Periodic Properties

1. The electronic configuration for Neodymium is :

[Atomic Number for Neodymium 60]
(A) [Xe] 5f7 7s2 (B) [Xe] 4f6 6s2
(C) [Xe] 4f4 6s2 (D) [Xe] 4f1 5d1 6s2

2. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R).
Assertion (A) : There is a considerable increase in covalent radius from N to P. However from As to
Bi only a small increase in covalent radius is observed.
Reason (R) : Covalent and ionic radii in a particular oxidation state increases down the group.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
:
(A) (A) is false but (R) is true
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

3. The magnetic moment of a transition metal compound has been calculated to be 3.87 B.M. The metal
ion is
(A) Cr2+ (B) Ti2+
(C) V2+ (D) Mn2+

4. For elements B, C, N, Li, Be, O and F , the correct order of first ionization enthalpy is
(A) B > Li > Be > C > N > O > F
(B) Li < Be < B < C < N < O < F
(C) Li < Be < B < C < O < N < F
(D) Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F

5. The incorrect statement is

(A) The first ionization enthalpy of K is less than that of Na and Li.
(B) Xe does not have the lowest first ionization enthalpy in its group.
(C) The first ionization enthalpy of element with atomic number 37 is lower than that of the element
with atomic number 38.
(D) The first ionization enthalpy of Ga is higher than that of the d-block element with atomic number
30.
6. The increasing order of the atomic radii of the following elements is :
(a) C
(b) O
(c) F
(d) Cl
(e) Br
(A) (d) < (c) < (b) < (a) < (e)
(B) (a) < (b) < (c) < (d) < (e)
(C) (b) < (c) < (d) < (a) < (e)
(D) (c) < (b) < (a) < (d) < (e)

7. The correct order of the atomic radii of C, Cs, Al, and S is :

(A) S < C < Cs < Al (B) C < S < Cs < Al
(C) S < C < Al < Cs (D) C < S < Al < Cs

8. The atomic numbers of vanadium (V), chromium (Cr), manganese (Mn) and iron (Fe) are respectively
23, 24, 25 and 26 . Which one of these may be expected to have the highest second ionization enthalpy?

(A) Mn (B) V
(C) Cr (D) Fe

9. Which is the correct order of ionic sizes?

(At. No. : Ce = 58, Sn = 62, Yb = 70 and Lu = 71)
(A) Ce > Sn > Yb > Lu
(B) Sn > Ce > Lu > Yb
(C) Lu > Yb > Sn > Ce
(D) Sn > Yb > Ce > Lu.

10. Among the following oxides of p-block elements, number of oxides having amphoteric nature is
_________.
Cl2O7, CO, PbO2, N2O, NO, Al2O3, SiO2, N2O5, SnO2

11. The number of f electrons in the ground state electronic configuration of Np (z = 93) is ________.
(Integer answer)

Chemical Bonding

12. Which one of the following molecules has maximum dipole moment?
(A) NH3 (B) NF3
(C) PF5 (D) CH4
13. Given below are two statements :
Statement-I : PF5 and BrF5 both exhibit sp3d hybridisation.
Statement-II : Both SF6 and [Co(NH3)6]3+ exhibit sp3d2 hybridisation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false
(B) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true
(C) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false
(D) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true

14. Bonding in which of the following diatomic molecule(s) become(s) stronger, on the basis of MO
Theory, by removal of an electron?
(A) NO (B) N2 (C)O2 (D) C2 (E) B2
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A) A), (B), (C) only (B) (B), (C), (E) only
(C) (A), (C) only (D) (D) only

15. Which of the following are isostructural pairs ?

(A) SO and CrO
2–
4
2–
4

(B) SiCl4 and TiCl4

(c) NH3 and NO3–
(D) BCl3 and BrCl3
(A) A and C only (B) A and B only
(C) B and C only (D) C and D only

16. In the following molecule,

Hybridisation of Carbon a, b and c respectively are :

(A) sp3, sp2, sp2 (B) sp3, sp2, sp
(C) sp3, sp, sp (D) sp3, sp, sp2

17. If the magnetic moment of a dioxygen species is 1.73 B.M it may be:
(A) O2 or O2– (B) O2, O2– or O2+
(C) O2 or O2+ (D) O2– or O2+

18. The decreasing order of bond angles in BF 3, NH3 ,PF3 and I

−

3
is :-
(A) I > BF > NH > PF
3
−
3 3 3

(B) BF > NH > PF > I

3 3 3
−

(C) I > NH > PF > BF

−

3 3 3 3

(D) BF > I > PF > NH

3
−

3 3 3
19. The species in which the N atom is in a state of sp hybridization is:
(A) NO –

2
(B) NO –

(C) NO2 (D) NO +

20. Which of the following statements is true?

(A)
HF is less polar than HBr
(B)
absolutely pure water does not contain any ions
(C)
chemical bond formation takes place when forces of attraction overcome the forces fo repulsion
(D)
in co-valency transference of electron takes place.

21. In which of the following species is the underlined carbon having sp3 hybridization ?
(A) CH3COOH (B) CH3CH2OH
(C) CH3COCH3 (D) CH2=CH−CH3.

22. The number of molecules or ions from the following, which do not have odd number of electrons are:
(A) NO2
(B) ICl−

(C) BrF3
(D) ClO2
(E) NO +

(F) NO

23. Spin only magnetic moment of [MnBr6]4– is ______ B.M. (round off to the closest integer)

24. In the molecular orbital diagram for the molecular ion, N , the number of electrons in the σ
+

2 2p

molecular orbital is :-

Coordination Compound

25. Select the option with correct property -

(A) [NiCl4]2– Diamagnetic, [Ni(CO)4] Paramagnetic
(B) [Ni(CO)4]2– and [NiCl4]2– both Paramagnetic
(C) [Ni(CO)4] and [NiCl4]2– both Diamagnetic
(D) [Ni(CO)4] Diamagnetic, [NiCl4]2– Paramagnetic
26. Which of the following cannot be explained by crystal field theory?
(A) The order of spectrochemical series

(B) Stability of metal complexes

(C) Magnetic properties of transition metal
complexes
(D) Colour of metal complexes

27. White precipitate of AgCl dissolves in aqueous ammonia solution due to formation of :
(A) [Ag(NH3)4]Cl2 (B) [Ag(Cl)2(NH3)­2]
(C) [Ag(NH3)2]Cl (D) [Ag(NH3)Cl]Cl

28. If which of the following order the given complex ions are arranged correctly with respect to their
decreasing spin only magnetic moment ?
(i) [FeF6]3‑ (ii) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (iii) [NiCl4]2- (iv) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
(A) (ii)>(i)>(iii)>(iv) (B) (iii)>(iv)>(ii)>(i)
(C) (ii)>(iii)>(i)>(iv) (D) (i)>(iii)>(iv)>(ii)

29. Which one of the following species responds to an external magnetic field?
(A) [F e(H O) ] (B) [N i(CN ) ]
3+ 2–

2 6 4

(C) [Co(CN ) ] (D) [N i(CO) ]

3–

6 4

30. The total number of isomers for a square planar complex [M(F)(Cl)(SCN)(NO2)] is :
(A) 16 (B) 4
(C) 8 (D) 12
31. In a complexometric titration of metal ion with ligand M( Metal ion )+L( Ligand )→ C( Complex )
end point is estimated spectrophotometrically (through light absorption). If ' M and ' C do not absorb
′ ′

light and only 'L' absorbs, then the titration plot between absorbed light (Ai versus volume of ligand
'L' (viwould look like :-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

32. Which one of the following has largest number of isomers?

(A) [Ru(NH3)4Cl2] + (B) [Co(NH3)5Cl]2+
(D) [Co(en)2Cl2]+|
3+

(C) [Cr (Py) (NH3 ) ]

3 3

33. The correct order of magnetic moments (spin only values in B.M.) among is :
(A) [MnCl4]2_ > [CoCl4]2_ > [Fe(CN)6]_4
(B) [Fe(CN)6]4_ > [CoCl4]2_ > [MnCl4]2_
(C) [Fe(CN)6]4_ > [MnCl4]_2 > [CoCl4]2_
(D) [MnCl4]2_ > [Fe(CN)6]4_ > [CoCl4]2_

34. The conductivity of a solution of complex with formula CoCl3(NH3)4 correspondsto 1:1 electrolyte,
then the primary valency of central metal ion is______

35. The number of geometrical isomers possible in triamminetrinitrocobalt (III) is X and in

trioxalatochromate (III) is Y. Then the value of X +Y is _____________.
Salt Analysis

36. Match List I with List II

List-I
List-II
(Precipitating reagent
(Cation)
and conditions)
A. NH4Cl+NH4OH I. Mn2+
B. NH4OH + Na2CO3 II. Pb2+
NH4OH+
C. III. Al3+
NH4Cl+H2S gas
D. dilute HCl IV. Sr2+
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(A)
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(B)
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(C)
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(D) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

37. During the borax bead test with CuSO , a blue green colour of the bead was observed in oxidising
4

flame due to the formation of

(A) CuO (B) Cu(BO2)2
(C) Cu3B2 (D) Cu

38. Reagent, 1-naphthylamine and sulphanilic acid in acetic acid is used for the detection of :
(A) NO (B) N2O
(C) NO –
3
(D) NO –
2

39. A white sodium salt dissolves readily in water to give a solution which is neutral to litmus. When
silver nitrate solution is added to the solution, a white precipitate is obtained which does not dissolve
in liq. HNO3. The anion could be :
(A) CO32− (B) Cl−
(C) SO42− (D) S2−

40. Which one of the following statements is correct

(A) From a mixed precipitate of AgCl and AgI, ammonia solution dissolves only AgCl
(B) Ferric ions give a deep green precipitate on adding potassium ferrocyanide solution
(C) On boiling a solution having K+, Ca2+, and HCO3 ions we get a precipitate of K2Ca(CO3)2.
(D) Manganese salts give a violet borax bead test in the reducing flame
41. A red solid is insoluble in water. However it becomes soluble if some KI is added to water. Heating the
red solid in a test tube results in liberation of some violet coloured fumes and droplets of a metal
appear on the cooler parts of the test tube. The red solid is
(A) (NH4)2 Cr2O7 (B) HgI2
(C) HgO (D) Pb3O4

42. Consider the following test for a group-IV cation.

+ H S → A (Black precipitate)+ byproduct
2+
M 2

A + aqua regia →B+ NOCI + S + H2O

B + KNO2 + CH3COOH →C + byproduct
The spin-only magnetic moment value of the metal complex C is ______BM is
(Nearest integer)

43. Consider the sulphides HgS, PbS, CuS, Sb2S3, As2S3 and CdS. Number of these sulphides soluble in
50% HNO3 is _____.

D-Block

44. A and B formed in the following reactions are:

CrO2 Cl2 + 4NaOH → A + 2NaCl + 2H2 O
A + 2HCl + 2H2 O2 → B + 3H2 O

(A) A = Na 2 CrO4 , B = CrO5

(B) A = Na 2 Cr2 O4 , B = CrO4

(C) A = Na 2 Cr2 O7 , B = CrO3

(D) A = Na 2 Cr2 O7 , B = CrO5

45. A solution of CrO in amyl alcohol has a ______ colour.

5

(A) Green (B) Orange-Red

(C) Yellow (D) Blue

46. The dark purple colour of KMnO4 disappears in the titration with oxalic acid in acidic medium. The
overall change in the oxidation number of manganese in the reaction is :
(A) 5 (B) 1
(C) 7 (D) 2

47. The addition of dilute NaOH to Cr3+ salt solution will give :
(A) precipitate of [Cr (OH) ]
3–

(B) precipitate of Cr2O3(H2O)n

(C) a solution of [Cr(OH)4]–
(D) precipitate of Cr(OH)3
48. Consider the hydrated ions of Ti2+, V2+,Ti3+ and Sc3+. The correct order of their spin-only magnetic
moments is :
(A) Sc3+ < Ti3+ 2+ 2+ (B) Ti3+ < Ti2+ 3+ 2+
(C) V2 + 2+ < Ti3+ 3+ (D) Sc3+ < Ti3+ 2+ 2+

