Class X Session 2024-25

Subject - Mathematics (Standard)

Sample Question Paper - 1

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This Question Paper has 5 Sections A, B, C, D and E.

2. Section A has 20 MCQs carrying 1 mark each

3. Section B has 5 questions carrying 02 marks each.

4. Section C has 6 questions carrying 03 marks each.

5. Section D has 4 questions carrying 05 marks each.

6. Section E has 3 case based integrated units of assessment (04 marks each) with sub- parts of the values of 1, 1 and

2 marks each respectively.

7. All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice in 2 Qs of 5 marks, 2 Qs of 3 marks and 2 Questions of

2 marks has been provided. An internal choice has been provided in the 2marks questions of Section E

8. Draw neat figures wherever required. Take π = 22

7
wherever required if not stated.

Section A
1. (HCF × LCM) for the numbers 30 and 70 is: [1]

a) 21 b) 70

c) 2100 d) 210

2. Figure show the graph of the polynomial f(x) = ax2 + bx + c for which [1]

a) a > 0, b < 0 and c > 0 b) a < 0, b < 0 and c < 0

c) a < 0, b > 0 and c > 0 d) a > 0, b > 0 and c < 0

3. The pair of equations x + 2y + 5 = 0 and –3x – 6y + 1 = 0 have [1]

Page 1 of 20
 a) a unique solution b) infinitely many solutions

c) no solution d) exactly two solutions

4 In the Maths Olymiad of 2020 at Animal Planet two reresentaties from the donkeys side while soling a [1]
quadratic equation committed the following mistakes
i One of them made a mistake in the constant term and got the roots as 5 and
ii Another one committed an error in the coefficient of x and he got the roots as 12 and 4
But in the meantime they realised that they are wrong and they managed to get it right ointly Find the quadratic
equation

a) 2x2 x - 24 0 b) x2 4x 14 0

c) 3x2 - 1 x 52 0 d) x2 - 14x 48 0

5 hat is the common difference of an AP in which a18 - a14 32 [1]

a) -8 b) 4

c) -4 d) 8
ABCD is a rectangle whose three ertices are B (4 0) C (4 3) and D (0 3) The length of one of its diagonals is [1]

a) 5 b) 3

c) 4 d) 25
In what ratio does x-axis diide the line segment oining the oints A(3 ) and B(-12 -3) [1]

a) 2 : 1 b) 1 : 2

c) 4 : 1 d) 1 : 4
8 In thefigures find the measures of˝ 1 and ˝ 3 [1]

a) 20o 30o b) 50o 40o

c) 30o 20o d) 40o 50o

In the gien figure P is tangent to the circle centred at O If ˝ AOB 5 o then the measure of˝ AB will be [1]

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 a) 85o b) 47.5o

c) 95o d) 42.5o

10. A circle inscribed in △ABC having AB = 10 cm, BC = 12 cm, CA = 28 cm touching sides at D, E, F [1]
(respectively). Then AD + BE + CF = ________.

a) 22 cm b) 25 cm

c) 18 cm d) 20 cm
2

11. 1+
cot α

1+cos ecα
= [1]

a) sinα b) secα

c) cosecα d) tanα
12. If cos θ = 4

5
then tan θ = ? [1]

a) 3

4
b) 5

c) 4

3
d) 3

13. A ladder makes an angle of 60° with the ground when placed against a wall. If the foot of the ladder is 2 m away [1]
from the wall, then the length of the ladder (in metres) is
– –
a) 2√2 b) 4√3

c) 4 d)
4

√3

14. In a circle of radius 14 cm, an arc subtends an angle of 1200 at the centre. If √3= 1.73 then the area of the
–
[1]
segment of the circle is

a) 124.63 cm2 b) 130.57 cm2

c) 120.56 cm2 d) 118.24 cm2

15. A pendulum swings through an angle of 30o and describes an arc 8.8 cm in length. Find the length of the [1]

pendulum.

a) 8.8 cm b) 17 cm

c) 15.8 cm d) 16.8 cm
16. A die is thrown once. The probability of getting an even number is [1]

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 a) P

R
b) 

c) d)
P P

 

17. 3 rotten eggs are mixed with 12 good ones. One egg is chosen at random. The probability of choosing a rotten [1]
egg is

a) P
P
b) 

c) d)
P 

 

18. The distribution below gives the marks obtained by 80 students on a test: [1]

Marks Less than 10 Less than 20 Less than 30 Less than 40 Less than 50 Less than 60

Number of Students 3 12 27 57 75 80

The modal class of this distribution is:

a) 30 - 40 b) 20 - 30

c) 50 - 60 d) 10 - 20
19. Assertion (A): A piece of cloth is required to completely cover a solid object. The solid object is composed of a [1]

hemisphere and a cone surmounted on it. If the common radius is 7 m and height of the cone is 1 m, 463.39 cm2
is the area of cloth required.

Reason (R): Surface area of hemisphere = 2R r2.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

20. Assertion (A): Sum of first n terms in an A.P. is given by the formula: Sn = 2n g [2a + (n - 1)d] [1]

Reason (R): Sum of first 15 terms of 2 , 5 , 8 ... is 345.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

Section B
21. Find the largest number which divides 320 and 457 leaving remainder 5 and 7 respectively. [2]
22. In the given figure 9  ˇ    Find the length of XY. [2]

23. Two concentric circles with centre O are of radii 3 cm and 5 cm. Find the length of chord AB of the larger circle [2]
which touches the smaller circle at P.

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24. Show that: tan 4
θ + tan
2
θ = sec
4
θ − sec
2
θ for 0
∘
≤ θ ≥ 90
∘
[2]
OR
Prove that:
tan θ cot θ
+ = 1 + tan θ + cot θ
1−cot θ 1−tan θ

25. Find the length of the arc of a circle of diameter 42 cm which subtends an angle of 60° at the centre. [2]
OR
A horse is tethered to one corner of a rectangular field of dimensions 70 m × 52 m, by a rope of length 21 m. How
much area of the field can it graze?
Section C
–
26. Prove that 3 + √5 is an irrational number. [3]
27. If α and β are the zeros of the polynomial f(x) = 6x2 + x - 2, find the value of ( α
+
β
)
[3]
β α

28. A two-digit number is 4 times the sum of its digits. If 18 is added to the number, the digits are reversed. Find the [3]
number.
OR
A plane left 30 minutes late than its scheduled time and in order to reach the destination 1500 km away in time, it had
to increase its speed by 100 km/h from the usual speed. Find its usual speed.

29. In the given figure, a circle is inscribed in a quadrilateral ABCD in which ∠ B = 90o. If AD = 17 cm, AB = 20 [3]

cm and DS = 3 cm, then find the radius of the circle.

OR
In figure, O is the centre of a circle of radius 5 cm. T is a point such that OT = 13 cm and OT intersects circle at E. If
AB is a tangent to the circle at E, find the length of AB. where TP and TQ are two tangents to the circle.

30. Prove that: [3]

tan θ+sec θ−1 1+sin θ
=
tan θ−sec θ+1 cos θ

31. The percentage of marks obtained by 100 students in an examination are given below: [3]

Marks 30-35 35-40 40-45 45-50 50-55 55-60 60-65

Frequency 14 16 18 23 18 8 3

Determine the median percentage of marks.

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 Section D
32. Solve: [5]
x−1 2x+1 1
+ = 2, x ≠ − ,1
2x+1 x−1 2

OR
₹ 9000 were divided equally among a certain number of persons. Had there been 20 more persons, each would have
got ₹ 160 less. Find the original number of persons.
33. In Fig., DEFG is a square in a triangle ABC right angled at A. [5]
Prove that
i. △AGF ∼ △ DBG
ii. △AGF ∼ △ EFC

34. A solid is composed of a cylinder with hemispherical ends. If the whole length of the solid is 104 cm and the [5]

radius of each of the hemispherical ends is 7 cm, find the cost of polishing its surface at the rate of ₹10 per dm2.
OR
A solid is in the form of a cylinder with hemispherical ends. The total height of the solid is 19 cm and the diameter of
the cylinder is 7 cm. Find the volume and total surface area of the solid (Use π = 22/7)
35. Find the mean from the following frequency distribution of marks at a test in statistics: [5]

Marks (x): 5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40 45 50

No. of students (f): 15 50 80 76 72 45 39 9 8 6

Section E
36. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
A fashion designer is designing a fabric pattern. In each row, there are some shaded squares and unshaded
triangles.

(a) Identify A.P. for the number of squares in each row.

(b) Identify A.P. for the number of triangles in each row.
OR
Write a formula for finding total number of triangles in n number of rows. Hence, find S10.
(c) If each shaded square is of side 2 cm, then find the shaded area when 15 rows have been designed.
37. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Use of mobile screen for long hours makes your eye sight weak and give you headaches. Children who are
addicted to play “PUBG’’ can get easily stressed out. To raise social awareness about ill effects of playing
PUBG, a school decided to start ‘BAN PUBG’ campaign, in which students are asked to prepare campaign
board in the shape of a rectangle. One such campaign board made by class X student of the school is shown in

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 the figure.

(a) Find the coordinates of the point of intersection of diagonals AC and BD.
(b) Find the length of the diagonal AC.
OR
Find the ratio of the length of side AB to the length of the diagonal AC.
(c) Find the area of the campaign Board ABCD.
38. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Radio towers are used for transmitting a range of communication services including radio and television. The
tower will either act as an antenna itself or support one or more antennas on its structure. On a similar concept, a
radio station tower was built in two Sections A and B. Tower is supported by wires from a point O.
Distance between the base of the tower and point O is 36 cm. From point O, the angle of elevation of the top of
the Section B is 30o and the angle of elevation of the top of Section A is 45o.

(a) Find the length of the wire from the point O to the top of Section B.
(b) Find the distance AB.
OR
Find the height of the Section A from the base of the tower.
(c) Find the area of △OPB.

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 Solution
Section A
1.
(c) 2100
Explanation: As we know HCF × LCM = Product of the Numbers
Hence HCF × LCM (30,70) = 30 × 70 = 2100
2. (a) a > 0, b < 0 and c > 0
Explanation: Clearly, f (x) = ax + bx + c represent a parabola opening upwards.
2

Therefore, a > 0
The vertex of the parabola is in the fourth quadrant, therefore b < 0
y = ax
2
cuts Y axis at P which lies on OY.
+ bx + c

Putting x = 0 in y = ax + bx + c , we get y = c. 2

So the coordinates of P is (0, c).

Clearly, P lies on OY. ⇒ c>0
Hence, a>0, b<0 and c>0
3.
(c) no solution
Explanation: Given, equations are
x + 2y + 5 = 0, and
- 3x - 6y + 1 = 0.
Comparing the equations with general form:
a1x + b1y + c1 = 0
a2x + b2y + c2 = 0
Here, a1 = 1, b1 = 2, c1 = 5
And a2 = - 3, b2 = - 6, c2 = 1
Taking the ratio of coefficients to compare
a1 −1 b1 −1 c1 5
= , = , =
a2 3 b 3 c2 1
2

a b c
So a
1
=
1
≠
c
1

2 b2 2

This represents a pair of parallel lines.

Hence, the pair of equations has no solution.
4.
(d) x2 - 14x + 48 = 0
Explanation: For 1st one,
Let the equation be x2 + ax + b = 0
Since roots are 5 and 9
∴ a = -14 and b = 45
For 2nd one,
Let the equation be x2 + px + q = 0
Since roots are 12 and 4.
∴ p = -16 and q = 48

Now, according to the question, b and p both are wrong.

Therefore, the correct equation would be
x2 - 14x + 48 = 0
5.
(d) 8

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 Explanation: a18 - a14 = 32
(18 - 14)d = 32
⇒ 4d = 32

⇒ d = 8.
6. (a) 5
Explanation: Three vertices of a rectangle ABCD are B (4,0), C (4, 3) and D (0, 3) length of one of its diagonals
−−−−−−−−−−−−−− − −− −−−−
2 2 2 2
BD = √(4 − 0) + (0 − 3) = √4 + 3
−−−−− −−
= √16 + 9 = √25 =5
7. (a) 2 : 1
Explanation: 2 : 1

8. (a) 20o, 30o.

Explanation: In triangle ABC, ∠A + ∠B + ∠C = 180 ∘

∘ ∘ ∘
⇒∠A + 30 + 20 = 180

∘
⇒ ∠A = 130
AC
In triangle ABC and QRP, AB

QR
=
PQ

45 63 9 9
⇒
5
=
7
=> 1
=
1

Since sides of triangles ABC and QRP are proportional, and included angles are equal, therefore by SAS similarity criteria ,
ΔABC ∼ ΔQRP

∠A = ∠Q, ∠B = ∠R, ∠C = ∠P

∘ ∘
⇒ ∠P = 20 , ∠R = 30

9.
(b) 47.5o
Explanation: 47.5o
10.
(b) 25 cm

Explanation:

x + y = 10 cm ...(i)
y + z = 12 cm ...(ii)
x + z = 28 cm ...(iii)
Adding (i), (ii) and (iii), we get
2(x + y + z) = 50
⇒ x + y + z = 25 cm

11.
(c) cosecα
2

Explanation: 1 + cot

1+cos ecα
α

2
cose c α−1
=1+ 1+cos ecα

(cosec α−1)(cosec α+1)

=1+ 1+cosecα

= 1 + cosecα - 1 = cosec α
3
12. (a) 4
4 AB
Explanation: cos θ = 5
=
AC

2 2 2
∴ BC = AC − AB = 25 − 16 = 9

⇒ BC = 3

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 BC 3
∴ tan θ = =
AB 4

13.
(c) 4
Explanation: Suppose AB is the ladder of length x m
∴ OA = 2m, ∠ OAB = 60o

In right △AOB, sec 60o = x

⇒ 2= x

2
⇒ =4m

14.
(c) 120.56 cm2
2

Explanation: ar(segment) = ( πr θ

360
− r
2
sin
θ

2
cos
θ

2
)

22 120 ∘ ∘
= ( × 14 × 14 × ) − (14 × 14 × sin 60 cos 60 )
7 360

616 √3 1 2
= ( − × × 14 × 14) cm
3 2 2

=(205.33 -49× 1.73) cm2

=(205.33 - 84.77) cm2
= 120.56 cm2
15.
(d) 16.8 cm
Explanation: Length of the pendulum = Radius of a sector of the circle
Arc length = 8.8
(2πr) = 8.8
θ

360
30

360
× 2 ×
22

7
× r = 8.8
r = 16.8 cm
16.
(d) 1

Explanation: Number of all possible outcomes = 6.

Even numbers are 2,4, 6. Their number is 3.
∴ P (getting an even number) =
3 1
=
6 2

17.
1
(c) 5

Explanation: Number of possible outcomes = 3

Number of Total outcomes = 15
∴ Required Probability =
3 1
=
15 5

18. (a) 30 - 40
Explanation: 30 - 40

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19.
(c) A is true but R is false.
Explanation: A is true but R is false.
20. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Section B
21. The given numbers are 320 and 457
Now as 5 and 7 are remainders on division of 320 and 457 by said number
On subtracting the reminders 5 and 7 from 320 and 457 respectively we get:
320 - 5 = 315,
457 - 7 = 450
The prime factorizations of 315 and 405 are
315 = 3 × 3 × 5 × 7

2
= 3 × 5 × 7

450 = 2 × 3 × 3 × 5 × 5

2 2
= 2 × 3 × 5

H.C.F. of 315 and 450 = 3 × 5 = 9 × 5 = 45

∴
2

Hence the said number = 45

22. Given XY ∥ BC
AX = 1 cm, XB = 3 cm, and BC = 6 cm
AB = AX + XB
= 1 + 3 = 4 cm
In ΔAXY and ΔABC
∠A = ∠A [Common]

∠AXY = ∠ABC [Corresponding angles]

Then, △AXY ~ △ABC [By AA similarity]

AX XY
∴
AB
=
BC
[Corresponding parts of similar △are proportional]
1 XY
⇒ =
4 6
6
⇒ XY = = 1.5cm
4

23. Join OA and OP

OP ⊥ AB (radius ⊥ tangent at the point of contact)

OP is the radius of smaller circle and AB is tangent at P.

AB is chord of larger circle and OP ⊥ AB
∴ AP = PB(⊥ from centre bisects the chord)

In right △AOP, AP2 = OA2 - OP2

= (5)2 - (3)2 = 16
AP = 4 cm = PB
∴ AB = 8 cm

24. L. HS = tan 4
θ + tan
2
θ

2 2
= tan θ (tan θ + 1)

2 2
= tan θ sec θ

2 2 2 2
= (sec θ − 1) sec θ [∵ tan θ = sec θ − 1]

4 2
= sec θ − sec θ

= R.H.S.
OR

Page 11 of 20
 tan θ cot θ
+ = 1 + tan θ + cot θ
1−cot θ 1−tan θ

tan θ cot θ
L.H.S. = +
1−cot θ 1−tan θ
sin θ c os θ

c os θ sin θ
= +
c os θ sin θ
1− 1−
sin θ c os θ
2 2
sin θ cos θ
= −
cos θ(sin θ−cos θ) sin θ(sin θ−cos θ)

3 3
sin θ− cos θ
=
sin θ cos θ(sin θ−cos θ)
2 2
(sin θ−cos θ)(sin θ+ cos θ+sin θ cos θ)
3 3 2 2
= [∵ a − b = (a − b)(a + ab + b )
sin θ cos θ(sin θ−cos θ)

2 2
sin θ cos θ sin θ cos θ
= + +
sin θ cos θ sin θ cos θ sin θ cos θ

= tan θ + cot θ + 1 = 1 + tan θ + cot θ = RHS

Hence proved.
25. Diameter of a circle = 42 cm
⇒ Radius of a circle = r =
42

= 21 cm
Central angle = θ = 60 ∘

2πrθ
∴ Length of the arc = 360
22 ∘
2× ×21× 60
7
= ∘
cm
360

= 22 cm
OR
Shaded portion indicates the area which the horse can graze. Clearly, shaded area is the area of a quadrant of a circle of radius r -
21 m.

∴ Required Area = 1

4
πr
2

∴ Required Area = { 1

4
×
22

7
2
× (21) } cm
2
=
693

2
cm
2
= 346.5 cm2
Section C
–
26. Let 3 + √5 is a rational number.
– p
3 + √5 = ,q ≠ 0
q

– p
3 + √5 =
q
– p
⇒ √5 = − 3
q

– p−3q
⇒ √5 =
q

p−3q
Now in RHS p
is rational
–
This shows that is rational √5
– –
But this contradict the fact that √5 is irrational, This is because we assumed that 3 + √5 is a rational number.
–
∴ 3 + √5 is an irrational number.

27. Let f(x) = 6x2 + x - 2

a = 6, b = 1 and c = -2
And α and β are the zeros of polynomial,
b
α +β=− =− a
1

c −2 −1
αβ = = =
a 6 3
2 2
α β α +β
∴ + =
β α αβ

2
(α+β ) −2αβ
=
αβ

2
1 1
(− ) −2(− )
6 3
=
1
(− )
3
1 2
+
36 3
= −
1

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 25

36
= −
1

25 3
= − ×
36 1
25
= −
12

28. Let us suppose that the digit at unit place be x

Suppose the digit at tens place be y.
Thus, the number is 10y + x.
According to question it is given that the number is 4 times the sum of the two digits.
Therefore, we have
10y + x = 4(x + y)
⇒ 10y + x = 4x + 4y

⇒ 4x + 4y - 10y - x = 0

⇒ 3x - 6y = 0

⇒ 3(x - 2y) = 0

⇒ x - 2y = 0
After interchanging the digits, the number becomes 10x + y.
Again according to question If 18 is added to the number, the digits are reversed.
Thus, we have
(10y + x) + 18 = 10x + y
⇒ 10x + y - 10y - x = 18
⇒ 9x - 9y = 18

⇒ 9(x - y) = 18
18
⇒ x − y =
9

⇒ x-y=2
Therefore, we have the following systems of equations
x - 2y = 0 ...........(1)
x - y = 2...............(2)
Here x and y are unknowns. Now let us solve the above systems of equations for x and y.
Subtracting the equation (1) from the (2), we get
(x - y) - (x - 2y) = 2 - 0
⇒ x - y - x + 2y = 2

⇒ y=2
Now, substitute the value of y in equation (1), we get
x-2×2=0
⇒ x - 4 = 0

⇒ x = 4

Therefore the number is 10 × 2 + 4 = 24

Thus the number is 24
OR
Let the usual speed of the plane = x km/hr.
Distance to the destination = 1500 km
Case (i):
Distance
we know that, Speed =
T ime

Distance
⇒ T ime =
speed

So, in case(i) Time = 1500

x
Hrs
Case (iI)
Distance to the destination = 1500 km
Increased speed = 100 km/hr
So, speed = x+100
So, in case(ii) Time = Hrs 1500

x+100

So, according to the question

1500 1500 30
∴
x
- x+100
= 60

Page 13 of 20
 ⇒ x2 + 100x - 300000 = 0
⇒ x2 + 600x - 500x - 300000 = 0
⇒ (x + 600)(x - 500) = 0

⇒ x = 500 or x = -600
Since, speed can not be negative, x = 500
Therefore, Speed of plane = 500 km/hr.

29.

DR = DS = 3 cm
∴ AR = AD - DR = 17 - 3 = 14 cm

⇒ AQ = AR = 14 cm
∴ QB = AB - AQ = 20 - 14 = 6 cm
Since QB = OP = r ∴ radius = 6 cm
OR
According to the question,
O is the centre of a circle of radius 5 cm. T is a point such that OT = 13 cm and OT intersects circle at E.

∵ OP ⊥ TP [Radius from point of contact of the tangent]

∴ ∠ OPT = 90°

In right △OPT *
OT2 = OP2 + PT2
⇒ (13)2 = (5)2 + PT2 ⇒ PT = 12 cm
Let AP = x cm AE = AP ⇒ AE = x cm
and AT = (12 - x)cm
TE = OT - OE = 13 - 5 = 8 cm
∵ OE ⊥ AB [Radius from the point of contact]

∴ ∠ AEO = 90° ⇒ ∠ AET = 90°

In right △AET,
2 2 2
AT = AE + ET

2 2 2
(12 − x) = x + 8

2 2
⇒ 144 + x − 24x = x + 64

⇒ 24x = 80 ⇒ x =
80

24
=
10

3
cm
Also BE = AE = 10

3
cm
⇒ AB =
10

3
+
10

3
=
20

3
cm
30. We have,
tan θ+sec θ−1
LHS =
tan θ−sec θ+1

(tan θ+sec θ)−1

⇒ LHS =
(tan θ−sec θ)+1
2 2

[∵ sec2θ - tan2θ = 1]
(sec θ+tan θ)−(sec θ− tan θ)

⇒ LHS =
tan θ−sec θ+1

Page 14 of 20
 (sec θ+tan θ)−(sec θ+tan θ)(sec θ−tan θ)
⇒ LHS =
tan θ−sec θ+1

(sec θ+tan θ)[1−(sec θ−tan θ)]

⇒ LHS =
tan θ−sec θ+1

(sec θ+tan θ)(1−sec θ+tan θ)

⇒ LHS =
(tan θ−sec θ+1)

(sec θ+tan θ)(tan θ−sec θ+1)

⇒ LHS =
(tan θ−sec θ+1)

1+sin θ
⇒ LHS = sec θ + tan θ =
1

cos θ
+
sin θ

cos θ
=
cos θ
= RHS

Marks Number of Students

Cumulative frequency
31. (Class) (Frequency)

30-35 14 14

35-40 16 30

40-45 18 48

45-50 23 71 (Median class)

50-55 18 89

55-60 8 97

60-65 3 100
Here, N = 100
N
Therefore, 2
= 50, This observation lies in the class 45-50.
l (the lower limit of the median class) = 45
cf (the cumulative frequency of the class preceding the median class) = 48
f (the frequency of the median class) = 23
h (the class size) = 5
n
−cf

Median = l + (
2
)h
f

50−48
= 45 + ( ) × 5
23

10
= 45 + = 45.4
23

So, the median percentage of marks is 45.4.

Section D
32. Given
x−1 2x+1
+ = 0
2x+1 x−1
x−1 2x+1
Let 2x+1
be y so
x−1
=
1

∴ Substituting this value

2
1 y +1
y + = 2 or = 2
y y

or y + 1 = 2y
2

or y − 2y + 1 = 0
2

or (y − 1) = 0 2

x−1
Putting y = 2x+1
,

x−1
= 1 or x − 1 = 2x + 1
2x+1

or x = -2
OR
Let the original number of persons be x.
Total amount to be divided among all people = Rs. 9000/-
So, Share of each person = Rs. 9000

If the number of persons is increased by 20. Then,

New share of each person = Rs. 9000

x+20

According to the question ;

9000 9000
− = 160
x x+20

9000(x+20)−9000x
⇒ = 160
x(x+20)

Page 15 of 20
 9000x+180000−9000x
⇒ = 160
2
x +20
180000
⇒ = 160
2
x +20
180000 2
⇒ = x + 20
160

⇒ 1125 = x2 + 20x
⇒ x2 + 20x - 1125 = 0
⇒ x2 + 45x - 25x - 1125 = 0
⇒ x(x + 45) - 25(x + 45) = 0

(x + 45)(x - 25) = 0
⇒

⇒ x - 25 = 0 [∵ The number of persons cannot be negative. ∴ x + 45 ≠ 0]

⇒ x = 25

Hence, the original number of persons is 25.

33. GF || DE (DEFG is square)
∴ ∠AGF = ∠ABC (Corresponding angles)

∴ ∠A = ∠GDB = 90o
∴ ∠AGF ∼ ∠DBG (By AA similarity)

Again DEFG being a square ∠AFG = ∠ACB (corresponding angles)

∴ ∠A= ∠CEF (each 90o)
∠AGF ∼ ∠EFC (By AA similarity)

34.

Radius of each hemispherical end = 7 cm.

Height of each hemispherical part = its radius = 7 cm.
Height of the cylindrical part = (104 - 2 × 7) cm = 90 cm.
Area of surface to be polished = 2(curved surface area of the hemisphere) + (curved surface area of the cylinder)
= [2 (2πr ) + 2πrh ] sq units
2

22 22 2
= [(4 × × 7 × 7) + (2 × × 7 × 90)] cm
7 7

= (616 + 3960) cm2 = 4576 cm2

= 45.76 dm2 [∵ 10 cm = 1 dm].
4576
=( 10×10
) dm
2

∴ cost of polishing the surface of the solid

= ₹(45.76 × 10) = ₹ 457.60.
OR
Diameter of the cylinder = 7 cm
Therefore radius of the cylinder = 7

2
cm

Total height of the solid = 19 cm

Therefore, Height of the cylinder portion = 19 - 7 = 12 cm
Also, radius of hemisphere = cm 7

Page 16 of 20
 Let V be the volume and S be the surface area of the solid. Then,
V = Volume of the cylinder + Volume of two hemispheres
2 2 3 3
⇒ V = {πr h + 2 ( πr )} cm
3

2 4r 3
⇒ V = πr (h + ) cm
3

2
22 7 4 7 3 22 7 7 50 3 3
⇒ V = { × ( ) × (12 + × )} cm = × × × cm = 641.66cm
7 2 3 2 7 2 2 3

and,
S = Curved surface area of cylinder + Surface area of two hemispheres
2 2
⇒ S = (2πrh + 2 × 2πr ) cm

2
⇒ S = 2πr(h + 2r)cm

22 7 7 2
⇒ S = 2 × × × (12 + 2 × ) cm
7 2 2

22 7 2
= (2 × × × 19) cm
7 2

= 418 cm2
35. Let the assumed mean be A = 25 and h = 5.
marks (x1): no. of students (f1): d1 = x1 = A = x1 - 25 u1 = 1

h
(d1) f1u1

5 15 -20 -4 -60

10 50 -15 -3 -150

15 80 -10 -2 -160

20 76 -5 -1 -76

25 72 0 0 0

30 45 5 1 45

35 39 10 2 78

30 9 15 3 27

45 8 20 4 32

50 6 25 5 30

∑ f1 = 400 ∑ f1u1 = -234

n
¯¯¯
¯
We know that mean, X = A + h ( 1

N
∑ fi ui )
i=1

Now, we have N = ∑ f1 = 400, = -234, h = 5 and A = - 234, h = 5 and A = 25.

Putting the values in the above formula, we get
n
¯
X =A+h( 1

N
∑ fi ui )
i=1

= 25 + 5( 400
1
× (−234))

234
= 25 - 80

Page 17 of 20
 = 25 - 2.925
= 22.075
Hence, the mean marks is 22.075
Section E
36. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:
A fashion designer is designing a fabric pattern. In each row, there are some shaded squares and unshaded triangles.

(i) A.P. for the number of squares in each row is 1, 3, 5, 7, 9 …

(ii) A.P. for the number of triangles in each row is 2, 6, 10, 14 ...
OR
Sn = n

2
[4 + (n - 1)4] = 2n2

∴ S10 = 2 × 102 = 200

(iii)Area of each square = 2 × 2 = 4 cm2
Number of squares in 15 rows = (2 + 14 × 2) = 225
15

Shaded area = 225 × 4 = 900 cm2

37. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:
Use of mobile screen for long hours makes your eye sight weak and give you headaches. Children who are addicted to play
“PUBG’’ can get easily stressed out. To raise social awareness about ill effects of playing PUBG, a school decided to start ‘BAN
PUBG’ campaign, in which students are asked to prepare campaign board in the shape of a rectangle. One such campaign board
made by class X student of the school is shown in the figure.

(i) Point of intersection of diagonals is their midpoint

(1+7) (1+5)
So, [ 2
,
2
]

= (4, 3)
(ii) Length of diagonal AC
−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−
AC = √(7 − 1)(7 − 1) + (5 − 1)(5 − 1)
−−
= √52 units
OR
Ratio of lengths = AB

AC

= 6

√52
−−
= 6 : √52
(iii)Area of campaign board
=6×4
= 24 units square
38. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:
Radio towers are used for transmitting a range of communication services including radio and television. The tower will either act
as an antenna itself or support one or more antennas on its structure. On a similar concept, a radio station tower was built in two

Page 18 of 20
Sections A and B. Tower is supported by wires from a point O.
Distance between the base of the tower and point O is 36 cm. From point O, the angle of elevation of the top of the Section B is
30o and the angle of elevation of the top of Section A is 45o.

(i) Let the length of wire BO = x cm

cos 30o =
PO
∴
BO

√3 36
⇒ =
2 x

36×2 √3
⇒ x= ×
√3 √3
–
= 12 × 2√3
–
= 24√3 cm
(ii) In △APO, tan 45o = AP

PO

⇒ 1= AP

36

⇒ AP = 36 cm ...(i)
Now, In △PBO,
tan 30o = BP

PO
1 BP
⇒ =
√3 36

√3
⇒ BP = 36
×
√3 √3

36 –
= √3
3
–
= 12√3 cm
∴ AB = AP - BP
–
= 36 - 12√3 cm
OR
In △APO, tan 45o = AP

36

1= AP

36

A = 36 cm
Height of section A from the base of the tower = AP = 36 cm.
(iii)In △OPB
tan 30o = BP

PO
1 BP
⇒ =
√3 36

BP = 36

√3

36 √3
= ×
√3 √3

Page 19 of 20
 –
= 12√3 cm
Now, Area of △OPB = 1

2
× height × base
= 1

2
× BP × OP
–
= 1

2
× 12√3 × 36
cm2
–
= 216√3

Page 20 of 20
 Class X Session 2024-25
Subject - Mathematics (Standard)
Sample Question Paper - 2

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This Question Paper has 5 Sections A, B, C, D and E.

2. Section A has 20 MCQs carrying 1 mark each

3. Section B has 5 questions carrying 02 marks each.

4. Section C has 6 questions carrying 03 marks each.

5. Section D has 4 questions carrying 05 marks each.

6. Section E has 3 case based integrated units of assessment (04 marks each) with sub- parts of the values of 1, 1 and

2 marks each respectively.

7. All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice in 2 Qs of 5 marks, 2 Qs of 3 marks and 2 Questions of

2 marks has been provided. An internal choice has been provided in the 2marks questions of Section E

8. Draw neat figures wherever required. Take π = 22

7
wherever required if not stated.

Section A
1. If two positive integers m and n can be expressed as m = x2y5 and n = x3y2, where x and y are prime numbers, [1]

then HCF(m, n) =

a) x2y2 b) x2y3

c) x3y2 d) x3y3

2. Find the number of zeroes of p(x) in the graph given below. [1]

a) 3 b) 0

c) 2 d) 1
3. The pair of linear equations 3x + 2y = 5 and 2x - 3y = 7 are [1]

Page 1 of 19
 a) consistent b) dependent

c) inconsistent d) independent
4. Which of the following equations has two distinct real roots? [1]

a) x 2
+ x− 5 = 0 b) 5x
2
− 3x + 1 = 0

c) 4x 2
− 3x + 1 = 0 d) x
2
+ x+ 5 = 0

5. If the second term of an AP is 13 and its fifth term is 25, then its 7th term is [1]

a) 37 b) 33

c) 38 d) 30
6. A line segment is of length 10 units. If the coordinates of its one end are (2, - 3) and the abscissa of the other end [1]
is 10, then its ordinate is

a) -3, 9 b) 9, -6

c) 9, 6 d) 3, -9
7. The vertices of a △ABC are A(2, 1), 8(6, -2), C(8, 9). If AD is angle bisector of ∠ BAC, where D meets on BC, [1]
then coordinates of D are ________.

a) (5, 2) b) (
14
,
7
)
3 3

c) (4, 3) d) (
20
,
5
)
3 3

8. In the given figure if ΔAED ∼ ΔABC , then DE is equal to [1]

a) 6.5 cm b) 5.6 cm

c) 5.5 cm d) 7.5 cm
9. In the given figure, point P is 26 cm away from the centre O of a circle and the length PT of the tangent drawn [1]
from P to the circle is 24 cm. Then, the radius of the circle is

a) 13 cm b) 10 cm

c) 15 cm d) 12 cm
10. The length of the tangent drawn from a point P, whose distance from the centre of a circle is 25 cm, and the [1]
radius of the circle is 7 cm, is:

Page 2 of 19
 a) 28 cm b) 24 cm

c) 25 cm d) 22 cm
11 (cosec θ - sin θ ) (sec θ - cos θ ) (tan θ cot θ ) is equal [1]

a) 1 b) 0

c) 2 d) -1
12 The alue of sin 45 cos 45 is [1]
–
a) √2 b) 1

√2

c) 1 d) 1

√3

13 The angle of eleation of the sun when the shadow of a ole h metres high is $
metres long is [1]
√3

a) 45 ∘
b) 30 ∘

c) 60 ∘
d) 15o

14 In a circle of radius 21 cm an arc subtends an angle ofo at [1]

0 the centre The area of the sector formed by the arc
is:

a) 231 cm2 b) 250 cm2

c) 220 cm2 d) 200 cm2

15 Area of a sector of angle (in degrees) of a circle with radius R is [1]

, Q
a) 360
× 2πR b) 10
× π3
2

, ,
c) 10
× 2π3 d) 720
× 2πR
2

1 A dice is thrown once The robability of getting an odd number is [1]

a) 1

2
b) 1

c) d)
2 4

6 6

1 Two dice are rolled together hat is the robability of getting a sum greater than 10 [1]

a) 5

1
b) 1

c) d)
1 1

6 12

18 If the mode of the data: 4 0 48 x 43 48 43 34 is 43 then x 3 [1]

a) 45 b) 48

c) 44 d) 4
1 Assertion (A): A shere of radius cm is m ounted on the solid cone of radius cm and height 8 cm the [1]

olume of the combined solid is 1 3 4 cm 3 [Take π 314]

Reason (R): olume of shere and surface area of cone is gien by 4

3
π.
3
and 1

3
π.
2
$ resectiely

Page 3 of 19
 a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

20. Assertion (A): Let the positive numbers a, b, c be in A.P., then are also in A.P. [1]
1 1 1
, ,
bc ac ab

Reason (R): If each term of an A.P. is divided by a b c, then the resulting sequence is also in A.P.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

Section B
21. The difference of the square of two numbers is 45. The square of the smaller number is 4 times the larger [2]
number. Find the number.
22. In Figure, △ODC ∼ △ OBA, ∠ BOC = 125° and ∠ CDO = 70°. Find ∠ DOC, ∠ DCO and ∠ OAB. [2]

23. In figure, △ABC is circumscribing a circle. Find the length of BC. [2]

24. If sin X + sin2 X = 1, prove that cos2 X+ cos4 X = 1. [2]

OR
Verify that if tan2θ + sin θ = cos2θ is an identity or not.
25. Four cows are tethered at the four corners of a square field of side 50 m such that each can graze the maximum [2]
unshared area. What area will be left ungrazed? [Take π= 3.14.]
OR
A sector of a circle of radius 4 cm contains an angle of 30°. Find the area of the sector.
Section C
26. A shopkeeper has 120 litres of petrol, 180 litres of diesel and 240 litres of kerosene. He wants to sell oil by [3]
filling the three kinds of oils in tins of equal capacity. What should be the greatest capacity of such a tin?
27. Find a quadratic polynomial whose sum and product of the zeroes are − and respectively. Also find the [3]
21 5

8 16

zeroes of the polynomial by factorisation.

28. A fraction is such that if the numerator is multiplied by 3 and the denominator is reduced by 3, we get 18/11, but [3]
if the numerator is increased by 8 and the denominator is doubled, we get 2/5. Find the fraction.
OR
A man has only 20 paisa coins and 25 paisa coins in his purse. If he has 50 coins in all totalling to ₹ 11.25, how many
coins of each kind d38196oes he have?
29. Out of the two concentric circles, the radius of the outer circle is 5 cm and the chord AC of length 8 cm is a [3]
tangent to the inner circle. Find the radius of the inner circle.
OR

Page 4 of 19
 In the given figure, a quadrilateral ABCD is drawn to circumscribe a circle such that its sides AB, BC, CD and AD
touch the circle at P, Q, R and S respectively. If AB = x cm, BC = 7 cm, CR = 3 cm and AS = 5 cm, find x.

30. Prove that secθ (1 - sinθ )(secθ + tanθ ) = 1 [3]

31. Five coins were simultaneously tossed 1000 times and at each toss the number of heads were observed. The [3]
number of tosses during which 0,1,2,3,4 and 5 heads were obtained are shown in the table below. Find the mean
number of heads per toss.

No. of heads per toss No. of tosses

0 38

1 144

2 342

3 287

4 164

5 25

Total 1000

Section D
32. A 2-digit number is such that the product of its digits is 24. If 18 is subtracted from the number, the digits [5]
interchange their places. Find the number.
OR
The product of Tanay's age (in years) five years ago and his age ten years later is 16. Determine Tanay's present age.
33. If a line is drawn parallel to one side of a triangle to intersect the other two sides in distinct points, then prove [5]
that the other two sides are divided in the same ratio.
34. A conical vessel of radius 6 cm and height 8 cm is completely filled with water. A sphere is lowered into the [5]
water and its size is such that when it touches the sides, it is just immersed as shown in Figure. What fraction of
water over flows?

OR
A wooden article was made by scooping out a hemisphere from each end of a solid cylinder as shown in the figure. If

Page 5 of 19
 the height of the cylinder is 10 cm and its base is of radius 3.5 cm, find the total surface area of the article.

35. Find the mean of the following frequency distribution: [5]

Class 5 - 15 15 - 25 25 - 35 35 - 45 45 - 55 55 - 65

Frequency 6 11 21 23 14 5

Section E
36. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Akshat's father is planning some construction work in his terrace area. He ordered 360 bricks and instructed the
supplier to keep the bricks in such as way that the bottom row has 30 bricks and next is one less than that and so
on.

The supplier stacked these 360 bricks in the following manner, 30 bricks in the bottom row, 29 bricks in the next
row, 28 bricks in the row next to it, and so on.
(a) In how many rows, 360 bricks are placed?
(b) How many bricks are there in the top row?
OR
If which row 26 bricks are there?
(c) How many bricks are there in 10th row?
37. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Jagdish has a field which is in the shape of a right angled triangle AQC. He wants to leave a space in the form of
a square PQRS inside the field for growing wheat and the remaining for growing vegetables (as shown in the
figure). In the field, there is a pole marked as O.

(a) Taking O as origin, coordinates of P are (-200, 0) and of Q are (200, 0). PQRS being a square, what are the
coordinates of R and S?

Page 6 of 19
 (b) What is the area of square PQRS?
OR
If S divides CA in the ratio K : 1, what is the value of K, where point A is (200, 800)?
(c) What is the length of diagonal PR in square PQRS?
38. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Totem poles are made from large trees. These poles are carved with symbols or figures and mostly found in
western Canada and northwestern United States.
In the given picture, two such poles of equal heights are standing 28 m apart. From a point somewhere between
them in the same line, the angles of elevation of the top of the two poles are 60o and 30o respectively.

(a) Draw a neat labelled diagram.

(b) Find the height of the poles.
OR
Find the location of the point of observation.
(c) If the distances of the top of the poles from the point of observation are taken as p and q, then find a
relation between p and q.

Page 7 of 19
 Solution
Section A

1. (a) x2y2
Explanation: x2y5 = y3(x2y2)
x3y3 = x(x2y2)
Therefore HCF (m, n) is x2y2
2.
(c) 2
Explanation: The number of zeroes is 2 as the graph intersects the x-axis at two points.
3. (a) consistent
Explanation: Given: a1 = 3, a2 = 2, b1 = 2, b2 = -3, c1 = 5 and c2 =7
a1 3 b1
Here, a2
=
2
,
b2
=
2

−3

a1 b1
∵ ≠
a2 b2

Therefore, the pair of given linear equations is consistent.

4. (a) x + x − 5 = 0
2

Explanation: In equation x 2
+ x − 5 = 0

a = 1, b = 1, c = −5

∴b
2
− 4ac = (1) 2
− 4 × 1 × (−5) = 1 + 20 = 21
Since b 2
− 4ac > 0 therefore, x 2
+ x − 5 = 0 has two distinct roots.
5.
(b) 33
Explanation: Given: a2 = 13
⇒ a + (2 - 1)d = 13
⇒ a + d = 13 ... (i)
And a5 = 25
⇒ a + (5 - 1)d = 25
⇒ a + 4d = 25 ... (ii)

Solving eq. (i) and (ii),

we get a = 9 and d = 4
∴ a7 = a + (7 - 1)d
= 9 + (7 - 1) × 4
=9+6×4
= 9 + 24 = 33
6.
(d) 3, -9
Explanation: Let the ordinate of other end = y
then distance between (2, -3) and (10, y) = 10 units
−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−
2 2
⇒ √(x2 − x1 ) + (y2 − y1 ) = 10

−−−−−−−−−−−−−−− −
2 2
⇒ √(10 − 2) + (y + 3) = 10
−−− −−−−− −−−−
2 2
⇒ √(8) + (y + 3) = 10

Squaring both sides

(8)2 + (y + 3)2 = (10)2 ⇒ 64 + (y + 3)2 = 100
⇒ (y + 3)2 = 100 - 64 = 36 = (6)2
⇒ (y + 3)2 - (6)2 = 0 ⇒ (y + 3 + 6) (y + 3 - 6)

Page 8 of 19
 = 0 {∵ a2 - b2 = (a + b) (a - b)}
⇒ (y + 9) (y - 3) = 0

Either y + 9 = 0, then y = -9
or y - 3 = 0, then y = 3
∴ y = 3, -9

7.
(d) ( 20

3
,
5

3
)

Explanation: AD is the angle bisector of ∠ BAC.

So, by the angle bisector theorem in △ABC, we have
AB
= ...(i)
BD

AC DC

Now, AB = 5 and AC = 10
∴ =
1

2
[using (i)]
BD

DC

Thus, D divides BC in the ratio 1 : 2.

2×6+1×8 −2×2+9×1
∴ D=( 2+1
,
2+1
) =( 20

3
,
5

3
)

8.
(b) 5.6 cm
Explanation: ΔAED ∼ ΔABC (SAS Similarly) ⇒ 12

30
=
ED

14
⇒ ED = 5.6cm
9.
(b) 10 cm
Explanation: In the given figure, point P is 26 cm away from the centre O of the circle.

Length of tangent PT = 24 cm
Let radius = r
In right △OPT,
OP2 = PT2 + OT2
⇒ 262 = 242 + r2
⇒ r2 = 262 – 242 = 676 – 576 = 100 = (10)2
r = 10
Radius = 10 cm
10.
(b) 24 cm
Explanation: 24 cm
11. (a) 1
Explanation: We have, (cosecθ − sin θ)(sec θ − cos θ)(tan θ + cot θ)
1 1 sin θ cos θ
= ( − sin θ) ( − cos θ) ( + )
sin θ cos θ cos θ sin θ

2 2 2 2
1− sin θ 1− cos θ sin θ+ cos θ
= × ×
sin θ cos θ sin θ cos θ
2 2
cos θ sin θ 1
= × ×
sin θ cos θ sin θ cos θ
2 2
sin θ cos θ
= = 1
2 2
sin θ cos θ

Page 9 of 19
 –
12. (a) √2
Explanation: Given: sin 45 ∘
+ cos 45
∘

= +
1 1

√2 √2
–
= 2
= √2
√2

13.
(c) 60 ∘

Explanation:

Given: Height of the pole = AB = h meters And the length of the shadow of the pole = BC = h
meters ∴ tan θ =
h

h
√3

√3

– ∘ ∘
⇒ tan θ = √3 ⇒ tan θ = tan 60 ⇒ θ = 60

14. (a) 231 cm2

Explanation: The angle subtended by the arc = 60o
) × π r2 cm2
o
60
So, area of the sector = ( 360
o

=( 441

6
)×( 22

7
)cm2
= 231 cm2
15.
p
(d) 720
× 2πR
2

Explanation: Area of the sector of angle p of a circle with radius R

θ p
2 2
= × πr = × πR
360 360
p p
2 2
= × 2πR = × 2πR
2(360) 720

16. (a) 1

Explanation: 1

17.
(d) 12
1

Explanation: Total number of outcomes =36

Favorable outcomes for sum greater than 10 are {(5,6),(6,5),(6,6)}
Number of favorable outcomes =3
P= = 3

36 12
1

18.
(d) 46
Explanation: Mode of 64, 60, 48, x, 43, 48, 43, 34 is 43
∵ By definition mode is a number which has maximum frequency which is 43
∴ x = 43

∵ x + 3 = 43 + 3 = 46

19.
(c) A is true but R is false.
Explanation: A is true but R is false.
20. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Section B
21. Let the larger number be x and the smaller number be y. Them,
2 2
x = x − y = 45 … … (i)
2

Page 10 of 19
 2
and y = 4x … . . ( ii )

substituting y2 = 5x in (i), we have

2
x − 4x = 45

2
⇒ x − 4x = 45 = 0

2
⇒ x − 9x + 5x − 45 = 0

⇒ x(x − 9) + 5(x − 9) = 0

⇒ (x − 0)(x + 5) = 0

⇒ either x − 9 = 0 or x + 5 = 0

⇒ x = 9 or x = −5
−− −
− −
−
∴ smaller number is √36 or √−20 [From (ii)]
−−−−
⇒ smaller number is = ±6[∵ √−20 is not real]

∴ Larger number = 9 and smaller number = ±6

22. From the given figure,

∠DOC + 125 = 180 [linear pair]
∘ ∘

∘
∠DOC = 55

Now, in △DOC,
∠DC O + ∠ODC + ∠DOC = 180
∘
[angle sum property of a triangle]
∘ ∘ ∘
∠DC O + 70 + 55 = 180

∘
∠DC O = 55

Now, △ODC ≅△OBA [given]

∘
∴ ∠OAB = ∠OC D = 55

23. Given,

AR = 4 cm.

Also, AR = AQ ⇒ AQ = 4cm

Now, QC = AC − AQ
= 11cm − 4cm = 7cm ...(i)
Also, BP = BR
∴ BP = 3 cm and PC = QC
∴ PC = 7 cm [From (i)]

BC = BP + P C

= 3cm + 7cm

= 10cm

24. Given sin X + sin2X = 1 ......... (i)

⇒ sin X = 1 - sin2X = cos2 X ...... (ii)
Now we show that cos2X + cos4X = 1
L.H.S = cos2X + cos4X
= 1 - sin2X + (1 - sin2X)2 [Using (ii)]
= sin X + sin2X [Using (ii)]
= 1 [Using (i)]
= R.H.S
OR
tan2θ + sin θ = cos2θ
Taking θ = 45o, we have
√2+1
L.H.S. = tan 2
45
∘
+ sin 45
∘
= (1)
2
+
1
= 1 +
1
=
√2 √2 √2

Page 11 of 19
 2
1 1
R.H.S. = cos 2
45 = ( ) =
2
√2

⇒ LH.S. ≠ R.H.S.
Hence given expression is not an identity.

25.

Shaded area = area of square − 4 (area of sector)

2
4×π×(25) ×90
2
= [(50 × 50) − ]m
360

2
= [2500 − 3.14 × 25 × 25]m

2
= [2500 − 1962.5]m

= 537.5 m2
OR
Radius of cirlce = 4cm
∘
θ = 30
θ
∴ Area of sector = 360
∘
× πr
2

∘
30
= ∘ × π × 4 × 4
360
4π 2
= cm
3

Section C
26. The required greatest capacity is the HCF of 120, 180 and 240.
240 = 180 × 1 + 60

180 = 60 × 3 + 0

HCF is 60.
Now HCF of 60, 120
120 = 60 × 2 + 0

∴ HCF of 120, 180 and 240 is 60.

∴ The required capacity is 60 litres.

27. We know, quadratic polynomial = x2 - (Sum of zeroes)x + Product of zeroes

5
Given, Sum of zeroes = − and Product of zeroes = 21

8 16
5
∴ Quadratic Polynomial = x 2
+
21

8
x +
16

= 1

16
(16x
2
+ 42x + 5)

⇒ Quadratic polynomial is 16x2 + 42x + 5

Now, we rewrite the polynomial as 16x + 2x + 40x + 5 2

= 2x ⋅ (8x + 1) + 5 ⋅ (8x + 1)
= (2x + 5) ⋅ (8x + 1)
Now, for Zeros, (8x + 1) ⋅ (2x + 5) = 0
−1 −5
⇒ x = ,
8 2

28. Let us suppose that the numerator be x and denominator be y

Therefore, the fraction is . x

Then, according to the given conditions, we have

3x 18 x+8 2
= and =
y−3 11 2y 5

⇔ 11x = 6y -18 and 5x + 40 =4y

⇔ 11x - 6y + 18 =0 and 5x - 4y + 40 =0

By cross multiplication, we have

x −y 1
= =
(−6)×40−(−4)×18 11×40−5×18 11×(−4)−5×(−6)

Page 12 of 19
 x −y 1
⇒ = =
−240+72 440−90 −44+30
x y 1
⇒ = =
−168 −350 −14

−168 −350
⇒ x = and y =
−14 −14

⇒ x =12 and y =25

Therefore, the fraction is 12

25
.

OR
Let the number of 20 paisa coins be x and that of 25 paisa coins be y. Then,
x + y = 50 .... (i)
Total value of 20 paisa coins = 20 x paisa
Total value of 25 paisa coins = 25 y paisa
∴ 20 x+25 y = 1125 ...(because Rs11.25 = 1125 paisa )

⇒ 4x + 5y = 225 ... (ii)

Thus, we get the following system of linear equations

x + y - 50 = 0
4x + 5y - 225 = 0
By using cross-multiplication, we have
x −y 1
= =
−225+250 −225+200 5−4
y
⇒
x

25
=
25
=
1

1
⇒ x = 25 and y = 25
Hence, there are 25 coins of each kind.

29.

Since AC is a tangent to the inner circle.

∘
∠OBC = 90

AC is a chord of the outer circle.

We know that, the perpendicular drawn from the centre to a chord of a circle, bisects the chord.
AC = 2BC
8 = 2BC
⇒ BC = 4 cm

In ΔOBC,
By Pythagoras theorem,
OC2 = OB2 + BC2
⇒ 52 = r2 + 42
⇒ r2 = 52 - 42
⇒ r2 = 25 - 16
⇒ r2 = 9 cm
⇒ r = 3 cm
OR
In the given figure, a quadrilateral ABCD is circumscribed a circle touching its sides at P, Q, R and S respectively.
AB = x cm, BC = 7 cm, CR = 3 cm and AS = 5 cm

Page 13 of 19
 A circle touches the sides of a quadrilateral ABCD.
AB + CD = BC + AD …(i)
Now, AP and AS are tangents to the circle
AP = AS = 5 cm …(ii)
Similarly, CQ = CR = 3 cm
BP = BQ = x – 5 = 4
BQ = BC – CQ = 7 – 3 = 4 cm
x–5=4
⇒ x = 4 + 5 = 9 cm
30. LHS = secθ(1 - sinθ)(secθ + tanθ)
sin θ
= [sec θ − ] × (sec θ + tan θ)
cos θ

= (sec θ − tan θ)(sec θ + tan θ)

= sec2θ - tan2θ = 1 = RHS

No of heads per toss No of tosses fixi

31.
0 38 0

1 144 144

2 342 684

3 287 861

4 164 656

5 25 125

∑ fi = 1000 ∑ fixi = 2470

∑ f xi
Mean number of heads per toss = i
=
2470

1000
= 2.47
∑ fi

Therefore, Mean = 2.47

Section D
32. Let the ten's digit be x and the one's digit be y.
The number will be 10x + y
Given, a product of digits is 24
∴ xy = 24

or, y = ...(i)
24

Given that when 18 is subtracted from the number, the digits interchange their places.
∴ 10x + y - 18 = 10y + x

or, 9x - 9y = 18
Substituting y from equation (i) in equation (ii), we get
24
9x − 9 (
x
) = 18
24
or, x − x
=2
or, x2 - 24 - 2x = 0
or, x2 - 2x - 24 = 0
or, x2 - 6x + 4x - 24 = 0

Page 14 of 19
 or, x(x - 6) + 4(x - 6) = 0
or, (x - 6)(x + 4) = 0
or, x - 6 = 0 and x + 4 = 0
or, x = 6 and x = -4
Since, the digit cannot be negative, so, x = 6
Substituting x = 6 in equation (i), we get
y= 24

6
=4
∴ The number = 10(6) + 4 = 60 + 4 = 64
OR
Let the present age of Tanay be x years
By the question,
(x - 5)(x + 10) = 16
or, x + 5x − 50 = 16
2

or, x + 5x − 66 = 0
2

or, x + 11x − 6x − 66 = −66

2

x(x + 1)-16(x - l11) = 0

(x + 11) (x -6 ) = 0
=-11, 6
Rejecting x = - 11, as age cannot be negative.
∴ Present age of Tanay is 6 years.

33. Given: ABC is a triangle in which DE || BC.

To prove: AD

BD
=
AE

CE

Construction: Draw DN ⊥ AE and EM ⊥ AD ., Join BE and CD.

Proof :

In △ADE,
Area of ΔADE = 1

2
× AE × DN ...(i)
In ΔDEC ,
1
Area of Δ DC E = 2
× C E × DN ...(ii)
Dividing equation (i) by equation (ii),
1
×AE×DN
area (ΔADE)
2
⇒ =
1
area (ΔDEC)
×CE×DN
2

area (ΔADE)
⇒ =
AE

CE
...(iii)
area (ΔDEC)

Similarly, In ΔADE,
Area of Δ ADE = × AD × EM ...(iv)
1

In ΔDEB,
Area of Δ DEB = 1

2
× EM × BD ...(v)
Dividing equation (iv) by equation (v),
1
×AD×EM
area (ΔADE) 2
⇒ =
area (ΔDEB) 1
×BD×EM
2

area (ΔADE)
⇒ =
AD

BD
...(vi)
area (ΔDEB)

ΔDEB and ΔDEC lie on the same base DE and between two parallel lines DE and BC.
∴ Area (ΔDEB) = Area (ΔDEC )
From equation (iii),
area (ΔADE)
⇒
area (ΔDEB)
=
AE

CE
. ......(vii)

Page 15 of 19
 From equation (vi) and equation (vii),
AE AD
=
CE BD

If a line is drawn parallel to one side of a triangle to intersect the other two sides in two points, then the other two sides are
∴

divided in the same ratio.

34. Radius (R) of conical vessel = 6 cm
Height (H) of conical vessel = 8 cm

Volume of conical vessel (Vc ) = 1

πr2 h
3

= 1

3
×π × 6 × 6 × 8

= 96πcm 3

Let the radius of the sphere be r cm

In right Δ PO'R by pythagoras theorem We have
l2 = 62 + 82
−−−−− −
l = √36 + 64 = 10 cm
In right triangle MRO
OM
sin θ =
OR
3 r
⇒ =
5 8−r

⇒ 24 - 3r = 5r
⇒ 8r = 24
⇒ r = 3 cm

∴ V1 = Volume of the sphere ,=

4 3 3 3
π × 3 cm = 36πcm
3

V2 = Volume of the water = Volume of the cone = 1

3
π × 6
2
× 8cm
3
= 96πcm
3

Clearly, volume of the water that flows out of the cone is same as the volume of the sphere i.e., V1.
∴ Fraction of the water that flows out =V 1 : V2 = 36π : 96π = 3 : 8

OR

TSA of the article = 2π rh + 2(2π r2)

= 2π (3.5)(10) + 2[2π (3.5)2]
= 70π + 49π
= 119 π
= 119 × 22

= 374 cm 2
CI fi xi di ui fiui
35.
5 - 15 6 10 -20 -2 -12

15 - 25 11 20 -10 -1 -11

25 - 35 21 30 0 0 0

Page 16 of 19
 35 - 45 23 40 10 1 23

45 - 55 14 50 20 2 28

55 - 65 5 60 30 3 15

Total 80 43
Σfi ui
Mean = A + Σfi
× h

= 30 + 43

80
× 10

= 35.375
Section E
36. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:
Akshat's father is planning some construction work in his terrace area. He ordered 360 bricks and instructed the supplier to keep
the bricks in such as way that the bottom row has 30 bricks and next is one less than that and so on.

The supplier stacked these 360 bricks in the following manner, 30 bricks in the bottom row, 29 bricks in the next row, 28 bricks in
the row next to it, and so on.
(i) Number of bricks in the bottom row = 30. in the next row = 29, and so on.
Therefore, Number of bricks stacked in each row form a sequence 30, 29, 28, 27, ..., which is an AP with first term, a =
30 and common difference, d = 29 - 30 = -1
Suppose number of rows is n, then sum of number of bricks in n rows should be 360.
i.e. S = 360
n

[2 × 30 + (n − 1)(−1)] = 360 {S = (2a + (n − 1)d) }

n n
⇒ n
2 2

⇒ 720 = n(60 − n + 1)

2
⇒ 720 = 60n - n + n

2
⇒ n − 61n + 720 = 0

⇒ n
2
− 16n − 45n + 720 = 0 [by factorization]
⇒ n(n − 16) − 45(n − 16) = 0

⇒ (n − 16)(n − 45) = 0

⇒ (n − 16) = 0 or (n − 45) = 0
⇒ n = 16 or n = 45
Hence, number of rows is either 45 or 16.
n = 45 not possible so n = 16
a 45= 30 + (45 − 1)(−1) {a = a + (n − 1)d }
n

= 30 − 44 = −14 [∵ The number of logs cannot be negative]

Hence the number of rows is 16.

(ii) Number of bricks in the bottom row = 30. in the next row = 29, and so on.
Therefore, Number of bricks stacked in each row form a sequence 30, 29, 28, 27,..., which is an AP with first term, a =
30 and common difference, d = 29 - 30 = -1
Suppose number of rows is n, then sum of number of bricks in n rows should be 360.
Number of bricks on top row are n = 16 ,
a16 = 30 + (16 - 1) (-1) {an = a + (n - 1)d}
= 30 - 15 = 15
Hence, and number of bricks in the top row is 15.
OR
Number of bricks in the bottom row = 30. in the next row = 29, and so on.
Therefore, Number of bricks stacked in each row form a sequence 30, 29, 28, 27,..., which is an AP with first term, a =
30 and common difference, d = 29 - 30 = -1.
Suppose number of rows is n, then sum of number of bricks in n rows should be 360.

Page 17 of 19
 an = 26, a = 30, d = -1
an = a + (n - 1)d
⇒ 26 = 30 + (n - 1) × -1
⇒ 26 - 30 = -n + 1
⇒ n = 5

Hence 26 bricks are in 5th row.

