2 O2(g) → N2(g) + O2(g) + H2O(l) is-
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the [Assume ideal gases and
1. −1 −1
correct explanation of (A). R = 8.314 J mol K ]
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the 1. 741 KJ
2. 2. 745 KJ
correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. 3. 720 KJ
4. 734 KJ
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

97. At equilibrium, which of the following is

Biology-I-Section-A
101. Which of the following angiosperms has an
always zero?
actinomorphic flower?
1. ΔGsystem 2. ΔST otal 1. Pea
3. ΔS system 4. Both (1) and (2) 2. Cassia
3. Canna
4. Mustard

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102. Colocasia represents an example of 107. The zone of elongation at the root tip is:
1. Underground modified root proximal to meristematic zone and
2. Underground modified fruit 1.
maturation zone
3. Underground modified stem distal to meristematic zone and maturation
4. Modified adventitious root 2.
zone
proximal to meristematic zone and distal to
103. In Dianthus or Primrose, the ovule is: 3.
maturation zone
borne on a ridge along the ventral suture of
1. distal to meristematic zone and proximal to
the ovary 4.
maturation zone
attached to axial placenta in a multilocular
2.
ovary
3. borne on central axis and septa are absent
108. Regarding regions of roots in angiosperms
single and attached to placenta at the base ofthe apex is covered by a thimble-like
4. I:
the ovary structure called the root cap
cells of the region of meristematic activity
II:
divide repeatedly
104. Asexual reproduction can take place in
Root hairs are found in the region of
some fungi with the help of spores called: III:
elongation
1. conidia
1. Only I and II are correct
2. oospores
2. Only I and III are correct
3. ascospores
3. Only II and III are correct
4. basidiospores
4. I, II, and III are correct
105. Identify the option where the features are
109. The cyanobacteria are also referred to as:
correctly matched to types with respect to
1. Protists
mustard:
2. golden algae
Flower Ovary
Androecium Gynoecium 3. Slime molds
symmetry position
4. Blue-green algae
Variable
length
Parietal 110. The tap roots of ______ get modified to store
1. Zygomorphic Inferior stamens food.
placentation
within a 1. Carrot 2. Onion
flower
3. Ginger 4. Sweet potato
Marginal
2. Zygomorphic Inferior Polyadelphous
placentation
Axile 111. Stem tendrils are not seen in:
3. Actinomorphic Superior Polyadelphous
placentation
1. Grapevine
Variable 2. Watermelon
length
Parietal 3. Citrus
4. Actinomorphic Superior stamens 4. Cucumber
placentation
within a
flower

106. Axile placentation is observed in:

1. China rose, Petunia and Lemon
2. Mustard, Cucumber and Primrose
3. China rose, Beans and Lupin
4. Tomato, Dianthus and Pea

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112. Consider the given statements: 117. Amongst the given statements, the number
In flowers of guava and cucumber, the of correct statements regarding viruses will be:
I:
flower is epigynous and the ovary is inferior Viruses are inert outside their specific host
I:
In flowers of mustard, the flower is cell.
II:
hypogynous and the ovary is superior II: Viruses are obligate parasites.
1. Only I is correct III: All viruses contain both RNA and DNA.
2. Only II is correct IV: A virus is a nucleoprotein.
3. Both I and II are correct V: Viruses are smaller than bacteria.
4. Both I and II are incorrect

113. Study the Assertion statement followed by 1. 2 2. 3

the Reason statement given below: 3. 4 4. 5
Diatoms have left behind large
Assertion (A): amount of cell wall deposits in
their habitat. 118. Various morphological features are used to
Diatoms are the chief describe a flowering plant. The plant is
Reason (R): described, beginning with the description of its:
‘producers’ in the oceans.
roots, stem and
1. habit 2.
leaves
1. (A) is True; (R) is False.
3. inflorescence 4. flower parts
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly
2.
explains (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) does
3. 119. In the five kingdom classification, the
not correctly explain (A).
members of Kingdom Animalia:
4. (A) is False; (R) is True. I: are all heterotrophs
are all multicellular where cells lack a cell
II:
wall
114. Which of the following is not a fungus?
1. Causative agent of white spots on mustard 1. Only I is correct
2. Source of penicillin 2. Only II is correct
3. Wheat-rust causing organism 3. Both I and II are correct
4. Causative agent of citrus canker 4. Both I and II are incorrect

