Test ID : 111

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.GRAND TEST - 1.
Std : Long term Max. Marks: 720
Test Date : 18.10.2021 Time : 3 Hrs.
Note :
For every correct answer four marks will be awarded. For every wrong answer one mark
will be reduced. For unanswered questions zero mark.
Choose the correct answer : 180 x 4 = 720
1. The velocity of any particle is released with its 5. A particle moves with uniform velocity which
of the following statements about the motion
displacement as x = v + 1 then acceleration at
of the particle is true?
x = 4m is
1) Its speed is zero
1) 140 m/s2 2) 120 m/s2
2) Its acceleration is zero
3) 160 m/s2 4) 100 m/s2
3) Its acceleration is opposite to the velocity
2. A stone is thrown vertically upwards, the
4) Its speed may be variable
distance travelled by the stone at its last
6. A car moving along a straight road with speed
second of vertical upward journey 20 m/s is brought to a stop with in a distance
1) g 2) 2g 20 m. How long does it take for the car to
g g stop.
3) 4)
2 4 1) 5 sec 2) 10 sec
3. A particle starts from rest its acceleration (a) 3) 3 sec 4) 2 sec
versus time (t) is as shown in the figure. The 7. A particle has an initial velocity 3iˆ + 4ˆj and an
maximum speed of the particle will be
acceleration of 0.4iˆ + 0.3jˆ . Is speed after 10
sec is
1) 10 units 2) 7 2 units
3) 7 units 4) 8.5 units
8. If a body loses half of its velocity on
penetrating 3 cm in a wooden block. Then
1) 110 m/s 2) 55 m/s
how much will it penetrate move before
3) 60 m/s 4) 600 m/s coming to rest.
1 1) 1 cm 2) 2 cm
4. A bullet looses of its velocities after
10 th 3) 3 cm 4) 4 cm
penetrating into a plank. Then number of such 9. Two balls A and B of same masses are thrown
planks required to stop the bullet is from the top of a building, A thrown upward
1) 5 2) 6 with velocity ‘v’ and B thrown downward
3) 11 4) 8 with velocity ‘v’, then
 2 Test ID : 111
1) velocity of A is more than B at the ground 15. The area under velocity-time graph represents
2) velocity of B is more than A at the ground the
3) Both A & B strike the ground with same 1) acceleration 2) displacement
velocity 3) average velocity 4) none
4) None of these 16. A particle starts from rest with constant
10. The relative between time (t) and distance (x) acceleration (a) = 4 m/s2. The displacement in
is t = ax2 + bx, where ‘a’ and ‘b’ are constants. 6th second
The acceleration is 1) 11 m 2) 15 m
1) 2 av3 2) -2av3 3) 22 m 4) 44 m
3) 2bv3 4) -2abv2
17. A player throws a ball upward with an initial
11. A car travelling with a speed of 60 km/h can speed of 80 m/s. How long does the ball take
stop with in a distance of 20 m. If the car is to return to the player’s hands? (g = 10 m/s2)
going twice as fast i.e., 120 km/h, the stopping
1) 10 sec 2) 8 sec
distance will be
3) 24 sec 4) 16 sec
1) 60 m 2) 40 m
18. A stone is shot straight upward with a speed of
3) 20 m 4) 80 m
40 m/sec from a tower of 45 m high. The
12. A police van moving on a highway with a
speed with which it strikes the ground.
speed of 54 km/hr fires a bullet at a thief’s car
speeding away in the same direction with a (g = 10 m/sec2)
speed of 90 km/hr. If the muzzle speed of the 1) 60 m/sec 2) 50 m/sec
bullet is 150 m/s, with what speed does the 3) 40 m/sec 4) 30 m/sec
bullet hit the thief’s car? 19. A train travels from city A to city B with a
1) 105 m/sec 2) 140 m/sec constant speed of 20 m/sec and returns back to
3) 120 m/sec 4) 190 m/sec city A with a constant speed 80 m/sec. Find
13. The velocity-time graph for two bodies A & B the average speed during its entire journey.
are shown. Then the acceleration of A & B are 1) 12 m/sec
in the ratio. 2) 50 m/sec
B 3) 24 m/sec
Velocity
A 4) 32 m/sec
35o
20. A balloon rises from rest with a constant
35o
g
Time acceleration . A stone is released from it
o o 8
1) sin 35 to sin 50 2) tan 35o to tan 55o
when it has risen to height h. The time taken
3) sin 45o to sin 35o 4) tan 35o to tan 45o by the stone to reach the ground is
14. A person running on a circular track of radius
100 meter. Calculate the displacement of the h h