(iii)Number of bricks in the bottom row = 30. in the next row = 29, and so on.
therefore, Number of bricks stacked in each row form a sequence 30, 29, 28, 27, ..., which is an AP with first term, a =
30 and common difference, d = 29 - 30 = -1.
Suppose number of rows is n, then sum of number of bricks in n rows should be 360
Number of bricks in 10th row a = 30, d = -1, n = 10
an = a + (n - 1)d
⇒ a10 = 30 + 9 × -1
⇒ a10 = 30 - 9 = 21
Therefore, number of bricks in 10th row are 21.
37. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:
Jagdish has a field which is in the shape of a right angled triangle AQC. He wants to leave a space in the form of a square PQRS
inside the field for growing wheat and the remaining for growing vegetables (as shown in the figure). In the field, there is a pole
marked as O.

(i) Since, PQRS is a square

∴ PQ = QR = RS = PS

Length of PQ = 200 - (-200) = 400

∴ The coordinates of R = (200, 400)

and coordinates of S = (-200, 400)

(ii) Area of square PQRS = (side)2

= (PQ)2
= (400)2
= 1,60,000 sq. units
OR
Since, point S divides CA in the ratio K : 1
Kx2 + x1 Ky2 + y1
∴ (
K+1
,
K+1
) = (-200, 400)
K(200)+(−600) K(800)+0
⇒ (
K+1
,
K+1
) = (-200, 400)
200K−600
⇒ (
K+1
,
800K

K+1
) = (-200, 400)
∴
800K

K+1
= 400
⇒ 800K = 400K + 400
⇒ 400K = 400

⇒ K = 1

(iii)By Pythagoras theorem

(PR)2 = (PQ)2 + (QR)2

Page 18 of 19
 = 1,60,000 + 1,60,000
= 3,20,000
−−−−−− −
⇒ PR = √3, 20, 000
–
= 400 × √2 units
38. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:
Totem poles are made from large trees. These poles are carved with symbols or figures and mostly found in western Canada and
northwestern United States.
In the given picture, two such poles of equal heights are standing 28 m apart. From a point somewhere between them in the same
line, the angles of elevation of the top of the two poles are 60o and 30o respectively.

(i) Let AB and CD be the 2 poles and M be a point somewhere between their bases in the same line.

(ii) tan 60o = h

⇒ h = x√3
–
x

tan 30o =
h (28−x)

28−x
⇒ h=
√3
–
∴ h = 7√3 m
OR
tan 60o =
7√3

x
⇒ x = 7m = AM
MC = 28 - x = 21m
(iii)BM = p and DM = q
sin 60o =
p√3
h

p
⇒ h= 2

30o =
h q
sin q
⇒ h= 2

p√3 q –
∴
2
= 2
⇒ q = √3p

Page 19 of 19
 Class X Session 2024-25
Subject - Mathematics (Standard)
Sample Question Paper - 3

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This Question Paper has 5 Sections A, B, C, D and E.

2. Section A has 20 MCQs carrying 1 mark each

3. Section B has 5 questions carrying 02 marks each.

4. Section C has 6 questions carrying 03 marks each.

5. Section D has 4 questions carrying 05 marks each.

6. Section E has 3 case based integrated units of assessment (04 marks each) with sub- parts of the values of 1, 1 and

2 marks each respectively.

7. All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice in 2 Qs of 5 marks, 2 Qs of 3 marks and 2 Questions of

2 marks has been provided. An internal choice has been provided in the 2marks questions of Section E

8. Draw neat figures wherever required. Take π = 22

7
wherever required if not stated.

Section A
1. The sum of the exponents of the prime factors in the prime factorisation of 196, is [1]

a) 5 b) 3

c) 4 d) 2
2. Find the number of zeroes of p(x) in the figure given below. [1]

a) 2 b) 4

c) 1 d) 3
3. The lines represented by the linear equations y = x and x = 4 intersect at P. The coordinates of the point P are: [1]

Page 1 of 20
 a) (4 4) b) (-4 4)

c) (0 4) d) (4 0)

4 If y 1 is a common root of the equations ay2 ay 3 0 and y 2 y b 0 then ab equals [1]

a) 3 b) -3

c) d) - 2
P̂ , P̂  ,
5 The common difference of the AP ,
P

, ,
is [1]

a) -1 b) ˆ
P

c) 1 d)
P

A well-lanned locality has two straight roads erendicular to each other There are 5 lanes arallel to Road - I [1]
Each lane has 8 houses as seen in figure Chaitanya lies in the th house of the 5th lane and amida lies in the

2nd house of the 2nd lane hat will be the shortest distance between their houses

a) 12 units b) 5 units

c) units d) 10 units
Three consecutie ertices of a arallelogram ABCD are A(1 2) B(1 0) and C(4 0) The co ordinates of the [1]
fourth ertex D are

a) ( 4 2) b) (4 2)

c) (4 2) d) ( 4 2)
8 In the gien figure if ABDC then AP is equal to [1]

a) 5 cm b) cm

c) cm d) 55 cm

Page 2 of 20
 In the gien figure if O 3 cm OP 5 m then the length of PR is [1]

a) 4 cm b) 3 cm

c) 5 cm d) cm
10 AB and CD are two arallel tangents to a circle of radius 5 cm The distance between the tangents is [1]
ˆ ˆ
a) 5 cm b) ˚  cm
’
c)  ˚  cm d) 10 cm


11 1 ‘
βPU C
[1]
P βPT !  C

a) sinC b) secC

c) cosecC d) tanC
12 [1]
 ¨  ¨  ¨ P  ¨  ¨
βPT R βPT   TF β  βPT X ˆ  OUB 


a) 


b) R


c) d)
R
 P


 

13 A ertical tower stands on a horiontal lane and is surmounted by a ertical flag staff of height 5 m From a [1]
oint on the lane the angles of eleation of the bottom and to of the flagstaff are resectiely 30 and 0 The
height of the tower is

a) 10 m b) 5 m

c) 25 m d) 2 m
14 The length of the minute hand of a clock is 21 cm The area swet by the minute hand in 10 minutes is [1]

a) 252 cm2 b) 12 cm2

c) 231 cm2 d) 210 cm2

15 The length of an arc of a sector of angle

i of a circle with radius R is [1]
 

a) R

P
3 i
b) R 3

R
i

c) d)
 R 3 i  R 3 i

R P

1 If P(E) 005 what will be the robability of not E [1]

a) 055 b) 05

c) 05 d) 005
1 An unbiased die is thrown once The robability of getting a comosite number is [1]

a) 


b) P

c) d)
 P

R 

18 The arithmetic mean of 1 2 3 4 n is: [1]

* ˆ P
a) b)
* * P

 

* P
c) d)
*

 

Page 3 of 20
19. Assrtion (A): A toy is in the form of a cone mounted on a hemisphere with the same radius. The radius of the [1]

conical portion is 4 cm and its height is 3 cm. the surface area of the toy is 163.28 cm2 . [Take R = 3.14]
Reason (R): Volume of hemisphere is 

R
R .


a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

’ ’ ’ ’
20. Assertion (A): ˚ R ˚ RR˚ R ˚ R this series forms an A.P. [1]
’
Reason (R): Since common difference is same and equal to ˚ R therefore given series is an AP.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

Section B
21. Find the LCM and HCF of the pairs of integers 336 and 54 and verify that LCM g HCF = product of the two [2]
numbers.
22. In Fig.   ˇ   and   ˇ    Prove that AD2 = AB g AF. [2]

23. A circle is inscribed in a △   , touching BC, CA and AB at P, Q and R respectively, as shown in the given [2]
figure. If AB = 10 cm, AQ = 7 cm and CQ = 5 cm then find the length of BC.

24. If A = B = 60°, verify that sin (A - B) = sin A cos B - cos A sinB [2]
OR
Prove the trigonometric identity:

tan2A sec2B - sec2A tan2B = tan2A - tan2B

25. Find the difference of the areas of a sector of angle 120° and its corresponding major sector of a circle of radius [2]
21 cm.
OR
A chord of a circle of radius 10 cm subtends a right angle at the centre. Find the area of the corresponding:
i. minor segment
ii. major sector.
Section C
26. For a morning walk, three persons steps off together. The measure of their steps is 80,85 and 90 cm [3]
respectively.What is the minimum distance each should walk so that all can cover the same distance in complete
steps?

Page 4 of 20
 Which value is preferred in this situation?

27. Find the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial 6x2 - 3 - 7x and verify the relationship between the zeroes and the [3]
coefficients of the polynomial.
28. Half of the difference between two numbers is 2. The sum of the greater number and twice the smaller number is [3]
13. Find the numbers.
OR
Solve algebraically the following pair of linear equations for x and y
31x + 29y = 33
29x + 31y = 27
29. In a given figure, AB is a chord of length 8 cm of a circle of radius 5 cm. The tangents to the circle at A and B [3]
intersect at P. Find the length of AP.

OR
PQ is a chord of length 4.8 cm of a circle of radius 3 cm. The tangents at P and Q intersect at a point T as shown in
the figure. Find the length of TP.

30. Prove that: βPFT β 

P

ˆ βPU 
ˆ
θ
T O
P


= θ
T O
P


ˆ
βPFT β 
P

βPU 
. [3]
31. Compute the median for the following cumulative frequency distribution: [3]

Less than Less than Less than Less than Less than Less than Less than Less than Less than
20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100

0 4 16 30 46 66 82 92 100

Section D
32. Solve for x [5]


P

= 4


P P

= 4
P
where  = 4 Ü  ‘EO B  =4 Ü 

OR

If x = - 4 is a root of the equation 4 

 4  ,   , find the values of k for which the equation x2+ px(l + 3k) +
7(3 + 2k) = 0 has equal roots.
33. In a trapezium ABCD, AB DC and DC = 2AB. EF AB, where E and F lie on BC and AD respectively such [5]
that 
 





R
. Diagonal DB intersects EF at G. Prove that, 7EF = 11AB.
34. A tent is in the form of a right circular cylinder surmounted by a cone. The diameter of the base of the cylinder [5]
or the cone is 24 m. The height of the cylinder is 11 m. If the vertex of the cone is 16 m above the ground, find
the area of the canvas required for making the tent. (Use R )




OR
From a cubical piece of wood of side 21 cm, a hemisphere is carved out in such a way that the diameter of the
hemisphere is equal to the side of the cubical piece. Find the surface area and volume of the remaining piece.

Page 5 of 20
35. Find the mean and the median of the following data: [5]

Marks umber of Students

0 - 10 3

10 - 20 5

20 - 30 16

30 - 40 12

40 - 50 13

50 - 60 20

60 - 70 6

70 - 80 5

Section E
36. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Kamla and her husband were working in a factory in Seelampur, ew Delhi. During the pandemic, they were
asked to leave the job. As they have very limited resources to survive in a metro city, they decided to go back to
their hometown in Himachal Pradesh. After a few months of struggle, they thought to grow roses in their fields
and sell them to local vendors as roses have been always in demand. Their business started growing up and they
hired many workers to manage their garden and do packaging of the flowers.

In their garden bed, there are 23 rose plants in the first row, 21 are in the 2nd, 19 in 3rd row and so on. There are
5 plants in the last row.
(a) How many rows are there of rose plants?
(b) Also, find the total number of rose plants in the garden.
OR
If total number of plants are 80 in the garden, then find number of rows?
(c) How many plants are there in 6th row.
37. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Karan went to the Lab near to his home for COVID 19 test along with his family members.
The seats in the waiting area were as per the norms of distancing during this pandemic (as shown in the figure).
His family member took their seats surrounded by red circular area.

(a) What is the distance between eena and Karan?

(b) What are the coordinates of seat of Akash?

Page 6 of 20
 OR
Find distance between Binu and Karan.
(c) What will be the coordinates of a point exactly between Akash and Binu where a person can be?
38. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
An observer on the top of a 40m tall light house (including height of the observer) observes a ship at an angle of

depression 30o coming towards the base of the light house along straight line joining the ship and the base of the
light house. The angle of depression of ship changes to 45o after 6 seconds.

(a) Find the distance of ship from the base of the light house after 6 seconds from the initial position when

angle of depression is 45o.

(b) Find the distance between two positions of ship after 6 seconds?
OR

Find the distance of ship from the base of the light house when angle of depression is 30o.
(c) Find the speed of the ship?

Page 7 of 20
 Solution
Section A
1.
(c) 4
Explanation: Using the factor tree for prime factorisation, we have:

Therefore,
196 = 2 × 2 × 7 × 7

2 2
196 = 2 × 7

The exponents of 2 and 7 are 2 and 2 respectively.

Thus the sum of the exponents is 4.
2.
(b) 4
Explanation: The number of zeroes is 4. as the graph intersect the x-axis at four point.
3. (a) (4, 4)
Explanation: (4, 4)
4. (a) 3
Explanation: Here it is given that y = 1 is a common root, so we have;
ay2 + ay + 3 = 0
∴ a × (1)2 + a (1) + 3 = 0
a + a + 3 = 0 ⇒ 2a = -3
−3
⇒ a=
2

and y2 + y + b = 0
(1)2 + (1) + b = 0 ⇒ 1 + 1 + b = 0
⇒ 2 + b = 0

∴ b = -2
−3
ab = 2
× (-2) = 3
5. (a) -1
1−p 1−p−1 −p
Explanation: d = { p
−
1

p
} = (
p
) =
p
= −1 .

6.
(b) 5 units
Explanation: According to question,
Coordinates of Chaitanya’s house are (6, 5)
Coordinates of Hamida’s house are (2, 2)
∴ Shortest distance between their houses
− −−−−−−−−−−−−− −
= √(6 − 2) + (5 − 2) = 5 units.
2 2

7.
(c) (4, 2)
Explanation: Coordinates are given for A(1, 2), B(1, 0) and C(4, 0)
Let coordinates of D be (x, y).

Page 8 of 20
 Since diagonals of a parallelogram bisect each other. at point O
Therefore O is the midpoint of diagonal AC
1+4 2+0
Therefore, coordinates of O will be ( 2
,
2
) =( 5

2
, 1)

O is also the midpoint of diagonal BD

x+1 5
∴ = ⇒x = 4
2 2
y+0
And 2
= 1 ⇒y = 2 Therefore, the required coordinates are (4, 2).

8. (a) 5 cm.
Explanation: In triangles APB and CPD,
∠ APB = ∠ CPD [Vertically opposite angles] ∠ BAP = ∠ ACD [Alternate angles as AB||C D]

∴ΔAPB ∼ Δ CPD [AA similarity]

AB CP
∴ =
CD AP
4 AP
⇒ =
6 7.5

⇒ AP = 7.5×4

6
= 5 cm
9. (a) 4 cm
Explanation: Here ∠ Q = 90° [Angle between tangent and radius through the point of contact]
Now, in right angled triangle OPQ,
OP2 = OQ2 + PQ2
⇒ (5)2 = (3)2 + PQ2
⇒PQ2 = 25 - 9 = 16
⇒ PQ = 4 cm

But PQ = PR [Tangents from one point to a circle are equal]

Therefore, PR = 4 cm
10.
(d) 10 cm
Explanation: AB and CD are two parallel tangent to a circle
AB || CD
and OP ⊥ AB
OQ ⊥ CD
By fig clear that
distance between two tangent is OP + OQ
ie. 5 + 5 = 10 cm.

11.
(c) cosecα
2

Explanation: 1 + cot

1+cos ecα
α

2
cose c α−1
=1+ 1+cos ecα

(cosec α−1)(cosec α+1)

=1+ 1+cosecα

= 1 + cosecα - 1 = cosec α

Page 9 of 20
12.
(c) 83

Explanation: cos 2
30
∘
cos
2
45
∘
+ 4 sec
2
60
∘
+
1

2
cos
2 ∘
90 − 2 tan
2 ∘
60

2 2
√3 1 2 1 2 – 2
= ( ) ⋅ ( ) + (4 × 2 ) + ( × 0 ) − 2 × (√3)
2 √2 2

3 1 3 83
= ( × ) + 16 + 0 − 6 = + 10 =
4 2 8 8

13.
(c) 2.5 m

Explanation:

Here Height of the tower = CD = h meters, height of the flagstaff = AD = 5

meters, angle of elevation of top of the tower = ∠ DBC = 30 and angle of elevation of the top of the flagstaff from ground =
∘

∠ ABC = 60
∘

Now, in triangle DBC,

∘ h
tan 30 =
x
–
⇒
1
=
h

x
⇒x = h√3 …..(i)
√3

h+5
And tan 60 ∘
=
x
– h+5
⇒ √3 =
x
h+5
⇒x = …..(ii)
√3

From eq. (i) and (ii), we get,

– h+5
h√3 =
√3

⇒3h = h + 5

⇒2h = 5

⇒h = 2.5 meters
14.
(c) 231 cm2
Explanation: Area swept by minute hand in 60 minutes = πR 2

Area swept by it in 10 minutes

2
πR 2 22 1 2
= ( × 10) cm = ( × 21 × 21 × ) cm
60 7 6

= 231 cm2
15.
(c) 2πRθ

360

Explanation: 2πRθ

360

16.
(c) 0.95
Explanation: We know that
P(E) + P(not E) = 1
∴ P(not E) = 1 - P(E)

= 1 - 0.05
= 0.95

17.
(b) 1

Explanation: Number of composite numbers on a dice = {4, 6} = 2

Number of possible outcomes = 2

Page 10 of 20
 Number of Total outcomes = 6
∴ Required Probability =
2 1
=
6 3

18.
n+1
(d) 2

Explanation: According to question,

1+2+3+...+n
Arithmetic Mean = n
n(n+1)

= 2

n
n+1
= 2

19.
(c) A is true but R is false.
Explanation: A is true but R is false.
20. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Section B
21. 336 and 54
336 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 7 = 2 4 × 3 × 7
54 = 2 × 3 × 3 × 3 = 2 × 3 3
HCF = 2 × 3 = 6
LCM = 2 4 × 3 3 × 7 = 3024
Product of two numbers 336 and 54 = 336 × 54 = 18144
HCF × LCM = 6 × 3024 = 18144
Hence, product of two numbers = HCF × LCM`
22. In △ABC, it is given that
DE∥BC
AC
⇒
AB

AD
=
AE
..........(i)
In △ ADC, it is given that
F E∥DC
AC
⇒
AD

AF
=
AE
............(ii)
From (i) and (ii), we get
AB AD
=
AD AF

⇒ AD2 = AB × AF
23. Here it is given that, AB = 10 cm, AQ = 7 cm and CQ = 5 cm.
Now we know that the lengths of tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.
∴ AR = AQ = 7 cm.

BR = (AB - AR) = (10 - 7) cm = 3 cm.

∴ BP = BR = 3 cm,

CP = CQ = 5 cm.
BC = (BP + CP) = (3 + 5) cm = 8 cm
Hence the length of BC = 8cm.
24. L.H.S. = sin(A − B) = sin(60
∘ ∘
− 60 )

∘
= sin 0 = 0

R. H. S. = sin A cos B − cos A sin B

∘ ∘ ∘ ∘
= sin 60 cos 60 − cos 60 sin 60

√3 1 1 √3
= × − ×
2 2 2 2

√3 √3
= − = 0
4 4

∴ L.H.S. = R. H. S

OR
LHS = tan2A sec2B - sec2A tan2B
= tan2A(1 + tan2B) - (1 + tan2A) tan2B [∵ 1 + tan 2 2
θ = sec θ]

Page 11 of 20
 = tan2A + tan2A tan2B - tan2B - tan2A tan2B
= tan2A - tan2B
= RHS
Hence proved.
25. Let A1 and A2 be the areas of the given sector and the corresponding major sector respectively.
Given, θ = 120° and it's radius is 21 cm. So, r = 21 cm.
θ 2 120 2 2
∴ A1 = × πr = × π × (21) = 147πcm
360 360

and, A2 = Area of the circle - A1

⇒ A2 = {π × (21)
2
− 147π} cm
2
= π(441 − 147)cm 2
= 294πcm
2

Required differences =A2 - A1

=(294π − 147π)cm 2
= 147πcm
2
= (147 ×
22

7
) cm
2

= 462 cm2
OR
i. r = 10 cm, θ = 90 ∘

Area of minor sector = 360

θ
× πr
2

90 2
= × 3.14 × 10 × 10 = 78.5cm
360
OA×OB
Area of △OAB = 2
10×10 2
= = 50cm
2

∴ Area of the minor segment

= Area of minor sector - Area of △OAB
2 2 2
= 78.5cm − 50cm = 28.5cm

ii. Area of major sector = πr 2

− area of minor sector

= 3.14 × 10 × 10 − 78.5

2
= 314 − 28.5 = 285.5cm

Section C
26. Since, the three persons start walking together.
∴ The minimum distance each should walk so that all can cover the same distance in complete steps will be equal to LCM of
80,85 and 90.
Prime factors of 80,85 and are as following
4
80 = 16 × 5 = 2 × 5

85 = 5 × 17

2
90 = 2 × 9 × 5 = 2 × 3 × 5

4 2
So LCM of 80,85 and 90 = 2 × 3 × 5 × 17

=16×9×5×17=12240
∴ Each person should walk the minimum distance
=12240 cm =122 meter 40 cm
Value of morning walk :
“An early morning walk is a blessing for the whole day.”
27. The given polynomial is
p(x) = 6x2 -7x -3
Factorize the above quadratic polynomial, we have
6x2 -7x -3 = 6x2 -9x + 2x - 3
= 3x(2x - 3) + 1(2x - 3)

Page 12 of 20
 = (3x + 1)(2x - 3)
For p(x) = 0, either 3x + 1 = 0 or 2x - 3 = 0
−1 3
⇒ x = or x =
3 2

Verification:we have a = 6, b = -7, c = -3

−1
Sum of zeroes = + =
3
3

2
7

−b −(−7)
Also, a
=
6
=
7

−1
Now, product of zeroes= (− 1

3
) ×
3

2
=
2

−3 −1
Also, c

a
=
6
=
2

28. Let the greater numbers be 'x' and the smaller number 'y'.
It is said that half the difference between the two numbers is 2. So, we can write it as;
× (x - y) = 2
1

⇒ (x - y) = 4 ...(1)
It is also said that the sum of the greater number and twice the smaller number is 13. So, we can write it as;
x + 2y = 13 ...(2)
Subtracting (2) from (1), we get;
(x - y) - (x + 2y) = 4 - 13
⇒ x - y - x - 2y = - 9

⇒ -3y = -9
9
⇒ y= 3

⇒ y=3
Putting y = 3 in (1), we get;
x-y=4
⇒ x - 3 = 4

⇒ x = 4 + 3

⇒ x=7
Hence, the greater number is 7. The smaller number is 3.
OR
31x + 29y = 33 ----------(1)
29x + 31y = 27 ------------ (2)
Multiply (1) by 29 and (2) by 31 ( Since 29,31 are primes and Lcm is 29× 31)
(1) becomes 31x× 29 + 29× 29y = 33× 29 ------- (3)
(2) becomes 29x× 31+31× 31y=27× 31 ------- (4)
Subtracting (3) from (4),
(312 − 292)y = 27 × 31 − 33 × 29 = −120

(31 − 29)(31 + 29)y = −120

120y = −120

y = −1

Substituting in (1),
31x − 29 = 33

31x = 62

Hence,
x = 2 and y = −1

29. According to the question, radius of circle is = 5 cm.

Also, AB = 8 cm
AB
Now, AM = 2
= 4 cm

In △OMA,
By using pythagoras theorem, we get

Page 13 of 20
OA2 = OM2 + AM2
−−−−−−
∴ OM = √5 − 4 = 3 cm 2 2

Let AP = y cm, PM = x cm
In △OAP,
By using pythagoras theorem, we get
OP2 = OA2 = AP2
(x + 3)2 = y2 + 25
⇒ x2 + 9 + 6x = y2 + 25 ...(i)
In △AMP,
By using pythagoras theorem, we get
x2 + 42 = y2 ....(ii)
Substituting eq.(ii) in eq.(i), we get
⇒ x2 + 6x + 9 = x2 + 16 + 25
⇒ 6x = 32

⇒ x = = cm 32 16

6 3

Now, y2 = x2 + 16 = 256

9
+ 16 = 400

⇒ y= 20

3
cm.
Therefore, length of AP = y = 20

3
cm.
OR
Given, Chord PQ = 4.8 cm , radius of circle = 3 cm
Also, The tangents at P and Q intersect at a point T as shown in the figure.We have to find the length of TP.

Let TR = y and TP= x

We know that the perpendicular drawn from the center to the chord bisects It.Hence, PR = RQ ....(1)
Since, PQ = 4.8
or, PR + RQ = 4.8
or, PR + PR = 4.8 [ from (1)]
So, PR = 2.4

Now, in right triangle POR, Using Pythagoras theorem, we have

PO = OR + PR
2 2 2

2 2 2
⇒ 3 = OR + (2.4)

2
⇒ OR = 3.24

⇒ OR = 1.8

Now, in right triangle TPR ,By Using Pythagoras theorem, we have

2 2 2
TP = TR + PR

2 2 2
⇒ x = y + (2.4)

⇒ x
2
= y
2
...(2)
+ 5.76

Again, In right triangle TPO By Using Pythagoras theorem, we have,

2 2 2
TO = TP + PO

2 2 2
⇒ (y + 1.8) = x + 3

2 2
⇒ y + 3.6y + 3.24 = x + 9

⇒ y
2
+ 3.6y = x
2
+ 5.76 ......(3)
Solving (2) and (3), we get
x = 4cm and y = 3.2cm
∴ TP = 4cm.

Page 14 of 20
30. We have,
⇒
cosecA−cot A
1
−
1

sin A
= 1

sin A
−
1

cosecA+cot A

⇒
cosecA−cot A
1
+
cosecA+cot A
1
= 1

sin A
+
1

sin A

⇒
cosecA−cot A
1
+
cosecA+cot A
1
= 2

sin A

LHS = 1
+
1

cosecA−cot A cosecA+cot A
cosecA+cot A+cosecA−cot A
⇒
(cosecA−cot A)(cosecA+cot A)

2cosecA
⇒
2 2
cosec A− cot A
2

⇒
sin A

1
=
2
= RHS.
sin A

Hence Proved.
31. We are given the cumulative frequency distribution. So, we first construct a frequency table from the given cumulative frequency
distribution and then we will make necessary computations to compute median
Class intervals Frequency (f) Cumulative frequency (c.f.)

20-30 4 4

30-40 12 16

40-50 14 30

50-60 16 46

60-70 20 66

70-80 16 82

80-90 10 92

90-100 8 100

N = Σf = 100
i

Here, N = Σf = 100 ∴ i
N

2
= 50
We observe that the cumulative frequency just greater than N

2
= 50 is 66 and the corresponding class is 60-70.
So, 60-70 is the median class.
∴ l = 60, f = 20, F = 46 and h = 10
N
−F

Now, Median = l + 2
× h
f

50−46
⇒ Median = 60 + 20
× 10 = 62
Section D
32. 1

a+b+x
=
1

a
+
1

b
+
1

1 1 1 1
⇒ − = +
a+b+x x a b

−(a+b) b+a
⇒ =
2 ab
x +(a+b)x

2
⇒ x + (a + b)x + ab = 0

⇒ (x + a)(x + b) = 0

⇒ x = −a, x = −b

Hence ,x = - a, -b.
OR
x = - 4 is the root of the equation x 2
+ 2x + 4p = 0

2
(−4) + (2 × −4) + 4p = 0

or, p = -2
Equation x 2
− 2(1 + 3k)x + 7(3 + 2k) = 0 has equal roots.
2
∴ 4(1 + 3x) − 28(3 + 2k) = 0

or, 9k − 8k − 20 = 0
2

or, (9k +10)(k-2) = 0

−10
or, k = ,2
9

Hence, the value of k = − 10

9
,2

Page 15 of 20
33.

In a trapezium ABCD, AB|| DC ,. EF || AB and CD=2AB

and also =
BE

EC
-------------(1)
4

AB || CD and AB || EF
AF BE 4
∴ = =
FD EC 3

In ΔBGE and ΔBDC

∠BEG = ∠BC D (∵ corresponding angles)

∠GBE = ∠DBC (Common)

∴ ΔBGE ∼ ΔBDC [ By AA similarity]
⇒
EG

CD
=
BE

BC
...........(2)
N ow, from (1) BE
=
4

3
EC
EC 3
⇒ =
BE 4
EC 3
⇒ + 1 = + 1
BE 4
EC+BE 7
⇒ =
BE 4
BC 7 BE 4
⇒ = or =
BE 4 BC 7
EG 4
from equation (2), CD
=
7

So EG =
4

7
CD ......(3)
Similarly, ΔDGF ∼ ΔDBA (by AA similarity)
DF FG
⇒ =
DA AB
FG 3
⇒ =
AB 7

⇒ FG =
3

7
AB ...(4)
AF 4 BE
∵ = =
AD 7 BC
[ ]
EC 3 DE
⇒ = =
BC 7 DA

Adding equations (3) and (4),we get,

4 3
EG + F G = CD + AB
7 7
4 3
⇒EF = × (2AB) + AB
7 7
8 3 11
= AB + AB = AB
7 7 7

∴ 7EF = 11AB

34.

Diameter of cyliner = 24m

∴ radius of cylinder = radius of cone = 12m
Height of cylinder = 11m
Total height of tent = 16m
∴ Height of cone = 16 - 11 = 5m

Now, l2 = r2 + h2
⇒ l2 = 122 + 52
⇒ l2 = 144 + 25 = 169
−−−
⇒ l = √169 = 13m

Page 16 of 20
 ∴ Canvas required for tent = curved surface area of cone + curved surface area of cylinder
= π rl + 2π rh
= × 12 × 13 + 2 × × 12 × 11
22

7
22

= 22

7
× 12 [13 + 2 × 11]
=​​ 22

7
× 12 × 35

= 22 × 12 × 5 = 1320m2
OR
Given side of a cube = 21 cm
Diameter of the hemisphere is equal to the side of the cubical piece (d) = 21 cm
⇒ Radius of the hemisphere = 10.5 cm

Volume of cube = Side3

= (21)3
= 9261 cm3
Surface area of cubical piece of wood = 6a2
= 6 × 21 × 21 cm2
= 2646 cm2
2
Volume of the hemisphere = 3
3
πr

2 22
= × × 10.5 × 10.5 × 10.5
3 7

= 44 × 0.5 × 10.5 × 10.5

= 2425.5 cm3
Surface area of hemisphere = 2πr2
= 2 × π × 10.5 × 10.5 cm
= 693 cm
Volume of remaining solid = Volume of cubical piece of wood – Volume of hemisphere
⇒ Volume of the remaining solid = 9261 - 2425.5

= 6835.5 cm3
Surface area remaining piece of solid = surface area of cubical piece of wood – Area of circular base of hemisphere + Curved
Surface area of hemisphere
= 6a2 – πr2 + 2πr2
= (2646 – π × 10.52 + 693) cm2
= 2992.5 cm2.
Marks x f u= x−35
fu cf
35. 10

0-10 5 3 -3 -9 3

10-20 15 5 -2 -10 8

20-30 25 16 -1 -16 24

30-40 35 12 0 0 36

40-50 45 13 1 13 49

50-60 55 20 2 40 69

60-70 65 6 3 18 75

70-80 75 5 4 20 80

80 56
Mean = 35 + (10 × 56

80
) = 42
Median class: 40 - 50
Median = 40 + (40 − 36) = 43
10

13

Section E
36. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:

Page 17 of 20
 Kamla and her husband were working in a factory in Seelampur, New Delhi. During the pandemic, they were asked to leave the
job. As they have very limited resources to survive in a metro city, they decided to go back to their hometown in Himachal
Pradesh. After a few months of struggle, they thought to grow roses in their fields and sell them to local vendors as roses have
been always in demand. Their business started growing up and they hired many workers to manage their garden and do packaging
of the flowers.

In their garden bed, there are 23 rose plants in the first row, 21 are in the 2nd, 19 in 3rd row and so on. There are 5 plants in the last
row.
(i) The number of rose plants in the 1st, 2nd, .... are 23, 21, 19, ... 5
a = 23, d = 21 - 23 = - 2, an = 5
∴ an = a + (n - 1)d
or, 5 = 23 + (n - 1)(-2)
or, 5 = 23 - 2n + 2
or, 5 = 25 - 2n
or, 2n = 20
or, n = 10
(ii) Total number of rose plants in the flower bed,
n
Sn = [2a + (n − 1)d]
2
10
S10 = [2(23) + (10 − 1)(−2)]
2

S10 = 5[46 - 20 + 2]
S10 = 5(46 - 18)
S10 = 5(28)
S10 = 140
OR
Sn = 80
n
Sn = 2
[2a + (n − 1)d]

⇒ 80 = n

2
[2 × 23 + (n − 1) × −2]

⇒ 80 = 23n - n2 + n
⇒ n2 - 24n + 80 = 0
⇒ (n - 4)(n - 20) = 0

⇒ n = 4 or n = 20

n = 20 not possible
a20 = 23 + 19 × (-2) = -15
Number of plants cannot be negative.
n=4
(iii)an = a + (n - 1)d
⇒ a6 = 23 + 5 × (-2)
⇒ a6 = 13
37. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:
Karan went to the Lab near to his home for COVID 19 test along with his family members.
The seats in the waiting area were as per the norms of distancing during this pandemic (as shown in the figure). His family

Page 18 of 20
 member took their seats surrounded by red circular area.

(i) Position of Neena = (3, 6)

Position of Karan = (6, 5)
−−−−−−−−−−−−−− −
Distance between Neena and Karan = √(6 − 3) 2
+ (5 − 6)
2

−− −−− −−−
= √9 + (−1) 2

−−
= √10

(ii) Co-ordinate of seat of Akash = 2, 3

OR
Binu = (5, 5); Karan = (6, 5)
−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−
2
Distance = √(6 − 5) 2
+ (5 − 2)

−−−−
= √1 + 9
−−
= √10

(iii)

2+5 3+2
Co-ordinate of middle point = ( 2
,
2
)

= 3.5, 2.5
38. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:
An observer on the top of a 40m tall light house (including height of the observer) observes a ship at an angle of depression 30o
coming towards the base of the light house along straight line joining the ship and the base of the light house. The angle of
depression of ship changes to 45o after 6 seconds.

(i)

The distance of ship from the base of the light house after 6 seconds from the initial position when angle of depression is
45o.
In △ABC
tan 45o = AB

BC
40
⇒ 1 =
BC

⇒ BC = 40 m

Page 19 of 20
(ii)

The distance between two positions of ship after 6 seconds

CD = BD - BC
– –
⇒ CD = 40√3 - 40 = 40(√3 - 1)

⇒ CD = 29.28 m
OR

The distance of ship from the base of the light house when angle of depression is 30o.
In △ABD
tan 30o = AB

BD
1 40
⇒ =
√3 BD

–
⇒ BD = 40√3 m
(iii)

Speed of ship = Distance

T ime
=
29.28

6
= 4.88 m/sec

Page 20 of 20
 Class X Session 2024-25
Subject - Science
Sample Question Paper - 1

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.

2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected to

attempt only one of these questions.

3. Section A consists of 20 objective-type questions carrying 1 mark each.

4. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the

range of 30 to 50 words.

5. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these questions should
be in the range of 50 to 80 words.

6. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answers to these questions should

be in the range of 80 to 120 words.

7. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.

Section A
1. Which characteristic is observed by the reaction shown in the given image? [1]

a) Formation of a precipitate b) Change in temperature

c) Evolution of a gas d) Both change in temperature and evolution

of gas
2. BaCl2 + Na2SO4 ​→ BaSO4 + 2NaCl. It is type of: [1]

a) Both Precipitation reaction and Double b) Double displacement reaction

displacement reaction

c) Decomposition reaction d) Precipitation reaction

3. Acid present in tomato is: [1]

a) Acetic acid b) Methanoic acid

Page 1 of 16
 c) Lactic acid d) Oxalic acid
4. Which of the following are called soft soaps? [1]

a) Potassium salts b) Calcium salts

c) Magnesium salts d) Sodium salts

5. Take three boiling tubes A, B and C. Pour some water in test tube A Put iron nails in it and cork it. Pour boiled [1]
distilled water in another test tube B and put iron nails in it. Add 1 ml of oil over it such that oil floats over it and
prevents the air from entering. Take some iron nails in test tube C and put some anhydrous calcium chloride in it
and cork it.
Leave all the three test tubes for one day and then observe.

In which test tube nail is rusted?

a) Tube B and C b) Tube B

c) Tube A d) Tube A and C

6. Which oxide will turn blue litmus solution to red? [1]
A. SO2
B. MgO
C. Na2O
D. NO2

a) A and D b) B and C

c) A and C d) All of these

7. Butanone is a four carbon compound with the functional group: [1]

a) - COOH b) - CHO

c) - CO - d) - OH
8. In the excretory system of human beings, some substances in the initial filtrate such as glucose, amino acids, [1]
salts and water are selectively reabsorbed in

a) Ureter b) Urethra

c) Urinary bladder d) Nephron

9. The genotype for the height of an organism is Tt. What conclusion may be drawn from this? [1]

Page 2 of 16
 a) The allele for height has at least two b) There are at least two different alleles for
different genes. the gene for height.

c) There is one allele for height with two d) There are two different genes for height,
different forms. each having a single allele.
10. At what stage of the menstrual cycle is a woman said to be fertile? [1]

a) Ovulation b) All of these

c) Secretary phase d) Proliferative phase

11. Select the correct statement among the following. [1]
i. Human female possesses homomorphic sex chromosomes.
ii. Males possess homogametic sex chromosomes in humans.
iii. Human females possess heterogametic sex chromosomes.
iv. Human male possesses homomorphic sex chromosomes.

a) Statement (iii) is correct. b) Statement (i) is correct.

c) Statement (ii) is correct. d) Statement (iv) is correct.

12. The autotrophic mode of nutrition requires: [1]

a) sunlight b) All of these

c) carbon dioxide and water d) chlorophyll

13. Which of the following describes the common domestic power supplied in India? [1]

a) 110 v, 100 Hz b) 220 v, 100 Hz

c) 110 v, 50 Hz d) 220 v, 50 Hz
14. What is the minimum resistance which can be made using five resistors each of 1/5 Ω ? [1]

a) b) 25 Ω
1
Ω
25

c) 1

10
Ω d) 1

5
Ω

15. The pyramid shown here can be the pyramid of ________. [1]

a) Biomass in a forest b) Energy in a Grassland

c) Number in a pond d) Biomass in a pond ecosystem

16. In a given food chain, suppose the amount of energy available at the third trophic level is 50 KJ. What will be [1]
the energy available at the producer level?

a) 5000 KJ b) 50 KJ

c) 5 KJ d) 500 KJ
17. Assertion (A): Stannous chloride is a powerful oxidising agent which oxidises mercuric chloride to mercury. [1]
Reason (R): Stannous chloride gives a grey precipitate with mercuric chloride, but stannic chloride does not do
so.

Page 3 of 16
 a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

18. Assertion (A): Vaginal pills contain spermicides. [1]
Reason (R): Spermicides kill the sperms.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

19. Assertion (A): The magnetic field intensity at the centre of a circular coil carrying current changes, if the [1]
current through the coil is doubled.
Reason (R): The magnetic field intensity is dependent on current in conductor.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

20. Assertion (A): In an ecosystem, the function of producers is to convert organic compounds into inorganic [1]
compounds.
Reason (R): Green plants, the producers, transduce solar energy.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

Section B
21. Why does micelle formation take place when soap is added to water? Will a micelle be formed in other solvents [2]
such as ethanol also.
22. Define the term pollination. Differentiate between self-pollination and cross-pollination. What is the significance [2]
of pollination?
23. What are the components of the transport system in highly organized plants? [2]
OR
What are the two phases of photosynthesis reactions?
24. A concave lens has a focal length of 10 cm. An object 2.5 cm high is placed 30 cm from the lens. Determine the [2]
position and size of the image.
25. Give some examples along with reasons of insecticides that are banned due to their fatal effects. [2]
OR
What is ozone and how does it affect any ecosystem?
26. What type of lens we wear if we are suffering from myopia ? [2]
Section C
27. Nikita took Zn, Al, Cu, Fe, Mg and Na metal and put each metal in cold water and then hot water. She reacted [3]
the metal with steam
(i) Name the metal which reacts with cold water.
(ii) Which of the above metals react with steam?

Page 4 of 16
 (iii) Name the metal which reacts with hot water.
(iv) Arrange these metals in order of increasing reactivity.
28. Name a metal/non-metal: [3]
i. Which makes iron hard and strong?
ii. Which is alloyed with any other metal to make an amalgam?
iii. Which is used to galvanize iron articles?
iv. Whose articles when exposed to air form a black coating?
OR
Give reasons:
a. Platinum, gold and silver are used to make jewellery.
b. Sodium, potassium and lithium are stored under oil.
c. Aluminium is a highly reactive metal, yet it is used to make utensils for cooking.
d. Carbonate and sulphide ores are usually converted into oxides during the process of extraction.
e. Lemon or tamarind juice are effective in cleaning tarnished copper vessels.
29. Draw the diagram of part of leaf from which transpiration takes place. Explain stomatal or foliar transpiration. [3]
30. In pea plant, round seed is dominant over the wrinkled. If a cross is carried out between these two plants, give [3]
answer to the following questions.
i. Mention the genes for the traits of parents.
ii. State the trait of F1 hybrids.
iii. Write the ratio of F2 progeny obtained from this cross. What is the name of the cross?

31. What is atmospheric refraction? Explain with the help of a labelled diagram that the position of a star as seen by [3]
us is not its true position.

32. a. Calculate the resistance of a metal wire of length 2 m and area of cross-section 1.55 × 10-6 m2. (Resistivity [3]

of the metal is 2.8 × 10-8 Ω m)

b. Why are alloys preferred over pure metals to make the heating elements of electrical heating devices?

33. i. An electric lamp of 100 ohms, a toaster of resistance 50 ohms and a water filter of resistance 500 ohms are [3]
connected in parallel to a 220V source. what is the resistance of the electric iron connected to the same
source that takes as much current as all the three appliances and what is the current through it?
ii. Which uses more energy, a 250 W TV set for 1 hour or a 1,200 W toaster for 10 minutes?
Section D
34. i. Compare soaps and detergents on the basis of their composition and cleansing action in hard water. [5]
ii. What happens when ethanol is treated with sodium metal? State the behaviour of ethanol in this reaction.
iii. Draw the structure of cyclohexane.
iv. Name the following compound.
H

H − C − C − H
|| |
O H

OR
Draw the possible isomers of the compound with molecular formula C3H6O and also give their electron dot
structures.
35. Why are budding, fragmentation and regeneration all considered as asexual types of reproduction? With neat [5]

Page 5 of 16
 diagrams explain the process of regeneration in Planaria.
OR

Observe the above figure carefully and answer the following:

i. Which phenomenon does the figure represent?
ii. Which plant hormone is involved?
iii. How this plant hormone brings this movement?
36. What is lens formula ? Give its sign conventions and assumptions. [5]
OR
Differentiate between a concave mirror and a convex mirror.
Section E
37. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
The teacher while conducting practicals in the laboratory divided the students into three groups and gave them
various solutions to find out their pH and classify them into acidic, basic and neutral solutions.
Group A - Lemon juice, vinegar, colourless aerated drink
Group B - Tomato juice, coffee, ginger juice
Group C - Sodium hydroxide, sodium chloride, lime water
(a) For the solutions provided, which group is/are likely to have pH value (i) less than 7, and (ii) greater than
7?
(b) List two ways of determining pH of a solution.
OR
Explain, why the sour substances such as lemon juice are effective in cleaning the tarnished copper
vessels.
38. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Fill a conical flask with water. Cover the neck of the flask with a wire mesh. keep two or three freshly
germinated bean seeds on the wire mesh. Take a cardboard box which is open from one side. Keep the flask a
wire mesh. Kin the box in such a manner that the open side of the box faces light coming from a window as
shown in the given figure. After two or three days, you will notice that the shoots bend towards light and roots
away from light. Now turn the flask so that the shoots are away from light and the roots towards the light. Leave
it undisturbed in this condition for a few days. Plants show tropism in response to other stimuli as well. The
roots of a plant always grow downwards while the shoots usually grow upwards and away from the earth. This
upward and downward growth of shoots and roots, respectively, in response to the pull of earth or gravity, is

Page 6 of 16
 obviously, geotropism.

(a) What has represented by the given activities?

(b) Do old parts of the shoot and root change direction? Is there any difference in the direction of the new
growth?
(c) What can we conclude from this activity?
OR
What is geotropism?
39. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
A student was asked to perform an experiment to study the force on a current carrying conductor in a magnetic
field. He took a small aluminum rod AB, a strong horse shoe magnet, some connecting wires, a battery and a
switch and connected them as shown. He observed that on passing current, the rod gets displaced. On reversing
the direction of current, the direction of displacement also gets reversed. On the basis of your understanding of
this phenomenon, answer the following questions :

(a) State the condition under which the displacement of the rod is largest for the same magnitude of current
flowing through it.
(b) State the rule that determines the direction of the force on the conductor AB.
(c) i. If the U shaped magnet is held vertically and the aluminum rod is suspended horizontally with its end
B towards due north, then on passing current through the rod from B to A as shown, in which direction
will the rod be displaced?
ii. Name any two devices that use current carrying conductors and magnetic field.
OR
Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines produced around a current-carrying straight conductor held
vertically on horizontal cardboard. Indicate the direction of the field lines as well as the direction of the
current flowing through the conductor.

Page 7 of 16
 Solution
Section A
1.
(d) Both change in temperature and evolution of gas
Explanation: Two observations are made that may suggest that a chemical reaction has taken place in the given image are
i. evolution of a gas and
ii. change in temperature.
A pop sound is produced when zinc granules and dilute sulphuric acid reacts together which shows that hydrogen gas is
produced during the reaction. The flask also becomes warm showing that there is a change in temperature. Hence, the chemical
reaction between zinc and dilute sulphuric acid is characterized by the evolution of hydrogen gas and change in temperature.
Zn + H2SO4 → ZnSO4 + H2↑ + Heat

2. (a) Both Precipitation reaction and Double displacement reaction

Explanation:
Double decomposition takes place, due to the exchange of ions between the 2 substances. A white precipitate of barium
sulphate is formed.
BaCl2 + Na2SO4 → ​ ​BaSO4 + 2NaCl
BaSO4 is insoluble in water. NaCl dissolves in water.
BaSO4 is Barium Sulphate
NaCl is common salt of Sodium Chloride
3.
(d) Oxalic acid
Explanation: More than ten different types of acids, including citric acid, malic acid, ascorbic acid, and oxalic acid, are present
in tomatoes. Each 100 g serving of tomatoes contains about 50 mg of oxalic acid. So, the main acid found in tomatoes is oxalic
acid.
4. (a) Potassium salts
Explanation: Potassium salts
5.
(c) Tube A
Explanation: Iron nails get rusted in test tube A because both air and water are present in it. Iron nails do not get rusted in B
because there is water but no air. In C, rusting will not take place because there is neither air nor water.
6. (a) A and D
Explanation: An acidic oxide will turn blue litmus red. Non-metal oxides (Oxides of S and N) are acidic in nature. Metal
oxides (Oxides of Mg and Na) are basic in nature.
7.
(c) - CO -
Explanation:
Butanone (CH3COCH2CH3) is the second member of ketones. It is a four carbon compound with ketone functional group (-
CO -). The ketone functional group has two free valencies which are satisfied by one methyl ( -CH3 ) group and one ethyl ( -
C2H5 ) group.

8.
(d) Nephron
Explanation: Nephron

Page 8 of 16
 9.
(b) There are at least two different alleles for the gene for height.
Explanation: Genotype is the genetic composition of an organism, i.e., the combination of alleles it possesses. Every character
in an organism is controlled by a gene that has at least two alleles that lie on the two homologous chromosomes at the same
locus. These alleles may represent the same (homozygous, e.g., TT for height)or alternate expressions (heterozygous, e.g., Tt)
of the same character. Thus, if genotype for the height of an organism is Tt, this means there are at least two different alleles for
the gene for height, one is T and the other is t.
10. (a) Ovulation
Explanation: In general, a woman's fertile window is the day of ovulation (usually 12 to 16 days before the cycle begins) and
the five days preceding it.
11.
(b) Statement (i) is correct.
Explanation: In humans, females have homomorphic sex chromosomes, i.e., two X chromosomes. Thus, they are
homogametic, i.e., produce only one type of gametes which contain X chromosomes. Sex chromosomes of human males are
heteromorphic or dissimilar, i.e., XY. Fluman males are therefore heterogametic, i.e., produce two types of gametes.
12.
(b) All of these
Explanation: Autotrophic nutrition is fulfilled by the process by which autotrophs take in CO2 and H2O and convert these into
carbohydrates in the presence of chlorophyll and sunlight. This process is called Photosynthesis.
13.
(d) 220 v, 50 Hz
Explanation: The voltage in India is 220 volts, alternating at 50 cycles (Hertz) per second. The advantage of 220 is lower
current and thus less power loss. And the ability to use thinner wires - less copper.
14. (a) 1

25
Ω

Explanation: When resistors are connected in parallel, the supply current is equal to the sum of the currents through each
resistor. Also, they have the same potential difference across them.
In other words, any components in parallel have the same potential difference across them. And, the total resistance will always
be lesser than the least resistance in the circuit.
The total resistance is calculated as RT
=
1 1
+
R1
+
1

R2
. That is, R =R
1

R3
−1

In this case, the given resistance is 1

5
ohms each. Therefore, the minimum resistance that can be obtained from the parallel
connection of these five resistors is given as follows:
. Therefore, R =
1 5 5 5 5 5 25 1
= + + + + =
RT 1 1 1 1 1 1 25

Hence, the minimum resistance which can be made using five resistors each of 1/5 ohms is 1/25 ohms.
15.
(d) Biomass in a pond ecosystem
Explanation: The pyramid shown here is an inverted pyramid. Pyramid of energy can never be inverted. Number of producers
(i.e., phytoplanktons) in a pond are always more than the consumers thus, pyramid of number in a pond cannot be inverted. In a
forest, biomass of producers (i.e., tree) is large, so pyramid of biomass in a forest is also upright. Pyramid of biomass for pond
ecosystem is inverted as biomass of a trophic level depends on reproductive potential and longevity of its members.
16. (a) 5000 KJ
Explanation: According to 10% law, the energy available to each successive trophic level is 10% of the previous trophic
level.
Given, the energy available at the third trophic level = 50 KJ
The energy available at second trophic level = 50 KJ × 10 = 500 KJ
Therefore, the energy available at the producer level (first trophic level) = 500 KJ × 10 = 5000 KJ
17.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Explanation: A is false but R is true.
18.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Page 9 of 16
 Explanation: Vaginal pills are the chemical methods of birth control. The vaginal pills contain the chemicals called
spermicides which kill the sperms.
19. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: The magnetic field at the centre of circular coil is directly proportional to the current flowing through it.
So if current through coil is doubled then magnetic field becomes double.
20. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Section B
21. Soaps are sodium or potassium salts of long chain fatty acids. The action of a soap is based on the presence of both hydrophilic
and hydrophobic groups in a soap molecule. This action emulsifies the oily dirt and helps in its removal.
The two ends of a soap molecule have different properties. When soap is added to water, the ionic, hydrophilic end of soap
molecule dissolves in water. The hydrocarbon chain of soap molecule is hydrophobic and it dissolves in hydrocarbons i.e. links
with oily dirt. The hydrocarbon chain of soap molecule orients towards the oil droplet while the ionic end orients towards water
(polar solvent). This is how, soap molecules form structures called micelles where the oily dirt is collected in the centre. Thus,
soap micelles help in dissolving dirt in water. Micelles stay in solution as colloids and the dirt suspended in the micelles is easily
rinsed away.
Micelle formation will not take place in a solvent like ethanol because ethanol will dissolve the hydrocarbon chain of a soap
molecule also.

22. Pollination is the act of transferring pollen grains from the male anther of a flower to the female stigma. The goal of every living
organism, including plants, is to create offspring for the next generation. One of the ways that plants can produce offspring is by
making seeds. Seeds contain the genetic information to produce a new plant.
Self-pollination:
i. It is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther of the stamen to the stigma of the carpel of the same flower or different
flower of the same plant.
ii. It does not require external agents.
iii. It does not introduce variation.
iv. It is a sure and economical method.
v. It avoids mixing or dilution of the original characters.
vi. The progeny becomes weaker after every generation
Cross-pollination:
i. It is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of different flowers of different plants.
ii. It requires external agents like wind, insects, etc. to carry out pollination.
iii. It introduces variation and adaptability.
iv. It is not economical and is highly wasteful.
v. Good characters of a race can be diluted.
vi. The progeny becomes healthier and better fitted for existence.
23. Components of the transport system in plants
1. Xylem tissue – Vessels and tracheoles of roots, stems and leaves are concerned with transport of water and minerals.
2. Phloem transports food, amino acid and other substances.
OR
The two phases of photosynthesis reactions are as follows:
a) Light reaction: In light-dependent reactions, the energy from sunlight is absorbed by chlorophyll and converted into chemical
energy in the form of electron carrier molecules like ATP and NADPH. It takes place in the thylakoid of the grana of the

Page 10 of 16
 chloroplasts.
b) Dark reaction: In light-independent reactions (Calvin Cycle), carbohydrate molecules are assembled from carbon dioxide using
the chemical energy harvested during the light-dependent reactions. It takes place in the stroma of the chloroplasts.
24. Since the lens is concave, hence f is negative
Given: u = - 30 cm; f= - 10 cm; h = 2.5 cm; v = ?; h' = ?

The lens formula for concave lens is 1

v
−
1

u
=
1

1 1 1
− =
v −30 −10
1 1 1
= −
v 10 30

1 −3−1
=
v 30

v = -7.5 cm
The negative sign indicates the virtual nature of the image.
The image is at a distance of 7.5 cm from lens (in front of lens).
−7.5
The magnification m = v

u
=
30

= 1

= +0.25
The positive sign with the magnification indicates that the image formed erect.
The size of the image is determined by h'.
′
h

h
=m
h' = h × m
= 2.5 × 0.25
= 0.625 m
Thus the image formed is virtual and erect. It is at a distance of 7.5 cm from lens and its size is 0.625 cm.
25. Many insecticides such as aldicarb, aldrin, chlorodane and dieldrin with many others have been banned in India due to their
harmful effects on life. These pesticides are non-biodegradable and get accumulated in the body of organisms and the
concentration of these chemicals increases with each trophic level, thus, killing a large number of organisms and putting various
health risks to others.
OR
Ozone is a form of oxygen. It is formed by three atoms of oxygen (Os), whereas normal oxygen molecule is diatomic (02).
Oxygen is essential for all aerobic forms of life and for combustion activities. Ozone, is a deadly poison. Very little of it is present
in lower part of the atmosphere called troposphere. In the stratosphere, ozone layer comprises high concentration of ozone some
18-26 km above. Ozone performs an essential function. It shields the surface of the earth from the harmful ultraviolet (UV)
radiation of the sun.
26. We rarely use concave lens as is usually supposed. We often use convexo concave lens or any other diverging lens.
Section C
27. (i) Na
(ii) Al, Zn, Fe
(iii) Mg
(iv) Na>Mg>Al>Zn>Fe>Cu
28. i. Carbon makes iron hard and strong.
ii. Mercury is alloyed with any other metal to make an amalgam.
iii. Zinc used to galvanize iron articles.
iv. Silver article when exposed to air from a black coating.
OR
a. Platinum, gold and silver are used to make jewelry because of their bright shiny surface and high resistance to corrosion. Also
they have high malleability and ductility.

Page 11 of 16
 b. Sodium, potassium and lithium are stored under oil to prevent their reaction with oxygen, moisture and carbon dioxide of air
so as to protect them.
c. Aluminum metal forms a thin layer of aluminum oxide all over its surface under the action of moist air. This layer prevents the
metal underneath from further corrosion. It is cheap, easily available, malleable and ductile. Therefore, it is used to make
utensils for cooking.
d. It is easier to obtain a metal from its oxides as compared to its sulphides and carbonates. So, prior to reduction, metal
carbonate and sulphides must be converted into metal oxides. A carbonate ore is converted into oxide by calcination whereas a
sulphide ore is converted into oxide by roasting.
e. When copper vessels are exposed to moist air, they form a green coating of basic copper carbonate [C uC O 3. C u(OH )2 ].
2C u + C O2 + O2 + H2 O → C uC O3 . C u(OH)
2
From Moistair Basic Copper Carbonate (Green)

The sour substances such as lemon or tamarind juice contain acids. Lemon juice contains citric acid and tamarind contains
tartaric acid. These acids dissolve the coating of copper oxide or basic copper carbonate present on the surface of tarnished
copper vessels and make them shining red-brown again.
29. Stomatal transpiration: The epidermis has minute pores called stomata. Each stoma is surrounded by two specialised epidermal
cells called guard cells. The guard cells are kidney-shaped, process chloroplasts and less elasticity. Adjacent to the epidermal cells,
their walls are thin and elastic. They are thickened near the openings. The stomata remain open in light and close in darkness.
Guard cells control the opening or closing of stomata.
The stomata form the chief pathway of transpiration. Though the relative total area of the stomatal pore is 1-2% of the total area of
the leaf, more transpiration takes place through these stomata only.

30. i. RR for homozygous pure round. And rr for homozygous pure wrinkle pea plant.
ii. Rr (hybrid) - heterozygous. All are round since round is dominant over wrinkled.
iii. 3:1 (phenotypic ratio), 1:2:1 (genotypic ratio) The name of this cross is monohybrid cross.
31. Atmospheric refraction:- The refraction of light caused by the earth's atmosphere (having their layers of varying optical
densities) is called atmospheric refraction.
Light from a star is refracted as it leaves space and enters the earth's atmosphere. Air higher up in the sky is rare but that near the
Earth's surface is denser. So, as the light from a star comes down the dense air bends the light more. Therefore, the apparent
position to the star is slightly different from its actual position.

32. a. Step 1: Given that:

Length(l) of the metal wire= 2m
Area of cross section (A) = 1.55 × 10-6m2
Resistivity(ρ ) of the metal= 2.8 × 10-8 Ω -m
Step 2: Calculation of resistance:
Resistance of a conductor is given by:
ρl
R= A

Page 12 of 16
 Thus, putting all the values, we get
−8
2.8× 10 Ω−m×2m
R= −6 2
1.55×10 m
−2

R= 5.6×10

1.55

R = 3.61 × 10-2Ω
Thus,
The resistance of the metal wire is 3.61 × 10-2Ω
b. Alloys are used in electrical heating devices rather than pure metals because the resistivity of an alloy is more than the
resistivity of pure metal. Also, the melting point of an alloy is high, so it does not melt or oxidize easily even at a higher
temperature.
33. i. Combined resistance of 100Ω , 50Ω and 500Ω in parallel
5+10+1 125
i.e. Rp is given by 1

RP
=
1

100
+
1

50
+
1

500
=
500
=
4
= 31.25

Resistance of electric iron = 31.25Ω

Current through electric iron = = V

R
220

31.25
= 7.04A

ii. Energy consumed E1 = P1t1 = 250 W × 1h = 250 J

S
× 3600s
E1 = 900000J
E2 = P2t2 = 12000W × 10 min
J
E2 = 1200 S
× 600s
E2 = 720000J
∴ 250Ω TV set consumes more energy.
Section D
34. i. Difference between soap and detergent:
Property Soap Detergent

Soaps are sodium or potassium salts of long-chain Detergents are the ammonium or sulphonate
Composition
carboxylic acids/ fatty acids salts of long-chain carboxylic acids.

Cleansing action Ca2+ and Mg2+ are present in hard water and forms Detergents work well with hard and soft water
in hard water insoluble substance (scum) with soap. both.

ii. Ethanol reacts with sodium metal to produce sodium ethoxide (CH3CH​​2​ ONa) and hydrogen gas. This salt is colourless and
soluble in water.
2N a + 2C H3 C H2 OH → 2C H3 C H2 ON a + H2
Ethanol Sodium ethoxide

The reaction is used to test the presence of ethanol or alcohol as hydrogen gas evolved during the reaction.
iii. Structure of cyclohexane:

iv. The name of the compound is ethanol.

OR
There are four isomers possible for the molecular formula C3H6O. These are as follows:
i. C H 3
C H2 C H O
Propanal

electron dot structure:

Page 13 of 16
 ii.