49. Which series of reactions correctly represents

chemical relations related to iron and its compound ?
Cl2,heat heat , air Zn

(A) Fe −−
−→FeCl3 −−−
−−→FeCl2 →Fe
∘
O2 , heat CO, 600 C CO, 700°C

(B) Fe ⟶ Fe3 O4 ⟶ FeO −−−−−→Fe

dil H2 SO4 H2 SO4 O2 heat

(C) Fe ⟶ FeSO4 ⟶ Fe (SO4 )

3
−→Fe

O2 , heat dil 2 SO4 heat

(D) Fe ⟶ FeO ⟶ FeSO4 −→Fe

50. The number of d-electrons retained in Fe2+ (At. no. of Fe = 26) ion is :
(A) 6 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5

51. How do we differentiate between Fe3+ and Cr3+ in group III ?

(A) By taking excess of NH4OH solution
(B) By increasing NH4+ ion concentration
(C) By decreasing OH− ion concentration
(D) Both (B) and (C)

52. Acidified potassium permanganate solution oxidises oxalic acid. The spin-only magnetic moment of
the manganese product formed from the above reaction is ______ B.M. (Nearest Integer)

53. Consider the following reactions

NaCl + K2Cr2O7 + H2SO4 → (A) + side products
(conc.)
(A) + NaOH → (B) + Side products
(B) +H2SO4+ H2O2 →(C) Side products.
(dilute)
The sum of the total number of atoms in one molecule each of (A) and (B) and (C) is
F-Block

54. Which one amongst the following are good oxidizing agents?
A. Sm 2+

B. Ce2+

C. Ce4+

D. Tb 4+

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A) D only
(B) C only
(C) C and D only
(D) A and B only

55. The most common oxidation state of Lanthanoid elements is +3. Which of the following is likely to
deviate easily from +3 oxidation state?
(A) Ce (At. No. 58) (B) La (At. No. 57)
(C) Lu (At. No. 71) (D) Gd (At. No. 64)

56. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The Eo value for Ce4+/Ce3+ is +1.74 V.
Statement II: Ce is more stable in Ce4+ state than Ce3+ state.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(B) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(C) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(D) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

57. The highest possible oxidation states of uranium and plutonium, respectively, are :
(A) 6 and 4 (B) 7 and 6
(C) 6 and 7 (D) 4 and 6

58. Cerium (Z = 58) is an important member of the lanthanides. Which of the following statements about
cerium is incorrect ?
(A) Cerium (IV) acts as an oxidizing agent
(B) The +3 oxidation state of cerium is more stable than the +4 oxidation state
(C) The +4 oxidation state of cerium is known in solutions
(D) The common oxidation states of cerium are +3 and +4

59. The radius of La3+ is 1.06 Å, which of the following given values will be closest to the radius of Lu3+
(At
(no. of Lu = 71, La = 57) −
(A) 1.6 Å (B) 1.4 Å
(C) 1.06 Å (D) 0.85 Å
60. Number of colourless lanthanoid ions among the following is ___________.
Eu3+, Lu3+, Nd3+, La3+, Sm3+

61. Number of electrons present in 4f orbital of Ho3+ ion is __________.

(Given Atomic No. of Ho = 67)

Nomenclature

62. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: IUPAC name of HO – CH2 – (CH2)3 – CH2 – COCH3 is 7-hydroxyheptan-2-one.
Statement II: 2-oxoheptan-7-ol is the correct IUPAC name for above compound. In the light of the
above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(B) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(C) Both Statement I and statement II are correct.
(D) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.

63. The IUPAC name of ethylidene chloride is :

(A) 1-Chloroethene (B) 1-Chloroethyne
(C) 1,2-Dichloroethane (D) 1,1-Dichloroethane

64. Choose the correct name for compound given below :

(A) (4E)–5–Bromo-hex–4–en–2–yne
(B) (2E)–2–Bromo-hex–4–en–2–yne
(C) (4E)–5–Bromo-hex–2–en–2–yne
(D) (2E)–2–Bromo-hex–2–en–4–yne

65. The IUPAC name of the following compound is :

(A) 4,4-Dimethyl-3-hydroxybutanoic acid

(B) 3-Hydroxy-4-methylpentanoic acid
(C) 2-Methyl-3-hydroxypentan-5-oic acid
(D) 4-Methyl-3-hydroxypentanoic acid
66. The IUPAC name of the following compound is -

(A) 4–methyl–3–ethylhex–4–ene
(B) 4,4–diethyl–3–methylbut–2–ene
(C) 3–ethyl–4–methylhex–4–ene
(D) 4–ethyl–3–methylhex–2–ene

67. The IUPAC name of the compound shown below is

(A) 2 - Bromo - 6 - chlorocyclohex - 1 - ene

(B) 6 - Bromo - 2 - chlorocyclohexene
(C) 3 - Bromo - 1 - chloro cyclohexene
(D) 1 - Bromo - 3 - chloro cyclohexene

68. The IUPAC name of the compound :-

is −

(A) 3,3 -Dimethyl-1-hydroxy cyclohexane

(B) 1,1−Dimethyl−3− hydroxy cyclohexane
(C) 3,3-Dimethyl-1-cyclohexanol
(D) 1,1-Dimethyl - 3- cyclohexanol

69. Number of compounds among the following which contain sulphur as heteroatom is ________.
Furan, Thiophene, Pyridine, Pyrrole, Cysteine, Tyrosine

70. The total number of 'sigma' and 'Pi' bonds in 2-oxohex-4-ynoic acid is____.
General Organic Chemistry (GOC)

71. Which of the following molecule/species is most stable?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

72. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as

Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : Benzene is more stable than hypothetical cyclohexatriene.
Reason R : The delocalized πelectron cloud is attracted more strongly by nuclei of carbon atoms.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the
correct explanation of A.
(C) A is false but R is true.
(D) A is true but R is false.
73. Which one of the following compounds is non-aromatic ?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

74.

Among the given species the Resonance stabilised carbocations are:

(A) (C) and (D) only
(B) (A), (B) and (C) only
(C) (A), (B) and (D) only
(D) (A) and (B) only

75. The increasing order of basicity for the following intermediates is (from weak to strong)

(A) (v) < (iii) < (ii) < (iv) < (i)
(B) (v) < (i) < (iv) < (ii) < (iii)
(C) (iii) < (i) < (ii) < (iv) < (v)
(D) (iii) < (iv) < (ii) < (i) < (v)
76. In the following compound

The favourable site/s for protonation is/are

(A) a and e (B) a
(C) b, c and d (D) a and d

77. Consider the acidity of the carboxylic acids :

(a) PhCOOH
(b) o NO2C6H4COOH
(c) p NO2C6H4COOH
(d) m NO2C6H4COOH
Which of the following order is correct ?
(A) a > b > c > d
(B) b > d > c > a
(C) b > d > a > c
(D) b > c > d > a

78. Which of the following is the strongest base

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

79. Among the following total number of meta directing functional group is ___________.
–OCH3, –NO2, –CN, –CH3, –NHCOCH3, –COR, –OH, – COOH, –Cl
80. Number of compounds from the following which will not dissolve in cold NaHCO3 and NaOH
solutions but will dissolve in hot NaOH solution is _____ .

, ,

, ,

, ,

Isomerism

81. Which of the following conformations will be the most stable?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
82. Which will have the highest enol content?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

83. Assertion A :Enol form acetone [CH3COCH3] exists in <0.1% quantity. However, the enol form the
acetyl acetone [CH3COCH2OCCH3] exists in approximately 15% quantity.
Reason R: Enol form of acetyl acetone is stabilized by intramolecular hydrogen bonding, which is not
possible in enol form of acetone.
Choose the correct statement:
(A) A is true but R is false
(B) Both A and R are true but R is the correct explanation of A
(C) A is false but R is true
(D) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

84. Which of these factors does not govern the stability of a conformation in acyclic compounds ?
(A) Angle strain
(B) Torsional strain
(C) Steric interactions
(D) Electrostatic forces of interaction

85. 3-Methylpent-2-ene on reaction with HBr in presence of peroxide forms an addition product. The
number of possible stereoisomers for the product is
(A) Zero (B) Two
(C) Four (D) Six

86. Which of the following compounds will exhibit geometrical isomerism ?

(A) 1-Phenyl-2-butene
(B) 3-Phenyl -1-butene
(C) 2-Phenyl-1-butene
(D) 1, 1-Diphenyl-1-propene
87. Among the following four structures i to iv

It is true that −
(A) Only (iii) is a chiral compound
(B) Only (ii) and (iv) are chiral compounds
(C) All four are chiral compounds
(D) Only (i) and (ii) are chiral compounds

88. A similarity between optical and geometrical isomerism is that

(A) each forms equal number of isomers for a given compound
(B) If in a compound one is present then so is the other
(C) both are included in stereoisomerism
(D) they have no similarity

89. The total number of chiral compound/s from the following is _____.

, ,

, ,

90. The dihedral angle in staggered form of Newman projection of 1,1,1-Trichloro ethane is______
degree. (Round off to the nearest integer)

91. Hydrogenation

Smallest optically active alkene −−−−−−−−→ −−−→

Cl2 /hν

How many monochloro products [including stereoisomer] are formed ?

Alkane

92. Given below are two statements.

Statement I: The presence of weaker π–bonds make alkenes less stable than alkanes.
Statement II: The strength of the double bond is greater than that of carbon-carbon single bond.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

93. Identify A in the given chemical reaction.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

94. The major products A and B in the following reactions are :

(A) A = and B =

(B) A = and B =

(C) A = and B =

(D) A = and B =
95. A flask contains a mixture of isohexane and 3-methylpentane. One of the liquids boils at 63°C while
the others boils at 60°C. What is the best way to separate the two liquids and which one will be
distilled out first.
(A) simple distillation, isohexane
(B) fractional distilation, isohexane
(C) simple distillation, 3-methylpentane
(D) fractional distillation, 3-methylpentane

96. Which one of the following has the minimum boiling point ?
(A) n - Butane (B) 1- Butyne
(C) 1- Butene (D) isobutane

97. On mixing a certain alkane with chlorine and irradiating it with ultraviolet light, it forms only one
monochloroalkane. This alkane could be -
(A) Isopentane (B) Neopentane
(C) Propane (D) Pentane

98. Number of bromo derivatives obtained on treating ethane with excess of Br , in diffused sunlight
2

is____________.

99. The major product of the following reaction contains ___________ bromine atom(s).
Alkene

100. Find out the major products from the following reactions.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

101. Amongst the following, the major product of the given chemical reaction is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
102. Choose the correct statement regarding the formation of carbocations A and B given.

