JMET Test

Page 1
Section 1
Directions for questions 1 to 15: Read the following passages and answer the questions that follow.
Passage 1
How does the mind produce such prophetic dreams? During dreaming, sensory inputs are blocked and the
ego-sense I is absent. This allows free reign to random thought patterns, emanating from existing memories
from different parts of the brain, which produce dreams. The dreaming process therefore follows the Maxwellian
distribution (the bell curve), where a majority dream about a days events or activities. Scientists claim that
the days learning process is consolidated in our memory during sleep. This dreaming process sometimes
produces disjointed dreams and at other times, nightmares. Sometimes, however, the brain synchronizes
random thoughts into a powerful single thought. Imagine 100 billion neurons of the brain synchronizing in a
laser-like fashion to produce a higher dimensional thought signature. This thought connects us to a higher
dimensional space-time continuum from which we get the knowledge and powers of clairvoyance. The
probability of this type of synchronization is very small but it is there.
1. What must have been discussed before the commencement of this passage?
a. How to sleep soundly. b. Innovative solutions in dreams.
c. Religious significance d. Cannot say
2. What among the following is not present during dreaming?
a. Mind b. Structure c. Ego d. Identification
3. In which part of the bell curve would the days activities be concentrated on?
a. The rim b. The left part c. The centre d. Cannot say
4. Which of the following is not mentioned as a dream output?
a. Nightmares b. Disjointed dreams c. A single thought d. None of these
5. The passage ends on a note of
a. pessimism. b. awe. c. chagrin. d. warning.
Passage 2
The great sportswoman that she has proved herself to be, Anju Bobby George who became the first
Indian woman to win a medal at a prestigious world athletic meet with great generosity of spirit dedicated
her bronze to the one billion people of India. A very quotable quote which should give our national pride a
much needed boost. About just how accurate is it in reflecting reality? What exactly did billion-plus India
really do to help Anju accomplish her feat? And the answer to that is : precious little. Her greatest strengths
were her husband Bobby George who sacrificed his own promising sports career to help coach his wife
and a few other family members and well-wishers. But no Indian sports organization came forward to
Page 2 JMET Test
help Anju during her arduous career. Anju is not alone in being at the receiving end of such benign neglect.
Time and again, individuals have triumphed in the sporting arena not thanks to but despite the fact that they
were born Indians. Had they received the kind of training which they would have got in any other country
without having to ask for it, Milkha Singh and P. T. Usha would certainly have been the world beaters that
they deserved to be.
Like all other fields of endeavour, our sports are riddled with politics at the expense of performance. While
nepotism rules the roost, genuine talent is left to fend for itself. As athletes like Shiny Abraham and
Malleswari, among numerous others, have had to do. Even when our sports people do emerge triumphant
against all odds, the state is often niggardly in its appreciation. The belated and grudgingly given Arjuna
awards to sports achievers is but one case in point. Very sensibly, Anju has said that she is not interested
in empty awards but in retaining and improving upon her cutting-edge performance which won her the
bronze. Her next step is said to be the Athens Olympics and making the seven-metre long jump mark, by
bettering her personal-best record so far of 6.7 metres. We wish her all success, as we are sure do millions
of those who, till yesterday, had never heard of her. Her anonymity did not stifle Anjus spirit; one can only
hope that the onerous weight of having to carry the burden of one billion who, overnight, have pinned their
future hopes on her will not prove a hindrance to her further success. So by all means break out the
champagne on her behalf. But lets not allow Anjus success to go to our heads.
6. The author views Georges dedication with
a. approval. b. disbelief. c. suspicion. d. doubt.
7. The word precious can be substituted with
a. invaluably. b. very. c. not. d. morally.
8. The writer views the Indian-born athlete with
a. empathy. b. sympathy. c. callousness. d. envy.
9. Which of the following statements is not true in light of the passage?