Prop - 2 - one
electron dot structure:

iii. C H 3 − C H = C H − OH
Prop - 1 - enol

electron dot structure:

iv. C H 2 = C H − C H2 − OH
Prop - 2 - enol

electron dot structure:

35. Budding, fragmentation and regeneration are all example of asexual reproduction because all of them involve only one parent.
Male and female gametes are not involved in the reproduction. Thus in all of the three process no variation is produced.
Planaria can be cut into any number of pieces and each piece grows into a complete organism. This process is known as
regeneration (see fig.) Regeneration is carried out by specialised cells known as neoblast ( adult stem cells ).
These cells proliferate and produce large numbers of cells. From this mass of cells, different cells undergo changes to become
various cell types and tissues, giving rise to whole new organism with same DNA content as its parent. These changes take place
in an organised manner referred to as development.

OR
i. The figure represents the phenomenon of phototropism i.e., response of plants to light.
ii. The plant hormone auxin is invoved in the phenomenon of phototropism.
iii. Plants show their growth towards light and this movement is caused by the action of auxin hormone. Auxin is synthesised by
the meristematic tissue which is present at the tip of shoot, roots etc. In the above figure the plant bends towards the light.
Auxin hormone is synthesised in the tip of the stem and moves towards the side of the plant not receiving light. Due to more

Page 14 of 16
 auxin hormone in the region of the plant that does not receive light they grew faster than the part that receives light. So the
stem bents towards the direction of light.
36. If u is the distance of object and v, the distance of image from optical centre of the lens, then focal length f is related to u and v by
1

f
=
1

v
− which is called lens formula. The formula is equally applicable to convex, concave or any other type of lens. (e.g.
1

concavo-convex, plano-convex, convexo-concave, plano-concave etc.)

Sign Conventions:
(1) The object is always placed to the left of the lens.
(2) All distances parallel to principal axis are measured from optical centre of the lens.
(3) All distance measured to the right of optical centre (along x-axis) are taken as positive while those measured to the left of
optical centre (along x-axis) are taken as negative.
(4) Distance measured perpendicular to and above the principal axis (along y axis) are taken as positive.
(5) Distance measure perpendicular to and below the principal axis (y'-axis) are taken as negative.
Assumptions (1) Object is taken on principal axis. (2) The lens is thin.
OR
Concave Mirror Convex Mirror

A concave mirror is made by silvering the outer surface of a A convex mirror is made by silvering the inner surface of a part
part of a hollow sphere and reflection takes place from the of a hollow sphere and reflection takes place from the outer
inner surface. bulging surface.

Concave mirrors are converging mirrors. The light rays A convex mirror is a diverging mirror. The light rays incident on
incident on a concave mirror converges after reflection. a convex mirror diverges after reflection.

The image formed by it is real as well as virtual depending on The image formed by it is always virtual for all positions of the
the position of the object from the mirror. object in front of the mirror.
Section E
37. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:
The teacher while conducting practicals in the laboratory divided the students into three groups and gave them various solutions to
find out their pH and classify them into acidic, basic and neutral solutions.
Group A - Lemon juice, vinegar, colourless aerated drink
Group B - Tomato juice, coffee, ginger juice
Group C - Sodium hydroxide, sodium chloride, lime water
(i) i. Groups A and B - less than 7
ii. Group C - greater than 7
(ii) pH paper and universal indicator.
OR
i. Copper vessel is tarnished due to formation of basic copper oxide.
ii. Lemon juice being acidic react with copper oxide and the salt formed is washed away.
38. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:
Fill a conical flask with water. Cover the neck of the flask with a wire mesh. keep two or three freshly germinated bean seeds on
the wire mesh. Take a cardboard box which is open from one side. Keep the flask a wire mesh. Kin the box in such a manner that
the open side of the box faces light coming from a window as shown in the given figure. After two or three days, you will notice
that the shoots bend towards light and roots away from light. Now turn the flask so that the shoots are away from light and the
roots towards the light. Leave it undisturbed in this condition for a few days. Plants show tropism in response to other stimuli as
well. The roots of a plant always grow downwards while the shoots usually grow upwards and away from the earth. This upward
and downward growth of shoots and roots, respectively, in response to the pull of earth or gravity, is obviously, geotropism.

Page 15 of 16
 (i) These activities show tropic movements in plants due to their growth.
(ii) Yes, old parts of the shoot and root change direction and there is a difference in the direction of new growth.
(iii)Movement is related to stimulus i.e. plant organs either move towards the source of stimulus or away from it. Stimuli
that cause movements in plants are gravity, light, touch, water, and chemical substances.
OR
Movements in the organs of a plant due to gravity are known as geotropism. This causes the roots to bend down towards
the soil.
39. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:
A student was asked to perform an experiment to study the force on a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field. He took a
small aluminum rod AB, a strong horse shoe magnet, some connecting wires, a battery and a switch and connected them as
shown. He observed that on passing current, the rod gets displaced. On reversing the direction of current, the direction of
displacement also gets reversed. On the basis of your understanding of this phenomenon, answer the following questions :

(i) The displacement of the conductor is maximum when the direction of the current is at right angles to the direction of the
magnetic field.
(ii) The rule that determines the direction of the force on the conductor AB is Fleming's left-hand rule.
According to Fleming's left-hand rule, stretch the thumb, forefinger and middle finger of your left hand such that they
are mutually perpendicular.
If the first finger points in the direction of the magnetic field and the second finger in the direction of current, then the
thumb will point in the direction of motion or force.
(iii) i. According to Fleming's left-hand rule, the rod will get displaced upwards.
ii. Devices that use current-carrying conductors and magnetic fields are electric motors, electric generators,
loudspeakers, microphones, etc.
OR

Page 16 of 16
 Class X Session 2024-25
Subject - Science
Sample Question Paper - 2

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.

2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected to

attempt only one of these questions.

3. Section A consists of 20 objective-type questions carrying 1 mark each.

4. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the

range of 30 to 50 words.

5. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these questions should
be in the range of 50 to 80 words.

6. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answers to these questions should

be in the range of 80 to 120 words.

7. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.

Section A
1. A student took Cu, Al, Fe and Zn strips separately in four test tubes labelled I, II, III and IV. He added 10 mL of [1]
freshly prepared ferrous sulphate solution to each test tube as shown below:

Black residue would be obtained in test tubes

a) II and IV b) I, II and IV

c) II and III d) III and IV

2. Which of the following metals do not corrode in moist air? [1]

a) Iron b) Silver

c) Copper d) Gold
3. Which one of the following types of medicines is used for treating indigestion? [1]

a) Antacid b) Antiseptic

c) Antibiotics d) Analgesic
4. Which of the following is not an allotropic form of carbon? [1]

Page 1 of 16
 a) Diamond b) Fluorine

c) Graphite d) Fullerene
5. What is shown in the experiment given below: [1]

a) Reaction of metals with salt solutions b) Heating a salt sample on a spatula

c) Action of steam on a metal d) Testing the conductivity of a salt solution

6. If copper is kept open in air, it slowly loses its shining brown surface and gains a green coating. It is due to the [1]
formation of

a) CuCO3 b) CuO

c) CuSO4 d) Cu(NO3)2

7. The structural formula of an ester from which an acid and an alcohol is formed is as follows. Name the acid and [1]
the alcohol.

a) Formic acid, Ethanol b) Ethanoic acid, Ethanol

c) Propanoic acid, Methanol d) Formic acid, Propanol

8. Anaerobic process [1]

a) takes place in yeast during fermentation b) produces ethanol, oxygen, and energy

c) takes place in the presence of oxygen d) produces only energy in the muscles of
human beings
9. The egg of an animal contains 10 chromosomes, of which one is X-chromosome. How many autosomes would [1]
be there in the karyotype of this animal?

a) 9 b) 18

c) 8 d) 20
10. Characters transmitted from parents to offspring are present in [1]

a) Cytoplasm b) Genes

c) Ribosome d) Golgi bodies

11. In a plant, smooth seeds(S) are dominant over wrinkled seeds(s) and green seeds (G) are dominant over yellow [1]
seeds (g). A plant homozygous for smooth and green seed is crossed with a plant having wrinkled and yellow
seeds. The F1 offspring are self crossed to produce F2 generation. If a total of 160 offspring are produced, how

many plants are expected to be having wrinkled and green seeds in F2 generation, according to a typical
Mendelian cross?

Page 2 of 16
 a) 10 b) 90

c) 30 d) 20
12. During deficiency of oxygen in tissues of human beings, pyruvic acid is converted into lactic acid in the [1]

a) Golgi body b) Mitochondria

c) Chloroplast d) Cytoplasm
13. The magnetic field inside the solenoid is: [1]

a) Non-uniform b) Variable

c) Zero d) Same at all points

14. The elements of electric heating devices are usually made of: [1]

a) nichrome b) bronze

c) argon d) tungsten
15. Use of high temperature for waste disposal is called ________. [1]

a) Composting b) Recycling

c) Landfilling d) Incineration
16. Which of the following groups contain only biodegradable items? [1]
a. Grass, flowers and leather
b. Grass, wood and plastic
c. Fruit peels, cake and lime-juice
d. Cake, wood and grass

a) Groups (a), (c) and (d) b) Groups (a), (b) and (c)

c) Groups (a), (b) and (d) d) Groups (b), (c) and (d)
17. Assertion (A): The colour of aqueous solution of copper sulphate turns colourless when a piece of lead is added [1]
to it.
Reason (R): Lead is more reactive than copper, and hence displaces copper from its salt solution.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

18. Assertion (A): Regeneration is getting a full organism back from its body parts. [1]
Reason (R): In grafting, the stock is placed over the scion.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

19. Assertion (A): Two bar magnets attract when they are brought near to each other with the same pole. [1]
Reason (R): Unlike poles will attract each other.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

Page 3 of 16
 c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.
20. Assertion (A): The second trophic level of a food chain operating in a grassland is mostly occupied by a [1]
carnivore.
Reason (R): Carnivores feed upon herbivores and are secondary consumers.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

Section B
21. A mixture of oxygen and ethyne is burnt for welding. Can you tell why a mixture of ethyne and air is not used? [2]
22. What will happen if the fallopian tubes are partially blocked and the ovulated eggs are prevented from reaching [2]
the uterus?
23. Chlorophyll is necessary for photosynthesis. Why? [2]
OR
Why is it not advisable to sleep under a tree at night while resting under it during mid-day is not bad?
24. An object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from a concave lens of focal length 15 cm. List four characteristics [2]
(nature, position, etc.) of the image formed by the lens.
25. List two reasons to show that the existence of decomposers is essential in an ecosystem. [2]
OR
Microorganisms are often referred to as the 'scavengers of the environment.' Explain.
26. Which part of the eye controls the size of the pupil? [2]
Section C
27. i. Which types of metals can be obtained in their pure form by just heating their oxides in air? Give one [3]
example.
ii. Consider the reaction given below used to obtain Manganese metal in pure form:
3MnO2(s) + 4Al(s) ⟶ 3Mn(l) + 2Al2O3(s) + Heat

a. What type of reaction is it?

b. What is the role of aluminium in this reaction?
28. Carbon cannot reduce the oxides of sodium, magnesium, and aluminium to their respective metals. Why? Where [3]
are these metals placed in the reactivity series? How are these metals obtained from their ores? Take an example
to explain the process of extraction along with chemical equations.
OR
What are the various methods used for concentration of ore/Ore dressing?
29. Define nutrition. What are the different modes of nutrition? [3]
30. i. In humans, if gene B gives brown eyes and gene b gives blue eyes, what will be the colour of eyes of the [3]
persons having the following combination of genes? (a) Bb (b) bb (c) BB
ii. What do you class this trait of eye colour in human? Explain.
31. Distinguish between real image and virtual image. [3]
32. Given in fig. is the circuit diagram in which three resistors of 1Ω, 2Ω and 3Ω are connected to cell of e.m.f. 2V [3]
and internal resistance 0.5 Ω.
i. Calculate the total resistance of the circuit.

Page 4 of 16
 ii. What is the reading of ammeter and What will be ammeter reading if an exactly similar cell is connected in

series with the given cell ?

33. a. What is the heating effect of electric current? [3]

b. Write an expression for the amount of heat produced in a resistor when an electric current is passed through
it stating the meanings of the symbols used.
c. Name two appliances based on heating effect of electric current.
Section D
34. a. Distinguish between esterification and saponification reactions with the help of chemical equations for each. [5]
b. With a labelled diagram describe in brief an activity to show the formation of an ester.
OR
What are detergents chemically? List two merits and two demerits of using detergents for cleansing. State the reason
for the suitability of detergents for washing, even in the case of water having calcium and magnesium ions.
35. Give reason for the following: [5]
a. During reproduction inheritance of different proteins will lead to altered body designs.
b. Fertilization cannot take place in flowers if pollination does not occur.
c. All multicellular organisms cannot give rise to new individuals through fragmentation or regeneration.
d. Vegetative propagation is practised for growing only some type of plants.
e. The parents and off-springs of organisms reproducing sexually have the same number of chromosomes.
OR
Explain briefly movements in plants.
36. An object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from a concave lens of focal length 30 cm. [5]
i. Use lens formula to determine the distance of the image from the lens.
ii. List four characteristics of the image (nature position, size, erect/inverted) in this case.
iii. Draw a labelled diagram to justify your answer of part (ii)
OR
i. What is meant by power of a lens? Define its SI unit.
ii. You have two lenses A and B of focal lengths +10 cm and - 10 cm, respectively. State the nature and power of
each lens. Which of the two lenses will from a virtual and magnified image of an object placed 8 cm from the
lens? Draw a ray diagram to justify your answer.
Section E
37. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Copper sulphate crystal contains water of crystallisation when the crystal is heated the water is removed and salt
turns white. The crystal can be moistened again with water. The water of crystallisation is the fixed number of
water molecules present in 1 formula unit of copper sulphate. On heating gypsum at 373K, it loses water

Page 5 of 16
 molecules and became calcium sulphate hemihydrate.

(a) If the crystal is moistened with water, then which colour of the crystal reappears?
(b) What is the commercial name of calcium sulphate hemihydrate?
OR
How many water molecules are present in one formula unit of copper sulphate?
38. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Animals have a nervous system for controlling and coordinating the activities of the body. But plants have
neither a nervous system nor muscles. So, how do they respond to stimuli? When we touch the leaves of a chui-
mui (the ‘sensitive’ or ‘touch-me-not’ plant of the Mimosa family), they begin to fold up and droop. When a
seed germinates, the root goes down, the stem comes up into the air. What happens? Firstly, the leaves of the
sensitive plant move very quickly in response to touch.
There is no growth involved in this movement. On the other hand, the directional movement of a seedling is
caused by growth. If it is prevented from growing, it will not show any movement.

(a) Write the types of movement.

(b) Give an example of a plant hormone that promotes growth.
(c) What is the function of the nervous system?
OR
How is the movement of leaves of the sensitive plant different from the movement of a shoot towards light
?
39. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
An insulated copper wire wound on a cylindrical cardboard tube such that its length is greater than its diameter
is called a solenoid. When an electric current is passed through the solenoid, it produces a magnetic field around
it. The magnetic field produced by a current-carrying solenoid is similar to the magnetic field produced by a bar
magnet. The field lines inside the solenoid are in the form of parallel straight lines. The strong magnetic field
produced inside a current-carrying solenoid can be used to magnetize a piece of a magnetic material like soft
iron when placed inside the solenoid. The strength of the magnetic field produced by a current-carrying solenoid

Page 6 of 16
is directly proportional to the number of turns and strength of the current in the solenoid.

(a) What would be the strength of the magnetic field inside a long current-carrying straight solenoid?
(b) Which end is north and which end is south pole when current flows through a solenoid?
(c) A long solenoid carrying a current produces a magnetic field B along its axis. If the current is double and
the number of turns per cm is halved, then what will be the new value of the magnetic field?
OR
A soft iron bar is enclosed by a coil of insulated copper wire as shown in the figure. When the plug of the
key is closed, then where would the face B of the iron bar be marked?

Page 7 of 16
 Solution
Section A
1. (a) II and IV
Explanation: Black residue would be obtained in test tubes II and IV because Al and Zn will displace iron from F eSO to 4

form black residue as these are more reactive than iron.

2Al + 3F eSO4 → Al2 (SO4 )3 + 3F e

Zn + F eSO4 → ZnSO4 + F e

2.
(d) Gold
Explanation: Gold is a noble metals i.e., very less reactive metals and hence they do not get corrode easily in moist air.
3. (a) Antacid
Explanation: Antacids are mild bases which are given to a person suffering from acidity as acids reacts with bases to form salt
and water. The excess acid present in the stomach is neutralised by the bases present in antacids and relieve indigestion.
4.
(b) Fluorine
Explanation: Fluorine
5.
(c) Action of steam on a metal
Explanation: Action of steam on a metal.
6. (a) CuCO3
Explanation: Copper gets green coating due to the basic copper carbonate formation and is a mixture of copper carbonate and
copper hydroxide when it reacts with carbon dioxide gas and moisture present in the air. This is called tarnishing of copper.
The reaction is as follows:
2Cu + H2O + CO2 + O2 → Cu(OH)2 + CuCO3

7.
(d) Formic acid, Propanol
Explanation: HCOOCH2CH2CH3 + H2O --> HCOOH + CH3 CH2CH2OH
The ester is HCOOCH2CH2CH3. The product HCOOH is formic acid or methanoic acid (carboxylic acid) and CH3
CH2CH2OH is propanol (alcohol).

8. (a) takes place in yeast during fermentation

Explanation: takes place in yeast during fermentation
9.
(b) 18
Explanation: Karyotype is the number and appearance of chromosomes in a nucleus of somatic cell. Somatic cells are diploid
cells which make up the body. They have two sets of chromosomes. So, if an egg cell (gamete cell) which is a haploid cell
(with single set of chromosomes)has 10 chromosome, then number of chromosomes present in a somatic cell will be 20
chromosomes . As egg cells are produced by female body, then among 20 chromosomes, two X chromosomes will be sex
chromosome. So, karyotpe of that animals will be showing 18 autosomes.
10.
(b) Genes
Explanation: The characteristics or traits of parents are transmitted to their progeny (offsprings) through genes present on their
chromosomes
11.
(c) 30
Explanation: 30

Page 8 of 16
12.
(d) Cytoplasm
Explanation: When there is a lack of oxygen Breakdown of Pyruvate takes place in the cytoplasm of muscle cells leading to
the formation of Lactic acid.
13.
(d) Same at all points
Explanation: Same at all points
14. (a) nichrome
Explanation: The elements of electric heating devices are made using nichrome.
15.
(d) Incineration
Explanation: Incineration is the process of burning substances under aerobic conditions at high temperature (usually more than
1000oC) in a closed unit called incinerator.
16. (a) Groups (a), (c) and (d)
Explanation:
The waste that is generated may be biodegradable or non-biodegradable. Substances that are broken down by biological
processes are said to be biodegradable. Grass, flowers, leather, wood, fruit peels, cake and lime-juice are
all biodegradable. Substances that are not broken down by biological processes are said to be non-biodegradable. Plastic is non-
biodegradable. Plastic is inert and persists in the environment for a long time.
17. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
18.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Regeneration is the process which involves repair of damaged cells/tissue or replacement or redevelopment of
broken body part or reconstruction of whole body from a small body fragment. The simple animals like Hydra and Planaria
show regeneration. It means if Hydra or Planaria somehow get cut into a number of pieces, then each body piece can grow into
a complete organism.
19.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Explanation: A is false but R is true.
20.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Explanation: The second trophic level of a food chain is occupied by herbivores that feed on plants or producers that are
present in first trophic level.
Section B
21. Ethyne is an unsaturated hydrocarbon. Since it has high carbon content, it burns in air with a sooty flame due to the presence of
unburnt carbon in it. Due to its incomplete combustion, heat produced is not sufficient to attain the high temperature needed for
welding. In order to ensure complete combustion and to obtain a high temperature needed for welding, a mixture of ethyne and
oxygen is used.
22. Fertilization may take place but the zygote may develop in the tube instead of uterus.
23. The chlorophyll traps the solar energy and converts it into chemical energy which takes part the dark reaction of photosynthesis to
form glucose. Hence chlorophyll is necessary for photosynthesis.
OR
During the day, in presence of sunlight, the plants use up the CO2 and release O2 in the process of photosynthesis. But during
night, plants won’t perform photosynthesis so they are unable to use the CO2 and this further leads to increase in the proportion of
CO2 in the air. During night the trees breathe in oxygen and release CO2. If one sleeps under the trees, the amount of increased
CO2 in the air around will certainly affect the health. So it is inadvisable to sleep under trees during night. He suffers from
suffocation. He feels excess weight on his chest. For this reason, some rural people imagine and fear that ghosts would come and
sit on their chests if they sleep under Peepal or Banyan trees.

Page 9 of 16
24. Object distance, u = -30 cm
Focal length of concave lens = -15 cm
We know that, − = 1

v
1

u
1

1 1 1
− =
v −30 −15

1 1 1
= − −
v 15 30
1 −2−1 −3 −1
= = =
v 30 30 10

v = -10 cm .
Characteristics of image:
i. The image is formed at a distance of 10 cm from the concave lens on the left side.
ii. Image formed is virtual.
iii. Image formed is erect.
iv. The size of the image formed is diminished.
25. Microorganisms like bacteria and fungi which helps in the breakdown of organic matter or biomass of dead plants and animals
into simple inorganic raw materials and replenish the environment are termed as decomposers. Their existence is thus, essential in
an ecosystem because
i. They help in the natural replenishment of soil.
ii. They help in keeping the environment clean as they reduce environmental pollution.
OR
Scavangers feed upon discarded and dead waste. Micro organisms are called scavengers of the environment because they
decompose dead bodies of plants and animals present in the soil and help in cleaning the environment by removing waste
products. They lie at the top of food chain.
26. Iris
Section C
27. i. Metals low in activity series can be reduced to pure metals just by heating their oxides in presence of air, example mercury
(Hg):
Heat

2HgO(s) −−→ 2Hg(l) + O2 (g)

Mercurous oxide Mercury

ii. a. The given reaction is a displacement reaction.

b. Aluminium is more reactive than manganese used as a reducing agent, as Al is capable of replacing Mn from MnO2.
28. Oxides of sodium, magnesium and aluminium are very strong oxides as these metals are very reactive metals, but carbon is not a
strong reducing agent and hence carbon cannot reduce the oxide of sodium, magnesium and aluminium to their respective metal.
In the reactivity series, sodium, magnesium and aluminium are placed in the upper portion and they are very reactive in nature and
carbon is less reactive.
K > Na > Ca > Mg > Al > C > Zn > Fe
Oxides of reactive metals are directly put into the electrolytic reduction process to obtain the pure metal.
For the oxide of a reactive metal like aluminium oxide, as the metal is already in its oxide state so, it is directly put for the
electrolytic reduction process. In this process, graphite electrodes are used as anode and cathode in the electrolytic chamber. Pure
aluminium is attracted to the cathode, which is a lining of graphite. The oxygen is attracted to the anode and bubbles through the
solution.
Cathode reaction: At the cathode reduction of aluminium takes place and aluminium is discharged
Al3+ + 3e- → Al
Anode reaction: At the anode oxidation takes place and oxygen gas is evolved.
2O2- → O2 + 4e-

OR

Page 10 of 16
 Concentration of Ore: The process of removal of unwanted impurities like sand, rocky material, earthy particles etc. from the ore
is called ore concentration or ore dressing. The finely ground ore is concentrated by any of the following processes:
i. Hydraulic washing: This method depends upon the difference in the densities of the ore particles and the impurities (gangue).
The crushed and powdered ore is taken in large wooden tables with small obstacles. A stream of water is passed over the
shaking table. The lighter impurities are washed away with the running stream of water while the heavier ore particles are left
behind. This method of concentration is usually applicable to oxide ores.
ii. Froth floatation process: This method is used for the extraction of those metals in which the ore particles are preferentially
wetted by oil and gangue by water. In this method, the powdered ore is mixed with water containing small quantities of oil
(pine oil m eucalyptus oil) in a large tank (Fig.), The water is agitated by blowing air violently when a froth (or foam) is
formed. The froth carries the lighter ore particles along with it to the surface. The heavier impurities are left behind in water
and these settle to the bottom. Since the ore particles float with the froth at the surface, this process is called froth floatation
process. The froth at the surface is transferred into another tank. The froth is broken by adding some acid and ore particles are
separated by filtration and dried. For example, the froth floatation process is commonly used for the sulphide ores of copper,
zinc, lead et

iii. Magnetic separation: The ores which are attracted by a magnet can be separated from the non-magnetic impurities with the
help of magnetic separation method. For example, this method is used for the concentration of haematite, an ore of iron. It
consists of a leather belt moving over two rollers, one of which is magnetic in nature. This is shown in the figure. The
powdered ore is dropped over the moving belt at one end. At the other end, the magnetic portion of the ore is attracted by the
magnetic roller and falls nearer to the roller while the non-magnetic impurities fall farther off.

29. Nutrition: The sum total of processes by which living organisms obtain food materials and prepare them for use in the growth,
repair and providing energy is termed nutrition.
Nutrition is of two types: 1) Autotrophic nutrition, 2) Heterotrophic nutrition.
1) Autotrophic nutrition: The mode of nutrition in which an organism prepares its own food is called autotrophic nutrition.
Mostly green plants have the ability to manufacture their own organic food due to the presence of chlorophyll. They take up CO2
and H2O and manufacture carbohydrates in the presence of sunlight process called as photosynthesis. Such organisms are called
autotrophs and their mode of nutrition is called autotrophic.
2) Heterotrophic nutrition: The mode of nutrition in which an organism takes food from another organism is called heterotrophic
nutrition. In this type of nutrition, the animals derive organic food materials by consuming bodies or products of other living or
dead plants or animals.
30. i. Bb will have brown eyes.
bb will have blue eyes.
BB will have brown eyes.
ii. Eye colour in humans is an inherited trait. These are traits that are present in the DNA of an organism and are passed on to
their progeny.

31. Real Image Virtual Image

1. It is formed by the actual meeting of reflected (or 1. It is formed when reflected (or refracted) rays appear to meet when
refracted) ray. produced backward

Page 11 of 16
 2.It can be obtained on the screen. 2.It cannot be obtained on the screen.

3.It is always inverted. 3.It is always erect.

4.It is formed by concave, convex and plane mirror(or concave and

4.It is formed by concave mirror or convex lens.
convex lens.)
32. ResisOKtance, 1Ω and 2Ω are in series and combined resistance i.e. 1 + 2 = 3Ω in parallel with 3Ω.
Hence total resistance of the combination is = + =
1

R
or R =
1

3
= 1.5Ω
1

3
2

3
3

i. Total resistance of the circuit = R + r = 1.5 + 0.5 = 2Ω

ii. Total current through ammeter = E
=
R + r
= 1A
2

iii. In second case total e.m.f.= 2 + 2 = 4V

Total resistance = 1.5 + 0.5 + 0.5 = 2.5Ω
4 40 8
Current through circuit in second case = 2.5
=
25
=
5
= 1.6 A

33. a. When an electric current passes through a conductor (like a high resistance wire) the conductor becomes hot after some time
and produces heat. This is called heating effect of Electric Current.
Ex: A bulb becomes hot after its use for some time. This is because of heating effect of electric current.
b. We Know that
H=P×t
Energy
H= Time
× t

∵ Energy = V.Q
V .Q.t
H= t

H = Vit
∵ V = IR

H = I2Rt
Other form
V
H=V [
R
]t

Where
I = Current
R = Resistance
t = Time
c. Two devices which work on the heating effect of electric current are:
i. Electric heater
ii. Electric iron
Section D
34. Here the difference between esterification and saponification reactions
C2 H5 OH + C H3 C OOH → C H3 C OO C2 H5 + H2 O(esterif ication)
Alcohol Acid Ester W ater

C H3 C OO C2 H5 + N aOH → C2 H5 OH + C H3 C OON a (saponif ication)

Ester Base Alcohol Salt

Page 12 of 16
 Diagram for esterification

Description
1mL ethanol, 1mL glacial acetic acid and a few drops of conc. H2SO4
↓

Warmed in a water bath

↓

Water is poured into the beaker

↓

Fruity smell is produced

OR
Detergents are chemically ammonium or sulphonate salts of long chain carboxylic acids.
Merits:
i. Detergents can work well with both hard water and soft water.
ii. Detergents are more effective than soaps.
iii. Detergents contain synthetic chemicals so tend to provide more cleaning power.
iv. Detergents are made with chemical substances so they can be modified for specific purposes such as laundry detergents etc.
v. Detergents are more easily soluble in water.
Demerits:
i. They are expensive.
ii. They can create water pollution.
iii. Detergents are formed with a synthetic chemical with few natural sources therefore they are usually non-biodegradable.
iv. They can cause soil pollution.
v. Detergent poisoning occurs when someone swallows cationic or anionic detergents, reports Medline Plus.
Detergents are suitable for hard water having Magnesium and Calcium ions because they do not form insoluble salts with these
ions.
35. a. Reproduction at its most basic level involves making copies of the blueprints of body design. The DNA in the cell nucleus is
the information source for making proteins. If the information is changed, different proteins will be made. Different proteins
will eventually lead to altered body designs.
b. In flowering plants, male gametes are produced in the pollen grains inside the anther. Pollination brings the pollen grains
having male gametes from the anther to the stigma. Upon successful arrival of pollen grains on the stigma, a pollen tube is
formed where they take male gamete to the female gamete or egg present in the ovule for fertilisation.
c. The body's organs are made of tissue and specialised cells, complex multicellular creatures cannot give birth to new life.
Multicellular organisms cannot reproduce by regeneration of a portion of some tissue because of their high level of
specialisation.
d. Vegetative propagation is the ability of the plants to reproduce by producing new plants from the vegetative plant parts such as
leaf, stem, or roots under appropriate conditions. This method is the only means of reproduction for some seedless plant
varieties such as banana, rose, and jasmine.
e. Gametes of sexually-reproducing animals have half the number of chromosomes as that of the parents. Thus, during
fertilisation, when two gametes i.e. male and female gametes, fuse, the offspring produced will have the same amount of DNA

Page 13 of 16
 or the same number of chromosomes as that of the parent.
OR
Plant Movement
Tropic movement or tropism
Directional movement of specific part of plant in response to external stimuli is called tropism.
These movements are very slow.The movement of plant part can be either towards or away from stimulus.
If the movement of plant is towards stimulus,it is called positive stimulus.
If the movement of plant is away from stimulus,it is called negative stimulus.
1) Phototropism: It is the directional movement of plant part in response to light stimulus.
If plant part move towards light it is called as positive phototropism.
For Ex:Stem or shoot
If plant part move away from light it is called as negative phototropism.
For Ex:Roots
2) Geotropism : It is the response to gravity.
If the plant part moves in the direction of gravity it is called positive geotropism
For Ex:Roots grow downwards.
If the plant part moves against the direction of gravity it is called negative geotropism.
For Ex:Stem grows upwards
3) Chemotropism : Response to chemical stimuli.
If Plant part move towards chemical stimuli it is positive chemotropism
If plant part move away from chemical stimuli it is negative chemotropism.
4) Hydrotropism : Response to water.
36. i. u = -30 cm f = -30cm v = ? m = ?
1 1 1
= −
f v u

1 1 1
∴ = +
v f u

= 1

(−30 cma)
+
1

(−30 cm)

1 1 1
= − −
v 30 30
−2
= 30

∴ v = -15 cm
v
m =
u
(−15 cm)
= = −
1

2
(−30 cm)

ii. Four characteristics of the image are:

Nature – virtual
Position – 15cm away from the lens, on the same side as the object
Size – diminished
Erect / inverted – erect

iii.

OR
The ability of a lens to converge or diverge light rays is called power of the lens. It is defined as the reciprocal of focal length. It's
SI unit is dioptre (D). If focal length is expressed in metres, then power is expressed in dioptre. We can say, dioptre is the power of
a lens whose focal length is one metre. For concave lens P and f are negative. For convex lens P and f are positive. Lens A of
focal length + 10 cm is convex lens
and power, P = =
100
= +10D
100

10
f (in cm)

Lens B of focal length - 10 cm is concave lens

100 100
and power, P = f (in cm)
=
−10
= −10D

Page 14 of 16
 Lens A (i.e. convex lens) will form a virtual and magnified image of an object placed 8 cm from it, as shown.

Section E
37. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:
Copper sulphate crystal contains water of crystallisation when the crystal is heated the water is removed and salt turns white. The
crystal can be moistened again with water. The water of crystallisation is the fixed number of water molecules present in 1
formula unit of copper sulphate. On heating gypsum at 373K, it loses water molecules and became calcium sulphate hemihydrate.

(i) If the crystal is moistened with water, then the blue colour of the crystal reappears.
(ii) The commercial name of calcium sulphate hemihydrate is Plaster of Paris.
OR
Five water molecules are present in one formula unit of copper sulphate.
38. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:
Animals have a nervous system for controlling and coordinating the activities of the body. But plants have neither a nervous
system nor muscles. So, how do they respond to stimuli? When we touch the leaves of a chui-mui (the ‘sensitive’ or ‘touch-me-
not’ plant of the Mimosa family), they begin to fold up and droop. When a seed germinates, the root goes down, the stem comes
up into the air. What happens? Firstly, the leaves of the sensitive plant move very quickly in response to touch.
There is no growth involved in this movement. On the other hand, the directional movement of a seedling is caused by growth. If
it is prevented from growing, it will not show any movement.

(i) There are two types of movement:

a. dependent on growth
b. independent on growth.
(ii) Auxin is a plant hormone that promotes growth.
(iii)The function of the nervous system is to control and coordinate the activities of the body.
OR
The movements of the leaves of the sensitive plant are touch sensitive and independent of growth while the movement of
the shoot towards light is growth related and known as phototropism.
39. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:
An insulated copper wire wound on a cylindrical cardboard tube such that its length is greater than its diameter is called a
solenoid. When an electric current is passed through the solenoid, it produces a magnetic field around it. The magnetic field
produced by a current-carrying solenoid is similar to the magnetic field produced by a bar magnet. The field lines inside the

Page 15 of 16
solenoid are in the form of parallel straight lines. The strong magnetic field produced inside a current-carrying solenoid can be
used to magnetize a piece of a magnetic material like soft iron when placed inside the solenoid. The strength of the magnetic field
produced by a current-carrying solenoid is directly proportional to the number of turns and strength of the current in the solenoid.

(i) Magnetic field inside the infinite solenoid is uniform. Hence it is the same at all points.
(ii) The end of the current carrying solenoid at which the current flows anti-clockwise behaves as a north pole while that end
at which the direction of current clockwise behaves as a south pole and this is according to clock wise.
(iii)For a long solenoid, magnetic field B ∝ In; where I is the flowing current and n is number of turns per unit length in the
solenoid. Therefore, in the given case magnetic field will remain unchanged.
OR
For a solenoid, if we imagine gripping the solenoid with your right hand so that your curl fingers follow the direction of
the current then your thumb will point towards the north end of the electromagnet.

Page 16 of 16
 Class X Session 2024-25
Subject - Science
Sample Question Paper - 3

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.

2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected to

attempt only one of these questions.

3. Section A consists of 20 objective-type questions carrying 1 mark each.

4. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the

range of 30 to 50 words.

5. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these questions should
be in the range of 50 to 80 words.

6. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answers to these questions should

be in the range of 80 to 120 words.

7. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.

Section A
1. Zinc pieces were placed in each of the four test tubes containing different salt solutions as shown below [1]

A colour change would be observed in solutions:

a) II and IV b) III and IV

c) II and III d) I and IV

2. In the reaction: CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O, the reducing agent is: [1]

a) H2O b) H2

c) CuO d) Cu
3. Match column 1 with column II and mark the correct option from the given codes. [1]

Column I Column II

(a) Na2CO3 (i) Used for disinfecting water.

(b) Na2CO3 (ii) Used for soda-acid fire extinguishers.

(c) CaOCI2 (iii) Used for removing permanent hardness of water.

Page 1 of 17
 (d) CaSO 4 ⋅
1

2
H2 O (iv) Used for making toys, materials for decoration.

a) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv) b) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)

c) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii) d) (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
4. Two compounds X and Y have the same molecular formula, C3H6O2. Identify the functional groups and [1]

structural formulae of X and Y.

a) -CHO and -CO, X = CH3CH2CHO, Y = b) -CO and -COOH, X = CH3COCH3, Y =

CH3COCH3 CH3CH2COOH

c) -CHO and -COOH, X = CH3CH2CHO, Y = d) -COOH and -COOR, X = CH3CH2COOH,

CH3CH2COOH Y = CH3COOCH3

5. An iron nail is suspended in CuSO4 solution and kept for a while. The solution: [1]

a) Turns green and no coating will be formed b) Turns green and a coating will be formed on
on the nail. the nail

c) Remains blue and a coating is found on the d) Remain blue and no coating will be formed
nail on the nail.
6. Alloys are homogeneous mixtures of a metal with a metal or nonmetal. Which among the following alloys [1]
contain non-metal as one of its constituents?

a) Brass b) Steel

c) Amalgam d) Bronze

7. Which one of the following is not in a liquid state at 10o C? [1]

a) H2O b) Glacial acetic acid

c) C2H5OH d) Acetone

8. The energy-rich compound produced through respiration is [1]

a) ADP b) Pyruvic acid

c) AMP d) ATP
9. In an experiment with pea plants, a pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with a pure short plant (tt). The ratio of pure [1]
tall plant to pure short plants in F2 generation will be

a) 1 : 3 b) 3 : 1

c) 2 : 1 d) 1 : 1
10. ________ is a product of meiosis. [1]

a) Microspore mother cell b) Megaspore

Page 2 of 17
 c) Primary endosperm nucleus d) Megaspore mother cell
11. Who is called the father of genetics? [1]

a) Stanley and miller b) Gregor Mendel

c) Lamarck d) Darwin
12. In which part of the alimentary canal food is finally digested? [1]

a) Stomach b) Mouth cavity

c) Small intestine d) Large intestine

13. Which rule determines the direction of flow of current in the conductor? [1]

a) Fleming’s left hand rule b) Fleming’s right hand rule

c) Maxwell's right hand grip rule d) Left hand thumb rule

14. The resistance of the conductor is R. If the length is doubled by stretching the wire, then its new resistance will [1]
be:

a) R b) 4R

c) 8R d) 2R
15. Refer to the given pie chart regarding contribution of different greenhouse gases and select the incorrect [1]
statement regarding it.

a) S is used in aerosol cans, jet fuel, air b) Q is also produced by incomplete

conditioners and refrigerators. decomposition mostly by anaerobic
methanogens.

c) R are synthetic gaseous compounds of d) Excessive use of fossil fuel is adding more
carbon and halogen. P to atmosphere.
16. In the following groups of materials, which group (s) contains only non-biodegradable items? [1]
i. Wood, paper, leather
ii. Polythene, detergent, PVC
iii. Plastic, detergent, grass
iv. Plastic, bakelite, DDT

a) (iv) b) (ii) and (iv)

c) (i) and (iii) d) (iii)

17. Assertion (A): In the following chemical equation, [1]
CuO (s) + Zn (s) → ZnO (s) + Cu (s)
Zinc is getting oxidised and copper oxide is getting reduced.

Page 3 of 17
 Reason (R): The process in which oxygen is added to a substance is called oxidation whereas the process in
which oxygen is removed from a substance is called reduction.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

18. Assertion (A) : XX chromosome give rise to female child whereas XY give rise to male child. [1]
Reason (R) : The Y chromosome in males is small than X chromosome.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

19. Assertion (A): The strength of the magnetic field produced at the centre of a current-carrying circular coil [1]
increases on increasing the number of turns of the circular coil.
Reason (R): Magnetic field strength is directly proportional to the number of turns of the circular coil.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

20. Assertion (A): CFCs deplete the ozone layer. [1]
Reason (R): CFCs are used as refrigerants and in fire extinguishers.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

Section B
21. The molecular formulae of two alkynes, A and B are CxH2 and C3Hy respectively. [2]

a. Find the values of x and y.

b. Write the names of A and B.

22. a. Differentiate between binary fission in Amoeba and binary fission in Leishmania. [2]
b. How does reproduction take place in malarial parasite?

23. i. What is double circulation? [2]

ii. Why is the separation of the right side and the left side of the heart useful? How does it help birds and
mammals?
OR
When and where does anaerobic respiration occur in man and yeast?
24. Draw ray diagram showing the image formation by a convex lens when an object is placed between optical [2]
centre and focus of the lens.
25. Rearrange the following according to their ascending trophic levels in a food chain. [2]
Hawk, grass, snake, frog, grasshopper.

Page 4 of 17
 OR
Give reason to justify the following:
i. The existence of decomposers is essential in a biosphere.
ii. Flow of energy in a food chain is unidirectional.
26. A person is unable to see clearly a poster fixed on a distant wall. He however sees it clearly when standing at a [2]
distance of about 2 m from the wall.
a. Draw ray diagram to show the formation of image by his eye lens when he is far away from the wall.
b. List two possible reasons of this defect of vision.
c. Draw ray diagram to show the correction of this defect using appropriate lens.
Section C
27. P, Q and R are 3 elements which undergo chemical reactions according to the following equations: [3]
a. P2O3 + 2Q → Q2O3 + 2P
b. 3RSO4 + 2Q → Q2(SO4)3 + 3R

c. 3RO + 2P → P2O3 + 3R

Answer the following questions:

i. Which element is most reactive?
ii. Which element is least reactive?
iii. State the type of reaction listed above.
28. An ore on treatment with dilute hydrochloric acid gives a smell like that of rotten eggs. What type of ore is this? [3]
How can it be concentrated? How can the metal be obtained from the concentrated ore?
OR
(i) Name the metal which does not stick to glass?
(ii) Name the non-metal which is a good conductor of electricity?
(iii) Name the metal which is commonly used in thermit welding?
(iv) What gets deposited at the cathode, a pure or impure metal?
(v) What is the nature of Zinc oxide?
29. a. Draw a diagram of human excretory system and label on it the following parts: [3]

i. Kidney
ii. Ureter
iii. Urinary bladder
iv. Urethra
b. Write one main function each of the labelled parts.
30. A child questioned his teacher that why do organisms resemble their parents more as compared to grandparents. [3]
In which way will the teacher explain to the child?
31. "A concave mirror of focal length f can form a magnified, erect as well as an inverted image of an object placed [3]
in front of it." Justify this statement stating the position of object with respect to the mirror in each case for
obtaining these images.
32. In the circuit diagram given here,calculate- [3]

Page 5 of 17
 i. The total effective resistance and the total current
ii. The current through each resistor
33. Calculate: [3]
i. the effective resistance of the circuit and the current in the circuit
ii. Potential difference across 10 Ω resistor of a circuit shown in the figure.

Section D
34. i. What is saponification? Differentiate between soaps and detergents on the basis of the following: [5]

1. Their chemical composition

2. Their mechanism in hard water
ii. Explain the formation of micelles between oily dirt and soap molecules. Also draw its diagram.
OR
What are carboxylic acids? Give the common names, IUPAC names and structural formula of first four members of
the homologous series.
35. The labelled diagram of a flower is shown below: [5]

Using the above diagram, answer the following questions:

i. Where is the egg cell present in a flower?
ii. Which part of the flower produces pollen grains?
iii. What is the difference between a uni-sexual and a bisexual flower?
iv. What happens when a pollen grain falls on the stigma of the carpel?
v. How a zygote is formed in a flower?
OR
i. List three points of difference between nervous and hormonal mechanisms for control and coordination in
animals.
ii. How are auxins related with the bending of plant shoot towards unidirectional light? Explain.
36. A student focussed the image of a candle flame on a white screen using a convex lens. He noted down the [5]

Page 6 of 17
 position of the candle screen and the lens as under Position of candle = 12.0 cm Position of convex lens = 50.0
cm Position of the screen = 88.0 cm
i. What is the focal length of the convex lens?
ii. Where will the image be formed if he shifts the candle towards the lens at a position of 31.0 cm?
iii. What will be the nature of the image formed if he further shifts the candle towards the lens?
iv. Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of the image in case (iii) as said above.
OR
i. Draw a labelled ray diagram to show the path of a ray of light incident obliquely on one face of a glass slab.
ii. Calculate the refractive index of the material of a glass slab. Given that the speed of light through the glass slab is

2 × 108 m/s and in air is 3 × 108 m/s.

iii. Calculate the focal length of a lens, if its power is - 2.5 D.
Section E
37. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
The dissolving of an acid or a base in water is a highly exothermic reaction. Care must be taken while mixing
concentrated nitric acid or sulphuric acid with water. The acid must always be added slowly to water with
constant stirring. If water is added to a concentrated acid, the heat generated may cause the mixture to splash out
and cause burns. The glass container may also break due to excessive local heating. Look out for the warning
sign on the can of concentrated sulphuric acid and on the bottle of sodium hydroxide pellets.

(a) What is the exothermic reaction?

(b) Write an example of an exothermic reaction.
OR
How will you obtain sulphuric acid from an acidic oxide?
38. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
You must have noticed many dramatic changes in your appearance as well as that of your friends as you
approached 10-12 years of age. These changes associated with puberty are because of the secretion of
testosterone in males and oestrogen in females. Do you know anyone in your family or friends who has been
advised by the doctor to take less sugar in their diet because they are suffering from diabetes? As a treatment,
they might be taking injections of insulin. This is a hormone that is produced by the pancreas.
(a) Why is pancreas a dual gland?
(b) Name the hormone which is secreted by males and females during adolescence.
(c) What happens if Insulin is not secreted in the proper amount?
OR
From which cells of pancreatic islets insulin and glucagon hormone are secreted?

Page 7 of 17
39. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
A magnetic field is described by drawing the magnetic field lines. When a small north magnetic pole is placed in
the magnetic field created by a magnet, it will experience a force. And if the north pole is free, it will move
under the influence of the magnetic field. The path traced by a north magnetic pole free to move under the
influence of a magnetic field is called a magnetic field line.

Since the direction of the magnetic field line is the direction of the force on a north pole, so the magnetic field
lines always begin from the N-pole of a magnet and end on the S-pole of the magnet. Inside the magnet,
however, the direction of magnetic field lines is from the S-pole of the magnet to the N-pole of the magnet.
Thus, the magnetic field lines are closed curves. When a small compass is moved along a magnetic field line, the
compass needle always sets itself along the line tangential to it. So, a line drawn from the south pole of the
compass needle to its north pole indicates the direction of the magnetic field at that point.
(a) Do the magnetic field lines intersect? if not why?
(b) A strong bar magnet is placed vertically above a horizontal wooden board. What would be the magnetic
lines of force?
(c) The figure shows the magnetic field lines in a magnetic field. A, B., and C are three points in this field. At
what point is the magnetic field strength?

OR
Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines for a bar magnet.

Page 8 of 17
 Solution
Section A
1.
(b) III and IV
Explanation: The colour change will take place in III and IV as zinc is more reactive than iron as well as copper.
Zn + F eSO4 → ZnSO4 + F e
P ale Green Colorless

Zn + C uSO4 → ZnSO4 + C u
Blue Colorless

2.
(b) H2
Explanation: CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O
Compounds or elements which can cause reduction are called reducing agents.
A reducing agent is a substance that gives Hydrogen.
So, H2 is a reducing agent.

3. (a) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)

Explanation: (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
Column I Column II

(a) Na2CO3 (i) Used for soda-acid fire extinguishers.

(b) Na2CO3 (ii) Used for removing permanent hardness of water.

(c) CaOCI2 (iii) Used for disinfecting water

(d) CaSO 4 ⋅
1

2
H2 O (iv) Used for making toys, materials for decoration.

4.
(d) -COOH and -COOR, X = CH3CH2COOH, Y = CH3COOCH3
Explanation: CH3CH2 COOH → Carboxylic acid
X(Propanoic acid)

5.
(b) Turns green and a coating will be formed on the nail
Explanation: The solution will turn green due to the formation of iron sulphate. A coating of copper is formed on the nail. Iron
is more reactive than copper and displaces it from its solution.
CuSO4(aq) + Fe(s) → FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
6.
(b) Steel
Explanation: Steel is an alloy of metal iron and non metal carbon which makes it widely used in making
utensils,pipes,conduits and various other purposes.
7.
(b) Glacial acetic acid
Explanation: The freezing point of pure ethanoic acid is 16.6o C (61.9o F). The freezing point of pure water is 0o C. The
freezing point of pure ethyl alcohol (C2H5OH) is -114.1o C. The freezing point of pure acetone is -95oC. When ethanoic acid

(acetic acid) is cooled below 10o C, it freezes to form a colourless, ice-like solid. The solid looks like a glacier and hence pure
ethanoic acid are called glacial ethanoic acid (or glacial acetic acid).

Page 9 of 17
 8.
(d) ATP
Explanation: In cellular respiration, an organism oxidizes glucose (i.e., combines it with oxygen) so as to form the energy-rich
compound known as Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP). ATP, critical to metabolism (the breakdown of nutrients to provide energy
or form new material), is the compound used by cells to carry out most of their ordinary functions. Among those functions are
the production of new cell parts and chemicals, the movement of compounds through cells and the body as a whole, and
growth.
9.
(d) 1 : 1
Explanation: A cross between (TT) and (tt) would produce progenies with following genotypes-
In F2 generation - selfing of F1 progeny-

Gametes Tt T t

T TT Tt

t Tt tt
Pure tall (TT), Mixed tall (Tt) and Short (tt). The ratio of pure tall and pure short plant is 1 : 1.

10.
(b) Megaspore
Explanation: Megaspore is a haploid cell that is formed by meiosis in the megaspore mother cell. It is the first cell of female
gametophyte.
11.
(b) Gregor Mendel
Explanation: Gregor Mendel is called the father of genetics because he was the first person in the world to observe the fact
that characteristics were passed on from the parents to the children.
12.
(c) Small intestine
Explanation: Although the primary digestion process is conducted in the mouth and stomach. Most of the digestion process
occurs in the small intestine and in large intestine digestion process will not take place.
13.
(b) Fleming’s right hand rule
Explanation: The direction of induced current in a straight conductor is given by Fleming’s right-hand rule.
It states that if we stretch the thumb, forefinger and the middle finger of the right hand at right angles to one another in such a
way that the forefinger points in the direction of the magnetic field.
Then, thumb gives the direction of motion of conductor (force), forefinger indicates the direction of magnetic field, and the
middle finger points the direction of induced current.
14.
(b) 4R
Explanation: The resistance of a uniform metallic conductor is directly proportional to its length (l) and inversely proportional
l
to the area of its cross-section (A). R = ρ
A
where ρ is a constant of proportionality and is called the electrical resistivity of
the material of the conductor.
l1 l2
R1 = p A1
and R2 = A2
and l2 = 2l1
The volume of the wire remains unchanged.
l = πr
2 2
∴ πr 1 1 l 2 2

)(l ) = (π r
2 2
⇒(π r 1
)(l )
1 2 2

⇒ (A1)(l1) = (A2)(2 × l1)

A1
⇒ A2 = 2

Thus, when the wire is stretched to double its length, the area of cross-section becomes half.
l2
∴ R2 = ρ A2

2× 2× l1
⇒ R2 = ρ A1

Page 10 of 17
 ⇒ R2 = 4 × R1
Thus, the new resistance becomes four times of the original resistance.
15. (a) S is used in aerosol cans, jet fuel, air conditioners and refrigerators.
Explanation: In the given pie chart, P, Q, R and S are CO2, CH4, CFCs and N2O respectively. Chlorofluorocarbons(R) are
used in aerosol cans, jet fuel, air conditioners and refrigerators.
16.
(b) (ii) and (iv)
Explanation: Group (i) has wood and leather which are biodegradable. Group (iii) has grass that is biodegradable hence the
answer is (ii) and (iv) in which the given materials in the options cannot be degraded by micro-organisms and hence are non-
biodegradable.
17. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
18.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Smaller Y chromosome, does not decide the gender of the child. Its presence is important not the size. Thus both
assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
19. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
20. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: The ozone layer is getting depleted at the higher levels of the atmosphere due to the effect of
chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) which are used as refrigerants and in fire extinguishers.
Section B
21. a. x is 2 and y is 4
b. A is Ethyne and B is propyne
22. a. Amoeba reproduces through simple binary fission. Amoeba reproduces asexually through binary fission. In this process of
reproduction, a single Amoeba is divided into two similar daughter cells. It grows larger and one nucleus in the Amoeba splits
and forms two nuclei. The amoeba is produced by the single parent.
In Leishmania, binary fission occurs in a definite orientation due to the presence of flagellum at the end of the cell. Hence,
there is a specific plane in which the fission occurs, while Amoeba can undergo binary fission in any plane.

b. Malarial parasite or Plasmodium reproduces by multiple fission. Each Plasmodium cell divides its nucleus into many small
nuclei followed by the division of the cell body to form many daughter cells with each cell obtaining one nucleus. This type of
reproduction is called multiple fission.

23. i. A circulatory system in which the blood travels twice through the heart in one complete cycle is known as double circulation.
It is commonly seen in amphibians, reptiles, birds, and mammals.

Page 11 of 17
 ii. The separation of the right side and the left side of the heart is useful to keep oxygenated and deoxygenated blood from
mixing. This type of separation allows a highly efficient supply of oxygen to the body. This is useful in animals that have high
energy needs, such as birds and mammals, which constantly use energy to maintain their body temperature. In animals that do
not use energy there body temperature depends on the temperature in the environment. Animals, like amphibians and reptiles
have three-chambered hearts, and tolerate some mixing of the oxygenated and de-oxygenated blood streams.
OR
Anaerobic respiration occurs in man when there is deficiency of oxygen during cellular respiration. In such situation, pyruvic acid
is reduced to lactic acid by the lactate dehydrogenase. In yeast also, anaerobic respiration occurs in the condition of absence of
oxygen.

24.

25. Grass → grasshopper → frog → snake → hawk.

A food chain always start with producers and ends with top consumers.
OR
i. Decomposers are essential in a biosphere as they return nutrients back to the environment by breaking down dead complex
organic matter into recyclable simpler compounds.
ii. The flow of energy through different steps in the food chain is unidirectional as the food chain progress the energy passes
from lower trophic level to upper but never vice versa.
26. a. Ray diagram of the defect

Myopic eye
b. In a myopic eye, rather than at the retina itself, the image of a distant object is created in front of the retina. This flaw may
result from (i) an excessively curved eye lens or (ii) an elongated eyeball. With the use of a concave lens of the appropriate
power, this flaw can be fixed. The flaw is fixed by returning the picture to the retina with a concave lens of the proper power.

c.

Correction for myopic

Section C
27. i. Q is the most reactive metal out of P, R and Q as it has replaced both P and R from their compounds.
ii. R is the least reactive element as it has been displaced by both P and Q.
iii. The type of reaction is Displacement reaction.
28. The gas which smells like that of rotten eggs isH 2
S . Hence, the ore is a sulphide ore. It is concentrated by froth-floatation
process. The metal is obtained from the concentrated ore in the following two steps:
i. Roasting: Heating the ore strongly in the presence of air. The metal sulphide is converted into metal oxide along with
evolution of sulphur dioxide gas.
Roasting

Metal sulphate + O2 ⟶ Metal oxide + SO2

ii. Reduction with carbon: On heating the metal oxide with carbon, it is reduced to free metal.
Reduction

Metal oxide + Carbon ⟶ Metal + Carbon monoxide

OR
(i) Mercury
(ii) Graphite
(iii) Aluminum

Page 12 of 17
 (iv) A pure metal is always deposited at the cathode
(v) Zinc oxide (ZnO ) is an amphoteric oxide.

29. a. Diagram of human excretory system

b. Functions:
Kidney → Filtration of blood
Ureter → Transports urine from kidney to bladder
Urinary Bladder → Stores Urine
Urethra → Throws out urine/Excrete Urin
30. The two parents involved in sexual reproduction produce gametes which fuse together forming a zygote. It gradually develops
into a young child showing certain similarities with the parents.
Since, a child inherits its characters from both the parents the resemblance with them is very close. The grandparents and the child
resemble less closely because a gap of gene pool is created by the parents of the child. Since the child is immediate generation
next to his parent thus to carry more similar genes as that of parents. Variations are more with grandparents.
31. When an object is placed between Focus and Pole of concave mirror, the image formed is virtual, magnified, erect and behind the
mirror.when an object is placed between Curvature and Focus of concave mirror, the image formed is real, magnified, inverted at
the same side of mirror.
32. i. since resistances are in parallel
1 1 1 1
= + +
R R1 R2 R3

1 1 1 1 8
= + + =
R 2 5 10 10

R= 10

8
Ω

ii. Total current I = V

R
=
6V

10/8Ω

= 4.8 A
iii. If I1, I2 and I3 be the current through 2Ω, 5Ωand10Ω respectively.
Therefore, I1 = V

R1
=
6

=3A
V 6
I2 = R2
=
5

= 1.2 A
I3 = R3
V
=
6

10

= 0.6 A
33. i. R = R1+R2
= 5 + 10 = 15 Ω
I= = V

R
. 2

15

= 0.133 A
ii. Potential difference across 10 Ω
V = IR
= 2

15
× 10

= 1.33 V

Page 13 of 17
 Section D
34. i. Saponification is the hydrolysis of an ester to form an alcohol and the salt of a carboxylic acid in acidic or essential conditions.
Soap Detergent

Soaps are sodium salts of long chain fatty detergents are sodium salts of alkyl benzene sulphonic
Chemical composition
acids acids.

mechanism in hard
Soaps form scum in hard water. Detergents do not form any scum.
water
ii. Soap molecule has two ends, the charged end that gets attracted towards water is called hydrophilic and the long carbon chain
that repels water is called hydrophobic end. When soap is dissolved in water, the carbon chain i.e, hydrophobic end gets
attracted towards the oil, dirt and grease. The hydrophilic end which is attracted by water molecules points outwards thus, the
micelle formation takes place.
The tail entangles dirt, oil or grease, if required the agitation is done. Lot of rinsing is done with water so that water molecules
attract charged end and carries the soap molecules with to it attached to it and clean the clothes, utensils, etc.

OR
Carboxylic acids are organic compounds containing carboxylic acid group:
COOH or
O

−C − OH

Their general formula is CnH2n+1COOH or it may be written as RCOOH, where R is an alkyl group.
Members of the homologous series of carboxylic acids. The first four members of the homologous series of carboxylic acids are
given ahead:
Molecular Structural
Common name IUPAC name
Formula Formula
O

HCOOH ||
Formic acid Methanoic acid
H − C − OH

H O

| ||

CH3COOH H − C − C − OH Acetic acid Ethanoic acid

|
H

H H O

| | ||

C2H5COOH H − C − C − C − OH Propionic acid Propanoic acid

| |
H H

H H H O

| | | ||

C3H7COOH H − C − C − C − C − OH n-Butyric acid Butanoic acid

| | |
H H H

35. i. The ovary contains ovules and each ovule has an egg cell.
ii. Stamen produces pollen grains that are yellowish in the colour.
iii. The unisexual flower contains either stamens or carpels whereas the bisexual flower contains both stamens and carpels.
iv. When a pollen grain falls on the stigma of the carpel, it bursts open and grows into a pollen tube downwards through the style
towards the female gamete in the ovary.

Page 14 of 17
 v. The tip of the pollen tube bursts open and the male gamete comes out of the pollen tube that combines with the nucleus of the
female gamete present in the ovule to form a fertilized egg called a zygote.
OR

i. Nervous mechanism Hormonal mechanism

Transmits information through electrical impulses. Transmits information through blood cells.

Affects only a particular part of the body. Affect different organs of the body

Signal transmission is fast Signal transmission is slow

ii. When light is coming from one side of the plant, auxin diffuses towards the shaded side of the shoot. This concentration of
auxin stimulates the cells to grow longer on the side of the shoot which is away from light. Thus, the plant appears to bend
towards the light.
36. Position of the candle flame = 12.0 cm
Position of the lens = 50.0 cm
Position of the screen = 88.0 cm
i. u = 50 - 12 = 38 cm
Image distance v = 88 - 50 = 38 cm
Focal length = − = 1

v
1

u
1

f = 19 cm
ii. Object distance u = 50 - 31 = 19 cm
Here
Object distance = focal length
Hence the image is formed at infinity.
iii. If he further shifts the candle towards the lens. The object comes between F and O. In this case. The image is virtual, enlarged
and erect and is formed on the same side of the lens.
iv.

