Pinnacle Polity

Sol.4.(c) Dual Citizenship. authority to legislate on Union List

Polity India’s commitment to the rule of law is subjects. Article 2 allows for the
grounded in the Constitution which admission or establishment of new
Constitution establishes India as a ‘Sovereign states, while Article 3 provides for the
Socialist Secular Democratic Republic’ formation of new states and the
Q.1. During the framing of the Indian with a Parliamentary form of alteration of existing states' areas,
Constitution, the Constituent Assembly Government. Other key features: Federal boundaries, or names.
held a total of eleven sessions, with system of governance between the Union
sittings spread over for how many days? and the States; Separation of powers Q.7. The Indian Constitution came into
SSC MTS 13/11/2024 (2nd Shift) between the three organs of the force on ___ and is celebrated as
(a) 180 (b) 165 (c) 115 (d) 132 Government; free and fair elections; Republic Day.
Equality before the law; A secular state SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (2nd shift)
Sol.1.(b) 165. The Constituent Assembly (a) 26 Jan 1950 (b) 26 Jan 1951
that recognizes freedom of conscience
of India began its first session on 9 (c) 26 Feb 1950 (d) 26 Jan 1948
and religion.
December 1946 in the Constitution Hall
(now Central Hall of Parliament). Over Q.5. Which of the following statements Sol.7.(a) 26 Jan 1950. The Constitution
nearly three years, it held 11 sessions, are INCORRECT vis-à-vis features of the of India was adopted by the Constituent
meeting for 165 days, including 114 days Indian Constitution? Assembly on 26th November 1949. The
focused on discussing the Draft 1) The Constitution empowers the Prime Drafting Committee, chaired by Dr.
Constitution. Minister to proclaim three types of Bhimrao Ambedkar, was established on
emergencies. 29th August 1947. A total of 284
Q.2. The Indian Constitution has members signed the Constitution, which
2) A reservation policy is there to uplift
established _________. took 2 years, 11 months, and 18 days to

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the disadvantaged sections of society.
SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (1st Shift) draft.
3) The Supreme Court has no power of

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(a) partial Judicial system
judicial review. Q.8. Secularism is a feature of the Indian
(b) dual judicial system
4) The Constitution provides for universal Constitution, which means:

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(c) independent judicial system
adult suffrage. SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (1st shift)
(d) plural judicial system
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (2nd shift) (a) The State does not promote any
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Sol.2.(c) independent judicial system: It (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 religion.
means that the other organs of the (c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 (b) The State promotes the religion of the
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government like the executive and minority community.

Sol.5.(a) 1 and 3. The Constitution
legislature must not restrain the (c) The State promotes the religion of the
empowers the President to proclaim
functioning of the judiciary in such a way majority community.
TG

three types of emergencies. National

that it is unable to do justice. (d) The State can promote any religion.
Emergency (Article 352), President’s Rule
Q.3. Who among the following, while (State Emergency) (Article 356), Sol.8.(a) In India, the term 'secularism'
on

praising the amending feature of the Financial Emergency (Article 360). was introduced in the year 1976 of the
Indian Constitution said that ‘This variety 42nd Amendment of the Constitution.
Q.6. Which of the following statement(s)
in the amending process is wise but is
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is/are INCORRECT vis-a-vis features of Q.9. In which year did the Indian
rarely found’?
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the Indian Constitution? Constitution declare Hindi in Devanagari

SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
1) Though India has a federal system, the
a

(a) Granville Austin (b) Ivor Jennings script to be the official language of the
Constitution does not mention the word
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(c) K C Wheare (d) HM Seervai Union?

'federation'. SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (4th shift)
Sol.3.(c) K C Wheare was an Australian 2) Article 5 of the Constitution says that (a) 1952 (b) 1951 (c) 1949 (d) 1955
academic who was an expert on the the Parliament by law can create a new
constitutions of the British state. Sol.9.(c) 1949. Under Article 343(1), the
Commonwealth. He also described the 3) On the subjects in the Union list, each official language of the Union shall be
Indian Constitution as Quasi federal. State Legislature can enact laws for the Hindi in Devanagari script, while Section
Granville Austin, a well-known scholar of State. 3 of the Official Language Act, 1963 talks
the Indian Constitution, said, “The 4)Both the Parliament and State about the continuance of the English
amending process has proved itself as Legislature can pass laws on subjects in language for official purposes of the
one of the most ably conceived aspects concurrent list. Union and for use in Parliament.
of the constitution”. Ivor Jennings said SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (2nd shift)
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 Q.10. The Preamble of the Constitution
that ‘India is a federation with a strong
(c) Only 1 (d) 1 and 3 describes India as:
centralising tendency’.
SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (1st shift)
Q.4. Which of the following is NOT a Sol.6.(b) 2 and 3. Article 1 of the Indian (a) an atheist state (b) a unitary state
feature of the Constitution of India? Constitution defines India, also known as (c) a secular state (d) a federal state
SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Bharat, as a union of states. Although the
(a) Universal Adult Franchise term "federation" is not explicitly used, Sol.10.(c) A secular state. It does not
(b) Independent Judiciary India functions as a holding-together consider anyone's religion as an official
(c) Dual Citizenship type of federation where power religion. India is a Sovereign Socialist
(d) Blend of rigidity & flexibility distribution among states can be Secular Democratic Republic with a
unequal. The Parliament has exclusive Parliamentary form of government which

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 Pinnacle Polity
is federal in structure with unitary Q.14. Which of the following is NOT a Indian Constitution. Other names for the
features. Atheist State - No belief in basic feature of the Indian Constitution ? preamble: Soul of the Constitution: By
Gods. Unitary State - Central government SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift) Thakurdas Bhargav. Identity card of the
holds complete authority. Federal State - (a) Parliamentary system Constitution: By N.A. Palkhiwala. Keynote
Central and state governments share (b) Blend of rigidity and flexibility to the Constitution: By Sir Ernest Barker.
autonomy. (c) Lengthiest written Constitution
(d) Drawn from one source Q.17. When was the preamble to the
Q.11. Which of the following word Indian Constitution amended ?
sequences is correct as per the Sol.14.(d) Drawn from one source. The Matriculation Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
Preamble to the Constitution ? salient features of the Indian Constitution (a) 1981 (b) 1976 (c) 1974 (d) 1980
SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (3rd shift) include: the lengthiest written
(a) Sovereign, socialist, secular, constitution, drawn from various sources, Sol.17.(b) 1976. The Preamble of the
democratic, republic a blend of rigidity and flexibility, a federal Constitution was amended only once, in
(b) Secular, democratic, secular, socialist, system with a unitary bias, a 1976, by the 42nd Constitutional
sovereign parliamentary form of government, a Amendment. The terms 'Socialist',
(c) Sovereign, secular, socialist, synthesis of parliamentary sovereignty 'Secular', and 'Integrity' were added to the
democratic, republic and judicial supremacy, rule of law, an preamble. 'Socialist' and 'Secular' were
(d) Socialist, secular, democratic, integrated and independent judiciary, added between 'Sovereign' and
republic, sovereign fundamental rights, directive principles 'Democratic'. 'Unity of the Nation' was
of state policy, fundamental duties, changed to 'Unity and Integrity of the
Sol.11.(a) The words "Socialist" and secularism, single citizenship, judicial Nation'.
"Secular" were added to the Preamble of review, and the basic structure doctrine. Q.18. When is Constitution Day observed
the Indian Constitution by the 42nd

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in India ?
Amendment in 1976. Before this, India Q.15. Which of the following statements
Higher Secondary 24/06/2024 (Shift - 2)

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was described as a Sovereign, are correct in the context of the Indian
(a) 12 January (b) 26 November
Democratic, Republic, and after the Constitution?
(c) 26 January (d) 31 October

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amendment, it was changed to 1.There are three major organs of the
Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, government, namely Legislature, Sol.18.(b) 26 November. The ‘Purna
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Republic. Executive and Judiciary. Swaraj’ resolution, meaning total
2. A separation of functions rather than independence, was passed by the Indian
Q.12. In which of the following years was
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powers is followed. National Congress on 19 December

the National Anthem adopted in its Hindi 3.All organs of the government are 1929, during the Lahore session presided
version by the Constituent Assembly ? independent. by Jawaharlal Nehru. The pledge for
SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (3rd shift)
TG

SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift) independence was publicly announced

(a) 1947 (b) 1950 (c) 1954 (d) 1942 (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only on 26 January 1930. Nehru, along with
Sol.12.(b) 1950. The National Anthem of (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Congress members, marched to the
on

India, "Jana-Gana-Mana," was originally banks of the Ravi, taking an oath not to
Sol.15.(b) 1 and 2 only. In the context of rest until Purna Swaraj was achieved.
composed in Bengali by Rabindranath the Indian Constitution: Legislative
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Tagore and titled "Bharoto Bhagyo Function - Parliament (Lok Sabha and Q.19. Who among the following is called
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Bidhata." It was first publicly sung on Rajya Sabha) makes laws, with the 'Father of Indian constitution'?
December 27, 1911, at the Calcutta (now President giving assent to bills. Executive Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
a

Kolkata) Session of the Indian National Function - The Prime Minister and the (a) Bhim Rao Ambedkar
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Congress. It was translated into Hindi by Council of Ministers execute laws and (b) P Subbarayan
Captain Abid Ali and set to music by are also part of the legislature, linking the (c) Gopinath Bordoloi
Captain Ram Singh. two branches. Judicial Function - The (d) Rajendra Prasad

Q.13. When was the ‘The Objective judiciary interprets laws and administers
Sol.19.(a) Bhim Rao Ambedkar. He
Resolution’ moved by Pt. Jawahar Lal justice, reviewing legislative and
played a pivotal role in drafting the
Nehru ? executive actions for constitutional
Constitution of India, serving as the
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift) compliance. This system fosters
Chairman of the Constitution Drafting
(a) 13 December 1946 collaboration and interdependence
Committee. Gopinath Bordoloi was the
(b) 17 November 1946 among branches, with distinct functions
first Chief Minister of Assam. Rajendra
(c) 15 August 1947 but not complete separation of powers.
Prasad served as the first President of
(d) 16 November 1948 Q.16. Who called the preamble of the India. Paramasivan Subbarayan was the
Indian Constitution 'The Political first Minister of Madras Presidency.
Sol.13.(a) 13 December 1946.
The Objective Resolution outlines the Horoscope of our Constitution' ?
Q.20. Who was the designer of India’s
fundamental ideas and philosophy of our Matriculation Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
national flag?
Constitution, defining the goals of the (a) Dr. KM Munshi
Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
Constituent Assembly. It serves as the (b) Sir Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer
(a) BN Rau
basis for the preamble of the (c) M. Hidayatullah
(b) KM Munshi
Constitution. This important resolution (d) Sir Ernest Baker
(c) Pingali Venkayya
was adopted by the Assembly on Sol.16.(a) Dr. KM Munshi. He was a (d) Prem Behari Narain Raizada
January 22, 1947. member of the Drafting Committee of the
Sol.20.(c) Pingali Venkayya :
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 Pinnacle Polity
He presented the original design of the (d) Nand Lal Bose Commonwealth in May 1947.
Indian flag with red and green colors to (b) The Constituent Assembly adopted
Mahatma Gandhi in 1921. The National Sol.24.(c) Vasant Krishan Vaidya. The the National Anthem in January
Flag was adopted by the Constituent original version of the constitution was 1950.
Assembly of India on 22 July 1947. beautified and decorated by artists from (c) The Constituent Assembly adopted
Shantiniketan including Nand Lal Bose the National Song in January 1948.
Q.21. Who among the following and Beohar Rammanohar Sinha. (d) The Constituent Assembly adopted
personalities was appointed as the legal the National Flag in July 1949.
advisor of the Constituent Assembly that Q.25. The structural part of the Indian
drafted the document of the Constitution Constitution is, to a large extent, derived Sol.28.(b) The National Anthem of India
SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (4th shift) from the Act of _____________. was adopted by the constituent
(a) HVR Iyengar (b) SN Mukherjee SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (4th shift) assembly on 24th January 1950. It was
(c) BR Ambedkar (d) BN Rau (a) 1909 (b) 1935 (c) 1947 (d) 1919 first sung on 27 December 1911 in the
Sol.25.(b) 1935. Government of India Kolkata session of INC. India joined the
Sol.21.(d) BN Rau. On 9 December 1946, Commonwealth in May 1949. The
the Constituent Assembly of India met Act, 1935 provides the establishment of
an All India federation consisting of Constituent Assembly adopted the Indian
for the first time. Temporary President of National Flag On July 22, 1947 and On
constituent assembly - Dr. provinces and princely states as units. It
divided the powers between the centre January 24, 1950, "Vande Mataram" was
Sachchidananda Sinha. Permanent adopted as the national song.
President - Dr. Rajendra Prasad. Vice - and units in terms of three lists- Federal
President - H C Mukherjee. list, provincial list and the concurrent list. Q.29. How many female members were
Jawaharlal Nehru called it a “machine part of the Constituent Assembly that
Q.22. The original Constitution of India with strong brakes but no engine”. He framed the Constitution of India?

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was hand written in English by: also called it a “Charter of Slavery”. SSC CGL 11/04/2022 (Evening )
SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (3rd shift)

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Q.26. Which is NOT a unitary feature of (a) 12 (b) 10 (c) 14 (d) 15
(a) HVR Iyenger
(b) Prem Behari Narayan Raizada the Constitution of India? Sol.29.(d) 15. The Constituent Assembly

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(c) Vasant Krishan Vaidya Graduate Level 01/08/2022 ( Shift - 4 ) was formed on 6 December 1946. The
(d) SN Mukherjee (a) Bicameral Legislature idea for a Constituent Assembly was
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(b) Integrated Judicial System proposed in 1934 by M. N. Roy.
Sol.22.(b) Prem Behari Narayan Raizada (c) Single Citizenship
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- The calligrapher of the Indian (d) Appointment of the Governor by the Q.30. Who was the chairman of the
Constitution. The original constitution President House Committee of the Constituent
was handwritten by him in a flowing italic Assembly of India ?
TG

style. The original Indian Constitution Sol.26.(a) Bicameral Legislature. SSC CGL 18/04/2022 (Afternoon)
was made up of 117,369 words with 251 (legislative body with two houses). At the (a) B Pattabhi Sitaramayy (b) AV Thakkar
pages. central level (Lok Sabha and Rajya (c) JB Kripalani (d) K.M. Munshi
on

Sabha). Other Unitary features of Indian

Q.23. Who among the following Constitution: Single Constitution for Sol.30.(a) B Pattabhi Sitaramayya. In
personalities was the chief draftsman of Union and States, Common All-India 1922, AV Thakkar founded the Bhil Seva
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the constituent assembly that drafted the Services, Inequality of Representation in Mandal. JB Kripalani was the president of
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document of the Constitution? the Council of States, Centralised Indian National Congress during
a

SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (3rd shift) Electoral Machinery, Special Powers of Independence. K M Munshi - Founder of
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(a) KM Munshi Council of State over State List, etc. Bharatiya Vidya Bhavan (1938), Member of
(b) Vasant Krishan Vaidya the Constituent Assembly of India,
(c) SN Mukherjee Q.27. Which of the following is NOT a Minister for Agriculture & Food (1952–53)
(d) HVR Iyenger federal feature of the Indian Constitution ?
SSC CHSL 27/05/2022 (Morning) Q.31. GV Mavalankar was the Chairman
Sol.23.(c) SN Mukherjee. The drafting (a) Dual Government of the ______ of the Constituent Assembly
committee was formed under the (b) Division of Powers of India.
chairmanship of Dr B R Ambedkar by the (c) All India Services SSC CGL 20/04/2022 (Morning)
Constituent Assembly on 29th August (d) Written Constitution (a) Advisory Committee on Fundamental
1947. The other six members of the Rights, Minorities and Tribal and
committee were K.M. Munshi, Sol.27.(c) All India Services. Federal Excluded Areas
Muhammed Sadullah, Alladi Features of the Indian Constitution - (b) Committee on the Functions
Krishnaswamy Iyer, N. Gopalaswami Division of powers, Supremacy of the (c) Order of Business Committee
Ayyangar, Devi Prasad Khaitan and BL constitution, Written constitution, Rigid (d) Ad hoc Committee on the National
Mitter. constitution, Independent Judiciary, Flag
Bi-cameral Legislature.
Q.24. Who among the following wrote in Sol.31.(b) Committee on the Functions.
calligraphic style the Hindi version of the Q.28. With reference to the Constituent GV Mavalankar was the first speaker of
original Indian Constitution? Assembly, which of the following Lok Sabha. Advisory Committee on
SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (2nd shift) statements is Correct ? Fundamental Rights, Minorities and
(a) SN Mukherjee SSC CGL 11/04/2022 (Afternoon) Tribal and Excluded Areas - Vallabhbhai
(b) Prem Behari Narain Raizada (a) The Constituent Assembly ratified Patel. Ad hoc Committee on the National
(c) Vasant Krishan Vaidya India’s membership of the Flag - Rajendra Prasad.
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 Pinnacle Polity
Q.32. The total membership of the Citizenship, Cabinet system, Prerogative SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (1st shift)
Constituent Assembly was 389, of which writs, Parliamentary privileges, (a) The U.S. (b) Ireland
______ were representatives of princely Bicameralism. Ireland - Directive (c) South Africa (d) Canada
states. Principles of State Policy, Nomination of
SSC CGL 18/08/21 (Evening) members to Rajya Sabha, Method of Sol.39.(a) The U.S. Borrowed Features of
(a) 84 (b) 102 (c) 109 (d) 93 election of the President. Indian Constitution: US - Impeachment of
the president, Functions of president and
Sol.32.(d) 93. The total membership of Q.36. Which of the following vice president, Removal of Supreme
the Constituent Assembly was 389, of Constitutions inspired the law-making Court and High court judges.
which 292 were representatives of the process in India?
provinces, 93 represented the princely SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (3rd Shift) Q.40. The Indian Constitution borrowed
states and 4 were from the chief (a) Irish Constitution the concept of concurrent list from _____.
commissioner provinces of Delhi, (b) British Constitution SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (2nd shift)
Ajmer-Merwara, Coorg and British (c) US Constitution (a) USSR (b) Japan
Baluchistan. (d) Canadian Constitution (c) Germany (d) Australia

Q.33. The members of the Constituent Sol.36.(b) British Constitution. Borrowed Sol.40.(d) Australia. Borrowed Features
Assembly signed the Constitution of features of Indian Constitution: British - of Indian Constitution: Australia -
India on ______. Parliamentary government, Rule of Law, Freedom of trade, commerce and
SSC CHSL 16/04/21 (Afternoon) legislative procedure, single citizenship, intercourse, Joint-sitting of the two
(a) 26 November 1948 cabinet system, prerogative writs. US - Houses of Parliament. Japan - Concept
(b) 24 January 1950 Fundamental rights, independence of of Procedure established by law.
(c) 26 November 1949 judiciary, judicial review, impeachment of Germany - Suspension of Fundamental

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(d) 24 January 1952 the President. Rights during emergency.

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Sol.33.(b) 24 January 1950. On that day, Q.37. The concept of ‘Independence of Q.41. From which of the following
the last meeting of the Constituent judiciary’ in the Indian Constitution is Constitutions is the idea of ‘Charter of

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Assembly was held and the 'Constitution taken from the Constitution of: Fundamental Rights’ adopted in the
of India' ( with 395 Articles, 8 schedules, SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Indian Constitution?
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22 parts) was signed and accepted by (a) Ireland (b) France SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift)
all. (c) The USA (d) Britain (a) Brazilian Constitution
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(b) Spanish Constitution

Q.34. In which year did Motilal Nehru Sol.37.(c) The USA. Some features of (c) United States of America’s
(Chairman) and eight other Congress the Indian Constitution borrowed - From Constitution
TG

leaders draft a constitution for India? USA: Fundamental Rights, President’s (d) French Constitution
SSC CHSL 13/10/2020 (Evening) impeachment process, Office of the
(a) 1925 (b) 1950 (c) 1928 (d) 1930 Vice-President. Sol.41.(c) United States of America’s
on

Constitution. Borrowed Features of

Sol.34.(c) 1928. The Motilal Nehru Q.38. From which of the following Indian Constitution: US (United States) -
Report 1928 was made by a committee Constitutions has the India Constitution Independence of judiciary, Judicial
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headed by Pt. Motilal Nehru. This adopted the system of ‘First Past the review, Impeachment of the President,
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committee was created when Lord Post’ ? Removal of Supreme Court and High
a

Birkenhead, Secretary of State of India SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (3rd shift) Court judges, Post of vice-president.
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asked the Indian leaders to draft a (a) Irish Constitution France - Republic, Ideals of liberty,
constitution for the country. (b) French Constitution equality and fraternity in the Preamble.
(c) United States Constitution
(d) British Constitution Q.42. From which country were the
Sources of Indian Constitution ideals of justice of the Indian
Sol.38.(d) British Constitution. The First Constitution borrowed ?
Q.35. Which country has the Republic
Past the Post (FPTP) system, also known Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
feature of the Indian Constitution been
as the simple majority system, is used in (a) The USSR (b) The UK
borrowed from?
India for elections to the Lok Sabha and (c) The US (d) Japan
SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
State Legislative Assemblies. Irish
(a) French Constitution Sol.42.(a) The USSR. Borrowed features
Constitution: Ireland uses the Single
(b) Irish Constitution of the Constitution : USSR (Now Russia) -
Transferable Vote (STV) system, a form
(c) British Constitution Fundamental duties, and The ideals of
of proportional representation. French
(d) Australian Constitution justice (social, economic, and political),
Constitution: France employs a
two-round system, where a candidate expressed in the Preamble.
Sol.35.(a) French Constitution. Borrowed
Features of Indian Constitution: France - must win an absolute majority (over 50%) Q.43. The emergency provisions of the
Ideals of liberty, equality, and fraternity in in the first round or a relative majority in Indian Constitution are borrowed from
Preamble. Australia - Concurrent list, the second round. the Government of India Act,____________.
Freedom of trade, commerce, and Matriculation Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
Q.39. Judicial Review, a salient feature of
intercourse, Joint - sitting of Parliament. (a) 1931 (b) 1940 (c) 1935 (d) 1933
the Constitution of India, has been
UK - Parliamentary government, Rule of
borrowed from which of the following Sol.43.(c) 1935. The Emergency
Law, Legislative procedure, Single
countries?
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 Pinnacle Polity
provisions are enshrined in Part XVIII of Supreme court. Borrowed Features of (c) Article 257 (d) Article 123
the Constitution, from Articles 352 to Indian Constitution from Canada -
Sol.50.(c) Article 257 - Control of the
360. The Indian Constitution also Centrifugal form of federalism where the
Union over States in certain cases.
borrowed various features from the center is stronger than the states, To
Article 261 - Public acts, records and
Government of India Act of 1935, provide residuary powers to the Centre,
judicial proceedings.
including the federal scheme, the office Supreme Court’s advisory jurisdiction,
of the governor, the judiciary, and the and Appointment of state governors by Q.51. Article 77 of the Indian
public service commissions. the Centre. Constitution deals with the __________.
SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Q.44. From which country has the
Article, Schedule, Parts and list (a) term of office of the Vice-President
concept of Martial Law, which restricts
(b) Vice - President of India
Fundamental rights, borrowed ?
Q.48. Which Articles of the Constitution (c) oath of office by the Vice-President
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Afternoon)
of India provide for a parliamentary form (d) conduct of business of the
(a) China (b) The UK
of government at the Centre ? Government of India
(c) Japan (d) The USSR
SSC MTS 07/10/2024 (3rd Shift)
Sol.51.(d) The President shall make rules
Sol.44.(b) The UK. The expression (a) Articles 74 and 75
for the more convenient transaction of
‘martial law’ has not been defined (b) Articles 71 and 72
the business of the Government of India,
anywhere in the Constitution. It refers to (c) Articles 79 and 80
and for the allocation among Ministers of
the suspension of ordinary law and the (d) Articles 76 and 77
the said business. Article 67 - Term of
government by military tribunals. office of Vice - President.
Sol.48.(a) Articles 74 and 75. Article 74:
Q.45. India is a parliamentary democracy Council of Ministers to aid and advise Q.52. Which of the following Articles of

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based on the Westminster model of President.-[(1) There shall be a Council of the Indian Constitution mentions, about
_________ . Ministers with the Prime Minister at the

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the organisation of 'Village Panchayats'?
SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (3rd shift) head to aid and advise the President who SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
(a) the United States of America shall, in the exercise of his functions, act

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(a) Article 31 (b) Article 38
(b) South Africa in accordance with such advice. Article (c) Article 36 (d) Article 40
(c) France 75 - Other provisions as to Ministers.-(1)
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(d) the United Kingdom The Prime Minister shall be appointed by Sol.52.(d) Article 40 : This article directs
the President and the other Ministers the state to organise village panchayats
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Sol.45.(d) The United Kingdom. shall be appointed by the President on and empower them to function as
Countries where the Westminster model the advice of the Prime Minister. self-governing units. Directive Principles
is used - Britain, Canada, New Zealand as of State Policy (DPSPs): Outlined in Part
TG

well as in many parts of Asia and Africa. Q.49. Which of the following articles of IV (Articles 36 - 51) of the Constitution,
British - Parliamentary form of the Constitution of India mentions that inspired by the Irish Constitution.
government, The idea of single every Minister and the Attorney-General
on

citizenship, The idea of the Rule of law, of India shall have the right to speak in Q.53. Which Article of the Constitution of
Writs, Institution of Speaker and his role, and participate in the proceedings of India deals with the conduct of business
either House of Parliament ? of the Government of a state ?
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Law making procedure, The Political Part

SSC MTS 08/10/2024 (1st Shift) SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
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of the Indian Constitution, Bicameralism.

(a) Article 86 (b) Article 87 (a) Article 177 (b) Article 167
a

Q.46. The concept of "Amendment of the (c) Article 89 (d) Article 88 (c) Article 164 (d) Article 166
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Constitution" in the Indian Constitution

was borrowed from the constitution of Sol.49.(d) Article 88. Ministers and the Sol.53.(d) Article 166. Article 164 (1) -
which of the following countries? Attorney - General of India shall not be The Chief Minister shall be appointed by
SSC MTS 20/06/2023 (Afternoon) entitled to vote in either House of the the Governor and the other Ministers
(a) South Africa (b) Germany Parliament. Article 86 : Right of President shall be appointed by the Governor on
(c) Canada (d) Australia to address and send messages to the advice of the Chief Minister, and the
Houses. Article 87 : Relates to the Ministers shall hold office during the
Sol.46.(a) South Africa. Article 368 of special address by the President to the pleasure of the Governor.
Part XX - "Constitutional Amendment". Houses of Parliament at the
Indian Constitution Sources: South Africa commencement of the first session after Q.54. Which Article of the Indian
- Election of members of Rajya Sabha. each general election. Constitution provides that the State must
secure a social order to promote the
Q.47. Which of the following provisions Q.50. Which Article of the Constitution
welfare of people?
of the Indian constitution is borrowed explains that the executive power of
SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
from the Constitution of Canada? every state shall be so exercised as not
(a) Article 37 (b) Article 38
SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (1st Shift) to impede or prejudice the exercise of the
(c) Article 39 (d) Article 36
(a) Independence of judiciary executive power of the Union, and the
(b) Concept of Republic executive power of the union shall extend Sol.54.(b) Article 38. Other Articles:
(c) Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme to the giving of such directions to a state Article 36 : Defines the Directive
court as may appear to the Government of Principles of State Policy. Article 37:
(d) Concept of concurrent list India to be necessary for that purpose? States that DPSPs are not enforceable by
SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (2nd Shift) courts but are fundamental in
Sol.47.(c) Advisory jurisdiction of the (a) Article 261 (b) Article 247 governance, and the state is expected to
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 Pinnacle Polity
apply them in making laws. Article 39: Amendment Act, 1992, and came into SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Outlines specific principles for state effect on April 24, 1993. Part IV: Directive (a) Article 39(a) (b) Article 39(b)
policy that promote social and economic Principles of State Policy. Part VII: States (c) Article 39(c) (d) Article 39(d)
welfare, such as equal pay for equal in the First Schedule (now repealed).
work, protection of children, and Part X: The Scheduled and Tribal Areas. Sol.62.(b) Article 39(b). This article is
equitable distribution of resources. part of the Directive Principles of State
Q.59. Articles 52 to 78 in Part V of the Policy (DPSP), which outlines the guiding
Q.55. Which article of the Constitution of Indian Constitution deal with __________. principles for the state to follow while
India lays down that it shall be the duty SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (1st Shift) making policies. Article 39(a): Ensures
of the Advocate-General to give advice to (a) Finance Commission of India citizens have equal rights to an adequate
the Government of the State upon legal (b) Union Executive means of livelihood. Article 39(c):
matters? (c) Amendment of the Constitution Prevents concentration of wealth and
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (2nd Shift) (d) National emergency means of production. Article 39(d):
(a) Article 168 (b) Article 165 Advocates for equal pay for equal work
(c) Article 167 (d) Article 166 Sol.59.(b) Union Executive. Important for men and women.
Articles: Article 52 - President of India.
Sol.55.(b) Article 165. Other Important Article 53 - Executive power of the Union. Q.63. Which of the following Articles
Articles: Article 167 - Duties of Chief Article 54 - Election of President. Article and Parts of the Indian Constitution deal
Minister as respects the furnishing of 63 - The Vice-President of India. Article with the State Legislature ?
information to the Governor, etc. Article 64 - The Vice-President to be the SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (1st Shift)
168 - Constitution of Legislatures in ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. (a) Articles 214 to 231 in Part VI
States. Article 72 - Power of President to grant (b) Articles 168 to 212 in Part VI
pardons. Article 74 - Council of Ministers (c) Articles 243 to 243-O in Part IX

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Q.56. Articles 245 to 255 in Part XI of the to aid and advise the President. Article (d) Articles 79 to 122 in Part V
Indian Constitution deal with the _______.

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76 - Attorney-General for India.
SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Sol.63.(b) Articles 168 to 212 in Part VI.
(a) emergency provisions Q.60. Which of the following articles of Other Articles : Articles 214 to 231 of the
(b) financial relations between the Centre
and the states na
the Indian constitution deals with the
parliament and its proceedings?
Indian Constitution cover
organisation, powers, and functions of
the
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(c) legislative relations between the SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (3rd Shift) the High Courts in India. Articles 243 to
Centre and the states (a) Article 51A (b) Article 36 to 51 243-O in Part IX pertain to Panchayats.
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(d) tribunals (c) Article 79 to 122 (d) Article 12 to 35 Articles 79 to 122 in Part V focus on the
Parliament of India.
Sol.56.(c) legislative relations between Sol.60.(c) Article 79 to 122. These
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the Centre and the states. Emergency articles in Part V of the Indian Q.64. Which Article of the Indian
Provisions - Part XVIII, Articles 352 - 360. Constitution deal with the provisions Constitution mentions about the
Tribunals - Part XIV-A Article 323A, and related to the Parliament of India, 'Promotion of educational and economic
on

Article 323B. Financial relations between including its organisation, composition, interests of Scheduled Castes,
the Centre and the states - Part XII, duration, officers, procedures, privileges, Scheduled Tribes and other weaker
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Articles 268 - 293. powers, and other related aspects. sections' ?

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SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (3rd Shift)

Q.57. Which Article of the Indian Q.61. Which Article of the Indian (a) Article 45 (b) Article 48
a

Constitution mentions that ‘The State Constitution provides for protecting and (c) Article 47 (d) Article 46
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shall endeavour to promote cottage improving the environment and

industries on an individual or safeguarding forests and wildlife? Sol.64.(d) Article 46. Article 45 directs
co-operative basis in rural areas’ ? SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (1st Shift) the state to ensure early childhood care
SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (3rd Shift) (a) Article 47-A (b) Article 47-B and education for children under the age
(a) Article 44 (b) Article 49 (c) Article 48-A (d) Article 49-C of six. Article 48 provides guiding
(c) Article 43 (d) Article 42 principles for organizing agriculture and
Sol.61.(c) Article 48-A, which is part of animal husbandry in India. Article 47
Sol.57.(c) Article 43. Important Articles : the Directive Principles of State Policy outlines the state's duty to improve the
Article 42 - Provision for just and humane (DPSP) in the Indian Constitution, was standard of living and nutrition for its
conditions of work and maternity relief. added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. citizens.
Article 43A - Participation of workers in The DPSP are guidelines in the Indian
management of Industries. Article 43B - Constitution designed to establish a Q.65. Which Article of the Constitution
Promotion of co-operative societies. welfare state in India. They are borrowed mentions that "the Parliament consists
from the Irish Constitution. of the President and two Houses known
Q.58. Which part of the Constitution as the Council of States (Rajya Sabha)
deals with the Panchayats ? Q.62. Which of the following Articles of and the House of the People (Lok
SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (1st Shift) the Indian Constitution mentions that Sabha)" ?
(a) Part IV (b) Part IX ‘The State shall, in particular, direct its SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (2nd shift)
(c) Part VII (d) Part X policy towards securing that the (a) 79 (b) 82 (c) 73 (d) 70
ownership and control of the material
Sol.58.(b) Part IX. The Panchayats resources of the community are so Sol.65.(a) 79. Parliament is India’s top
(Articles 243-243O): This part was distributed as best to subserve the legislative body, with its structure and
inserted by the 73rd Constitutional common good’ ? functions defined as follows: Article 80:
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 Pinnacle Polity
Composition of the Council of States. the Constitution of India provides (d) freedom of speech and expression
Article 81: Composition of the House of protection to the President and
the People. Article 82: Readjustment Governors and Rajpramukhs ? Sol.72.(b) Other important articles:
after each census. Article 70 : President’s SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (3rd shift) Article 16 - Equality of opportunity for all
functions in contingencies. Article 73: (a) Article 352 (b) Article 356 citizens in matters relating to
Extent of Union's executive power. (c) Article 361 (d) Article 370 employment or appointment. Articles 29
- The cultural and educational rights of
Q.66. In a situation wherein A (female) Sol.69.(c) Article 361. Other Articles: minorities. Article 30 - The right of
and B (male) are working in the same Article 352: Deals with the proclamation minorities to establish and administer
office, same designation, same nature of of Emergency due to war, external educational institutions of their choice.
work but unequal payment, which of the aggression, or internal disturbance. Article 19(1)(a) - Freedom of speech and
following Articles of the Constitution be Article 356: Relates to the President's expression.
applicable? rule in a state, where the President takes
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (3rd shift) over the governance of a state due to Q.73. Which of the following Articles of
(a) Article 48A (b) Article 39(d) failure of the constitutional machinery. the Indian Constitution are related to
(c) Article 21 (d) Article 18 Article 370: Provided special status to Fundamental Rights ?
the state of Jammu and Kashmir, which SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (4th shift)
Sol.66.(b) Article 39(d) of the was repealed in 2019. (a) 12-36 (b) 32-51 (c) 12-35 (d) 14-32
Constitution proclaims "equal pay for
equal work for both men and women" as Q.70. Which Article provides that all Sol.73.(c) 12-35. Fundamental Rights:
a Directive Principle of State Policy minorities have the right to establish and Right to equality (Articles 14-18), Right to
(DPSP). Article 21: Guarantees the administer educational institutions of freedom (Articles 19-22), Right against
fundamental right to protection of life their choice ? exploitation (Articles 23-24), Right to

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and personal liberty. Article 18: Abolition SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (1st shift) freedom of religion (Articles 25-28),
Cultural and educational rights (Articles

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of titles. (a) Article 26 (b) Article 24
(c) Article 32 (d) Article 30 29-30), Right to constitutional remedies
Q.67. Which Articles of the Constitution (Article 32). The Right to property was

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deal with citizenship ? Sol.70.(d) Article 30. Other important removed from the list of fundamental
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (4th shift) articles: Article 26 - It gives freedom to rights by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978
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(a) Articles 5 to 11 (b) Articles 5 to 8 manage religious affairs. Article 24 - It and it was made a legal right under
(c) Articles 5 to 10 (d) Articles 5 to 9 prohibits the employment of children Article 300-A in Part XII of the
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below the age of 14 years in any factory, Constitution.