a. Milkha Singh and P. T. Usha could have done even better.
b. Shiny Abraham and Malleswari did not depend on the official system.
c. Other countries do recognize their talented athletes.
d. Females outnumber males in the athletic bastion.
10. Cutting-edge is used in the passage to describe
a. superior technology. b. Anjus sarcastic remarks.
c. high-calibre performance. d. the negative effects of nepotism.
Passage 3
Those of us who feel tyrannized by the security phobia of our netalog can take heart. Life for the average
Israeli has to be a lot harder, judging by the paranoic fussing around prime minister Ariel Sharons trip.
Even on a normal day, the Indian capital is a commuters nightmare, its roads barricaded every few kilometers
presumably in order that the ill-intentioned dont get close to our political bosses. The prized terrorist target
JMET Test
Page 3
that Mr. Sharon is, he converted Delhi into a virtual fortress. Security around the city transited from tight
to tighter to tightest ever with the visiting dignitary doing the usual rounds: From inspecting the guard of
honour in the forecourt of Rashtrapati Bhawan to paying the customary visit to Rajghat to partaking of
banquets hosted in his honour. But apparently we hadnt seen anything yet. An alert by Mossad about a
possible terrorist attack on Mr. Sharon further pushed the security frontiers with the Israeli security service
going as far as to check the weapons and firing pins of the contingent that was to present the guard of
honour. And then, even as our own VVIP contingent watched this shock and awe display in disbelief, one
among the posse of Israeli guards jumped the cordon to walk with Mr. Sharon as he inspected the guard of
honour.
If Mr. Sharon wants to cocoon himself from danger, he can do it. If our government wants to roll out the red
carpet for an extraordinary visitor, let that happen by all means. But when this elaborate mehman-nawazi
starts interfering with the day-to-day life of the citizen, then, it is time to call a halt. In a democracy the real
VVIPs are the ordinary men and women who make up its body politic. The political class exists at the
pleasure of the voting class and not the other way round. Diplomatic visitors are not tourists with a must-
see itinerary; they are here to conduct business which they must, without the citizenry feeling their overbearing
presence. The only way to facilitate this is to demarcate an area within which the various state meetings,
banquets etc., can take place. Ideally, we should be looking at a designated diplomatic zone located away
from the city centre with its own helipad and so on. Atalji has already shown the way. Thanks to his
judicious decision to take a helicopter ride to the airport, commuters en route to work have less frequently
to suffer the prime ministerial convoy. The prime minister will do a further service, should he decide also to
find another venue for his rendezvous with foreign visitors.
11. The word paranoic indicates that
a. Ariel Sharon is on the terrorists hit-list.
b. Indians are less aware of VVIP security measures.
c. the writer does not agree that the security phobia is justified.
d. None of the above
12. The writer points out that
a. tight security would have been sufficient for the visiting Israeli minister.
b. there is little difference between tighter and tightest security.
c. tightest security fell short for the visiting Israeli minister.
d. None of the above
13. We can infer from the passage that Mossad is
a. an insurgency group. b. an intelligence agency.
c. an Israeli minister d. Cannot say
14. Which class constitutes the existing VVIP class in India?
a. The political class b. The ruling class c. The bourgeois d. The masses
15. The writer regards the PMs initiative with
a. skepticism. b. joy. c. reservation. d. approval.
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Directions for questions 16 to 22: Each question is followed by two statements, I and II. Answer each
question using the following instructions.
Mark the answer as
(a) if the question can be answered by one of the statements alone, but cannot be answered by
using the other statement alone.
(b) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
(c) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered
by using either statement alone.
(d) if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
16. How many eggs did Mr. Henley lay everyday?
I. Mr. Henley lays a one-digit odd number of eggs.
II. Mr. Henley lays in the multiples of 3.
17. What is the value of angle A in ABC?
I. cm 10 AC , 60 B
o

