Combined Graduate Level Examination 2024 Tier II

Exam Date 18/01/2025

Exam Time 9:00 AM - 12:00 PM
Subject CGLE 2024 Tier II Paper I

Section : Module I Mathematical Abilities

Q.1 Find the value of Y, if X− 2Y + 2Z = 16, X − Y + Z = 9 and 2X − 3Y − Z = 9.

Ans A). 2 B). −3 C). −4 D). 4
Correct Answer: B

Q.2

Ans A). B). C).

D). Correct Answer: C

Q.3 A man buys 10 identical articles for a total of ₹15. If he sells each of them for ₹1.7, then
his profit percentage will be ______%'(rounded off to two decimal place).
Ans A). 14.33 B). 12.76 C). 13.33 D). 11.76
Correct Answer: C

Q.4 Rani and Adya, working separately, can finish a task in 12 days and 16 hours,
respectively. They work in stretches of one day alternately. If Rani starts working first,
then the task will be completed in
Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: B

Q.5

Ans D). Correct Answer: D

A). B). C).

Q.6 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2000 at 6.5% per annum rate of interest for the period
from 14 February 2023 to 28 April 2023
Ans A). 24 B). 27 C). 26 D). 25
Correct Answer: C
 Q.7 Let A and B be two players who are playing the game to hit the target. The
probabilities of hitting the target by A and B is and , respectively. What is
the probability that exactly one of them hit the target?
Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: D

Q.8

Ans A). C).

Correct Answer: C
B). D).

Q.9 The population of a place increased to 50,000 from 2016 to 2018 at the rate of 6% per
annum, and continued the same trend for the next 3 years. If A is the population in 2016
and B is the population in 2020, both are approximated to the next possible integers,
then the value of B − A is:
Ans A). 11680 B). 16270 C). 13220 D). 12850
Correct Answer: A

Q.10

Ans A). 37 B). 38 C). 40 D). 34

Correct Answer: C

Q.11 Find the median of the following data. (Rounded off to 2 decimal places.)
Class interval 0-5 5-10 10-15 15-20 20-25 25-30 30-35
Frequency 3 5 4 2 7 6 5
Ans A). 21.43 B). 23.40 C). 20.53 D). 18.64
Correct Answer: A

Q.12 Using empirical formula, calculate the mode for the following data.
17, 20, 21, 18, 25, 28, 24, 22, 16, 24, 25, 24
Ans A). 25.8 B). 32 C). 25 D). 30.6
Correct Answer: C

Q.13 On the occasion of Republic Day, a retail store offers a scheme where customers can
avail a discount of 26% on their total purchase. If Manish buys items worth ₹2,050, how
much money (in ₹) will he save through the scheme discount?
Ans A). 533 B). 544 C). 522 D). 511
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 ∆ABC is inscribed in a circle with Centre O. If AB = 21 cm, BC = 20 cm and AC = 29 cm,

then what is the length of the circumradius of the triangle?
Ans A). 32.5 cm B). 13.5 cm C). 21.5 cm D). 14.5 cm
Correct Answer: D

Q.15

Ans A). 224 B). 229 C). 219 D). 218

Correct Answer: C

Q.16 A sum of money is to be distributed among 3 friends P, Q and R in the proportion of 5 :

3 : 4 . If P gets₹1,500 more than R, what is Q's share?
Ans A). ₹4,950 B). ₹4,680 C). ₹5,100 D). ₹4,500
Correct Answer: D

Q.17 The average of first 91 even numbers is

Ans A). 92 B). 90 C). 91 D). 93
Correct Answer: A

Q.18

Ans A). 20 years B). 22 years C). 24 years D). 26 years

Correct Answer: C
 Q.19

Ans
A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: B

Q.20
Ans A). 9 : 11 B). 11 : 15 C). 15 : 13 D). 11 : 13
Correct Answer: B

Q.21 A toy is in the form of a cone mounted on a hemisphere. The radius of the hemisphere
and that of the cone is 36 cm and height of the cone is 105 cm. The total surface area (in
cm2) of the toy is:
Ans A). 6588 π B). 5240 π C). 6025 π D). 5799 π
Correct Answer: A

Q.22 Anil and Beena are friends, and the difference between their ages is 5 years. Anil’s
father Dinesh is three times as old as Anil, and Beena is twice as old as her sister
Charu. The ages of Dinesh and Charu differ by 45 years. If Beena is older than Anil, then
find the sum of the present ages of both Dinesh and Charu.
Ans A). 78 years B). 69 years C). 91 years D). 100 years
Correct Answer: B

Q.23 On a 2200 m long circular track, Sarita and Kavita drove their cycles from the same
point but in opposite direction with the speeds 20 km/hr and 16 km/hr, respectively.
After how much time will they meet again for the first time?
Ans A). 2 minutes 20 seconds B). 3 minutes 20 seconds C). 2 minutes 50 seconds D). 3 minutes 40 seconds
Correct Answer: D

Q.24

Ans A). 138 B). 143 C). 140 D). 124

Correct Answer: A

Q.25 Vessel A contains milk and water in the ratio 4 : 5. Vessel B contains milk and water in
the ratio 2 : 1. If x litres mixture of A is mixed with y litres mixture of B, then the ratio of
milk to water in the mixture becomes 8 : 5. Find the ratio x : y.
Ans A). 3 : 10 B). 5 : 6 C). 2 : 5 D). 3 : 4
Correct Answer: A

Q.26 Find the volume (in cm3, rounded off to 2 decimal places) of a right circular cone of

diameter 12 cm and height 5 cm. [Use π = ]

Ans A). 188.57 B). 197.25 C). 147.23 D). 156.39

Correct Answer: A

Q.27 The height of a right circular cone is 63 cm and the area of its curved surface is five
times the area of its base. What is the volume (in cm3) of the cone? (Use π = 22/7)
Ans A). 12589.10 B). 13540.25 C). 11234.65 D). 10914.75
Correct Answer: D

Q.28

Ans A). 7 B). 16 C). -3 D). 17

Correct Answer: A

Q.29 In a triangle HJK, HJ = HK. G is a point on HJ such that HG = GK = JK. What is the
degree measure of two-third of (∠ HGK + ∠ GKJ)?

Ans A). 96° B). 136° C). 84° D). 90°

Correct Answer: A

Q.30

Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: A

Section : Module II Reasoning and General Intelligence

 Q.1 Six letters P, Q, S, T, U and V are written on different faces of a dice. Two positions of
this dice are shown in thefigure. Find the letter on the face opposite to T.

Ans A). V B). P C). S D). U

Correct Answer: B

Q.2 Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a
logical and meaningful order.

1. Design 2. Test 3. Conceptualize 4. Develop 5. Implement

Ans A). 1, 4, 5, 3, 2 B). 3, 1, 4, 2, 5 C). 3, 5, 2, 4, 1 D). 3, 1, 5, 4, 2
Correct Answer: B

Q.3 Four of the following five figures are alike in a certain way and thus form a group.
Which is the one that does NOT belong to that group?

Ans A). A B). B C). C D). D

Correct Answer: C

Q.4 Which of the following letter-clusters should replace # and % so that the pattern and
relationship followed between the letter-cluster pair on the left side of :: is the same as
that on the right side of ::?

# : XAF :: SVA : %
Ans A). # = BBJ % = ORW B). # = BEJ % = QRW C). # = BEJ % = ORP D). # = BEJ % = ORW
Correct Answer: D

Q.5 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?)
in the following series.
9, 5, 6, 10.5, 23, ?
Ans A). 80 B). 90 C). 60 D). 50
Correct Answer: C

Q.6 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of the question mark (?)
will logically complete the series.

Ans
Correct Answer: D

A). B). C). D).

 Q.7 Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at
line MN as shown.

Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: C

Q.8 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /
subtracting / multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and
then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(215, 185, 135)

(276, 246, 196)
Ans A). (238, 208, 158) B). (269, 229, 199) C). (294, 264, 224) D). (255, 235, 205)
Correct Answer: A

Q.9 Each of the digits in the number 5238641 is arranged in ascending order
from left to right. The position(s) of how many digits will remain unchanged
as compared to that/those in the original number ?

Ans A). None B). One C). Two D). Three

Correct Answer: C

Q.10 O, P, Q, R, S and T are sitting around a circular table facing the centre(but not
necessarily in the same order). P sits second to the left of T. S sits third to the right of Q.
Q is not an immediate neighbour of P. O sits second to the right of S. Which of the
following represents the position of O with respect of R?
Ans A). Third to the left B). Second to the left C). Immediate right D). Third to the right
Correct Answer: B

Q.11 Given below is a statement (Cause) followed by possible effects numbered I, II and III.
Read the ‘Cause’ carefully and decide which of the three can be possible effect/s.

Cause – Many people in City X have reported receiving two electricity bills this month,
instead of one.

Effect I – The Electricity Board has published the details of areas where power
shutdowns are expected tomorrow in City X.
Effect II – The municipal commissioner of City X has clarified that the technical glitch
which led to multiple electricity bills being generated would be resolved within 48
hours.
Effect III – Long queues were seen outside the electricity board offices in many
localities.
Ans A). Only II is a possible effect. B). Both I and II are possible effects . C). Only I is a possible effect. D). Both II and III are possible effects.

Correct Answer: D

Q.12 In this question, two statements are followed by four conclusions given as options.
Decide which conclusion is definitely true, based on the given statements.

Statements:
A<B≥C>D
C>E≥F=G
Ans A). G > C B). D < F C). A < E D). B > G
Correct Answer: D
 Q.13 A question is given, followed by two statements labelled I and II. Identify which of the
statements is/are sufficient/necessary to answer the question.

Question:
In a certain code language, ‘fire in mountain’ is coded as ‘si ph bo’. What is code for
‘fire’?

Statements:
(I) ‘mountain’ is coded as ‘bo’.
(II) ‘ice and fire’ is coded as ‘si yu ca’.
Ans A). Data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in Statement II is not
B). Data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in Statement I is not
C). Data in Statements I and II together is not sufficient to answer the question
D). Data in Statements I and II together is sufficient to answer the question
Correct Answer: B

Q.14 How many meaningful English words can be formed using first, third, sixth and seventh
letters of the word RECOGNIZE (when counted from left to right) using all the letters but
each letter only once in each word?
Ans A). None B). Two C). Three D). One
Correct Answer: A

Q.15 In a certain code language, ‘POSE’ is coded as ‘3517’ and ‘SILK’ is coded as ‘4638’.
What is the code for ‘S’ in the given code language?
Ans A). 3 B). 1 C). 8 D). 4
Correct Answer: A

Q.16 In a certain code language,

A + B means ‘A is the mother of B’,
A – B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A x B means ‘A is the wife of B’ and
A ÷ B means ‘A is the father of B’.
Based on the above, how is U related to Z if ‘U + V ÷ W – Y x Z’?
Ans A). Wife's Father's Sister B). Wife's Mother's Mother C). W
​ ife's Mother's Sister D). Wife's Father's Mother
Correct Answer: D

Q.17 Read the following information and answer the question which follows.

“Similar to expert puzzle solvers, Solver S employs systematic problem-solving

approaches, ensuring efficient and accurate resolutions to complex challenges."

Which of the following can be inferred from the given statement? (An inference is
something which is not directly stated but can be derived from the given
facts/information in the statement)
1. The efficiency and accuracy of Solver S in resolving complex challenges may be
attributed to their systematic problem-solving methods.
2. Solver S utilizes systematic problem-solving approaches, similar to expert puzzle
solvers.
Ans A). Neither (I) nor (II) can be inferred. B). Only (II) can be inferred. C). Both (I) and (II) can be inferred. D). Only (I) can be inferred.

Correct Answer: C

Q.18 The following contains two pairs of words which are related to each other in a certain
way. Three of the following four word-pairs are alike as these have the same
relationship and thus form a group. Which word-pair does NOT belong to that group?
(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be grouped
based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
Ans A). Temple - Pray B). Theatre - Movies C). Park - Swim D). Restaurant - Dinner
Correct Answer: C

Q.19 A statement is followed by two arguments I and II. Read the statement and the
arguments carefully and select the appropriate answer from the given options.

Statement:
Hydroelectricity is a cleaner and greener energy than other forms of power generation.

Arguments:
(I) Hydroelectric plants almost have nil CO2 emissions.
(II) Hydroelectric power projects submerge huge amounts under water thereby affecting
local flora and fauna.
Ans A). Both I and II weaken the statement. B). I weakens while II strengthens the statement. C). II weakens while I strengthens the statement.
D). Both I and II strengthen the statement.
Correct Answer: C
 Q.20 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statement(s) is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
All sheeps are cows.
Some cows are horses.
All horses are jackals.