Sol.67.(a) Articles 5 to 11. Part II of the mine, or hazardous occupation. Article
Constitution of India deals with 32 - It grants every individual the right to Q.74. 'Reservation in promotion' comes
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Citizenship: Article 5 - Citizenship at the move the Supreme Court for the under which Article of the Constitution?
commencement of the Constitution. enforcement of their fundamental rights. SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (2nd shift)
Article 6 - Rights of citizenship of certain (a) Article 19 (2) (b) Article 14 (4A)
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persons who have migrated to India from Q.71. How many languages are included (c) Article 16 (4A) (d) Article 15 (3B)
Pakistan. Article 7 - Rights of citizenship in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution
of India as scheduled languages? Sol.74.(c) Article 16 (4A). Article 16(4)
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of certain migrants to Pakistan. Article 8

SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (2nd shift) allows the state to provide reservations
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- Rights of citizenship of certain persons

of Indian origin residing outside India. (a) 22 (b) 24 (c) 23 d) 21 for appointments or posts for any
a

Article 9 - Persons voluntarily acquiring backward class of citizens that is not

Sol.71.(a) 22. Part XVII of the Indian
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citizenship of a foreign State not to be adequately represented in state services.

constitution deals with the official Article 16: Equality of opportunity in
citizens. Article 10 - Continuance of
languages in Articles 343 to 351. Initially matters of public employment. The 77th
citizenship rights. Article 11- Parliament
14 were included in the Constitution. Amendment Act introduced clause (4A)
to regulate the right of citizenship by law.
Sindhi language was added by the 21st to Article 16, which specifically permits
Q.68. Under the discretionary power of Amendment Act of 1967. Konkani, reservations in promotions for Scheduled
which Article of the Indian Constitution Manipuri and Nepali were included by the Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST) if
did the SC of India recognise sex work as 71st Amendment Act of 1992. they are underrepresented in the
a profession ? Subsequently Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and services.
SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (4th shift) Santhali were added by the 92nd
(a) Article 140 (b) Article 142 Amendment Act of 2003. Q.75. Articles 344 (1) and 351 of the
(c) Article 141 (d) Article 143 Constitution of India are related to the:
Q.72. Article 15 of the Constitution of SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (1st shift)
Sol.68.(b) Article 142. Other Articles: India entails: (a) Eighth Schedule (b) Third Schedule
Article 140 - Ancillary powers of the SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (3rd shift) (c) Sixth Schedule (d) Fifth Schedule
Supreme Court. Article 141 - Law (a) equality of opportunity for all citizens
declared by the Supreme Court is binding in matters relating to employment or Sol.75.(a) Eighth Schedule. Article
on all courts. Article 143. Power of the appointment 344(1) provides for the constitution of a
President to consult the Supreme Court. (b) prohibition of discrimination against Commission by the President on
Article 144 - Civil and judicial authorities any citizen on grounds only of expiration of five years. Article 351 - It
must act in aid of the Supreme Court. religion, race, caste, sex or place of provides for the spread of the Hindi
birth language to develop it. The Eighth
Q.69. Which of the following Articles in (c) cultural and educational rights Schedule recognizes 22 official
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 Pinnacle Polity
languages. Schedule and subject: Third SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift) the power to perform the duties of the
Schedule - Oaths or affirmations. (a) Article 171 (b) Article 175 Chairman in their absence.
(c) Article 172 (d) Article 176
Q.76. In which Article does the Finance Q.83. Which Article of the Indian
Commission of India find a mention ? Sol.79.(b) Article 175. Other Articles: Constitution mentions about the right of
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift) Article 171 - Composition of the the Advocate - General of a state to
(a) Article 292 (b) Article 375 Legislative Councils. Article 172 - speak in the State Legislature ?
(c) Article 280 (d) Article 370 Duration of State Legislatures. Article SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift)
173 - Qualification for membership of the (a) Article 183 (b) Article 179
Sol.76.(c) Article 280. The Finance State Legislature. Article 174 - Sessions (c) Article 177 (d) Article 181
Commission is a constitutional body, it is of the State Legislature, prorogation and
constituted by the President of India Sol.83.(c) Article 177. Article 183 of the
dissolution. Article 176 - Special address Indian Constitution addresses the
every five years. The Commission by the Governor.
consists of five members, including a resignation, vacation, and removal of the
chairperson. Article 292: Borrowing by Q.80. Which of the following parts of the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the
the Government of India. Article 375: Indian Constitution is commonly referred Legislative Council. Article 181 stipulates
Courts, authorities and officers continue to as the ‘Magna Carta of India’? that neither the Speaker nor the Deputy
to function subject to the provisions of SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift) Speaker should preside over the
the Constitution. Article 370: Temporary (a) Part III (b) Part I (c) Part IV (d) Part II proceedings when their removal process
provisions with respect to the State of is underway. These provisions ensure
Jammu and Kashmir. Sol.80.(a) Part III - Fundamental Rights impartiality during key legislative
(Article 12 to 35). ‘Magna Carta’ is the processes.
Q.77. As per Article ____________ of the Charter of Rights issued by King John of

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Indian Constitution, the Council of England in 1215 under pressure from the Q.84. Which Article of the Indian
Ministers are collectively responsible to barons. Constitution mentions that ‘The Council

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the Lok Sabha. of Ministers shall be collectively
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift) Q.81.Which Article of the Indian responsible to the Legislative Assembly

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(a) 74(1) (b) 72(1) (c) 73(2) (d) 75(3) Constitution mentions about the salaries of the state’ ?
and allowances of the Chairman and SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift)
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Sol.77.(d) 75(3). Article 75 (1) - The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and (a) Article 164(3) (b) Article 164(1)
Prime Minister shall be appointed by the the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the (c) Article 164(2) (d) Article 164(4)
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President and the other Ministers shall Lok Sabha?

be appointed by the President on the SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift) Sol.84.(c) Article 164(2). Article 164(1) -
advice of the Prime Minister. Article (a) Article 92 (b) Article 97 The Chief Minister is appointed by the
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75(2) - The Ministers shall hold office (c) Article 94 (d) Article 95 Governor, while other Ministers are
during the pleasure of the President. appointed on the Chief Minister's advice,
Sol.81.(b) Article 97. Other important and they hold office at the Governor's
on

Q.78. Biological Diversity Act 2002 was Articles: Article 92 - The Chairman or the pleasure. Article 164(3) - Before
passed by the Government of India. It Deputy Chairman not to preside while a assuming office, a Minister must take the
fulfilled ideals of which article of resolution for his removal from office is oaths of office and secrecy administered
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Directive Principles of State Policy in the under consideration. Article 94 - Vacation by the Governor, as specified in the Third
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Constitution of India ? and resignation of, and removal from, the Schedule. Article 164(4) - A Minister who
a

SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift) offices of Speaker and Deputy Speaker. is not a member of the State Legislature
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(a) Article 49 (b) Article 48A Article 95 - Power of the Deputy Speaker for six consecutive months will cease to
(c) Article 48 (d) Article 47 or other person to perform the duties of hold office at the end of that period.
the office of, or to act as, Speaker.
Sol.78.(b) Article 48A outlines the Q.85. Which Article specifies the
directive principle for environmental Q.82. Which of the following Articles of procedure for amending the Indian
protection and safeguarding forests and the Indian Constitution mentions that the Constitution ?
wildlife. It was added through the 42nd Vice - President of India shall be the ex SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift)
Constitutional Amendment, 1976. The officio Chairman of the Council of (a) Article 365 (b) Article 366
Biological Diversity Act, 2002, was States? (c) Article 368 (d) Article 367
enacted to fulfill India's obligations under SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift)
the Convention on Biological Diversity. It (a) Article 89 (b) Article 90 Sol.85.(c) Article 368 (Part XX)
established the National Biodiversity (c) Article 91 (d) Article 92 Parliament may amend the Constitution
Authority (NBA), State Biodiversity by way of addition, variation or repeal of
Sol.82.(a) Article 89. Article 64 and any provision in accordance with the
Boards (SBB), and local Biodiversity Article 89(1) state that the Vice President
Management Committees (BMC) to procedure laid down for the purpose.
of India shall serve as the ex officio However, the Parliament cannot amend
regulate access to biological resources Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya
and ensure equitable benefit-sharing. those provisions which form the ‘basic
Sabha). Other related articles include: structure’ of the Constitution. This was
Q.79. Which Article of the Indian Article 90 - Specifies the conditions for ruled by the Supreme Court in the
Constitution mentions about the right of the vacation, resignation, and removal of Kesavananda Bharati case (1973).
the Governor to address and to send the Deputy Chairman of the Council of
States. Article 91- Grants the Deputy Q.86. Which Article of the Indian
messages to the House (or Houses) of
Chairman or another designated person Constitution mentions about the salaries
the state legislature ?
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 Pinnacle Polity
and allowances of members of the Sol.89.(c) Article 166(1). Other India ?
Legislative Assembly and the Legislative important Articles: Article 163(1) - There SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift)
Council of a state? shall be a Council of Ministers with the (a) Article 120 (b) Article 116
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift) Chief Minister at the head to aid and (c) Article 112 (d) Article 110
(a) Article 195 (b) Article 199 advise the Governor in the exercise of his
(c) Article 198 (d) Article 194 functions. Article 164(1) - The Chief Sol.92.(c) Article 112 - The President
Minister shall be appointed by the shall cause, in respect of each financial
Sol.86.(a) Article 195. Important Articles year, to be laid before each House of
Governor and the other Ministers shall be
in Part VI (The States): Article 168 - Parliament a statement of the estimated
appointed by the Governor on the advice
Constitution of Legislatures in States. receipts and expenditure of the
of the Chief Minister. Article 165(1) - The
Article 169 - Abolition or creation of Government of India for that year, which
Governor of each State shall appoint a
Legislative Councils in States. Article 170 is in this Part referred to as "the annual
person who is qualified to be appointed a
- Composition of the Legislative financial Statement". Other important
Judge of a High Court to be
Assemblies. Article 194 - Powers, Articles: Article 110 - Definition of
Advocate-General for the State.
privileges, etc., of the Houses of "Money Bills". Article 116 - Votes on
Legislatures and of the members and Q.90. Which Article of the Indian account, votes of credit and exceptional
committees thereof. Article 199 - Constitution mentions the qualification grants. Article 120 - Language to be used
Definition of “Money Bills”. for membership of the State Legislature? in Parliament.
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift)
Q.87. Which Article of the Indian Q.93. ________ of the Indian Constitution
(a) Article 171 (b) Article 180
Constitution mentions that a person may sets qualifications for being a member of
(c) Article 173 (d) Article 179
be appointed as the Governor of two or Lok Sabha.
more states? Sol.90.(c) Article 173. The person must Matriculation Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 1)

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SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift) be at least 25 years old for a seat in the (a) Article 74 (b) Article 84

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(a) Article 153 (b) Article 152 Legislative Assembly and at least 30 (c) Article 64 (d) Article 76
(c) Article 151 (d) Article 150 years old for a seat in the Legislative
Sol.93.(b) Article 84 outlines the

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Council. Other important Articles : Article
Sol.87.(a) Article 153. The Seventh qualifications for being a member of the
171 - The total number of members in
Amendment Act, 1956, amended Article Lok Sabha. A person must: Be an Indian
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the Legislative Council of a State shall
153 to allow a governor to oversee two or citizen; Take an oath or affirmation
not exceed one-third of the total number
more states. Other important articles : before an authorized person appointed
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of members in the Legislative Assembly

Article 150 - Form of Accounts of The by the Election Commission; Be at least
of that State. Article 179 - Vacation and
Union and of The States. Article 151 - 25 years old; Meet any other
resignation of, and removal from, the
The audit reports of the Union and State qualifications set by the Parliament of
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offices of Speaker and Deputy Speaker.

by the Comptroller and Auditor General India. Article 74 : Council of Ministers to
Article 180 - Power of the Deputy
of India. Article 152 - States about the aid and advise the President. Article 64 :
Speaker to perform the duties of
Definition of state. The Vice-President to be ex-officio
on

Speaker.
Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya
Q.88. Which Article of the Indian
Q.91. What Article of the Indian Sabha). Article 76 : It is to the
Constitution states that “There shall be a
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Constitution provides that the State appointment and responsibilities of the

High Court for each state” ?
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Governor has the authority to reserve a Attorney-General for India.

SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift)
bill for the consideration of the President
a

(a) Article 275 (b) Article 245 Q. 94. Which of the following Articles of
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift)
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(c) Article 214 (d) Article 125 the Indian Constitution are related to the
(a) Article 181 (b) Article 200
(c) Article 190 (d) Article 267 Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
Sol.88.(c) Article 214. Other important
Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
Articles: Article 215 - Every High Court
Sol.91.(b) Article 200. The Governor may (a) Article 147-150 (b) Article 148-154
shall be a court of record and shall have
also return the Bill with a message (c) Article 148-152 (d) Article 148-151
all the powers of such a court including
requesting reconsideration by the House
the power to punish for contempt of Sol.94.(d) Article 148-151. The CAG
or Houses. Article 201 - It states that
itself. Article 217 - Appointment and handles the audit of the accounts of the
when a Bill is reserved for the
conditions of the office of a Judge of a Union and State governments. Article
consideration of the President, the
High Court. Article 245 - Parliament may 148: Establishes the office of the
President may assent to or withhold
make laws for the whole or any part of Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
assent from the Bill. Article 190 - A
the territory of India. Article 275 - Article 149: Duties and powers of the
person cannot be a member of both
provides for the grants from the Union to Comptroller and Auditor-General. Article
houses of a state legislature. Article 181
certain States. 150: Form of accounts of the Union and
- The Speaker or the Deputy Speaker not
of the States. Article 151: Mandates the
Q.89. Which Article of the Indian to preside while a resolution for his
presentation of audit reports by the
Constitution mentions that ‘All the removal from office is under
Comptroller and Auditor General to the
executive action of the Government of a consideration. Article 267 - Contingency
President of India, which are then laid
state shall be expressed to be taken in Fund.
before Parliament.
the name of the Governor’ ?
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift) Q.92. Which Article of the Indian
Q.95. Which Article of the Indian
(a) Article 163(1) (b) Article 165(1) Constitution deals with the annual
Constitution makes it clear that Directive
(c) Article 166(1) (d) Article 164(1) financial statement of the Government of
Principles of State Policy are
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 Pinnacle Polity
fundamental in the governance of the outlines the forms of oaths and Public Service Commission for the Union
country and it shall be the duty of the affirmations for various constitutional and a Public Service Commission for
state to apply these principles in making offices : President, Vice-President, Union each State” ?
laws? and State Ministers, Parliament and state SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Morning)
Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 4) legislature candidates, Judges, (a) 315 (4) (b) 315 (1)
(a) Article 46 (b) Article 37 Comptroller and Auditor General. First (c) 315 (3) (d) 315 (2)
(c) Article 44 (d) Article 40 Schedule : Names of the States and
Union Territories, Second Schedule : Sol.101.(b) Article 315 (1). Article 315
Sol.95.(b) Article 37. Directive Principles Provisions for the emoluments, (2) - Two or more States may agree that
of State Policy (DPSP) in Part IV of the allowances, privileges of certain there shall be one Public Service
Indian Constitution are based on the Irish constitutional authorities, and Fourth Commission for that group of States.
Constitution, which in turn was based on Schedule : Allocation of seats in the Article 315 (3) - Any such law as
the Spanish Constitution. Rajya Sabha and union territories. aforesaid may contain such incidental
and consequential provisions as may be
Q.96. Which of the following does NOT Q.99. Which Article of the Indian necessary or desirable for giving effect
come under the Concurrent List? Constitution mentions that ‘In the to the purposes of the law. Article 315 (4)
Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 4) performance of his/her duties, the - UPSC can, if requested by a state
(a) Artificial Habitats Attorney - General for India shall have the government, conduct examinations and
(b) Medical Education right of audience in all the courts in the interviews to select candidates for state
(c) Protection of Wildlife territory of India’? government jobs.
(d) Population Control Graduate Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
(a) Article 76(1) (b) Article 76(3) Q.102. Which of the following Articles of
Sol.96.(a) Artificial Habitats. the Constitution of India provides that

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The Parliament and state legislatures (c) Article 76(4) (d) Article 76(2)
the Governor appoints the Chief Minister
can both make laws on matters listed

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Sol.99.(b) Article 76(3). Article 76 of the and later, the Chief Minister recommends
under the Concurrent List. As of now, the Indian Constitution addresses the the appointment of ministers to the
list includes 52 subjects (originally 47).

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Attorney General of India. Under Article Governor?
Some Subjects in Concurrent list: 76(1), the President of India appoints the SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Bankruptcy and insolvency, Forests,
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Attorney General. Article 76(2) states (a) Article 163 (b) Article 165
Factories, Boilers, Electricity, that it is the duty of the Attorney General (c) Article 164 (d) Article 167
Newspapers, books and printing presses.
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to provide legal advice to the

Government of India and perform other Sol.102.(c) Article 164. Other
Q.97. In respect of Arunachal Pradesh, Appointments by Governor: State
the Governor has special responsibility legal duties. Article 76(4) specifies that
Election Commissioner (Article 243 K),
TG

under ________ of the Constitution of the Attorney General holds office at the
pleasure of the President and receives Vice-Chancellors of the universities in the
India with respect to law and order and in state (University Grants Commission
discharge of his functions in relation remuneration as determined by the
(UGC) Regulations, 2018), Advocate
on

thereto. President.
General for the State (Article 165) etc.
Higher Secondary 26/06/2024 (Shift - 2) Q.100. Match the following subject Article 163 - Council of Ministers to aid
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(a) Article 359 A (b) Article 380 A matters with their concerned Articles. and advise the Governor of the State.
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(c) Article 371 H (d) Article 361 H

a b
Q.103. Which of the following Articles of
1. Superintendence, direction
a

Sol.97.(c) Article 371 H. Under Article the Indian Constitution empowers the
and control of elections to A) Article 329
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359, during a national emergency, the Parliament to restrict or abrogate the

be Vested in an Election
President can suspend the right to move fundamental rights of the members of
commission.
courts for Fundamental Rights 2. Power of parliament to the armed forces, paramilitary forces,
enforcement, except for Articles 20 and make provision with respect B) Article 324 police forces, intelligence agencies and
21. Article 380, which once addressed to election to legislature. analogous forces ?
the President of India, was omitted by the 3. Bar of interference by SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) courts in electoral matters C) Article 327 (a) Article 33 (b) Article 31
Act of 1976. Article 361 provides (c) Article 37 (d) Article 35
SSC CGL Tier II 26/10/2023
protection to the President, Governors,
(a) 1 - C, 2 - B, 3 - A (b) 1 - A, 2 - C, 3 - B
and Rajpramukhs from being held Sol.103.(a) Article 33. Fundamental
(c) 1 - A, 2 - B, 3 - C (d) 1 - B, 2 - C, 3 - A
accountable in courts for actions taken rights are included in Part III (Article
while performing their duties. Sol.100.(d) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A. Article 325 - 12-35) of the Constitution. It is described
No person to be ineligible for inclusion in, as the Magna Carta of India. Article 35 -
Q.98. Under which Schedule of the Indian Power to make laws to give effect to
or to claim to be included in a special,
Constitution is the form of oath or certain specified fundamental rights
electoral roll on grounds of religion, race,
affirmation for a Judge of the Supreme shall vest only in the Parliament and not
caste or sex. Article 328 - Power of
Court mentioned? in the state legislatures.
Legislature of a State to make provision
Graduate Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
with respect to elections to such
(a) Fourth Schedule (b) Second Schedule Q.104. As per Article 361 of the
Legislature.
(c) First Schedule (d) Third Schedule Constitution of India, who among the
Q.101. Which Article of the Constitution following shall NOT be answerable to any
Sol.98.(d) Third Schedule. The Third court for the exercise and performance
of India mentions that “there shall be a
Schedule of the Indian Constitution
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 Pinnacle Polity
of the powers and duties of his/her tenure and removal of CAG of India. Clause (b) grants the right to assemble
office? There are no specific qualifications peaceably and without arms; Clause (c)
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Evening) required to become the CAG of India. The grants the right to form associations,
(a) Secretary (b) Chief Minister President of India appoints the CAG unions, or co-operative societies; Clause
(c) Prime Minister (d) Governor through a warrant under their hand and (d) grants the right to move freely
seal. The CAG serves a term of 6 years or throughout the territory of India; Clause
Sol.104.(d) Governor. Article 361 - The until the age of 65, whichever comes (e) grants the right to reside and settle in
President, or the Governor or Rajpramukh first. any part of the territory of India; Clause
of a State, shall not be answerable to any (g) grants the right to practise any
court for the exercise and performance Q.108. Which of the following profession or to carry on any occupation,
of the powers and duties of his office or statements is correct about Article 129 trade, or business.
for any act done or purporting to be done of the Constitution of India?
by him in the exercise and performance. SSC MTS 01/09/2023 (2nd Shift) Q.111. Which Articles of the Constitution
(a) It provides for the Supreme Court to of India deal with the Union and its
Q.105. Which schedule of the give advisory opinions to the President. territory ?
Constitution of India contains provisions (b) It provides for the Supreme Court to SSC MTS 11/09/2023 (1st Shift)
for disqualification of legislators on the be a court of original jurisdiction (a) Articles 5-11 (b) Articles 1-4
ground of defection? (c) It provides for the Supreme Court to (c) Articles 12-35 (d) Article 36-51
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Evening) be a court of record.
(a) Schedule - X (b) Schedule - XI (d) It provides for the Supreme Court to Sol.111.(b) Articles 1-4. Article 1- Name
(c) Schedule - VIII (d) Schedule - IX be the highest court of appeal. and territory of the Union; Article 2 -
Admission or Establishment of New
Sol.105.(a) Schedule-X: Popularly known Sol.108.(c) Article 143 - Power of the States; Article 3 - Formation of New

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as the Anti-Defection Act, was included President to consult the Supreme Court. States and alteration of areas,
in the Constitution via the 52nd

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Article 132 - Appellate jurisdiction of the Boundaries or Names of existing States;
Amendment Act, 1985. Schedule-IX (laws Supreme Court in appeals from High Article 4 : Laws made under articles 2
that are immune from judicial review) - It

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Courts in certain cases. Articles 133 and and 3 to provide for the amendment of
was added by the First Amendment Act, 134 grant the Supreme Court appellate the first and the fourth schedules and
1951.
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jurisdiction in civil and criminal matters supplemental, incidental and
Q.106. Which Article of the Indian from High Courts. consequential matters.
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Constitution mentions that all the Q.109. How many schedules are there in Q.112. In India which of the following is a
authorities— civil and judicial— in the our Constitution as of June 2023? Gandhian principle of Directive Principles
territory of India shall act in aid of the SSC MTS 05/09/2023 (1st Shift) of State Policy ?
TG

Supreme Court ? (a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 12 (d) 10 SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (1st shift)
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Evening) (a) To Separate judiciary from executive
(a) Article 143 (b) Article 141 Sol.109.(c) 12 Schedules in Indian (b) To organise village panchayat
on

(c) Article 144 (d) Article 142 Constitution: First - List of States and UT; (c) To secure uniform civil code
Second - Emoluments, allowances, and (d) To provide equal pay for equal work
Sol.106.(c) Article 144. Article 142:
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privileges; Third - Oath and affirmation ;

Enforcement of decrees and orders of
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Fourth - Seat allocation of the Rajya Sol.112.(b) To organise village

the Supreme Court and orders as to Sabha; Fifth - Administration of panchayat. Article based on Gandhian
a

discovery, etc. Article 141: The law Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes; principles: 40 - Organise village
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declared by the Supreme Court shall be Sixth - Administration of Tribal Areas in panchayats. 43 - Living wage, etc., for
binding on all courts within the territory the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura workers. 43B - To promote voluntary
of India. and Mizoram; Seventh - Union list, State formation, autonomous functioning,
Q.107. Article 149 of the Constitution list and the concurrent list; Eight - List of democratic control of cooperative
deals with ___________ . recognized languages; Ninth - Land societies. 46 - promote educational and
SSC MTS 01/09/2023 (1st Shift) reforms and regulations; Tenth - Anti economic interests of the weaker
(a) the qualifications required for the defection law; Eleventh - Panchayati Raj sections. 47 - To improve public health.
appointment of the Comptroller and and Twelfth - Municipalities. 48 - To prohibit the slaughter of cows,
Auditor-General of India calves and other milch. Other Groups -
Q.110. Which Clause of Article 19 of the Socialist Principle - Article (38, 39, 41, 42,
(b) the duties and powers of the Indian Constitution guarantees the 'right
Comptroller and Auditor-General of 43, 43A, 47). Liberal - Intellectual
to move freely throughout the territory of Principle - Article (44, 45, 48, 48A, 49, 50,
India India' ?
(c) the term of office of the Comptroller 51).
SSC MTS 06/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
and Auditor-General of India (a) Clause (b) (b) Clause (c) Q.113. Which of the following Articles
(d) the appointment of the Comptroller (c) Clause (d) (d) Clause (a) says that double jeopardy which says
and Auditor-General of India that “no person shall be prosecuted or
Sol.110.(c) Clause (d). Article 19 - punished for the same offence more
Sol.107.(b) Part V (Chapter V) of the Protection of certain rights regarding
Indian Constitution (Articles 148-151) than once?
freedom of speech, etc. Other clauses of SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (2nd shift)
deals with the Comptroller and Article 19(1): Clause (a) grants the
Auditor-General (CAG). Article 148: This (a) Article 21 (2) (b) Article 19 (1)
freedom of speech and expression; (c) Article 20 (2) (d) Article 22 (2)
article deals with the appointment, oath,
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 Pinnacle Polity
Sol.113.(c) Article 20 (2). Article 21 - Cooperation societies was inserted as Q.121. KA Najeeb Vs Union of India case
Protection of life and personal liberty. one of the DPSPs (Article 43-B). deals with violation of rights under_____
Article 19 (1) - The right to freedom of SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (2nd shift)
Q.117. The government is bound to
speech and expression. Article 22 - (a) Article 16 (b) Article 21
ensure observance of social welfare and
Protection Against Arrest and Detention (c) Article 14 (d) Article 19
labour laws enacted to secure for
in Certain Cases. Article 22(2) - A person
workmen a life compatible with human Sol.121.(b) Article 21 (Protection of life
who is arrested and detained must be
dignity, under _____ of the Indian and personal liberty). Important Cases
produced before a magistrate within 24
Constitution. related to Article 21: A.K Gopalan vs the
hours.
SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (1st shift) State of Madras 1950 : The Supreme
Q.114. Under which Article of the (a) Article 17 (b) Article 15 court has taken a narrow interpretation
Directive Principles of State Policy, a (c) Article 19 (d) Article 21 of Article 21 in this case. Maneka Gandhi
working woman on maternity leave, must vs. Union of India, 1978: In this case, the
Sol.117.(d) Article 21. Article 15 -
receive all maternity benefits from the SC overruled its judgement of the
Prohibition of discrimination on grounds
employer? Gopalan Case by taking a wider
of religion, race, caste, sex or place of
SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (3rd shift) interpretation of Article 21.
birth. Article 19: Protection of certain
(a) Article 42 (b) Article 44
rights regarding freedom of Speech, etc. Q.122. Which part of the Constitution of
(c) Article 45 (d) Article 43
Article 17 - Abolition of Untouchability. India contains the provisions of the
Sol.114.(a) Article 42. Directive Union Executive?
Q.118. In the Indian Constitution which
Principles of State Policies are SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (2nd shift)
of the following Articles deals with the
non-justiciable rights (which means that (a) Part V (b) Part III
right to move to the Supreme Court for
they cannot be enforced by a Court of (c) Part IV (d) Part VI

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enforcement of Fundamental rights ?
Law). Article 43 - The State shall SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (3rd shift) Sol.122.(a) Part V. Other parts of

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endeavour to secure all workers a living (a) Article 30 (b) Article 32 constitution: Part III - Fundamental Rights
wage and a decent standard of life. (c) Article 33 (d) Article 31 (Article 12 to 35), Part IV - Directive

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Article 44 - Uniform civil code for the
Principle of State Policy (Article - 36 to
citizens. Sol.118.(b) Article 32 (Right to
51), Part VI - The States (Article 152 to
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Constitutional Remedies) - The ‘Heart
Q.115. 'The state shall endeavour to 237).
and Soul of the Constitution’ by Dr. B.R.
secure to all workers a living wage and a
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Ambedkar. Article 30 - Right of minorities Q.123. Fundamental duties were not

decent standard of life'. Which of the to establish and administer educational placed in Part III of the Indian
following is correct about the given institutions. Constitution because Part III is_________.
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statement in the context of India?

SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (3rd shift)
SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (1st shift) Q.119. Poshan Abhiyaan is a programme
(a) non-justiciable (b) justiciable
(a) It is mentioned in the 43rd Article of to achieve nutritional status of children
(c) not enforceable (d) absolute
on

the Constitution. from 0 to 6 years. Which of the following

(b) It is mentioned in the 44th Article of Articles of the Indian Constitution Sol.123.(b) Justiciable. Part III Article
Constitution. provides for raising the nutrition level? (12-35): Fundamental Rights.
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(c) This is a Gandhian principle of SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (1st shift) Fundamental duties (Part IVA Article
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Directive Principles of State Policy. (a) Article 47 (b) Article 44 51A) added by the 42nd Amendment Act
(d) This is a liberal principle of Directive (c) Article 46 (d) Article 45
a

(1976). These duties are non-justiciable,

Principles of State Policy.
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meaning they are not enforceable by a

Sol.119.(a) Article 47 - Duty of the State
court of law.
Sol.115.(a) Article 43 (Living wage, etc., to raise the level of nutrition and the
for workers). Directives based on standard of living and to improve public Q.124. Which of the following Articles of
Liberal-Intellectual Principles: Article 44, health comes under Directive Principles the Indian Constitution provides for a
Article 45, Article 48, Article 48A, Article of State Policy (Articles 36-51 under bicameral Parliament of India?
49, Article 50, Article 51. Part-IV). SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (3rd shift)
(a) Article 49 (b) Article 59
Q.116. Which of the following articles is Q.120. Which of the following Articles of
(c) Article 79 (d) Article 89
related to the provision of Co-operative the Indian Constitution has the idea that
Societies in the Indian Constitution? 'No child below the age of fourteen years Sol.124.(c) Article 79 :- Constitution of
SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (3rd shift) shall be employed to work in any factory Parliament - There shall be a Parliament
(a) 243 ZG to 243 ZJ (b) 243 P to 243 ZG or mine or engaged in any other of the Union consisting of the President
(c) 243 ZH to 243 ZT (d) 243 A to 243 hazardous employment? and two Houses known as the Council of
SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (4th shift) States (Rajya Sabha, Article 80) and the
Sol.116.(c) 243 ZH to 243 ZT. Co -
(a) Article 22 (b) Article 24 House of the People (Lok Sabha, Article
operative Societies - A form of business
(c) Article 19 (d) Article 20 81). Article 49 - Protection of
organisation that is formed with the
objective of helping the society monuments and places and objects of
Sol.120.(b) Article 24. Article 22 -
members. Under 97th Amendment Act national importance. Article 59 -
Protection against arrest and detention
2011, the right to form cooperative Conditions of the President's office.
in certain cases. Article 19 - Protection of
societies was included as Right to certain rights regarding freedom of Q.125. As per Article 172 (2)_______of a
Freedom {Article 19(1)(c)}. Promotion of speech, etc. State shall NOT be subject to dissolution.

