TARGET : BITSAT 2024 FULL TEST # 01

1. In a hypothetical set of units 6. The elevator E shown in the figure moves

1 star joule = 103 joule downward with a constant velocity of 15 ft/s.
1 star Newton = 104 Newton The relative velocity of the cable C with respect
1 star second = 10 second to the elevator is
Then one meter is equivalent to
(A) 100 star meter (B) 1000 star meter
1 W
(C) 10 star meter (D) star meter
10
C E
2. The length of a rectangular sheet is 1.5 cm and
breadth is 1.203 cm. The area of the face of M
rectangular sheet to the correct number of (A) 30 ft/sec (B) 45 ft/sec
significant figures is : (C) 15 ft/sec (D) 60 ft/sec
(A) 1.8045 cm2 (B) 1.804 cm2 7. A heavy particle hanging from a string of length l
(C) 1.805 cm 2
(D) 1.8 cm 2
is projected horizontally with speed gl . The
r r
3. If P & Q are perpendicular to each other, the speed of the particle at the point where the tension
r r in the string equals weight of the particle is:
rectangular component of P + Q along ( )
(A) 2gl (B) 3gl
r r
( )
P - Q is given by:-
(C) gl / 2 (D) gl / 3
r r r r
(A)
(P 2
)(
- Q2 P - Q ) (B) ( P2 + Q2 ) ( P - Q ) 8. A particle is moving in circle of radius R with
constant angular acceleration a at the time when
P2 + Q2 P2 + Q2
centripetal acceleration is 2 2 times of tangential
r r r r
(C)
(P 2
)(
- Q2 P + Q ) (D) ( P2 + Q2 ) ( P+Q ) acceleration then net acceleration of particle is :-
(A) 3Ra (B) 2Ra (C) Ra (D) 4Ra
P2 + Q 2 P2 + Q2
9. A particle of mass 2 kg starts to move at position
4. Position of a particle is given by x = t – 6t + 5
2
x = 0 and time t = 0 under the action of force
where t is in seconds & x is in meter then distance F = (10 + 4x) N along the x-axis on a frictionless
travelled by particle in 0 to 5 seconds is : horizontal track. Find the power delivered by the
(A) 5 m (B) 10 m force in watts at the instant the particle has moved
by the distance 5m.
(C) 13 m (D) 0 m (A) 300 (B) 400
5. A 5.0 kg mass is suspended by a string from the (C) 200 (D) none of these
ceiling of an elevator that is moving upward with 10. A uniform chain of length 1 m is kept on a smooth
a speed which is decreasing at a constant rate of table such that a length of 60 cm hangs freely
2 m/s in each second. What is the tension in the from the edge of the table. The total mass of the
string supporting the mass? chain is 4 kg. What is the work done in pulling
the entire chain on the table
(A)10 N (B) 30 N
[take g = 10 m/s2]
(C) 40 N (D) 50 N (A) 12 J (B) 24 J
(C) 120 J (D) 7.2 J

