ST339-23chapter1
ST339-23chapter1
University of Warwick
1
I would like to thank Martin Herdegen for sharing his notes and the students and teaching assistants Shiyao
Bian, Nikolaos Constantinou, Chester Gan, Alia Hajji, Scott Hamilton, Kairav Hirani, Nazem Khan, Kevin
Lam, Rahul Mathur, Noah Prasad, Anthony Shau, Osian Shelley, Haodong Sun, Anastasiya Tsyhanova, and
Ben Windsor for spotting typos in previous versions.
Any remaining mistakes and errors are of course my responsibility.
Contents
1.3 Discounting . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 11
2.7 The Markowitz tangency portfolio and the capital market line . . . . . . . . . . 31
3 Utility Theory 39
3.1 Measure theoretic preliminaries . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 39
3
1 No-Arbitrage and the Fundamental Theorem of Asset Pricing
In this chapter, we develop a mathematical model for nancial markets in one period, introduce
the key concept of no-arbitrage, and formulate and prove the so-called Fundamental Theorem
of Asset Pricing on the absence of arbitrage in this setting.
times, at t=0 (today) and at t=1 (in one year). Asset prices today are known and given
0 1 d
by the (usually positive) constants S0 , S0 , . . . , S0 ∈ R.2 Asset prices in one year, however, are
usually not known today. So we model them as real-valued (usually positive) random variables
S10 (ω), S11 (ω), . . . , S1d (ω) on some probability space (Ω, F, P). Every ω ∈Ω corresponds to a
i
possible state of the world in one year, and S1 (ω) denotes the price of asset i if the state of
riskless asset, often also called bank account, which will pay a sure amount in one year.
3 We
the notation
5
and call the Rd -valued stochastic process S = (St )t∈{0,1} the risky assets.6
Example 1.1 (One-period Binomial model). Assume that d = 1, i.e., there is only one risky
asset, and there are only two states of the world at time 1, i.e., Ω = {ω1 , ω2 }. We assume that
S01 =1 and
4
where u > d > −1. Here, u and d are mnemonics for up and down, and it is often assumed
that u > 0. The probabilities for up and down are given by
where p1 , p2 ∈ (0, 1) and p1 + p2 = 1.7 One can nicely illustrate this model by the following
1
S0 : 1 1+r
p1 1+u
S1 : 1
p2 1+d
no transaction costs, i.e., assets can be bought and sold at the same price, and there are no
constraints on the number of assets one holds. In particular, one can hold a negative amount
of some asset, i.e., assets can be shorted and the price paid/received is linear in the quantity
of assets bought/sold. Moreover, we shall assume that asset prices are exogeneously given and
not inuenced by the trading activities of other market participants. Thus agents are views
as price takers. All this is of course an idealisation of reality but one has to start with the
simplest case before building more realistic and therefore more complex models.
Given a nancial market S = (St0 , St )t∈{0,1} as above, a trading strategy, often also called
a portfolio, is a vector
ϑ = (ϑ0 , ϑ) = (ϑ0 , ϑ1 , . . . , ϑd ) ∈ R1+d ,
where ϑi denotes the number of shares held in asset i. The price today for buying the trading
strategy/portfolio ϑ is
d
X
ϑ · S0 = ϑi S0i = ϑ0 + ϑ · S0 .
i=0
d
X
ϑ · S 1 (ω) = ϑi S1i (ω) = ϑ0 (1 + r) + ϑ · S1 (ω),
i=0
7
To make the model mathematically rigorous, we also have to specify the σ -algebra F . This is as standard
in models with nite (or countable) Ω given by F = 2Ω , so that F = {∅, {ω1 }, {ω2 }, {ω1 , ω2 }}.
5
Denition 1.2. A trading strategy ϑ ∈ R1+d is called an arbitrage opportunity for S if
An arbitrage opportunity gives something (a positive chance of strictly positive nal wealth
P[ϑ·S 1 > 0] > 0) out of nothing (zero or negative initial wealth ϑ·S 0 ≤ 0) without risk (almost
sure nonnegative nal wealth ϑ · S 1 ≥ 0 P-a.s.).