(A) Carbocation A is more stable and formed relatively at faster rate

(B) Carbocation B is more stable and formed relatively at faster rate
(C) Carbocation A is more stable and formed relatively at slow rate
(D) Carbocation B is more stable and formed relatively at slow rate

103. The major product of the following reaction is :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
104. The major product of the following reaction is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

105. The reaction of propene with HOCl (Cl2 +H2O) proceeds through the intermediate :
(A) CH3 — CH+ — CH2 — Cl
(B) CH3 —CH(OH) —CH2+
(C) CH3—CHCl — CH2+
(D) CH3 — CH+ — CH2 — OH

106. Elimination of bromine from 2 - bromobutane results in the formation of-

(A) predominantly 2–butene
(B) equimolar mixture of 1 and 2–butene
(C) predominantly 2–butyne
(D) predominantly 1–butene

107. Butene-1 may be converted to butane by reaction with -

(A) Zn -Hg (B) Pd / H2
(C) Zn-HCl (D) Sn-HCl
108. Molar mass of the hydrocarbon (X) which on ozonolysis consumes one mole of O3 per mole of (X)
and gives one mole each of ethanol and propanone is ___________g mol–1 (Molar mass of C : 12 g
mol–1, H : 1 gmol–1)

109. The major product ‘A’ of the following given reaction has ______ sp2 hybridized carbon atoms.
+
H

2,7-Dimethyl-2, 6-octadiene ⟶ A
Major Product

110. Number of grams of bromine that will completely react with 5.0 g of pent-1-ene is _____________ ×
10–2 g.
(Atomic mass of Br = 80 g/mol) [Nearest Integer]

Alkynes

111. But-2-yne is reacted separately with one mole of Hydrogen as shown below:

A. A is more soluble than B.

B. The boiling point & melting point of A are higher and lower than B respectively.
C. A is more polar than B because dipole moment of A is zero.
D. Br adds easily to B than A.
2

Identify the incorrect statements from the options given below:

(A) C & D only (B) A and B only
(C) A, C & D only (D) B and C only
112.
The major product of the following reaction is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

113. The major product (Y) in the following reactions is:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
114. Which of the following, upon treatment with tert- BuONa followed by addition of bromine water, fails
to decolourize the colour of bromine ?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

115. Which of the following reactions will yield 2, 2- dibromopropane?

(A) CH − C ≡ CH + 2HBr →
3

(B) CH CH = CHBr + HBr →

3

(C) CH ≡ CH + 2HBr →
(D) CH − CH = CH + HBr →
3 2

116. Alkyl halides react with dialkyl copper reagents to give

(A) alkyl copper halides (B) alkenes
(C) alkenyl halides (D) alkanes

117. Which of these will not react with acetylene -

(A) NaOH (B) ammoniacal AgNO3
(C) Na (D) HCl

118. In bromination of Propyne, with Bromine 1,1,2,2-tetrabromopropane is obtained in 27% yield. The
amount of 1,1,2,2-tetrabromopropane obtained from 1 g of Bromine in this reaction is _______ × 10–1
g. (Nearest integer)
(Molar Mass : Bromine = 80 g/mol)

119. Consider the following chemical reaction.

(1) Red hot Fe tube, 873 K

HC ≡ CH −−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−→ Product
(2) CO+HCl / AlCl3

The number of sp2 hybridized carbon atom(s) present in the product is _______.
Alkyl Halide

120. Assertion A : Hydrolysis of an alkyl chloride is a slow reaction but in the presence of NaI, the rate of
the hydrolysis increases.
Reason R : I– is a good nucleophile as well as a good leaving group.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A) A is false but R is true
(B) A is true but R is false
(C) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A
(D) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
121.

The major product of the above reactions is:

(A)

(B)
 (C)

(D)

122.

The above reaction requires which of the following reaction conditions?

(A) 623 K, 300 atm (B) 573 K, 300 atm
(C) 573 K, Cu, 300 atm (D) 623 K, Cu 300 atm

123. The decreasing order of reactivity towards dehydrohalogenation (E1) reaction of the following
compounds is :
(A)
(B)

(C)

(D)

(A) B > D> C > A (B) D > B > C >A

(C) B > A > D > C (D) B > D > A >C
124. The major product of the following reaction is :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

125. The synthesis of alkyl fluorides is best accomplished by :

(A) Free radical fluorination
(B) Sandmeyer's reaction
(C) Finkelstein reaction
(D) Swarts reaction
126. The structure of the major product formed in the following reaction is

NaCN

−
−−→
DMF

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

127. Tertiary alkyl halides are practically inert to substitution by SN2 mechanism because of -
(A) instability (B) insolubility
(C) steric hindrance (D) inductive effect

128. The decreasing order of nucleophilicity among the nucleophiles

(A) III < II < I < IV

(B) II > III > I > IV
(C) IV < III < II < I
(D) I < II < III < IV
129. Number of moles of AgCl formed in the following reaction is _______.

AgNO3 ⏐
⏐
−−−→ (A) + X AgCl ⏐
↓

Grignard Reagent

130. 'R' formed in the following sequence of reactions is:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

131. Which of the following conditions or reaction sequence will NOT give acetophenone as the major
product?

(A) (a) (b) Na2Cr2O7, H+

(B) (a) (b) PCC, DCM

(C)

(D)
132. The product formed in the first step of the reaction of-

with excess Mg/Et2O(Et =C2H5) is :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

133. Which of the following compounds reacts with ethyl magnesium bromide and also decolourizes
bromine water solution?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

134. Acetyl bromide reacts with excess of CH3MgI followed by treatment with a saturated solution of
NH4CI gives
(A) acetone
(B) acetamide
(C) 2 - methyl - 2 - propanol
(D) butan - 2 - one

135. CH3 − Mg − Br is an organo metallic compound due to-

(A) Mg − Br bond (B) C − Mg bond
(C) C − Br bond (D) C − H bond

136. To synthesise 1.0 mole of 2-methylpropan-2-ol from Ethylethanoate ___________ equivalents of

CH3MgBr reagent will be required. (Integer value)
137. The number of chiral centres present in [B] is ________

Alcohol, Phenol , Ether

138. Find out the major product for the following reaction.
+
H3 O

−−→ Major Product

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

139. Hex-4-ene-2-ol on treatment with PCC gives 'A'. 'A' on reaction with sodium hypoiodite gives 'B',
which on further heating with soda lime gives 'C'. The compound 'C' is -
(A) 2–pentene
(B) propanaldehyde
(C) 2–butene
(D) 4–methylpent–2–ene

140. Main Products formed during a reaction of 1-methoxy naphthalene with hydroiodic acid are :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
141. In the following reactions sequence, structure of A and B respectively will be

(Intramolecular Product) B

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

142. The major products of the following reaction are:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
143. The major product formed in the following reaction is :-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

144. Phenol is heated with a solution of mixture of KBr and KBrO3. The major product obtained in the
above reaction is -
(A) 3-Bromophenol
(B) 4-Bromophenol
(C) 2, 4, 6- Tribromophenol
(D) 2-Bromophenol

145. A trisubstituted compound 'A', C H O gives neutral FeCl test positive. Treatment of compound 'A'
10 12 2 3

with NaOH and CH Br gives C H O , with hydroiodic acid gives methyl iodide and with hot conc.
3 11 14 2

NaOH gives a compound B, C H

10 O . Compound 'A' also decolorises alkaline KMnO . The number
12 2 4

of π bond/s present in the compound 'A' is.

146. Compound ‘P’ on nitration with dil. HNO3 yields two isomers (A) and (B). These isomers can be
separated by steam distillation. Isomers (A) and (B) show the intramolecular and intermolecular
hydrogen bonding respectively. Compound (P) on reaction with conc. HNO3 yields a yellow
compound ‘C’, a strong acid. The number of oxygen atoms is present in compound ‘C’ _________.
147. In the following reaction

The % yield for reaction I is 60% and that of reaction II is 50%. The overall yield of the complete
reaction is____% [Nearest integer]

Carbonyl

148. Compound (X) undergoes following sequence of reactions to give the Lactone (Y).

Compound (X) is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
149.

Consider the above reaction sequence and identify the product B.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

150. Which one of the following carbonyl compounds cannot be prepared as major product by addition of
water on an alkyne in the presence of HgSO4 and H2SO4 ?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
151. What is the product of following reaction ?
(i) NaBH4

Hex – 3 – ynal −−−−−−−−−−−→

(ii) PBr3

(iii) Mg / ether

+
(iv) CO2 /H3 O

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

152. The major product formed in the following reaction is :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

153. The major product B formed in the following reaction sequence is:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
154. Trichloroacetaldehyde was subjected to Cannizzaro’s reaction by using NaOH. The mixture of the
products contains sodium trichloroacetate and another compound. The other compound is :
(A) Trichloromethanol
(B) 2, 2, 2-Trichloropropanol
(C) Chloroform
(D) 2, 2, 2-Trichloroethanol

155. Which of the following on heating with aqueous KOH, produces acetaldehyde?
(A) CH3COCl (B) CH3CH2Cl
(C) CH2ClCH2Cl (D) CH3CHCl2

156. Number of isomeric compounds with molecular formula C H O which (i) do not dissolve in NaOH
9 10

(ii) do not dissolve in HCl. (iii) do not give orange precipitate with 2, 4– DNP (iv) on hydrogenation
give identical compound with molecular formula C H O is :-
9 12

157.

In the above reaction, 5g of toluene is converted into benzaldehyde with 92% yield. The amount of
benzaldehyde produced is _________ ×10-2g. (Nearest integer)
[Divide your Answer by 10]

158. The number of nitrogen atoms in a semicarbazone molecule of acetone is _______

Carboxylic Acid

159.
NH3 Br2

'A' (C6 H6 Cl2 O) −→ C6 H8 ClNO −−

−→
NaOH

Consider the above reaction, the compound ‘A’ is :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
160. An organic compound ‘A’ on reaction with NH3 followed by heating gives compound B. Which one
further strong heating gives compound C (C8H5NO2). Compound C on sequential reaction with
ethanolic KOH, alkyl chloride and hydrolysis with alkali gives a primary amine. The compound A is:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

161.
o
(i) DIBAL−H, Toluene, −78 C

−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−→ " P "

+
(ii) H3 O (Major product)

The product "P" in the above reaction is:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
162. An aromatic compound 'A' having molecular formula C7H6O2 on treating with aqueous ammonia and
heating forms compound 'B'. The compound 'B' on reaction with molecular bromine and potassium
hydroxide provides compound 'C' having molecular formula C6H7N. The structure of 'A' is:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

163. The major product of the following reaction is

(i) Ni /H2

−−−−−−−→
(ii) DIBAL−H

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

164. The reagent(s) required for the following conversion are :-

(A) (i) LIAlH (ii) H O

4 3
+

(B) (i) B H (ii) DIBAL − H (iii) H O

2 6 3
+

(C) (i) B H (ii) SnCl / HCl (iii) H O

2 6 2 3
+

(D) (i) NaBH (ii) Raney Ni /H (iii) H

4 2 3O
+
165. In the reaction,
LiAlH4 PCl5

CH3 COOH −−−→ A−

−→

Alc. KOH

B−−−−−→ C

the product C is ?
(A) Ethylene (B) Acetyl chloride
(C) Acetaldehyde (D) Acetylene

166. Which of the following reagents may be used to distinguish between phenol and benzoic acid?
(A) Aqueous NaOH (B) Tollen's reagent
(C) Molisch's reagent (D) Neutral FeCl3

167. The product in the following sequence of reactions has______

+
KMnO4 –KOH H3 O Br2

−−−−−−−→ A−−→ B−−→ C

Δ FeBr2

Acid Derivatives

168. Two statements are given below:

Statement I : The melting point of monocarboxylic acid with even number of carbon atoms is higher
than that of with odd number of carbon atoms acid immediately below and above it in the series.
Statement II : The solubility of monocarboxylic acids in water decreases with increase in molar mass.
Choose the most appropriate option:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

169. (CH3 ) CLi

3
(i) CO2

−−−−−→ [A] −−−−→ [B]

+
(ii) H3 O

In the given conversion the compound A is :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
170.

Alkaline KMnO4

−−−−−−−−−→" X "
+
H

Considering the above chemical reaction, identity the product “X” :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
171. Which dicarboxylic acid in presence of a dehydrating agent is least reactive to give an anhydride?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

172. The major product of the following reaction is:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
173. The strongest acid among the following compound is-
(A) CH3COOH (B) HCOOH
(C) CH3CH2CH(Cl)CO2H (D) ClCH2CH2CH2COOH

174. Cl2 alc. KOH

CH3CH2COOH −−→ A −−−−→ B. What is B ?

red P

(A) CH3CH2COCI (B) CH3CH2CHO

(C) CH2 = CHCOOH (D) CICH2CH2COOH

175. The number of compound/s given below which contain/s —COOH group is ______.
(1) Sulphanilic acid
(2) Picric acid
(3) Aspirin
(4) Ascorbic acid

Amine (-NH2) Test Of Phenol

176. The azo-dye (Y) formed in the following reactions is -

Sulphanilic acid + NaNO2 + CH3COOH → X.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
177. Identify the product “A” in the following reaction.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
178.