E 1 / 15
 TARGET : BITSAT 2024 FULL TEST # 01

11. Two identical balls are interconnected with a light 14. In a simple hydraulic press, t he
and inextensible thread having length l. The cross-sectional area of the two cylinders are
system is on a smooth horizontal table with the 5 × 10–4 m2 and 10–2 m2 respectively. A force
thread just taut . Initial velocities of both as shown. of 20N is applied at the small plunger. What
is the pressure produced in the cylinders ?
The kinetic energy of the system after the string
(A) 4 × 102 N/m2 (B) 4 × 104 N/m2
gets taut.
(C) 4 × 106 N/m2 (D) 4 × 1011 N/m2
15. A spherical object of mass 1 kg and radius 1m is
v
falling vertically downward inside a viscous liquid
v in a gravity free space. At a certain instant the
velocity of the sphere is 2m/s. If the coefficient
l
1
of viscosity of the liquid is N - s / m2 , then
18p
(A) mv2 (B) 2mv2 velocity of ball will become 0.5 m/s after a time :
(A) ln4 s (B) 2ln4 s
(C) 3/4 mv2 (D) 3/2 mv2
(C) 3ln4 s (D) 2ln2 s
12. Two circular discs A and B are of equals mass & 16. A ring of a thin wire of cross-sectional area a
thickness but made of metals with densities and length l is dipped into a liquid of surface
dA & dB( dA>dB). If their moments of inertia about tension s and taken out so that a film of liquid
is formed in the ring. If young's modulus of
an axis passing through centres & normal to the
material of wire is Y then longitudinal strain
circular faces be IA & IB, then
developed in the ring will be :
(A) IA = IB (B) IA > IB ls paY ls
(A) (B) (C) (D) None
paY ls aY
(C) IA < IB (D) none of these
17. Four sources produce the following four waves
13. A sphere of mass m is given some angular velocity (i) y1 = asin(2wt – kx + f1)
about a horizontal axis through its centre, and (ii) y2 = asin(wt – kx)
gently placed on a plank of mass m. The (iii) y3 = a¢sin(wt – kx + f2)
coefficient of friction between the two is µ. The (iv) y4 = a¢sin(3wt – kx + f3)
plank rests on a smooth horizontal surface. The The two expressions which on superposition give
initial acceleration of centre of mass of the sphere rise to stable interference detection
relative to the plank will be (A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (iii) (D) (iii) and (iv)
18. Two rods of equal length and diameter but of
m thermal conductivities 2 unit and 3 unit
respectively are joined in parallel. The thermal
m
conductivity of a rod of geometrical dimension
(A) zero (B) µg equal to either of the rod, which can conduct the
same heat is :-
7 (A) 1 unit (B) 1.5 unit
(C) µg (D) 2µg
5 (C) 2.5 unit (D) 5 unit

2 / 15 E
 TARGET : BITSAT 2024 FULL TEST # 01

19. The P–V diagram of a certain process 23. An uncharged spherical conductor having radius
(Carnot cycle) is as shown in the figure. R is as shown. Find potential at a point P:-
P

R r
Q
d

kQ kQ kQ kQ
(A) (B) (C) (D)
The process is represented as d r R r 2 + d2
24. A copper wire carries a current of 10 A. It has
cross-sectional area of 0.05 cm2. Density of
(A) (B)
copper is 8.9 g/cm3. Molar mass of copper is
63.5 × 10–3 kg/mol. The drift speed of the
electrons is closest to
(C) (D) (A) 1.5 × 10–4 m/s (B) 1.5 × 104 m/s
(C) 3.5 × 10–4 m/s (D) 1.5 m/s
20. A particle moves in circular path with uniform 25. Out of the four bulbs of marking
speed. Its motion is : (i) 100 V, 40 W (ii) 200 V, 40 W
(A) Periodic (B) Oscillatory (iii) 100 V, 60 W (iv) 200 V, 60 W,
(C) Simple harmonic (D) Angular SHM which bulb has highest resistance?
21. A body executes sample harmonic motion under (A) (i) (B) (ii) (C) (iii) (D) (iv)
the action of a force F1 with a time period (4 / 5)
26. The length of the potentiometer wire is l.
sec. If the force is changed to F 2 it executes
A cell of emf e is balanced at length l/3 from the
SHM with time period (3 / 5) sec. If both the
forces F1 and F2 act simultaneously in the same positive end of the wire. If the length of the wire
direction on the body, it's time period (in second) is increased by l/2 at what distance will the same
is : cell gives a balance point. [Neglect all the
(A) 12 / 25 (B) 24 / 25 resistance, except potentiometer wire in primary
(C) 35 / 24 (D) 25 / 12 circuit]
22. Rank the vernier callipers/screw gauge in the l l 2l 3l
(A) (B) (C) (D)
order of their increasing precision : 3 2 3 4
(1) Screw gauge having main scale division 27. Three capacitors A, B and C each of
1mm and no. of circular division = 200. capacitance 1 mF are connected in a circuit as
(2) Screw gauge having main scale division shown in figure. The energy stored in the
0.5 mm and no. of circular division = 400. capacitor C is
(3) Vernier callipers having main scale 6V
division = 1mm such that 9 MSD =10 VSD.
(4) Vernier callipers having main scale
A B C
division = 1mm such that 4 MSD = 5 VSD.
18V
(A) 4 < 2 < 3 < 1 (B) 2 < 4 < 1 < 3
(C) 4 < 3 < 2 < 1 (D) 4 < 3 < 1 < 2
(A) 4 mJ (B) 6 mJ (C) 8 mJ (D) 2 mJ
E 3 / 15
 TARGET : BITSAT 2024 FULL TEST # 01

