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Question Biology2

The document is a biology examination paper for Class 12 with a total of 33 compulsory questions divided into five sections, covering various topics in biology. Each section has a different mark allocation, and students are required to attempt all questions, with some internal choices provided. The paper includes multiple-choice questions, assertions and reasoning, case studies, and diagram-based questions.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
8 views7 pages

Question Biology2

The document is a biology examination paper for Class 12 with a total of 33 compulsory questions divided into five sections, covering various topics in biology. Each section has a different mark allocation, and students are required to attempt all questions, with some internal choices provided. The paper includes multiple-choice questions, assertions and reasoning, case studies, and diagram-based questions.

Uploaded by

irajankasyap
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 7

Arvind Academy

BIOLOGY SP 8
Class 12 - Biology
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

1. All questions are compulsory.

2. The question paper has five sections and 33 questions. All questions are compulsory.

3. Section–A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section–B has 5 questions of 2 marks each; Section– C has 7

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questions of 3 marks each; Section– D has 2 case-based questions of 4 marks each; and Section–E has 3 questions

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of 5 marks each.

4. There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to

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attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
5. Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.
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Section A
1. Embryo developed from the somatic cells are called: [1]
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a) Callus b) Embryoids

c) Hybrids d) Cybrids
2. N2 - fixing bacteria in legume plants are: [1]
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a) Plasmodium b) Rhizobia

c) Azotobacter d) Frankia
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3. The carrying capacity of environment for a given population can be represented by the equation: [1]

a) dN

dt
= rN −
N

K
b) dN

dt
= rN − (1 −
N

K
)

c) d)
dN 1 N
= rN − dN = rN −
dt K K

4. Nematode-specific genes were introduced into the tobacco host plant by using the vector. [1]

a) Agrobacterium b) pBR 322

c) Plasmid d) Bacteriophage
5. Which of the following is not an invasive alien species in the Indian context? [1]

a) Eichhornia b) Lantana

c) Parthenium d) Cynodon
6. Cleavage includes the rapid mitotic division of zygote to form a single layered hollow spherical structure called [1]
________.

a) Morula b) Parturition

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c) Gastrula d) Blastula
7. For which of the disease transgenic models do not exists now days? [1]

a) Cystic fibrosis b) Tuberculosis

c) Cancer d) Alzheimer’s disease.


8. H-bonds between Cytosine and Guanine are [1]

a) 1 b) 2

c) 3 d) 4

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9. From among the sets of terms given below, identify those that are associated with the gynoecium. [1]

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a) Stigma, ovule, embryo sac, placenta b) Ovule, ovary, embryo sac, tapetum

c) Thalamus, pistil, style, ovule d) Ovule, stamen, ovary, embryo sac


10.
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Given below is a pedigree chart of a family with five children. It shows the inheritance of attached ear lobes as
opposed to the free ones. The squares represent the male individuals and circles the female individuals. Which
[1]
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one of the following conclusions drawn is correct?
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a) The parents are homozygous recessive b) The parents are heterozygous

c) The trait is Y-linked d) The parents are homozygous dominant


11. What is antisense technology? [1]
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a) A cell displaying a foreign antigen used for b) When a piece of RNA that is
synthesis of antigenes. complementary in sequence is used to stop
expression of specific gene.

c) Production of somaclonal variants in tissue d) RNA polymerase producing DNA.


culture.
12. The figure below shows three steps (A, B, C) of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). Select the option giving [1]
correct identification together with what it represents?

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a) C - extension in the presence of heat stable b) A - denaturation at a temperature of about
DNA polymerase. 50°C.

c) B - denaturation at a temperature of about d) A - annealing with two sets of primers.


98°C separating the two DNA strands.

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13. Assertion (A): In Turner’s syndrome, one A-chromosome is missing and in Klinefelter’s syndrome, the [1]

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condition is XXY.
Reason (R): These can be easily studied by analysis of karyotypes.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct


explanation of A.
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b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
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c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.
14. Assertion: Evolution is not a direct process in the sense of determinism. [1]
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Reason: It is a stochastic process based on chance events in nature and chance mutation in the organisms.

a) Assertion and reason both are correct b) Assertion and reason both are correct
statements and reason is correct explanation statements but reason is not correct
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for assertion. explanation for assertion.

c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is
wrong statement. correct statement.
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15. Assertion: DNA chemically is less reactive and structurally more stable when compared to RNA. [1]
Reason: The presence of Thymine at the place of adenine provides additional stability to DNA.