OR
i. The ray diagram shows the path of a ray of light incident obliquely on one face of a glass slab:

ii. The glass refractive index is defined as the ratio between the speed of light in the vacuum and the speed of light in the glass.
Refractive index of glass (ng) = Speed of light in vacuum/speed of light in the glass.
8
3×10
ng = 8
2×10

ng = 1.5
iii. P = 1

f (inmeter)

f= 1

P
=
1

2.5
=
−25
1

−1000
⇒ f= 25
cm = - 40 cm
The focal length (f) of a concave lens is always negative.
Section E
37. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:

Page 15 of 17
 The dissolving of an acid or a base in water is a highly exothermic reaction. Care must be taken while mixing concentrated nitric
acid or sulphuric acid with water. The acid must always be added slowly to water with constant stirring. If water is added to a
concentrated acid, the heat generated may cause the mixture to splash out and cause burns. The glass container may also break due
to excessive local heating. Look out for the warning sign on the can of concentrated sulphuric acid and on the bottle of sodium
hydroxide pellets.

(i) An exothermic reaction is a chemical reaction that releases energy through light or heat.
(ii) Mixing of acid with water is a highly exothermic reaction.
OR
When sulphur trioxide (acidic oxide) is dissolved in water, an exothermic reaction takes place with the formation of
sulphuric acid.
SO3 + H2O → H2SO4
38. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:
You must have noticed many dramatic changes in your appearance as well as that of your friends as you approached 10-12 years
of age. These changes associated with puberty are because of the secretion of testosterone in males and oestrogen in females. Do
you know anyone in your family or friends who has been advised by the doctor to take less sugar in their diet because they are
suffering from diabetes? As a treatment, they might be taking injections of insulin. This is a hormone that is produced by the
pancreas.
(i) Pancreas is a dual gland because it acts as both an endocrine and exocrine gland. As endocrine, it secretes hormones like
insulin, glucagon. As an exocrine gland, it releases enzymes like trypsin, lypase, amylase etc.
(ii) Testosterone in males and oestrogen in females is the hormone that is secreted during adolescence.
(iii)If Insulin is not secreted in the proper amount then it causes diabetes.
OR
Glucagon and Insulin are secreted from alpha and beta cells of islets of the pancreas respectively.
39. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:
A magnetic field is described by drawing the magnetic field lines. When a small north magnetic pole is placed in the magnetic
field created by a magnet, it will experience a force. And if the north pole is free, it will move under the influence of the magnetic
field. The path traced by a north magnetic pole free to move under the influence of a magnetic field is called a magnetic field line.

Since the direction of the magnetic field line is the direction of the force on a north pole, so the magnetic field lines always begin
from the N-pole of a magnet and end on the S-pole of the magnet. Inside the magnet, however, the direction of magnetic field
lines is from the S-pole of the magnet to the N-pole of the magnet. Thus, the magnetic field lines are closed curves. When a small
compass is moved along a magnetic field line, the compass needle always sets itself along the line tangential to it. So, a line drawn
from the south pole of the compass needle to its north pole indicates the direction of the magnetic field at that point.

Page 16 of 17
(i) No two magnetic field lines are found to cross each other. If two field lines crossed each other, it would mean that at the
point of intersection, the compass needle would point in two directions at the same time, which is not possible.
(ii) The magnetic field and hence the magnetic line of force exist in all the planes all around the magnet.
(iii)The magnetic lines of force are uniform and strong at point C and they diverge as they move towards points A and B and
the distance between the lines increases. Eventually, the strength of the magnetic field is strong where the lines are closer
and they weaken as the closeness decreases i.e., at point C.
OR

Page 17 of 17
 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 1
Social Science (087)
Class X (2024-25)

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:
1. The question paper comprises Six Sections - A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37
questions in the Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A - From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
3. Section B - Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying
2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
4. Section C contains Q.25to Q. 29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3
marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.
5. Section D - Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks
each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
6. Section-E - Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub
questions and are of 4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100
words.
7. Section F - Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a
from History (2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has
been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be
attempted.
Section A
1. The reason why Gandhiji attended the Second Round Table Conference of [1]
December 1931, were:

a) For demanding poorna swaraj. b) The signing of the Gandhi-

Irwin Pact in March 1931.

c) The arrest of Ghaffar Khan and d) The violence of the Indian

Jawaharlal Nehru. people against symbols of the
British Raj like railways, police
posts.

2. In the year 2006, floods occurred in the states of: [1]

 a) Tamil Nadu and Andhra b) Gujarat and Maharashtra

c) Karnataka and Kerala d) Maharashtra and Karnataka

SOME DATA REGARDING INDIA AND ITS NEIGHBOURS FOR 2019 [1]
3.
Gross National
Life Expectancy at HDI Rank in the World
Country Income
Birth (2018)
(2011 PPP)
Sri Lanka 12,707 77 73
India 6,681 69.7 130
Myanmar 4,961 67.1 148
Pakistan 5,005 67.3 154
Nepal 3,457 70.8 143
Bangladesh 4,976 72.6 134
As per the data given above which country has HDI rank close to India and also has
a better life expectancy?

a) Nepal b) Pakistan

c) Sri Lanka d) Bangladesh

4. Which of the following options represents the possible reality of the production of [1]
sugarcane, tea, or rubber in India?
i. They are grown in large areas and cover large tracts of land.
ii. Their production generally has an interface of agriculture and industry.
iii. Cultivation is done with the help of capital-intensive inputs and migrant
labourers.
iv. It is practised in areas of high population pressure on land.

a) Statement i, ii, & iii are correct. b) Statement i and ii are correct.

c) Statement ii, iii & iv are d) Statement ii is correct.

correct.

5. ________ is a system of government in which the power is divided between a [1]

central authority and various constituent units of the country.
 a) Federalism b) Constitution

c) Parliament d) Unitary

6. Read the following statements about power sharing arrangement in Belgium and [1]
choose the correct option.
I. Brussels has a separate govt. with equal representation.
II. Dutch & French speaking ministers are equal in Central Govt.
III. Community Govt. is elected by People belonging to one language.
IV. Series of majoritarian measures adopted in Belgium.

a) I, II and III b) II, III and IV

c) I, II and IV d) I, III and IV

7. Assertion (A): Dictatorship is a better form of government. [1]

Reason (R): Democracy is legitimate, accountable, responsive, promotes equality
among citizens, enhances the dignity of the individual

a) Both A and R are true and R is b) Both A and R are true but R is
the correct explanation of A. not the correct explanation of
A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

8. Read the information given below and select the correct option [1]
Ram who is a pot manufacturer wants to sell pots in the market and buy rice. Ram
will first exchange pots that he has produced for money, and then exchange the
money for rice. He would have to look for a rice growing farmer who not only
wants to sell rice but also wants to buy the pots in exchange. That is, both parties
have to agree to sell and buy each others commodities. In the given statement
which situation is mentioned?

a) Correlation of wants b) Double coincidence of wants

c) Barter system of wants d) Incidence of wants

9. In which year new laws were made in Russia giving more powers to its president? [1]

a) 2005 b) 2006
 c) 2007 d) 2004

10. Identify the painting from the options given below. [1]

a) Club of Thinkers b) The Dream of Worldwide

Democratic and Social
Republics

c) The Frankfurt Parliament d) Peasants’ uprising

11. Evaluate the reason for putting a barrier to foreign trade by identifying the [1]
appropriate statements among the following options:
i. To improve the performance of domestic producers.
ii. To create an opportunity for the producers to cover the international markets.
iii. To allow businesses to make decisions on imports and exports freely.
iv. To protect the producers and service providers within the country from foreign
competition.

a) Statements i, ii and iii are b) . All the statements are

appropriate. appropriate.

c) Statements i and ii are d) Only statement iv is

appropriate. appropriate.

12. Studies on political and social inequalities in democracy show that: [1]

a) Inequalities do not exist under b) Democracy and development

dictatorship go together

c) Inequalities exist in d) Dictatorship is better than

democracies democracy

13. Arrange the following statements in sequential order: [1]

 i. Gandhiji begins Civil Disobedience Movement by breaking salt law at Dandi.
ii. Non-Cooperation and Khilafat movement launched.
iii. Gandhian hartal against Rowlatt Act and Jallianwala Bagh massacre.
iv. Distressed UP peasants organised by Baba Ramchandra.

a) iv, i, iii, ii b) ii, i, iv, iii

c) iv, iii, ii, i d) iii, i, iv, ii

14. Read the information given below and select the correct option [1]
If in a family all 10 members are working in a shop or small family business when
5 are enough to work efficiently then those extra 5 members are actually
unemployed. Which situation is being referred to?

a) Disguised Unemployment b) Seasonal Unemployment

c) Structural Unemployment d) Educated Unemployment

15. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct answer [1]
Statement I: In France, penny chapbooks were carried by petty pedlars known as
Chapmen, and sold for a penny, so that even the poor could buy them.
Statement II: In England, were the Biliotheque Bleue, which were low-priced
small books printed on poor quality paper, and bound in cheap blue covers.

a) Both (i) & (ii) are incorrect b) Statement (i) is correct and (ii)
is incorrect

c) Statement (i) is incorrect and d) Both (i) & (ii) are correct
(ii) is correct

16. In a talent hunt competition, the judge decided to challenge the participants with a [1]
unique twist. Alongside their performances, they were given a task to identify a
specific type of soil based on clues related to Laterite Soil. Which of the following
clues provided by judge would be most useful in identifying the Laterite soil?
Clues:
i. This is the most widely spread and important soil.
ii. The formation of this soil depends on climatic conditions and parent rock
material.
iii. These soils are mostly deep to very deep, acidic (pH < 6)), and generally
deficient in plant nutrients.​​
 iv. The soils found in the lower parts of the valleys, particularly on the river terraces
and alluvial fans are fertile.

a) Clue i b) Clue i and iv

c) Clue iii d) Clue ii and iii

17. Which of the following statements will be considered as a glitch about the self- [1]
declaration affidavit of the candidate contesting the elections?
Statement i: This system has made a lot of information available to the public.
Statement ii: It has reduced the influence of the rich and criminals.
Statement iii: There is no system to check if the information given by the
candidates is true.
Statement iv: The affidavit submitted by the candidates is validated before being
accepted.

a) Statement i and ii are right. b) Statement iii is right.

c) Statement i, ii and iii are right. d) Only statement iv is right.

18. Our Constitution does not give a special status to any religion. It is one of the [1]
features of:

a) communalism b) socialism

c) secularism d) federalism

19. Which of the following is false with respect to the Multi-Party System? [1]

a) In this system, the government b) It is a system where there is a

is formed by various parties chance of coming to power
coming together in a coalition either on their own or by
alliance

c) The United States of America d) All of these

has a multi-party system

20. Read the conversation between a farmer, a shopkeeper, and a shoemaker: [1]
Shoemaker to a farmer: I’LL GIVE YOU SHOES FOR YOUR WHEAT.
Farmer to a shoemaker: I DON’T NEED SHOES. I NEED CLOTHES.
Shopkeeper: I WANT SHOES. BUT I DON’T HAVE WHEAT.
What kind of problem is faced by a farmer, a shopkeeper, and a shoemaker?
 a) Lack of terms of credit b) Lack of Banking system

c) Lack of double coincidence of d) Lack of collateral security

wants

Section B
21. Study the map thoroughly and mention the languages that are dominantly spoken in [2]
Belgium.

22. Explain any three provisions of the Treaty of Vienna of 1815. [2]

OR
What changes were brought due to Napoleon's reforms and code? What were the
reactions to these changes?

23. Write down the features of Intensive Subsistence agriculture. [2]

24. Explain the factors that make federal government in India so attractive. [2]

Section C
25. How did Mercier describe the impact of printed word and power of reading on [3]
himself?

26. Can you write brief outline about the position of Indian cotton industry at [3]
international level?

OR
 Read the data given in the graph given below and answer the questions that follow:

i. Which country was the largest exporter of steel in the year 2004?
ii. What was the crude steel production of India in 2019? What was its position
worldwide?

27. Study the data given in the table and answer the questions that follow. [3]
Workers in different sector (in million)
Sector Organised Unorganised Total
Primary 2 240 242
Secondary 9 54 63
Tertiary 17 76 93
Total 28 370 398
i. Which is the most important sector which provides most jobs to people?
ii. What is the number of people engaged in the unorganised sector?
iii. Why this unorganised sector is more important?

28. Examine the 'holding together' nature of Indian Federalism. [3]

29. Nita cannot buy sewing machine due to which she has no other option than to work [3]
on the small farm land where already her husband and four children are working. Is
Nita unemployed? If so then what kind of unemployment is it?
 Section D
30. Write a short note on Bauxite, its formation, features and distribution in India. [5]

OR
"Nuclear energy is expected to play an increasingly important role in India." Give
arguments to support this statement.

31. Mention the obstacles in the way of the Italian Unification. [5]

OR
Describe the role of culture in shaping the feelings of nationalism in Europe at the end
of the nineteenth century.

32. 'The political scene is the mass of many parties.' How do politicians mange these [5]
coalitions? Give your opinion.

OR
Why is there a lack of internal democracy within the political parties in India? Explain
with examples.

33. Define credit. Describe the vital and positive role of credit with examples. [5]

OR
Explain the differences between Formal and Informal Sources of Credit.

Section E
34. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
The Independence Day Pledge, 26 January, 1930
'We believe that it is the inalienable right of the Indian people, as of any other
people, to have freedom and to enjoy the fruits of their toil and have the necessities
of life, so that they may have full opportunities of growth. We believe also that if
any government deprives a people of these rights and oppresses them, the people
have a further right to alter it or to abolish it. The British Government in India has
not only deprived the Indian people of their freedom but has based itself on the
exploitation of the masses, and has ruined India economically, politically,
culturally, and spiritually. We believe, therefore, that India must sever the British
connection and attain Purna Swaraj or Complete Independence.
i. What was considered as an inalienable right? (1)
ii. Why did Indians ask for Purna Swaraj? (1)
 iii. Examine the views of Indians towards the British Government in reference to
this passage. (2)

35. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
Most of the objections to the projects arose due to their failure to achieve the
purposes for which they were built. Ironically, the dams that were constructed to
control floods have triggered floods due to sedimentation in the reservoir.
Moreover, the big dams have mostly been unsuccessful in controlling floods at the
time of excessive rainfall. You may have seen or read how the release of water from
dams during heavy rains aggravated the flood situation in Maharashtra and Gujarat
in 2006. The floods have not only devastated life and property but also caused
extensive soil erosion. Sedimentation also meant that the flood plains were
deprived of silt, a natural fertiliser, further adding on to the problem of land
degradation. It was also observed that the multi-purpose projects induced
earthquakes, caused water-borne diseases and pests and pollution resulting from
excessive use of water.
i. What is one of the impacts of sedimentation in reservoirs? (1)
ii. What impact did the release of water from dams during heavy rains have on the
flood situation in Maharashtra and Gujarat in 2006? (1)
iii. Explain the negative environmental impacts associated with multi-purpose
projects. (2)

36. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
Suppose for the present that a particular country is quite developed. We would
certainly like this level of development to go up further or at least be maintained for
future generations. This is obviously desirable. However, since the second half of
the twentieth century, a number of scientists have been warning that the present
type and levels of development are not sustainable. Groundwater is an example of
renewable resources. These resources are replenished by nature as in the case of
crops and plants. However, even these resources may be overused. For example, in
the case of groundwater, if we use more than what is being replenished by rain then
we would be overusing this resource. Non-renewable resources are those which
will get exhausted after years of use. We have a fixed stock on earth that cannot be
replenished. We do discover new resources that we did not know of earlier. New
sources in this way add to the stock. However, over time, even this will get
exhausted. Consequences of environmental degradation do not respect national or
state boundaries; this issue is no longer region or nation-specific. Our future is
 linked together. Sustainability of development is comparatively a new area of
knowledge in which scientists, economists, philosophers and other social scientists
are working together. In general, the question of development or progress is
perennial. At all times as a member of society and as individuals we need to ask
where we want to go, what we wish to become and what our goals are. So the
debate on development continues.
i. Identify the new area of knowledge which has been a subject of interest for
social scientists and philosophers alike. (1)
ii. What have the scientists warned about the present type of development? Explain.
(1)
iii. Explain how our future is linked together? (2)

Section F
37. (a) Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. [5]
Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
A. The place where Indian National Congress session was held in 1927
B. The place associated with the Movement of Indigo Planters.
(b) On the same outline map of India locate and label any four of the following
with suitable Symbols. (any three)
i. Kandla - Major Sea Port
ii. Gandhinagar - Software Technology Park
iii. Talcher – Coal Field
iv. Rawatbhata - Nuclear Power Plant
v. Raja Sansi - International Airport
 Solution
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 1
Social Science (087)
Class X (2024-25)
Section A
1.
(b) The signing of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact in March 1931.
Explanation:
In such a situation, Mahatma Gandhi once again decided to call off the movement and
entered into a pact with Irwin on 5 March 1931. By this Gandhi-Irwin Pact, Gandhiji
consented to participate in a Round Table Conference. In December 1931, Gandhiji went
to London for the conference, but the negotiations broke down and he returned
disappointed.
2.
(b) Gujarat and Maharashtra
Explanation:
The release of water from dams during heavy rains aggravated the flood situation in
Maharashtra and Gujarat in 2006.
3.
(d) Bangladesh
Explanation:
HDI of India is 130 while that of Bangladesh is 134. Its life expectancy is 72.6 which is
better than India’s 69.7.
4. (a) Statement i, ii, & iii are correct.
Explanation:
In India, tea, coffee, rubber, sugarcane, banana, etc., are important plantation crops.
Plantation is also a type of commercial farming. In this type of farming, a single crop is
grown on a large area. The plantation has an interface of agriculture and industry.
Plantations cover large tracts of land, using capital intensive inputs, with the help of
migrant labourers. All the produce is used as raw material in respective industries. While,
Intensive Subsistence Farming is practised in areas of high population pressure on land.
5. (a) Federalism
Explanation:
Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central
authority and various constituent units of the country. Usually, a federation has two levels
of government.
6. (a) I, II and III
Explanation:
 I, II and III
7.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Explanation:
Democracy is a better form of government because it is legitimate, accountable,
responsive, promotes equality among citizens, enhances the dignity and freedom of the
people, improves the quality of decision-making, and allows room to correct mistakes.
8.
(b) Double coincidence of wants
Explanation:
Double coincidence of wants means when both the parties – seller and purchaser – agree
to sell and buy each other’s commodities. It implies that what a person desires to sell is
exactly what the other wishes to buy.
9. (a) 2005
Explanation:
In 2005, some new laws were made in Russia giving more powers to its president. During
the same time the US president visited Russia.
10.
(b) The Dream of Worldwide Democratic and Social Republics
Explanation:
The Dream of Worldwide Democratic and Social Republics
11.
(d) Only statement iv is appropriate.
Explanation:
Only statement iv is appropriate.
12.
(c) Inequalities exist in democracies
Explanation:
A small number of ultra-rich people enjoy a highly disproportionate share of wealth and
incomes. On the other hand, the people who are at the bottom of society sometimes find it
difficult to meet their basic needs of life like food, shelter, clothing, education, and health.
So we can say that inequalities exist in democracies.
13.
(c) iv, iii, ii, i
Explanation:
iv. 1918-19: Distressed UP peasants organised by Baba Ramchandra.
iii. April 1919: Gandhian hartal against Rowlatt Act and Jallianwala Bagh massacre.
 ii. January 1921: Non-Cooperation and Khilafat movement launched.
i. March 1930: Gandhiji begins Civil Disobedience Movement by breaking salt law at
Dandi.
14. (a) Disguised Unemployment
Explanation:
Disguised unemployment or hidden unemployment is a kind of unemployment where
some people seem to be employed but are actually not.
15. (a) Both (i) & (ii) are incorrect
Explanation:
In France, were the “Biliotheque Bleue”, which were low-priced small books printed on
poor quality paper, and bound in cheap blue covers. In England, penny chapbooks were
carried by petty pedlars known as Chapmen, and sold for a penny, so that even the poor
could buy them.
16.
(c) Clue iii
Explanation: Lateritic soils are mostly deep to very deep, acidic (pH<6)), generally
deficient in plant nutrients.
17.
(b) Statement iii is right.
Explanation:
It is mandatory for every candidate who contests elections to file an affidavit giving details
of his property and criminal cases pending against him. The new system has made a lot of
information available to the public. But there is no system to check if the information
given by the candidates is true.
18.
(c) secularism
Explanation:
Communalism was and continues to be one of the major challenges to democracy in our
country. The makers of our Constitution were aware of this challenge. That is why they
chose the model of a secular state under which, our Constitution does not give a special
status to any religion.
19.
(c) The United States of America has a multi-party system
Explanation:
The United States of America is an example of the two-party system.
20.
(c) Lack of double coincidence of wants
 Explanation:
Lack of double coincidence of wants
Section B
21. The languages that are dominantly spoken in Belgium are Dutch and French.
22. The provisions of Treaty of Vienna were as follows:
i. There was restoration of the power of the Bourbon dynasty in France.
ii. France lost all the territories that it had annexed while under the rule of Napoleon.
iii. Genoa was added to Piedmont in the South and the kingdom of Netherlands was set-up
in North.
iv. New territories were added to Prussia on its western frontier.
v. Austria was granted control over Northern Italy.
vi. Russia was given part of Poland and Prussia was given a part of Saxony.
OR
Napoleon introduced the following changes in order to make the administrative system in
Europe much more efficient.
i. By the Civil Code of 1804, also known as the Napoleonic Code, all such privileges that
were based on birth were done away with.
ii. There was a much more efficient administrative system.
iii. The Right to Property was secured.
iv. The administrative divisions were simplified.
v. The feudal system was abolished.
vi. The peasants were freed from serfdom and dues.
vii. Guild restrictions were removed in the towns as well.
viii. There was improved transport and communication.
ix. Peasants, artisans, workers and new businessmen enjoyed new-found freedom uniform
laws, standardised weights and the measures facilitated the movement of goods and
capital from one region to another.
Reactions to these changes: Businessmen and small scale producers of goods, in
particular, began to realise.
23. Some features of Intensive Subsistence agriculture are
i. It is practiced in areas of high population .
ii. It is labour intensive farming, where high doses of biochemical inputs and irrigation are
used for obtaining higher production.
iii. The right of inheritance leading to division of land among successive generations has
rendered land holding size uneconomical.
iv. The farmers continue to take maximum output from the limited land in the absence of
alternative source of livelihood. Thus there is enormous pressure on agricultural land.
 v. It is practised by majority of the farmers in the country.
vi. It is characterised by small and scattered land holdings and use of primitive tools.
vii. Most of the food production is consumed by the farmers and their families.
24. India is a vast country where many states are bigger than countries in Europe. Soon after
Independence, the constitution declared India as a union of states. The success of
Federalism in India is due to the following reasons:
i. The formation of linguistic states has made the country more united and has also made
administration easier.
ii. Mobilisation.
iii. Flexibility in following the language policy.
iv. New culture of power sharing and respect for the autonomy of state governments.
v. Administrative knowledge of the people at all the levels.
vi. Efficacy to solve all kinds of issues at respective levels.
Section C
25. Louise-Sebastien Mercier, a novelist in 18th century France described the impact of the
printed word, and the power of reading in one of his books in the following way:
a. He compares himself to a man dying of thirst and gulping down some fresh, pure water.
b. He lighted the lamp and started reading page to page. A clock struck off the hours in the
silence of the shadows and he heard nothing
c. In spite of the oil being run out in the lamp, he kept on reading. He did not want to
interrupt his pleasure of reading.
26. Indian cotton industry has a fair position at the international level. As India has the second
largest installed capacity of spindles in the world, next to china at around 34 million. We
have a large share in the world trade of cotton yarn, accounting for one fourth of total
trade. Our trade in garments is only four percent of the world’s total. Our spinning mills
are competitive at global level and capable of using all the fiber products.
OR
i. In 2004, India was the largest exporter of steel which accounted for 2.25 per cent of the
global steel trade.
ii. In 2019 with 111 million tonnes of crude steel production, India ranked 2nd among the
world crude steel producers. It is the largest producer of sponge iron. In 2019 per capita
consumption of finished steel in the country was only around 74.3 kg per annum against
the world average of 229.3 kg.
27. i. As per the given data in the table, Unorganised sector is providing jobs to 370 millions
people hence it is the most important sector which provides most jobs to people.
ii. 370 million people are engaged in the unorganised sector.
iii. Unorganised sector is important as it provides employment to a large number of people.
28. Since India is a vast country with cultural and liguistic diversity, hence the nature of
federation here is 'holding together'.
i. The states have been not been given identical powers with Union government.
ii. Few states have been given special status - like Jammu and Kashmir and North-eastern
states in order to protect and preserve their custom, tradition, culture and linguistic
diversity.
iii. Apart from these some territories of the Indian Union like Chandigarh, Lakshadweep or
the capital city of Delhi are administered by the Union government hence known as
Union Territories.
29. In the given case, due to lack of alternative source of income, Nita is putting her labour in
agriculture where it is not needed. Nita seems to be employed but actually she is in a
situation known as disguised unemployment. Disguised unemployment is a kind of
unemployment in which some people look like being employed but are actually not
employed fully. This situation is also known as Hidden Unemployment. In such a situation
more people are engaged in work than required.
Section D
30. Bauxite is a clay-like substance from which alumina and later aluminium is obtained.
Aluminium is an important metal because it combines the strength of metals such as iron,
with extreme lightness and also with good conductivity and great malleable ability.
Formation: Bauxite deposits are formed by the decomposition of a wide variety of rocks
rich in aluminium silicates.
Distribution:
i. Bauxite is found in the Amarkantak Plateau, Maikal Hills and the plateau region of
Bilaspur-Katni.
ii. Odisha is the largest bauxite producing state in India.
iii. Panchpatmali deposits in Koraput district are the most important bauxite deposits in the
state.
iv. 45 per cent of the country’s total production in 2000-01 was in Odisha.
OR
Atomic energy is generated by splitting nuclear substances such as the atoms of uranium,
thorium, Cheralite, Zirconium under controlled conditions. Splitting of these atoms gives
out a lot of energy which can be used for a variety of purposes such as generating
electricity. This energy is expected to play an increasingly important role in India due to
the following reasons:
i. India has limited reserves of coal and petroleum. Nuclear energy minerals like Thorium
is found in plenty in India.
ii. Hence, nuclear energy can compensate for the deficiency of fossil fuels.
 iii. Nuclear power stations can be established easily and conveniently in those areas where
other sources are not available.
iv. Nuclear power releases tremendous amounts of energy. India can utilize this energy for
peaceful purposes such as the generation of electricity that can be used to run machines
in industries.
v. It is a non-conventional source of energy. After the initial expenses, it becomes very
economical.
31. Italian Unification faced the following obstacles in its way:
i. Quarrelsome Division: The division of Italy into many states and their mutual quarrels
rendered Italy quite weak.
ii. Foreign Rules: Foreign countries like France and Austria established their control over
a large part of Italy. Napoleon, the French emperor, had conquered the whole of Italy.
Thus, the foreign rule was a big hurdle in the way of the Italian Unification.
iii. Congress of Vienna: After the downfall of Napoleon, the Congress of Vienna once
again divided Italy into small states and thus played a great havoc with the task of
Italian unification.
iv. The Pope of Rome: The Pope of Rome was keeping Rome and its adjoining territories
under his dominance. This way he was also proving a great hurdle in the way of the
Italian unification.
v. Reactionary Rulers: Reactionary rulers in most of the Italian states were also proving a
great hurdle in the way of Italian Unification.
OR
i. Culture played an important role in creating the idea of the nation.
ii. Art & poetry, stories and music helped in expressing and shaping nationalist feelings.
iii. Romanticism, a cultural movement which sought to develop a particular form of
nationalist sentiment.
iv. Romantic artists and poets generally criticized the glorification of reason and science
and focused instead on emotions, intuition and mystical feelings.
v. The effort of romantic artists and poets was to create a sense of a shared collective
heritage, a common cultural past, as the basis of a nation.
vi. The emphasis on vernacular language and the local folklore to carry the modern
nationalist message to large audiences who were mostly illiterate.
vii. German philosopher Johann Gottfried Herder popularized the true spirit of the nation
(volksgeist) through folk songs, folk poetry and folk dances.
viii. To oppose French domination, Grimm brothers collected folktales as an effort to
develop the German language and create a German national identity.
 ix. Karol Kurpinski celebrated the national struggle through his operas and music, turning
folk dances like the polonaise and mazurka into nationalist symbols.
x. Language too played an important role in developing nationalist sentiments. For
example: The use of Polish came to be seen as a symbol of the struggle against Russian
dominance.
xi. Any other relevant point.
Any Five points to be described.
32. It is true that presently political scene is dominated by many parties.
The politicians do manage these coalitions by giving proportional representation to all
the emerging political parties and their members.
With the mushrooming of political parties, it has now become difficult in the Indian
political scenario, for any particular party to garner majority of seats to form the
government.
In such a case, several political parties with almost similar agenda come together to form a
government and if voted to power, all such parties as a coalition form the government
Generally, all the major decision making is done by the biggest party in the coalition, like
that of BJP in the general elections of 2014.
If we take it in positive sense we see that this signifies:
A. The concept of popular participation.
B. Equal representation to all the sections of the society.
C. This system has strengthened federal system of democracy.
D. It is helpful to get equal share in the power.
E. Ministries are allotted keeping in mind all the members of the coalition.
Such a system may face problems if one of more than one political parties, opts out of the
coalition leading to instability.
Though at times difficult to manage, such system allows a assortment of interests and
opinions for political representation.
OR
It is a dilemma that while the political parties are seen as an effective instrument of
democratic decentralisation, there is no democracy within the parties i.e. the lack of
Internal Democracy.
All over the world, there is a tendency in political parties towards the concentration of
power in one or a few leaders at the top.
Political parties do not keep membership registers.
Parties do not have the means or the connections needed to influence the decisions.
Ordinary members of the party do not get sufficient information on what happens
inside the party.
 As a result, the leaders assume greater power to make decisions in the name of the party.
Since one or few leaders enjoy extreme power in the party, those who disagree with the
leadership find it difficult to continue in the party. However, more than loyalty to the party
principles and policies, personal loyalty to the leaders becomes more important. For
example, all the newly formed parties, including BSP and Jana Sangh, suffer from a lack
of internal democracy.
33. "Credit' refers to an agreement in which the lender supplies the borrower with money,
goods or services in return for the promise of future payment.
Credit plays a vital and positive role as:
i. Credit helps people from all walks of life in setting up their business, increase their
income and support their families.
ii. Credits help to increase earnings and therefore the persons are better off than before.
iii. To some people, loan helps a lot in constructing their houses and get relief from
monthly rent.
iv. To others, it helps a lot in raising their standards.
Examples:
A person who has enough calibre to start an industry but lacks money can start it by
taking loans and under favourable condition pays it and starts his industrial life.
A student who is unable to take admission in universities but is a scholar can use the
loan as an opportunity.
Farmers can buy new machinery to fasten their production using loans.
OR
Formal Sector Credit Informal Sector Credit
These sources of credit are registered by These include those small and scattered
the government and have to follow its rules units which are largely outside of the control
and regulations. of the government.
Informal sector credit includes
Formal sector credit includes banks and
moneylenders, traders, employees friends
cooperatives.
and relatives.
Banks require collateral and proper
No collateral required.
documentation for getting a loan.
They charge much higher rates of interest.
A reasonable rate of interest is charged.
Repeated borrowing can lead to a debt trap.
Apart from profit-making, they also have Their only motive is to extract profit as
an objective of social welfare. much as possible.
 They impose very tough and sometimes
Terms of credit are fair and reasonable. even unreasonable terms of credit on
borrowers.
Banks do not supervise. There is no
The Reserve Bank of India supervises its
organisation which supervises credit
functioning.
activities.
Section E
34. i. To have freedom and to enjoy the fruits of their toil and have the necessities of life. To
have full opportunities to grow was considered an inalienable right.
ii. Indians wanted to sever the British connection and attain Purna Swaraj or Complete
Independence because the British government exploited the Indians and deprived them
of their freedom.
iii. Indians believed that the British Government in India did not only deprive them of their
freedom but was based itself on the exploitation of the masses, and had ruined India
economically, politically, culturally, and spiritually.
35. i. One of the impacts of sedimentation in reservoirs is the triggering of floods.
ii. The release of water from dams during heavy rains aggravated the flood situation in
Maharashtra and Gujarat in 2006.
iii. The negative environmental impacts associated with multi-purpose projects include
The triggering of floods due to sedimentation in reservoirs.
Failure to control floods during excessive rainfall.
Soil erosion caused by floods.
Deprivation of silt as a natural fertilizer for flood plains.
Induced earthquakes, water-borne diseases and pests, and pollution resulting from
excessive water usage.
36. i. Sustainability of development/Sustainable Development is a new area of knowledge
that has been a subject of interest for social scientists and philosophers alike.
ii. Many scientists have warned that the present types and levels of development are not
sustainable. Resources are being overused by the present generation, which will
ultimately make them exhausted.
iii. Since the present type and levels of development are not sustainable so its effect will
not be limited to a place. The consequences of environmental degradation do not
respect national or state boundaries; this issue is no longer region or nation-specific. In
this way, our future is linked together.
Section F
37. a. A. Madras
 B. Champaran
b.
 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 2
Social Science (087)
Class X (2024-25)

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:
1. The question paper comprises Six Sections - A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37
questions in the Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A - From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
3. Section B - Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying
2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
4. Section C contains Q.25to Q. 29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3
marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.
5. Section D - Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks
each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
6. Section-E - Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub
questions and are of 4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100
words.
7. Section F - Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a
from History (2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has
been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be
attempted.
Section A
1. Who amongst the following led the Civil Disobedience in Peshawar? [1]

a) Jawaharlal Nehru b) Lala Lajpat Rai

c) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad d) Abdul Gaffar Khan

2. What is the problem in India’s rivers especially the smaller ones? [1]

a) Increase water b) Overflow

c) Less water d) Toxic nature

 PER CAPITA INCOME OF SELECT STATES [1]
3.
STATES Per Capita Income for 2018–19 (in ₹)
Bihar 40,982
Kerala 2,04,105
Haryana 2,36,147
As per the data given above which state would be considered as the least
developed?

a) Bihar and Kerala b) Kerala

c) Bihar d) Haryana

4. Which of the following options represents the steps that the government has [1]
undertaken in favour of the farmers?
i. Encouraging speculators and middlemen for price determination.
ii. Introducing Personal Accident Insurance Scheme.
iii. Announcing minimum support price.
iv. Introducing special weather bulletins and agricultural programmes.

a) Statement i, ii, & iii are correct. b) Statement i and ii are correct.

c) Statement ii is correct. d) Statement ii, iii & iv are

correct.

5. The distinguishing feature of a federal government is: [1]

a) National government gives b) Governmental power is divided

some powers to the provincial between different levels of
governments. government.

c) Elected officials exercise d) Power is distributed among the

supreme power in the legislature, executive and
government. judiciary

6. Consider the following statements on Power Sharing and choose the correct option: [1]
I. Majoritarianism is the real spirit of democracy.
II. It creates balance and harmony in different groups.
III. It reduces the possibility of conflict among social groups.
 IV. Power sharing is the essence of democracy.

a) I, III and IV b) I, II and IV

c) I, II and III d) II, III and IV

7. Assertion (A): Democracies are based on political equality. [1]

Reason (R): They provide equal rights to all the citizens to contest elections and
cast vote and ensure equal opportunity to be elected.

a) Both A and R are true and R is b) Both A and R are true but R is
the correct explanation of A. not the correct explanation of
A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

8. Read the information given below and select the correct option [1]
A shoe manufacturer wants to sell shoes in the market and buy wheat. The shoe
manufacturer will first exchange shoes that he had produced for money, and then
exchange the money for wheat. Which drawback of Barter system is indicated
here?

a) Lack of Common Measure of b) Lack of Standard of Deferred

Value Payment

c) Lack of Store of Value d) Lack of Double Coincidence of

Wants

9. Which of the following is not a federal country? [1]

a) Malaysia b) Belgium

c) India d) USA
10. Identify the painting from the options given below. [1]

a) The Planting of Tree of Liberty b) The Massacre at Chios

c) Peasants’ uprising d) The fallen Germania

11. Evaluate the impacts of improvement in technology by identifying the appropriate [1]
statements among the following options:
i. We can obtain and share information on almost anything we want to know.
ii. It has stimulated the globalization process.
iii. It has facilitated expanding the production of services across countries.
iv. It has been facilitated by satellite communication devices.

a) Statements i, ii and iii are b) Only statement iv is

appropriate. appropriate.

c) All the statements are d) Statements i and ii are

appropriate. appropriate.

12. Which one of the following types of government promotes equality among [1]
citizens?

a) Autocracy b) Democracy

c) Aristocracy d) Dictatorship

13. Rearrange the following event according to in which they took place: [1]
i. The arrival of the Simon Commission
ii. Chauri Chaura incident
iii. Non- cooperation and Khilafat movement
iv. Rowlatt Act
 The correct chronological order of these events is:

a) ii, iii, iv, i b) iv, iii, ii, i

c) iii, iv, ii, i d) i, ii, iii, iv

14. A farmer produces one ton of wheat and sells it for 100 to a flour mill. As far as the [1]
farmer is concerned, the sale of wheat is a final sale for him. But the purchase of
wheat by the flour mill is an intermediate good. He converts the wheat into flour
and sells it to a baker for 150. The baker sells the bread to the shopkeeper for 200,
and the shopkeeper to the consumer for 250. Classify the good (bread) that is sold
by the baker to the shopkeeper.

a) Intermediate goods b) Final Goods

c) Baking Goods d) Shopping Goods

15. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct answer [1]
Statement I: Penny magazines were manuals for women teaching proper fashion
sense and cooking.
Statement II: The writings of Jane Austen, the Bronte sisters, George Eliot defined
a new type of woman with will, strength of personality, determination, and the
power to think.

a) Statement (i) is incorrect and b) Both (i) & (ii) are incorrect
(ii) is correct

c) Both (i) & (ii) are correct d) Statement (i) is correct and (ii)
is incorrect
16. The teacher is asking questions regarding the viewpoints of Gandhiji on resource [1]
conservation. She gave students the following clues. She told the students to
identify the incorrect clues. The following are the clues:
i. Gandhiji was very apt in voicing his concern about resource conservation.
ii. He said, "There is enough for everybody’s need and not for anybody’s greed.”
iii. He placed greedy and selfish individuals and the exploitative nature of modern
technology as the root cause for resource depletion at the global level.
iv. He was against production by the masses and wanted to replace it with mass
production.
Identify the incorrect clue.

a) Clue iv b) Clue iii and iv

c) Clue i d) Clue ii and iii

17. Which of the following statements is common about Biju Janata Dal, Sikkim [1]
Democratic Front, Mizo National Front, and Telangana Rashtra Samithi?
Statement i: These parties are not regional in their ideology or outlook.
Statement ii: They are regional in their ideology but have a national outlook.
Statement iii: They all are conscious about their state/regional identity.
Statement iv: They all are conscious about their national identity.

a) Only statement iv is right. b) Statement iii is right.

c) Statement i, ii and iii are right. d) Statement i and ii are right.

18. Shifting from one occupation to another, usually when a new generation takes up [1]
occupations other than those practised by their ancestors is referred to as:

a) Generation mobility b) Ancestral mobility

c) Shifting mobility d) Occupational mobility

19. Which of the following is false with respect to the Political party? [1]

a) Political party hold power in b) A political party is a group of

the government people who come together to
contest elections

c) Elected Political party choose d) A political party agrees on

its own prime minister in the some policies and programmes
 government for the Government with a
view to promote the collective
good

20. People with extra money deposit it in the banks by opening a bank account in their [1]
name. Banks accept deposits and also pay an interest rate on deposits. In this way,
people's money is safe with the banks and it earns interest. People also have the
provision to withdraw the money as and when they require. Since the deposits in
the bank accounts can be withdrawn on demand.
What is the term used in the above, when money can be withdrawn on demand?

a) Demand Deposit b) Surplus Deposit

c) Fixed Deposit d) Term Deposit

Section B
21. Study the map thoroughly and mention which ethnic community is concentrated in [2]
the north and east of the country.

22. What were the effects of revolutionary upheaval in France in 1830? [2]

OR
Define the term Romanticism. How did it facilitate the promotion of nationalist
sentiment?

23. What are the different names gives to the primitive cultivation in different parts of [2]
India?

24. Describe any three features of federal government. [2]

 Section C
25. 'It is difficult to imagine a world without printed matter'. Justify the statement with [3]
suitable arguments.

26. Chemical industries are widely spread over the country. Why do you think it is so? [3]

OR
Read the data in the table given below and answer the questions that follow:

i. The given chart represents the operation of which industry? Why does it have a
unique position in the Indian economy?
ii. Why is this industry called a ‘self-reliant’ industry?

27. A study in Ahmedabad found that out of 15,00,000 workers in the city, 11,00,000 [3]
worked in the unorganized sector. The total income of the city in this year 1997-
1998 was Rs. 60,000 million. Out of this Rs. 32,000 million was generated in the
organized sector. Present this data as a table. What kind of ways should be thought
of for generating more employment in the city?

28. "Local governments have made a significant impact on Indian democracy. At the [3]
same time there are many difficulties". Explain.

29. Compare Tables “A” & “B” and answer the question given below. [3]
Table- A
Share of Sectors in GDP in %

Year Tertiary Secondary Primary

1973-74 50 10 40

2013-14 68 21 11

Table -B
Share of sectors in employment in %

Year Tertiary Secondary Primary

1977-78 18 11 71

2017-18 31 25 44
 A remarkable fact about India is that while there has been a change in the share of
the three sectors in GDP, a similar shift has not taken place in employment. Why
didn’t a similar shift out of the primary sector happen in the case of employment?
Substantiate your answer.

Section D
30. Why do you think that solar energy has a bright future in India? [5]

OR
Explain the importance of conservation of minerals. Highlight some of the measures to
conserve them.

31. Which conditions were viewed as obstacles to economic exchange and growth by [5]
the new commercial classes during the nineteenth century Europe?

OR
What happened during the year following 1815 when the fear of repression drove many
liberal-nationalists underground? Explain.

32. Name the national political party which gets inspiration from India's ancient culture [5]
and values. Mention four features of that party.

OR
Describe the recent efforts that have been made in India to reform political parties.

33. Highlight the contribution of the Krishak Cooperative societies to overcome the [5]
problem of credit in rural areas?

OR
Explain various functions of banks in India.

Section E
34. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
In his book, Mahatma Gandhi declared that British rule was established in India
with the cooperation of Indians, and had survived only because of this cooperation.
If Indians refused to cooperate, British rule in India would collapse within a year,
and swaraj would come. Non-cooperation became a movement. Gandhiji proposed
that the movement should unfold in stages. It should begin with the surrender of
titles that the government awarded, and a boycott of civil services, army, police,
courts and legislative councils, schools, and foreign goods. Then, in case the
 government used repression, a full civil disobedience campaign would be launched.
Through the summer of 1920, Mahatma Gandhi and Shaukat Ali toured
extensively, mobilising popular support for the movement. Many within the
Congress were, however, concerned about the proposals. They were reluctant to
boycott the council elections scheduled for November 1920. In the months between
September and December, there was an intense tussle within Congress. For a while,
there seemed no meeting point between the supporters and the opponents of the
movement. Finally, at the Congress session at Nagpur in December 1920, a
compromise was worked out.
i. What compromise chalked out in the Congress session of December 1920? (1)
ii. In which book did Mahatma Gandhi write that the British rule was established
because of Indian’s cooperation? (1)
iii. Why were some members of Congress reluctant to boycott the council elections?
(2)

35. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
Sardar Sarovar Dam is one of the largest water resource projects of India covering
four states - Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Rajasthan. The Sardar
Sarovar project would meet the requirement of water in drought-prone and desert
areas of Gujarat (9,490 villages and 173 towns) and Rajasthan (124 villages).
Narmada Bachao Andolan or Save Narmada Movement is a Non Governmental
Organisation (NGO) that mobilised tribal people, farmers, environmentalists and
human rights activists against the Sardar Sarovar Dam. It originally focused on the
environmental issues related to trees that would be submerged under the dam water.
Recently it has re-focused the aim to enable poor citizens, especially the oustees
(displaced people) to get full rehabilitation facilities from the government. People
felt that their suffering would not be in vain… accepted the trauma of displacement
believing in the promise of irrigated fields and plentiful harvests. So, often the
survivors of Rihand told us that they accepted their sufferings as sacrifice for the
sake of their nation. But now, after thirty bitter years of being adrift, their
livelihood having even being more precarious, they keep asking: “Are we the only
ones chosen to make sacrifices for the nation?”
i. When the Save Narmada Movement first began, what was its primary goal? (1)
ii. Sardar Sarovar dam is built across which river? (1)
iii. Why did the survivors of Rihand accept their sufferings? (2)
36. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
Recent evidence suggests that the groundwater is under serious threat of overuse in
many parts of the country. About 300 districts have reported a water level decline
of over 4 metres during the past 20 years. Nearly one-third of the country is
overusing their groundwater reserves. In another 25 years, 60 percent of the country
would be doing the same if the present way of using this resource continues.
Groundwater overuse is particularly found in the agriculturally prosperous regions
of Punjab and Western U.P., hard rock plateau areas of central and south India,
some coastal areas and the rapidly growing urban settlements.
Countries like India depend on importing oil from abroad because they do not have
enough stocks of their own. If prices of oil increase this becomes a burden for
everyone. There are countries like the USA which have low reserves and hence
want to secure oil through military or economic power. The question of
sustainability of development raises many fundamentally new issues about the
nature and process of development.
i. Explain the significance of the prices of oil in the world market. (1)
ii. Groundwater is an example of renewable resources then how can it be overused?
(1)
iii. The question of the sustainability of development raises many fundamentally
new issues about the nature and process of development. Why is the issue of
sustainability important for development? (2)

Section F
37. a. Two places A and B have been marked on the given political outline map of [5]
India. Identify these places with the help of the following information and write
their correct names on the lines drawn near them:
i. The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held in 1927.
ii. The place where Gandhiji organized Satyagraha for the indigo planters.
b. On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any three of the
following with suitable symbols:
i. Salal Dam
ii. Ramagundam Thermal Power Plant
iii. Gandhinagar Software Technology Park
iv. Tuticorin - Sea Port
 Solution
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 2
Social Science (087)
Class X (2024-25)

Section A
1.
(d) Abdul Gaffar Khan
Explanation:
Abdul Ghaffar Khan, a devout disciple of Mahatma Gandhi, was arrested in April 1930 for
leading the Civil Disobedience in Peshawar.
2.
(d) Toxic nature
Explanation:
India’s rivers especially the smaller ones are turning into toxic streams due to population
growth, agricultural modernization, urbanization, and industrialization.
3.
(c) Bihar
Explanation:
If per capita income were to be used as the measure of development, Haryana will be
considered the most developed and Bihar the least developed state of the three.
4.
(d) Statement ii, iii & iv are correct.
Explanation:
Statement ii, iii & iv are correct.
5.
(b) Governmental power is divided between different levels of government.
Explanation:
Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central
authority and various constituent units of the country. Usually, a federation has two levels
of government. One is the government for the entire country that is usually responsible for
a few subjects of common national interest. The others are governments at the level of
provinces or states that look after much of the day-to-day administering of their state. Both
these levels of governments enjoy their power independent of the other.
6.
(d) II, III and IV
Explanation:
II, III and IV
 7. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Democracies are based on the fundamental principle of political equality as they provide
equal rights to all the citizens to contest elections and cast vote and ensure equal
opportunity to be elected. They also subscribe to one vote, one value, and equal political
rights.
8.
(d)
Lack of Double Coincidence of Wants

Explanation:
Barter system can work only when both buyer and seller are ready to exchange each
other’s goods. A shoe manufacturer wants to sell shoes in the market and buy wheat. The
shoe manufacturer
will first exchange shoes that he had produced for money, and then exchange the money
for wheat. Imagine how difficult it would be if the shoe manufacturer had to directly
exchange shoes for wheat without using money. He would have to look for a wheat
growing farmer, who not only wants to sell wheat but also wants to buy the shoes in
exchange.
9. (a) Malaysia
Explanation:
Malaysia is a federation of 13 states operating within a constitutional monarchy under the
Westminster parliamentary system and is categorised as a representative democracy. The
federal government of Malaysia adheres to and is created by the Federal Constitution of
Malaysia, the supreme law of the land.
10.
(b) The Massacre at Chios
Explanation:
The Massacre at Chios
11. (a) Statements i, ii and iii are appropriate.
Explanation:
Statement iv states one of the mediums of the developed or improved technology and does
not state its effect/impact.
12.
(b) Democracy
 Explanation:
Democracy is a form of government where power is vested in the people, and decisions
are made through fair and inclusive processes such as elections and majority rule. In a
democratic system, all citizens are considered equal before the law and have equal
political rights and opportunities to participate in decision-making.
13.
(b) iv, iii, ii, i
Explanation:
The Arrival of the Simon Commission - 1928, Chauri Chaura incident - 1922, Non-
cooperation and Khilafat movement 1921, Rowlatt Act 1919.
14.
(b) Final Goods
Explanation:
Final goods refer to those goods which are used either for consumption. They are ready for
use in the sense that no value has to be added, whereas Intermediate goods refer to those
goods which are used either for resale or for further production in the same year. They are
not ready for use in the sense some value has to be added.
In the given case, for the baker, flour is an intermediate good. He bakes it into bread and
sells it to a shopkeeper and the shopkeeper sells it to consumers for its consumption.
Hence the bread will be the Final Goods.
15. (a) Statement (i) is incorrect and (ii) is correct
Explanation:
Penny magazines were specially meant for women, as were manuals teaching proper
behaviour and housekeeping.
Jane Austen, the Bronte sisters, George Eliot. Their writings became important in defining
a new type of woman: a person with will, strength of personality, determination and the
power to think.
16. (a) Clue iv
Explanation:
He was against mass production and wanted to replace it with the production by the
masses.
17.
(b) Statement iii is right.
Explanation:
Parties like Biju Janata Dal, Sikkim Democratic Front, Mizo National Front, and
Telangana Rashtra Samithi are conscious about their State identity.
18.
(d) Occupational mobility
Explanation:
Shifting from one occupation to another, usually when a new generation takes up
occupations other than those practised by their ancestors.
19.
(d) A political party agrees on some policies and programmes for the Government with a
view to promote the collective good
Explanation:
A political party is a group of people who come together to contest elections and hold
power in the government. They agree on some policies and programmes for the "society"
with a view to promote the collective good.
20. (a) Demand Deposit
Explanation:
People with extra money deposit it in the banks by opening a bank account in their name.
Banks accept deposits and also pay an interest rate on deposits. People also have the
provision to withdraw the money as and when they require it. A demand deposit consists
of funds held in an account from which deposited funds can be withdrawn at any time
from the depository institution.
Section B
21. Sri Lankan Tamils are concentrated in the north and east of the country.
22. The effects of revolutionary upheaval in France in 1830 were as follows:
1. The Bourbon dynasty which was restored in 1815 was overthrown by the liberal
revolutionaries.
2. Louis Philippe became the head of the constitutional monarchy that was installed.
3. Belgium broke away from the United Kingdom of Netherlands following an uprising in
Brussels.
OR
Romanticism was a movement in literature and arts, that originated in the late 18th
century, emphasizing subjectivity, inspiration and the supremacy of the individual.
a. Critical approach towards science and reason: Glorification of reason and science
was criticised by the romantic artists, rather they favoured emotions, intuitions and
mystical feelings.
b. Folk culture as the spirit of the nation: Romantics like the German philosopher
Johann Gottfried Herder claimed that the true spirit of the nation could be popularised
through folk songs, folk poetry and folk dances. He held the view that true German
culture could be discovered only among the common people, the Das Volk.
 c. Emphasis on vernacular language: They gave emphasis on vernacular language to
carry the modern nationalist message to a large audience who were mostly illiterate and
to recover the national spirit.
23. i. In India, primitive form of cultivation is called Bewar or Dahiya in Madhya Pradesh.
ii. Podu or Pennda in Andhra Pradesh.
iii. Pama dabi or Koan or Bringa in Orissa.
iv. Kumari in Western Ghats.
v. Valre or Waltre in South eastern Rajasthan.
vi. Khil in Himalayan belt.
vii. Kuruwa in Jharkhand and Jhumming in the North eastern region.
24. The main features of a federal form of government are:
i. The power is divided between the central authority and its various constituent units.
ii. All levels of governance will govern the same citizens, but their jurisdiction will be
different.
iii. Any change in the fundamental provisions of the Constitution has to be passed by both
the houses of the Parliament and then ratified by the legislatures of at least half the
number of states.
Section C
25. Yes, it is really very difficult to imagine a world without printed matter because of the
following reasons:
i. Everywhere in our surroundings, we find evidence of print, i.e. in books, journals,
newspapers, prints of famous paintings, etc.
ii. We see printed materials in everyday things like theatre programmes, official circulars,
calendars, diaries, advertisements, cinema posters, government notifications etc.
iii. It is a true medium of mass communication like newspaper, journals and books, etc. We
read printed literature, see printed images, follow the news through different
newspapers and track public debates that appear in print.
iv. Printed matter helps in preservation and dissemination of history, scientific knowledge
and culture, etc.
26. The following two factors contribute to the wide dispersal of the chemical industry all
over India as:
i. The chemical industry is its own largest consumer, therefore many organic chemical
industries are located near the oil refineries and big petrochemical complexes.
ii. In the inorganic chemical industry, the raw materials used are lightweight and so they
are cheap and easy to transport.
OR
 i. The given chart shows the steps of value addition in the textile industry. The textile
industry occupies unique position in the Indian economy because it contributes
significantly to industrial production, employment generation and foreign exchange
earnings.
ii. The textile industry is the only industry in the country which is self-reliant and
complete in the value chain i.e., from raw material to the highest value-added products.
27. The following table presents the above-mentioned data:
Sector Organised Sector Unorganised Total
A number of workers. 4,00,000 11,00,000 15,00,000
Income in Rs. 32,000 million 28,000 million 60,000 million
The following steps should be taken in order to generate more employment in the
city:
i. More companies need to be brought under the organised sector so that workers from the
organised sector may get jobs there.
ii. The government should encourage agro-based industries apart from small-scale
industries and cottage industries.
iii. The government should promote loan facility on a simple and easy condition at a low-
interest rate.
iv. At the same time, labour-intensive techniques must be adopted in place of the capital-
intensive technique.
v. The tertiary sector should be more developed and road, bridges, dams, services road,
school building, residential colonies, the commercial building should be constructed.
28. The new system of local self-government is the largest experiment in Indian democracy.
The significant achievements of this government are
i. The constitutional status for local government has helped to deepen democracy in our
country.
ii. They have made local administration much easier and more effective.
iii. It has increased women’s representation and voice in our democracy.
iv. The local government structure goes right upto the district level.
At the same time the local self-government has many difficulties. These are
i. While elections are held regularly, Gram Sabhas are not held regularly to review the
performance of the Gram Panchayat.
ii. Most State Governments have not transferred significant powers and adequate
resources to the local governments.
iii. We are thus still a long way from realising the ideal of self government.
29. There has been a big change in the three sectors of economic activities but a similar shift
has not taken place in the share of employment due to the following reasons:
i. There has been an increase in the industrial output by 8 times but employment in the
sector has increased only by 2-5 times.
ii. The production of services rose by 11 times in the tertiary sector but employment in the
services rose only by 3 times.
iii. More than 50% of workers in the country are working in the primary sector producing
only one-quarter of the goods.
iv. Secondary and tertiary sectors produce three-fourths of the product whereas they only
employ half of the country's workers.
v. Primary sector has disguised employment whereas workers in secondary and tertiary
sectors work overtime.
Section D
30. Remote and rural places are rapidly becoming more and more popular with solar
energy.
Given that it is a tropical nation, India has enormous potential for using solar energy.
(Many parts (regions) of the country receive sunlight at least 300 days annually so, it
becomes possible to generate 20 MW solar energy per square kilometre in such areas.)
With the use of photovoltaic technology, electricity is produced straight from
sunshine.
It is easy to establish solar plants in urban and rural areas.
Large power plants are being developed in India.
This will significantly lessen the reliance of rural households on firewood and dung
cakes. This will contribute to environmental preservation and provide an adequate
supply of manure for agricultural use.
OR
The importance of conservation of minerals is explained below:
i. Mineral resources, in the present scenario, are being rapidly consumed. However, it is
important to conserve these resources because the geological processes of mineral
formation are very slow and it takes millions of years for them to be created and
concentrated.
ii. The rates of replenishment are infinitely small in comparison to the present rates of
consumption. The finite and nonrenewable nature of these resources makes them our
country's most valuable possessions.
iii. Recycling of metals, using scrap metals and other substitutes are the important steps
involved in the conservation of mineral resources.
Some of the measures to conserve minerals are as under:
 i. Minerals should be used in a planned and sustainable manner.
ii. Improved technology needs to be constantly evolved to allow the use of low-grade ore
at a low cost.
iii. Recycling of metals using scrap metals.
iv. Wastage in mining and processing should be minimized.
31. Following were the obstacles viewed by the new commercial classes, to the economic
exchange and growth during the nineteenth century Europe:
i. There was enormous increase in population all over the Europe.
ii. Population from rural areas migrated to the cities to live in overcrowded slums and
could not afford to fulfill the basic needs.
iii. Increase in unemployment. In most countries, there were more job-seekers than
employment.
iv. Cheap machine-made goods from England were giving stiff competition to small
producers of European towns.
v. The price of food inflated many folds due to bad harvest. It led to a widespread
pauperism in European towns.
OR
During the year following 1815 when the fear of repression drove many liberal-
nationalists underground the following events happened:
i. Secret societies sprang up in many European states to train revolutionaries and spread
their ideas.
ii. To be revolutionary at this time meant a commitment to oppose monarchical forms that
had been established after the Vienna Congress, and to fight for liberty and freedom.
iii. Most of these revolutionaries also saw the creation of nation-states as a necessary part
of this struggle for freedom.
iv. One such individual was the Italian revolutionary Giuseppe Mazzini. He was an Italian
revolutionary founded two more underground societies, first, Young Italy in Marseilles,
and then, Young Europe in Berne, whose members were like-minded young men from
Poland, France, Italy, and the German states.
v. Giuseppe Mazzini believed that nations are natural units of mankind. In his view, the
creation of nation-states is a necessary part of the struggle for freedom. So, Italy could
not continue to be a patchwork of small states and kingdoms. It had to be forged into a
single unified republic within a wider alliance of nations. This unification alone could
be the basis of Italian liberty Following his model, secret societies were set-up in
Germany France, Switzerland and Poland.
vi. He was opposed to monarchy and believed in the vision of democratic republics. He did
not believe in small states and kingdoms.
 vii. Giuseppe Mazzini's relentless opposition to monarchy and his vision of democratic
republics frightened the conservatives, Metternich described him as 'the most dangerous
enemy of our social order'.
32. 'Bharatiya Janata Party' (BJP) wants to build a strong and modern India by drawing
inspiration from India’s ancient culture and values.
Four important features:
i. Cultural nationalism or 'Hindutva' is an important element in its conception of Indian
Nationhood and politics.
ii. The party wants full territorial and political integration of Jammu and Kashmir with
India, a uniform civil code for all people living in the country irrespective of religion,
and a ban on religious conversions.
iii. Its support base increased substantially in the 1990s. Earlier limited to north and west
and to urban areas, the party expanded its support in the south, east, the north-east and
to rural areas.
iv. Came to power in 1998 as the leader of the National Democratic Alliance including
several state and regional parties. Lost elections in 2004 and is the principal opposition
party in the Lok Sabha.
OR
Efforts to reform political parties in India are:
i. A law should be made to regulate the internal affairs of political parties.
ii. It should be made compulsory for political parties to maintain a register of its members,
to follow its own constitution, to have an independent authority, to act as a judge in case
of party disputes, to hold open elections to the highest posts.
iii. It should be made mandatory for political parties give a minimum number of tickets,
about 1

3
to its women candidates. There should be a quota for women in the decision
making bodies of the party.
iv. There should be state funding of elections. The government should give parties money
to support their election expenses in kind: petrol, paper, telephone, etc., or in cash on
the basis of the votes secured by the party in the last election.
v. Data regarding caste and religion, OBC, SC, ST should not be utilized during the
election period in any form.
33. Besides banks the other major sources provides the cheap credit in rural areas they known
as the cooperative societies. The members of a cooperative society utilise their resources
for cooperation in certain areas.
i. Krishak Cooperatives society functions in a village not very far away from Sonpur.
ii. It has 2300 farmers as members. It accepts deposits from its members.
iii. With these deposits as collateral, the cooperative has obtained a large loan from bank.
 iv. These funds are utilise to provide loans to members. Once these loans are repaid,
another round of lending can take place.
v. Krishak cooperatives provide loans for the purchase of agricultural equipments, loans
for cultivation and agricultural trade, fishery loans, loans for construction of houses and
for a variety of other expenses.
OR
As a legal institution or organisation, a bank helps the public and the government manage
the money in the economy. There are many state banks and a central bank in India. The
Reserve Bank of India is the central bank that supervises the functioning of formal sources
of loans. Issuing currency notes on behalf of the central government is the unique function
of the RBI. Banks help in management of finances by providing two chief services to the
public:
i. Depositing their savings
ii. Withdrawal of these savings on demand.
The main functions of the banks are:
Accepting deposits from the public and others.
Lending money to the public (Loans) and other institutions.
Transferring money from one place to another (Remittances)
Collecting money on cheques, drafts and bills.
Conducting foreign exchange transactions.
Keeping valuables in safe custody.
Issuing letters of credit and guarantee
Conducting government transactions (State and Central)
Section E
34. i. A non-cooperation programme was adopted as in the Congress session of December
1920.
ii. In his famous book Hind Swaraj, Mahatma Gandhi declared that British rule was
established in India with the cooperation of Indians.
iii. Some members were reluctant to boycott the council elections because they feared that
the movement might lead to popular violence.
35. i. Environmental issues related to the submerged trees under the dam water.
ii. Sardar Sarovar dam is built across Narmada river.
iii. The survivors of Rihand accepted their sufferings as a sacrifice for the sake of their
nation, believing in the promise of irrigated fields and plentiful harvests.
36. i. Since most countries do not have enough stock and depend on importing oil from
abroad therefore its price has a far-reaching effect. If prices of oil increase this becomes
a burden for everyone.
 ii. Even if groundwater is a renewable resource, it can also be overused. This happens
when it is used more than what is being replenished by rain.
iii. The issue of sustainability is important for development because:
It cares for the need of future generations.
It promotes the efficient use of natural resources.
It lays emphasis on quality of life.
Section F
37. Updated Map As Below:
 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 3
Social Science (087)
Class X (2024-25)
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. The question paper comprises Six Sections - A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37
questions in the Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A - From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
3. Section B - Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying
2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
4. Section C contains Q.25to Q. 29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3
marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.
5. Section D - Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks
each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
6. Section-E - Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub
questions and are of 4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100
words.
7. Section F - Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a
from History (2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has
been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be
attempted.
Section A
1. A form of demonstration or protest by which people block the entrance to a shop, [1]
factory, or office is referred to as:

a) picket b) riots

c) target d) parade

2. The word matkas refers to: [1]

a) collecting and storing water b) cooking food and eating

c) serving food and donating d) washing clothes and cleaning

3. Read the given data and find out the Indian state/s where the number of infant death [1]
(before the age of one year) is more.
Infant Mortality Rate Literacy Net Attendance Ratio (per 100
State per 1,000 live births Rate % persons) secondary stage (age 14
(2018) (2017-18) and 15 years) 2017-18
Haryana 30 82 61
Kerala 7 94 83
Bihar 32 62 43
Sources : Economic Survey 2020-21, P.A 157, National Sample Survey
Organisation (Report No. 585), National statistical office, Government of India.

a) Both Bihar and Haryana b) Haryana

c) Kerala d) Bihar

4. In 2018, India was the second largest producer of fruits and vegetables in the world [1]
after China. Which of the following process is involved in the production of
Horticulture Crops?
i. Cultivation and harvesting of grapes.
ii. Growing and marketing flowers and ornamental plants.
iii. Breeding, rearing and transplantation of fish under controlled conditions.
iv. Cultivating silkworms and extracting silk from them.

a) Statement ii, iii & iv are b) Statement i, ii, & iii are correct.
correct.

c) Statement i and ii are correct. d) Statement ii is correct.