28. A bar magnet is released from rest along the axis 33. Identify the only INCORRECT statement
of very long, vertical copper tube. After some (A) Fe3+ has greater electron affinity than Fe2+
(B) Between F and Cl, formation of Cl¯ is more
time, the magnet :
exothermic than formation of F¯
(A) will stop (C) IE1 of Cl¯ = electron affinity of Cl
(D) Electronegativity depends only electron
(B) will move with constant speed. affinity
34. Maximum number of C–O identical bond length
(C) will move with acceleration g
in C2 O42- are
(D) will oscillate (A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
35. Which o f the fo llowing reaction is
29. In L-R circuit, the inductive reactance is
INCORRECT ?
equal to the resistance of the circuit. An emf (A) SO2Cl2 + P4(white) ® PCl5 + SO2
(B) I– + H+ + KMnO4 ® IO3– + Mn2+
æ pö
V = V0 sinç wt - ÷ is applied to the circuit. (C) I2O5 + CO ® CO2 + I2
è 3ø
hydrolysis
(D) XeF6 ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾ ¾
® HXeO4–
The power consumption in the circuit is : in alkaline medium

OH -
2
V2 ¾¾¾
® XeO64– + Xe + O2
V0 0
(A) (B) 36. Select reaction in which oxidation number of
R 2R
copper is NOT changed in final product
NaCN(aq) (excess)
(A) CuSO4 Solution ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾
V2 V2 ®
(C) 0 (D) 0 KI (Solution)
(B) CuSO4 Solution ¾¾¾¾¾¾
2R 4R ®
2-
30. A small mirror of mass m is suspended by a (C) CuSO4 Solution ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾
S2 O3 (aq) (excess)
®
light thread of length l. The angle through KOH (excess)
(D) CuSO4 Solution ¾¾¾¾¾¾ ®
which the thread will be deflected when a
37. Select INCORRECT option.
short pulse of laser of energy E falls normally
on the mirror is :- (Assume mirror is a perfect CO2
white turbidity
reflector)
(A) Ca(OH)2
2E mc gl CO32–
(A) (B) white ppt.
mc 2gl 2E
SO2 purple colour
mc 2gl 2E decolorizes
(C) (D) –
(B) MnO4 /H n
+
2E mc gl
purple sol . SO32– purple colour
31. Four set of values of quantum numbers
decolorizes
(n, l, m and s) are given below. Which of these
does not provide a permissible solution of wave H2S
violet solution
equation ? II
(C) Na2[Fe(CN)5NO]aq
(A) 3, 2, –2, –1/2 (B) 3, 3, 1, +1/2 2–
S violet solution
(C) 4, 2, 1, +1/2 (D) 2, 1, 1, –1/2
32. Unniltrium belongs to which block and group of H2S
black ppt.
the periodic table ?
(A) d-block, group-10 (B) f-block, group-3 (D) Pb(NO3)2 (aq)
(C) p-block, group-13 (D) d-block, group-11 S2– black ppt.
4 / 15 E
 TARGET : BITSAT 2024 FULL TEST # 01

38. The co-ordination number and oxidation 43. Which of the following cannot serve as a food
number of X in the compound [X(SO4)(NH3)5] source for human ?
will be – (A) Proteins
(A) 10 and +3 (B) 1 and +6
(B) Starch
(C) 6 and +4 (D) 6 and +2
39. 2K2MnO4+O3+H2O®2KMnO4+2KOH+O2. (C) Enzymes
In the above reaction O3 acts as oxidising agent (D) Cellulose
and the oxidised product obtained is :
(A) O 2 Cl
(B) OH–
44. + Cl3C–CH=O + conc.H2SO4 ¾®
(C) KMnO4
(D) Can't be predicted
40. Select the CORRECT option : Product (P). P is :
(A) Ce+4 < Ce+3 (stability in aq. solution)
Cl Cl
(B) Pm+3 < Yb+3 (ionic radii)
(C) Gd+3 < Lu+3 (paramagnetic) (A) (B)
(D) All of these CH–CCl3
CH–CCl3
41. Which one is not the correct statement ? OH
OH
Pollutions means :
(A) The presence of anything in the environment Cl
in excess of the required limit
(B) anything put into the environment which was Cl
not there in its natural state.
(C) (D) CH–CCl3
(C) direct or indirect changes in one or more
CH
components of the ecosystem which are not
CCl3 Cl
harmful to living organisms
Cl
(D) international release of any chemical
substance in the environment with harmful
45. Identify correct stability order of carbocation?
effects
42. Which of the following will give a tribromo
(A) CH3 > CH3–CH 2 > CH3–CH–CH 3
product when treated with Br2 / H2O ?

