I hope that this book will serve as a valuable reference tool for

you for years to come

Cardiac Arrest: Essential Knowledge and

Practice MCQs

By: Dr. Nehad Ahmed

 Cardiac arrest is one of the most critical medical emergencies, demanding
immediate recognition, rapid intervention, and a thorough understanding of its
underlying causes and management strategies. It is a condition where the heart
suddenly stops beating, leading to a cessation of blood flow to vital organs,
including the brain. Without prompt and effective treatment, cardiac arrest can
result in irreversible damage or death within minutes. This makes it imperative for
healthcare professionals, medical students, and even laypersons to be well-versed
in the principles of cardiac arrest management.

This book, "Cardiac Arrest: Essential Knowledge and Practice MCQs," is designed
to provide a comprehensive yet concise overview of cardiac arrest, covering its
pathophysiology, causes, diagnostic criteria, and evidence-based treatment
protocols. Whether you are preparing for medical exams, refreshing your
knowledge, or seeking to enhance your clinical skills, this book serves as an
invaluable resource.

The inclusion of multiple-choice questions (MCQs) throughout the book ensures an

interactive and engaging learning experience. These MCQs are carefully crafted to
test your understanding of key concepts, challenge your critical thinking, and
reinforce your ability to apply theoretical knowledge to real-world scenarios. From
basic principles to advanced life support techniques, this book is structured to
build your confidence in managing cardiac arrest effectively.
Q1. What is the definition of cardiac arrest?
A) Sudden loss of consciousness without cessation of circulation
B) Cessation of cardiac mechanical activity, confirmed by absence of signs of circulation
C) The presence of arrhythmias without loss of circulation
D) Complete failure of the respiratory system without cardiac failure
Answer: B) Cessation of cardiac mechanical activity, confirmed by absence of signs of
circulation

Q2. Which of the following is the most common cause of cardiac arrest in adults?
A) Respiratory failure
B) Coronary artery disease
C) Drowning
D) Trauma
Answer: B) Coronary artery disease

Q3. What is the most common cause of cardiac arrest in pediatric patients?
A) Drug overdose
B) Coronary artery disease
C) Respiratory failure, asphyxiation, or progressive shock
D) Electrocution
Answer: C) Respiratory failure, asphyxiation, or progressive shock

Q4. Which of the following is NOT listed as a noncardiac cause of cardiac arrest?
A) Drowning
B) Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)
C) Coronary artery disease
D) Poisoning
Answer: C) Coronary artery disease

Q5. What is the difference between primary and secondary causes of cardiac arrest?
A) Primary occurs due to respiratory failure, while secondary is due to cardiac dysfunction
B) Primary involves fully oxygenated arterial blood at the time of arrest, while secondary
involves respiratory failure leading to hypoxemia and hypotension
C) Primary causes are nonshockable, while secondary causes are shockable rhythms
D) There is no difference between primary and secondary causes
Answer: B) Primary involves fully oxygenated arterial blood at the time of arrest, while
secondary involves respiratory failure leading to hypoxemia and hypotension
Q6. Which rhythm was historically the most common cause of cardiac arrest in adults?
A) Asystole
B) Pulseless electrical activity (PEA)
C) Pulseless ventricular tachycardia (PVT)
D) Ventricular fibrillation (VF)
Answer: D) Ventricular fibrillation (VF)

Q7. What has been the recent shift in the prevalence of rhythms in adult cardiac arrest?
A) Shockable rhythms are now more common than nonshockable rhythms
B) Nonshockable rhythms, such as asystole and PEA, are more prevalent than shockable rhythms
C) The incidence of both shockable and nonshockable rhythms is equal
D) Shockable rhythms like VF and PVT have completely disappeared
Answer: B) Nonshockable rhythms, such as asystole and PEA, are more prevalent than
shockable rhythms
Q8. Why is the shift to more nonshockable rhythms a concern?
A) Nonshockable rhythms have higher survival rates than shockable rhythms
B) Nonshockable rhythms are harder to diagnose
C) Survival rates to hospital discharge are lower after nonshockable rhythms than after shockable
rhythms
D) Nonshockable rhythms lead to better recovery outcomes
Answer: C) Survival rates to hospital discharge are lower after nonshockable rhythms than
after shockable rhythms

Q9. Which of the following is NOT a typical symptom that may precede cardiac arrest?
A) Anxiety
B) Crushing chest pain
C) Seizures
D) Shortness of breath
Answer: C) Seizures

Q10. Which of the following is a sign of cardiac arrest?