5. Which among the following are the three lists in Constitution? [1]

a) Concurrent List b) All of these

c) Union List d) State List

6. Consider the following statements on Power Sharing and choose the correct option: [1]
I. It deepens democracy.
II. It helps to reduce conflicts among social groups.
III. It is a way to ensure political stability.
 IV. It brings socio-economic struggles.

a) I, II and IV b) II, III and IV

c) I, III and IV d) I, II and III

7. Assertion (A): Democracy is not simply ruled by majority opinion. [1]

Reason (R): The majority always needs to work with the minority so that
governments function to represent the general view.

a) Both A and R are true and R is b) Both A and R are true but R is
the correct explanation of A. not the correct explanation of
A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

8. In a small rural village, Farmer Sundar worked tirelessly on his land, preparing for [1]
the upcoming crop season. With limited resources, he sought a crop loan from the
local bank to purchase essential inputs. Months later, after a good harvest, Sundar
diligently repaid the loan. How do farmers like Sundar in rural areas typically repay
crop loans?

a) Through the income earned b) By purchasing personal assets

from their crop production​​ or belongings

c) By using savings accumulated d) By lending additional loans to

over time​​ friends and family​​

9. The principle of majoritarianism led to a civil war in: [1]

a) Britain b) Belgium

c) Sri Lanka d) Tamil Nadu

10. Look at the picture given below and select the correct option from the following: [1]

Which of the following aspects best signifies this image of Germania?

a) As a protector of Germany b) As a protector of her child

c) As a guardian of women's d) As a protector of German

rights Rhine

11. MNCs have been looking for locations around the world that would be cheap for [1]
their production. Evaluate the cost-effective methods adopted by the MNCs by
identifying the appropriate statements among the following options:
i. Opting for a cheap manufacturing location.
ii. Setting up a production unit in the proximity of markets.
iii. Hiring highly skilled engineers at cheap rates from developing countries.
iv. Buy up local companies and expand production.

a) All the statements are b) Only statement iv is

appropriate. appropriate.

c) Statements i, ii and iii are d) Statements i and ii are

appropriate. appropriate.

12. In the context of democracies, which of the following ideas is correct – [1]
democracies have successfully eliminated:

a) The idea of political inequality b) Conflicts among people

c) Differences of opinion d) Economic inequalities among

people

13. Arrange the following events of Indian National Movement in chronological order [1]
and choose the correct option.
I. Formation of Swaraj Party
 II. Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress
III. Gandhi-Irwin Pact
IV. Formation of Depressed Class Association

a) IV, III, II and I b) II, III, I and IV

c) I, II, IV and III d) I, III, II and IV

14. Read the information given below and select the correct option [1]
Kanta works in an office. She attends her office from 9.30 a.m. to 5.30 p.m. She
gets her salary regularly at the end of every month. In addition to the salary, she
also gets provident fund as per the rules laid down by the government. She also gets
medical and other allowances. Kanta does not go to the office on Sundays. This is a
paid holiday. When she joined work, she was given an appointment letter stating all
the terms and conditions of work. In which sector Kanta is engaged? Tick the most
appropriate option.

a) Unorganised Sector b) Organised Sector

c) Secondary Sector d) Primary Sector

15. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct answer [1]
Statement I: By the 1970s, caricatures, and cartoons were being published in
journals and newspapers, commenting on social and political issues.
Statement II: There were imperial caricatures lampooning nationalists, as well as
nationalist cartoons criticising imperial rule.

a) Statement (i) is incorrect and b) Both (i) & (ii) are incorrect
(ii) is correct

c) Statement (i) is correct and (ii) d) Both (i) & (ii) are correct
is incorrect

16. During a geography class, the teacher discussed alluvial soils with the students, [1]
giving them various clues. Which of the following clues provided by teacher is
correct?
Clues:
i. This type of soil is typical of the Deccan trap (Basalt) region spread over
northwest Deccan plateau and is made up of lava flows.
ii. This is the most widely spread and important soil.
 iii. Mostly these soils contain an adequate proportion of potash, phosphoric acid and
lime.
iv. These soils develop under tropical and subtropical.

a) Clue i and ii​​ b) Clue iv

c) Clue ii and iii​​ d) Clue i​​

17. Which of the following statements will be considered as a factor that contributes to [1]
strengthening federalism and democracy in our country?
Statement i: Not a single national party is able to secure on its own a majority in
the general elections.
Statement ii: Every party in the country registers with the Election Commission.
Statement iii: The Election Commission classifies major parties as ‘State parties’.
Statement iv: State parties get an opportunity to be a part of one or the other
national-level coalition government.

a) Statement i and ii are right. b) Statement i, ii and iii are right.

c) Only statement iv is right. d) Statement iii is right.

18. This problem begins when religion is seen as the basis of the nation: [1]

a) Communalism b) Socialism

c) Federalism d) Secularism

19. Which of the following is incorrect with respect to Partisanship? [1]

a) All of these b) Parties are not a part of the

society and thus involve
partisanship

c) Partisanship is marked by a d) A person who is strongly

tendency to take a side and committed to a party is
inability to take a balanced Partisanship
view on an issue

20. Read the information given below and select the correct option [1]
Gopal is supervising the work of one farm labourer. Gopal has seven acres of land.
He is one of the few persons in Sonpur to receive a bank loan for cultivation. The
interest rate on the loan is 8.5 percent per annum and can be repaid anytime in the
 next three years. Gopal plans to repay the loan after harvest by selling a part of the
crop. He then intends to store the rest of the potatoes in cold storage and apply for a
fresh loan from the bank against the cold storage receipt. The bank offers this
facility to farmers who have taken crop loans from them. What kind of facility is
provided by a bank to Gopal?

a) Cultivation Arrangements b) Credit Arrangements

c) Collateral Arrangements d) Cold Storage Arrangements

Section B
21. Study the map thoroughly and compare the location of Indian Tamils and Sri [2]
Lankan Tamils in the country.

22. What area was known as the Balkans? [2]

OR
What is the significance of 1848 for France and the rest of Europe? What did the
liberals demand?

23. Mention different names by which slash and burn type of farming is known in [2]
India. Name the states where this type of farming is practised in India. Name any
two crops grown in this type of farming.

24. Describe any three characteristics of distribution of power between the Centre and [2]
States in India.

Section C
25. Why did some people in eighteenth-century Europe think that print culture would [3]
bring enlightenment and end despotism?

26. Read the data in the table given below and answer the questions that follow: [3]
Total Production of finished steel in India
Year Production (in million tonnes)
2015-16 106.60
2016-17 120.14
2017-18 126.85
2018-19 101.29
2019-20 102.62
i. What are the basic raw materials required in the Iron and Steel Industry?
ii. According to the given data in the table the production of steel has reduced after
2017-18. Give any two possible reasons for it.

OR
How would you classify industry on the basis of ownership?

27. Study the table and answer the question given below. [3]
Share of Sectors in Employment in %
Year Tertiary Secondary Primary
1977-78 18 11 71
2017-18 31 25 44
The primary sector continues to be the largest employing sector even after 70 years
of independence. This proves that it is still a relevant sector as most people are
dependent on it. Substantiate your answer.

28. Here are three reactions to the language policy followed in India. Give an argument [3]
and an example to support any of these positions.
Sangeeta: The policy of accommodation has strengthened national unity.
Arman: Language-based States have divided us by making everyone conscious of
their language.
Harish: This policy has only helped to consolidate the dominance of English over
all other languages.
29. Study the table and answer the question given below. [3]
Share of Sectors in GDP in %
Year Tertiary Secondary Primary
1973-74 50 10 40
2013-14 68 21 11
It can be observed that comparatively over the last forty years, the tertiary sector
has emerged as the largest producing sector of the three sectors. Highlight the
factors responsible for the rising importance of the Tertiary Sector in Production.

Section D
30. Energy saved is energy produced. Asses the statement. [5]

OR
What efforts are required to use mineral resources in a planned and sustainable manner?
Explain in three points.

31. Explain the measures introduced by the French revolutionaries to create a sense of [5]
collective identity amongst the people during the French Revolution.

OR
Explain the term conservatism. Explain with special reference to Europe.

32. Identify and list the symbols of the following political parties with their States: [5]
i. Shiromani Akali Dal
ii. Samajwadi Party
iii. A.I.A.D.M.K.
iv. Trinamool Congress
v. Rashtriya Janata Dal

OR
Write a short note on Nationalist Congress Party (NCP).

33. Credit sometimes pushes the borrower into a situation from which recovery is very [5]
painful. Support the statement with examples.

OR
What is Bank? Can you illustrate the functions of a Bank?
 Section E
34. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
‘It is said of “passive resistance” that it is the weapon of the weak, but the power
which is the subject of this article can be used only by the strong. This 4 power is
not passive resistance; indeed, it calls for intense activity. The movement in South
Africa was not passive but active ... ‘Satyagraha is not physical force. A satyagrahi
does not inflict pain on the adversary; he does not seek his destruction ... In the use
of satyagraha, there is no ill-will whatever. ‘Satyagraha is pure soul-force. Truth is
the very substance of the soul. That is why this force is called satyagraha. The soul
is informed with knowledge. In it burns the flame of love. ... Nonviolence is the
supreme dharma ...‘It is certain that India cannot rival Britain or Europe in force of
arms. The British worship the war-god and they can all of them become, as they are
becoming, bearers of arms. The hundreds of millions in India can never carry arms.
They have made the religion of non-violence their own ...’
i. Why did Gandhiji consider nonviolence as supreme dharma? (1)
ii. How was Gandhian satyagraha taken by the people who believed in his
philosophy? (1)
iii. Why was Gandhian satyagraha considered as a novel way to resist injustice? (2)

35. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
Today, in western Rajasthan, sadly the practice of rooftop rainwater harvesting is
on the decline as plenty of water is available due to the perennial Indira Gandhi
Canal, though some houses still maintain the tankas since they do not like the taste
of tap water. Fortunately, in many parts of rural and urban India, rooftop rainwater
harvesting is being successfully adapted to store and conserve water. In Gendathur,
a remote backward village in Mysuru, Karnataka, villagers have installed, in their
household’s rooftop, rainwater harvesting system to meet their water needs. Nearly
200 households have installed this system and the village has earned the rare
distinction of being rich in rainwater. Gendathur receives an annual precipitation of
1,000 mm, and with 80 per cent of collection efficiency and of about 10 fillings,
every house can collect and use about 50,000 litres of water annually. From the 200
houses, the net amount of rainwater harvested annually amounts to 1,00,000 litres.
i. What caused the rooftop rainwater harvesting practice to decline in western
Rajasthan? (1)
ii. Why do some homes in western Rajasthan continue to use tankas when tap water
is readily available? (1)
 iii. Explain the successful adaptation of rooftop rainwater harvesting in Gendathur
village in Mysuru, Karnataka, and its impact on water availability. (2)

36. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
The idea of development or progress has always been with us. We have aspirations
or desires about what we would like to do and how we would like to live.
Development or progress is likely to mean different to different persons. A girl
expects as much freedom and opportunity as her brother, and that he also shares in
the household work. Her brother may not like this. Similarly, to get more electricity,
industrialists may want more dams. But this may submerge the land and disrupt the
lives of people who are displaced – such as tribals. They might resent this and may
prefer small check dams or tanks to irrigate their land.
i. Explain the negative effect of having more dams on the locals. (1)
ii. What could be the developmental goal for a girl from a rich urban family? (1)
iii. Based on the given source, draw two conclusions. (2)

Section F
37. a. Two features A and B are marked on the given political outline map of India. [5]
Identify these features with the help of the following informations and write their
correct names on the lines marked near them.
A. The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held.
B. The place where the movement of Indigo planters was started.
b. Locate and label any four of the following with appropriate symbols on the same
given political outline map of India.
(i) Sardar Sarovar Dam
(ii) Bhilai Iron and Steel Plant
(iii) Pune Software Technology Park
(iv) Kochi Major Sea Port
(v) Indore Cotton Textile Industry
(vi) Naraura Nuclear Power Plant
 Solution
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 3
Social Science (087)
Class X (2024-25)
Section A
1. (a) picket
Explanation:
Picket - A form of demonstration or protest by which people block the entrance to a shop,
factory, or office. The effects of non-cooperation on the economic front were more
dramatic. Foreign goods were boycotted, liquor shops picketed.
2. (a) collecting and storing water
Explanation:
Earthern pots or Matkas used for collecting water in Rajasthan. It is used for collecting
and storing water.
3. (a) Both Bihar and Haryana
Explanation:
Both Bihar and Haryana
4.
(c) Statement i and ii are correct.
Explanation:
Horticulture involves floriculture, olericulture, pomology, viticulture, etc. (Viticulture
deals with the cultivation and harvesting of grapes. Floriculture deals with growing and
marketing flowers and ornamental plants. Olericulture deals with the scientific study of
vegetable crops.)
While Pisciculture is a process of growing fish and selling it or using its products for
domestic or commercial use.
5.
(b) All of these
Explanation:
Schedule VII of the Constitution provides for three lists Union list (on which Parliament
makes laws), State List(on which state legislatures make laws) and Concurrent List(on
which both the parliament and state legislatures can make laws).
6.
(d) I, II and III
Explanation:
I, II and III
7. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
 It is necessary to understand that democracy is not simply ruled by majority opinion. The
majority always needs to work with the minority so that governments function to represent
the general view.
8. (a) Through the income earned from their crop production​​
Explanation:
Farmers usually take crop loans at the beginning of the season and repay the loan after
harvest. Repayment of the loan is crucially dependent on the income from farming.
9.
(c) Sri Lanka
Explanation:
Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in 1948. The leaders of the Sinhala
community sought to secure dominance over the government by virtue of their majority.
As a result, the democratically elected government adopted a series of majoritarian
measures to establish Sinhala supremacy. The distrust between the two communities
turned into widespread conflict. It soon turned into a civil war.
10.
(d) As a protector of German Rhine
Explanation:
As a protector of German Rhine
11.
(c) Statements i, ii and iii are appropriate.
Explanation:
Generally, MNCs buy up local companies as investments and then expand production.
12. (a) The idea of political inequality
Explanation:
With the emergence of democracy in the world and global acceptance of it has made the
idea of political inequality as the talk of ancient days. Democracies have successfully
eliminated is the idea of political inequality as in our country’s democracy there is no
inequality based on politics.
13.
(c) I, II, IV and III
Explanation:
I, II, IV and III
14.
(b)
Organised Sector
 Explanation:
Kanta works in the organised sector. Organised sector covers those enterprises or places of
work where the terms of employment are regular and therefore, people have assured work.
They are registered by the government and have to follow its rules and regulations which
are given in various laws such as the Factories Act, Minimum Wages Act etc. They get
paid leave, payment during holidays, provident fund, gratuity etc. They are supposed to
get medical benefits. Workers in the organised sector enjoy security of employment. They
are expected to work only a fixed number of hours.
15. (a) Statement (i) is incorrect and (ii) is correct
Explanation:
By the 1870s, caricatures, and cartoons were being published in journals and newspapers,
commenting on social and political issues.
16.
(c) Clue ii and iii​​
Explanation:
Alluvial Soils are the most widely spread and important soil. Mostly these soils contain
adequate proportion of potash, phosphoric acid and lime.
17.
(c) Only statement iv is right.
Explanation:
No one national party is able to secure on its own a majority in the Lok Sabha, until 2014.
As a result, the national parties are compelled to form alliances with State parties. Since
1996, nearly every one of the State parties has got an opportunity to be a part of one or the
other national level coalition government. This has contributed to the strengthening of
federalism and democracy in our country.
18. (a) Communalism
Explanation:
Communalism begins when religion is seen as the basis of the nation. The problem
becomes more acute when religion is expressed in politics in exclusive and partisan terms
when one religion and its followers are pitted against another.
19.
(b) Parties are not a part of the society and thus involve partisanship
Explanation:
Parties are a part of the society and thus involve partisanship.
20.
(b) Credit Arrangements
 Explanation:
The facility is provided by the bank to Gopal is Credit Arrangements
Section B
21. While the Sri Lankan Tamils are concentrated in the north and east edge of the country, the
Indian Tamils are mostly located almost in the centre of the country within the Sinhalese
area.
22. The vast territory lying between the Adriatic sea and the Black sea comprising the modern
states of Greece, Romania, Albania, Slovenia, Croatia, Bosnia- Herzegovina, Montenegro
and Serbia was known as the Balkans.
All these states were inhabited by people broadly known as Slavs as they were once the
part of the Ottoman Empire,
The disintegration of the Ottoman Empire and the spread of the ideas of Romantic
nationalism made the Balkan region very explosive. The Balkan states were fiercely
jealous of one another and each hoped to gain more territory at the expense of the others.
OR
i. There were a number of revolts during 1848 in Europe, like revolts of the unemployed
workers, poor and starving peasants. The educated middle class of France also started a
revolution for the renunciation of the kingship and the proclamation of a republic based
on universal male suffrage was made.
ii. Men and women of the liberal middle classes in other parts of Europe put their demands
together for freedom of constitution with national unification.
iii. They took advantage of the growing popular unrest to put forth their demands for
creating a nation-state on parliamentary principles of a constitution, freedom of
association and freedom of the press.
iv. One of the most controversial subject matters within the liberal movement in which a
large number of women had participated actively, was the issue of extending political
rights to women.
23. It is known by different names in India like Jhumming, Bewar, Podu, Pamlou, Dipa etc.
a. Jhumming in north-eastern states like Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland and
the Himalayan state of Sikkim.
b. It is also practised in Chattishgarh, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha and Andaman and the
Nicobar Islands.
c. Two crops grown in this type of farming are rice and millet.
24. The constitution clearly distributes Legislative Powers between State and Union
Government.
i. Subjects of National Importance like Foreign affairs, banking, defence, currency come
under union list of Central Government.
 ii. Subjects of Local importance like Police, Trade come under state government under
State list.
iii. Subject of common interest like education/ marriage come under Concurrent list of both
Centre and State government.
Section C
25. People in eighteenth-century Europe think that print culture would bring enlightenment
and end despotism because:
i. By the mid-eighteenth century, there was a common conviction that books were a
means of spreading progress and enlightenment.
ii. Many believed that books could change the world, liberate society from despotism and
tyranny, and herald a time when reason and intellect would rule.
iii. Louise-Sebastien Mercier, a novelist in eighteenth-century France, declared ‘The
printing press is the most powerful engine of progress and public opinion is the force
that will sweep despotism away'.
26. i. Iron ore, coking coal and lime stone are required in the ratio of approximately 4 : 2 : 1.
Some quantities of manganese, are also required to harden the steel.
ii. Reasons: (a) High costs and limited availability of coking coal (b) Lower productivity
of labour (c) Irregular supply of energy (d) Poor infrastructure.
OR
Industries can be classified on the basis of ownership in following categories:
i. Public Sector: Owned and operated by government agencies, e.g., BHEL, SAIL.
ii. Private Sector: Owned and operated by individuals or a group of individuals, e.g., Bajaj
Auto Ltd., Dabur Industries, TISCO.
iii. Joint Sector: Run jointly by the government and Individual or group of individuals, e.g.
Oil India Ltd. (OIL)
iv. Cooperative Sector: Owned and operated by the producers or suppliers of raw material,
workers or both. Resources are pooled and profits and losses are shared, e.g. Amul
India, coir industries in Kerala, Sugar industries in Maharashtra.
27. As the most important economic sector in the economy, the primary sector is critical in
contributing to the overall economic growth of a society. In some instances, economies
that are more developed can devote more excellent resources to primary production. The
following points delineate the importance of the primary sector:
Primary Sector provides the basic needs of the economy, i.e., food and mineral ores. It
produces some of the raw materials (like jute, cotton, coal extracted from mines) for
the industrial sector.
The agricultural sector provides food for the entire economy. Besides growing crops,
the agricultural sector also includes forestry and fishing which provide food and raw
 materials for other industries.
The mining sector provides mineral resources indispensable for the industrial sector of
the economy.
The agricultural population in the primary sector provides a very large market of
consumers for the secondary sector (for buying finished products like clothes, goods
of daily need, fertilizers, etc.
28. From above given all the three reactions Sangeeta's reaction is best because of our policy
of accommodation the unity in our nation has been strengthened. Unlike Sri Lanka (where
the language of the majority has been promoted), the Indian polity has given equality of
status to all the major languages spoken in the country. This has led to the avoidance of
social conflict on a linguistic basis. The policy of accommodation has made the
administration of States easier. It has also ensured a larger participation in the
government’s activities by people who speak various languages.
29. Over the forty years between 1973-74 and 2013-14, while production in all three sectors
has increased, it has increased the most in the tertiary sector. As a result, in the year 2013-
14, the tertiary sector emerged as the largest producing sector in India replacing the
primary sector. Its development can be attributed to various factors like:
Basic services like hospitals, education, post and telegraph, courts, etc. are the
responsibility of the government in developing countries.
Demand for services such as transport, trade, and storage will increase with the
development of primary and secondary sectors.
Demand for tourism, shopping, private schools, private hospitals, etc. increases with
the increase in the level of income.
Rapid growth of the service sector also benefitted from external demand such as the
software industry and call centre services.
Liberalisation of the financial sector provided an environment for faster growth of
financial services.
Section D
30. Conservation of energy is essential because it protects our environment from green-house
gas emission and also saves valuable resources from getting depleted. If we save energy
then only more energy can be produced. It is essential to use non- conventional sources of
energy.
Following are some measures to conserve energy resources:
i. We should try to use more and more public transport system instead of private vehicles.
ii. Electronic devices must be switched off when not in use.
iii. It is necessary to use more and more power-saving devices.
iv. Reduce consumption of non-renewable sources of energy.
 v. If possible solar power should be used to generate electricity.
vi. Minimum use of high power-consuming electrical gadgets, i.e., air conditioner, room
heaters, etc.
vii. Recycling of goods and commodities can also help to conserve energy.
OR
Following efforts are required to use mineral resources in a planned and sustainable
manner:
i. Recycling of metals: We should recycle the metal or metal-made products to prevent
its scarcity. For example; Used steel blade should be sent for recycling, so that the steel
can be used again for other purposes.
ii. Improved technologies need to be evolved: Traditional technologies should be
replaced with new and improved technologies, so that the wastages can be minimised
and extraction of mineral ores will become easy.
iii. Dependence: There is a great need to reduce our dependence on the non-renewable
resources, because if not then it will leave the social and economic development of the
country in stagnant form. Therefore the resources which cannot be recycled or reused
should be replaced with the recyclable resources. For example, use of green gas instead
of coal for cooking purpose.
31. The French revolutionaries introduced various measures and practices that created a sense
of collective identity among the French people:
i. They introduced the ideas of La Patrie (the fatherland) and Le Citoyen (the citizen)
emphasizing the concept of a united community enjoying equal rights under a
Constitution.
ii. They choose a new French flag, the tricolour, to replace the Royal Standard.
iii. Estates General was elected by the body of active citizens and renamed the National
Assembly.
iv. New hymns were composed and martyrs commemorated all in the name of the nation.
v. A centralised system of administration was introduced, uniform laws were made for all
citizens.
vi. French language was spoken and written and became a common language in Paris.
OR
Meaning of Conservatism:
Conservatism is a political philosophy that stressed the importance of tradition, established
institutions and customs and preferred gradual development to quick change.
Conservatives believed in traditional and cultural values. They were the people who
supported monarchy and nobility. They believed that the privileges of the monarchy and
 nobility should exist. After the French Revolution, they contended that gradual changes
should be brought in society.
European Conservatism:
The European government adopted the idea of conservatism after the defeat of Napoleon
Bonaparte in 1815. Conservatives were people who believed that established, traditional
institutions of state and society like the monarchy church, social hierarchies, property and
the family should be preserved.
Change in Ideas of Conservatism:
The basic ideas of conservatism were changed after the rule of Napolean. Most
conservatives did not want to return to the society of pre-revolutionary days. They realised
the changes initiated by Napoleon strengthened the traditional institutions like the
monarchy in reality. They understood that a modern army, an efficient bureaucracy, a
dynamic economy, the abolition of feudalism and serfdom could strengthen the autocratic
monarchies in Europe. Thus, the conservatives of that time accepted the changes which
were in favour of their interests.

32. Party Name Name of State Symbols of the Party

Shiromani Akal Dal Punjab Taraju
Samajwadi Party Uttar Pradesh Cycle
AIADMK Tamil Nadu Leaf
Trinamool Congress West Bengal Three Leaf
Rashtriya Janta Dal Bihar Lantern
OR
Formation of the Party:
This party was formed in 1999 following a split in the Indian National Congress. In May
1999, the nationalist leaders Sharad Pawar, PA Sangma and Tariq Anwar took the historic
decision to form a new political party under the name of Nationalist Congress Party
(NCP). Sharad Pawar was elected as President and Sangma and Anwar became General
Secretaries of the party.
Ideology of the Party:
The party espouses democracy, Gandhian secularism, equity, social justice and federalism.
This party wants that high offices in government be confined to natural born citizens of the
country.
Features of the Party:
It is a major party in Maharashtra and has a significant presence in Meghalaya, Manipur
and Assam. Since 2004, NCP is a member of the United Progressive Alliance at centre.
 The party’s symbol is an analogue clock, with two legs and an alarm button reads 10:10.

33. That statement rings true. Credit, while a powerful tool, can land borrowers in difficult
situations if not managed carefully.
i. In rural areas, the main demand for credit is for crop production. Crop production
involves considerable costs on seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, water, electricity, repair of
equipment, etc.
ii. There is a minimum stretch of three to four months between the time when the farmers
buy these inputs and when they sell the crop.
iii. Farmers usually take crop loans at the beginning of the season and repay the loan after
harvest.
iv. Repayment of the loan is crucially dependent on the income from farming.
v. Example of credit which is painful for a borrower: A farmer picks up the loan from a
money lender to meet the expenses of cultivation. But unfortunately crops hit by the
pests and fails. So, he is unable to repay the loan and ; debt grows larger with interest.
Next year, he picks up a fresh loan and is able to have a normal crop that year. But
earnings are not enough to pay the earlier loan. He can repay the loan, only after selling
a part of the land.
OR
Banks are institutions which accept the deposits from the public. It allows withdrawal of
money by cheques and by demand deposits and advances loans of various types to the
borrowers. Following are the functions of a bank:
i. Depositor of Money: Banks accepts deposits from customers in various forms. It can be
in the form of saving account deposits, current account and fixed deposits.
ii. Interest on Savings: It gives interests on the savings to the customers. This can add on
to their prinipal amount deposited earlier and can give a handsome return to the
depositors.
iii. Withdrawal Facilities: It provides withdrawal facilities to the customers as and when
needed.
iv. Providing Loan: It gives loans and advances to the borrowers and charge certain
interests on them.
v. Agency Function: It provides agency function like transfer of funds, collection of funds,
payment of various items, purchase and sale of shares and securities.
Section E
34. i. Gandhiji adopted nonviolence as a philosophy and an ideal way of life. According to
him philosophy of nonviolence is not a weapon of the weak; it is a weapon, which can
be tried by all.
ii. A satyagrahi does not inflict pain on the adversary; he does not seek his destruction. In
the use of satyagraha, there is no ill-will.
iii. a. One could win the battle through nonviolence.
b. This could be done by appealing to the conscience of the oppressor.
c. People - including the oppressors - had to be persuaded to see the truth, instead of
being forced to accept truth through the use of violence.
35. i. The decline in rooftop rainwater harvesting practice in western Rajasthan is due to the
availability of plenty of water from the perennial Indira Gandhi Canal.
ii. Some houses in western Rajasthan still maintain tankas because they do not like the
taste of tap water.
iii. In Gendathur village, nearly 200 households have installed rooftop rainwater harvesting
systems to meet their water needs. With an annual precipitation of 1,000 mm, an 80
percent collection efficiency, and approximately 10 fillings, each house can collect and
use about 50,000 liters of water annually. As a result, the net amount of rainwater
harvested annually from the 200 houses in Gendathur village amounts to 1,00,000 liters.
This successful adaptation of rooftop rainwater harvesting has made the village rich in
rainwater, providing a sustainable source of water for the community.
36. i. Having more dams may submerge the area around it and may disrupt the lives of the
local people such as tribals.
ii. The developmental goals or aspirations for a girl from a rich urban family could be that
she gets as much freedom as her brother and is able to decide what she wants to do in
life. She is able to pursue her studies abroad.
iii. Two things that can be concluded from the given source are:
i. Different persons can have different developmental goals.
ii. What may be development for one may not be development for the other. It may
even be destructive for the other.
Section F
37.
 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 1
English Language and Literature (184)
Class X (2024-25)

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:
Read the instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
1. This question paper comprises 11 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2. The question paper contains THREE sections -
Section - A : Reading Skills
Section - B : Grammar and Creative Writing Skills
Section - C : Literature Text Book
3. Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.
Section A - Reading Skills
1. Read the following passage carefully: [10]
1. The words probiotics, prebiotics, and postbiotics may sound like variations of
the same thing, but what a difference a prefix makes. The first is a category of
health-promoting microbes. The latter two groups are types of beneficial
molecules. But all three biotics are critical for supporting the community of
microscopic organisms that live in the gastrointestinal tract, known as the gut
microbiome. With both beneficial and harmful bacteria living in the human
body, these diet-related factors - the biotics - help tip the balance in the positive
direction. It is important to understand their differences, as you'll see, because
each of these factors serves a distinct purpose, even as they work together.
2. Despite their importance for the gut microbiome, the health benefits of these
'biotics', which are present in certain foods or result from their metabolism,
extend beyond the digestive tract. A growing body of scientific evidence has
linked prebiotics, probiotics, and postbiotics, with improvements in metabolic
diseases - including obesity and cholesterol abnormalities - depressive
symptoms and poor sleep quality, among many other conditions.
3. Besides promoting general gut health, consuming food rich in probiotics can
improve irritable bowel syndrome and antibiotic-related diarrhea, prevent
traveller's diarrhea, produce vitamins and increase nutrient absorption, and
decrease the risk of common infections. In fact, when consumed regularly,
 probiotics have been found to reduce the occurrence of upper respiratory tract
infections (like the common cold).
4. Many different types of beneficial bacteria are considered probiotics. The most
common ones include Lactobacillus and Bifidobacterium, of which there are
dozens of strains. "You have to match what it is you're concerned about with
the probiotic you should use," says Gregor Reid. Many different types of
beneficial bacteria are considered probiotics.
5. Some foods, such as yogurt, kefir, kimchee, and fermented soybeans and
kombucha naturally contain probiotics. But here's where things get
complicated: not all fermented foods or yogurts contain probiotics, Reid says.
As a consumer, a good starting point is to look for the phrase "contains live and
active cultures" on the label; it's even better if specific strains of bacteria are
listed, because then you'll know you're getting the right stuff.
6. Simply put, prebiotics are sources of food for those beneficial microbes - the
probiotics. They are typically a form of carbohydrate or fiber that we don't have
the enzymes to digest. As a result, they move through the digestive tract to the
intestine, where beneficial bacteria (probiotics) can feast on them.
7. When you consume foods that are rich in probiotics and prebiotics, the
microbes in your gut consume the undigestible prebiotic fiber and produce
bioactive compounds called postbiotics. They are ultimately the endgame that
we want - they affect how our gut operates and keeps the good bacteria there
and the bad bacteria out.
Answer the following questions, based on the above passage: (10)
i. Which of the following statements best describes the author's attitude towards
probiotics? (1)
A. Probiotics, prebiotics and postbiotics are variations of the same thing, with
just a difference of a prefix.
B. All fermented foods or yogurts naturally contain probiotics.
C. All three biotics are equally important to support microscopic organisms that
live in the gut microbiome.
D. Only probiotics are important as they can improve irritable bowel syndrome
and antibiotic-related diarrhea.
ii. According to the writer, health benefits of all the 'biotics' extend beyond the
digestive tract. Rationalise your response in about 40 words. (2)
 iii. Complete the sentence appropriately. (1)
To get the right probiotic and to match it with your body's requirement, it is
important to see the label for ________.
iv. The passage includes some words that are opposites of each other. From the
sets (A) - (E) below, identify two sets of antonyms. (1)
A. increase and decrease
B. probiotic and postbiotic
C. beneficial and harmful
D. feast and fermented
E. consuming and digestive
v. Complete the sentence appropriately. (1)
The author wants to stress the fact that there is not just one type of beneficial
bacteria considered as probiotic, in fact, some probiotics have ________.
vi. Based on the reading of the passage, examine in about 40 words, the
importance of prebiotics for the human gut and how they are related to
probiotics. (2)
vii. As a consumer, if you want to pick a probiotic product, what is the most
important thing to keep in mind?
Pick the best answer. (1)
A. Any fermented product that contains probiotics.
B. Checking the label for specific strains of bacteria.
C. All products under "probiotics" section in a grocery store are safe to pick.
D. Checking the label which clearly says "probiotics" is sufficient.
viii. "Despite their importance for the gut microbiome, the health benefits of these
'biotics', which are present in certain foods or result from their metabolism,
extend beyond the digestive tract." (1)
As per this statement from the passage, how relevant are the 'biotics' for
humans? Pick the best answer.
A. Their relevance has been proven by scientific evidence.
B. Not very relevant as more study is needed.
C. Their relevance cannot be generalised for everyone.
D. Only probiotics are relevant for humans.

2. Read the passage given below: [10]

1. Increasing traffic congestion every year is causing increasing air pollution,
wasting time and productivity and diverse respiratory diseases. Moreover, the
cost of solving or reducing traffic congestion is enormous. However, neglecting
the traffic jam problem would increase the social problems among citizens.
2. The number of vehicles has increased considerably in the city in the past five
years. Due to this increase, the city roads witness frequent traffic congestions,
but above all, the vehicles emitting pollutants are affecting the environment
adversely.
3. The Capital’s vehicular population saw an addition of more than five lakh
vehicles last year, registering an increase of over 4%, according to the Delhi
Economic Survey 2020-21.
4. In spite of the largest road network, through metro and bus services in major
cities the transport system is not being able to keep pace with the growing
demand. Consequently, more and more people use their private vehicles,
leading to increased congestion on the roads. In spite of these challenges people
in India prefer road travel over air and other means of travel. Citizens of
Delhi/NCR have, time and again, pondered over the possibilities of how to
reduce the traffic congestion in the city, especially during the peak hours.
People should use public transport, the government must increase the facilities
of public transport, people should avoid the unnecessary collection of vehicles
and should use carpool and vehicle sharing.
5. What is required is proper implementation of corrective measures by citizens to
get an organized traffic management system.
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given
below: (10)
i. Infer one reason for the following, based on information in paragraph 1.
Reducing traffic congestion is not easy. (1)
ii. Select the appropriate option to complete the following sentence. The reasons
for increased traffic congestion are ________. (1)
1. use of private vehicles
2. increase in demand for cars
3. inability to keep pace with population control
4. travelling by public transport
5. emission of pollutants
a. 4, 5
 b. 1, 5
c. 1, 2
d. 2, 3
iii. Analyze the status of traffic between the years 2019-2022. (2)

What is required to get an organized traffic management system?

iv. Give the reasons for increase in vehicular congestion. (2)
v. Complete the following analogy correctly with a word / phrase from the
paragraph 5. organized : chaotic : : lowest : _______ Clue : Just as organized is
an antonym of chaotic, lowest is an antonym of _______. (1)
vi. The vehicles emit pollutants which affect _______ badly (1)
vii. Complete the following sentence. Use of public transport will reduce
________. (1)
viii. Select the appropriate option to complete the following sentence. The reasons
for increased traffic congestion are ________. (1)
1. start car pooling
2. add electric buses
3. increase in public modes of transport
4. increase car collection points
5. increase taxation
a. 1, 4, 5
b. 3, 5
c. 2, 3, 4
d. 1, 3

SECTION B GRAMMAR
3. Complete ANY TEN of twelve of the following tasks, as directed [10]

(i) Fill in the blank by using the correct form of the word in the brackets, for the [1]
given portion of a letter.
 Thank you for exceeding company expectations and ________ (inspire) your
team with your spectacular work ethic.

(ii) Identify the error and supply the correction for the following note in a laptop's [1]
user guide.
This guide describes features that are common to most products. Some features
cannot be available on your computer.
Use the given format for your response.
Error Correction

(iii) Read the conversation between a driver and his passenger. Complete the [1]
sentence by reporting the passenger's reply correctly.
Driver: Do the bus timings suit you?
Passenger: Yes, if I catch the 9 a.m. one, I reach office on time.
The driver was trying to figure out whether the bus timings were convenient to
the passenger. The passenger clarified that ________.

(iv) Choose the correct reported speech of a given sentence: [1]

They said, "We really enjoyed a movie, we have never seen such a movie in
life."

a) They said that they really b) They said that they really had
enjoyed a movie, they never enjoyed a movie they have
saw such a movie in life. never seen such a movie in
life.

c) They said that we really had d) They said that they really had
enjoyed a movie we had enjoyed a movie they had
never seen such a movie in never seen such a movie in
life. life.

(v) Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option. [1]

He is an expert on languages, but he knows _________ (a lot of / little / a few)
about mathematics.

(vi) Identify the error and supply the correction for the following part of an [1]
advertisement of a web hosting site:
One of the world's most popular domain name seller provides fantastic web
hosting packages as well
Use the given format for your response.
 Error Correction

(vii) Identify the error and supply the correction. [1]

The art displays in the wall are a wonderful way for children to express their
talent.
Use the given format for your response.
Error Correction

(viii) When he ____ her as a cheater, she _____ him to the headmaster. [1]

a) called / had complained b) has called / complains

c) called / complained d) had called / complained

(ix) Report the dialogue between a grandson and his grandfather, by [1]
completing the sentence:
Grandson: Grandpa, why do you eat an apple every day?
Grandpa: Because an apple a day keeps the doctors away, my son.
In response to the question about why he eats an apple every day, the
grandfather explains that ________.

(x) Choose the correct reported speech of a given sentence: [1]

"I don't speak Urdu," she said.

a) She said that she doesn't b) She says that she didn't speak
speak Urdu. Urdu.

c) She said that she didn't speak d) She said that she didn't spoke
Urdu. Urdu.
 (xi) Complete the line from a self-awareness song, by filling the blank with the [1]
correct option.
Where the mind is without tear and the head is held high
Where knowledge is free
Where the world ________ not ________ up into fragments
By narrow domestic walls
A. has been broken
B. had been broken
C. will be broken
D. have been broken

(xii) Identify the error and supply the correction, for the following: [1]
Delhi Government
COVID-19 FAMILY FINANCIAL ASSISTANCE SCHEME
An assistance of ₹50,000/- will be given to all family living in Delhi on each
death of any family member due to COVID-19, whether or not they were
earning members.

Use the given format for your response.

error correction

SECTION B CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS

4. You are Sudheer/Sweety of 3-B, DDA Flats, Punjabi Bagh, Delhi. You noticed [5]
while traveling in the Metro that in spite of the strict vigilance people try to deface
the Metro trains and stations. Write a letter to the editor of an evening newspaper
suggesting DMRC, Delhi to start some awareness programs at the school level in
coordination with the Directorate of Education explaining how such programs may
help in bringing a positive change in people's attitude.

OR
You are Ms. Monika Pundhir, the Sports Instructor in Army Public School, Agra. The
Principal asks you to place an order for buying the necessary sports equipment required
for the school. you came across the following discount offer on sports equipment.
 You decide to place an order to M/s Sethi sports, Jalandhar. Write a letter placing an
order for the same.

5. The given bar graph shows the preferences of children in a school in playing [5]
different games over the span of six years. Write an analytical paragraph about the
given information in about 100 words:

OR
The chart below displays data about the number of digital devices purchased in Rishu
nagar across the years 2015-2019. Write a paragraph analyzing the given data.

SECTION C - LITERATURE
6. Read the given extracts and answer the questions for ANY ONE of the two, [5]
given.

(i) Read the following extracts and answer the question/complete the sentences [5]
that follow:
”You are disappointed”, Ausable said wheezily over his shoulder. “You were
told that I was a secret agent, a spy, dealing in espionage and danger. You
wished to meet me because you are a writer, young and romantic. You
 envisioned mysterious figures in the night, the crack of pistols, drugs in the
wine.”
i. What makes Ausable comment to Fowler "You are disappointed"? (1)
ii. Why did ‘he’ want to meet Ausable? (2)
iii. Complete the given sentence: (1)
Fowler was disappointed to meet Ausable because ________.
iv. What is the meaning of the word Espionage? (1)
i. Finding out secret information
ii. Dealing with careless behaviour
iii. Ignorant about certain things
iv. Dealing indifferently

(ii) Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: [5]
All through the night, Lencho thought only of his one hope: the help of God,
whose eyes, as he had been instructed, see everything, to even what is deep in
one’s conscience. Lencho was an ox of a man, working like an animal in the
fields, but still, he knew how to write. The following Sunday, at daybreak, he
began to write a letter which he himself would carry to town and place in the
mail. It was nothing less than a letter to God. “God,” he wrote, “If you don’t
help me, my family and I will go hungry this year. I need a hundred pesos in
order to sow field again and to live until the crop comes because of the
hailstorm...”
a. Why Lencho thought only of his one hope: the help of God? Answer in
about 40 words. (2)
b. Read the following descriptions (a)-(c) and identify which one correctly
corresponds to the extract. (1)
a. Lencho worked in fields like an ox of a man. He worked like an animal in
the fields.
b. Lencho became stressed and disappointed as everything went against the
plan.
c. He felt helpless as no corn had been left and feared, that they might have
to starve this time.
c. What would be the word if a word were to be replaced with the phrase ‘the
inner sense of right or wrong’? (1)
 d. Fill the blank with one word. Lencho wrote the letter to God, and he himself
carried the letter to town and dropped in the ________. (1)

7. Read the given extracts and answer the questions for ANY ONE of the two, [5]
given.

(i) Read the lines given below and answer the questions that follow: [5]
The trees inside are moving out into the forest,
the forest that was empty all these days
Where no bird could sit
no insect hide
no sun bury its feet in shadow.
i. Complete the sentence appropriately. (1)
It is clear that Personification is the poetic device used for 'No sun bury its
feet....' because (Clue: explain how personification applies here)
ii. State whether the following statement is True or False: (1)
The extract uses trees as a symbol for conservative people.
iii. Select the appropriate option to complete the sentence, according to the
extract. The idea of a forest that has been 'empty all these days' is ________.
(1)
A. unnatural
B. scary
C. magical
D. legendary
iv. Which three things cannot happen in a treeless forest? (2)

(ii) Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: [5]
Suddenly, suddenly they heard a nasty sound,
And Mustard growled, and they all looked around.
Meowch! cried Ink, and ooh! cried Belinda,
For there was a pirate, climbing in the window.
i. What can you infer from the repetition ‘suddenly, suddenly’ in the above
extract? (1)
a. There was an immediate change in the scene.
b. It focuses on the hasty attack and the loud noise.
c. It emphasises that an unexpected noise was heard.
 d. It draws our attention to the loud cry that occurred.
ii. What did Mustard do when he heard a nasty sound? (1)
iii. Fill in the blank with one word. The rhyming scheme of the lines ________.
(1)
iv. The poet could have included a burglar or an intruder in the poem, but chose
to include a pirate. Explain this choice. (2)

8. Answer ANY FOUR of the following five questions, in about 40-50 words [12]

(i) Where is Coorg? [3]

(ii) ''On pads of velvet quiet In his quiet rage''. Who is referred to here? Why does [3]
he express his anger quietly?

(iii) How does Chubukov defend Squeezer? (The Proposal) [3]

(iv) Anne wrote in her diary to get things off her chest. List any two reasons why [3]
getting things off one’s chest is recommended by counsellors as therapeutic.

(v) For Frost, what do fire and ice stand for? [3]

9. Answer ANY TWO of the following three questions, in about 40-50 words. [6]

(i) What does Mrs. Pumphrey do to help Tricki? Is she wise in this? [3]

(ii) How does Bholi become her teacher's masterpiece? [3]

(iii) What made the boys follow Griffin? [3]

10. Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about 100-120 words [6]

(i) Imagine that the narrator shared his story with friends and family once he got [6]
home. One of them, a spiritual leader, decided to incorporate the story as part of
his weekly sermon to the congregation. Another friend, a psychologist, worked
the story into his next lecture on survival instinct and crisis management.
Do you think the two interpretations of the story would be different? If so,
how?
What insights might the narrator get about his mysterious experience, if he
were to attend both the sessions? Answer in the context of the lesson Two
Stories about Flying.

(ii) The tiger in the zoo is pacing back and forth in his enclosure, restless and [6]
frustrated. He sees the Mandela in the next cage over and they make eye
 contact. The man is old and tired, but there is a fire in his eyes. They begin to
speak to each other, each in their own language, but understanding each other
perfectly. Imagine that they are both discussing about achieving freedom and
never giving up hope.
You may begin like this.
The tiger says, "I was born wild, free, but I was captured and put in this zoo. I
long to be free again, to roam the forests and plains."
Mandela replies ...

11. Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about 100-120 words. [6]

(i) Madam Forestier writes a diary entry after having met Matilda, knowing the [6]
truth and seeing the transformation in her friend. Write a short diary entry as
Madam Forestier about your encounter and how you felt. You may begin like
this.
20th July, Monday 9:00 pm
I couldn't recognise Matilda at all. I wish she had told me the truth about the
necklace.

(ii) How did Anil lead his life? What was his profession? Why was Anil ready to [6]
have Hari Singh as a servant?
 Solution
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 1
English Language and Literature (184)
Class X (2024-25)

Section A - Reading Skills

1. i. (C) All three biotics are equally important to support microscopic organisms that live in
the gut microbiome.
ii. The writer emphasizes that prebiotics, probiotics, and postbiotics not only promote gut
health but also have broader health benefits. Scientific evidence links them to
improvements in metabolic diseases, depressive symptoms, sleep quality, and reduction
in upper respiratory infections.
iii. contains live and active cultures
iv. (A) increase and decrease
(C) beneficial and harmful
v. dozens of strains
vi. Prebiotics are crucial for gut health as they serve as food for beneficial microbes
(probiotics). These undigestible fibers ensure the growth and activity of probiotics,
which in turn maintain a balanced gut microbiome and overall health.
vii. (B) Checking the label for specific strains of bacteria.
viii. (A) Their relevance has been proven by scientific evidence.
2. i. The cost of solving or reducing traffic congestion is enormous.
ii. 1, 2
iii. Proper implementation of corrective measures by citizens.
iv. (1) People prefer to travel on roads
(2) Growth in demand of private vehicles
v. Peak
vi. environment
vii. traffic congestion
viii. 1, 3
SECTION B GRAMMAR
3. Complete ANY TEN of twelve of the following tasks, as directed
(i) The correct form of the word is “inspiring”.
(ii) Error Correction
cannot be available may not be available
(iii)if he caught/catches the 9 a.m. one, he would reach/reaches office on time.
(iv)(d) They said that they really had enjoyed a movie they had never seen such a movie in
life.
 Explanation: {
They said that they really had enjoyed a movie they had never seen such a movie in life.
(v) Little
(vi) Error Correction
seller sellers
(vii) Error Correction
in on
(viii)
(d) had called / complained
Explanation: {
had called / complained
(ix)an apple a day keeps the doctors away
(x) (c) She said that she didn't speak Urdu.
Explanation: {
She said that she didn't speak Urdu.
Simple Present becomes Simple Past; note that the pronouns have to be changed
accordingly.
(xi)A. has been broken
The whole situation presented in the extract states the present condition.
(xii)error correction
all every

SECTION B CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS

4. 3-B, DDA, Flats,
Punjabi Bagh,
Delhi
29th May 20XX
The Editor
i-Next
Delhi
Sir,
Subject: Awareness to keep Metro clean
I would like to thank the DMRC, Delhi for providing the citizens of Delhi with so much
ease in commuting. I frequently use the Metro and find it very convenient. While
travelling, I have noticed that though there is strict vigilance still people deface the Metro
trains and stations. The tendency of people to deface public property causes lots of
problems. They think that it's not their work to maintain the cleanliness around the public
property like Metro. I feel that if the DMRC, collaborates with the Directorate of
Education and runs awareness programs in schools, we would be able to cover a wide
spectrum of people and spread the message. It would be a great service to the city if you
address this issue in your daily.
Thank you,
Yours faithfully,
Sweety.
OR
Army Public School,
Agra
6th July 2018
M/s Sethi Sports
Rainak Bazaar
Jalandhar,
Sir,
Subject: Supply Of Sports Equipments For School
Through this letter, the sports committee of our school has approved of certain items of
sports materials manufactured by you.
The list of particulars are as follows:
i. Hockey Sticks - 15
ii. Tennis Racquet - 20
iii. Cricket Kits - 20
iv. Tennis Ball - 10
v. Wickets - 6
vi. Volleyball Net - 3
We request you to give a 15% discount on the purchase of the sports equipment and a
further 10% discount that is usually granted to the institutional buyers. It goes without
saying that you will have to bear the mail and other expenses involved in the dispatch and
delivery of equipment.
All the items should be in good condition, well bound and packed properly. Any damage
to these items during transportation will be your responsibility. Please dispatch the goods
at your earliest convenience if our terms and conditions are acceptable to you.
Thanking you
Yours sincerely,
Monika Pundhir
(Sports instructor).
5. The given double bar graph represents student engagement in two of the most popular
sports, i.e., Volleyball and Basketball. It shows a great variation in the interest of students
preferring volleyball each year, however, basketball as a preference as a sport is quite
constant. The highest number of children playing volleyball was in 2016 whereas it was
preferred the least in the year 2019. However, there was a hike in 2018. Similarly,
basketball showed a slight hike in 2016 but a decline is easily observed in 2019 like 2015.
Initially, there were only 200 students who played volleyball in the year 2014 which
increased gradually and reached 450 in the year 2016. There was a mixed response as the
very next year the numbers declined but it again rose in 2018 followed by a decline in
2019. Basketball was preferred to volleyball thrice i.e., in 2014, 2017 and 2019. There was
no change in the number of students playing basketball for the years 2017 and 2018.
OR
Purchase of Digital Devices
According to the given data, a large number of digital devices were purchased in Rishu
nagar across the years 2015-2019. The data indicates that more smart phones were
purchased in 2015 as compared to the computers which numbered approx- 35,000 in 2015.
There was a gradual size in the purchase in 2016 when the number of smart phones rose to
60,000 and computers to 59,000. The trend suddenly changed and a sharp rise was seen
us. The purchase of computers in 2017 which again dropped to approx. 45,000 in 2018.
The year showed a decline in the purchase of smart phones as well. But the year 2019
brought hope and cheer for the sellers when there was again an upward trend in both smart
phones and computers. To sum up it can be said that the purchase of digital devices across
these fire years showed the incline of people towards the hi-tech devices.
SECTION C - LITERATURE
6. Read the given extracts and answer the questions for ANY ONE of the two, given.
(i) i. Fowler was disappointed to see Ausable because he had unrealistic views about
secret agents.
ii. Fowler wanted to meet him because he was a writer and wished to meet a real spy.
iii. He was disappointed to meet Ausable who looked ordinary, slow, sluggish and a very
fat person who lived in a small room on the top floor of a cheap hotel.
iv. (a) Finding out secret information
(ii) a. Lencho spent his entire night thinking of the only option left and : to seek the help of
God, who, he had been informed, has its eyes and ears everywhere.
b. Lencho worked in fields like an ox of a man. He worked like an animal in the fields.
c. Conscience.
d. mailbox.
7. Read the given extracts and answer the questions for ANY ONE of the two, given.
(i) i. .....the sun, which is non-human, is attributed the human feature of having feet.
ii. False - (Trees are symbolic of woman. Adrienne Rich is a feminist poet.)
iii. Option - A (Trees are an integral part of nature/forest. So, it is unnatural to depict
treeless forest.)
iv. A forest is a natural habitat for numerous birds and insects. When forests are cleared,
no bird can make its nest, nor can insects hide in the bark of the trees and there's
nothing to shade the area from sunlight.
(ii) i. (c) It emphasises that an unexpected noise was heard.
ii. Mustard growled when he heard a nasty sound.
iii. The rhyming scheme is a a b b.
iv. The poet chose a pirate over any burglar or a thief because a pirate looks evil and
nasty. The way his leg crippled as one of them was of wood, pistol in both of his
hands and a cutlass between his teeth was scarier than a burglar.

8. Answer ANY FOUR of the following five questions, in about 40-50 words
(i) Coorg (or Kodagu) is the smallest district situated midway between Mysore and
Mangalore in Karnataka. It is believed to be the heaven on earth which must have been
drifted from the kingdom of God.
(ii) The reference is to the tiger who is in a cage in the zoo. The tiger expresses his anger
quietly because he finds himself helpless as he is locked and his freedom has been
curtailed. Thus, he is unable to show his anger and ferocity.
(iii)In order to quieten the boastful arguments of Lomov regarding his pet dog 'Guess'.
Chubukov appreciated Squeezer saying that he was pure-breed, firm on his feet
and has well sprung ribs. Lomov and Natalya were not able to decide whose dog was
superior as Natalya was proud of her dog, Squeezer who was young and belonged to a
pedigree, whereas Lomov considered it to be uppershot and boasted of his pet ‘Guess’
who he believed was a first-rate dog. But Natalya considered ‘Guess’ to be old and as
ugly as a worn out cab horse.
(iv)Getting things off one's chest helps you to find ways of coping better with life's issues.
At the same time it also helps you to overcome your problems in a safe and confidential
environment.
(v) The word ‘fire’ stands for 'desire'. In the poem, it indicates all types of greed and lust to
have more and more possessions. The word ‘ice’ in the poem indicates 'hatred and
indifference' which is as cold as ‘ice’. Unlike fire, it grows slowly but can be more
destructive and is sufficient to devastate the world twice.
 9. Answer ANY TWO of the following three questions, in about 40-50 words.
(i) Mrs. Pumphrey thinks that Tricki is suffering from malnutrition. So she gives him malt,
cod-liver oil and a bowl of Horlicks. As a result, she overfeeds him. No, she is not wise
in this because consequently, the dog falls ill.
(ii) Bholi was definitely her teacher's masterpiece as she was not a simpleton anymore. She
became the ideal human being. Now she could take her own decisions. She was capable
to choose between right and wrong. Under her guidance, she overcame her handicap of
stammering. She changed into a bold and confident girl. Now she had the courage to
revolt against a social evil of dowry and refused to marry the greedy Bishamber Nath.
(iii)The footprints were of a man who was bare feet; they wondered who could be bare feet
in such cold weather in London. The footprints were appearing from nowhere,
following one after another; the boys kept following them; however, soon they became
fainter and fainter and disappeared completely.

10. Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about 100-120 words
(i) Yes, two interpretations of the story would be different. Spiritually, a person has deep
faith in God and he recalls him in the time of distress he will definitely be answered.
God will surely send help through his messengers as done in chapter 1. A letter to god.
The postmaster became the messenger of God. Whereas psychologically, it interprets
'Never say die' till the end.
The narrator might also have got the insight of never to lose hope in the most hopeless
situation. No one know who may come to save you. The narrator was hopeless when he
was caught in the storm. He lost all contact with Paris control and all his instruments
were dead. Then came a help from unknown source in form of the mysterious pilot of
the black aeroplane to guide the narrator to safety.
(ii) The tiger says, "I was born wild and free, I should be in a jungle, hiding in a shadow to
hunt for a prey, but I am locked in concrete cell. My strength is behind the bars. I long
to be free again, to roam the forests and plains."
Mandela replies, "I, too, was born free, but I have been in this prison for years. I, too,
long to be free again."
The tiger asks, "What is freedom?"
Mandela replies, "Freedom is the ability to live as we choose, to do as we please, to be
free from oppression and tyranny."
The tiger says, "That sounds like a very difficult thing to achieve. I'm not sure I could
ever be truly free."
Mandela says, "I think it's something we all strive for. It's the reason we fight for justice
and equality. It's what gives us the strength to keep going, even when the odds are
 against us." The tiger was inspired by Mandela's words, and he vowed to never give up
hope that one day he would be free again.

11. Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about 100-120 words.
(i) 20th July Monday 9:00 PM
I couldn't recognise Matilda at all. I wish she had told me the truth about the necklace,
which she didn't. I feel so sorry for her. The poor lady had to go through so much just
for the sake of one artificial necklace worth 400 francs. I am surprised she hid this all
from me fearing I would demand the real price of the necklace from her. Oh! I wish she
should have at least spoken to me once, so that I could have got her out of this
predicament. My innocent friend, Matilda, whom I love so dearly, had to go through
this pain of having lost my necklace in the ball. She during this course of life has
become a much tougher person. She no longer is that sweet face of woman she used to
be. It clearly pains to see her like this. I would like to help her.
Madam Forestier
(ii) Anil was a twenty-five years old man. He was a writer by profession who wrote for a
magazine to earn his livelihood. He earned money by fits and starts. He was a kind-
hearted fellow. He loved honesty. He led a very simple life. He spent economically.
When he got money, he spent it on his friends. This was the example of his simplicity.
When the narrator met Anil and requested him for work. Anil told him that he could not
afford his salary. But on the narrator's request, Anil decided to offer him shelter. Anil
told him that he would have to cook. But the narrator didn't know how to cook. So, Anil
taught him the art of cooking. He treated him kindly. He never insulted him. He also
taught him how to read and write so that he could lead a respectable life.
 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 2
English Language and Literature (184)
Class X (2024-25)

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:
Read the instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
1. This question paper comprises 11 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2. The question paper contains THREE sections -
Section - A : Reading Skills
Section - B : Grammar and Creative Writing Skills
Section - C : Literature Text Book
3. Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.
Section A - Reading Skills
1. Read the following passage carefully: [10]
1. Happiness is like the sun; it is often hidden by the clouds of thoughts, worries
and desires. We have to scatter and dissolve these clouds to experience
happiness. You don't have to create it, all you have to do is calm your mind,
because when there is a quiet mind and inner peace, there is happiness. It is not
something far away and unattainable and does not depend on circumstances,
objects or events. Happiness is an inseparable part of our consciousness, of our
essence, but hidden and covered from sight by our thoughts, desires, and
worries.
2. The mind is always in a constant race from one thought to another, from one
worry to another. It constantly moves from one object or task to another. This
restlessness hides the happiness that is within you. It is like a choppy sea that
hides the bottom. When the sea gets calm, you can see the bottom. In the same
way, when the mind gets quiet, you sense the happiness that is within you.
3. You cannot see a treasure at the bottom of a stormy and muddy lake although it
is there. However, when the wind stops, the water becomes still and the mud
sinks, you can see the treasure. The treasure is there, whether you see it or not.
So is happiness. It is always here, only hidden by thoughts, desires and worries.
4. You can experience more happiness in your life. Only your thoughts stand in
your way of experiencing it. Next time you feel happy, stop for a moment and
 watch the state of your mind. You will be surprised to discover that it is calm,
and there are almost no thoughts in your mind. Since the mind is not
accustomed to stay in this peaceful state for long, it soon becomes active again,
and the sense of happiness disappears.
5. Many people connect happiness to achievement of certain goals. This makes
happiness a reward and not an emotion that must be felt. We forget that it is
something that comes by looking inward rather than waiting for an external
trigger. Once you start looking inwards, you will have to treat yourself as you
would treat a valued friend. This will lead to happiness. Take time to appreciate
yourself, your work and your accomplishments. Surround yourself with happy
people and recall positive memories. It is important to recognise that you have
the power to feel happy within you and with practice, it will be felt frequently.
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given
below: (10)
Here are questions similar to the sample questions provided, based on the new
paragraph:
(i) Based on the reading and understanding of the above passage, list 2 points to
describe the nature of happiness according to the passage. (1)
(a) ________
(b) ________
(ii) Select the option that corresponds to the meaning of the following sentence
from para 3:
"You cannot see a treasure at the bottom of a stormy and muddy lake although it is
there." (1)
(a) The treasure is visible only when the water is clear
(b) The treasure is hidden due to the storm and mud
(c) The treasure is always visible despite the storm and mud
(d) The storm and mud make the treasure unimportant
(iii) Based on your reading of the passage, examine in about 40 words how one
can experience more happiness. (2)
(iv) What is the tone of the writer in the given line from paragraph 5? Rationalise
your response in about 40 words:
"Many people connect happiness to achievement of certain goals." (2)
(v) The phrase 'hidden by the clouds' in paragraph (1) refers to: (1)
(a) The obscuring of happiness by thoughts and worries
(b) The physical obstruction of happiness by objects
 (c) The deliberate hiding of happiness by others
(d) The intentional creation of barriers to happiness
(vi) In sets a-e below, identify two sets of synonyms. (1)
a. restlessness and calmness
b. treasure and object
c. dissatisfaction and contentment
d. essence and nature
e. trigger and cause
Options:
(a) a and c
(b) b and e
(c) d and e
(d) a and d
(vii) Complete the sentence appropriately: (1)
Happiness is not something far away and unattainable and does not depend on
________.
(viii) Complete the following sentence: (1)
To experience more happiness, one must look ________ rather than waiting for
external triggers.

2. Read the extract given below: [10]

1. The National Education Policy 2020 proposes the revision and revamping of all
aspects of education, including the educational structure, regulations and
governance, to create a new system which is aligned with the aspirational goals
of 21st century students. According to the policy, by 2025, at least 50 % of
learners through the school and higher education system shall have exposure to
skill education, for which a clear action plan with targets and timelines are to be
developed.
2. The policy aims to overcome the social status hierarchy associated with skill
education and integration of skill education into mainstream education in all
educational institutions in a phased manner. Beginning with skill exposure at
early ages in middle and secondary school, quality skill education will be
integrated smoothly into school and higher education.
3. Every child will learn at least one skill and is exposed to several more. This
would lead to emphasizing the dignity of labour and importance of various
vocations involving Indian arts and artisanship.
4. The development of skill capacities will go hand-in-hand with the development
of 'academic' or other capacities. To achieve this objective, secondary schools
will have to collaborate with Industrial Training Institutes (ITIs), Polytechnics,
Local Industry, etc. Skill labs will also be set up and created in the schools in a
Hub and Spoke model, which will allow other schools to use the facility.
Higher education institutions will offer skill education either on their own or in
partnership with industry and other institutions.

For visually challenged students only:

Percentage of students in Skill Education in various countries is as follows:
India - 5%
Egypt - 30%
Denmark - 50%
USA - 52%
Germany - 75%
South Korea - 96%
Based on your understanding of the extract, answer the questions given
below: (10)
i. Based on the reading of the extract, list 2 objectives of NEP 2020. (2)
ii. Fill in the blank with appropriate option from those given in the brackets, based
on the understanding of paragraph 4.
The statement:
"The development of skill capacities will go hand-in-hand with the
development of academic or other capacities" is a / an ________ (fact /
opinion) because it is a / an ________ (subjective judgement / objective detail)
(1)
iii. Select the option that corresponds to the meaning of the statement given below:
"According to the policy, by 2025, at least 50% of learners through the school
and higher education system shall have exposure to skill education." (1)
A. Maximum 50% learners shall have exposure to technical education.
 B. Minimum 50% learners shall have exposure to technical education.
C. Minimum 50% learners shall have exposure to skill education.
D. Maximum 50 % learners shall have exposure to skill education.
iv. Based on the understanding of the passage, complete the following statement
appropriately: (1)
The benefit of the hub and spoke model will be ________
v. Complete the following analogy correctly with a word / phrase from paragraph
3.: (1)
Racism: condemn:: ________: respect
vi. As per the Global Scenario which country has the maximum percentage of
students in Skill Education and what can be the possible reason (2)
vii. Fill in the following blank choosing the most appropriate option from the ones
given below:
As per NEP 2020, skill exposure will begin at ________. (1)
A. middle and secondary school
B. primary school
C. higher school
D. senior secondary school
viii. Justify the statement - 'The NEP will create an awareness and appreciation of
Indian arts and artisanship.' (1)

SECTION B GRAMMAR
3. Complete ANY TEN of twelve of the following tasks, as directed [10]

(i) Fill in the blank by using the correct form of the word in the bracket, for the [1]
given portion of a letter:
Dear Sir
It was agreed that the teacher would ________ (organize) the science fair for
the students of grade 8.
(ii) Identify the error in the given sentence, from an e-zine report and supply the [1]
correction.
Anxiety is a manifestation of the mind being afraid of venture into the
unknown.
Use the given format for your response.
error correction

(iii) Read the conversation between the Chief Guest and the student. Complete the [1]
sentence by reporting the reply correctly.
Chief guest: Who inspired you to learn classical dance.
Student: I was inspired by my grandfather who was a renowned dancer.
The Chief Guest asked the student who had inspired the student to learn
classical dance. The student replied ________.

(iv) He said to them, "Don't make a noise". [1]

Reported speech: ________

a) He tells them not to make b) He told them that don't make

noise. a noise

c) He told them not to make a d) He asked them not to make a

noise. noise.

(v) Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option. [1]

Although she thought she knew _______ (many / much / whole)of the subject,
the teacher asked a few details she hardly remembered.

(vi) Identify the error in the given sentence about learning from a mistake and [1]
supply the correction.
Have you ever learn from a mistake you have made?
Use the given format for your response.
error correction

(vii) Select the option that identifies the error and supplies the correction for the [1]
following line, from the headline of a news report:
TWO CHILDREN DIES AFTER MASSIVE FIRE BREAKS OUT IN
TIRUPATI
 Option no. Error Correction
A children child
B dies die
C breaks broke
D in at

(viii) Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option. [1]

She ________ in the middle of his speech.

a) broke out b) broke down

c) broke with d) broke

(ix) Ritu and Randeep are talking. [1]

Report Ritu’s question.
Ritu - Where are you going?
Ritu asked ________.

(x) Read the dialogue between a librarian and a student. [1]

Librarian: Welcome back! It's good to see you, young man!
Student: Thanks! I was overloaded with assignments, so I have not visited the
library this week.
Based on the conversation above, report the dialogue between a librarian and a
student by completing the sentence.
The librarian greeted the student warmly, expressing pleasure at his visit. The
student thanked her and explained that ________ which had limited his recent
visits to the library.
Select the correct option from those given below:

a) he had been overloaded with b) he is overloaded with

assignments assignments

c) he was overloaded with d) he has been overloaded with

assignments assignments

(xi) Complete the line from a self-awareness song, by filling the blank with the [1]
correct option.
My Mother is not the sort of Mum
Who'll ________ and faint and shiver,
 Darkness doesn't scare her,
When it thunders, she won't ________!
A. be squealing, quiver
B. squeal, be quiver
C. squeal, quiver
D. be squealing, have been quivered

(xii) Identify the error and supply the correction, for the following: [1]
Pragati Maidan, New Delhi
28TH CONVERGENCE INDIA EXPO
Network and interact with industry leaders live and on person.

Use the given format for your response.

error correction

SECTION B CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS

4. When you think about your city, you feel proud of its historical monuments, places [5]
of cultural interest, shopping centres and beautiful parks. Write a letter in 100-120
words to the editor of a national daily expressing your views on Your City. Also
suggest ways to increase footfall to these places like the government’s recent
initiative of free entry to all historical monuments on the occasion 75th
Independence Day.
You are Sangeeta/Sanjay, 45 Vijay Nagar, Delhi. (Word limit 100-125 words)

OR
You are Neeraj. You are a Sales Manager of DBM School, Gwalior. You need
educational toys and play equipment for kindergarten students. For this, you searched
google Maps as below and found that Kirti Nagar, New Delhi is one of the best markets
for educational toys. After discussing over a call, you have selected Quality Toys
company to place your order.

Write a letter to the Manager, Quality Toys, Kirti Nagar, Delhi placing an order.
5. Many out-of-school children are employed in various odd jobs in India. Child [5]
labour deprives children of their right to go to school and reinforces
intergenerational cycles of poverty. Based on the data given below, write an
analytical paragraph, in about 120 words, analysing the situation and circumstances
that lead children to become a part of the child labour force.
1. bottles collection 46%
2. shoes polishing 20%
3. car washing 12%
4. cleaning 7%
5. dishwashing 7%
6. selling and wood collection 7%
7. begging 1%

OR
The school library is setting up a section of digital and audio books. However, teachers
feel that the touch and feel of a paper book enhance the reading experience.
Write an analytical paragraph on the above argument in not more than 120 words.

SECTION C - LITERATURE
6. Read the given extracts and answer the questions for ANY ONE of the two, [5]
given.

(i) Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: [5]
Ausable moved to an armchair and sat down heavily. "I'm going to raise the
devil with the management this time, and you can bet on it," he said grimly.
This is the second time in a month that somebody has got into my room
through that nuisance of a balcony!
i. Who is Ausable? (1)
ii. Ausable’s annoyance at the balcony when he says, “…nuisance of a
balcony…” could be called fake. Why is it so? (2)
iii. Which word replaces ‘sat down heavily’ in the sentence - 'Ausable moved to
an armchair and sat down heavily’? (1)
a. dumped
b. flumped
c. pumped
 d. jumped
iv. Delnaaz is a new tenant in her locality and Mrs. Mehta is the landlady.
Choose the option that lists an action that would require Mrs. Mehta to ‘raise
the devil’ with Delnaaz. (1)
a. She uses the elevator five times a day.
b. She feeds the stray dogs in the street.
c. She works late at night and stays home in the afternoon only.
d. She plays music louder than is necessary late into the night.

(ii) Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: [5]
So, in order not to shake the writer’s faith in God, the postmaster came up with
an idea to answer the letter. But when he opened it, was evident that to answer
it, he needed something more than goodwill, ink, and paper. But he stuck to his
resolution: he asked for money from his employees, he himself gave part of his
salary and several friends of his were obliged to give something for an act of
charity’. It was impossible for him to gather together the hundred pesos, so he
was able to send the farmer only a little more than half. He put the money in an
envelope addressed to Lencho and with it a letter containing only a single word
as a signature: God. The following Sunday Lencho came a bit earlier than usual
to ask if there was a letter for him. It was the postman himself who handed the
letter to him while the postmaster, experiencing the contentment of a man who
has performed a good deed, looked on from his office.
i. What is the significance of the situation where the postmaster decided to
help Lencho? Answer in about 40 words. (2)
ii. How did the postmaster collect money to be sent to Lencho? Complete the
sentence with the appropriate option. He collected money from his
employees and gave ________. (1)
A. a part of his salary to send to Lencho.
B. the collected money to Lencho.
C. the contribution to Lencho.
D. his monthly salary to Lencho.
iii. Identify the word from the passage, which is opposite to the phrase 'very
few'. (1)
iv. What were the things the postmaster kept in the envelope? State any one
inference about the postmaster from the given context: "So, in order not to
 shake the writer’s faith in God, the postmaster came up with an idea to
answer the letter." (1)

7. Read the given extracts and answer the questions for ANY ONE of the two, [5]
given.

(i) Read the extracts given below and answer the questions that follow: [5]
My head is full of whispers
which tomorrow will be silent.
Listen. The glass is breaking.
The trees are stumbling forward
into the night. Winds rush to meet them.
The moon is broken like a mirror,
its pieces flash now in the crown
of the tallest oak.
i. Why would the whispers be silent tomorrow? (1)
ii. The forest undergoes tremendous transformation overnight. Discuss with
reference to the poem “The Trees” (2)
iii. Which word in the stanza means the same as ‘quiet’? (1)
iv. Which poetic device has been used in the last line 'its pieces flash now in the
crown of the tallest oak.' (1)
a. Simile
b. Alliteration
c. imagery
d. Personification

(ii) Read the lines given below and answer the questions that follow: [5]
Custard the dragon had big sharp teeth,
And spikes on top of him and scales underneath,
Mouth like a fireplace, chimney for a nose,
And realio, trulio daggers on his toes.
i. Describe the physical appearance of Custard the dragon. (1)
ii. Fill in the blank with one word. This extract describes the physical
appearance of Custard. He carried all the features of ________ that could
make him powerful, scary, and brave. (1)
iii. Which belief about dragons is in contrast to Custard’s behaviour in the
extract. (1)
 a. Dragons are brave and feared.
b. Dragons can grant wishes.
c. Dragons can become invisible at will.
d. Dragons are soft-hearted and kind.
iv. Comment on the poet's use of language in these lines. (2)

8. Answer ANY FOUR of the following five questions, in about 40-50 words [12]

(i) How are the Coorgi people men of valour? [3]

(ii) What do you think the tiger would say to you, as a visitor? [3]
You may begin like this:
Please stop staring. You have no idea............................
(continue).........................

(iii) What reasons does Lomov give for his decision to marry? [3]

(iv) Why does Anne need to give a brief sketch about her family? Does she treat [3]
Kitty as an insider or an outsider?

(v) "But if it had to perish twice"; how will the world perish twice? Answer in the [3]
context of the poem Fire and Ice.

9. Answer ANY TWO of the following three questions, in about 40-50 words. [6]

(i) What was Mr. Herriot’s strict advice? Did Mrs. Pumphrey agree to his advice? [3]

(ii) How would you have reacted if you were one of the guests witnessing Bholi's [3]
wedding when she refused to marry Bishamber Nath?

(iii) Why did Griffin decide to become visible and to go to Iping? [3]

10. Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about 100-120 words [6]

(i) Look at the image of Maslow's hierarchy of needs. [6]

Abraham Maslow devised a theory of motivation that shows the basic needs at
the bottom, and more advanced needs as you move up. It includes the theory
that fundamental needs must be met before an individual can be motivated to
achieve higher order needs.
 Where in this hierarchy of needs, would you locate the young seagull's first
flight? Justify your response.

(ii) Prejudice based on race and colour or any other reason causes profound hurt. [6]
Write about any one character from the chapters in First Flight who was
subjected to such prejudice? Discuss the consequence of this prejudice for the
character. Answer in the context of the lesson Long Walk to Freedom.

11. Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about 100-120 words. [6]

(i) Your teacher conducted an Turn Tables in class, and asked you to put forth your [6]
views on Frugality in Life is the Ideal Way to Live.
Write the debate script with points to supplement your stand, both for and
against the motion and conclude with your own views. Answer in the context of
the lesson The Necklace.

(ii) Who was Anil? How did he transform Hari Singh’s character? [6]
 Solution
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 2
English Language and Literature (184)
Class X (2024-25)
Section A - Reading Skills
1. i. (a) Happiness is an inseparable part of our consciousness and essence, but it is hidden
by thoughts, desires, and worries.
(b) Happiness is not dependent on circumstances, objects, or events; it is within us but
often obscured by mental distractions.
ii. (b) The treasure is hidden due to the storm and mud
iii. To experience more happiness, one should calm their mind and look inward rather than
seeking external triggers. By reducing mental distractions and appreciating oneself,
happiness can be felt more frequently.
iv. The tone is reflective and critical. The writer is pointing out a common misconception
that ties happiness to external achievements, emphasizing that true happiness comes
from within rather than from fulfilling external goals.
v. (a) The obscuring of happiness by thoughts and worries
vi. (a) a and d
vii. Happiness is not something far away and unattainable and does not depend on
circumstances, objects, or events.
viii. To experience more happiness, one must look inward rather than waiting for external
triggers.
2. i. a. Increase access to skill education
b. Integrate skill education into mainstream education
ii. a fact, an objective detail
iii. Minimum 50% learners shall have exposure to skill education.
iv. allowing other schools to access the facility of skill models.
v. Racism : condemn :: Skill education : respect
vi. South Korea - 96%
Reason: The possible reason for this could be the emphasis and importance laid on
vocational and skill-based education in the country's education system.
vii. (A) middle and secondary school
viii. The NEP aims to ensure that every child learns at least one skill and is exposed to
several more, including Indian arts and artisanship. By integrating skill education into
mainstream education and emphasizing the dignity of labor, the NEP will promote
awareness and appreciation of Indian arts and artisanship among students, thus
preserving and promoting traditional Indian crafts and skills.
SECTION B GRAMMAR
3. Complete ANY TEN of twelve of the following tasks, as directed
(i) organize/be organizing
(ii) error correction
venture venturing
(iii)that she/he was inspired by her/his grandfather who had been a renowned dancer.
(iv)(d) He asked them not to make a noise.
Explanation: {
He asked them not to make a noise.
(v) Much
(vi) error correction
learn learnt
(vii)(B) dies - die
(viii)
(b) broke down
Explanation: {
: "Broke down" means to lose control emotionally, often resulting in tears or distress. In
this context, it suggests that she became overwhelmed with emotion during the speech.
(ix)Ritu asked Randeep where he was going.
(x) (c) he was overloaded with assignments
Explanation: {
He was overloaded with assignments.
(xi)A. squeal, quiver
Following the sentence structure, 'will' always follow the base form of verb.
(xii)error correction
on in

SECTION B CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS

4. 45 Vijay Nagar,
Delhi
4 October 2023

The Editor
The Hindustan Times
New Delhi
Subject: Promoting Tourism and Heritage in Our Beautiful City
Sir,
I am writing to express my pride in our city's rich cultural heritage, historical monuments,
vibrant shopping centers, and serene parks. Delhi boasts a rich tapestry of historical
monuments, cultural landmarks, vibrant shopping centers, and breathtaking parks that
make it truly exceptional and makes us feel truly blessed.
In light of the government's commendable initiative of offering free entry to historical
monuments on the occasion of the 75th Independence Day, I propose further measures to
increase footfall. Encouraging school excursions with reduced entry fees, organizing
cultural festivals at these sites, and promoting eco-friendly transportation options can
attract more visitors. Additionally, enhancing the infrastructure, cleanliness, and safety
measures will make these places more inviting to both locals and tourists.
Let's work together to preserve our city's heritage and boost tourism, ensuring that future
generations can also take pride in its magnificence.
Thanking you.
Yours sincerely
Sanjay/Sangeeta
OR
DBM School
Gwalior
Feb 15, 20XX
The Manager,
Quality Toys,
Kirti Nagar,
New-Delhi - 82,
Sir,
Subject: Placing Order
Thank you for the catalogue that you sent along with the latest price list. After going
through it, we would like to place an order for DBM school for the following items:
Product Code Quantity
Baby slides ab234 02
Block Puzzles fb136 07
Stuffed Toys gh45 08
Along with these, kindly send some educational games and toys as well which will be
suitable for kindergarten students.
Attached herewith is a draft of 25% advance payment. Rest of the payment will be made
on delivery. All the items should be new and in the best condition. It should be packed
properly with foam-covering. Please note that we shall not be responsible for any damages
 during transportation.
Thanking You
Yours sincerely,
Neeraj.
5. The data reveals that a significant portion of out-of-school children in India are engaged in
various odd jobs, with bottles collection being the most prevalent at 46%. This high
percentage suggests that bottles collection is accessible and requires minimal skills,
making it a viable option for many children. Shoes polishing (20%) and car washing
(12%) are also common, likely due to their visibility and the potential to earn money from
passersby. Cleaning, dishwashing, and selling and wood collection each account for 7%,
indicating these jobs are somewhat accessible but less common. Begging, at 1%, is the
least prevalent, possibly due to its low income potential and social stigma.
The primary drivers of child labour include poverty, lack of access to education, and
family indebtedness. These factors force children into work at a young age, depriving
them of education and perpetuating cycles of poverty. Addressing these root causes is
essential to combat child labor and ensure children can pursue education and better
opportunities.
OR
The argument that the touch and feel of a paper book enhance the reading experience is
common among book enthusiasts. While digital and audio books provide convenience and
accessibility, they lack the tactile sensation of holding and turning the pages of a physical
book. For many readers, the physicality of a book contributes to their engagement and
enjoyment of the reading experience. Additionally, some studies suggest that reading a
physical book may lead to better comprehension and retention of the material compared to
reading digitally. However, it's important to note that everyone's reading preferences and
experiences are different, and what works for one person may not work for another.
Therefore, having a variety of reading options, both in physical and digital formats, is a
better option. As it can accommodate diverse learning styles and preferences.
SECTION C - LITERATURE
6. Read the given extracts and answer the questions for ANY ONE of the two, given.
(i) i. a secret agent
ii. It is so because he later admitted that there was no balcony at all.
iii. Option (b) is correct - flumped
iv. (d) She plays music louder than is necessary late into the night. (to raise the devil
means to cause a commotion or to make a noisy disturbance)
(ii) i. The postmaster decided to help Lencho because he didn't want to shake Lencho's
faith in God.
 ii. He collected money from his employees, friends and himself gave a part of his salary
to send to Lencho.
iii. several.
iv. He was a good, sensible and compassionate person who was impressed by the depth
and sincerity of Lencho's faith in God.

7. Read the given extracts and answer the questions for ANY ONE of the two, given.
(i) i. The whispers will be silent because the trees will move outside to the forest.
ii. The trees of the forest were cut down by man for selfish purposes. The forest was
turned into a barren land as the trees were captivated inside the house as a part of
interior decoration. However, the trees struggled very hard to free themselves from
the confines of the house and return to their natural habitat which is forest. The roots
of these trees are engaged in the cracks of the veranda floor. At night, these roots try
to free themselves from the cracks. The leaves try to move towards the glass. Twigs
become hardened and the boughs try to expand under the roof. Thus, Andreine Rich
tries to convey in his poem "The Trees" that trees should be kept alive not by
imprisoning them inside the house merely to beautify indoors.
iii. The word is 'silent'.
iv. Option (c)- imagery
(ii) i. Custard, the dragon had big sharp teeth and spikes on its back that could easily scare
anyone away. It had ability to spit fire which made his mouth like a fireplace and
thus his nose became a chimney. The toes were so pointed and sharp, that it could cut
anything like a daggar.
ii. dragon
iii. (a) Dragons are brave and feared.
iv. The language used in these lines is simple and straightforward. The words and
phrases are easy to understand and the poem is written in a conversational tone.
Realio and Trulio words are creating poetic effect. This is a humurous poem.

8. Answer ANY FOUR of the following five questions, in about 40-50 words
(i) Coorgi homes have a tradition of hospitality, and they are more than willing to recount
numerous tales of valour related to their sons and fathers. The Coorg Regiment is one of
the most decorated in the Indian Army, and the first Chief of the Indian Army, General
Cariappa, was a Coorgi. Even now, Kodavus are the only people in India permitted to
carry firearms without a licence.
(ii) Please stop staring. You have no idea how uncomfortable and restless your stare is to
me. I'm trying to ignore each one of you as I consider you humans to be devoid of
 feelings. None had ever tried to help me out to make me free from this cage. My
freedom has been curtailed by you humans. I'm forced to live in a cage which is so
small. I'm just fed up of this situation and these visitors.
(iii)Though Lomov was not in love with Natalya, he wanted to marry her because she was
suffering due to a weak and sleep sickness. He wanted a companion who could look
after him. He considered Natalya to be a very good housekeeper who may help him in
his illness.
(iv)Anne was a thirteen-year-old girl. She did not have a true friend with whom she could
share her thoughts, personal feelings and experiences. She named her diary ‘Kitty’,
which became an insider and her close friend. She highlighted her feelings in the diary.
Since no one would understand a word of her stories to Kitty, she thought it was better
to give a brief sketch of her family so that people could understand her better.
(v) According to the poet, the world will end due to the ‘fire’, which symbolises 'desire' but
if the world has to end twice then it will be due to the hatred which is symbolised by
‘ice’. The poet feels that there is enough hatred spreading among the people in the
world to perish the world twice because unlike fire, ice or hatred affects slowly and
gradually and souls of people insensitive to anybody's pain.

9. Answer ANY TWO of the following three questions, in about 40-50 words.
(i) Mr Herriot advised Mrs Pumphrey to put Tricki on a strict diet and not to give him any
treats or extra food. To cut down on sweets and give Tricki plenty of exercise. Initially,
Mrs. Pumphrey agreed but didn't act on it. Her resolve weakened over time, and she
struggled to adhere to the strict diet plan for Tricki, leading to humorous and
challenging situations in the story.
(ii) I would have fully supported Bholi if I were present there. As a mature and aware
person I feel what she did was absolutely right. She has every right to refuse to marry a
person who demands dowry and is of double her age. If I would have a daughter like
Bholi, I would be the first person to appreciate her bold more.
(iii)Griffin set fire to his landlord’s house as he wanted him to leave his house. Griffin
swallowed a rare drug to become invisible. He had to take off his clothes to become
invisible. But it was mid-winter season and he could not live without clothes anymore.
So he decided to become visible again. He went to Iping so that no one would recognise
him there. He wanted to get away from crowded London. At Iping, he booked two
rooms at the local inn.

10. Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about 100-120 words
 (i) The young seagull's first flight can be located in the category of 'Basic Needs' in this
hierarchy of needs. These needs are most essential for the very survival and
maintenance of self. These include food, warmth and shelter. These needs must be met
repeatedly within short time period such as hunger.
The seagull was very hungry. He hadn't eaten anything for last twenty four hours. When
he saw his mother bringing food in her beak, he died towards her. But fell from the
brink of the ledge. He screamed with fear. But his fear lasted only for a moment. The
next moment, he felt that his wings spread outwards instinctively. He was flying now.
Thus, hunger motivated him.
(ii) Prejudging a person on the basis of race, colour or his & appearance or any other reason
is wrong if so we treat the person the same as we think of them in our mind without
knowing the right intensions of that person. The character subjected to this prejudice in
'First Flight' was Wanda Petronski from the chapter. ’The Hundred Dresses1. She
belonged to a very poor family. She was a polish girl. She came to school in a same
faded blue dress daily. It was clean but not properly ironed. Her classmates made fun of
her as they found her name funny. They would ask her how many dresses she had in her
closet. The girls would suppress their laugh when Wanda replied that she had a hundred
dresses and sixty pairs of shoes. Although her claim was not justified. But it is not at all
right to judge people on the basis of their social status. Later on, Wanda proud herself
by submitting a hundred drawings of dresses. People who judge other with their social-
economic background need to understand chat such an attitude is not the parameter to
judge a person's capabilities.
When people are undervalued by others, their self-esteem suffers and they stop trying to
improve themselves. Prejudice can often lead to bullying and other forms of
discrimination.

11. Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about 100-120 words.
(i) For the motion
You may begin like this...
Being frugal is the quality of a prudent person who is economical in the consumption of
resources available to him. These resources can be in any form be it food, clothes
money or just about anything. Avoiding wastage of any kind is the greatest virtue of
man. We should always remember that resources available to us by mother earth are
scanty, we should make judicious use of them. Today, the whole world is hit by deadly
Corona, people are out of jobs, some are working from home, some are doing nothing.
In such a scenario the prudent use of money becomes all the more important. So,
always use money wisely.
 Against the motion,
There are no two ways about it that money makes the world go round. It's the power of
money that rules the world in today's time. The more we flaunt it, the more progressive
we are thought to be. Everybody loves to possess it. So, if we have more why not just
show it. After all being thrifty always doesn't pay, one needs to look for one's own
comfort as well. Spend what you have today, do not bother for tomorrow. For no one
knows what tomorrow has in store for us.
(ii) Anil was a twenty-five years old man. He was a tall and lean fellow. He looked easy-
going, kind and simple. He was a writer by profession, who wrote for a magazine. He
was a practical man who transformed the character of a thief. He was the most
trustworthy man that Hari Singh, a thief had ever met. Hari Singh's habit compelled him
to steal the bundle of money from Anil. But Anil’s love, trust and confidence forced him
to come back and put the bundle from where he had taken it. Anil’s faith in Hari Singh
forced him not to rob him. Anil taught him to write his name and also said that he
would teach him to write whole sentences and to add numbers. It gave new hope to Hari
Singh. He thought that if he could write like an educated man, there would be no limit
to what he could achieve. A desire to get educated and follow the path of honesty
cultivated in Hari Singh. His interaction with Anil brought a positive change in his
character. Thus, Anil's kind behaviour and true faith transformed Hari Singh’s character.
 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 3
English Language and Literature (184)
Class X (2024-25)

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:
Read the instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
1. This question paper comprises 11 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2. The question paper contains THREE sections -
Section - A : Reading Skills
Section - B : Grammar and Creative Writing Skills
Section - C : Literature Text Book
3. Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.
Section A - Reading Skills
1. Read the following passage carefully: [10]
1. Floods are not new to India and this subcontinent, but in recent years the
problem of flooding has received much greater attention, perhaps largely
because it has led to greater damage now than it did in the past. Even though
information on the impending occurrence of floods is now more accurate and
certainly more timely, often there is very little time or support infrastructure in
place by which damage can be minimised. This is particularly true in the case
of flash floods resulting from sudden and excessive heavy rain.
2. In the case of India, flooding is very much related to the seasonal nature of our
rainfall. The monsoons are spread over a short period during the year and often
bring a concentrated volume of rain, which cannot be absorbed by the earth and
finds an outlet only in the form of streams that join up with our major river
systems. Flooding due to heavy rain is confined not only to the main rivers of
the country, but also affects smaller tributaries and streams. Once these streams
spill over their banks they could cause excessive harm, mainly because those
living near the banks of these streams, particularly in mountain areas, do not
have easy recourse to moving away quickly.
3. One major factor that could lead to a higher severity of flooding in the future is
the danger of climate change. While the evidence of the nature of impacts,
resulting from climate change on precipitation and flooding at the regional
 level, is not entirely clear, it could happen that the Indian subcontinent
witnesses and suffers the effects of a significantly changed pattern of
monsoons. One set of scientists has estimated that the monsoons could be
shorter in duration but far more intensive; in other words, much greater
precipitation would take place in a much shorter period of time, thereby
increasing the danger of floods. Climate change is the result of human actions
through the increased concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere, of
which carbon dioxide is the most prominent.
4. At the local level also human actions have heightened the danger of floods
through the cutting of trees in the mountains as well as in the plains. In case of
India, the ecological damage through deforestation of the Himalayas has led to
large-scale erosion of the mountain slopes and high levels of siltation. These
lead to the deposition of silt on the riverbeds in the plains and hence spillover
of water whenever the volume in the river reaches a certain level. With siltation
on the riverbeds, flooding occurs even at very shallow water levels. The
vulnerability of the population has increased substantially because of
population pressures. An example is the stubborn and perhaps helpless settling
of slum dwellers on the banks of the river Yamuna in Delhi, who become
victims of flooding. What is a mere trickle most of the year, bursts its banks
during the monsoons, as has been the case in recent years.
5. Flood forecasting is critical to minimising the damage from floods. It is for this
reason that the Central Water Commission has set up a network of forecasting
stations, which cover the most important flood-prone interstate rivers in the
country. These stations produce forecasts that are used to alert the public and to
mobilize various official agencies so that they take both preventive as well as
relief measures, whenever required. However, even in cases where forecasts
have been timely and generally accurate, people have often been reluctant to
move away, because in most cases they lack the means and physical options for
moving away from a danger zone to one that is relatively safe. In the case of
flash floods, forecasts are difficult to make, and often the time available for
relief is very short.
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given
below: (10)
(i) Based on the reading and understanding of the above passage, list 2 factors
contributing to the severity of floods in India. (1)
(a) ________
(b) ________
(ii) Select the option that corresponds to the meaning of the following sentence
from paragraph 1: (1)
"Even though information on the impending occurrence of floods is now more
accurate and certainly more timely, often there is very little time or support
infrastructure in place by which damage can be minimised."
(a) Flood information is timely but often ineffective due to lack of infrastructure.
(b) Flood information is delayed, leading to more damage.
(c) Accurate flood information always prevents damage.
(d) There is ample time to respond to flood warnings due to better infrastructure.
(iii) Based on your reading of the passage, examine in about 40 words how
climate change could affect flooding in India. (2)
(iv) What is the tone of the writer in the given line from paragraph 3? Rationalize
your response in about 40 words: (2)
"One set of scientists has estimated that the monsoons could be shorter in duration
but far more intensive."
(v) The phrase 'spillover of water' in paragraph 4 refers to: (1)
(a) Water overflowing its usual boundaries
(b) A slow and controlled release of water
(c) A reduction in water levels
(d) Water being absorbed by the earth
(vi) In sets a-e below, identify two sets of synonyms: (1)
a. erosion and siltation
b. intensive and concentrated
c. seasonal and continuous
d. stubborn and helpless
e. forecast and prediction
Options:
(a) b and e
(b) a and c
(c) b and d
(d) c and e
(vii) Complete the sentence appropriately: (1)
The cutting of trees in the mountains has led to ________.
 (viii) Complete the following sentence: (1)
Flood forecasting is critical because ________.

2. Read the following passage carefully: [10]

1. There was a time when human interference was minimum, the number of wild
animals was quite high and there was no problem of their protection or
conservation.
2. Due to the irrational use of natural and biotic resources of the Earth in the past,
most of the wildlife has been destroyed beyond retrieval. According to an
estimate, in India about 200 species of wild animals and birds have become
extinct and another 2500 are on the verge of extinction. Some of them are black
buck, chinkara, wolf, swamp deer, nilgai, Indian gazelle, antelope, tiger,
rhinoceros, gir lion, crocodile, flamingo, pelican, bustard, white crane, grey
heron, mountain quail, etc.
3. In India, the Government and NGOs are taking keen interest in protection of
wildlife. The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, has several provisions for the
conservation of wildlife. As many as 165 game sanctuaries and 21 national
parks have been deployed to protect the natural habitat and wild animals. Apart
from this, Wildlife Conservation Week is also celebrated from 1st to 7th
October every year. But still there is a long way to go in this direction.
4. Preservation of wildlife does not mean a blanket protection to all faunal and
floral species; rather it implies a proper, judicious control over the
multiplication of plants and animals which interact together to provide a proper
environment to man whose very existence is in peril today.
5. It is our urgent duty to protect the natural splendour of ecosystems and to
evolve a system of coexistence with every living creature upon the Earth.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given

below: (10)
 i. Infer one reason for the following, based on the information in the passage. The
number of wild animals was quite high and there was no problem of their
protection or conservation. (2)
ii. Select the appropriate options to fill in the blanks. (1)
Most of the wildlife has been________ beyond________ due to the irrational
use of natural resources on the Earth. (1)
I. destroyed
II. retrieval
III. desertion
IV. build
V. revived
a. I and II
b. II and III
c. III and IV
d. IV and V
iii. Complete the following analogy correctly with a word/phrase from the passage.
(1)
Flowers: Garden::________: Sanctuaries
(Clue: Just like flowers are in a garden, similarly________ are in the
sanctuaries.)
iv. Select the correct option to complete the sentence. (1)
Judicious control over the multiplication of plants and animals which provide
a. natural splendour of ecosystem
b. proper environment to man
c. blanket protection
d. happy and comfortable living
v. According to the graph, which is the most vulnerable animal species and the
least vulnerable from the graph. (1)
I. Birds
II. Insects
III. Fishes
IV. Reptiles
V. Insects
 VI. Mammals
VII. Molluses
a. I and II
b. III and IV
c. V and VI
d. VI and VI
vi. Fill in the blanks by selecting the correct option. (1)
The Wildlife Protection Policy has several provisions for________ of wildlife.
a. conservation
b. safety
c. habitation
d. well being
vii. List any two examples of Government and NGOs trying to protect the wildlife.
(2)
viii. List one reason why the Government makes certain recommendations for
protection of wild animals. (1)

SECTION B GRAMMAR
3. Complete ANY TEN of twelve of the following tasks, as directed [10]

(i) Fill in the blank by using the correct form of the word in the bracket, for the [1]
given portion of a letter:
To ensure that this project gains strength, schools may ________ (organize)
puppet shows and street plays.

(ii) Identify the error and supply the correction for the given sentence from an Art [1]
Exhibition invitation.
Artisan Club invite you to Art and Soul: an art exhibition featuring artwork
created by our budding artists.
Use the given format for your response.
Error Correction

(iii) Report the dialogue between a mother and her son, by completing the [1]
sentence:
Mother: Why are you late from school, Amit?
Amit: While coming from school to the bus stop, I slipped by stepping on a
 banana peel.
In response to the question about being late from school, Amit says that
________.

(iv) I said, "Two fixed menus for us, please." [1]

I ________ our meal.

a) proposed b) protested

c) ordered d) suggested

(v) Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option. [1]

According to the studies, dolphins, whales and ________ (any/many/much)
other sea creatures use highly sophisticated navigation systems.

(vi) Identify the error in the given sentence and supply the correction: [1]
The orchestra performed on the central theatre in front of a huge audience.
Use the given format for your response:
Error Correction

(vii) Select the option that identifies the error and supplies the correction for the [1]
following line, from a news report:
The schools have taken several measures to ensure the safety of students like
temperature screening of everyone who enter school premises and special
sanitization of the school as per WHO guidelines.
Option no. Error Correction
A have has
B the a
C of for
D enter enters

(viii) What ________ about the plan to shorten the school holidays? [1]

a) do you think b) will you think

c) are you think d) you think

(ix) Report the dialogue between Arjun and Arun, by completing the sentence: [1]
Arjun: Are you right-handed?
Arun: No, I do all my work with my left hand.
 In response to the question that whether he was right-handed, Arun denied and
said that ________.

(x) The Captain said to his men, "Stand at ease". [1]

Reported speech: ________

a) The Captain told his men that b) The Captain wanted his men
they should stand at ease. to stand at ease.

c) The Captain urged his men to d) The Captain commanded his

stand at ease. men to stand at ease.

(xi) Complete the line from a self-awareness song, by filling the blank with the [1]
correct option.
I ________ a song into the air,
It fell to earth, I knew not where;
For who ________ the sight so keen and strong,
That it can follow the flight of song?
A. breathe, has
B. breathed, has
C. breathed, had
D. breathe, had

(xii) Identify the error and supply the correction, for the following: [1]
Government of Haryana
WORLD ENVIRONMENT DAY
‘Nagar Van’ are being established for the objective to make the cities pollution
free

Use the given format for your response.

error correction

SECTION B CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS

4. Now-a-days, we see the rise in prices of edible things like pulses, onions, oils and [5]
some other products. The layman is facing hardship on account of it. Write a letter
to the editor of a reputed daily requesting him to highlight the difficulties faced by
the common man due to the rise in prices. Sign yourself as Pranjal/Praneeta living
at 124, Vivek Vihar, Delhi.
 OR
You are the librarian of Delhi Jain Public School, Palam. You are instructed to buy
some academic and reference books for the library. While browsing some good
publishers over the internet you landed on the website of Oxford University Press, India
and found this information there.
The ACADEMIC and REFERENCE programmes publish across a range of subjects.
Books on economics and business, history, politics, law, and literature as well as
philosophy and religion, sociology and anthropology, and gender studies reach out to
students, teachers, researchers, professionals, and general readers. Online services and
student-friendly textbooks are recent additions. Cutting across age and reading habit,
key focus areas in GENERAL books include arts and architecture, wildlife and natural
history, culture, media studies and cinema, Indian writing in translation, and ecology
and environment.
Write a letter to Oxford University Press, Ghaziabad, placing an order for books.
Mention at least 4 titles of the books to be supplied immediately. Address yourself as
Kalpana.

5. The graph below proves that even in the 21st century the status of women is not [5]
equal to that of men when it comes to occupying high positions in various
occupations. Read the graph carefully and write its interpretation.

OR
Tourism in India means growth of India.
Write a paragraph to analyse the given argument. You could think about what
alternative explanations might weaken the given conclusion and include
rationale/evidence that would strengthen/counter the given argument.

SECTION C - LITERATURE
6. Read the given extracts and answer the questions for ANY ONE of the two, [5]
given.
(i) Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: [5]
And as the light came on,
Fowler had his first authentic thrill of the day.
For halfway across the room,
a small automatic pistol in his hand stood a man.
Ausable blinked a few times.
i. Who was standing in the room with a pistol in his hand? (1)
ii. Ausable blinked because he: (1)
a. was getting adjusted to the light.
b. got afraid of the man with a pistol.
c. was thrilled to have reached his room.
d. started thinking of how to get rid of the man.
iii. Fowler was thrilled because what he saw looked like a ________. (2)
iv. Which word in the extract means the same as 'genuine/real? (1)

(ii) Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: [5]
The house-the only one in the entire valley sat on the crest of a low hill. From
this height, one could see the river and the field of ripe corn dotted with the
flowers that always promised a good harvest. The only thing the earth needed
was a downpour or at least a shower. Throughout the morning Lencho-who
knew his fields intimately had done nothing else but see the sky towards the
north-east, “Now we’re really going to get some water, woman.” The woman
who was preparing supper, replied, “Yes, God willing”
i. What is the significance of the location of Lencho's house? Answer in about
40 words. (2)
ii. Complete the sentence with the appropriate option. The field belonged to
Lencho and he had the utmost confidence that the harvest would ________.
(1)
A. not gain any profit
B. reap some profit
C. give moderate sale
D. reap great profits
iii. Identify the word in the passage that means the same as “heavy fall of rain”
(1)
 iv. State any one inference about Lencho from the given context: Throughout
the morning Lencho-who knew his fields intimately had done nothing else
but see the sky towards the north-east, “Now we’re really going to get some
water, woman.” (1)

7. Read the given extracts and answer the questions for ANY ONE of the two, [5]
given.

(i) Read the lines given below and answer the questions that follow: [5]
I sit inside, doors open to the verandah
Writing long letters
In which I scarcely mention the departure
of the forest from the house.
The night is fresh, the whole moon shines
in a sky still open
the smell of leaves and lichen
still reaches like a voice into the rooms.
i. Fill in the blank with one word: (1)
The poet talks about the house as a place of _________.
ii. Find the figure of speech used in the lines above. (2)
iii. The extract uses ‘open’ twice, suggesting different meanings. Write the
correct meaning with reference to the extract. (1)
iv. Choose the option that DOES NOT state the meaning of the underlined
word. (1)
‘I scarcely mention…’
A. tactfully
B. hardly
C. barely
D. only just

(ii) Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: [5]
Belinda is as brave as a barrel full of bears
And Ink and Blink chase lions down the stairs,
Mustard is as brave as a tiger in a rage,
But Custard keeps crying for a nice safe cage.
i. Pick the option that does not display a simile from the extract. (1)
a. ...as brave as a barrel full of bears
 b. ...chase lions down the stairs
c. ...brave as a tiger in a rage
d. none of the above
ii. Fill in the blank with one word. The coward behaviour of ________ animal
is described here in these lines. (1)
iii. How does the poet describe the pets of Belinda in this extract? (2)
iv. A hyperbole is a poetic device where the poet purposely and obviously
exaggerates to an extreme. Comment on the hyperbole from the extract. (1)

8. Answer ANY FOUR of the following five questions, in about 40-50 words [12]

(i) What impressed Mr. Barua about Rajiv? (Glimpses of India) [3]

(ii) What do you understand by the tiger's strength behind bars? What kind of a [3]
cage is the tiger locked in?

(iii) Why do you think Natalya Stepanova asked her father to call Lomov back [3]
when she heard that he had come with a proposal?

(iv) Why does Anne think that paper has more patience than people? [3]

(v) Fire and Ice projects a pessimistic outlook. Comment. [3]

9. Answer ANY TWO of the following three questions, in about 40-50 words. [6]

(i) What does Mr. Herriot mean by happy period for himself and his partners? [3]
Explain. (A Triumph of Surgery)

(ii) Why did the Tehsildar come to Ramlal's village? What did he ask Ramlal to [3]
do?

(iii) Why was Mrs. Hall ready to avoid the scientist's strange habits and abnormal [3]
behaviour?

10. Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about 100-120 words [6]

(i) A noted author, Richard Bach wrote - For most gulls it was not flying that [6]
mattered, but eating. For this gull, though, it was not eating that mattered, but
flight. Evaluate this statement with respect to the young seagull.

(ii) Both trees and Nelson Mandela are symbols of freedom, but in different ways. [6]
Trees represent the natural freedom that we all yearn for, while Nelson Mandela
represents the hard-won freedom that is possible when we stand up for what we
 believe in.
Assume they both meet each other and have a conversation about freedom.
Write this conversation as per your understanding of Nelson Mandela - Long
Walk to Freedom and poem The Trees.
You may begin like this
Nelson Mandela: Greetings, trees. It is an honour to speak with you today.
Trees: It is an honour to speak with you as well, Nelson Mandela.
Nelson Mandela: I am interested in hearing your thoughts on freedom.

11. Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about 100-120 words. [6]

(i) Matilda goes home after meeting Madam Forestier after ten years and shares [6]
the fact with M Loisel that the necklace was a false one. Write the dialogue
between Matilda and M Loisel.
Matilda: I don't know how to tell you this but I met Madam Forestier today
and she told me that her necklace was
M Loisel: What! I can't believe my ears. That huge debt was for nothing!
Matilda: ...
M Loisel: ...

(ii) Write a brief character-sketch of Hari Singh in the light of his honesty. Express [6]
your opinion also.
 Solution
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 3
English Language and Literature (184)
Class X (2024-25)
Section A - Reading Skills
1. i. (a) The seasonal nature of rainfall, where concentrated volumes of rain cannot be
absorbed by the earth.
(b) Human actions such as deforestation, leading to erosion and siltation, which
increase the risk of flooding.
ii. (a) Flood information is timely but often ineffective due to lack of infrastructure.
iii. Climate change may result in shorter but more intense monsoon seasons, leading to
greater precipitation in a shorter time frame. This could significantly increase the risk of
flooding, especially in areas already prone to such events.
iv. The tone is cautious and speculative, reflecting a concern about potential changes in
monsoon patterns due to climate change, which could exacerbate flooding issues in the
region.
v. (a) Water overflowing its usual boundaries
vi. (a) b and e
vii. The cutting of trees in the mountains has led to **erosion and increased siltation, which
contribute to the severity of floods.
viii. Flood forecasting is critical because **it helps minimize damage by alerting the public
and mobilizing preventive and relief measures in advance.
2. i. less human interference / bare minimum human interferance
ii. I and II
iii. wildlife
iv. proper environment to man
v. III & IV Options are incorrectly placed. B is the closest.
vi. conservation
vii. The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, has several provisions for the conservation of
wildlife / 165 game sanctuaries and 21 national parks have been deployed/protecting
the natural habitat and wild animals/ Wildlife Conservation Week is celebrated from 1st
to 7th October every year (any two)
viii. to protect the natural habitat and wild animals / to keep ecological balance (any one)
SECTION B GRAMMAR
3. Complete ANY TEN of twelve of the following tasks, as directed
(i) organize
(ii) Error Correction
 invite invites
(iii)while coming from school to the bus stop he slipped by stepping on a banana peel.
(iv)(c) ordered
Explanation: {
ordered
(v) many
(vi) Error Correction
on in
(vii)(D) enter - enters
(viii)
(a) do you think
Explanation: {
do you think
(ix)he does all his work with his left hand.
(x) (d) The Captain commanded his men to stand at ease.
Explanation: {
The Captain commanded his men to stand at ease.
(xi)B. Breathed, has
The following verbs are to be taken into consideration, like:- 'It fell to earth' and
'That it can follow'.
(xii)error correction
for with

SECTION B CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS

4. 124, Vivek Vihar
Delhi
April 5, 2018
The Editor
The Times of India
New Delhi
Sir.
Subject: Rising Prices
Through the columns of your esteemed newspaper, I want to express my deep concern
regarding the rising prices. This inflation has made the life of a common man very
difficult. It was not so in earlier times when things were very cheap and were within the
reach of almost everyone. The worst hit is the fixed income groups like the salaried
people, labour class and the pensioners. For them, even the commodities of basic
necessities like wheat, pulses, grains, vegetables, etc. are getting out of reach. The
government should tackle this problem in the best possible way. The hoarders, black
marketers, and profiters should be dealt with severely. The public distribution system of
rationing should be made more transparent and efficient. Moreover, taxes on basic
necessities should be reduced to bring down the contrast between wholesale and retail
prices. It is high time that the concerned authority should wake up to this social cause and
try to put reins to the rising price so that people can lead a comfortable and peaceful life.
Thanking you.
Yours sincerely,
Praneeta.
OR
Delhi Jain Public School,
near Palam metro Station,
Palam
4th Oct, 20XX
The Manager
M/s Oxford University Press
Civil Lines,
Ghaziabad.
Sir,
Subject: Supply of books for the School Library
As a librarian of school, through this letter, I request you to place a bulk order for the
supply of books. The books are needed in the school library. The Principal has kindly
consented to grant money for the purchase of some books.
The list of books with their particulars is attached herewith.
List of Books:
S.No. Name of Books Authors or Publishers Copied required
1. History of India L. Prashad 45
2. Modern Trigonometry Bansi Lal 40
3. Modern Algebra S.K. Sen 55
4. The New Atlas of the World Frank Bros. 30
5. Wings of fire A. P. J. Abdul Kalam 25
6. The Alchemist Paulo Coelho 15
7. The goosebumps R.L. Stine 20
 We would be pleased if you could provide us with a 20% discount on the purchase of
books. Besides, we request you to give another 5% special discount that is usually granted
to the institutional buyers. It goes without saying that you will have to bear the mail and
other expenses involved in the dispatch and delivery of books.
Kindly deliver these books in their latest edition and in proper conditions and order not
later than 25th November if our terms and conditions are acceptable to you.
Thanking you
Yours faithfully,
Kalpana.
5. Women in National Parliament
While more woman than men are being elected to parliament around the world, equality is
still a long way off, and the current progress is far too slow. The bar graph clearly
illustrates that even in the 21st century the status of women is not equal to that of men
when it comes to occupying high positions in various occupations. The lowest number of
women in National Parliament can be seen in Arab States where it is only 3.6%. The
percentage is a bit better in Sub Saharan Africa where it is 11% though it is again very
low. The number of women in National Parliament is not very encouraging in the World
and Pacific where it is 13.8% and 13.5% respectively. While the percentage in America,
Asia and Europe (excluding western countries) is 15.3,15.3 and 14.1 respectively. It is
only the western countries where the graph shows a picture of 38.1% women in the
Parliament. Overall, the status of women does not come at par anywhere when it comes to
occupying high positions in various occupations.
OR
The development of tourism industry will definitely lead to development of the country as
a whole. India is a land of beautiful landscapes, rivers and places of religious, historical
and cultural importance. We have innumerable tourist destinations which if used to their
full potential can bring about a lot of development in the country.
Tourism being one of the biggest and fastest-growing industries globally, affects the
economic, sociocultural, environmental and educational resources of nations. Improving
tourism industry in India would thus contribute to the development of the nation in many
spheres. It will have many positive effects on our economy. It will help in the growth and
development of various industries directly linked with the tourism industry such as those
pertaining to transportation, accommodation, wildlife, arts and entertainment. It also helps
in the creation of new jobs. A lot of revenue will also be generated through foreign
exchange on payments received for goods and services provided. The development of
tourism also enhances the living conditions of the local people.
SECTION C - LITERATURE
6. Read the given extracts and answer the questions for ANY ONE of the two, given.
(i) i. Max was standing in the room with a pistol in his hand.
ii. (d) started to think of how to get rid of the man.
iii. looked like a real thriller scene finally. The kind of action and scene he had been
expecting while he was on his way.
iv. authentic
(ii) i. Lencho, the farmer, lived on the only house that was there on the top of a hill. The
hill was low-heighted. From there, a river and a ready-to-harvest corn field were
visible.
ii. One could see from this height the river and the field of ripe corn.
iii. Downpour.
iv. He was a hardworking farmer with minimum resources and worked like an ox
in the field. He was a man of faith and hope. Even after losing their only source of
income, he did not lose his hope. He loved his family and was worried about it.

7. Read the given extracts and answer the questions for ANY ONE of the two, given.
(i) i. confinement, It is so because the houses today are congested, small and lack
ventilation
ii. The second line uses alliteration-long letters whereas the last line uses a simile-like a
voice into the rooms.
iii. The correct meaning of open twice is allowing access and vision-expanse of space.
iv. (A) tactfully
(ii) i. (b) .......chase lions down the stairs
ii. dragon (as he was looking for a nice cage)
iii. The poet describes the bravery of the pets in this extract. Ink and Blink have the
power to chase away someone as strong as a lion. The bravery of the dog is
compared to that of a tiger. But, the Custard was not at all brave as he was looking
for a nice safe cage.
iv. It is too much of an exaggeration that a small girl is as brave as many bears
combined together into one. The comparison of the bravery of other pets is an
example of hyperbole.

8. Answer ANY FOUR of the following five questions, in about 40-50 words
(i) Rajvir did indeed amaze Mr. Barua with his abilities in time management, positivism,
and humility. Before leaving for Assam, he did some study to learn more about the
region. The most crucial thing is to be aware of the location and comfortable with it.
 The father of Pranjol, Mr. Barua, was similarly taken aback by Rajvir's in-depth
understanding of the topic.
(ii) The tiger is not left free in the jungle but is locked in a cage made of cement and
concrete in a zoo. His unbound strength is caged in behind the bars. He is locked in a
small cage where he is devoid of freedom. He feels unhappy, frustrated, restless and
angry.
(iii)Natalya is an ugly, middle aged woman. She knows that only a food like Lomov can
marry her. So the moment she comes to know that Lomov had come to propose for her
hand, she cries and shouts and forces her father to bring Lomov back.
(iv)Anne believed that paper had more patience than people because it listens silently
without interruption, remains non-judgmental, allows her to confide secrets securely,
and never interrupts her. This patient listening provided her with a safe and non-reactive
outlet for expression, unlike interacting with other people
(v) According to me, 'Fire and Ice' projects a realistic outlook rather that a pessimistic one.
The poet brings forth the view that the world will soon end. It can be either by fire or
ice. He mentions that he has tasted everything in life after the World War I. So, it would
soon end either with greed or indifference.

9. Answer ANY TWO of the following three questions, in about 40-50 words.
(i) Mr. Herriot and his partners enjoyed a "happy period" during Tricki Woo's recovery
because they received lavish gifts like fresh eggs, wine, and brandy from Mrs.
Pumphrey. These treats were meant to help Tricki regain his strength. The indulgence
made their days feel content and luxurious, with special breakfasts and ceremonial
lunches, all while Tricki improved under their care, symbolizing the success of their
veterinary efforts.
(ii) The Tehsildar came to Ram Lal’s village to inaugurate the school for girls. He put the
responsibility of sending the girls of the village on Ram Lal. He told Ram Lal as he was
the representative of the government he must send his daughter to the school. He would
set an example to the villagers by sending his daughters to the school.
(iii)Mrs. Hall was ready to avoid the scientist’s strange habits and abnormal behaviour
because he had paid her in advance. She thought that her guest was an eccentric
scientist but she was satisfied as she had received money from him. So she decided to
excuse his strange habits and irritable temper.

10. Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about 100-120 words
(i) Food is the most essential ingredient that sustains all life on earth. But the young
seagull, it was not eating that mattered, but flight. Whenever he tried to flap his wings
 to fly, he was seized with fear. He felt certainly that his wings would never support him.
He had seen his elder brother catch his first Herring and devour it. It compounded his
helplessness even more. He uttered a joyful scream when he saw his mother holding a
piece of fish in her beak and flying quite near him. Hunger became motivation for the
young seagull. Maddened by hunger, he fell outwards and downward into space. Then a
monstrous terror seagull him but only for a minute. The next moment, he felt his wings
spread outwards. The fear left him. Soon, he was floating on the green sea.
(ii) Nelson Mandela: Greetings, trees. It is an honour to speak with you today.
Trees: It is an honour to speak with you as well, Nelson Mandela.
Nelson Mandela: I am interested in hearing your thoughts on freedom.
Trees: For us, freedom means being able to grow and reach for the sky without being
hindered by humans.
Nelson Mandela: That is a beautiful way of looking at freedom. I think humans could
learn a lot from you trees about what freedom really means.
Trees: But what does freedom mean to you, Mr. Mandela?
Nelson Mandela: With age and experience I understood the real meaning of freedom.
As I grew older, freedom to raise a family and freedom to earn livelihood started
dominating my thoughts. Tell me about your struggles for freedom, would you please?
Trees: Every confined part of us rose in revolt and struggle. Our roots struggle all night
to break free from the cracks in the veranda floor. Our leaves struggle to come out of
the glass. Small twigs have become hard due to overwork. Long cramped boughs to
broke open the roof and come out. How you fought against the apartheid system?
Nelson Mandela: I joined African National Congress and the desire for my own
freedom got converted into the larger desire for freedom of every one of my
communities.
Tress: Bravo! Freedom is the most important thing. No matter what happens, we must
always fight for our freedom.

11. Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about 100-120 words.
(i) Dialogue between Matilda and M. Loisel ________
Matilda: I don't know how to tell you this but I met Madam Forestier today and she
told me that her necklace was false one.
M Loisel: What! I can't believe my ears. That huge debt was for nothing!
Matilda: Yes, M Loisel it is really surprising that we had to go through so much. I don't
know what God had in store for us.
M Loisel: Shocking it is really! Unbelievable. She told you all this herself.
Matilda: Madam Forestier was shocked, even she could believe that we had to go
 through so much just for the sake of this false necklace.
M Loisel: Now what do you think we should do?
Matilda: Well! We can ask her to give back the real diamond necklace to us. So, that
we can repay our debts.
M Loisel: What if she refuses?
Matilda: Well! Madam Forestier is a friend of mine. She will never refuse. I am sure.
Let me just speak to her.
M Loisel: Do what you feel like.
(ii) Hari Singh was 15 years old. He was an experienced and successful thief. His
cleverness and intelligence were the reasons for his success. He planned everything
meticulously before choosing his victims. He went to places where he would meet an
unsuspecting victim. He would then vein his confidence to get a job and then run away
after stealing money from there. Then, he used to change his name to befool the police
and his former employers. He got a job as a cook, though he could not cook well. He
was a greedy boy. He was a liar. He was cruel enough to rob a simple and trusting man
like Anil. He was able to steal six hundred rupees from his house. But, at the end of the
story, a transformation took place in his heart and he decided to go back to Anil and
keep his trust alive. In my opinion, this shows that there is goodness concealed in even
the worst of men. He overcame his evil thoughts with the help of his conscience.
 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 1
Hindi A (002)
Class X (2024-25)

निर्धारित समय: 3 hours अधिकतम अंक: 80

सामान्य निर्देश:
निम्नलिखित निर्देशों को बहुत सावधानी से पढ़िए और उनका सख्ती से अनुपालन कीजिए :
- इस प्रश्नपत्र में कु ल 15 प्रश्न हैं। सभी प्रश्न अनिवार्य हैं।
- इस प्रश्नपत्र में कु ल चार खंड हैं- क, ख, ग, घ।
- खंड-क में कु ल 2 प्रश्न हैं, जिनमें उपप्रश्नों की संख्या 10 है।
- खंड-ख में कु ल 4 प्रश्न हैं, जिनमें उपप्रश्नों की संख्या 20 है। दिए गए निर्देशों का पालन करते
हुए 16 उपप्रश्नों के उत्तर देना अनिवार्य है ।
- खंड-ग में कु ल 5 प्रश्न हैं, जिनमें उपप्रश्नों की संख्या 20 है।
- खंड-घ में कु ल 4 प्रश्न हैं, सभी प्रश्नों के साथ उनके विकल्प भी दिए गए हैं।
- प्रश्नों के उत्तर दिए गए निर्देशों का पालन करते हुए लिखिए ।
खंड क - अपठित बोध
1. निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए। [7]
चीन के महान दार्शनिक संत ताओ बू बीन के पास चुंगसिन नामक एक व्यक्ति पहुँचा, उसने
उनसे धर्म की शिक्षा देने की प्रार्थना की, संत ताओ बू ने उस व्यक्ति को कु छ समय तक
अपने पास रखा और उसे दीन-दुखियों की सेवा में लगा दिया, कु छ समय बाद चुंगसिन ने
संतजी से निवेदन किया, "महाराज इतने दिन हो गए, आपने मुझे धर्म की शिक्षा नहीं दी, संत
ने कहा, "तेरा तो जीवन ही धर्ममय हो गया है, फिर मैं धर्म के विषय में तुझे क्या बताता? तू
अपने कर्तव्यों का पालन निष्ठापूर्वक करता है, तुझसे बड़ा धार्मिक कौन होगा?"
चुंगसिन समझ गया, आप भी समझ गए होंगे कि कर्तव्य का पालन ही जीवन में सर्वोपरि है,
चाहें तो हम उसे मानव का परम धर्म कह सकते हैं।
हमारे युवा पाठकों में प्रायः प्रत्येक किसी-न-किसी परीक्षा के लिए तैयारी का संकल्प करते
है। क्या आप में प्रत्येक को विश्वास है कि वह पूरी निष्ठा के साथ परीक्षा या प्रतियोगिता के
संदर्भ में अपने कर्तव्य का पालन कर रहा/रही है? परीक्षा की तैयारी के अतिरिक्त आपके
लिए अन्य कोई कार्यक्रम महत्त्व नहीं रखता है, कु छ ऐसे छात्र-छात्राएं देखने में आते हैं जो घर
से पढ़ने के लिए कॉलेज आते हैं परन्तु वे कक्षाओं में न जाकर मटरगश्ती करते हैं, अथवा
कै ण्टीन में बैठकर दोस्तों के साथ बातें करते हैं। तब क्या वे अपने कर्तव्य की अवहेलना, एवं
माता-पिता के साथ विश्वासघात नहीं करते हैं? हम चाहते हैं कि हमारे युवा पाठक शांत चित्त
से विचार करके देखें कि वे उक्त श्रेणी के अनुत्तरदायी वर्ग के अन्तर्गत तो नहीं आते हैं,
परीक्षा एवं प्रतियोगिता में असफल होने के मूल में प्रायः हमारे युवावर्ग द्वारा पूरी तरह से
अपने कर्तव्य का पालन न करना होता है, वे यदि अपने कर्तव्य का पालन पूरी निष्ठा के साथ
 करें , तो हम पूरी दृढ़ता के साथ कह सकते हैं कि उनकी सफलता की संभावनाएँ कई गुना
बढ़ जाएँ गी।
कर्तव्य-पालन के संदर्भ में यह नहीं सोचना चाहिए कि यदि सफलता नहीं मिलती है, तो क्या
होगा? कर्तव्य-पालन को लक्ष्य करके हमारे मन-मस्तिष्क में एक ही विचार रहना चाहिए कि
मैं इसका सम्यक निर्वाह एवं पालन किस प्रकार कर सकता हूँ?
1. ताओ ने चुंगसिन को सबसे बड़ा धार्मिक क्यों कहा? (1)
(क) क्योंकि चुंगसिन पहले से ही धार्मिक था।
(ख) क्योंकि चुंगसिन कर्तव्यों का पालन निष्ठापूर्वक करता था।
(ग) क्योंकि चुंगसिन आश्रम का सारा काम करता था।
(घ) क्योंकि चुंगसिन ताओ की सेवा करता था।
2. कर्तव्य पालन पूरी निष्ठा के साथ करने से सफलता अवश्य प्राप्त होती है, कै से? (1)
(क) क्योंकि मन मस्तिष्क में एक ही ध्येय रहता है।
(ख) क्योंकि हम अधिक प्रयास करते हैं।
(ग) क्योंकि मन में हार का भय रहता है।
(घ) क्योंकि मन हमें शक्ति देता रहता है।
3. मानव का परम धर्म किसे कहा गया है? (1)
(क) दीन-दुखियों की सेवा करना
(ख) गुरु की सेवा करना
(ग) माता पिता का आदर करना
(घ) निष्ठापूर्वक अपने कर्तव्य का पालन करना
4. कर्तव्य के प्रति निष्ठा व्यक्ति के चरित्र को निरुत्तर कर देती है। उदाहरण द्वारा उत्तर की
पुष्टि कीजिए। (2)
5. क्यों कहा गया है कि कु छ विद्यार्थी माता-पिता के साथ छल करते हैं? (2)

2. निम्नलिखित काव्यांशों को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए- [7]

तिनका तिनका लाकर चिड़िया
रचती है आवास नया।
इसी तरह से रच जाता है
सर्जन का आकाश नया।
मानव और दानव में यूँ तो
भेद नजर नहीं आएगा।
एक पोंछता बहते आँसू
जी भर एक रुलाएगा।
रचने से ही आ पाता है
जीवन में विश्वास नया।
कु छ तो इस धरती पर के वल
खून बहाने आते हैं।
 आग बिछाते हैं राहों में
फिर खुद भी जल जाते हैं।
जो होते खुद मिटने वाले
वे रचते हैं इतिहास नया।
मंत्र नाश को पढ़ा करें कु छ
द्वार-द्वार पर जा करके ।
फू ल खिलाने वाले रहते।
घर -घर फू ल खिला करके ।
i. नव निर्माण कब सम्भव होता है? (1)
(क) ख़ुद जलकर
(ख) तिनका-तिनका जोड़कर
(ग) राहों में आग बिछा कर
(घ) खून बहाकर
ii. नया इतिहास कौन बनाते हैं? (1)
(क) दू सरों के लिए जीने वाले
(ख) फू ल खिलाने वाले माली
(ग) आग लगाने वाले
(घ) घर घर जाने वाले
iii. ‘घर-घर फू ल खिलाने' का क्या आशय है? (1)
(क) माली का काम करना
(ख) घर में बगीचे लगाना
(ग) सर्वत्र सुख-शन्ति कायम करना
(घ) घर घर पौंधे बाँटना
iv. मानव और दानव के बारे में कवि के क्या विचार हैं? (2)
v. दू सरों के लिए आग बिछाने वालों की क्या दशा होती है? (2)

खंड ख - व्यावहारिक व्याकरण

3. निर्देशानुसार किन्हीं चार के उत्तर लिखिए: [4]
i. यह बालगोबिन भगत का संगीत है। (रचना के आधार पर वाक्य-भेद लिखिए)
ii. जब पान के पैसे चुका कर जीप में आ बैठे , तब रवाना हो गए। (आश्रित उपवाक्य
पहचानकर लिखिए और उसका भेद भी लिखिए)
iii. थोड़ी देर में मिठाई की दुकान बढ़ाकर हम लोग घरौंदा बनाते थे। (मिश्र वाक्य में बदलकर
लिखिए)
iv. फ़सल को एक जगह रखते और उसे पैरों से रौंद डालते। (सरल वाक्य में बदलिए)
 v. सीधा-सादा किसान सुभाष पालेकर अपनी नेचुरल फार्मिंग से कृ षि के क्षेत्र में क्रांति ला
रहा है। (मिश्र वाक्य में बदलिए।)

4. निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में से किन्हीं चार वाक्यों का निर्देशानुसार वाच्य परिवर्तन कीजिए - [4]
(1x4=4)
i. हमने मैया के आँचल की छाया न छोड़ी। (कर्मवाच्य में)
ii. गुरुजी द्वारा हमारी ख़ूब ख़बर ली गई। (कर्तृवाच्य में)
iii. जवाब नहीं दिया। (कर्मवाच्य में)
iv. लड़का नहीं हँसा। (भाववाच्य में)
v. कू जन कुं ज में आसपास के पक्षी संगीत का अभ्यास करते हैं। (कर्मवाच्य में)

5. निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में से किन्हीं चार रे खांकित पदों का पद-परिचय लिखिए- (1x4=4) [4]
i. मूर्ति के चेहरे पर चश्मा न था।
ii. धीरे से पानवाले से पूछा।
iii. पत्थर से पारदर्शी चश्मा कै से बनता !
iv. हमने उन्हें क्रोध में कभी नहीं देखा।
v. मानव सभ्य तभी है जब वह युद्ध से शांति की ओर आगे बढ़े ।

6. निम्नलिखित काव्यांशों के अलंकार भेद पहचान कर लिखिए- (किन्हीं चार) [4]

i. कु सुम-वैभव में लता समान।
ii. खंजरीर नहीं लखि परत कु छ दिन साँची बात।
बाल द्रगन सम हीन को करन मनो तप जात।।
iii. इस सोते संसार बीच, जग कर सजकर रजनी बाले।
iv. हनुमान की पूंछ में लगन न पायी आगि।
सगरी लंका जल गई, गये निसाचर भागि।
v. है वसुंधरा बिखेर देती मोती सबके सोने पर।
रवि बटोर लेता है उसको सदा सवेरा होने पर।

खंड ग - गद्य खंड (पाठ्यपुस्तक)

7. अनुच्छे द को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिये: [5]
ऊपर की तसवीर से यह नहीं माना जाए कि बालगोबिन भगत साधु थे। नहीं, बिलकु ल
गृहस्थ! उनकी गृहिणी की तो मुझे याद नहीं, उनके बेटे और पतोहू को तो मैंने देखा था।
थोड़ी खेतीबारी भी थी, एक अच्छा साफ़-सुथरा मकान भी था।
किं तु, खेतीबारी करते, परिवार रखते भी, बालगोबिन भगत साधु थे- साधु की सब परिभाषाओं
में खरे उतरनेवाले। कबीर को 'साहब' मानते थे, उन्हीं के गीतों को गाते, उन्हीं के आदेशों पर
चलते। कभी झूठ नहीं बोलते, खरा व्यवहार रखते। किसी से भी दो-टू क बात करने में संकोच
 नहीं करते, न किसी से खामखाह झगड़ा मोल लेते। किसी की चीज़ नहीं छू ते, न बिना पूछे
व्यवहार में लाते। इस नियम को कभी-कभी इतनी बारीकी तक ले आते कि लोगों को कु तूहल
होता!- कभी वह दू सरे के खेत में शौच के लिए भी नहीं बैठते! वह गृहस्थ थे; लेकिन उनकी
सब चीज़ 'साहब' की थी। जो कु छ खेत में पैदा होता, सिर पर लादकर पहले उसे साहब के
दरबार में ले जाते- जो उनके घर से चार कोस दू र पर था- एक कबीरपंथी मठ से मतलब! वह
दरबार में 'भेंट' रूप रख लिया जाकर ‘प्रसाद' रूप में जो उन्हें मिलता, उसे घर लाते और
उसी से गुज़र चलाते!

(i) बालगोबिन भगत किसका आदेश मानते थे?

i. गाँववालों का
ii. पतोहू का
iii. मठ का
iv. कबीर का

क) विकल्प (i) ख) विकल्प (ii)

ग) विकल्प (iv) घ) विकल्प (iii)

(ii) निम्न में बालगोबिन भगत की विशेषता है-

क) सभी विकल्प सही हैं ख) खरा व्यवहार रखते

ग) किसी से दो टू क बात करते घ) झूठ नहीं बोलते

(iii) बालगोबिन भगत अपने खेत का उपज देते थे-

क) गाँव में बाँट देते थे ख) कबीरपंथी मठ को

ग) अपनी बहू को घ) अपने बेटे को

(iv) बालगोबिन भगत साहब मानते थे-

क) संत कबीर को ख) लेखक को

ग) अपने बेटे को घ) अपनी बहू को

(v) बालगोबिन भगत थे-

क) गृहस्थ ख) उपरोक्त सभी

ग) कबीर के उपासक घ) किसान

8. निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं तीन प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 25-30 शब्दों में दीजिए: [6]

(i) कस्बे से गुज़रते हुए हालदार साहब सदा चौराहे पर क्यों रुकते थे? दो कारण लिखिए। [2]
 (ii) एक कहानी यह भी से लिया गया निहायत असहाय मज़बूरी में लिपटा उनका यह त्याग [2]
कभी मेरा आदर्श नहीं बन सका। - यह कथन किसके लिए कहा गया है और क्यों?

(iii) नवाब साहब ने बहुत ही यत्न से खीरा काटा, नमक-मिर्च बुरका, अंतत: सूँघकर ही [2]
खिड़की से बाहर फें क दिया। उन्होंने ऐसा क्यों किया होगा? उनका ऐसा करना उनके
कै से स्वभाव को इंगित करता है?

(iv) वास्तविक अर्थों में संस्कृ त व्यक्ति किसे कहा जा सकता है? [2]

खंड ग - काव्य खंड (पाठ्यपुस्तक)

9. अनुच्छे द को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिये: [5]
यह विडंबना! अरी सरलते तेरी हँसी उड़ाऊँ मैं।
भूलें अपनी या प्रवंचना औरों की दिखलाऊँ मैं।
उज्ज्वल गाथा कै से गाऊँ , मधुर चाँदनी रातों की।
अरे खिल-खिला कर हँसते होने वाली उन बातों की।

(i) कवि के जीवन की विडंबना क्या है?

क) जीवन का सरल होना ख) मित्रो द्वारा आत्मकथा लिखने को

कहना

ग) मित्रों द्वारा धोखा दिया जाना घ) जीवन का दुखी होना

(ii) कवि को किस कारण धोखे मिले?

क) अपने सरल स्वभाव के कारण ख) अपने कठिन स्वभाव के कारण

ग) मित्रों के भोलेपन के कारण घ) मित्रों के सरल स्वभाव के कारण

(iii) कवि ने अपनी प्रेयसी के साथ बिताए हुए पलों को किसके समान बताया है?

क) प्रवंचना के ख) उज्जवल गाथा के

ग) खिलखिलाकर हंसने के घ) विडंबना के

(iv) कवि के जीवन जीने का एकमात्र सहारा क्या है?

क) प्रेयसी के साथ बिताए हुए मधुर ख) मित्रों से मिला हुआ धोखा

पल

ग) आत्मकथा लिखना घ) मित्रों के साथ बिताए हुए मधुर

पल

(v) पद्यांश के कवि हैं-

 क) महादेवी वर्मा ख) सूरदास

ग) तुलसीदास घ) जयशंकर प्रसाद

10. निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं तीन प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 25-30 शब्दों में दीजिए: [6]

(i) उत्साह कविता में कवि बादल को गरजने के लिए क्यों कहता है? बादल से कवि की [2]
अन्य अपेक्षाएँ क्या हैं?

(ii) शेफालिका के फू ल झरने का भाव यह दंतुरित मुसकान कविता के आधार पर स्पष्ट [2]
कीजिए।

(iii) गायक सरगम को लाँघकर कहाँ चला जाता है? वह वापस कै से आता है? [2]

(iv) गोपियों का मन किसने चलते समय चुरा लिया था? अब वे क्या चाहती हैं? [2]

खंड ग - कृ तिका (पूरक पाठ्यपुस्तक)

11. निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 50-60 शब्दों में दीजिए: [8]

(i) माता का अँचल पाठ के आधार पर बाल-मनोविज्ञान पर टिप्पणी कीजिए। [4]

(ii) मैं क्यों लिखता हूँ? हिरोशिमा की घटना को विज्ञान का भयानकतम दुरुपयोग क्यों कहा [4]
जाता है?

(iii) प्राकृ तिक सौन्दर्य के अलौकिक दृश्यों में डू बकर मनुष्य अपनी परे शानियाँ भूल जाता है। [4]
'साना-साना हाथ जोड़ि' पाठ के आधार पर उत्तर दीजिए।

खंड घ - रचनात्मक लेखन

12. निम्नलिखित में से किसी एक विषय पर लगभग 120 शब्दों में अनुच्छे द लिखिये: [6]

(i) स्वच्छता आंदोलन विषय पर दिए गए संके त-बिन्दुओं के आधार पर अनुच्छे द लिखिए। [6]
क्यों
बदलाव
हमारा उत्तरदायित्व

(ii) आत्मनिर्भरता विषय पर लगभग 80 से 100 शब्दो में अनुच्छे द लिखिए। [6]

(iii) लोकतंत्र और चुनाव विषय पर दिए गए संके त बिंदुओं के आधार पर अनुच्छे द लिखिए। [6]
लोकतंत्र से तात्पर्य
चुनाव का महत्त्व
सही प्रतिनिधि के चुनाव से लोकतंत्र की रक्षा
13. आप सायरा/आसिफ हैं। यातायात-जाम से छु टकारा पाने के सुझाव देते हुए किसी दैनिक [5]
समाचार-पत्र के संपादक को लगभग 100 शब्दों में पत्र लिखिए।

अथवा
पिछली कक्षा में आपने अपने विद्यालय में प्रथम स्थान प्राप्त किया था। इसके लिए आपको
विद्यालय के वार्षिकोत्सव में सम्मानित एवं पुरस्कृ त किया जाना है। इस अवसर पर आपकी माता
जी उपस्थित रहें। माता जी को बुलाने के लिए पत्र लिखिए।

14. सुविधा इलेक्ट्रॉनिक्स प्रा० लिमिटेड जालंधर पंजाब को मार्के टिंग एक्जक्यूटिव पद के लिए [5]
स्ववृत सहित आवेदन-पत्र लिखिए।

अथवा
आप कोल्हापुर, महाराष्ट्र के निवासी मिलिंद/भुवी हैं। आपके एक परिचित ने आपको दिल्ली से
एक पार्सल भेजा जो 25 दिनों बाद भी नहीं मिला। आप कू रियर कं पनी को ईमेल लिखकर
शिकायत करते हुए उचित कार्यवाही करने की चेतावनी दीजिए।

15. किसी शीतल पेय की बिक्री बढ़ाने वाला एक विज्ञापन तैयार कीजिए। (25-50 शब्दों में). [4]

अथवा
गुड़ी पड़वा के अवसर पर महाराष्ट्र निवासी अपने मित्र को लगभग 40 शब्दों में शुभकामना संदेश
लिखिए।
 Solution
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 1
Hindi A (002)
Class X (2024-25)

खंड क - अपठित बोध

1. 1. (ख) क्योंकि चुंगसिन अपने कर्तव्यों का पालन निष्ठापूर्वक करता था इसलिए ताओ ने उसे सबसे
बड़ा धार्मिक कहा।
2. (क) कर्तव्य पालन पूरी निष्ठा के साथ करने से व्यक्ति को सफलता अवश्य मिलती है क्योंकि मन
मस्तिष्क में एक ही ध्येय रहता है।
3. (घ) मानव का परम धर्म है-निष्ठापूर्वक अपने कर्तव्य का पालन करना।
4. कर्तव्य के प्रति निष्ठा व्यक्ति और उसके चरित्र को महान बनाती है। चुंगसिन ने निष्ठापूर्वक अपने
कर्तव्य का पालन किया इसलिए उसे महान धार्मिक कहा गया।
5. कु छ विद्यार्थी घर से पढ़ने के लिए कॉलेज आते हैं पर कक्षाओं में न जाकर वे मटरगश्ती करते हैं
और इस प्रकार अपने माता-पिता के साथ छल करते हैं।
2. i. (ख) जब हम तिनका-तिनका जोड़कर सर्जन करते हैं तब नव निर्माण सम्भव हो पाता है।
ii. (क) जो दू सरों का आँसू पोंछ आत्म-विश्वास पैदा कर स्वंय का आत्म बलिदान कर घर - घर फू ल
खिलाते रहते हैं |वे ही नया इतिहास रच पाते हैं।
iii. (ग) घर-घर फू ल खिलाने का आशय है सर्वत्र सुख-शन्ति कायम करना, दू सरों के कष्ट को दू र कर
सभी को सुख व् सहायता प्रदान करना है ।
iv. मानव और दानव के बारे में कवि का विचार यह है किदोनों में भेद नजर नहीं आता। वे एक समान
लगते हैं। इनमें के वल कर्मों का अन्तर होता है। मानव के कर्म अच्छे व आँसू पोछने वाले होते हैं
जबकि दानव के कर्म बुरे होते हैं। वह विध्वंश करता है |
v. दू सरों के लिए आग बिछाने वाले खुद उसमें जल जाते हैं |
खंड ख - व्यावहारिक व्याकरण
3. i. यह वाक्य सरल वाक्य है।
ii. आश्रित उपवाक्य: जब पान के पैसे चुका कर जीप में आ बैठे
आश्रित उपवाक्य का भेद: क्रियाविशेषण उपवाक्य
iii. मिश्र वाक्य: जब हम लोग मिठाई की दुकान बढ़ा देते थे, तब घरौंदा बनाते थे।
iv. सरल वाक्य: फसल को एक जगह रखकर पैरों से रौंद डालते।
v. सुभाष पालेकर सीधा-सादा किसान है जो अपनी नेचुरल फार्मिंग से कृ षि के क्षेत्र में क्रांति ला रहा
है। (मिश्र वाक्य)
4. i. हमसे मैया के आँचल की छाया न छोड़ी गई।
ii. गुरूजी ने हमारी खूब खबर ली।
iii. जवाब नहीं दिया गया।
iv. लड़के से नहीं हँसा गया।
v. कुं जन कुं ज में आसपास के पक्षियों द्वारा संगीत का अभ्यास किया जाता है। (कर्म वाच्य)
5. i. मूर्ति: संज्ञा, जातिवाचक, स्त्रीलिंग, एकवचन, कर्ता कारक
 ii. धीरे : क्रिया विशेषण, रीतिवाचक
से: संबंधबोधक अव्यय
iii. पत्थर: संज्ञा, जातिवाचक, पुल्लिंग, एकवचन, कर्ता कारक
से: संबंधबोधक अव्यय
iv. हमने: सर्वनाम, उत्तम पुरुष, बहुवचन, कर्ता कारक
v. मानव- संज्ञा, जातिवाचक, पुल्लिग, एकवचन.
जातिवाचक संज्ञा, एकवचन, पुल्लिंग, कर्ता कारक।
6. i. उपमा अलंकार
ii. उत्प्रेक्षा अलंकार
iii. मानवीकरण अलंकार
iv. अतिश्योक्ति अलंकार
v. मानवीकरण अलंकार
खंड ग - गद्य खंड (पाठ्यपुस्तक)
7. अनुच्छे द को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिये:
ऊपर की तसवीर से यह नहीं माना जाए कि बालगोबिन भगत साधु थे। नहीं, बिलकु ल गृहस्थ! उनकी
गृहिणी की तो मुझे याद नहीं, उनके बेटे और पतोहू को तो मैंने देखा था। थोड़ी खेतीबारी भी थी, एक
अच्छा साफ़-सुथरा मकान भी था।
किं तु, खेतीबारी करते, परिवार रखते भी, बालगोबिन भगत साधु थे- साधु की सब परिभाषाओं में खरे
उतरनेवाले। कबीर को 'साहब' मानते थे, उन्हीं के गीतों को गाते, उन्हीं के आदेशों पर चलते। कभी
झूठ नहीं बोलते, खरा व्यवहार रखते। किसी से भी दो-टू क बात करने में संकोच नहीं करते, न किसी
से खामखाह झगड़ा मोल लेते। किसी की चीज़ नहीं छू ते, न बिना पूछे व्यवहार में लाते। इस नियम
को कभी-कभी इतनी बारीकी तक ले आते कि लोगों को कु तूहल होता!- कभी वह दू सरे के खेत में
शौच के लिए भी नहीं बैठते! वह गृहस्थ थे; लेकिन उनकी सब चीज़ 'साहब' की थी। जो कु छ खेत में
पैदा होता, सिर पर लादकर पहले उसे साहब के दरबार में ले जाते- जो उनके घर से चार कोस दू र
पर था- एक कबीरपंथी मठ से मतलब! वह दरबार में 'भेंट' रूप रख लिया जाकर ‘प्रसाद' रूप में जो
उन्हें मिलता, उसे घर लाते और उसी से गुज़र चलाते!
(i) (ग) विकल्प (iv)
व्याख्या:
विकल्प (iv)
(ii) (क) सभी विकल्प सही हैं
व्याख्या:
सभी विकल्प सही हैं
(iii)(ख) कबीरपंथी मठ को
व्याख्या:
कबीरपंथी मठ को
(iv)(क) संत कबीर को
व्याख्या:
 संत कबीर को
(v) (ख) उपरोक्त सभी
व्याख्या:
सभी विकल्प सही हैं

8. निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं तीन प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 25-30 शब्दों में दीजिए:
(i) हालदार साहब चौराहे पर दो मुख्य कारणों से रुकते थे:
i. स्थानीय गतिविधियों की निगरानी: चौराहा कस्बे का कें द्र होने के कारण, यहाँ हर प्रकार की
गतिविधियाँ होती थीं। हालदार साहब वहाँ रुककर लोगों के हालचाल और कस्बे की
गतिविधियों पर नजर रखते थे।
ii. सामाजिक मेल-जोल: चौराहे पर रुकने से उन्हें स्थानीय लोगों से मिलना-जुलना और बातचीत
करने का अवसर मिलता था। यह उनके लिए सामाजिक संपर्क का एक महत्वपूर्ण माध्यम था,
जिससे वे अपने समुदाय से जुड़े रहते थे।
(ii) एक कहानी यह भी से लिया गया यह कथन माँ के बारे में कहा गया है। इस कथन का तात्पर्य है
कि माँ की अपनी कोई व्यक्तिगत पहचान या व्यक्तित्व नहीं था; वह पिता की हर आज्ञा और बच्चों
की हर ज़िद को अपना फर्ज मानकर स्वीकार करती थीं। उनकी असीमित सहिष्णुता और त्याग
की प्रवृत्ति, साथ ही अधिकारों के प्रति जागरूकता का अभाव, उन्हें आदर्श के रूप में प्रस्तुत
करने में विफल रहा।
(iii)नवाब साहब द्वारा दिए गए खीरा खाने के प्रस्ताव को लेखक ने अस्वीकृ त कर दिया। खीरा खाने
की इच्छा तथा सामने वाले यात्री के सामने अपनी झूठी साख बनाए रखने की उलझन में नवाब
साहब ने खीरा खाने की सोची परन्तु उसे तुच्छ दिखाने के इरादे से नवाब साहब ने खीरा यत्नपूर्वक
काटा और सूँघ कर ही उसका स्वाद लेते हुए उसकी एक-एक फाँक को खिड़की से बाहर फें क
दिया ।नवाब के इस कार्य से ऐसा प्रतीत होता है कि वे प्रदर्शनवादी प्रवृत्ति के थे और नजाकत
,नफासत दिखाने के लिए कु छ भी कर सकते थे..
(iv)ऐसा व्यक्ति जो अपनी योग्यता और बुद्धि के आधार पर नए तथ्य की खोज करता है, नए सिद्धांत
स्थापित करता है, उसके वावजूद भी वह स्वभाव से साधारण एवं विनम्र रहता है संस्कृ त व्यक्ति
कहलाता है।
उदाहरण के तौर पर देखें तो महानतम वैज्ञानिक न्यूटन ने अपने बुद्धि का उपयोग कर भौतिकी
के सबसे मूल नियम जिसे गुरुत्वाकर्षण का नियम कहते हैं को भौतिकी में प्रतिस्थापित किया।
इसी कारण उन्हें संस्कृ त व्यक्ति कहना उचित होगा। ऐसे व्यक्ति संस्कृ त व्यक्ति ऐसे व्यक्ति होते
हैं जिनमें विशिष्ट गुण होते हैं, जो बहुत प्रतिभाशाली होते हैं, विनम्र होते हों, साधारण होते हैं,
दुनिया एवं समाज को एक बेहतर नजरिये से वे देख पाते हैं एवं उसे समझने की कोशिश करते हैं।
ऐसे व्यक्ति संस्कृ त व्यक्ति कहलाते हैं।

खंड ग - काव्य खंड (पाठ्यपुस्तक)

9. अनुच्छे द को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिये:
 यह विडंबना! अरी सरलते तेरी हँसी उड़ाऊँ मैं।
भूलें अपनी या प्रवंचना औरों की दिखलाऊँ मैं।
उज्ज्वल गाथा कै से गाऊँ , मधुर चाँदनी रातों की।
अरे खिल-खिला कर हँसते होने वाली उन बातों की।
(i) (ख) मित्रो द्वारा आत्मकथा लिखने को कहना
व्याख्या:
मित्रो द्वारा आत्मकथा लिखने को कहना
(ii) (क) अपने सरल स्वभाव के कारण
व्याख्या:
अपने सरल स्वभाव के कारण
(iii)(ख) उज्जवल गाथा के
व्याख्या:
उज्जवल गाथा के
(iv)(क) प्रेयसी के साथ बिताए हुए मधुर पल
व्याख्या:
प्रेयसी के साथ बिताए हुए मधुर पल
(v) (घ) जयशंकर प्रसाद
व्याख्या:
जयशंकर प्रसाद

10. निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं तीन प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 25-30 शब्दों में दीजिए:
(i) उत्साह कविता में कवि बादल को गरजने के लिए कहता है क्योंकि कवि बादल के गरजने से लोगों
में उत्साह जगाकर क्रांति लाने के लिए प्रेरित करना चाह रहा है। इसके साथ ही कवि बादल से
प्यासे-शोषित-पीड़ित जन की आकांक्षाएँ पूरी करने की अपेक्षा करता है।
(ii) उस छोटे दंतुरित बच्चे का ऐसा मनोरम रूप था कि चाहे कोई कितना भी कठोर क्यों न रहा हो
पर उसे देख मन ही मन प्रसन्नता से भर उठता था। चाहें बाँस के समान हो या कांटों भरे कीकर के
समान, पर उसकी सुदंरता से प्रभावित हो वह उसकी ओर देख मुस्कराने के लिए विवश हो जाता
था। शेफालिका के फू ल झरने का भाव है कि जब बालक के अंगों से स्पर्श हुआ तो उसे ऐसी
अनुभूति हुई मानो उस पर शेफालिका के कोमल फू लों की वर्षा हो गई हो।
(iii)गायक सरगम को लाँधकर अनहद में चला जाता है, वह असीम आनन्द- ब्रम्हानंद में डू ब जाता है।
तब संगतकार मुख्या गायक को सहारा देकर स्थायी रूप देता है, तब मुख्य गायक वापस लौट
आता है।
(iv)गोपियों का मन श्रीकृ ष्ण ने ब्रज से चलते समय चुरा लिया था। उनका मन उनके वश में नहीं रहा
क्योंकि उनका मन तो श्री कृ ष्ण चुरा कर मथुरा ले गए हैं और अब भी अपने मन और चोरी करने
वाले दोनों की याद में जल रही है। अब उन्हें कृ ष्ण से बहुत ही घनिष्ट प्रेम हो गया।

खंड ग - कृ तिका (पूरक पाठ्यपुस्तक)

11. निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 50-60 शब्दों में दीजिए:
(i) ‘माता का अँचल’ पाठ के आधार पर बालक का जुड़ाव अपनी माता से अधिक होता है। माता से
बच्चे का ममत्व का रिश्ता होता है। वह चाहे अपने पिता से कितना भी प्रेम करता हो या पिता
अपने बच्चे को कितना भी प्रेम देता हो, पर जो आत्मीय सुख माँ की छाया में या माँ के आंचल तले
प्राप्त होता है, वह पिता से शायद प्राप्त नहीं होता। क्योंकि माँ अपने बच्चों से निस्वार्थ प्रेम करती
है।
(ii) हिरोशिमा की घटना को विज्ञान का भयानकतम दुरुपयोग इसलिए कहा जाता है क्योंकि यहाँ
विज्ञान ने विध्वसंक की भूमिका निभाई थी। विज्ञान को निर्माण करने वाले के रूप में जितना
सशक्त माना जा सकता है उससे भी विकराल रूप उसका हिरोशिमा में दृष्टिगत हुआ जब वह
विनाशकारी बना। यह मानव द्वारा उसका दुरुपयोग ही था।
(iii)प्राकृ तिक सौंदर्य के अलौकिक आनंद में डू बी लेखिका मौन भाव से शांत हो, किसी ऋषि की भाँति
सारे परिदृश्य को अपने भीतर भर लेना चाहती थी। वह कभी आसमान छू ते पर्वतों के शिखर
देखती तो कभी ऊपर से दू ध की धार की तरह झर-झर गिरते प्रपातों को, तो कभी नीचे चिकने-
चिकने गुलाबी पत्थरों के बीच इठला-इठला कर बहती चॉदी की तरह कौंध मारती बनी-ठनी
तिस्ता नदी को, नदी का सौंदर्य पराकाष्ठा पर था। इतनी खूबसूरत नदी लेखिका ने पहली बार देखी
थी वह इसी कारण रोमांचित हो चिड़िया के पंखों की तरह हल्की थी। शिखरों के भी शिखर से
गिरता फे न उगलता झरना ‘सेवने सिस्टर्स वाटर फॉल' मन को आल्हादित कर रहा था। लेखिका ने
जैसे ही झरने की बहती जलधारा में पाँव डु बोया वह भीतर तक भीग गई और उसका मन
काव्यमय हो उठा। जीवन की अनंतता का प्रतीक वह झरना जीवन की शक्ति का अहसास दिला
रहा था। सामने उठती धुंध तथा ऊपर मंडराते बादल लेखिका को और अधिक सम्मोहित कर रहे
थे। नीचे बिखरे भारी भरकम पत्थरों पर बैठ झरने के संगीत के साथ ही आत्मा का संगीत सुनने
लगी । पर्वतीय स्थलों का अनंत सौंदर्य का ऐसा अद्भुत और काव्यात्मक सौंदर्य लेखिका ने अपनी
आंखों से निहारा। लेखिका ने कटाओ पहुँचकर बर्फ से ढूँ कै पहाड़ देखे जिन पर साबुन के झाग
की तरह सभी ओर बर्फ गिरी हुई थी। पहाड़ चाँदी की तरह चमक रहे थे। कहीं पर पहाड़ चटक
हरे रं ग का मोटा कालीन लपेटे हुए तो कहीं हल्का पीलापन लिए हुए प्रतीत होता है । वहां फू लों से
भरी घाटियां है ।

खंड घ - रचनात्मक लेखन

12. निम्नलिखित में से किसी एक विषय पर लगभग 120 शब्दों में अनुच्छे द लिखिये:
(i) स्वच्छ भारत अभियान एक राष्ट्रीय स्वच्छता मुहिम है, जो भारत सरकार द्वारा स्थापित किया गया
है। यह एक बड़ा आंदोलन है, जिसके तहत भारत को पूर्णतः स्वच्छ बनाना है। इसमें स्वस्थ और
सुखी जीवन के लिए महात्मा गाँधी के भारत के सपने को आगे बढ़ाया गया है। इस मिशन को 2
अक्टू बर, 2014 को बापू के 145वें जन्म दिवस के शुभ अवसर पर आरम्भ किया गया और 2
अक्टू बर 2019; बापू के 150वें जन्म दिवस तक पूरा करने का लक्ष्य रखा गया था। स्वच्छ भारत
का सपना महात्मा गाँधी के द्वारा देखा गया था जिसके संदर्भ में गाँधीजी ने कहा था कि "स्वच्छता
स्वतंत्रता से ज्यादा जरूरी है।" स्वच्छ भारत अभियान एक राष्ट्र व्यापी सफाई अभियान के रूप में
प्रधानमंत्री श्री नरें द्र मोदी द्वारा शुरू की गई मुहिम है। यह अभियान स्वच्छ भारत की कल्पना की
 दृष्टि से लागू किया गया है। भारत को एक स्वच्छ देश बनाना महात्मा गाँधी का सपना था। इस
मिशन का उद्देश्य सफाई व्यवस्था की समस्या का समाधान निकालना, साथ ही सभी को स्वच्छता
की सुविधा के निर्माण द्वारा पूरे भारत में बेहतर मल प्रबंधन करना है। इस उद्देश्य की प्राप्ति तक
भारत में इस मिशन की कार्यवाही निरं तर चलती रहनी चाहिए। भौतिक, मानसिक, सामाजिक
और बौद्धिक कल्याण के लिए भारत के लोगों में इसका एहसास होना बहुत आवश्यक है। यह
सही मायनों में भारत की सामाजिक स्थिति को बढ़ावा देने के लिए है, जो हर तरफ स्वच्छता लाने
से शुरू किया जा सकता है। नगर निगम के कचरे का पुनर्चक्रण और दुबारा इस्तेमाल, सुरक्षित
समापन, वैज्ञानिक तरीके से मल प्रबंधन को लागू करना मुख्य उद्देश्य हैं। खुद के स्वास्थ्य के प्रति
भारत के लोगों की सोच और स्वभाव में परिवर्तन लाना और स्वास्थ्यकर साफ-सफाई की
प्रक्रियाओं का पालन करना आवश्यक है।
(ii) आत्मनिर्भरता का अर्थ है-स्वयं पर निर्भर होना। अपनी शक्तियों के बल पर व्यक्ति सदा स्वतन्त्र
तथा सुखी जीवन जीता है। ईश्वर भी उसी की सहायता करता है, जो अपनी सहायता अर्थात् अपना
कार्य स्वयं करते हैं। इसके विपरीत जिन लोगों को दू सरों का आश्रय लेने की आदत पड़ जाती है,
वे उन लोगों और आदतों के गुलाम बन जाते हैं। उनके भीतर सोई हुई शक्तियाँ मर जाती हैं।
उनका आत्मविश्वास घटने लगता है। संकट के क्षण में ऐसे पराधीन व्यक्ति झट से घुटने टेकने को
विवश हो जाते हैं। जिन्हें छड़ी से चलने का अभ्यास हो जाता है, उनकी टाँगों की शक्ति कम होने
लगती है। इसलिए अन्य लोगों की बैसाखियों को छोड़कर अपने ही बल-बूते पैर मजबूत करने
चाहिए, क्योंकि संकट के क्षण में बैसाखियाँ काम नहीं आती। वहाँ अपनी शक्तियाँ, अपना रुधिर
काम आता है। आत्मनिर्भर व्यक्ति ही नये-नये कार्य सम्पन्न करने की हिम्मत कर सकता है। वह
विश्वासपूर्वक अपना तथा समाज का भला कर सकता है। वही स्वयं को स्वतन्त्र अनुभव करता है
तथा गौरव से जी सकता है। आत्मनिर्भर व्यक्ति ही स्वाभिमान से जी पाता है। जब तक हम दू सरों
के सहारे पर टिके हैं तब तक हमें सम्मान नहीं मिल सकता।
(iii)‘लोकतंत्र से तात्पर्य' जनता के तंत्र' यानी जनता के शासन से है। लोकतंत्र एक ऐसी शासन प्रणाली
है, जिसमें अप्रत्यक्ष या प्रत्यक्ष रूप से जनता शासन करती है। जब जनता अप्रत्यक्ष रूप से शासन
करती है, तो वह चुनाव के माध्यम से अपना प्रतिनिधि चुनती है, जो जनता के नाम पर जनता के
लिए शासन करता है। एक निश्चित अंतराल पर चुनाव का निरं तर संपन्न होना आवश्यक है ताकि
जनता अपने प्रतिनिधि के कार्यों का समय-समय पर मूल्यांकन कर सके । चूंकि जनता के
प्रतिनिधि ही सामान्यतया शासन करते हैं। अतः उन्हें निरं कु श बनने से रोकने के लिए समय-समय
पर चुनाव होने आवश्यक हैं। जनता सही प्रतिनिधि का चुनाव करके लोकतंत्र का निर्माण एवं रक्षा
करती है। लोकतंत्र में वास्तविक संप्रभुता लोगों यानी जनता के पास ही होती है। अतः जनसामान्य
के लिए आवश्यक है कि वह निष्पक्ष होकर लोकतंत्र की कसौटी पर खरा उतरने वाले लोगों का ही
अपने प्रतिनिधि के रूप में चयन करें , जो न के वल बेहतर शासन-प्रबंध करने में सक्षम हों, बल्कि
लोकतंत्र को सुदृढ़ करने में अपना महत्त्वपूर्ण योगदान भी दें, क्योंकि सही प्रतिनिधि के चुनाव से
ही लोकतंत्र की रक्षा संभव है।

13. सेवा में,

श्रीमान संपादक महोदय,
नया सवेरा, रायपुर (छ.ग.)।
विषय- यातायात-जाम से छु टकारा पाने के सुझाव हेतु पत्र।
महाशय,
मेरा नाम आसिफ़ है। मैं रायपुर (छ.ग.) का रहने वाला हूँ। सादर निवेदन यह है कि इन दिनों रायपुर
में सड़क दुर्घटनाओं की अधिकता हो गई है। वाहन चालक यातायात के नियमों का ख़ूब उल्लंघन
कर रहे हैं। बिना हैलमेट के स्कू टर चलाना, दो के स्थान पर चार-चार लोगों को बिठाना, लाल बत्ती
होते हुए भी नहीं रुकना इत्यादि घटनाओं के बावजूद भी यातायात पुलिस मूकदर्शक बनी रहती है।
मैं एक ज़िम्मेदार नागरिक का फ़र्ज़ निभाते हुए आपके लोकप्रिय समाचार-पत्र के माध्यम से
यातायात-जाम से छु टकारा पाने के कु छ सुझाव देना चाहता हूं।
मेरा मानना है कि सतर्क ता ज़रूरी है। बिना स्वार्थ के चालान काटे जाएँ , प्यार वह सख्ती दोनों से
काम लिया जा सकता है। यदि पुलिस प्रशासन चाहे तो यह समस्या जल्द ही दू र हो सकती है। यदि
विभाग में पुलिस कर्मियों की कमी है, तो कॉलेज के युवाओं को अपने साथ जोड़ा जा सकता है।
इससे लोगों पर प्रभाव भी पड़ेगा और युवाओं में सही राह पर चलने का जोश भी आएगा। ‘यातायात
जागरूकता सप्ताह’ शुरू करने से भी इस दिशा में बहुत बदलाव आ सकता है। ऐसा करने से लोग
यातायात के नियमों से परिचित हो सकें गे।
अतः मुझे विश्वास है कि आप अपने समाचार पत्र में मेरे सुझाव रूपी पत्र को प्रकाशित कर लोगों का
ध्यान यातायात नियमों की तरफ़ खींचने का उल्लेखनीय व सराहनीय काम करें गे। ताकि यातायात
संबंधी दुर्घटनाओं से काफ़ी हद तक बचा जा सके । इस कार्य हेतु मैं सदा आपका आभारी रहूंगा।
सधन्यवाद!
भवदीय
आसिफ़
रायपुर (छ.ग.)
5 जून, 2024
अथवा
गोविन्द छात्रावास,
गौतम नगर, दिल्ली।
27 फरवरी, 2019
पूज्या माता जी,
सादर चरणस्पर्श।
आपका भेजा पत्र मिला। पढ़कर सब समाचार पता चला।
माँ, आपके ही मार्ग निर्देशन में गत वर्ष मैंने परीक्षा की तैयारी की थी और प्रथम स्थान प्राप्त किया।
अच्छा परीक्षा परिणाम लाने के लिए मुझे विद्यालय के वार्षिकोत्सव पर सम्मानित एवं पुरस्कृ त करने
का निर्णय विद्यालय द्वारा लिया गया है। मैं चाहता हूँ कि इस अवसर पर आप भी वार्षिकोत्सव में
उपस्थित रहो। इसी संबंध में सूचित करते हुए हर्ष हो रहा है कि मेरे विद्यालय का वार्षिकोत्सव 15
मार्च को मनाया जाएगा। इस कार्यक्रम में उपशिक्षा निदेशक महोदय मुख्य अतिथि के रूप में
उपस्थित रहेंगे। माँ, मैं चाहता हूँ कि यह पुरस्कार तुम्हारी आँखों के सामने ग्रहण करूँ । इस अवसर
पर पुरस्कार के साथ-साथ मुझे आपके पावन आशीर्वाद की आवश्यकता है। तुम्हारे हाथों का प्यार
 भरा स्पर्श पाकर मैं स्वयं को धन्य महसूस करता हूँ। आप अपने आने की सूचना पत्र में लिखना,
ताकि मैं आपको स्टेशन पर लेने आ सकूँ । मैं आपके आने की बेचैनी से प्रतीक्षा करूं गा। शेष सब
ठीक है।
पूज्य पिता जी को चरण स्पर्श कहना।
आपका प्रिय पुत्र,
राहुल
14. प्रति,
प्रबंधक
सुविधा इलेक्ट्रॉनिक्स प्रा० लिमिटेड
जालधर पंजाब।
विषय- मार्के टिंग एक्जक्यूटिव पद के लिए आवेदन-पत्र।
महोदय,
चंडीगढ़ से प्रकाशित दिनांक 05 मई, 20xx के पंजाब के सरी समाचार-पत्र से ज्ञात हुआ कि सुविधा
इलेक्ट्रॉनिक्स को कु छ मार्के टिंग एक्जक्यूटिव की आवश्यकता है स्वयं को इस पद के योग्य समझते
हुए मैं अपना आवेदन-पत्र प्रेषित कर रहा हूँ। मेरा संक्षिप्त विवरण इस प्रकार है-
नाम - गौरव सैनी
पिता का नाम - श्री सौरभ सिंह सैनी
जन्मतिथि - 10 जुलाई, 1992
पता - बी/25, राजा गार्डन, दिल्ली।
शैक्षणिक योग्यताएँ -
दसवीं कक्षा सी०बी०एस०ई० 2006 62%
बारहवीं कक्षा सी०बी०एस०ई० 2008 73%
बी.बी.ए. पंजाब टेक्नीकल विश्वविद्यालय 2011 70%
एम.बी.ए. पंजाब विश्वविद्यालय 2013 73%
अनुभव- फे ना डिटर्जेंट कं पनी में एक वर्ष का अनुभव।
आशा है कि आप सेवा का अवसर प्रदान कर कृ तार्थ करें गे।
धन्यवाद
गौरव सैनी
हस्ताक्षर ......
संलग्न- शैक्षणिक तथा प्रशिक्षण संबंधी प्रपत्रों की छाया प्रति।
अथवा
From: [email protected]
To: [email protected]
विषय - पार्सल न पहुँचने हेतु शिकायत।
महोदय,
मेरा नाम मिलिंद है और मैं कोल्हापुर, महाराष्ट्र का निवासी हूँ। मेरे लिए दिल्ली से एक पार्सल आपकी
 कं पनी के माध्यम से भेजा था, लेकिन 25 दिनों से अधिक का समय हो गया है और मुझे अभी तक
पार्सल नहीं मिला है।
मैं बहुत निराश हूँ क्योंकि इस समय परिस्थिति काफी बदल चुकी है और मेरे लिए पार्सल की सामग्री
आवश्यक है। मैं आपसे निवेदन करता हूँ कि आप शीघ्रता से इस मामले का समाधान करें और मुझे
मेरा पार्सल जल्द से जल्द पहुँचाएँ ।
धन्यवाद,
मिलिंद
ठं डा मतलब-------------? कोका कोला

कोका कोला पीजिए

जिन्दगी का आनन्द लीजिए।
"बच्चों, जवान व बूढ़ों को भाये।
15. गर्मी भगायें।"
अथवा
बधाई संदेश
दिनांकः 3/XX/20XX
समय: प्रातः 9 बजे
प्रिय मित्र
वृक्षों पर सजती नए पत्तों की बहार, हरियाली से महकता प्रकृ ति का व्यवहार ऐसा सजता है गुड़ी का
त्यौहार, मौसम ही कर देता नववर्ष का सत्कार गुड़ी पड़वा के इस पवन अवसर पर तुम्हें और
तुम्हारे पूरे परिवार को मेरी तरफ से ढे र सारी बधाई। मैं कामना करता हूँ कि नववर्ष का नया सूरज
तुम्हारे जीवन में नए रं ग और बहार लेकर आए।
तुम्हारा मित्र
रोहन
 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 2
Hindi A (002)
Class X (2024-25)

निर्धारित समय: 3 hours अधिकतम अंक: 80

सामान्य निर्देश:
निम्नलिखित निर्देशों को बहुत सावधानी से पढ़िए और उनका सख्ती से अनुपालन कीजिए :
- इस प्रश्नपत्र में कु ल 15 प्रश्न हैं। सभी प्रश्न अनिवार्य हैं।
- इस प्रश्नपत्र में कु ल चार खंड हैं- क, ख, ग, घ।
- खंड-क में कु ल 2 प्रश्न हैं, जिनमें उपप्रश्नों की संख्या 10 है।
- खंड-ख में कु ल 4 प्रश्न हैं, जिनमें उपप्रश्नों की संख्या 20 है। दिए गए निर्देशों का पालन करते
हुए 16 उपप्रश्नों के उत्तर देना अनिवार्य है ।
- खंड-ग में कु ल 5 प्रश्न हैं, जिनमें उपप्रश्नों की संख्या 20 है।
- खंड-घ में कु ल 4 प्रश्न हैं, सभी प्रश्नों के साथ उनके विकल्प भी दिए गए हैं।
- प्रश्नों के उत्तर दिए गए निर्देशों का पालन करते हुए लिखिए ।
खंड क - अपठित बोध
1. निम्नलिखित गद्यांशों को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए- [7]
अनुशासन के अभाव में समाज में अराजकता और अशांति का साम्राज्य होता है। वन्य पशुओं
में अनुशासन का कोई महत्त्व नहीं है, इसी कारण उनका जीवन असुरक्षित, आतंकित एवं
अव्यवस्थित रहता है। सभ्यता और संस्कृ ति के विकास के साथ-साथ जीवन में अनुशासन का
महत्त्व भी बढ़ता गया। आज के वैज्ञानिक युग में तो अनुशासन के बिना मनुष्य का कार्य भी
नहीं चल सकता। कु छ व्यक्ति सोचते हैं कि अब मानव, सभ्य और शिक्षित हो गया है, उस पर
किसी भी प्रकार के नियमों का बंधन नहीं होना चाहिए। वह स्वतंत्र रूप से जो भी करे , उसे
करने देना चाहिए, लेकिन यदि व्यक्ति को यह अधिकार दे दिया जाए तो वन्य जीवन जैसी
अव्यवस्था आ जाएगी। मानव, मानव ही है, देवता नहीं। उसमें सुप्रवृत्तियाँ और कु प्रवृत्तियाँ
दोनों ही होती हैं। मानव सभ्य तभी तक रहता है जब तक वह अपनी सुप्रवृत्तियों की आज्ञा के
अनुसार कार्य करे । इसलिए मानव के पूर्ण विकास के लिए कु छ बंधनों और नियमों का होना
आवश्यक है।
1. मानव कब सभ्य कहा जा सकता है? (1)
(क) जब वह अपनी सुप्रवृत्तियों के अनुसार कार्य करे
(ख) जब वह अपनी मर्ज़ी के अनुसार कार्य करे
(ग) जब वह अपने लिए कार्य करे
(घ) जब वह अपनी सुविधा के अनुसार कार्य करे
2. अनुशासन के अभाव में समाज की क्या स्थिति होगी? (1)
(क) समाज में शांति की स्थिति उत्पन्न हो जाएगी
 (ख) समाज में जागरूकता उत्पन्न हो जाएगी
(ग) समाज में अराजकता और अशांति की स्थिति उत्पन्न हो जाएगी
(घ) समाज तेज़ी से उन्नति करे गा
3. मानव में निहित प्रवृत्तियाँ कौन-कौन सी हैं? (1)
(क) लालच और बुराई
(ख) अधर्म और धर्म
(ग) आदर और अनादर
(घ) सुप्रवृत्तियाँ और कु प्रवृत्तियाँ
4. अनुशासन के अभाव में पशुओं का जीवन कै सा होता है? (2)
5. कु छ लोग अनुशासन को उचित क्यों नहीं मानते? (2)

2. निम्नलिखित काव्यांशों को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए- [7]

मधुर याद बचपन तेरी
गया, ले गया, तू जीवन की,
सबसे मस्त खुशी मेरी।
चिंता रहित खेलना खाना,
फिर वह फिरना निर्भय स्वच्छं द,
कै से भूला जा सकता है,
बचपन का अतुलित आनंद।
ना और मचल जाना भी,
क्या आनंद दिखलाते थे,
बड़े-बड़े मोती-से आँसू,
जयमाला पहनाते थे।
मैं रोई, माँ काम छोड़कर,
आई, मुझको उठा लिया,
झाड़-पोंछकर चूम-घूमकर,
गीले गालों को सुखा दिया।
आ जा बचपन ! एक बार फिर
दे दे अपनी निर्मल शांति,
व्याकु ल व्यथा मिटाने वाली,
वह अपनी प्राकृ त विश्रांति।
वह भोली-सी मधुर सरलता।
वह प्यारा जीवन निष्पाप,
क्या फिर आकर मिटा सके गा,
तू मेरे मन का संताप?
i. जयमाला कौन पहनाते है? (1)
(क) भोली-सी मधुर सरलता
 (ख) सहेलियाँ
(ग) बड़े-बड़े मोती के समान आँसू
(घ) माँ
ii. कवयित्री क्या नहीं भूल पा रही है? (1)
(क) अपने बचपन के दिनों को
(ख) अपनी माँ के प्यार को
(ग) अपनी सहेलियों को
(घ) जयमाला को
iii. कवयित्री क्या कामना कर रही है? (1)
(क) कोई उसे जयमाला पहना दे
(ख) भोली-सी मधुर सरलता मिल जाये
(ग) माँ उसे गोद में उठा ले
(घ) उसका बचपन एक बार पुनः लौट कर आ जाए
iv. बचपन की क्या - क्या विशेषताएँ बताई गई हैं ? (2)
v. रोती हुई कवयित्री को माँ कै से शांत कराती है? (2)

खंड ख - व्यावहारिक व्याकरण

3. निर्देशानुसार किन्हीं चार के उत्तर लिखिए: [4]
i. उसके एक इशारे पर लड़कियाँ कक्षा से बाहर निकलकर नारे लगाने लगीं। (संयुक्त वाक्य
में बदलिए)
ii. उन्होंने जेब से चाकू निकाला और खीरा काटने लगे। (सरल वाक्य में बदलिए)
iii. हालदार साहब को उधर से गुज़रते समय मूर्ति में कु छ अंतर दिखाई दिया। (मिश्र वाक्य में
बदलिए)
iv. बालगोबिन भगत जानते थे कि अब बुढ़ापा आ गया है। (आश्रित उपवाक्य छाँटकर उसका
भेद लिखिए)
v. आप चाय लेंगे या काफ़ी। (वाक्य भेद)

4. निर्देशानुसार उत्तर दीजिए- [4]

i. बुलेटिन के लिए एक नोटिस बनाइए। (भाववाच्य में बदलिए।)
ii. सत्य बोलने की प्रेरणा दी गई थी। (कर्तृवाच्य में बदलिए।)
iii. आप कर सकते हैं। (कर्मवाच्य में बदलिए।)
iv. सारे स्कू ल बन्द कर दिए जाएँ । (कर्तृवाच्य बनाइए।)
v. नेता जी ने सभा की अध्यक्षता की। (कर्मवाच्य में बदलिए।)

5. निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में से किन्हीं चार रे खांकित पदों का पद-परिचय लिखिए- (1x4=4) [4]
 i. बालगोबिन भगत की संगीत-साधना का चरम उत्कर्ष उस दिन देखा गया जब उनका बेटा
मरा।
ii. बालगोबिन भगत समूचा शरीर कीचड़ में लिथड़े, अपने खेत में धान रोप रहे हैं।
iii. बालगोबिन भगत कबीर के गीतों को गाते और उनके आदेशों पर चलते थे।
iv. सुंदर गृहणी की तो मुझे याद नहीं लेकिन उनके बेटे और पतोहू को तो मैंने देखा था।
v. वाह! भारत मैच जीत गया।

6. निम्नलिखित काव्यांशों के अलंकार भेद पहचान कर लिखिए- (किन्हीं चार) [4]

i. देख लो साके त नगरी है यही,
स्वर्ग से मिलने गगन जा रही है।
ii. कल्पना सी अतिशय कोमल।
iii. जनम सिन्धु विष बन्धु पुनि, दीन मलिन सकलंक सिय मुख समता पावकिमि चन्द्र बापुरो
रं क।।
iv. "सखि सोहत गोपाल के , उर गुंजन की माल।
बाहर लसत मनो पिये, दावानल की ज्वाल।।"
v. दुख है जीवन-तरु के मूल।

खंड ग - गद्य खंड (पाठ्यपुस्तक)

7. अनुच्छे द को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिये: [5]
खेती बारी करते, परिवार रखते भी, बालगोबिन भगत साधु थे-साधु की सब परिभाषाओं में
खरे उतरने वाले। कबीर को 'साहब' मानते थे, उन्हीं के गीतों को गाते, उन्हीं के आदेशों पर
चलते। कभी झूठ नहीं बोलते, खरा व्यवहार रखते। किसी से भी दो टू क बात करने में संकोच
नहीं करते, न किसी से खामखा झगड़ा मोले लेते। किसी की चीज नहीं छू ते, न बिना पूछे
व्यवहार में लाते। इस नियम को कभी-कभी इतनी बारीकी तक ले जाते कि लोगों को कु तूहल
होता! कभी वह दू सरे के खेत में शोच के लिए भी नहीं बैठते! वह गृहस्थ थे; लेकिन उनकी
सब चीज 'साहब' की थी। जो कु छ खेत में पैदा होता, सिर पर लादकर पहले उसे साहब के
दरबार में ले जाते-जो उनके घर से चार कोस दू री पर था-एक कबीरपंथी मठ से मतलब! वह
दरबार में 'भेंट' रूप रख लिया जाकर 'प्रसाद' रूप में जो उन्हें मिलता, उसे घर लाते और
उसी से गुज़र चलाते!

(i) लेखक के अनुसार बालगोबिन भगत साधु क्यों थे?

क) वे किसी से लड़ते नहीं थे ख) वे साधु की तरह दिखते थे

ग) वे मोह-माया से दू र थे घ) वे सच्चे साधुओं की तरह उत्तम

आचार-विचार रखते थे

(ii) बालगोबिन भगत का कौन-सा कार्य-व्यवहार लोगों के आश्चर्य का विषय था?

 क) गीत गाते रहना ख) किसी से झगड़ा न करना

ग) जीवन के सिद्धांतों और आदर्शों घ) अपना काम स्वयं करना

का गहराई से अपने आचरण में
पालन करना

(iii) बालगोबिन भगत कबीर के ही आदर्शों पर चलते थे, क्योंकि

क) कबीर उनके गाँव के मुखिया थे ख) वे कबीर की विचारधारा से

प्रभावित थे

ग) कबीर उनके मित्र थे घ) कबीर भगवान का रूप थे

(iv) बालगोबिन भगत के खेत में जो कु छ पैदा होता, उसे वे सर्वप्रथम किसे भेंट कर देते?

क) कबीरपंथी मठ में ख) घर में

ग) गरीबों में घ) मंदिर में

(v) वह गृहस्थ थे; लेकिन उनकी सब चीज साहब की थी। यहाँ 'साहब' से क्या आशय है?