1) 4 2) 2
person after completing 10 rounds of the track g g
1) 0 m 2) 50 m 2h g
3) 4)
3) 100 m 4) 75 m g h
 3 Test ID : 111
21. A body travels 200 cm in the first 2s and 220 28. Displacement – time graph of a body projected
cm in the next 4 s with deceleration. The vertically up is
velocity of the body at the end of the seventh 1) a straight line 2) a parabola
second is 3) a hyperbola 4) a circle
1) 5 cm/sec 2) 10 cm/sec 29. The displacement- time of a moving particle is
3) 15 cm/sec 4) 20 cm/sec shown in figure. The instantaneous velocity of
22. sn = 4 + 0.2 n. Find initial velocity and the particle is negative at that point
acceleration
1) 4.1 m/s, 0.2 m/sec2
2) 0.2 m/s, 4.1 m/sec2
3) 2 m/s, 0.4 m/sec2
4) 0.4 m/s, 2 m/sec2
1) D 2) F
23. A bus accelerates uniformly from rest and
3) C 4) E
acquires a speed of 54 kmph in 10 sec. The
acceleration is 30. A body is projected vertically up with a
velocity ‘u’. Its velocity at half of its
1) 1 m/s2 2) 1.5 m/s2
maximum height is
3) 2 m/s2 4) 2.5 m/s2
u
24. A boy standing at the top of a tower of 80 m 1) u 2)
2
height drops a stone, the velocity with which it
u u
hits the ground is (g = 10 m/s2) 3) 4)
3 2
1) 20 m/s 2) 30 m/s
31. A body falls freely from a height of 125 m
3) 40 m/s 4) 50 m/s
(g = 10 m/s2). After 2 sec gravity ceases to act.
25. A freely falling body travels of total distance
Find time taken by it to reach the ground.
in 5th second
1) 2.35 sec
1) 8 % 2) 12 %
2) 4.27 sec
3) 25 % 4) 36 %
3) 7.25 sec
26. Two balls are projected upward
4) 5.25 sec
simultaneously with speed 40 m/s and 60 m/s.
Relative position (x) of second ball w.r.t. first 32. If magnitude of average speed and average
ball at time t = 5 sec is (neglect air resistance) velocity over an interval of time are same,
then
1) 20 m 2) 80 m
1) particle must move with zero acceleration
3) 120 m 4)100 m
2) particle must move with uniform
27. A body freely falling under gravity will have
acceleration
uniform
3) particle must be at rest
1) speed 2) velocity
4) particle must move in a straight line without
3) momentum 4) acceleration
turning back
 4 Test ID : 111
33. A body is projected vertically up with a 1) particle starts with zero velocity and
velocity ‘u’ from the ground in the presence of uniform acceleration
constant air resistance (R). ta is time of ascent 2) particle starts with non-zero velocity and
and td is time of descent, then variable acceleration
1) ta < td 2) ta > td 3) particle starts with zero velocity and
3) ta = td 4) None variable acceleration
34. A stone is allowed to fall from the top of a 4) particle starts with non-zero velocity and
tower 400 m height and of the same time uniform acceleration
another stone is projected vertically up from 38. The coordinates of a moving particle at any
the ground with a velocity 100 m/s. Find the time ‘t’ are given by x = αt3 and y = βt3. The
time when the two stones meet. speed of the particle at time ‘t’ is given by
1) 1 sec 2) 2 sec 1) α 2 + β2 2) 3t α 2 + β2
3) 3 sec 4) 4 sec
3) 3t 2 α 2 + β2 4) t 2 α 2 + β2
35. For a freely falling body, the ratio of distances
39. A body is thrown vertically upwards and takes
travelled in successive seconds
5 seconds to reach maximum height, the
1) 1 : 2 : 3 : 4
distance travelled by the body will be same in
2) 1 : 3 : 5 : 7
1) 1st and 10th second 2) 2nd and 8th second
2 2 2 2
3) 1 : 2 : 3 : 4 ….. 3) 4th and 6th second 4) both (2) and (3)
2 2 2 2
4) 1 : 3 : 5 : 7 … 40. A ball projected from ground vertically
36. A particle located at x = 0, at time t = 0, starts upward is at same height at time t1 and t2. The
moving along the positive x-direction with a speed of projection of ball is (neglect air
velocity ‘v’ that varies as v = k x . The resistance)
displacement of the particle varies with time g(t1 + t 2 )
1) g (t2 – t1) 2)
as 2
1) x α t3 2) x α t2 g(t 2 − t1 )
3) 4) g(t1 + t2)
4 2
3) x α t 4) x α t
41. Which of the following speed-time (v – t)
37. The displacement (x) – time (t) graph of a
graphs is physically not possible?
particle is shown in figure. Which of the
following is correct.
1) 2)