115. How many organisms in the list given

below are autotrophs?
Lactobacillus, Nostoc, Chara, Nitrosomonas, 120. Earlier classification systems included
Nitrobacter, Streptomyces, Sacharomyces, bacteria, blue green algae and fungi under
Trypanosoma, Porphyra, Wolfia ‘plants’. The problem with this inclusion was:
1. Five Bacteria and blue green algae have
2. Six I: prokaryotic cell organization unlike other
3. Three members included in ‘plants’.
4. Four
Fungi and many bacteria are heterotrophic
II: unlike autotrophic members included in
116. Ray florets have:
‘plants’.
1. Superior ovary 2. Hypogynous ovary
3. Half-inferior ovary 4. Inferior ovary 1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

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121. Plasmodium, the malarial parasite, is a: 125. Consider the two statements:
1. Slime mould Viruses are obligate cellular
2. Sporozoan Statement I:
endoparasites.
3. Extremophile Once they infect a cell they take
4. Dinoflagellate over the machinery of the host
Statement II:
cell to replicate themselves,
122. Match each item in Column I with one in killing the host.
Column II and select the correct match from the 1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is
codes given: correct
Group of 2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is
Example
protozoans incorrect
A. Amoeboid P. Entamoeba 3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
B. Flagellated Q. Paramecium correct
C. Ciliated R. Trypanosoma 4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
D. Sporozoan S. Plasmodium incorrect
Codes:
126. Roots are modified in some plants for
A B C D storing reserve food materials. These modified
1. Q S P R roots usually are swollen and assume different
2. S Q R P forms. Which of the following such roots does
3. P R Q S not have any definite shape?
4. R P S Q 1. radish
2. beet
3. carrot
123. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, 4. sweet potato
spores are produced exogenously in?
127. Which of the following is/are a correct
1. Neurospora 2. Alternaria
match?
3. Agaricus 4. Saccharomyces
Fabaceae Solanaceae
Monocarpellary
I. Ovary Inferior
unilocular
124. Gonyaulax is:
II. Fruit Endospermous Non-endospermic
a heterotrophic bacteria pathogenic to cereal
1.
crops
1. Only I
2. a dinoflagellate responsible for red tides
2. Only II
3. a free living nematode 3. Both I and II
4. a thermophilic archaebacterium 4. Neither I nor II

128. A pericarp seen in fruits of angiosperms is

derived from:
1. integuments 2. endosperm
3. ovule wall 4. ovary wall

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129. In which of the following class of fungi, sex 134. Match each item in Column I with one in
organs are absent and plasmogamy is brought Column II and select the correct match from the
about by fusion of two vegetative or somatic codes given:
cells of different strains or genotypes? Column I Column II
1. Ascomycetes 2. Phycomycetes [Phyllotaxy] [Example]
3. Basidiomycetes 4. Deuteromycetes A. Alternate P. Alstonia
B. Opposite Q. Calotropis and Guava
China rose, Mustard and
130. Cr-Jacob disease (CJD) in humans is caused C. Whorled R.
Sunflower
by: Codes:
1. Prions
A B C
2. Viroids
3. Virus 1. P Q R
4. Lichens 2. P R Q
3. R Q P
131. Two flagella are seen in: 4. Q P R
I. most dinoflagellates
II. euglenoids
135. In a cymose inflorescence, the main axis:
1. Only I
2. Only II 1. has unlimited growth
3. Both I and II 2. bears a solitary flower
4. Neither I nor II has unlimited growth but lateral branches
3.
end in flowers
132. Abnormally folded infectious proteins can,
4. terminates in a flower
in humans, cause:
1. Mad cow disease
2. Scrapie
3. Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease
4. MERS
Biology-I-Section-B
136. 'Pericarp’ is a derivative of which of the
133. Mark the mis-matched pair following structures?
1. Chilli - Actinomorphic flower 1. integuments
2. Thalamus - Swollen end of the pedicel 2. endosperm
3. Cassia - Bilateral symmetry in flower 3. ovule wall
4. Canna - Zygomorphic flower 4. ovary wall