OH OH
NO2 CH3
(B) > >
(A) (B)

Å Å
OH OH (C) < <
Å

(C) (D) (D) None of these

Cl COOH

E 5 / 15
 TARGET : BITSAT 2024 FULL TEST # 01

46. Consider following intramolecular aldol 50. The more stable conformer of ethylene glycol in
condensation reaction :
water is :
O (A) Anti form
–
OH
X ; X can be : (B) Gauche form

(C) Fully eclipsed form

(A) (B)
(D) Partially eclipsed form
O O O O
51. Which of the following indicates open chain
O O structure of glucose ?
(C) (D)
O
(A) Penta-acetyl derivative of glucose
O
(B) Cyanohydrin formation with HCN
47. Which of the following pair can not distinguish
(C) Reaction with Fehling solution
by given test ?
(D) Reaction with Tollen's reagent
Ph–CHO CH3–CO–CH3 CH3–CH2–CHO 52. Among the following, the surfactant that will from
(a) (b) (c) micelles in aqueous solution at the highest molar
concentration at ambient conditions is
(A) (a) & (b) ® Tollen's test
(A) CH3(CH2)15N+(CH3)3Br¯
(B) (b) & (c) ® Haloform test (B) CH3(CH2)11OSO3¯Na+

(C) (a) & (c) ® Fehling test (C) CH3(CH2)6COO¯Na+

(D) CH3(CH2)11N+(CH3)3Br¯
(D) (b) & (c) ® Aq. NaHSO3
53. One dm3 of 2 M ethanoic acid is mixed with one
48. Inorrect statement regarding natural rubber - dm3 of 3 M ethanol to form an ester.
CH3COOH+C2H5OH®CH3COOC2H5+H2O
(A) It is a homopolymer
The decrease in the initial rate if each solution is
(B) It is formed by 1, 4 addition of 2-methyl buta
diluted with an equal volume of water would be
1,3-diene
(A) 0.25 times (B) 0.5 times
(C) It is soluble in water
(C) 2 times (D) 4 times
(D) It is a cis-isomer 54. An element X crystallises in a bcc structure.
49. Alkyl halides react with dialkyl copper reagent Calculate the radius of the X atom if the edge
to give length of the unit cell is 400 pm
(A) 17.32 pm
(A) alkyl copper halides
(B) 173.2 pm
(B) alkenes
(C) 346.6 pm
(C) alkenyl halides (D) 34.66 pm
(D) alkanes
6 / 15 E
 TARGET : BITSAT 2024 FULL TEST # 01