3) 4) all of these
 5 Test ID : 111
42. The velocity of a body depends on time 47. The total number of electrons which will
t 2 together weigh one kg is
according to the equation v = + 20 . The 1) 1.1 x 1027 2) 9.1 x 1031
10
3) 9.1 x 1028 4) 1.1 x 1030
body is undergoing
48. An element with mass number 81 contains
1) uniform acceleration
31.7% more neutrons as compared to protons.
2) uniform retardation Assign the atomic symbol.
3) non-uniform acceleration 1) 34Sc81 2) 35Br81
81
4) zero acceleration 3) 36Kr 4) 37Rb81
43. Figure shows the position of a particle moving 49. Match the following.
on the x-axis as a function of time. A) Isobars K) 1H1, 1H2, 1H3
B) Isotones L) Na+, Mg+2, Al+3
C) Isotopes M) 14Si30,15P31, 16S32
D) Isoelectronic species N)18Ar40,19K40,20Ca40
1) A-M, B-N, C-K, D-L
2) A-M, B-N, C-L, D-K
3) A-N, B-M, C-K, D-L
1) the velocity at t = 8s is negative 4) A-N, B-M, C-L, D-K
2) the particle has come to rest 4 times 50. Calculate the energy of 1 mole of photons of
3) the velocity remains positive for t = 2s to radiation whose frequency is 5 x 1014 Hz.
t = 6s 1) 40 kJ 2) 200 kJ
4) the particle moves with a constant velocity 3) 33 kJ 4) 40 J
44. The position ‘x’ of particle moving along x- 51. A mono atomic anion of unit charge contains
45 neutrons and 36 electrons. Identify the ion
axis varies with time ‘t’ as x = A sin (ωt)
1) F- 2) Cl-
where A and ω are positive constants. The
3) Br- 4) I-
acceleration a of particle varies with its
position (x) as 52. A gas absorbs a photon of 400 nm and emits at
two wavelengths. It one is at 600 nm, the other
1) a = Ax 2) a = -ω2x
is at
3) a = Aωx 4) a = ω2xA 1) 200 nm 2) 743 nm
45. The position of a body moving along x-axis at 3) 1200 nm 4) 850 nm
time ‘t’ is given by x = (t2 – 4t + 6)m. The 53. The ratio of the radii of first three Bohr orbits
distance travelled by body in time interval of hydrogen atom is
t = 0 to t = 3s is 1 1
1) 1 : 2 : 3 2) 1 : :
1) 5 m 2) 7 m 2 3
3) 4 m 4) 3 m 3) 1 : 4 : 9 4) 1 : 8 : 27
46. The volume of nucleus is about ‘x’ times to 54. The transition of electrons in H-atom that will
that of an atom. Then ‘x’ is emit maximum energy is
1) 10-5 2) 105 1) n5 → n4 2) n4 → n3
3) 1015 4) 10-15 3) n3 → n2 4) n2 → n1
 6 Test ID : 111
55. The total number of spectral lines formed 62. Which of the following orbitals electron
when electron returns from 5th level to ground density maximum in between axis?
level 1) d z 2 2) d x 2 y2
1) 15 2) 12
3) 10 4) 4 3) d xy 4) p x
56. Which graph is correct related to energy of 63. Which of the following set of quantum
photon against its wavelength? numbers (n, l, m, s respectively) is impossible?
1) 4, 2, -2, 1/2 2) 4, 3, -2, 1/2
3) 4, 2, -1, 1/2 4) 4, 4, -2, 1/2
64. Which of the following violates both Aufbau
1) 2) principle and Hund’s rule?

