OUR INSPIRATION:

CHIEF MRS. NIDHI PANDEY

PATRON
सत्र / SESSION-
2022-2023

भौविकी PATRON MRS. SHAHIDA PARVEEN

Physics (MUMBAI REGION)

कक्षा/Class: XII
COORDINATOR MR. AVIJIT PANDA

2024-25

विद्यार्थी सहायक सामग्री भाग- 1

Student Support Material Part-1

केन्द्रीय विद्यालय संगठन

Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan
 CLASS
CLASS XII XII (2024-25)
(2023-24)
अध्ययन सामग्री वनमााता टीम ---मंबई संभाग PHYSICS (THEORY)
TEAM OF PREPARERES – MUMBAI REGION Time: 3 hrs. Max Marks: 70

No. of Marks
Periods
Unit–I Electrostatics
Unit Name of the Unit Name of the Name of the Teacher Chapter–1: Electric Charges and Fields
No. Chapter 26
Chapter–2: Electrostatic Potential and 16
1 Electrostatics Chapter 1 Mrs S Sugandhi
KV Mankhurd Capacitance
Unit-II Current Electricity
Chapter -2 Ms Neha Sharma 18
Chapter–3: Current Electricity
KV INS Mandovi
Unit-III Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
25
2 Current Electricity Mr Mandip Chapter–4: Moving Charges and Magnetism
Chapter -3 KV NAD Karanja Chapter–5: Magnetism and Matter 17
3 Magnetic Effects of Current and Mrs Minta Mehra Unit-IV Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating
Magnetism Chapter -4 KV. Lonavala Currents 24
Chapter -5 Mrs Minu Singh Chapter–6: Electromagnetic Induction
KV Ganeshkhind Chapter–7: Alternating Current
4 Electromagnetic Induction and Mr. Sunil Jadhav
Chapter -6 Unit–V Electromagnetic Waves
Alternating Currents K.V Aurangabad 04
Chapter -7 Mr Sachin Sonawane Chapter–8: Electromagnetic Waves
KV Army Area, Pune Unit–VI Optics 18
Chapter–9: Ray Optics and Optical 30
5 Electromagnetic waves Chapter -8 Mr Santosh Sontakke Instruments
KVNo.1 Dehu Road Chapter–10: Wave Optics
6 Optics Chapter -9 Mrs Neelam Unit–VII Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter
K.V SC Pune 8
Chapter–11: Dual Nature of Radiation and
Chapter -10 Mrs Swati Chhabra Matter 12
KV, THANE
Unit–VIII Atoms and Nuclei
7 Dual Nature of Radiation Chapter -11 Mr. Ganesh Ahirrao 15
and Matter Chapter–12: Atoms
KV Panvel
8 Atoms and Nuclei Chapter -12 Mrs Savita Ruhela Chapter–13: Nuclei
KV Panvel Unit–IX Electronic Devices
Chapter–14: Semiconductor 10
Chapter -13 Mr Rahul Shirbhate
KV.VSN Nagapur Electronics: Materials, Devices and 7
9 Electronic Devices Chapter -14 Mr Sandip Kamat Simple Circuits
KV DIAT Pune Total 160 70
Unit III: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism 25 Periods

Chapter–4: Moving Charges and Magnetism Unit VII: Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 08 Periods

Concept of magnetic field, Oersted's experiment. Chapter–11: Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Biot - Savart law and its application to current carrying circular loop. Dual nature of radiation, Photoelectric effect, Hertz and Lenard's

Ampere's law and its applications to infinitely long straight wire. Straight observations; Einstein's photoelectric equation-particle nature of light.
solenoid (only qualitative treatment), force on a moving charge in uniform
Experimental study of photoelectric effect, Matter waves-wave nature of particles,
magnetic and electric fields.
de-Broglie relation.
Force on a current-carrying conductor in a uniform magnetic field, force
Unit VIII: Atoms and Nuclei 15 Periods
between two parallel current-carrying conductors-definition of ampere,
Chapter–12: Atoms
torque experienced by a current loop in uniform magnetic field; Current loop
as a magnetic dipole and its magnetic dipole moment, moving coil Alpha-particle scattering experiment; Rutherford's model of atom; Bohr model

galvanometer- its current sensitivity and conversion to ammeter and of hydrogen atom, Expression for radius of nth possible orbit, velocity and

voltmeter. energy of electron in nth orbit, hydrogen line spectra (qualitative treatment
only).
Chapter–5: Magnetism and Matter
Chapter–13: Nuclei
Bar magnet, bar magnet as an equivalent solenoid (qualitative treatment
only), magnetic field intensity due to a magnetic dipole (bar magnet) along Composition and size of nucleus, nuclear force

its axis and perpendicular to its axis (qualitative treatment only), torque on a Mass-energy relation, mass defect; binding energy per nucleon and its
magnetic dipole (bar magnet) in a uniform magnetic field (qualitative variation with mass number; nuclear fission, nuclear fusion.
treatment only), magnetic field lines.

Magnetic properties of materials- Para-, dia- and ferro -magnetic substances Unit IX: Electronic Devices 10 Periods
with examples, Magnetization of materials, effect of temperature on magnetic
Chapter–14: Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits
properties.
Energy bands in conductors, semiconductors and insulators (qualitative
ideas only) Intrinsic and extrinsic semiconductors- p and n type, p-n
Unit IV: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents 24 Periods junction, Semiconductor diode - I-V characteristics in forward and reverse
bias, application of junction diode -diode as a rectifier
Chapter–6: Electromagnetic Induction

Electromagnetic induction; Faraday's laws, induced EMF and current;

Lenz's Law, Self and mutual induction.
 UNIT-I ELECTROSTATICS
CHAPTER 1 -ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS
Gist:
1 Charge :
Charge is an intrinsic property of elementary particles of matter which gives rise to
electric force between various objects.

2 Two types of charges: Positive and negative.

3 Transference of electrons is the cause of frictional electricity.

7. Closer field lines indicate the stronger region and rarer field lines shows
4 Basic properties of electric charge : weaker region.
8. Single positive charge radiates field lines radially outward (q > 0).
i) Additivity of charges: Total charge is the algebraic sum of individual charges. 9. Single negative charge radiates field lines radially inward (q < 0).
ii) Conservation of charges: The total charge of an isolated system is always
conserved. 8 Electric Field Intensity The electric field intensity at any point due to source
iii) Quantization of charges : Charge of an object is always in the form of integral charge is defined as the force experienced per unit positive test charge placed at
multiple of electronic charge and never its fraction
that point without disturbing the source charge. It is expressed as
5 Coulomb’s Law
It states that the electrostatic force of interaction or repulsion acting between two
stationary point charges is given by

6 Dielectric constant
The ratio of force between two charges in vacuum to the force acting between when
they are shifted in a medium is called relative permittivity or dielectric constant of the
medium. where is also called the relative permittivity and is the permittivity of medium.

7 Electrostatic force due to continuous charge distribution:

1 3
 field is 3 × 103 N/C, what is the work done in rotating the dipole to a position of
unstable equilibrium?
(a) zero (b) 1.2 × 10-5 J (c) 2.4 × 10-5 J (d) - 1.2 × 10-5 J

12 An infinite line of charge has a linear charge density of 10 -7 C/m. What will be the
magnitude of the force acting on an alpha particle placed at a distance of 4 cm from the
line of charge?
a) 14.4 × 10-15 N (b) 7.2 × 10-15 N (c) 4.5 × 104 N (d) 9 × 104 N

13 Polar molecules are the molecules :

(a)having a permanent electric dipole moment
(b)having zero dipole moment
(c)acquire a dipole moment only in the presence of electric field due to displacement of
charges
(d)acquire a dipole moment only when magnetic field is absent
Polar molecules have centres of positive and negative charges separated by some
distance, so they have permanent dipole moment. (NEET2021)

14 The angle between the electric lines of force and the equipotential surface is
(a) 0◦ (b) 90◦ (c) 180◦ (d)45◦ (NEET 2022)

15 Metal cube of side 5 cm is charged with 6𝜇C. The surface charge density on the cube
is

(a) 0.125×10−3Cm−2 (b)0.25×10−3Cm−2 (c)4×10−3Cm−2 (d)0.4×1−3 Cm−2

16 According to Gauss law of electrostatics, electric flux through a closed surface

depends on :

(a)the area of the surface

(b)the quantity of charges enclosed by the surface
(c) the shape of the surface
(d)the volume enclosed by the surface

17
σ is the uniform surface charge density of a thin spherical shell of radius R. The electric
field at any point on the surface of the spherical shell is :

********** (a) 𝜎/𝜖𝑜𝑅 (b) 𝜎/∈𝑜 (c) 𝜎/2𝜖𝑜 (d) 𝜎/4𝜖𝑜

18 The vehicles carrying inflammable fluids usually have metallic chains touching the
ground:

(a) To protect tyres from catching dirt from ground

(b) It is a custom
(c) To alert other vehicles
(d) To conduct excess charge due to air friction to ground and prevent sparking

5 7
7 A uniform electric field E= 2X103 N/C is acting along the positive x axis. The flux in
(NC-1m2) of this field through a square of 10cm on a side whose plane is parallel to
the y-z plane is
(a) 20 (b) 30 (c) 10 (d) 40 I. If a body is negatively charged, then it has
a. excess of electrons
8 An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30◦ with an electric field of intensity 2x10 5N/C. b. excess of protons
c. deficiency of electron
It experiences a torque equal to 4Nm.The charge on the diploe length is 2cm is
d. deficiency of neutrons
(a) 8 mC (b) 4 m C (c ) 6 mC (d) 2 mC
II. A charged particle is free to move in an electric field. It will travel
9 A metal cube of side 5cm is charged with 6 µC. The surface charge density of the a. always along a line of force
cube is b. along a line of force, if its initial velocity is zero
(a) 0.125x10-3Cm-2 (b)0.25x10-3Cm-2 (c )4x10-3Cm-2 (d)0.4x10-3Cm-2 c. along a line of force, if it has some initial velocity in the direction of an
acute angle with the line of force
10 d. none of the above
The electric field due to a short electric dipole at a large distance (r) from center of
dipole on the equatorial plane varies with distance as III. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) r (b) 1/r (c) 1/r3 (d) 1/r2 (I)The charge q on a body is always given by q = ne, where n is any integer, positive or
MCQ LEVEL3 negative.
(II)By convention, the charge on an electron is taken to be negative.
1 A vertical electric field of magnitude 4.9x105N/C just prevents a water droplet of mass
0.1 g from falling .The value of charge on the droplet will be (III)The fact that electric charge is always an integral multiple of e is termed as
(a)1.6 x10-9 C (b) 2.0x10-9C (c) 3.2x10-9 C (d) 0.5x 10-9C quantisation of charge.
(JEE MAIN 2022) (IV)The quantisation of charge was experimentally demonstrated by Newton in 1912.
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Only IV (d) Only III
2 For a uniformly charged ring of radius R, the electric field on its axis has the largest
magnitude at a distance h from the centre .Then the value of h is 2MARKS-LEVEL1
R/√5 (b) R/√2 (c ) R (d) R√2 (JEE MAIN 2019) 1. Why do the electric field lines never cross each other?
2. Define electric flux. Write its S.I. unit. A charge q is enclosed by a spherical surface
3 According to Gauss law of electrostatics, electric flux through a closed surface depends of radius R. If the radius is reduced to half, how would the electric flux through the
on surface change?
(a) Area of the surface
(b) The quantity of charges enclosed by the surface
3 MARKS LEVEL 1
(c) The shape of the surface
(d) The volume enclosed by the surface 1. State Gauss’ law in electrostatics. Using this law derive an expression for the
electric field due to a uniformly changed infinite plane sheet.
4 An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30∘ with an electric field of intensity 2x105 2. An electric dipole of dipole moment p is placed in a uniform electric field E?.
N/C. It experiences a torque equal to 4 N m. Calculate the magnitude of charge on the Obtain the expression for the torque τ experienced by the dipole. Identify two pairs
dipole, if the dipole length is 2 cm. of perpendicular vectors in the expression.
(a) 6 mC (b) 4 mC (c) 2 mC (d) 8 Mc 5MARKS LEVEL1
1. An electric dipole of dipole moment p consists of point charges + q and – q
separated by a distance 2a apart. Deduce the expression for the electric field E due
5 Two identical conducting spheres P and S with charge Q on each, repel each other with
to the dipole at a distance x from the centre of the dipole on its axial line in terms
a force 16 N. A third identical uncharged conducting sphere R is successively brought of the dipole moment p?.
in contact with the two spheres. The new force of repulsion between P and S is 2. (i) Derive the expression for electric field at a point on the equatorial line of an
( JEE MAINS 2024) electric dipole.
Depict the orientation of the dipole in
(a) 1 N (b) 6 N (c) 12 N (d) 4 N (a) stable (b) unstable equilibrium in a uniform electric field.

9 11
 COMPETENCY BASED QUESTION experiences
(a) electric effects only
1.Electric field lines are pictorial (b) magnetic effects only
representations of electric fields due to static (c) both electric and magnetic effects
charges on the plane of a paper (d) None of these

Study the given electric field representation (ii) When some charge is transferred to ...A... it readily gets distributed over the
and identify one INCORRECT qualitative entire surface of ... A... If some charge is put on ... B..., it stays at the same place.
impression given by this representation. Here, A and B refer to
A The electric field at point A is stronger than (a) insulator, conductor (b) conductor, insulator
at point B. (c)insulator, insulator (d)conductor, conductor
B. The electric field distribution is two-dimensional.
C. The electric field at point C is zero. (iii) On charging by conduction, mass of a body may
D. The electric field always points away from a positive charge. (a) Increase (b) decreases
2 For a Gaussian surface through which the net flux is zero, the following statements © increase or decrease (d) None of these
COULD be true.
P) No charges are inside the Gaussian surface. (b) If one penetrates a uniformly charged spherical cloud, electric field strength
Q) The net charge inside the surface is zero. a. decreases directly as the distance from the centre
R) The electric field is zero everywhere on the surface. b. increases directly as the distance from the centre
S) The number of field lines entering is equal to the number of lines exiting the surface. c. remains constant
Which of the statements is/are DEFINITELY true? d. None of these
A. Only statement
B. Q B. Both statements P and S (c) The law, governing the force between electric charges in the cloud is known as
C. Both statements Q and R a. Ampere's law b. Ohm's law c.Faraday's law d.Coulomb's law
D. D. Both statements Q and S
CCT
Two positive charges q1 and q2 lie along a straight line separated by a distance of 2 m ************
as shown.
(a) Find a location along the straight line joining the two charges, where if a positive
charge q3 is placed, it experiences a zero-resultant force.
(b) Will the resultant force on q3 placed at the location of part (a) still be zero, if it is
negatively charged? Explain.

************

13 15
 FORMULAE WITH NOTATIONS AND SYMBOLS
*Potential difference : work done / charge =W/q
*Electric potential due to point charge q at a distance r from it :
V =Kq /r(1 /4π∈0 = K )
* Electric potential at a point due to N point charges:
1 𝑞1 𝑞2 𝑞3 𝑞𝑛
𝑉= ( + + +−−−−−−+ )
4𝜋𝜀0 𝑟1 𝑟2 𝑟3 𝑟𝑛

*Electric potential at a point due to a dipole:

1 𝑝 cos 𝜃
𝑉=
4𝜋𝜀0 𝑟2
q1 𝑞2
*Potential Energy of a system of two-point charges: U=
4πє0 𝑟

1 q1 𝑞2 q1 𝑞3 q2 𝑞3
*Potential Energy of a system of three-point charges:U = [ + + ]
4πє0 𝑟12 𝑟13 𝑟23

*Potential energy of a single charge in an external Field: U (r) = q V (r)

* Potential energy of two charges in an external Field
1 q1 𝑞2
IMPORTANT POINTS U (r) = q1V (r1) +q1V (r1) + 4πє 𝑟12
0

➢ Work done by an electrostatic force in moving a charge from one point to another *Electric Potential Energy of an electric dipole
depends only on the initial & final position and not on the path followed by the charged
particle. U= pE(cos 𝜃1 - cos 𝜃2)

➢ Work done by the electrostatic force in moving a charge in closed path is zero ⃗⃗⃗ 𝐸⃗
If 𝜃1= 90o and 𝜃2= 𝜃 then U= -pEcos 𝜃= -𝑝.
Units: Charge- coulomb, Electric dipole moment- coulomb metre (Cm)
➢ The potential due to a dipole depends not just on r but also in the angle between
the position vector (𝑟 ) and dipole moment vector (𝑃⃗ ). Distance- metre ,
➢ The electric dipole potential falls off as 1/ 𝑟2 not as 1/𝑟 characteristic of the Energy- joule or electron volt (eV) (1eV = 1.6 × 10-19 J)
potential due to a single charge . 𝑄
Capacitance: Ratio of charge & potential difference. (It is Scalar) 𝐶 = 𝑉 .
➢ No work is done in moving a test charge over an equipotential surface. SI.unit :farad (F)
𝜖 𝐴
➢ electric field is always normal to the equipotential surface at every point . Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with no medium between plates :C 0= C = 0
𝑑

➢ No two equipotential surface can intersect each other. Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with a dielectric medium of dielectric
➢ Electric field is in the direction in which the potential decreases steepest. constant K thickness t in between :
𝜖0 𝐴
Cm= 𝑡
(𝑑−𝑡+ )
Its magnitude is given by the change in the magnitude of potential per unit 𝐾
𝜀0 𝐴 𝜖0 𝐴
displacement normal to the equipotential surfaces at the point. If t = 0 then C0= If t = d then Cm= K Cm = KC0
𝑑 𝑑
𝟏 𝟏 𝟏 𝟏
➢ On equatorial points of dipole , V=0 but E ≠ 0 *Combination of capacitors: (i) Capacitors in series: 𝑪 = 𝑪 + 𝑪 + 𝑪
𝟏 𝟐 𝟑

➢ Inside a charged spherical shell , E=0 but V ≠ 0 (ii) Capacitors in parallel :C =∑𝒏𝒊=𝟏 𝑪𝒊

. ➢ Net electric charge in the interior of a conductor is zero.

17 19
 QUESTION BANK (d) Both Assertion and Reason are correct.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (LEVEL 1)
Q1. If voltage applied on a capacitor is increased from V to 2V, choose the correct Q15. Assertion : If the distance between parallel plates of a capacitor is halved and
conclusion. dielectric constant is three times, then the capacitance becomes 6 times.
(a) Q remains the same, C is doubled Reason : Capacity of the capacitor does not depend upon the nature of the material.
(b) Q is doubled, C doubled Q16. Assertion : A parallel plate capacitor is connected across battery through a key.
(c) C remains same, Q doubled A dielectric slab of dielectric constant K is introduced between the plates. The energy
(d) Both Q and C remain same which is stored becomes K times.
Q2. A parallel plate capacitor is charged. If the plates are pulled apart Reason : The surface density of charge on the plate remains constant or unchanged.
(a) The capacitance increases Q17.Assertion: A spherical equipotential surface is not possible for a point charge.
(b) The potential differences increase Reason: A spherical equipotential surface is not possible inside a spherical capacitor.
(c) The total charge increases Q18.Assertion: The equatorial plane of a dipole is an equipotential surface.
(d) The charge & potential difference remain the same Reason: The electric potential at any point on equatorial plane is zero.
Q3. Which of the following is an example of a molecule whose centre of mass of Q19.Assertion: Electric potential and electric potential energy are different quantities.
positive and negative charges coincide each other? Reason: For a system of positive test charge and point charge electric potential
(a)CO2 (b) CO (c) CH3OH (d) NH3 energy = electric potential.
Q4.What is the angle between electric field and equipotential surface? Q20.Assertion: Two equipotential surfaces cannot intersect each other.
(a) 90o always (b)0o always (c)0o to 90 (d)0o to 180o Reason: Two equipotential surfaces are parallel to each other.
Q5.If we carry a charge once around an equipotential path, then work done by the MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (LEVEL 2)
charge is: Q1. A point P lies at a distance x from the mid point of an electric dipole on its axis.
(a) Infinity (b) Positive (c) Negative (d) Zero The electric potential at point P is proportional to
Q6. Capacitor of a spherical capacitor may depend upon
(a)1/x2 (b)1/x3 (c)1/x (d) 1/x1/2
(a) radius of capacitor (b)dielectric medium (c)applied potential difference (d)both
Q2.If the electric potential on the axis of an electric dipole at a distance r from its centre
(a) and (b)
is V, then its potential at a point at the same distance on its equatorial linewill be
Q7. The decreasing order of the electrostatic potential energies for the given system (a)2V (b) -V (c)V/2 (d) Zero
of charges will be-
Q3.A +3.0 nC charge Q is initially at a distance of r1 = 10 cm from a + 5.0 nC charge q
fixed at the origin. The charge Q is moved away from q to a new position at r2 = 15 cm.
in this process work done by the field is
(a) 1.29 x 10-5 J (b) 3.6 x 105 J (c) -4.5 x 10-7 J (d) 4.5 x 10-7 J

(a) c > b > a > d (b) d > a > c = b (c) a > c > d = b (d) c > b > a = d Q4.A variable capacitor is connected to a 200 V battery. If its capacitance is changed
from 2 µF to X µF, then the decrease in energy of the capacitor is 0.02 J. the value of
Q8. An electron is accelerated from rest through a potential difference V. Its final speed X is
is proportional to: (a) 1µF (b) 2 µF (c) 3 µF (d)4 µF
a) V b) V/2 c) √V d) 1/V
Q5.The capacitors each of 4µF are to be connected in such a way that the effective
capacitance of the combination is 6 µF. this can be achieved by connecting
21 23
 2 MARKS QUESTIONS(LEVEL 2)
Q1.If two charged conductors are touched mutually and
(a) 10uf and 48uC (b) 05uf and 48uC (c) 10uf and 24uC (d) 2.5uf and 48uC then separated, prove that the charges on them will be
divided in the ratio of their capacitances.
Q3.Find the total energy stored in the capacitors
in the given network. Q2. Figure shows two identical capacitors C1 and C2,
each of 2 µF capacitance, connected to a battery of 5 V.
-5 -6
(a) 3.6 × 10 J (b) 3.6 ×10 J Initially switch ‘S’ is left open and dielectric slabs of dielectric constant K = 5 are
(c) 7.2 ×10 -6 J (d) 7.2 ×10 -5J
inserted to fill completely the space between the plates of the two capacitors.
Q4.Two point charges 10 ˟10−8 µC and -2 ˟10−8 (i) How will the charge and
µC are separated by distance of 60 cm in air. Find at what distance from the 1st (ii) potential difference between the plates of the capacitors be affected after the slabs
charge, would the electric potential will be zero. are inserted?
(a) 5m (b) 5cm (c) 50cm (d) 1m Q3. The given graph shows variation of charge ‘q’ versus
potential difference ‘V’ for two capacitors C1 and C2. Both the
Q5.Two charges of same nature and magnitude +q are kept fixed at points X inside a
capacitors have same plate separation but plate area of C 2 is
uniform electric field. Now to shift the charges, Rahul used a path X → Y → Z (shown
greater than that of C1. Which line (A or B) corresponds to C1 and
as ‘R’ in the diagram) and Amol used a different path of direct X → Z (shown as ‘A’ in
why?
the diagram). Find the ratio of their work done to move the charge from X to Y.
Q4. Why does current in a steady state not flow in a capacitor
connected across a battery? However momentary current does flow during charging
or discharging of the capacitor. Explain.
Q5. Three capacitors of equal capacitance, when connected in series, have a net
capacitance of Cs and when connected in parallel, have a capacitance of Cp.
Calculate the value of Cs / Cp.
(a) 2:1 (b) 1:2 (c) 1:3 (d) 1:1 2 MARKS QUESTIONS (LEVEL 3)
Q6.An uniform electric field exists in the negative-Y direction. Which of the following Q1. A capacitor has some dielectric between its plates and the capacitor is connected
statement(s) is/are correct: to a DC source. The battery is now disconnected and then the dielectric is removed.
i. The potential decreases as one moves along positive Y axis State whether the capacitance, electric field, charge stored and the voltage will
ii. The potential remains constant as one moves along negative Y axis increase, decrease or remain constant.
Q2.What is the capacitance of arrangement of 4 plates of
iii. The potential remains constant as one moves along negative Z axis
area A at distance d in air in fig.
iv. The potential remains constant as one moves along positive X axis Q3.A parallel plate capacitor has square plates of side 5
a. i, ii, iii and iv b. i and ii c. iii and iv d. i, iii and iv cm and separated by a distance of 1 mm. (a) Calculate the capacitance of this
capacitor. (b) If a 10 V battery is connected to the capacitor, what is the charge stored
Q7.Samir founds that a conductor has a potential V ≠ 0 and there are no charges in any one of the plates? (The value of εo = 8.85 x 10-12 Nm2 C-2)
anywhere else outside. Then he concludes- 3MARKS QUESTIONS (LEVEL 1)
(1) There must be charges on the surface or inside itself. Q1. Obtain the expression for the resultant capacitance when three capacitors C 1 , C2
(2) There can’t be any charge in the body of the conductor. and C3 are connected (i) in series (ii) in parallel.
Q2. Define the capacitance of a capacitor. Obtain the expression for the capacitance
(3) There must be charges only on the surface.
of a parallel plate capacitor in vacuum in terms of plate area A and separation d
(4) There must be charges inside the surface. The correct conclusions are- between the plates.
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) all

25 27
 COMPETENCY BASED QUESTION
5 MARKS QUESTIONS (LEVEL 1) Q1.The capacitance of an infinite parallel capacitor without any dielectric betweenthe
Q1.A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C is charged to a potential V by a plates is C. It is then half‐filled with a dielectric medium of K = 4 as in
battery. Q is the charge stored on the capacitor. Without disconnecting the battery,
the plates of the capacitor are pulled apart to a larger distance of separation.
What changes will occur in each of the following quantities? Will they increase, decreas
or remain the same? Give an explanation in each case.
(a) Capacitance (b) Charge (c) Potential difference (d) Electric field (e)
Energy stored in the capacitor

5 MARKS QUESTIONS (LEVEL 2)

Q1. a) Explain, using suitable diagrams, the difference in the behaivour of a Fig (a) and then as in Fig (b). Show that capacitance in Fig (a) becomes 5C and
(i) conductor and in Fig (b) the capacitancebecomes (4/5)C due to the introduction of the dielectric
medium.
(ii) dielectric in the presence of external electric field. Define the terms polarization of Q2.The diagram below shows an arrangement of a set of equipotential lines in a given
a dielectric and write its relation with susceptibility. Region.Each line is marked with the potential it represents.
The background gridlines are squares of each side equal to 1 cm
5 MARKS QUESTIONS (LEVEL 3)
(a) Determine electric field at point P.
Q1..(a) Define potential energy of a system of two charges.
(b)Two-point charges q1 and q2, separated by a distance r12 are kept in an external
electric field. Derive an expression for the potential energy of the system of two
charges in the field.
NUMERICALS (LEVEL 1)
(b) Draw 6 field lines to represent the electric field in this region.
Q1.Two +ve charges of 0.2 μC and 0.01 μC are placed 10 cm apart. Calculate the
work done in reducing the distance to 5 cm. CCT BASED QUESTION
Q1.Given is a pair of parallel charged metal plates in the arrangement as shown.
Q2. A parallel plate capacitor has its plate of area 6.6 cm 2 separated by 0.7mm thick
mica slab. Calculate the capacitance of the capacitor if dielectric constant of mica is
6.
Q3. A capacitor of unknown capacitance is connected across a battery of V volt. A
charge of 120 μC is stored in it. When the potential across the capacitor is reduced by
40 V, the charge stored in the capacitor becomes 40 μC. Calculate V and the unknown
capacitance. What would have been the charge in the capacitor if the voltage were
increased by 40 V?
Q4. Two metal spheres, one of radius R and the other of radius 2R, both have same
surface charge density σ. They are brought in contact and separated. What will be the
(a) Sketch the electric field lines between the plates in I and II.
new surface charge densities on them?
NUMERICALS (LEVEL 2) (b) Mention whether net electric field intensity is zero or non‐zero in each case.

Q1. A parallel plate capacitor, of capacitance 20pF, is conneted to a 100 V supply.