Compound P is neutral, Q gives effervescence with NaHCO3 while R reacts with Hinsbergs reagent to
give solid soluble in NaOH. Compound P is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

179.
The reaction of with bromine and KOH gives RNH2 as the end product. Which one of the

following is the intermediate product formed in this reaction ?

(A)

(B)
(C)

(D)
180. Match List I with List II.
List-I List-II
A. Benzenesulphonyl I. Test for primary
choride amines
B. Hoffmann bromamide
II. Anti Saytzaff
reaction
C. Carbylamine reaction III. Hingsberg reagent
IV. Known reation of
D. Hoffmann orientation
Isocyanates.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(B) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(C) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(D) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

181.

Consider the given reaction, percentage yield of -

(A) A > C > B (B) B > C > A
(C) C > B > A (D) C > A > B
182. The major product Z obtained in the following reaction scheme is:

NaNO2 / HCl Cu2 Br2

−−−−−−−→ X−−−→
273−278K

HNO3

Y−−−→ Z
H2 SO4

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

183. Which of the following is NOT a correct method of the preparation of benzylamine from
cyanobenzene ?
(A) (i) HCl/H2O (ii) NaBH4
(B) (i) LiAlH4 (ii) H3O+
(C) (i) SnCl2 + HCl(gas) (ii) NaBH4
(D) H2/Ni

184. Number of isomeric aromatic amines with molecular formula C 8 H11 N , which can be synthesized by
Gabriel Phthalimide synthesis is_________.
185. The total number of reagents from those given below, that can convert nitrobenzene into aniline is
_________. (Integer answer)
I. Sn – HCl
II. Sn – NH4OH
III. Fe – HCl
IV. Zn – HCl
V. H2 – Pd
VI. H2 – Raney Nickel

Aromatic Compounds

186. Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
Reaction Reagent(s)

Na2Cr2O7,
(A) (i)
H2SO4

(i) NaOH
(B) (ii)
(ii) CH3Cl

(i) NaOH,
(C) (iii) CHCl3
(ii) HCl

(i) NaOH
(4) (iv) (ii) CO2
(iii) HCl
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
(B) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
(C) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
(D) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
187. Match list I with list II.
List I List II
Reactants Product
A. Phenol, Zn/Δ I. Salicylaldehyde
B. Phenol, CHCl3, NaOH, HCl II. Salicylic acid
C. Phenol, CO2, NaOH, HCl III. Benzene
D. Phenol, Conc. HNO3 IV. Picric acid
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A-(IV), B-(I), C-(II), D-(III)
(B) A-(III), B-(I), C-(II), D-(IV)
(C) A-(IV), B-(II), C-(I), D-(III)
(D) A-(III), B-(IV), C-(I), D-(II)

188. In the above conversion of compound (X) to product (Y), the sequence of reagents to be used will be:

(A) (i) Br (aq) (ii) LiAIH

2 4 (iii)H3 O
+

(B) (i) Br , Fe (ii) Fe, H

2
+
(iii) LiAIH4

(C) (i) Fe, H (ii) Br (aq. )

+
2 (iii) HNO2 (iv) H3 PO2

(D) (i) Fe, H (ii) Br (aq. )

+
2 (iii) HNO2 (iv) CuBr

189. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of rate of aromatic electrophilic substitution
reaction

(A) c, a, b, d
(B) d, b, c, a
(C) d, b, a, c (D) b, c, a, d

190. Arrange the following in increasing order of reactivity towards nitration

A. p-xylene B. bromobenzene C. mesitylene
D. nitrobenzene E. benzene
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(A) C<D<E<A<B
(B) D<B<E<A<C
(C) D<C<E<A<B
(D) C<D<E<B<A
191. The correct order of the following compounds showing increasing tendency towards nucleophilic
substitution reaction is -

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(A) (iv) < (i) < (iii) < (ii)

(B) (iv) < (i) < (ii) < (iii)
(C) (i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv)
(D) (iv) < (iii) < (ii) < (i)

192. Match Column-I with Column-II

Column-I Column-II

(a)
(i) Wurtz
reaction

(b)
(ii)
Sandmeyer
reaction

(c) 2CH3CH2Cl + 2Na −−→ C2H5– (iii) Fittig

Ether

C2H5 + 2NaCl reaction

(iv)
Ether

(d) 2C6H5Cl +2Na −−→ Gattermann

C6H5– C6H5 + 2NaCl reaction
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(B) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(C) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(D) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

193. 9.3g of aniline is subjected to reaction with excess of acetic anhydride to prepare acetanilide. The mass
of acetanilide produced if the reaction is 100% completed is _____ g.
(Given molar mass in g mol–1 N : 14, O : 16, C : 12, H : 1)

194. Number of compounds from the following which cannot undergo Friedel-Crafts reactions is: ______
toluene, nitrobenzene, xylene, cumene, aniline, chlorobenzene, m-nitroaniline, m-dinitrobenzene
195. Number of electrophillic centers in the given compound is _______.

Biomolecules

196. Match List I with List II:

List-I List-II
(A) Glucose/NaHCO3/Δ I. Gluconic acid
(B) Glucose/HNO3 II. No reaction
(C) Glucose/HI/Δ III. n-hexane
(D) Glucose/Bromine water IV. Saccharic acid
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A-IV,B-I, C-III, D-II
(B) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(C) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(D) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

197. Match List I with List II

List I List II (Deficiency
(Vitamin) disease)
A Vitamin A I Beri-Beri
B Thiamine II Cheilosis
C Ascorbic acid III Xeropthalmia
D Riboflavin IV Scurvy
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (A) – IV, (B) – II, (C) – III (D) –I
(B) (A) – III, (B) – I, (C) – IV (D) –II
(C) (A) – III, (B) – II, (C) – IV (D) –I
(D) (A) – IV, (B) – I, (C) – III (D) –II

198. Which of the following statement is not true of glucose ?

(A) Glucose given Schiff's test for aldehyde.
(B) The pentaacetate of glucose does not react with hydroxylamine to give oxime
(C) Glucose reacts with hydroxylamine
(D) Glucose exists in two crystalline forms α and β

199. Amylopectin is composed of :

(A) α-D-glucose, C1 − C4 and C1 − C6 Linkages
(B) β-D-glucose, C1−C4 and C2−C6 linkages
(C) β-D-glucose, C1−C4 and C2 −C6 linkages
(D) β-D- glucose, C1−C4 and C1−C6 linkages
200. Among the following, the incorrect statement is :
(A) Maltose and lactose has 1, 4-glycosidic linkage
(B) Sucrose and amylose has 1, 2-glycosidic linkage
(C) Cellulose and amylose has 1, 4-glycosidic linkage
(D) Lactose contains β − D-galactose and β − D-glucose

201. In both DNA and RNA, heterocyclic base and phosphate ester linkages are at-
(A) C − 5 and C − 2 respectively of the sugar molecule
′ ′

(B) C − 2
′
and C − 5 respectively of the sugar molecule
′

(C) C − 1 and C − 5 respectively of the sugar molecule

′ ′

(D) C − 5 and C − 1 respectively of the sugar molecule

′ ′

202. Identify the correct statement regarding enzymes :

(A) Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that can normally function at very high
temperatures (T~ 1000 K)
(B) Enzymes are normally heterogeneous catalysts that are very specific in their action
(C) Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that cannot be poisoned
(D) Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that possess well-defined active sites

203. Testosterone, which is a steroidal hormone, has the following structure.

The total number of asymmetric carbon atom/s in testosterone is _______.

204. Number of compounds from the following which will not produce orange red precipitate with
Benedict solution is_____
Glucose, maltose, sucrose, ribose, 2-deoxyribose, amylose, lactose

205. The number of chiral carbons present in sucrose is ______.

Practical Organic Chemistry (POC)

206. The fragrance of flowers is due to the presence of some steam volatile organic compounds called
essential oils. These are generally insoluble in water at room temperature but are miscible with water
vapor in vapor phase. A suitable method for the extraction of these oils from the flowers is -
(A) distillation
(B) steam distillation
(C) distillation under reduced pressure
(D) crystallization

207. Match the List-I with List-II :

Cations Group reaction
A. Pb2+, (i) H2S gas in presence of dilute
Cu2+ HCl
B. Al3+, (ii) (NH4)2CO3 in presence of
Fe3+ NH4OH
C. Co2+, (iii) NH4OH in presence of
Ni2+ NH4CI
D. Ba2+,
(iv) H2S in presence of NH4OH
Ca2+

(A) A → iii, B → i, C → iv, D → ii

(B) A → i, B → iii, C → ii, D → iv
(C) A → iv, B → ii, C → iii, D → i
(D) A → i, B → iii, C → iv, D → ii

208. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In‘Lassaigne’s Test’, when both nitrogen and sulphur are present in an organic
compound, sodium thiocyanate is formed.
Statement II: If both nitrogen and sulphur are present in an organic compound, then the excess of
sodium used in sodium fusion will decompose the sodium thiocyanate formed to give NaCN and
Na2S.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

209. Which of the following is 'a' FALSE statement ?

(A) Carius tube used in the estimation of sulphur in an organic compound
(B) Kjeldahl's method is used for the estimation of nitrogen in an organic compound
(C) Phosphoric acid produced on oxidation of phosphorus present in an organic compound is
precipitated as Mg2P2O7 by adding magnesia mixture
(D) Carius method is used for the estimation of nitrogen in an organic compound
210. Match the following :
Test/Method Reagent
C H SO Cl/aq.
(i) Lucas Test (a) 6 5 2
KOH
Dumas method
(ii) (b) HNO3/AgNO3
Kjeldahl's
(iii) (c) CuO/CO2
method
Conc. HCl and
(iv) Hinsberg Test (d)
ZnCl2
(e) H2SO4

(A) (i)-(d),(ii)-(c),(iii)-(e),(iv)-(a)
(B) (i)-(b),(ii)-(a),(iii)-(c),(iv)-(d)
(C) (i)-(b),(ii)-(d),(iii)-(e),(iv)-(a)
(D) (i)-(d),(ii)-(c),(iii)-(b)-(iv)-(e)

211. The test performed on compound X and their inferences are

Test Inference
(A) 2, 4 –DNP test Coloured precipitate
(B) Iodoform test Yellow precipitate
(C) Azo-dye test No dye formation
Compound ‘X’ is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
212. The correct match between items of List-I and List-II is :
List-I List-II
Steam
A Coloured impurity P
distillation
Mixture of
Fractional
B o-nitrophenol and Q
distillation
p-nitrophenol
Charcoal
C Crude Naphtha R
treatment
Distillation
Mixture of glycerol under
D S
and sugars reduced
pressure

(A) (A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(P), (D)-(Q)

(B) (A)-(R), (B)-(P), (C)-(Q), (D)-(S)
(C) (A)-(P), (B)-(S), (C)-(R), (D)-(Q)
(D) (A)-(P), (B)-(S), (C)-(R), (D)-(Q)

213. The separation of two coloured substances was done by paper chromatography. The distances travelled
by solvent front, substance A and B from the base line are 3.25 cm, 2.08 cm and 1.05 cm, respectively.
The ratio of Rf values of A to B is_____.