1)

2)
3) 4)
3)
57. 50 watt bulb emits monochromatic light of
wavelength 4000 Å. Calculate the number of 4)
photons emitted by the bulb per second
65. A transition metal ‘X’ has configuration
1) 2 x 1020 2) 1 x 1019 [Ar]3d3 in its +3 oxidation state. Its atomic
3) 1 x 1020 4) 2 x 1019
number is
58. Correct relation related to dual nature of
1) 22 2) 28
matter
3) 26 4) 24
1) λp −1 = h 2) λ = hp
66. Total number of orbitals having (n+l) < 5 is
3) λp = h 4) λ −1p = h
1) 7 2) 8
59. Orbital angular momentum of electron present 3) 9 4) 10
in 3p orbital is
67. Total possible exchanges for d5 configuration
h h
1) 2) 1) 5 2) 10
2π 2π
3) 15 4) 0
2h h
3) 4) 68. Match the following
π π
A) n i) Orientation of orbital
60. The number of angular and spherical nodes in
B) l ii) Energy and size of orbit
3d orbital respectively are
C) m iii) Spin of electrons
1) 1, 1 2) 2, 1
D) s iv) Shape of orbital
3) 2, 0 4) 1, 0
61. Which of the following orbital experiences 1) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
more effective nuclear charge? 2) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
1) 2s 2) 3s 3) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
3) 4d 4) 3d 4) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
 7 Test ID : 111
69. Assertion (A) : All isotopes of a given element 76. The law of traid is not applicable to a group of
show the same chemical behaviour. 1) Li, Na, K 2) Ca, Sr, Ba
Reason (R) : The chemical properties of an 3) C, N, O 4) Cl, Br, I
atom are controlled by the number of electrons
77. Match the following
in the atom.
List – I List – II
1) (A) and (R) are correct (R) is correct
explanation for (A) 1) Eka – Boron a) Ge
2) (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not 2) Eka – Aluminium b) Sc
correct explanation for (A) 3) Eka – Silicon c) Ga
3) (A) is correct (R) is wrong The correct matching is
4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong 1) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c 2) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a
70. If mass of neutron is doubled, mass of proton 3) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a 4) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c
is halved keeping mass of electron as constant,
78. Two statements are given below :
then the new atomic weight of 8O16 is
Statement I : The period number corresponds
1) 12 amu 2) 16 amu to the highest principal quantum number (n) of
3) 20 amu 4) 24 amu the elements in the period.
71. The atomic weight of an element is double of Statement II : The sixth period would have a
its atomic number. If there are 4 electrons in theoretical maximum (on the basis of quantum
2p orbital, the element is isotonic with numbers) of 32 elements.
1) 20Ca40 2) 7N15 Choose the correct answer from the options
14
3) 7N 4) 8O16 given below
72. 6000 waves of an EMR passes in 2 minutes 1) Both statement I and statement II are true
through a point, then wavelength of radiation 2) Both statement I and statement II are false
is
3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
1) 1.5 x 108 cm 2) 6 x 108 cm false
7
3) 1 x 10 cm 4) 1 x 109 cm 4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
73. Photons of energy 6 eV are incident on a true
potassium surface of work function 2.1 eV. 79. What would be the IUPAC symbol for the
What is the stopping potential? element X? (X : Americans named as
1) 6V 2) 2.1 V ‘Rutherfordium’ where as soviets named as
3) 3.9 V 4) 8.1 V ‘Kurchatovium’)
74. For which orbit in He+ ion, the circumference 1) Ubn 2) Unp
is 26.5 Å 3) Uub 4) Unq
1) 2 2) 3 80. Newland’s law of octaves seemed to be true
3) 4 4) 16 only for elements upto
75. The uncertainty in position of an electron is 1) F 2) Cl
equal to its de Broglie wavelength. The 3) Ca 4) K
minimum percentage error in its measurement 81. The correct order in which the energy of the
of momentum under this circumstance will be available orbitals of elements in the 5th period
approximately of the periodic table?
1) 18 2) 22 1) 4d < 5s < 5p 2) 6s < 5d < 6p
3) 4 4) 8 3) 5s < 4d < 5p 4) 5d < 6s < 6p
 8 Test ID : 111
82. The 4f-inner transition series contains elements 87. The correct value of ionization energies (in kJ
having atomic number from mol-1) of C, N, O and F respectively are
1) 57 to 80 2) 58 to 71 1) 1086, 1314, 1402, 1681
3) 55 to 86 4) 90 to 103 2) 1086, 1681, 1314, 1402
3) 1086, 1681, 1402, 1314
4) 1086, 1402, 1314, 1681
83.
W 88. If the element (M) successive ionization
Y
X potential values are 5.98, 18.82, 28.44 and
119.96 eV, then its formula with SO −4 2 ion is
Z
Analyze the table and answer the following 1) MSO4 2) M2SO4
statement(s) is (are) correct 3) M3(SO4)2 4) M2(SO4)3
I) The outer electronic configuration of ‘W’ is 89. Which one of the following statement is
either ns1 (or) ns2 incorrect in relation to ionization enthalpy?
II) The general outer electronic configuration 1) Ionization enthalpy increases for each
of ‘X’ is (n+1)d1-10 ns1 (or) 2 successive electron
III) The outer electronic configuration of ‘Y’ 2) The greatest increase in ionization enthalpy
is ns2np1-6 is experienced on removal of electron from
IV) The general outer electronic configuration core noble gas configuration
of ‘Z’ is (n-2)f1-14 (n+1)d0(or)1 ns2 3) End of valence electron is marked by a
1) I, II, III & IV 2) II, IV jump in ionization enthalpy
3) I, III 4) II, III & IV 4) Removal of electron from orbitals bearing
84. The element with atomic number 33 is lower ‘n’ value is easier than from orbital
expected to be present in having higher n-value
+
1) 4th period ; 15th group 90. M(g) → M (g) + e- ∆H = +520 kJ mol-1
2) 3rd period ; 15th group Calculate the amount of energy required to
3) 3rd period ; 14th group convert 280 mg of ‘M’ atom in gaseous state
+
4) 4th period ; 14th group into M (g) ion (At. wt for ‘M’ = 7 g mol-1)
85. Which of the following species will have the 1) 20.8 kJ 2) 28.0 kJ
largest size 3) 13 kJ 4) 3.7 kJ
1) O-2 2) F- 91. Angiosperms are characterised by the presence
3) Na+ 4) Mg+2 of
86. If the ionic radii of K+ and F- are about 1.34Ao 1) Vessels and inflorescences
each, then the expected values of atomic radii 2) Flowers and fruits
of K and F should be, respectively 3) Triple fusion
1) 1.34 and 1.34 Ao 4) All of these
2) 2.31 and 0.64 Ao 92. The spread of curly top virus in plants takes
3) 0.64 and 2.31 Ao place through
4) 2.31 and 1.34 Ao 1) xylem 2) phloem
3) roots 4) leaves
 9 Test ID : 111
93. The primary roots and its branches constitute 96. Identify the mismatch
the 1) Adventitious Gets swollen due
1) Tap root system roots of sweet to food storage
2) Adventitious root system potato
3) Fibrous root system 2) Tap roots of Food storage
4) Pneumatophores carrot and turnip