After sometime the battery is disconnected, and the space, between the plates of the
capacitor is filled with a dielectric, of dielectric constant 5. Calculate the energy stored
in the capacitor
29 31
 SELF ASSESSMENT
Q2.The dipole experiences maximum torque when the angle between dipole and field
MARKS 25 DURATION 40 MINUTES
is
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (a)0degree (b)60 degree (c)90 degree (d)180 degree
Q1. A parallel plate capacitor is connected with the terminals of a battery. The distance
between the plates is 6mm. If a glass plate (dielectric constant K = 9) of 4.5 mm is Q3.If the work done required from 0 degree to 60 degree in uniform electric field is
introduced between them, then the capacitance will become W,What is the work done in rotating the dipole in the same field from 0 to 180 degrees?
(a) 2 times (b) the same (c) 3 times (d) 4 times. (a)W (b)2W (c)3W (d)4W

Q2. A capacitor is charged by using a battery which is then disconnected. A dielectric Q4.A dipole placed in uniform electric field experiences no torque when
slab is then introduced between the plates, which results in (a)If the dipole is parallel to the field .
(a) reduction of charge on the plates and increase of potential difference across the (b)If the dipole is antiparallel to the field.
plates. (c )both (a) and (b)
(b) increase in the potential difference across the plate, reduction in stored energy, but (d)None of these
no change in the charge on the plates.
(c) decrease in the potential difference across the plates, reduction in the stored
energy, but no change in the charge on the plates.
(d) none of these
Q3. Which of the following statement is true? *************
(a) Electrostatic force is a conservative force.
(b) Potential at a point is the work done per unit charge in bringing a charge from any
point to infinity.
(c) Electrostatic force is non-conservative
(d) Potential is the product of charge and work.
Q4.Which of the following statements is false for a perfect conductor?
(a) The surface of the conductor is an equipotential surface.
(b) The electric field just outside the surface of a conductor is perpendicular to the
surface.
(c) The charge carried by a conductor is always uniformly distributed over the surface
of the conductor.
(d) None of these
Q5. Assertion : Two equipotential surfaces cannot cut each other.
Reason : Two equipotential surfaces are parallel to each other.
Q6. Assertion : A dielectric is inserted between the plates of a battery connected
capacitor. The energy of the capacitor increases.
Reason : Energy of the capacitor, U=CV2 /2

2 MARKS QUESTIONS
Q7.Consider a uniform electric field 3 x 103 i N/C. calculate the flux of this field through
a square surface of area 10 cm2 when
(i) Its plane is parallel to the y-z plane
(ii) The normal to its plane makes a 60o angle with the x axis.
Q8. Define potential difference .How is it related to work. Calculate the work done in
33 35
Relation between drift velocity and current: 3) For semiconductor and insulator 𝛼 is negative i.e. their resistance decreases
𝐼
with the increases in temperature
𝑣𝑑 = where I = current, A = Cross-section area of conductor, e = charge on
𝐴𝑛𝑒
electron

Mobility(𝝁): the mobility of charge carrier is given by

𝑣𝑑
𝜇=
𝐸
𝑒𝐸⃗ 𝜏 𝑣𝑑 𝑒𝜏
As drift velocity, ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑣𝑑 = − 𝑚
∴𝜇= 𝐸
= 𝑚
SI unit of mobility = m2V-1s-1 Resistivity of a semiconductor decreases rapidly with temperature.
EMF and internal resistance of a cell
Ohm’s law: the current flowing through a conductor is directly proportional to the
potential difference applied across its ends, provided the temperature and other Electromotive force: The work done by the source in taking a unit positive charge from
physical conditions remain unchanged. its lower potential to higher potential.
𝑤
𝑉 𝛼 𝐼 𝑜𝑟 𝑉 = 𝑅 Where R = Resistance of the conductor. 𝐸=
𝑞
Resistance: it is the property by virtue of which a conductor opposes the flow of SI unit: volt
𝑉
charge through it.𝑅 = SI Unit: 1 ohm(Ω) = 1VA-1
𝐼 Internal resistance: the resistance offered by the electrolyte of a cell to the flow of
current between its electrodes is called internal resistance
Cause of resistance: Collisions are the basic cause of resistance
Terminal potential difference: the potential drop across the terminals of a cell when
Symbol of resistor: a current is being drawn from it is terminal potential(V).
Factor affecting the resistance: Relation between emf, internal resistance and terminal potential.
𝑙 𝑉 = 𝐸 − 𝐼𝑟
𝑅 = 𝜌 𝐴 where 𝜌 = specific resistance or resistivity of a conductor.
𝑚 Special cases
resistivity of a conductor is given by 𝜌 = 𝑛𝑒 2𝜏 SI unit of resistivity: ohm meter(Ω𝑚)
1) When cell is on open circuit: I = 0
Resistivity of conductor depends only nature of material V=E

1 Difference between emf and terminal voltage

Conductance: G = 𝑅 SI unit of conductance ohm-1or mho or siemens(S)
EMF Terminal Voltage
1
Conductivity: σ = SI unit of conductivity is ohm-1 m-1 or Sm-1 1. It is the potential difference 1. It is the potential difference
ρ
between two terminals of the cell between two terminals when a
when no current drawn from it. current passes through it
Vector form of ohm’s law: 𝐽 = 𝜎𝐸⃗
2. It is a cause 2. It is an effect
Limitations of Ohm's Law 3. SI unit Volt 3. SI unit Volt

1. Ohm’s law is applicable only to metallic conductors at moderate temperatures

and moderate potential differences. Grouping of a cell
2. Ohm’s law cannot be applied Cell in series
• to conductors maintained at very high temperatures or very low temperatures.
• to semiconductors and semi conducting devices.
• to conductors across which very high pd or very low pd is applied.

37 39
Kirchhoff’s second law or loop law: the MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
algebraic sum of the emf’s in any loop of a circuit
is equal to the sum of the products of currents and LEVEL-1
resistance in it.
1. In a current carrying conductor, current density 𝐽, and drift velocity𝑣
⃗⃗⃗⃗𝑑 will be
ΣE = ΣIR such that
Wheatstone bridge: it is an arrangement of four A. 𝐽 and 𝑣𝑑 will have same direction
resistance used to determine one of these B. 𝐽 and 𝑣𝑑 will have opposite direction
resistance quickly and accurately in terms of the C. The direction of⃗𝐽 is determined by the number of free electrons undergoing
remaining three resistance drift motion, whereas the direction of 𝑣𝑑 remain same
When no current flows through the galvanometer. D. The direction of 𝑣𝑑 is determined by the number of free electrons undergoing
The bridge is then said to be balanced . in the drift motion, whereas the direction of ⃗𝐽 remain same
balanced condition, 2. Which among the following statements is correct?
𝑃⃗ 𝑅 A. In a metal, number density is independent of temperature
=
𝑄 𝑠 B. With increase in temperature, relaxation time in metal decreases
C. For semiconductor and insulators number density increases with increases
in temperature
D. All the above
3. The resistivity of alloy manganin
A. Increases rapidly with increases of temperature
B. Decreases linearly with increases in temperature
C. Increases rapidly with decreases in temperature
D. Is nearly independent of temperature
4. A charged particle is having drift velocity of 3 × 10−9 𝑉𝑚−1. The electron mobility
is
A. 2.5 × 104 𝑚2 𝑉 −1 𝑠 −1 C. 2.25 × 10−13 𝑚2 𝑉 −1 𝑠 −1
5 2 −1 −1
B. 2.5 × 10 𝑚 𝑉 𝑠 D. 4.1 × 103 𝑚2 𝑉 −1 𝑠 −1
5. With increase in temperature, resistance of a conductor
A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. May decreases or increases depending on temperature
D. It does not depend on temperature
6. When the current I is flowing through a conductor, the drift velocity is v, if 2i
current flows through the same metal but having double the area of cross-
section, then the drift velocity will be
A. v/4 C. v
B. v/2 D. 4v
7. Two wires have same lengths, diameter and specific resistances all in the ratio
of 1:2. The resistance of the first wire is 10ohm. Resistance of the second wire
in ohm will be
A. 5 C. 20
B. 10 D. Infinite
8. When a 20V battery is connected across an unknown resistor there is a current
41 43
 a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of LEVEL – 3 MCQ
Assertion.
1. A Wheatstone bridge is used to determine the
b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct
value of unknown resistance X by adjusting
explanation of assertion the variable resistance Y as shown in the
c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false. figure. For the most precise measurement of
d) If both Assertion and Reason are false X, the resistance P and Q
16. Assertion(A): A current flows in a conductor only when there ia an electric field A. Should be approximately equal to 2X
within the conductor B. Should be approximately equal and are
Reason(R): The drift velocity of electrons in presence of electric field small
C. Should be very large and unequal
decreases.
D. Do not play and significant role
17. Assertion(A): An electric bulb starts glowing instantly as it is switched on. 2. A battery of internal resistance
Reason(R): Drift speed of electrons in a metallic wire is very large. 𝑟 = 4Ω is connected to the
18. Assertion(A): A wire carrying an electric current has no electric field around it. network of resistance, as shown
Reason(R): Rate of flow of electrons in one direction is equal to the rate of flow in figure what must be the value
of protons in opposite direction. of R, so that maximum power is
19. Assertion(A): Though large number of free electrons are present in the metal. delivered to the network? what is
the maximum power?
Yet there is no current in the absence of electric field. 𝐸2
Reason(R): In the absence of electric field electrons move randomly in all A.
16
𝐸2 𝐸2
directions. B. D.
6 4
20. Assertion(A): The value of temperature coefficient of resistance is positive for 𝐸2
C. 8
metals.
Reason(R): The temperature coefficient is resistance for insulator is also 3. The resistance of a wire is 5Ω at 50℃ and 6Ω at 100℃. The resistance of the
wire at 0℃ will be
positive.
A. 3Ω C. 1Ω
LEVEL – 2 MCQ B. 2Ω D. 4Ω
4. The resistive network shown below is connected to a DC source of 16V. the
1. A current of 3 amp flows through the 2 ohm resistor power consumed by the network is 4 watt. The value of R is
shown in the circuit. The power dissipated in the 5 ohm
resistor is:
A. 4 watt C. 1 watt
B. 2 watt D. 5 watt
2. In the figure balanced condition of Wheatstone bridge

A. B is at higher potential
B. D is at higher potential A. 8Ω B. 1Ω 𝐶. 16Ω D.
C. Any of the two B or D can be at higher potential 6Ω
than other arbitrarily
D. B and D are at same potential 5. A 10 V battery with internal resistance 1Ω and a 15V
3. Five resistances have been connected as shown in the battery with internal resistance 0.6Ω are connected in
figure. The effective resistance between A and B is parallel to a voltmeter as shown in the figure. The
reading in the voltmeter will be close to

A. 11.9V B.13.1V C.12.5V

D.24.5V

6. Two equal resistances when connected in series to a battery, consume electric

45 47
 3 MARKS QUESTIONS
(2 MARKS QUESTIONS) LEVEL -1
LEVEL - 1 1. (I) For the circuit diagram of a Wheatstone bridge shown, use Kirchhoff’s laws
to obtain its balance condition.
1. Two cells of emfs and internal resistances 𝐸1 , 𝑟1 and 𝐸2 , 𝑟2 are connected in (II) Give one practical application that is based on this principle.
parallel. Derive the expressions for the emf and internal resistance of a cell
which replace this combination. 2. The Wheatstone’s bridge of figure is showing no
2. An arc lamp operates at 80 V, 10A. suggest a method to use it with a 240 V DC deflection in the galvanometer joined between the
source. Calculate the value of the electric component required for this purpose. point B and D. compute the value of R.
3. Prove that the current density of a metallic conductor is directly proportional to 3. A potential difference V is applied to a conductor of
the drift speed of electrons. length l, diameter D. how are the electric field E, the
4. Define the electrical resistivity of a material. How it is related to the electrical drift velocity 𝑣𝑑 and resistance R affected when (i) V
conductivity? of the factors, length, area of cross-section, nature of material and is doubled (ii). l is doubled (iii) D is doubled.
temperature – which ones control the resistivity value of conductor? 4. Draw a plot showing the variation of resistivity of a (i) conductor and (ii)
5. Define the term ‘mobility’ of charge carries in a current carrying conductors. nichrome(iii) semiconductor, with the increase in temperature.
Obtain the relation for mobility in terms of relaxation time. How does one explain this behavior in terms of number density of charge
6. State the conditions under which ohm’s law is not obeyed carriers and the relaxation time?
in a conductor. 5. Distinguish between emf E and terminal voltage V of a cell having internal
7. I – V graph for a metallic wire at two different resistance ‘r’. Draw a plot showing the variation voltage V vs. the current I drawn
temperatures,𝑇1 and 𝑇2 is as shown in figure. Which of the from the cell. Using this plot, how does one determine the emf and the internal
two temperature is lower and why? resistance of the cell?
LEVEL – 2
8. Two cells of emf’s 𝐸1 and 𝐸2 , and internal resistance 𝑟1and
𝑟2 respectively are connected in series. Obtain expression for the equivalent (i) 1. In the circuit show in fig.in the steady state,
obtain the expression for
emf and (ii) resistance of the combination.
a) The potential drop
LEVEL - 2 b) The charge and
c) The energy stored in the capacitor.
1. Two metallic wires, P1 and P2 of the same 2. ‘n’ identical cells each of emf ‘E’ and the
material and same length but different cross- internal resistance ‘r’ are connected in series to resistor ‘R’
section areas, A1 and A2 are joined together (i) Deduce an expression for the internal resistance ‘r’ of one cell in terms
and connected to a source of emf. Find the of the current ‘I’ flowing through the circuit.
ration of the drift velocities of free electrons in (ii) How does the internal resistance of the cell vary with temperature.
two wires when they are connected (i) in series
and (ii) in parallel 3. Explain, giving reasons, how the internal resistance of a cell changes in the
2. A battery of emf 12 V and internal resistance 2 following cases:
ohm is connected to 4 ohm resistor as shown (i) When concentration of the electrolyte is increases.
in figure show that a voltmeter when placed (ii) When area of the anode is decreased.
across the cell and across the resistor in turn, (iii) When temperature of the electrolyte is increased.
gives the same reading

49 51
 drift speed is so small, and the electron’s charge is small, how can we still obtain ii.) What is meant by 80/20 Nichrome?
large amounts of current in a conductor?
(c) When electrons drift in a metal from lower to higher potential, does it mean (A) 80% Chromium and 20% Nickel
that all the ‘free’ electrons of the metal are moving in the same direction? (B) 80% Nickel and 20% Chromium
(d) Are the paths of electrons straight lines between successive collisions (with (C) Purity 80%, Impurity 20%
the positive ions of the metal) in the (i) absence of electric field, (ii) presence of (D) It is a mixture of Chromium and Nickel
electric field?
LEVEL-2 iii.) Which one will consume more electricity?

1. Deduce the condition for balance in a Wheatstone bridge. Write any two (A) 600 W (B) 1000 W (C) 750 W (D) 1200 W
important precautions you would observe while performing the experiment.
When is Wheatstone bridge most sensitive? iv) Operating voltage of the device is: (A) 220 V AC, single phase

LEVEL-3 (A) 220 V AC, single phase (B) 220 V AC, three phase
(C) 220 V DC (D) 220 V AC/DC
1. Two cells of emf 3V and 4V and internal resistances 1 ohm and 2 ohms
respectively are connected in parallel so as to send current in same direction V) Insulating materials used in the device are:
through an external resistance of 5 ohm. Draw the circuit diagram using
Kirchhoff’s laws. Calculate the current through each branch of the circuit and (A) Mica (B) Ceramic (C) Mica, ceramic, Nichrome (D)Mica, ceramic
potential difference across 5-ohm resistance.
Numerical Problem COMPETENCY BASED QUESTION
LEVEL - 1 1. A flashlight uses two batteries, each of emf 2V and internal resistance 0.1 ohm,
in series. The flashlight bulb has a resistance of 10 ohm.
1. The amount of charge passing through cross-section of wire is 𝑞𝑡 = 𝑡 2 + 𝑡 + 1
find the value of current at t = 1s
2. The resistance of a thin wire of silver is = 1.0 Ω at 20°𝐶. The wire is placed in a
liquid bath and its resistance rises to 1.2Ω. find the temperature of the bath
in°𝐶(𝛼𝑠𝑖𝑙𝑣𝑒𝑟 = 3.8 × 10−3 /°𝐶) (i) What is the current drawn by flashlight bulb?
3. A cell of emf 2 V and internal resistance 0.1 Ω is connected to a 3.9 Ω external (ii) How much power is dissipated through the flashlight bulb?
resistance. What will be the potential difference across the terminals of the cell. (iii) If the two batteries have zero internal resistance, will the power
4. Two cells of emfs 1.5 V and 2.0 V having internal resistances 0.2 Ω and 0.3 Ω dissipated through the flashlight bulb be more or less?
respectively are connected in parallel. Calculate the emf and internal resistance (iv) Calculate the difference.
of the equivalent cell. 2. In order to discourage the use of personal electrical appliances by the guests
LEVEL – 2 in the rooms of a motel in a small town, each 220 V socket in the room is wired
with a circuit breaker on a 5 A line. Sam wishes to iron his clothes using his
1. A storage battery of emf 8 V, internal resistance 1.0 Ω, is being charged by a 1200 W, 200V portable steam iron box in his motel room.
120 V dc source, using a 15.0 Ω resistor in series in the circuit. Calculate (i) the
current in the circuit, (ii) terminal voltage across the battery during charging, (i) Current drawn from iron
and (iii) the chemical energy stored in the battery in 5 minutes. (ii) Will sam be able to use his iron box without tripping the circuit breaker?
2. A voltmeter of resistance 998Ω is connected across a cell of emf 2 V and (iii) Find the resistance of his iron box.
internal resistance 2Ω. Find the potential difference across the voltmeter, that (iv) Can 1200W iron use in 220 V socket?

53 55
 A galvanometer of 15Ω resistance is connected across BD. Calculate the
Self-Assessment Test current through the galvanometer when a potential
Max. marks-25 Max. Time: 40 minute difference of 10V is maintained across AC.

Section-A( 1 Mark each)

1) Consider a current carrying wire (current I) in the shape of a circle. Note that as
the current progresses along the wire, the direction of J changes in an exact
manner, while the current I remain unaffected the agent that is essentially
responsible for is
a) Source of emf Section-D (5 - mark each)
b) Electric field produced by charges accumulated on the surface of wire 11) (a) On the basis of electron drift, derive an expression for resistivity of a
c) The charge just behind a given segment of wire which push then just the
right way by repulsion. conductor in terms of number density of free electrons and relaxation time. On
d) The charge ahead what factors does resistance and resistivity of a conductor depend?
2) Kirchhoff’s junction rules is a reflection of (b) Why alloys like constantan and manganin are used for making standard
a) Conservation of current density vector.
resistors?
b) Conservation of charge
c) The fact that the momentum with which a charged particle approaches a (c) The electron drift arises due to the force experienced by electrons in the
junction is unchanged (as a vector) as the charged particle leaves the electric field inside the conductor. But force should cause acceleration. Why
junction.
then do the electrons acquire a steady average drift speed?
d) None of these
3) The resistance of a wire is 5Ω at 50℃ and 6Ω at 100℃. The resistance of the (d) If the electron drift speed is so small, and the electron’s charge is small, how
wire at 0℃ will be can we still obtain large amounts of current in a conductor?
a) 3Ω c) 1Ω (e) When electrons drift in a metal from lower to higher potential, does it mean
b) 2Ω d) 4Ω
that all the ‘free’ electrons of the metal are moving in the same direction?
4) The potential difference (𝑉𝐴 − 𝑉𝐵 ) between the points A and B in the given
Section-E (Case study base question)

As an application of Kirchhoff’s rules consider the circuit shown, which is called

figure is
the Wheatstone bridge. The bridge has four resistors P, Q, R and s. Across one
a) +6 V b) +9 V (c)-3V (d)3V
pair of diagonally opposite points (A and C in the figure) a source is connected.
This (i.e., AC) is called the battery arm. Between the other two vertices, B and
D, a galvanometer G (which is a device to detect currents) is connected. This
line, shown as BD in the figure, is called the galvanometer arm. For simplicity,
we assume that the cell has no internal
resistance. In general there will be currents
flowing across all the resistors as well as a
current I g through G. Of special interest, is
the case of a balanced bridge where the
resistors are such that Ig = 0. We can easily
get the balance condition, such that there is
no current through G.

57 67
 UNIT III MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT AND MAGNETISM attract while antiparallel current carrying conductors repel. The magnetic force
per unit length on either current carrying conductor at separation a is given by
CH 4– MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM
GIST OF LESSON
1. Magnetic field- A magnetic field is associated with an electric current flowing
through a metallic wire. This is called the magnetic effect of current. On the
Its unit is newton/meter (N/m)
other hand, a stationary electron produces an electric field only.
17. Definition of ampere: - 1 ampere is the current which when flowing in each of
2. SI Unit of Magnetic field-
the two parallel wires in vacuum separated by 1 m from each other exert a force
The SI unit of magnetic field is Wm-2 or T (tesla). The strength of magnetic field
of 2x 10-7N/m on each other.
is called one tesla, if a charge of one coulomb, when moving with a velocity of
18. Torque experienced by a current loop in uniform magnetic field-
1 ms-1 along a direction perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field
𝜏 =M x B
experiences a force of one newton.
3. 1 tesla (T) = 1 weber meter-2 (Wbm-2 ) = 1 newton ampere-1 meter-1 (NA-1 m -1) If the angle between the normal to the coil and the direction of the
4. CGS units of magnetic field is called gauss or oersted.
magnetic field, then Φ + θ = 90° i.e. θ = 90° - Φ
5. 1 gauss = 10-4 tesla.
6. Right hand thumb rule- Hold a conductor is Right Hand in such a way that 𝜏 = I A B cos (90° - Φ) ‫ = ז‬N I A B sin Φ
thumb indicates the direction of current and curled finger encircling the Hence,
conductor will give the direction of magnetic field lines.
7. Biot- Savart law- It states that the magnetic field strength B produced due to a
current element (of current I and length dl) at a point having position vector r
relative to current element is-

The unit of magnetic moment in SI system is Am2.

The torque is maximum when the coil is parallel to the magnetic field and zero
where µ0 is the permeability of free space, when the coil is perpendicular to the magnetic field.
θ is the angle between current element and position 19. Potential energy of a current loop in a magnetic field- When a current loop
vector r as shown in the figure. of magnetic moment M is placed in a magnetic field, then potential energy of
The direction of magnetic field B is perpendicular to magnetic dipole is U=MB cos ө
the plane containing Idl and r (i) When ө=0, U = - MB (minimum or stable equilibrium position)
The value of µ0 = 4π ×10–7 Wb/A-m. (ii) When ө=180, U = +MB (maximum or unstable equilibrium position)
(iii) When ө=90, potential energy is zero
8. Magnetic field due to a current carrying circular loop – 20. Moving coil galvanometer- A moving coil
(a) The magnetic field due to current carrying circular coil of N-turns, radius a, galvanometer is a device used to detect flow
carrying current I at a distance x from the centre of coil is – of current in a circuit. A moving coil
galvanometer consists of a rectangular coil
placed in a uniform radial magnetic field
produced by cylindrical pole pieces.
Torque on coil due to current 𝜏 = NIBA
where N is the number of turns, A is the
area of coil.
If k is torsional rigidity of material of suspension wire, then for deflection θ,
(b) The magnetic field due to current carrying circular coil is along the axis. At torque 𝜏. For equilibrium NIAB = k
center, x=0 Clearly, deflection in galvanometer is directly proportional to current, so the
scale of galvanometer is linear.

69 71
MIND MAP d) 16 times
8 The correct plot of the magnitude of magnetic field B vs distance r from
centre of the wire is, if the radius of wire is R

Select the most appropriate answer from the options given

below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false and R is also false.

9 Assertion (A): An electron projected parallel to the direction of magnetic

force will experience maximum force.
Reason (R): Magnetic force on a charge particle is given by F = (IL x B).
10 Assertion (A): A proton is placed in a uniform electric field, it tends to move
along the direction of electric field.
Reason(R): A proton is placed in a uniform electric field it experiences a
force in the direction opposite to electric field.
11 Assertion (A): The magnetic field at the ends of a very long current carrying
solenoid is half of that at the centre.
Reason (R): If the solenoid is sufficiently long, the field within it is uniform.
12 Assertion (A): Magnetic field due to an infinite straight conductor varies
inversely as the distance from it.
Reason (R): The magnetic field due to a straight conductor is in the form of
concentric circles.
13 Assertion(A): Torque on the coil is maximum when the coil is suspended in
a radial magnetic field
Reason(R) : If the coil is set with its plane parallel to the direction
of the magnetic field, then torque on it is maximum
14 Assertion (A): Two parallel conducting wires carrying currents in same
direction come close to each other.
Reason (R): Parallel currents attract and antiparallel currents repel.
15 Assertion(A): Galvanometer cannot as such be used as an ammeter to
measure the value of current in a given circuit

73 75
 2 MARK QUESTIONS
Select the most appropriate answer from the options LEVEL 1
given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 1 I) Write the expression, in a vector form, for the Lorentz magnetic force 𝑭⃗
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
due to a charge moving with velocity 𝑽 in a magnetic field 𝑩⃗ . What is the
(c )A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false and R is also false. direction of the magnetic force?
II) Using the concept of force between two infinitely long parallel current
5 Assertion (A): If a proton and an α-particle enter a uniform magnetic carrying conductors, define one ampere of current.
field perpendicularly with the same speed, the time period of revolution 2 A charge ‘q’ moving B along the X-axis with a velocity v is subjected to a
of α-particle is double than that of proton. uniform magnetic field B acting along the Z-axis as it crosses the origin O.
Reason (R): In a magnetic field, the period of revolution of a charged (i) Trace its trajectory.
particle is directly proportional to the mass of the particle and inversely (ii) Does the charge gain kinetic energy as it enters the magnetic field?
proportional to the charge of the particle. Justify your answer.
6 Assertion (A): The magnetic field produced by a current carrying long 3 A steady current (I1) flows through a long straight wire. Another wire carrying
solenoid is independent of its length and cross- sectional area. steady current (I2) in the same direction is kept close and parallel to the first
Reason(R): The magnetic field inside the solenoid is uniform. wire. Show with the help of a diagram how the magnetic field due to the
7 Assertion (A): The voltage sensitivity may not necessarily increase on current I1 exerts a magnetic force on the second wire. Write the expression
increasing the current sensitivity for this force.
Reason (R): Current sensitivity decreases on increasing the number of 4 A circular coil of closely wound N turns and radius r carries a current I.
turns of the coil Write the expressions for the following :
8 Assertion (A): When radius of circular loop carrying current is doubled, (i) the magnetic field at its centre
its magnetic moment becomes four times (ii) the magnetic moment of this coil
Reason (R): Magnetic moment depends on area of the loop 5 Draw the magnetic field lines due to a current passing through a long
9 Assertion (A): An electron projected parallel to the direction of magnetic solenoid. Write the expression for the magnetic field due to the current I in a
force will experience maximum force. long solenoid having n number of turns per unit length.
Reason (R): Magnetic force on a charge particle is given by F = (IL x B). 6 (i) State Biot – Savart law in vector form expressing the magnetic field B due
10 Along which axis the magnetic field due to a current element is to an element dl carrying current I at a distance r from the element.
minimum? (ii) Write the expression for the magnitude of the magnetic field at the centre
(a) along its axis (b) perpendicular to its axis (c) at any angle to its axis of a circular loop of radius r carrying a steady current I. Draw the field
(d) at an angle of 450 with the axis. lines due to the current loop.
7 State Ampere’s circuital law. How is it similar to the Gauss Law?
LEVEL 3 8 How do convert a galvanometer into an ammeter? Why is an ammeter always
connected in series?
1 If a charged particle moves through a magnetic field perpendicular to it LEVEL 2
a) Both momentum and energy of particle change.
b) Momentum as well as energy is constant. 1 A solenoid of length 50 cm having 100 turns carrying a current of 4.5 A find
c) Energy is constant but momentum changes. the magnetic field
d) momentum is constant but energy changes (i) in the interior of the solenoid
2 The maximum current that can be measured by a galvanometer of (ii) outside the solenoid
resistance 40 Ω is 10 mA. It is converted into voltmeter that can read up to 2 An ammeter of resistance 0.6 Ω can measure current up to 1.0 A. Calculate
50 V. The resistance to be connected in the series with the galvanometer (i) The shunt resistance required to enable the ammeter to measure current
is up to 5.0 A (ii) The combined resistance of the ammeter and the shunt.
a) 2010 Ω b) 4050 Ω c) 5040 Ω d) 4960 Ω

77 79
2 A galvanometer of resistance ‘G’ can be converted into a voltmeter of range 2 A straight wire of mass 200 g and length 1.5 m carries a current of 2 A. 3
(0-V) volts by connecting a resistance ‘R’ in series with it. How much It is suspended in mid-air by a uniform horizontal magnetic field. What
resistance will be required to change its range from 0 to V/2 ? is the magnitude of the field?
3 A voltmeter V of resistance 400 Ω is used to measure the potential difference 3 A long straight wire in the horizontal plane carries a current of 50 A in 3
connected (in parallel) across a100 Ω resistance which is connected in north to south direction. Give the magnitude and direction of B at a point
series with a 200Ω resistor to which a 84 V battery source is connected, 2.5 m east of the wire.
(i) What will be the reading on the voltmeter? (ii) Calculate the potential
difference across 100 Ω resistance before the voltmeter is connected LEVEL 3
1 A beam of proton passes undeflected through a region of mutually 3
LEVEL 3 perpendicular electric and magnetic fields of magnitudes 50 kVm -1 and
1 Two long parallel wires separated by 0.1 m carry currents of 1A and 2A 100 mT respectively. Calculate the velocity of the beam. If this beam of
respectively in opposite directions. A third current-carrying wire parallel to current I strikes a screen with n protons per second, Find the force on the
both of them is placed in the same plane such that it feels no net magnetic screen.
force. Find the distance of the third wire. 2 A circular coil of 200 turns and radius 10 cm is placed in a uniform 5
2 A hollow cylindrical conductor of radii a and b carries a current I uniformly magnetic field of 0.5 T, normal to the plane of the coil. If the current in in
spread over its cross section. Find the magnetic field B for points inside the the coil is 3.0 A, calculate the
body of the conductor at a distance r from the axis. (a) total torque on the coil
3 A long straight conductor PQ, carrying a current of 60 A, is fixed (b) total force on the coil
horizontally. Another long conductor XY is kept parallel to PQ at a distance (c) Average force on each electron in the coil, due to the magnetic field.
of 4 mm, in air. Conductor XY is free to move and carries a current ‘I’. 3 A proton and an alpha particle having the same kinetic energy are, in turn, 5
Calculate the magnitude and direction of current ‘I’ for which the magnetic passed through a region of uniform magnetic field, acting normal to the
repulsion just balances the weight of the conductor XY. plane of the paper and travel in circular paths. Deduce the ratio of the
5 MARKS QUESTIONS radii of the circular paths described by them.