Conclusion:
(I) Some jackals are cows.
(II) Some horses are sheeps.
Ans A). Both Conclusions (I) and (II) follow. B). Only Conclusion (II) follows. C). Only Conclusion (I) follows.
D). Neither Conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
Correct Answer: C

Q.21 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below
to complete the pattern.

Ans
Correct Answer: D
A). B). C). D).

Q.22 Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its part (rotation is
NOT allowed).

Ans
Correct Answer: D

A). B). C). D).

Q.23 Each of P, Q, R, S, T, U and V has an exam on a different day of a week, starting from
Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week.
Q has the exam on Saturday. Only two people have exams between S and Q. R has the
exam before S, but after P. U has the exam immediately after T.
On which of the following days does V have the exam?
Ans A). Saturday B). Sunday C). Friday D). Thursday
Correct Answer: B

Q.24 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain
mathematical operations to the first number. In three of the four pairs, the same pattern
is applied and hence they form a group. Select the number-pair that does NOT belong to
this group.

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
/subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and
then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 18 - 198 B). 13 - 144 C). 31 - 341 D). 22 - 242
Correct Answer: B
 Q.25 U is the father of N. N is the sister of T. T is the wife of I. I is son of L. How is U
related to L?
Ans A). Son's wife's sister B). Son's wife's father C). Son's wife D). Son's wife's mother
Correct Answer: B

Q.26 Figure A is related to B in a certain pattern. Following the same pattern, figure C is
related to D. Study the pattern and select the figure which should be in place of D.

Ans

A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: B

Q.27 A question is given, followed by two statements labelled I and II. Identify which of the
statements is/are sufficient/necessary to answer the question.

Question:
Arvind has blue, green and white marbles. What is the percentage of white marbles out
of all the marbles he has?

Statements:
(I) The sum of blue and green marbles he has is 7.
(II) He has 3 white marbles out of 10 marbles.
Ans A). Data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in Statement I is not
B). Data in Statements I and II together is not sufficient to answer the question
C). Data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in Statement II is not
D). Data in Statements I and II together is sufficient to answer the question
Correct Answer: A

Q.28 In a certain code language, ‘she gardens daily’ is coded as ‘ak jb mp’ and ‘where is she’
is coded as ‘mp pt kt’. How is ‘she’ coded in the given language?
Ans A). mp B). ak C). kt D). pt
Correct Answer: A

Q.29 Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a
logical and meaningful order.

1. Delivery
2. Finished Paper
3. Dry
4. Pulp
5. Press
Ans A). 4, 5, 3, 2, 1 B). 2, 5, 4, 3, 1 C). 4, 1, 2, 5, 3 D). 5, 4, 2, 3, 1
Correct Answer: A

Q.30 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, what will be
come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

55 B 5 D 13 B 2 C 14 A 7 D 15 B 5 C 102 A 2 C 15 = ?
Ans A). 291 B). 203 C). 177 D). 242
Correct Answer: D

Section : Module I English Language and Comprehension

 Q.1 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
Rashid was not able to _____ the pain after the accident.

Ans A). beer B). bare C). buyer D). bear

Correct Answer: D

Q.2 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

Did you hear that noise?

Ans A). Has that noise been heard by you? B). Wasn't that noise heard by you? C). Is that noise heard by you?
D). Was that noise heard by you?
Correct Answer: D

Q.3 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of
words.

One who cannot make a mistake

Ans A). Inevitable B). Infallible C). Impregnable D). Inimitable
Correct Answer: B

Q.4 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word given below.
Enhance
Ans A). Enrich B). Impair C). Miracle D). Relevance
Correct Answer: B

Q.5 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that
contains an error.

It takes me an hour to get to work at the moment, but when the new road is finished it
be much quicker.
Ans A). It takes me an hour to get to work B). but when the new road is finished C). at the moment D). it be much quicker
Correct Answer: D

Q.6 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

No other book in the series captivated readers as _________________ as the final

installment.
Ans A). much B). many C). most D). more
Correct Answer: A

Q.7 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Generous
Ans A). Magnanimous B). Altruistic C). Selfish D). Benevolent
Correct Answer: C

Q.8 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in reported speech.

'I am determined to publish my findings,' the scientist asserted confidently.

Ans A). The scientist confidently asserted that she is determined to publish her findings.
B). The scientist confidently asserted that she would be determined to publish her findings.
C). The scientist confidently asserted that she was determined to publish her findings.
D). The scientist confidently asserted that she had determined to publish her findings.
Correct Answer: C

Q.9 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Luck does not always favour us, so we must always depend _______ our own efforts for
success.
Ans A). in B). for C). at D). upon
Correct Answer: D

Q.10 Select the correct spelling of the incorrectly spelt word in the given sentence.

All criminal attitudes must be niped at the bud.

Ans A). Nipedd B). Nipped C). Nipeed D). Niiped
Correct Answer: B
 Q.11 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in
the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. Psychotherapy is a voluntary relationship between the one seeking treatment or the

client and the one who treats or the therapist.
B. The relationship is conducive for building the trust of the client so that problems may
be freely discussed.
C. The purpose of the relationship is to help the client to solve the psychological
problems being faced by her or him.
D. Psychotherapies aim at changing the maladaptive behaviours, decreasing the sense
of personal distress and helping the client to adapt better to her/his environment.
E. Inadequate marital, occupational and social adjustment also requires that major
changes be made in an individual’s personal environment.
Ans A). DCABE B). CDEBA C). EDACB D). ACBDE
Correct Answer: D

Q.12 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
The explosion caused serious damage in Ukraine.
Ans A). Serious damage has been caused by the explosion in Ukraine. B). Serious damage was caused by the explosion in Ukraine.
C). Serious damage in Ukraine has been caused by the explosion. D). In Ukraine, serious damage had been caused by the explosion.

Correct Answer: B

Q.13 Complete the dialogue for Person B using the correct idiom.

Person A: I am so nervous. I don’t think I should make the speech tomorrow.

Person B: No. You are just getting _____. You have prepared for this.
Ans A). hot feet B). cold feet C). cold hand D). cold foot
Correct Answer: B

Q.14 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The mango is the_________ fruit.

Ans A). sweetly B). sweet C). sweeter D). sweetest
Correct Answer: D

Q.15 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of
words.

A sudden and violent change or upheaval

Ans A). Tranquility B). Turbulence C). Serenity D). Equanimity
Correct Answer: B

Q.16 Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Select the option that gives their
correct logical sequence to form a meaningful sentence.
a. it requires constant sustenance
b. in order for life to be liveable,
c. that enable it to grow and develop
d. and favourable circumstances
Ans A). a, b, c, d B). d, c, b, a C). b, a, d, c D). b, d, a, c
Correct Answer: C

Q.17 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.

The teacher informed that the exam had been postponed.

Ans A). The teacher informed, “The exam has been postponed.” B). The teacher informs, “The exam has been postponed.”
C). The teacher informed, “The exam was being postponed.” D). The teacher informs, “The exam had been postponed.”
Correct Answer: A

Q.18 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word.

He walked leisurely towards the entrance.

Ans A). reassuringly B). hastily C). without haste D). with a kickstart
Correct Answer: C

Q.19 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.

The District Magistrate ordered the police to work all night and put an end to those
riots.
Ans A). The District Magistrate told the police, "Work all night and put an end to their riots."
B). The District Magistrate told the police, "Work all night and put to end these riots."
C). The District Magistrate told the police, "Work all night and put an end to these riots."
D). The District Magistrate told the police, "Work all night to put an end these riots."
Correct Answer: C
 Q.20 Select the most appropriate pronoun to fill in the blank.
Mr. Amit Kumar, Proprietor of Xyling Pens is known for _________ honesty and decent
behaviour in the business arena.
Ans A). her B). it C). his D). they
Correct Answer: C

Q.21 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.

The team decided to pull out all the stops for their upcoming presentation.
Ans A). To do everything to make something successful B). Give up easily and without thinking much
C). Keep things simple and straightforward D). Wait patiently for a more favourable time
Correct Answer: A

Q.22 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Accumulated
Ans A). Bunched B). Garnered C). Spared D). Scattered
Correct Answer: D

Q.23 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

Everyone was surprised at his speech.

Ans A). His speech surprise everyone. B). His speech surprised everyone. C). His speech was surprising to everyone.
D). His speech is surprising everyone.
Correct Answer: B

Q.24 A sentence has been split up into segments and given below in jumbled order. While the
first and the last segments of the sentence (1 and 6) are in the correct order, the
segments in between are jumbled up. Arrange the segments in the correct order to form
a meaningful and coherent sentence.
1) India has been a land
P) and the learned man has been held in higher esteem
Q) of learning through the ages
R) but in the sense that learning has always been very highly valued
S) not indeed in the sense that education has been universal
6) than the warrior or the administrator.
Ans A). S, R, Q, P B). Q, S, R, P C). P, S, Q, R D). R, Q, S, P
Correct Answer: B

Q.25 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in
the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. As cost of raw materials cannot be reduced, exporters try to cut labour costs.
B. Large MNCs in the garment industry in Europe and America order their products
from Indian exporters.
C. These large MNCs with worldwide network look for the cheapest goods in order to
maximise their profits.
D. To get these large orders, Indian garment exporters try hard to cut their own costs.
E. Where earlier a factory used to employ workers on a permanent basis, now they
employ workers only on a temporary basis so that they do not have to pay workers for
the whole year.
Ans A). DCABE B). BCDAE C). CDAEB D). ADECB
Correct Answer: B

Q.26 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in
the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. It consists of a terracotta army of approximately 8000 life-sized men and horses.

B. Each of the horses and men is individually sculpted by a 3-inch-thick terracotta clay
and looks unique.
C. Shi Huangdi was the founder of Qin Dynasty and was the first ruler of unified China
in 221 BC.
D. His mausoleum was recently discovered in 1974 by Chinese peasants who were
drilling a well.
Ans A). CDAB B). CABD C). CADB D). CBAD
Correct Answer: A

Q.27 Select the most appropriate homophone from the options to fill in the blank.
We should _________ away all prejudices to live in harmony.
Ans A). cast B). caste C). coast D). cost
Correct Answer: A

Q.28 Select the correct spelling of the incorrectly spelt word in the given sentence.

The trainer tried to guage the learners' understanding of the subject by asking several
new questions.
Ans A). Gaaug B). Gaugg C). Gauge D). Gaage
Correct Answer: C
 Q.29 Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct
order to form a meaningful sentence.

a. beginning in the 19th century,

b. was long a mystery, and

c. the origin of the Moon

d. three competing theories emerged to solve it

Ans A). dcab B). bdca C). abdc D). cbad
Correct Answer: D

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Climate change (1)_____ an imminent threat to our planet, demanding urgent global action. The rise in greenhouse gas emissions,
deforestation and unsustainable practices contribute to extreme weather events, rising sea levels and disruptions in ecosystems. To
(2)________ these effects, a collaborative international effort is essential. Nations (3)________ commit to reducing carbon emissions,
transitioning to renewable energy sources and implementing sustainable practices. Cooperation on technological advancements and
sharing resources will foster a collective resilience against the impacts of climate change. The urgency of this issue calls for a united
front, where governments, businesses and individuals work together to create a sustainable and resilient future for the (4)________ to
come.

SubQuestion No : 30
Q.30 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans A). will pose B). poses C). posed D). will be posing
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Climate change (1)_____ an imminent threat to our planet, demanding urgent global action. The rise in greenhouse gas emissions,
deforestation and unsustainable practices contribute to extreme weather events, rising sea levels and disruptions in ecosystems. To
(2)________ these effects, a collaborative international effort is essential. Nations (3)________ commit to reducing carbon emissions,
transitioning to renewable energy sources and implementing sustainable practices. Cooperation on technological advancements and
sharing resources will foster a collective resilience against the impacts of climate change. The urgency of this issue calls for a united
front, where governments, businesses and individuals work together to create a sustainable and resilient future for the (4)________ to
come.