क) गुरु से ख) भगवान से

ग) मुखिया से घ) कबीर से

8. निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं तीन प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 25-30 शब्दों में दीजिए: [6]

(i) नेताजी का चश्मा पाठ के आधार पर लिखिए कि - [2]

हालदार साहब का कस्बे के नागरिकों का कौन-सा प्रयास सराहनीय लगा और क्यों?

(ii) पाठ के आधार पर मन्नू भंडारी की माँ के स्वभाव की विशेषताएँ लिखिए। [2]

(iii) बिना कथ्य के कहानी लिखना संभव नहीं है लखनवी अंदाज़ पाठ के आधार पर व्यंग्य [2]
स्पष्ट कीजिए।

(iv) संस्कृ ति पाठ के अनुसार लेखक संस्कृ त व्यक्ति की संतान को संस्कृ त व्यक्ति क्यों नहीं [2]
मानता है?

खंड ग - काव्य खंड (पाठ्यपुस्तक)

9. अनुच्छे द को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिये: [5]
मिला कहाँ वह सुख जिसका मैं स्वप्न देखकर जाग गया।
आलिंगन में आते-आते मुसक्या कर जो भाग गया।
जिसके अरुण-कपोलों की मतवाली सुंदर छाया में।
अनुरागिनि उषा लेती थी निज सुहाग मधुमाया में।
उसकी स्मृति पाथेय बनी है थके पथिक की पंथा की।
 (i) कवि जिस सुख की कल्पना कर रहा था, वह कै सा है?

क) क्षणिक ख) दीर्घ

ग) स्मृति घ) मधुमाया

(ii) कवि के सुखपूर्वक जीवन जीने की कल्पना क्यों समाप्त हो गई?

क) क्योंकि उसका जीव छोटा-सा ख) क्योंकि उसकी प्रेयसी की मृत्यु

था हो गई थी

ग) क्योंकि वह जीवन जीना नहीं घ) क्योंकि उसे सोना था

चाहता था

(iii) कवि ने पद्यांश में किसके सौन्दर्य का वर्णन किया है?

क) मित्रों के ख) प्रेयसी के

ग) जीवन के घ) स्वयं के

(iv) कवि के लिए उसकी प्रेयसी की स्मृति क्यों महत्वपूर्ण है?

क) क्योंकि वह अब दू र जा चुकी है ख) क्योंकि वह उसके जीवन जीने

का एकमात्र सहारा है

ग) क्योंकि वह उन्हें बांटना चाहता है घ) क्योंकि वह उसे भुलाना नहीं

चाहता

(v) पद्यांश में पथिक शब्द का प्रयोग किसके लिए हुआ है?

क) कवि के लिए ख) कवि के सम्बंधियों के लिए

ग) कवि के मित्रों के लिए घ) कवि की प्रेयसी के लिए

10. निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं तीन प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 25-30 शब्दों में दीजिए: [6]

(i) उत्साह कविता में कवि ने धाराधर किसे और क्यों कहा है? [2]

(ii) यह दंतुरित मुसकान कविता में 'बाँस और बबूल' किसके प्रतीक हैं? [2]

(iii) संगतकार की मनुष्यता उसका निर्धारित कर्तव्य ही है, न कि कोई महानता - इससे [2]
सहमत या असहमत होते हुए तर्क सहित अपने विचार व्यक्त कीजिए।

(iv) उद्धव के व्यवहार की तुलना किस-किससे की गई है? [2]

खंड ग - कृ तिका (पूरक पाठ्यपुस्तक)

11. निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 50-60 शब्दों में दीजिए: [8]
 (i) ऐसा क्यों होता है कि विपत्ति के समय बच्चा पिता के पास न जाकर माँ की शरण लेता है? [4]
सोदाहरण समझाइए।

(ii) मैं क्यों लिखता हूँ? पाठ के लेखक ने अपने लिखने का क्या कारण बताया है? [4]

(iii) “साना-साना हाथ जोडि' पाठ में प्रदू षण के कारण हिमपात में कमी पर चिंता व्यक्त की [4]
गई है। प्रदू षण के और कौन-कौन से दुष्परिणाम सामने आए हैं? हमें इसकी रोकथाम के
लिए क्या करना चाहिए?

खंड घ - रचनात्मक लेखन

12. निम्नलिखित में से किसी एक विषय पर लगभग 120 शब्दों में अनुच्छे द लिखिये: [6]

(i) बेरोज़गारी : एक समस्या विषय पर दिए गए संके त बिंदुओं के आधार पर अनुच्छे द [6]
लिखिए।
बेरोज़गारी क्या है?
समस्या क्यों?
समस्या सुलझाने के उपाय

(ii) साइबर सुरक्षा : जागरूकता ही समाधान विषय पर दिए गए संके त बिंदुओं के [6]
आधार पर अनुच्छे द लिखिए।
भूमिका, अर्थ, वर्तमान में चर्चा का कारण, जागरूकता का प्रभाव

(iii) मेरी रे गिस्तान-यात्रा विषय पर दिए गए संके त बिंदुओं के आधार पर अनुच्छे द लिखिए। [6]
संके त-बिंदु
धूल ही धूल
रात की शीतलता और सौंदर्य
तापमान एवं लोक-संस्कृ ति

13. विद्यालय से नाम काटे जाने के कारणों पर अपनी सफाई देते हुए प्रधानाचार्य को पत्र लिखकर [5]
पुनः कक्षा में बैठने की अनुमति देने के लिए प्रार्थना-पत्र लिखिए।

अथवा
आपके छोटे भाई ने आठवीं कक्षा की परीक्षा अच्छे अंकों से उत्तीर्ण की है। उसे बधाई देते हुए पत्र
लिखिए।

14. एक निजी विद्यालय में हिंदी के शिक्षक की आवश्यकता है। इस पद हेतु अपनी योग्यता का [5]
विवरण देते हुए स्ववृत सहित आवेदन पत्र लिखिए।

अथवा
 आप राजन/रजनी हैं। अपने बैंक खाते में नेट बैंकिं ग की सुविधा प्राप्त करने के लिए संबंधित
शाखा प्रबंधक को लगभग 80 शब्दों में एक ई-मेल लिखिए।

15. आप तीन कमरे वाला घर किराए पर लेना चाहते हैं। इसके लिए एक विज्ञापन लगभग 50 [4]
शब्दों में तैयार कीजिए।

अथवा
आप कु मुद/कु मुदिनी हैं। बड़े प्रयासों और प्रतीक्षा के बाद आपकी बहन का स्थानान्तरण अपने
गृह-नगर में हो गया है। इसके लिए उन्हें बधाई देते हुए लगभग 40 शब्दों में एक संदेश लिखिए।
 Solution
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 2
Hindi A (002)
Class X (2024-25)
खंड क - अपठित बोध
1. 1. (क) मानव तभी सभ्य कहा जा सकता है जब तक वह अपनी सुप्रवृत्तियों की आज्ञा के अनुसार
सबकी भलाई के लिए कार्य करें । अत: कु छ बंधनों और नियमों का पालन करके ही मानव समाज
का विकास कर सकता है।
2. (ग) अनुशासन का अर्थ होता है नियम -नीतियों का पालन करना। इसके पालन करने से मानव
जीवन उन्नति को प्राप्त करता है जबकि इसके अभाव में समाज में अराजकता और अशांति की
स्थिति उत्पन्न हो जाएगी और चारों ओर जंगलराज जैसी स्थिति उत्पन्न हो जाने से लोग असुरक्षित
और अव्यवस्थित महसूस करें गे।
3. (घ) मानव में निहित प्रवृत्तियाँ सुप्रवृत्तियाँ और कु प्रवृत्तियाँ हैं, जिनके प्रभाव से वह अच्छा आचरण
करता है और बुरा भी।
4. वन्य पशुओं में अनुशासन का कोई महत्व नहीं होता, जिसके कारण उनका जीवन असुरक्षित,
आतंकित एवं अव्यवस्थित रहता है।
5. कु छ लोगों का मानना है कि मानव के सभ्य और शिक्षित हो जाने के कारण उस पर किसी प्रकार
के नियमों का बंधन नहीं होना चाहिए। वह स्वतंत्र रूप से जो करे , उसे करने देना चाहिए।
2. i. (ग) बचपन में बड़े-बड़े मोती के समान आँसू जयमाला पहनाते हैं।
ii. (क) कवयित्री अपने बचपन के दिनों में मिले अतुलित आनंद, बड़े - बड़े मोती के आँसू का
निकलना एं व माँ के दुलार को नहीं भूल पा रही है।
iii. (घ) कवयित्री यह कामना कर रही है कि उसका बचपन एक बार पुनः लौट कर आ जाए और
फिर से वही निर्मल शांति प्राप्त हो |
iv. बचपन जीवन का सबसे मस्ती और चिंता रहित समय होता है। यह निर्भय, शांति,स्वच्छं द और
अतुलित आनंद प्रदान करने वाला समय होता है।
v. रोती हुई कवयित्री को देख माँ अपना सारा काम छोड़कर तुरन्त आती है और उसे गोद में
उठाकर चूमती है तथा बहला - फु सलाकर,लाड- प्यार कर शांत कराती है।
खंड ख - व्यावहारिक व्याकरण
3. i. उसके एक इशारे पर लड़कियाँ कक्षा से बाहर निकलीं और नारे लगाने लगीं।
ii. वे जेब से चाकू निकालकर खीरा काटने लगे।
iii. जब हालदार साहब उधर से गुजरे तो उन्हें मूर्ति में कु छ अंतर दिखाई दिया।
iv. अब बुढ़ापा आ गया है। (संज्ञा उपवाक्य)
v. सरल वाक्य
4. i. बुलेटिन के लिए एक नोटिस बनाया जाए।
ii. (उसे) सत्य बोलने को प्रेरित किया गया था।
iii. आपके द्वारा किया जा सकता है।
iv. सारे स्कू लों को बंद कर दिया जाए।
v. नेता जी द्वारा सभा की अध्यक्षता की गई।
5. i. बालगोबिन भगत की- व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा, पुल्लिंग, एकवचन, संबंध कारक।
ii. बालगोबिन भगत- व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा, पुल्लिंग, एकवचन, कर्ता कारक, 'रोप रहे हैं' क्रिया का
कर्ता।
iii. कबीर के - व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा, पुल्लिंग, एकवचन, संबंध कारक।
व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा, पुल्लिंग, एकवचन,संबंध कारक।
iv. सुंदर- गुणवाचक विशेषण, गृहिणी विशेष्य का विशेषण, स्त्रीलिंग, एकवचन।
गुणवाचक विशेषण, एकवचन, स्त्रीलिंग, विशेष्य- 'गृहिणी'।
v. भारत- संज्ञा, व्यक्तिवाचक पुल्लिग एकवचन, कर्ता कारक।
6. i. अतिशयोक्ति अलंकार
ii. उपमा अलंकार
iii. रूपक अलंकार
iv. उत्प्रेक्षा अलंकार
v. रूपक अलंकार
खंड ग - गद्य खंड (पाठ्यपुस्तक)
7. अनुच्छे द को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिये:
खेती बारी करते, परिवार रखते भी, बालगोबिन भगत साधु थे-साधु की सब परिभाषाओं में खरे
उतरने वाले। कबीर को 'साहब' मानते थे, उन्हीं के गीतों को गाते, उन्हीं के आदेशों पर चलते। कभी
झूठ नहीं बोलते, खरा व्यवहार रखते। किसी से भी दो टू क बात करने में संकोच नहीं करते, न किसी
से खामखा झगड़ा मोले लेते। किसी की चीज नहीं छू ते, न बिना पूछे व्यवहार में लाते। इस नियम को
कभी-कभी इतनी बारीकी तक ले जाते कि लोगों को कु तूहल होता! कभी वह दू सरे के खेत में शोच
के लिए भी नहीं बैठते! वह गृहस्थ थे; लेकिन उनकी सब चीज 'साहब' की थी। जो कु छ खेत में पैदा
होता, सिर पर लादकर पहले उसे साहब के दरबार में ले जाते-जो उनके घर से चार कोस दू री पर
था-एक कबीरपंथी मठ से मतलब! वह दरबार में 'भेंट' रूप रख लिया जाकर 'प्रसाद' रूप में जो उन्हें
मिलता, उसे घर लाते और उसी से गुज़र चलाते!
(i) (घ) वे सच्चे साधुओं की तरह उत्तम आचार-विचार रखते थे
व्याख्या:
वे सच्चे साधुओं की तरह उत्तम आचार-विचार रखते थे
(ii) (ग) जीवन के सिद्धांतों और आदर्शों का गहराई से अपने आचरण में पालन करना
व्याख्या:
जीवन के सिद्धांतों और आदर्शों का गहराई से अपने आचरण में पालन करना
(iii)(घ) कबीर भगवान का रूप थे
व्याख्या:
कबीर भगवान का रूप थे
(iv)(क) कबीरपंथी मठ में
व्याख्या:
कबीरपंथी मठ में
 (v) (घ) कबीर से
व्याख्या:
कबीर से

8. निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं तीन प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 25-30 शब्दों में दीजिए:
(i) हालदार साहब कस्बे के नागरिकों के प्रयास को सराहनीय तब लगा, जब उन्होंने नेताजी की मूर्ति
पर चश्मा पहनकर देशभक्ति की भावना को दिखाया। यह उन्हें समझाता है कि हालदार साहब में
भी विशेष रूप से देशप्रेम का संवेदनशील भाव था। नेताजी की मूर्ति पर चश्मा पहनकर उन्होंने
नेताजी के सम्मान में अपना समर्थन प्रकट किया और इससे कस्बे के नागरिकों का उन्हें
सराहनीय मानने लगा।
(ii) लेखिका मन्नू भंडारी की माँ का स्वभाव पिता से विपरीत था। वह धैर्यवान व सहनशक्ति से युक्त
महिला थी। पिता की हर फरमाइश को अपना कर्तव्य समझना व बच्चों की हर उचित अनुचित
माँगों को पूरा करना ही अपना फर्ज समझती थी। अशिक्षित माँ का त्याग, असहाय व मजबूरी में
लिपटा हुआ था। पति की हर ज्यादती को प्राप्य मानकार स्वीकार करती है।
(iii)हमारे मतानुसार कहानी लिखने के लिए कोई ना कोई घटना विचार और पात्र अवश्य होता है। यह
तीनों ही कहानी के अत्यावश्यक तत्व हैं। जब तक कहानीकार के मन में कोई विचार नहीं
आए,घटनाएं कहानी को आगे ना बढ़ाए तथा पात्र कथा का माध्यम न बने, तब तक कहानी
लिखना संभव नहीं है। यशपाल जी ने लखनवी अंदाज व्यंग्य यह साबित करने के लिए लिखा था
कि बिना कथ्य के भी कहानी लिखी जा सकती है। परं तु मेरे हिसाब से विचार,घटना और पात्र
कहानी के मुख्य तत्व है, जिनके बिना कहानी लिखना संभव नहीं है।
(iv)लेखक ऐसे व्यक्ति को संस्कृ त व्यक्ति मानता है, जिसकी बुद्धि ने किसी नए तथ्य के दर्शन किए हों
और सर्वथा नवीन वस्तु की खोज की हो। संस्कृ त व्यक्ति की संतान किसी नई चीज़ की खोज नहीं
करती है, उसे तो वह नई चीज़ अनायास मिल जाती है, इसलिए वह संस्कृ त व्यक्ति की संतान को
संस्कृ त नहीं मानता है।

खंड ग - काव्य खंड (पाठ्यपुस्तक)

9. अनुच्छे द को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिये:
मिला कहाँ वह सुख जिसका मैं स्वप्न देखकर जाग गया।
आलिंगन में आते-आते मुसक्या कर जो भाग गया।
जिसके अरुण-कपोलों की मतवाली सुंदर छाया में।
अनुरागिनि उषा लेती थी निज सुहाग मधुमाया में।
उसकी स्मृति पाथेय बनी है थके पथिक की पंथा की।
(i) (क) क्षणिक
व्याख्या:
क्षणिक
(ii) (ख) क्योंकि उसकी प्रेयसी की मृत्यु हो गई थी
व्याख्या:
 क्योंकि उसकी प्रेयसी की मृत्यु हो गई थी
(iii)(ख) प्रेयसी के
व्याख्या:
प्रेयसी के
(iv)(ख) क्योंकि वह उसके जीवन जीने का एकमात्र सहारा है
व्याख्या:
क्योंकि वह उसके जीवन जीने का एकमात्र सहारा है
(v) (क) कवि के लिए
व्याख्या:
कवि के लिए

10. निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं तीन प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 25-30 शब्दों में दीजिए:
(i) "उत्साह" कविता में कवि ने धाराधर को जल की धारा धारण करने के कारण कहा है। यह उपमा
उन लोगों को संबोधित करती है जो लगातार प्रयास और कार्यशीलता से परिवर्तन की धारा को
बनाए रखते हैं। धाराधर का यह रूप निरं तर बरसने और जल की धारा धारण करने के प्रतीक के
रूप में प्रस्तुत किया गया है, जो सृजनात्मकता और समर्पण का प्रतीक है।
(ii) कविता में बाँस और बबूल के पेड़ कठोर हृदय या रसहीन व्यक्तियों के प्रतीक हैं। ऐसे लोगों पर
मानवीय संवेदनाओं का कोई असर नहीं होता है। इन प्रतीकों के माध्यम से कवि कहना चाहता हैं
कि मधुर मुस्कान को देखकर कठोर से कठोर हृदय मानव भी सरस हो उठते हैं।
(iii)संगतकार की मनुष्यता उसकी महानता है क्योंकि उसके अंदर योग्यता, प्रतिभा होने के बाद भी
वह के वल अपने गुरु के सम्मान की खातिर अपनी आवाज़ को ऊँ चा नहीं उठाता। यह उसका
कर्तव्य नहीं है बल्कि उसकी मनुष्यता है। संगतकार नींव की ईंट के समान है जो गहराई में जाकर
स्वयं को भुला देता है और मुख्य गायक को आगे निकालता है।
(iv)उद्धव के व्यवहार की तुलना पानी के ऊपर तैरते हुए कमल के पत्ते से और पानी में डू बी हुई तेल
की गागर से की गई है। जो पानी पर रहते हुए भी पानी की एक बूँद भी नहीं लगने देता है।

खंड ग - कृ तिका (पूरक पाठ्यपुस्तक)

11. निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 50-60 शब्दों में दीजिए:
(i) बच्चे को हृदयस्पर्शी स्नेह की पहचान होती है। बच्चे को विपदा के समय अत्यधिक ममता और
स्नेह की आवश्यकता थी। भोलानाथ का अपने पिता से अपार स्नेह था। वह अपने समस्त कार्य
पिता के साथ करता है किं तु साँप को देखकर भयभीत होकर पिता के बुलाने के बावजूद भी वह
माँ की गोद में ही शरण लेता है। उस समय उसे जो शांति व प्रेम की छाया अपनी माँ की गोद में
जाकर मिली वह शायद उसे पिता से प्राप्त नहीं हो पाती। ऐसे में माँ उसे विश्वसनीय और आत्मीय
लगती है और माँ के आँचल में बच्चा स्वयं को सुरक्षित महसूस करता है।
(ii) लेखक 'अज्ञेय' जी ने ‘मैं क्यों लिखता हूँ? के उत्तर में कहा है कि वह अपने मन की विवशता को
पहचानते हैं। अतः वह लिखकर उससे मुक्ति पाना चाहते हैं। वह इसलिए भी लिखना चाहते हैं,
ताकि स्वयं को जान और पहचान सकें । उनके मन में जो विचारों की छटपटाहट व बेचैनी होती है।
 उससे मुक्ति पाने के लिए वे लिखना चाहते हैं। वे यह भी जानते हैं कि कई बार व्यक्ति प्रसिद्धि
पाने, धन अर्जन करने व संपादक की विवशता या दवाब के कारण भी लिखता है। पर वे स्वयं की
पहचान करके व अपने विचारों को तटस्थ रखकर सबके समक्ष प्रस्तुत करने व आत्मसंतुष्टि के
लिए लिखते हैं।
(iii)लेखिका लाचुंग नामक स्थान पर हिमपात का आनंद लेने की आशा से पहुंची थीं, किन्तु वहाँ बर्फ
को कहीं पता न था। उन्हें एक सिकि कमी युवक ने बताया कि प्रदू षण बढ़ने से स्नोफॉल (बर्फ
गिरना) में कमी आ गई है। अब बर्फ आपको कटाओ में ही मिलेगी। बढ़ते प्रदू षण के फलस्वरूप
अनेक संकट और दुष्परिणाम सामने आ रहे हैं। तापमान में वृद्धि होने से पर्वतों पर हिमपात कम
होता जा रहा है और ग्लेशियर तेजी से पिघल रहे हैं, इससे नदियों में जल की मात्रा कम होती जा
रही है। जल, वायु, भूमि सभी प्रदू षण के ज़हर से प्रभावित हो रहे हैं। पेड़ काटने से कार्बन
डाइऑक्साइड,ऑक्सीजन का संतुलन बिगड़ गया है। न पीने को शुद्ध जल है, न साँस लेने को
शुद्ध वायु । लोग अनेक बीमारियों से ग्रस्त और त्रस्त हो रहे हैं। कैं सर, टी.बी.,मधुमेह, मानसिक
तनाव और रक्तचाप में वृद्धि आदि से पीड़ित लोगों की संख्या निरं तर बढ़ती जा रही है। मौसम
चक्र बदल रहा है जिसके परिणाम स्वरूप फसलों की पैदावार में कमी आ रही है। प्राकृ तिक
आपदाओं ने जोर पकड़ रखा है जिसके कारण मनुष्य को धन जन की हानी का सामना करना पढ़
रहा है। वाहनों के बेतहाशा बढ़ते जाने से वायुमण्डल तो विषाक्त हो ही रहा है, लोग मानसिक
गड़बड़ी नींद न आना और बहरे पन के शिकार भी हो रहे हैं। वृक्षों की कटाई को रोकना चाहिए।
साथ ही अधिकाधिक वृक्षारोपण करना चाहिए तथा प्राकृ तिक स्थलों पर गंदगी नहीं फै लानी
चाहिए। कम से कम वाहनों का प्रयोग करना चाहिए जिससे प्रदू षण कम बढ़े गा । नदियां आदि में
गंदे नाले अपशिष्ट पदार्थों को बहाना बंद करवाएं । प्लास्टिक का भी कम से कम प्रयोग करके हम
अपनी प्रकृ ति को सुरक्षित रख सकते हैं। जागरूकता पैदा कर लोगों को पर्वतीय स्थलों को स्वच्छ
बनाए रखने के लिए प्रेरित करना चाहिए तथा नवयुवकों के द्वारा जनजागरण के कार्यक्रम चलाए
जाने चाहिए।

खंड घ - रचनात्मक लेखन

12. निम्नलिखित में से किसी एक विषय पर लगभग 120 शब्दों में अनुच्छे द लिखिये:
(i) बेरोज़गारी : एक समस्या
बेरोज़गारी एक ऐसी समस्या है जो आजकल कई देशों में एक महत्वपूर्ण चुनौती के रूप में उभर
रही है। इसका अर्थ होता है कि कु छ लोग जो शादी शुदा होते हैं, पढ़े -लिखे होते हैं और कौशल
रखते हैं, भी काम नहीं पा रहे हैं।
इस समस्या के पीछे कई कारण हो सकते हैं। पहला कारण है विपणी की बदलती धारा।
आधुनिक तकनीक और व्यवासायिक परिवर्तन के कारण, कई व्यापार और उद्योग अपने
प्राथमिकताओं को बदल रहे हैं, जिससे कु छ क्षेत्रों में नौकरियों की कमी हो रही है। दू सरा कारण
है शिक्षा के योगदान में कमी। कई लोगों को उच्च शिक्षा की कमी के कारण उनकी कौशल और
योग्यता नहीं होती, जिससे वे आधिकारिक क्षेत्र में रोज़गार नहीं पा सकते।
बेरोज़गारी समस्या को सुलझाने के लिए कई उपाय हो सकते हैं। पहला उपाय है उद्यमिता और
उद्योग का समर्थन करना। सरकारें उद्योगों के निवेश को बढ़ाने और नौकरियों को बनाने के लिए
 नीतियों को संशोधित कर सकती हैं। दू सरा उपाय है शिक्षा के प्रसार का समर्थन करना, जिससे
लोग अधिक योग्य बन सकें और विभिन्न क्षेत्रों में रोज़गार पा सकें ।
समस्या के समाधान में सरकार, सामाजिक संगठन, और व्यवसायिक समुदायों का सहयोग कर
सकते हैं। बेरोज़गारी को समझना, उसके कारणों का पता लगाना, और समाधान तैयार करना
सभी के साथ मिलकर इस समस्या का समाधान करने के लिए महत्वपूर्ण है।
(ii) साइबर सुरक्षा आज के डिजिटल युग में अत्यंत महत्वपूर्ण हो गई है। यह क्षेत्र इंटरनेट पर सुरक्षा
की गारं टी देने और डेटा की सुरक्षा सुनिश्चित करने का प्रयास करता है। वर्तमान में साइबर हमले,
जैसे कि हैकिं ग और फ़िशिंग, की बढ़ती घटनाओं ने इसे चर्चा का प्रमुख कारण बना दिया है। ऐसे
में जागरूकता ही समाधान की भूमिका निभाती है। जब लोग अपनी ऑनलाइन गतिविधियों में
सतर्क रहते हैं, जैसे कि सुरक्षित पासवर्ड का उपयोग और अनजान लिंक से बचाव, तो साइबर
हमलों के खतरे को कम किया जा सकता है। जागरूकता न के वल व्यक्तिगत सुरक्षा को बढ़ाती
है, बल्कि समाज में साइबर अपराध के खिलाफ एक मजबूत प्रतिरोधी ढांचा भी तैयार करती है।
इसलिए, साइबर सुरक्षा में जागरूकता को बढ़ावा देना अत्यंत आवश्यक है।
(iii)रे गिस्तान यात्रा एक अद्भुत अनुभव था। चारों ओर बस धूल ही धूल नजर आ रही थी। रे त के टीले
सूरज की किरणों में चमक रहे थे। दिन का तापमान इतना अधिक था कि चलना मुश्किल हो रहा
था। लेकिन रात की शीतलता ने सब कु छ बदल दिया। चांदनी रात में रे गिस्तान का नज़ारा
बिलकु ल अलग लग रहा था। तारों की चमक ने आसमान को जगमगा दिया था।
रे गिस्तान की लोक संस्कृ ति भी काफी दिलचस्प थी। वहां के लोगों ने हमें अपनी रीति-रिवाजों और
परं पराओं से परिचित कराया। उन्होंने हमें रे गिस्तान में रहने के तरीके और चुनौतियों के बारे में
बताया। इस यात्रा ने मुझे प्रकृ ति की शक्ति और मानव की अनुकू लन क्षमता के बारे में बहुत कु छ
सिखाया।

13. प्रधानाचार्य महोदय,

राजकीय वरिष्ठ माध्यमिक बाल विद्यालय नं. 2,
पालम कॉलोनी, दिल्ली -110045
27 अगस्त, 2024
विषय: विद्यालय से नाम काटे जाने के कारणों पर सफाई और पुनः कक्षा में बैठने की
अनुमति की प्रार्थना
महोदय/महोदया,
सविनय निवेदन है कि मैं तुषार सिंह, नौवीं कक्षा का विद्यार्थी, आपके ध्यान में कु छ महत्वपूर्ण बातें
लाना चाहता हूँ। हाल ही में मेरे नाम को विद्यालय की रजिस्टर से काटे जाने की सूचना मिली है, और
मैं इस विषय पर अपनी स्थिति स्पष्ट करना चाहता हूँ।
मुझे इस बारे में जानकारी मिली कि मेरा नाम विद्यालय से काटा गया है, जो कि मेरे द्वारा किसी
कारणवश फीस का भुगतान नहीं करने या अन्य प्रशासनिक मुद्दों के कारण हुआ है। मैं इस संदर्भ में
आपकी जानकारी में लाना चाहता हूँ कि निम्नलिखित कारणों से मेरी स्थिति इस प्रकार बनी:
वित्तीय कठिनाइयाँ: मेरे परिवार को हाल ही में वित्तीय समस्याओं का सामना करना पड़ा, जिसके
कारण मैं समय पर फीस का भुगतान नहीं कर सका।
 स्वास्थ्य संबंधित समस्याएँ : हाल ही में मेरी तबियत खराब हो गई थी, जिसके कारण मैं विद्यालय
की कु छ महत्वपूर्ण प्रक्रियाओं में समय पर भाग नहीं ले सका। मैं डॉक्टरी प्रमाणपत्र के साथ इसे
स्पष्ट कर सकता हूँ।
मैं आपके समक्ष यह प्रार्थना करता हूँ कि आप मेरी स्थिति पर विचार करें और मेरी कक्षा में पुनः
शामिल होने की अनुमति प्रदान करें । मैं सुनिश्चित करता हूँ कि भविष्य में ऐसी समस्याओं से बचने के
लिए मैं सभी आवश्यक कदम उठाऊँ गा और सभी शुल्क समय पर चुकाऊँ गा।
आपकी दया और समझ के लिए मैं आपका आभारी रहूँगा। कृ पया मेरी प्रार्थना पर सकारात्मक
विचार करें और मुझे पुनः कक्षा में बैठने का अवसर प्रदान करें ।
धन्यवाद।
आपका आज्ञाकारी शिष्य,
तुषार सिंह
कक्षा- 9 'अ'
अनु . - 12
अथवा
परीक्षा भवन,
नई दिल्ली।
28 फरवरी, 2019
प्रिय अनुज,
सस्नेह आशीष।
कल शाम को पिता जी का भेजा पत्र मिला। घर पर सभी सकु शल हैं, यह जानकर बहुत खुशी हुई।
तुमने जोनल स्तर पर प्रथम स्थान प्राप्त किया है, यह पढ़कर मैं खुशी से उछल पड़ा।
अनुज, तुम्हारा शारीरिक कद छोटा अवश्य है पर तुम्हारी यह सफलता काफी बड़ी है। जोनल स्तर
पर अनेक विद्यालयों के बहुत से छात्रों के बीच 94% अंक प्राप्त कर प्रथम आना सचमुच बड़ी
उपलब्धि है। इस सफलता से तुम बहुत खुश हुए होगे, मैं भी बहुत खुश हुआ हूँ। यह सब ईश्वर की
कृ पा, माता-पिता का आशीर्वाद और तुम्हारी कड़ी मेहनत का फल है। मेहनत का फल सुखदायी
होता है, इससे बड़ा प्रमाण और क्या हो सकता है? मैं इस सफलता पर बार-बार बधाई देता हूँ। मेरी
कामना है कि सफलता के नित नए सोपान चढ़ो। अब तो तुमसे माता-पिता की अपेक्षाएँ भी बढ़ गई
होंगी, इसलिए आगे भी ऐसा ही परिश्रम करना और विद्यालय तथा माता-पिता का नाम ऊँ चा करना।
सफलता के लिए एक बार पुनः बधाई।
पूज्या माता जी और पिता जी को चरण स्पर्श तथा सुवर्णा को स्नेह। पत्रोत्तर शीघ्र देना।
तुम्हारा अग्रज,
पवन कु मार
14. सेवा में,
प्रबंधक महोदय,
ग्रीन वूड पब्लिक स्कू ल,
नई दिल्ली
विषय- नौकरी के लिए आवेदन पत्र
महोदय,
विश्वस्त सूत्रों द्वारा यह पता चला है कि आपके विद्यालय में एक हिंदी शिक्षक की आवश्यकता है।
इसके लिए मैं अपने को उपस्थित करता हूँ। मुझे हिंदी पढ़ना अच्छा लगता है। मैंने दिल्ली
विश्वविद्यालय से एम.ए. (हिंदी) परीक्षा पास की है। मुझे खेल कू द में भी काफी रूचि है। मेरी
शैक्षणिक योग्यताएँ तथा परिचय इस प्रकार हैं-
पिता का नाम - गौतम राणा
जन्म तिथि - 10/०9/19190
पत्र व्यवहार - 10, विकासपुरी, नई दिल्ली
शैक्षणिक योग्यताएँ -
दिल्ली विश्वविद्यालय से एम.ए (हिंदी ), 2010।
दिल्ली विश्वविद्यालय से बी.एड. 2012 में।
विशेष योग्यता-
बी.ए में वि.वि. में प्रथम स्थान
खेलकू द में विशेष रूचि है।
अनुभव- वर्तमान में मैं इलाहाबाद के प्रतिष्ठित विद्यालय में कार्यरत हूँ। उसका एक प्रमाण पत्र भी
संलग्न है।
यदि इस पद को संभालने का उत्तरदायित्व श्रीमान ने मुझे सौपा तो मैं आपको विश्वास दिलाता हूँ कि
मैं अपने कठिन परिश्रम से हिंदी और हिंदी के छात्रों को उच्च स्तर तक ले जाने का अथक प्रयास
करुँ गा।
भवदीय
गोविन्द राणा
10, विकासपुरी,
नई दिल्ली
दिनांकः 08 मई, 2019
अथवा
प्रेषक (From) : [email protected]
प्रेषिती (To) : [email protected]
विषय : बैंक खाते में नेट बैंकिं ग की सुविधा प्राप्त करने के संबंध में।
शाखा प्रबंधक महोदय,
मेरा नाम राजन है। पिता का नाम- रघुवीर सिंह, माता का नाम- बिनती देवी है। सादर निवेदन है कि
मैं आपके बैंक का एक नियमित खाताधारक हूं। मेरा एक बचत खाता आपके बैंक एसबीआई,
शाखा- राजेन्द्र नगर, रायपुर (छ.ग.) से संचालित है। खाता न.- 88247xxxxx56 है। काम की
व्यस्तता के कारण मैं बार-बार बैंक आने में असमर्थ हूं तथा वित्तीय लेन-देन की आवश्यकता को
देखते हुए मैं अपने बैंक खाते में नेट बैंकिं ग की सुविधा चाहता हूं।
अतः आपसे अनुरोध है कि मुझे मेरे बैंक खाते में नेट बैंकिं ग की सुविधा देने की कृ पा करें । इस कार्य
हेतु मैं सदा आपका आभारी रहूंगा।
सधन्यवाद!
 भवदीय
राजन
वार्ड न.- 07, दत्ता कॉलोनी,
राजेन्द्र नगर, रायपुर (छ.ग.)।
5 जून, 2024
आवश्यकता है एक किराए के घर की
आवश्यक सुविधाएँ
दो कमरे और एक हॉल
रसोई के सामने बालकनी
पोर्च में कार खड़ी करने योग्य स्थान
पानी के लिए टैंक की व्यवस्था
सोलर बिजली की सुविधा से युक्त
इच्छु क व्यक्ति नीचे दिए गए नंबर पर संपर्क करें
15. 1234XXXX23
अथवा
प्रिय बहन कल्याणी,
तुम्हारे स्थानान्तरण के लिए ढे र सारी बधाई! आखिरकार, तुम्हारी मेहनत और प्रतीक्षा का फल
मिला। अब तुम अपने गृह-नगर में नए सफर का आनंद ले सकोगी। तुम्हारे लिए यह नया अध्याय
खुशियों से भरा हो!
स्नेह सहित,
कु मुद/कु मुदिनी
 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 1
Computer Applications (165)
Class X (2024-25)

Time Allowed: 2 hours Maximum Marks: 50

General Instructions:
1. This Question Paper has 5 Sections A-E.
2. All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice of approximately 30%
is provided.
3. Section A has 12 questions carrying 01 mark each.
4. Section B has 7 Very Short Answer (VSA) type questions carrying 02 marks each.
5. Section C has 4 Short Answer (SA) type questions carrying 03 marks each.
6. Section D has 1 Long Answer (LA) type question carrying 04 marks.
7. Section E has 2 Source based /Case-based /Passage based Questions carrying 04
marks each.
Section A
1. Which of the following should be done to prevent hacking? [1]

a) Install anti spyware software. b) Use an updated antivirus

software.

c) Install a Firewall. d) All of these

2. A collection of Web pages linked together in a random order is [1]

a) a Web server b) a search engine

c) a Web browser d) a Website

3. In which of the following fraud, fraudster using a stolen credit card? [1]

a) Identity theft b) Friendly fraud

c) Merchant fraud d) Refund fraud

4. In this technique, there is no direct contact between users and their programs during [1]
execution:

a) Time sharing b) Batch processing

 c) Message passing d) System processing

5. The first network was: [1]

a) NSFNet b) Internet

c) ARPANET d) NET

6. Which type of tags are used by HTML? [1]

a) Tags only for linking b) Tags only for image

c) Fixed tags defined by the d) User defined tags

language

7. Which of the following tags contains the Title tag? [1]

a) BODY b) HEAD

c) LIST d) TABLE

8. Which property is used to give the specified spacing between the text characters? [1]

a) Text Design b) Text Transform

c) Text Decoration d) Letter Spacing

9. ________ is the default color of a hyperlink. [1]

a) Blue b) Green

c) Red d) Black

10. The general syntax for adding inline image to HTML document is: [1]

a) <imgsrc = "filename"> b) <img "filename">

c) <srcimg = "filename"> d) <img alt = "filename">

11. Assertion (A): Line spacing between the lines of text can be given using the Line [1]
Break (<BR>) tag.
Reason (R): Title attribute changes the default colour of the hyperlink. It is used
inside the <Body> tag.
 a) Both A and R are true and R is b) Both A and R are true but R is
the correct explanation of A. not the correct explanation of
A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

12. Assertion (A): The Background color attribute of the Body tag specifies the [1]
background colour of a web page.
Reason (R): The Body tag is a container tag, i.e., it has both, an ON tag and an
OFF tag. It contains all the text and images that make up the page.

a) Both A and R are true and R is b) Both A and R are true but R is
the correct explanation of A. not the correct explanation of
A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

Section B
13. What do you understand by google groups? [2]

14. Why do we need computer networks? [2]

OR
What is e-learning?

15. In which tag, <LINK> element can be used? [2]

16. Anjali is confused between freeware and shareware software. Help her understand [2]
the difference by giving atleast two points for each.

OR
What is cyberbullying?

17. Mention the use of <option> tag. [2]

18. Find the error(s) in the following code and underline those errors. [2]
<HTML>
<HEAD>
<TITLE> Example </HEAD>
</TITLE>
<BODY>...</BODY>
</HTML>

OR
What happens when we click on a hyperlink in a web page?

19. Name different control types supported by HTML forms. [2]

Section C
20. Mention any three advantages of intellectual property rights. [3]

21. Mention some of the positive impacts of e-governance in the society. [3]

22. Write an HTML code to create a password field. [3]

OR
Write an HTML code of a web page using CSS.

23. What is the digital divide? Write any two reasons for digital divide in India. [3]

Section D
24. How to embed audio and video in a Web page? [4]

OR
Explain the <HEAD> tag.

Section E
25. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Linking: A key feature of the HTML is its ability to link text and/or an image to
another document or within a document. If you are on a web page and see the
coloured and/or an underlined text, it is a hyperlink. By default, colour of a
hyperlink is blue. The main objectives of linking are as follows:
i. To add more pages to the website and link them together.
ii. Using internal links (anchors) to save scrolling for visitors.
iii. To indirect the user to web page of different website.
 In other words, hyperlinks are the links that carry user from one web page to
another (within or on another website). It is activated by clicking on an underlined
text or image.

(i) What is the default colour of a hyperlink?

(ii) Name the tag used in HTML to link a web page with other web page.

(iii) Define anchor tag.

(iv) What do you mean by HREF in HTML?

26. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Rashmi is a student of ABC School. She has been provided with an email id from
the school to use for all academic correspondences. She generally receives all her
school's correspondences on this email.
One day she was working in the computer lab, and after her work was over, she
forgot to logout of her email account. When she left the computer lab, her
classmate, Prabhnoor sends objectionable emails from the same email id, to her
teachers, so as to malign Rashmi.

(i) Prabhnoor has invaded ________ of Rashmi.

(ii) Rashmi informs her class teacher about the incident. The teacher calls Prabhnoor
and makes him aware of ________, which is following ethical principles while
working online.

(iii) The teacher also advises all students never to share their ________ with anyone.

(iv) Rashmi has learnt that she should always ________ of her email account once her
work is complete.
 Solution
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 1
Computer Applications (165)
Class X (2024-25)
Section A
1.
(d) All of these
Explanation:
All of these
2.
(d) a Website
Explanation:
A Website is a collection of Web pages linked together in a random order and displays
related information on a specific topic.
3.
(d) Refund fraud
Explanation:
In refund fraud, fraudster using a stolen credit card makes an overpayment on purpose.
4.
(b) Batch processing
Explanation:
Batch processing
5.
(c) ARPANET
Explanation:
ARPANET
6.
(c) Fixed tags defined by the language
Explanation:
Fixed tags defined by the language
7.
(b) HEAD
Explanation:
HEAD
8.
(d) Letter Spacing
Explanation:
Letter Spacing
 9. (a) Blue
Explanation:
Blue
10. (a) <imgsrc = "filename">
Explanation:
<imgsrc = "filename">
11.
(c) A is true but R is false.
Explanation:
A is true but R is false.
12.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Explanation:
A is false but R is true.
Section B
13. Google groups is one of the most popular search engine to find information about people.
It has incorporated over 800 million Usenet messages into its database.
14. i. Networks enable resource sharing across the globe.
ii. Networks provide high reliability by having alternate copies of data. Presence of
multiple CPUs means that if one goes down, the others may be able to take over its
work. This ability to work in the face of hardware problems is of atmost importance in
military, banking, air traffic control, nuclear reactor safety, etc.
iii. Networks enable a client/server model with clients as small computers, one per user,
with data kept on one or more shared file server machines. Eg. Software installation can
be on server and this can save cost of buying license for every machine.
OR
E-learning is the term used to explain the scenario where teaching-learning process takes
place online using the Internet and communication technology. It is the use of technology
to enable people to learn anytime and anywhere.
15. The <LINK> element goes inside the <HEAD> section.

16. Freeware Shareware

It is available free of cost and It is available free of cost for certain period of time,
allows copying and further then a license fee should be paid. It has right to
distribution. redistribute copies.
Modifications and source code are
Modifications and source code are also not available.
not available.
 OR
Cyberbullying involves abuse of another person using threats, insults and hurtful remarks
and messages over the internet. There have been numerous reports of people who have
been driven to suicide by persistent cyberbullying.
17. The <option> tags inside the <select> element defines the available options in the drop-
down list.
18. <TITLE> should be placed before </HEAD>
The correct code is:
<HTML>
<HEAD>
<TITLE> Example </TITLE>
</HEAD>
<BODY> </BODY>
</HTML>

OR
When we click on a hyperlink in a web page, it provides a link that leads from one
document to another.
19. i. Buttons
ii. Check boxes
iii. Radio buttons
iv. Menus
v. Password
vi. Text input
vii. Hidden controls
Section C
20. Advantages of intellectual property rights are as follows:
i. Encourages individuals to distribute and share information and data instead of keeping
it confidential.
ii. Provides legal defense and offers the creators the incentive of their work.
iii. Provides exclusive rights to the creators or inventors.
21. The positive impacts of e-governance are:
i. E-governance has benefitted people by reducing cost and time for various services.
ii. It has reduced corruption in the government.
iii. It has made government administration more transparent and accountable.
22. <html>
<head>
 <title> Password Field </Title>
</head>
<body>
<form>
User Id : <input type="text"name="userid"/>
<br><br>
Password<input type="password" name = "pswrd" value="password"/>
</form>
</body>
</html>

OR
<HTML>
<HEAD>
<TITLE>Example Web Page</TITLE>
<STYLE>
H1 {
FONT-FAMILY: comic sans ms, cursive, serif;
COLOR:red;
BORDER-BOTTOM: 1px dotted dark green;
}
P{
FONT-FAMILY: sans-serif: COLOR: orange;
}
</STYLE>
</HEAD>
<BODY>
<H1>HTML Document using CSS</H1>
<P>This is a basic HTML document. This uses CSS.</P>
</BODY>
</HTML>
OUTPUT

23. Digital divide refers to the differing amount of information between those who have
access to ICT and those who don’t have access.
 Reasons:
i. Due to the unequal distribution of wealth, poverty is higher in rural areas.
ii. Less literacy rate in rural India.
Section D
24. Embed Audio Element
The HTML <AUDIO> element is used to embed sound content in documents. It may
contain one or more audio sources, represented using the src attribute. The <AUDIO>
element defines an in-browser audio player. The audio player can provide a single piece of
audio content. To specify the source file of the audio content, use one or more
<SOURCE> elements inside the <AUDIO> element. All <SOURCE> files should contain
the same audio content, but in different file formats. The browser will select the first file
format that it is able to play. If you are not going to provide multiple source file formats,
you may indicate the source file in the src attribute, instead of in a separate <SOURCE>
element.
e.g.
<HTML>
<BODY>
<AUDIO controls autoplay>
<SOURCE src = "/html/audio.ogg" type = "audio/ogg"/>
<SOURCE src = "/html/audio.wav" type = "audio/wav"/>
Your browser does not support the <AUDIO> element.
</AUDIO>
</BODY>
</HTML>

Output

Embed Video Element

The <VIDEO> element allows us to embed video files into an HTML document, very
similar to the way images are embedded. The HTML does not specify which video
formats browser should support in the <VIDEO> tag, but most commonly used video
formats are ogg, mpeg4.
e.g.
<HTML>
<BODY>
<VIDEO width = "300" height = "200" controls autoplay>
<SOURCE src = "/html/foo.ogg" type = "video/ogg"/>
 <SOURCE src = "/html/foo.mp4" type = "video/mp4"/>
Your browser does not support the <VIDEO> element.
</VIDEO>
</BODY>
</HTML>

Output

OR
This element is a container for all the header elements. The <HEAD> tag must include a
title for the document that can include scripts, styles, meta information and many more.
The second line of your HTML document should be <HEAD>.
The content contained in the head section of your document provides information to the
browsers and search engines but, it is not displayed directly on the Web page. The end of
the head tag is indicated by </HEAD>.
e.g.
<pre><HTML>
<HEAD>
//Header information comes here</HEAD>
</HTML>
Section E
25. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:
Linking: A key feature of the HTML is its ability to link text and/or an image to another
document or within a document. If you are on a web page and see the coloured and/or an
underlined text, it is a hyperlink. By default, colour of a hyperlink is blue. The main
objectives of linking are as follows:
i. To add more pages to the website and link them together.
ii. Using internal links (anchors) to save scrolling for visitors.
iii. To indirect the user to web page of different website.
In other words, hyperlinks are the links that carry user from one web page to another
(within or on another website). It is activated by clicking on an underlined text or image.
(i) Blue colour
(ii) <A>
 (iii)The <A> tag defines a hyperlink, which is used to link from one page to another.
The most important attribute of the <A> element is the href attribute, which indicates
the link's destination.
(iv)The HREF attribute specifies the URL of the page the link goes to. If the href attribute
is not present, the <A> tag will not be a hyperlink.

26. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:

Rashmi is a student of ABC School. She has been provided with an email id from the
school to use for all academic correspondences. She generally receives all her school's
correspondences on this email.
One day she was working in the computer lab, and after her work was over, she forgot to
logout of her email account. When she left the computer lab, her classmate, Prabhnoor
sends objectionable emails from the same email id, to her teachers, so as to malign
Rashmi.
(i) Mailbox/EmailID
(ii) Cyber Ethics
(iii)Credentials
(iv)Logout
 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 2
Computer Applications (165)
Class X (2024-25)

Time Allowed: 2 hours Maximum Marks: 50

General Instructions:
1. This Question Paper has 5 Sections A-E.
2. All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice of approximately 30%
is provided.
3. Section A has 12 questions carrying 01 mark each.
4. Section B has 7 Very Short Answer (VSA) type questions carrying 02 marks each.
5. Section C has 4 Short Answer (SA) type questions carrying 03 marks each.
6. Section D has 1 Long Answer (LA) type question carrying 04 marks.
7. Section E has 2 Source based /Case-based /Passage based Questions carrying 04
marks each.
Section A
1. ________ is an essential part of any electronic transaction that takes place over the [1]
Internet.

a) Networking b) Communication

c) Security d) Password

2. In most of the working areas video conferencing is used, but the scenario where it [1]
cannot be used is:

a) Education b) Telemedicine

c) Businesses meeting customers d) Cleaning a locality

3. Name the activity of electronically buying or selling of products on online services [1]
or over the Internet.

a) E-Commerce b) Electric commerce

c) Cyber Commerce d) Internet business

4. The protocol that is used to send e-mails is ________. [1]

 a) SMTP b) POP

c) FTP d) HTTP

5. A type of technique in which dumb terminals are connected to a central computer [1]
system:

a) Batch environment b) Message passing

c) Time Sharing d) User environment

6. Which of the following tag specifies an input field? [1]

a) <OUTPUT> b) <TITLE>

c) <HEAD> d) <INPUT>

7. Which of the following tag is used to create drop-down menus? [1]

a) <SELECT> b) <INPUT>

c) <OPTION> d) <HEAD>

8. ________ is designed primarily to enable the separation of document content from [1]
document presentation.

a) CSS b) CS

c) HTML d) FONT

9. ________ is called an email tag. [1]

a) <a mailing> b) <A>

c) mailto d) email

10. The two common attributes of the <img> and the <table> tag are: [1]

a) they do not have any common b) BORDER AND SRC

attributes

c) HEIGHT AND WIDTH d) SRC AND HEIGHT

11. Assertion (A): The external style sheet has the lest priority. Any rule defined in an [1]
external style sheet file takes the lowest priority, and rules defined in this file will
 be applied only when the above two rules are not applicable.
Reason (R): The color values are used to apply colours to different elements in
CSS. These are used to set a color either for the foreground of an element (i.e., its
text) or else for the background of the element.

a) Both A and R are true and R is b) Both A and R are true but R is
the correct explanation of A. not the correct explanation of
A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

12. Assertion (A): The Body tag includes identification and supplementary [1]
information such as title of the document, scripts, styles, meta information, etc.
Reason (R): The Title tag is also an optional tag. It contains the title of a web page,
which is displayed in the Title bar of the browser. It is a container tag.

a) Both A and R are true and R is b) Both A and R are true but R is
the correct explanation of A. not the correct explanation of
A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

Section B
13. What do you understand by information retrieval? [2]

14. What is TCP? [2]

OR
Give the name of any two websites which are used to send e-mail.

15. What is the use of the href attribute of the <A> tag? Give an example. [2]

16. Govind wants to use a software but does not want to pay for it. Which type of [2]
software can he use?

OR
What is Spam?

17. Name the different types of style sheets. [2]

18. Write the HTML code to display the text in red color and arial font. Give the [2]
background image of your choice.
 OR
What are nested lists?

19. What is the combo box? [2]

Section C
20. What is GPL software license? How is it different from LGPL software license? [3]

21. What is e-learning? Mention any two main benefits of e-learning with respect to the [3]
use of information technology.

22. What is a CSS rule? What are its components? How will you declare a style in [3]
CSS?

OR
Discuss the significances of background-colour property of Cascading style sheets with
the help of suitable HTML code.

23. What can be done to avoid hacking? Explain in three points. [3]

Section D
24. Explain the attributes of HR element. [4]

OR
Create a simple web page on Different types of rocks. Set suitable properties for the
text. Draw a horizontal line after each paragraph. Use inline style to set the properties.

Section E
25. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Outline Property: The outline property specifies a line to be drawn around
elements. The line is drawn outside the borders to make the element 'stand out' and
to enhance its impact. Different types of outline properties such as outline-style,
outline-colour, outline-width can be specified for an HTML tag.

(i) Which property applies an outline that makes the box look like it is embedded in
the page?

(ii) Why the Outlines are different from the borders?

(iii) Which property applies an outline that makes the box look like it is coming out of
the canvas?
 (iv) What are the different types of outline properties which can be specified for an
HTML tag?

26. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Anurag wants to search some content on internet for his geography project. He
typed a URL in the web browser to open the website.

(i) The URL he typed is also called ________ of the web site.

(ii) Anurag wants to download the information for his project. Help him understand
what is downloading?

(iii) Anurag uses web browser to work on internet. Define web browser.

(iv) Which type of software Anurag will use to find information on internet?
 Solution
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 2
Computer Applications (165)
Class X (2024-25)
Section A
1.
(c) Security
Explanation:
Security
2.
(d) Cleaning a locality
Explanation:
A place can only be cleaned if someone is present physically. In all other areas
videoconferencing is being used extensively.
3. (a) E-Commerce
Explanation:
E-Commerce
4. (a) SMTP
Explanation:
SMTP
5.
(c) Time Sharing
Explanation:
Time Sharing
6.
(d) <INPUT>
Explanation:
The <INPUT> tag specifies an input field where the user can enter data.
7. (a) <SELECT>
Explanation:
Use the <SELECT> container tag to create drop-down menus.
8. (a) CSS
Explanation:
CSS is designed primarily to enable the separation of document content from document
separation, including aspects such as layout, colors and fonts.
9.
(c) mailto
 Explanation:
mailto
10.
(c) HEIGHT AND WIDTH
Explanation:
HEIGHT AND WIDTH
11.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
12.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Explanation:
A is false but R is true.
Section B
13. The process of finding and acquiring specific information from a collection of vast
information resources on the web is known as information retrieval.
14. TCP stands for Transmission Control Protocol. It is a communication protocol and is
responsible for breaking the data down into small parts called packets before they can be
sent over a network. It also takes care of assembling the packets again at the destination. If
a data in a packet is distorted then the TCP requests the sender to resend the packet.
OR
www.gmail.com and www.rediffmail.com
15. The href (hypertext reference) attribute of the <A> tag is used to set the URL of the target
resource, which is the address of the document to link to. The href attribute of the anchor
tag specifies the destination page or file.
For example: <A HREF = "Filename.html">Next Page </ A>
16. Open-source software can be used.
OR
Spam are unwanted e-mail which are business related and sent to the e-mail account in
bulk.
17. The different types of style sheets are: Inline style sheet, Internal style sheet and External
style sheet.
18. <HTML>
<BODY background = "C:\My pictures\computer.jpg">
<FONT color = "red" face = "arial">
Learning HTML is quite easy
HTML is a markup language.
</FONT>
</BODY>
</HTML>

OR
Lists can be nested or placed inside one another.
Example:
<html>
<body>
<h4>ILLUSTRATION of Nested LISTS</h4>
<h4>SUBJECTS OF STUDY</h4>
<ol>
<li>Maths
<li>English
<li>Language
<ul>
<li>Hindi
<li>Sanskrit
<li>Tamil
</ul>
<li>Science
<li>Social Science
<li>Computer Applications
</ol>
</body>
</html>

ILLUSTRATION of Nested LISTS

SUBJECTS OF STUDY
1. Maths
2. English
3. Language
Hindi
Sanskrit
Tamil
4. Science
5. Social Science
 6. Computer Applications
19. A select element presents a set of options to the user. If only a single entry can be selected
and no visible size has been specified, the options are presented in a combo box (drop
down menu). <SELECT> tag creates a combo box for selecting among choices. You
specify each choice with an <OPTION> element enclosed between <SELECT> and
</SELECT>.
Section C
20. The GPL (General Public License) is a free, copyleft software license. It allows users to
copy the software as many times as needed. It can be distributed and modified without any
restriction and can be shared as well.
The main difference between GPL and LGPL is that GPL provides more protection to the
software users. It allows them the freedom to make changes to the software, share and
receive source code. When a user distributes the software, one must make sure others can
get the same rights. It is important to note that any changes made in the software must also
be licensed under GPL.
LPGL, on the other hand, is specially designated for software libraries, wherein one can
make changes and give back source codes.
21. Learning with the help of electronic resources like computers, tablets, smart phone,
internet, etc., is known as e-learning.
Advantages of e-learning are:
i. It is time-saving as well as removes the distance barrier between learner and teacher.
ii. It has quicker delivery cycle times than traditional classroom-based instruction.
iii. It is less expensive to set up an e-learning environment.
22. A CSS rule is a grouping of one or more CSS properties which are to be applied to one or
more target HTML elements CSS style declaration consists of two major parts; Selector
and Declaration.
i. Selector - A selector is an HTML tag in which you want to apply styles. This could be
any tag like <h1>,<p>,<table> etc.
ii. Declaration - The Declaration is a block of code that contains style definition. It
consists of property and its value enclosed in curly braces. The property name and its
value should be separated by a colon. Each declaration should be terminated by a
semicolon (;).
Example: h1{font-family:arial;color:blur;}
OR
The background-color property in CSS is significant as it allows web designers to define
the background color of HTML elements. It plays a crucial role in enhancing the visual
appeal, establishing visual hierarchy, and improving readability. Example HTML code:
 <style>
.container {
background-color: lightblue;
padding: 20px;
}
</style>

<div class="container">
<h1>Welcome to My Website</h1>
<p>This is some sample text.</p>
</div>
23. To avoid hacking one can do the following:
i. Always install a Firewall. It monitors and filters incoming and outgoing internet traffic.
ii. Use an updated antivirus software. This will help in diagnosing and removing new
computer viruses.
iii. Install anti spyware software. It helps in protecting computer from spyware.
Section D
24. The HR element is used to draw a horizontal dividing line completely across the screen.
This can be used to logically separate blocks of text.
ALIGN: This attribute positions the rule on the page either LEFT, RIGHT or CENTER.
NOSHADE: This attribute renders the tag as an unshaded dark grey line without the
hollow and slightly 3D appearance.
SIZE: This is a measurement of how thick the line is.
WIDTH: It can be set as a number or a percentage.
COLOR: It sets the color of the rule.
Example:
<HTML>
<BODY>
<H1> This is an example </H1>
<HR size="4" width="80%">
<HR size= "10" width=40>
<HR size="10" width="40" align="center">
<HR size= "10" widths= "40" align="center" noshade>
<HR size="10" width= "40" align="center" color="blue">
</BODY>
</HTML>

OR
 i. Open Notepad and type the following HTML code. You will observe that each
paragraph follows a different style of formatting
<!DOCTYPE html>
<html> <head>
<title>Types of Rocks</title>
</head>
<body>
<h1>Different Type of Rocks</h1>
<h2>Igneous Rocks</h2>
<p style= "font-size: xx-large; color: maroon; text-align: centre; border; solid 4px 4px
blue;">
The earth’s core is made up of molten rock. when a volcano erupts this molten rock flow
It later cools and solidifies to forb igneous rock. These rocks contain minerals like mica
magnesium Granitem pumica and obsidian are example of Igneous rocks.</p>
<hr style= "margin-left: 200px; margin-right:
100px; border-width: thick; border-style:
double; color: blue;>
<h2>Sedimentary Rocks</h2>
<p style= "font-size: x-large; color: green; text-align:right; border: dashed 3px orange">
Rain, wind, rivers flowing down mountains, etc., wear down rocks on mountains
and carry small bits of them down to deposit elsewhere. Repeated deposition presence do
layers and hardens them into rock. Such rocks are called sedimentary rocks. Sandstone, L
and Shale are some of the examples of sedimentary rocks. </p>
<hr style= "border: 4px groove yellow ">
<h2>Metamorphic Rocks</h2>
<p style="font-size: medium; color: navy;
text-align: left; border: groove 4px Pink">
Metamorphic rocks are rocks that may be formed due to physical and chemical changes
sedimentary or older metamorphic rocks. These changes happen due to heat and pressure
slate, Quartzite are some examples of Metamorphic rocks.</p>
</body>
</html>

ii. Save the document as example.html

iii. Open Internet Explorer and then open the document example.html in it.
Section E
25. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:
 Outline Property: The outline property specifies a line to be drawn around elements. The
line is drawn outside the borders to make the element 'stand out' and to enhance its impact.
Different types of outline properties such as outline-style, outline-colour, outline-width
can be specified for an HTML tag.
(i) Inset property.
(ii) The outlines are different from the borders because of the following reasons:
i. An outline does not take up space.
ii. The outlines do not have to be rectangular.
iii. The outline is always the same on all sides.
(iii)Outset property.
(iv)The different types of outline properties which can be specified for an HTML tag are as
follows:
i. Outline-style
ii. Outline-color
iii. Outline-width

26. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:

Anurag wants to search some content on internet for his geography project. He typed a
URL in the web browser to open the website.
(i) 1. Web address
(ii) Downloading is the process of saving web pages, images and files from a web server on
users local host computer using internet.
(iii)A web browser or a browser is an application or software used to access and view
websites.
(iv)The websites used to search any type of information on internet are called search
engines.