A) Increased pulse rate
B) Cyanosis
C) Warm extremities
D) Elevated blood pressure
Answer: B) Cyanosis

Q11. What is the primary method for diagnosing cardiac arrest?

A) Blood tests
B) Physical examination alone
C) Observing clinical manifestations consistent with cardiac arrest
D) Chest X-ray
Answer: C) Observing clinical manifestations consistent with cardiac arrest

Q12. Which diagnostic tool is used to identify the cardiac rhythm during cardiac arrest?
A) MRI scan
B) Electrocardiography (ECG)
C) Chest ultrasound
D) Pulse oximetry
Answer: B) Electrocardiography (ECG)

Q13. What is characteristic of ventricular fibrillation (VF) in cardiac arrest?

A) The presence of electrical activity without a pulse
B) Complete absence of electrical activity
C) Electrical chaos of the ventricles leading to no cardiac output
D) Normal heart rhythm with no detectable pulse
Answer: C) Electrical chaos of the ventricles leading to no cardiac output
Q14. Which condition is described as the absence of a detectable pulse, but with some
electrical activity other than VF or PVT?
A) Asystole
B) Pulseless electrical activity (PEA)
C) Ventricular fibrillation (VF)
D) Bradycardia
Answer: B) Pulseless electrical activity (PEA)

Q15. What does asystole on an ECG indicate?

A) Normal electrical activity of the heart
B) No electrical activity, shown by a flat line on the ECG
C) Chaotic electrical impulses in the ventricles
D) A stable, detectable pulse
Answer: B) No electrical activity, shown by a flat line on the ECG

Q16. Which of the following is the most likely sign of cardiac arrest?
A) Elevated blood pressure
B) Loss of consciousness
C) Increased body temperature
D) Increased pulse rate
Answer: B) Loss of consciousness

Q17. What is the primary goal of treatment for cardiac arrest?

A) To restore heart rhythm without considering other factors
B) To preserve life, restore health, and minimize disability while respecting the individual's
rights
C) To immediately transport the patient to the hospital
D) To maintain high blood pressure
Answer: B) To preserve life, restore health, and minimize disability while respecting the
individual's rights

Q18. What is the most important factor to minimize hypoxic damage to vital organs during
cardiac arrest treatment?
A) Immediate defibrillation
B) Effective ventilation and perfusion to restore spontaneous circulation
C) Administration of medications
D) Rapid transport to the hospital
Answer: B) Effective ventilation and perfusion to restore spontaneous circulation

Q19. What is the ultimate outcome of successful resuscitation in cardiac arrest treatment?
A) Immediate return to normal heart function
B) Survival to hospital discharge with good neurologic function
C) Avoiding the need for surgery
D) A permanent cure for the underlying cause of cardiac arrest
Answer: B) Survival to hospital discharge with good neurologic function

Q20. What is the “chain of survival” in the treatment of out-of-hospital cardiac arrests?
A) High-quality CPR, prompt medication administration, rapid defibrillation
B) Early recognition, activation of emergency response, CPR, defibrillation, ACLS, post-arrest
care, and recovery
C) Emergency transport, intravenous drug therapy, rapid defibrillation
D) Immediate CPR, rapid medication intervention, transport to a specialist
Answer: B) Early recognition, activation of emergency response, CPR, defibrillation,
ACLS, post-arrest care, and recovery
Q21. Which of the following is the first step in the “chain of survival” for out-of-hospital
cardiac arrest?
A) High-quality CPR
B) Rapid defibrillation
C) Early recognition of cardiac arrest and activation of the emergency response system
D) Post-arrest care
Answer: C) Early recognition of cardiac arrest and activation of the emergency response
system