LEVEL 1 CASE BASED QUESTIONS

1 (a) State the principle of the working of a moving coil galvanometer, giving its
labelled diagram. (b) “Increasing the current sensitivity of a galvanometer 1 FORCE ON A MOVING CHARGE 4
may not necessarily increase its voltage sensitivity.” Justify this statement (c) Stationary charge creates an electric field but a moving charge creates a
Outline the necessary steps to convert a galvanometer of resistance G into a magnetic field also that can affect other moving charges. It was observed by
voltmeter of a given range. Oersted. He saw that if a magnetic needle is placed near current carrying
wire it shows slight deflection. The direction of the magnetic field can be
LEVEL 2 determined by using the Right hand thumb rule. Magnetic field is the space
1 (a) Derive an expression for the torque on a rectangular coil of area A carrying around a magnet, a current carrying conductor up to which it can attract or
current I and paced in a magnetic field B which is at an angle θ with the normal repel magnetic material. Force on a moving charge in magnetic field is given
to the plane of the coil. by the formula
(b) A rectangular loop of wire of size 2 cm × 5 cm 𝐹 = q (𝑣 X𝐵 )
carries a steady current of 1 A. A straight long wire Where q = charge on particle
carrying 4 A current is kept near the loop as shown v = velocity of charge particle
in the figure. If the loop and the wire are coplanar, B = magnetic field and
find (i) the torque acting on the loop and (ii) the F = magnetic force
magnitude and direction of the force on the loop When a current carrying conductor is placed in an external magnetic field, it
due to the current carrying wire. experiences a mechanical force. A conductor of length 1 carrying current I
held in a magnetic field B at an angle θ with it, experiences a force given by
F = IlB sin θ.

81 83
 ii) There are 3 voltmeter A, B, C having the same range but their resistance SELF ASSESSMENT TEST
are 15000 Ω, 10000 Ω and 5000 Ω respectively. The best voltmeter amongst
them is the one whose resistance is CHAPTER 4
a) 5000 Ω b) 10000 Ω c) 15000 Ω d) all are equally good
MM-25 TIME-40 MIN
iii) A milliammeter of range 0 to 25 mA and resistance of 10 Ω is to be INSTRUCTIONS- Q1-6 CARRY 1 MARK EACH
converted into a voltmeter with a range of 0 to 25 V. The resistance that Q7 AND Q8- CARRY 2 MARKS EACH
should be connected in series will be Q9, AND Q10- CARRY 3 MARKS EACH
a) 930 Ω b) 960 Ω c) 990 Ω d) 1010 Ω Q11-CASE BASED QS CARRIES 4 MARKS
Q12- CARRIES 5 MARKS
iv) To convert a moving coil galvanometer (MCG) into a voltmeter 1 Which physical quantity has unit Wb/m2? 1
a) a high resistance R is connected in parallel with MCG (a) Magnetic Flux (b) Magnetic Field
b) a low resistance R is connected in parallel with MCG (c) Magnetic dipole moment (d) Torque
c) a low resistance R is connected in series with MCG 2 What is the magnitude of force per unit length on a current carrying wire 1
d) a high resistance R is connected in series with MCG if 8 A flows at an angle of 300 with the direction of uniform magnetic field
OR of 1 T.
v) The resistance of an ideal voltmeter is (a) 2 N/m (b)4 N/m (c) 0.5 N/m (d) 4√2 N/m
a) zero b) low c) high d) infinity 3 A magnetized needle of magnetic moment 0.5 J/T is placed at 300 with 1
the direction of magnetic field of 1 T. What is the torque acting on it?
(a) 0.5 Nm (b) 0.25 Nm (c) 0.625 Nm (d) 2.5 Nm
CREATIVE & CRITICAL THINKING 4 What is the SI unit of current sensitivity? 1
(a) Ampere/radian (b) Radian/Ampere (c) Ampere (d) Radian
1 TORQUE ON A RECTANGULAR LOOP PLACED IN UNIFORM 4 5 Assertion (A): The magnetic field at the ends of a very long current 1
MAGNETIC FIELD carrying solenoid is half of that at the centre.
When a rectangular loop PQRS of sides 'a' and 'b' carrying current I is Reason (R): If the solenoid is sufficiently long, the field within it is uniform.
placed in uniform magnetic field →, such that area vector → makes an 6 Assertion (A): Magnetic field due to an infinite straight conductor varies 1
𝐵 𝐴 inversely as the distance from it.
angle θ with direction of magnetic field, then forces on the arms QR and Reason (R): The magnetic field due to a straight conductor is in the form
SP of loop are equal, opposite and collinear, there by perfectly cancel of concentric circles.
each other, whereas forces on the arms PQ and RS of loop are equal and 7 If only 10% of the total current can pass through a galvanometer of 2
opposite but not collinear, they give rise to torque on the loop. resistance 45Ω, what value of shunt is required?
8 Using Ampere’s circuital law, derive the equation for magnetic field 2
strength at a point near a long straight conductor.
9 A wire loop is formed by joining two semi-circular wires of radii r1, and r2, 3
as shown in diagram. If the loop carries a current I, find the magnetic field
at the centre O.

Force on side PQ or RS of loop is F = Ib sin90=Ib B and perpendicular

distance between two non-collinear forces is a sinθ

So, torque on the loop, τ=I AB sinθ

In vector form torque, → = → × →
τ 𝑀 𝐵
where M= NIA is called magnetic dipole moment of current loop and is
directed in direction of area vector A i-e., normal to the plane of loop. 10 (a) What is the principle of a moving coil galvanometer? 3
(b) Give two reasons to explain why a galvanometer cannot as such be
used to measure the value of the current in a given circuit.

85 87
 (d) All of these

4. Proton, electron and deuteron enter a region of uniform magnetic field

with same electric potential-difference at right angles to the field. Which
one has a more curved trajectory?
(a) electron
(b) proton
(c) deuteron
(d) all will have same radius of circular path
Case 2: on a point on equatorial line
12 (i) State and explain Ampere’s circuital law? 5
(ii) Figure shows a long straight wire of a circular cross-section (radius a)
carrying steady current I. The current I is uniformly distributed across this
cross-section. Calculate the magnetic field in the region r < a and r > a

************

Gauss Law of Magnetism essentially states that the flux through a closed surface/loop
is zero.

torque on a magnetic dipole (bar magnet) in a uniform magnetic field

89 91
 LEVEL- 1 MCQ
1 According to Gauss’s law for magnetism
a) ∮ 𝐵⃗ . ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑑𝑠 = 0 b) ∮ 𝐵 ⃗⃗⃗⃗ = 0
⃗ 𝑋𝑑𝑠 ⃗ . ⃗⃗⃗⃗
c) ∮ 𝐵 ⃗⃗⃗⃗ = 𝜇𝑜
⃗ 𝑋𝑑𝑠
𝑑𝑠 = 𝜇𝑜 d) ∮ 𝐵

2 The magnetic moment of a diamagnetic atom is

a) Equal to one b) Between zero and one
C) Equal to zero d) Much greater than one

3 Which among the following materials display higher magnetic susceptibility?

a. Ferromagnetic material
b. Paramagnetic material
c. Diamagnetic material
d. None of these options

4 A closely wound solenoid of 2000 turns and area of cross-section 1.6 x 10 -4 m2,
carrying a current of 4.0 A, is suspended through its centre allowing it to turn in
a horizontal plane. What is the magnetic moment associated with the solenoid?
a) 3.18 Am2 b) 2.08 Am2 c) 1.28 Am2 d) 4.38 Am2

5 A bar magnet of magnetic moment M, is placed in a magnetic field B. The

torque exerted on it is:
⃗⃗ 𝑋𝐵
a) 𝑀 ⃗ ⃗⃗ . 𝐵
b) 𝑀 ⃗ c) −𝐵⃗ .𝑀
⃗⃗ ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ . 𝐵
d) −𝑀𝜀 ⃗
Effect of temperature on magnetic properties
6 Relative permittivity and permeability of a material are 𝜀𝑟 and µ𝑟 respectively.
https://www.britannica.com/video/185491/dependence-properties-temperature
Which of the following values of these quantities are allowed for a diamagnetic
According to Curie's Law, the magnetization in a paramagnetic material is directly
material?
proportional to the applied magnetic field. If the object is heated, the magnetization is
a) 𝜀𝑟 = 1.5, 𝜇𝑟 = 1.5 b) 𝜀𝑟 = 0, 𝜇𝑟 = 1.5
viewed to be inversely proportional to the temperature
c) 𝜀𝑟 = 1.5, 𝜇𝑟 = 0.5 d) 𝜀𝑟 = 0.5, 𝜇𝑟 = 0.5

7 The relative magnetic permeability of a substance X is slightly less than unity

and that of substance Y is slightly more than unity, then
The Curie temperature (TC) of a ferroelectric material is the temperature at which the (a) X is paramagnetic and Y is ferromagnetic
material undergoes the phase transition from a low-temperature ferroelectric phase to (b) X is diamagnetic and Y is ferromagnetic
a high-temperature parmagnetic phase upon heating. (c) X and Y both are paramagnetic
(d) X is diamagnetic and Y is paramagnetic

LEVEL- 2MCQ
8 An iron bar magnet of length 10 cm and cross-section 1 cm2 has a
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=haVX24hOwQI magnetization of 102 A/m. Magnet’s pole strength is
a) 0.0025 Am b) 0.0015 Am c) 0.01 Am d) 0.002
Am

9 A short bar magnet placed with its axis at 30°with a uniform external magnetic
field of 0.25 T experiences a torque of magnitude equal to 4.5 x 10 -2 J. What is
the magnitude of magnetic moment of the magnet?
a) 0.26 J/T b) 0.36 J/T c) 0.43 J/T d) 0.30 J/T

10 A short bar magnet has a magnetic moment 1.2 Am 2. The magnetic field at a
distance 0.1 m on its axis will be (μo = 4π x 10-7T.m / A)

93 95
18 ASSERTION : Ferro-magnetic substances become paramagnetic above Curie its stable position and then released. Prove that it executes simple harmonic
temp. motion. Hence deduce the expression for its time period.
REASON : Domains are destroyed at high temperature.
19 ASSERTION : The sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is increased by LEVEL 1 (5M QUESTIONS)
placing a suitable magnetic material as a core inside the coil. 1 a) How does the (i) pole strength and (ii) magnetic moment of each part of
REASON : Soft iron has high magnetic permeability and cannot be easily magnet change if it is cut into two equal pieces transverse to its length?
magnetized or demagnetized. b) If a toroid uses bismuth for its core, will the field in the core be (slightly)
20 ASSERTION : The poles of magnet can not be separated by breaking into two greater or (slightly) less than when the core is empty?
pieces. c) A certain region of space is to be shielded from magnetic fields. Suggest
REASON : The magnetic moment will be reduced to half when a magnet is a method.
broken into two equal pieces. LEVEL 2 (5M QUESTIONS)
2 a) Define a neutral point. Draw lines of force when two identical magnets are
LEVEL 1 (2 M QUESTIONS) placed at a defined distance apart with their N-poles facing each other and
1 Is the steady electric current the only source of magnetic field? Justify your locate the neutral points.
answer b) A closely wound solenoid of 2000 turns and area of cross-section 1.6 x 10-
4m2, carrying a current of 4.0A is suspended through its centre allowing it to
2 What are permanent magnets? Give one example.
3 Which of the following substances are diamagnetic? turn in a horizontal plane.
Bi, Al, Na, Cu, Ca and Ni (i) What is magnetic moment associated with the solenoid?
4 Which of the following substances are para-magnetic ? (ii) What are the force and torque on the solenoid if a uniform magnetic
Bi, Al, Cu, Ca, Pb, Ni field of 7.5x 10-2Tis set up at an angle of 30o with the axis of the
5 Relative permeability of a material, µr = 0.5. Identify the nature of the magnetic solenoid?
material and write its relation to magnetic susceptibility. 3 a) Write down the four most important properties of magnetic field lines
6 In what way is the behaviour of a diamagnetic material different from that of a caused by a bar magnet.
paramagnetic, when kept in an external magnetic field? b)Two short bar magnets of length 1 cm each have magnetic moments 1.20
7 Define magnetic susceptibility of a material. Name two elements, one having Am2 and 1.00 A m2 respectively. They are placed on a horizontal table
positive susceptibility and the other having negative susceptibility. What does parallel to each other with their N poles pointing towards the South. They
negative susceptibility signify? have a common magnetic equator and are separated by a distance of 20.0
LEVEL 2 (2 M QUESTIONS) cm. The value of the resultant horizontal magnetic induction at the mid-point
8 A proton has spin and magnetic moment just like an electron. Why then its O of the line joining their centres is close to (Horizontal component of earth’s
effect is neglected in magnetism of materials? magnetic induction is 3.6 × 10–5 Wb/m2).
9 The figure shows the variation of intensity of magnetisation ‘I’ versus the
applied magnetic field intensity ‘H’ for two magnetic materials A and B : LEVEL 3 (5M QUESTIONS)
4 a) i) Why does a cooled paramagnetic sample have more magnetization (for
the same magnetising field)?
ii) Why, on the other hand, is diamagnetism almost temperature
independent?
b) A magnetic needle of magnetic moment 6.7 × 10–2 A m2 and moment of
inertia 7.5 × 10–6 kg m2 is performing simple harmonic oscillations in a
(a) Identify the materials A and B. magnetic field of 0.01 T. How much is the time taken for 10 complete
(b) Why does the material B, has a larger susceptibility than A, for a given field oscillations ?
at constant temperature? 5 a) A magnetic dipole is acted upon by two magnetic fields which are inclined
10 Draw magnetic field lines when a to each other at an angle of 75°. One of the fields has a magnitude of 15
(i) diamagnetic,
mT. The dipole attains stable equilibrium at an angle of 30° with this field.
(ii) paramagnetic substance is placed in an external magnetic field.
The magnitude of the other field (in mT) is close to how much?

97 99
 4 What is the net magnetic moment of the 2. The value of Gyromagnetic ratio is
system of magnetic poles shown in fig. below. a) 88 × 109 C kg-1 b) 8.8 × 1010 C g-1
c) 8.8 × 1010mC kg-1 d) All of the above
3. Angular momentum of an electron in an orbit mainly depends on
a) Radius of the orbit b) Velocity of electron in orbit
c) Principal quantum number d) None of the above
4. The minimum value of magnetic moment of revolving electron is
CASE BASED/ SOURCE BASED QUESTIONS a) eh/4m b) ehm/4
1 Gauss's law for magnetism states that the magnetic flux B across any closed c) eh/4πm d) None of the above
surface is zero; that is, div B = 0, where div is the divergence operator. This law 5. The SI unit of magnetic moment of electron is
is consistent with the observation that isolated magnetic poles (monopoles) do a) Am2 b) A2m2 c)A2m d)Am
not exist.
(i) The net magnetic flux through any closed surface, kept in a COMPETENCY BASED
magnetic field is 1 Ferromagnetism : In the absence of an external magnetic field, some of
µ𝑜
(a) Zero (b) (c) the electrons in a ferromagnetic material have their magnetic field, some of
4𝜋
4µ𝑜 the electrons in a ferromagnetic material have their magnetic dipole moments
4𝜋µ𝑜 (d) 𝜋 aligned by means of a quantum physical interaction called exchange coupling,
(ii) Which of the following is not producing regions (domains) within the material with strong magnetic dipole
the consequence of Gauss’s moments. An external field can align the magnetic dipole moment of those
law? regions, producing a strong dipole moment can partially persist when external
(a) The magnetic poles field is removed. If external field is nonuniform, the ferromagnetic material is
always exist as unlike attracted to region of greater magnetic field. These properties are called
pairs of equal ferromagnetism. Exchange coupling disappears when a sample’s
strength. temperature exceeds its Curie temperature, and then the sample has only
(b) If several magnetic paramagnetism.
lines of force enter in a (i) Susceptibility is positive and small for
closed surface, then an equal number of lines of force must (a) Paramagnetic substances
leave that surface. (b) Ferromagnetic substances
(c) Monopole do not exist in magnetism. (c) Non- magnetic substances
(d) There are abundant sources or sinks of magnetic field inside (d) Diamagnetic substances
a closed surface. (ii) If a bar magnet of pole strength m and magnetic moment M is cut
(iii) A closed surface S encloses a magnetic dipole of magnetic equally in five parts parallel to its axis and again four equal parts
moment 2ml. The magnetic flux emerging from the surface is perpendicular to its axis then the pole strength and magnetic
2𝑚
(a) µ𝑜 𝑚 (b) zero (c) 2µ𝑜 𝑚 (d) µ𝑜 moments of each piece are respectively,
𝑚 𝑚 𝑚 𝑚 𝑚 𝑀 𝑚 𝑀
(a) 20 , 20 (b) , (c) , (d) ,4
4 20 5 20 4
(iii) If the magnetizing field on a ferromagnetic material is increased, its
permeability
(a) Is decreased (c) is increased
(b) Is unaffected (d) may be increased or decreased
(iv) The variation of magnetic susceptibility with temperature of a
ferromagnetic material can be plotted as

101 103
 SELF ASSESSMENT substituting the values of e, h and m the value of Bohr
TOTAL MARKS: 25 Time: 40 min magneton is 9.27 x 10-24 Am2.
S.No. QUESTIONS Marks 1. If an electron in an atom revolves around a nucleus in clockwise
One mark questions manner, the direction of circulating current in the orbit is
MCQ a) Clockwise direction b) Perpendicular direction
w.r.t orbit
1 What is the property of a material that allows it to create a permanent 1
c) Anti-clockwise direction d) none of the above
magnet? 2. The value of Gyromagnetic ratio is
a)Diamagnetism c) Ferromagnetism a) 88 × 109 C kg-1 b) 8.8 × 1010 C g-1
b)Para magnetism d) Thermoelectricity c) 8.8 × 1010mC kg-1 d) All of the above
2. What is the significance of the Curie temperature in magnetism? 1 3. Angular momentum of an electron in an orbit mainly depends on
a) The curie temperature is the temperature at which magnets a) Radius of the orbit b) Velocity of electron in
stop working orbit
c) Principal quantum number d) None of the above
b) The curie temperature is only relevant for non-magnetic
4. The minimum value of magnetic moment of revolving electron is
materials a) eh/4m b) ehm/4
c) The curie temperature makes the transition from c) eh/4πm d) None of the above
ferromagnetism to paramagnetism in a material.
d) The curie temperature determines the colour of a magnet. OR
3 Points A and B are located perpendicular to the axis of a 2cm long 1 5. The SI unit of magnetic moment of electron is
a) Am2 b) A2m2 c)A2m d)Am
bar magnet at large distances x and 3x from its centre on opposite
sides. The ratio of the magnetic fields at A and B will be
approximately equal to Five marks question
1:9 (b) 2:9 (c) 27:1 (d) 9:1 12 (a) Derive an expression for magnetic field intensity due to a 5
4 The magnetic moment of a diamagnetic atom is 1 magnetic dipole of a bar magnet at a point on its axial line.
a) Equal to one b) Between zero and one (b) The magnetic susceptibility of magnesium at 300K is
C) Equal to zero d) Much greater than one 1.2 × 105 . At what temperature will its magnetic susceptibility
become 1.44 × 105 ?
Assertion and reasoning
5 ASSERTION: The poles of a bar magnet cannot be separated 1
REASON: Magnetic monopoles do not exist. *****************For detailed answer kindly refer part 2**************
6 ASSERTION: When a magnetic dipole is placed in a non-uniform 1
magnetic field, only a torque acts on the dipole.
REASON: Force would not act on magnetic dipole if magnetic field
were non uniform.

Two mark questions

7 A uniform magnetic field gets modified as shown below when two 2
specimens X and Y are placed in it. Identify whether specimens X
and Y are diamagnetic, paramagnetic or ferromagnetic.

8 Write two point of difference between a diamagnetic and a 2

paramagnetic substance.

105 107
 • Inductance (L): The property of a coil that quantifies self-induction. The c) the strength of the magnetic field d) all of the above
12. According to Lenz's law, the direction of induced current is such that it:
induced EMF is given by: . a) enhances the cause producing it b) opposes the cause
producing it
5. Mutual Induction:
c) is in the direction of the cause producing it d) none of the above
Mutual induction occurs when a change in current in one coil induces an EMF in a 13. The induced EMF is maximum when the angle between the magnetic field and
nearby coil. the normal to the coil is:
a) 0 degrees b) 45 degrees c) 90 degrees d) 180 degrees
• Mutual Inductance (M): The property quantifying the induced EMF in one coil
14. Which law is used to determine the polarity of the induced EMF in a coil?
due to the rate of change of current in another coil. The induced EMF in coil 2 a) Faraday's law b) Ampere's law c) Lenz's law d) Ohm's law
due to the change in current in coil 1 is:
15. The phenomenon of self-induction is the production of an induced EMF in:
a) a single coil due to a changing magnetic flux through it

where M is the mutual inductance, I1 is the current in coil b) two coils due to mutual influence
1, and E2 is the induced EMF in coil 2. c) a coil due to its own changing magnetic field

Summary d) a coil due to a steady current

16. In mutual induction, the induced EMF in the secondary coil is due to:
Electromagnetic induction is the process of generating an electric current by changing a) a steady current in the primary coil
the magnetic field. Faraday's laws quantify this induction, stating that a changing
b) a changing current in the primary coil
magnetic flux induces an EMF. Lenz's law provides the direction of the induced EMF
and current, ensuring it opposes the change in magnetic flux. Self-induction describes c) a constant magnetic field in the primary coil
the induction of EMF in the same coil due to changes in its own current, while mutual d) a steady voltage in the primary coil
induction describes the induction of EMF in one coil due to changes in current in
17. The principle of electromagnetic induction is used in:
another coil. These principles are foundational for many electrical technologies,
a) electric motor b) electric generator c) transformer d) both b and c
including transformers and electric generators.
18. When a magnet is moved towards a coil, the induced current in the coil is:
a) in the same direction as the motion of the magnet
CONCEPT MAP:
b) in the opposite direction to the motion of the magnet
c) zero
d) depends on the speed of the magnet
19. The magnitude of the induced EMF depends on:
a) the velocity of the moving conductor
b) the strength of the magnetic field
c) the length of the conductor in the magnetic field
d) all of the above
20. The core of a transformer is made up of:
a) copper b) aluminium c) soft iron d) steel
21. The self-inductance of a coil is directly proportional to:
a) the current passing through the coil
b) the square of the number of turns in the coil

109 111
9. Two coils have a mutual inductance of 0.2 H. If the current in the first coil 3 marks
changes at a rate of 3 A/s, what is the induced EMF in the second coil? LEVEL – 1
a) 0.1 V b) 0.2 V c) 0.4 V d) 0.6 V
10. A coil with a self-inductance of 6 H has a current of 2 A passing through it. If 1. Describe the process of generating an induced EMF in a straight conductor
the current changes uniformly to 0 A in 0.5 seconds, what is the induced EMF? moving through a uniform magnetic field. Include the relevant formula.
a) 4 V b) 6 V c) 8 V d) 24 V 2. Provide an example where Lenz’s Law is applied to determine the direction of
induced current in a closed loop.
LEVEL – 3
3. Define self-induction and explain the role of self-inductance in an electrical
1. A straight line conductor of length 0.4 m is moved with a speed of 7 circuit. Include the formula for self-inductance.
m/s perpendicular to a magnetic field of intensity 0.9 wb/m2. The induced e.m.f. 4. Describe an experiment to demonstrate the phenomenon of self-induction
across the conductor is… using a coil and a changing current.
a) 5.04 V b) 1.26 V c) 2.52 V d) 25.2 V 5. Define mutual induction and explain how mutual inductance is calculated
2. A magnetic flux linked with a coil varies as 𝜙 = 2𝑡 2 − 6𝑡 + 5 wher between two coils. Include the formula for mutual inductance.
𝜙 is in weber and t is in second. The induced current is zero at
a) t = 0 b) t = 1.5 c) t = 3 d) t = 5 LEVEL – 2
3. A bar magnet is released along the vertical axis of the conducting
1. Derive an expression for self inductance of a solenoid.
coil. The acceleration of the bar magnet is
2. Calculate coefficient of mutual inductance for the system of two co-axial
a) greater than g b) less than g c) equal to g d) zero multiturn coils of same length but different radii.
4. A coil having an area A is placed in magnetic field which changes
3. Show that coefficient of self inductance is independent of flux and current
from B to 4B in time t. The average emf induced in the coil will be
3𝐴𝐵 4𝐴𝐵 3𝐵 4𝐵 passing through the coil.
a) b) c) d)
𝑡 𝑡 𝐴𝑡 𝐴𝑡 LEVEL – 3
1. Decide direction of induced current
Predict the direction of induced current in following cases
in following examples
2. What is motional emf? Derive an
expression for induced emf for a rod
rotating in perpendicular magnetic
field.
3. Show that mutual inductance of pair
of coil is same for both the coils

5 marks
LEVEL – 1

1. A square loop of side 0.2 m with 50 turns is placed in a uniform magnetic field
2 marks of 0.3 T. The plane of the loop is perpendicular to the magnetic field. The
LEVEL – 1
magnetic field is reduced to zero uniformly over a period of 0.2 seconds.
1. State Faraday’s first law of electromagnetic induction. Calculate the following: a) The initial magnetic flux through the loop. B) The
2. How does the magnitude of induced EMF relate to the rate of change of
magnetic flux according to Faraday’s second law?