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 Pinnacle Polity
SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (3rd shift) Q.129. Which Article of the Indian Q.133. Provisions related to the seat of
(a) Legislative Assembly Constitution deals with the removal and the "Supreme Court of India" is
(b) Legislative Council suspension of a member of the Public mentioned in which Article?
(c) House of People Service Commission? SSC MTS 12/05/2023 (Morning)
(d) Council of States Graduate Level 27/06/2023 (Shift - 4) (a) Article 132 (b) Article 131
(a) Article 320 (b) Article 324 (c) Article 130 (d) Article 129
Sol.125.(b) Legislative Council (Saasana (c) Article 317 (d) Article 315
Mandali) - It is the upper house in those Sol.133.(c) Article 130. The Federal
states of India that have a bicameral Sol.129.(c) Article 317. Part XIV Court of India was established on 1
state legislature. Six States have a (Articles 315 to 323) - Establishment of October 1937. After Independence, the
Legislative Council: Andhra Pradesh, UPSC for Union and Public Service Federal Court was replaced as the
Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Commission for each state. Article 320 - Supreme Court of India (28 January
Maharashtra, Karnataka. Functions of Public Service 1950). Other related Articles : Article
Commissions. Article 315 - Public 124: Establishment and Constitution of
Q.126. Article 323 of the Indian Service Commissions for the Union and Supreme Court. Article 129: Supreme
Constitution deals with __________ . for the States. Court to be a Court of Record. Article
SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (3rd shift) 131: Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme
(a) expenses of Public Services Q.130. Which part of the Indian Court. Article 132: Appellate Jurisdiction
Commissions Constitution deals with the organisation, of Supreme Court in appeals from High
(b) reports of Public Services composition and powers of the state Court in certain cases.
Commissions legislature?
(c) functions of Public Services Graduate Level 30/06/2023 (Shift - 1) Q.134. Part XVI of the Indian constitution
Commissions (a) Part IV (b) Part VI deals with ___________ .

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(d) power to extend functions of Public (c) Part III (d) Part V SSC MTS 18/05/2023 (Morning)

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Services Commissions (a) Elections
Sol.130.(b) Part VI Article (152 to 237). (b) Special provisions related to certain
Sol.126.(b) reports of Public Services Article 168 Constitution of Legislatures

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classes
Commissions. Articles 315 to 323 (Part in States. Article 169 deals with abolition (c) Constitutional amendments
XIV) of the Constitution of India establish or creation of Legislative Councils in
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(d) Special provisions related to
the Union Public Service Commission states. Article 170 - Composition of the municipal corporation
(UPSC) and State Public Service Legislative Assemblies. Article 171 -
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Commissions (SPSC). The UPSC Composition of the legislative Councils. Sol.134.(b) Special provisions related to
Chairman is appointed by the President Article 172 - Duration of State certain classes (Article 330 to 342A).
for a term of six years or until the age of Legislatures. Article 330 - Reservation of seats for
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65, whichever is earlier. Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes

Q.131. Which of the following Articles of in the House of the People. Part XV
Q.127. Which Article of the Indian the Constitution of India provides that (Article 324-329): Elections. Part XX
on

Constitution empowers the Supreme there shall be a Legislative Assembly for (Article 368): Amendment of the
Court to review its own judgements or the National Capital Territory of Delhi? Constitution. Part IXA (Article
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orders ? Higher Secondary 27/06/2023 (Shift - 3) 243P-243ZG): The Municipalities.

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SSC CGL 25/07/2023 (3rd shift) (a) Article 231AA (b) Article 239AA
(a) Article 138 (b) Article 135 (c) Article 233AA (d) Article 237AA Q.135. Which of the following Articles of
a

(c) Article 136 (d) Article 137 the Indian constitution provides for the
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Sol.131.(b) Article 239AA. The 69th National commission for Scheduled

Sol.127.(d) Article 137. Article 138 - Amendment Act (1991) - A special Castes ?
Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the status to the Union Territory of Delhi by SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Morning)
Supreme Court. Article 135 - Jurisdiction designing it as the National Capital (a) Article 337 (b) Article 344
and powers of the Federal Court under Territory of Delhi. Brahm Prakash was (c) Article 343 (d) Article 338
existing law to be exercisable by the the first chief minister of Delhi.
Supreme Court. Article 136 - Special Sol.135.(d) Article 338. National
leave to appeal by the Supreme Court. Q.132. Which among the following is a commission for Scheduled Castes is a
subject of Union Lists in the Constitution constitutional body.Other Commissions -
Q.128. Which Article of the Indian of India ? National Commission for Scheduled
Constitution empowers the Parliament to SSC MTS 04/05/2023 (Morning) Tribes (Article 338A inserted by the 89th
establish additional courts for better (a) Liquor (b) Social planning Amendment Act 2003) and National
administration of laws made by it (c) Extradition (d) Boilers Commission for Backward Classes
SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (3rd shift) (Article 338B). Article 343 - Official
(a) Article 246 (b) Article 248 Sol.132.(c) Extradition.The 7th Schedule
of the Indian Constitution consists of language of the Union. Article 344 -
(c) Article 253 (d) Article 247 Commission and Committee of
three lists: Union List: 100 items (e.g.,
Sol.128.(d) Article 247. Article 246 - Defence, Army, International Relations). Parliament on Official Language. Article
Subject-matter of laws made by State List: 61 items (e.g., Local 337 - Special provisions in terms of
Parliament and by the Legislatures of Government, Public Health, Prisons). educational grants/subsidies provided to
States. Article 248 - Residuary powers of Concurrent List: 52 items (e.g., the Anglo-Indian population of India.
legislation. Article 253 - Legislation for Education, Forest, Trade Unions). Q.136. Provisions related to the
giving effect to international agreements.
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 Pinnacle Polity
Municipalities are mentioned under Service Commission, etc. Concurrent list inquire into proceedings of the
which part of the Indian constitution? (52) - Education, Forest, Trade unions, Legislature. Article 214 - High Courts for
SSC MTS 16/06/2023 (Evening) population control and family planning, States.
(a) Part IXA (b) Part VII Marriage, Adoption, etc. Seventh
(c) Part V (d) Part XII schedule under Article 246 of the Q.143. Part V chapter II of the Indian
constitution deals with the division of constitution does not include which of
Sol.136.(a) Part IXA. The Municipalities powers between the union and the the following provisions?
(Urban Local Governments) is a system states. SSC CHSL 20/03/2023 (1st Shift)
of Democratic Decentralisation. It was (a) Joint sitting of both house of
added through the 74th Constitutional Q.140. The part VII of the Indian Parliament in certain cases
Amendment Act of 1992. Part VII - constitution has been omitted. It is (b) Power of President to promulgate
Repealed by the Constitution (Seventh related with which of the following? Ordinances during recess of
Amendment Act, 1956). Part V - SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (4th Shift) Parliament
Provisions for the functioning of the (a) Provision relating to property (c) Language to be used in Parliament
Union Government. Part XII - Laws (b) States in part B of the first schedule (d) Restriction on discussion in
pertaining to Finance, Property, Contracts (c) Armed forces in states in part A of Parliament
and Suits for Republic of India. the second schedule
(d) Reservation for Anglo - Indian Sol.143.(b) Article 123 - Power of
Q.137. Which Article of the Indian communities in parliament President to promulgate Ordinances
constitution mentions that it is duty of during recess of Parliament. It is
the Union government to protect States Sol.140.(b) States in part B of the first included under chapter III of part V of
against external aggression and internal schedule. Provision relating to property - Indian constitution. Article 108 - Joint
disturbance? constitutional right under Part XII, Article sitting of both Houses in certain cases.

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SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (1st Shift) 300A (Added by 44th Amendment Act, Article 120 - Language to be used in

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(a) 353 (b) 356 (c) 355 (d) 358 1978). The 104th Constitutional Parliament. Article 121 - Restriction on
Amendment Act of 2019 abolished the discussion in Parliament.
Sol.137.(c) Article 355. Other Articles -

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reservation of seats for Anglo-Indians in
Article 353 - States about the Effect of the Parliament and State Legislatures of Q.144. Article 243K of the Indian
the proclamation of emergency. Article
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India in January 2020. The amendment constitution is related with which of the
356 - States about the Provision in case also extended reservations for following ?
of failure of constitutional machinery in SSC CHSL 20/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
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Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes

the state (president rule). Article 358 - It for up to ten years. (a) Durations of panchayat, etc.
deals with the suspension of (b) Grounds of disqualification from
fundamental rights guaranteed under Q.141. The Indian parliament has power
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membership of Panchayat.
Article 19 of the constitution. to impose restrictions on trade, (c) Reservation of seats in Panchayat.
commerce and intercourse through (d) Election to the Panchayats.
Q.138. Which Article of the constitution which Article of the Indian constitution?
on

of India is related to the Comptroller and SSC CHSL 15/03/2023 (2nd Shift) Sol.144.(d) Election to the Panchayats.
Auditor General of India Audit reports? (a) 304 (b) 300 A (c) 303 (d) 302 Panchayati Raj is a three-tiered
h

SSC CHSL 13/03/2023 (1st Shift) administrative framework in India that

Sol.141.(d) Article 302. Part XIII (Article
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(a) 148 (b) 150 (c) 151 (d) 149 focuses on rural development. It consists
301-307) - Trade, Commerce and of Gram Panchayats at the village level,
a

Sol.138.(c) 151. Part V: The Union, Intercourse within the Territory of India. Panchayat Samitis at the block level, and
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Chapter V : Comptroller and Auditor - Article 304: Restrictions on trade, Zila Parishads at the district level. Article
General (CAG) of India (Article 148 - commerce and intercourse among 243E - Duration of Panchayats. Article
151). Article 150: Form of accounts of States. Article 303: Restrictions on the 243D - Reservation of seats in
the Union and of the States. Article 149: legislative powers of the Union and of the Panchayat. Article 243F - Grounds of
Duties and powers of the Comptroller States with regard to trade and disqualification from membership of
and Auditor-General. Article 148: commerce. Article 300A: Persons not to Panchayat.
Comptroller and Auditor-General of India. be deprived of property save by authority
of law. Q.145. Article 350A of the Indian
Q.139. Central Bureau of Intelligence and
constitution is related with______.
Investigation comes under which list of Q.142. Which Article of the Indian
SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
the seventh schedule of the Indian constitution states that "Governor has
(a) Special officers for linguistic
constitution ? power to promulgate ordinances during
minorities
SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (3rd Shift) recess of legislature"?
(b) Facilities for instruction in
(a) Union list (b) Concurrent list SSC CHSL 15/03/2023 (4th Shift)
mother-tongue at primary stage
(c) State list (d) Transferred list (a) 212 (b) 214 (c) 213 (d) 210
(c) Direction for development of the Hindi
Sol.139.(a) Union list (100) - Defence, Sol.142.(c) Article 213.The governor can language
Army, International Relations, Ports, issue an ordinance when the state (d) Language to` be used in Supreme
Railways, Census, Communication, legislature is not in session, which must Court and High Courts of India
Central Bureau of Investigation etc. State be approved by the state legislature
Sol.145.(b) Article - 350 : Language to be
list (61) - Public order, Police, Public within 6 weeks of its reassembly. Article
used in representations for redress of
health and sanitation, Hospitals and 210 - Language to be used in the
grievances. Article - 350B: Special Officer
dispensaries, Agriculture, State Public Legislature. Article 212 - Courts not to
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 Pinnacle Polity
for linguistic minorities. Article- 351: (a) Article 126 (b) Article 127 Sol.153.(c) Part XIV. Union Public
Directive for development of the Hindi (c) Article 128 (d) Article 125 Service Commission (UPSC) is an
language. Article 348 (1)(a): All independent constitutional body. The
proceedings in the Supreme Court and in Sol.149.(b) Article 127. Article 125: talks provisions regarding the composition of
every High Court, shall be in English about the financial privileges and UPSC, the appointment, and removal of
language. allowances that are defined for the its members, and the powers and
judges of the Supreme Court. Article 126: functions of UPSC are provided in Part
Q.146. Which part of the Constitution of Appointment of acting Chief Justice of XIV of the Indian Constitution under
India consists of the idea of a Welfare India. Article 128: Attendance of retired Article 315 to Article 323.
State? judges at sitting of the Supreme Court.
SSC CGL Tier II (02/03/2023) Q.154. Article ______ of the Indian
(a) Directive Principles of State Policy Q.150. Which Article of the Constitution Constitution states that ‘there shall be a
(b) Fundamental Duties of India deals with the Sessions of the Commission for the socially and
(c) Fundamental Rights Parliament? educationally backward classes to be
(d) Preamble SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Evening) known as the National Commission for
(a) Article 85 (b) Article 89 Backward Classes’.
Sol.146.(a) Directive Principles of State (c) Article 90 (d) Article 101 SSC CGL 19/04/2022 (Evening)
Policy is mentioned in Part IV, Article (a) 124 A (1) (b) 243S (1)
36–51. Article 38 gives the idea of a Sol.150.(a) Article 85 - Sessions of
Parliament, prorogation, and dissolution. (c) 243Y (1) (d) 338B (1)
Welfare State.
A session is a period during which a Sol.154.(d) Article 338B (1). Article
Q.147. Which Article of the Constitution House meets almost every day 243S(1) - There shall be constituted
does India mention that business in uninterruptedly to manage the business. Wards Committees, consisting of one or

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Parliament shall be transacted in Hindi or Article 90 - Vacation and resignation of more wards, within the territorial area of
English? (and removal from) the office of Deputy

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a Municipality having a population of
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (2nd Shift) Chairman. Article 101- Vacation of seats three lakhs or more.
(a) Article 120 (b) Article 121 in Parliament.
(c) Article 122 (d) Article 119
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Q.151. Which chapter of the Constitution
Q.155. Which of the following Articles of
the Constitution of India states that Hindi
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Sol.147.(a) Article 120. Article 121 - of India, discusses the Articles of in Devanagari script shall be the official
Restriction on discussion in Parliament. Parliament ? language of the Union?
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Article 122 - Courts not to inquire into SSC MTS 25/07/2022 (Morning) SSC MTS 27/10/2021 (Morning)
proceedings of Parliament. Article 119 - (a) Chapter III (b) Chapter I (a) Article 343(2) (b) Article 354(2)
Regulation by law of procedure in (c) Chapter II (d) Chapter IV (c) Article 343(1) (d) Article 343(3)
TG

Parliament in relation to financial

business. Sol.151.(c) Chapter II (79-122). Part V - Sol.155.(c) Article 343(1). Article 343(2)
The Union of Indian Constitution Chapter -The Constitution adopted in 1950
on

Q.148. Which Article of Indian II deals with the Articles of Parliament . stipulated that English and Hindi would
constitution is related with the Special Chapter I (The Executive; Articles 52 to be used for the Union's official business
provisions with respect to the State of 78); Chapter III: Legislative powers of the
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for a period of fifteen years. Article 354

Sikkim? President; Article 123); Chapter IV (The
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deals with the application of provisions

SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (1st Shift) Union Judiciary; Articles 124 - 147). related to the distribution of revenues
a

(a) Article 371C (b) Article 371 Chapter V (Comptroller and Auditor - while a Proclamation of Emergency is in
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(c) Article 371F (d) Article 371A General of India (CAG); Articles 148 to operation.
151).
Sol.148.(c) 371 F - Sikkim (36th Q.156. Which of the following Articles of
Amendment Act, 1975). Article 371 of Q.152. The Article of the Indian the constitution of India provides for the
the Constitution includes special Constitution that deals with all the creation of a GST Council ?
provisions for 11 states (6 states of the executive powers of the Governor is ____ SSC CGL 16/08/2021 (Morning)
Northeast). Article 371 - provisions for SSC CHSL 24/05/2022 (Morning) (a) Article 246A (b) Article 279A
Maharashtra and Gujarat. Article 371 A - (a) Article 150 (b) Article 157 (c) Article 269A (d) Article 323A
Nagaland (13th Amendment Act, 1962). (c) Article 154 (d) Article 156
371 B - Assam (22nd Amendment Act, Sol.156.(b) Article 279A. It empowers
1969). 371 C - Manipur (27th Amendment Sol.152.(c) Article 154- Executive power the president to constitute a joint forum
Act, 1971). 371 D - Andhra Pradesh and of Governor. Article 150 - Form of of the central and states namely, Goods
Telangana (32nd. Amendment Act, 1973). accounts of the Union and of the States. and Services Tax Council. The GST
371 E - To establish Central University in Article 157 - Qualifications for Council is a constitutional body for
Andhra Pradesh. 371 G - Mizoram (53rd. appointment as Governor. Article 156 - making recommendations to the union
Amendment Act, 1986). 371 H - Term of office of Governor. and state government on issues related
Arunachal Pradesh (55th Amendment Act, to Goods and Service Tax.
Q.153. Which Part of the Indian
1986). 371 I - Goa.
Constitution provides for the Union Q.157. According to which of the
Q.149. Which Article of the Constitution Public Service Commission? following Articles of the Constitution of
of India deals with the appointment of ad SSC CHSL 27/05/2022 (Afternoon) India shall a Money Bill NOT be
- hoc judges? (a) Part X (b) Part VIII introduced in the Council of States ?
SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Afternoon) (c) Part XIV (d) Part XVI SSC CGL 17/08/2021 (Afternoon)
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 Pinnacle Polity
(a) Article 109 (b) Article 354 by a Section of the Population of a State. secures workers' participation in industry
(c) Article 298 (d) Article 193 management; and Article 48(A) protects
Amendments the environment and wildlife.
Sol.157.(a) Article 109. Rajya Sabha
(Council of States), the upper house of Q.165. Which of the following
Q.162. As per the Constitution (Ninety -
the Parliament of India. A money bill is a Constitution Amendment Bills is related
First Amendment) Act, 2003, the total
specific type of financial legislation that to the provision of modifying the list of
number of ministers, including the Prime
exclusively deals with matters related to Scheduled Caste in Tamil Nadu ?
Minister, shall NOT exceed:
taxes, government revenues, or SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (1st Shift)
SSC MTS 22/10/2024 (2nd Shift)
expenditures. (a) The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes)
(a) 20% of the total number of members
Order (Amendment) Bill, 2019
Q.158. As per Article ______ of the of the Lok Sabha
(b) The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes)
Constitution of India, English is the (b) 15% of the total number of members
Order Amendment Act, 2013
official language for all the high courts in of the Lok Sabha
(c) The Constitution (Scheduled Caste)
the country. (c) 10% of the total number of members
Order (Amendment) Bill, 2015
SSC CGL 17/08/2021 (Evening) of the Lok Sabha
(d) The Constitution (Scheduled Castes)
(a) 329 (1) (b) 336 (1) (d) 25% of the total number of members
Order (Amendment) Bill, 2021
(c) 315 (1) (d) 348 (1) of the Lok Sabha
Sol.165.(d) The Bill amends the
Sol.162.(b) 91st Amendment Act 2003:
Sol.158.(d) Article 348 (1). 329(a) the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order,
The total number of ministers in the
validity of any law relating to the 1950. The Constitution empowers the
Council of Ministers, including the Prime
delimitation of constituencies or the President to specify the Scheduled
Minister, cannot exceed 15% of the total
allotment of seats to such Castes (SCs) in various states and union

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number of members in the Lok Sabha.
constituencies, made or purporting to be territories. Further, it permits Parliament
The total number of ministers in a State

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made under Article 327 or Article 328, to modify this list of notified SCs. The
Council of Ministers, including the Chief
shall not be called in question in any Statement of Objects and Reasons of the
Minister, cannot exceed 15% of the total

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court Bill states that the Bill has been
number of members in the Legislative
introduced to give effect to modifications
Q.159. Which of the following Articles of Assembly of that State.
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proposed by the state of Tamil Nadu.
the Constitution of India defines for a
Q.163. Part IV A of the Indian
separate secretarial staff for each House Q.166. Which of the following
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Constitution was inserted in the Indian

of the Parliament? Constitutional Amendment Acts led to
Constitution through______ Constitutional
SSC CGL 18/08/2021 (Evening) formation of the Goods and Services Tax
Amendment Act.
(a) Article 98 (b) Article 123 Council ?
TG

SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (1st Shift)

(c) Article 155 (d) Article 34 SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
(a) 44th (b) 46th (c) 48th (d) 42nd
(a) 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act
Sol.159.(a) Article 98. Article 155- (b) 100th Constitutional Amendment Act
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Sol.163.(d) 42nd. The fundamental

Appointment of the Governor. Article 34- (c) 101st Constitutional Amendment Act
duties were incorporated in Part IV-A of
Restriction on rights conferred by third (d) 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act
the Constitution by the 42nd
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Part while martial law is in force in any

Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 on
101st
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area. Sol.166.(c) Constitutional

the recommendations of the Swaran
Amendment Act, 2016. Article 279A of
a

Q.160. Which of the following Articles of Singh Committee. Initially, there were 10
the Indian Constitution establishes the
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the Constitution of India states that there duties, but an additional duty was added
Goods and Services Tax Council (GST
would be no tax levied or collected by the 86th Constitutional Amendment
Council) chaired by the finance minister
EXCEPT by the authority of law? Act, 2002, bringing the total to 11 duties.
of India. 100th Constitutional Amendment
SSC CGL 24/08/2021 (Evening) Act, 2015: Ratified the land boundary
Q.164. ____________ Directive principles
(a) Article 107 (b) Article 123 agreement between India and
of State Policy were added to the Indian
(c) Article 265 (d) Article 301 Bangladesh. The 102nd Constitutional
Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional
Sol.160.(c) Article 265. Article 107- Amendment Act of 1976. Amendment Act: Enhanced regulations
Provisions as to introduction and passing SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (3rd Shift) to support backward classes in India.
of Bills. Article 301- Freedom of trade, (a) Two (b) Three (c) Five (d) Four The 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act:
commerce and intercourse. Established a 10% reservation for
Sol.164.(d) Four. Economically Weaker Sections.
Q.161. Under which Article of the Indian These Directive Principles of State Policy
Constitution are special provisions (DPSP) are: Article 39(f) which provided Q.167. Which of the following Articles of
provided to language spoken in a section that “the State shall direct its policy the Constitution of India CANNOT be
of the population? towards securing for the children amended with a simple majority ?
SSC CGL 05/03/2020 (Evening) opportunities and facilities to develop in SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (3rd shift)
(a) Article 337 (b) Article 357 a healthy manner and in conditions of (a) 169 (b) 2 (c) 21 (d) 3
(c) Article 347 (d) Article 374 freedom and dignity and for protecting
children and youth from exploitation and Sol.167.(c) 21. Article 21 asserts that no
Sol.161.(c) Article 347 Under part XVII, against material abandonment”; Article person shall be deprived of their life
of the Indian constitution : Special 39(A) promotes equal justice and free except according to the procedure
Provision Relating to Language Spoken legal aid for the poor; Article 43(A) established by law. This means that

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 Pinnacle Polity
every individual has the right to live, and amended. Through this amendment, 10% SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift)
their life cannot be taken away except in reservation was provided in educational (a) secular (b) capitalist
accordance with the prescribed legal institutions and government jobs for the (c) aristocratic (d) oligarchic
procedures. It is a part of Fundamental economically weaker sections of the
rights (Part III). It can be amended only country. Sol.174.(a) secular. The term means that
by a special majority in both houses of all the religions in India get equal respect,
Parliament by two-thirds of members Q.171. In which of the following years protection and support from the state.
present and voting. did the Constitution (One Hundredth The Preamble was amended only once
Amendment) Act come into force ? by the 42nd Amendment Act to add
Q.168. Which of the following Articles SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (2nd shift) ‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’ and Integrity terms.
was amended by The Constitution (a) 2015 (b) 2020 (c) 2009 (d) 2001
Fiftieth Amendment Act, 1984? Q.175. 73rd Amendment Act 1992 makes
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (4th shift) Sol.171.(a) 2015. The Constitution provisions for a 3 - tier system of
(a) Article 78 (b) Article 99 (100th Amendment) Act of 2015 ratified Panchayati Raj for all the states having
(c) Article 33 (d) Article 56 the Land Boundary Agreement between population of above:
India and Bangladesh. This amendment Higher Secondary 26/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
Sol.168.(c) Article 33 - the Power of gave effect to the acquisition and (a) 20 lakh (b) 10 lakh
Parliament to modify the rights conferred transfer of territories between the two (c) 15 lakh (d) 5 lakh
by this Part in their application to Forces, countries, pursuant to the Land Boundary
etc. Article 78 - Duties of the Prime Agreement of 1974 and its protocol of Sol.175.(a) 20 lakh. 73rd Constitutional
Minister as respects the furnishing of 2011. Amendment Act of 1992, enacted by the
information to the President, etc. Article Narasimha Rao government and
99 - Oath or affirmation by members of Q.172. Which of the following Articles effective from April 24, 1993, aimed to

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the Parliament. Article 56 - Term of office was amended in the Constitution (Fifth strengthen local self-governance by
Amendment Act), 1955 ? establishing democracy at the

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of President.
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (3rd shift) grassroots level. Part IX of the
Q.169. On 9 August 2021, the Parliament (a) Article 3 (b) Article 45 Constitution outlines the Panchayati Raj

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had passed the Limited Liability (c) Article 17 (d) Article 34 system, with Rajasthan implementing it
Partnership (Amendment) Bill, 2021. It first in Nagaur district on October 2,
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amended the: Sol.172.(a) Article 3 deals with the 1959. The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (4th shift) formation of new states and the recommended a three-tier structure: Zilla
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(a) Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2004 alteration of areas, boundaries, or names Parishad (district level), Panchayat
(b) Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 of existing states. Article 45 was Samiti (block level), and Gram Panchayat
(c) Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2012 amended by the Constitution (village level).
TG

(d) Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2016 (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act of 2002.
The amendment changed the subject Q.176 In which year did the 44th
Sol.169.(b) Limited Liability Partnership matter of Article 45 and made Amendment remove the right to property
on

Act, 2008. It was published in the official elementary education a fundamental from the list of fundamental rights?
Gazette of India on 9 January 2009 and right under Article 21. SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening)
has been in effect since 31 March 2009.
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(a) 1978 (b) 1975 (c) 1973 (d) 1981

LLP Amendment Bill, 2021 passed on Q.173. Which of the following
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28th July 2021 by both house of Amendment Acts led to the insertion of Sol.176.(a) 1978. The right to property
a

Parliament. 29 amendments were made Article 21 A ? was listed under Article 31 before its
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to LLP Act 2008 by LLP Amendment Bill SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (1st shift) deletion. At present the right to property
2021. (a) Eighty-seventh Amendment Act, 2003 is listed under Article 300A as a legal
(b) Eighty-fourth Amendment Act, 2002 right.
Q.170. On 7 November 2022, the (c) Eighty-sixth Amendment Act, 2002
Supreme Court of India upheld the (d) Eighty-fifth Amendment Act, 2002 Q.177. Which among the following is
reservations for the weaker sections INCORRECT about the salient features of
(EWS). Which of the following Sol.173.(c) Eighty-sixth Amendment the 73rd Amendment Act ?
amendments brought this reservation in Act, 2002. This Amendment Act, 2002 SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Afternoon)
the first place ? made the Right to Education a (a) The Act corresponds to Part III of the
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (4th shift) fundamental right for children aged 6-14 Constitution of India.
(a) 101st Amendment of the Constitution by adding Article 21A in Part III of the (b) The Act gives a Constitutional status
(b) 102nd Amendment of the Constitution. The 87th Amendment Act, to the Panchayati Raj Institutions.
Constitution 2003 involved readjusting electoral (c) The Act has added the Eleventh
(c) 103rd Amendment of the Constitution constituencies based on the 2001 Schedule to the Constitution of India.
(d) 104th Amendment of the Constitution census. The 85th Amendment Act, 2002 (d) It contains 29 functional items of the
provided for promotion with Panchayats and deals with Article
Sol.170.(c) 103rd Amendment to the consequential seniority for government 243 to 243(O).
Constitution. The 103rd Amendment Act employees from Scheduled Castes and
of the Constitution, 2019 was enacted to Scheduled Tribes. Sol.177.(a) The 73rd Amendment Act - It
introduce reservation for the was enacted in 1992 and came into force
economically weaker sections (EWS). Q.174. The 42nd Amendment of the from April 1993. It added Part IX (Article
Under this amendment, Articles 15(6) Indian Constitution (1976) states that 243 - 243O) to the constitution. It was
and 16(6) of the Constitution were India is a/an ______ nation. enacted to implement the Directive
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 Pinnacle Polity
Principles of State Policy under Article 40 Amendment Act empowering states and Sol.184.(b) 61st. It was done by
on the recommendation of L.M. Singhvi UTs to identify and specify Socially and amending Article 326 of the constitution
Committee. Educationally Backward Classes? in 1988. 81st Constitutional Amendment
SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (1st shift) Act 2000 was inserted to protect the
Q.178. How many types of the (a) 105th (b) 104th (c) 103rd (d) 102nd reservation for SCs and STs in backlog of
amendment are mentioned by the Indian vacancies. 52nd Constitutional
Constitution as per Article 368 ? Sol.181.(a) 105th. Reservation in India: Amendment Act 1985, known as
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Morning) Other Backward Class (OBCs) were anti-defection law and 10th schedule
(a) Four (b) Two (c) Five (d) Three included in the ambit of reservation in added in the Indian constitution. 72nd
1991 on the recommendations of the Constitutional Amendment Act 1992
Sol.178.(b) Two. Article 368 (Part XX) Mandal Commission. It recommended a
grants Parliament the power to amend provides reservation to Scheduled Tribes
27% reservation quota for OBC. in Tripura State Legislative Assembly.
the Constitution. Amendments require Constitutional Provisions: Part XVI deals
either (1) a special majority or (2) a with reservation of SC and ST in Central Q.185. Which amendment in the Indian
special majority with ratification by at and State legislatures. 342A - Socially constitution is related to extension of
least half of the state legislatures by a and educationally backward classes. jurisdiction of High Courts to Union
simple majority. The amendment territories ?
procedure is inspired by the South Q.182. In which year was the Andhra SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
African Constitution. Pradesh Reorganisation Act passed? (a) 9th Amendment (b) 7th Amendment
Graduate Level 28/06/2023 (Shift - 3) (c) 1st Amendment (d) 13th Amendment
Q.179. The Unlawful Activities (a) 2013 (b) 2012 (c) 2014 (d) 2015
(Prevention) Act, which provides for the Sol.185.(b) 7th Amendment.
more effective prevention of certain Sol.182.(c) 2014. This constitutional amendment was

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unlawful activities of individuals and The States Reorganisation Act (1956), done in 1956 to reorganise the classes of
associations dealing with terrorist under the provisions of Part I (Article 3).

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states in the country and to change the
activities, was first put into effect in India The State Reorganisation Commission powers and functions of the state
in the year. (SRC) was constituted in 1953 appointed

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governors. 1st Amendment (1951) - The
SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (4th shift) by Jawahar Lal Nehru. It was headed by rights of property owners and made it
(a) 1991 (b) 1967 (c) 2014 (d) 1947 Sir Fazal Ali. The first state formed on the
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more difficult for the government to
linguistic basis is Andhra Pradesh (1 enact land reform measures. It also
Sol.179.(b) 1967. Unlawful Activities October 1953). Formation of other
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added the Ninth Schedule, which

(Prevention) Act - Its main objective is states: Gujarat and Maharashtra (1960), protected certain laws from being
dealing with activities directed against Karnataka (1956), Nagaland (1963), challenged in the courts. 9th Amendment
the integrity and sovereignty of India. It Haryana (1966), Sikkim (1975).
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(1960) - Facilitate the cession of the

assigns absolute power to the central
Berubari union. 13th Amendment (1962) -
government and provides for death Q.183. How many Directive Principles of
Nagaland was formed with special
penalty and life imprisonment of culprits. the original list in the Indian Constitution
on

status under Article 371A.