Q22. Which step in the “chain of survival” is emphasized for in-hospital cardiac arrests
that is not part of the out-of-hospital approach?
A) Early recognition of cardiac arrest
B) Activation of emergency response
C) Early recognition and prevention of cardiac arrest
D) Post-arrest care
Answer: C) Early recognition and prevention of cardiac arrest

Q23. What does the American Heart Association (AHA) emphasize in their guidelines for
CPR and emergency cardiovascular care?
A) Immediate surgical intervention
B) Timely implementation of the “chain of survival”
C) The use of experimental drugs
D) Prevention of cardiac arrest only in high-risk individuals
Answer: B) Timely implementation of the “chain of survival”

Q24. Which step is included in both the out-of-hospital and in-hospital "chain of survival"?
A) Early recognition and prevention of cardiac arrest
B) High-quality CPR
C) Post-arrest care only
D) Surgical intervention
Answer: B) High-quality CPR

Q25. What is the correct mnemonic for the CPR sequence?

A) ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation)
B) CAB (Circulation, Airway, Breathing)
C) BCA (Breathing, Circulation, Airway)
D) ACB (Airway, Circulation, Breathing)
Answer: B) CAB (Circulation, Airway, Breathing)
Q26. What should be the first step when performing CPR on an unresponsive patient?
A) Deliver 2 rescue breaths
B) Start chest compressions
C) Determine patient responsiveness, activate the emergency medical response team, and obtain
an AED
D) Check the patient's blood pressure
Answer: C) Determine patient responsiveness, activate the emergency medical response
team, and obtain an AED

Q27. What is the correct compression depth for chest compressions in an adult during
CPR?
A) At least 1 inch (2.5 cm)
B) At least 2 inches (5 cm)
C) At least 3 inches (7.5 cm)
D) At least 1.5 inches (4 cm)
Answer: B) At least 2 inches (5 cm)

Q28. What is the recommended rate for chest compressions during CPR in adults?
A) 60–80 compressions per minute
B) 80–100 compressions per minute
C) 100–120 compressions per minute
D) 120–140 compressions per minute
Answer: C) 100–120 compressions per minute

Q29. If an AED is available, when should a shock be delivered?

A) After checking for a pulse
B) After 2 minutes of CPR
C) If the rhythm is shockable, deliver one shock and resume chest compressions immediately
D) Only after ACLS providers take over care
Answer: C) If the rhythm is shockable, deliver one shock and resume chest compressions
immediately

Q30. What is the recommended action if the rhythm is not shockable on an AED?
A) Continue CPR for 2 minutes or until prompted by the AED
B) Give 2 rescue breaths and stop chest compressions
C) Begin advanced airway placement immediately
D) Wait for ACLS providers to arrive
Answer: A) Continue CPR for 2 minutes or until prompted by the AED
Q31. What type of ventilation can be provided by an ACLS provider during resuscitation?
A) Mouth-to-mouth
B) Bag-mask device or an advanced airway (e.g., endotracheal tube, supraglottic device)
C) Only a manual pump
D) Only supplemental oxygen
Answer: B) Bag-mask device or an advanced airway (e.g., endotracheal tube, supraglottic
device)

Q32. What is the preferred method of drug administration if a central venous catheter is
unavailable during resuscitation?
A) Subcutaneous injections
B) Intraosseous (IO) access
C) Oral medication
D) Topical application
Answer: B) Intraosseous (IO) access

Q33. What should be the dose of medications administered endotracheally during

resuscitation compared to IV/IO administration?
A) The same dose as IV/IO
B) 0.5–1 times the IV/IO dose
C) 2–2.5 times the IV/IO dose
D) No medication should be given endotracheally
Answer: C) 2–2.5 times the IV/IO dose

Q34. When is it appropriate to use a central venous catheter for drug administration
during resuscitation?
A) It is always required
B) Only if peripheral venous access is not possible
C) Only after ACLS providers take over care
D) It is not recommended at all during resuscitation
Answer: B) Only if peripheral venous access is not possible

Q35. Which of the following rhythms is considered a shockable rhythm?