II. BC = 5 cm
18. Is
2
1
x > ?
I.
4
1
x
2
>
II. 0 x
3
>
19. Who stole the necklace if only one of them speaks the truth?
I. Raju stole the necklace. I always speak the truth, says Ravi.
II. Ravi always speaks the lie, says Raju.
20. Who won the race?
I. Rajus speed is 20% faster than Ravi.
II. Raju starts 15 min after Ravi started.
21. What is the distance of the point (x, y) from the origin?
I. x
2
+ y
2
= 16
II. x = 4, y = 0
22. What is length of the side of an equilateral triangle formed by a wire?
I. The total length of the wire is divisible by 3.
II. The area of the rectangle formed by the same wire is twice the area of the square formed by the
wire.
Section II
JMET Test
Page 5
Directions for questions 23 to 27: Answer the questions based on the following instructions.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are people who are related as below:
I. A is the father of two children C (male) and D (female).
II. H is the mother of two children E (male) and F (female).
III. B is Es mother-in-law.
IV. D is a daughter-in-law of G.
V. Es wife is Fs sister-in-law.
VI. Es son will also be As grandson and Cs daughter will also be Hs granddaughter.
23. Who is As wife?
a. H b. F c. B d. E
24. Who is Ds mother-in-law?
a. B b. H c. F d. E
25. As daughter will also be
A. Bs daughter-in-law
B. Es wife
C. Hs daughter
a. A only b. B only c. C only d. A and B only
26. If X is Cs son and Y is Es daughter, then X and Y must be
a. brother and sister b. husband and wife
c. Ds children d. Hs grandchildren
27. Out of the eight people, how many must be male?
a. 4 b. 3 c. 5 d. 2
Directions for questions 28 to 32: Answer the questions based on the following information.
When they hold a meeting, seven company executives T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z sit around a rectangular
table.
Three executives sit along one side of the table, and three sit along the other side, each directly opposite
one of the other three. The seventh sits at the head of the table; there is no seat at the foot of the table.
U always sits in one of the two seats farthest from the head of the table.
Y and V always sit next to each other.
V never sits next to Z.
If Z does not sit at the head of the table, W sits there.
28. Which of the following is an acceptable seating arrangement of the executives, starting with U,
moving toward the head of the table, and continuing around the table?
a. U, X, T, Z, V, Y, W b. U, T, X, Z, Y, V, W
c. U, X, Z, Y, V, W, T d. U, Z, S, X, V, Y, T
Page 6 JMET Test
29. If W sits directly opposite to T, X must sit next to which of the following executives?
a. T b. U c. V d. Y
30. If T sits directly opposite to Z and next to V, which executive must sit directly opposite to U?
a. Y b. W c. V d. Y or V
31. If W sits directly opposite to U and next to T, the two executives immediately on either side of X
must be
a. Y and V b. Y and W c. T and Z d. T and V
32. If Z sits at the head of the table, Y directly opposite to U, and V immediately on Xs left, what is the
total number of possible seating arrangements of the executives?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
Directions for questions 33 to 36: Answer the questions based on the following information.
Farokh, Ganesh, Hariprasad, Ismail and Jon are the five jockeys who participated in a race. They were
riding the horses, namely, Lucky, Magic, Naughty, Old Boy and Power not necessarily in the same
order. The jockeys were given the numbers 401, 402, 403, 404 and 405, where the order is not clear.
Further the following things were observed.
I. Ganesh completed the race before 403, who in turn crossed the final line before Magic.
II. Power stood third in the race, while Jon was the second to complete it.
III. Hariprasad was numbered 404 and was not riding Old Boy.
IV. Exactly one horse touched the final line between Magic and Lucky.
VI. Ismail, although finished the race after Farokh and was numbered 405, was not the last to finish the
race.
33. Hariprasad was riding
a. Lucky b. Magic c. Naughty d. Power
34. Farokh was certainly not given the number
a. 401 b. 402 c. 403 d. None of these
35. Old Boy was ridden by
a. Farokh b. Ganesh c. Ismail d. Jon
36. Which of the following cannot be the accepted sequence for completing the race (the order is: 1st,
2nd, 3rd, 4th and 5th)?
I. 401, 402, 403, 404 and 405
II. 402, 401, 403, 405 and 404
III. 403, 402, 401, 405 and 404
a. I and III b. II and III c. II only d. I only
JMET Test
Page 7
Directions for question 37: Answer the question based on the following information.
Rajan has 30 toys in three different colours green, pink and yellow. Each toy is of a single colour. He has
not more than 13 green toys and not more than 7 pink toys.
37. Which of the following is necessarily false?
I. More than half his toys are yellow.
II. He has three pink toys more than green toys.
a. I alone b. II alone c. Both I and II d. Neither I nor II
Directions for questions 38 to 41: In each of the following questions, a related pair of words is followed by
four pairs of words. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the
original pair.
38. Cohorts : Supporters
a. Prosecution : Vague b. Retinue : Attendants
c. Trivial : Motive d. Objective : Merit
39. Incendiary : Fire
a. Kleptomania : Theft b. Acquisition : Passion
c. Predicament : Strategy d. Type : Advancement
40. Zealot : Extreme
a. Provoke : Confrontation b. Publicity : Infinite
c. Mediator : Peaceful d. Compile : Text
41. Accolade : Resounding
a. Broadcast : Conversation b. Breathe : Confidence
c. Corpus : Effective d. Wail : Mournful
Directions for question 42 and 43: Sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a
coherent paragraph. The first and the last sentences are 1 and 6, and the four in between are labelled A, B,
C and D. Choose the most logical order of these four sentences from among the four given choices to