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137. Consider the two statements: 139. Coenocytic hyphae:

When a flower has both are continuous tubes filled with
I.
Statement I: androecium and gynoecium, it is multinucleated cytoplasm.
dioecious. II. have septae or cross walls.
Androecium and gynoecium are
Statement II:
accessory organs of a flower. 1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
1. Only Statement I is correct 3. Both I and II are correct
2. Only Statement II is correct 4. Both I and II are incorrect
Both Statement I and Statement II are
3. 140. Hyphae, that are continuous tubes filled
correct
with multinucleated cytoplasm, are seen in the
Both Statement I and Statement II are members of:
4.
incorrect 1. Ascomycetes
2. Phycomycetes
3. Deuteromycetes
138. Study the given diagram and select the 4. Basidiomycetes
correct statements:
141. The blood film shows the flagellated
organism responsible for causing African
sleeping sickness in humans. Name the
organism:

A is micropyle through which

Statement I: the pollen tube had entered into
the embryo sac. 1. Clonorchis sinensis
B is hilum through which the 2. Brugia malayi
Statement II: developing seeds were attached 3. Trypanosoma brucei
to the fruit. 4. Ancylostoma duodenale

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is

correct
2. Statement Iis correct; Statement II is
incorrect
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
incorrect

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142. Regarding the bacteria shown in the given 146. Consider the given two statements:
figure: Dueteromycetes are known as
Assertion (A):
imperfect fungi.
Only their asexual and
Reason (R):
vegetative phases are known.

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) explains

1.
A is a bacillus and an example is a (A)
I: bacterium that adds cyanocobalamin to Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) does not
2.
curd during fermentation. explain (A)
B is a coccus and an example of bacterium 3. (A) is True but (R) is False
II:
that was used by Griffith in his experiments. 4. (A) is False but (R) is True
1. I is correct; II is incorrect
2. I is correct; II is correct
3. I is incorrect; II is incorrect 147. Mark true (T) or false (F) for the given
4. I is incorrect; II is correct statements:
Tap root of sweet potato and
143. Identify the incorrect statement/s: adventitious roots of carrot,
Statement I:
Stamens are epipetalous in the turnip get swollen and store
Statement I:
flowers of lily. food.
Statement Diadelphous stamen are seen in Prop roots are hanging and
II: citrus. Statement II: supporting structures in a
Statement A sterile stamen is called as banyan tree.
III: staminate. Stilt root arising from the
uppermost nodes in stems of
Statement III:
1. Only Statement I and Statement II maize and sugarcane are also
2. Only Statement III supporting roots.
Statement I, Statement II and Statement Pneumatophores help plants
3. like Rhizophora growing in
III Statement IV:
swampy areas to get oxygen for
4. Only Statement I and Statement III
respiration.

144. Vegetables such as cabbage, broccoli, I II III IV

cauliflower, kale, Brussels sprouts belong to the 1. T T F F
family: 2. F T F T
1. Gramineae 3. T F T F
2. Malvaceae 4. F F T T
3. Cruciferae
4. Leguminosae

145. In plants such as bean, gram and pea, the

endosperm is:
1. haploid.
2. formed by free nuclear divisions only.
3. not formed as a result of double fertilisation.
4. not present in mature seeds.