A) Asystole
B) Pulseless Electrical Activity (PEA)
C) Ventricular Fibrillation (VF)
D) Bradycardia
Answer: C) Ventricular Fibrillation (VF)
Q36. What is the first-line therapy for treating VF, PVT, asystole, and PEA?
A) Lidocaine
B) Epinephrine
C) Amiodarone
D) Magnesium sulfate
Answer: B) Epinephrine

Q37. Why is defibrillation often necessary in the treatment of VF and PVT?

A) It helps to increase heart rate
B) CPR alone is not likely to terminate VF/PVT, and defibrillation is required to restore cardiac
rhythm
C) It enhances blood pressure control
D) It prevents respiratory failure
Answer: B) CPR alone is not likely to terminate VF/PVT, and defibrillation is required to
restore cardiac rhythm

Q38. What is the primary action of epinephrine in the treatment of VF and PVT?
A) It relaxes the heart muscles to allow proper pumping
B) It causes vasodilation to improve coronary and cerebral perfusion
C) It increases the rate and forcefulness of heart contractions and causes vasoconstriction
D) It stabilizes the heart rhythm by inhibiting electrical impulses
Answer: C) It increases the rate and forcefulness of heart contractions and causes
vasoconstriction

Q39. What is the main effect of vasoconstriction induced by epinephrine during cardiac
arrest?
A) It reduces the oxygen demand of the heart
B) It increases coronary and cerebral perfusion pressures
C) It decreases heart rate
D) It improves pulmonary function
Answer: B) It increases coronary and cerebral perfusion pressures

Q40. Which of the following is NOT typically used as a nonpharmacologic therapy for
treating VF and PVT?
A) Defibrillation
B) Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
C) Epinephrine administration
D) Immediate shock delivery
Answer: C) Epinephrine administration

Q41. Which of the following rhythms is considered a shockable rhythm?

A) Asystole
B) Pulseless Electrical Activity (PEA)
C) Ventricular Fibrillation (VF)
D) Bradycardia
Answer: C) Ventricular Fibrillation (VF)

Q42. What is the first-line therapy for treating VF, PVT, asystole, and PEA?
A) Lidocaine
B) Epinephrine
C) Amiodarone
D) Magnesium sulfate
Answer: B) Epinephrine

Q43. Why is defibrillation often necessary in the treatment of VF and PVT?

A) It helps to increase heart rate
B) CPR alone is not likely to terminate VF/PVT, and defibrillation is required to restore cardiac
rhythm
C) It enhances blood pressure control
D) It prevents respiratory failure
Answer: B) CPR alone is not likely to terminate VF/PVT, and defibrillation is required to
restore cardiac rhythm

Q44. What is the primary action of epinephrine in the treatment of VF and PVT?
A) It relaxes the heart muscles to allow proper pumping
B) It causes vasodilation to improve coronary and cerebral perfusion
C) It increases the rate and forcefulness of heart contractions and causes vasoconstriction
D) It stabilizes the heart rhythm by inhibiting electrical impulses
Answer: C) It increases the rate and forcefulness of heart contractions and causes
vasoconstriction

Q45. What is the main effect of vasoconstriction induced by epinephrine during cardiac
arrest?
A) It reduces the oxygen demand of the heart
B) It increases coronary and cerebral perfusion pressures
C) It decreases heart rate
D) It improves pulmonary function
Answer: B) It increases coronary and cerebral perfusion pressures

Q46. Which of the following is NOT typically used as a nonpharmacologic therapy for
treating VF and PVT?
A) Defibrillation
B) Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
C) Epinephrine administration
D) Immediate shock delivery
Answer: C) Epinephrine administration