94. Match the following 3) Stilt roots of Support

sugarcane
Column – I Column – II
4) Pneumatophores Helps to get O2
I) Root cap A) Very small, thin required for
walled cells with photosynthesis
dense cytoplasm 97. The stem develops from the ____ of the ____
II) Meristematic B) Cells responsible of a germinating seed
zone for growth of 1) Plumule, Endosperm
root in length 2) Radicle, Zygote
III) Elongation C) Thimble like 3) Plumule, embryo
zone structure 4) Radicle, Testa
protecting tender 98. Slender and spirally coiled structures, that

root apex helps the plant to climb are ____

1) Bulbils 2) Phylloclade
IV) Maturation D) Gradual
3) Tendrils 4) Runners
zone differentiation
99. Select the incorrect matching
and maturation
of cells 1) Thorns - Citrus, Bougainvillea
2) Fleshy, Cylindrical stem - Euphorbia
1) I – C, II – D, III – A, IV – B
3) Underground stem for food storage - Ginger
2) I – C, II – A, III – D, IV – B
4) Stem tendril - Colocasia
3) I – C, II – B, III – A, IV – D 100. A lateral branch with short internode and each
4) I – C, II – A, III – B, IV – D node bearing a resette of leaves and a tuft of
95. Find out the incorrect statement roots are found in aquatic plants like
1) Root hairs absorbs water and minerals from 1) Pistia 2) Eichhornia
the soil 3) Wolfia 4) Both (1) and (2)
2) Very fine and delicate, thread like 101. Roots originating from branches and providing

structures called “Root hairs” develop from mechanical support are found in
maturation zone 1) Rhizophora 2) Maize
3) Sugarcane 4) Banyan
3) The cells proximal to meristematic zone are
102. The continuous growth of primary root results
responsible for increase in length of roots.
in the development of _____ root system
4) Roots cannot synthesize plant growth
1) Fibrous 2) Adventitious
regulators
3) Stilt 4) Tap
 10 Test ID : 111
103. The fleshy leaves of onion and garlic helps in 109. What is correct with respect to
1) Protection 2) Reproduction pneumatophores?
3) Storage of food 4) Secretion 1) They are found in all aquatic plants
104. Which of the following plants produce edible 2) They are also known as respiratory roots
root? 3) They bear small pores lenticels
4) Both (2) and (3)
1) Zingiber officinalis
110. Swollen leaf base in the leguminous plants is
2) Solanum tuberosum
called as
3) Curcuma longa
1) Petiole 2) Pulvinus
4) Raphanus sativus
3) Pedunucle 4) Phylloclade
105. Eye of potato is
111. Select correct match w.r.t column – I and II.
1) Axillary bud 2) Accessory bud
Column – I Column – II
3) Apical bud 4) Adventious bud
106. Which of the following groups of plants are
A) Modified tap root 1) Zea mays
for respiration
propagated through underground root?
1) Ginger, Potato, Onion and Zaminkand B) Storage tap root 2) Ipomoea
2) Pistia, Chrysanthemum and Pine apple C) Modified 3) Rhizophora
3) Sweet potato, Asparagus and Dahlia adventitious root
4) Jasmine, Strawberry and Oxalis for mechanical
support
107. Which of the following statements are correct
about leaf? D) Modified 4) Turnip
adventitious root
A) Leaf is a lateral, generally flattened
for food storage
structure borne on the stem
B) It develops at the node and bear a bud in its 1) A – 3, B – 4, C – 1, D – 2
axil. 2) A – 3, B – 4, C – 2, D – 1
C) Leaves originate from shoot apical 3) A – 4, B – 3, C – 2, D – 1
meristem and are arranged in basipetal 4) A – 4, B – 3, C – 1, D – 2
order. 112. A root cap is usually absent in the roots of
D) They are the most important vegetative 1) Hydrophytes 2) Epiphytes
organs for reproduction 3) Parasites 4) All of the above
1) A and B 113. An example of negatively geotropic root
2) A, B and C 1) Coralloid root of cycas
3) B and C 2) Pneumatophore of mangrooves
4) All of these 3) Assimilatory roots of Trapa
108. A slender lateral branch arising from the base 4) More than one option is correct
of the main axis and after growing aerially 114. In a potato plant, the tubers develop on
arches downwards to touch the ground is seen 1) Primary root 2) Secondary root
in 3) Tertiary root 4) Stolon
1) Mint and Jasmine 115. Which is not a stem modification?
2) Banana and Pine apple 1) Rhizome of Ginger
3) Grass and Strawberry 2) Sucker of Jasmine
4) Pistia and Eichhornia 3) Pitcher of Nepenthes
4) Tendril of Grapevine
 11 Test ID : 111
116. Which of the following is not a part of leaf? 124. Read the following statements and identify the

1) Pedicel 2) Petiole correct option?