SubQuestion No : 31
Q.31 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans A). widen B). inflate C). mitigate D). maximise
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Climate change (1)_____ an imminent threat to our planet, demanding urgent global action. The rise in greenhouse gas emissions,
deforestation and unsustainable practices contribute to extreme weather events, rising sea levels and disruptions in ecosystems. To
(2)________ these effects, a collaborative international effort is essential. Nations (3)________ commit to reducing carbon emissions,
transitioning to renewable energy sources and implementing sustainable practices. Cooperation on technological advancements and
sharing resources will foster a collective resilience against the impacts of climate change. The urgency of this issue calls for a united
front, where governments, businesses and individuals work together to create a sustainable and resilient future for the (4)________ to
come.

SubQuestion No : 32
Q.32 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans A). must B). would C). might D). could
Correct Answer: A
 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Climate change (1)_____ an imminent threat to our planet, demanding urgent global action. The rise in greenhouse gas emissions,
deforestation and unsustainable practices contribute to extreme weather events, rising sea levels and disruptions in ecosystems. To
(2)________ these effects, a collaborative international effort is essential. Nations (3)________ commit to reducing carbon emissions,
transitioning to renewable energy sources and implementing sustainable practices. Cooperation on technological advancements and
sharing resources will foster a collective resilience against the impacts of climate change. The urgency of this issue calls for a united
front, where governments, businesses and individuals work together to create a sustainable and resilient future for the (4)________ to
come.

SubQuestion No : 33
Q.33 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans A). generations B). businessmen C). poor people D). backward nations
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
The French Revolution is a revolutionary movement that occurred in France between 1787 and 1799 and reached to its (1)______ in
1789. This revolution had many causes but the most important of all was (2)______ of bourgeoisie, who were merchants,
manufacturers and professionals. The peasants, many of them landowners, wanted to get rid of the practices of absolute monarchy
and feudalism. Another factor was an increase in population due to decreased mortality rates. It was followed by economic
predicament and minor revolts were common. This led to a clarion call for social reforms. Intellectuals like Rene Descartes wrote
about new things about political, social and economic matters. A fundamental political and societal change was to occur. The French
Revolution played a critical role in shaping modern nations by showing the world the power inherent in the will of the people.

SubQuestion No : 34
Q.34 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2.
Ans A). sorrow B). joy C). killing D). hankering
Correct Answer: D

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
The French Revolution is a revolutionary movement that occurred in France between 1787 and 1799 and reached to its (1)______ in
1789. This revolution had many causes but the most important of all was (2)______ of bourgeoisie, who were merchants,
manufacturers and professionals. The peasants, many of them landowners, wanted to get rid of the practices of absolute monarchy
and feudalism. Another factor was an increase in population due to decreased mortality rates. It was followed by economic
predicament and minor revolts were common. This led to a clarion call for social reforms. Intellectuals like Rene Descartes wrote
about new things about political, social and economic matters. A fundamental political and societal change was to occur. The French
Revolution played a critical role in shaping modern nations by showing the world the power inherent in the will of the people.

SubQuestion No : 35
Q.35 What is the meaning of the phrase ‘a clarion call’ in the passage?
Ans A). A strongly expressed demand B). A call for forces C). Declaration of war D). Beginning of a new phase
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
The French Revolution is a revolutionary movement that occurred in France between 1787 and 1799 and reached to its (1)______ in
1789. This revolution had many causes but the most important of all was (2)______ of bourgeoisie, who were merchants,
manufacturers and professionals. The peasants, many of them landowners, wanted to get rid of the practices of absolute monarchy
and feudalism. Another factor was an increase in population due to decreased mortality rates. It was followed by economic
predicament and minor revolts were common. This led to a clarion call for social reforms. Intellectuals like Rene Descartes wrote
about new things about political, social and economic matters. A fundamental political and societal change was to occur. The French
Revolution played a critical role in shaping modern nations by showing the world the power inherent in the will of the people.

SubQuestion No : 36
Q.36 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1.
Ans A). foundation B). middle C). pinnacle D). fall
Correct Answer: C
 Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
The French Revolution is a revolutionary movement that occurred in France between 1787 and 1799 and reached to its (1)______ in
1789. This revolution had many causes but the most important of all was (2)______ of bourgeoisie, who were merchants,
manufacturers and professionals. The peasants, many of them landowners, wanted to get rid of the practices of absolute monarchy
and feudalism. Another factor was an increase in population due to decreased mortality rates. It was followed by economic
predicament and minor revolts were common. This led to a clarion call for social reforms. Intellectuals like Rene Descartes wrote
about new things about political, social and economic matters. A fundamental political and societal change was to occur. The French
Revolution played a critical role in shaping modern nations by showing the world the power inherent in the will of the people.

SubQuestion No : 37
Q.37 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word ‘Inherent’.
Ans A). Artificial B). Incited C). Natural D). Borrowed
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Algae are photosynthetic creatures that have pigments that aid in photosynthesis, such as chlorophyll. They do not, however, have the
actual stems, roots or leaves found in vascular plants. While some of them have many cells, others are unicellular. They might
establish colonies as well. The majority of algae are aquatic. Some are terrestrial, and they can be found on rocks, trees and moist
soil. Certain algae species coexist well with other living things. For instance, lichens are a symbiotic relationship between green (and
often blue-green) algae and fungi. Algae are members of a multiphyletic group. This indicates that there is no common ancestor and
that the species in this category are not necessarily closely related. They do not have other morphoanatomical characteristics typical
of vascular plants, but they do have one thing in common: they are eukaryotes with the principal pigment being chlorophyll, which
allows them to perform photosynthesis. Phycology is the scientific name for the study of algae. The blue-green algae is one example
of a reference. But some sources do not classify them as algae because they are prokaryotes.

SubQuestion No : 38
Q.38 According to the passage, which is the main pigment in algae for photosynthesis?
Ans A). Chlorophyll B). Xanthophyll C). Carotenoid D). Melanin
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Algae are photosynthetic creatures that have pigments that aid in photosynthesis, such as chlorophyll. They do not, however, have the
actual stems, roots or leaves found in vascular plants. While some of them have many cells, others are unicellular. They might
establish colonies as well. The majority of algae are aquatic. Some are terrestrial, and they can be found on rocks, trees and moist
soil. Certain algae species coexist well with other living things. For instance, lichens are a symbiotic relationship between green (and
often blue-green) algae and fungi. Algae are members of a multiphyletic group. This indicates that there is no common ancestor and
that the species in this category are not necessarily closely related. They do not have other morphoanatomical characteristics typical
of vascular plants, but they do have one thing in common: they are eukaryotes with the principal pigment being chlorophyll, which
allows them to perform photosynthesis. Phycology is the scientific name for the study of algae. The blue-green algae is one example
of a reference. But some sources do not classify them as algae because they are prokaryotes.

SubQuestion No : 39
Q.39 What is the central theme of the passage?
Ans A). The anatomy of vascular plants B). The diversity and characteristics of algae C). The prokaryotic nature of blue-green algae
D). The symbiotic relationship between algae and fungi
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Algae are photosynthetic creatures that have pigments that aid in photosynthesis, such as chlorophyll. They do not, however, have the
actual stems, roots or leaves found in vascular plants. While some of them have many cells, others are unicellular. They might
establish colonies as well. The majority of algae are aquatic. Some are terrestrial, and they can be found on rocks, trees and moist
soil. Certain algae species coexist well with other living things. For instance, lichens are a symbiotic relationship between green (and
often blue-green) algae and fungi. Algae are members of a multiphyletic group. This indicates that there is no common ancestor and
that the species in this category are not necessarily closely related. They do not have other morphoanatomical characteristics typical
of vascular plants, but they do have one thing in common: they are eukaryotes with the principal pigment being chlorophyll, which
allows them to perform photosynthesis. Phycology is the scientific name for the study of algae. The blue-green algae is one example
of a reference. But some sources do not classify them as algae because they are prokaryotes.

SubQuestion No : 40
Q.40 Which statement accurately describes vascular plants based on the information in the
passage?
Ans A). Vascular plants have true stems, roots and leaves, unlike algae. B). Vascular plants are unicellular in structure.
C). Algae and vascular plants share the same morphoanatomical characteristics. D). Vascular plants lack stems, roots and leaves.

Correct Answer: A
 Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Algae are photosynthetic creatures that have pigments that aid in photosynthesis, such as chlorophyll. They do not, however, have the
actual stems, roots or leaves found in vascular plants. While some of them have many cells, others are unicellular. They might
establish colonies as well. The majority of algae are aquatic. Some are terrestrial, and they can be found on rocks, trees and moist
soil. Certain algae species coexist well with other living things. For instance, lichens are a symbiotic relationship between green (and
often blue-green) algae and fungi. Algae are members of a multiphyletic group. This indicates that there is no common ancestor and
that the species in this category are not necessarily closely related. They do not have other morphoanatomical characteristics typical
of vascular plants, but they do have one thing in common: they are eukaryotes with the principal pigment being chlorophyll, which
allows them to perform photosynthesis. Phycology is the scientific name for the study of algae. The blue-green algae is one example
of a reference. But some sources do not classify them as algae because they are prokaryotes.

SubQuestion No : 41
Q.41 What does the term 'multiphyletic group' mean in the context of algae?
Ans A). Being closely related species B). No common ancestor, not closely related C). Having diverse morphoanatomical characteristics
D). Having a common ancestor
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Subhas Chandra Bose, a prominent Indian nationalist leader, was convinced that India could not achieve independence without the
use of force, and he believed that a military campaign was necessary to achieve this goal. In 1942, Bose formed the Indian National
Army (INA) with the help of the Japanese.
Bose travelled to Japan in 1941 to seek their support in the struggle against British rule in India. The Japanese were interested in
having Bose’s help in their own efforts to expand their influence in Southeast Asia. Bose’s vision was to create a military force to fight
against the British in India with the help of Japanese weapons and training. The INA was formed in Singapore in September 1942 with
the slogan ‘Jai Hind’ (Victory to India). The INA consisted of soldiers who were primarily from the Indian community in Southeast Asia.
They were trained by Japanese officers and were equipped with Japanese weapons. The INA fought alongside Japanese forces in
Burma and other parts of Southeast Asia during World War II. Bose’s leadership of the INA and his military campaigns against the
British in India made him a popular figure among many Indians. The consequences of the formation of the INA were significant. The
INA’s campaigns against the British in India and the Indian soldiers’ role in the Burma campaign had a psychological impact on the
British forces. The British were shocked that Indian soldiers had turned against them, undermining their confidence in maintaining
control over India. The INA also had a significant impact on the Indian independence movement. Bose’s vision of a socialist India with
equal rights for all citizens inspired many Indians. The INA became a symbol of the struggle against British colonialism, and Bose’s
slogan of ‘Jai Hind’ became a rallying cry for the independence movement.
However, the INA’s military campaigns were not successful in achieving their goal of freeing India from British rule. The INA suffered
significant losses in battles, and their efforts were undermined by the Japanese surrender in 1945.

SubQuestion No : 42
Q.42 What ultimately undermined the INA’s efforts to free India from British rule?
Ans A). The Japanese surrender in 1945 B). The lack of support from the Indian and British people C). Gandhi’s death
D). The inferior military tactics of the British forces
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Subhas Chandra Bose, a prominent Indian nationalist leader, was convinced that India could not achieve independence without the
use of force, and he believed that a military campaign was necessary to achieve this goal. In 1942, Bose formed the Indian National
Army (INA) with the help of the Japanese.
Bose travelled to Japan in 1941 to seek their support in the struggle against British rule in India. The Japanese were interested in
having Bose’s help in their own efforts to expand their influence in Southeast Asia. Bose’s vision was to create a military force to fight
against the British in India with the help of Japanese weapons and training. The INA was formed in Singapore in September 1942 with
the slogan ‘Jai Hind’ (Victory to India). The INA consisted of soldiers who were primarily from the Indian community in Southeast Asia.
They were trained by Japanese officers and were equipped with Japanese weapons. The INA fought alongside Japanese forces in
Burma and other parts of Southeast Asia during World War II. Bose’s leadership of the INA and his military campaigns against the
British in India made him a popular figure among many Indians. The consequences of the formation of the INA were significant. The
INA’s campaigns against the British in India and the Indian soldiers’ role in the Burma campaign had a psychological impact on the
British forces. The British were shocked that Indian soldiers had turned against them, undermining their confidence in maintaining
control over India. The INA also had a significant impact on the Indian independence movement. Bose’s vision of a socialist India with
equal rights for all citizens inspired many Indians. The INA became a symbol of the struggle against British colonialism, and Bose’s
slogan of ‘Jai Hind’ became a rallying cry for the independence movement.
However, the INA’s military campaigns were not successful in achieving their goal of freeing India from British rule. The INA suffered
significant losses in battles, and their efforts were undermined by the Japanese surrender in 1945.