113 115
2. Two coils, Coil X and Coil Y, are arranged such that Coil X has 600 turns and Self Assessment
Coil Y has 1000 turns. Coil X has an inductance of 2 H and Coil Y has an
inductance of 5 H. The mutual inductance between the coils is 1.2 H. A steady Total Marks: 25 Time: 1 hour
current of 4 A is established in Coil X. If the current in Coil X is changed to zero
in 0.2 seconds, calculate the energy transferred to Coil Y and the induced EMF Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) (1 mark each)
in Coil Y.
3. A rectangular conducting loop with length l = 0.5 m and width w=0.3 m moves 1. Which of the following is a statement of Faraday’s First Law of Electromagnetic
with a constant velocity v=2 m/s perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of Induction?
strength B = 0.4 T. The loop is moving in such a way that the entire loop remains a) A changing magnetic field induces an electromotive force (EMF).
within the magnetic field. Calculate: b) The induced EMF is proportional to the rate of change of magnetic flux.
c) The induced current always opposes the change in magnetic flux.
a) The induced EMF in the loop.
d) None of the above.
b) The induced current if the resistance of the loop is R=0.2 Ω.
c) The power dissipated in the loop due to the induced current. 2. What is the SI unit of magnetic flux?
LEVEL-3 (NUMERICALS) a) Tesla
b) Weber
2. A solenoid with 1000 turns and a length of 0.5 meters has a cross-sectional
c) Henry
area of 0.01 m². It is connected to a circuit where the current increases from 2 d) Coulomb
A to 8 A in 0.4 seconds. Calculate the induced EMF in the solenoid and the
energy stored in the solenoid at the final current. 3. According to Lenz's Law, the direction of the induced current in a conductor will
3. A coil with an inductance of 0.5 H is connected in a circuit. If the current through be such that:
the coil changes sinusoidally according to the equation I(t) = 5sin(100t) where a) It enhances the cause of its own production.
I is in amperes and t is in seconds, calculate the maximum induced EMF in the b) It opposes the cause of its own production.
coil. c) It has no relation to the cause of its production.
d) None of the above.
4. Two coils, Coil A and Coil B, are placed close to each other. Coil A has 500
turns and a resistance of 1 Ω, while Coil B has 800 turns and a resistance of
4. In mutual induction, the induced EMF in the secondary coil depends on:
1.5 Ω. The mutual inductance between the coils is 3 H. If a current of 5 A in Coil a) The number of turns in the primary coil.
A is changed to zero in 0.1 seconds, calculate the induced EMF in Coil B and b) The rate of change of current in the primary coil.
the energy dissipated as heat in Coil B during this time. c) The distance between the two coils.
CASE BASED d) All of the above.
A conducting rectangular loop of wire with dimensions 10 cm×5 cm is placed in
a uniform magnetic field of strength 0.5 T. The plane of the loop is perpendicular Assertion-Reason Questions (1 mark each)
5. Assertion (A): An induced current always flows in such a direction that it
to the magnetic field. The magnetic field is increased uniformly to 1.0 T over a
opposes the change which produced it.
period of 2 s. The loop has a resistance of 0.1 Ω. Reason (R): Lenz's Law is a consequence of the conservation of energy.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
1. What is the rate of change of the magnetic field (dB/dt)? b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
A. 0.25 T/s B. 0.5 T/s C. 1.0 T/s D. 2.0 T/s c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
2. What is the induced EMF ε in the loop during the change in magnetic field? 6. Assertion (A): The self-inductance of a coil increases with the increase in the
A. 0.025 V B. 0.05 V C. 0.10 V D. 0.20 V number of turns of the coil.
Reason (R): Self-inductance is directly proportional to the square of the number
of turns in the coil.
3. What is the direction of the induced current in the loop?
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
A. Clockwise, looking from above b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
B. Counterclockwise, looking from above c) A is true, but R is false.
C. Alternating current d) A is false, but R is true.
D. No current is induced
117 119
 UNIT IV ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION AND ALTERNATING LCR Series Circuit and Impedance:
CURRENT 𝑉 = 𝑉𝑚 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡
CH 7 ALTERNATING CURRENTS Resistor, inductor and capacitor are in series,
the ac current in each element is same at any
GIST OF CHAPTER: time, having the same amplitude and phase.
𝐼 = 𝐼𝑚 sin (𝜔𝑡 + 𝜑)
Alternating currents, peak and RMS value of alternating current/voltage, i) In resistive circuit voltage and current are in
reactance and impedance, LCR series circuit (phasors only), resonance, power the same phase.
in AC circuits, power factor, wattless current, Transformer, AC generator. ii) In the inductive circuit, Current lags behind
𝜋
the voltage in phase by 2 rad
Alternating currents: Alternating current
(AC) is an electric current that iii) In the capacitive circuit, Current leads the
𝜋
periodically reverses direction and voltage in phase by 2 rad.
changes its magnitude continuously with 𝑉 = 𝑉𝑅 + 𝑉𝐿 + 𝑉𝐶
time.
𝐼 = 𝐼𝑚 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡 𝑉𝑚 = |𝑉| = √𝑉𝑅2 + (𝑉𝐶 − 𝑉𝐿 )2
𝑉 = 𝑉𝑚 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡
𝑉𝑚 = √(𝑖𝑚 𝑅)2 + (𝑖𝑚 𝑋𝐶 − 𝑖𝑚 𝑋𝐿 )2
Direct current: flows with a constant magnitude and in same fixed direction.
Advantages of AC over 1) Easily and efficiently converted from one voltage 𝑉𝑚 = 𝑖𝑚 √(𝑅)2 + (𝑋𝐶 − 𝑋𝐿 )2
𝑉
DC: to the other by means of transformers. Impendance, 𝑍 = 𝑚 = √(𝑅)2 + (𝑋𝐶 − 𝑋𝐿 )2
𝑖𝑚
2) Transmitted economically over long distances.
Average value of AC over a one complete 𝑞
𝐼𝑎𝑣 = = 0
cycle 𝑡 𝑋𝐶 − 𝑋𝐿
2𝐼 i) If XC > XL, ∅ is positive and the circuit is
Average value of AC over half of 𝐼𝑎𝑣 = 𝜋𝑚 = 0.637𝐼𝑚 (𝐼𝑚 = peak value) 𝑡𝑎𝑛∅ =
𝑅 predominantly capacitive.
cycle OR Consequently, the current in the circuit
RMS value: To measure AC/AV heating effect of current is used which is 𝑉𝐶𝑚 − 𝑉𝐿𝑚 leads the source voltage.
independent of the direction. 𝑡𝑎𝑛∅ =
𝑉𝑅𝑚 ii) If XC < XL, ∅ is negative and the circuit is
RMS value also known as Effective or Virtual value. predominantly inductive.
Relation between RMS value and peak 𝐼𝑚 𝑉𝑚
𝐼𝑟𝑚𝑠 = 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑉𝑟𝑚𝑠 = Consequently, the current in the circuit
value √2 √2 lags the source voltage.
AC voltage applied to a Resistor: Resonance and Resonant frequency:
𝑉 = 𝑉𝑚 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡 Resonance: When natural frequency of Resonant Frequency:
𝑉𝑚 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡 = 𝑖𝑅 (By Kirchhoff’s loop rule) the series LCR circuit becomes equal to If 𝜔 is varied, then at a particular
𝑉𝑚 frequency of ac source and current frequency 𝜔0 , XC = XL, and the
𝑖= 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡
𝑅 becomes the maximum then the impedance is minimum. This
𝑉
𝑖 = 𝑖𝑚 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡 (where 𝑖𝑚 = 𝑅𝑚 ) phenomenon is called resonance. frequency is called the resonant
𝑍
Maximum Current at resonance, 𝑖𝑚 = 𝑅 frequency
1
Minimum impedance at resonance, XC=XL, = 𝜔0 𝐿
𝜔0 𝐶
Zmin=R 1
When XC=XL, current has its maximum 𝜔0 =
√𝐿𝐶
value and impedance has minimum 𝜔0 1
value. 𝜗0 = =
2𝜋 2𝜋√𝐿𝐶

Voltage and current are in phase.

AC voltage applied to an Inductor:

121 123
 MCQ’S
Level – 1

Q.1 A DC ammeter cannot be used to measure an alternating current because

(a) DC ammeter will get damage
AC Generator: (b) average value of AC for complete cycle is zero
It is a device which converts mechanical energy into an electrical energy and (c) alternating current cannot pass through DC ammeter
generates alternating current. (d) alternating current changes its direction
Principle: Works on principle of electro-magnetic induction. Q.2 Why the use of ac voltage is preferred over dc voltage?
Construction: (a) Generation of ac is more economical than dc
1. Armature coil (b) AC can be stepped up and stepped down
2. Filed magnet (c) It can be transmitted with lower energy loss
3. Slip rings (d) All of the above
4. Brushes
Q.3 Alternating current is transmitted at far off places
Theory: (a) at high voltage and low current.
When the armature coil rotates (b) at high voltage and high current.
between the pole pieces of field (c) at low voltage and low current.
magnet, the effective area of the coil (d) at low voltage and high current.
is A cos θ, Q.4 In the case of an inductor
The flux at any time is, 𝜋
⃗ . 𝐴=NBA cos θ=NBA cosωt (a) voltage lags the current by 2
∅=𝐵
𝜋
The induced emf is, (b) voltage leads the current by
2
𝑑∅ 𝑑(𝑁𝐵𝐴𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜔𝑡) 𝜋
𝜀=− =− (c) voltage lags the current by 3
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡 𝜋
𝑉 = 𝜀 = −𝑁𝐵𝐴𝜔𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡 (d) voltage lags the current by 4
Q.5 When an AC voltage is applied to an series LCR circuit, which of the
Formulae: following true?
𝑉 = 𝑉𝑚 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡 = 𝑉𝑚 𝑠𝑖𝑛2𝜋𝜗𝑡 𝑃⃗ = 𝑉𝑟𝑚𝑠 𝑖𝑟𝑚𝑠 𝑐𝑜𝑠∅ (a) I and V are out of phase with each other in R
𝑅 𝑅 (b) I and V are in phase in L with C, they are out of phase
𝑖 = 𝑖𝑚 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡 = 𝑖𝑚 𝑠𝑖𝑛2𝜋𝜗𝑡 Power factor = 𝑐𝑜𝑠∅ = 𝑍 =
√(𝑅)2 +(𝑋𝐶 −𝑋𝐿 )2
(c) I and V are out of phase in both, C and L
𝐼𝑚 𝑉𝑚 𝜀𝑆 𝑁𝑆 𝐼𝑃
𝐼𝑟𝑚𝑠 = 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑉𝑟𝑚𝑠 = = = (d) I and V are out of phase in L and in phase in C
√2 √2 𝜀𝑃 𝑁𝑃 𝐼𝑆
Q.6 The power factor of series LCR circuit at resonance is
𝑋𝐿 = 𝜔𝐿 𝑂𝑢𝑡𝑝𝑢𝑡 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟
𝜂= × 100% (a) Zero (c) 1.0
𝐼𝑛𝑝𝑢𝑡 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟
1 𝑉 = 𝜔 = −𝑁𝐵𝐴𝜔𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡 (b) 0.5 (d) depends on value of L,C and R
𝑋𝐶 = Q.7 Transformer is based upon the principal of
𝜔𝐶
𝑉𝑚 (a) Self induction (b) Mutual induction (c) Eddy current (d)None of the
𝑍= = √(𝑅)2 + (𝑋𝐶 − 𝑋𝐿 )2
𝑖𝑚 above
𝑋𝐶 − 𝑋𝐿 Q.8 The root mean square value of the alternating current is equal to
𝑡𝑎𝑛∅ =
𝑅 (a) Twice the peak value (b) Half the peak value
1
(c) times the peak value (d) Equal to the peak value
√2
Q.9 For high frequency, a capacitor offers
(a) More reactance (b) Less reactance
(c) Zero reactance (d) Infinite reactance
Q.10 In an A.C. circuit the current

125 127
 Level – 2 (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
Q.1 In series LCR circuit, the capacitance is changed from C to 4C. For the same the assertion.
resonant frequency, the inductance should be changed from L to (c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(a) 2L (b) L / 2 (c) L / 4 (d) 4 L (d) If the assertion and reason both are false
Q.2 A bulb and a capacitor are connected in series to a source of alternating
Q.1 Assertion: A bulb connected in series with a solenoid is connected to ac
current. If its frequency is increased, while keeping the voltage of the source
constant, then source. If a soft iron core is introduced in the solenoid, the bulb
(a) Bulb will give more intense light will glow brighter.
(b) Bulb will give less intense light Reason: On introducing soft iron core in the solenoid, the inductance
(c) Bulb will give light of same intensity as before decreases.
(d) Bulb will stop radiating light Q.2 Assertion: Soft iron is used as a core of transformer.
Reason: Area of hysteresis is loop for soft iron is small.
Q.3 The i-V curve for anti-resonant circuit is
Q.3 Assertion: When capacitive reactance is smaller than the inductive
reactance in LCR current, e.m.f. leads the current.
Reason: The phase angle is the angle between the alternating e.m.f and
alternating current of the circuit.
Q.4 Assertion: A capacitor of suitable capacitance can be used in an ac circuit
in place of the choke coil.
Reason: A capacitor blocks dc and allows ac only.
Q.5 Assertion: A given transformer can be used to step-up or step-down the
Q.4 If rotational velocity of an a.c. generator armature is doubled, then induced
e.m.f will become voltage.
(a) Half (b) Two times (c) Four times (d) Unchanged Reason: The output voltage depends upon the ratio of the number of turns
Q.5 In a step-up transformer, the turn ratio is 1: 2. A Leclanche cell (e.m.f. 1.5V) of the two coils of the transformer.
is connected across the primary. The voltage developed in the secondary Q.6 Assertion: In series LCR circuit resonance can take place.
would be Reason: Resonance takes place if inductance and capacitive reactance’s
(a) 3.0 V (b) 0.75 V (c) 1.5 V (d) Zero are equal and opposite.
Q.6 In a step-up transformer the turn’s ratio is 1:10. A resistance of 200 ohm
Q.7 Assertion: The alternating current lags behind the e.m.f. by a phase angle
connected across the secondary is drawing a current of 0.5 A. What is the
primary voltage and current? of 𝜋/2, when ac flows through an inductor.
(a) 50 V, 1 A (b) 10 V, 5 A (c) 25 V, 4 A (d) 20 V, 2 A Reason: The inductive reactance increases as the frequency of ac source
Q.7 The turns ratio of a transformer is given as 2:3.If the current through the decreases.
primary coil is 3A, then the current in secondary coil is Q.8 Assertion: Capacitor serves as a block for dc and offers an easy path to ac.
(a) 1A (b) 4.5A (c) 2A (d) 1.5A Reason: Capacitive reactance is inversely proportional to frequency.
Q.8 The peak value of AC voltage on a 220 V mains is
Q.9 Assertion: When capacitive reactance is smaller than the inductive
(a) 110 √2 (𝑏)200 √2 (𝑐)240 √2 (𝑑)220 √2
reactance in LCR current, e.m.f. leads the current .
Q.9 In a series LCR circuit, resistance R = 10 and the impedance Z = 20. The
phase difference between the current and the voltage is Reason: The phase angle is the angle between the alternating e.m.f. and
(a) 300 (b) 450 (c) 600 (d) 900 alternating current of the circuit.
Q.10 The frequency for which a 5 μF capacitor has a reactance of 1 Ω is given Q.10 Assertion: Chock coil is preferred over a resistor to adjust current in an ac
1000
circuit.
by
Reason: Power factor for inductance is zero.
(a) 1000 Hz
1
(b) 1000 𝐻𝑧 (𝑐)
1000
ℎ𝑧 (𝑑)
100
𝑀𝐻𝑧 Q.11 Assertion: If the frequency of alternating current in an ac circuit consisting
𝜋 𝜋
of an inductance coil is increased then current gets decreased.
Reason: The current is inversely proportional to frequency of alternating
Level – 3
current.
Q.1 An inductance of 1 mH a condenser of 10 μF and a resistance of 50 Ω are
connected in series. The reactance of inductor and condensers are same. Q.12 Assertion: An alternating current does not show any magnetic effect.
The reactance of either of them will be Reason: Alternating current varies with time.

129 131
Q.7 At an airport, a person is made to walk through the doorway of a metal
detector, for security reasons. If she/he is carrying anything made of metal,
the detector emits a sound. On what principal does this detector work?
Q.8 (i) Define power factor of an ac circuit.
(ii) What are the maximum and minimum values of power factor of an ac
circuit?
(i) Identify the device X.
Level – 2 (ii) Which of the curves A, B and C represent the voltage, current and the
Q.1 Prove that an ideal capacitor in an ac circuit does not dissipate power.
power consumed in the circuit? Justify the answer.
Q.2 In a series LCR circuit, obtain the condition under which
(iii) How does its impedance vary with frequency of the AC source? Show
(i) the impedance of circuit is minimum and
graphically.
(ii) wattles current flows in the circuit.
(iv) Obtain an expression for the current in the circuit and its phase relation
Q.3 State the principal of working of a transformer. Can a transformer be used to
with AC voltage.
step up or step down a DC voltage? Justify your answer.
Q.4 Differentiate between the term inductive reactance and capacitive reactance
Numericals:
of an AC circuit. Level – 1
Q.5 Write the expression for the impedance offered by the series combination of 1. An alternating voltage given by V= 280 sin 50𝜋𝑡 is connected across a pure
resistor, inductor and capacitor connected to an AC source of voltage, resistor of 40 Ω. Find
𝑉 = 𝑉0 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡. Show on a graph the variation of the voltage and the current with (i) the frequency of the source.
𝜔𝑡 in the circuit. (ii) the rms current through the resistor.
2. A light bulb is rated as 150 W for 220 V AC supply of 60 Hz. Calculate
Level – 3 (i) resistance of the bulb
Q.1 “An alternating current doesn’t show any magnetic effect”. True/false. Justify (ii) the rms current through the bulb.
your answer. 3. A power transmission line feeds input power at 2200 V to a step down
Q.2 A power transmission line feeds input power at 2200 V to a step down transformer with its primary windings having 3000 turns. Find the number of
transformer with its primary windings having 3000 turns. Find the number of turns in the secondary winding to get the power output at 220 V.
turns in the secondary winding to get the power output at 220 V. 4 Calculate the quality factor of a series LCR circuit with L=2.0 H, C= 2 μF and
Q.3 A bulb B and a capacitor C are connected in series to the ac mains. The bulb R= 10 Ω
glows with some brightness. How will the glow of the bulb change when a
dielectric slab is introduced between the plates of the capacitor? Give reasons Level – 2
in support of your answer. 1. A circuit containing an 80 mH inductor and a 25 mF capacitor in series
SA – II (3 Marks each) connected to a 240 V, 100 rad/s supply. The resistance of the circuit is
Level – 1 negligible. (i) obtain rms value of current (ii) what is the total average power
Q.1 What is inductive reactance? If an AC voltage is applied across an inductance consumed by the circuit?
L, find an expression for the current I flowing in the circuit. Also show the 2. A circuit is set up by connecting inductance L = 100 mH, resistor R = 100 Ω
phase relationship between current and voltage in a phasor diagram. and a capacitor of reactance 200 Ω in series. An alternating emf of 150√ 2 V,
Q.2 What is capacitive reactance? If an ac voltage is applied across a capacitance 500/π Hz is applied across this series combination. Calculate the power
C, find an expression for the current I flowing in the circuit. Also show the dissipated in the resistor.
phase relationship between current and voltage in a phasor diagram. 3. A step down transformer operated on a 2.5 kV line. It supplies a load with 20
Q.3 If the frequency of alternating current is tripled, how will it affect resistance R, A. The ratio of the primary winding to the secondary is 10:1. If the transformer
inductive reactance XL and capacitive reactance XC? is 90% efficient, calculate (i) the power output (ii) the voltage and (iii) the
Q.4 For a given ac circuit, differentiate between resistance, reactance and current in the secondary coil.
impedance.

133 135
 used as the core material because it is a soft ferromagnetic substance and SELF ASSESSMENT
hence reduces hysteresis losses. Typical transformers have power
MAX. MARKS: 25 TIME: 40 MIN.
efficiencies from 90% to 99%. In the discussion that follows, we assume an
ideal transformer, one in which the energy losses in the windings and core Q. Questions Marks
are zero. No.
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
1. Name the different types of losses involve in transformer. (1) There are 12 questions in all. All questions are compulsory
2. How to minimise eddy current losses in transformer? (2) This question paper has five sections: Section A, B, C, D and E.
All the sections are compulsory.
3. What cause the Hysteresis loss?
(3) Section A contains 4 MCQ and 2 assertion reason question of
4. Which type of transformer used at the receiving end? 1 mark each, Section B contains 2 questions of 2 mark each,
Section C contains 2 questions of 3 marks, Section D contains
1 case study based question of 4 marks and Section E contains
Competency based questions: 1 long answer questions of 5 marks.
Q.1 An alternating current is that whose magnitude changes continuously with (4) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has
time and direction reverses periodically and the current that flows with same been provided in Section B, C, and E. You have to attempt only
one of the choices in such questions.
magnitude in same direction is direct current. Use of calculators is not allowed.
(i) If an ammeter is used to measure alternating current in circuit, which value Section – A
of current will it read 1 In the case of an inductor 1
𝜋
(a) Peak (b) rms (c) Instantaneous (d) Average (a) voltage lags the current by 2
(ii) If T is the time period of given alternating current, then how much time it (b) voltage leads the current by
𝜋
2
requires to reach its peak value starting from zero 𝜋
(c) voltage lags the current by
(a) T (b) T/2 (c) T/4 (d) T/8 3
𝜋
(iii) What is the average value of alternating current over one complete cycle (d) voltage lags the current by 4
(a) 0 (b) Im (c) Im/2 (d) Im/4 2 In an A.C. circuit the current 1
(iv)For a 220 V mains of alternating voltage peak value will be (a) Always leads the voltage
(b) Always lags behind the voltage
(a) 220 V (b) 220/√2 V (c) 220√2 V (d) 110 V (c) Is always in phase with the voltage
(d) May lead or lag behind or be in phase with the voltage
Q.2 Quantity that measures the opposition 3 A power transformer is used to step up an alternating e.m.f. of 220 1
offered by a circuit to the flow of current is V to 11 kV to transmit 4.4 kW of power. If the primary coil has 1000
called impedance. For an ac circuit, turns, what is the current rating of the secondary? Assume 100%
reactance corresponding to inductor and efficiency for the transformer
(a) 4 A
capacitor is also considered, along with
(b) 0.4 A
resistance. So, impedance for the ac circuit (c) 0.04 A
can be given mathematically as Z2 = R2 + X2, (d) 0.2 A
where X is the reactance. 4 The turns ratio of a transformer is given as 2:3.If the current through 1
Impedance triangle is a right-angled triangle given as in the diagram and the primary coil is 3A, then the current in secondary coil is
satisfy the above mathematical equation. Also phase angle ∅ between (a) 1A
current and voltage can be given by using this impedance triangle. (b) 4.5A
(c) 2A
(i) Impedance for a purely capacitive circuit depends on
(d) 1.5A
(a) f (b) 2f (c) 1/f (d) 1/2f Directions for Q. No.5 and 6
(ii) Impedance for a purely inductive circuit depends on (a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the
(a) f (b) 2f (c) 1/f (d) 1/2f correct explanation of the assertion.
(iii) For ac circuit containing resistor only, value of Φ will be (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
(a)0 (b) π/2 (c) - π/2 (d) π correct explanation of the assertion.

137 139
 (i) If an ammeter is used to measure alternating current in circuit,
which value of current will it read
(a) Peak (b) rms (c) Instantaneous (d) Average MIND MAP ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVE
(ii) If T is the time period of given alternating current, then how
much time it requires to reach its peak value starting from zero
(b) T (b) T/2 (c) T/4 (d) T/8
(iii) What is the average value of alternating current over one
complete cycle
(b) 0 (b) Im (c) Im/2 (d) Im/4
(iv)For a 220 V mains of alternating voltage peak value will be
(b) 220 V (b) 220/√2 V (c) 220√2 V (d) 110 V
Section – E
12 Explain with the help of a labelled diagram, the principle and 5
working of an ac generator. Write the expression for the emf
generated in the coil in terms of speed of rotation. Can the current
produced by an ac generator be measured with a moving coil
galvanometer?
OR
12 (i) A device ‘X’ is connected to an ac source. The variation of 5
voltage, current and power in one complete cycle is shown in the
figure.

(a) Which curve shows power consumption over a full cycle?

(b) What is the average power consumption over a cycle?
(c) Identify the device ‘X’.
(ii) A light bulb is rated as 150 W for 220 V AC supply of 60 Hz.
Calculate
(a) resistance of the bulb
(b) the rms current through the bulb.

L1 - MCQs

********** Q1. Which of the following is false for electromagnetic waves?

(a) transverse (b) non-mechanical waves
(c) longitudinal (d) produced by accelerating charges
Q2. If the magnetic monopole exists, then which of the Maxwell’s equation to be
modified?
(a) ∮E.dS= q/ ∈o (b) ∮ B.dS =0 (c)∮E.dl = - d∅B /dt (d) ∮ E.dl = μo(Ic+Id)
Q3. Which of the following is NOT true for electromagnetic waves?
(a) They transport energy
(b) They have momentum
(c) They travel at different speeds in air depending on their frequency

141 143
 LEVEL 3- MCQ
L2-SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (2 MARKS)
Q1. The relative magnetic permeability of the medium is 2.5 and the relative
electrical permittivity of the medium is 2.25. Compute the refractive index of the Q.3 A plane electromagnetic wave travels in vacuum along z-direction. What can 2
medium. you say about the directions of its electric and magnetic field vectors? If the
frequency of the wave is 30 MHz, what is its wavelength?
(a) 2.37 (b) 4.75 (c) 0.25 (d) 1.05
Q2. Compute the speed of the electromagnetic wave in a medium if the amplitude Q.4 (a) Identify the part of EM spectrum used in 2
of electric and magnetic fields are 3 × 104 and 2 × 10-4 tesla, respectively (i) RADAR
(a)3 ×108m/s (b) 1.5 × 108m/s (c) 6 × 108 m/s (d) 5 ×108 m/s (ii) Eye surgery. Write the frequency range. (CBSE 2019)
Q.3 As the speed decreases if we change the medium of electromagnetic waves (b)Prove that the average energy density of oscillating Electric field is equal to that
from air to water, the frequency of oscillating magnetic field?
(a) also decreases (b) also increases (c) remains same (d) may increase or
decrease L-1 SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)
Q 4 When the medium of electromagnetic waves changes from air to water, their Q.1 Answer the following questions.
speed (i) Show, by giving a simple example, how EM waves carry energy and momentum.
(a) increases (b) remains same (c)decreases (d)may increase or decrease (ii) How are microwaves produced? Why is it necessary in microwaves ovens to
select the frequency of microwaves to match the resonant frequency of water
molecules?
L-3 HIGHER ORDER QUESTION(NEET/JEE)
(iii) Write two important uses of infrared waves.
Q.1 Which of the following are not electromagnetic waves? (cbse pmt ) 1
a) gamma rays b) beta rays c) x rays d)heat rays L-2 SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)
Q.2 The structure of the solid is investigated by using (cbse pmt) 1
Q.1 Name the parts of the electromagnetic spectrum which is
a) cosmic rays b) x rays c) Gamma rays d) Infrared radiations
(i) Suitable for RADAR systems in aircraft navigations.
Q.3 The energy of the electromagnetic wave is of the order of 15kev.to which part 1
(ii) Used to treat muscular strain.
of the spectrum does it belong.
(iii) Used as a diagnostic tool in medicine. Write in brief, how these waves can be
a) gamma rays b) X- rays c)Infra res rays d) ultraviolet rays (AIPMT2015)
produced?
Q.4 The ratio of contributions made by the electric and magnetic components to 1
the intensity of electromagnetic wave is ( c= is speed of em wave) L-3 SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)
a) 1:1 b) 1: c c) 1: c2 d) c : 1 NEET 2020
Q.1 (i) Arrange the following electromagnetic waves in the descending order of their
Q.5. A radiation energy E falls normally on a perfect reflecting surface. The
wavelengths.
momentum transferred to the surface ( c – velocity of light) is 1
(a) Microwaves (b) Infrared rays (c) Ultraviolet radiation (d) g-rays
a) 2E/c b) 2E/c2 c) E /c2 d) E/c (AIPMT2015)
(ii) Write one use each of any two of them
Q6. Out of the following options which one can be used to produced a propagating 1
Q.2 The oscillating magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by
electromagnetic wave. (NEET 2016)
By = (8 × 10-6) sin [2 × 10-11 t + 300 π x] T
a) A charge moving at constant velocity
(i) Calculate the wavelength of the electro-magnetic wave.
b) A stationary charge
(ii) Write down the expression for the oscillating electric field.
c) A charge less particle
Q.3 The oscillating electric field of an electromagnetic wave is given by:
d) An accelerating charge
E = 30 sin [2 × 1011 t + 300 π x] Vm-1
Q.7.A 100 ohm resistance and a capacitor of 100ohm reactance are connected in 1
(a) Obtain the value of the wavelength of the electromagnetic wave.
series across 220V source. When the capacitor is 50% charged ,the peak value of
(b) Write down the expression for the oscillating magnetic field.
the displacement is
a) 4.4A b) 11√2 A c) 2.2A d) 11A (NEET 2016)
Q.8. The dimension of(𝜇0𝜀0)-1/2 are 1
a) L1/2 T-1/2 b) L-1T c) LT-1 d) L-1/2T1/2 (CBSE PMT 11,12)

145 147
 CCT BASED
4 SELF ASSESSMENT QUESTIONS (25 M)
The electromagnetic spectrum consists of visible light, x- rays, gamma rays, M
microwaves, ultraviolet rays, radio waves and infrared waves. The waves used in Q.1Which of the following is the infrared wavelength? 1
radio and television communication are the radio waves having frequency range (a) 10–4 cm (b) 10–5 cm (c) 10–6 cm (d) 10–7 cm
500 kHz to 1000MHz. In the ultrahigh frequency bands cellular phones use the Q.2 Radio waves do not penetrate in the band of 1
radio waves to transmit the voice. Microwaves are the waves having short (a) ionosphere (b) mesosphere (c) troposphere (d) stratosphere
wavelengths. In aircraft navigation, for the radar system microwaves are used due Q.3 What is the cause of “Green house effect”? 1
to their short wavelength. Infrared waves are also called heat waves. Infrared (a) Infrared rays (b) Ultraviolet rays (c) X-rays (d) Radio waves
radiation has the most importance in maintaining earth’s surface temperature
through the greenhouse effect. The infrared waves have vast applications in real Q.4 Assertion: Displacement current goes through the gap between the plates of a 1
life such as infrared detectors that are used for military purposes and also to see capacitor when the charge of the capacitor does not change.
the growth of crops. The waves which are visible to the human eye are the visible Reason: The displacement current arises in the region in which the electric field
rays. Visible rays are having frequency range as 4x1014Hz to 7x1014 Hz. The huge is constant with time.
source of ultraviolet light is the sun. Ultraviolet rays have wavelength range from Q.5 Assertion: When variable frequency a.c. sour ce is connected to a capacitor, 1
4x10-7m to 6x10-10m. X-rays are the rays having most importance in medical displacement current increases with increase in frequency.
applications which have a wavelength range 10nm to10 -4 nm. X-rays are used to Reason: As frequency increases conduction current also increases.
destroy the living tissue and organisms in the medical field. Then gamma rays are
the rays having wavelength range as 10-10m to 10-14m which are the high frequency Q.6 Identify the EM waves whose wavelength vary as 2
radiations mostly produced in nuclear reactions. Gamma rays are also used to (a)10-12m<1<10-8m
destroy cancer cells in the medical field. (b)10-3m<1<10-1m
Write one use for each. (CBSE 2017)
Q.1The TV waves range from _____ which are the radio waves. 1
Q.7 Name the Electromagnetic radiations used for 2
M
(i)Water purification (ii) Eye surgery (CBSE 2018)
(a) 54Hz to 890Hz (b) 54 MHz to 890 MHz (c) 500 kHz to 1000 MHz (d) 1000
Hz to 1000 KHz
Q 8.How is displacement current produced between plates of parallel plates 2
during charging? (CBSE 2020)
Q.2 The domestic application of microwaves used is____ 1
M
Q 9. Give two uses of 1) IR radiation 2) Microwaves 3) UV radiation 3
(a) electric induction (b) water heater (c) TV (d) microwave oven
Q.10. Write down the properties of electromagnetic waves. 3
Q.3 The part of the electromagnetic spectrum which is detected by human eye is 1
having wavelength range as M
CASE BASED QUESTION 4
a) 900 – 400 nm b) 200 – 400 mm c) 700 – 400 mm d) 700 – 400 nm
Radio waves are produced by the accelerated motion of charges in conducting
Q.4 Why infrared waves are also called heat waves? 1 wires. Microwaves are produced by special vacuum tubes. Infrared waves are
OR M produced by hot bodies and molecules also known as heat waves. UV rays are
How does the ozone layer in the atmosphere play a protective role? produced by special lamps and very hot bodies like Sun.