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Biology-II-Section-A
148. A bacteria with the given shape will be
called as a:
151. An enzyme complex required to initiate
the process of coagulation or clotting in
response to an injury or trauma is:
1. Plasmin
2. Fibrinolysis
3. Thrombokinase
1. Bacillus 2. Coccus 4. Streptokinase
3. Spirillum 4. Vibrios
152. Consider the two statements:
Open circulatory system is
considered to be more
149. Identify the correct statements amongst Assertion (A):
advantageous than the closed
the following:
circulatory system.
When a shoot tip transforms into a flower,
I: Open circulatory system is
it is always solitary
present in arthropods and
In racemose inflorescence, the main axis Reason (R):
molluscs, two of the most
II: continues to grow and flowers are borne in successful animal phyla.
basipetal order
In cymose inflorescence, the main axis
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly
III: terminates in a flower and flowers are 1.
explains (A).
borne in basipetal order
2. (A) is True but (R) is False.
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not
1. Only I 2. Only I and II 3.
correctly explain (A).
3. Only I and III 4. Only II and III
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

150. Match each item in Column I with one in

153. Given below are two statements:
Column II and select the correct match from the
codes given: Normal expiration is a passive
Assertion (A):
process.
Column I Column II
Expiration occurs due to
A Phycomycetes P Ustilago and Puccinia
Reason (R): relaxation of diaphragm and
Alternaria and external intercostal muscles.
B Ascomycetes Q
Trichoderma
C Basidiomycetes R Rhizopus and Albugo
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
Aspergillus and 1.
D Deuteromycetes S correct explanation of (A).
Neurospora
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
Codes: 2.
correct explanation of (A).
A B C D 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
1. R S P Q 4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
2. R S Q P
3. S R P Q
4. S R Q P 154. What type of epithelium lines the proximal
convoluted tubules of a human nephron?
1. Simple squamous
2. Simple cuboidal brush bordered
3. Simple columnar brush bordered
4. Simple columnar ciliated

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155. Match the items given in Column I with 157. ADH:

those in Column II and select the correct option is released when an excessive loss of fluid
given below: I: from the body activates osmoreceptors in
Column I Column II the body.
Accumulation of uric prevents dieresis by facilitating water
a. Glycosuria i.
acid in joints II: reabsorption from the initial and proximal
Mass of crystallized parts of the tubules.
b. Gout ii. salts within the 1. Only I is correct
kidney 2. Only II is correct
Inflammation in 3. Both I and II are correct
c. Renal calculi iii. 4. Both I and II are incorrect
glomeruli
Presence of glucose
d. Glomerulonephritis iv. 158. Identify the incorrect statement regarding
in urine
antidiuretic hormone (ADH):
Options: It is synthesized by the neurons of the
1. hypothalamus and stored and released from
a b c d the neurohypophysis.
1. iii ii iv i It binds to receptors on the collecting duct
2. i ii iii iv 2. cells and activates a cAMP second messenger
system.
3. ii iii i iv
It is released during body dehydration
4. iv i ii iii 3.
conditions and acts on the collecting duct.
ADH is released when osmoreceptors in the
156. Regarding ABO grouping: 4. hypothalamus sense a decrease in the blood
osmolality.
the blood type is decided by the presence or
a. absence of two surface antibodies on the
RBCs namely anti-A and anti-B.
159. Consider the two statements:
the plasma of different individuals contain
b. Expiratory Capacity is the total
two natural antigens. Statement
volume of air a person can expire
a person with blood group A can receive I:
after a normal inspiration.
c. blood either from a person with blood group
Functional Residual Capacity is the
O or from a person with blood group AB.
Statement volume of air that will remain in
a person with blood group A can donate II: the lungs after a forceful maximal
d. blood either to a person with blood group O expiration.
or to a person with blood group A.
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is
1. only a and b are correct correct
2. only c and d are correct 2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is
3. a, b, c, and d are correct incorrect
4. a, b, c, and d are incorrect 3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
incorrect