55. When a gas is compressed adiabatically and 59. For the reaction : xA ¾¾
® yB ,
reversibly, the final temperature is-
æ d [ A] ö æ d [ B] ö
(A) Higher than the initial temperature log10 ç - =
è dt ÷ø
log10 çè + dt ÷ø + 0.3
(B) Lower than the initial temperature
If the value of log10 5 = 0.7, the value of x : y is:
(C) The same as initial temperature
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 3 : 10 (D) 5 : 2
(D) Dependent upon the rate of compression 60. Starting with 250 ml of Au3+ solution and
56. What should the H+ concentration be in solution 250 ml of Fe2+ solution, the following equilibrium
that is 0.25 M in Co2+ to prevent the precipitation is established.
of CoS when the solution is saturated with H2S. Au3+ (aq) + 3Fe2+ (aq) ƒ 3Fe3+(aq) + Au (s)
A saturated solution of H2S is 0.1 M :- At equilibrium, the equivalents of Au3+, Fe2+, Fe3+
Ksp(CoS) = 5 × 10–22, K1(H2S) = 1.1 × 10–8, and Au are x, y, z and w respectively. Then
K2(H2S) = 1 × 10–13 z3 3z 3
(A) KC = (B) K C =
(A) 0.523 (B) 0.234 6xy 3 2xy 3
(C) 0.725 (D) 0.924
4z 3 8z 3
57. The conductance of a salt solution (AB) measured (C) K C = (D) K C =
9xy 3 9xy 3
by two parallel electrode of area 100 cm2
separated by 10 cm was found to be 0.0001W– DIRECTIONS (Q.61-62) : In the following
1
. If volume enclosed between two electrode questions, choose the option which means closest
contain 0.5 mole of salt, what is the molar to the given word:
conductivity (Scm2 mol–) of salt at same conc - 61. Hysterical
(A) Oversized (B) Overweight
2
100cm
X
Y (C) Exaggerate (D) Overwrought
62. Stalwart
10cm (A) Stingy (B) Unfaithful
(A) 0.01 (B) 0.02 (C) Staunch (D) Squeak
DIRECTIONS (Q.63): In the following
(C) 2 × 10–5 (D) 0.002
sentence find out the subject-verb agreement
58. For the reaction A(g) ® P(g) error, and mark the correct option between (A),
(B), or (C). Mark (D) i.e. 'No change' as answer
800
if there is no error.
63. Neither the map nor the binoculars was found
Pressure of A 400
(mm Hg) 200 on the table.
100 I. Binocular was found on the table.
0
5 15 35 II. Binoculars were found on the table.
Time (in min.)
III. Binocular were found on the table.
Order of reaction should be - (A) Only (I) is correct
(B) Only (II) is correct
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) Only (III) is correct
(C) 2 (D) 3
(D) No change
E 7 / 15
 TARGET : BITSAT 2024 FULL TEST # 01

DIRECTIONS (Q.64-65) : Choose the DIRECTIONS (Q.70): Read the below given
opposite of the given words. sentences and choose the part of the sentence
64. GALE that has adjective error. In case of no error, mark
'D' as the answer.
(A) Yell (B) Calm
70. Of Sofia, Luna, and Nora, the latter joined ballet
(C) Peal (D) Scream
class in order to learn discipline, patience, and
65. ANARCHY
teamwork.
(A) Cheery
(A) Ballet class in order to learn
(B) Peafowl
(B) Of Sofia, Luna, and Nora, the latter joined
(C) Jab
(D) Government (C) Discipline, patience and teamwork
DIRECTIONS (Q.66) : In the following (D) No change
sentences, a word is in bold letters, find out the 71. Select the correct word from the given options
error of time or verb in the same and replace it to replace the question mark in the given analogy.
with the most suitable alternative. Crows : Caw :: Dolphins : ?
66. Did you ever bothered about your marks?
(A) Quack (B) Cluck
(A) Had (B) Has
(C) Click (D) Creak
(C) Have (D) Was
72. Identify the figure to complete the given pattern.
DIRECTIONS (Q.67) : In the following, pick
the odd word out:
67. Mark the odd one out
(A) Wily
(B) Canny
?
(C) Shrewd ?
(D) Outspoken
DIRECTIONS (Q.68) : Read the following
phrase and mark the option that explains it the
best: ? ?
(A) (B)
68. A well-educated person.
(A) Cultured
(B) Civilized
? ?
(C) Esoteric (C) (D)
(D) Highbrow
DIRECTIONS (Q.69): Read the below given 73. Select the correct option to replace the question
sentences and choose the option which will be mark in the given series.
the correct question tag for it: 1, 1, 6, 5, 16, 14, 36, 30, 76, 55, ?
69. I am running out of time, ________? (A) 154 (B) 155
(A) Am I (B) isn't I (C) 156 (D) 157
(C) Aren't I (D) Are I
8 / 15 E
 TARGET : BITSAT 2024 FULL TEST # 01

74. Choose the word which is different from the rest 77. Select the correct option to replace the question
in the given group. mark in the given figure.
Nile, Snake, Orange, Yellow, Grey, Green
(A) Snake (B) Orange T B P L
(C) Nile (D) Grey
75. Identify the figure which is made by rearranging M 32 34 F
the parts of the figure X. O ? 38 H

I A S K

(A) 36 (B) 40
(C) 25 (D) 24
Fig. X 78. How many letters are there in the English
alphabetical series between the third letter of
the fourth word from the right and second letter
of the second word from the left?
BAG, ASH, WAY, MAD, LAB, BID
(A) (B) (A) 18 (B) 5 (C) 14 (D) 23
79. Choose the word which is different from the rest
in the given group.
Plate, Bowl, Cup, Spoon, Saucer
(A) Plate (B) Bowl
(C) (D) (C) Spoon (D) Saucer
80. Identify the figure that most closely resembles
the unfolded form of the figure Z.