Related acts - Armed Forces Special were amended by the 44th Amendment
Powers Act (AFSPA) 1958; Prevention of Act of 1978 ? Q.186. The Seventy - First Amendment to
Higher Secondary 27/06/2023 (Shift - 3) the Indian Constitution included Konkani,
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Terrorism Act, 2002; The National

(a) Three (b) One (c) Two (d) Four Manipuri, and Nepali languages in the
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Investigation Agency Act, 2008; The Anti

- Hijacking Act, 2016. Schedule.
a

Sol.183.(b) One (Article 38(2): Requires SSC CHSL 17/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
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Q.180. The Family Courts (Amendment) the state to reduce inequalities in (a) Eighth (b) Sixth (c) Fifth (d) Seventh
Act 2022 has amended the Family Courts income, status, facilities, and
Act, 1984. The Act allows ________ to opportunities). Directive Principles of Sol.186.(a) Eighth Schedule.
establish Family Courts. State Policy: Part IV of the Constitution 22 languages in this schedule. 21st
SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (2nd shift) of India (Article 36–51). It was borrowed Amendment Act (1967) - Include Sindhi
(a) District Courts from the Irish Constitution. Article 38 (1) language. 92nd Amendment Act (2003) -
(b) State Governments - The State shall strive to promote the Include Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali
(c) Union Government welfare of the people by securing and language. 5th schedule - The President
(d) District Collector protecting as effectively as it may a can declare any such area or the whole
social order in which justice, social, state as a scheduled area. 6th schedule
Sol.180.(b) State Governments. Purpose economic and political, shall inform all - Deals with administration of tribal areas
of establishment of family court - To the institutions of national life. in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram.
promote conciliation and secure speedy 7th Schedule - Deals with the division of
settlement of disputes relating to Q.184. Which among the following powers between the Union government
marriage and family affairs and for Constitutional Amendment Act of the and State governments
related matters. This bill was passed by Indian constitution reduced the age of
Lok Sabha on 26th July 2022. This bill voting from 21 to 18 for elections to the Q.187. The Eighty - ninth Amendment
has granted statutory cover to already Lok Sabha and to the Legislative Act, 2003 of the Indian Constitution
established family courts in Himachal Assemblies of states? established which of the following
Pradesh and Nagaland. SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (2nd Shift) Commission ?
(a) 81st (b) 61st (c) 52nd (d) 72nd SSC CHSL 17/03/2023 (4th Shift)
Q.181. In August 2021, Ram Nath Kovind (a) Competition Commission of India
granted assent to which Constitution (b) National Commission for Backward
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 Pinnacle Polity
Classes Dadra and Nagar Haveli in the Union of continuance in force of the Proclamation
(c) National Commission for Woman India as a Union Territory ? for a period up to two years.
(d) National Commission for Scheduled SSC MTS 26/07/2022 (Afternoon)
Tribes (a) 19th (b) 14th (c) 12th (d) 10th Q.195. An amendment to the Hindu
Succession Act, 1956 was passed in the
Sol.187.(d) The National Commission for Sol.191.(d) The 10th Amendment (1961) year ______.
Scheduled Tribes (NCST) was added Dadra and Nagar Haveli as India’s SSC CGL 12/04/2022 (Afternoon)
established by amending Article 338 and seventh Union Territories. The 12th (a) 2012 (b) 2005 (c) 2010 (d) 2008
inserting a new Article 338A in the Amendment (1962) incorporated Goa,
Constitution. Daman, and Diu as the eighth Union Sol.195.(b) 2005. The Hindu Succession
Territory, while the 14th Amendment Act, 1956 is an Act of the Parliament of
Q.188. Which among the following (1962) included Pondicherry as the ninth. India enacted to amend and codify the
constitutional amendments of the Indian The 19th Amendment (1966) abolished law relating to intestate or unwilled
Constitution deals with the formation of Election Tribunals, assigning election succession, among Hindus, Buddhists,
Sikkim as a state? petition trials to High Courts. Jains, and Sikhs.
SSC CHSL 20/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
(a) 36th (b) 51th (c) 42nd (d) 30th Q.192. Who among the following Q.196. The 60th Amendment to the
presidents of India gave assent to the Constitution of India increased the
Sol.188.(a) 36th. 51st amendment: 100th Amendment of the Constitution of ceiling of profession tax from ₹ 250 p.a.
Reservation of seats in the Lok Sabha for India ? to ______ p.a.
Scheduled Tribes in Meghalaya, SSC CGL 12/04/2022(Morning) SSC CGL 13/04/2022 (Afternoon)
Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland and (a) Pranab Mukherjee (a) ₹7,000 (b) ₹5,000 (c) ₹1,000 (d) ₹2,500
Mizoram as well as in the Legislative (b) Ram Nath Kovind

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Assemblies of Meghalaya and Nagaland. Sol.196.(d) ₹2,500 . The Sixtieth
(c) APJ Abdul Kalam Amendment of the Constitution of India
30th amendment: Abolished provision to

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(d) Pratibha Devisingh Patil Act, 1988, amended Article 276 of the
appeal to the Supreme Court on a civil
case related to a certain amount. Sol.192.(a) Pranab Mukherjee. The Constitution relating to taxes on

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100th amendment in the Indian professions, trades, callings and
Q.189. Under which Amendment to the Constitution provides for the acquisition employments.
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Constitution Act was the reservation for of territories by India and transfer of
OBCs in educational institutions made? Q.197. The 40th Amendment Act of 1976
certain territories to Bangladesh.
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Higher Secondary 03/08/2022 (Shift - 4) was applied to which Article of the

Constitution (100th Amendment) Act Constitution of India?
(a) 95th Amendment (b) 94th Amendment 2015 ratified the land boundary
(c) 93rd Amendment (d) 96th Amendment SSC CGL 18/04/2022 (Evening)
agreement between India and
TG

(a) 297 (b) 248 (c) 245 (d) 226

Sol.189.(c) 93rd Amendment 2005. 95th Bangladesh.
(2009): Extended the reservation of seats Sol.197.(a) 40th amendment was
Q.193. The Government of National proposed to amend Article 297 of the
on

for the SCs and STs and special Capital Territory of Delhi (Amendment)
representation for the Anglo-Indians in Constitution so as to provide that all
Bill, 2021, which was passed in March lands, minerals, and other things of value
the Lok Sabha and the state legislative
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2021 amended the Government of underlying the ocean within the exclusive
assemblies for a further period of ten
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National Capital Territory of Delhi Act, ___ economic zone of India and all other
years i.e., up to 2020 (Article 334). 96th SSC CGL 12/04/2022 (Morning) resources of the exclusive economic
a

(2011): Substituted “Odia” for “Oriya”. (a) 1998 (b) 1994 (c) 1996 (d) 1991 zone of India shall also vest in the Union.
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Consequently, the “Oriya” language in the

Eighth Schedule shall be pronounced as Sol.193.(d) 1991. Delhi became the Q.198. Which of the following
“Odia”. 94th (2006), made provisions for capital of India on 12 December 1911. Amendment Acts of the Constitution of
the appointment of a Minister in charge India abolished the privy purses and
of tribal welfare in the states of Q.194. Which of the following
Amendments of the Constitution of India privileges of former rulers of princely
Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand. states?
gave the status of state to Goa?
Q.190. Which Amendment to the SSC CGL 12/04/2022 (Afternoon) SSC CGL 20/04/2022 (Morning)
Constitution Act led to establishment of (a) 52nd Amendment (a) 25th Amendment Act 1971
National Judicial Appointments (b) 56th Amendment (b) 26th Amendment Act 1971
Commission in India ? (c) 59th Amendment (c) 28th Amendment Act 1972
Higher Secondary 04/08/2022 (Shift - 3) (d) 48th Amendment (d) 27th Amendment Act 1971
(a) 95th Amendment (b) 99th Amendment Sol.198.(b) 26th Amendment Act 1971.
(c) 96th Amendment (d) 97th Amendment Sol.194.(b) 56th Amendment. The 59th
Amendment Act, 1988- It empowered the 25th Amendment Act 1971- Restrict
Sol.190.(b) 99th Amendment 2014. Central Government to impose property rights and compensation in
97th amendment 2011- It gave special Emergency in Punjab when deemed case the state takes over private
constitutional status and protection to all necessary. Under the amendment, the property. 28th Amendment Act 1972,
the cooperative societies (Part IX-B) President's rule can be extended up to abolished the special privileges of ICS
prevailing in India. three years. 48th Amendment Act officers and empowered the Parliament
passed in 1984 with respect to the State to determine their service conditions.
Q.191. Which of the following of Punjab, Parliament may pass any 27th Amendment Act 1971-
Constitutional Amendments incorporated resolution with respect to the Reorganisation of Mizoram into a Union

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 Pinnacle Polity
Territory with a legislature and council of Sol.201.(a) The idea of Fundamental and Quo-Warranto (by what authority or
ministers. Duties is inspired from the Constitution warrant).
of Russia. These were incorporated in
Q.199. Which amendment to the Part IV-A (Article 51A) of the Constitution Q.205. Which Article of the Indian
Constitution of India added a new subject by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Constitution prohibits providing of any
in the Union List called 'taxes on services’ Act, 1976 on the recommendations of religious instruction in the educational
SSC CGL 20/04/2022 (Evening) the Swaran Singh Committee. Originally institutions maintained by the State?
(a) 56th (b) 62nd (c) 78th (d) 88th 10 in number. The 86th Amendment Act SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
of 2002 added another duty (Article (a) Article 29 (b) Article 28
Sol.199.(d) 88th constitutional (c) Article 30 (d) Article 31
51A(k)) related to providing educational
amendment 2003. 62nd Amendment
opportunities for children between the Sol.205.(b) Article 28. Other Important
Act, 1989 - Extend reservation for SCs
ages of 6 and 14. Articles of Fundamental Rights (Part III,
and STs and nomination of Anglo Indian
members in Parliament and State Q.202. Which of the following is NOT the Articles 12-35) : Article 29 - Protects the
Assemblies for another ten years i.e. up feature of Fundamental Duties provided cultural and educational rights of
to 2000. 78th Amendment Act, 1995 - under the Constitution of India? minorities in India. Article 30 - The
Place land reform acts and amendments SSC CHSL Tier II 18/11/2024 Rights of Minorities to establish and
to these acts under Schedule 9 of the (a) Duties are inspired from erstwhile administer educational institutions.
constitution. USSR Article 31 (Right to Property) - The 44th
(b) Duties are non- justiciable in nature Amendment Act of 1978 repealed it and
Q.200. Which of the following made it a constitutional right under
(c) Duties are enforceable by the law
Amendments of the Constitution of India Article 300A.
(d) Duties are intended to secure the
amended Article 19 and inserted

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country
provisions fully securing the Q.206. Which of the following Articles of
the Indian Constitution contains

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constitutional validity of zamindari Sol.202.(c) Duties are enforceable by
abolition laws in general and certain the law. Fundamental Duties are a set of Fundamental Duties?
SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (2nd Shift)

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specified State Acts in particular? moral and ethical obligations that are
SSC CGL 20/04/2022 (Evening) enshrined in Part IV-A (Article 51A) of the (a) 32A (b) 45A (c) 62B (d) 51A
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(a) Fourth Amendment Constitution of India. These duties are Sol.206.(d) 51A. Fundamental Duties
(b) First Amendment non-justiciable, meaning they are not (Part IV - Article 51A): Ten duties were
(c) Third Amendment
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enforceable by any court of law (unlike included by the 42nd Amendment Act of
(d) Second Amendment Fundamental Rights). 1976 based on the Swaran Singh
Sol.200.(b) The First Amendment (1951) Q.203. Right of a prisoner to speedy trial Committee's recommendations, and the
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introduced provisions for advancing will be categorised in which of the 11th duty was added by the 86th
socially and educationally backward following Fundamental Rights? Amendment Act of 2002.
classes, SCs, and STs, added the Ninth SSC MTS 23/10/2024 (1st Shift)
on

Q.207. A student, on his school

Schedule to secure zamindari abolition (a) Right against Exploitation assignment, is taking a session on how
laws, and allowed reasonable restrictions (b) Right to Life to make compost at home for using it at
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on freedom of speech (Article 19) by (c) Right to Constitutional Remedies a park. Which fundamental duty is he
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adding grounds such as public order, (d) Right to Equality performing?

friendly relations with foreign states, and SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (1st Shift)
a

incitement to an offence. It also upheld Sol.203.(b) Right to Life. Speedy trial is

(a) To strive towards excellence in all
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the state’s right to nationalise businesses an inalienable right under Article 21 of

spheres of individual and collective
without violating the right to trade. the constitution and hence no person
activity
shall be deprived of his life and liberty
(b) To safeguard public property and to
Fundamental Rights and Duties without the procedure of law and the
abjure violence
procedure of law must be 'fair',
(c) To develop the scientific temper,
Q.201. Which of the following duties is 'reasonable', and 'just'.
humanism and the spirit of inquiry
specified as the 10th Fundamental Duty (d) To protect and improve the natural
Q.204. Which article has a similar
in the Indian Constitution? environment
provision to that of Article 32 and deals
SSC CHSL Tier II 18/11/2024
with writ jurisdiction?
(a) To strive towards excellence in all Sol.207.(d) Fundamental Duty (Part IVA -
SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (1st Shift)
spheres of individual and collective Article 51A). Related Article: Article
(a) Article 227 (b) Article 228
activity 51A(g) - To protect and improve the
(c) Article 225 (d) Article 226
(b) To provide opportunities for natural environment. Article 51A (h): To
education to his child or as the case Sol.204.(d) Article 226. In India, writs are develop the scientific temper, humanism
may be, ward between the age of six issued by the Supreme Court under and the spirit of inquiry and reform;
and fourteen years Article 32 of the Constitution of India and Article 51A(i): To safeguard public
(c) To cherish and follow the noble ideals by the High Courts under Article 226 of property and to abjure violence; Article
which inspired our national struggle the Constitution of India. There are 5 51A(j): To strive towards excellence in all
for freedom types of writs issued in India - Habeas spheres of individual and collective
(d) To develop the scientific temper, Corpus (to have the body of), Mandamus activity so that the nation constantly
humanism and the spirit of inquiry (we command), Certiorari (to be certified rises to higher levels of endeavour and
and reform or to be informed), Prohibition (to forbid) achievement.
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 Pinnacle Polity
Q.208. Which Article in the fundamental national struggle for freedom; (c) to Sol.213.(b) Fundamental Rights is
duty applies, when a construction worker uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity derived from the Constitution of the USA.
takes his 8-year son to the site rather and integrity of India; (d) to defend the Enshrined in Part III (Article 12 to 35) of
than sending him to school? country and render national service when the Indian Constitution.
SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (2nd Shift) called upon to do so.
(a) Article 51A (h) (b) Article 51A (k) Q.214. If a 12-year-old is found to be
(c) Article 51A (j) (d) Article 51A (i) Q.211. Which of the following Articles of working in a factory manufacturing
the Indian Constitution CANNOT be carpets, which of the following Articles
Sol.208.(b) Article 51A (k) states that suspended even during an emergency of the Constitution of India will be
"Who is a parent or guardian, to provide declared on the grounds of war or violated?
opportunities for education to his child external aggression ? SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
or, as the case may be, ward between the SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (3rd Shift) (a) Article 24 (b) Article 25
age of six and fourteen years." It was (a) Articles 15 and 17 (c) Article 23 (d) Article 26
added by the 86th Amendment Act, (b) Articles 20 and 21
2002. The Right to Education (RTE) Act, (c) Articles 14 and 16 Sol.214.(a) Article 24 - “No child below
2009, makes education compulsory for (d) Articles 30 and 32 the age of fourteen years shall be
children between 6-14 years. Child labor employed to work in any factory or mine
is prohibited under the Child Labour Sol.211.(b) Articles 20 and 21. Article 14 or engaged in any other hazardous
(Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986. - Equality before law. Article 15 - employment”. Other Articles: Article 23 -
Prohibition of discrimination on grounds Prohibition of traffic in human beings and
Q.209. Which of the following duties has of religion, race, caste, sex or place of forced labour. Article 25 - Freedom of
been NOT prescribed by the Indian birth. Article 16 - Equality of opportunity conscience and free profession, practice
Constitution as Fundamental Duties? in matters of public employment. Article

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and propagation of religion. Article 26 -
1. To defend the country 17 - Abolition of Untouchability. Article 20 Freedom to manage religious affairs.

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2. To pay income tax - Protection in respect of conviction for
3. To cast the vote in election offences. Article 21 - Protection of life Q.215. In which part of the Constitution

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4. To safeguard the public property and personal liberty. Article 30 - Right of will you find the six broad categories of
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (1st Shift) minorities to establish and administer Fundamental Rights?
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(a) 1 only (b) 2 only educational institutions. SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (1st shift)
(c) 2 and 3 both (d) 2 and 4 both (a) Part I (b) Part IV (c) Part II (d) Part III
Q.212. Which fundamental duty applies
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Sol.209.(c) 2 and 3 both. Fundamental to you when you see your college friends Sol.215.(d) Part III (Articles 12 to 35).
duties were incorporated into the start fighting with the canteen person Six broad categories of Fundamental
Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional when he passes a few anti-religious Rights : Right to Equality (Articles 14-18),
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Amendment Act of 1976 on the statements? Right to Freedom (Articles 19-22), Right
recommendations of the Swaran Singh SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (1st Shift) against Exploitation (Articles 23-24),
Committee. Article 51-A (d) states the (a) To promote harmony and spirit of Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles
on

duty to defend the country and render brotherhood 25-28), Cultural and Educational Rights
national service when called upon to do (b) To value and preserve the rich (Articles 29-30), Right to Constitutional
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so, while Article 51-A (i) emphasises the heritage Remedies (Article 32).
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duty to safeguard public property and (c) To develop the scientific temper, Q.216. Writ of Mandamus is a
abjure violence. humanism, and the spirit of inquiry
a

Fundamental Right classifiable under:

(d) To protect and improve our natural
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Q.210. Which fundamental duty applies SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (3rd shift)
environment (a) cultural and educational rights
on you when you see a few school
students, on their educational trip to (b) the right to freedom of religion
Sol.212.(a) This fundamental duty
Humayun’s tomb, writing their names on (c) constitutional remedies
encourages citizens to maintain harmony
the walls? (d) the right to equality
and foster a spirit of brotherhood among
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (3rd Shift) all people, transcending religious, Sol.216.(c) Constitutional remedies.
(a) To safeguard public property linguistic, or regional differences. It Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article
(b) To defend the country and render applies in situations where religious 32) : This allows Indian citizens to
national service sentiments might cause conflicts. approach the Supreme Court to enforce
(c) To uphold and protect the their fundamental rights. B.R. Ambedkar
sovereignty, unity and integrity of Q.213. Which of the following
described it as the "heart and soul" of the
India statements is INCORRECT regarding
Constitution. The writ in the Indian
(d) To protect and improve the natural Fundamental Rights?
Constitution is borrowed from England.
environment SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
There are five types of writs : ‘Habeas
(a) Fundamental Rights can be enforced
Sol.210.(a) To safeguard public Corpus’, ‘Mandamus’, ‘Prohibition’ ,
by Law.
property. Article 51A —It shall be the duty ‘Certiorari’ , and ‘Quo Warranto’ .
(b) Fundamental rights are derived from
of every citizen of India—(a) to abide by the Britain Constitution. Q.217. Which of the following Articles
the Constitution and respect its ideals (c) The Fundamental Rights are prohibits traffic in human beings and
and institutions, the National Flag and mentioned in the constitution from forced labour ?
the National Anthem; (b) to cherish and article 12 to 35. SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (4th shift)
follow the noble ideals which inspired our (d) Article 21 provides the right to life. (a) Article 25 (b) Article 23
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 Pinnacle Polity
(c) Article 22 (d) Article 28 by the Constitution and respecting its 1) The 44th amendment Act introduced
ideals, as well as the National Flag and Fundamental duties in the Constitution.
Sol.217.(b) Article 23. National Anthem. Cherishing and 2) Fundamental Duties were expanded by
Article 22 - Protection against arrest and following the noble ideals that inspired the 86th amendment act.
detention in certain cases. Article 24 - India's struggle for freedom. Upholding 3) Article 51A (a) entails respect for its
Prohibition of employment of children in and protecting the sovereignty, unity, and ideals and institutions, national flag and
factories, etc. Article 25 - Freedom of integrity of India. Defending the country the national anthem.
conscience and free profession, practice and serving the nation when required. 4) Fundamental Duty obliges parents to
and propagation of religion. Article 28 - provide opportunities for education to
Freedom as to attendance at religious Q.221. ___________ has called the Right their child between 6-14 years of age.
instruction or religious worship in certain to Constitutional Remedy as the ‘Soul of SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (1st shift)
educational institutions. the Constitution’. (a) 1 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) Only 3
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (4th shift)
Q.218. Which Clause of Article 20 (a) Jawaharlal Nehru Sol.224.(a) 1. The 44th Constitutional
incorporates the doctrine of double (b) Lala Lajpat Rai Amendment Act of 1978 was enacted to
jeopardy? (c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak undo many changes made by the 42nd
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (1st shift) (d) Dr. BR Ambedkar Amendment during the Emergency in
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 4 India. Key provisions include restoring
Sol.221.(d) Dr. BR Ambedkar - the chief judicial review, protecting civil liberties,
Sol.218.(b) 2. Double Jeopardy is a legal architect of the Indian Constitution.
term and it means that a person can not and ensuring that the right to property is
Article 32 grants every individual the right no longer a fundamental right but a legal
be punished for the same offence more to move the Supreme Court for the
than once. Article 20(2) of the right.
enforcement of their fundamental rights.

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Constitution of India and Section 300 of The Supreme Court has ruled that Article Q.225. How many fundamental duties
the Criminal Procedure Code say that no

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32 is a basic feature of the Constitution. were recommended to be inserted in the
person shall be prosecuted and punished Indian Constitution by the Swarna Singh
for the same offence more than once. Q.222. Certiorari comes under the:

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Committee?
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (1st shift) SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (2nd shift)
Q.219. Article 20 of the Constitution of (a) right to religious freedom
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(a) 9 (b) 7 (c) 6 (d) 8
India is related to _____. (b) right to constitutional remedies
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (2nd shift) (c) right against exploitation Sol.225.(d) 8. The idea of Fundamental
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(a) equality of opportunities in matters of (d) right to equality Duties (Article 51-A) is inspired from the
public employment Constitution of the USSR (Russia). These
(b) protection in respect of conviction for Sol.222.(b) right to constitutional were incorporated in Part IV-A of the
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offenses remedies. Certiorari is a writ issued by Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional

(c) freedom to manage religious affairs the Supreme Court or a High Court to Amendment Act, 1976.
(d) abolition of titles review the decision or action of a lower
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court or tribunal. Article 32 of the Indian Q.226. A ________ is issued to prevent an

Sol.219.(b) Article 20 provides three key Constitution is a fundamental right that inferior court or tribunal from exceeding
protections: Ex-Post Facto Laws: No its jurisdiction, which is not legally
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guarantees the right to constitutional

punishment for acts not punishable at vested, or acting without jurisdiction or
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remedies. This right allows individuals to

the time they were committed, nor seek redressal from the judiciary when acting against the principles of natural
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penalties exceeding those in force. their fundamental rights are violated. justice.
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Self-Incrimination: Individuals cannot be SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (4th shift)

compelled to confess or make Q.223. _______ Fundamental Duties were (a) writ of quo-warranto
self-harming statements; includes the added in Part-IV of the Constitution (b) writ of habeas corpus
right to remain silent. under Article 51-A in the year 1976 (c) writ of prohibition
Double Jeopardy: No one can be through the 42nd Constitutional (d) writ of mandamus
punished twice for the same offense. Amendment.
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (1st shift) Sol.226.(c) Writ of prohibition. The
Q.220. Which of the following Articles of (a) Nine (b) Eight (c) Ten (d) Twelve Supreme Court and High Courts in India
the Constitution states that ‘It shall be have the power to issue the writs under
the duty of every citizen of India to Sol.223.(c) Ten. The Swaran Singh Article 32 (Supreme Court) and Article
promote harmony and the spirit of Committee in 1976 recommended 226 (High Courts) of the Constitution,
common brotherhood amongst all the Fundamental Duties, the necessity of respectively. The Constitution of India
people of India transcending religious, which was felt during the internal provides for five types of writs: Habeas
linguistic and regional or sectional emergency of 1975-77. The 11th Corpus (To have the body), Mandamus
diversities; to renounce practices Fundamental Duty, which is the provision (We Command), Prohibition (To forbid),
derogatory to the dignity of women.’? of educational opportunities for children Certiorari (To be certified), and Quo
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (3rd shift) between the ages of six and fourteen Warranto (By what authority).
(a) 51 A (b) (b) 51 A (c) years, was added by the 86th
(c) 51 A (e) (d) 51 A (d) Amendment Act of 2002. Q.227. A housemaid gets her 12-year-old
daughter to help in her work as a house
Sol.220.(c) 51 A (e). Fundamental Q.224. Which of the following cleaner at a residential colony instead of
Duties, outlined in Part IVA, Article 51A of statement(s) is/are INCORRECT vis-à-vis sending her to school. Which
the Indian Constitution, include: Abiding Fundamental Duties?
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 Pinnacle Polity
fundamental duty is violated by the individual the right to move the Supreme by the Constitution and respect its ideals
housemaid ? Court for the enforcement of their and institutions, the National Flag and
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (3rd shift) fundamental rights. The five types of the National Anthem; (c) to uphold and
(a) To provide opportunities for writs that can be issued in India are: protect the sovereignty, unity and
education to his/her child Habeas corpus, Mandamus, Certiorari, integrity of India; (f) to value and
(b) To promote harmony and the spirit of Prohibition, Quo-warranto. preserve the rich heritage of our
common brotherhood composite culture. Article 49 - Protection
(c) To defend the country and render Q.231. Which of the following of monuments and places and objects of
national service Fundamental Rights has been deleted national importance.
(d) To safeguard public property and to from the original list of fundamental
rights provided in the Constitution of Q.234. Which of the following is NOT
abjure violence
India? mentioned in fundamental duties
Sol.227.(a) To provide opportunities for SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (3rd shift) provided under the Indian Constitution ?
education to his/her child. Fundamental (a) Right to property SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (4th shift)
duty (Part IV-A, Article 51-A) incorporated (b) Cultural and educational rights (a) To safeguard public property
by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment (c) Right to constitutional remedies (b) To develop scientific temper
Act, 1976 on the recommendations of (d) Right to freedom of religion (c) To join Defence forces
the Swaran Singh Committee. It (d) To respect the national flag
mandates that parents should provide Sol.231.(a) Right to property. It was
deleted by the 44th Constitutional Sol.234.(c) To join Defence forces. The
educational opportunities for their
amendment act 1978 from the list of Fundamental Duties, listed in Part IVA
children between the ages of six and
Fundamental Rights (FR) and was listed (Article 51A) of the Indian Constitution,
fourteen years (added by the 86th
under Article 300A as a legal right in Part were added by the 42nd Amendment in

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Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002).
XII. 1976 based on the Swaran Singh

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Q.228. Citizens are NOT discriminated Committee's recommendations. Initially
against on the basis of religion, caste or Q.232. Which of the following there were 10 fundamental duties, and by
Fundamental Rights is available for

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sex because of: the 86th Amendment of 2002 one more
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (3rd shift) Indians as well as foreigners? fundamental duty (to provide right to
SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (1st shift)
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(a) Right to Freedom education to all children of the age of 6
(b) Right against Exploitation (a) Right to protection of language, script to 14 years) was added.
and culture of minorities
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(c) Right to Freedom of Religion Q.235. Which writ literally means 'what
(d) Right to Equality (b) Equality of opportunity in matters of
public employment is your authority’?
Sol.228.(d) Right to Equality. (c) Right of minorities to establish and SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (3rd shift)
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The Fundamental Rights (Part III, Articles administer educational institutions (a) Quo-Warranto (b) Prohibition
12-35). Right to equality (Articles 14–18). (d) Right to elementary education (c) Habeas Corpus (d) Mandamus
Article 14: Equality before the law. Article
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Sol.232.(d) Right to elementary Sol.235.(a) Quo-Warranto. The Supreme

15: Prohibition of discrimination on Court and High Courts in India have the
grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or education. Fundamental rights available
power to issue writs under Article 32 and
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place of birth. Article 16: Equality of to both citizens and foreigners (except
Article 226 of the Constitution,
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opportunity in public employment. Article enemy aliens) include: Article 14, Article
20, Article 21, Article 21A, Article 22, respectively. Five types of writs - Habeas
17: Abolition of untouchability. Article 18:
a

Article 23, Article 24, Article 25, Article Corpus (To have the body); Mandamus
Prohibition of titles, except for military or
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26, Article 27, and Article 28. (We Command); Prohibition (To forbid);
academic distinctions. Certiorari (To be certified).
Fundamental Rights Available Only to
Q.229. How many Fundamental Rights Citizens of India: Article 15, Article 16, Q.236. The original constitution did NOT
were initially provided in the Constitution Article 19, Article 29, and Article 30. mention any fundamental duty because:
of India? SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (4th shift)
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (4th shift) Q.233. All historical monuments have
signages with instructions that public (a) initially fundamental duties were not
(a) Seven (b) Eight (c) Nine (d) Six expected to be performed
should not write on the walls. To which
Sol.229.(a) Seven. Currently there are 6 fundamental duty does the given (b) initially fundamental duties were
Fundamental Rights in the Indian statement belong? punishable as per the constitution
Constitution. The 44th Amendment of SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (3rd shift) (c) it was expected that the citizens of
1978 removed the right to property from (a) To defend the country and render the country would perform their
the list of fundamental rights, making it a national service duties willingly
legal right under Article 300A. (b) To safeguard public property and to (d) it was expected that the citizens of
abjure violence the country would perform their
Q.230. ______ of the Constitution of India (c) To develop the scientific temper duties forcefully
has provisions for legal enforcement of (d) To promote harmony and spirit of Sol.236.(c) The fundamental duties were
the fundamental rights. common brotherhood incorporated in Part IV-A of our
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (4th shift)
constitution through the 42nd
(a) Article 32 (b) Article 19 Sol.233.(b) Fundamental Duties outline
Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. At
(c) Article 29 (d) Article 28 the responsibilities of every citizen of
present, there are eleven fundamental
India. These duties include: (a) to abide
Sol.230.(a) Article 32. It grants every duties under article 51 A of the
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 Pinnacle Polity
constitution. Q.240. If a person who is arrested, is added by which Amendment?
NOT produced before the Magistrate Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
Q.237. Which of the following is NOT a (a) 42nd Amendment 1976
within 24 hours from the time of arrest,
fundamental duty of an Indian citizen? (b) 86th Amendment 2002
he will be entitled to be released on the
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift) (c) 84th Amendment 2000
writ of ________.
(a) To uphold and protect the (d) 44th Amendment 1978
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift)
sovereignty, unity and integrity of
(a) Habeas Corpus (b) Prohibition
India Sol.243.(b) 86th Amendment 2002.
(c) Quo-warranto (d) Mandamus
(b) To safeguard public property and to Fundamental Duties (Part IV A, Article
abjure violence Sol.240.(a) Habeas Corpus. 51A): The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976
(c) To vote in public elections The Supreme Court and High Courts in added the first 10 Fundamental Duties to
(d) To value and preserve the rich India have the power to issue writs under the Indian Constitution, following the
heritage of our composite culture Article 32 and Article 226 of the recommendation of the Swaran Singh
Constitution, respectively. Five types of Committee. The 11th Fundamental Duty
Sol.237.(c) To vote in public elections.
writs - Habeas Corpus (To have the states that parents and guardians must
The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added
body); Mandamus (We Command); provide opportunities for education to
10 Fundamental Duties to the Indian
Prohibition (To forbid); Certiorari (To be their children between the ages of six
Constitution, based on the
certified) and Quo Warranto (By what and fourteen.
recommendations of the Swaran Singh
authority).
Committee. The 86th Amendment Act of Q.244. Which Article of the Indian
2002 introduced the 11th Fundamental Q.241. The concept of limited Constitution mentions that every
Duty, requiring parents or guardians to government is a major advancement to religious denomination or section shall
provide educational opportunities to protect the _______ of the citizens from have the right to own and acquire

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children aged 6 to 14. These duties are the ruling governments. movable and immovable property?

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outlined in Article 51A, under Part IV-A. SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift) (a) Article 26(c) (b) Article 26(d)
(a) separation of power (c) Article 26(b) (d) Article 26(a)
Q.238. Abolition of titles is mentioned in

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which Article of the Indian Constitution? (b) fundamental duties
(c) fundamental rights Sol.244.(a) Article 26(c). Article 26 of
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift) the Constitution of India guarantees the
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(a) Article 24 (b) Article 18 (d) check and balance
freedom to manage religious affairs as a
(c) Article 23 (d) Article 13 Sol.241.(c) fundamental rights are fundamental right, part of the right to
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Sol.238.(b) Article 18 - Abolition of enshrined in Part III of the Constitution religion outlined in Articles 25 to 28.
titles—(1) No title, not being a military or (Articles 12-35). Right to equality Articles 26 - This freedom is subject to
(Articles 14–18); Right to freedom public order, morality, and health,
TG

academic distinction, shall be conferred

by the State. (2) No citizen of India shall (Articles 19–22); Right against allowing every religious denomination or
accept any title from any foreign State. exploitation (Articles 23–24); Right to any section thereof the right to: (a)
freedom of religion (Articles 25–28); establish and maintain institutions for
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Other important Articles: Article 13: Laws

inconsistent with or in derogation of the Cultural and educational rights (Articles religious and charitable purposes, (b)
fundamental rights. Article 23: 29–30); Right to constitutional remedies manage its own affairs in matters of
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Prohibition of traffic in human beings and (Article 32).The Right to property (Article religion, (c) own and acquire movable
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forced labour. Article 24: Prohibition of 31) was removed by the 44th and immovable property, and (d)
Amendment Act, 1978, and is now a legal administer such property according to
a

employment of children in factories, etc.

right under Article 300-A. law.
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Q.239. Article 21 is related to which of

the following fundamental rights? Q.242. Which of the following articles Q.245. Which Article of the Indian
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift) guarantees the Right to Equality before Constitution mentions that ‘No person
(a) Freedom to Manage Religious Affairs the Law and the Right to Equal Protection shall be prosecuted and punished for the
(b) Protection of Language, Culture of of the Laws ? same offence more than once’?
Minorities Matriculation Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 4) Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
(c) Protection of Life and Personal (a) Article 14 (b) Article 16 (a) Article 20(3) (b) Article 20(2)
Liberty (c) Article 17 (d) Article 15 (c) Article 20(4) (d) Article 20(1)
(d) Freedom of Speech Sol.242.(a) Article 14. The right to Sol.245.(b) Article 20(2). This clause is
Sol.239.(c) Protection of Life and equality (Articles 14–18) is a known as the doctrine of "double
Personal Liberty. Fundamental Rights fundamental right (Part III , Articles jeopardy," which ensures that no
(Part III) : Right to Equality (Article 14 - 12-35). Article 15 prohibits individual is tried twice for the same
18), Right to Freedom (Article 19 - 22), discrimination against citizens on the crime. Other clauses: Article 20(1) : This
Right against Exploitation (23 - 24), Right grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or provision ensures that a person cannot
to Freedom of Religion (Article 25 - 28), place of birth. Article 16 provides for be convicted of any offense which was
Cultural and Educational Rights (Article equality of opportunity for all citizens in not in force at the time. Article 20(3)
29 - 30), Article 31 (now repealed) - matters of employment. Article 17 ensures that no person accused of an
Saving of Certain Laws related to abolishes the practice of untouchability offense shall be compelled to be a
property rights, Right to Constitutional in any form. witness against themselves.
Remedies (Article 32). Q.243. The 11th Fundamental Duty was Q.246. Which Committee had suggested

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 Pinnacle Polity
a penalty or punishment for the non - (a) It provides freedom to manage SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (2nd shift)
performance of Fundamental Duties ? religious affairs. (a) To establish a welfare state
SSC CGL Tier II 26/10/2023 (b) It provides freedom of worship. (b) To have an absolute independence
(a) Indira Gandhi Committee (c) It is mentioned in Articles 25 to 28. (c) To promote economic justice
(b) Morarji Desai Committee (d) It mentions that the state has its own (d) To establish political democracy
(c) Verma Committee religion.
(d) Swaran Singh Committee Sol.253.(d) To establish political
Sol.250.(d) The Right to Freedom of democracy. The fundamental rights in
Sol.246.(d) Swaran Singh Committee. Religion (Fundamental Right under Part the Indian Constitution aim to build a
The Swaran Singh Committee III) - Article 25 - Freedom of conscience democratic society by safeguarding
recommended that the duty to pay taxes and free profession, practice and individual liberty, equality, and protection
to be included in the fundamental duties. propagation of religion. Article 26 - against discrimination based on race,
The committee also recommended that Freedom to manage religious affairs. caste, sex, religion, or birthplace.
the legislatures should prescribe a law Article 27 - Freedom as to payment of
for imposing a penalty for violation of the taxes for promotion of any particular Q.254. Fundamental duties are ______
duties. But these recommendations were religion. Article 28 - Freedom as to and not enforceable by law but are taken
not included in Article 51A. attendance at religious instruction or into account by the courts while
religious worship in certain educational adjudicating any matter.
Q.247. Which Article of the Constitution institutions. SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (2nd shift)
clarifies that policies like 'reservation' is (a) regulatory (b) non - statutory
not a violation of the right to equality? Q.251. Which statement is FALSE (c) statutory (d) common
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Evening) regarding fundamental rights mentioned
(a) Article 16 (4) (b) Article 15 (2) in the Indian Constitution ? Sol.254.(c) Statutory. Fundamental Duties

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(c) Article 14 (1) (d) Article 21 SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (4th shift) (Part IVA, Article 51A):- Adopted from the
Constitution of Russia (erstwhile Soviet

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(a) Only Article 20 and 21 can be
Sol.247.(a) Article 16 (4). Article 15 (2) - suspended during emergency Union). Fundamental duties - Non -
No citizen shall, on grounds only of justiciable in nature.