3) Lamina 4) Leaf base Statement – I : Thorn is a stem structure
because it develops from axillary bud.
117. The leaf base may bear two lateral small leaf
Statement – II : Stem tendrils occur in water
like structures called
melon and Pisum.
1) Bract 2) Rachis 1) Both the statements are correct
3) Stipules 4) Bulbils 2) Both the statements are incorrect
118. Mark the incorrect statement 3) Statement – I is correct, statement – II is
incorrect
1) Flower is a modified shoot
4) Statement – I is incorrect, statement – II is
2) Flowers are borne on successive internodes
correct
on the stems and roots
125. Which of the following statements is correct?
3) In cymose inflorescence, the main axis
1) Pneumatophores in mangroove plants help
terminates into a flower in support
4) When a shoot tip transforms into a flower, 2) In Opuntia, stem is modified to carry out
the flower is always solitary photosynthesis
119. The modified stem in some plants of arid 3) In pitcher plant, flowers are modified to
region is attract insects
4) In a compound leaf, axillary bud is present
1) Tendril for climbing
in the axil of every leaflet.
2) Spines for defence 126. The arrangement of flowers on the floral axis
3) Phylloclade for food synthesis is termed as
4) Phyllode for food synthesis 1) Phyllotaxy 2) Aestivation
120. The term phyllotaxy is used to describe the 3) Inflorescence 4) Placentation
1) Position of ovary in a plant 127. Modified petiole of austrlian acacia helps in