construct a coherent paragraph from sentences 1 to 6.
42. 1. Most experts believe the panic at Nauset Beach was caused by a run out.
A. Millions of tonnes of water flowed over it towards the shore.
B. A weak spot in the bar then gave way, creating a funnel effect.
C. Eventually, the water level inside the bar slightly exceeded the level outside and, naturally, the
water had to flow seaward.
D. Somewhere offshore, a sandbar had built up.
6. Water rushed towards the opening, sweeping people with it who panicked and tried to fight it,
exhausting themselves.
a. BDCA b. ABDC c. DACB d. CABD
Page 8 JMET Test
43. 1. Medical X-rays are packed with tremendous energy.
A. The beams rip like lightning bolts through the delicate walls of cells, altering their metabolism,
changing their character, often destroying them.
B. If enough cells of a particular type are damaged, the results can be disastrous.
C. The threat to our reproductive cells is also causing concern.
D. If, for example, they are blood-making cells in the bone marrow and enough of them are
damaged, leukaemia could result.
6. If these cells, housed in the male and female genitals, are damaged by X-rays, susceptibility to
certain chronic diseases, such as high blood pressure to a host of lethal mutations, are greatly
increased.
a. ABDC b. ABCD c. BACD d. DACB
Directions for questions 44 to 46: Given below is a set of six statements, followed by four choices. You
have to mark the choice where the third statement can be logically deduced from the previous two sentences.
44. A. All Bs are Ds.
B. All Ds are Ys.
C. Some As are Zs.
D. All Ys are Bs.
E. Some Zs are Ss.
F. All Bs are Ys.
a. BDE b. CDF c. ABD d. ABF
45. A. No dogs are cats.
B. All cats are mews.
C. No dogs are mews.
D. All mews are tails.
E. All rats are tails.
F. Some mews may be dogs.
a. CDE b. DBF c. ACE d. ABF
46. A. All tims are dongs.
B. Some mimes are tongs.
C. Some dongs are bits.
D. All tims are bits.
E. All bits are dongs.
F. Some dongs are bits.
a. ACD b. BDE c. ABF d. ADF
JMET Test
Page 9
Directions for questions 47 to 55: Read the following arguments and answer the questions that follow.
47. The best movie showing in India right now is Khiladi No. 45 it has been in the No. 1 slot for six
weeks.
Which of the following statements can weaken the argument?
a. Popularity ratings are a good indicator of the quality of a movie.
b. No movie has held the No. 1 slot for more than three weeks.
c. A popular movie is not necessarily a good movie.
d. None of the above
48. With reference to question 47, which of the following statements can strengthen the argument?
a. Khiladi No. 45 was an adult-rated movie.
b. The audience for movies mostly comprise of upper-class citizens.
c. Critics believe that a popular movie is generally considered as a good movie.
d. None of the above
49. Bill Gates has recently suggested that all people should attend college and acquire a degree.
However, this argument is clearly wrong since Bill Gates dropped out of Harvard.
Which of the following statements can weaken the argument?
a. Melinda Gates holds a post-graduate degree from Radcliffe.
b. Bill Gates reads a lot at home.
c. Bill Gates is not encouraging his children to become spendthrifts.
d. It would be unfair to rubbish a persons suggestions by making personal observations.
50. With reference to question 49, how can the argument be strengthened?
a. Bill Gates may not be aware of the implications of his statement as he has no practical experience
to support his statement.
b. Bill Gates had topped in elementary school.
c. Bill Gates makes sundry statements now and then that have no real value.
d. None of the above
51. All boys are hyper. Therefore, Siddharth is hyper.
What is the missing assumption to support the above argument?
a. Girls are not hyper.
b. Boys and girls are not hyper.
c. Siddharth can be a girl.
d. Siddharth is a boy.
Page 10 JMET Test
52. The Municipal Commissioner has recently suggested adding chlorine to all public water sources.
This is obviously a bad idea since many of the totalitarian regimes also added chlorine to all their
public water sources.
What is the assumption on which this argument is based?
a. The Municipal Commissioner is ill-informed.
b. The totalitarian regimes could not provide better service to the public with the said measure.
c. The Municipal Commissioner has leftist tendencies.
d. None of the above
53. Which of the following statements can weaken the argument in question 60?
a. The Municipal Commissioner is implementing the plan under very different circumstances.
b. The totalitarian regimes did not have healthy intentions.
c. The Municipal Commissioner is not aware of the totalitarian measure.
d. None of the above
54. Which of the following statements can strengthen the argument given in question 60?
a. The presence of chlorine acts as a disinfectant.
b. Chlorine is introduced in the water sources in conditions close to that in the totalitarian countries.
c. The background in the two situations has no bearing on the consequences.
d. None of the above
55. In an attempt to boost tourism, Thailand has enrolled the modelling service of Anna Kournikova in its
internationally aired ads. Within a year, the number of tourists has risen by 20 per cent. The new ad
was therefore a success.
Which of the following statements can weaken this argument?
a. Domestic strife has reduced by a significant level in the past year owing to stringent security
measures.
b. Anna Kournikova played in an exhibition tournament in Thailand.
c. Anna Kournikova is an opinion leader.
d. None of the above
JMET Test
Page 11
Directions for questions 56 to 70: Answers each of the following questions independently.
56. The ratio of ages of Anna and Beena is 2 : 3. After 4 years, their ages are in ratio 3 : 4. Find their
present ages.
a. 6 and 9 b. 12 and 18 c. 8 and 12 d. 4 and 6