Q47. What is the recommended adult dose of epinephrine for cardiac arrest?
A) 0.5 mg every 3–5 minutes
B) 1 mg every 3–5 minutes
C) 2 mg every 3–5 minutes
D) 0.5 mg every 5–10 minutes
Answer: B) 1 mg every 3–5 minutes

Q48. What is the recommended method of administering epinephrine during cardiac

arrest?
A) Oral administration
B) Intravenous (IV) or intraosseous (IO) injection
C) Intramuscular injection
D) Subcutaneous injection
Answer: B) Intravenous (IV) or intraosseous (IO) injection

Q49. Are higher doses of epinephrine recommended for routine use in cardiac arrest?
A) Yes, higher doses are commonly used to improve outcomes
B) Yes, but only in severe cases
C) No, higher doses have been studied but are not recommended for routine use
D) No, epinephrine should only be given once at a high dose
Answer: C) No, higher doses have been studied but are not recommended for routine use

Q50. What is the primary effect of vasopressin during cardiac arrest treatment?
A) It induces vasodilation to decrease blood pressure
B) It increases blood pressure and systemic vascular resistance
C) It stabilizes the heart rhythm
D) It decreases coronary perfusion
Answer: B) It increases blood pressure and systemic vascular resistance

Q51. How do clinical outcomes with vasopressin compare to standard-dose epinephrine or

the combination of vasopressin and epinephrine?
A) Vasopressin has superior clinical outcomes
B) Vasopressin is equally effective as epinephrine alone
C) Clinical outcomes with vasopressin are not superior to standard-dose epinephrine or the
combination of both
D) Vasopressin leads to improved neurological recovery compared to epinephrine
Answer: C) Clinical outcomes with vasopressin are not superior to standard-dose
epinephrine or the combination of both

Q52. What is the primary goal of antiarrhythmic drug therapy after unsuccessful
defibrillation and vasopressor administration?
A) To stabilize blood pressure
B) To prevent development or recurrence of VF and PVT
C) To increase heart rate
D) To promote the restoration of consciousness
Answer: B) To prevent development or recurrence of VF and PVT

Q53. Which antiarrhythmic drug is recommended for adults with VF/PVT refractory to
defibrillation and epinephrine?
A) Amiodarone or lidocaine
B) Epinephrine or vasopressin
C) Magnesium sulfate
D) Adenosine
Answer: A) Amiodarone or lidocaine

Q54. What is the recommended initial dose of amiodarone for VF/PVT?

A) 150 mg IV/IO
B) 300 mg IV/IO followed by a second dose of 150 mg
C) 1–1.5 mg/kg IV
D) 3 mg/kg IV
Answer: B) 300 mg IV/IO followed by a second dose of 150 mg

Q55. How is lidocaine administered for VF/PVT refractory to defibrillation and

epinephrine?
A) 1–1.5 mg/kg IV as the initial dose, followed by 0.5–0.75 mg/kg every 5–10 minutes
B) 300 mg IV followed by a second dose of 150 mg
C) 1–2 mg/kg IV once
D) 3 mg/kg IV every 10 minutes
Answer: A) 1–1.5 mg/kg IV as the initial dose, followed by 0.5–0.75 mg/kg every 5–10
minutes

Q56. What is the maximum total dose of lidocaine for VF/PVT if the arrhythmia persists?
A) 1.5 mg/kg
B) 2.5 mg/kg
C) 3 mg/kg
D) 5 mg/kg
Answer: C) 3 mg/kg

Q57. When is magnesium typically administered during cardiac arrest?