2) Mode of arrangement of sepals and petals 1) Transpiration 2) Secretion

3) Mode of arrangement of leaves 3) Photosynthesis 4) Respiration
128. Which one is not a leaf modification?
4) Types of roots
1) Phyllode of acacia
121. The sharp spines in cactus are modified
2) Tendrils of nepenthes
1) Leaflets 2) Leaves 3) spines of cactus
3) Branches 4) Thorns 4) Cladophylls of asparagus
122. The tendrils of the pea plant, Pisum are 129. Incorrect statement of the following
modifications of 1) The floral characteristics forms the basis of
1) Branch 2) Axillary bud classification and of flowering plants
3) Leaf 4) Apical bud 2) Leaves in pumpkin are modified into
tendrils and helps in classification
123. Inone of the following the stem performs the
3) In Alstonia, more than two leaves are
function of storage and propagation present at each node
1) Ginger 2) Wheat 4) In Australian acacia, leaflets are small and
3) Radish 4) Ground nut shortlived.
 12 Test ID : 111
130. Sleeping movements commonly occur in 136. The process of conversion of complex food
plants of family substances into simple absorbable forms is
1) Leguminosae 2) Liliaceae carried out by
3) Malvaceae 4) Compositae 1) mechanical method
131. The main purpose of phyllotaxy for the leaves
2) biochemical method
is to provide sufficient 3) oxidation method
4) both 1 and 2
1) Soil 2) Air
137. Which of the following plays an important
3) Water 4) Light
role in metabolic processes and also prevents
132. Which option is correctly matched with the
dehydration of the body?
diagram 1) Carbohydrates 2) Proteins
3) Vitamins 4) Water
138. Assertion (A): Thecodont teeth are present in
humans.
Reason (R): In humans teeth are embedded in
the sockets of jaw bones.
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
1) A – Cymose, B – Racemose 2) Both A and R are true and R is the not
2) A – Racemose, B – Cymose correct explanation of A
3) A – Racemose, B – Racemose 3) A is true but R is false
4) A – Cymose, B – Cymose 4) A is false but R is true
133. A simple three flowered cymose inflorescence 139. Identify A, B, C and D in given diagram.
is
1) Simple cyme 2) Cymule
3) Both (1) and (2) 4) Panicle
134. By which of the following a leaf can be
identified?
1) A flat green lamina
2) Presence of leaf blade and petiole
3) Presence of Axillary bud
4) Occurence of chlorophyll
135. In i type of inflorescence, main axis
terminates in a flower, hence is limited in
growth and flowers are borne in ii
succession.
I II 1) A - Gall bladder, B - Caecum, C - Jejunum,
1) Racemose Acropetal D - Liver
2) Racemose Basipetal 2) A - Gall bladder, B - Caecum, C - Jejunum,
3) Cymose Acropetal D - Rectum
3) A - Gall bladder, B - Liver, C - Ileum,
4) Cymose Basipetal
D - Rectum
4) A - Gall bladder, B - Caecum, C - Jejunum,
D - Sigmoid colon
 13 Test ID : 111
140. The hard chewing surface of the teeth is made 146. The part of large intestine that hosts some
up of symbiotic micro organisms is ____
1) dentine, originated from mesoderm 1) caecum 2) ascending colon
2) dentine, originated from ectoderm 3) descending colon 4) sigmoid colon
3) enamel, originated from mesoderm 147. Studythe following statements and choose the
4) enamel, originated from ectoderm incorrect statements.
141. Dental formula of adult man is i) Muscularis of the wall of alimentary canal
2 1 0 2 is mostly made up of smooth muscles.
1) I C PM M
2 1 0 2 ii) Oblique muscle layer is present in all
2 1 2 2 regions of the alimentary canal.
2) I C PM M
2 1 2 2 iii) Sub mucosa of duodenum contains glands.
2 1 2 3 iv) The layer of alimentary canal that contains
3) I C PM M
2 1 2 3 nerves, blood and lymph vessels is sub
2 1 3 2 mucosa.
4) I C PM M
2 1 3 2 1) i and ii 2) ii and iii
142. Statement-I: All papillae present on tongue
3) ii only 4) iii and iv
bear taste buds (gustatory receptors).
148. Identify A, B, C and D in the given diagram.
Statement-II: Pharynx serves as common
passage for both food and air.
1) Both Statements I and II are correct
2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
incorrect
3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
correct
4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
143. Total number of upper molars in man is
1) 8 2) 4
1) A - villi, B - capillaries, C - crypts, D- vein
3) 12 4) 6
2) A - lacteal, B - capillaries, C - crypts,
144. The sphincter that regulates the opening of
D- vein
oesophagus into stomach is
3) A - lacteal, B - capillaries, C - crypts,
1) cricopharyngeal sphincter
D - artery
2) gastro-esophageal sphincter
4) A - lacteal, B - crypts, C - capillaries, D- vein
3) sphincter of Oddi
149. Which of the following salivary glands are not
4) pyloric sphincter
present in man?
145. The portion of the stomach which opens into
the first part of small intestine is ____. 1) Infra orbital glands
1) cardiac stomach 2) fundic stomach 2) Parotid glands
3) body of stomach 4) pyloric stomach 3) Sub-maxillary glands
4) Sub-lingual glands
 14 Test ID : 111
150. Identify A, B, C and D in the given diagram. 152. Modifications in mucosa of small intestine
help in
1) efficient absorption of absorbable forms of
food components
2) efficient absorption of original forms of
food components
3) efficient peristaltic movements
4) efficient mechanical digestion of food
components
153. Number of roots in upper molar is
1) A - Common hepatic duct, B - Duodenum,
1) 1 2) 2
C - Pancreatic duct, D - Hepato pancreatic
duct 3) 3 4) 4
2) A - Common hepatic duct, B - Duodenum, 154. Name of the thin connective tissue sheath

C - Hepato pancreatic duct, D - Pancreatic around the structural and functional unit of
duct liver is
3) A - Duodenum, B - Common hepatic duct, 1) renal capsule 2) Bowman’s capsule
C - Pancreatic duct, D - Hepato pancreatic 3) Malpighian capsule 4) Glisson’s capsule
duct 155. Blood vessel/s that enter/s the liver is/are
4) A - Common bile duct, B - Duodenum, 1) hepatic vein only
C - Pancreatic duct, D - Hepato pancreatic 2) hepatic portal vein only
duct
3) hepatic artery only
151. Match the following column-I and column-II.
4) both 2 and 3
Column - I Column - II 156. Carbohydrate splitting enzyme that initiates
A) Sphincter which guards chemical process of digestion in alimentary
i) Sphincter of
the anterior opening of canal by the hydrolytic action is _____
Oddi
stomach 1) salivary amylase with pH 6.8
B) Sphincter which guards 2) salivary amylase with pH 1.8
ii) Ileo-caecal
the posterior opening of 3) pancreatic amylase with pH 6.8
valve
stomach
4) pancreatic amylase with pH 7.8
C) Sphincter that guards 157. Match the following columns and choose the
iii) Pyloric
the opening of common correct option.
sphincter
hepato-pancreatic duct
Column - I Column - II
D) Valve that guards the iv) Gastro-
posterior opening of small oesophageal A) Neck cells of gastric
i) Pepsinogen
intestine sphincter glands
1) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i B) Chief cells of gastric ii) Castle’s
2) A - iv, B - iii, C - i, D - ii glands intrinsic factor
3) A - iv, B - i, C - ii, D - iii C) Parietal cells of gastric
iii) Mucus
4) A - ii, B - iii, C - i, D - iv glands
 15 Test ID : 111
1) A - iii, B - ii, C - i 163. Prorennin is secreted by
2) A - iii, B - i, C - ii 1) parietal cells 2) paneth cells
3) A - i, B - ii, C - iii 3) chief cells 4) oxyntic cells
4) A - i, B - iii, C - ii 164. In the absence of one of the following
158. The substance that secreted by gastric glands enzymes of succus entericus, protein digestion
essential for the absorption of vitamin B12 is would be severely impaired. Identify that
1) pepsinogen enzymes in the following?
2) mucus 1) Enterokinase 2) Disaccharidase
3) HCl 3) Dipeptidases 4) Lipases
4) castle’s intrinsic factor 165. Trypsin differs from pepsin because it digests