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160. Presence of which of the following 164. Urine formation involves three main
conditions in urine is indicative of Diabetes processes, including all of the following, except:
mellitus: 1. Glomerular filtration
1. Uremia and Renal Calculi 2. Reabsorption
2. Ketonuria and Glycosuria 3. Tubular secretion
3. Renal Calculi and Hyperglycaemia 4. Synthesis of urea by JG cells
4. Uremia and Ketonuria
165. Consider the given two statements:
161. Consider the two statements: ABO grouping is based on the
The human heart is called as Statement presence or absence of three
Assertion (A):
myogenic. I: surface antigens on the RBCs
The human heart is made up of namely A, B and O.
Reason (R):
cardiac muscles. Rh grouping is based on the
Statement
presence or absence of the type of
II:
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly antibody present in the plasma.
1.
explains (A).
2. (A) is True but (R) is False. Statement I is correct; Statement II is
1.
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correct
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
correctly explain (A). 2.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True. incorrect
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
3.
correct
162. During cardiac cycle: Statement I is correct; Statement II is
4.
all the four chambers of heart can never be incorrect
1.
in a relaxed state simultaneously.
as the tricuspid valve gets open, blood from
2. the pulmonary artery flows into the right 166. Identify the correct statements regarding
ventricle. nephrons in human kidney:
all the four chambers of heart can never be There are nearly one million nephrons in
3. I:
in a contracted state simultaneously. each kidney.
as the bicuspid valve gets open, blood from The Malpighian corpuscle, PCT and DCT of
4. II: the nephron are located in the renal
the aorta flows into the left ventricle.
medulla.
1. Only I
163. A chemosensitive area is situated adjacent 2. Only II
to the rhythm centre which is highly sensitive 3. Both I and II
to: 4. Neither I nor II
I: CO2
II: O2
III: hydrogen ions
1. Only I and II
2. Only I and III
3. Only II and III
4. I, II and III

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167. Consider the two statements: 170. Consider the given two statements:
Carbon dioxide (CO2) diffuses Assertion (A): ADH prevents diuresis.
Assertion (A): faster than oxygen (O2) across ADH facilitates water
the respiratory membrane. Reason (R): reabsorption from the latter
CO2 is 20–25 times more soluble parts of the tubule.
Reason (R): in blood and alveolar fluids
than O2. 1. (A) is True but (R) is False.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly
2.
explains (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not
1. 3. (A) is False but (R) is True.
correctly explain (A).
2. (A) is True but (R) is False. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not
4.
correctly explain (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly
3.
explains (A).
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
171. In haemodialysis, the cleared blood is
pumped back to the body:
1. through a vein after adding heparin
168. Identify the correct statements: 2. through a vein after adding anti-heparin
I: Humans have a closed circulatory system. 3. through an artery after adding heparin
Arthropods have an open circulatory 4. through an artery after adding anti-heparin
II:
system.
172. Identify the incorrect statement regarding
1. Only I respiratory organs:
2. Only II Lower invertebrates like sponges,
3. Both I and II coelenterates, flatworms, etc., exchange O2
4. Neither I nor II 1. with CO2 by
simple diffusion over their entire body
169. In tissues:
surface.
a. pCO2 is high and pO2 is low Earthworms use their moist cuticle as
dissociation of CO2 from carbamino- 2.
respiratory surface.
b.
haemoglobin takes place Insects have a network of tubes (tracheal
c. pCO2 is low and pO2 is high 3. tubes) to transport atmospheric air within
more binding of carbon dioxide to the body.
d. All vertebrates use lungs as respiratory
haemoglobin occurs 4.
1. a and b are correct organs.
2. a and d are correct
3. b and c are correct
4. c and d are correct 173. In a cardiac cycle, joint diastole state
correctly means:
1. only the two atria are in a relaxed state
2. only the two ventricles are in a relaxed state
3. ventricles and atria are in a relaxed state
4. only the left atrium and the left ventricle are
in a relaxed state