Remark 1.3. If the market S admits arbitrage, there always exists an arbitrage opportunity
ϑ · S 0 = ϑ0 + ϑ · S0 = η 0 − η · S 0 + η · S0 = η 0 − η 0 − η · S0 + η · S0 = 0.
Moreover, as −η · S 0 > 0,
ϑ · S 1 = ϑ0 (1 + r) + ϑ · S1 = η 0 (1 + r) + (−η · S 0 )(1 + r) + η · S1
= η · S 1 + (−η · S 0 )(1 + r) ≥ (−η · S 0 )(1 + r) > 0 P-a.s.
1.3 Discounting
Our next aim is to give a necessary and sucient condition on the market S to be arbitrage-
The rst concept is the notion of discounting. Assets are denoted in units of something,
e.g. GBP or EUR. Notwithstanding, it is clear that prices (and values) are relative. So basic
concepts of nancial markets (like being arbitrage-free) should not and do not depend on the
choice of unit. For this reason, we are free to change the unit, in particular if this makes the
mathematics simpler. It turns out that a good choice is a unit which itself is a traded asset,
0
and the canonical choice is to use the risk-free asset S . So we discount with S 0 ortake S 0 as
numéraire, and dene the discounted assets X 0 , X 1 , . . . , X d by
Sti
Xti = , t ∈ {0, 1}, i ∈ {0, 1, . . . , d}.
St0
Then X0 ≡ 1 and X = (X 1 , . . . , X d ) expresses the value of the risky assets in units of the
0
numéraire S .
6
Example 1.4. Consider the one-period Binomial model from Example 1.1. Then the dis-
1+u 1+d
X11 (ω1 ) = and X11 (ω2 ) = .
1+r 1+r
We can reformulate the notion of arbitrage in terms of the discounted risky assets X only.
(b) The discounted risky assets X satisfy NA, i.e., there does not exist8 any ϑ = (ϑ1 , . . . , ϑd ) ∈
Rd such that
way. Set
ϑ0 := −ϑ · X0 .
ϑ · X 0 = ϑ0 X00 + ϑ · X0 = ϑ0 + ϑ · X0 = −ϑ · X0 + ϑ · X0 = 0. (1.2)
ϑ · S 0 = 0. (1.3)
Now using that inequalities remain unchanged by multiplying by positive constants (here S10 ),
8
We would call such a ϑ an arbitrage opportunity for X. This is of course a slight abuse of notation, but a
very common one in Mathematical Finance.
7
we obtain
This together with (1.3) shows that ϑ is an arbitrage opportunity for S, in contradiction to
Denition 1.6. Let (Ω, F) be a measurable space. Two probability measures P and Q on
(Ω, F) are called equivalent (notation: P ≈ Q) if, for A ∈ F , Q[A] = 0 if and only if P[A] = 0.
Two probability measures are equivalent, if they agree on which events will not happen,
i.e., have probability zero. But they may still assign dierent probabilities to events that
might happen.
probability measure on (Ω, F) with P[{ωn }] > 0 for all n ∈ {1, . . . , N }. Then a probability
measure Q on (Ω, F) is equivalent to P if and only if Q[{ωn }] > 0 for all n ∈ {1, . . . , N }.
Indeed, if Q[{ωn }] = 0 for some n ∈ {1, . . . , N }, then Q cannot be equivalent to P. Otherwise,
x A ∈ F. Then P[A], Q[A] > 0 unless A = ∅; and if A = ∅, then trivially P[A] = 0 = Q[A].
Denition 1.8. Let X be discounted risky assets on a probability space (Ω, F, P). A measure
EQ X1i = X0i ,
i ∈ {1, . . . , d}.