SubQuestion No : 43
Q.43 How did Subhas Chandra Bose view India’s fight for independence?
Ans A). Through political negotiations B). Through economic sanctions C). Through military campaigns D). Through non-violent means

Correct Answer: C
 Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Subhas Chandra Bose, a prominent Indian nationalist leader, was convinced that India could not achieve independence without the
use of force, and he believed that a military campaign was necessary to achieve this goal. In 1942, Bose formed the Indian National
Army (INA) with the help of the Japanese.
Bose travelled to Japan in 1941 to seek their support in the struggle against British rule in India. The Japanese were interested in
having Bose’s help in their own efforts to expand their influence in Southeast Asia. Bose’s vision was to create a military force to fight
against the British in India with the help of Japanese weapons and training. The INA was formed in Singapore in September 1942 with
the slogan ‘Jai Hind’ (Victory to India). The INA consisted of soldiers who were primarily from the Indian community in Southeast Asia.
They were trained by Japanese officers and were equipped with Japanese weapons. The INA fought alongside Japanese forces in
Burma and other parts of Southeast Asia during World War II. Bose’s leadership of the INA and his military campaigns against the
British in India made him a popular figure among many Indians. The consequences of the formation of the INA were significant. The
INA’s campaigns against the British in India and the Indian soldiers’ role in the Burma campaign had a psychological impact on the
British forces. The British were shocked that Indian soldiers had turned against them, undermining their confidence in maintaining
control over India. The INA also had a significant impact on the Indian independence movement. Bose’s vision of a socialist India with
equal rights for all citizens inspired many Indians. The INA became a symbol of the struggle against British colonialism, and Bose’s
slogan of ‘Jai Hind’ became a rallying cry for the independence movement.
However, the INA’s military campaigns were not successful in achieving their goal of freeing India from British rule. The INA suffered
significant losses in battles, and their efforts were undermined by the Japanese surrender in 1945.

SubQuestion No : 44
Q.44 What was the primary reason for the Japanese to support Subhas Chandra Bose and
the formation of the INA?
Ans A). They believed in Bose’s vision of a communist India. B). They wanted to expand their influence in Southeast Asia.
C). They were looking for allies in their fight against the British Empire. D). They believed in India’s right to self-determination.

Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Subhas Chandra Bose, a prominent Indian nationalist leader, was convinced that India could not achieve independence without the
use of force, and he believed that a military campaign was necessary to achieve this goal. In 1942, Bose formed the Indian National
Army (INA) with the help of the Japanese.
Bose travelled to Japan in 1941 to seek their support in the struggle against British rule in India. The Japanese were interested in
having Bose’s help in their own efforts to expand their influence in Southeast Asia. Bose’s vision was to create a military force to fight
against the British in India with the help of Japanese weapons and training. The INA was formed in Singapore in September 1942 with
the slogan ‘Jai Hind’ (Victory to India). The INA consisted of soldiers who were primarily from the Indian community in Southeast Asia.
They were trained by Japanese officers and were equipped with Japanese weapons. The INA fought alongside Japanese forces in
Burma and other parts of Southeast Asia during World War II. Bose’s leadership of the INA and his military campaigns against the
British in India made him a popular figure among many Indians. The consequences of the formation of the INA were significant. The
INA’s campaigns against the British in India and the Indian soldiers’ role in the Burma campaign had a psychological impact on the
British forces. The British were shocked that Indian soldiers had turned against them, undermining their confidence in maintaining
control over India. The INA also had a significant impact on the Indian independence movement. Bose’s vision of a socialist India with
equal rights for all citizens inspired many Indians. The INA became a symbol of the struggle against British colonialism, and Bose’s
slogan of ‘Jai Hind’ became a rallying cry for the independence movement.
However, the INA’s military campaigns were not successful in achieving their goal of freeing India from British rule. The INA suffered
significant losses in battles, and their efforts were undermined by the Japanese surrender in 1945.

SubQuestion No : 45
Q.45 What was the significance of Bose’s slogan ‘Jai Hind’?
Ans A). It symbolised the struggle against British colonialism. B). It was a call to arms for the Indian and British Army.
C). It represented Bose’s vision of a capitalist India. D). It manifests the vision of selected communities.
Correct Answer: A

Section : Module II General Awareness

Q.1 What was the status of the agricultural sector in India before the Green Revolution?
Ans A). Use of old technology and the absence of required infrastructure B). Use of advanced technology and high productivity
C). Use of advanced technology and dependency on rainfall D). Use of traditional technology and the abundance of required infrastructure

Correct Answer: A

Q.2 What is the name of the ion with a charge of −1?

Ans A). Monovalent ion B). Polyvalent ion C). Anion D). Cation
Correct Answer: C

Q.3 Who mentioned ecosystem as 'the basic unit in ecology' in 1956?

Ans A). Francis Evans B). Aldo Leopold C). John Harper D). Rachel Carson
Correct Answer: A
 Q.4 In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court direct that, 'the Parliament
cannot take away or abridge any of the fundamental rights for the Implementation of
Directive Principles'?
Ans A). Indira Sawhney Case, 1992 B). Keshvanand Bharti Case, 1973 C). Golak Nath Case, 1967 D). Minerva Mills Case, 1980

Correct Answer: C

Q.5 Mathura was the second capital of ________ dynasty.

Ans A). Maukhri B). Gupta C). Maurya D). Kushana
Correct Answer: D

Q.6 In which year did Walter Fleming stain the chromosomes to see them clearly and
describe the entire process of mitosis?
Ans A). 1956 B). 1780 C). 1901 D). 1882
Correct Answer: D

Q.7 Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion
(A) and Reason (R).

A. The first battle of Panipat was one of the decisive battles of India.
R. It brought into power a new band of invaders called Mughals.
Ans A). Statements A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
B). Statements A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. C). R is true, but A is false. D). A is true, but R is false.

Correct Answer: B

Q.8 Who urged political parties to engage in discussions that inspire unity rather than
division and promote ideas instead of personal attacks in the address on the eve of
National Voters Day in January 2024?
Ans A). President Droupadi Murmu B). Chief Election Commissioner Rajiv Kumar C). Union Home Minister Amit Shah
D). Prime Minister Narendra Modi
Correct Answer: B

Q.9 Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Statements:
1) Ampere's Law describes the relationship between electric current and the magnetic
field it produces.
2) Maxwell's equations are a set of four fundamental equations governing electric and
magnetic fields in the absence of charges and currents.
Ans A). Only Statement 2 B). Neither Statement 1 nor 2 C). Both Statements 1 and 2 D). Only Statement 1
Correct Answer: D

Q.10 Identify the naturally occurring aluminum oxide mineral that usually forms hexagonal
barrel-shaped prisms.
Ans A). Corundum B). Chalcopyrite C). Olivine D). Dolomite
Correct Answer: A

Q.11 In December 1991, which act was amended to bring public enterprises under the
purview of the Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (BIFR) as part of the
country's economic reforms program?
Ans A). Industries Act B). Financial Rehabilitation Act C). Companies Act D). Sick Industrial Companies Act
Correct Answer: D

Q.12 Which of the following sentences is/are true?

i. All isoclines are expansion paths but all expansion paths are not isoclines.
ii. Short-run production functions involve adjusting all inputs, including fixed inputs like
land or capital, to affect output.
iii. Stock resources are the resources which are not used in one period of production
but can be stored for a later period.
Ans A). Only i B). Only iii C). Only ii and iii D). Only ii
Correct Answer: B

Q.13 Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts made the president bound by
the advice of the council of ministers headed by the prime minister?
Ans A). 46th B). 42nd C). 48th D). 40th Correct Answer: B

Q.14 Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease is caused by duplication of the peripheral myelin protein-

22 (PMP22) gene on which chromosome?
Ans A). chromosome 15 B). chromosome 17 C). chromosome 21 D). chromosome 8
Correct Answer: B
 Q.15 Which Indian city experiences the LEAST difference in average temperature between its
hottest and coldest months?
Ans A). Bhopal B). Delhi C). Mumbai D). Srinagar
Correct Answer: C

Q.16 Match the books in List 1 with their authors in List 2.

List 1 List 2
A. The Philosophy of the Bomb 1. Sachindranath Sanyal
B. Bandi Jiwan 2. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
C. Pather Dabi 3. Bhagwati Charan Vohra
D. Anandmath 4. Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay
Ans A). A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 B). A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 C). A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 D). A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
Correct Answer: C

Q.17 Which of the following is a monoatomic gas?

Ans A). Oxygen B). Hydrogen C). Xenon D). Chlorin
Correct Answer: C

Q.18 The rotating columns of air that occur over water bodies and are generally less severe
than land tornadoes are known as:
Ans A). waterspouts B). hurricanes C). typhoons D). squalls
Correct Answer: A

Q.19 Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below regarding Census
2011.
Statement 1. The population of India has increased by more than 181 million during the
decade 2001-2011.
Statement 2. The percentage decadal growth during 2001-2011 has registered the
sharpest decline since Independence.
Ans A). Both statements 1 and 2 are not correct. B). Both statements 1 and 2 are correct. C). Only statement 1 is correct.
D). Only statement 2 is correct.
Correct Answer: B

Q.20 The Bharatmala project of the Government of India comes under which of the following
Ministries of India?
Ans A). Ministry of Ports Shipping and Waterways B). Ministry of Environment and Forest and Climate Change C). Ministry of Home Affairs
D). Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
Correct Answer: D

Q.21 Which portal allowed stakeholders seamless access to information related to funding,
documentation, project monitoring, and approval through four efficient ways of logging
in for monitoring the implementation of Centrally Sponsored Schemes in 2023?
Ans A). Nyaya Vikas Portal B). Viksit Bharat Portal C). Digital India Portal D). Pradhan Mantri Jan bhagidari Yojana Portal
Correct Answer: A

Q.22 Who won the title at the World Chess Armageddon Asia & Oceania event in April 2023?
Ans A). P Harikrishna B). Viswanathan Anand C). Koneru Humpy D). D Gukesh
Correct Answer: D

Q.23 In the year 2020, National Digital Health Mission was launched on which of the following
occasions?
Ans A). Gandhi Jayanti B). Diwali C). Independence Day D). Republic Day
Correct Answer: C

Q.24 Who among the following was the first Home Minister of Independent India?
Ans A). Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad B). Baldev Singh C). Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel D). Humayun Kabir
Correct Answer: C

Q.25 Which theory, independently introduced in 1923, led to the concept of acid-base
conjugate pairs?
Ans A). Lewi's theory B). Brønsted-Lowry theory C). Arrhenius theory D). Davy's theory
Correct Answer: B

Section : Module I Computer Knowledge Module

Q.1 What is the primary advantage of being able to insert and delete slides in an MS
PowerPoint presentation?
Ans A). To apply different templates to individual slides B). To enable the addition of multimedia content
C). To allow for dynamic content adjustment and organisation D). To enhance slide transitions
Correct Answer: C
 Q.2 Which of the following technologies allows real-time communication over the Internet,
such as voice and video calls, without requiring additional software or hardware
beyond a web browser?
Ans A). FTP B). Email C). VoIP D). WebRTC
Correct Answer: D

Q.3 Which type of virus infects the boot sector of floppy disks or the Master Boot Record
(MBR) of hard disks?
Ans A). Macro Virus B). Resident Virus C). Direct Action Virus D). Boot Sector Virus
Correct Answer: D

Q.4 What is the main purpose of using a template when creating a presentation in MS
PowerPoint?
Ans A). To ensure consistency and professionalism B). To automatically insert multimedia content C). To create interactive quizzes within slides
D). To add complex animations easily
Correct Answer: A

Q.5 Which device is commonly used to connect computers within a LAN?

Ans A). Router B). Repeater C). Switch D). Modem
Correct Answer: C

Q.6 Which method is used to protect sensitive information during data transmission?
Ans A). Decryption B). Hashing C). Secure Socket Layer (SSL) D). Compression
Correct Answer: C

Q.7 Which of the following statements about computer memory is/are correct?
RAM is volatile memory, meaning it loses data when power is turned off.
ROM is used to store essential instructions required for the computer to boot.
Ans A). Both 1 and 2 B). Neither 1 nor 2 C). Only 2 D). Only 1
Correct Answer: A

Q.8 Match the file locating features in column A with their corresponding functionalities in
column B.