COMPETENCY BASED QUESTION

All the known radiations from a big family of electromagnetic waves which stretch
over a large range of wavelengths. Electromagnetic wave include radio waves,
microwaves, visible light waves, infrared rays, UV rays, X-rays and gamma rays.
The orderly distribution of the electromagnetic waves in accordance with their
wavelength or frequency into distinct groups having widely differing properties is
electromagnetic spectrum.

149 151
 UNIT- VI OPTICS Lens maker's formula. The relation connecting the focal length of the lens with the
radii of curvature of its two surfaces and the refractive index of the material of the lens
CH-9 RAY OPTICS & OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS is called lens maker's formula.
1 1 1
GIST Mathematically- 𝑓
= (𝜇 − 1) (𝑅 − 𝑅2
)
1

Ray Optics: Reflection of light, spherical mirrors, mirror formula, refraction of light, The focal length of a convex lens is taken as positive, while that of concave lens
total internal reflection and optical fibers, refraction at spherical surfaces, lenses, thin is taken as negative.
lens formula, lens maker‟s formula, magnification, power of a lens, combination of thin
lenses in contact, refraction of light through a prism. Lens formula/equation. The relation between the focal
length, the object and image distances is called lens
Optical instruments: Microscopes and astronomical telescopes (reflecting and equation.
refracting) and their magnifying powers.
1 1 1
Mathematically- − =
Reflection of Light 𝑣 𝑢 𝑓

Reflection. When light travelling in a medium strikes a reflecting surface, it goes back Linear magnification. The ratio of the size of the image
into the same medium obeying certain (formed by the lens) to the size of the object is called
linear magnification produced by the lens.
laws. This phenomenon is known as reflection of light.
𝐼 𝑣 𝑓 𝑓−𝑣
Mathematically- m = = − = =
Laws of reflection. 1. The incident ray, the normal to the reflecting surface at the 𝑂 𝑢 𝑓+ 𝑢 𝑓
point of incidence and the reflected ray all lie in the same plane.
Power of a lens. It is defined as the reciprocal of the focal length of the lens in metre.
2. The angle of incidence (i) is always equal to the angle of reflection (r). 1 1 1
Mathematically P = 𝑓 = (𝜇 − 1) (𝑅 − )
1 𝑅2
Spherical mirror. The portion of a reflecting surface, which forms part of a sphere, is
called a spherical mirror. Two thin lenses placed in contact. When two lenses of focal lengths 𝑓1 and 𝑓2 are
Concave spherical mirror. A spherical mirror, whose reflecting surface is towards placed in contact, the focal
the centre of the sphere, of which the mirror forms a part is called concave spherical length of the combination is given by
1
=
1
+
1
mirror. 𝑓 𝑓1 𝑓2

Convex spherical mirror. A spherical mirror, whose reflecting surface is away from Power of the equivalent lens: P =P1 +P2
the centre of the sphere of which the mirror forms a part is called convex spherical Magnification produced by equivalent lens: m =
mirror. 𝑚1 𝑥 𝑚2
Relation between f and R: f =R/2 Spherical aberration. The inability of a lens of large
According to new cartesian sign conventions, both f and R, are taken as negative for aperture to bring all the rays in a wide beam of light falling
a concave mirror and positive for a convex mirror. on it to focus at a single point is called spherical aberration.

Mirror formula
1
+
1
=
1 DISPERSION OF LIGHT
𝑣 𝑢 𝑓
``Refraction through a prism. A prism is the portion of a transparent refracting medium
where u and v denote the object and image distances from the pole of the mirror. bound by two plane surfaces meeting each other along a straight edge.
According to new cartesian sign conventions, the distances of the real objects and real When a ray of light is incident on one face of a prism having angle of prism equal to A
images (both lie in front of the mirror) are taken as negative, while those of virtual at an angle of incidence i, it suffers successive refractions at the two surfaces (angles
objects and virtual images (both lie behind the mirror) are taken as positive. of refraction at the two surfaces are r, and ry respectively) and then emerges out of it
Linear magnification. The ratio of the size of the image (formed by the mirror) to the making an angle of emergence equal to e. Due to refraction at the two surfaces, the
size of the object is called linear magnification produced by the mirror. incident ray deviates from its path through an angle 6, called angle of deviation
𝐼 𝑣 𝑓 𝑓−𝑣 Mathematically-
Mathematically- m = = −𝑢 = =
𝑂 𝑓−𝑢 𝑓 𝑠𝑖𝑛 (𝐴+ 𝛿𝑚
)
1. A = 𝑟1 + 𝑟2 2. A + δ = I + e 3. 𝜇 = 𝐴
2
(when the prism is placed in
𝑠𝑖𝑛
2
minimum deviation position) 4, 𝛿 =A (𝜇 -1) (when angle of prism is small)

153 155
 8 The direction of ray of light incident on a concave mirror is shown
CONCEPT MAP by PQ while directions in which the ray would travel after
reflection is shown by four rays marked 1, 2, 3 and 4. Which
of the four rays correctly shows the direction of reflected
ray?

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

9 In the formation of a rainbow, the light from the sun on water droplets undergoes
(a) dispersion only. (b) only TIR. (c) dispersion, refraction and TIR.
(d) scattering.
10 An object is placed at a distance of 0.5 m in front of a plane mirror. The distance
between object and image will be
(a) 0.25 m (b) 0.5 m (c) 1.0 m (d) 2.0 m
11 The length of an astronomical telescope for normal vision (relaxed eye) will be
(a) fo – fe (b)fo /fe (c) fo × fe (d) fo + fe
12 If a convex lens of focal length 80 cm and a concave lens of focal length 50 cm
are combined together, what will be their resulting power?
(a) + 6.5 D (b) – 6.5 D (c) + 7.5 D (d) – 0.75 D

13 A prism has a refractive angle 60°. When a light ray is incident at 50°, then
minimum deviation is obtained. What is the value of minimum deviation?
(a) 40° (b) 45° (c) 50° (d) 60°
14 A lens of power 3.5D is placed in contact with a lens of power -2.5D. The
combination will behave like
a) A convergent lens of focal length 100cm
b) A divergent lens of focal length 100cm
c) A convergent lens of focal length 200cm
d) A divergent lens of focal length 200cm
15 A ray of light passes through a plane glass slab of thickness t and refractive index
µ = 1.5, The angle between the incident ray and the emergent ray will be
(a)0º (b)30 º (c)45º (d) 60º
16 A convex length of focal length is put in contact with a concave lens of same focal
length. The equivalent focal length of the combination is
(a)zero (b)f (c)2f (d)Infinity
17 The focal length of plane mirror is

159
157
 a)Zero b)f/2 c)f d)2f A. The image moves slower initially and faster later on, away from the mirror.

5 When a thin convex lens of glass 5D is immersed in a liquid, it behaves as a B. The image moves faster initially and slower later on, towards the mirror.
divergent lens of focal length 100 cm. What is the refractive index of the liquid?
C. The image moves at a constant speed, faster than the object, away from the
a)1/3 b)2/3 c)3/5 d)5/3 mirror.

6 incident on a glass plate at an incident angle of 60°. If reflected and refracted rays D. The image moves at a constant speed, slower than the object, towards the
are mutually perpendicular, then refractrive index of the glass plate is _____ .
mirror.
(a)√2 (b) √3 (c)1/√2 (d)1/√3
7 A ray of light is incident normally on an isosceles right-angled prism,
7 Light of certain colour has 2000 waves in a millimeter in air. What will be the travels as shown in figure. The least value of the refractive index
wavelength of this light in medium of refractive index 1.25 ? of the prism must be:
(a) 1000 (b) 2000 (c) 3000 (d) 4000
a)√2 b)√3 c)2.0 d)1.5
8 A convex lens of glass (n = 1.5) has focal length of 20 cm. The lens is immersed
in water of refractive index 1.33. The change in the focal length of convex lens is
(a) 1.86 cm (b) 58.2 cm (c) 4.62 cm (d) 6.44 cm
8 A transparent container contains layers of 3 immiscible transparent liquids of
9 For a thin lens when the heights of the object and the image are equal, object different refractive indices. A laser beam is
distance and image distance are equal to _____ . pointed at the layer I as shown in the figure.
(a)f (b) 4f (c) 3f (d) 2f
What minimum angle of θ1 will ensure that
10 the refractive index of an equilateral prism when light is incident at grazing laser beam does not enter region III at all?
incidence and emerges at grazing emergence:
a)θ= sin-1 (1/5) b) sin-1 (1/15) c) sin-1 (2/5)
a)1.5 b) 1.8 c) 1.33 d) 2 d)_ sin-1 (3/5)

LEVEL 3 (MCQ QUESTIONS) 9 Two statements are given below. One is labelled Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled Reason (R). Read the statements carefully and choose the option that
1 A biconcave lens of power P vertically splits into two identical plano-concave parts. correctly describes statements A and R.
The power of each part will be
Assertion(A): A ray of light travelling from one media to another always changes
(a) 2P (b) P/2 (c) P (d) P/√2
its path.
2 An incident light ray falls on a glass prism at an angle of 60o and emerges with
Reason(R): The speed of light changes when it travels from one medium to
an angle of 30 with its initial incident direction. another.

If the angle of the prism is 30o, then which of the following is an INCORRECT 10 In the figure shown μ1, μ2, μ3, μ4 and μ5 are the refractive indices of the
mediums 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 respectively. Consider the following
statement? a. μ1 = μ2
A. Refractive index of the prism is √3. b. μ3 = μ4 = μ5
c. μ2 < μ3
B. The light undergoes minimum deviation through the prism (i.e., r1 = r2). d. μ4 > μ5
C. The emergent ray is perpendicular to the face from which it emerges. Which of the relations of refractive indices are
correct?
D. Angle of refraction r1 at the incident face is same as angle of the prism.

161 163
 b) Write the basic assumptions in the derivation of lens maker’s formula .

LEVEL 2 (5 M QUESTIONS)
1 Deduce the expression for the magnifying power of the microscope with a ray
LEVEL-3 (2 M QUESTIONS) diagram for the formation of image by a compound microscope.
1 (a) The bluish colour predominates in the clear sky. Why? Explain, i)Why must both the object and the eyepiece of a compound microscope
(b) Violet colour is seen at the bottom of the spectrum when white light is dispersed have short focal lengths?-
by a prism. State reasons to explain these observations. ii)While viewing through a compound microscope, why should our eyes be
2 Write 4 advantages of reflecting type telescope over refracting type? positioned not on the eyepiece but a short distance away from it for best viewing?

3 A concave lens made of material of refractive index ‘n2’is held in a reference LEVEL 3 (5 M QUESTIONS)
medium of refractive index ‘n1’. Trace the path of parallel beam of light passing
1. i)Draw a ray diagram showing the formation of the image by a point object on the
through the lens when: i)n1 = n2 (ii) n1 < n2 (iii) n1 > n2 . In which case the lens
will behave as plain glass? principal axis of a spherical concave surface separating two media of refractive
indices n1 and n2, when a point source is kept in the rarer medium of refractive
LEVEL-1 (3 M QUESTIONS) index n1. Derive the relation between object and image distance in terms of
refractive index of the medium and radius of curvature of the surface.
1 An equi-convex lens of radius of curvature R is cut into two equal parts by a vertical
ii)Light from a point source in air falls on a convex spherical glass surface of
plane, so it becomes a Plano convex lens. If f is the focal length of the equi-convex
refractive index 1.5 and radius of curvature 20 cm. The distance of light source
lens, then what will be focal length of Plano convex lens?
from the glass surface is 100 cm. At what position is the image formed?
2 Derive mirror equation for a convex mirror for real image.
LEVEL-1 (NUMERICALS)
3 a)A biconvex lens made of a transparent material of refractive index 1.25 is
immersed in water of refractive index 1.33. Will the lens behave as a converging 1 A ray of light incident on a equilateral prism propagates parallel to the baseline of 2
or a diverging lens? Give a reason. the prism inside it. Find the angle of incidence of this ray, given the refractive index
b) A convex lens is placed in contact with a plane mirror. A point object at a of the material of the prism is √3 ?
distance of 20 cm on the axis of this combination has its image coinciding with 2 What is the focal length of a combination of a convex lens of focal length 30 cm 2
itself. What is the focal length of the lens? Draw related Ray Diagram. and a concave lens of focal length 20 cm in contact? Is the system a converging
4 Using the ray diagram for a system of two lenses of focal lengths f1 and f2 in or a diverging lens? Ignore thickness of lenses.
contact with each other, show that two lens system can be regarded as equivalent 3 Calculate the speed of light in a medium whose critical angle is 45°. Does critical 2
to a single lens of focal length f, where angle for a given pair of media depend on wave length of incident light? Give
reason.
4 The radii of curvature of the faces of a double convex lens are 10cm and 15cm. If 2
Also write the relation for the equivalent power of the lens combination. the focal length of the lens is 12cm, find the refractive index of the material of the
lens?
5 Derive thin prism formula
LEVEL-2 (NUMERICALS)
LEVEL-2 (3 M QUESTIONS)
1 Produce a relation between real depth and apparent depth.

2 Using MIRROR FORMULA , show that a convex mirror always produces a virtual
image, independent of the location of the object & draw the related ray diagram.

165 167
The reflecting telescope, which uses mirrors to collect and focus light, was d) He has to direction the beam at an angle to the vertical which is slightly more
invented within a few decades of the first refracting telescope. than the critical angle of incidence for the total internal reflection
In the 20th century, many new types of telescopes were invented, including radio
2. The study of waves
telescopes in the 1930s and infrared telescopes in the 1960s..
in two dimensions is
often done using a
ripple tank. A ripple
tank is a large glass-
bottomed tank of
water that is used to
study the behavior
of water waves. A
light typically shines
upon the water from above and illuminates a white sheet of paper placed directly
below the tank. Light interacts differently with the varying curvature of the water's
surface, resulting in the projection of bright and dark regions onto a sheet of paper
below the tank. As the water waves move through the ripple tank, the dark and
i) The magnifying power of an astronomical telescope in normal adjustment is 100. bright spots move as well. As the waves encounter obstacles in their path, their
What is the focal length of the objectives and eyepiece of the distance between behavior can be observed by watching the movement of the dark and bright spots
them is 101 cm? on the sheet of paper. Ripple tank demonstrations are commonly done in a
a. 1 cm and 10 cm respectively Physics class in order to discuss the principles underlying the reflection, refraction,
b. 1 cm and 100 cm respectively and diffraction of waves.
c. 10 cm and 1 cm respectively
1.Assertion : Plane mirror may form real image.
d. 100 cm and 1 cm respectively
Reason : Plane mirror forms virtual image, if object is real.
ii) If the focal length of the objective lens is increased then ii) A biconvex lens made of a transparent material of refractive index 1.25 is
a)Magnifying power of microscope will increase but that of telescope will decrease immersed in water of refractive index 1.33. Will the lens behave as a converging
b)Magnifying power of microscope and telescope both will increase lens? Give a reason.
c)Magnifying power of microscope and telescope both will decrease
d)The magnifying power of microscope will decrease but that of the telescope will iii) A transparent cube contains a small air bubble. Its apparent distance is 2 cm
increase when seen through one face and 5 cm when seen through other face. If the
refractive index of the material of the cube is 1.5, the real length of the edge of
.iii) The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. When it is adjusted for parallel rays, cube must be:
the distance between the objective and the eye-piece is found to be 20 cm. The a) 7 cm b) 7.5 cm c) 10.5 cm d) 20 cm
focal lengths of the lenses are
a) 18 cm, 2 cm b) 11 cm, 9 cm c)10 cm, 10 cm d) 15 cm, 5 cm iv)A body is located on a wall. Its image of equal size is to be obtained on a parallel
wall with the help of a convex lens. The lens is placed at a distance d ahead of
iv) ) In a compound microscope, magnifying power is 95 and the distance of the second wall, then the required focal length will be:
object from the objective lens is 1/38 cm. The focal length of the objective lens ¼ A) only d/4 B) only d/2 C) more than d/4 but less than d/2 D)less than d/4
cm. What is the magnification of eyepiece?
a) 5 b) 10 c) 100 d) 200 CCT BASED QUESTIONS
1 A comprehensive eye exam is simple and comfortable. It shouldn't take more than 4
45 to 90 minutes. Here is what the exam should include:
169 171
 SELF ASSESMENT TEST type of optical telescope. A schematic of a simple telescope is a good example of
the use of two lenses to focus the image of one lens:
Note: Q. No. 1-4 is of 01 mark each, Q. No. 5-6 is of 02 marks each, Q.No.7 is of
03 marks, Q. No. 8 is a case study based and is of 04 marks, Q. No. 11 is of 5
marks.
SN Question M
ar
ks
Half of the lens is wrapped in black paper. How will it change the image?
1. a)Size of image is halved 1
b)Intensity of image is halved
c)There is no change in the size of image or intensity
d) intensity of the image is reduced i)In Ramsden eyepiece, the two plano-convex lenses each of focal length are
A student measures the focal length of a convex lens by putting an object pin at a separated by a distance 12 cm. The equivalent focal length (in cm) of the eyepiece
2. distance 'u' from the lens and measuring the distance 'v' of the image pin. The graph 1 is
between 'u' and 'v' plotted by the student should look like
a)10.5 b) 12.0 c) 13.5 d) 15.5

ii)The sun's diameter is 1.4×109m and its distance from the earth is 1011m. The
diameter of its image, formed by a convex lens of focal length 2m will be

a)0.7 cm b)1.4 cm c)2.8 cm d)Zero (i.e. point image)

iii) If aperture of lens is halved then image will be

a) No effect on size b) Intensity of image decreases
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these

Assertion (A): Refractive index of glass with respect to air is different for red light iv)A diver in a swimming pool wants to signal his distress to a person lying on the
and violet light. edge of the pool by flashing his water proof flash light
Reason (R): Refractive index of a pair of media does not depends on the
3. wavelength of light used. 1 a) He must direct the beam vertically upwards
a- Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is the correct b) He has to direct the beam horizontally
explanation of assertion. c) He has to direct the beam at an angle to the vertical which is slightly less than
b- Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is not a correct the critical angle of incidence for total internal reflection
explanation of assertion. d) He has to direction the beam at an angle to the vertical which is slightly more
c- Assertion is correct but the reason is incorrect than the critical angle of incidence for the total internal reflection
d- Assertion is incorrect but the reason is correct.
Assertion: The focal length of the convex mirror will increase, if the mirror is placed 12 (i) Draw a labelled ray diagram to obtain the real image formed by an astronomical 5
4. inwater. telescope in normal adjustment position. Define its magnifying power. Deduce
Reason: The focal length of a convex mirror of radius R is equal to , f = R/2 1 expression .
(ii) You are given three lenses of power 0.5 D, 4 D and 10 D to design a telescope.
(a) Which lenses should be used as objective and eyepiece? Justify your answer.
(b) Why is the aperture of the objective preferred to be large?

173 175
 UNIT VI-OPTICS CONCEPT MAP/MIND MAP:
CH10: WAVE OPTICS

GIST OF THE CHAPTER:

1. Wave Nature of Light: Huygen’s Theory

There are some phenomena like interference, diffraction and polarisation which could
not be explained by Newton’s corpuscular theory. These were explained by wave
theory first proposed by Huygen.
The assumptions of Huygen’s wave theory are: (i) A source sends waves in all
possible directions.The locus of particles of a medium vibrating in the same phase is
called a wavefront. For a point source, the wavefront is spherical; while for a line
source the wavefront is cylindrical. A distant wavefront is plane. (ii) Each point of a
wavefront acts as a source of secondary wavelets. The envelope of all wavelets at a
given instant gives the position of a new wavefront.

2. Wavefront
A wavefront is defined as the locus of all the particles which are vibrating in the same
phase. The perpendicular line drawn at any point on the wavefront represents the
direction of propagation of the wave at that point and is called the ‘ray’.
Types of Wavefronts: The wavefronts can be of different shapes. In general, we
experience three types of wavefronts.
(i) Spherical Wavefront: If the waves in a medium are originating from a point source,
then they propagate in all directions. If we draw a spherical surface centred at point-
source, then all the particles of the medium lying on that spherical surface will be in
the same phase, because the disturbance starting from the source will reach all these
points simultaneously. Hence in this case, the wavefront will be spherical and the rays
will be the radial lines.
(ii) Cylindrical Wavefront: If the waves in a medium are originating from a line source,
then they too propagate in all directions. In this case the locus of particles vibrating in
the same phase will be a cylindrical surface. Hence in this case the wavefront will be
cylindrical.
(iii) Plane Wavefront: At large distance from the source, the radii of spherical or
cylindrical wavefront will be too large and a small part of the wavefront will appear to
be plane. At infinite distance from the source, the wavefronts are always plane and
the rays are parallel straight lines.
3. Coherent and Incoherent Sources of Light The sources of light emitting waves
of same frequency having zero or constant initial phase difference are called coherent
sources.The sources of light emitting waves with a random phase difference are called
incoherent sources.For interference phenomenon, the sources must be coherent.
Methods of Producing Coherent Sources: Two independent sources can never be
coherent sources. There are two broad ways of producing coherent sources for the
same source.

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 LEVEL 3 MCQ wavelets to trace the propagation of the refracted wavefront. Hence verify Snell’s
11 How can the fringe width increase in Young’s double-slit experiment? law of refraction.
a. By decreasing the width of the slit 2 How is a wavefront defined? Using Huygen’s construction draw a figure showing
b. By reducing the separation of slits
the propagation of a plane wave reflecting at the interface of the two media.
c. By reducing the wavelength of the slits
d. By decreasing the distance between slits and the screen Show that the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection.
3 Why cannot two independent monochromatic sources produce sustained
12 What is the locus of all particles in a medium vibrating in the same phase interference patterns? Deduce, with the help of Young’s arrangement to produce
called? interference pattern, an expression for the fringe width.
a. Fringe b.Wavelet c.Wavefront d.None of the above
4 The intensity at the central maxima (O) in a Young’s double slit experiment is Io.
13 Which of the following factors does the intensity of light depend on? If the distance OP equals one-third of the fringe width of the pattern, show that
a. Frequency b.Wavelength c.Amplitude d.Velocity
the intensity at point P would be .
14 Two light sources are said to be coherent when both the sources of light emit
light of LEVEL 2 (3M QUESTIONS)
a. The same amplitude and phase
b. The same intensity and wavelength How is Huygen’s principle used to obtain the diffraction pattern due to a single
c. The same speed 5 slit? Show the plot of variation of intensity with angle and state the reason for the
d. The same wavelength and constant phase difference
reduction in intensity of secondary maxima compared to central maximum.
15 Which of the following is conserved when light waves interfere?
In a double slit interference experiment, the two coherent beams have slightly
a. Intensity b. Amplitude c. Phase d. None of the above
6 different intensities I and I + δI (δI<<I). Show that the resultant intensity at the
ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE
Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion maxima is nearly 4I while that at the minima is nearly
and Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one 7 In a single slit diffraction pattern, how does the angular width of central maximum
of the following four responses. change , when (i) width of slit is decreased (ii)distance between Slit and screen
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation is increased (iii) light of smaller visible wavelength is used?
of the Assertion. 8 Light of wavelength 550 nm is incident as parallel beam on a slit of width 0.1 mm.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation Find the angular width and the linear width of the principal maxima in the
of the Assertion. resulting diffraction pattern on a screen kept at a distance of 1.1 m from the slit,
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. which of these width would not change if the screen were moved to a distance of
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect. 2.2 m from the slit?
LEVEL 3 (3M QUESTIONS)
16 Assertion : According to Huygen’s principle, no backward wave-front is
9 Yellow light (λ=6000 Å) illuminates a single slit of width 1X10 -4m. Calculate the
possible.
distance between two dark lines on either side of central maximum when the
Reason : Amplitude of secondary wavelet is proportional to (1 + cos θ) where
diffraction pattern is viewed on a screen kept 1.5 m away from the slit.
θ is the angle between the ray at the point of consideration and the direction
of secondary wavelet. 10 A parallel beam of light of wavelength 600nm is incident normally on a slit of width
17 Assertion : No interference pattern is detected when two coherent sources ‘a’. If the distance between the slit and the screen is 0.8m and the distance of
are infinitely close to each other. second order maximum from the centre of the screen is15mm, calculate the width
Reason : The fringe width is inversely proportional to the distance between of the slit.
the two sources.
18 Assertion : It is necessary to have two waves of equal intensity to study 1. A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths 6500 Ao and 5200 Ao is used
interference pattern. to obtain interference fringes. The distance between the slits is 2.0 mm and the
distance between the plane of the slits and the screen is 120 cm.
181 183
 LEVEL 2 (5M QUESTIONS) d) divergent beam in one medium and convergent beam in the other
medium.
4 (a) In Young’s double slit experiment, deduce the conditions for obtaining
(ii) Wavefront is the locus of all points, where the particles of the medium
constructive and destructive interference fringes. Hence deduce the expression
vibrate with the same
for the fringe width. a) phase b) amplitude c) frequency d) period
(b) Show that the fringe pattern on the screen is actually a superposition of single
slit diffraction from each slit. (iii) A point source that emits waves uniformly in all directions, produces
(c) What should be the width of each slit to obtain 10 maxima of the double slit wavefronts that are
pattern within the central maximum of the single slit pattern, for green light of a) Spherical b) elliptical c) cylindrical d) planar
wavelength 500 nm, if the separation between two slits is 1 mm?
(iv)What are the types of wavefronts ?
5 (a) Using Huygen’s construction of secondary wavelets explain how a diffraction
a) Spherical b) Cylinderical c) Plane d) All of these
pattern is obtained on a screen due to a narrow slit on which a monochromatic
beam of light is incident normally. 2 Huygen's principle is the basis of
(b) Show that the angular width of the first diffraction fringe is half that of the wave theory of light. Each point on
central fringe. a wavefront acts as a fresh source
of new disturbance, called
(c) Explain why the maxima at become weaker and weaker with secondary waves or wavelets. The
increasing n. secondary wavelets spread out in
all directions with the speed light in
6 (a) Write three characteristic features to distinguish between the interference the given medium.An initially
fringes in Young’s double slit experiment and the diffraction pattern obtained due parallel cylindrical beam travels in
to a narrow single slit. a medium of refractive index u .
(b) A parallel beam of light of wavelength 500 nm falls on a narrow slit and the The intensity of the beam is
resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 1 m away. It is observed that decreasing with increasing radius.
the first minimum is a distance of 2.5 mm away from the centre. Find the width of
(i) The initial shape of the
the slit.
wavefront of the beam is
LEVEL 3 (5M QUESTIONS)
(a) planar (b) convex
7 State the essential condition for diffraction of light to take place. (c) concave (d) convex near the axis and concave near the periphery
Use Huygen’s principle to explain diffraction of light due to a narrow single slit (ii) According to Huygens Principle, the surface of constant phase is
and the formation of a pattern of fringes obtained on the screen. Sketch the
pattern of fringes formed due to diffraction at a single slit showing variation of
(a) called an optical ray (b) called a wave
intensity with angle θ.
8 Red colour of light of wavelength λ is passed from two narrow slits which are (c) called a wavefront (d) always linear in shape
distance d apart and interference pattern is obtained on the screen distance (iii) As the beam enters the medium, it will
Dapart from the plane of two slits. Then find the answer to following parts
(a) travel as a cylindrical
assuming that slit widths are equal to produce intensity I0 from each slit. (b) diverge
beam
(a) Intensity at a point on the screen, situated at a distance 1/4 th of fringe (d) diverge near tile axis and converge near the
separation from centre. (c) converge
periphery.
(b) Intensity in the screen, if the sources become incoherent by using two
different lamps behind lamps S1 and S2. (iv) Two plane wavefronts of light, one incident on a thin convex lens and another
(c) Angular position of 10th maxima, and the angular width of that fringe. on the refracting face of a thin prism. After refraction at them, the emerging
(d) Find the distance between 5th maxima and 3rd minima, at same side of wavefronts respectively become
central maxima.