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(b) They are justiciable
religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth, (c) Some fundamental rights are
be subject to any disability, liability, Q.255. Which of the following Articles of
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negative in nature the Indian Constitution mentions the
restriction or condition with regard to. (d) Can be suspended during emergency
Article 21 - Protection of life and fundamental duty "sovereignty, unity and
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personal liberty. Sol.251.(a) 44th Amendment Act, 1978 integrity of India" is mentioned ?
limits the scope of Article 359 SSC MTS 16/06/2023 (Morning)
Q.248. What is the purpose of the (suspension of the enforcement of the (a) Article 51A (b) (b) Article 51A (e)
TG

Cultural and Educational Rights? rights conferred by Part III during (c) Article 51A (c) (d) Article 51A (d)
SSC MTS 13/09/2023 (1st Shift) emergencies). All fundamental rights
(a) To promote a particular religion Sol.255.(c) Article 51A(c). The 42nd
except articles 20 and 21 can be
on

(b) To protect the language, culture, and Amendment Act of 1976 added 10
suspended only on the basis of National Fundamental Duties to the Indian
religion of the minority communities Emergency (Article 352). Constitution and created Part IVA.
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(c) To protect the majority community

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(d) To prevent exploitation Q.252. The celebration of Christmas, Eid

and Holi in school is an example of Committee Reports
a

Sol.248.(b) Cultural and Educational making children learn fundamental

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Right (Article 29 - 30) : Article 29 - duties as well. Which of the following Q.256. The central bank of India or
Guarantees the Protection of Interests of fundamental duties advocates about this Reserve Bank of India was created
Minorities. Article 30 - Guarantees the type of ideals ? before Independence, in the year 1934.
right of minorities to establish and SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (1st shift) The recommendation to create a central
administer educational institutions of (a) To defend the country and render bank was made by a commission called:
their choice. national service SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (1st Shift)
(b) To develop the scientific temper (a) Dr. Raja Chelliah Committee
Q.249. Which of the following is
(c) To safeguard public property and to (b) Kothari Commission
enforceable by the Indian Constitution?
abjure violence (c) Narasimham Committee
SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (3rd shift)
(d) To promote harmony and spirit of (d) Hilton Young Commission
(a) Preamble
(b) Fundamental rights common brotherhood
Sol.256.(d) Hilton Young Commission. It
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy Sol.252.(d) Fundamental Duties: Part is also known as the Royal Commission
(d) Fundamental duties IV-A of the Indian constitution in Article on Indian Currency and Finance, was
51A. Article 51A(e) refers to the duty of established in 1926. The Reserve Bank of
Sol.249.(b) Fundamental Rights (Part III,
every citizen to promote harmony and India (RBI) is India's central bank and
Articles 12-35).
the spirit of common brotherhood regulatory body overseeing the Indian
Q.250. Which of the following amongst all the people of India. ' banking system. It manages the control,
statements is FALSE about the right to issuance, and supply of the Indian rupee.
freedom of religion mentioned in the Q.253. What is the aim of fundamental The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was
Indian Constitution ? rights mentioned in the Indian established on April 1, 1935, in
SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (1st shift) Constitution ? accordance with the provisions of the

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 Pinnacle Polity
Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. Fundamental Duties under Article 51A of Commission was formed in 2017 due to
the Indian Constitution. However, at the the supreme court’s order in the all India
Q.257. Which committee recommended time of incorporation, ten duties were judges association case, under article 32,
Constitutional recognition for the local added to Part IV-A by the 42nd i.e., constitutional remedies. Justice
government bodies in 1989? Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. Verma Committee was constituted to
SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (3rd Shift) Initially, there were 10 duties, and one recommend amendments to the Criminal
(a) Ashok Mehta Committee more was added by the 86th Law so as to provide for quicker trial and
(b) PK Thungon Committee Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, enhanced punishment for criminals
(c) Balwant Rai Committee making a total of 11 duties. accused of committing sexual assault
(d) Verma Committee against women. The Committee
Q.260. Which of the following submitted its report on January 23, 2013.
Sol.257.(b) P.K. Thungan Committee committees was associated with
recommended a constitutional Industrial Licensing Policy Inquiry? Q.263. Which report is NOT associated
amendment for regular elections, SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (4th shift) with Fundamental Rights?
specific functions, and funding for local (a) Hazari Committee (b) Sen Committee SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon)
government institutions. Ashok Mehta (c) Gadgil Committee (d) Dutt Committee (a) Tej Bahadur Sapru Report
Committee: It was set up in 1977 by the
(b) Motilal Nehru Report
Janata government, studied the Sol.260.(d) Dutt Committee. The Hazari
(c) Sarkaria Commission Report
Panchayat Raj system in India. Balwant Committee was a committee in India that
(d) JB Kripalani Report
Rai Mehta Committee: It recommended studied the industrial licensing procedure
decentralizing power and functions at the under the Industries (Development and Sol.263.(c) Sarkaria Commission Report
divisional and sub-divisional levels. Regulation) Act, 1951. Abhijit Sen - This Commission is to examine and
Justice Verma Committee: It was formed Committee (2002) - Long Term Food review the working of the existing

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to suggest changes to criminal law for Policy. The Gadgil commission was arrangements between the Union and

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faster trials and tougher punishments for formed to study the impact of population States as per the Constitution of India.
those accused of sexual assault against pressure, climate change and Tej Bahadur Sapru Report (1945) - It

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women. development activities on the Western related to political and civil rights of the
Ghats. minorities.
Q.258. Which of the following
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commissions/committees identified the Q.261. In November 2022, the Supreme Q.264. Rangarajan Committee is
existence of legal provisions for Court upheld the 10% reservation of EWS associated with _______.
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implementation of some of the quota. This EWS reservation was granted SSC MTS 09/05/2023 (Evening)
Fundamental Duties? on the basis of recommendations from (a) Election reforms
SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (2nd Shift) which of the following commissions ?
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(b) Educational reform

(a) Vasantrao Naik Committee SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (1st shift) (c) Environmental protection
(b) Sarkaria Commission (a) Sarkaria commission (d) Estimation of poverty
(c) Rajamannar Commission (b) Kelkar commission
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(d) Justice Verma Committee (c) Mandal commission Sol.264.(d) Estimation of poverty.
(d) Sinho commission Rangarajan Committee - To Review the
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Sol.258.(d) Justice Verma Committee. Methodology for Measurement of

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The committee was set up in 1999. It Sol.261.(d) Sinho commission: Poverty in the country constituted by the
identified the existence of following legal Constituted in 2005, and submitted its Planning Commission in June 2012 has
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provisions - Prevention of Insults to report in 2010. In 2019, the Cabinet submitted its report on 30th June 2014.
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National Honour Act (1971), Protection decided to amend the Constitution As per the report submitted by C
of Civil Right Act (1955), Representation (103rd Amendment) to provide Rangarajan Committee: Persons
of People Act (1951), Wildlife Protection reservation to EWS. Sarkaria spending below Rs. 47 a day in cities
Act (1972) and Forest Conservation Act Commission (1983) - Reviewed should be considered poor. Committee
(1980). center-state relations. Kelkar related to poverty: Planning Commission
Commission (1953) - Also known as the Expert Group (1962), VM Dandekar and N
Q.259. Which of the following First Backward Classes Commission. Rath committee (1971), Y.K. Alagh
committees had recommended the Mandal Commission (1979) - The Committee (1979), Lakdawala
inclusion of a chapter on the Second Socially and Educationally Committee (1993), Suresh Tendulkar
Fundamental Duties in the Constitution Backward Classes Commission. Committee (2005).
of India and stressed that the citizens
should become conscious that, in Q.262. Which of the following persons Q.265. Which of the following
addition to the enjoyment of rights, they was appointed Chairman of the Second commissions recommended that “the
also have certain duties to perform ? National Judicial Pay Commission? appointment of Governor should be non -
SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (4th shift) SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (1st shift) partisan” ?
(a) JR Varma Committee (1996) (a) Justice PV Reddi SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (2nd Shift)
(b) Ashok Mehta Committee (1977) (b) Justice JS Verma (a) Fazal Ali Commission
(c) Swaran Singh Committee (1976) (c) Justice R Basant (b) Rajmannar commission
(d) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1976) (d) Justice AS Anand (c) Sarkaria commission
(d) Mandal commission
Sol.259.(c) Swaran Singh Committee Sol.262.(a) Justice PV Reddi. The
(1976) originally recommended eight second National judicial Pay Sol.265.(c) Sarkaria commission (1983).

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 Pinnacle Polity
The States Reorganisation Commission Minister Morarji Desai. It was headed by (a) four (b) two (c) three (d) one
(Fazal Ali Commission, 1953). Rajmannar BP Mandal.
Sol.272.(d) one. Parliamentary
commission set up by the then DMK
committees are of two types—Standing
Government of Tamil Nadu in 1969 under Parliament Committees and Ad Hoc Committees.
the Chairmanship of Dr P.V. Rajamanar.
Standing Committees are permanent and
Q.266. Constitution Review Commission Q.269. Which of the following options is function on a continuous basis. In
chaired by______recommended some the legislative organ of the Union contrast, Ad Hoc Committees are
initiatives to be taken by the government government? temporary and cease to exist once they
for successful implementation of SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (3rd Shift) complete the task assigned to them.
Fundamental Duties. (a) Judiciary (b) Legislative assembly Examples - The Joint Committee on
SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Morning) (c) Executive (d) Parliament Bofors Contract and the Joint Committee
(a) PK Joshi (b) MN Venkatachaliah on Fertilizer Pricing.
Sol.269.(d) Parliament. The Indian
(c) UC Banerjee (d) Michael G Aguinaldo
Parliament is a bicameral legislature, Q.273. Which of the following
consisting of two houses : the Lok Sabha statements are correct regarding State
Sol.266.(b) MN Venkatachaliah
(House of the People) and the Rajya Legislatures?
Commission was set up by Government
Sabha (Council of States), along with the A. Notwithstanding anything in part XVII,
resolution in 2000 to Review the Working
President. The three organs of the Union but subject to the provisions of Article
of the Constitution. He got Padma
Government of India are the legislative, 348, business in the Legislature of a
Vibhushan In 2004. Justice U.C.Banerjee
executive (Implements the laws enacted State shall be transacted in the official
headed the Commission report on
by the legislature), and judiciary language or languages of the State or in
Godhra incident.
(interprets the laws made by Parliament). Hindi or in English.

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Q.267. How many members are there in B. The Speaker of the Legislative
Q.270. Which of the following is NOT a
the Committee on Public Undertakings in

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Assembly or Chairman of the Legislative
device of parliamentary proceedings?
India? Council can permit any member to speak
SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
Higher Secondary 03/08/2022 (Shift - 4)

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in his mother tongue.
(a) Half - an - hour discussion
(a) 22 (b) 15 (c) 35 (d) 30 C. Only the Supreme Court is entitled to
(b) Zero - hour discussion
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inquire into the proceedings of the State
Sol.267.(a) 22. Financial Committees:- (c) Two - hour (short) discussion
Legislature.
Public Accounts Committee - 1921, (d) Full - day discussion
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift)
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Members (22) (15 from Lok Sabha and 7

Sol.270.(d) Full-day discussion. In (a) B and C only (b) A and C only
from Rajya Sabha), Term of Office (One
parliamentary proceedings, there are (c) A, B and C (d) A and B only
year), Function - to examine the annual
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various devices used to facilitate

audit reports of the Comptroller and Sol.273.(d) A and B only.
discussions and manage time effectively.
Auditor General of India (CAG). State Legislature is mentioned in Chapter
These include: Half-an-hour discussion -
Estimates Committee (Post III of Part VI (The States) of the Indian
on

A device used to discuss matters of

Independence) - 1950, Members (30) All Constitution. Related Articles: Article 178
urgent public importance. It usually lasts
from Lok Sabha , Term of Office (One - The Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the
for 30 minutes. Zero-hour discussion - A
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Year), Function - to examine the Legislative Assembly. Article 179 -

device where members can raise issues
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estimates included in the budget. Vacation and resignation of, and removal
without prior notice, typically after the
Committee on Public Undertakings – from, the offices of Speaker and Deputy
a

Question Hour, which allows for

1964, Members-22 (15 from Lok Sabha Speaker. Article 180 - Power of the
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unscheduled discussions. Two-hour

and 7 from Rajya Sabha), Term of Office Deputy Speaker or other person to
(short) discussion - This is also a formal
(One Year), Function – to examine the perform the duties of the office of, or to
discussion where specific issues are
reports and accounts of the Public act as, Speaker.
debated for two hours.
Sector Undertakings.
Q.274. In which year was the Jammu and
Q.271. Who has the power to regulate
Q.268. Which Commission recommended Kashmir Legislative Council abolished?
the right of citizenship in India ?
27% reservation for OBC candidates in all Matriculation Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (1st shift)
levels of government services ? (a) 2018 (b) 2020 (c) 2019 (d) 2017
(a) Parliament (b) President
SSC MTS 07/10/2021 (Morning)
(c) Supreme Court (d) Governor Sol.274.(c) 2019. The Jammu & Kashmir
(a) Sarkaria Commission
(b) Mandal Commission Legislative Council was abolished
Sol.271.(a) Parliament. Citizenship (Part
(c) Balwant Commission through the Jammu and Kashmir
II, Articles 5 to 11) : Article 5 - Citizenship
(d) Kothari Commission Reorganisation Act, 2019, which reduced
at the commencement of the
the State of Jammu and Kashmir to the
Constitution. Article 6 - Rights of
Sol.268.(b) The Mandal Commission Union Territories of Jammu and Kashmir
citizenship of certain persons who have
(Second Backward Class Commission) and Ladakh. The Act also repealed
migrated to India from Pakistan. Article
recommended that members of OBCs be Article 370, which had granted Jammu
11 - Parliament to regulate the right of
given 27 percent reservations for jobs and Kashmir unique status.
citizenship by law.
under the Central government and public
sector undertakings. This commission Q.275. How many Members of
Q.272. The parliamentary standing
was established in India in 1979 by the Parliament were elected to the 17th Lok
committees have a tenure of _____ years.
Janata Party government under Prime Sabha from Odisha?
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (3rd shift)
Matriculation Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
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 Pinnacle Polity
(a) 22 (b) 24 (c) 21 (d) 20 the Chairman of the Committee on the Sol.282.(c) 6 years. The Rajya Sabha is a
Functions of the Constituent Assembly permanent body and is not subject to
Sol.275.(c) 21.The 2024 Indian general of India. Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar dissolution. However, one-third of its
election was held in Odisha in 4 phases has been conferred the title of 'Father of members retire every two years. The
from 13 May 2024 to 1 June 2024 to Lok Sabha' by Jawaharlal Nehru. M. A. Vice-President of India serves as the
elect 21 members of the 18th Lok Sabha. Ayyangar was the first deputy speaker of ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
Bharatiya Janata Party clean sweeped the Lok Sabha. Meira Kumar was the first The House has a maximum of 250
the state by winning 20 out of 21 seats. woman speaker of Lok Sabha (2009 - members, with 238 elected members
Q.276. One-third of the members of the 2014). from states and union territories, and 12
State Legislature Council retire every nominated by the President.
Q.280. Which of the following options is
_____years. INCORRECT? Q.283. Who elects the Presiding Officer
Matriculation Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 4) In order to become a member of Vidhan (the speaker) in the State legislature?
(a) sixth (b) fourth (c) fifth (d) second Sabha, a person must: Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
Sol.276.(d) Second. The Legislative Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 4) (a) Council of Minsters
Council (Vidhan Parishad) has a (a) have his/her name in the voters’ list (b) Members of Vidhan Sabha
permanent structure and is not subject to (b) have attained the age of 21 years (c) Member of Vidhan Parishad
dissolution. The Legislative Assembly (c) be a citizen of India (d) Chief Minster
(Vidhan Sabha) of a state consists of not (d) not hold any office of profit
Sol.283.(b) Members of Vidhan Sabha.
more than 500 and not less than 60 Sol.280.(b) The minimum age to be a There is a Legislative Assembly (Vidhan
members. It may be dissolved after five member of the Legislative Assembly ( Sabha) in every State. It represents the
years or earlier. Vidhan Sabha) is 25 years. Legislative people of the State. The members of

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Q.277. When a non-minister proposes a Assembly of a state consists of not more Vidhan Sabha are directly elected by

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bill, it is called : than 500 and not less than 60 members people on the basis of universal adult
Higher Secondary 20/06/2024 (Shift - 2) (Legislative Assembly of Sikkim has 32 franchise. The Speaker presides over the

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(a) Money Bill members vide Article 371F of the meetings of the House and conducts its
(b) Government Bill Constitution) chosen by direct election proceedings. He maintains order in the
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(c) Private Member’s Bill from territorial constituencies in the House, allows the members to ask
(d) Non - Money Bill state. questions and speak. Article 178 - The
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Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the

Sol.277.(c) Private Member’s Bill. It can Q.281. How many state Legislative Legislative Assembly.
be introduced only on Fridays. Money Council members are elected by
graduates of three years standing and Q.284. The First hour of a sitting of the
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Bill: This type of bill deals specifically

with financial matters, such as taxation residing within the state? House allotted for asking and answering
or government spending. Money bills are Higher Secondary 26/06/2024 (Shift - 2) of questions is called as __________ .
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon)
on

1 1 1 1
introduced by ministers only in the Lok (a) th (b) th (c) th (d) rd
Sabha. Government Bill: A bill introduced
4 6 12 3 (a) Censure motion (b) Zero hour
by a minister on behalf of the (c) Privilege motion (d) Question hour
Sol.281.(c) 1/12th. In the legislative
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government. It typically reflects the council, members are elected as follows:

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Sol.284.(d) Question hour. Censure

government's policies. One-sixth by the governor from motion - A motion to express
a

individuals with knowledge in science, disapproval of the conduct of the

Q.278. How many Lok Sabha seats are
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art, literature, the co-operative government or a minister. Zero hour - The

there for the state of Meghalaya?
movement, and social service; One-third first hour of a sitting of the House, when
Higher Secondary 21/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
by local body members (corporations, MPs can raise matters of urgent public
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four
municipalities, and Zila Parishads); importance without notice. Privilege
Sol.278.(b) Two. Meghalaya has two Lok one-third shall be elected by the motion - A motion to protect the
Sabha seats, namely Shillong and Tura. members of the Legislative Assembly of privileges of the House or its members.
The state also has one Rajya Sabha seat. the State from amongst persons who are
Additionally, Meghalaya has 60 not members of the Assembly; Q.285. A money bill under Article 111 of
legislative assembly seats. Other states one-twelfth by graduates residing in the the Constitution of India, presented to
and their Lok Sabha seats: Manipur (2), state for three years; and One twelfth are the President for assent, has to be
Nagaland (1), Mizoram (1), Assam (14), elected by teachers who had spent at endorsed by a Certificate of the
Arunachal Pradesh (2), Tripura (2), least three years in teaching in ________signed by him/her that it is a
Sikkim (1). educational institutions within the state money bill.
not lower than secondary schools, SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening)
Q.279. Who was the first speaker of the including colleges and universities. (a) Secretary General of the Lok Sabha
Lok Sabha after India’s Independence? (b) Secretary General of the Rajya Sabha
Higher Secondary 21/06/2024 (Shift - 2) Q.282. Members of the Rajya Sabha are (c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(a) Ganesh V Mavalankar elected for a term of how many years ? (d) Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(b) Meira Kumar Graduate Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
(c) M Ananthasayanam (a) 5 years (b) 3 years Sol.285.(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
(d) MA Ayyangar (c) 6 years (d) 4 years Articles related to Money Bill: Article 107
- Provisions as to introduction and
Sol.279.(a) Ganesh V Mavalankar was
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 Pinnacle Polity
passing of Bills. Article 108 - Joint sitting Question-hour, zero hour, calling attention or appropriation from and out of the
of both Houses in certain cases. Article motion, adjournment motion, censure Consolidated Fund of India
109 - Special procedure in respect of motion, and other discussions. B. Demand for Grants - Earmarking of
Money Bills. Article 110 - Definition of budgetary allocation for meeting only
Q.289. What is the maximum time gap
“Money Bills”. Article 197 - Restriction on planned expenditure of a
between two sessions of the State
powers of Legislative Council as to Bills Ministry/Department
Legislature ?
other than Money Bills. C. Short Duration Discussion - For raising
SSC MTS 08/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
a discussion on a matter of urgent public
Q.286. After how many days of absence (a) Three months (b) Two months
importance for which a notice has to be
from Parliament without permission will (c) Six months (d) One year
given by a Member and supported by 50
a Member of Parliament be disqualified? Members.
Sol.289.(c) Six months. Article 174 (1) -
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon) SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (4th shift)
The Governor shall from time to time
(a) 60 days (b) 30 days (a) A, B and C (b) B and C only
summon the House or each House of the
(c) 50 days (d) 20 days (c) A only (d) A and C only
State Legislature to meet at such time
Sol.286.(a) 60 days. Disqualifications of and place as he thinks fit. Article 85 (1)
Sol.292.(c) A only. Demand for Grants is
Members of parliament : Article 101 - of the Constitution empowers the
the form in which estimates of
Vacation of seats. Article 102 - President to summon and prorogue
expenditure from the Consolidated Fund
Disqualifications for membership. Article either house of Parliament or to dissolve
(included in the annual financial
103 - Decision on questions as to the Lok Sabha. Three types of Sessions
statement and required to be voted upon
disqualifications of members. Article 104 in the Parliament of India: Budget
in the Lok Sabha) are submitted in
- Penalty for sitting and voting before session (February - May), Monsoon
pursuance of Article 113 of the
making oath or affirmation under article session (July - September) and Winter

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Constitution. Short Duration Discussion
99 or when not qualified or when session (November - December) are held
is a procedural device to enable

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disqualified. in a calendar year.
members to raise discussion on matters
Q.287. What is the bicameral legislature Q.290. When was the first general of urgent public importance without a

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of the Indian Constitution ? election for Lok Sabha held in India ? formal motion on a matter of urgent
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Evening) SSC MTS 11/09/2023 (3rd Shift) public importance. The Speaker can allot
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(a) It is a legislative body with four (a) 1950 - 51 (b) 1949 - 50 two days in a week for such discussions.
houses. (c) 1948 - 49 (d) 1951 - 52
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Q.293. Which of the following can make

(b) It is a legislative body with two provisions for Ancillary powers of the
Sol.290.(d) 1951-52. First Lok Sabha:
houses. Supreme Court?
Jawaharlal Nehru (Indian National
(c) It is a legislative body with one house.
TG

Congress) became India’s first SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (1st shift)

(d) It is a legislative body with three (a) President of India
democratically elected Prime Minister.
houses. (b) Law Commission of India
18th Lok Sabha Election (2024):
on

Sol.287.(b) The bicameral legislature of Narendra Modi (Bharatiya Janata Party) (c) Minister of Law & Justice
the Indian Constitution refers to a became Prime Minister. Lok Sabha Seat: (d) Parliament of India
543 Parliamentary Constituencies (At
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legislative body with two houses: the Lok Sol.293.(d) Parliament of India. Ancillary
present). First Panchayati Raj Election in
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Sabha (House of the People) and the powers of the Supreme Court (Article
Rajya Sabha (Council of States). Lok India was held on 2nd of Oct 1959 in the
140): The Parliament, through legislation,
a

Sabha: The lower house, consisting of Nagaur district of Rajasthan.

can grant the Supreme Court additional
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directly elected members. Rajya Sabha: powers that are in line with the
Q.291. How long can a person remain a
The upper house, consisting of Constitution's provisions. These extra
minister without being a member of
representatives elected by the members powers should help the Court better fulfill
either House of the State Legislature ?
of the state legislative assemblies and by its constitutional jurisdiction. President
SSC MTS 12/09/2023 (1st Shift)
members of the Lok Sabha, along with of India : Articles 52 - 62 (Part V),
(a) 15 days (b) 6 months
nominated members. Parliament of India : Articles 79-122 (Part
(c) 1 year (d) 2 months
Q.288. What is the most powerful V), Supreme Court : Articles 124-147
Sol.291.(b) 6 months. Articles 163-164 (Part V).
weapon that enables the Parliament to
deals with the Council of Ministers (CoM)
ensure executive accountability ?
in states. The articles 75 (5) and 164 (4) Q.294. In India, during a meeting of the
SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
state that a minister who for any period Legislative Assembly or Council, if there
(a) Approval or refusal of laws
of six consecutive months is not a is no quorum, it shall be the duty of the
(b) The no-confidence motion
member of either house of Parliament or ________ to adjourn the House or suspend
(c) Confirmation of treaties
state legislature respectively shall cease the meeting.
(d) Deliberation and discussion
to be such minister at the expiration of Higher Secondary 27/06/2023 (Shift - 3)
Sol.288.(b) The no-confidence motion. It that period. (a) Chairman/Governor
moved in the Lok Sabha (and not in the (b) Speaker/Chairman
Q.292. Which of the following pairs (c) Governor/Chief Minister
Rajya Sabha) to test the confidence of
is/are correctly matched regarding the (d) Speaker/Chief Minister
the government. It needs the support of
terminology used in the Parliament?
50 members to be admitted. Other ways
A. Appropriation Bill - A Money Bill Sol.294.(b) Speaker/Chairman. Article
to ensure executive accountability:
passed for providing for the withdrawal 100 - Voting in Houses, power of

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 Pinnacle Polity
Houses to act notwithstanding vacancies Sol.298.(b) 17 April 1952. The First Lok Sol.301.(d) Long Notice Question.
and quorum. Quorum - It refers to the Sabha lasted for a full five years tenure Starred Questions are those for which an
number of members that must be and was dissolved on 4 April 1957. oral answer is expected. Non-starred
present for a house meeting to take Article 79 of the Constitution deals with questions are those for which a written
place. Article 189 (3) - The quorum to the Parliament consisting of the reply is expected. Short notice questions
constitute a meeting of the state President, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha. are those which are asked on matters of
legislature shall be ten members or First Lok Sabha Speaker - GV Mavlankar. urgent public importance and can be
one-tenth of the total number of asked on a shorter notice, less than 10
members of the house whichever is Q.299. Who runs the government at the days.
greater. national level under the parliamentary
system? Q.302. Which of the following is called
Q.295. A Money Bill should be returned SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (2nd Shift) 'the temple of the country's democracy'?
to the Lok Sabha within ___ days by Rajya (a) The President and Council of SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Evening)
Sabha, either with recommendations or Ministers (a) Raj Ghat (b) Supreme Court
without recommendations. (b) The Prime Minister and Council of (c) Ashok Pillar (d) Parliament
SSC MTS 19/05/2023 (Evening) Ministers
(a) 8 (b) 21 (c) 14 (d) 10 (c) The Prime Minister Sol.302.(d) Parliament (Article 79)
(d) The President consists of the President (Article 52),
Sol.295.(c) 14. Money Bill (Article 110) - Council of States (Article 80 - Rajya
It is involved with tax collection, public Sol.299.(b) The Prime Minister and the Sabha) and House of the People (Article
expense bills, and other significant costs Council of Ministers run the 81 - Lok Sabha).
associated with running the government. Parliamentary system (cabinet system or
Money Bill Types - Financial Bill and the Responsible government, Prime Q.303. The state legislative assembly

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Appropriation Bill. The Speaker has the Minister Model) at the National level. has a strength of ____, with exceptions
for smaller states.

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authority to determine whether or not a Articles 74 and 75 (Part V) provide the
specific bill is a money bill. parliamentary system for the centre. SSC MTS 06/07/2022 (Morning)
(a) 600 to 1000 (b) 60 to 500

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Article 163 and 164 (Part VI) provides the
Q.296. Archana wishes to contest for parliamentary system for the states. (c) 50 to 400 (d) 10 to 100
Lok Sabha elections in India. What is the
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maximum limit of constituencies that Q.300. The Constitution provides for Sol.303.(b) 60 and 500 members .
can she contest? reservation of seats in the Lok Sabha and However an exception may be granted in
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SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Morning) State Legislative Assemblies for the: the states of Goa, Sikkim, Mizoram, and
(a) One (b) Four (c) Three (d) Two SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Morning) the union territory of Puducherry which
(a) scheduled tribes have fewer than 60 members. Maximum
TG

Sol.296.(d) Two. Candidates were (b) other backward classes seats (Uttar Pradesh; 403) and least
allowed to contest more than Two seats (c) differently abled number of seats (Puducherry; 30).
until 1996. As per, Section 33 (7) of the (d) women
on

RPA (Representation of the People Act) Q.304. According to the Indian

1951, one candidate can contest from a Sol.300.(a) Scheduled tribes. Constitution, the House of People shall
consist of not more than ______ members
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maximum of two constituencies. Section Article 366(25) of the Constitution deals

to represent the Union territories.
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70 bars candidates from representing with Scheduled Tribes. There are over
two constituencies in the Lok 705 tribes which have been notified. The SSC MTS 12/07/2022 (Evening)
a

Sabha/state, which means candidates largest number of tribal communities are (a) thirty (b) twenty
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have to vacate one seat in case of found in Odisha. Related Committees to (c) fifteen (d) Thirty-five
winning both the seats. Schedule tribes: Xaxa Committee (2013), Sol.304.(b) Twenty. The Lok Sabha is
Bhuria Commission (2002-2004), Lokur composed of representatives of people
Q.297. What is the term of the State Committee (1965). The Fifth Schedule of
legislative assembly in India as per chosen by direct election on the basis of
the Constitution deals with adult suffrage. The maximum strength of
Indian constitution ? Administration and Control of Scheduled
SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Afternoon) the House envisaged by the Constitution
Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states is now 550 (530 members to represent
(a) 3 years (b) 5 years other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura
(c) 4 years (d) 7 years States, 20 to represent Union Territories)
and Mizoram. The Sixth Schedule deals
Sol.297.(b) 5 years. State Legislature with the administration of the tribal areas Q.305. How many organs of government
(Article 168 - 212) comprises Legislative in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and are there according to the Indian
Assembly and Legislative Council. Mizoram. Constitution?
Legislative Council members are elected SSC MTS 12/07/2022 (Evening)
Q.301. Which of the following is NOT a (a) Two (b) Four (c) One (d) Three
for a term of 6 years. kind of question related to Indian
Q.298. The Lok Sabha (House of the Parliamentary Proceedings ? Sol.305.(d) Three Organs: the
People) was duly constituted for the first SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Afternoon) Legislature consists of the President and
time on _______ . (a) Starred Question two Houses, known as Council of States
SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Evening) (b) Unstarred Question (Rajya Sabha) and House of the People
(a) 26 April 1950 (b) 17 April 1952 (c) Short Notice Question (Lok Sabha), the Executive consists of
(c) 18 January 1950 (d) 20 April 1951 (d) Long Notice Question the President, the Vice-President, and the
Council of Ministers with the Prime

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 Pinnacle Polity
Minister as the head to aid and advise Bicameral Legislature, Political SSC CGL 20/04/2022 (Afternoon)
the President. and the Judiciary consists Homogeneity, No fixed term. (a) 1972 (b) 1982 (c) 1977 (d) 1979
of the Supreme Court, High Court,
District Court or Subordinate Court. Q.310. An alliance formed by political Sol.313.(c) 1977. Second Schedule of
parties after elections when no party has the Indian Constitution deals with the
Q.306. __________ is a motion moved by a been able to get adequate seats to form provisions in relation to allowances,
member to cut short the debate on a a clear majority is called_____. privileges, emoluments of : The President
matter before the House. SSC MTS 20/07/2022 (Evening) of India, Governors of Indian States,
SSC MTS 13/07/2022 (Morning) (a) coalition (b) appropriation Speaker of Lok Sabha & Deputy Speaker
(a) Closure (b) No-Confidence (c) allegiance (d) prorogation of Lok Sabha etc. The leader of the
(c) Privilege (d) Censure largest Opposition party having not less
Sol.310.(a) A coalition government is a than one-tenth of the seats of the total
Sol.306.(a) ‘Closure Motion’ . No form of government in which political strength of the House is recognized as
Confidence Motion’ also called as Motion parties cooperate to form a government. the leader of the Opposition in that
of No Confidence: A Vote of No Appropriation is when money is set aside House opposition cabinet.
Confidence is a formal proposal in Lok for a specific and particular purpose or
Sabha to evoke a decision of the house. purposes. Prorogation means the
termination of a session of the House by
President, Vice President and
Q.307. According to the Indian an order made by the President under Prime Minister
Constitution, what is the tenure of the Article 85(2)(a) of the Constitution.
members of the State Legislative Council Allegiance, the tie that binds an individual Q.314. Which of the following is NOT a
in India? to another individual or institution. condition for the President’s office in
SSC MTS 14/07/2022 (Afternoon) India?