Column A Column B
1. Search Bar a) Displays files and folders recently accessed
2. Quick Access b) Allows grouping and sorting of files by attributes
3. Wildcards c) Refines searches for files with partial names
4. File Sorting d) Locates files and folders by typing keywords

Ans A). 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c B). 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d C). 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d D). 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b
Correct Answer: D

Q.9 Which feature in MS Word allows the user to apply a consistent look across text
elements such as headings, titles and subtitles?
Ans A). Macros B). Table C). Styles D). Template
Correct Answer: C

Q.10 Which of the following is an example of a type of ROM that can be electronically erased
and reprogrammed multiple times?
Ans A). Mask ROM B). EPROM C). PROM D). EEPROM
Correct Answer: D

Q.11 Which keyboard shortcut is used for adding bullets in MS Word 2010?
Ans A). Ctrl + Shift + L B). Ctrl + L C). Ctrl + Alt + L D). Shift + L
Correct Answer: A

Q.12 Which is the correct keyboard shortcut for adjusting the column width in MS Excel?
Ans A). Alt + H + O + W B). Ctrl + O + W + H C). Shift + H + O + W D). Ctrl + H + O + W
Correct Answer: A

Q.13 Select which of the given statement(s) is/are True or False for the Central Processing
Unit (CPU) of the Computer Systems.

(i) The CPU's clock speed controls the timing and execution speed of instructions.
(ii) The CPU's cache memory provides high-speed access to frequently used
instructions and data.
Ans A). (i) True, (ii) True B). (i) False, (ii) True C). (i) True, (ii) False D). (i) False, (ii) False
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 Which operation can one directly perform using File Explorer in Windows?
Ans A). Manage user accounts B). Move, copy, or delete files C). Modify system settings D). Run diagnostic tests
Correct Answer: B
 Q.15 What security mechanism ensures that system updates are installed without user
intervention?
Ans A). Intrusion Detection System B). Secure Boot C). Firewall D). Patch management software
Correct Answer: D

Q.16 What is the primary reason DRAM needs to be refreshed periodically?

Ans A). To clear unused data B). To allow the CPU to access new data C). To prevent data corruption caused by magnetic fields
D). To recharge the capacitors storing data bits
Correct Answer: D

Q.17 Which of the following best describes Electronic Mail (E-mail)?

Ans A). A type of secure online transaction system. B). A method of sending messages electronically over a computer network.
C). A system for storing digital files on the cloud. D). A service used to make phone calls over the internet.
Correct Answer: B

Q.18 What is the maximum length of characters that can be accommodated in a column in
MS Excel 2003?
Ans A). 512 characters B). 1064 characters C). 255 characters D). 65536 characters
Correct Answer: C

Q.19 Match the Task Manager tabs in column A with their respective
functionalities in column B.
Column A Column B
1. Processes a) Monitors overall CPU, memory, disk, and network usage
2. Performance b) Displays active applications and background
processes
3. Startup c) Manages programs that run during system startup
4. App History d) Shows resource usage for Windows Store apps
Ans A). 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c B). 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d C). 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a D). 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d
Correct Answer: D

Q.20 Which action should be taken in Microsoft Outlook to send a received email to another
person, while keeping the original message for your records?
Ans A). Use the 'Archive' option and create a new email. B). Click on 'Reply All' and select 'Forward' from the options.
C). Open the email, click on 'Forward', and enter the recipient's email address. D). Click on 'Reply' and add the new recipient's email address.

Correct Answer: C
 Combined Graduate Level Examination 2024 Tier II
Exam Date 20/01/2025
Exam Time 9:00 AM - 12:00 PM
Subject CGLE 2024 Tier II Paper I

Section : Module I Mathematical Abilities

Q.1

Ans A). 16 cm B). 14 cm C). 18 cm D). 20 cm

Correct Answer: B

Q.2

Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: A

Q.3 Murlidhar, the owner of a grocery store, offers a discount scheme 'buy 5 water bottles
get 1 for free' to his customers. What is the effective percentage discount offered by
Murlidhar? (correct up to two decimal places)
Ans A). 13.67% B). 20.00% C). 13.33% D). 16.67%
Correct Answer: D

Q.4 Which number among 38211, 38121, 32118, and 31128 is divisible by 24?
Ans A). 32118 B). 31128 C). 38121 D). 38211
Correct Answer: B

Q.5 In a circle with centre O, an arc ABC subtends an angle of 134° at the centre of the
circle. The chord AB is produced to a point P. ∠ CBP is equal to:

Ans A). 67° B). 113° C). 45° D). 89°

Correct Answer: A

Q.6 Let PQR be a right angled triangle, right-angled at R. Let PQ = 29 cm, QR = 21 cm and
∠ Q = θ. Find the value of cos 2 θ – sin 2 θ.
Ans
Correct Answer: C
A). B). C). D).

Q.7 P and Q take part in 400 m race. P runs at 12 km/hr. P gives Q a start of 20 m and still
beats him by 13 seconds. The speed of Q is:
(Round up to two decimal places.)
Ans A). 11.38 km/hr B). 10.29 km/hr C). 11.61 km/hr D). 10.87 km/hr
Correct Answer: B

Q.8 Two years ago, the population of a town was 9487500. Due to migration to big cities, it
decreases every year at the rate of 8%. The present population of the town is:
Ans A). 9060110 B). 7060320 C). 8070120 D). 8030220
Correct Answer: D
 Q.9 The average of first 92 even numbers is
Ans A). 94 B). 91 C). 92 D). 93
Correct Answer: D

Q.10 The ratio of the ages of two friends is 4 : 3 which will become 6 : 5 after 4 years. What
will be the sum of their ages (in years) after 22 years from now?
Ans A). 56 B). 58 C). 52 D). 50
Correct Answer: B

Q.11 8 kg of maize costing ₹51 per kg, is mixed with 9 kg of maize costing ₹68 per kg. The
average per kg price of mixed maize is:
Ans A). ₹60 B). ₹58 C). ₹59 D). ₹61
Correct Answer: A

Q.12 A tank when full can be emptied by an outlet pipe A in 5.6 hours, while an inlet pipe B
can fill the same empty tank in 7 hours. If pipes A and B are turned on alternatively for 1
hour each starting with pipe A when the tank is full, how long will it take to empty the
tank?
Ans A). 48 hours B). 47 hours C). 56 hours D). 55 hours
Correct Answer: B

Q.13 The ratio between the length and the breadth of a rectangular park is 3 : 2, and the
perimeter of the park is 120 m. Find the area (in m2) of the park.
Ans A). 864 B). 968 C). 144 D). 454
Correct Answer: A

Q.14 A man sells a mobile phone for ₹680 and loses something. If he had sold it for ₹1070,
his gain would have been double the former loss. The cost price (in ₹) of the mobile
phone is:
Ans A). 820 B). 800 C). 830 D). 810
Correct Answer: D

Q.15

Ans A). 18.25 B). 24.12 C). 17.70 D). 20.65

Correct Answer: C

Q.16

Ans A). Not Mutually Exclusive B). Mutually Exclusive C). Independent D). Dependent
Correct Answer: C

Q.17 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2000 at 6.5% per annum rate of interest for the period
from 13 February 2023 to 27 April 2023
Ans A). 27 B). 25 C). 26 D). 24
Correct Answer: C

Q.18
Ans A). 1310 B). 1300 C). 1330 D). 1320
Correct Answer: C

Q.19

Ans
Correct Answer: B
A). B). C). D).

Q.20

Ans A). 15 : 21 B). 20 : 21 C). 21 : 10 D). 10 : 21

Correct Answer: C

Q.21 The age of some students is given in years as 12, 13, 16, 18,14, 19, 13, 17, 15 and 11.
The median age (in years) of the students is:
Ans A). 13.5 B). 14 C). 15 D). 14.5
Correct Answer: D
 Q.22 Amit gets 6% increase in his sale amount in the first year and 20% in the second year,
with that his present sale is ₹254400, what was his sale (in ₹) two years ago?
Ans A). 200000 B). 180000 C). 212000 D). 240000
Correct Answer: A

Q.23 Find the median of the following data.

Class interval 0 – 20 20 – 40 40 – 60 60 – 80 80 - 100
Frequency 9 16 24 15 4
Ans A). 55 B). 58 C). 47.5 D). 50
Correct Answer: C

Q.24
Ans A). 16 years B). 12 years C). 8 years D). 20 years
Correct Answer: B

Q.25

Ans
A). D). Correct Answer: C
B). C).

Q.26
Adi and Dia together have ₹1,440. If of Adi's amount is equal to of Dia's amount,

how much amount does Dia have?

Ans A). ₹480 B). ₹540 C). ₹464 D). ₹512
Correct Answer: A

Q.27 If the diameter of the base of a cone is 56 cm and its curved surface area is 3080 cm2,
then what will be its volume (in cm3)? (Use π = 22/7)
Ans A). 17248 B). 15391 C). 14670 D). 12250
Correct Answer: A

Q.28

Ans A). 43 B). 42 C). 51 D). 44

Correct Answer: D

Q.29

Ans
A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: B

Q.30

Ans A). B). C).

D). Correct Answer: A

Section : Module II Reasoning and General Intelligence

Q.1 Read the following information and answer the question which follows.
“Like seasoned gardeners, Gardener G practices crop rotation to maintain soil fertility,
leading to thriving and diverse plant growth."
Which of the following can be inferred from the given statement? (An inference is
something which is not directly stated but can be derived from the given
facts/information in the statement)
1. The thriving and diverse plant growth in Gardener G's garden is likely influenced by
the practice of crop rotation.
2. Gardener G is consulted by other gardeners in the area for best gardening practices.
Ans A). Only (II) can be inferred. B). Neither (I) nor (II) can be inferred. C). Only (I) can be inferred. D). Both (I) and (II) can be inferred.

Correct Answer: C
 Q.2 A question is given, followed by two statements labelled I and II. Identify which of the
statements is/are sufficient to answer the question.

Question:
Five houses of five different colours (blue, green, yellow, red and violet), with equal
space between every two adjacent houses, are constructed in a row facing north. Which
coloured house is exactly in the middle of the row?

Statements:
(I) Green and yellow coloured houses are constructed at the extreme ends of the row.
(II) Violet and blue coloured houses are immediate neighbouring houses of green and
yellow coloured houses, respectively.
Ans A). Data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in Statement I is not
B). Data in Statements I and II together is not sufficient to answer the question
C). Data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in Statement II is not
D). Data in Statements I and II together is sufficient to answer the question
Correct Answer: D

Q.3 Each of the digits in the number 3571869 is arranged in ascending order
from left to right. The position(s) of how many digits will remain unchanged
as compared to that/those in the original number?

Ans A). None B). One C). Two D). Three

Correct Answer: B

Q.4 Given below is a statement (Cause) followed by possible effects numbered I, II and III.
Read the ‘Cause’ carefully and decide which of the three can be possible effect/s.

Cause – Heavy rains yesterday in City X have caused flooding in many areas including
the railway station and airport.

Effect I – Railways has announced a delay in the departure of three trains scheduled to
start from City X this morning.
Effect II – A number of flights were unable to land in the airport of City X last evening.
Effect III – Finance ministry has extended the date for filing tax returns by a month.
Ans A). Only I is a possible effect. B). Both I and II are possible effects. C). Both II and III are possible effects. D). Only II is a possible effect.

Correct Answer: B

Q.5 In a certain code language, ‘CURB’ is coded as ‘3517’ and ‘BOAT’ is coded as ‘4638’.
What is the code for ‘B’ in the given code language?
Ans A). 4 B). 7 C). 3 D). 8
Correct Answer: C

Q.6 Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a
logical and meaningful order.

1. Set goals 2. Budget 3. Review 4. Invest 5. Assess

Ans A). 5, 1, 2, 3, 4 B). 1, 5, 2, 4, 3 C). 5, 2, 4, 3, 1 D). 3, 5, 1, 2, 4
Correct Answer: B

Q.7 In a certain code language,

P + Q means ‘P is the mother of Q’,
P – Q means ‘P is the brother of Q’,
P x Q means ‘P is the wife of Q’ and
P ÷ Q means ‘P is the father of Q’.
Based on the above, how is U related to Z if ‘U – V + W ÷ Y x Z’?
Ans A). Wife's Father's Mother's Brother B). Wife's Father's Mother's Father C). W
​ ife's Mother's Mother's Father
D). Wife's Mother's Mother's Brother
Correct Answer: A
 Q.8 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of the question mark (?)
will logically complete the series.