A) Routinely in all cardiac arrests
B) Only for patients with hypokalemia
C) For patients with torsades de pointes associated with VF/PVT
D) For all patients with VF/PVT, regardless of other factors
Answer: C) For patients with torsades de pointes associated with VF/PVT

Q58. What is the dose of magnesium for cardiac arrest associated with torsades de pointes?
A) 1–2 g diluted in 10 mL of 5% dextrose in water administered IV/IO over 15 minutes
B) 10 mg IV every 5 minutes
C) 2–3 mg/kg IV/IO push immediately
D) 100 mg IV/IO over 10 minutes
Answer: A) 1–2 g diluted in 10 mL of 5% dextrose in water administered IV/IO over 15
minutes
Q59. What is the conclusion regarding the use of thrombolytics during CPR?
A) They improve survival and should be used routinely in all cardiac arrest cases
B) They are helpful for most cases of cardiac arrest associated with myocardial infarction
C) Thrombolytics should not be used routinely, but may be considered when pulmonary
embolism is suspected
D) They are the first-line treatment for all cardiac arrest rhythms
Answer: C) Thrombolytics should not be used routinely, but may be considered when
pulmonary embolism is suspected

Q60. What was the outcome of the randomized trial of tenecteplase vs placebo in cardiac
arrest?
A) Tenecteplase improved survival to hospital discharge and reduced intracranial hemorrhage
B) There was no improvement in ROSC or survival to hospital discharge, and the incidence of
intracranial hemorrhage was greater with thrombolytics
C) Tenecteplase improved blood pressure control
D) Tenecteplase was found to be superior in improving heart rhythm
Answer: B) There was no improvement in ROSC or survival to hospital discharge, and the
incidence of intracranial hemorrhage was greater with thrombolytics

Q61. Which of the following is a potentially reversible cause of Pulseless Electrical Activity
(PEA) and asystole?
A) Myocardial infarction
B) Hypoxia
C) Stroke
D) Sepsis
Answer: B) Hypoxia

Q62. What is the first step in the treatment of PEA and asystole?
A) Defibrillation
B) Epinephrine administration
C) Diagnosis of the underlying cause and CPR
D) Magnesium administration
Answer: C) Diagnosis of the underlying cause and CPR

Q63. Why should defibrillation be avoided in PEA and asystole?

A) It can cause further arrhythmias
B) It can reduce the chance of return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) and decrease survival
chances due to parasympathetic discharge
C) It leads to irreversible damage to the heart
D) It is only effective for shockable rhythms
Answer: B) It can reduce the chance of return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) and
decrease survival chances due to parasympathetic discharge

Q64. What is the recommended dose of epinephrine for treating PEA and asystole?
A) 0.5 mg IV/IO every 3–5 minutes
B) 1 mg IV/IO every 3–5 minutes
C) 3 mg IV/IO every 10 minutes
D) 2 mg IV/IO every 10 minutes
Answer: B) 1 mg IV/IO every 3–5 minutes

Q65. Which of the following should be done when treating PEA and asystole?
A) Administer defibrillation immediately
B) Perform CPR, ensure airway control, and establish IV access
C) Avoid CPR and focus on medications only
D) Administer vasopressin before epinephrine
Answer: B) Perform CPR, ensure airway control, and establish IV access

Q66. Which of the following conditions is NOT typically considered a potentially reversible
cause of PEA or asystole?
A) Tension pneumothorax
B) Coronary thrombosis
C) Severe anemia
D) Trauma
Answer: C) Severe anemia

Q67. How often should epinephrine be administered in cases of PEA and asystole?
A) Every 1–2 minutes
B) Every 3–5 minutes
C) Every 10 minutes
D) Every 20 minutes
Answer: B) Every 3–5 minutes

Q68. What is the main cause of acidosis during cardiac arrest?

A) Increased blood flow
B) Decreased blood flow and inadequate ventilation
C) Excessive drug administration
D) Hyperventilation
Answer: B) Decreased blood flow and inadequate ventilation

Q69. What effect does acidosis have on the heart during cardiac arrest?
A) It improves myocardial contractility
B) It lowers the fibrillation threshold and reduces myocardial contractility
C) It increases the likelihood of successful defibrillation
D) It stabilizes the cardiac rhythm
Answer: B) It lowers the fibrillation threshold and reduces myocardial contractility

Q70. Why is routine use of sodium bicarbonate not recommended during cardiac arrest?
A) It increases the risk of heart attack
B) It may lead to detrimental effects and has not been shown to improve ROSC or survival
C) It enhances tissue oxygenation
D) It is ineffective in treating respiratory acidosis
Answer: B) It may lead to detrimental effects and has not been shown to improve ROSC or
survival