Remark 1.9. The terminology equivalent martingale measure stems from the fact that the
X i 's are martingales under the equivalent measure Q. Martingales will be studied in some
detail in Chapter 5.
models, this was only established in 1990 by Dalang, Morton, and Willinger. For this reason,
Theorem 1.10 (Fundamental Theorem of Asset Pricing) . Let S = (St0 , St )t∈{0,1} be a one-
period nancial market on some probability space (Ω, F, P). The following are equivalent:
8
(a) The market S satises NA.
(b) There exists an EMM for the discounted risky assets X = S/S 0 .
Proof. We rst establish the easy direction (b) ⇒ (a). So let Q ≈ P be an EMM. By
Proposition 1.5, it suces to show that X satises NA. Seeking a contradiction, suppose there
is ϑ∈ Rd such that
EQ [ϑ · (X1 − X0 )] > 0.
But by linearity of the expectation operator (cf. Lemma 0.2 (a)) and the fact that Q is an
EMM,
d
X d
X
ϑi EQ X1i − X0i = ϑi × 0 = 0,
EQ [ϑ · (X1 − X0 )] =
i=1 i=1
For the proof of the dicult direction (a) ⇒ (b), we only consider the special case that
Ω = {ω1 , . . . , ωN } is nite, F = 2Ω and P[{ωn }] > 0 for all n ∈ {1, . . . , N }.9 As is the case
with many abstract existence theorems, the proof is not constructive. We are going to identify
a random variable Y on (Ω, F) with the RN -valued vector (Y (ω1 ), . . . , Y (ωN )). First, set
Then K corresponds to the collection of all random variables of the form ϑ·(X1 −X0 ) for ϑ ∈ Rd .
Mathematically, K is an (at most d-dimensional) vector subspace of RN . By Proposition 1.5,
K ∩ RN
+ = {0}, (1.6)
where RN N
+ = [0, ∞) . Next, dene the standard simplex of dimension N −1 by
N
X
∆N −1 := x ∈ RN
+ : xn
= 1 .
n=1
9
For a proof with general Ω and F (which requires more measure theory), we refer to [2, Theorem 1.7].
9
1
a·x=λ
∆N −1
−1 1
Then ∆N −1 ⊂ RN
+ and / ∆N −1 ,
0∈ so that
K ∩ ∆N −1 = ∅.
compact, it follows from the strict separating hyperplane theorem 10 that there exists a vector
a∈ RN \ {0} and λ>0 such that
a · en = an > 0, n ∈ {1, . . . , N }.
an
Q[{ωn }] = PN > 0.
k=1 ak
10
where ei denotes the unit vector in Rd . Then
N N
X 1 X
EQ X1i − X0i = (X1i (ωn ) − X0i )Q[{ωn }] = PN an (X1i (ωn ) − X0i )
n=1 k=1 ak n=1
N
1 X a · ki
an ei · (X1 (ωn ) − X0 ) = PN
= PN = 0,
k=1 ak n=1 k=1 ak
where we have used in the last step that a·k =0 for all k ∈ K.
Example 1.11. Consider the Binomial model from Example 1.1. Using the FTAP, we want
to check when S satises NA. So let Q be a measure on (Ω, F), and set q1 := Q[{ω1 }] and
q2 := Q[{ω2 }]. We know from Example 1.7 that Q ≈ P if and only if q1 > 0 and q2 > 0.
Moreover, Q 1
is an EMM for X if and only if
1+u 1+d
EQ X11 = X01 = 1 q1 X11 (ω1 ) + q2 X11 (ω2 ) = 1
⇔ ⇔ q1 + q2 = 1.
1+r 1+r
r−d
q1 (1 + u) + (1 − q1 )(1 + d) = 1 + r ⇔ q1 = .
u−d
and thus
u−r
q2 = 1 − q1 = .
u−d
Clearly, q1 , q2 > 0 if and only if u > r > d.
So S is arbitrage free if and only if u > r > d, in which case the (unique) EMM satises
r−d u−r
q1 = and q2 =
u−d u−d
The condition u>r>d is economically quite intuitive as it says that the risky asset must
oer the chance of a higher return than the interest rate in one state of the world (u > r) but
also have a lower return than the interest rate in another state of the world (d < r). Note
11