Ans

A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: C

Q.9 A question is followed by two statements numbered (I) and (II). You have to decide
whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read
both the statements and select the appropriate option.
Question:
Shourya delivered parcels to five locations A, B, C, D and E while prioritising delivery of
heavier parcels first. Which location was delivered in the end?
Statements:
(I) The parcel for location C was heavier than all other parcels.
(II) The parcel for location D was lighter than the parcels assigned to locations B and A.
Ans A). Data in statement (II) alone is sufficient to answer the question, whereas data in statement (I) alone is not.
B). Data in statements (I) and (II) together are not sufficient to answer the question.
C). Data in statements (I) and (II) together are sufficient to answer the question.
D). Data in statement (I) alone is sufficient to answer the question, whereas data in statement (II) alone is not.
Correct Answer: B

Q.10 In a certain code language,

A + B means ‘A is the mother of B’,
A – B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A x B means ‘A is the wife of B’ and
A ÷ B means ‘A is the father of B’.
Based on the above, how is U related to Z if ‘U – V x W ÷ Y + Z’?
Ans A). Mother's mother's father B). Mother's father's brother C). Mother's mother's brother D). M
​ other's father's father
Correct Answer: C

Q.11 Which of the following letter-clusters should replace # and % so that the pattern and
relationship followed between the letter-cluster pair on the left side of :: is the same as
that on the right side of ::?

# : ORW :: RUZ : %
Ans A). # = VYD % = KNK B). # = VYD % = LNS C). # = VYD % = KNS D). # = UYD % = KNS
Correct Answer: C

Q.12 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All dolls are robots.
Some robots are toys.
Some toys are cycles.

Conclusions:
(I) Some toys are dolls.
(II) No cycle is a robot.
Ans A). Only conclusion (I) is true. B). Only conclusion (II) is true. C). Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) is true.
D). Both conclusions (I) and (II) are true.
Correct Answer: C
 Q.13 Figure A is related to B in a certain pattern. Following the same pattern, figure C is
related to D. Study the pattern and select the figure which should be placed in place of
D.

Ans

A). B). C). D).

Correct Answer: A

Q.14 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G, scored different marks (out of 100) in an exam. G
scored the lowest marks. B scored second highest marks, which were 80. A scored 72.
E scored more than F but less than C. Marks scored by C were a multiple of 11 and less
than 70. The sum of marks scored by C and F was 120. What is the score of F?
Ans A). 56 B). 54 C). 50 D). 55
Correct Answer: B

Q.15 Four number-pairs have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and
one is different. Select the one that is different.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 521 - 20 B). 104 - 4 C). 286 - 11 D). 494 - 19
Correct Answer: A

Q.16 Paras ranked 5th from the top and 24th from the bottom in his class. How many students
are there in his class?
Ans A). 29 B). 26 C). 27 D). 28
Correct Answer: D

Q.17

Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: B

Q.18 In a certain code language, ‘he enjoys music’ is coded as ‘lo po jo’ and ‘music and
dance’ is coded as ‘kb jo fk’. How is ‘music’ coded in the given language?
Ans A). jo B). po C). lo D). fk
Correct Answer: A

Q.19 17 is related to 159 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 11 is related to
105. To which of the following is 13 related, following the same logic?
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
/subtracting / multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans A). 116 B). 109 C). 103 D). 123
Correct Answer: D
 Q.20 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and
‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

98 ÷ 7 + 288 × 2 − 144 × 3 − 152 ÷ 2 + 120 = ?

Ans A). 774 B). 671 C). 632 D). 743
Correct Answer: A

Q.21 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below
to complete the pattern.

Ans
Correct Answer: B
A). B). C). D).

Q.22

Ans A). Three B). Two C). One D). Four

Correct Answer: C

Q.23 Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a
logical and meaningful order.

1. Plant
2. Pollination
3. Seed
4. Seedling
5. Fruit
Ans A). 4, 1, 2, 5, 3 B). 3, 4, 1, 2, 5 C). 3, 4, 1, 5, 2 D). 4, 3, 1, 2, 5
Correct Answer: B

Q.24 In this question, a statement is followed by two courses of action, numbered I and II.
You must assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the
information given in the statement, decide which of the course of action/s logically
follows for pursuing.

Statement: Many people have complained to the Finance Ministry regarding a delay in
receiving refunds of their Income Tax returns.

Courses of action:
The Finance Ministry must institute an enquiry into the complaints received regarding
delay in income tax refunds.
The Finance Ministry must compensate the income tax payees by paying interest on
their refunds for the duration of the delay.
Ans A). Both I and II follow. B). Only I follows. C). Neither I nor II follows. D). Only II follows.
Correct Answer: A

Q.25 M, N, O, X, Y and Z are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not
necessarily in the same order). O is an immediate neighbour of Y. Z sits second to the
right of O. X is the immediate neighbour of both M and N. M is not an immediate
neighbour of O. Who sits to the immediate left of Y?
Ans A). N B). O C). X D). M
Correct Answer: B
 Q.26 Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its part (rotation is
NOT allowed).

Ans
Correct Answer: A

A). B). C). D).

Q.27 Four of the following five figures are alike in a certain way and thus form a group.
Which is the one that does NOT belong to that group?

Ans A). A B). E C). B D). D

Correct Answer: B

Q.28 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?)
in the following series.
98, 50, 26, 14, ?, 5
Ans A). 10 B). 6 C). 7 D). 8
Correct Answer: D

Q.29 Three of the following four pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which
is the pair that does not belong to that group?
Ans A). 1234 - Numbers B). ×+−÷ - Text C). ₹¥$£ - Currency D). ABCD - Letters
Correct Answer: B

Q.30

Ans A). B). C). D). Correct Answer: C

Section : Module I English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.

Kanhaiya said to me, “Do you want to sing?”

Ans A). Kanhaiya enquires if I want to sing. B). Kanhaiya said that whether I would sing. C). Kanhaiya said that I would sing or not.
D). Kanhaiya asked me if I wanted to sing.
Correct Answer: D
 Q.2 Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct
order to form a meaningful sentence.

Through the dense forest, / the hikers / trekked / for hours / before reaching / the
mountain peak.
Ans A). The hikers for hours through the dense forest trekked before reaching the mountain peak.
B). The hikers trekked for hours through the dense forest before reaching the mountain peak.
C). Through the dense forest for hours trekked the hikers before reaching the mountain peak.
D). Before reaching the mountain peak, the hikers through the dense forest trekked for hours.
Correct Answer: B

Q.3 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A). Apparent B). Practitionaire C). Recommend D). Memento
Correct Answer: B

Q.4 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Prescription safety glasses provide the _________________ tailored protection for

individuals with vision correction needs.
Ans A). finest B). finer C). fine D). more finely
Correct Answer: A

Q.5 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of
words.

Someone who walks on foot

Ans A). Stalker B). Auditor C). Decanter D). Pedestrian
Correct Answer: D

Q.6 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

Don't park your car here.

Ans A). Let your car not be parked here. B). Let not your car be parked here. C). Let your car be parked here.
D). Have not your car be parked here.
Correct Answer: A

Q.7 Select the most appropriate idiom to fill in the blank.

A lot of people are still ______ over the GDP issue.

Ans A). over the fence B). breaking a leg C). sitting on the fence D). by the fence
Correct Answer: C

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The blueberries in the basket are blue.

The denotation of the word ‘blue’ is ___________.
Ans A). gloominess B). sadness C). a colour D). negativity
Correct Answer: C

Q.9 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of
words.
Someone who loves and admires himself the most
Ans A). Recluse B). Altruist C). Narcissist D). Omniscient
Correct Answer: C

Q.10 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word given below.
Ameliorate
Ans A). Succour B). Recondite C). Exacerbate D). Motto
Correct Answer: C

Q.11 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
Scientists have recently discovered a new species of marine life in the
unexplored depths of the ocean.

Ans A). A new species of marine life was recently discovered in the unexplored depths of the ocean by scientists.
B). A new species of marine life had recently been discovered in the unexplored depths of the ocean by scientists.
C). A new species of marine life has recently been discovered in the unexplored depths of the ocean by scientists.
D). A new species of marine life was recently being discovered in the unexplored depths of the ocean by scientists.
Correct Answer: C
 Q.12 Select the correct spelling of the incorrectly spelt word in the given sentence.

Good characteristics are indispensible to succeed in life.

Ans A). Indispenscible B). Indispensable C). Indespensible D). Indespensable
Correct Answer: B

Q.13 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in reported speech.

The soldier said to his fellow soldiers, "I have buried our brave comrade here.
Ans A). The soldier told us that I had buried their brave comrade here.
B). The soldier told his fellow soldiers that I had buried our brave comrade there.
C). The soldier told his fellow soldiers that he had buried their brave comrade there.
D). The soldier told us that he had buried our brave comrade there.
Correct Answer: C

Q.14 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The comedian's jokes were so funny that the entire audience erupted in __________.
Ans A). loiter B). latter C). laughter D). later
Correct Answer: C

Q.15 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined words in the given
sentence.

In the makeshift place of activity, debate or conflict, there were hundreds of people with
the queen's team of advisors and servants sitting within the ring against the wall.
Ans A). casino B). arena C). aviary D). dormitory
Correct Answer: B

Q.16 Complete the dialogue for Person B using the correct idiom.

Person A: We are all going to the club this weekend. Do you want to come?

Person B: Thank you for asking. But I don’t like clubs. It’s ______.
Ans A). not my cup, not my tea B). not my cup of coffee C). my cup of coffee D). not my cup of tea
Correct Answer: D

Q.17 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Thrifty
Ans A). Indifferent B). Thankful C). Extravagant D). Intolerant
Correct Answer: C

Q.18 The given sentence is divided into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a
grammatical error.
When I returned to the office, / no work was left / as my friend Rahul / has done
everything.
Ans A). When I returned to the office, B). has done everything C). no work was left D). as my friend Rahul
Correct Answer: B

Q.19 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Charisma
Ans A). Charm B). Influence C). Atmosphere D). Reputation
Correct Answer: A

Q.20 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined words in the given
sentence.

The nation has chosen the government by the people over monarchy.
Ans A). oligarchy B). autocracy C). democracy D). theocracy
Correct Answer: C
 Q.21 Sentences of a paragraph are given below. While the first and the last sentences (1 and
6) are in the correct order, the sentences in between are jumbled up. Arrange the
sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.
1. There are some backward areas in Andhra Pradesh.
A. Rayalaseema is one of them.
B. Massive degradation of natural resources and extensive changes in land use have
resulted in poor crop productivity in Rayalaseema.
C. The National Soil Survey and Land use planning organisation is doing its job by
giving suggestions to the farmers of Rayalaseema.
D. Soil Organic Carbon (SOC), which is crucial for maintaining soil quality, has
decreased by 84% in the region. Poor soil fertility and soil degradation, like in
Rayalaseema region, are the major causes of food shortage.
6. The advice is about which crops are to be cultivated and which not.
Ans A). CBAD B). CDBA C). DCBA D). ABDC
Correct Answer: D

Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

This is the ___________ book that I have read till now.

Ans A). better interest B). most interesting C). interesting D). more interesting
Correct Answer: B

Q.23 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Melancholy
Ans A). Mechanical B). Profitable C). Miserable D). Pleasant
Correct Answer: D

Q.24 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that
contains a grammatical error.
I, you and she/ have been working happily/ in the same company and in the same
branch/ for the last nine years.
Ans A). I, you and she B). for the last nine years C). have been working happily D). in the same company and in the same branch

Correct Answer: A

Q.25 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.

He said, "I shall need a copy of the documents."

Ans A). He said that he would need a copy of the documents. B). He said that he is going to need a copy of the document.
C). He said that he will need a copy of the documents. D). He said that he shall need a copy of the document.
Correct Answer: A

Q.26 Select the option that expresses the following sentence in passive voice.
​
After we come to power at the Centre, we will conduct a countrywide caste census.
Ans A). A countrywide caste census should be conducted by us when we come to power at the Centre.
B). A countrywide caste census will have been conducted by us after we come to power at the Centre.
C). A countrywide caste census will be conducted by us as and when we come to power at the Centre.
D). A countrywide caste census will be conducted by us after we come to power at the Centre.
Correct Answer: D

Q.27 Select the most appropriate article to fill in the blank.