159. Churning movements of stomach are 1) Proteins in acidic medium in stomach

performed by the contractions and relaxations 2) Proteins in alkaline medium in stomach
of 3) Proteins in acidic medium in intestine
1) longitudinal muscle layer only 4) Proteins in alkaline medium in small
2) circular muscle layer only intestine
3) oblique muscle layer only 166. Lacteals are responsible for

4) all of the above 1) absorption of amino acids

160. In which of the following set, all are enzymes? 2) absorption of glucoses
1) Renin, pepsin and amylase 3) absorption of fructoses and glucoses
2) Rennin, pepsin and gastrin 4) absorption of end products of fats
3) Rennin, pepsin and trypsin 167. Optimal pH for trypsin is

4) Pepsin, trypsin and cholecystokinin 1) 6.8 2) 1.8

161. Study the following statements and choose the 3) 7.8 4) 8.0
correct statements related to humans. 168. How many enzymes in the list given below are
i) Lipases are absent in gastric juice related to succus entericus?
ii) Bile helps in emulsification of fats and also Procarboxypeptidases, Nucleases,
activates lipases. Nucleotidases, Nucleosidases, Maltase,
iii) Nucleases are related to succus entericus Chymotrypsinogen, Pepsinogen
iv) Nucleotidases and nucleosidases are 1) 2 2) 3
related to succus entericus. 3) 4 4) 5
1) i and ii 2) ii and iii 169. Which substances of gastric juice protect the
3) iii and iv 4) ii and iv mucosa from excoriation by highly
162. Which of the following enzymes are absent in concentrated HCl?
succus entericus? 1) Pepsin
1) Disaccharidases 2) Rennin
2) Dipeptidases 3) Mucus and bicarbonates
3) Enterokinase 4) Castle’s intrinsic factor
4) Procarboxypeptidases
 16 Test ID : 111
170. Theenzyme that activates the chymotrypsinogen 175. Gastro intestinal mucosa is protected from
and procarboxypeptidase is acid by
1) Enterokinase 2) Trypsinogen 1) mucus and bicarbonates of gastric juice
3) Trypsin 4) Nuclease only
171. Study the following statements and choose the 2) mucus and bicarbonates of pancreatic juice
correct statements. only
3) secretion of Brunner’s glands only
i) About 30% of starch is hydrolosed by
salivary amylase in our buccal cavity. 4) all the above
176. Functions of bile are
ii) Optimal pH for salivary amylase is 6.8
1) neutralizes the acidity of chyme
iii) Optimal pH for pepsin is 1.8
2) emulsification of fats
iv) Renin is a proteolytic enzyme present in
gastric juice of infants. 3) activates lipases
4) all the above
1) i and ii only 2) ii and iii only
177. The activities of the gastro intestinal tract are
3) iii and iv only 4) except iv
under control of
172. Identify incorrect among the following.
1) neural signals only
Proteins 
i) Peptones  →
Trypsin /Chymotrypsinogen Dipeptides. 2) hormones only
Carboxypeptidase
3) both local neural mechanisms and CNS
Proteoses
only
Amylase
ii) Polysaccharides  → Disaccharides 4) both hormones and neural signals
Nucleotidases 178. Which of the following are absorbed into
iii) Nucleic acids  → Nucteotides
Maltase blood/ lymph with the help of carrier proteins?
iv) Maltose  → Glucose + Glucose
1) Fatty acids
1) i and ii only 2) ii and iii only
2) Glycerol
3) iii and iv only 4) i and iii 3) Water
173. Which of the following form of fatty acids and 4) Glucose and amino acids
glycerol move into the intestinal mucosal cell?
179. Absorption of chloride ions into blood through
1) Micelles the intestinal mucosa is carried out by
2) Chylomicrones 1) active transport mechanism
3) both 1 and 2 2) simple diffusion
4) Original form of fats 3) facilitated transport mechanism
174. The glands that present between the bases of 4) both 1 and 2
villi in intestine are 180. The abnormal frequency of bowel movement
1) gastric glands and increased liquidity of the faecal discharge
2) Brunner’s glands is called
3) Crypts of Lieberkuhn 1) jaundice 2) diarrhoea
4) Crypts of Langerhans 3) constipation 4) vomiting

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