Atomic Structure

214. Match List I with List II :

List I (Spectral List II (Spectral Region /
Series for Higher
Hydrogen) Energy State)
A. Lyman I. Infrared region
B. Balmer II. UV region
C. Paschen III. Infrared region
D. Pfund IV. Visible region
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(B) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(C) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(D) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

215. The wave function (Ψ) of 2s is given by

1/2
1 1 r −r/2a0
Ψ2s = ( ) (2 − )e
a0 a0
2√2π

At r = r0, radial node is formed. Thus, r0 in terms of a0

(A) r 0 = 4a0

(B) r
a0
0 =
2

(C) r 0 = a0

(D) r 0 = 2a0
216. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R :
Assertion A : In the photoelectric effect, the electrons are ejected from the metal surface as soon as
the beam of light of frequency greater than threshold frequency strikes the surface.
Reason R: When the photon of any energy strikes an electron in the atom, transfer of energy from the
photon to the electron takes place.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
:
(A) A is correct but R is not correct
(B) A is not correct but R is correct
(C) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A​
(D) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

217. Consider the following statements:

(a) The principal quantum number ‘n’ is a positive integer with values of ‘n’ = 1, 2, 3, ……
(b) The azimuthal quantum number ‘l’ for a given ‘n’ (principal quantum number) can have values as
‘l’ = 0, 1, 2, …. n
(c) Magnetic orbital quantum number ‘ml’ for a particular ‘l’ (azimuthal quantum number) has (2l + l)
values.
(d) ±½ are the two possible orientations of electron spin.
(e) For l=5, there will be a total of 9 orbital
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) (a), (b) and (c)
(B) (a), (c), (d) and (e)
(C) (a), (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
218. Which of the following is the correct plot for the probability density Ψ 2
(r) as a function of distance ‘r’
of the electron from the nucleus for 2s orbitals ?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

219. According to Bohr's atomic theory :

(A) Kinetic energy of electron is ∝
2
Z

2
n

(B) The product of velocity (v) of electron and principal quantum number (n). 'vn' ∝ Z
2
.
(C) Frequency of revolution of electron in an orbit is ∝ .
3
Z

n3

(D) Coulombic force of attraction on the electron is ∝ .

3
Z
4
n

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A) (C) only
(B) (A) and (D) only
(C) (A) only
(D) (A), (C) and (D) only

220. For the Balmer series in the spectrum of H atom,

→
v = RH {
1

2
−
1

2
} , the correct statements among (I)
n n
1 2

to (IV) are :
(I)As wavelength decreases, the lines in the series converge
(II)The integer n1 is equal to 2
(III)The lines of longest wavelength corresponds to n2 = 3
(IV) The ionization energy of hydrogen can be calculated from wave number of these lines
(A) (I), (II), (III) (B) (II), (III), (IV)
(C) (I), (II), (IV) (D) (I), (III), (IV)
221. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is – 13. 6 eV . The energy of second excited state He
+
ion
in eV is :
(A) – 6. 04 (B) – 27. 2
(C) – 54. 4 (D) – 3. 4

222. Number of spectral lines obtained in He spectra, when an electron makes transition from fifth excited
+

state to first excited state will be

223. The value of Rydberg constant (RH) is 2. 18 × 10 J. The velocity of electron having mass
−18

kg in Bohr’s first orbit of hydrogen atom = _______ ×10 ms (nearest integer)

−31 5 −1
9. 1 × 10

224. Electrons in a cathode ray tube have been emitted with a velocity of 1000 ms . The number of
−1

following statements which is/are true about the emitted radiation is :-

Given : h = 6 × 10−34
Js, m = 9 × 10
e
−31
kg

(A) The deBroglie wavelength of the electron emitted is 666.67 nm

(B) The characteristic of electrons emitted depend upon the material of the electrodes of the cathode
ray tube.
(C) The cathode rays start from cathode and move towards anode.
(D) The nature of the emitted electrons depends on the nature of the gas present in cathode ray tube.

225. If the work function of a metal is 6. 63 × 10 J, the maximum wavelength of the photon required to
−19

remove a photoelectron from the metal is ___________nm. (Nearest integer)

[Given : h = 6.63 × 10 Js, and c = 3 × 10 ms ]
−34 8 −1

226. A ball weighing 10g is moving with a velocity of 90ms-1. If the uncertainty in its velocity is 5%, then
the uncertainty in its position is ________×10-33m. (Rounded off to the nearest integer)
[Given : h = 6.63×10-34 Js]

227. The value of magnetic quantum number of the outermost electron of Zn+ ion is __________. (Integer
answer)

Stoichiometry (I)

228. A sample of CaCO3 and MgCO3 weighed 2.21 g is ignited to constant weight of 1.152 g. The
composition of mixture is: (Given molar mass in g mol–1 CaCO3 : 100, MgCO3: 84)
(A) 1.023 g CaCO3 + 1.187 g MgCO3
(B) 1.18723 g CaCO3 + 1.187 g MgCO3
(C) 1.187 g CaCO3 + 1.023 g MgCO3
(D) 1.023 g CaCO3 + 1.023 g MgCO3
229. '25 volume' hydrogen peroxide means
(A) 1 L marketed solution contains 25 g of H2O2.
(B) 1 L marketed solution contains 75 g of H2O2.
(C) 1 L marketed solution contains 250 g of H2O2.
(D) 100 mL marketed solution contains 25 g of H2O2.

230. Compound A contains 8.7% Hydrogen, 74% Carbon and 17.3% Nitrogen. The molecular formula of
the compound is,
Given: Atomic masses of C, H and N are 12, 1 and 14 amu respectively.
The molar mass of the compound A is 162 g mol–1.

(A) C4H6N2 (B) C2H3N

(C) C5H7N (D) C10H14N2

231. Complete combustion of 1.80 g of an oxygen containing compound (CxHyOz) gave 2.64 g of CO2 and
1.08 g of H2O. The percentage of oxygen in the organic compound is:
(A) 63.53 (B) 53.33
(C) 51.63 (D) 50.33

232. A solution of two components containing n1 moles of the 1st component and n2 moles of the 2nd
component is prepared. M1 and M2 are the molecular weights of component 1 and 2 respectively. If d
is the density of the solution in g mL–1, C2 is the molarity and x2 is the mole fraction of the 2nd
component, then C2 can be expressed as :
(A) C 2=
dx1

M2 +x2 (M2 -M1 )

(B) C 2=
1000x2

M1 +x2 (M2 -M1 )

(C) C 2=
dx2

M2 +x2 (M2 -M1 )

(D) C
1000dx2
2=
M1 +x2 (M2 -M1 )

233. A solution of H2SO4 is 31.4% H2SO4 by mass and has a density of 1.25g/mL. The molarity of the
H2SO4 solution is_________ M (nearest integer).
[Given molar mass of H2SO4 = 98g mol–1]

234. Consider the following reaction :

3PbCl2 + 2(NH4)3 PO4 → Pb3(PO4)2 + 6NH4Cl
If 72 mmol of PbCl2 is mixed with 50 mmol of (NH4)3 PO4, then the amount of Pb3(PO4)2 formed is
_________mmol (nearest integer).

235. The number of units, which are used to express concentration of solutions from the following is
_________.
Mass percent, Mole, Mole fraction, Molarity, ppm, Molality.

236. Two elements A and B which form 0.15 moles of A2B and AB3 type compounds. If both A2B and AB3
weigh equally, then the atomic weight of A is _____ times of atomic weight of B.
237.

In the above reaction, 3.9 g of benzene on nitration gives 4.92 g of nitrobenzene. The percentage yield
of nitrobenzene in the above reaction is _____%. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
(Given atomic mass : C : 12.0 u, H : 1.0 u, O : 16.0 u, N : 14.0 u)

Stoichiometry(II) - Redox Reaction

238. Chlorine undergoes disproportionation in alkaline medium as shown below :

a Cl2(g) + b OH–(aq) → c ClO–(aq) + d Cl–(aq) + e H2O(l)
The value of a, b, c and d in a balanced redox reaction are respectively :
(A) 2, 2, 1 and 3 (B) 1, 2, 1 and 1
(C) 2, 4, 1 and 3 (D) 3, 4, 4 and 2

239. Given below are two statement :

Statement I : In redox titration, the indicators used are sensitive to change in pH of the solution.
Statement II : In acid-base titration, the indicators used are sensitive to change in oxidation potential.
In the light of the above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(A) Both statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(B) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

240. In neutral or alkaline solution, MnO oxidises thiosulphate to:

−

(A) S O
2
2−

7
(B) S O
2
2−

(C) SO 2−

3
(D) SO 2−

241. The compound that cannot act both as oxidising and reducing agent is:
(A) H2O2 (B) HNO2
(C) H2SO3 (D) H3PO4

242. 50 mL of 0.5 M oxalic acid is needed to neutralize 25 mL of sodium hydroxide solution. The amount
of NaOH in 50 mL of the given sodium hydroxide solution is :
(A) 10 g (B) 80 g
(C) 4 g (D) 20 g

243. From the given list, the number of compounds with +4 oxidation state of Sulphur is _________ .
SO3, H2SO3, SOCl2, SF4, BaSO4, H2S2O7
244. When Fe0.93O is heated in presence of oxygen, it converts to Fe2O3. The number of correct statement/s
from the following is _______.
A. The equivalent weight of Fe0.93O is
Molecular weight

0.79

B. The number of moles of Fe2+ and Fe3+ in 1 mole of Fe0.93O is 0.79 and 0.14 respectively.
C. Fe0.93O is metal deficient with lattice comprising of cubic closed packed arrangement of O2- ions.
D. The % composition of Fe2+ and Fe3+ in Fe0.93O is 85% and 15% respectively.

245. The titration curve of weak acid vs. strong base with phenolphthalein as indictor) is shown below. The
Kphenolphthalein = 4×10-10
Given : log 2 = 0.3

The number of following statements/s which is/are correct about phenolphthalein is__________
(1) It can be used as an indicator for the titration of weak acid with weak base.
(2) It begins to change colour at pH = 8.4
(3) It is a weak organic base
(4) It is colourless in acidic medium

246. Dichromate ion is treated with base, the oxidation number of Cr in the product formed is :

247. Consider the following equations :

2+
2 Fe + H 2 O2 → x A + y B

(in basic medium)

− +
2 MnO +6 H + 5 H 2 O2 →
4

x'C + y'D + z'E (in acidic medium)

The sum of the stoichiometric coefficients x, y, x’, y’ and z’ for products A, B, C, D and E,
respectively, is _________.