Rabindranath Tagore, ________ poet, was famous for his poetical work, Gitanjali.
Ans A). no article required B). an C). a D). the
Correct Answer: D

Q.28 A sentence has been split up into segments and given below in jumbled order. While the
first and the last segments of the sentence (1 and 6) are in the correct order, the
segments in between are jumbled up. Arrange the segments in the correct order to form
a meaningful and coherent sentence.
1) An outstanding feature of the 21st century has been
P) greater security and education which
Q) the improvement of the income and
R) living conditions of the
S) working man leading to
6) has meant greater political power.
Ans A). S, R, Q, P B). Q, R, S, P C). S, P, Q, R D). P, R, Q, S
Correct Answer: B
 Q.29 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of
words.

Speaking disrespectfully about sacred or religious things

Ans A). Blasphemy B). Bigamy C). Belligerent D). Biped
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

The greatest disease in the West today is not TB or leprosy; it is being unwanted, unloved, and uncared for. We can cure (1)________
diseases with medicine, but the only cure for loneliness, despair, and hopelessness is love. There are many in the world who are
(2)________ for a piece of bread but there are many more dying for a little love. The poverty in the West is a different kind of poverty –
it is not only a poverty of (3)________ but also of (4)________. There's a hunger for affection as there is a hunger for God.

SubQuestion No : 30
Q.30 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 1.
Ans A). masculine B). stubborn C). physical D). radical
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

The greatest disease in the West today is not TB or leprosy; it is being unwanted, unloved, and uncared for. We can cure (1)________
diseases with medicine, but the only cure for loneliness, despair, and hopelessness is love. There are many in the world who are
(2)________ for a piece of bread but there are many more dying for a little love. The poverty in the West is a different kind of poverty –
it is not only a poverty of (3)________ but also of (4)________. There's a hunger for affection as there is a hunger for God.

SubQuestion No : 31
Q.31 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 2.
Ans A). ignoring B). dying C). neglecting D). disregarding
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

The greatest disease in the West today is not TB or leprosy; it is being unwanted, unloved, and uncared for. We can cure (1)________
diseases with medicine, but the only cure for loneliness, despair, and hopelessness is love. There are many in the world who are
(2)________ for a piece of bread but there are many more dying for a little love. The poverty in the West is a different kind of poverty –
it is not only a poverty of (3)________ but also of (4)________. There's a hunger for affection as there is a hunger for God.

SubQuestion No : 32
Q.32 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 3.
Ans A). profusion B). loneliness C). abundance D). lavishness
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

The greatest disease in the West today is not TB or leprosy; it is being unwanted, unloved, and uncared for. We can cure (1)________
diseases with medicine, but the only cure for loneliness, despair, and hopelessness is love. There are many in the world who are
(2)________ for a piece of bread but there are many more dying for a little love. The poverty in the West is a different kind of poverty –
it is not only a poverty of (3)________ but also of (4)________. There's a hunger for affection as there is a hunger for God.

SubQuestion No : 33
Q.33 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 4.
Ans A). covetous B). spirituality C). educate D). materialistic
Correct Answer: B
 Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

The extraction of indigo dye involves harvesting the small, green leaves of the Indigofera plant before its flowers bloom. These leaves
undergo a process of soaking in water and churning until a navy blue froth is released. The upper portion of the resulting mixture is
drained for irrigation, while the leaves are repurposed as fertilizer. After allowing the water and fine sediment to settle for a day, the
liquid is separated from the sediment. The obtained deep blue paste is then subjected to filtration to remove dirt and impurities,
followed by compression into cakes and drying for several days. Once dried, the indigo is ready for use as a dye. Lime (Ca(OH)₂) can
be added to the initial water and leaves mixture, and various natural sugars can be dissolved into the paste to enhance the extraction
process.

SubQuestion No : 34
Q.34 What is the overall tone of the passage?
Ans A). Humorous and light-hearted B). Critical and analytical C). Informative and instructional D). Emotional and sentimental

Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

The extraction of indigo dye involves harvesting the small, green leaves of the Indigofera plant before its flowers bloom. These leaves
undergo a process of soaking in water and churning until a navy blue froth is released. The upper portion of the resulting mixture is
drained for irrigation, while the leaves are repurposed as fertilizer. After allowing the water and fine sediment to settle for a day, the
liquid is separated from the sediment. The obtained deep blue paste is then subjected to filtration to remove dirt and impurities,
followed by compression into cakes and drying for several days. Once dried, the indigo is ready for use as a dye. Lime (Ca(OH)₂) can
be added to the initial water and leaves mixture, and various natural sugars can be dissolved into the paste to enhance the extraction
process.

SubQuestion No : 35
Q.35 What is the central theme of the passage describing the extraction process of indigo
dye from the Indigofera plant?
Ans A). The impact of lime and natural sugars on the indigo extraction process B). The various uses of indigo dye in different industries
C). The intricate process of harvesting and processing indigo leaves D). The cultivation and growth cycle of the Indigofera plant

Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

The extraction of indigo dye involves harvesting the small, green leaves of the Indigofera plant before its flowers bloom. These leaves
undergo a process of soaking in water and churning until a navy blue froth is released. The upper portion of the resulting mixture is
drained for irrigation, while the leaves are repurposed as fertilizer. After allowing the water and fine sediment to settle for a day, the
liquid is separated from the sediment. The obtained deep blue paste is then subjected to filtration to remove dirt and impurities,
followed by compression into cakes and drying for several days. Once dried, the indigo is ready for use as a dye. Lime (Ca(OH)₂) can
be added to the initial water and leaves mixture, and various natural sugars can be dissolved into the paste to enhance the extraction
process.

SubQuestion No : 36
Q.36 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word 'impurities' from the options given
below.
Ans A). purity B). scum C). pureness D). cleanliness
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

The extraction of indigo dye involves harvesting the small, green leaves of the Indigofera plant before its flowers bloom. These leaves
undergo a process of soaking in water and churning until a navy blue froth is released. The upper portion of the resulting mixture is
drained for irrigation, while the leaves are repurposed as fertilizer. After allowing the water and fine sediment to settle for a day, the
liquid is separated from the sediment. The obtained deep blue paste is then subjected to filtration to remove dirt and impurities,
followed by compression into cakes and drying for several days. Once dried, the indigo is ready for use as a dye. Lime (Ca(OH)₂) can
be added to the initial water and leaves mixture, and various natural sugars can be dissolved into the paste to enhance the extraction
process.

SubQuestion No : 37
Q.37 In the extraction process described, what is the purpose of allowing the water and fine
sediment at the bottom of the tank to settle for a day?
Ans A). To enhance the aroma of the indigo dye B). To facilitate the separation of liquid from sediment
C). To create a unique texture in the final indigo paste D). To promote the growth of additional indigo leaves
Correct Answer: B
 Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Reading is an important communication skill that has many benefits and it has great impact on a person's life. We should develop a
reading habit as it allows us to learn new information and gives us access to a wide range of opportunities and ideas. So, reading
regularly not only broadens our aspect and knowledge but also improves our intelligence, perspective, judgement and understanding
of the world. It helps to stimulate creativity and imagination, to relieve the stress and pressure, and to provide a source of
entertainment. The major benefit of reading is to develop the analytical and critical skills of a reader. The former involves gathering
information and breaking it down into parts for better understanding, while the latter involves evaluating the same information and
making judgments based on evidence. Reading a book or any content improves our language and vocabulary, so we can easily
comprehend the words and their use in the context. It also helps in cognitive development in young children so at the primary level,
children are more involved in reading rather than writing.

SubQuestion No : 38
Q.38 Which skill is used by a reader when he evaluates the same information and makes
judgments based on evidence?
Ans A). Critical skill B). Technical skill C). Analytical skill D). Drawing skill
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Reading is an important communication skill that has many benefits and it has great impact on a person's life. We should develop a
reading habit as it allows us to learn new information and gives us access to a wide range of opportunities and ideas. So, reading
regularly not only broadens our aspect and knowledge but also improves our intelligence, perspective, judgement and understanding
of the world. It helps to stimulate creativity and imagination, to relieve the stress and pressure, and to provide a source of
entertainment. The major benefit of reading is to develop the analytical and critical skills of a reader. The former involves gathering
information and breaking it down into parts for better understanding, while the latter involves evaluating the same information and
making judgments based on evidence. Reading a book or any content improves our language and vocabulary, so we can easily
comprehend the words and their use in the context. It also helps in cognitive development in young children so at the primary level,
children are more involved in reading rather than writing.

SubQuestion No : 39
Q.39 Cognitive development in a child is related to:
Ans A). technical development B). mental development C). social development D). environmental development
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Reading is an important communication skill that has many benefits and it has great impact on a person's life. We should develop a
reading habit as it allows us to learn new information and gives us access to a wide range of opportunities and ideas. So, reading
regularly not only broadens our aspect and knowledge but also improves our intelligence, perspective, judgement and understanding
of the world. It helps to stimulate creativity and imagination, to relieve the stress and pressure, and to provide a source of
entertainment. The major benefit of reading is to develop the analytical and critical skills of a reader. The former involves gathering
information and breaking it down into parts for better understanding, while the latter involves evaluating the same information and
making judgments based on evidence. Reading a book or any content improves our language and vocabulary, so we can easily
comprehend the words and their use in the context. It also helps in cognitive development in young children so at the primary level,
children are more involved in reading rather than writing.

SubQuestion No : 40
Q.40 According to the passage, what is the role of reading?
Ans A). To give strength to the body B). To learn new information to avail opportunity C). To not to share information
D). To make environment healthy
Correct Answer: B

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Reading is an important communication skill that has many benefits and it has great impact on a person's life. We should develop a
reading habit as it allows us to learn new information and gives us access to a wide range of opportunities and ideas. So, reading
regularly not only broadens our aspect and knowledge but also improves our intelligence, perspective, judgement and understanding
of the world. It helps to stimulate creativity and imagination, to relieve the stress and pressure, and to provide a source of
entertainment. The major benefit of reading is to develop the analytical and critical skills of a reader. The former involves gathering
information and breaking it down into parts for better understanding, while the latter involves evaluating the same information and
making judgments based on evidence. Reading a book or any content improves our language and vocabulary, so we can easily
comprehend the words and their use in the context. It also helps in cognitive development in young children so at the primary level,
children are more involved in reading rather than writing.

SubQuestion No : 41
Q.41 Which skill is used by a reader when he gathers information and breaks it down in a
logical pattern to solve a problem?
Ans A). Speaking skill B). Critical skill C). Analytical skill D). Reasoning skill
Correct Answer: C
 Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Engaging in regular physical activity is not only beneficial for physical well-being but also has a profound impact on mental health.
Studies have shown that exercise releases endorphins, chemicals in the brain that act as natural painkillers and mood elevators.
Additionally, consistent exercise has been linked to reduced symptoms of anxiety and depression. Contrary to common
misconceptions, it doesn't require intense workouts; even moderate activities like walking or yoga can contribute to improved mental
well-being. Making exercise a regular part of one's routine not only supports physical fitness but also nurtures a positive and resilient
mindset.

SubQuestion No : 42
Q.42 Select the most appropriate title for the given passage.
Ans A). The Impact of Technology on Health B). The Importance of a Balanced Diet C). Importance of Regular Physical Activities
D). The Benefits of Mindfulness Meditation
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Engaging in regular physical activity is not only beneficial for physical well-being but also has a profound impact on mental health.
Studies have shown that exercise releases endorphins, chemicals in the brain that act as natural painkillers and mood elevators.
Additionally, consistent exercise has been linked to reduced symptoms of anxiety and depression. Contrary to common
misconceptions, it doesn't require intense workouts; even moderate activities like walking or yoga can contribute to improved mental
well-being. Making exercise a regular part of one's routine not only supports physical fitness but also nurtures a positive and resilient
mindset.

SubQuestion No : 43
Q.43 Select the option that provides an accurate summary of the main
points discussed in the passage.
Ans A). The passage discusses the negative effects of technology on health. B). Exercise only impacts physical well-being, not mental health.
C). Engaging in regular physical activity positively impacts mental health by releasing endorphins and reducing symptoms of anxiety and
depression.
D). Exercise requires intense workouts for mental health benefits.
Correct Answer: C

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Engaging in regular physical activity is not only beneficial for physical well-being but also has a profound impact on mental health.
Studies have shown that exercise releases endorphins, chemicals in the brain that act as natural painkillers and mood elevators.
Additionally, consistent exercise has been linked to reduced symptoms of anxiety and depression. Contrary to common
misconceptions, it doesn't require intense workouts; even moderate activities like walking or yoga can contribute to improved mental
well-being. Making exercise a regular part of one's routine not only supports physical fitness but also nurtures a positive and resilient
mindset.