57. The length of a rectangle is increased by 10% and its breadth is decreased by 10%. What is the
percentage change in its area?
a. 21% increase b. 1% increase c. 1% decrease d. No change
58. A starts from a place at 11.00 a.m. and travels at a speed of 4 km/hr, B starts from same place at
1.00 p.m. and travels with speeds 1 km/hr for 1 hr, 2 km/hr for the next 1 hr, 3 km/hr for the next
1 hr and so on. At what time will B catch up with A?
a. 9.24 p.m. b. 9.32 p.m. c. 9.48 p.m. d. None of these
59. The radius of a circle is increased by 100%. The area of the circle will increases by
a. 100% b. 200% c. 300% d. 400%
60. The diameter of a wheel is 63 cm. Distance travelled by the wheel in 100 revolutions is
a. 99 m b. 198 m c. 63 m d. 136 m
61. Your horses are tethered at four corners of a square-plot of side 63 m so that they just cannot reach
one another. The area left ungrazed is
a. 675.5 m
2
b. 780.6 m
2
c. 785.8 m
2
d. 850.5 m
2
62. If 2x + 3y + 4z = 27 and 3x + 2y + z = 33, then what is the average of x, y and z?
a. 3 b. 4 c. 6 d. 12
63. If 1 +
12
x
=
2
2
12
5
1+ , find the value of x.
a. 5 b. 1 c. 4 d. 2
64. If f(x, y) = xy and g(x) = x
3
+ 2, then what is the value of f[3, g(2)]?
a. 30 b. 20 c. 15 d. 18
65. If 2
x 1
+ 2
x + 1
= 1280, then the value of x is
a. 8 b. 9 c. 5 d. None of these
66. Find the value of x, in the expression . R x 0 50 x 2 50 x 25
2
+
a.
2
b.
2
c. 1 d. None of these
Section III
Page 12 JMET Test
67. Find out the total number of positive integral solution of 4x + 3y = 63.
a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. None of these
68. If a
2
= b + c, b
2
= c + a and c
2
= a + b, then find the value of (a + 1)
1
+ (b + 1)
1
+ (c + 1)
1
= ?
a. 3 b. 1 c. 0 d. Cannot be determined
69.
K
2
is even but
K
4
is not. Which of the following is necessarily an integer?
a.
K
8
b.
K 1
8 8
+
c.
K 1
8 2
+
d.
3K
8
70. The smallest positive value of
8
x
x
+ assuming real values of x only is
a. 2 b. 2 2 c. 4 d. 4 2
Directions for questions 71 and 72: Answer the questions based on the following information.
A survey of 500 TV viewers generated the following information: 285 watch football, 195 watch hockey,
115 watch basketball, 45 football and basketball, 70 football and hockey, 50 hockey and basketball and
50 none of the games.
71. How many of them watch all the three games?
a. 20 b. 53 c. 47 d. None of these
72. How many of them watch only football?
a. 137 b. 145 c. 190 d. None of these
73. A book was sold for a certain sum and there was a loss of 20%. Had it been sold for Rs. 3 more,
then there would have been a profit of 30%. If it was sold for Rs. 6.60, then the profit/loss percentage
would have been
a. profit 10% b. profit 8.33% c. loss 8.33% d. Data insufficient
74. It costs Rs. 10,000 to make the first thousand copies of a book and x rupees to make each
subsequent copy. If it costs a total of Rs. 72,300 to make the first 8,000 copies of the book, what is
the value x?
a. Rs. 8.90 b. Rs. 8.75 c. Rs. 89 d. None of these
75. Find a and b such that (x + 1) and (x + 2) are factors of the polynomial x
3
+ ax
2
bx + 10.
a. 8 and 17 b. 17 and 8 c. 9 and 1 d. None of these
JMET Test
Page 13
76. Given are the lengths of the sides and a diagonal of quadrilateral ABCD as shown below. Find its
area and length of the other diagonal.
A
B
C
D
5 m
5 m
7 m
7 m
6 m
a. 6 5 , 5 6 b. 6 4 , 6 6 c. 6 4 , 6 12 d. 6 5 , 6 12
77. The wages received by A, B and C together amount to Rs. 144. If A works for 10 days, B for 12 days
and C for 15 days, then the amount received by A, when the proportion of their daily wages is
1 1 1
: :
2 3 5
, is
a. Rs. 60 b. Rs. 48 c. Rs. 90 d. None of these
78. Rashmi started a business with Rs. 4,500 and Pratima joined afterwards investing Rs. 3,000. If the
profits at the end of one year were divided in the ratio 2 : 1 respectively, how many months later did
Pratima join the business after the start?
a. 1.5 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4.5
79. Kunjumols bag contains 800 coins of 25-paisa denomination and 1,200 coins of 50-paisa
denomination. If 5% of 25-paisa coins and 25% of 50-paisa coins are taken out, the percentage of
money taken out from the bag is
a. 30% b. 20% c. 17.8% d. None of these
80. A company manufactures two products X and Y. One unit of X requires 3 units of material A and 2
units of material B while one unit of Y requires 2 units of material A and 5 units of material B. If 25
units of each product were to be produced, calculate the requirement of material B.
a. 175 b. 125 c. 150 d. None of these
81. On a certain day, Rohit started with p newspapers. From morning to noon, he sold 40% of the
papers, and between noon and evening he sold 60% of the remaining. Then he realised that had he
sold double the number of newspapers than he sold in the afternoon, he would have had to borrow
12 papers from another vendor. Find p.
a. 108 b. 100 c. 96 d. 72
82. If a% of b is c, b% of c is a and c% of a is 1, then which of the following is not true?
a. a = 10 b. b = 100 c. a = c d. a = b
Page 14 JMET Test
83. If x
a
= y, y
b
= z and z
c
= x, what is
abc
1
?
a. xyz b. (xyz)
abc
c. 1 d. None of these
84. Two bullock carts move in the same direction from the same place at the rate of 4 km/hr and
4.5 km/hr respectively. What time will they take to be 8.5 km apart?
a. 1 hr b. 3 hr 50 min c. 17 hr d. 13 hr 15 min
85. A train leaves from Meerut at 7 a.m. and reaches Delhi at 11 a.m. Another train leaves from Delhi at
9 a.m. and reaches Meerut at 12.30 p.m. At what time do the two trains cross each other?
a. 9.56 a.m. b. 10.36 a.m. c. 10.56 a.m. d. 11 a.m.
86. If x men working x hours a day can do x units of a work in x days, then y men working y hours per
day in y days would be able to complete how many units of work?
a.
3
2
y
x
b.
2
3
y
x
c.
3
2
x
y
d.
2
3
x
y
87. If f(x) = 1 + x +
x
1
, what is f