185 187
 SELF ASSESSMENT d) both a and b
Time allowed: 1 hour Max. marks: 25 Q IV.) The interference and diffraction of light explains
Q.No. QUESTIONS MARKS which nature of light?
MCQ 12 (a) In Young’s double slit experiment, describe briefly how bright 5
1 Two waves are said to be coherent if they have. 1 and dark fringes are obtained on the screen kept in front of a
(a) same phase and different amplitude double slit. Hence obtain the expression for the fringe width.
(b) different frequency phase and amplitude (b) The ratio of the intensities at minima to the maxima in the
(c) same frequency but different amplitude Young’s double slit experiment is 9:25. Find the ratio of the widths
(d) same frequency, phase and amplitude of the two slits.
2 A linear aperture whose width is 0.02 cm is placed immediately in 1
front of a lens of focallength 60 cm. The aperture is illuminated
normally by a parallel beam of wavelength5 × 10 –5 cm. The
distance of the first dark band of the diffraction pattern from the
centre of the screen is
(a) 0.10 cm (b) 0.25 cm ******For detailed answers refer part II of study material*******
(c) 0.20 cm (d) 0.15 cm

3 For light diverging from a point source 1

a) the wavefront is spherical
b) the intensity decreases in proportion to the distance
squared.
c) the wavefront is parabolic.
(d) the intensity at the wavefront does not depend on the
distance.
4 In Young’s double-slit experiment, the distance between the slit 1
sources and the screen is 1 m. fringe width is
(a) 3 mm (b) 0.3 mm (c) 6 mm (d) 0.6 nm
• Question no. 5 and 6 are assertion and reason type questions.
• Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as
Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to
choose any one of the following four responses.

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct
explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct
explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
5 Assertion : In Young’s double slit experiment if wavelength of 1
incident monochromatic light is just doubled, number of bright
fringe on the screen will increase.

Reason : Maximum number of bright fringe on the screen is

inversely proportional to the wavelength of light used
6 Assertion : Thin film such as soap bubble or a thin layer of oil on 1
water show beautiful colours when illuminated by white light.
Reason : It happens due to the interference of light reflected
from upper and lower face of the thin film

189 191
 EFFECT OF FREQUENCY:
Hertz’s observation: -While demonstrating the existence of electromagnetic waves, Hertz
found that high voltage sparks passed across the metal electrodes of the detector loop more ❖ Saturation Photocurrent does
easily when the cathode was illuminated by ultraviolet light from an arc lamp. The uv light falling not change on changing
on metal surface caused the emission of negatively charged particles (electrons) into frequency of incident radiation.
surrounding space and enhance the high voltage sparks. ❖ The rate of emission of
photoelectron does not depend
on frequency of incident
Hallwachs and Lenard Observation: - It was observed that if the frequency of incident radiation.
light is less than certain minimum value (Threshold frequency) emission of photo electrons
do not takes place.

Threshold frequency. The minimum frequency (𝑣𝑶), which the incident light must possess Effect of frequency on stopping potential
so as to eject photoelectrons from a metal surface, is called threshold frequency of the ❖ Stopping potential increases on increasing frequency of incident radiation.
metal. maximum kinetic energy of photoelectron thus depends on frequency of incident
radiation
Mathematically- Work function W = h𝑣𝑶
Laws of photoelectric effect.
Graph between stopping potential and frequency
1. Photoelectric emission takes place from a metal surface, when the frequency of incident ❖ Graph between stopping potential and frequency of incident radiation is always a
light is above its threshold frequency. straight line.
❖ Slope of this graph is constant and its
2. The photoelectric emission starts as soon as the light is incident on the metal surface. ℎ
value is .
3. The maximum kinetic energy with which an electron is emitted from a metal surface is 𝑒
independent of the intensity of light and depends upon its frequency.
❖ Thus maximum kinetic
4. The number of photoelectrons emitted is independent of the frequency of the incident energy of photoelectron vary
light and depends only upon its intensity. linearly with frequency of
incident radiation.
The Effect of Intensity:- ❖ There exists a certain minimum
cut- off frequency 𝑣𝑜 for which
The number of electrons emitted per second is observed to be directly proportional to the intensity the stopping potential is zero.
of light.
EINSTEIN’S PHOTOELECTRIC THEORY
This happens above the threshold frequency.
Below this threshold frequency there is no
photocurrent at all, howsoever high the Electromagnetic Radiation energy is built up of discrete units PHOTONS – the so
intensityof light is. called quanta of energy of radiation
In interaction of Electromagnetic Radiation with matter, radiation behaves as if it is made
The graph between the photoelectric current up of particles called photons.
straight line when the frequency of light used
is value.
Photo electric emission: Each Photon of incident radiation interacts with a single
electron and if energy of photon (ℎ𝑣) is equal to or greater than work function, the electron
is emitted.

193 195
 ****************

197

199
 a. Magnetic field only b. Electric field only c. Electromagnetic field d. None of 4. The mean wavelength of light from sun is taken to be 550 nm and its mean power is
the above 3.8 × 1026W. The number of photons received by the human eye per second on the
14. The photoelectric effect is based on the law of conservation of average from sunlight is of the order of
a) 1045 b) 1042 c) 1054 d) 1051
a. Energy b. Momentum c. Mass d. Angular momentum
5. The work functions for metals A, B and C are 1.92 eV, 2.0 eV and 5.0 eV respectively.
15. Photon does not possess
The metals which will emit photoelectrons for a radiation of wavelength 4100 Å is/are
a) A only b) both A and B c) all these metals d) none
a. Energy b. Momentum c. Rest Mass d. Frequency
16. The momentum of a photon of wavelength λ is 6. Light of frequency 1.9 times the threshold frequency is incident on a photosensitive
a. hλ b. h/λ c. λ/h d. h/c λ material. If the frequency is halved and intensity is doubled, the photocurrent
17. Maximum KE of photo electrons is 4 e V Then the stopping potential is becomes
a. 4 V b. 1.6 V c. 4 J d. 4 e V
18. The slope of stopping potential vs frequency of the incident light graph is a. Doubled b) quadrupled c) halved d) zero
a. e/h b. h/e c. h/c d. c/h.
7. For a metal having a work function W0, the threshold wavelength is λ. What is the
19. Photoelectric effect shows
threshold wavelength for the metal having work function 2W0?
a. wave like behavior of light
b. particle like behavior of light a. λ/4 b)λ/2 c)2λ d) 4λ
c. both wavelike and particle like behavior 8. Radiation of frequency ν is incident on a photosensitive metal. When the frequency
d. neither wave like nor particle like behavior of light. of the incident radiation is doubled, what is the maximum kinetic energy of the
20. An electron and a proton have the same de Broglie wave length. Which of them photoelectrons?
have greater velocity?
a. 4E b) 2E c) E + hν d) E – hν
a. Electron b. proton. c. both a and b d. none of the above.
9. By what factor will the de Broglie wavelength change if the K.E if the free electron is
doubled?
LEVEL 2 a. ½ b) 1/√2 c) 2 d) 2
1. Photoelectric emission from a given surface of metal can take place when the value 10. In photoelectric effect what determines the maximum velocity of the electron
of a physical quantity is less than the energy of incident photon. The physical quantity reacting with the collector?
is
a. threshold frequency b. work function of surface c. threshold wavelength a. Frequency of incident radiation alone
b. The potential difference between the emitter and the collector
d. stopping potential c. The work function of metal
d. All of these
2. The photoelectric work function for a metal surface is 4.14eV. The cut-off wavelength
for this is ASSERTION- REASON
a. 4125 A˚ b. 2062.5A˚ c. 3000A˚ d. 6000A˚
3. 1eV is energy acquired by an electron when it is accelerated through potential Directions: In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion is given followed
difference of – by a corresponding statement of Reason just below it. Of the statements, mark the
a. 1 V b. 2 V c. 3 V d. 4 V. correct answer as:
(A)If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
4. An electron, an alpha particle, a deutron and a proton have the same KE. which assertion
one has shortest de Broglie wavelength? (B)If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
a. α particle b. electron c. proton d. deutron. assertion
(C)If assertion is true and reason is false
5. Photons of energies 1eV and 2eV are successively incident on a metallic surface of (D)If both assertion and reason are false.
work function 0.5eV. The ratio of kinetic energy of most energetic photoelectrons in LEVEL 1
the two cases will be 1. Assertion: A photon has no rest mass, yet it carries definite momentum.
a. 1:2 b.1:1 c. 1:3 d.1:4.
Reason: Momentum of photon is due to its energy and hence its equivalent mass.
6. When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength λ, the stopping (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
201 203
 LEVEL 2
LEVEL 3 1. When a given photo-sensitive material is irradiated with light of frequency 𝜈, and
11. Assertion: Photosensitivity of a metal is high if its work function is small. maximum speed of the emitted photoelectrons equals vmax. The square of v𝑚𝑎𝑥 2 is
Reason: Work function = hf0 where f0 is the threshold frequency. observed to vary with v, as per the graph shown
12. Assertion: In an experiment on photoelectric effect, a photon is incident on an in fig. Obtain expression for (i) Planck's constant
electron from one direction and the photoelectron is emitted almost in the opposite direction. and (ii) the work function of the given photo
It violates the principle of conservation of linear momentum. sensitive material, in terms of the parameter l, n
Reason: It does not violate the principle of conservation of linear momentum. and the mass m of the electrons. (iii) How is
13. Assertion: Two sources of equal intensity always emit equal number of photons threshold frequency determined from the graph?
in any time interval.
Reason: Two sources of equal intensity may emit equal number of photons in any time 2. A beam of monochromatic radiation is incident
interval. on a photosensitive Surface. Answer the following questions giving reasons. i) Do the
14. Assertion: Two photons of equal wavelength must have equal linear momentum. emitted photoelectrons have the same kinetic energy? ii) Does the kinetic energy of
Reason: Two photons of equal linear momentum will have equal wavelength. the emitted electrons depend on the intensity of incident radiation? iii) On what factors
15. Assertion: The kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted from metal surface does does the number of emitted photoelectrons depend?
not depend on the intensity of incident photon. 3. The following graph shows the variation
Reason: The ejection of electrons from metallic surface is not possible with of stopping potential V0 with the
frequency of incident photons below the threshold frequency. frequency v of the incident radiation for
two photosensitive metals X and Y. i)
2 MARKS QUESTIONS which of the metals has larger threshold
wavelength? Give reason. ii) Explain,
giving reason, which metal gives out
LEVEL 1
1. If the wavelength of an electromagnetic radiation is doubled what will happen to the electrons, having larger kinetic energy,
energy of photons? for the same wavelength of the incident radiation. iii) If the distance between the light
2. Two metals A and B have work functions 4 eV and 10 eV, respectively. Which metal source and metal X is halved, how will the kinetic energy of electrons emitted from it
has higher threshold wavelength? change? Give reason.
3. A proton and an electron have same kinetic energy. Which one has greater de-Broglie
wavelength and why? LEVEL 3
1. The given graph shows the variation of photo-electric current (I) with the applied
4. Two lines, A and B, in the plot given below show the variation of de-Broglie
voltage (V) for two different materials and for two different intensities of the incident
wavelength, λ versus 1√V, Where V is the accelerating potential difference, for two
radiations. Identify and explain using Einstein’s photo electric equation for the pair of
particles carrying the same charge. Which one of two represents a particle of smaller
curves that correspond to
mass?
(i) different materials but same intensity of incident radiation,
5. An alpha particle and a proton are accelerated through same potential difference.
(ii) different intensities but same materials.
Find the ratio (vᾳ/vp) of velocities acquired by two particles.
6. What is the effect of wavelength of incident photons on velocity of photoelectrons? A
2. Plot a graph showing the variation of stopping potential with the frequency of incident
beam of monochromatic radiation is incident on a photosensitive surface. Do the
radiation for two different photosensitive materials having work functions W1 and W2
emitted photoelectrons have the same kinetic energy? Explain.
(W1>W2). On what factors does the (i) slope and (ii) intercept of the lines depend?
LEVEL 2
1. Electrons are emitted from a photosensitive surface when it is illuminated by green
light but electron emission does not take place by yellow light. Will the electrons be
emitted when the surface is illuminated by (i) red light, (ii) blue light?
2. A proton, a neutron, an electron and α particle have same energy. Then their de-
Broglie wavelengths compare as?
3. Why do we not observe the phenomenon of photoelectric effect with non-metal?

205 207
 LEVEL 2 c. 7.76 x 10 14 /sec & 9.7 x 10 -19 J
d. 4.14 x 10 -14 /sec & 2.922 x 10 -19 J
5. Monochromatic light of frequency 6x1014 Hz is produced by a laser. The power
emitted is 2x103 W i) what is the energy of photon in the light? ii) How many photons ii) A proton of wavelength 400 nm strikes metal surface. The electrons are ejected
with velocity 5.85 × 10 5 m/s. Calculate min. energy required to remove electron
per second on the average are emitted by the source?
from metal surface. (Mass of electron = 9.1 × 10 -31 kg)
6. In an experiment on photoelectric emission, following observations were made 1) a. 29.43 ×10 -20 J b. 34.50 ×10 20 J c. 29.43 ×10 20 J d. 34.50 ×10 -20 J
Wavelength of the incident light = 2 × 10–7m 2) Stopping potential = 3V Find (i) kinetic iii) Einstein could explain photoelectric effect using Plank’s Quantum theory as
energy of photoelectrons with maximum speed (ii) work function. follows: -
7. The work function of Cesium metal is 2.14eV. When light of frequency 6 x 10 14Hz is a. Greater he frequency of incident light, greater the kinetic energy of e –
incident on the metal surface photoemission of electrons occurs. a. What is the b. Greater the intensity of light more the no. of electrons ejected.
maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons b. stopping potential c. c. Both are correct
d. Only b is correct
maximum speed of the emitted photoelectrons?
iv) Who discovered the Photoelectric effect?
LEVEL 3 a. Hertz. b. Einstein. c. Max Planck d. de-Broglie
8. Light of wavelength 2000 A0 falls on an aluminum surface. In aluminum 4.2 eV are
required to remove an electron. What is the kinetic energy of (a) fastest (b) the CCT BASED QUESTIONS
slowest photoelectron?
9. Using the graph shown in the figure for stopping potential 1. Lenard observed that when ultraviolet radiations were allowed to fall on the emitter
v/s the incident frequency of photons, calculate Planck’s plate of an evacuated glass tube, enclosing two electrodes (metal plates), and current
constant. started flowing in the circuit connecting the plates. As soon as the ultraviolet
10. The Kinetic Energy (K.E.), of a beam of electrons, radiations were stopped, the current flow also stopped. These observations proved
accelerated through a potential V, equals the energy of that it was ultraviolet radiations, falling on the emitter plate, that ejected some charged
a photon of wavelength 5460 nm. Find the de Broglie particles from the emitter and the positive plate attracted them.
wavelength associated with this beam of electrons
i) Alkali metals like Li, Na, K and Cs show photo electric effect with visible light but
CASE BASED QUESTIONS metals like Zn, Cd and Mg respond to ultraviolet light. Why?
a. Frequency of visible light is more than that for ultraviolet light
1) According to de-Broglie a moving material particle sometimes acts as a wave and b. Frequency of visible light is less than that for ultraviolet light
sometimes as a particle or a wave is associated with moving material particle c. Frequency of visible light is same for ultraviolet light
which controls the particle in every respect. The wave associated with moving d. Stopping potential for visible light is more than that for ultraviolet light
material particle is called matter wave or de-Broglie wave whose wavelength
called de-Broglie wavelength, is given by λ = h/mv
ii) Why do we not observe the phenomenon of photoelectric effect with non-metals?
i) If the momentum of a particle is doubled, then its de-Broglie wavelength will a. For non-metals the work function is high
a. remains unchanged b. become four times c. become two times b. Work function is low
d. become half c. Work function can’t be calculated
d. For non-metals, threshold frequency is low.
ii) If an electron and proton are propagating in the form of waves having the same λ iii) What is the effect of increase in intensity on photoelectric current?
, it implies that they have the same
a. Photoelectric current increases b. Decreases c. No change.
a. Energy b. Momentum c. Velocity d. angular momentum
d. Varies with the square of intensity
iii) Velocity of a body of mass m, having de-Broglie wavelength λ , is given by relation
a. v = λ h/m b. v = λm/h c. v = λ/hm d. v = h/ λm iv) How does the K.E max of the electrons emitted vary with the work function of metal?
a. It doesn’t depend on work function
iv) Moving with the same velocity, which of the following has the longest de Broglie b. It decreases as the work function increases
wavelength? c. It increases as the work function increases
a. ᵦ -particle b. α -particle c. proton d. neutron. d. Its value is doubled with the work function.

209 211
 (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D Gold Foil : Extremely thin sheet of gold, only a few atoms thick.
7. The energy required to remove electron from sodium is 2.3 eV. Does sodium show
photoelectric effect for orange light of wavelength 6800A o? - Detection Screen : Circular screen coated with zinc sulfide that fluoresces when struck
8. The given graphs show the variation of the by alpha particles.
stopping potential V0 with the frequency ν of the Procedure
incident radiations for two different
photosensitive materials A and B. Which one of 1. Alpha Particle Emission: The alpha particles were directed at the thin gold foil.
the two has higher value of work function?
Justify your answer. 2. Observation: The particles that passed through or were deflected by the foil struck the
9. A proton and a deuteron are accelerated fluorescent screen, producing tiny flashes of light (scintillations).
through the same accelerating potential. 3. Detection: A microscope was used to observe and count the scintillations at various
Which one of the two has (a) greater value of de-Broglie wavelength associated angles relative to the incident beam.
with it (b) less momentum? Give reasons to justify your answer.
10. The work function for certain metal is 1.8 eV. (a) What is the stopping potential for Observations
electrons ejected from metal, when light of 4000Ao shines on the metal? (b) What is
the maximum speed of the ejected electrons? 1. Most Particles Passed Through:The majority of the alpha particles went straight
through the gold foil with little to no deflection, suggesting that most of the atom is empty
11. According to de-Broglie a moving material particle sometimes acts as a wave and
space.
sometimes as a particle or a wave is associated with moving material particle which
controls the particle in every respect. The wave associated with moving material 2. Some Particles Deflected : A small number of alpha particles were deflected at small
particle is called matter wave or de-Broglie wave whose wavelength called de-Broglie angles, indicating the presence of a positive charge within the atom that repelled the
wavelength, is given by λ = h/mv positively charged alpha particles.
i) The dual nature of light is exhibited by
a. diffraction and photo electric effect b. photoelectric effect c. refraction and 3. Very Few Particles Reflected : A very small fraction of the particles (about 1 in 8000)
interference d. diffraction and reflection bounced back at angles greater than 90 degrees, indicating a very dense, positively
ii) If the momentum of a particle is doubled, then its de-Broglie wavelength will charged core within the atom.
a. remains unchanged b. become four times c. become two times d. become half
Conclusions
iii) If an electron and proton are propagating in the form of waves having the same λ,
it implies that they have the same 1. Existence of Nucleus : The large deflections and reflections of alpha particles could
a. Energy b. Momentum c. Velocity d. angular momentum only be explained if the positive charge and most of the mass of the atom were
iv) Velocity of a body of mass m, having de-Broglie wavelength λ, is given by relation concentrated in a small, dense region at the center of the atom. This region was named
a. v = λ h/m b. v = λm/h c. v = λ/hm d. v = h/ λm the nucleus.
12. a) What is photo electric effect? State the characteristics of photoelectric effect.
2. Atomic Model : Rutherford proposed a new model of the atom, where the atom consists
b) Explain effect of following terms on the photo electric current.
i) Intensity of light of a small, dense nucleus containing protons (and later, neutrons) surrounded by
ii) Frequency of light electrons that orbit the nucleus, much like planets orbit the sun.
iii) Potential difference between anode and cathode. OR
3. Empty Spacen: The fact that most alpha particles passed through the foil without
a) Derive the expression for the de Broglie wavelength of an electron moving under
deflection indicated that the majority of the atom’s volume is empty space.
a potential difference of V volts.
b) A deuteron and an alpha particle are accelerated through the same accelerating Significance
potential. Which one of the two has-
(I) greater value of de Broglie wavelength (II)Less kinetic energy? Explain. - Disproval of Thomson’s Model : The experiment disproved J.J. Thomson’s plum
pudding model, which suggested that electrons were uniformly distributed within a
positively charged “soup.”
*********

213 215
 Level 1
1. Who proposed the plum pudding model of the atom?
- A) Rutherford B) Thomson C) Bohr D) Dalton

2. What did Rutherford's gold foil experiment demonstrate?

- A) Electrons are in fixed orbits.
- B) Atoms have a nucleus.
- C) Atoms are indivisible.
- D) Atoms are electrically neutral.

3. What particles are found in the nucleus of an atom?

- A) Electrons and protons
- B) Electrons and neutrons
- C) Protons and neutrons
5. Success and Limitations of Bohr’s Model - D) Only protons

4. What is the charge of an electron?

- Success in explaining the hydrogen atom spectrum and its limitations.
- A) Positive B) Negative C) Neutral D) Depends on the atom
- Failure to explain spectra of multi-electron atoms and finer spectral details (Zeeman
effect and Stark effect). 5. Bohr's model states that electrons revolve around the nucleus in:
Formulae : - A) Elliptical orbits B) Fixed orbits C) Random paths D) Parabolic paths

6. When an electron jumps from a higher orbit to a lower orbit, it:

1.Magnitude of force of α particle:
- A) Absorbs energy B) Emits energy C) Remains stationary D) Loses mass

2.Total energy of the electron 7. Which series of hydrogen spectrum lies in the visible region?
- A) Lyman series B) Balmer series C) Paschen series D) Brackett series
3.Angular Momentum
8. The energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit is:
- A) Positive B) Negative C) Zero D) Depends on the orbit

9. In Bohr’s model, the angular momentum of an electron is:

4.Frequency of emitted photon
- A) Quantized B) Continuous C) Always zero D) Infinite
5.Radius of nth possible orbit
10. What is the principal quantum number \( n \) of the ground state of a hydrogen atom?
- A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3

11. The spectral lines of hydrogen were explained using:

- A) Thomson’s model B) Rutherford’s model C) Bohr’s model D) Dalton’s model
6.Energy of an electron
12. What does the Rydberg constant represent?
7.Difference in energy levels - A) Speed of light
- B) Planck's constant
- C) The constant used in calculating the wavelengths of spectral lines
- D) Mass of an electron
8.The energy of an electron in Bohr’s orbit of hydrogen atom is given by the expression
13. In the hydrogen atom, the transition from ( n = 3 ) to (n = 2 )emits a photon in which
series?
Since Z = 1 for hydrogen En = -13.6/n2 eV - A) Lyman series B) Balmer series C) Paschen series D) Pfund series

217 219
 - C) The speed of electrons in the atom Level 3
- D) The mass of the nucleus Q1.When an electron in hydrogen atom jumps from the third excited state to the ground
state, how would the de Broglie wavelength associated with the electron change? Justify
6.The ionisation potential of hydrogen is 13.6 V. The energy of the atom in n = 2 state your answer.
will be Q2.The figure shows energy level diagram of hydrogen
A) -10.2 eV B) -6.4eV C) – 3.4 eV D)– 4.4 eV atom
Find out the transition which results in the emission of
7.In Bohr’s model of the hydrogen atom, the ratio between the period of revolution of an a photon of wavelength 496 nm.
electron in the orbit n = 1 to the period of revolution of electron in the orbit n = 2 is Q3.The energy level diagram of an element is given.
A) ½ B) ¼ C)1/8 D) 2 Identify, by doing necessary calculations, which
transition corresponds to the emission of a spectral line
8.To explain fine structure of spectrum of hydrogen atom, we must consider. of wavelength 102.7 nm
A) a finite size of nucleus.
B) the presence of neutrons in the nucleus. 3 marks questions
C) spin angular momentum.
D) orbital angular momentum. Level 1
Q1.Calculate the shortest wavelength of the spectral lines emitted in Balmer series.
9.When an electron jumps from some outer orb it to the innermost orbit in the hydrogen Q2. Why is the mass of nucleus does not enter the formula for impact parameter but it’s
atom, the spectral line belongs to charged does ?
A) Lyman series Q3.What is the ratio of radii of the orbits corresponding to first excited state and ground
B) Balmer series state in a hydrogen atom?
C) Paschen series Q4 .The radius of innermost electron orbit of a hydrogen atom is 5.3 × 10 -11 m. What is
D) Pfund series the radius of orbit in the second excited state?
Q5 write to postulates of Bohr atomic model
10.How does the energy difference between two consecutive energy levels vary on the Level 2
quantum number n increases? Q1.The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. What are the kinetic and
A) does not change potential energies of electron in this state?
B) decreases Q2.Write two important limitations of Rutherford nuclear model of the atom.
C) increases Q3.Name the series of Hydrogen spectrums lying in ultraviolet and visible regions.
D) may increase or decrease.
Level 3
Level 3
Q1.State the limitations of Bohr’s atomic model.
1.If the electron in hydrogen atoms is excited to n = 5 state, the number of different Q2. Define ionization energy. How would the ionization energy change when electron in
hydrogen atom is replaced by a particle of mass 200 times that of the electron but having
frequencies of radiation which may be emitted is:
the same charge?
A) 4 B) 10 C) 8 D) 5
Q3.Show that the radius of the orbit in hydrogen atom varies as n 2, where n is the
principal quantum number of the atom.
2.The ionisation potential of hydrogen is 13.6 V. The energy of the atom in n = 2 state
will be
A) -10.2 ev B) -6.4eV C) – 3.4 eV D) – 4.4 eV 5 Marks questions
Level 1
3.The ratio of the energies of the hydrogen atom in its first to second excited state is : Q1.i) In hydrogen atom, an electron undergoes transition from 2nd excited state to the
A) ¼ B) 4/9 C) 9/4 D) 1/9 first excited state and then to the ground state. Identify the spectral series to which these
transitions belong.
4.When an electron jumps from some outer orb it to the innermost orbit in the hydrogen (ii) Find out the ratio of the wavelengths of the emitted radiations in the two cases.
atom, the spectral line belongs to Level 2
A) Lyman series B) Balmer series C) Paschen series D) Pfund series
Q1.i) In hydrogen atom, an electron undergoes transition from third excited state to the
5.According to classical theory, Rutherford atom is second excited state and then to the first excited state. Identify the spectral series to
A) stable B) unstable C) metastable D) semistable which these transitions belong.
(ii) Find out the ratio of the wavelengths of the emitted radiations in the two cases.
221 223
Case based study question / Source based question Q8. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6 electron volt. What are the kinetic
and potential energy of the electron in the
Each element is having specific properties as it emits or shows the specific emission state?
spectrum of radiation. The emission line spectrum has bright lines on the dark surface. Q9.The energy level diagram of an element is
The hydrogen spectrum consist of series namely Balmer, Lyman, Paschen, Brackett and given here . Which transition corresponds to
Pfund series. The Lyman series is formed in the ultraviolet region while Paschen, the emission of a spectral line of wavelength
Brackett and Pfund series are in the infrared region. According to Bohr’s first postulate, 102.7nm?
electrons are revolving in particular stable orbits without radiating any form of energy. Q10.Explain the concept of the Bohr radius
And in his second postulate he told that, these electrons are revolving around the nucleus and derive the expression for the radius of the nth orbit in the hydrogen atom using Bohr’s
in stable orbits which are having angular momentum equal to integral multiple of h/2π. model.
And third postulate tells us that, when electron jumps from higher energy state to lower Q11. In the early 20th century, the study of hydrogen atom spectra provided crucial
energy state it will emits some amount of energy and which is equal to the energy evidence for the development of quantum mechanics. The hydrogen atom, being the
difference between those energy levels. simplest atom with only one electron, showed a series of discrete spectral lines that were
first observed and recorded in the visible region (Balmer series). Later, other series like
And he gave the energy of an electron in an hydrogen atom as En = -13.6/ n2 eV the Lyman series (UV region) and Paschen series (IR region) were also discovered.
These observations led Niels Bohr to propose his model of the atom, introducing the
The negative sign shows that electron is tightly bound with the nucleus. And when n = 1, concept of quantized energy levels.In Bohr's model, an electron revolves around the
then corresponding energy of electron is called as ground state energy. Bohr’s model is nucleus in specific, quantized orbits without radiating energy. The electron can only gain
only applicable to single electron system like hydrogen and it cannot be applicable to or lose energy by jumping from one allowed orbit to another, with the energy difference
helium atom also which is having two electrons. between these orbits being emitted or absorbed as a photon. This model successfully
explained the spectral lines of hydrogen and the Rydberg formula for their wavelengths.
Read the above passage and answer the rolling questions .