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(a) 10 years (b) 3 years Q.311. The period between prorogation SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (1st Shift)
(c) 4 years (d) 6 years of Parliament and re-assembly in a new

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(a) He shall not be entitled, without
session is called______. payment of rent, to use his official
Sol.307.(d) 6 years. It is a permanent SSC MTS 21/07/2022 (Afternoon)

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residence
body and is not subject to dissolution. (a) adjournment (b) recess (b) He shall not be a member of either
The tenure of a Member of the (c) dissolution (d) cut motion
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House of the Parliament.
Legislative Council (MLC) is six years,
(c) The allowances shall not be
with one-third of the members retiring Sol.311.(b) Recess. An adjournment
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diminished during his term of office.

every two years. suspends the work in a sitting for a
(d) He shall not hold any office of profit.
specified time, which may be hours, days
Q.308. Who has the power to abolish or or weeks. A dissolution ends the very life Sol.314.(a) Article 59 of the Constitution
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create a legislative council in the state? of the existing House, and a new House of India outlines the conditions for the
SSC MTS 18/07/2022 (Morning) is constituted after general elections are office of the President of India. Article 59
(a) Parliament held. Cut motion is a power given to the (3) - The President shall be entitled
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(b) High court of the concerned State members of the Lok Sabha that enables without payment of rent to the use of his
(c) President its members to oppose any demand in a official residences and shall be also
(d) Chief minister of the concerned state
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Finance Bill proposed by a government entitled to such emoluments,

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Sol.308.(a) Parliament. According to the allowances and privileges as may be

Q.312. In the absence of the Speaker and
Article 169 of the Constitution of India, determined by Parliament by law.
a

the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, who

the Parliament of India can create or
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presides over the joint sitting of the two Q.315. Which Article of the Constitution
abolish the State Legislative Council of a houses of Parliament? of India expressly provides that the
state if that state's legislature passes a SSC CHSL 24/05/2022 (Afternoon) President is eligible for re-election?
resolution for that with a special majority. (a) Chairman of Rajya Sabha SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
Q.309. Which of the following is NOT a (b) Any senior member of Rajya Sabha (a) Article 58 (b) Article 56
feature of parliamentary government in (c) Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha (c) Article 59 (d) Article 57
India? (d) Any senior member of Lok Sabha
Sol.315.(d) Article 57. Important articles
SSC MTS 19/07/2022 (Evening) Sol.312.(c) Deputy Chairman of Rajya related to the President of India : Article
(a) Membership of the ministers in the Sabha. Article 93 - The Speaker and 52 - The President of India. Article 53 -
legislature, Deputy Speaker of the House of the Executive power of the Union. Article 54 -
(b) Undissolvable lower house People . Article 95 - Power of the Deputy Election of President. Article 55 - Manner
(c) Presence of nominal and real Speaker or other person to perform the of election of President. Article 56 - Term
executives duties of the office of, or to act as, of office of President. Article 58 -
(d) Collective responsibility of the Speaker. Article 96 - The Speaker or the Qualifications for election as President.
executive to the legislature Deputy Speaker not to preside while a Article 59 - Conditions of President’s
Sol.309.(b) Undissolvable lower house. resolution for his removal from office is office. Article 60 - Oath or affirmation by
Features of Parliamentary Government : under consideration. the President.
Nominal and Real Executives, Double Q.313. The salary and allowances of Q.316. In the state legislative assembly,
Membership, Collective Responsibility, leaders of opposition in parliament are the Money bill can be introduced with the
Secrecy of procedure, Prime Ministerial governed by the Act passed for the first prior permission of __________.
Leadership, Majority Party Rule, time by the parliament in the year ______. SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
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 Pinnacle Polity
(a) Governor (b) Auditor General one - third of the members retire, and at Advocate-General for the State. Term and
(c) Finance Minister (d) CAG the beginning of every third year, Remuneration: The Advocate-General
vacancies are filled through fresh holds office at the pleasure of the
Sol.316.(a) Governor. Money Bills in
elections and presidential nominations. Governor and receives remuneration as
State Legislatures : A Money Bill is a
determined by the Governor.
special type of financial bill that deals Q.320. The ________ of every state
with matters like taxation, borrowing, or unfurls the flag in its capital on the Q.324. Which Article deals with the
expenditure from the state's Republic Day. election of the President ?
Consolidated Fund. Article 198 of the SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (1st Shift) SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (1st Shift)
Constitution of India deals with the (a) Judge of High Court (a) Article 72 (b) Article 54
special procedure for money bills in state (b) Chief Minister (c) Article 74 (d) Article 66
legislatures. Article 148 : Provision for (c) Governor
the appointment of the Comptroller and (d) Speaker Sol.324.(b) Article 54 - The President
Auditor General of India (CAG) by the shall be elected by the members of an
President. Sol.320.(c) Governor is the electoral college consisting of: (a) the
constitutional head of a state in India, elected members of both Houses of
Q.317. As per article 123, the ordinance appointed by the President. They Parliament; and (b) the elected members
making power is the most important represent the central government at the of the Legislative Assemblies of the
legislative power of ____________. state level. Article 153 - Governors of States.
SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (3rd Shift) States.
(a) President Q.325. As per article 158, the Governor
(b) Rajya Sabha Q.321. Which of the following Articles shall NOT be a member of either House
(c) Legislative council states that the Prime Minister should be of Parliament or of a House of the

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(d) Chief Justice of India appointed by the President? Legislature of any State specified in
SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (1st Shift) ___________ Schedule.

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Sol.317.(a) President. Article 123 of the (a) Article 71 (b) Article 66 SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
Indian Constitution allows the President (c) Article 75 (d) Article 62 (a) Seventh (b) Fifth (c) First (d) Third

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to issue ordinances when Parliament is
not in session, with approval required Sol.321.(c) Article 75. Article 62 - Time Sol.325.(c) First. If a member of either
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within six weeks of reassembly. The of holding the election to fill the vacancy House of Parliament or of a House of the
maximum life of an ordinance is six in the office of President and the term of Legislature of any such State be
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months and six weeks. Fakhruddin Ali office of the person elected to fill the appointed Governor, he shall be deemed
Ahmed issued the most ordinances in casual vacancy. Article 66 - Election of to have vacated his seat in that House on
India. Article 213 : Power of Governor to Vice-President. Article 71 - Matters the date on which he enters upon his
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promulgate Ordinances during recess of relating to, or connected with, the office as Governor. First Schedule - The
Legislature. election of a President or Vice-President. list of names of states and union
territories and their extent and territorial
on

Q.318. Which Article of the Constitution Q.322. Which of the following is the jurisdictions.
of India provides that ‘there shall be a most controversial Article in the Indian
Vice President of India’ ? Constitution, which provides for Q.326. Which part of the Indian
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SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (1st Shift) President’s rule in any state? Constitution deals with the election of
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(a) Article 61 (b) Article 63 SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (3rd Shift) the Vice President?
a

(c) Article 65 (d) Article 62 (a) Article 358 (b) Article 356 SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (1st Shift)
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(c) Article 360 (d) Article 352 (a) Part IV (b) Part III
Sol.318.(b) Article 63. (c) Part VI (d) Part V
The Vice President of India is the Sol.322.(b) Article 356. Other Articles :
second-highest constitutional office in Article 352 - Proclamation of Emergency. Sol.326.(d) Part V (Article 52- 151).
India, after the President. Important Article 358 - Suspension of provisions of Article 66 - Election of Vice President.
Articles related to Vice President: Article article 19 during emergencies. Article The Vice-President shall be elected by
64 - The Vice-President to be ex officio 360 - Provisions as to financial the members of an electoral college
Chairman of the Council of States. emergency. consisting of the members of both
Article 65 - The Vice-President to act as Houses of Parliament in accordance with
Q.323. Who is considered the highest the system of proportional
President or to discharge his functions
law officer of the state in India? representation by means of the single
during casual vacancies in the office, or
SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (1st Shift) transferable vote and the voting at such
during the absence, of President.
(a) Advocate general election shall be by secret ballot.
Q.319. How many members are (b) Attorney general
nominated by the President to the Rajya (c) Chief justice of high court Q.327. Who among the following was the
Sabha? (d) Auditor general shortest-serving Prime Minister of India?
SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (3rd Shift) SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
Sol.323.(a) Advocate general. It is a (a) Chandra Shekhar
(a) 12 (b) 10 (c) 20 (d) 15
Constitutional post and its authority is (b) Gulzarilal Nanda
Sol.319.(a) 12. This right is granted to mentioned in article 165 of the Indian (c) Charan Singh
the President under the Fourth Schedule Constitution. Appointment: The Governor (d) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(Articles 4(1) and 80(2)) of the of each State shall appoint a person
Constitution of India. Every two years, qualified to be a High Court Judge as the Sol.327.(b) Gulzarilal Nanda

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 Pinnacle Polity
was an Indian politician and economist 164, which states: "The total number of Sol.334.(c) Chief Minister. According to
specializing in labor issues. He served as Ministers, including the Chief Minister, in Article 164, the Governor appoints the
the Acting Prime Minister of India twice, the Council of Ministers of a State shall Chief Minister, who in turn advises the
for 13 days each, following the deaths of not exceed 15% of the total number of Governor on appointing other Ministers.
Jawaharlal Nehru in 1964 and Lal members of the Legislative Assembly of The Ministers hold office at the pleasure
Bahadur Shastri in 1966. Chandra that State." of the Governor.
Shekhar, known as Jananayak, was
Prime Minister from 10 November 1990 Q.331. Who has the power to prorogue Q.335. Who unfurls the flag at Rajpath on
to 21 June 1991. Chaudhuri Charan the House or either House of State the Republic Day?
Singh briefly served as Prime Minister Legislature from time to time ? Higher Secondary 21/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
Matriculation Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 4) (a) The Chief of Defence Staff
from 1979 to 1980. Atal Bihari Vajpayee,
(a) Speaker (b) Governor (b) The President of India
an Indian politician and poet, was Prime
(c) Chief Minister (d) Chairman (c) The Chief Minister of Delhi
Minister first for 13 days in 1996, then for
(d) The Prime Minister of India
13 months from 1998 to 1999, and finally Sol.331.(b) Governor. According to
for a full term from 1999 to 2004. Article 174 (1) The Governor shall from Sol.335.(b) The President of India takes
time to time summon the House or each the salute from various units of the Army,
Q.328. In case the President is satisfied
House of the Legislature of the State to Navy, Air force, Para-military, and Police
with the Governor’s report, he may
meet at such time and place as he thinks forces during the parade. This ceremony
declare President’s Rule under Article
fit, but six months shall not intervene commemorates the adoption of the
356 but such proclamation is initially for
between its last sitting in one session country's Constitution on January 26,
a period of ________.
and the date appointed for its first sitting 1950. The Prime Minister of India, on the
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift)
in the next session. Article 174 (2): The other hand, hoists the national flag on

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(a) two months (b) one month
Governor may from time to time—(a) Independence Day at the Red Fort.
(c) six months (d) three months

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prorogue the House or either House; (b)
Q.336. The Governor’s emoluments are
Sol.328.(c) Six months. Article 356 dissolve the Legislative Assembly.
decided by the:

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allows the President to issue a
Q.332. Who is considered as the ‘linchpin Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
proclamation if a state's government
of the Government’ ? (a) Prime Minister (b) President
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cannot function according to the
Matriculation Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 1) (c) State Legislature (d) Parliament
Constitution. The President can act
(a) President
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based on the governor's report or Sol.336.(d) Parliament. The Governor

independently. This proclamation must (b) Vice - President
(Part VI, Article 153 -167) serves as a
be approved by both Houses of (c) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
titular or constitutional head and acts as
(d) Prime Minister
TG

Parliament within two months. It can be the agent of the central government. The
extended for a maximum of three years, Sol.332.(d) The Prime Minister acts as a Governor of State is appointed by the
with parliamentary approval every six link between the Council of Ministers on President. Article 158 (4) - The
on

months. the one hand and the President as well emoluments and allowances of the
as the Parliament on the other. It is this Governor cannot be diminished during
Q.329. Among the following, which is not
his term of office. Article 158(3A) - When
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a qualification for membership in the role of the Prime Minister which led Pt.
the same person is appointed as the
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Vidhan Sabha Nehru described him as 'the linchpin of

Government'. Governor of two or more States, the
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift)
a

emoluments and allowances payable to

(a) Not hold any office of profit
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Q.333. Which option is NOT correct in him are shared by the States.
(b) Have attained the age of 25 Years case of appointment of a Governor ?
(c) Citizen of India Higher Secondary 20/06/2024 (Shift - 2) Q.337. The ministers in the state hold
(d) Knowledge of Politics (a) Citizen of India office during the pleasure of the:
(b) Cannot hold any office of profit during Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
Sol.329.(d) Knowledge of Politics. The
his tenure (a) Deputy Chief Minister
Legislative Assembly, also known as the
(c) Appointed for six years (b) Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
Vidhan Sabha, consists of a maximum of
(d) Should be at least 35 years (c) Chief Minister
500 members and a minimum of 60. Its
(d) Governor
tenure is five years, but the Governor can Sol.333.(c) Appointed for six years.
dissolve it before the completion of the Governors in India are appointed by the Sol.337.(d) Governor. Under Article 164
period. President under Article 155 of the (1) The Chief Minister shall be appointed
Constitution, with a tenure of five years. by the Governor and the other Ministers
Q.330. The minimum strength of the
However, they serve at the President's shall be appointed by the Governor on
Council of Ministers in a state as per the
pleasure and can be removed at any the advice of the Chief Minister, and the
Indian Constitution is ________ .
time. Ministers shall hold office during the
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift)
pleasure of the Governor.
(a) 12 persons (b) 13 persons
Q.334. On whose advice does the
(c) 15 persons (d) 14 persons Q.338. In which year did Dr. Sarvepalli
Governor appoint the ministers ?
Higher Secondary 20/06/2024 (Shift - 2) Radhakrishnan assume office as the first
Sol.330.(a) 12 persons. As per the
(a) Prime Minister (b) President Vice-President of India ?
Constitution (91st Amendment) Act,
(c) Chief Minister (d) Vice-President Graduate Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
2003, clause 1A was inserted into Article
(a) 1954 (b) 1951 (c) 1952 (d) 1950
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 Pinnacle Polity
Sol.338.(c) 1952. Dr. Sarvepalli Third - Sh. V.V. Giri (1967-1969). Fourth - membership of Parliament If he holds
Radhakrishnan served as first vice Sh. Gopal Swarup Pathak (1969-1974). any office of profit, unsound mind,
president of India from 1952 to 1962 and Fifth - Sh. B.D.Jatti (1974-1979). undischarged insolvent, Not a citizen of
the second president of India from 1962 India. Other provisions: Anti-Defections
to 1967. He received Bharat Ratna in Q.342. Who will cause every year, annual (10th Schedule), Section 8 of
1954. Teachers' Day is celebrated on financial statements to be laid before the Representation of People Act 1951.
September 5 in India to honor him. Legislative Assembly of the State?
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon) Q.345. Who was the Prime Minister of
Q.339. Which Article of the Indian (a) President India when the Fundamental Duties were
Constitution mentions that ‘The (b) Governor first incorporated in the Constitution of
President shall, notwithstanding the (c) Deputy Chief Minister India?
expiration of his/her term, continue to (d) Chief Minister SSC MTS 13/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
hold office until his successor enters (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
upon his/her office’? Sol.342.(b) Governor: Financial Powers - (b) Indira Gandhi
Graduate Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 3) Money bill can only be introduced in the (c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(a) Article 61 (b) Article 56 state legislature on his prior (d) Rajiv Gandhi
(c) Article 58 (d) Article 50 recommendation. No demand for grant
can be made except on his Sol.345.(b) Indira Gandhi : 3rd Prime
Sol.339.(b) Article 56. The President recommendation. Money from the Minister of India and first and, to date,
shall hold office for a term of five years. contingency fund can be withdrawn after only female prime minister of India.
The President may, by writing under his his recommendation for meeting the
hand addressed to the Vice-President, unforeseen expenditures. He constitutes Q.346. Who holds the authority of
resign his office. Other important a finance commission for every 5 years transferring judges from one High court

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Articles: Article 61 - Procedure for to review the financial situation of to another High Court?
SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (2nd shift)

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impeaching the President of India. Article municipalities and panchayats. Article
58 - Qualifications for election as a 112 - Annual financial statement. Article (a) The senior most judge of Supreme
Court

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President of India. Article 50 - The 200 - Assent to Bills.
separation of the judiciary from the (b) The chief justice of india
Q.343. When the President of India (c) The president of india
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executive.
keeps a bill (except money bill and (d) The law minister of india
Q.340. Which Article of the Indian constitutional amendment bill) pending
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Constitution mentions that an election to for an indefinite period, it is called______. Sol.346.(c) The President of India
fill a vacancy caused by the expiration of SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening) (Article 52). Article 222 - Transfer of a
the term of office of the President shall (a) absolute veto of the President Judge from one High Court to another.
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be completed before the expiration of the (b) amendatory veto of the President Article 217 -Appointment and conditions
term? (c) pocket veto of the President of the office of a Judge of a High Court.
Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 4) (d) suspensive veto of the President Article 124 - Establishment and
on

(a) Article 59 (b) Article 62 constitution of the Supreme Court.

Sol.343.(c) Pocket veto of the President. Article 218 - Application of certain
(c) Article 61 (d) Article 60
Veto Power of the President of India is
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provisions relating to the Supreme Court

guided by Article 111. Three types of
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Sol.340.(b) Article 62. This article also to High Courts. Article 214 - High Courts
covers the scenario where a vacancy Veto Power: Absolute veto, Suspensive for States.
a

arises due to the President's death, veto and Pocket veto. Absolute Veto: It
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resignation, or removal, requiring the refers to the power of the President to Q.347. Which of the following
election to be held within six months. withhold his assent to a bill passed by statements are correct regarding
Other articles: Article 59: Conditions of the Parliament. The bill then ends and removal of the President of India ?
President’s office. Article 61: Procedure does not become an act. Suspensive A. The impeachment process can be
for impeachment of the President. Article Veto: The President uses a suspensive initiated in either House of Parliament.
60: Oath or affirmation by the President. veto when he returns the bill to the Indian B. The impeachment charges must be
Parliament for its reconsideration. signed by the one-third members of the
Q.341. Who was the second vice - House in which the process is initiated.
President of India? Q.344. The President of India decides on C. In the impeachment process, a 30
SSC CGL Tier II 26/10/2023 the question as to the disqualification of days' notice should be given to the
(a) VV Giri Members of Parliament in consultation President.
(b) Krishna Kant with the ____________. D. The impeachment resolution is passed
(c) Dr Zakir Hussain SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Afternoon) by a majority of two-thirds of the total
(d) Dr S Radhakrishnan (a) Vice President membership of that House.
(b) Supreme Court of India SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (2nd shift)
Sol.341.(c) Dr Zakir Hussain (1962 (c) Parliament (a) B and C only (b) A, B and C only
-1967) - He was the third President of (d) Election Commission of India (c) A, B, C and D (d) A and D only
India from 1967-1969, and the first Indian
President to die in office in 1969. He was Sol.344.(d) Election Commission of Sol.347.(d) A and D only. Article 61:
awarded Bharat Ratna in 1963. First five India. Article 103 - It deals with the Procedure for impeachment of the
vice presidents of India : First - Dr. decisions of disqualifications of President. The impeachment charges
Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan (1952-1962). members of Parliament. Article 102 - It must be signed by not less than
provides for Disqualification for
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 Pinnacle Polity
one-fourth members of the house in (c) Appointment of the Speaker of the (c) Supreme Court Judge
which the process is initiated. A fourteen Legislative Assembly. (d) Prime Minister
day notice should be given to the (d) Appointment of Advocate General of
Sol.353.(b) President. Article 124 (2) -
president. Impeachment of the President the state in consultation with Attorney
Vests power on the President to appoint
was taken from the US Constitution. general.
every Judge of the Supreme Court
Q.348. Which of the following Sol.350.(a) Article 167 imposes on the including the Chief Justice of India.
statements are correct regarding the Chief Minister the responsibility of Article 124 - States the establishment of
State Executive ? keeping the Governor informed of all the Supreme Court. Article 124 (3) -
A. Article 152 of the Indian Constitution decisions made by the Council of Qualification of Supreme court Judge.
states 'Unless the context otherwise Ministers concerning administration and
Q.354. What is the minimum age (in
requires, the expression 'State' does not legislation. Article 178 - It deals with the
years) a person should be if he/she is
include Jammu and Kashmir'. corresponding position for Speaker and
willing to be appointed as the Governor
B. The 7th Constitutional Amendment Deputy Speaker of the Legislative
of a state in India ?
Act has provided for the appointment of Assembly of a state.
SSC MTS 19/05/2023 (Afternoon)
the same person as Governor for two or
Q.351. Who among the following served (a) 28 (b) 30 (c) 35 (d) 40
more states.
C. The Supreme Court clearly mentioned the shortest tenure as the Prime Minister
Sol.354.(c) 35 years. Article 157 -
that the office of the Governor is under of India ?
Qualifications for appointment as
the control of the Central Government. SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (1st shift)
Governor (must be a citizen of India and
SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (4th shift) (a) HD Deva Gowda (b) VP Singh
must have completed 35 years of age).
(a) B and C only (b) A and C only (c) Chandra Shekhar (d) IK Gujral
Article 153 - Governors of States. Article

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(c) A, B and C (d) A and B only Sol.351.(c) Chandra Shekhar. Shri 154 - Executive power of State. Article
Gulzari Lal Nanda (11 January 1966 - 24 155 - Appointment of Governor. Article

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Sol.348.(d) A and B only. Part VI of
January 1966 and 27 May 1964 - 9 June 58 - The presidential candidate must
Constitution (functioning of state
1964) served the shortest tenure as PM. complete the age of 35 years. Article 84

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government). Articles under Part VI :
H D Deva Gowda (June 1, 1996 - April 21, (b) - the minimum age for Lok Sabha
Article 153 - Governors of a state, Article
1997) - 11th Prime Minister of India. V. P. election shall be 25 years.
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154 - Executive power of the state, Article
155 - Appointment of governor, Article Singh (December 2, 1989 - November 10, Q.355. Who administers the Union
1990) - 7th Prime Minister of India.
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156 - Terms of office of governor, Article Territories of India?

159 - Oath or affirmation by the governor, Chandra Shekhar (10 November 1990 SSC MTS 19/06/2023 (Morning)
Article 163 - Council of ministers to aid and 21 June 1991) - 8th Prime Minister (a) President
of India. The longest-serving prime
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and advise governor, Article 165 - (b) Prime Minister

Advocate general for the state. minister was Jawaharlal Nehru, (16 years (c) Chief Minister
and 286 days). (d) Member of Legislative Assembly
Q.349. The Governor of an Indian state
on

before entering upon his office takes an Q.352. The Inter-State Council consists Sol.355.(a) President. The administrator
oath or affirmation before ____________. of ______ ministers of Cabinet rank in the appointed by the President runs the
h

SSC CGL 25/07/2023 (4th shift) Union Council of Ministers nominated by administration on the behalf of the
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(a) the Chief Justice of the High Court the Prime Minister of India. President. Part - VIII (Union Territories),
exercising jurisdiction in relation to SSC MTS 03/05/2023 (Evening) Article 239 (Administration of Union
a

the State (a) six (b) two (c) ten (d) four territories). Article 239A (Creation of
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(b) the President of India local legislatures or council of ministers

Sol.352.(a) Six. Inter-State Council - A
(c) the Chief Minister of the concerned or both for certain Union territories.
constitutional body established by the
state Example (Pondicherry). Article 239AA
President of India. Article 263
(d) the Prime Minister of India (Special provisions with respect to Delhi).
contemplates the establishment of an
Sol.349.(a) Article 159 - Oath or inter-state council to effect coordination Q.356. Which of the following
affirmation to the Governor by the Chief between the states and between centre statements are correct regarding the
Justice of the High Court and in his and states. Established by the President benefits of the retired President of India?
Absence, senior most Judge of that of India. Composition of the council - PM A. The former President of India will also
Court available. Article 155 - The as chairman, CM of all the states and be entitled to a monthly pension of ₹2.5
Governor of a State shall be appointed by UTS having legislative assemblies, lakh.
the President. Article 153 - Governors of Administrators of UTs not having B. He/She is entitled to a secretarial staff
States. legislative assemblies, Governors of comprising a private secretary, a
states under President’s rule, Five personal assistant, an additional private
Q.350. What is the duty of the Chief ministers of the cabinet rank are secretary, two peons, and office
Minister, as mentioned under Article 167 permanent invitees of the council. expenses up to ₹1 lakh per annum.
of the Indian Constitution? C. He/She is also entitled to free
SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (4th shift) Q.353.Who appoints the Chief Justice of
highest-class travel anywhere in India,
(a) Communication of all decisions of the India?
accompanied by one person, by rail, air,
Council of Ministers to the Governor. SSC MTS 12/05/2023 (Afternoon)
or steamer.
(b) Appointment and removal of Council (a) Vice - President
SSC CGL Tier II (02/03/2023)
of the Ministers. (b) President
(a) A and B only (b) B and C only
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 Pinnacle Polity
(c) A and C only (d) A, B and C (d) public accounts fund President is to be held within _____ of the
expiry of the term of office of the
Sol.356.(d) A, B and C. The President Sol.359.(c) Consolidated Funds - Article outgoing Vice - President.
{Article (52-62)} of India is the head of 266(1). Three types of funds of the SSC CHSL 02/06/2022 (Afternoon)
state of the Republic of India. First Central Government – Consolidated Fund (a) 90 days (b) 60 days
President - Rajendra Prasad (held office of India - Revenues received by the (c) 120 days (d) 75 days
for two terms, longest serving president government and expenses made by it,
of India). excluding the exceptional items. Sol.363.(b) 60 days. Article 66 of the
Contingency Fund of India (Article 267) - Constitution of India states the manner
Q.357. Who among the following the emergency fund for the nation and of election of the vice president.
Presidents of India was also the deputy Public Accounts of India (Article 266(2) -
chairman of the Planning Commission? those funds that are received on behalf
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (1st Shift)
Judiciary
of the Government of India.
(a) VV Giri
Q.364. Which of the following
(b) KR Narayanan Q.360. Which is NOT correct about the
statements is correct regarding the
(c) Ramaswamy Venkataraman powers of the Chief Minister?
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of
(d) Pranab Mukherjee Graduate Level 04/08/2022 (Shift - 2)
India?
(a) He allocates portfolios among
Sol.357.(d) Dr. Pranab Mukherjee (13th SSC CHSL Tier II 18/11/2024
ministers.
president). Other positions he hold were (a) Article 30 of the Constitution of India
(b) He presides over the meetings of the
Minister of Finance (2009 - 2012), gives the Supreme Court wide original
Council of Ministers.
Minister of Defence (2004 - 2006), jurisdiction.
(c) When he resigns or dies, it has no
Minister of External Affairs (2006 - 2009), (b) Original jurisdiction extends to any
effect in the functioning of the council

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15th Leader of the Lok Sabha (2004 – dispute between the Government of
of ministers.
2012), Deputy Chairman of the Planning India and one or more states.

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(d) The Governor appoints ministers on
Commission (1991 - 1996), 14th Leader (c) The Supreme Court has very wide
His recommendations.
of the Rajya Sabha (1980 – 1984), advisory jurisdiction over all courts

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Member of Parliament, Lok Sabha (2004 Sol.360.(c) The Governor appoints the and tribunals in India.
- 2012), and Member of Parliament, Rajya Chief Minister and other Ministers (d) The original jurisdiction of the
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Sabha (1969 - 1981). V.V Giri (4th (Article 164). The Chief Minister is the Supreme Court can be exercised by a
President), K.R Narayan (10th president). head of the State Council of Ministers certificate granted by the High Court.
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Ramaswamy Venkataraman (8th and the real executive head of state

government. Article 167 (Chief Minister Sol.364.(b) According to Article 131 of
president).
acts as a link between Governor and the Indian Constitution, the Supreme
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Q.358. Which of the following state council of ministers). Court has original jurisdiction over any
statements about the Vice President of dispute arising between the Government
India is INCORRECT? Q.361. Who among the following is NOT of India and one or more States.
on

SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (2nd Shift) appointed by the President of India?

Graduate Level 05/08/2022 (Shift - 3) Q.365. In which year was the first-ever
(a) Members of State legislatures do not
(a) Ambassadors and High motion to remove a Supreme Court
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take part in his elections.

Commissioners Justice signed by the members of
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(b) He acts as the ex-officio Chairman of

(b) Comptroller and Auditor General of Parliament?
the Rajya Sabha.
a

India SSC MTS 15/10/2024 (2nd Shift)

(c) The Vice President is elected for five
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(c) Attorney General of India (a) 1991 (b) 1988 (c) 1993 (d) 1995
years.
(d) He can be removed from his office by (d) Solicitor General of India
Sol.365.(a) 1991. The first motion to
the President approved through a Sol.361.(d) Solicitor General of India remove a Supreme Court Justice was
resolution passed by the Lok Sabha (the second - highest law officer of the signed in 1991 by 108 Parliament
and Rajya Sabha. country) is appointed by the members. It was filed against Justice V.
Appointments Committee of the Cabinet Ramaswami, accused of misconduct
Sol.358.(d) Vice president of India: The during his tenure as Chief Justice of the
vice president is elected for five years. (ACC). Attorney Generals of India (Article
Haryana and Punjab High Court from
Minimum age: 35. He acts as the 76). Comptroller and Auditor General of
November 1987 to October 1989.
ex-officio chairman of the Rajya sabha. In India (Article 148).
the electoral college for Vice President, Q.366. Which Article of the Constitution
Q.362. Who among the following was the
both elected and nominated members of of India grants power to the President to
third Vice - President of India?
both the Houses of Parliament take part. appoint Judges of the Supreme Court?
SSC CHSL 02/06/2022 (Morning)
SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
Q.359. The emoluments and allowances (a) BD Jatti (b) Zakir Hussain
(a) Article 124(2) (b) Article 123(1)
of the President and other expenditure (c) Gopal Swarup Pathak (d) V. V. Giri
(c) Article 127(3) (d) Article 128(4)
relating to his office is charged on the Sol.362.(d) V. V. Giri. Vice Presidents of
______ of India. Sol.366.(a) Article 124(2). It states that
India - 1st Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, 2nd-
SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Afternoon) every Supreme Court judge is appointed
Zakir Hussain, 4th Gopal Swarup Pathak,
(a) contingency fund by the President through a warrant, after
5th B D Jatti. 14th- Jagdeep Dhankhan.
(b) estimates fund consulting judges of the Supreme Court
(c) consolidated fund Q.363. The election of the next Vice - and High Courts as deemed necessary.

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 Pinnacle Polity
Judges hold office until the age of Article 21 and observed that ‘the Right to dispute between the Government of India
sixty-five. Additionally, the Chief Justice education flows directly from the ‘Right and one or more States or between the
of India must always be consulted for the to life’ ? Government of India and any State or
appointment of judges other than the SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (4th shift) States on one side and one or more
Chief Justice. (a) Mohini Jain v State of Karnataka States on the other or between two or
(b) Neerja Choudhari v State of M. P. more States.
Q.367. The Supreme Court of India (c) Kharak Singh v State of UP B.Appellate Jurisdiction extends when
comprises the Chief Justice and not (d) Malak Singh v State of Punjab the Union plus some States are one side
more than ______ other Judges appointed and some other States on the other side
by the President of India. Sol.370.(a) Mohini Jain v State of
of the dispute.
SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (1st Shift) Karnataka. The Supreme Court declared
C.Under Articles 129 and 142 of the
(a) 37 (b) 35 (c) 38 (d) 33 that it was impermissible for any
Constitution, the Supreme Court has
educational institution to charge
Sol.367.(d) 33. The judges of supreme been vested with the power to punish for
capitation fees as a consideration for
court are appointed by the president contempt of court.
admission. Neeraja Chaudhary vs. State
under the Article 124 (2) of the Indian D. As of now, the International
of Madhya Pradesh - addressed the issue
Constitution. Supreme Court Judges Commercial Arbitration cannot be
of bonded labor. Kharak Singh v State of
retire at the age of 65. As per Article 124 initiated in the Supreme Court.
UP - focused on the constitutional review
(3) - In order to be appointed as a Judge SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift)
of Uttar Pradesh Police Regulations.
of the Supreme Court, a person must be (a) B and D only (b) A and C only
a citizen of India and must have been, for Q.371. Which of the following (c) A, B, C and D (d) A and B only
at least five years, a Judge of a High organisations said that India CANNOT
Sol.373.(b) A and C only. Advisory
Court or an Advocate of a High Court for have a parallel judicial system - one for

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Jurisdiction (Article 143) - The President
at least 10 years or he must be, in the the rich and the other for the poor?
to seek the opinion of the Supreme

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opinion of the President, a distinguished SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (1st shift)
Court. The appellate jurisdiction of the
jurist. (a) Gujarat High Court
Supreme Court can be invoked by a

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(b) Supreme Court
Q.368. Articles 214 to 231 in Part VI of certificate granted by the High Court
(c) Himachal High Court
the Indian Constitution deal with the ____. concerned under Article 132(1), 133(1) or
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(d) Kerala High Court
SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (2nd Shift) 134 of the Constitution. The Supreme
(a) High Courts Sol.371.(b) Supreme Court (SC). Court (Article 124) of India is the apex
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(b) District Courts Important Judgements of SC: Navtej judicial body under the Constitution of
(c) Subordinate Courts Singh Johar vs. Union Of India (2018) - India. Inaugurated - On January, 28, 1950.
(d) Supreme Court Decriminalized homosexuality by striking
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down parts of Section 377 of the IPC. Q.374. The advisory board under
Sol.368.(a) High Courts. Articles 214 to K.S. Puttaswamy vs. Union of India provisions of Article 22 of the
231 in Part VI of the Constitution deal (2017) - Recognized the right to privacy Constitution is to be consisted of
on

with the organization, independence, as a fundamental right under Article 21. persons who are, or have been or are
jurisdiction, powers, and procedures of Aruna Ramachandra Shanbaug Vs. Union qualified to be appointed as __________.
the high courts. SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift)
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of India (2011) - Upheld the

(a) Judges of Supreme court
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constitutionality of passive euthanasia.