,
_

x
1
+ f(x)?
a. f(x) f

,
_

x
1
b. f

,
_

x
1
f(x) c. 2f

,
_

x
1
d. [f(x)]
2
88.

dx e 3 4
x x x
?
a. C
12 log
e 3 4
e
x x x
+

b.
C
) e 7 ( log
) e 7 (
e
x
+
c. C
1 3 log 2 log 2
e 3 4
e e
x x x
+
+ +

d. None of these
89. Integrate
2 5
6
(x x )
dx.
1 x
+
+

a. C t sin
2
1
) x 1 (
2
1
3
1
1 3
+
1
]
1

+ +

b. C x tan 1 t log
2
1
3
1
3 1 6
e
+
1
]
1

+
,
_

+

c. C x tan 1 t log
3
1
3 1 6
e
+ + +

d. None of these
90. The average salary of female employees in a company is Rs. 5,000 and that of male is Rs. 6,000.
The mean salary of all the employees is Rs. 5,700. Find the percentage of male and female employees
respectively.
a. 30% and 70% b. 70% and 30% c. 55% and 45% d. None of these
JMET Test
Page 15
91. The mean of 10 numbers 2, x + 5, x + 6, x + 8, x + 9, x + 11, x + 12, x + 14, x + 15 and 24 is 17.
Then find the value of x.
a. 7 b. 9 c. 8 d. None of these
92. If one root of quadratic equation
2
px qx r 0 + + is equal to the 4th power of the other, then
a.
4 1 1 4
5 5 5 5
p r p r q 0 + + b. 0 q ) pr ( ) pr (
5
4
5
1
+ +
c.
5
4
5
4
5
4
q r p + d. None of these
93. How many different words can be formed with the letters of PUNJAB, when both P and N are
together?
a. 120 b. 240 c. 144 d. None of these
94. The area within the curve |x| + |y| = 8 is
a. 32 sq. units b. 64 sq. units c. 128 sq. units d. None of these
95. There are 19 identical red balls and one black ball. In a green jar 10 balls are put and the remaining
10 balls are put in a yellow jar. What is the probability of the black ball being in the yellow jar?
a.
19
9
b.
20
1
c.
19
1
d.
2
1
Page 16 JMET Test
Directions for questions 96 to 100: Answer the questions based on the information presented in the figure
below.
The pie charts below give data on units produced in four different zones for country X for 1990 and 1993
respectively.
1990 1993
Total units produced in country X for all four zones continued for the period 1990-93 is given by the bar chart
below.
96. What is the average total production per year during the four years?
a. 2.95 lakh b. 3.250 lakh c. 2.5 lakh d. 2.725 lakh
97. How many units were produced in north zone in 1990?
a. 0.96 lakh b. 1 lakh c. 1.04 lakh d. 1.08 lakh
98. How many units were produced in south zone in 1993?
a. 6,400 b. 980 c. 64,000 d. 98,000
Section 1V
East
22%
West
North
26%
South
24%
East
14%
West
25%
North
33%
South
28%
0 1 2 3 4 5
90
91
92
93
Production units in lakhs
Y
e
a
r
s
JMET Test
Page 17
99. Percentage decrease in total production in 1992 as compared to 1991 is
a. 38% b. 50% c. 60% d. 45%
100. Which zone registered the greatest percentage change in production units from 1990 to 1993?
a. North b. South c. East d. West
Directions for questions 101 to 105: Answer the questions based on the following information.
Unclaimed redemption and dividend amounts for TMF India Ltd.
The amount of dividends declared and redemptions made, which were remaining unclaimed as on the
balance sheet data are given below.
e m a n e m e h c S d n e d i v i D s n o i t p m e d e R
f o r e b m u N
s t n a r r a w d e m i a l c n u
t n u o m A
) s h k a l n i . s R (
f o r e b m u N
s t n a r r a w d e m i a l c n u
t n u o m A
) s h k a l n i . s R (
F G I T 0 7 1 6 2 . 3 7 3 8 . 0
F I I T 1 0 6 1 8 1 . 2 4 8 4 0 3 . 2
F S G T 2 1 2 6 7 . 7 1 4 5 1 . 0
P I M T 6 2 5 9 3 . 5 3 6 2 . 0
F I I F 0 0 0 . 0
F B I F 1 3 1 . 0
F G I F 3 0 5 . 0
l a t o T 9 0 5 2 9 5 . 8 6 9 6 7 1 . 4
101. What is the average dividend amount per unclaimed warrants across all schemes for TMF India
Ltd.?
a. Rs. 1,964 b. Rs. 2,734 c. Rs. 3,822 d. None of these
102. What is the approximate ratio of the average redemption amount per warrant in TIGF scheme to that
in FIBF scheme?
a. 10 : 9 b. 9 : 10 c. 11 : 13 d. 9 : 13
103. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) not true?
I. The total amount of unclaimed warrants for TIGF and TIIF schemes is Rs. 48.57 lakh.
II. TIIF scheme accounts for more than 60% of the total number of unclaimed warrants.
a. Only I b. Only II c. Both I and II d. Both are true
Page 18 JMET Test
104. What is the percentage of unclaimed dividend amount in TMIP scheme?
a. 7.8% b. 5.2% c. 10.5% d. Cannot be determined
105. A scheme is given the star status when it has minimum number of unclaimed warrants for that
scheme, among all others. Among the given schemes, which scheme is to be awarded star
status?
a. FIIF b. FIBF c. TIIF d. Cannot be determined
Directions for questions 106 to 110: Answer the questions based on the data presented in the graph
below.
The following graph shows the sales and production of sugar (in quantity) of mill X from 1996 to 2000.
0
2
4
6
8
10
12
1996 1997 1998 1999 2000
Year
U
n
i
t
s