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 Custom Practice Test - 18-Jan
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

174. At 40 mm Hg partial pressure of oxygen, 178. Which of the following recording of the
the percentage saturation of haemoglobin with blood pressure in a human adult will not be
oxygen is expected to be about: considered as abnormal?
1. 50 % 1. 120/100 mm Hg
2. 75 % 2. 110/70 mm Hg
3. 95 % 3. 170/80 mm Hg
4. 99 % 4. 150/95 mm Hg

175. The lungs are covered by the pleural 179. Potassium ions:
membranes which mainly help in: I: are filtered at the glomerulus
1. maintaining pressure II: are reabsorbed at the PCT
2. increasing thoracic pressure
III: are secreted at DCT
3. removing foreign particles
Correct statements are:
4. reducing friction
1. I & II only 2. I & III only
176. 3. II & III only 4. I, II & III
Steroids are very important in
Assertion(A): the management of bronchial
asthma. 180. The inter-atrial septum in the human heart
Bronchial asthma is an can be best described as:
Reason(R): A thin muscular A thick muscular
inflammatory disorder. 1. 2.
wall wall
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the 3. A thin fibrous tissue 4. A thick fibrous tissue
1.
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2. 181. A person with type O blood group can
correct explanation of (A).
receive blood from a person with:
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
1. type A and type B blood group
4. (A) is False and (R) is True.
2. type A, type B and type O blood group
3. type O blood group only
177. Given below are two statements: 4. type AB blood group only
Filtrate gets diluted as it moves
Assertion (A): upwards in ascending limb of
loop of Henle 182. Under normal physiological conditions
Ascending limb is impermeable every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers:
to water but allows transport of 1. approximately 4 ml of CO2 to the alveoli.
Reason (R): 2. approximately 5 ml of CO2 to the alveoli.
electrolytes actively or
passively 3. approximately 4 ml of CO2 to the tissues.
4. approximately 5 ml of CO2 to the tissues.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
1.
correct explanation of (A). 183. The maximum amount of water from the
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in the
2. nephron by:
correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. 1. Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT)
2. Distal Convoluted Tubule (DCT)
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
3. Loop of Henle – ascending limb
4. Loop of Henle – descending limb

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 Custom Practice Test - 18-Jan
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

184. The efficiency of a respiratory system is 188. A comparison of the volume of the filtrate
enhanced by all the following except: formed per day with that of the urine released
increasing the surface area available for suggests that nearly:
1.
diffusion of gases 20% of the cardiac output is received by the
1.
decreasing the distance over which the kidneys.
2.
gases must diffuse 20% of the renal plasma flow is filtered at
2.
increasing the concentration differences of the glomerulus.
3.
gases inside and outside the system 99% of the filtrate has to be reabsorbed by
3.
drying the system out so the gases do not the renal tubules.
4.
have to diffuse through water 4. 3% of the filtrate gets converted into urine.

185. What is the type of antibody found in the 189. The chamber of the human heart with the
plasma of a person whose RBCs have type B thickest musculature is the:
antigen on the surface? 1. Right atrium 2. Right ventricle
1. anti-A 3. Left atrium 4. Left ventricle
2. anti-B
3. both anti-A and anti-B
4. neither anti-A nor anti-B 190. Select the incorrect statement:
Expiration occurs due to contraction of
Biology-II-Section-B 1.
internal intercostal muscles.
Intrapulmonary pressure is lower than
186. Consider the given two statements: 2.
atmospheric pressure during inspiration.
An increase in pulmonary
Assertion (A): The contraction of diaphragm increases the
volume will cause inspiration.
3. volume of the thoracic chamber in dorso-
An increase in pulmonary
ventral axis.
volume increases the intra-
Reason (R): Inspiration is initiated due to the contraction
pulmonary pressure to more 4.
than the atmospheric pressure. of the diaphragm.