SubQuestion No : 44
Q.44 Determine the tone of the passage by choosing the option that
reflects the overall emotional quality of the writing.
Ans A). Informative B). Critical C). Dramatic D). Humorous
Correct Answer: A

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Engaging in regular physical activity is not only beneficial for physical well-being but also has a profound impact on mental health.
Studies have shown that exercise releases endorphins, chemicals in the brain that act as natural painkillers and mood elevators.
Additionally, consistent exercise has been linked to reduced symptoms of anxiety and depression. Contrary to common
misconceptions, it doesn't require intense workouts; even moderate activities like walking or yoga can contribute to improved mental
well-being. Making exercise a regular part of one's routine not only supports physical fitness but also nurtures a positive and resilient
mindset.

SubQuestion No : 45
Q.45
Which of the following is a fact mentioned in the passage?
Ans A). Exercise releases endorphins, contributing to improved mental well-being.
B). Exercise requires intense workouts for mental health benefits. C). Regular exercise has no impact on mental health.
D). Only intense physical activities are linked to reduced anxiety and depression.
Correct Answer: A

Section : Module II General Awareness

 Q.1 What is the primary goal of the International Comparison Programme (ICP), led by the
United Nations Statistics Division (UNSD)?
Ans A). To calculate Purchasing Power Parities (PPPs) and price level indices B). To collect data on international trade
C). To implement statistical offices globally D). To produce unemployment estimates globally
Correct Answer: A

Q.2 In which of the following cases did the Supreme court of India give a ruling that, 'in case
of any conflict between the fundamental rights and the directive principles, the former
would prevail'?
Ans A). Golaknath Case. 1967 B). Keshvananda Bharti Case, 1973 C). Minerva Mills Case, 1980 D). Champakam Doraijan Case, 1951

Correct Answer: D

Q.3 Which of the following is NOT an antecedent river in India?

Ans A). Indus B). Yamuna C). Kosi D). Ganga
Correct Answer: B

Q.4 Which endemic species of owl of Central India is listed as Endangered in the IUCN Red
List since 2018?
Ans A). Long-eared Owlet B). Snowy Owlet C). Forest Owlet D). Barn Owlet
Correct Answer: C

Q.5 Which substance is commonly used as an acid-base indicator, which turns red in acidic
solutions and blue in basic solutions?
Ans A). Litmus paper B). Phenol C). Bromothymol blue D). Methyl orange
Correct Answer: A

Q.6 Which of the following best defines liberalisation?

Ans A). The process of enforcing strict government control over economic activities.
B). The process of maintaining existing government regulations and restrictions on economic activities.
C). The process of increasing government regulations and restrictions on economic activities.
D). The process of reducing or removing government regulations and restrictions on economic activities.
Correct Answer: D

Q.7 When did James Chadwick prove the existence of the neutron – an elementary particle
devoid of any electric charge?
Ans A). 1920 B). 1932 C). 1941 D). 1955
Correct Answer: B

Q.8 Which of the following is the headquarters of the South Central Zone of Indian
Railways?
Ans A). Jabalpur B). Secunderabad C). Bilaspur D). Hajipur
Correct Answer: B

Q.9 What is the name of the software launched by the National Minorities Development and
Finance Corporation (NMDFC) for digitising loan accounting processes and integrating
the MIS portal, including the release of mobile apps for Android and IOS?
Ans A). MILAP (Minority Loan Accounting Software for Projects) B). DIGIT (Digital Integration for Government Transactions)
C). LOAN-X (Loan Accounting Network for NMDFC) D). MILAN (Minority Loan Accounting for NMDFC)
Correct Answer: D

Q.10 The productivity of which of the following crops had initially increased due to the Green
Revolution?
Ans A). Rice and pulses B). Wheat and sugarcane C). Wheat and rice D). Rice and cotton
Correct Answer: C

Q.11 Which letter code indicates mid-latitude desert climate in Köppen climate
classification?
Ans A). Cfa B). Dw C). EF D). BWk
Correct Answer: D

Q.12 Which international treaty was adopted in 1992 to combat global warming and prepare
for its effects?
Ans A). Minamata Convention on Mercury B). United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
C). Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer D). Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants
Correct Answer: B

Q.13 Who discovered the laws of levers and pulleys, which allow us to move heavy objects
using small forces?
Ans A). Archimedes B). Democritus C). Pythagoras D). Eudoxus
Correct Answer: A
 Q.14 The Kushan emperor Kanishka, who ruled from the late first to the early/mid-second
century AD was the ____________ Kushan ruler.
Ans A). second B). fourth C). third D). fifth
Correct Answer: C

Q.15 According to Census of India 2011, what was the recorded population growth rate of
Hindu religion?
Ans A). 16.8% B). 14,3% C). 18.5% D). 11.7%
Correct Answer: A

Q.16 Which theme encapsulates Wings India 2024, the Aviation Expo, that was inaugurated
by Union Minister for Civil Aviation in January 2024?
Ans A). Connecting India to the World in Amrit Kaal: Setting the Stage for India Civil Aviation @2047.
B). Aviation and Sustainable Development in the Indian Aerospace: Future possibilities in Amrit Kaal.
C). Aviation Expo-Wings India in Amrit Kaal: Shaping the Future of Indian Civil Aviation.
D). Advancements in Aerospace: A Glimpse into India's Aviation Future in Amrit Kaal.
Correct Answer: A

Q.17 Which of the following is NOT the qualification for the appointment of judges of
supreme court?
Ans A). A judge of high court for at least five years B). An advocate of supreme court for at least ten years
C). An advocate of high court for at least ten years D). A distinguished judge in the opinion of the President
Correct Answer: B

Q.18

Ans A). Coulomb’s law B). Biot-Savart law C). Charle's law D). Ohm’s law
Correct Answer: A

Q.19 Who was the first sultan (in the recorded history of the Dargah Sharif) to visit the shrine
of khwaja Muinuddin Chisti?
Ans A). Alauddin Khilji B). Jalaluddin Khilji C). Balban D). Muhammad bin Tughluq
Correct Answer: D

Q.20 Who among the following was the President of India when India launched its first
Nuclear test in Pokhran?
Ans A). Dr APJ Abdul Kalam B). Giani Zail Singh C). VV Giri D). Fakhruddin ali Ahmed
Correct Answer: C

Q.21 Which amino acid is a precursor to serotonin, a neurotransmitter that regulates your
appetite, sleep and mood?
Ans A). Tryptophan B). Methionine C). Valine D). Isoleucine
Correct Answer: A

Q.22 In which of the following years did Mahatma Gandhi lead the Satyagraha and hunger
strike for the first time in India?
Ans A). 1917 B). 1919 C). 1920 D). 1918
Correct Answer: D

Q.23 In which year was the fluid mosaic model proposed by Singer and Nicolson? The model
commonly represented cell membrane structure and dynamics.
Ans A). 1981 B). 1993 C). 1972 D). 1960
Correct Answer: C

Q.24 Who set a new Guinness World Record for the fastest badminton shot, measuring a
speed of 565 km/hr in July 2023?
Ans A). Kidambi Srikanth B). Saina Nehwal C). Satwiksairaj Rankireddy D). PV Sindhu
Correct Answer: C

Q.25 In which sport did India defeat Pakistan 2-1 to lift the Men's Junior Asia Cup in 2023,
overtaking them in winning the maximum titles at the prestigious event?
Ans A). Hockey B). Basketball C). Badminton D). Football
Correct Answer: A

Section : Module I Computer Knowledge Module

 Q.1 ROM is primarily used for which of the following purposes?
Ans A). Storing the BIOS or firmware B). Storing files for permanent access C). Temporary data storage D). Random data access

Correct Answer: A

Q.2 What does the function COUNT() do in MS Excel 2010?

Ans A). Stores the number of cells B). Duplicates the number of cells C). Counts the number of cells D). Prints the number of cells

Correct Answer: C

Q.3 What happens when a user inserts a new row into an MS Excel worksheet?
Ans A). The new row is added at the bottom of the worksheet. B). The existing rows are shifted to the right.
C). The existing data in the row is overwritten. D). The existing rows are shifted down.
Correct Answer: D

Q.4 Which keyboard shortcut is used to increase the indent in a paragraph in MS Word
2010?
Ans A). Ctrl + M B). Ctrl + K C). Ctrl + D D). Ctrl + U
Correct Answer: A

Q.5 In a multipart email message, what does the boundary parameter in the Content-Type
header signify?
Ans A). It defines the length of the email message. B). It marks the start and end of each part in a multipart message.
C). It separates the email's body from the attachments. D). It limits the file size of each attachment.
Correct Answer: B

Q.6 In a Local Area Network (LAN), which of the following is most commonly used to ensure
that data packets are efficiently forwarded to the correct device, based on its MAC
address?
Ans A). Router B). Hub C). Layer 3 Switch D). Bridge
Correct Answer: C

Q.7 Which option in MS Word allows a user to align text within a document to the left,
center, right, or justify it across the page?
Ans A). Paragraph Alignment: Adjusts the alignment of text to the left, center, right, or justifies it
B). Font Style: Changes the appearance of text but does not affect its alignment
C). Line Spacing: Adjusts the space between lines of text but does not affect text alignment
D). Text Direction: Changes the orientation of the text, such as vertical or horizontal, but not its alignment
Correct Answer: A

Q.8 Which file extension is most commonly used for executable installation files on a
Windows system?
Ans A). .mp3 B). .exe C). .jpg D). .txt
Correct Answer: B

Q.9 What is the size of each ASCII character in bits?

Ans A). 5 bits B). 16 bits C). 4 bits D). 8 bits
Correct Answer: D

Q.10 Which of the following scenarios correctly illustrates the interdependence of system
software and application software?
Ans A). A device driver operating as application software to provide printing functionality.
B). An operating system requiring a media player to manage hardware resources.
C). A word processor functioning independently without the need for an operating system.
D). An antivirus program relying on system utilities to perform disk scans and remove malware.
Correct Answer: D

Q.11 Which of the following actions can typically be performed in the Outbox?
Ans A). Deleting received emails B). Managing contact lists C). Viewing archived emails D). Editing emails that are yet to be sent

Correct Answer: D

Q.12 Why do desktop and laptop operating systems require more advanced memory
management techniques than embedded systems?
Ans A). They run only one application at a time, simplifying memory management.
B). Memory management is not necessary for desktop and laptop operating systems.
C). They utilise more hardware resources and need dynamic memory allocation.
D). They rely on static memory allocation due to limited hardware resources.
Correct Answer: C
 Q.13 What are the correct steps for creating a blank presentation in MS PowerPoint?
Ans A). New -> Blank Presentation -> File B). File -> New -> Blank Presentation C). Blank Presentation -> New -> File
D). File -> Blank Presentation -> New
Correct Answer: B

Q.14 How can you exit a slide show and return to editing mode in MS PowerPoint?
Ans A). Press Ctrl + S B). Press Spacebar C). Press Alt + Tab D). Press Esc
Correct Answer: D

Q.15 The _________ method is commonly used to verify the integrity of data.
Ans A). Compression B). Hashing C). Duplication D). Caching
Correct Answer: B

Q.16 What is the purpose of enabling passwords on a PC?

Ans A). For printing of the data in the PC B). For providing an additional layer of security C). For reducing the installed applications
D). For improving the data signal strength
Correct Answer: B

Q.17 What type of media is commonly used for WAN communication?

Ans A). HDMI Cable B). Twisted Pair Cable C). Coaxial Cable D). Fiber Optic Cable
Correct Answer: D

Q.18 What is a common sign that a computer might be infected with a virus?
Ans A). Increased hard drive space B). Improved system security C). Unusual system slowdowns and unexpected errors
D). Faster system boot times
Correct Answer: C

Q.19 Which of the following statements about the Central Processing Unit (CPU) is/are
correct?
The CPU is often referred to as the 'brain' of the computer.
The CPU consists of three main units: the control unit (CU), arithmetic logic unit (ALU),
and cache memory.
Ans A). Both 1 and 2 B). Only 1 C). Only 2 D). Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: B

Q.20 What is the role of User Account Control (UAC) in Windows when modifying system
settings?
Ans A). To adjust display settings B). To automate software updates C). To monitor memory usage and performance
D). To prompt for permission before making system-wide changes
Correct Answer: D