i
n

'
0
0
0
Sales Production
106. Percentage fall in sales between 1996 and 2000 was
a. 20% b. 30% c. 25% d. 10%
107. In 2000, sales was what percentage of production?
a. 150% b. 160% c. 300% d. 200%
108. In which year the ratio of sale to production was the maximum?
a. 1996 b. 1998 c. 2000 d. Both (a) and (c)
109. The production in 1996 is how many times the production of 2000?
a. 0.9 b. 1.1 c. 1.25 d. 1.5
110. The total production of sugar in 1997 and 1999 is less than its sales by how many units?
a. 1,000 b. 2,000 c. 1,500 d. 3,000
JMET Test
Page 19
Directions for questions 111 to 115: Answer the questions based on the data presented in the graph
below.
The following graph shows the market value (in terms of preference) of products A, B and C in the first six
months of a year.
0
20
40
60
80
100
120
Jan. Feb. Mar. Apr. May June
Month
M
a
r
k
e
t

v
a
l
u
e
A B C
111. The market value of product C in May is what percentage of its value in February?
a. 120% b. 140% c. 160% d. 105%
112. Which product has shown the maximum increase in its market value in a month over the previous
month during the given period?
a. A b. B c. C d. Cannot be determined
113. The market value of product B in May increases from its value in February by
a. 30% b. 20% c. 43% d. 50%
114. How many months have shown the market value of product C above its average market value?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
115. The combined market value of products B and C in March is how many times of the market value of
A in March?
a. 1 b. 1.5 c. 3 d. 2
Directions for questions 116 to 120: Answer the questions based on the following information.
The performance of the countrys leading petroleum company MRPL is given in the table below.

Quarter
ended
September
30, 2002
Corresponding
quarter in the
previous year
Half year
ended
September
30, 2002
Corresponding
six months in
the previous
year
Previous
accounting
year ended
March 31,
2002
1
Crude through put
(million tonnes) 2.30 2.33 4.18 4.50 8.77
2
Market sales
(million tonnes) 4.69 4.46 9.58 9.44 19.15
3
Export sales
(million tonnes) 0.2 0.3 0.1
All figures in million tonne
Page 20 JMET Test
116. What is the approximate growth rate in market sales of MRPL for the quarter ending September
30, 2002 as compared to the quarter ending September 30, 2001?
a. 4.9% b. 5.2% c. 6.2% d. 4.5%
117. How much was the export sales of MRPL for the quarter ending June 30, 2002?
a. 1,00,000 tonnes b. 2,00,000 tonnes c. 3,00,000 tonnes d. None of these
118. What percentage of crude throughput was done by MRPL in the last six months of 2001-02 out of
the total annual crude throughput in 2001-02?
a. 51.3% b. 55.6% c. 48.7% d. 40.2%
119. What is the percentage change in crude throughput of MRPL for the first six months in 2002-03 as
compared to 2001-02?
a. Decrease by 7.6% b. Increase by 7.6% c. Increase by 7.1% d. Decrease by 7.1%
120. What is the approximate ratio of crude throughput and market sales for MRPL for 2001-02?
a. 2 : 1 b. 5 : 11 c. 1 : 2 d. 2 : 3
Directions for questions 121 to 125: The following bar diagram represents the population, classified as
per languages spoken over the world. Study the diagram carefully and answer the questions that follow.
121. If the world population is 543 crore, Chinese languages is spoken by approximately what percentage
of the total?
a. 14% b. 18% c. 22% d. 26%
122. Which of the following pairs of languages are spoken by an equal number of people?
a. Japanese and French b. French and German
c. Hindi and Spanish d. German and French
120
46
38
36
29
21
18
13 12 12
0
20
40
60
80
100
120
140
C
h
i
n
e
s
e
E
n
g
l
i
s
h
H
i
n
d
i
S
p
a
n
i
s
h
R
u
s
s
i
a
n
A
r
a
b
i
c
P
o
r
t
u
g
u
e
s
e
J
a
p
a
n
e
s
e
F
r
e
n
c
h
G
e
r
m
a
n
Languages
N
o
.

(
c
r
o
r
e
s
)
JMET Test
Page 21
123. The ratio of the population speaking Spanish to that of Arabic is
a. 2 : 1 b. 3 : 1 c. 1 : 1 d. 12 : 7
124. By what percentage do the number of English speaking people exceed those speaking Hindi?
a. 21% b. 17% c. 16% d. 8%
125. The ratio of total population speaking Japanese and German put together to that of Russian and
Arabic put together is
a. 1 : 3 b.1 : 2 c. 1 : 4 d. 2 : 3
Directions for questions 126 to 130: Answer the questions based on the information given below.
The production of food grains in the three grain-producing regions of Maharashtra state are as shown
below. These three regions are the only grain-producing regions in the state.
4620
3890
4230
3875
3422
3720
3567
2450
4562
3902
3276
3540
3213
4466
3540
0
500
1000
1500
2000
2500
3000
3500
4000
4500
5000
1994 1995 1996 1997 1998
T
o
n
n
e
s
South West North
126. What is the percentage contribution of the south region to the state in 1995?
a. 25% b. 31% c. 35% d. Cannot be determined
127. Which region shows the maximum percentage increase in production as compared to the last year?
a. West, 1996 b. South, 1995 c. West, 1998 d. None of these
128. What is the ratio of the total south production to the total north production in the period given?
a. 1 : 1.1 b. 1 : 1.2 c. 1 : 1.5 d. 1 : 1.6
129. What is the average production of food grains in the state during the given period?
a. 11,272 tonnes b. 12,400 tonnes c. 13,541 tonnes d. Cannot be determined
130. What is the maximum percentage change witnessed in any region during the entire period?
a. West, 1995 b. North, 1997 c. South, 1995 d. None of these
Page 22 JMET Test
Directions for questions 131 to 135: Answer the questions based on the data presented in the table
below.
The following table gives the actual and estimated performance of Shikha India Limited in a report dated
March 1999.
Year ended Rs. in crores
March 1997 March 1998 March 1999 March 2000*
Sales 63.91 116.78 237.49 468.24
Other income 1.7 5.32 2.00 2.50
Operating profit 24.51 34.20 67.68 135.79
Net profit 15.15 24.92 39.64 90.99
Equity 20.25 20.25 20.25 20.25
* Estimated performance
131. What percentage of the total income does other income represent in the year ending March 1998?
a. 4.2 b. 3.9 c. 4.4 d. 0.43
132. What is the operating profit margin
Operating Profit 100
Income
_