Q.369. Which writ is issued by a high (b) Judges of Lower court
court or supreme court when a lower
a

Q.372. Which Article of the Indian (c) Judges of High court

court has considered a case going
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Constitution mentions that the law (d) Judges of District court

beyond its jurisdiction? declared by the Supreme Court shall be
SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (2nd Shift) binding on all the courts within the Sol.374.(c) Judges of High court.
(a) Quo Warrant (b) Habeas Corpus territory of India? Related Articles : Article 214 - High
(c) Certiorari (d) Prohibition SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift) Courts for States. Article 215 - High
(a) Article 151 (b) Article 147 Courts to be courts of record. Article 216
Sol.369.(d) Prohibition. Writs are issued
(c) Article 137 (d) Article 141 - Constitution of High Courts. Article 217
by the Supreme Court under Article 32
- Appointment and conditions of the
and by the High Court under Article 226 Sol.372.(d) Article 141. Other Articles: office of a Judge of a High Court. Article
of the Indian Constitution. The five types Article 137 - Review of judgments or 218 - Application of certain provisions
of writs in India are: Habeas Corpus: orders by the Supreme Court. Article 147 relating to the Supreme Court to High
Ensures that a detained person is - Any substantial question of law as to Courts. Article 219 - Oath or affirmation
brought before the court. Mandamus: the interpretation of the Constitution by Judges of High Courts. Article 220 -
Directs a public official to perform a duty. shall be construed as including Restriction on practice after being a
Certiorari: Transfers a case for review by references to any substantial question of permanent Judge.
a higher court. Prohibition: Prevents a law as to the interpretation. Article 151 -
lower court from exceeding its Audit reports. Q.375. The Federal Court of India was
jurisdiction. Quo-Warranto: Questions the established in Delhi by the Act of ______.
legal authority of someone holding a Q.373. Which of the following Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
public office. statements are correct regarding the (a) 1908 (b) 1919 (c) 1905 (d) 1935
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of
Q.370. In which judgement did the India? Sol.375.(d) 1935. The Federal Court of
Supreme Court extend the scope of A.Original jurisdiction extends to any India was a judicial body that operated

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 Pinnacle Polity
from 1937 to 1950, when it was replaced preventive detention. Sajjan Singh vs July 2022.
by the Supreme Court of India. The State of Rajasthan - Involved a challenge 2. The Bill amends the Family Courts Act,
Federal Court had jurisdiction to solve to the validity of the Constitution (26th 1984.
disputes between provinces and federal Amendment) Act. 3. The Act allows state governments to
states. Calcutta High court is the oldest establish Family Courts.
Q.379. The State of Kerala Vs Leesamma
high court in India (established in the 4. The Act is not applicable in Punjab and
Joseph case deals with __________.
year 1862). Justice Harilal Jekisundas Tamil Nadu.
SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (2nd shift)
Kania was the first (Indian) Chief Justice (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(a) dowry
of India. (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
(b) the economic weaker section
Q.376. Which Article of the Indian (c) education Sol.382.(a) 1, 2 and 3. Family Courts
Constitution mentions that there shall be (d) persons with disabilities (Amendment) Bill 2022 seeks to amend
a Supreme Court of India? the Family Courts Act, 1984 to establish
Sol.379.(d) persons with disabilities.
Graduate Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 3) family courts in Himachal Pradesh and
This case was related to Article 16 (equal
(a) Article 123 (b) Article 121 Nagaland. Family Court Act, 1984 -
opportunity in the workplace). The SC
(c) Article 122 (d) Article 124 Enacted for the establishment of Family
held that persons with physical
Courts with a view to promote
Sol.376.(d) Article 124. Article 121 - disabilities have the right to reservation
conciliation, and secure speedy
Restriction on discussion in Parliament. in promotions. Other Important Cases -
settlement of disputes relating to
Article 122 - Courts not to inquire into Kesavananda Bharati case: The Supreme
marriage and family affairs and for
proceedings of Parliament. Court gave the doctrine of the ‘Basic
related matters.
Structure’ of the constitution. Shayara
Q.377. Disputes between two or more Bano vs Union of India: The Supreme Q.383. The High court of Delhi was

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states come under the _______ of the Court struck down the practice of triple
Supreme Court. established in _______.

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talaq and declared it unconstitutional. SSC MTS 08/05/2023 (Evening)
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning)
(a) original jurisdiction Q.380. The Supreme Court of India came (a) 1962 (b) 1947 (c) 1951 (d) 1966

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(b) advisory jurisdiction into existence on ___________ .
Sol.383.(d) 1966. The High Court of
(c) Appellate Jurisdiction SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (2nd shift)
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Delhi was established with four Judges.
(d) writ jurisdiction (a) 30 January 1935 (b) 26 January 1950
They were Chief Justice K.S.Hegde,
(c) 15 August 1947 (d) 2 October 1952
Justice I.D. Dua, Justice H.R.Khanna and
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Sol.377.(a) Original jurisdiction - The

power to hear and determine a dispute in Sol.380.(b) 26 January 1950. Justice S.K.Kapur. Before 1966 under the
the first instance. It is provided under The Supreme Court was inaugurated in States Reorganisation Act, 1956 Delhi
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Article 131 of the Indian Constitution. the Chamber of Princes in the Parliament was under the jurisdiction of the Punjab
Article 143 of the Indian Constitution House on January 28, 1950. The High Court.
confers upon the Supreme Court foundation stone of the Supreme Court
Q.384. The first High Court in India was
on

advisory jurisdiction. Article 133 - building was laid by the first President of
established in ______________ .
Appellate jurisdiction of Supreme Court India, Rajendra Prasad, on October 29,
SSC MTS 03/05/2023 (Morning)
in appeals from High Courts in regard to 1954. The 50th Chief Justice of India is
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(a) 1860 (b) 1862 (c) 1867 (d) 1857

civil matters. Dhananjaya Y. Chandrachud.
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Sol.384.(b) 1862. Calcutta High Court: It

Q.378. In which of the following cases Q.381. Till which year did the High Court
a

was brought into existence under the

the Supreme Court, while laying out the of Delhi continue to exercise jurisdiction
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High Court's Act (1861). Location -

'basic structure' of the Constitution held over Himachal Pradesh?
Esplanade Row West (Kolkata).
that the democratic character of the SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (2nd shift)
Jurisdiction - West Bengal and the
polity was an essential component of the (a) 1969 (b) 1967 (c) 1971 (d) 1968
Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Bombay
'basic structure" ?
Sol.381.(c) 1971. The Indian High Courts High Court {(14 August 1862) (Indian
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Morning)
Act (1861) established High Courts of High Courts Act 1861)}, Madras High
(a) Romesh Thappar vs State of Madras
Calcutta, Madras and Bombay. The first Court {(15 August 1862, Indian High
(b) AK Gopalan vs State of Madras
high court of India was established in Courts Act 1861}.
(c) Kesavananda Bharati vs State of
Kerala Kolkata and formally it was called the
Q.385. In which of the following cases
(d) Sajjan Singh vs State of Rajasthan High Court of Judicature at Fort William.
did the Supreme Court of India
India has 25 High Courts (now). Article
Sol.378.(c) This judgement was pronounce the theory of the ‘Basic
214 - High Court for each State. Article
delivered on 24 April 1973. The case was Structure’ of the Constitution?
226 - Power of high court to issue certain
filed by Sri Kesavananda Bharati (head of SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (4th Shift)
writs. Article 216 - Constitution of High
a Hindu religious mutt in Kerala), (a) Kesavananda Bharati Case, 1973
Court.
challenging the constitutional validity of (b) Golaknath Case, 1967
the 24th, 25th and 29th Amendments to Q.382. Which of the following (c) Minerva Mills Case, 1980
the Indian Constitution. Romesh Thappar statements are true regarding the Family (d) Swarn Singh Case, 1989
vs State of Madras: Freedom of speech Courts (Amendment) Bill, 2022? Sol.385.(a) Kesavananda Bharati Case,
and expression includes Freedom of Graduate Level 27/06/2023 (Shift - 4) 1973 - Parliament can not amend or alter
press. AK Gopalan vs State of Madras - 1. The Family Courts (Amendment) Bill the ‘Basic Structure’ of the constitution.
Deals with the constitutionality of was introduced in Lok Sabha on 18 Golaknath Case, 1967 - Parliament
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 Pinnacle Polity
cannot take away or abridge any of the majority as per Article 249 requires a Sol.392.(b) 4. The Finance Commission
Fundamental Rights. Minerva Mills Case, majority of 2/3rd members present and is a constitutional body set up by the
1980 - Parliament can amend any part of voting. For example, if out of the 245 President of India under Article 280 of
the Constitution but it cannot change the members in Rajya Sabha, only 150 are the Indian Constitution. Its primary
“Basic Structure” of the Constitution. present and voting, then the special function is to recommend the distribution
Swarn Singh Case, 1998 - In this case, majority required as per Article 249 of financial resources between the Union
the SC held the UP Governor's pardon of would be 101. Simple majority refers to a (Central Government) and States. The
a convict unconstitutional. majority of more than 50% of the Commission is set up for a period of five
members present and voting in the years.
Q.386. What is the structure of the Indian House. Majorities in the Constitution can Q.393. In which of the following years
judiciary? be categorised into four Types : was the Election Commission of India
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (4th Shift) Absolute, Effective, Simple and Special. founded?
(a) One-tier (b) Two-tier
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (1st Shift)
(c) Three-tier (d) Five-tier Q.390. Which is NOT correct about the
(a) 1955 (b) 1952 (c) 1950 (d) 1947
independence of the judiciary in our
Sol.386.(c) Three-tier. The structure of country? Sol.393.(c) 1950. Election Commission
the judiciary - Supreme Court (Article SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Afternoon) of India (ECI) is a permanent
124) at the top, High Courts (Article 214) (a) The judiciary has the power to Constitutional Body. The Commissioners
below them and session’s courts at the penalise those who are found guilty have a fixed tenure of six years, or up to
lowest level. of contempt of court. the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
Q.387. A judge of the Supreme Court can (b) The judges are financially dependent
on both the executive and legislature Q.394. What is the tenure of office for the
be removed only on the grounds of ______
Chief Election Commissioner?

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SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (1st Shift) for their salaries and allowances.
(c) The Constitution prescribes a very SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
(a) disrespect of the Constitution

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difficult procedure for removal of (a) 6 years or up to the age of 65 years
(b) proven misbehaviour or incapacity
judges. (b) 5 years or up to the age of 65 years
(c) murder charges

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(d) The legislature is not involved in the (c) 5 years or up to the age of 60 years
(d) lack of knowledge
process of appointment of judges. (d) 6 years or up to the age of 60 years
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Sol.387.(b) Proven misbehaviour or
Sol.390.(b) Judges salaries and Sol.394.(a) 6 years or up to the age of
incapacity. Article 124 - There shall be a
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allowances are fixed and not subject to 65 years. Article 324 - Superintendence,
Supreme Court of India. Article 143 -
legislative approval. Supreme Court direction and control of elections to be
Power of the President to consult the
Judges {The Salaries, Pension and vested in an Election Commission : (2)
Supreme Court.
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Allowances are charged upon the The Election Commission shall consist
Q.388. Which of the following Consolidated Fund of India (Article 266 of the Chief Election Commissioner and
jurisdictions of the Supreme Court allows (1)}, High Court Judges {Salaries and such number of other Election
on

it to settle disputes between the centre Allowances are charged upon the Commissioners, if any, as the President
and state and amongst states ? Consolidated Fund of the States and the may from time to time fix and the
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (4th Shift) Pension is charged on the Consolidated appointment of the Chief Election
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(a) Appellate (b) Advisory Fund of India} . Commissioner and other Election
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(c) Writ (d) Original Commissioners shall, subject to the

Q.391. The Indian judicial system is provisions of any law made in that behalf
a

Sol.388.(d) Original. The Supreme Court based on: by Parliament, be made by the President.
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(Articles 124 to 147, Part V) has Original SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Afternoon)
(Article 131), Appellate (Article 133-136), (a) both integrated and dual system Q.395. Who among the following is NOT
and Advisory (Article 143) jurisdiction. (b) dual court system a member of the National Human Rights
Under Original Jurisdiction, SC can hear (c) multiple court system Commission?
the following cases: Any dispute (d) single integrated system SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
between the Indian Government and one (a) District Magistrate
or more States, Any dispute between the Sol.391.(d) single integrated system. (b) Former Chief Justice of the High
Indian Government and one or more The judiciary is the watchdog of Court
States on one side and one or more democracy, and also the guardian of the (c) Former Chief Justice of the Supreme
States on the other side, Any dispute Constitution. Structure of Indian Court
between two or more States. Judiciary {Supreme Court at the top, High (d) Former Judge of the Supreme Court
Courts are below the SC, and below them
Q.389. A Supreme Court or High Court are the district and subordinate courts}. Sol.395.(a) District Magistrate : They are
judge can be removed by the Parliament administrative officers who are
by: Government Bodies responsible for maintaining law and
SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Afternoon) order in their respective districts.
(a) simple majority National Human Rights Commission
Q.392. How many other members are
(b) both simple and two third majority (NHRC): It is a statutory body established
there in the Finance Commission
(c) special majority on October 12, 1993.
EXCEPT, Chairman ?
(d) two third majority SSC MTS 21/10/2024 (2nd Shift) Q.396. Which part of the Indian
(a) 6 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 5 Constitution deals with the Election
Sol.389.(c) Special majority. Special

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 Pinnacle Polity
Commission? (b) Ministry of Home Affairs recommend the distribution of tax
SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (1st Shift) (c) Ministry of Corporate Affairs revenues between the central
(a) Part XV (b) Part XII (d) Ministry of Rural Development government and the states. The first
(c) Part IV (d) Part XI finance commission was constituted in
Sol.399.(b) Ministry of Home Affairs.
1951. It is constituted for every five
Sol.396.(a) Part XV (Article 324-329). Registrar General and Census
years.
The Election Commission of India (ECI, Commissioner of India, founded in 1961
Established - 25th January 1950) is an by the Government of India, Ministry of Q.402. Which Article of the Indian
autonomous constitutional authority Home Affairs, for arranging, conducting Constitution mentions about the
responsible for administering Union and and analysing the results of the recommendations of the Finance
State election processes in India. demographic surveys of India including Commission?
Originally the commission had only one Census of India and Linguistic Survey of Graduate Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
election commissioner but after the India. Headquarters - Delhi. (a) Article 281 (b) Article 283
Election Commissioner Amendment Act (c) Article 282 (d) Article 284
Q.400. Who among the following are
1989, it was made a multi-member body.
eligible for free legal aid under the Sol.402.(a) Article 281 - The President
Q.397. UPSC is a Constitutional Body to National Legal Services Authority? shall cause every recommendation made
conduct examinations for appointments A. A member of a Scheduled Caste or by the Finance Commission under the
to the services of the Union and the Scheduled Tribe. provisions of this Constitution together
services of the State, respectively, under B. A victim of trafficking in human beings with an explanatory memorandum as to
Article ________ or beggar as referred to in Article 23 of the action taken thereon to be laid before
SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (3rd Shift) the Constitution each House of Parliament. Article 282 -
(a) 320 (b) 324 (c) 328 (d) 332 C. An industrial workman Expenditure defrayable by the Union or a

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D. A person under circumstances of State out of its revenues. Article 283 -
Sol.397.(a) Article 320. Article 324

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undeserved want such as being a victim Custody, etc., of Consolidated Funds,
establishes a single Commission to of a mass disasters Contingency Funds and moneys credited
oversee elections to the Central

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E. To file any case in Supreme Court, if to the public accounts.
Legislature, including both the Upper and any person needs free legal aid, the
Lower Houses. Article 328 grants state Q.403. What is the maximum age for a
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person’s annual income must be below
legislatures the authority to create 10 lakhs. member of a joint public service
provisions for elections to their commission to hold his/her office as per
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SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift)

respective legislatures, including the (a) A, B, C and D only (b) A, B and E only the Constitution of India ?
preparation of electoral rolls, delimitation (c) B, C and D only (d) A, B, C, D and E SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Evening)
of constituencies, and other (a) 62 years (b) 66 years
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arrangements for the constitution of the Sol.400.(a) A, B, C and D only. (c) 65 years (d) 60 years
legislature. Article 332 reserves seats in According to the National Legal Services
state legislative assemblies for Authority (NALSA), the following Sol.403.(a) 62 years. Joint State Public
on

Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. individuals are eligible for free legal aid: Service Commission (JSPSC) - It can be
women and children, mentally ill or created by an act of Parliament at the
Q.398. The establishment of Union
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disabled persons, and victims of mass request of the state legislatures

Public Service Commission, State Public
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disasters, violence, floods, droughts, concerned. It is a statutory body. Its

Service Commissions and Joint Public chairman is appointed by the President.
earthquakes, and industrial disasters.
a

Service Commission falls under which of A member of a Public Service

NALSA was founded in 1995 under the
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the following features of the Constitution Commission shall hold office for a term
Legal Services Authorities Act of 1987 to
of India ? of six years. In the case of the Union
provide free legal services to the weaker
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (4th shift) Commission, his or her minimum age is
sections of society. Its headquarters is
(a) Parliamentary Government 65 years to attain the office.
located in New Delhi.
(b) Federalism
(c) Fundamental Rights Q.401. The Finance Commission of India Q.404. Who was the first chairman of
(d) Directive Principles of State Policy consists of ________. Finance Commission of India?
Higher Secondary 21/06/2024 (Shift - 2) SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Morning)
Sol.398.(b) Federalism : It refers to a
(a) a Chairperson and four other (a) K Santhanam
form of government in which power is
members (b) KC Neogy
distributed among different layers of
(b) a Chairperson and three other (c) Ashok Kumar Chanda
government. Union Public Service
members (d) PV Rajamannar
Commission is a central recruitment
(c) a Chairperson and two other
agency, while State Public Service Sol.404.(b) KC Neogy.
members
Commission is responsible for state level The Finance Commission of India is an
(d) a Chairperson and five other
recruitment. These are constitutional independent constitutional body that is
members
bodies. set up by the President of India after
Sol.401.(a) A Chairperson and four other every five years or earlier to make
Q.399. The Office of the Registrar
members. The Finance Commissions are recommendations on the distribution of
General and Census Commissioner, India
periodically constituted by the President financial resources between the Union
comes under the:
of India under Article 280 of the Indian and the states.
SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (1st shift)
(a) Ministry of Finance Constitution. Its main function is to
Q.405. Under which of the following Acts
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 Pinnacle Polity
was the National Commission for (b) Election Commission C. Article 280 of the Indian Constitution
Women established? (c) President talks about the recommendations of the
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Morning) (d) Prime Minister Finance Commission.
(a) The National Commission for Women SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (4th shift)
Sol.408.(b) Election Commission -
Act, 1988 (a) A and B only (b) A, B and C
established in 1950. Part XV Election
(b) The National Commission for Women (c) A only (d) B and C only
Commission (324 - 329): Article 326 -
Act, 1990
Elections to the House of the People and Sol.411.(c) A only. Finance Commission
(c) The National Commission for Women
to the Legislative Assemblies of States (FC) is a constitutional body under
Act, 1989
to be on the basis of adult suffrage. Article 280. It is set up after every five
(d) The National Commission for Women
Act, 1987 years or earlier to make
Q.409. In India, which Ministry issues the
recommendations on the distribution of
coins of all denominations ?
Sol.405.(b) The National Commission for financial resources between the Union
SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (1st shift)
Women is a statutory body set up in and the states.
(a) Ministry of External Affairs
January 1992 under the National
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs Q.412. Which of the following is NOT a
Commission for Women Act, 1990 to
(c) Ministry of Mines Constitutional Body in India?
review the constitutional and legal
(d) Ministry Of Finance Higher Secondary 28/06/2023 (Shift - 2)
safeguards for women; recommend
remedial legislative measures; facilitate (a) Election Commission of India
Sol.409.(d) Ministry of Finance. The
redressal of grievances and advise the (b) State Human Rights Commission
Government of India has the sole right to
Government on all policy matters (c) State Public Service Commission
mint coins. The responsibility for coinage
affecting women. The First Commission (d) Union Public Service Commission of
vests with the Government of India in
India

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was constituted on 31st January 1992 accordance with the Coinage Act, 1906
with Mrs. Jayanti Patnaik as the as amended from time to time. The Sol.412.(b) State Human Rights

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Chairperson. designing and minting of coins in various Commission - It is a Statutory body,
Q.406. Which of the following is denominations is also the responsibility established under protection of human

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responsible for attending to disputes of the Government of India. Coins are right act 1993. The Chairman and the
concerning recruitment and conditions of minted at the four Indian Government members of the State Commission are
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service of public personnel at the Centre? Mints at Mumbai, Alipore (Kolkata), appointed by the Governor. Tenure -
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon) Saifabad (Hyderabad), Cherlapally Three years or till they reach the age of
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(a) Central Administrative Tribunal (Hyderabad) and Noida (UP). It is issued 70 years.
(b) The Settlement and Appellate for circulation only through the Reserve
Tribunal Bank in terms of the RBI Act. Q.413. In which year did the Election
TG

(c) The Competition Appellate Tribunal Commission of India for the first time in
Q.410. The Chairman of a State Public its history become a multi member body?
(d) Joint Administrative Tribunal
Service Commission can be removed by Matric Level 28/06/2023 (Shift - 4)
on

Sol.406.(a) Central Administrative the order of the __________ . (a) 2004 (b) 2014 (c) 1995 (d) 1989
Tribunal (CAT) - It is a Statutory body, SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (3rd shift)
established under Administrative (a) Prime Minister (b) President Sol.413.(d) 1989.
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Tribunals Act, 1985. It comes under the (c) Governor (d) Chief Minister The Election Commission of India (ECI)
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purview of Article 323-A (Added by 42nd is a constitutional body. The Election

Sol.410.(b) President. Provisions
a

amendment act 1976). Its chairman and Commissioner Amendment Act, 1989
regarding the composition of SPSC
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members are appointed by the President (adopted on 1 January 1990) turned the
provided in Part XIV of the Article 315 - commission into a 3-member
after consulting the Chief justice of India.
323. Article 317: Removal and Commission. The ECI body administers
Q.407. Who appoints the State Election suspension of a member of both the elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha,
Commissioner ? UPSC or SPSC. Article 316 (Appointment State Legislative Assemblies, State
SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (1st Shift) and terms of office of Members) : The Legislative Councils and the offices of
(a) Governor (b) Speaker Chairman and other members of the the President and the Vice President of
(c) Chief Minister (d) Advocate General SPSC are appointed by the Governor of the country.
the State. Term of Office: A member of
Sol.407.(a) Governor. The State Election Q.414. The Gram Sabha is a meeting of
the SPSC shall hold office for a term of
Commissioner (SEC) is appointed by the all adults who live in the area covered by
six years or till the age of 62 years,
Governor on the recommendation of a a ___________.
whichever is earlier.
collegium, comprising the Chief Minister, SSC MTS 20/06/2023 (Afternoon)
the Speaker of the State Legislative Q.411. Which of the following (a) district (b) city
Assembly and the Leader of Opposition statements is/are correct regarding the (c) state (d) panchayat
in the Legislative Assembly. Power of Finance Commission of India?
SEC - To conduct free, fair and impartial A. The Finance Commission consists of Sol.414.(d) Panchayat. The term Gram
elections to the local bodies in the state. a Chairman and four other members. Sabha is defined in the Constitution of
B. The recommendations made by the India under Article 243(b). Gram Sabha is
Q.408. Who conducts elections for both
Finance Commission are binding on the the primary body of the Panchayati Raj
the houses of Parliament in India?
government and government needs to system and by far the largest. It is a
SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
grant funds according to the advice of permanent body. The power to annul a
(a) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
the Commission. decision of the Gram Sabha rests with
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 Pinnacle Polity
the Gram Sabha only. Related Articles - SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (4th Shift) Polity of neighbouring
243A - Constitution of Gram Sabha. (a) 5, state government
countries
(b) 5, central government
Q.415. The Bureau of Indian Standard is (c) 2.5, state government
a statutory body working under the aegis Q.422. What is the official language of
(d) 2.5, central government
of which union ministry? Bangladesh, a neighbouring country of
SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (4th Shift) Sol.418.(a) 5, state government. India ?
(a) Ministry of Commerce and Industry According to Article 243 (I), the Governor SSC MTS 12/05/2023 (Evening)
(b) Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium of a State shall establish a State Finance (a) Bengali (b) Urdu
Enterprises Commission (constitutional body) every (c) Dzongkha (d) Hindi
(c) Ministry of Corporate Affairs 5 years (73rd Amendment Act 1992). It
Sol.422.(a) Bengali. Bangladesh: Capital
(d) Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food distributes state resources to Panchayati
- Dhaka. Currency - Bangladeshi Taka
and Public Distribution Raj institutions at all three levels in the
Other Nation’s Official Languages: Urdu
form of taxes, duties, and levies to be
Sol.415.(d) The Ministry of Consumer (Pakistan), Dzongkha (Bhutan), Hindi
collected by the state and local
Affairs, Food and Public Distribution. It (India), Tamil (Sri Lanka), Mandarin
governments.
operates various schemes like Product (China), Burmese (Myanmar), Dari and
Certification (ISI mark), Management Q.419. In which year was the National Pashto (Afghanistan), Nepali (Nepal) and
Systems Certification, Hallmarking of Commission for Protection of Child Dhivehi (Maldives).
Gold and Silver Jewellery/Artefacts and Rights established?
Q.423. Sri Lanka got independence in the
Laboratory Services. Bureau of Indian SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Morning)
year:
Standards (BIS), earlier known as the (a) 2014 (b) 2007 (c) 2005 (d) 2010
Higher Secondary 04/08/2022 ( Shift - 3 )
Indian Standards Institution (ISI), was

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Sol.419.(b) 2007. (a) 1948 (b) 1950 (c) 1947 (d) 1949
founded in 1947.
The National Commission for Protection

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Sol.423.(a) 1948. Sri Lanka got
Q.416. Which of the following is NOT one of Child Rights (NCPCR) is an Indian
independence on February 4, 1948.
of the objectives of the NITI Aayog ? statutory body established by an Act of

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National animal of Sri Lanka - Elephant,
SSC CHSL 13/03/2023 (3rd Shift) Parliament, the Commission for
National flower - Blue Water Lily, The
(a) To develop mechanisms to formulate Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act,
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national sport - Volleyball. Myanmar (4
credible plans at the village level 2005. The Commission works under the
January, 1948). Bangladesh (26 March
(b) To design and print new currency aegis of Ministry of Women and Child
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1971).
notes and to bring them in circulation Development, GoI.
(c) To pay special attention to the Q.424. To which neighbouring country
sections of our society that may be at Q.420. What is the tenure of the
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was the Indian Peace Keeping Force

risk of not benefiting adequately from Chairperson of National Human Rights
(IPKF) sent in the year 1987?
economic progress. Commission?
SSC CGL 17/08/2021 (Evening)
(d) To evolve a shared vision of national Graduate Level 03/08/2022 (Shift - 3)
on

(a) Nepal (b) Sri Lanka

development priorities (a) Three Years (b) Five Years
(c) Bhutan (d) Burma
(c) Six Years (d) Four Years
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Sol.416.(b) NITI Aayog: National Sol.424.(b) Sri Lanka. It was formed

Sol.420.(a) Three years (or until they
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Institution for Transforming India, under the mandate of the 1987 Indo-Sri
Established: 1 January 2015, Chairman: attain the age of 70 years). National
Lankan Accord that aimed to end the Sri
a

Prime Minister of India, First Chairman: Human Rights Commission: Statutory

Lankan Civil War between Sri Lankan
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Narendra Modi, First CEO (Chief body, Founded: 12 October, 1993,

Tamil militant groups such as the
Executive Officer): Sindhushree Khullar, Composition: chairperson, five full-time
Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE)
First Vice - Chairperson: Arvind Members and seven deemed Members,
and the Sri Lankan military.
Panagariya. Appointed by the President.
Q.425. In which year was a new
Q.417. The elections to the Panchayati Q.421. In which year was the National
Constitution adopted in Sri Lanka
Raj institutions are conducted by the Commission for Women established in
creating the 'Democratic The Socialist
________. India ?
Republic of Sri Lanka'?
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (3rd Shift) Higher Secondary 02/08/2022 (Shift - 2)
SSC CHSL 15/04/2021 (Evening)
(a) Central election commission (a) 1992 (b) 1994 (c) 1993 (d) 1991
(a) 1978 (b) 1965 (c) 1982 (d) 1980
(b) State government Sol.421.(a) 1992. Other Commissions -
(c) State election commission Sol.425.(a) 1978. The Constitution of the
The National Commission for Scheduled
(d) Central government Democratic Socialist Republic of Sri
Castes (2004). National Commission for
Lanka has been the constitution of the
Sol.417.(c) State election commission Scheduled Tribes (2004), National
island nation of Sri Lanka since its
functions - Conducting elections to the Commission for Minorities (1993),
original promulgation by the National
Panchayati Raj institutions, Preparation National Commission for Backward
State Assembly on 7 September 1978.
of Electoral Rolls, Appointment of Dates Classes (1993).
for Nominations, Fixing Time for Poll, Q.426. In which year did Nepal adopt its
Counting of Votes, etc. first democratic constitution?
SSC CHSL 11/8/2021 (Evening)
Q.418. The State Finance Commission is (a) 2010 (b) 2015 (c) 2013 (d) 2017
appointed every_____ years by the_______
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 Pinnacle Polity
Sol.426. (b) 2015. (c) Socialist Party (d) Liberal Party Supreme Court of India
Nepal's first democratic constitution (d) Status of party is accorded by the
came into effect on Sept 20, 2015. The Sol.430.(b) Labour Party. In the 1945 Parliament.
constitution of Nepal is divided into 35 general elections in Britain, the Labour
parts, 308 Articles, and 9 Schedules. Party, under the leadership of Clement Sol.434.(b) Multi-party system: More
Attlee, achieved a decisive victory, than two parties have a reasonable
defeating Winston Churchill's chance of coming to power either on
Miscellaneous
Conservative Party. Democratic Party is their own strength or in alliance with
one of the two major political parties, others. As of September 2024, there are
Q.427. On which date did Punjab abolish
alongside the Republican Party, in the six National parties in India : BJP, INC,
the Legislative Council?
United States. Communist Party of India - Marxist
SSC MTS 30/09/2024 (1st Shift)
(CPI-M), Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP),
(a) 1 January 1971 (b) 1 January 1977 Q.431. The concept of Public Interest National People's Party (NPP) and Aam
(c) 1 January 1975 (d) 1 January 1970 Litigation originated in _______________. Aadmi Party (AAP).
SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Sol.427.(d) 1 January 1970. The Punjab
(a) Switzerland (b) Iceland Q.435. In which of the following years
Legislative Council (Abolition) Act, 1969
(c) USA (d) New Zealand was the Right of Persons with Disabilities
abolished the Legislative Council of
Act passed?
Punjab, leading to the cessation of its Sol.431.(c) USA. Public Interest SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (1st Shift)
members' positions. It amended Article Litigation (PIL) means litigation filed in a (a) 2010 (b) 2002 (c) 2016 (d) 2019
168 of the Constitution, removing court of law, for the protection of “Public
reference to Punjab, and made changes Interest”, such as Pollution, Terrorism, Sol.435.(c) 2016. The Rights of Persons
to the Representation of the People Act, Road safety, Constructional hazards etc. with Disabilities (RPwD) Act came into

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1950. The concept of PIL was initially sown in force from 19th April, 2017. It replaced
India by Justice Krishna Iyer, in 1976 in the Persons with Disabilities (Equal

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Q.428. The ‘Rule of Law’ is a key feature
Mumbai Kamagar Sabha vs. Abdul Thai. Opportunities, Protection of Rights and
of the Indian Constitution which is a
Full Participation) Act, 1995. Objective -

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doctrine ascribed to _____________. Q.432. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar described To ensure that all persons with
SSC MTS 14/10/2024 (3rd Shift) Directive Principles of State Policy as disabilities can lead their lives with
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(a) Plato (b) Adam Smith __________of the Indian constitution. dignity, without discrimination and with
(c) Albert Venn Dicey (d) Karl Marx SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (3rd Shift) equal opportunities.
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(a) soul of the state

Sol.428.(c) Albert Venn Dicey was a Q.436. When did a States Reorganisation
(b) identity card of the constitution
British Whig jurist and constitutional Commission was set up, which
(c) The most precious part of the
TG

theorist. Adam Smith is most famous for recommended the creation of linguistic
constitution
his 1776 book, "The Wealth of Nations." States on the basis of larger linguistic
(d) a novel feature of the constitution
Karl Marx is best known for his theories groups?
on

that led to the development of Marxism. Sol.432.(d) a novel feature of the Indian SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (1st Shift)
His books, "Das Kapital" and "The constitution. (a) December 1963 (b) December 1953
Communist Manifesto," formed the basis (c) December 1956 (d) December 1958
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of Marxism. Plato was an ancient Greek Q.433. The British Parliament introduced
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philosopher. the Indian High Courts Act in which year? Sol.436.(b) December 1953. India faced
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (1st Shift) demands to reorganise states based on
a

Q.429. The National Population Register (a) 1860 (b) 1861 (c) 1859 (d) 1858 regional languages after independence.
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was created under the provisions of In November 1956, India underwent

___________ and ___________ . Sol.433.(b) 1861. The India High Courts
division into 14 states and six union
a. the Citizenship Act, 1965 Act 1861 was enacted to create High
territories through the implementation of
b. the Citizenship Rules, 2004 Courts for various provinces and
the State Reorganisation Act. The Andhra
c. the Citizenship Act, 1955 abolished Supreme Courts at Calcutta,
State held the distinction of being the
d. the Citizenship Rules, 2003 Madras and Bombay and also the Sadar
first state of Independent India, and it
SSC MTS 05/11/2024 (3rd Shift) Adalats in Presidency towns. The first
was later transformed into Andhra
(a) a; c (b) a; b (c) b; d (d) c; d High Court was established in Calcutta
Pradesh on the 1st of November 1956.
on July 1, 1862. The Supreme Court of
The State Reorganisation Commission
Sol.429.(d) c; d. The Citizenship Act, India was established by the Regulating
was chaired by Fazal Ali, and two other
1955 provides for the acquisition and Act of 1773.
members, namely K. M. Panikkar and H.
loss of citizenship after the
Q.434. Which of the following N. Kunzru.
commencement of the Constitution.
Originally, the Act 1955 also provided for statements is correct with respect to the Q.437. Which of the following states is
Commonwealth Citizenship. But, this political parties in India? one of those states that have no
provision was repealed by the Citizenship SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Panchayati Raj Institution at all?
(Amendment) Act, 2003. (a) A political party symbol is assigned SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
by the President of India. (a) Assam (b) Gujarat
Q.430. Which party formed the (b) India has a multi-party system (c) Nagaland (d) Punjab
government in Britain in the year 1945? classified as national, state or
SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (1st Shift) regional level Sol.437.(c) Nagaland. Panchayats (Part
(a) Democratic Party (b) Labour Party (c) All parties are registered with the IX, Articles 243 to 243-O): It is the system
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 Pinnacle Polity
of local self-government of villages in Q.441. Which directive principle has been way to acquire citizenship in India ?
rural India. Rajasthan was the first state implemented in establishing Handloom SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (2nd shift)
to implement Panchayati Raj in India (on and Handicrafts Boards? (a) Incorporation of territory
October 2nd, 1959, in Nagaur district), SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (2nd shift) (b) Renunciation
followed by Andhra Pradesh later in (a) Participation of workers in (c) Registration
1959. 24th April - National Panchayati management of Industries (d) Birth
Raj Day. Currently, the Panchayati Raj (b) Provision for just and humane
system exists in all states except condition of work Sol.444.(b) Renunciation. There are five
Nagaland, Meghalaya, and Mizoram, and (c) Protection and improvement of recognized ways to acquire citizenship in
in all Union Territories except Delhi. environment India under the Citizenship Act, 1955: By
(d) Promote cottage industries on Birth - A person born in India can acquire
Q.438. The Citizenship Act, 1955 does cooperative basis citizenship by birth. By Descent - A
NOT deal with ____________. person born outside India to Indian
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (3rd shift) Sol.441.(d) The All India Handloom parents can acquire citizenship. By
(a) acquisition (b) determination Board (AIHB) and the All India Registration - Certain persons, such as
(c) election (d) termination Handicrafts Board (AIHB) were two foreign nationals married to Indian
boards in India aimed to promote and citizens, can acquire citizenship through
Sol.438.(c) election. The Citizenship Act, develop cottage industries, such as registration. By Naturalization - Foreign
1955 deals with the acquisition, handlooms and handicrafts, through nationals can acquire citizenship after
determination, and termination of Indian cooperative efforts and support. The All fulfilling certain residency requirements.
citizenship. Citizenship Acquisition: The India Handicrafts Board was set up in By Incorporation of Territory - If a foreign
Act provides for the acquisition of 1952 whereas the All India Handloom territory becomes part of India.
citizenship by birth, descent, registration,

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Board was established in 1992. However,
naturalization, and incorporation of the government decided to abolish the Q.445. Which of the following is NOT a

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territory. Citizenship Determination: The board in 2020 as part of its vision of condition for acquiring the citizenship of
Act defines how to determine Indian "Minimum Government and Maximum India?