Q71. In which special circumstances might sodium bicarbonate be used during cardiac
arrest?
A) Acute coronary syndrome
B) Hyperkalemia, tricyclic antidepressant overdose, and salicylate toxicity
C) Severe hypothermia
D) Respiratory acidosis due to obstructed airways
Answer: B) Hyperkalemia, tricyclic antidepressant overdose, and salicylate toxicity

Q72. What is the goal of post-cardiac arrest care regarding oxygenation?

A) Maintain 100% oxygen saturation for 24 hours
B) Avoid any oxygen therapy
C) Titrate the oxygen fraction down to maintain oxyhemoglobin saturation between 92-98%
D) Only provide oxygen after revascularization
Answer: C) Titrate the oxygen fraction down to maintain oxyhemoglobin saturation
between 92-98%

Q73. How should ventilation be managed after cardiac arrest to avoid overventilation?
A) Use high-flow oxygen therapy
B) Monitor end-tidal CO2 (ETCO2) to prevent overventilation
C) Administer ventilation until the patient shows signs of improvement
D) Provide ventilations at a rate of 20-30 breaths per minute
Answer: B) Monitor end-tidal CO2 (ETCO2) to prevent overventilation

Q74. What is the recommended mean arterial pressure (MAP) goal following resuscitation
from cardiac arrest?
A) MAP >60 mm Hg
B) MAP >80 mm Hg
C) MAP >100 mm Hg
D) MAP >120 mm Hg
Answer: B) MAP >80 mm Hg

Q75. What is the purpose of therapeutic hypothermia or targeted temperature

management (TTM) after cardiac arrest?
A) To lower the body temperature to prevent infection
B) To suppress chemical reactions and protect against cerebral injury
C) To stabilize heart rhythm and prevent arrhythmias
D) To increase metabolic rate and improve organ function
Answer: B) To suppress chemical reactions and protect against cerebral injury

Q76. What is the recommended temperature range for targeted temperature management
(TTM) after cardiac arrest?
A) 28°C to 30°C
B) 32°C to 36°C
C) 36°C to 38°C
D) 38°C to 40°C
Answer: B) 32°C to 36°C

Q77. Which of the following is a potential complication of therapeutic hypothermia

(TTM)?
A) Decreased risk of infection
B) Coagulopathy and dysrhythmias
C) Increased drug clearance
D) Hypoglycemia
Answer: B) Coagulopathy and dysrhythmias

Q78. What is considered the optimal outcome following CPR?

A) An unconscious patient with stable vital signs
B) An awake, responsive, and spontaneously breathing patient with minimal morbidity
C) A patient who remains on a ventilator but is stable
D) A patient who requires ongoing CPR for 24 hours
Answer: B) An awake, responsive, and spontaneously breathing patient with minimal
morbidity

Q79. Which of the following is NOT considered a useful parameter for evaluating the
efficacy of CPR?
A) Rhythm assessment via ECG
B) Pulse checks
C) Invasive hemodynamic monitoring (e.g., coronary perfusion pressure)
D) End-tidal CO2 (ETCO2) monitoring
Answer: B) Pulse checks

Q80. Which of the following is a recommended goal for arterial diastolic pressure during
CPR?
A) >10 mm Hg
B) >25 mm Hg
C) >40 mm Hg
D) >50 mm Hg
Answer: B) >25 mm Hg

Q81. What does an arterial central venous oxygen saturation (ScvO2) <30% during CPR
indicate?
A) Excellent CPR quality
B) A need for immediate defibrillation
C) Poor CPR quality
D) High likelihood of successful resuscitation
Answer: C) Poor CPR quality