Solution And Colligative Properties

248. A solution of two miscible liquids showing negative deviation from Raoult’s law will have ?
(A) decreased vapour pressure, increased boiling point
(B) increased vapour pressure, decreased boiling point
(C) decreased vapour pressure, decreased boiling point
(D) increased vapour pressure, increased boiling point
249. Match List I with List II.
Column I Column II
van't Hoff
A. I. Cryoscopic constant
factor, i
B. kf II. Isotonic solutions
Solutions with
C. same osmotic III. Normal

Abnomal
molar

molar
mass

mass

pressure
Solutions with same
D. Azeotropes IV. composition of vapour
above it
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(B) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(C) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(D) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

250. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R).
Assertion :At 10°C, the density of a 5 M solution of KCl [atomic masses of K & Cl are 39 &
35. 5 gmol
−1
respectively is 'x' g ml–1. The solution is cooled to – 21°C the molality of the solution will
remain unchanged.
Reason (R) : The molality of a solution does not change with temperature as mass remains unaffected
with temperature.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but(R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

251. A graph of vapour pressure and temperature for three different liquids X, Y and Z is shown below:

The following inferences are made :

(A) X has higher intermolecular interactions compared to Y
(B) X has lower intermolecular interactions compared to Y.
(C) Z has lower intermolecular interactions compared to Y.
(A) (B) (B) (C)
(C) (A) (D) (A)and (C)
252. Henry’s constant (in kbar) for four gases α, β, γ and δ in water at 298 K is given below:
α β γ δ

KH 5.0 2 2 × 10–5 0.5

(Density of water = 103 kg m–3 at 298 K)
This table implies that:
(A) solubility of γ at 308 K is lower than at 298 K
(B) The pressure of a 55.5 molal solution of δ is 250 bar
(C) α has the highest solubility in water at a given pressure
(D) The pressure of a 55.5 molal solution of γ is 1 bar

253. Liquids A and B form an ideal solution in the entire composition range. At 350 K, the vapor pressures
of pure A and pure B are 7 × 10 Pa and 12 × 10 Pa, respectively. The composition of the vapor in
3 3

equilibrium with a solution containing 40 mole percent of A at this temperature is:

(A) x A = 0. 28; xB = 0. 72

(B) x A = 0. 76; xB = 0. 24

(C) x A = 0. 37; xB = 0. 63

(D) x A = 0. 4; xB = 0. 6

254. 8g of NaOH is dissolved in 18g of H2O mole fraction of NaOH in solution and molality (in mol kg–1)
of the solution respectively are -
(A) 0.2, 22.20 (B) 0.167, 22.20
(C) 0.2, 11.11 (D) 0.167, 11.11

255. Two 5 molal solutions are prepared by dissolving a non-electrolyte non-volatile solute separately in
the solvents X and Y. The molecular weights of the solvents are M and M , respectively where
X Y

M . The relative lowering of vapour pressure of the solution in X is " m " times that of the
3
M X = Y
4

solution in Y. Given that the number of moles of solute is very small in comparison to that of solvent,
the value of "m" is -
(A) 3

4
(B) 4

(C) 1

2
(D) 1

256. Mass of ethylene glycol (antifreeze) to be added to 18.6 kg of water to protect the freezing point at –
24°C is _______ kg (Molar mass in g mol–1 for ethylene glycol 62, Kf of water = 1.86 K kg mol–1)
[Give your answer in nearest integer]

257. The total pressure observed by mixing two liquid A and B is 350 mm Hg when their mole fractions are
0.7 and 0.3 respectively.
The total pressure becomes 410 mm Hg if the mole fractions are changed to 0.2 and 0.8 respectively
for A and B. The vapour pressure of pure A is ______ mm Hg. (Nearest integer)
Consider the liquids and solutions behave ideally.

258. A 0.5 percent solution of potassium chloride was found to freeze at –0.24°C. The percentage
dissociation of potassium chloride is __________. (Nearest integer)
(Molal depression constant for water is 1.80 K kg mol–1 and molar mass of KCl is 74.6 g mol–1)
259. When 12.2 g of benzoic acid is dissolved in 100g of water, the freezing point of solution was found to
be –0.93oC (Kf (H2O) = 1.86 K kg mol-1). The number (n) of benzoic acid molecules associated
(assuming 100% association ) is_____________.

260. The mole fraction of glucose (C6H12O6) in an aqueous binary solution is 0.1. The mass percentage of
water in it, to the nearest integer, is _________.

261. The elevation of boiling point of 0.10m aqueous CrCl3.xNH3 solution is two times that of 0.05 m
aqueous CaCl2 solution. The value of x is.................
[Assume 100% ionization of the complex and CaCl2, coordination number of Cr as 6, and that all NH3
molecules are present inside the coordination sphere]

262. 2 molal solution of a weak acid HA has a freezing point of 3.885ºC. The degree of dissociation of this
acid is _________ × 10–3. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
[Given : Molal depression constant of water = 1.85 K kg mol–1 Freezing point of pure water = 0ºC]

263. Of the following four aqueous solutions, total number of those solutions whose freezing points is
lower than that of 0.10 M C2H5OH is _____ (Integer answer)
(1) 0.10 M Ba3(PO4)2 (2) 0.10 M Na2SO4
(3) 0.10 M KCl (4) 0.10 M Li3PO4

Chemical Equilibrium

264. A(g) ⇌ B(g) + C

2 (g)
The correct relationship between Kp, α and equilibrium pressure P is -
3 1
2 P2
(A) Kp = α

1/2
( 2+α) ( 1−α)
1 3
2 2
(B) KP = α P

3/2
( 2+α)
1 1
2 2
(C) KP = α P

3/2
( 2+α)
1 1
2 2
(D) KP = α P

1/2
( 2+α)

265. The effect of addition of helium gas to the following reaction in equilibrium state, is :
PCl5 (g) ⇌ PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)

(A) the equilibrium will shift in the forward direction and more of Cl and PCl gases will be
2 3

produced.
(B) the equilibrium will go backward due to suppression of dissociation of PCl ​ 5

(C) the equilibrium will go backward due to suppression of dissociation of PCl 5

(D) helium will deactivate PCl and reaction will stop

5
266. 4.0 moles of argon and 5.0 moles of PCl5 are introduced into an evacuated flask of 100 litre capacity
at 610 K. The system is allowed to equilibrate. At equilibrium, the total pressure of mixture was found
to be 6.0 atm. The Kp for the reaction is
[Given : R = 0.0821 L atm K–1mol–1]
(A) 2.25 (B) 6.24
(C) 12.13 (D) 15.24

267. In the figure shown below reactant A (represented by square) is in equilibrium with product
B(represented by circle). The equilibrium constant is :

(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 8 (D) 1

268. The variation of equilibrium constant with temperature is given below :

Temperature Equilibrium Constant
T1 = 25oC K1 = 10
T2 = 100oC K2 = 100
The value of ΔHº , ΔGº at T1 and ΔGº at T2 (in Kj mol–1) respectively, are close to [use R = 8.314JK–
1
mol–1]
(A) 28.4, -7.14 and -5.71
(B) 0.64, - 7.14 and -5.71
(C) 28.4, - 5.71 and -14.29
(D) 0.64, - 5.71 and -14.29

269. Consider the following reversible chemical reactions :

K1

A2 (g) + B2 (g) ⇌ 2 AB(g) ..... (1)

K2

6 AB(g) ⇌ ... (2)

3A2 (g) + 3B2 (g)

The relation between K1 and K2 is

(A) K1K2 = 1

3
(B) K1K2 = 3
(C) K2 = K1–3 (D) K2 = K13

270. K

In a chemical reaction, A + 2B ⇌ 2C+D, the initial concentration of B was 1.5 times of the
concentration of A, but the equilibrium concentrations of A and B were found to be equal. The
equalibrium constant(K) for the aforesaid chemical reaction is :
(A) 16 (B) 1
(C) 1/4 (D) 4
271. In which of the following reactions, an increase in the volume of the container will favour the
formation of products ?
(A) 2 NO (g) ⇌ 2 NO (g) + O
2 2 (g)

(B) 3O (g) ⇌ 2O (g)

2 3

(C) H (g) + I (g) ⇌ 2 HI (g)

2 2

(D)
4 NH3 (g) + 5O2 (g)

⇌ 4 NO (g) + 6H2 O (l)

272. Consider the following reaction at 298 K.

3
O2 (g) ⇌ O3 (g). Kp
2

–29
= 2. 47 × 10

\DeltarG° for the reaction is ________ kJ. (Given R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1 )

273. At 298K
N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌2NH3(g),
K1 = 4×105
N2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO(g),
K2 = 1.6 × 1012
H2(g) + O2(g) ⇌H2O (g),
1

K3 = 1.0 × 10–13
Based on above equilibria, the equilibrium constant of the reaction, 2NH3(g) + O2(g)⇌
5

2NO(g) + 3H2O(g) is _______× 10–33

(Nearest integer).

274. The stepwise formation of [Cu(NH3)4]2+ is given below:

K1
2+ 2+
Cu + NH3 ⇌ [Cu (NH3 )]
K2
2+ 2+
[Cu (NH3 )] + NH3 ⇌ [Cu (NH3 ) ]
2

K3
2+ 2+
[Cu (NH3 ) ] + NH3 ⇌ [Cu (NH3 ) ]
2 3

K4
2+ 2+
[Cu (NH3 ) ] + NH3 ⇌ [Cu (NH3 ) ]
3 4

The value of stability constants K1, K2, K3 and K4 are 104, 1.58 × 103 , 5 × 102 and 102 respectively.
The overall equilibrium constants for dissociation of [Cu(NH3)4]2+ is x × 10–12. The value of x is
______. (Rounded off to the nearest integer)
275. The reaction rate for the reaction
2−
[PtCl4 ] + H2 O

−
⇌ [Pt (H2 O) Cl3 ] + Cl

was measured as a function of concentrations of different species. It was observed that

2−
−d[PtCl4 ] ]
−5 −2
= 4 .8 ×10 [PtCl4 ] ]
dt

−3 − −
− 2. 4 × 10 [Pt(H2 O) Cl3 ] ] [Cl ]

where square brackets are used denote molar concentrations. The equilibrium constant
Kc = ___________. (Nearest integer)

276. The overall stability constant of the complex ion [Co(NH3)4]2+ is 2.1×1013 . The overall dissociation
constant is y×10-14 Then y is_______(Nearest integer)

277. For a reaction X + Y ⇌ 2Z, 1.0 mol of X, 1.5 mol of Y and 0.5 mol of Z were taken in a 1 L vessel
and allowed to react. At equilibrium, the concentration of Z was 1.0 mol L–1. The equilibrium constant
of reaction is ________ . The value of x is _________.

Chemical Kinetics

278. For a reaction A → B → C

K1 K2

If the rate of formation of B is set to be zero then the concentration of B is given by :

(A) K1K2[A] (B) (K1+K2)[A]
(C) (K1–K2)[A] (D) (K1/K2)[A]

279. A student has studied the decomposition of a gas AB3 25oC. He obtained the following data.
p(mmHg) 50 100 200 400

relative t1/2 ( s) 4 2 1 0. 5

The order of the reaction is:

(A) 0 (Zero) (B) 0.5
(C) 1 (D) 2

280. Consider the following reaction that goes from A to B in three steps as shown below:

Choose the correct option

(A) Number of intermediates -2, Number of Activated complex -3, Rate determining step-II
(B) Number of intermediates -3, Number of Activated complex -2, Rate determining step-II
(C) Number of intermediates -2, Number of Activated complex -3, Rate determining step-III
(D) Number of intermediates -2, Number of Activated complex -3, Rate determining step-I
281. At 30 °C, the half life for the decomposition of AB2 is 200 s and is independent of the initial
concentration of AB2. The time required for 80% of the AB2 to decompose is Given: log 2 = 0.34 log 3
= 0.48
(A) 200 s (B) 323 s
(C) 465 s (D) 532 s

282. For the following graphs,

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

(e)

Choose from the options given below, the correct one regarding order of reaction is:
(A) (b) and (d) Zero order (e) First order
(B) (a) and (b) Zero order (c) and (e) First order
(C) (a) and (b) Zero order (e) First order
(D) (b) Zero order (c) and (e) First order

283. Consider the following plots of rate constant versus for four different reactions. Which of the
1

following orders is correct for the activation energies of these reactions ?

(A) Eb > Ea > Ed > Ec (B) Ec > Ea > Ed > Eb

(C) Eb > Ed > Ec > Ea (D) Ea > Ec > Ed > Eb
284. The following results were obtained during kinetic studies of the reaction 2A+B Product; The time
(in minutes) required to consume half of A is:
Initial Rate of
[A] [B]
reaction
Experiment (in mol (in mol
(in mol L-1
L-1) L-1)
min-1)
I 0.10 0.20 6.93×10–3
II 0.10 0.25 6.93×10–3
III 0.20 0.30 1.386×10–2

(A) 1 (B) 10
(C) 5 (D) 100

285. N 2 O5decomposes to NO and O and follows first order kinetics. After 50 minutes, the pressure inside
2 2

the vessel increases from 50 mmHg to 87. 5 mmHg. The pressure of the gaseous mixture after 100
minute at constant temperature will be:
(A) 116. 25 mmHg (B) 175. 0 mmHg
(C) 106. 25 mmHg (D) 136. 25 mmHg

286. Time required for completion of 99.9% of a First order reaction is ______ times of half life (t1/2) of the
reaction.