,
in the year ending March 1999?
a. 18% b. 28% c. 38% d. 48%
133. What is the earnings per share
Net profit 10
Equity
_

,
in the year ending March 1997?
a. 0.75 b. 15 c. 7.5 d. 75
134. In which year has the earnings per share
Net profit 10
Equity
_

,
actually grown by the maximum
percentage?
a. March 1998 b. March 2000 c. March 1999 d. March 1997
135. What is the approximate percentage growth in the estimated net profit in the year ending March
2000 over March 1997?
a. 350% b. 400% c. 450% d. 500%
JMET Test
Page 23
Directions for questions 136 to 150: Answer the question given below.
136. Which of the following is NOT true about the Cancun summit?
a. Cancun is a place in Mexico.
b. This was the fifth ministerial meet of World Trade Organization(WTO).
c. The Minister of Disinvestments, Arun Shourie, represented India.
d. Supachai Panitchpakadi is the Director-General of WTO
137. Kelkar Committee on Tax reforms does not approve which of the following statements?
a. Corporate tax rate to be reduced to 35% for foreign companies.
b. Minimum Alternate Tax(MAT) to be eliminated.
c. All excise duties are to be reviewed and to be replaced by CENVAT.
d. Excise duty to be reduce to 5% on life saving drugs, products of agriculture and items of security.
138. According to the Central Budget 2003-2004, which of the following represents the disinvestments
target?
a. Rs. 10,000 crore b. Rs. 11,700 crore c. Rs. 12,900 crore d. Rs. 13,200 crore
139. The Vice-Chairman of the Planning Commission of India is
a. S. P. Gupta b. N. K. Singh c. Jaswant Singh d. K. C. Pant
140. Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) is chaired by which of the following personalities?
a. K. V. Kamath b. R. V. Shahi c. Pradip Baijal d. Vinod Vaish
141. Which of the following is NOT true about the Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC)?
a. ONGC became the first Indian corporate to clock over Rs.10, 000 crore profits.
b. Subir Raha is the chairman and the managing director of ONGC.
c. Independent financial analysts today value ONGC at more than $15.35 billion
d. ONGC plans to invest Rs.146 billion in its upstream business for the 2003-2004 financial year.
142. Which of the following is NOT true about the Export and Import Bank of India?
a. It was established to promote foreign trade and its financing and facilitation.
b. It was established on January 1, 1982.
c. During the year ended on March 31, 2002 the bank disbursed loans worth Rs. 3,453 crore
d. The net profit of the bank for the period 2001-2002 on account of General Fund amounted to
Rs. 211 crore.
143. Why was Raghuram Rajan in the news recently?
a. He is the newly appointed Chief Economic Advisor to the Ministry of Finance
b. He is the first independent evaluator of the International Monetary Fund.
c. He is the youngest Chief Economist at the International Monetary Fund.
d. He is the newly appointed Chairman of the Competition Commission of India.
Section V
Page 24 JMET Test
144. Which of the following is TRUE according to the Central Budget 2003-2004?
a. Service tax to remain at 5%.
b. Special pension policy of 8% income in LIC.
c. VAT to be introduced in all states and Union Territories since April 1, 2003.
d. Rs. 500 crore to be provided additionally for Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan.
145. Which of the following represents the venue of the first round of GATT talks that took place in 1947?
a. Anesi b. Torquay c. Geneva d. Punta Del Este
146. According to the latest UNDP report on the Human Development Index, which of the following
represents the rank achieved by India?
a. 112 b. 119 c. 124 d. 127
147. The growth rate of the agriculture sector in 2002-2003 stood at
a. 4.6 b. 3.1% c. 2.1% d. 1.5%
148. This person created news as he became the largest shareholder in the Star News with 30% stake
in it amidst lot of speculation. Can you identify him/her from the given options?
a. Raveena Raj Kohli b. Peter Mukharjea c. Suhel Seth d. Kumar Mangalam Birla
149. This personality has been appointed as the brand ambassador of the Goodlass Nerolac paints,
recently. Can you identify him from the given options?
a. Shahrukh Khan b. Amir Khan c. Amitabh Bachchan d. Hrithik Roshan
150. This bank topped the list of the nationalized banks in the recovery of the amount of non-performing
assets in 2002-2003 through the Securitization Law by recovering Rs. 638.41 crore. Can you identify
this bank from the give options?
a. Punjab National Bank b. Canara Bank
c. Bank of Baroda d. State Bank of India