1.) In hydrogen atom, the ground state energy is given by___ Read the above paragraph carefully and answer the following question .
a) +13.6 Ev b) -13.6 J c) -13.6 KJ d) -13.6 eV (I)Explain the significance of the Balmer series in the context of the hydrogen atom
spectra.
2.) According to Bohr’s second postulate, the angular momentum L is given by (II)Why are the spectral lines of hydrogen atom discrete and not continuous?
a) L= h/2π b) L = nh/2π c) L = 2π/h d) L = 2π/ nh (III)Describe how Bohr's model of the atom accounts for the stability of electron orbits
(IV)If the ionisation energy of the hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV, what is the energy of the
3.) What is the shortest wavelength in the Balmer series electron in the ( n = 2)state?
a) 656.3 nm b) 364.6 nm c) 656.3 mm d) 364.6 mm Q12. State the basic postulates of Bohr’s theory is of atomic spectra. Hence, obtain an
expression for radius of orbit and the energy of orbital electron in hydrogen atom.
4.) For ground state of hydrogen atom the value of principal quantum number is___
a) n = 2 b) n = 0 c) n = 1 d) n = infinity
Competency Based Question
Q1.Explain how the observation of spectral lines can be used to identify elements in
distant stars.
Q2.Discuss the significance of the Balmer series in the context of hydrogen's atomic
spectrum and its application in astronomy.

CCT BASED QUESTION

************
A hydrogen atom is excited from its ground state (n = 1) to the n = 3 energy level. The
atom then returns to the ground state by emitting photons.

1. Describe how the wavelengths relate to the hydrogen emission spectrum.

2. Discuss the implications of these transitions in the context of Bohr's model of the
atom.

225 227
 • Mass defect (m) : It is found that the mass of a nucleus is always less than Level 1
the sum of masses of it's constituent nucleons in free state. This difference in MCQ
masses is called mass defect. Hence mass defect 1. Which of the following particles are constituents of the nucleus
m = Sum of masses of nucleons – Mass of nucleus (a) Protons and electrons (b) Protons and neutrons
   
= Zm p + ( A − Z)m n − M = Zm p + Zm e + ( A − Z)m z − M ' (c) Neutrons and electrons (d) Neutrons and positrons
where mp = Mass of proton, mn = Mass of each neutron, me = Mass of each 2. The particles which can be added to the nucleus of an atom without changing its
electron chemical properties are called
M = Mass of nucleus,Z = Atomic number, A = Mass number, M = Mass of atom (a) Electrons (b) Protons (c)Neutrons (d) None of the above
as a whole. 3. The neutron was discovered by
(a) Marie Curie (b) Pierre Curie (c)James Chadwick (d) Rutherford
• Binding energy (B.E.) 4. The mass number of a nucleus is
The binding energy of a nucleus may be defined as the energy equivalent to the mass (a) Always less than its atomic number
defect of the nucleus. (b) Always more than its atomic number
If m is mass defect then according to Einstein's mass energy relation (c) Always equal to its atomic number
Binding energy = m c2= [{mpZ + mn(A – Z)} – M]c2 (d) Sometimes more than and sometimes equal to its atomic number
If m is measured in amu then B.E = mamu = [{mpZ + mn(A – Z)} – M] amu = m 5. The energy equivalent of 1 kilogram of matter is about
931 MeV (a) 10 −15 J (b) 1 J (c) 10 −12 J (d) 10 17 J
• Binding energy per nucleon : The average energy required to release a 6. Nuclear binding energy is equivalent to
nucleon from the nucleus is called binding energy per nucleon. (a) Mass of proton (b) Mass of neutron (c) Mass of nucleus (d) Mass
Binding energy per nucleon defect of nucleus
Total bind ing energy m  931 MeV 7. If the binding energy of the deutrium is 2.23 MeV. The mass defect given in a.m.u.
= =
Mass number (i.e. total number A Nucleon is
of nucleons) (a) – 0.0024 (b) – 0.0012 (c)0.0012 (d) 0.0024
• Binding Energy Curve 8. Which of the following has the mass closest in value to that of the positron
It is the graph between binding energy per nucleon and total number of nucleons
(i.e. mass number A) (a) Proton (b) Electron (c)Photon (d) Neutrino
26Fe
56 9. Size of nucleus is of the order of
Binding energy per

8.0 He (a) 10 −10 m (b) 10 −15 m (c) 10 −12 m (d) 10 −19 m

nucleon (MeV)

6.0
10. For effective nuclear forces, the distance should be
4.0 Li
(a) 10 −10 m (b) 10 −13 m (c) 10 −15 m (d) 10 −20 m
2.0
H2 11. The mass defect for the nucleus of helium is 0.0303 a.m.u. What is the binding
0
5056 10 15 20
energy per nucleon for helium in MeV
0 number
Mass 0 0 (a) 28 (b) 7 (c) 4 (d) 1
A
Fig. 26.17 12. Atomic power station at Tarapore has a generating capacity of 200 MW. The energy
(1) Some nuclei with mass number A< 20 have large binding energy per nucleon than generated in a day by this station is
their neighbour nuclei. For example 2 He 4 , 4 Be 8 , 6 C 12 , 8 O 16 and 10 Ne 20 . These nuclei are more (a) 200 MW (b) 200 J (c) 4800  10 6 J (d) 1728  10 10 J
stable than their neighbours. 13. Which of the following pairs is an isobar
(2) The binding energy per nucleon is maximum for nuclei of mass number A = 56 (a) 1 H 1 and 1 H 2 (b) 1 H 2 and 1 H 3 (c) 6 C 12 and 6 C 13 (d) 30
15 P and 14 Si
30

( 26 Fe 56 ) . It's value
14. The function of the control rods in nuclear reactor is
is 8.8 MeV per nucleon. (a) Absorb neutrons (b) Accelerate neutrons
(2) For nuclei having A> 56, binding energy per nucleon gradually decreases for (c) Slow down neutrons(d) No effect on neutrons
uranium (A = 238), the value of binding energy per nucleon drops to 7.5 MeV. 15. Complete the reaction n +92 U → 144
56 Ba + .... + 3n
235

• Nuclear Fission
(a) 89
36 Kr (b) 90
36 Kr (c) 91
36 Kr (d) 92
36 Kr
(1) The process of splitting of a heavy nucleus into two lighter nuclei of comparable
masses (after bombardment with a energetic particle) with liberation of energy is called
nuclear fission. 16. Heavy water is ………….

229 231
10. The masses of neutron and proton are 1.0087 a.m.u. and 1.0073 a.m.u. Level -2
respectively. If the neutrons and protons combine to form a helium nucleus (alpha Long answer type(5 MARKS)
particles) of mass 4.0015 a.m.u. The binding energy of the helium nucleus will be 1)a) Suppose, we think of fission of a 56Fe26 nucleus into two equal fragments,
(1 a.m.u.= 931 MeV) 28Al13. Is the fission energetically possible? mass of 56Fe26 = 55.934939u, mass of
(a) 28.4 MeV (b) 20.8 MeV (c)27.3 MeV (d) 14.2 MeV 28Al13 = 55.934939u
b) How is the size of a nucleus experimentally determined? Write the relation between
LEVEL 3 the radius and mass number of the nucleus is independent of its mass number
1. A heavy nucleus at rest breaks into two fragments which fly off with velocities in the Level -3
ratio 8 : 1. The ratio of radii of the fragments is Long answer type(5 MARKS)
1) A star initially has 10 40 deuterons. It produces energy via the processes
(a)1 : 2 (b)1 : 4 (c) 4 : 1 (d) 2 : 1 1H
2
+ 1 H 2 →1 H 3 + p
2. 1 g of hydrogen is converted into 0.993 g of helium in a thermonuclear reaction. The 1H
2
+ 1 H 3 → 2 He 4 + n
energy released is The masses of the nuclei are as follows :
M(H 2 ) = 2.014 amu ; M(p) = 1.007 amu ;
(a) 63  107 J (b) 63  1010 J (c)63  1014 J (d) 63  1020 J M(n) = 1.008 amu ; M(He 4 ) = 4.001 amu
3. The binding energy per nucleon of O16 is 7.97 MeV and that of O17 is 7.75 MeV. The
If the average power radiated by the star is 10 16 W ,the deuteron supply of the star is
energy (in MeV) required to remove a neutron from O17 is exhausted then find the order of time
(a) 3.52 (b) 3.64 (c)4.23 (d)7.86
4. The average binding energy per nucleon in the nucleus of an atom is approximately NUMERICAL
Level 1
(a) 8 eV (b) 8 KeV (c) 8 MeV (d) 8 J 1) If the binding energy per nucleon in 3Li7and 2He4 nuclei are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV
5. Binding energy per nucleon plot against the mass number for stable nuclei is respectively, then in the reaction
shown
p + 3Li7 → 2 2He4 calculate energy of proton
in the figure. Which curve is correct D

Binding energy
per nucleon
B
(a) A(b) B
Level 2
(c) C(d) D 1) An unstable heavy nucleus at rest breaks into two nuclei which move away with
C
6. In the following reaction 12 Mg 24 + 2 He 4 → 14 Si x + 0 n 1 x is A velocities in the ratio of 8: 27. Find The ratio of the radii of the nuclei (assumed to be
Mass number
(a) 28 (b) 27 (c)26 (d) 22 spherical)
7. In the carbon cycle of fusion Level 3
1) In the nuclear fusion reaction 12 H +13 H →42 He + n, given that the repulsive potential
(a) Four 1 H fuse to form
1
2 He
4
and two positrons b) Four 1H
1
fuse to form 2 He
4
and
two electrons energy between the two nuclei is − 7.7  10 −14 J , the temperature at which the gases must
(c) Two 1 H 2 fuse to form 2 He
4
(d) Four 1H
2
fuse to form 2 He
4
and two positrons be heated to initiate the reaction [Boltzmann’s constant k = 1.38  10 −23 J /K ]
8. In atom bomb the reaction which occurs is
(a)Fusion (b)Controlled fission (c)Uncontrolled fission (d)Thermonuclear Case Based
9. Two Cu64 nuclei touch each other. The electrostatics repulsive energy of the Stability of Nucleus
system -Neutrons and protons are identical particle in the sense that their masses are nearly
will be the same and they are bounded with the force, called nuclear force. Nuclear force is the
(a) 0.788 MeV (b) 7.88 MeV (c) 126.15 MeV (d) 788 MeV strongest force. Stability of nucleus is determined by binding energy per nucleon or the
neutron proton ratio or packing fraction. Density of nucleus independent on the mass
LEVEL 1 number. Whole mass of the atom (nearly99%) is present at the nucleus
short answer type (2 MARKS)
1) Define Atomic Number and Mass Number. 1. The force between a neutron and a proton inside the nucleus is
2) What is nuclear fission, and provide an example of a fission reaction? (a) Only nuclear attractive (b)Only Coulomb force
3) Explain the concept of binding energy per nucleon and its significance. (c) Both of the above (d)None of these
4) What are isotopes? Give two examples.

233 235
 Self Assessment The energy gap in Si is 1.1 eV and in Ge is 0.74 eV.
MCQ Si: 1s2, 2s2, 2p6,3s2, 3p2. (Atomic No. is 14)
1) If in a nuclear fusion process the masses of the fusing nuclei be m1 and m2 and the Ge: 1s2, 2s2, 2p6,3s2, 3p6, 3d10, 4s2, 4p2. (Atomic No. is 32)
mass of the resultant nucleus be m 3 , then Both Si and Ge have four valance electrons. The four
valance electrons form four covalent bonds by sharing
(a) m3 = m1 + m 2 (b) m 3 = | m1 + m 2 | (c) m3  (m1 + m 2 ) (d) m 3  (m1 + m 2 )
the electrons with neighbouring four atoms.
2) The curve of binding energy per nucleon as a function of atomic mass number has
In intrinsic semiconductor, the number of thermally
a sharp peak for helium nucleus. This implies that helium
generated electrons always equals the number of holes.
(a) Can easily be broken up (b) Is very stable
So, if ni and pi are the concentration of electrons and
(c) Can be used as fissionable material (d) Is radioactive
holes respectively, then ni = pi. The quantity ni or pi is
3) Which of the following is most unstable [AFMC 2005]
(a) Electrons (b) Protons (c) Neutrons (d)  -particle
referred to as the „intrinsic carrier concentration‟.
At 0 K, a semiconductor is an insulator i.e., it possesses
4) The mass number of He is 4 and that for sulphur is 32. The radius of sulphur nucleus
is larger than that of helium, by times zero conductivity. When temperature is increased, a few covalent bonds break up
(a) 8 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 8 and release the electrons. These electrons move to conduction band leaving behind
5) Assertion :Density of all the nuclei is same. equal number of holes in valence band. The conductivity of an intrinsic semiconductor
Reason : Radius of nucleus is directly proportional to the cube root of mass is due to both electrons and holes.
number. DOPING:
6) Assertion :Isobars are the element having same mass number but different Doping a Semiconductor: Doping is the process of deliberate addition of a very small
atomic number. amount of impurity (1% of crystal atoms) into an intrinsic semiconductor.
Reason :Neutrons and protons are present inside nucleus. The impurity atoms are called dopants.
Short answer type (2 marks) The semiconductor containing impurity is known as „Extrinsic semiconductor’.
7) Explain the concept of mass defect.
Doping of a semiconductor increases its electrical conductivity to a great extent.
8) What is binding energy? How is it related to stability of nucleus?
Long answer type (3marks) The pentavalent impurity atoms are called donor atoms, while the trivalent impurity
9) What are the differences between nuclear fission and nuclear fusion? Which one is atoms are called acceptor atoms
used in nuclear power plants and why? Extrinsic semiconductor.
10) Skech the curve for binding energy per nucleon vs mass no . write the significance A semiconductor doped with a suitable impurity (pentavalent or trivalent), so as to
of it. possess conductivity much higher than the semiconductor in pure form is called an
Long ans type ( 5marks) extrinsic semiconductor.
11) a)Show that nuclear density is independent of mass .
Extrinsic semiconductors are of two types:
b) Explain molecular interaction using potential energy curve .
c) Write the properties of nuclear force 1) n-type semiconductor
12) Case base study ( 4marks) 2) p-type semiconductor
In nuclear physics, the mass defect refers to the difference between the mass of a 1.n-type semiconductor:
nucleus and the sum of the masses of its constituent protons and neutrons. This When a pentavalent impurity, such as arsenic or antimony or phosphorus is added
discrepancy arises because some mass is converted into binding energy, which holds to a pure semiconductor, the four of the five valance electrons of the impurity atoms
the nucleus together. Understanding mass defect is crucial for studying nuclear stability form covalent bonds by sharing the electrons with the adjoining four silicon atoms,
and reactions.Imagine a laboratory experiment where scientists are investigating the while the fifth electron is very loosely bound with the parent impurity atom and is
mass defect in different isotopes. They have a sample of Helium-4 (4He) and are trying comparatively free to move.
to calculate its mass defect and binding energy. The number of free electrons become more than the holes in the semiconductor and
Q1) Calculate the theoretical mass of the Helium-4 nucleus based on the sum of the such an extrinsic semiconductor is called n-type semiconductor. In other words, in a
masses of Its constituent protons and neutrons. n-type semiconductor, electrons are majority carriers and holes are minority carriers.
Q2) Determine the mass defect of the Helium-4 nucleus. 2)p-type semiconductor:
Q3) Calculate the binding energy of the Helium-4 nucleus in MeV. When a trivalent impurity, such as indium or gallium or boron is added to a pure
Q4) Explain the significance of the mass defect and binding energy in terms of nuclear semiconductor, three valance electrons of the impurity atoms form covalent bonds
stability. by sharing the electrons with the adjoining three silicon atoms.

237 239
 Potential Barrier: The difference in potential between p and n regions across the
junction makes it difficult for the holes and electrons to move across the junction.
This acts as a barrier and hence called „potential barrier‟.Potential barrier for Si is
nearly 0.7 V and for Ge is 0.3 V.The potential barrier opposes the motion of the
majority carriers.
Forward biasing:
The p-n junction is said to be forward biased, when the positive terminal of the external
battery is connected to p-section and the negative terminal to n-section of the
junction diode.

SEMICONDCTOR ELECTRONICS: MATERIALS DEVICES AND SIMPLE CIRCUITS

CONDUCTORS
Eg=0 INSULATORS
Charge carrier density: very SOLIDS Eg > 3 eV
high (for electrons)

Reverse biasing: The p-n junction is said to be reverse biased, when the positive SEMICONDUCTORS
terminal of the battery is connected to n-section and the negative terminal to p- ENERGY BANDS Eg < 3 eV Eg=0.72 eV
for Ge & Eg=1.1 eV for Si
section of the junction diode.
CONDUCTIO PURE/INTRINSIC
N BAND: VALANCE
ni=ne=nh
HIGHER BAND
ex. Si, Ge
ENERGY COMPLET
BAND ELY
ABOVE IMPURE/EXTRINSIC
VALANCE P-TYPE SEMICONDUCTOR:
FORBIDDEN BAND
BAND OBTAINED BY ADDING IMPURITY
ENERGY GAP BETWENN V.B.
FROM III-A GROUP in Si or Ge ex.
Al,B
SEMICONDUCTOR DIODE: • Electrons are majority carriers

SEMICONDUCTOR DIODE AS N-TYPE SEMICONDUCTOR:

Junction diode as rectifier: FORWAR REVERSE RECTIFIER: OBTAINED BY ADDING IMPURITY
FROM III-A GROUP in Si or Ge ex.
Because of its unidirectional conduction property, the p-n junction is said to convert an D BIASED: P,As,Sb
BIASED: N side to • Electrons are majority carriers
a,c. voltage into d. c, voltage, It is, then, said to be acting as a rectifier. P side to + terminal RECTIFIER: CONVERT AC TO DC
1. Half wave rectifier: A rectifier, which rectifies only one half of each a.c. input supply + terminal P-side to
N-side to –ve FULL WAVE RECTIFIER:
cycle, is called a half wave rectifier. A half wave rectifier gives discontinuous and HALF WAVE RECTIFIER:
pulsating d.c. output. As alternative half cycles of the a.c. input supply go waste, its
efficiency is very low.
243

241
10 Assertion: The energy gap between the valence band and conduction band is
greater in silicon than in germanium. MCQ LEVEL 3
Reason: Thermal energy produces fewer minority carriers in silicon than in
germanium 1. The filled and unfilled circles in the energy
11 Assertion: The total current I in a semiconductor is the sum of electron current band diagram of the material below represent
and hole current. electrons and holes, respectively. The content
Reason: In a semiconductor, motion of holes towards positive potential and is
free electrons towards negative potential.
(a) insulator (b)metal (c)n-type
12 Assertion: A hole on p-side of a p n- junction moves to n-side just an instant
semiconductor (d)p-type semiconductor
after drifting of charge carriers occurs across junction.
2 As temperature rises, semiconductors' electrical resistance decreases
Reason: Drifting of charge carriers reduces the concentration gradient across because... (a) temperature provides energy to electrons in valance Band to
junction. cross the forbidden band (b) temperature absorbs from electrons
13 Assertion (A): When a p-n junction diode is reverse biased, a feeble reverse- (c) semiconductor converts into perfect conductor due to increase in
current flows known as reverse saturation current. temperature
Reason (R): In reverse bias condition, the minority carries can cross the (d) temperature provides energy to electrons in conduction Band to cross the
junction. forbidden band
3 If the forward voltage in a semiconductor diode is doubled, the width of the
14 Assertion : The resistivity of a semi-conductor increases with temperature.
depletion layer will…..
Reason : The atoms of semi-conductor vibrate with larger amplitude as higher (a) Become half (b) Become one-fourth (c) Remain unchanged (d) Become
temperatures thereby increasing its resistivity. double
15 Assertion: If the temperature of a semiconductor is increased then it’s 4. In order to convert sinusoidal signal into unidirectional signal which of the following
resistance decreases. device is used?
Reason: The energy gap between conduction band and valence band is very (a) An amplifier (b) A rectifier (c) An oscillator (d) A modulator
small. 5 Which of these graphs illustrates the potential difference between the equilibrium
p-side and n-side of a p-n junction?
16 Assertion: The number of electrons in a p-type silicon semiconductor is less
than the number of electrons in a pure silicon semiconductor at room
6 A silicon diode is the diode that is displayed in the circuit. The potential difference
temperature.
between points A and B will come to be
Reason: It is due to law of mass action.

MCQ LEVEL 2

1 Which diagram below best illustrates a reverse biased diode?

Directions: In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a
statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.
A: If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of
the Assertion.

245 247
 2 MARK QUESTIONS gap. Following are the energy band diagrams for conductor fig (ii), for insulators fig (b)
LEVEL-3 and for semiconductors fig (c).
1 What do energy bands mean? Based on energy band diagrams, list any two i) In an insulator energy band gap is
characteristics that separate conductors, semiconductors, and insulators. a)Eg= 0eV (b) Eg> 3eV (c) Eg< 3eV (d) None of this
2 What happens when germanium metal is slightly doped with indium? ii) In a semiconductor, separation between conduction and valence band is of the
3 Who are the major charge carriers in n-type and p-type semiconductors? order of
4 Describe the formation of the depletion area and potential barrier in a junction
(a) Eg= 0eV (b) Eg> 3eV (c) Eg< 3eV (d) None of these
diode using a diagram.
iii) (III) Based on the band theory of conductors, insulators and semiconductors,
5 Is using a full wave rectifier preferable to a half wave rectifier? Why?
the forbidden gap is smallest in
(a)conductor (b) insulators (c) semiconductors (d) All of these
3 MARK QUESTIONS
LEVEL-1 iv) (IV) Solids having highest energy level partially filled with electrons are
1 Draw a diode's voltage-current characteristic curve and highlight its key features. (a)semiconductor (b) conductor (c) insulator (d) none of
these
2 Using a diagram, explain how the barrier potential and depletion region develop
at a p-n junction.
3 MARK QUESTIONS 5 MARK QUESTIONS
LEVEL-2 LEVEL-1
1 Draw V-I characteristics of a p-n junction diode. Answer the following questions
1 In the following diagram, which bulb
out of B1 and B2 will glow and why? giving reasons.
(i) Why is the current under reverse bias almost independent of the applied
potential upto a critical voltage?
(ii) Why does the reverse current show a sudden increase at the critical voltage?

5 MARK QUESTIONS
2. Write any two distinguishing features between conductors, semiconductors and
insulators on the basis of energy band diagrams. LEVEL-2
3. Name two important processes that occur during the formation of a p-n junction. 1 i) How are p- type semiconductors produced?
ii) The forbidden band energy of silicon is 1.1eV. What does it mean?
4 The maximum wavelength at which solid begin to absorb energy is 10000 Å.
Calculate the energy gap of a solid (in eV). iii) What is an ideal diode?
iv) Figure shows two p-n junction diode
3 MARK QUESTIONS
along with a resistance and a d.c battery
LEVEL-3
E. Indicate the path and the direction of
1 (a) Distinguish between n-type and p-type semiconductors on the basis of energy
appreciable current in the circuit.
band diagrams.
(b) Compare their conductivities at absolute zero temperature and at room
temperature
2. Draw the input and output waveforms of half-wave rectifier and full wave rectifier.
5 MARK QUESTIONS
LEVEL-3
1 i)What is doping? Write the name of the impurities used to fabricate p type & n
type Semiconductor.

249 251
iii) Which of the following is not true about a rectifier circuit?
(a) It can convert DC to AC. (b) It can convert AC to DC.
(c)It can shift voltage level .(d)None of these
iv) In the given circuit,

Capacitor c is used iv) If an ideal junction diode is connected as shown, then the value of the current I
(a) for storing potential energy is
(b) as a bypass to DC component to get AC in RL
(c) to remove sparking
(d) as a bypass to AC component to get DC in RL
v) The ratio of output frequencies of half-wave rectifier and a full wave rectifier,
when an input of frequency 200 Hz is fed at input, is
(a) 1:2 (b)2: 1 (c) 4 :1 (d) 1 : 4 COMPETENCY BASED QUESTIONS
MCQ
1 The diagram below shows a transformer whose output terminals are 01
CASE STUDY/SOURCE BASED QUESTIONS connected to two diodes D1 and D2
LEVEL-3
1.When the diode is forward biased, it is found that beyond forward voltage V = Vk,
called knee voltage, the conductivity is very high. At this value of battery biasing for
p-n junction, the potential barrier is overcome and the current increases rapidly with
an increase in forwarding voltage. When the diode is reverse biased, the reverse
bias voltage produces a very small current about a few microamperes which almost
remains constant with bias. This small current is reverse saturation current

i) i) In which of the following figures, the p-n diode is forward biased

(a) a,b and d (b) c only (c) c and a (d) b and d

253 255
 2 In a forward biased, ideal pn diode, the applied forward potential is opposite 05
4 A p-n junction diode has a depletion layer of thickness 500 nm and an electric 02 to the potential barrier of the depletion region. A small forward voltage is
field 16 x 105 V/m. sufficient to overcome the potential barrier. Once eliminated, the junction
a. Find the barrier potential created. resistance is reduced to zero and an ideal pn junction has zero ohmic
b. Determine the minimum kinetic energy (in eV) that the conduction potential drop across itself. The voltage at which the current starts to increase
electrons must have so that they can diffuse from n-side onto p-side, in case rapidly is called threshold
of: voltage or cut in voltage or knee
i. the junction is unbiased voltage of the pn diode. If the
ii. the junction is forward biased at 0.5 V diode voltage is more than
iii. the junction is reverse biased at 0.5 V knee voltage, it conducts easily
5 Almost a constant electric current of 20 μA flows through a given pn junction 02 otherwise it conducts poorly.
diode in reverse bias. The current becomes 4 times in case the pn junction For a silicon diode,
diode is forward biased. Determine the diffusion current that flows through V(threshold) = 0.7 V
the given diode in case it is: a. In the circuit given here, determine the voltage across an ideal silicon diode
a. unbiased b. reverse biased c. forward biased D and resistor R and the current through the diode and resistor, if E = 3 V
and R = 2 k-ohm.
b. How will the values in part (a) change in case E is made 0.3 V?
COMPETENCY BASED QUESTIONS
OR
3 MARK QUESTIONS How will the values in part (a) change in case the terminals of E are reversed?
1 The graph below shows the variation in the mobility of electrons and holes 03
for a Si semiconductor with doping concentration at 300 K.
CCT/SOURCE BASED QUESTIONS
1 The graph below represents the
variation of n/ND with temperature
for an extrinsic n-type
semiconductor. The temperature
range indicated on the X-axis is
divided into three regions,
Regions I, II and III.
Study the graph and answer the
following questions.