76. Identify the figure that completes the figure matrix.

Fig. W Fig. X

(A) (B)

(C) (D)
Fig. Y Fig. Z

E 9 / 15
 TARGET : BITSAT 2024 FULL TEST # 01

84. How many squares are there in the given figure?

(A) (B)

(A) 10 (B) 13
(C) 12 (D) 14
85. Select the missing figure from the given
responses.

(C) (D)

81. A man showed a boy next to him and said, “He

?
is the son of my wife’s sister-in-law but
I am the only son of my parents”. How is my son
related to him?
(A) (B)
(A) Cousin (B) Brother

(C) Uncle (D) Nephew

82. How many unit cubes are there in the figure ? (C) (D)

86. The second figure in the first part of the problem

figures bears a certain relationship to the first
figure. Similarly one of the figures in answers
figures bears the same relationship to the first
figures in the second part. You have to select the
figure from the set of answer figures which would
(A) 52 (B) 53 replace the sign of questions mark (?).
(C) 54 (D) 56 Problem Figures

83. A watch reads 7 : 30. If the minute hand points

East, in which direction will the hour hand point?
?
Answer Figures
(A) North-East (B) South-East

(C) North (D) North-West

(1) (2) (3) (4)

10 / 15 E
 TARGET : BITSAT 2024 FULL TEST # 01

87. Pointing to a man in the photograph a woman 90. Read the following information and answer the
says : “He is the father of my daughter-in law’s question that follows :
brother-in-law.” How is the man related to the (i) Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a
woman? closed circle facing the centre.
(A) Husband (B) Brother (ii) E is to the left of D.
(C) Brother-in-law (D) Father
(iii) C is between A and B.
88. Study the following information carefully and
answer the question. (iv) F is between E and A.
Who is to the left of B :
Five friends Manish, Ashish, Rahul, Kapil and
Pravin are musician, architect, doctor, engineer (A) A (B) C
and artist by profession and live in Lucknow, (C) D (D) E
Mumbai, Kolkata, Delhi and Pune but not in that
æ z1 ö
order. 91. If z1 = 3 – 5i and z2 = –3 – 5i then arg ç is
è z2 ÷ø
(a) Pravin and Rahul do not live in Lucknow or equal to :-
pune, and neither of them is an architect or
doctor. 5
(A ) p – 2tan–1 æç ö÷ (B) p/2
è 3ø
(b) Manish and Ashish are not artist or engineer
and they do not live in Delhi or Lucknow. æ 5ö
(C) p (D) –2tan–1 çè ÷ø
3
(c) Kapil is neither a doctor nor a musician.

(d) The person living in Lucknow is neither an 3

artist nor an engineer. ò [x]dx

92. 0
3 (where [.] greatest integer function & {.}
(e) Manish does not live in Kolkata and Ashish
ò {x}dx
is not a doctor. 0

(f) The musician does not live in Pune or Mumbai. fractional part function) is equal to :-

(g) Pravin is not an artist. 3

(A) 1 (B)
2
(h) The artist does not live in Delhi.
(C) 3 (D) 2
Who lives in Lucknow :
1+ i
(A) Ashish (B) Kapil 93. If a = then value of a6 + a4 + a2 + 1 is:
2
(C) Manish (D) Pravin
89. On the basis of the following figures you have to (A) 0 (B) 1
tell which number will come in place of ‘?’ (C) i (D) - i
3 4 ? 2p

6 1 2 6 1 5 94. ò x sgn(cos x)dx is equal to -

0

(A) 2 (B) 3 (A) p (B) 2p

(C) 6 (D) 4
(C) 3p (D) none of these

E 11 / 15
 TARGET : BITSAT 2024 FULL TEST # 01

95. If a, b, g are the roots of the equation 102. I alternatively toss a fair coin and throw a fair
x3 – 2x2 + 50x + 1 = 0, then the value of die untill I, either toss a head or throw a 2. If
I toss the coin first, the probability that I throw
æ 1 öæ 1 öæ 1 ö
ç a - ÷ çb - ÷ç g - ÷ = a 2 before I toss a head, is -
è bg ø è ga øè ab ø