a) Assertion and reason both are correct b) Assertion and reason both are correct
statements and reason is correct explanation statements but reason is not correct
for assertion. explanation for assertion.

c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is
wrong statement. correct statement.
16. Assertion (A): Mast cells in the human body release excessive amounts of inflammatory chemicals, which [1]
cause allergic reactions.
Reason (R): Allergens in the environment on reaching the human body stimulate mast cells in certain
individuals.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

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c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.
Section B
17. How do the following organisms act as bio-fertilisers? Explain. [2]
a. Mycorrhiza
b. Anabaena
c. Rhizobium
18. Study the pie-diagram and answer the questions which follows: [2]
What do A, B, C and D represent in these diagrams.

19. Name the particular technique whose steps are shown in the following figure. Use the figure to summarise the [2]

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technique in three steps.

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20. Given below is an incomplete chart showing the influence of hormones on gametogenesis in males. Observe the [2]
chart carefully and fill in the blanks A, B, C and D
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Ar

21. Predation is referred to as a detrimental interaction. Explain any three positive roles, supported by an example [2]
each, that a predator plays in an ecosystem.
OR
Give two examples of mutualism in living organisms.
Section C
22. Name the genus to which baculoviruses belong. Describe their role in the integrated pest management [3]
programmes.
23. Study the following flow chart and answer the following question: [3]

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i. Name the hormones involved in each state.
ii. Explain the functions of hormones involved in each state.
iii. Write the name of the placental hormone.
24. Mention the advantages of selecting pea plant for experiment by Mendel. [3]
25. A team of research workers observed that the population of fish-eating birds is declining every year after the [3]
establishment of a pesticide factory nearby five years ago.

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i. What may be the possible reason in your opinion? Explain.
ii. Can you suggest an alternative to pesticides so that factories may be stopped?
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26. Draw a diagram of L.S. of an anatropous ovule of an angiosperm and label the following parts. [3]
i. Nucellus
ii. Integuments
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iii. Antipodal cells


iv. Secondary nucleus.
OR
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Draw the diagram of a microsporangium and label its wall layers. Write briefly on the role of the endothecium.
27. Explain the following terms: [3]
i. Food web
ii. Ecological pyramid
iii. Above ground detritus
iv. Nutrient or biogeochemical cycling.
28. Why is Saheli considered an effective contraceptive for women to space children? [3]
Section D
29. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
In 1952, Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase took an effort to find the genetic material in organisms. Their
experiments led to an unequivocal proof to DNA as genetic material.

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Hershey and Chases’s experiments:
i. Name the kind of virus they worked with and why? (1)
ii. Why did they use two types of culture media to grow viruses in? Explain. (1)
iii. What was the need for using a blender and later a centrifuge during their experiments? (2)
OR
State the conclusion drawn by them after the experiments. (2)
30. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
Ryan is suffered from Adenosine Deaminase deficiency is a hereditary disease. His parents consulted a doctor.

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The doctor prescribed treatment through gene therapy?
i. What is gene therapy? (1)

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ii. What is the function of adenosine Deaminase enzyme? (1)
iii. In which year the first clinical gene therapy was given? (2)
OR
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Which tissue is obtained from the ADA patient for gene therapy? (2)
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Section E
31. Study the figure (a) and (b) given below and answer the questions given after the graphs. [5]
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a.
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b.

i. Under the influence of which type of Natural selection would graph (a) become like a graph.
ii. What could be the likely reasons of new variations arising in the population?
iii. Who suggested Natural Selection as a mechanism of evolution?
OR
Two organisms occupying a particular geographical area (say desert) show similar adaptive strategies. Taking
examples, describe the phenomenon.
32. How has the study of biotechnology helped in developing pest-resistant cotton crop? Explain. [5]

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OR
Describe in detail the role of biotechnology in diagnosis of diseases.
33. A youth in his twenties met with an accident and succumbed to the injuries. His parents agreed to donate his [5]
organs. List any two essential clinical steps to be undertaken before any organ transplant. Why is the transplant
rejected sometimes? What views would you share with your health club members to promote organ donation?
OR
A person is suffering from watery diarrhoea, effortless vomiting without nausea and loss of several litres of fluid
takes place within hours.
i. Name the disease and its causal organism.
ii. Suggest some preventive measures to avoid this disease.
iii. Can the spread of this disease be controlled? If yes, how?

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