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly

1. 191. Identify the correct descending order
explains (A).
[begin with maximum value] of the partial
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not pressure of oxygen at different parts involved
2.
correctly explain (A). in diffusion in comparison to those in the
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. atmosphere:
4. (A) is False but (R) is True. Atmosphere – Alveoli – Oxygenated blood –
1.
Tissues
Alveoli - Atmosphere – Oxygenated blood –
187. The electrical event represented by P wave 2. Tissues
in an ECG leads to: Atmosphere – Oxygenated blood – Alveoli –
1. the contraction of both the atria 3.
Tissues
2. the contraction of both the ventricles Tissues – Alveoli – Deoxygenated blood –
4.
3. the relaxation of both the atria Oxygenated blood
4. the relaxation of both the ventricles

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 Custom Practice Test - 18-Jan
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

192. Identify the incorrect statement: 196. O2 and CO2 are exchanged by simple
Mollusks and arthropods have closed diffusion:
1.
circulatory system I: at alveoli
All vertebrates possess a muscular II: between blood and tissues
2.
chambered heart
In fishes, the heart pumps out deoxygenated 1. Only I is correct
3.
blood 2. Only II is correct
The left atrium receives oxygenated blood in 3. Both I and II are correct
4.
amphibians and reptiles 4. Both I and II are incorrect

193. In a healthy adult human being, on an 197. What is correct regarding the atrial
average: natriuretic factor?
It causes vasodilation and reduces blood
1.
about 25 – 30 mg of urea is excreted out per pressure
1.
day It acts on the atrial wall of our heart and
2.
2. 125 ml per minute urine is produced reduces cardiac output
about 200 L carbon dioxide is removed by It stimulates angiotensin leading to
3. 3.
the lungs per minute vasoconstriction
1100-1200 ml of blood is filtered by the It acts on the distal tubule and lead to
4. 4.
kidneys per minute diuresis.

194.
Urea can be used to maintain
Assertion(A):
osmolarity of body fluids.
Urea is more toxic and
Reason(R): energetically less expensive
than ammonia.

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the

1.
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2.
correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False and (R) is True.

195. Atrial systole increases the flow of blood

into the ventricles by about:
1. 30 %
2. 50 %
3. 70 %
4. 90 %

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 Custom Practice Test - 18-Jan
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

198. Consider the given two statements:

Statement
The outer pleural membrane is in Fill OMR Sheet*
close contact with the thoracic
I:
lining. *If above link doesn't work, please go to test link
Statement The inner pleural membrane is in from where you got the pdf and fill OMR from
II: contact with the lung surface. there
The part starting with the external
nostrils up to the terminal
Statement
bronchioles constitutes the
III:
respiratory or exchange part of the
respiratory system.
The alveoli and their ducts form CLICK HERE to get
Statement
IV:
the conducting part of the
respiratory system.
FREE ACCESS for 2
Statement I is correct; Statement II is
days of ANY
1. correct; Statement III is correct; Statement
IV is correct
NEETprep course
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
2. incorrect; Statement III is incorrect;
Statement IV is incorrect
Statement I is correct; Statement II is
3. correct; Statement III is incorrect;
Statement IV is incorrect
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
4. incorrect; Statement III is correct;
Statement IV is correct

199. Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT) is lined

by:
1. simple cuboidal brush border epithelium
2. simple cuboidal ciliated epithelium
3. simple columnar brush border epithelium
4. simple columnar ciliated epithelium

200. Which of the following values will not be

normal for a healthy person?
1. 10 gms of haemoglobin per 100 ml of blood
2. 5 million RBC per mm3
3. 7000 WBC per mm3
4. 200000 platelets per mm3

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