(A) 1 (B) –8 1 7
(A) (B)
7 12
(C) 0 (D) –1
5 5
96. (C) (D)
ò (sec 2x + 1) sec x - 1 dx
2
is equal to - 12 7

ln sec x
103. If the sum of the first n even natural numbers is
(A) +c equal to k times the sum of first n odd natural
2
numbers, then k is equal to -
ln sec 2x
(B) +c 1 n -1
2 (A) (B)
n n
(C) ln sec 2x + c
n +1 n +1
(D) ln sec x + c (C) (D)
2n n
97. The equation x4 + x2 + 2x + 1 = 0 has :-
104. If A & B are independent events, then
(A) exactly 4 real solutions (B) exactly 2 real
A and B-
solutions
(A) are dependent
(C) no real solution
(D) exactly three real solutions (B) are mutually exclusive
98. If sum of 4th, 7th & 10th term of an A.P. is 15, (C) may be independent
then sum of first thirteen terms of same A.P., is - (D) are independent
(A) 10 (B) 25 105. Number of ordered triplets (a, b, c) of positive
(C) 65 (D) 85 integers less than 10, for which the product 'abc'
99. The maximum sum of the series is divisible by 20 is -
1 2 (A) 54 (B) 96
20 + 19 + 18 + 18 + ..... is - (C) 100 (D) 102
3 3

(A) 310 (B) 290 106. Suppose ƒ and g both are linear function with
(C) 320 (D) none of these ƒ (x) = –2x + 1 and ƒ (g(x)) = 6x – 7, then
r r
slope of line y = g(x) is -
100. If r = xiˆ + yjˆ + 3kˆ and a = 4yiˆ - xjˆ - kˆ x, y Î I such
(A) 3 (B) –3
rr
that r.a = 27, then number of possible ordered (C) 6 (D) –2
pairs of (x, y) are- 107. In how many ways can n persons
(A) 4 (B) 2 p1, p2, p3.....pn be ranked, if p1 is always any
(C) 6 (D) 8 where ahead of pn ?
101. The sum of all integers between 81 and 719 which
n(n + 1)(2n + 1) n(n + 1)
are divisible by 5 is - (A) (B)
6 2
(A) 51800 (B) 50800
n!
(C) 52800 (D) none of these (C) (D) n!
2

12 / 15 E
 TARGET : BITSAT 2024 FULL TEST # 01

108. Let ƒ (x) = x3 + ax + b with a ¹ b and suppose x2

the tangent lines to the graph of ƒ at x = a and x 112. Let ƒ (x) = cosx – 1 + , then :-
2
= b have the same gradient. Then the value of ƒ
(1) is equal to - (A) ƒ (x) is an increasing function on the real line
(A) 0 (B) 1
1 2
(C) – (D) (B) ƒ (x) is an decreasing function on the real line
3 3

(C) ƒ (x) is an increasing function in (–¥, 0) and

1 1 dy
109. If x + y = t – , x2 + y2 = t2 + , then is decreasing in (0, ¥)
t t2 dx
equal to - (D) ƒ (x) is an decreasing function in (–¥, 0) and
(A) 1/x (B) –1/x increasing in (0, ¥)
(C) 1/x2 (D) –1/x2
10
110. If ƒ (x) = 2lnx – x is increasing, then x can lie in- 113. The value of å 10
C r .15 C14 - r is equal to -
r =0

(A) (1, 3) (B) (2, 3)