287.
K1 K2
For a reaction taking place in three steps at same temperature, overall rate constant K = K3
. If Ea1,
Ea2 and Ea3 are 40, 50 and 60 kJ/mol respectively, the overall Ea is ________ kJ/mol.

288. The number of correct statement/s from the following is _______.

A. Larger the activation energy, smaller is the value of the rate constant.
B. The higher is the activation energy, higher is the value of the temperature coefficient.
C. At lower temperatures, increase in temperature causes more change in the value of k than at higher
temperature.
D. A plot of ln k vs is a straight line with slope equal to
1 −Ea

T R

289. A first order reaction has the rate constant, k = 4.6 × 10–3 s–1. The number of correct statement/s from
the following is/are ________.
Given : log 3 = 0.48
A. Reaction completes in 1000 s.
B. The reaction has a half-life of 500 s.
C. The time required for 10% completion is 25 times the time required for 90% completion.
D. The degree of dissociation is equal to (1 – e–kt).
E. The rate and the rate constant have the same unit.

290. Catalyst A reduces the activation energy for a reaction by 10 kJ mol–1 at 300 K. The ratio of rate
is ex. The value of x is ________. [Nearest integer]
k

constant,
T, Catalysed

k
T, Uncatalysed

[Assume that the pre-exponential factor is same in both the cases. Given R = 8.31 J K–1mol–1]
291. The following data was obtained for chemical reaction given below at 975 K.
2 NO(g) + 2H2 → N2 + 2H2 O(g)
(g) (g)

[NO] [H2] Rate

Mol L–1 Mol L–1 Mol L–1 s–1
(1) 8 × 10
−5
8 × 10
−5
7 × 10
−9

(2) 24 × 10
−5
8 × 10
−5
2. 1 × 10
−8

(3) 24 × 10
−5
32 × 10
−5
8. 4 × 10
−8

The order of the reaction with respect to NO is __________ (Integer answer)

292. For a first order reaction the ratio of the time for 75% completion of a reaction to the time for 50%
completion is_________(integer answer)

293. If 75% of a first order reaction was completed in 90 minutes, 60% of the same reaction would be
completed in approximately (in minutes) ________.
(Take: log 2 = 0.30; log 2.5 = 0.40)

Thermodynamics

294. Choose the correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition from the
following :
(A) q = 0, ΔT ≠ 0, w = 0
(B) q = 0, ΔT <0, w ≠ 0
(C) q ≠ 0, ΔT = 0, w = 0
(D) q = 0, ΔT = 0, w = 0

295. Which of the following relations are correct?

(A) ΔU = q + pΔV

(B) ΔG = ΔH − TΔS
qrev
(C) ΔS =
T

(D) ΔH = ΔU − ΔnRT

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(A) B and D Only (B) A and B Only
(C) B and C Only (D) C and D Only
296. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
Spontaneous
(A) (I) ΔH < 0
process
Process with ΔP =
(B) (II) ΔGT,P<0
0, ΔT =0
Isothermal and isobaric
(C) ΔHreaction (III)
process
[Bond energies of
Exothermic molecules in reactants]
(D) (IV)
Process –[Bond energies of
product molecules]
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
(B) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
(C) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
(D) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

297. The incorrect expression among the following is-

(A) K = e
∘
−ΔG / RT

(B)
ΔGsystem
=– T
ΔStotal

(C) For isothermal process Wreversible = – nRTln Vf

Vi
∘ ∘

(D) lnK = ΔH −TΔS

RT

298. For one mole of an ideal gas, which of these statements must be true ?
(a) U and H each depends only on temperature
(b) Compressibility factor z is not equal to 1
(c) CP, m–CV, m=R
(d) dU=CVdT for any process:
(A) (a), (c) and (d) (B) (a) and (c)
(C) (c) and (d) (D) (b), (c) and (d)

299. A process has ΔH = 200 Jmol and ΔS = 40 JK mol . Out of the values given below, choose the
–1 –1 –1

minimum temperature above which the process will be spontaneous:

(A) 12 K (B) 20 K
(C) 4 K (D) 5 K
300. An ideal gas undergoes a cyclic process as shown in figure.

−1 −1
ΔUBC = −5 kJ mol , qAB = 2 kJ mol
−1 −1
WAB = −5 kJ mol , WCA = 3 kJ mol

Heat absorbed by the system during process CA is :-

(A) 18 kJ mol –1

(B) +5 kJ mol –1

(C) – 5 kJ mol –1

(D) – 18 kJ mol –1

301. If three moles of an ideal gas at 300 k expand isothermally from 30 dm3 to 45 dm3 against a constant
opposing pressure of 80 kPa, then the amount of heat transferred is __________ J .

302.

Consider the figure provided.

1 mol of an ideal gas is kept in a cylinder, fitted with a piston, at the position A, at 18ºC. If the piston
is move to position B, keeping the temperature unchanged, then 'X' L atm work is done in this
reversible process.
x = _____________________ L atm. (nearest integer)
[Given : absolute temperature = ºC + 275.15, R = 0.08206 L atm mol–1 K–1]

303. For independent process at 300 K.

Process ΔH/kJ mol−1 ΔS/J.K−1
A −25 −80
B −22 40
C 25 −50
D 22 20
The number of non-spontaneous processes from the following is

304. The standard entropy change for the reaction

4 Fe(s) + 3O2 (g) ⟶2 Fe2 O3 (s) is − 550 JK
−1
at 298K
[Given: The standard enthalpy change for the reaction is –165 kJ mol–1]. The temperature in K at
which the reaction attains equilibrium is _____________. (Nearest Integer)
[Divide your answer by 10]
305. The magnitude of work done by a gas that undergoes a reversible expansion along the path ABC
shown in the figure is −−−−−−−−−−−−−.

306. At constant volume, 4 mol of an ideal gas when heated from 300 K to 500 K changes its internal
energy by 5000 J. The molar heat capacity at constant volume is −−−−−−−−−.

307. For a dimerization reaction, 2A(g) → A2(g) at 298 K, ΔU° = –20 kJ mol–1, ΔS° = –30 kJ mol–1, then
the ΔG° will be ______ J.

Thermochemistry

308. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R).
Assertion (A) : Enthalpy of neutralisation of strong monobasic acid with strong monoacidic base
always −57 kJ mol . −1

Reason (R) : Enthalpy of neutralisation is the amount of heat liberated when one mole of H+ ions
furnished by acid combine with one mole of –OH ions furnished by base to form one mole of water.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(B) (A) is true but (R) is false
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

309. Given
(A) 2 CO(g) + O2 (g) → 2 CO2 (g)

θ −1
ΔH = −x kJ mol
1

(B) C(graphite) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g)

θ −1
ΔH = −y kJ mol
2

θ
The ΔH for the reaction

1
C(graphite) + O2 (g) → CO(g) is
2

(A) (B)
x−2y x+2y

2 2

(C) (D) 2y − x
2x−y

2
310. Lattice enthalpy and enthalpy of solution of NaCl are 788 kJ mol–1, and 4 kJ mol–1, respectively. The
hydration enthalpy of NaCl is:
(A) –780 kJ mol–1 (B) 784 kJ mol–1
(C) –784 kJ mol–1 (D) 780 kJ mol–1

311. Given
(i) 2 Fe 2 O3 ( s) → 4 Fe(s) + 3O2 ( g)
−1
Δ1 G° = +1487. 0 kJ mol

(ii) 2 CO(g) + O 2 g)→ 2 CO2 ( g)

−1
Δ2 G° = −514. 4 kJ mol

Free energy change,ΔG° for the reaction

2 Fe2 O3 ( s) + 6 CO(g) → 4 Fe(s) + 6 CO2 ( g)

will be :-
(A) −112. 4 kJ mol −1

(B) −56. 2 kJ mol −1

(C) 168. 2 kJ mol −1

(D) 208. 0 kJ mol −1

312. The enthalpy of formation of ethane (C2H6) from ethylene by addition of hydrogen where the bond-
energies of C – H, C – C, C = C, H – H are 414 kJ, 347 kJ, 615 kJ and 435 kJ respectively is ______
kJ.

313. Combustion of 1 mole of benzene is expressed at

15
C6 H6 (l) + O2 (g)
2

→ 6 CO2 (g) + 3H2 O(I)

The standard enthalpy of combustion of 2 mol of benzene is – ‘X’ kJ.

X = ________ .
Given :
1. standard Enthalpy of formation of 1 mol of C6H6(l), for the reaction 6 C (graphite) +
–1
3H (g) → C H (l) is 48.5 kJ mol
2 6 6 .
2. Standard Enthalpy of formation of 1 mol of CO2(g), for the reaction
C(graphite) + O2(g) → CO2(g) is – 393.5 kJ mol–1.
3. Standard and Enthalpy of formation of 1 mol of H2O(l), for the reaction
–1
O (g) → H O(l) is – 286 kJ mol .
1
H (g) +
2 2 2
2

314. Enthalpies of formation of CCl (g), H O(g), CO (g) and HCl(g) are −105, − 242, − 394 and
4 2 2

−92 kJ mol respectively. The magnitude of enthalpy of the reaction given below is ________
−1

−1
kJ mol

(nearest integer)
CCl4 (g) + 2H2 O(g) → CO2 (g) + 4 HCl(g)

[Divide your answer by 10]

315. A gas (Molar mass = 280 g mol-1) was burnt in excess O2 in a constant volume calorimeter and during
combustion the temperature of calorimeter increased from 298.0 K to 298.45 K. If the capacity of
calorimeter is 2.5kJ K-1 and enthalpy of combustion of gas is 9kJ mol-1 then amount of gas burnt
is_________g. (Nearest Integer)

Ionic Equilibrium

316. Solubility of calcium phosphate (molecular mass, M) in water is Wg per 100 mL at 25° C. Its
solubility product at 25° C will be approximately.
3 5

(A) 10 7
(
W

M
) (B) 10 3
(
W

M
)

5 5

(C) 10 7
(
W

M
) (D) 10 5
(
W

M
)

317. When the hydrogen ion concentration [H+] changes

by a factor of 1000, the value of pH of the solution
_______.
(A) increases by 2 units
(B) increases by 1000 units
(C) decreases by 2 units
(D) decreases by 3 units

318. Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: The amphoteric nature of water is explained by using Lewis acid/base concept.
Reason R: Water acts as an acid with NH3 and as a base with H2S.
In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true

319. The solubility of AgCN in a buffer solution of pH = 3 is x. The value of x is:

[Assume: No cyano complex is formed; Ksp(AgCN) = 2.2 × 10–16 and Ka (HCN) = 6.2 × 10–10]
(A) 0.625 × 10–6 (B) 1.6 × 10–6
(C) 2.2 × 10–16 (D) 1.9 × 10–5

320. A solution is 0.1 M in Cl– and 0.001 M in CrO42–. Solid AgNO3 is gradually added to it.
Assuming that the addition does not change in volume and Ksp(AgCl) = 1.7 × 10–10 M2 and
Ksp(Ag2CrO4) = 1.9 × 10–12 M3.
Select correct statement from the following :
(A) AgCl will precipitate first as the amount of Ag+ needed to precipitate is low.
(B) AgCl precipitates first because its Ksp is high.
(C) Ag2CrO4 precipitates first because the amount of Ag+ needed is low.
(D) Ag2CrO4 precipitates first as its Ksp is low.
321. For the following Assertion and Reason, the correct option is
Assertion (A): When Cu (II) and sulphide ions are mixed, they react together extremely quickly to
give a solid.
Reason (R): The equilibrium constant of Cu2+(aq) + S2- (aq) CuS (s) is high because the solubility
product is low.
(A) (A) is false and (R) is true.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the explanation for (A).
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the explanation for (A).