The pentavalent doping concentration is 1015 cm-3 and the concentration of

intrinsic charge carriers at 300 K is about 1010 cm-3 I) Which region(s) has the maximum number of unionized donor atoms? 1
(a) Find the concentration of majority and minority charge carriers. ii) Which of the following relation is definitely TRUE for the semiconductor in 1
(b) What is the conductivity of silicon at 300 K? (Calculate conductivity region II? (ne - concentration of free electrons; nh – concentration of holes)
assuming majority charge carriers only.) iii) In which region(s) are thermally generated electrons comparable to donor 1
The magnitude charge on an electron/hole is 1.6 x 10-19 C. Assume complete electrons?
dopant ionization.
IV) In region III the semiconductor behaves like? 1
2 A certain biasing voltage is applied across the pn junction with an initial 03

257 259
 Reason (R) : In half-wave rectifier only one diode is used.
06 Assertion (A) : In a semiconductor diode, the reverse biased current is 01
SAMPLE PAPER-1
due to drift of free electrons and holes.
PHYSICS
Reason (R) : The drift of electrons and holes is due to thermal
excitations
Time Allowed: 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 70
General Instructions:
SECTION B (1) There are 33 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
07 Explain with the help of a diagram the formation of depletion region and 02 (2) This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and
barrier potential in a p-n junction. Section E.
08 Why are elemental dopants for silicon or germanium usually chosen 02
from group XIII or group XV ? (3) Section A contains sixteen questions, twelve MCQ and four Assertion Reasoning
based of 1 mark each, Section B contains five questions of two marks each, Section
C contains seven questions of three marks each, Section D contains two case study
SECTION C based questions of four marks each and Section E contains three long answer
08 In half-wave rectification, what is the output frequency? If the input 03 questions of five marks each.
frequency is 50 Hz, what is the output frequency of a full wave rectifier
for the same input frequency? (4) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in one
question in Section B, one question in Section C, one question in each CBQ in Section
09 i) Differentiate between P-type and N-type semiconductors 03
D and all three questions in Section E. You have to attempt only one of the choices in
ii) Draw their energy level diagrams. such questions
(5) Use of calculators is not allowed.
SECTION D
CASE BASED STUDY (6) You may use the following values of physical constants where ever necessarily.
10 i. c = 3 x 108 m/s
Semiconductors consist of Valence band and conduction band. On the basis of energy ii. me = 9.1 x10 - 31 kg
bands materials are also defined as metals, semiconductors and insulators. In case iii. e = 1.6 x 10 - 19 C
of metals, conduction band and Valence band overlaps with each other due to iv. μ0 = 4π x 10 - 7 Tm𝐴- 1
which electrons are easily available for conduction. In case of insulators, there is v. h = 6.63 x10 - 34 Js
vi. ε0 = 8.854 x10 - 12 𝐶2𝑁- 1𝑚- 2
some energy gap between conduction band and Valence band due to which no
vii. Avogadro’s number = 6.023 X 1023 per gram mole
free electrons are easily available for conduction. And in semiconductors, there is
Section A
a small energy gap between conduction band and Valence band and if we give
1 A point charge Q is moved along a circular path around another fixed-point [1]
some external energy then electron from Valence band goes to conduction band charge. So, the work done is
due to which conduction will be possible. These semiconductors are classified as a) always zero
intrinsic semiconductors and extrinsic semiconductors also. Intrinsic b) zero only if Q returns to it’s starting position
semiconductors are those semiconductors which exist in pure form. And intrinsic c) zero only if the two charges have the same magnitude
semiconductors has number of free electron is equal to number of holes. The d) zero only if the two charges have the same magnitude and opposite signs
semiconductors doped with some impurity in order to increase its conductivity are 2 An isosceles right - angled current - carrying loop PQR is placed in a uniform [1]
magnetic field𝐵 ⃗ pointing along with PR. If the magnetic force acting on the
called as extrinsic semiconductors. Two types of dopants are used they are
trivalent impurity and pentavalent impurity also. The extrinsic semiconductors
doped with pentavalent impurity like Arsenic, Antimony, Phosphorus etc are called
as n – type semiconductors. In n type semiconductors electrons are the majority

261 263
8 A plane wave front of light is incident on a plane mirror as shown in the figure. [1] 19 For a glass prism (𝜇 = √3 ), the angle of minimum deviation is equal to the [2]
Intensity is maximum at P, when: angle of the prism. Find the angle of the prism.
𝜆
a) cos𝜃 = 20 A thin film of thickness 4× 10-5 cm and 𝜇 = 1.5 is illuminated by white light [2]
2𝑑
3𝜆
b) cos𝜃 = incident normal to its surface. What wavelength in the visible range be
4𝑑
3𝜆 intensified in the reflected beam?
c) sec𝜃 - cos 𝜃 =
4𝑑
𝜆
21 Give two examples each of [2]
d) sec𝜃 - cos 𝜃 = 2𝑑 1. Elemental 2. compound inorganic 3.compound organic
semiconductors

SECTION -C
9 In an experiment of photoelectric emission for incident light of 4000A0 , the [1] 22 Three charges of +0.1 C each are placed at the [3]
stopping potential is 2V. If the wavelength of incident light is made 3000 A0 , corners of an equilateral triangle as shown in
then stopping potential will be figure. If energy is supplied at the rate of 1 kW,
a) 2 Volt b) less than 2 volt c) more than 2 volt d) zero how many days would be required to move the
10 The longest wavelength in the ultraviolet region of the hydrogen spectrum is [1] charge at A to a point D which is the mid - point
122 nm. The shortest wavelength in the infrared region of the hydrogen of the line BC?
spectrum (to the nearest integer) is
a) 823 nm b) 802 nm c) 1882 nm d) 1648 nm 23 If𝜒 stands for the magnetic susceptibility of a given material, identify the class [3]
11 The dependence of binding energy per nucleon (B𝑁 ) on the mass number A [1] of materials for which −1 ≥ 𝜒 < 0 and 0 < 𝜒 < 𝜀 ( 𝜀 stands for a small
is represented by positive number)
1. Write the range of relative magnetic permeability of these materials.
2. Draw the pattern of the magnetic field lines when these materials are
placed in an external magnetic field.

a) b) 24 A metallic rod of length land resistance R is rotated with a frequency𝜈 , with [3]
one end hinged at the centre and the other end at the circumference of a
circular metallic ring of radius l, about an axis passing through the centre and
perpendicular to the plane of the ring. A constant and uniform magnetic field
B parallel to the axis is present everywhere.
1. Derive the expression for the induced emf and the current in the rod.

c) d) 2. Due to the presence of the current in the rod and of the magnetic field,
find the expression for the magnitude and direction of the force acting
12 In the circuit given in the figure, an a.c. source of 200 V is connected through [1]
a diode D to a capacitor. The potential difference across the capacitor will be on this rod.
a) 283 V b) 100 V 3. Hence obtain the expression for the power required to rotate the rod.
c) 310 V d) 200 V
25 Write Einstein’s photoelectric equation and mention which important features [3]
in photoelectric effect can be explained with the help of this equation. The
maximum kinetic energy of the photo electrons gets doubled when the
wavelength of light incident on the surface changes 𝜆 1 from to 𝜆 2 . Derive
the expressions for the threshold wavelength 𝜆 0 and work function for the
metal surface.

265 267
 4. Point out the right statements about the validity of Kirchhoff’s Junction SAMPLE PAPER-2 (UNSOLVED)
rule. PHYSICS
a. The current flowing towards the junction are taken as positive.
b. The currents flowing away from the junction are taken as Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 70
negative.
c. bending or reorienting the wire does not change the validity of
**General Instructions:**
Kirchhoff’s Junction rule.
1. There are 36 questions in all.
d. All of these
5. Potential difference between A and 2. All questions are compulsory.
B in the circuit shown here is 3. The question paper has five sections: A, B, C, D, and E.
4. Section A contains eighteen questions of 1 mark each, Section B contains seven
a. 4V b. 5.6V c. 2.8V questions of 2 marks each, Section C contains five questions of 3 marks each, Section D
d. 6V contains three questions of 5 marks each, and Section E contains two case study-based
questions of 4 marks each.
30 Read the source given below and answer the following questions: A 5. There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice is provided in one question of
compound microscope is an optical instrument used for observing highly 2 marks, one question of 3 marks, and all three questions of 5 marks. You have to attempt
magnified images of tiny objects. Magnifying power of a compound only one of the choices in such questions.
microscope is defined as the ratio of the angle subtended at the eye by the 6. Use of calculators is not permitted.
final image to the angle subtended at the eye by the object, when both the
final image and the object are situated at the least distance of distinct vision Section A: (1 mark each)
from the eye. It can be given that : m = m 𝑒 × m 𝑜 , where m 𝑒 is magnification 1. Which of the following has the smallest wavelength?
produced by eye lens and m 𝑜 is magnification produced by objective lens. a) Gamma rays b) X-rays c) Ultraviolet rays d) Infrared rays
Consider a compound microscope that consists of an objective lens of focal
length 2.0 cm and an eyepiece of focal length 6.25 cm separated by a distance
2. A transformer works on the principle of:
of 15 cm.
a) Coulomb's law b) Ampere's law
1. The object distance for eye - piece, so that final image is formed at the
least distance of distinct vision, will be c) Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction d) Ohm's law
1
a. 3.45 cm b. 5 cm c. 1.29 cm d. 2.59 cm
2. How far from the objective should an object be placed in order to obtain 3. A concave mirror of focal length 15 cm forms an image of an object placed at 10 cm
the condition described in part (i)? 1 from the mirror. The image formed is:
a. 4.5 cm b. 2.5 cm c. 1.5 cm d. 3.0 cm a) Real and inverted b) Virtual and erect c) Real and erect d) Virtual and inverted
3. What is the nature intermediate image formed by the objective of a
compound microscope? 4. The dimensional formula of Planck's constant is:
OR a) [ML2T-1] b) [ML2T-2] c) [MLT-1 d) [ML2]
How you can increase the magnifying power of a compound
microscope increase? 5. The speed of light in a medium is 2x 108 m/s. The refractive index of the medium is:
2
SECTION-E a) 1.5 b) 1.33 c) 2.0 d) 1.0

31 Two squares ABCD and BEFC have the side BC in common. The sides are [5] 6. The S.I. unit of electric flux is:
of conducting wires with resistances as follows: AB, BE, FC and CD each 2𝛺
a) Volt b) Coulomb c) Weber d) Volt-meter
; AD, BC, EF each 1 𝛺 . A cell of emf 2 V and internal resistance 2 𝛺 is joined
across AD. Find the currents in various branches of the circuit.
7. The number of electrons in one coulomb of charge is approximately:
OR
a) 1.6 x 1019 b) 6.25 x 1018 c) 3.2 x 1019 d) 1.6 x 1018

269 271
16. Assertion (A): In a series LCR circuit, the impedance is minimum at the resonant SAMPLE PAPER-3(UNSOLVED)
frequency. PHYSICS
Reason (R): At the resonant frequency, the inductive reactance equals the capacitive Class: XII Subject Code: 042
reactance, and the circuit behaves like a pure resistor. Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 70
17. Assertion (A): The inductance of a solenoid depends on the number of turns and the General Instructions:
length of the solenoid. Read the following instructions carefully and follow them:
Reason (R): Increasing the number of turns or decreasing the length of the solenoid (1) This question paper contains 33 questions. All questions are compulsory.
increases the magnetic flux linkage per unit current. (2) This question paper i s d i v i d e d i n t o five sections - Sections A, B, C, D
18. Assertion (A): In an intrinsic semiconductor, the number of electrons in the and E.
conduction band is equal to the number of holes in the valence band. (3) In Section A - Questions no. 1 to 16 are Multiple Choice type
Reason (R): Intrinsic semiconductors are doped with impurity atoms to increase their questions. Each question carries 1 mark.
conductivity. (4) In Section B - Questions no. 17 to 21 are Very Short Answer type
Section B: (2 marks each) questions. Each question carries 2 marks.
19. Define electric dipole moment. Give its S.I. unit. (5) In Section C - Questions no. 22 to 28 are Short Answer type
20. State Gauss's law. How is it useful in calculating the electric field due to a uniformly questions. Each question carries 3 marks.
charged spherical shell? (6) In Section D - Questions no. 29 and 30 are case study-based
21. Derive the relation between current and drift velocity. questions. Each question carries 4 marks.
22. Explain the working of a photodiode. (7) In Section E - Questions no. 31 to 33 are Long Answer type
23. Derive the expression for the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor. questions. Each question carries 5 marks.
24. Write any two properties of electromagnetic waves. (8) There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal
25. Differentiate between polar and non-polar molecules. choice has been provided in few questions in all the Sections except Section A.
26. Explain the term 'mutual inductance' and write its unit. (9) Use of calculators is not allowed.
OR You may use the following values of physical constants wherever necessary;
Explain fission in brief c = 3 X 108 m/s
h = 6.63 X 10-34 Js
Section C: (3 marks each) e = 1.6 X 10-19 C
27. Describe the principle, construction, and working of a moving coil galvanometer. μ0 = 4п X 10-7 T m A-1
28. Using Kirchhoff's rules, calculate the current in a circuit having three resistors R 1, R2 𝜖0 = 8.854 X 10-12 C2N-1m-2
and R3 in series with a battery of emf E. 1
= 9 X 109 Nm2C-2
29. Explain how interference pattern is obtained in Young's double-slit experiment. 4𝜋𝜖
0

30. What are the different types of polarization of light? Explain any one type in detail. Mass of electron (me) = 9.1 x 10-31 kg
31. Explain the phenomenon of total internal reflection and write its two applications.OR Mass of neutron = 1.675 X 10-27 kg
Mass of proton = 1.673X 10-27 kg
(a) Calculate the radius of a nucleus with a mass number of 64. Avogadro’s number = 6.023 X 1023 per gram mole
Boltzmann constant = 1.38 X 10-23 JK-1
(b) Determine the ratio of the radii of nuclei with mass numbers 27 and 125.

Section D: (5 marks each)

32. (a) Derive an expression for the force between two long parallel current-carrying
conductors. (3 marks)
(b) Two long parallel wires carry currents of 5 A and 10 A in opposite directions.
Calculate the force per unit length between them if they are separated by a distance of 2
cm. (2 marks)

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8 The phase difference between the alternating current and e.m.f. is π/2. (i) the magnitude and
Which of the following cannot be the constituent of the circuit? (ii) the direction of the resultant electric field at the vertex A due to these
(a) C alone (b) R alone (c) R, L (d) L, C two charges.
9 Whenever a magnet is moved either towards or away from a conducting 24 (a) Draw a plot showing the variation of potential energy of a pair of
coil, an e.m.f. is induced, the magnitude of which is independent of nucleons as a function of their separation. Mark the region, where
(a) the strength of the magnetic field. the nuclear force is (i) attractive and (ii) repulsive.
94
(b) the speed with which, the magnet is moved. (b) In the nuclear reaction, 𝑛 + 235 𝑎
92𝑈 → 54𝑋𝑒 + 𝑏𝑆𝑟 + 2𝑛
(c) the number of turns in the coil. 25 Calculate the steady current through
(d) the resistance of the coil. the 2 Ω resistor in the circuit shown
10 Which of the following is not the property of light? below.
(a) It requires a material medium for propagation.
(b) It can travel through vacuum.
(c) It involves transportation of energy.
(d) It has finite speed.
11 The magnetic flux linked with a coil (in Wb) is given by the equation: 26 Write any two important points of similarities and differences each between
Φ = 5 t2 +5t+16. The induced e.m.f. in the coil in the fourth second will Coulomb’s law for the electrostatic field and Biot-Savart’s law for the magnetic
be field.
(a) 10V (b) 108 V (c) 45 V (d) 210V 27 How are electromagnetic waves produced? What is the source of energy
12 The diagram shows the energy levels for an of these waves? Write mathematical expressions for electric and
electron in a certain atom. Which transition magnetic fields of an electromagnetic wave propagating along the z-axis.
shown represents the emission of a photon Write any two important properties of electromagnetic waves.
with the most energy? 28 Show that Lenz’s law is in accordance with the law of conservation of energy.
(a) III (b) IV (c) I (d) II OR
Define self-inductance of a coil. Show that magnetic energy required to build
1
up the current I in a coil of self-inductance L is given 2 𝐿𝑖 2
Questions number 13 to 16 are Assertion (A) and Reason (R) type questions. SECTION D
Two statements are given – one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Questions number 29 and 30 are case study-based questions. Read
Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the codes (A), (B), (C) and (D) as the following paragraph and answer the questions that follow:
given below.
29 Consider that the Si or Ge crystal contains N atoms. Electrons of each
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the
correct explanation of the Assertion (A). atom will have discrete energies in different orbits. The electron energy
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the will be same if all the atoms are isolated, i.e., separated from each
correct explanation of the Assertion (A). other by a large distance. However, in a crystal, the atoms are close to
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false. each other (2 Å to 3 Å) and therefore the electrons interact with each
(D) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is also false. other and also with the neighboring atomic cores. The overlap (or
interaction) will be more felt by the electrons in the outermost orbit while
13 Assertion: The kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted from metal
the inner orbit or core electron energies may remain unaffected.
surface does not depend on the intensity of incident photon.
Therefore, for understanding electron energies in Si or Ge crystal, we
Reason: The ejection of electrons from metallic surface is not possible
need to consider the changes in the energies of the electrons in the
with frequency of incident photons below the threshold frequency.

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 (a) 12cm (b) 10cm (c) 20cm (d) 30cm SAMPLE PAPER-4
(ii) The radii of curvature of the faces of a double convex lens are 10 cm and
15 cm. If focal length is 12 cm, then refractive index of glass is CLASS: 12 MARKS: 70
(a) 1.5 (b) 1.78 (c) 2.0 (d) 2.52 SUBJECT: PHYSICS TIME: 3HRS
(iii) An under-water swimmer cannot see very clearly even in absolutely clear
water because of 1.The north pole of a magnet is brought near a stationary negatively charged
(a) absorption of light in water conductor. What is the force experienced by it at the poles?
(b) scattering of light in water a) Maximum b) Minimum
(c) reduction of speed of light in water c) Zero d) Depend on the nature of the conductor
(d) change in the focal length of eye-lens 2,Identify the type of conductors whose V-I relationship is linear.
(iv) A thin lens of glass (𝜇 = 1.5) of focal length 10 cm is immersed in water (𝜇 a) Thyristor b) Non-ohmic conductors c) Ohmic conductors
= 1.33). The new focal length is d) Superconductors
(a) 20cm b) 40cm (c) 48cm (d) 12cm 3.What will be the effect on the fringes formed in Young’s double-slit experiment if the
OR apparatus is immersed in water?
(iv) An object is immersed in a fluid. In order that the object becomes invisible, a) Increases b) Decreases c) Remains the same d) Independent
it should 4.Identify the principle behind the sparkling of diamonds.
(a) behave as a perfect reflector a) Total internal reflection b) Refraction c) Reflection d) Optical activity
(b) absorb all light falling on it 5.Identify the principle behind the working of an a.c. generator.
(c) have refractive index one a) Eddy currents b) Faraday’s law c) Lenz’s law d) Electromagnetic
(d) have refractive index exactly matching with that of the surrounding induction
fluid. 6.How is a galvanometer converted into an ammeter?
a) By connecting a high resistance shunt in parallel to the galvanometer
SECTION E b) By connecting a low resistance shunt in parallel to the galvanometer
31 (a) Two thin lenses are placed coaxially in contact. Obtain the expression for c) By connecting a high resistance shunt in series with the galvanometer
the focal length of this combination in terms of the focal lengths of the two d) By connecting a low resistance shunt in series with the galvanometer
lenses. 7.Which of the following statements is correct?
(b) A converging lens of refractive index 1.5 has a power of 10 D. When it is a) An electric field is a scalar quantity
completely immersed in a liquid, it behaves as a diverging lens of focal b) Electric field lines are at 45 degrees to the equipotential surfaces
length 50 cm. Find the refractive index of the liquid. c) The surface of a charged conductor is equipotential
OR d) Field lines due to a point charge are circular
(a) Draw the ray diagram showing refraction of light through a glass prism and 8.Pick out the electromagnetic wave which is highly harmful to humans.
hence obtain the relation between the refractive index m of the prism, angle a) Radio waves b) Ultraviolet Rays c) Microwaves d) Infrared Waves
of prism and angle of minimum deviation. 9. In Young’s double-slit experiment, lights of green, yellow, and orange colors are
(b) Determine the value of the angle of incidence for a ray of light travelling successively used. Write the fringe widths for the three colors in increasing order.
from a medium of refractive index μ1 = √2 into the medium of refractive a) βG < βY < βO b) βO < βY < βG c) βO < βG < βY d) βY < βG < βO
index μ2 = 1, so that it just grazes along the surface of separation. 10. What will be the longest wavelength in the Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum?
32 (i) Define torque acting on a dipole of dipole moment p placed in a uniform a) 6557 × 10-10 m b) 5557 × 10-10 m c) 9557 × 10-10 m d) 1557 × 10-10 m
electric field E. Express it in the vector form and point out the direction along 11. Let B be the midpoint of AC. Two-point charges Q are placed at A and C. What
which it acts. should be the value of charge placed at B so that the system remains at
equilibrium?

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24. State Gauss theorem. Using this theorem find the electric field intensity due to a
charged spherical shell.
25. State Huygens’s wave theory of light. Using this theory, prove the laws of refraction. SAMPLE PAPER - 5
26. Derive an expression for capacitance of parallel plate capacitor filled with dielectric
PHYSICS
slab of dielectric constant K.
27. Two coils have a mutual inductance 0.005 H. The current changes in the first coil Time Allowed: 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 70
according to equation I = I0 Sin ωt, where I0 = 10 A and ω = 100 π rad-1. Then what General Instructions:
is the maximum value of e. m. f. in the second coil? • There are 33 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
28. Explain binding energy per nucleon and its variation with mass number. • This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C,
Derive an expression for magnetic field at a point along the axis of current Section D and Section E.
carrying circular coil. • Section A contains sixteen questions, twelve MCQ and four Assertion
Reasoning based of 1 mark each, Section B contains five questions of two
29.Case Base Study Question: marks each, Section C contains seven questions of three marks each,
Section D contains two case study based questions of four marks each and
According to de-Broglie a moving material particle sometimes acts as a wave and Section E contains three long answer questions of five marks each.
sometimes as a particle or a wave is associated with moving material particle which
• There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided
controls the particle in every respect. The wave associated with moving material
particle is called matter wave or de-Broglie wave whose wavelength called de-Broglie in one question in Section B, one question in Section C, one question in
wavelength, is given by λ = h/mv each CBQ in Section D and all three questions in Section E. You have to
attempt only one of the choices in such questions
i) The dual nature of light is exhibited by • Use of calculators is not allowed.
a. diffraction and photo electric effect b. photoelectric effect • You may use the following values of physical constants where ever
c. refraction and interference d. diffraction and reflection necessarily.
ii) If the momentum of a particle is doubled, then its de-Broglie wavelength will i. c = 3 x 108 m/s
a. remains unchanged b. become four times c. become two times d. become half ii. me = 9.1 x10 - 31 kg
iii) If an electron and proton are propagating in the form of waves having the same λ , it iii. e = 1.6 x 10 - 19 C
implies that they have the same iv. μ0 = 4π x 10 - 7 Tm𝐴- 1
a. Energy b. Momentum c. Velocity d. angular momentum v. h = 6.63 x10 - 34Js
vi. ε0 = 8.854 x10 - 12𝐶2𝑁- 1𝑚- 2
iv) Velocity of a body of mass m, having de-Broglie wavelength λ , is given by relation
vii. Avogadro’s number = 6.023 X 1023 per gram mole
a. v = λ h/m b. v = λm/h c. v = λ/hm d. v = h/ λm
30.Case Base Study Question:
Read the following paragraph and answer the questions. Section A
Q.1 In Huygens’s wave theory, the locus of all points oscillating in the 1
same phase is called a 1
(a) ray (b) vibrator
(c) wavefront (d) half period zone
Q. 2 If a glass rod is immersed in a liquid of the same refractive index, then it 1
will 1
The p-n junction is a semiconductor diode. It is obtained by bringing p-type (a) disappear (b) look bent (c) look longer (d) look
semiconductor in close contact with n- type semiconductor. A thin layer is developed shorter
at the p-n junction which is devoid of any charge carrier but has immobile ions. It is Q.3 Most of the substance shows which of the following magnetic property? 1
(a) diamagnetism (b) paramagnetism 1

285 287
B: If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the IV) A diffraction pattern is obtained by using a beam of red light. What 01
Assertion. will happen, if the red light is replaced by the blue light?
C:If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. (a) bands disappear
D: If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect (b) bands become broader and farther apart
Q. 13 Assertion: In Young’s experiment, the fringe width for dark fringes is 1 (c) no change will take place
different from that for white fringes. (d)diffraction bands become narrower and crowded together.
Reason: In Young’s double slit experiment the fringes are performed
with a source of white light, then only black and bright fringes are
observed. Q.30
Q.14 Assertion: We cannot think of a magnetic field configuration with 1 On the basis of energy bands materials are also defined as metals, semiconductors and
three poles. 1 insulators. These semiconductors are classified as intrinsic semiconductors and
Reason : A bar magnet does exert a torque on itself due to its own extrinsic semiconductors also. Intrinsic semiconductors are those semiconductors
field which exist in pure form. And intrinsic semiconductors have number of free electrons
Q.15 Assertion: Diamond behaves like an insulator. 1 is equal to number of holes. The semiconductors doped with some impurity in order
Reason: There is a large energy gap between valence band and 1
to increase its conductivity are called as extrinsic semiconductors. Two types of
conduction band of diamond.
dopants are used they are trivalent impurity and pentavalent impurity also. The
Q.16 Assertion: In series LCR circuit resonance can take place. 1
Reason: Resonance takes place if inductance and capacitive 1 extrinsic semiconductors doped with pentavalent impurity like Arsenic, Antimony,
resistances are equal and opposite. Phosphorus etc are called as n – type semiconductors. In n type semiconductors
electrons are the majority charge carriers and holes are the minority charge carriers.
SECTION-B When trivalent impurity is like Indium, Boron, Aluminium etc are added to extrinsic
semiconductors then p type semiconductors will be formed. In p type semiconductors
Q.17 Is the steady electric current the only source of magnetic field? Justify 02 holes are majority charge carriers and electrons are the minority charge carriers.
your answer.
Q.18 Magnetic field lines can be entirely confined with the core of toroid, but not 02 i) What is extrinsic semiconductor? 01
within a straight solenoid, why? Ii) What is ratio of number of holes and number of electrons in an intrinsic 01
Q.19 How are infrared waves produced? Why are these referred to as heat 02 semiconductor?
waves? Write their one important use. III) Why doping is necessary? 01
Q.20 A concave lens of refractive index 1.5 is immersed in a medium of 02 IV) Majority charge carriers in p-type semiconductor are 01
refractive index 1.65 what is the nature of the lens?
Q.21 Why are two bulbs lighting the same walls considered as incoherent 02 SECTION-E
sources? How do their intensities add up? Q.31 1. Define electric intensity. 05
OR 2. Derive an expression for electric intensity at a point situated on the
When a tiny circular obstacle is placed in the path of light from a distant axis of electric dipole.
source, a bright spot is seen at the centre of shadow of the obstacle. OR
Explain A regular hexagon of side 10 cm has charge 5 µC at each of its
vertices. What is the resultant potential at the centre of the
SECTION-C hexagon?
Q.22 Determine the distance of closest approach when an alpha particle of 03 Q.32 Discuss the motion of a charged particle in a uniform magnetic field 05
kinetic energy 4.5 MeV strikes a nucleus of Z = 80, stops and reverse with initial velocity (1) parallel to the field, (2) perpendicular to the
its direction. magnetic field and (3) at an arbitrary angle with the field direction.
Q.23 Distinguish between ‘Intrinsic’ and ‘extrinsic’ semiconductors? 03 OR
Q.24 A charge Q is given to three capacitors C1, C2 and C3 connected in 03 (i) State Ampere’s circuital law. Use this law to obtain the expression
parallel. Determine the charge on each. for the magnetic field inside an air cored toroid of average radius r

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