(C) (3, 4) (D) (5, 6) (A) 25C (B) 25C
12 15
(C) 25C (D) 25C
111. Rolle's theorem in the indicated intervals will not 10 11
be valid for which of the following function-
114. If 2x2 + (l – 3)y2 +(µ + 3)xy + 8ax + 12(1 – a)y –
sin x
42 = 0 is the equation of circle whose radius
L x x¹0 cannot exceed 5, then integral value of
f (x) = M
(A) MMN ; x Î [ - 1, 1 ] l + m + a is -
1 x=0
(A) 9 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) not possible
LM 1 - cos
x
x
x¹0
(B) g(x) =
MMN 0 ; x Î [ - 2p, 2p ]
n n n n
x=0
115. å
r =1
r
C0 +å r C1 + å r C2 +...... å r Cn -1 + n Cn is
r =1 r =2 r =n -1

equal to -
1 - cos x
LM x 2
x¹0
(A) 2n+1 – 1 (B) 2n+1 – 2
(C) h(x) = M ; x Î [ - 2p , 2p] (C) 2n – 2 (D) (2n + 1)
MM 1
N2 x=0
116. Sum of areas of two circles touching externally
and whose centres are 15 cms apart is
F 1I 153p(cm)2. The ratio of radius of bigger circle
LM x sinGH xJK x¹0
LM 1 1 OP to smaller circle is :-
(D) k(x) = M ; xÎ - ,
MN 0 x=0
N p 2p Q (A) 3 : 2 (B) 4 : 1
(C) 3 : 1 (D) 4 : 3

E 13 / 15
 TARGET : BITSAT 2024 FULL TEST # 01

117. The coefficient of x9 in the expansion of 123. A, B, C are square matrices of same order such
(x – 1)(x – 2)(x – 3) .......(x – 10) - that AB = I, then the number of matrix P such
that APB = I is/are -
(A) –100 (B) 100
(C) –110 (D) –55 (A) 0

118. Normal form of line x + 3 y – 4 = 0 is - (B) 1

(A) x cos p/3 – y sin p/3 = 2 (C) 2

(B) x cos p/6 – y sin p/6 = 2
(D) infinite
(C) x cos p/3 + y sin p/3 = 2
(D) x cos p/6 + y sin p/3 = 2 é1 - 1 1 ù é 4 2 2ù
124. Let A = ê2 1 - 3 ú and 10B = ê -5 0 a ú .
ê ú ê ú
119. Number of rational terms in ( 5 + 2 ) êë1 1 1 úû êë 1 -2 3 úû
100
4 7
is -
If B is the inverse of matrix A, then a is -
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5 (A) –2

120. Equation of chord of a circle (B) –1

S : (x – 3)2 + (y – 4)2 = 25, (C) 2

which passes through two points on the circle (D) 5

situated at a distance 3 units from origin, is -

æp 1 -1 æ aöö æp 1 -1 æ aöö
(A) 2x + 3y – 3 13 = 0 (B) 6x + 8y = 9 125. cos çè 4 + 2 cos çè b ÷ø ÷ø + cos çè 4 - 2 cos çè b ÷ø ÷ø is
(C) 2x – 3y + 3 13 = 0 (D) 6x – 8y + 9 = 0 equal to -
121. If the matrices A, B, (A + B) are non singular,
then [A (A + B)–1B]–1 is equal to - a+b
(A) ±
a
(A) A + B (B) A–1 + B–1
(C) (A + B)–1 (D) B–1A + BA–1
b
(B) ±
a+b
122. Let lx - y - 4 = 0 any chord of circle
x2 + y2 = 4 meeting it at A and B and the tangents
drawn to the circle at A, B meet at C. The locus a+b
(C)
b
of circumcentre of triangle ABC is-

(A) x = –1 (B) y = –1 (D) none of these

1 1
(C) y = - (D) 1 = -
2 2

14 / 15 E
 TARGET : BITSAT 2024 FULL TEST # 01

5 129. If sin–1(x2) = cos–1x, then x4 + x2 is :-

126. The equation 51+ log 5 cos x
= has -
2
1
(A) (B) 1
(A) no solution 4

1 2
(B) one solution (C) (D)
2 5

(C) two solutions

1 + 3i
130. If x = then the value of the expression,
(D) more that two solutions 2
y = x4 – x2 + 6x – 4, equals -
p
127. If sin–1x = cos -1 x + , then x is equal to -
2
(A) –1 + 2 3 i (B) 2 – 2 3 i

(A) 0 (B) –1 (C) 2 + 2 3 i (D) none

1
(C) 1 (D)
2

128. The number of soutions of the equation

6cos5q – 6cos4q – 5cos3q + 5cos2q + cosq – 1 = 0,
where 0 < q < 360° is -

(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 8

E 15 / 15