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citizenship. Citizenship Termination: The Governance". SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (2nd shift)
Act provides for the termination and (a) Registration (b) Descent
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deprivation of citizenship. Election Q.442. Which south-eastern Dravidian (c) Domicile (d) Holding property
Commission of India: PART XV (Article language has been approved by Odisha
Sol.445.(d) Holding property.
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324-329) of the Constitution. state to be included in the Eighth

Schedule of the Constitution of India, on The Citizenship Act of 1955 is the
Q.439. Which Section of the fundamental law governing the
10th July 2023 ?
Representation of People’s Act (RPA), acquisition and termination of Indian
TG

SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (1st shift)

1951 deprives the prisoners of their right citizenship. It outlines five ways to
(a) Kui (b) Malto (c) Tulu (d) Kodagu
to vote? become an Indian citizen: birth, descent,
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (3rd shift) Sol.442.(a) Kui. It is spoken by the registration, naturalisation, and
on

(a) Section 10 (4) (b) Section 72 (5) Kandhas community. It is closely related incorporation of territory. Citizenship
(c) Section 62 (5) (d) Section 15 (3) to the Gondi and Kuvi languages. Some (Amendment) Act, 2019: It provides an
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other languages included in the eighth accelerated pathway for the citizenship
Sol.439.(c) Section 62 (5) : A person
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schedule are: Sindhi was introduced in of the members of six communities

cannot vote in an election if they are in
1967. Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali in (Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Parsis,
a

prison or in police custody. However, this

1992. Santali, Dogri, Maithili, and Bodo in and Christians) from Pakistan,
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rule does not apply to those in preventive

2003. Bangladesh, and Afghanistan if they have
detention. Even if someone cannot vote
arrived before December 31, 2014.
due to imprisonment, they still remain an Q.443. Which of the following
elector if their name is on the electoral organisation’s initiative is ‘India Justice Q.446. Which of the following is a
roll. Report’? feature of Directive Principles of State
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (2nd shift) Policy, and also distinguishes it from
Q.440. The proclamation of which Act by (a) HCL Foundation Fundamental Rights ?
the King of England in 1773 paved the (b) Infosys Foundation SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (2nd shift)
way for the establishment of the (c) Tata Trusts (a) It is justiciable.
Supreme Court at Calcutta? (d) Azim Premji Foundation (b) It protects the interest of the
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (3rd shift)
Sol.443.(c) Tata Trusts. The India individual.
(a) Pitt’s India Act (b) Indian Councils Act
Justice Report (IJR) is an initiative by (c) It is non - justiciable.
(c) Regulating Act (d) Charter Act
Tata Trusts, in collaboration with the (d) It is prohibitive in nature.
Sol.440.(c) Regulating Act. The Centre for Social Justice, Common
Regulating Act of 1773 led to the Sol.446.(c) It is non - justiciable.
Cause, and the Commonwealth Human Difference Between Fundamental Rights
establishment of the Supreme Court at Rights Initiative, among others. It was
Calcutta, which included a chief justice and DPSP: DPSP are positive as they
first published in 2019. Karnataka was require the State to do certain things
(Elijah Impey) and three other judges. An the top-ranked state in the 2022 India
amendment in 1781 exempted the while FR are negative as they impose
Justice Report (IJR). limitations on the working of the state.
Governor-General, the Council, and
government officials from its jurisdiction Fundamental Rights do not require any
Q.444. Which of the following is NOT a legislation for their implementation. They
while performing their duties.
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 Pinnacle Polity
are automatically enforced while DPSP SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift) public tranquility. The act allowed the
requires legislation for their (a) 70 (b) 50 (c) 75 (d) 60 District Magistrate or Commissioner of
implementation. They are not Police to prohibit public meetings in
automatically enforced. Sol.450.(d) 60. The Central Legislature certain areas if they believed the meeting
was made more powerful and more would promote sedition or disaffection.
Q.447. Any citizen of India can make a representative by the Government of
declaration renouncing his/her Indian India Act, 1919. The Act made the Q.454. The entire salaries, allowances
citizenship under the ________. Governor-General the chief executive and pensions of the chairman and
SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (2nd shift) authority. 26 nominated; 34 elected (20 members of the Union Public Service
(a) Citizenship Act, 1985 General, 10 Muslims, 3 Europeans and 1 Commission are charged on the ______.
(b) Citizenship Act, 1965 Sikh). Matriculation Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
(c) Citizenship Act, 1955 (a) Consolidated fund of India
(d) Citizenship Act, 1975 Q.451. Which of the following was widely (b) Special Fund of the UPSC
considered as the ‘heaven born service’ (c) Contingency fund of India
Sol.447.(c) Citizenship Act, 1955. It is an for Indians during British rule? (d) Reserve Bank of India
Act to provide for the acquisition and SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift)
determination of Indian citizenship. Part (a) Military service on the Burma front Sol.454.(a) Consolidated fund of India :
II of the Indian Constitution deals with (b) The Indian Civil Service or ICS The salaries, allowances, and pensions
citizenship from Articles 5 to 11. (c) The Indian Judicial Service of the chairman and members are
Citizenship can be acquired by: Birth, (d) The British Indian Army charged to the Consolidated Fund of
Descent, Registration, Naturalization, and India to ensure their financial
incorporation of territory. Sol.451.(b) The Indian Civil Service or independence and security, preventing
ICS. It was brought into existence by executive influence, as their expenses

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Q.448. Which of the following Sections Lord Cornwallis (1786-93) to check the don't require Parliament's approval.
of the Indian Penal Code deals with corruption in the East India company

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'rape'? (EEIC). The Charter Act of 1853 provided Q.455. Who among the following was the
SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (3rd shift) for Open competition for ICS first chairperson of National Commission

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(a) Section 370 (b) Section 375 examination. Satyendranath Tagore was for Women and a senior congress leader
(c) Section 380 (d) Section 385 the first Indian to join ICS in 1863. who passed away in 2022?
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Aitchson commission (1886) and Lee Matriculation Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
Sol.448.(b) Section 375. Section 370 of
commission (1926) is related to reform (a) Ambika Soni (b) Sushmita Dev
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the Indian Penal Code (IPC) deals with

in ICS. (c) Jayanti Patnaik (d) Sheila Dikshit
the crime of human trafficking. Section
380 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) deals Q.452. During a National Emergency, the Sol.455.(c) Jayanti Patnaik.
TG

with theft in a dwelling house, tent, or term of Lok Sabha can be extended for: The National Commission for Women
vessel that is used as a human dwelling Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 1) (NCW) is a statutory body of the
or for the custody of property. Section (a) three months at a time Government of India, primarily focused
on

385 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) deals (b) six months at a time on advising the government on all policy
with putting someone in fear of injury to (c) one year at a time matters affecting women. Established on
commit extortion. According to BNS
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(d) two years at a time 31 January 1992 under the Indian

(Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita) Section for
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Constitution, it was defined by the 1990

Rape is Section 63 and for Punishment Sol.452.(c) One year at a time. During a National Commission for Women Act.
a

for rape is Section 64. National Emergency in India, the term of The first head of the commission was
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the Lok Sabha can be extended by the Jayanti Patnaik, and as of 24 February
Q.449. Who is the Chief Executive Head Parliament. According to Article 83 of the 2024, Rekha Sharma serves as the
of the State ? Indian Constitution, the normal term of chairperson.
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift) the Lok Sabha is five years. However,
(a) President (b) Governor (c) CM (d) PM under Article 352, if a National Q.456. Which of the following is the
Emergency is declared, the term of the proposed successor to the Information
Sol.449.(b) Governor. He is appointed by
Lok Sabha can be extended beyond five Technology Act, 2000?
the President for a five-year term and
years. The extension can only be done Higher Secondary 24/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
holds office at the President's pleasure.
for one year at a time and cannot extend (a) Digital India Bill (b) Cyber India Bill
The Governor has several key powers,
beyond six months after the emergency (c) Optical India Bill (d) Multimedia Bill
including appointing the Chief Minister
has ceased to operate.
and other Ministers (Article 164), Sol.456.(a) Digital India Bill. The Digital
assenting or withholding assent to bills Q.453. The Prevention of Seditious India Act (DIA) aims to regulate the
(Article 200), promulgating ordinances Meetings Act was passed in ________ by digital ecosystem, including
(Article 213), and granting pardons the colonial Government. cybersecurity, digital governance, and
(Article 161). Matriculation Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 4) internet intermediaries. The Information
(a) 1898 (b) 1903 (c) 1912 (d) 1907 Technology Act, 2000 (ITA-2000), notified
Q.450. How many members (elected and on 17 October 2000, is India's primary
nominated) were there in the Council of Sol.453.(d) 1907. The Prevention of law addressing cybercrime and
State under the Government of India Act Seditious Meetings Act was brought e-commerce. Secondary legislation
1919 passed by the Parliament of the under the tenure of Lord Minto. The act includes the Intermediary Guidelines
United Kingdom to expand participation was intended to prevent public meetings Rules, 2011, and the IT (Intermediary
of Indians in the government of India? that could promote sedition or disturb
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 Pinnacle Polity
Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics founded an expatriate Communist Party 2. This Act was divided into two separate
Code) Rules, 2021. of India at Tashkent in 1920? acts for the India and Burma
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Afternoon) Government.
Q.457. Which of the following does NOT (a) Jolly Kaul (b) M.N. Roy 3. This act commenced from 1 April
come under Directive Principles of State (c) P.C. Joshi (d) Shripad Amrut Dange 1935.
Policy? Select the correct statement(s) using the
Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 3) Sol.460.(b) M.N. Roy (Father of Indian code given below.
(a) Promotion of the Welfare of the Communism). He was the first person to SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
People give the idea of a Constituent Assembly (a) Both 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Promotion of Indian Local Languages for India and the creator of the Mexican (c) Both 2 and 3 (d) Both 1 and 3
(c) Uniform Civil Code Communist Party. Communist Party of
(d) Promotion of Cottage Industries India (CPI) - It is the oldest communist Sol.463.(a) Both 1 and 2.
party in India. Founded - in modern-day The Government of India Act 1935
Sol.457.(b) Promotion of Indian Local Kanpur on 26 December 1925. First (Commenced in 1937): It provided for the
Languages is primarily governed by the General Secretary - S.V. Ghate . establishment of an All India Federation
provisions of Part XVII of the Indian Headquarters - Ajoy Bhavan (New Delhi). consisting of provinces and princely
Constitution, which deals with official states as units. It divided the powers
languages (Articles 343 to 351). Directive Q.461. Which of the following Acts between the Centre and units in terms of
Principles of State Policy (DPSP) is prevents disrespect to the National Flag three lists, Federal List, Provincial List
covered under Articles 36-51 of Part IV of and National Anthem? and Concurrent List.
the Indian Constitution. Article 38: SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening)
Promotion of the Welfare of the People. (a) Prevention of insults to National Q.464. Who propounded the concept of
Article 44: Uniform Civil Code. Article 43: Honour Act, 1971 'Rule of Law'?

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Promotion of Cottage Industries. (b) Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, SSC MTS 11/09/2023 (2nd Shift)

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2006 (a) AV Dicey (b) CK Daphtary
Q.458. The ‘Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya (c) Protection of National Honour Act, (c) Austin (d) AK Sen
Yojana’ (‘PM-JAY’) scheme of the

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1996
government is associated with which of (d) Civil Liberties Act, 2001 Sol.464.(a) AV Dicey. Rule of Law - It
the following Directive Principles of State means all laws apply equally to all
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Policy ? Sol.461.(a) Prevention of Insults to citizens of the country and no one can be
SSC CHSL Tier II 02/11/2023 National Honour Act, 1971: Insults to above the law. Three principles of Rule of
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(a) Participation of workers in the Indian National Flag and Constitution of Law given by A.V. Dicey : Supremacy of
management of industries India - Whoever in any public place or in law, Equality before law, Individual rights.
(b) Promotion of co-operative societies any other place within public view burns, Chander Kishan Daphtary - First solicitor
TG

(c) Equal justice and free legal aid mutilates, defaces, disfigures, destroys, general of India (1950-63).
(d) Duty of State to raise the level of tramples upon or into contempt the
nutrition and the improvement of Indian National Flag or the Constitution Q.465. In which of the following years
on

public health of India or any part thereof, shall be was the Child Marriage Restraint Act
punished with imprisonment for a term passed?
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Sol.458.(d) Article 47 - Duty of the State which may extend to three years, or with SSC MTS 11/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
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to raise the level of nutrition and the fine, or with both. (a) 1856 (b) 1947 (c) 1878 (d) 1929
improvement of public health. Part IV -
a

Directive Principles of State Policy Q.462. In the Interim Government formed Sol.465.(d) 1929. Child Marriage (The
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(Article 36 to 51): Article 38 - State to on 2 September 1946, Liaquat Ali Khan marriage of a girl or a boy before the age
secure a social order for the promotion was given the charge of: of 18 years). Prohibtion of Child Marriage
of welfare of the people. SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon) Act (PCMA), 2006 :- It replaced the Child
(a) the External Affairs Ministry Marriage Restraints Act, 1929. The
Q.459. Certain provisions of the Benami (b) the Finance Ministry marriageable age to be 18 and 21 for
Transactions (Prohibition) Act were (c) the Defence Ministry girls and boys respectively Other laws to
struck off by the Supreme Court. In (d) the Home Ministry protect the child :- Juvenile Justice (Care
which year was this law originally and Protection of Children) Act, 2015,
enacted? Sol.462.(b) The Finance Ministry. Interim Domestic Violence Act, 2005 and the
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Evening) Government (1946): Headed by Jawahar Protection of Children from Sexual
(a) 1998 (b) 1980 (c) 1999 (d) 1988 Lal Nehru. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel held Offences Act, 2012.
the Home Affairs, Information, and
Sol.459.(d) 1988. Benami Transactions Broadcasting. Rajendra Prasad held the Q.466. Who described the Indian federal
(Prohibition) Act (Name changed to portfolio of Agriculture and Food. C system as a bargaining federalism?
Prohibition of Benami Property Rajagopalachari was the Education and SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (4th shift)
Transactions Act, 1988 by Section 3 of Arts Minister. Jagjivan Ram held the (a) KC Wheare (b) Ivor Jennings
the 2016 amendment) - It is an Act to Labour Ministry. Jogendra Nath Mandal (c) Granville Austin (d) Morris Jones
prohibit benami transactions and the was the Law Minister.
right to recover property held benami and Sol.466.(d) Morris Jones. Federalism - A
for matters connected therewith or Q.463. Consider the following statement system of government in which powers
incidental. about the Government of India Act, 1935. are divided between two or more levels
1. This act was enacted by the British of government, such as the centre and
Q.460. Who among the following Parliament. the state or provinces. Described - “Quasi
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 Pinnacle Polity
federalism” (KC Wheare). “Cooperative to equality under Article 14 does not the elected legislative assembly
federalism” (Granville Austin). override the fundamental right to religion {Assembly Seats (70), Lok Sabha seats
'Federalism with Centralising tendency' under Article 25. The notions of rationality (7)}. The Assembly has all the powers
(Ivor Jenning). Federalism concept cannot be invoked in matters of religion. under the State and Concurrent Lists
borrowed from ‘Canada’. The Supreme Court struck down with the exception of public order, police,
provisions of the Kerala Hindu Places of and land.
Q.467. ‘The Constitution of free India Public Worship (Authorisation of Entry)
must be framed, without outside Rules, 1965, and allowed women, Q.473. Offences for which the police can
interference by a constituent assembly irrespective of their age, to enter arrest a person without an order from the
elected on the basis of adult franchise’. Sabarimala temple and worship the deity. court are called _________.
Who made this statement? SSC MTS 02/05/2023 (Morning)
SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (2nd shift) Q.470. The Taxation Laws (Amendment) (a) Cognizable offences
(a) MN Roy (b) Jawaharlal Nehru Act, 2021, amends the Income Tax Act of (b) Detention offences
(c) Sardar Patel (d) Mahatma Gandhi ________. (c) Non Cognizable offences
Higher Secondary 27/06/2023 (Shift - 3) (d) Cross offences
Sol.467.(b) Jawaharlal Nehru - Made (a) 1961 (b) 1974 (c) 1995 (d) 1988
this statement on behalf of the Indian Sol.473.(a) Cognizable offenses - It
National Congress (INC) in 1938. The Sol.470.(a) 1961. Taxation Law includes murder, rape, theft, kidnapping,
idea of ​Constituent Assembly for India Amendment Act, 2021 - It aims to counterfeiting, etc. Detention - The act of
was first given by M.N.Roy in 1934. withdraw tax demands made using a temporarily holding individuals in
Constituent Assembly : Formed in 1946. 2012 retrospective legislation to tax the custody or confinement, typically by a
Role - Elected to write the Constitution of indirect transfer of Indian assets. Income government or governing authority by
India. Committees with their chairman : Tax Act (1961) - It provides an elaborate removing their freedom or liberty at that

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Union Constitution Committee - mechanism for the levying of taxes, their time. Non-Cognizable offences - An

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Jawaharlal Nehru. Drafting committee - administration, collection & recovery. It offence for which a Police officer has no
Dr. B R Ambedkar. Provincial Constitution has 298 sections & 14 schedules. authority to arrest without warrant. These

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Committee - Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. include offences like cheating, assault,
Q.471. The Constitution (One Hundred defamation etc.
Q.468. As per the responsibilities defined and Twenty Seventh Amendment) Bill,
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in National Food Security Act, 2013, 2021, was introduced in the Lok Sabha Q.474. Which act has been amended by
which of the following is a responsibility by the ______ in August 2021. the Supreme Court of India to provide
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of the state/UT government? Higher Secondary 28/06/2023 (Shift - 2) equal rights to daughters in their
SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (4th shift) (a) Minister of Social Justice and ancestral property ?
(a) Transportation of foodgrains up to Empowerment SSC MTS 17/05/2023 (Morning)
TG

designated depots in each state/UT (b) Minister of Minority Affairs (a) The Contempt of Courts Act
(b) Allocation of required foodgrains to (c) Minister of Tribal Affairs (b) Hindu Succession Act
states/UTS (d) Minister of Rural Development (c) Hindu Marriage Act
on

(c) Delivery of foodgrains from (d) Sharda Act

designated FCI godowns Sol.471.(a) Minister of Social Justice
and Empowerment - By Dr. Virendra Sol.474.(b) Hindu Succession Act
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(d) Identification of eligible households

Kumar. 102 Amendment Act, 2018: (1956) - It governs the inheritance of
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Sol.468.(d) Identification of eligible Constitutional status was provided to the property by Hindus, Buddhists, Jains, and
a

households. The National Food Security National Commission for Backward Sikhs. Contempt of Courts Act (1971) - It
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Act (2013) - 75% of Rural and 50% of Classes under Article 338B. Articles 338 defines the power to punish for contempt
Urban population is entitled to receive and 338A - The National Commission for of court and regulates their procedure.
highly subsidised foodgrains under two Scheduled Castes (SC) and National Hindu Marriage Act (1955) - It defines
categories of beneficiaries – Antodaya Commission for Scheduled Tribes (ST), the minimum age of 18 years for the
Anna Yojana (AAY) households and respectively. 103rd Amendment Act, bride and 21 years for the groom.
Priority Households (PHH). Public 2019:- Reservations for the Economic
Distribution System (PDS) is governed by Q.475. The Union Finance Ministry
Weaker Section and amendment in
provisions of the National Food Security issued a notification amending the
Articles 15(6) and 16(6), provide 10%
Act, 2013 (NFSA). Electoral Bonds Scheme to allow the sale
reservation in public employment.
of electoral bonds for extra _______ days
Q.469. Justice Indu Malhotra penned a Q.472. When were the general elections in the year of general elections to the
dissenting opinion in which of the to the Legislative Assembly of the Legislative Assembly of States and UTs
following landmark judgements? National Capital Territory held for the first with legislature.
SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (3rd shift) time? SSC MTS 16/06/2023 (Afternoon)
(a) Basic structure doctrine Matric Level 27/06/2023 (Shift - 2) (a) 45 (b) 35 (c) 15 (d) 25
(b) Preamble part of the Constitution (a) 1990 (b) 1993 (c) 1992 (d) 1991
(c) Entry of women to Sabarimala Sol.475.(c) 15. Electoral Bonds Scheme:
(d) Land reforms in India Sol.472.(b) 1993. The 69th amendment Launched - 2018 . Bonds are issued only
act, 1991 inserted Article 239AA, which to those political parties that are
Sol.469.(c) Entry of women to registered under section 29A of the
declared the Union Territory of Delhi to
Sabarimala. Justice Indu Malhotra opined Representation of the People Act, 1951.
be administered by a Lieutenant
that religious practices cannot be solely Electoral bonds were a mode of funding
Governor who works on aid and advice of
tested on the basis of Article 14. The right for political parties in India from their
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 Pinnacle Polity
introduction in 2018 until they were individuals. Objective - To consolidate Q.484. The detention of a person cannot
struck down as unconstitutional by the and amend all existing insolvency laws, exceed ________ unless an advisory board
Supreme Court on 15 February 2024. to simplify and expedite the Insolvency consisting of judges of a High Court
and Bankruptcy Proceedings, to promote reports sufficient cause for extended
Q.476. In which year was the Dowry entrepreneurship. detention.
Prohibition Act passed in India? SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Evening)
SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (2nd Shift) Q.480. What are the two most essential (a) one month (b) three months
(a) 1973 (b) 1982 (c) 1961 (d) 1954 rights of a democracy? (c) six months (d) two months
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (2nd Shift)
Sol.476.(c) 1961. Dowry Prohibition Act: (a) Exploitation, preventive detention Sol.484.(b) three months. Article 22
It extends to the whole of India except (b) Equality, Freedom (Part III) grants protection to persons
the State of Jammu and Kashmir. (c) Freedom, preventive detention who are arrested or detained (available
Important Acts in India - Hindu Widow (d) Equality, Exploitation to both citizens and foreigners).
Remarriage Act 1856, Child Marriage Preventive detention means the
Restraint Act 1929, Muslim Women Sol.480.(b) Equality, Freedom. Democracy detention of a person without trial and
Protection of Rights on Marriage Act is a form of government in which rulers are conviction by a court.
2019 (Triple Talaq Act), Rights of elected by the people in a free and fair
Persons with Disabilities Act 2016, elections, on universal adult franchise and Q.485. When was the National
National Security Act 1980. governed on the basis of certain Emergency declared for the first time
fundamental rules like a constitution. under Article 352 ?
Q.477. In which year was the Arms Act Types of Democracy: Direct democracy SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Afternoon)
passed in India? and Representative democracy. (a) 1963 - 69 (b) 1961 - 65
SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (3rd Shift) (c) 1961 - 67 (d) 1962 - 68

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(a) 1951 (b) 1955 (c) 1959 (d) 1964 Q.481. In which year was the Indian
Parliamentary Group established? Sol.485.(d) 1962-68. The National

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Sol.477.(c) The Indian Arms Act of SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (4th Shift) Emergency has been declared 3 times in
1959: As per the preamble, this Act aims (a) 1950 (b) 1949 (c) 1948 (d) 1951 India : 1962 to 1968 {During the

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to consolidate and amend the law India-China war, when “the security of
relating to arms and ammunition. The Sol.481.(b) In 1949, The Indian India” was declared as being “threatened
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main objective of this Act is to regulate Parliamentary Group was an autonomous by external aggression”, President
and restrict the circulation of arms and body formed in the year 1949 in (Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan)}. 1971
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ammunition, which were illegal. It was pursuance of a motion adopted by the {During the Indo - Pakistan war, President
enacted by the Indian government after Constituent Assembly (Legislative) on (V.V.Giri), Prime Minister (Indira Gandhi)}.
independence, recognizing that certain 16th August 1948. Speaker of Lok Sabha 1975 to 1977 {The emergency was
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law-abiding citizens must own and use is its ex-officio President. declared on the basis of “internal
firearms for sports, crop protection, and disturbance”, President (Fakhruddin Ali
self-defence. Q.482. If the State government dissolves
Ahmed), Prime Minister (Indira Gandhi)}.
on

the Panchayati Raj Institutions before the

Q.478. In which year was the Special end of their five-year term, fresh elections Q.486. How many religious communities
Marriage Act passed in India? should ordinarily be held within _____.
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are notified as minorities by the

SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (4th Shift) SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
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Government of India?
(a) 1958 (b) 1954 (c) 1962 (d) 1950 (a) one month (b) six months Graduate Level 01/08/2022 (Shift - 4)
a

(c) one year (d) three months (a) Three (b) Five (c) Six (d) Four
Sol.478.(b) 1954. Special Marriage Act
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(SMA) is an Indian law that provides a Sol.482.(b) Six months. Under Article Sol.486.(c) Six {Muslims, Christians,
legal framework for the marriage of 243 E - An election to constitute a Sikhs, Buddhists, Parsis, and Jains
people belonging to different religions or Panchayat shall be completed - Before (added in 2014), National Commission
castes. The applicability of the Act the expiry of its duration specified in on Minorities Act 1992}. According to the
extends to the people of all faiths, clause (1) or before the expiration of a 2011 Census {Hindu (79.8%), Muslim
including Hindus, Muslims, Sikhs, period of six months from the date of its (14.2%), Christian (2.3%), Sikh (1.7%),
Christians, Jains, and Buddhists, across dissolution. Buddhist (0.7%), Jain (0.4%).
India. The minimum age to get married
under the SMA is 21 years for males and Q.483. Which freedom is considered as Q.487. In which year was the National
18 years for females. the ‘Hallmark of Democracy’? Youth Policy launched by the
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (2nd Shift) Government of India ?
Q.479. In India, according to the Insolvency (a) Right against exploitation Higher Secondary 05/08/2022 (Shift - 2)
and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, the process of (b) Right to freedom of religion (a) 2015 (b) 2014 (c) 2016 (d) 2017
insolvency resolution for companies (c) Freedom of assembly
should be completed in how many days? (d) Freedom of speech and expression Sol.487.(b) 2014. It seeks to define the
SSC CGL Tier II (06/03/2023) Vision of the Government of India for the
(a) 180 (b) 150 (c) 170 (d) 120 Sol.483.(b) The Right to freedom of Youth of the Country. The first youth
Religion (Article 25-28) is considered the policy was released in 1988. National
Sol.479 (a) 180. The Insolvency and Hallmark of Democracy. Fundamental Youth Day is held every year on 12th
Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC) - A rights are mentioned in Part III (Article January to observe the birth anniversary
time-bound process for resolving 12-35) of the Constitution. of Swami Vivekananda.
insolvency in companies and among

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 Pinnacle Polity
Q.488. Which freedom fighter abolished Sol.492.(b) 1956. The States Q.497. On the night of ______ 1975, Indira
the Zamindari System in Uttar Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 1956 was a major Gandhi recommended the imposition of
and was elected as the Home Minister in reform of the boundaries of India's states Emergency to president Fakhruddin Ali
1955? and territories, organising them along Ahmed.
SSC MTS 26/07/2022 (Morning) linguistic lines. The Government divided SSC CPO 23/11/2020 (Evening)
(a) Lala Hardayal the country into 14 states and 6 union (a) 1st June (b) 22nd May
(b) Govind Ballabh Pant territories under the State Reorganisation (c) 25th June (d) 1st July
(c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale Act.
(d) Jyotiba Phule Sol.497.(c) 25th June. The third
Q.493. Which of the following Acts was emergency of India started at the mid
Sol.488.(b) Govind Ballabh Pant passed by the Government of India to night of 25th June 1975 and was
successfully abolished the exploitative inquire into allegations of corruption extended till 23 March 1977. The main
Zamindari system and revolutionised against certain public functionaries? reason for this emergency was “internal
laws pertaining to women’s inheritance SSC MTS 11/10/2021 (Afternoon) disturbances”. First emergency of India
and marriage. He was appointed Minister (a) Delimitation Act was started on 26 October 1962
of Home Affairs in the Union Cabinet on (b) Prevention of Money Laundering Act (India-China war). The second
10 January 1955 in New Delhi by Nehru. (c) Central Vigilance Commission Act emergency was during the India-Pakistan
He started a weekly paper called ‘Shakti’. (d) The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act war from 3-17 December 1971.
In 1957, he was awarded the Bharat
Ratna. Sol.493.(d) The Lokpal and Lokayukta Q.498. Which of the following is the
Act was passed by the Government of expanded form of the abbreviation 'Rep.'
Q.489. As per the coding convention of India to inquire into allegations of used in the text of the Constitution of
India Census, how many digit code is corruption against certain public India?

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used for showing state code? functionaries. SSC CGL 20/08/2021 (Evening)

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SSC CHSL 03/06/2022 (Afternoon) (a) Repealed (b) Republic
Q.494. The Indian Forest Act 1927 was (c) Report (d) Representative
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 4
enacted after repealing which of the
Sol.489.(c) 2. The coding convention
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following Indian forest acts?
SSC CGL 23/08/2021 (Morning)
Sol.498.(a) Repealed. The meaning of
Repeal is to rescind or annul by
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used: State code (2 digits); District code
(3 digits); Sub-district code (5 digits); (a) Indian Forest Act, 1882 authoritative act; especially : to revoke or
Village code (6 digits). (b) Indian Forest Act, 1922 abrogate by legislative enactment.
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(c) Indian Forest Act, 1865

Q.490. On which day was the National (d) Indian Forest Act, 1878 Q.499. ______ is a set of norms and
Emblem of India adopted ? guidelines to be followed by the political
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SSC CGL 11/04/2022 (Morning) Sol.494.(d) Indian Forest Act, 1878. The parties and contesting candidates during
(a) 15th August 1952 Indian Forest Act of 1878 divided Indian election time.
(b) 26th January 1950 forests into reserved forests (completely SSC CHSL 19/04/2021 (Afternoon)
on

(c) 15th August 1947 government-controlled), protected (a) Constitutional Norms

(d) 26th January 1959 forests (partially government-controlled) (b) Constitutional Rules
h

and village forests (controlled by (c) Code of Conduct

Sol.490.(b) 26th January 1950. The
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abutting villages). (d) Rigging

state emblem is an adaptation from the
a

Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka. Motto- Q.495. One-third of the members of the Sol.499.(c) Code of Conduct is a set of
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Satyameva Jayate ("Truth Alone Vidhan Parishad retire every ______ years. rules outlining the norms, rules, and
Triumphs") is taken from the "Mundaka SSC CHSL 06/08/2021 (Morning) responsibilities or proper practices of an
Upanishad", a part of Upanishads. (a) four (b) one (c) three (d) two individual party or an organisation.

Q.491. The Right of Children to Free and Sol.495.(d) two years. Vidhan Parishad Q.500. In 1977, who became then
Compulsory Education Act 2009 is an Act or Legislative Council is a permanent President of the Janata Party, which
of Parliament which came into force in: body, which can be formed or abolished formed a coalition government at the
SSC CGL 11/04/2022 (Evening) when the Legislative Assembly passes a centre with Morarji Desai as the Prime
(a) 2012 (b) 2011 (c) 2009 (d) 2010 special resolution. Minister?
SSC CGL 18/08/2021 (Afternoon)
Sol.491.(d) 2010. The Act makes Q.496. Which was the first part of India (a) Charan Singh
education a fundamental right of every to hold an election based on universal (b) George Fernandes
child between the ages of 6 and 14 and adult franchise ? (c) Chandra Shekhar
specifies minimum norms in elementary SSC CHSL 09/08/2021 (Morning) (d) Madhu Dandavate
schools. (a) Assam (b) Tripura
(c) Manipur (d) Bihar Sol.500.(c) Chandra Shekhar. He was
Q.492. In which of the following years
President of the Janata Party from 1977
was an Act enacted to provide for the Sol.496.(c) Manipur (June 1948). to 1988. Chandra Shekhar was sworn in
reorganisation of the states of India and Maharaja of Manipur Bodhchandra Singh as the ninth Prime Minister of India on
for matters connected therewith? signed the instrument of accession with November 10, 1991 and remained in
SSC CGL 12/04/2022 (Afternoon) the Indian government on the assurance office until June 21, 1991, for a period
(a) 1947 (b) 1956 (c) 1959 (d) 1962 that the internal autonomy of Manipur spanning 223 days.
would be maintained

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