322. If Ksp of Ag2CO3 is 8 × 10–12, the molar solubility of Ag2CO3 in 0.1 M AgNO3 is :
(A) 8 × 10–10 M (B) 8 × 10–11 M
(C) 8 × 10–12 M (D) 8 × 10–13 M

323. The pH of an aqueous solution containing 1 M benzoic acid (pK = 4.20) and 1 M sodium benzoate is
a

4.5 . The volume of benzoic acid solution in 300 mL of this buffer solution is ________ mL.
(given : log 2 = 0.3)

324. The solubility product of BaSO4 is 1×10–10 at 298 K. The solubility of BaSO4 in 0.1 M K2SO4(aq)
solution is________×10–9 g L–1
Given: Molar mass of BaSO4 is 233 g mol–1
(Divide your answer by 10)

325. The neutralization occurs when 10 mL of 0.1M acid ‘A’ is allowed to react with 30 mL of 0.05 M base
M(OH)2. The basicity of the acid ‘A’ is ________. [M is a metal]

326. A3B2 is a sparingly soluble salt of molar mass M (g mol-1) and solution x gL-1. The solution product
5

satisfies Ksp = a( x

M
) . The value of a is ________.(Divide your anser by 9)

327. 3 g of acetic acid is added to 250 mL of 0.1 M HCL and the solution made up to 500 mL. To 20 ML of
this solutions ml. of 5 M NaOH is added. The pH of the solution is
1

[Given : pka of acetic acid = 4.75, molar mass of acetic of acid = 60 g/mol, log 3 = 0.4771] Neglect
any changes in volume

328. A soft drink was bottled with a partial pressure of CO2 of 3 bar over the liquid at room temperature.
The partial pressure of CO2 over the solution approaches a value of 30 bar when 44 g of CO2 is
dissolved in 1 kg of water at room temperature. The approximate pH of the soft drink is ______ × 10–
1
.
(First dissociation constant of H2CO3 = 4.0 × 10–7; log 2 = 0.3; density of the soft drink = 1 g mL–1)
Electro Chemistry

329. Which of the following statements is not correct about rusting of iron?
(A) Coating of iron surface by tin prevents rusting, even if the tin coating is peeling off.
(B) When pH lies above 9 or 10, rusting of iron does not take place.
(C) Dissolved acidic oxides SO2, NO2 in water act as catalyst in the process of rusting
(D) Rusting of iron is envisaged as setting up of electrochemical cell on the surface of iron object.

330. The metals that are employed in the battery industries are
A. Fe
B. Mn
C. Ni
D. Cr
E. Cd
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A, B, C and D only (B) B, C and E only
(C) B, D and E only (D) A, B, C, D and E

331. Which one of the following statements is correct for electrolysis of brine solution?
(A) Cl2is formed at cathode
(B) O2 is formed at cathode
(C) H2 is formed at anode
(D) OH- is formed at cathode

332. Given below are two statements:

Statement I : For KI, molar conductivity increases steeply with dilution.
Statement II : For carbonic acid, molar conductivity increases slowly with dilution.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(A) Both statement I and Statement II are true
(B) Both statement I and Statement II are false
(C) Statement I is true but Statement is false
(D) Statement I is false but statement II is true

333. Given below are two statements :

Statements I : The limiting molar conductivity of KCl (strong electrolyte) is higher compared to that
of CH3COOH (weak electrolyte)
Statement II : Molar conductivity decreases with decrease in concentration of electrolyte. In the light
of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(A) Statement I is false but statements II is true.
(B) Both statement I and statement II are true.
(C) Both statement I and statement II are false.
(D) Statement I is true but statement II is false.
334.

º
E 2+
= + 0 .34 V
Cu ∣ Cu
∣

º
E 2+
=– 0 .76 V
Zn ∣ Zn
∣

Identify the incorrect statement form the options below for the above cell :
(A) If Eext = 1.1 V, no flow of e– or current occurs
(B) If Eext > 1.1 V, Zn dissolves at Zn electrode and Cu deposits at Cu electrode
(C) If Eext > 1.1 V, e– flows from Cu to Zn
(D) If Eext < 1.1 V, Zn dissolves at anode and Cu doposits at cathode

335. In a cell that utilized the reaction

Zn(s) + 2H+ (aq) ⇌ Zn2+ (aq) + H2(g) addition of H2SO4 to cathode compartment, will−
(A) lower the E and shift equilibrium to the left
(B) lower the E and shift equilibrium right
(C) increase the E and shift equilibrium to the right
(D) increase the E and shift equilibrium to the left

336. The mass of silver (Molar mass of Ag : 108 gmol–1) displaced by a quantity of electricity which
displace 5600 mL of O2 at S.T.P will be _________ g.

337. The values of conductivity of some materials at 298.15 K in Sm–1 are 2.1×103, 1.0 × 10–16, 1.2 × 10,
3.91, 1.5×10–2, 1 × 10–7, 1.0 × 103. The number of conductors among the materials is ________ .

338. At 298 K, a 1 litre solution containing 10 mmol of Cr2O72- and 100 mmol of Cr3+ shows a pH of 3.0.
Given : Cr2O72- → Cr3+ ; E0 = 1.330 V and 2.303 RT

F
= 0.059 V
–3
The potential for the half cell reaction is x × 10 V.
The value of x is _______.
339. The rate constants for decompostion of acetaldehyde have been measured over the temperature range
700–1000 K. The data has been analysed by plotting ln k v/s graph. The value of activation energy
3
10

T
–1
for the reaction is ________ kJ mol . (Nearest integer)
(Given : R = 8.31 J K–1 mol–1)

340. The magnitude of the change in oxidising power of the MnO / Mn couple is x × 10–4 V, if the H+
−

4
2+

concentration is decreased from 1M to 10–4 M at 25ºC. (Assume concentration of MnO and Mn to −

4
2+

be same on change in H+ concentration). The value of x is _____.

(Rounded off to the nearest integer)
2303 RT
[Given : = 0 .059]
F

341.
2+
[ Sn ]

For an electrochemical cell Sn(s) | Sn2+ (aq, 1 M) || Pb2+ (aq, 1M) | Pb(s) the ratio 2+
when this cell
[ Pb ]

attains equilibrium is __________.

[Given that: E ∘

Sn
= −0. 14 V, E
2+
/ Sn
∘

Pb
2+
/ Pb
= −0. 13 V ,
2.303 RT

F
= 0. 06 ]

342. For the disproportionation reaction 2Cu+(aq) ⇌ Cu(s) + Cu2+(aq) at K, In K (where K is the
equilibrium constant) is ________ × 10–1.

Radio Activity

343. A radioactive element gets spilled over the floor of a room. Its half-life period is 30days. If the initial
activity is ten times the permissible value, after how many days will it be safe to enter the room :
(A) 1000 days (B) 300 days
(C) 10 days (D) 100 days

344. In the transformation of 238

92
U to 234

92
U , if one emission is an α -particle, what should be the other
emission(s)?
(A) two β −
(B) one β + and two β −
(C) one β − and one γ
(D) one β + and one β −
345. Consider the following nuclear reactions,
238 x 4
M → yN + 2 He
92 2

x A +
yN → L + 2β
B

The number of neutrons in the element L is

(A) 142 (B) 144
(C) 140 (D) 146

346. The half-life of a radioactive isotope is three hours. If the initial mass of the isotope were 256 g, the
mass of it remaining undecayed after 18 hours would be
(A) 4.0 g (B) 8.0 g
(C) 12.0 g (D) 16.0 g

347. The half-life of radioisotope bromine - 82 is 36 hours. The fraction which remains after one day
is________ 10–2.
(Given antilog 0.2006 = 1.587)

14
348. The ratio of in a piece of wood is part that of atmosphere. If half life of C is 5730 years, the
14
C 1
12
C 8

age of wood sample is ________years.

349. A and B are two substances undergoing radioactive decay in a container. The half life of A is 15
min and that of B is 5 min. If the initial concentration of B is 4 times that of A and and they both start
decaying at the same time, how much time will it take for the concentration of both of them to be
same? min.

350. A radioactive element has a half life of 200 days. The percentage of original activity remaining after
83 days is ______ . (Nearest integer) (divide your answer by 15)
(Given : antilog 0.125 = 1.333, antilog 0.693 = 4.93)
1. C 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. D 6. D 7. D 8. C

9. A 10. 3 11. 18 12. A 13. C 14. C 15. B 16. A

17. D 18. A 19. D 20. C 21. B 22. 3 23. 6 24. 1

25. D 26. A 27. C 28. D 29. A 30. D 31. D 32. D

33. A 34. 3 35. 2 36. A 37. B 38. D 39. B 40. A

41. B 42. 0 43. 4 44. A 45. D 46. A 47. B 48. D

49. B 50. A 51. D 52. 6 53. 18 54. C 55. A 56. D

57. C 58. C 59. D 60. 2 61. 10 62. A 63. D 64. D

65. B 66. D 67. C 68. C 69. 2 70. 18 71. A 72. A

73. B 74. D 75. A 76. C 77. D 78. D 79. 4 80. 3

81. B 82. C 83. B 84. A 85. C 86. A 87. D 88. C

89. 2 90. 60 91. 8 92. A 93. D 94. C 95. B 96. D

97. B 98. 9 99. 1 100. B 101. A 102. B 103. C 104. C

105. A 106. A 107. B 108. 70 109. 2 110. 1142 111. A 112. A

113. B 114. D 115. A 116. D 117. A 118. 3 119. 7 120. D

121. D 122. A 123. B 124. D 125. D 126. C 127. C 128. B

129. 2 130. B 131. C 132. C 133. D 134. C 135. B 136. 2

137. 4 138. D 139. C 140. D 141. D 142. B 143. D 144. C

145. 4 146. 7 147. 30 148. D 149. A 150. A 151. A 152. A

153. C 154. D 155. D 156. 2 157. 53 158. 3 159. C 160. C

161. D 162. D 163. B 164. B 165. A 166. D 167. 4 168. A

169. B 170. C 171. B 172. B 173. C 174. C 175. 1 176. D

177. C 178. D 179. C 180. C 181. C 182. B 183. A 184. 6

185. 5 186. D 187. B 188. C 189. A 190. B 191. C 192. C

193. 13.5 194. 4 195. 3 196. C 197. B 198. A 199. A 200. B

201. C 202. D 203. 6 204. 2 205. 9 206. B 207. D 208. A

209. D 210. A 211. D 212. B 213. 1.97 214. C 215. D 216. A

217. C 218. B 219. B 220. A 221. A 222. 10 223. 22 224. 2

225. 300 226. 1 227. 0 228. C 229. B 230. D 231. B 232. D

233. 4 234. 24 235. 5 236. 2 237. 80 238. B 239. A 240. D

241. D 242. C 243. 3 244. 4 245. 2 246. 6 247. 19 248. A

249. C 250. A 251. A 252. A 253. A 254. D 255. A 256. 15

257. 314 258. 98 259. 2 260. 47 261. 5 262. 50 263. 4 264. A

265. B 266. A 267. A 268. C 269. C 270. D 271. A 272. 163

273. 4 274. 1 275. 0.02 276. 5 277. 16 278. D 279. D 280. A

281. C 282. C 283. B 284. B 285. C 286. 10 287. 30 288. 3

289. 2 290. 4 291. 1 292. 2 293. 60 294. D 295. C 296. B

297. D 298. A 299. D 300. B 301. 1200 302. 55 303. 2 304. 30

305. 48 306. 6.25 307. -13538 308. C 309. A 310. C 311. B 312. 125

313. 6535 314. 17 315. 35 316. C 317. D 318. D 319. D 320. A

321. D 322. A 323. 100 324. 23.3 325. 3 326. 12 327. 5.23 328. 37

329. A 330. B 331. D 332. B 333. C 334. B 335. C 336. 108

337. 4 338. 917 339. 154 340. 3776 341. 2.154 342. 144 343. D 344. A

345. B 346. A 347. 63 348. 17190 349. 15 350. 75