Q82. What does persistently low ETCO2 values (<10 mm Hg) during CPR suggest in
intubated patients?
A) Likely return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC)
B) Poor CPR quality
C) High likelihood of successful resuscitation
D) Unlikely ROSC
Answer: D) Unlikely ROSC
Q83. Which of the following goals is recommended during the postresuscitative phase to
optimize hemodynamics?
A) Avoid hyperglycemia
B) Maintain mean arterial pressure (MAP) <65 mm Hg
C) Avoid hypotension with a MAP of >65 mm Hg
D) Keep systolic blood pressure (SBP) above 120 mm Hg
Answer: C) Avoid hypotension with a MAP of >65 mm Hg

Q84. Which of the following is the target for arterial blood oxygen saturation in the
postresuscitative phase?
A) >80%
B) >90%
C) >94%
D) >98%
Answer: C) >94%

Q85. Why is EEG monitoring indicated in the postresuscitative phase?

A) To assess brain temperature
B) To detect seizures, which can occur after cardiac arrest
C) To monitor oxygenation levels in the brain
D) To evaluate coronary perfusion pressure
Answer: B) To detect seizures, which can occur after cardiac arrest

Q86. What should be avoided during the post-cardiac arrest phase?

A) Hypotension
B) Normoglycemia
C) Hyperthermia
D) EEG monitoring
Answer: C) Hyperthermia

Q87. Which of the following is recommended after cardiac arrest to manage the post-
cardiac arrest syndrome?
A) Only focus on neurological status
B) Perform a complete review of systems due to the potential effects on multiple organ systems
C) Prioritize defibrillation over systemic treatment
D) Limit monitoring to oxygenation and blood pressure
Answer: B) Perform a complete review of systems due to the potential effects on multiple
organ systems
Q88. What is the primary goal in the recovery phase for cardiac arrest survivors?
A) To provide life-saving interventions immediately after discharge
B) To minimize emotional, cognitive, physical, and neurological symptoms
C) To begin rehabilitation only after complete neurological recovery
D) To focus only on physical rehabilitation without addressing emotional health
Answer: B) To minimize emotional, cognitive, physical, and neurological symptoms

Q89. What is a key component of the multimodal plan at hospital discharge for cardiac
arrest survivors?
A) Providing only pain management
B) Offering instructions for treatment, rehabilitation, and surveillance
C) Discontinuing all medications
D) Focusing solely on psychological support
Answer: B) Offering instructions for treatment, rehabilitation, and surveillance

Q90. Why is it important to define short- and long-term expectations for cardiac arrest
survivors?
A) To prevent patients from returning to work immediately
B) To provide a clear understanding of what to expect and create action plans for recovery
C) To focus exclusively on immediate medical needs
D) To ensure that family members are not involved in the recovery process
Answer: B) To provide a clear understanding of what to expect and create action plans for
recovery

Q91. What should be included in the recovery plan for cardiac arrest survivors to address
long-term expectations?
A) Only short-term rehabilitation
B) Regular follow-ups and ongoing rehabilitation therapies for emotional and cognitive health
C) Immediate return to daily activities without restrictions
D) Focus on medication management only
Answer: B) Regular follow-ups and ongoing rehabilitation therapies for emotional and
cognitive health

Q92. What should the action plan for the recovery phase aim to address?
A) The patient’s immediate financial concerns
B) The patient’s long-term emotional, cognitive, and physical rehabilitation needs
C) Only the patient’s cardiovascular health
D) The patient’s social life and relationships
Answer: B) The patient’s long-term emotional, cognitive, and physical rehabilitation needs

Q93. In the recovery phase, why is surveillance important for cardiac arrest survivors?
A) To monitor for any potential reoccurrence of the cardiac arrest
B) To assess and manage potential complications like infection
C) To track progress in rehabilitation and address any emerging health issues
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above

Q94. Which of the following is a common symptom experienced by many cardiac arrest
survivors during the recovery phase?
A) Sudden increase in physical strength
B) Prolonged emotional, cognitive, physical, and neurological symptoms
C) Immediate improvement in memory function
D) Complete resolution of all symptoms
Answer: B) Prolonged emotional, cognitive, physical, and neurological symptoms